TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
MARINE RESOURCES COMMISSION
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following regulations filed by the Marine Resources Commission are exempt from  the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A 11 of the  Code of Virginia; however, the commission is required to publish the full text  of final regulations.
         Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-620. Pertaining to Summer  Flounder (amending 4VAC20-620-20, 4VAC20-620-30,  4VAC20-620-40). 
    Statutory Authority: § 28.2-201 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Effective Date: November 1, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: Jane Warren, Agency Regulatory  Coordinator, Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor,  Newport News, VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248, FAX (757) 247-2002, or email  betty.warren@mrc.virginia.gov.
    Summary: 
    The amendments (i) open the fall directed fishery the  second Monday in November, (ii) allow vessels to land up to 10,000 pounds of  Summer Flounder for commercial purposes every 15 days, and (iii) redefine  "Chesapeake Bay and its tributaries" as all tidal waters of Virginia,  excluding the Potomac River tributaries and the coastal area as defined in  4VAC20-620-20. 
    4VAC20-620-20. Definitions. 
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings unless the context indicates otherwise: 
    "Chesapeake Bay and its tributaries" means all  tidal waters of Virginia, including excluding the Potomac River  tributaries but excluding and the coastal area as defined in this  section. 
    "Coastal area" means the area that includes  Virginia's portion of the Territorial Sea and all of the creeks, bays, inlets,  and tributaries on the seaside of Accomack County, Northampton County,  including areas east of the causeway from Fisherman Island to the mainland and  the City of Virginia Beach, including federal areas and state parks fronting on  the Atlantic Ocean and east and south of the point where the shoreward boundary  of the Territorial Sea joins the mainland at Cape Henry. 
    "Land" or "landing" means to (i) enter  port with finfish, shellfish, crustaceans, or other marine seafood on board any  boat or vessel; (ii) begin offloading finfish, shellfish, crustaceans, or other  marine seafood; or (iii) offload finfish, shellfish, crustaceans, or other  marine seafood.
    "Potomac River tributaries" means all the  tributaries of the Potomac River that are within Virginia's jurisdiction  beginning with, and including, Flag Pond, thence upstream to the District of  Columbia boundary. 
    "Safe harbor" means that a vessel has been  authorized by the commissioner to enter Virginia waters from federal waters  solely to either dock temporarily at a Virginia seafood buyer's place of  business or traverse the Intracoastal Waterway from Virginia to North Carolina.  
    4VAC20-620-30. Commercial harvest quota and allowable landings.
    A. During each calendar year, allowable commercial landings  of Summer Flounder shall be limited to a quota in total pounds calculated  pursuant to the joint Mid-Atlantic Fishery Management Council/Atlantic States  Marine Fisheries Commission Summer Flounder Fishery Management Plan, as  approved by the National Marine Fisheries Service on August 6, 1992 (50 CFR  Part 625); and shall be distributed as described in subsections B through G of  this section. 
    B. The commercial harvest of Summer Flounder from Virginia  tidal waters for each calendar year shall be limited to 300,000 pounds of the  annual quota described in subsection A of this section. Of this amount, 142,114  pounds shall be set aside for Chesapeake Bay-wide harvest. 
    C. From the first Monday in January through the day preceding  the last second Monday in November allowable landings of Summer  Flounder harvested outside of Virginia shall be limited to an amount of pounds  equal to 70.7% of the quota described in subsection A of this section after  deducting the amount specified in subsection B of this section.
    D. From the last second Monday in November  through December 31, allowable landings of Summer Flounder harvested outside of  Virginia shall be limited to an amount of pounds equal to 29.3% of the quota,  as described in subsection A of this section, after deducting the amount  specified in subsection B of this section, and as may be further modified by  subsection E. 
    E. Should landings from the first Monday in January through  the day preceding the last second Monday in November exceed or  fall short of 70.7% of the quota described in subsection A of this section, any  such excess shall be deducted from allowable landings described in subsection D  of this section, and any such shortage shall be added to the allowable landings  as described in subsection D of this section. Should the commercial harvest  specified in subsection B of this section be projected as less than 300,000  pounds, any such shortage shall be added to the allowable landings described in  subsection D of this section. 
    F. The Marine Resources Commission will give timely notice to  the industry of the calculated poundages and any adjustments to any allowable  landings described in subsections C and D of this section. It shall be unlawful  for any person to harvest or to land Summer Flounder for commercial purposes  after the commercial harvest or any allowable landings as described in this  section have been attained and announced as such. If any person lands Summer  Flounder after the commercial harvest or any allowable landing have been  attained and announced as such, the entire amount of Summer Flounder in that  person's possession shall be confiscated. 
    G. It shall be unlawful for any buyer of seafood to receive  any Summer Flounder after any commercial harvest or landing quota as described  in this section has been attained and announced as such. 
    4VAC20-620-40. Commercial vessel possession and landing  limitations.
    A. It shall be unlawful for any person harvesting Summer  Flounder outside of Virginia's waters to do any of the following, except as  described in subsections B, C, and D of this section:
    1. Possess aboard any vessel in Virginia waters any amount of  Summer Flounder in excess of 10% by weight of Atlantic croaker or the combined  landings, on board a vessel, of black sea bass, scup, squid, scallops and  Atlantic mackerel.
    2. Possess aboard any vessel in Virginia waters any amount of  Summer Flounder in excess of 1,500 pounds landed in combination with Atlantic  croaker.
    3. Fail to sell the vessel's entire harvest of all species at  the point of landing.
    B. From the first Monday in March through the day preceding  the last second Monday in November, or until it has been  projected and announced that 85% of the allowable landings have been taken, it  shall be unlawful for any person harvesting Summer Flounder outside of Virginia  waters to do any of the following:
    1. Possess aboard any vessel in Virginia waters any amount of  Summer Flounder in excess of 20,000 pounds. 
    2. Land Summer Flounder in Virginia for commercial purposes  more than twice during each consecutive 15-day period, with the first 15-day  period beginning on the first Monday in March. 
    3. Land in Virginia more than 10,000 pounds of Summer Flounder  during each consecutive 15-day period, with the first 15-day period beginning  on the first Monday in March.
    4. Land in Virginia any amount of Summer Flounder more than  once in any consecutive five-day period. 
    C. From the last second Monday in November  through December 31 of each year, or until it has been projected and announced  that 85% of the allowable landings have been taken, it shall be unlawful for  any person harvesting Summer Flounder outside of Virginia waters to do any of  the following: 
    1. Possess aboard any vessel in Virginia waters any amount of  Summer Flounder in excess of 15,000 20,000 pounds. 
    2. Land Summer Flounder in Virginia for commercial purposes  more than twice during each consecutive 12-day 15-day period,  with the first 12-day 15-day period beginning on the last second  Monday in November. 
    3. Land in Virginia more than a total of 7,500 10,000  pounds of Summer Flounder during each consecutive 12-day 15-day  period, with the first 12-day 15-day period beginning on the last  second Monday in November. 
    4. Land in Virginia any amount of Summer Flounder more than  once in any consecutive five-day period.
    D. From January 1 through December 31 of each year, any boat  or vessel issued a valid federal Summer Flounder moratorium permit and owned  and operated by a legal Virginia Commercial Hook-and-Line Licensee that  possesses a Restricted Summer Flounder Endorsement shall be restricted to a  possession and landing limit of 200 pounds of Summer Flounder, except as  described in 4VAC20-620-30 F.
    E. Upon request by a marine police officer, the seafood buyer  or processor shall offload and accurately determine the total weight of all  Summer Flounder aboard any vessel landing Summer Flounder in Virginia.
    F. Any possession limit described in this section shall be  determined by the weight in pounds of Summer Flounder as customarily packed,  boxed and weighed by the seafood buyer or processor. The weight of any Summer  Flounder in pounds found in excess of any possession limit described in this  section shall be prima facie evidence of violation of this chapter. Persons in  possession of Summer Flounder aboard any vessel in excess of the possession  limit shall be in violation of this chapter unless that vessel has requested  and been granted safe harbor. Any buyer or processor offloading or accepting  any quantity of Summer Flounder from any vessel in excess of the possession  limit shall be in violation of this chapter, except as described by subsection  I of this section. A buyer or processor may accept or buy Summer Flounder from  a vessel that has secured safe harbor, provided that vessel has satisfied the  requirements described in subsection I of this section. 
    G. If a person violates the possession limits described in  this section, the entire amount of Summer Flounder in that person's possession  shall be confiscated. Any confiscated Summer Flounder shall be considered as a  removal from the appropriate commercial harvest or landings quota. Upon  confiscation, the marine police officer shall inventory the confiscated Summer  Flounder and, at a minimum, secure two bids for purchase of the confiscated  Summer Flounder from approved and licensed seafood buyers. The confiscated fish  will be sold to the highest bidder and all funds derived from such sale shall  be deposited for the Commonwealth pending court resolution of the charge of  violating the possession limits established by this chapter. All of the  collected funds will be returned to the accused upon a finding of innocence or  forfeited to the Commonwealth upon a finding of guilty. 
    H. It shall be unlawful for a licensed seafood buyer or  federally permitted seafood buyer to fail to contact the Marine Resources  Commission Operation Station prior to a vessel offloading Summer Flounder  harvested outside of Virginia. The buyer shall provide to the Marine Resources  Commission the name of the vessel, its captain, an estimate of the amount in  pounds of Summer Flounder on board that vessel, and the anticipated or  approximate offloading time. Once offloading of any vessel is complete and the  weight of the landed Summer Flounder has been determined, the buyer shall  contact the Marine Resources Commission Operations Station and report the  vessel name and corresponding weight of Summer Flounder landed. It shall be  unlawful for any person to offload from a boat or vessel for commercial  purposes any Summer Flounder during the period of 9 p.m. to 7 a.m. 
    I. Any boat or vessel that has entered Virginia waters for safe  harbor shall only offload Summer Flounder when the state that licenses that  vessel requests to transfer quota to Virginia, in the amount that corresponds  to that vessel's possession limit, and the commissioner agrees to accept that  transfer of quota. 
    J. After any commercial harvest or landing quota as described  in 4VAC20-620-30 has been attained and announced as such, any boat or vessel  possessing Summer Flounder on board may enter Virginia waters for safe harbor  but shall contact the Marine Resources Commission Operation Center in advance  of such entry into Virginia waters. 
    K. It shall be unlawful for any person harvesting Summer  Flounder outside of Virginia waters to possess aboard any vessel, in Virginia,  any amount of Summer Flounder, once it has been projected and announced that  100% of the quota described in 4VAC20-620-30 A has been taken.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-3029; Filed October 27, 2011, 10:59 a.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
MARINE RESOURCES COMMISSION
Final Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-720. Pertaining to  Restrictions on Oyster Harvest (adding 4VAC20-720-85, 4VAC20-720-91). 
    Statutory Authority: § 28.2-201 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Effective Date: November 1, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: Jane Warren, Agency Regulatory  Coordinator, Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor,  Newport News, VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248, FAX (757) 247-2002, or email  betty.warren@mrc.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments (i) establish an oyster seed harvest quota  of 120,000 bushels of seed for the James River Seed Area, including the Deep  Water Shoal State Replenishment Seed Area, for the 2011/2012 harvest season;  (ii) establish that 40,000 bushels of the quota may be harvested from October  1, 2011, through December 31, 2011; and (iii) require a seed oyster harvest  permit monthly report on forms provided by the Virginia Marine Resources  Commission and daily report through the Interactive-Voice-Response (IVR)  system. 
    4VAC20-720-85. James River seed quota and monitoring.
    A. An oyster seed harvest quota of 120,000 bushels of seed  is established for the James River Seed Area, including the Deep Water Shoal  State Replenishment Seed Area, for the 2011/2012 harvest season. Once it has  been projected and announced that the quota of seed has been attained, it shall  be unlawful for any person to harvest seed oysters from these areas.
    B. Of the 120,000-bushel seed quota described in  subsection A of this section no more than 40,000 bushels of this quota may be  harvested from October 1, 2011, through December 31, 2011. However, if it is  projected and announced that 40,000 bushels of seed have been harvested before  December 31, 2011, it shall be unlawful for any person to harvest seed oysters  from that date forward until January 1, 2012.
    C. Any person harvesting or landing oyster seed from the  James River Seed Area, including the Deep Water Shoal State Replenishment Seed  Area, shall report monthly on forms provided by the Virginia Marine Resources  Commission all harvest of seed oysters. Reporting requirements shall consist of  that person's Commercial Fisherman Registration License number, daily number of  bushels of seed oysters harvested, harvest rock location, planting location  (any lease numbers), and buyer name.
    D. It shall be unlawful for any person harvesting seed  oysters from the James River Seed Area, including the Deep Water Shoal State  Replenishment Seed Area, to fail to contact the Virginia Marine Resources  Commission Interactive-Voice-Response (IVR) System within 24 hours of harvest  or landing and provide that person's name, Commercial Fisherman Registration  License number, time, date, daily number of bushels of seed oysters harvested,  harvest rock location, planting location (any lease numbers), and buyer name.
    4VAC20-720-91. Harvest permit shall be required for the  James River Seed Area, including the Deep Water Shoal State Replenishment Area.
    A harvest permit shall be required for the James River  Seed Area, including the Deep Water Shoal State Replenishment Seed Area, for  the harvesting of seed oysters.  It shall be unlawful for any person to  harvest or attempt to harvest seed oysters from the James River Seed Area,  including the Deep Water Shoal State Replenishment Seed Area, without first  obtaining and having on board a harvest permit.
        NOTICE: The following  form used in administering the regulation was filed by the agency. The form is  not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name to access a form. The form is  also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of the  Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond,  Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (4VAC20-720)
    Daily  Harvest Information For James River Seed Area, Including The Deep Water Shoal  State Replenishment Seed Area (eff. 11/11).
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-3031; Filed October 27, 2011, 11:12 a.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
MARINE RESOURCES COMMISSION
Final Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-910. Pertaining to Scup  (Porgy) (amending 4VAC20-910-45). 
    Statutory Authority: § 28.2-201 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Effective Date: November 1, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: Jane Warren, Agency Regulatory  Coordinator, Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor,  Newport News, VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248, FAX (757) 247-2002, or email  betty.warren@mrc.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments (i) increase the November 1 through December  31, 2011, commercial scup landing limit quota from 2,000 pounds to 8,000 pounds  per trip, (ii) adjust the Winter I landing period from 14 days to 7 days, and  (iii) increase the Virginia summer period commercial scup quota from 6,861  pounds to 13,085 pounds. 
    4VAC20-910-45. Possession limits and harvest quotas.
    A. During the period January 1 through April 30 of each year,  it shall be unlawful for any person to do any of the following:
    1. Possess aboard any vessel in Virginia more than 30,000  pounds of scup.
    2. Land in Virginia more than a total of 30,000 pounds of scup  during each consecutive 14-day 7-day landing period, with the  first 14-day 7-day period beginning on January 2 1.
    B. When it is projected and announced that 80% of the  coastwide quota for this period has been attained, it shall be unlawful for any  person to possess aboard any vessel or to land in Virginia more than a total of  1,000 pounds of scup.
    C. During the period November 1 through December 31 of each  year, it shall be unlawful for any person to possess aboard any vessel or to  land in Virginia more than 2,000 8,000 pounds of scup.
    D. During the period May 1 through October 31 of each year,  the commercial harvest and landing of scup in Virginia shall be limited to 6,861  13,085 pounds.
    E. For each of the time periods set forth in this section,  the Marine Resources Commission will give timely notice to the industry of  calculated poundage possession limits and quotas and any adjustments thereto.  It shall be unlawful for any person to possess or to land any scup for  commercial purposes after any winter period coastwide quota or summer period  Virginia quota has been attained and announced as such.
    F. It shall be unlawful for any buyer of seafood to receive  any scup after any commercial harvest or landing quota has been attained and  announced as such.
    G. It shall be unlawful for any person fishing with hook and  line, rod and reel, spear, gig, or other recreational gear to possess more than  50 scup. When fishing is from a boat or vessel where the entire catch is held  in a common hold or container, the possession limit shall be for the boat or  vessel and shall be equal to the number of persons on board legally eligible to  fish multiplied by 50. The captain or operator of the boat or vessel shall be  responsible for any boat or vessel possession limit. Any scup taken after the  possession limit has been reached shall be returned to the water immediately.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-3030; Filed October 27, 2011, 11:05 a.m. 
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
VIRGINIA SOIL AND WATER CONSERVATION BOARD
Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 4VAC50-20. Impounding Structure  Regulations (amending 4VAC50-20-125). 
    Statutory Authority: § 10.1-604 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: December 7, 2011.
    Effective Date: December 22, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: David C. Dowling, Policy, Planning, and  Budget Director, Department of Conservation and Recreation, 203 Governor  Street, Suite 302, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-2291, FAX (804)  786-6141, or email david.dowling@dcr.virginia.gov.
    Basis: The Virginia Dam Safety Act (§§ 10.1-604  through 10.1-613 of the Code of Virginia) ensures public safety through the  proper and safe design, construction, operation, and maintenance of impounding  structures in the Commonwealth. This is accomplished through the effective  administration of the Virginia Dam Safety Program. Authority for the program  rests with the Virginia Soil and Water Conservation Board and it is  administered on behalf of the board by the Department of Conservation and  Recreations, Division of Dam Safety and Floodplain Management. The program  focuses on enhancing public safety through bringing all impounding structures  of regulated size under Regular Operation and Maintenance Certificates.  Pursuant to § 10.1-605 of the Code of Virginia, the board is directed to  promulgate regulations for impounding structures.
    Purpose: This amendment to 4VAC50-20-125 is necessary to  allow additional time for compliance for certain dam owners who were issued  valid Construction or Alteration Permits by the board under the requirements of  the regulations as they existed prior to September 26, 2008. These dam owners  have invested significant sums of money in pursuit of the conditions of these  permits and have proceeded to upgrade their dams in order to achieve compliance  with their requirements. Now, due to changes to the regulations effective  September 26, 2008, these dams are no longer fully compliant with all  regulatory requirements of the Virginia Dam Safety Program despite their full  compliance with all permits and conditions issued by the board. 
    This regulatory change would allow these dam owners to be  considered compliant with the regulations for the first full permit cycle  following the completion of their upgrades, and would then require them to meet  the same standards that are applicable to all other regulated dams following  this time. This will provide an extended timeframe for compliance for these  owners to have additional necessary work completed to fully meet the current  regulations and continue to protect the health, safety, and welfare of citizens  of the Commonwealth. In some cases, this may involve a need for dam break  inundation zone mapping and other engineering work; in others, additional  spillway upgrades may be needed. Requiring all of these conditions to be met  immediately would impose a very significant financial burden on these dam  owners at a time when they have just completed a very significant investment in  their dams. 
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: This rulemaking  is expected to be noncontroversial as it simply provides an extended timeframe  for compliance with additional requirements of the regulations that became  effective on September 26, 2008. This extended timeframe will apply only to a  very select number of dams, believed to be approximately 14 across the  Commonwealth. These dams still meet all requirements of the regulations that  were effective prior to that time, and will be brought into full compliance  with all amendments to the regulations following the completion of one permit  cycle. This amendment is intended to prevent an unreasonable burden from being  placed upon these dam owners, who have recently completed significant  investments in their dams in a good faith effort to comply with the past  requirements imposed by the board.
    Substance: Existing 4VAC50-20-125 provides an extended  timeframe for compliance with spillway design flood requirements of the  regulations for dams that were compliant with the requirements of a previous  version of the regulations and were under Regular Operation and Maintenance  Certificate as of September 26, 2008. The section contains no provision  allowing for any extended compliance timeframe for dams that were under  construction or alteration permits as of September 26, 2008.
    The proposed amended section would include a new subsection E,  which would allow dams that were issued construction or alteration permits by  the board under the regulations that were effective prior to September 26,  2008, to be considered compliant with the regulations for one permit cycle  following their completion of all conditions of these permits and any  accompanying Conditional Operation and Maintenance Certificates. This will  allow these dam owners additional time to come into compliance with new  regulatory requirements.
    Issues: The primary advantage of this regulatory action  for owners of affected dams is the provision of an extended timeframe for  compliance with the amendments made to the regulations in 2008. This will allow  for increased flexibility in preparing for upgrades and will avoid a situation  where a second upgrade is needed immediately following an upgrade also  undertaken pursuant to direction from the board. The primary disadvantage of  this regulatory action will be to downstream property owners, roadway users,  and residents, in that these dams will not be fully upgraded to meet all  regulatory requirements until following the completion of one six-year permit  cycle. However, even in the absence of this regulatory action, it is likely  that the affected dams would fall under Conditional Operation and Maintenance  Certificates, in which case a compliance schedule would likewise be set and  further upgrades would take place over a determined period of time. 
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Virginia  Soil and Water Conservation Board (Board) proposes to grandfather certain dams  from requirements of the Boards Virginia Impounding Structure Regulations  (Regulations) that first came into effect in 2008 for one six-year permit  cycle. These dams had been issued Construction Permits (permits to build a new  dam) or Alteration Permits (permits to make repairs and upgrades to existing  dams) under a previous version of the Regulations that was effective prior to  September 26, 2008. In some cases, these dams later completed construction  fully in compliance with the conditions of their permits, only for it to be  found that they may not be fully compliant with all changes made to the  Regulations effective September 26, 2008. Under the current regulations, there  is no provision for grandfathering these dams or providing an extended  timeframe for compliance. The proposed regulation would specify that these dams  will be issued Regular Operation and Maintenance Certificates, and thus be  found in compliance with the Regulations, for one full six year permit cycle.  This is contingent on the owner completing all requirements of the permit and  any applicable Conditional Operation and Maintenance Certificate by September  26, 2011. Once the full six year permit cycle is complete, the owner would need  to meet the standards applied to other dams throughout the Commonwealth.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Historically dams in Virginia have  largely been kept safe under the Regulations that were in effect prior to  September 26, 2008 and under which the dams that would be affected by the  Boards proposal received their permits. The Regulations that came into effect  in 2008 further increase the assurance of safety. 
    As the Board and Department of Conservation and Recreation  point out, the affected dam owners have invested significant sums of money in  pursuit of the conditions of their permits and have proceeded to upgrade their  dams in order to achieve compliance with their requirements. Now, due to  changes to the regulations effective September 26, 2008, these dams are now no  longer fully compliant with all regulatory requirements of the Virginia Dam  Safety Program despite their full compliance with all permits and conditions  issued by the Board. 
    The proposed regulatory change (grandfathering) would allow  these dam owners to be considered compliant with the Regulations for the first  full permit cycle following the completion of their upgrades, and would then require  them to meet the same standards that are applicable to all other regulated dams  following this time. This will provide an extended timeframe for compliance for  these owners to have additional necessary work completed to fully meet the  current regulations. In some cases, this may involve a need for dam break  inundation zone mapping and other engineering work; in others, additional  spillway upgrades may be needed. 
    Requiring all of these conditions to be met immediately would  impose a significant financial burden on these dam owners at a time when they  have just completed a very significant investment in their dams. The proposed  grandfathering allows the affected owners to delay their next significant  expenditure on dam safety, while still maintaining safe dams, and still  eventually meeting the more stringent requirements of the 2008 Regulations. The  benefit of permitting these affected dam owners who have maintained safe dams  some additional time to meet the new requirements likely outweighs the cost of  a short period of time of small additional safety risk. 
    Businesses and Entities Affected. Approximately 14 dams across  the Commonwealth would be affected by this amendment. Several of the dam owners  may be small businesses. Small businesses that are located downstream of these  dams may also be impacted should one of these dams fail.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The affected dams are located  in the following counties: Albemarle 2, Gloucester 1, Hanover 1, King William  1, Lancaster 1, Louisa 1, New Kent 3, Powhatan 2, and Spotsylvania 2.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect employment.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  grandfathering will allow owners of the approximately 14 dams to defer required  work for up to six years. 
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed  grandfathering will allow small business owners of the affected dams to defer  required work for up to six years. 
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. The proposed amendments do not adversely impact small businesses. 
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed grandfathering may  delay some development costs, but will not significantly reduce costs in the  long run. 
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number  14 (10). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or  other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any  localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the  projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the  projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with  the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the  regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect  of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any  less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of  the regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPBs best estimate of  these economic impacts.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Conservation and Recreation concurs with the economic impact  analysis prepared by the Department of Planning and Budget regarding the  Impounding Structure Regulations (4VAC50-20).
    Summary:
    The proposed amendments grandfather certain dams from  requirements of the regulation that first came into effect in 2008 for one  six-year permit cycle. These dams had been issued Construction Permits (permits  to build a new dam) or Alteration Permits (permits to make repairs and upgrades  to existing dams) under a previous version of the regulations that was  effective prior to September 26, 2008. In some cases, these dams later  completed construction fully in compliance with the conditions of their  permits, only for it to be found that they may not be fully compliant with all  changes made to the regulations effective September 26, 2008. Under the current  regulations, there is no provision for grandfathering these dams or providing  an extended timeframe for compliance. The proposed amendments specify that  these dams will be issued Regular Operation and Maintenance Certificates, and  thus be found in compliance with the regulations, for one full six-year permit  cycle. After this time, they would need to meet the standards applied to other  dams throughout the Commonwealth. 
    4VAC50-20-125. Delayed effective date for Spillway Design Flood  requirements for impounding structures.
    A. If an impounding structure has been determined to have an  adequate spillway capacity prior to September 26, 2008, and is currently  operating under a Regular Operation and Maintenance Certificate, but will now  require spillway modifications due to changes in these regulations, the owner  shall submit to the board an Alteration Permit Application in accordance with 4VAC50-20-80  to address spillway capacity at the time of the expiration of their Regular  Operation and Maintenance Certificate or by September 26, 2011, whichever is  later. The Alteration Permit Application shall contain a construction sequence  with milestones for completing the necessary improvements within five years of  Alteration Permit issuance. The board may approve an extension of the  prescribed time frame for good cause. Should the owner be able to demonstrate  that no spillway capacity change is necessary, the impounding structure may be  found to be in compliance with this chapter.
    B. In accordance with 4VAC50-20-105, the owner shall submit  the Operation and Maintenance Certificate Application (Operation and  Maintenance Certificate Application for Virginia Regulated Impounding  Structures), the Emergency Action Plan or Emergency Preparedness Plan, and the  Inspection Report (Annual Inspection Report for Virginia Regulated Impounding  Structures) 90 days prior to the expiration of the Regular Operation and  Maintenance Certificate.
    C. If circumstances warrant more immediate repairs to the  impounding structure, the board may direct alterations to the spillway to be  completed sooner.
    D. During this delay period, owners are required to address  other deficiencies that may exist that are not related to the spillway design  flood.
    E. Any impounding structure owner who, as of September 26,  2008, held an Alteration Permit or Construction Permit under the requirements  of this chapter that were effective prior to that date, who has maintained this  permit as valid, and who completes all requirements of such permit and any  applicable Conditional Operation and Maintenance Certificate by September 26,  2011, shall not be required to meet new requirements of this chapter that became  effective on September 26, 2008, until the completion of the first six-year  certificate cycle following completion of all requirements of his permit and  any applicable certificates. During this six-year period, the owner may be  issued a Regular Operation and Maintenance Certificate should the impounding  structure otherwise be eligible for such certificate. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-2491; Filed October 17, 2011, 2:39 p.m. 
TITLE 11. GAMING
STATE LOTTERY BOARD
Fast-Track Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 11VAC5-10. Guidelines for  Public Participation in Regulation Development and Promulgation (repealing 11VAC5-10-10 through 11VAC5-10-80).
    11VAC5-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 11VAC5-11-10 through 11VAC5-11-110). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 2.2-4007.02 and 58.1-4007  of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled.
    Public Comment Deadline: December 7, 2011.
    Effective Date: December 22, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: Mitch Belton, Contract and Project  Coordinator, State Lottery Department, 900 East Main Street, 9th Floor,  Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 692-7136, FAX (804) 692-7325, or email  mbelton@valottery.com.
    Basis: Under § 2.2-4007.02 of the Code of Virginia,  every rulemaking body in Virginia is required to adopt public participation  guidelines and to use those guidelines in the development of its regulations.  Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly requires agencies to adopt model  public participation guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and  Budget, or adopt the model guidelines with necessary amendments.
    Purpose: The purpose of this regulatory action is to  adopt model public participation guidelines as required by the Virginia General  Assembly.
    Rationale for Using Fast Track Process: Utilization of  the fast track regulatory process is warranted due to the fact that (i) the  proposed regulation is required by the General Assembly, and (ii) the proposed  regulation uses the model public participation guidelines developed by the  Department of Planning and Budget as its basis. Accordingly, this action is not  expected to be controversial.
    Substance: This action creates a new chapter within the  existing regulation and uses text verbatim, except applicable agency references  and dates, etc., from the applicable text of the model public participation  guidelines developed by the Department of Planning and Budget.
    Issues: The advantage to the Virginia Lottery Board is  that the new public participation guidelines will provide more consistent  regulatory participation for affected citizens, stakeholders, and customers.  The Lottery Department sees no disadvantages to the public, agency, or  Commonwealth in adopting this regulation.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The State  Lottery Department (Lottery) proposes to adopt the model public participation  guidelines developed by the Department of Planning and Budget in consultation  with the Office of the Attorney General (as required by Chapter 321 of the 2008  Acts of Assembly).
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes. 
    Estimated Economic Impact. Pursuant to Chapter 321 of the 2008  Acts of Assembly, the Department of Planning and Budget, in consultation with  the Office of the Attorney General, (i) developed model public participation  guidelines (PPGs) and (ii) provided these model PPGs to each agency that has  the authority to promulgate regulations. The purpose of the model PPG  legislation is threefold: first, to ensure that each agency or board has a  current set of PPGs in place.1 Second, to ensure that each agency or  boards PPGs incorporate the use of technology such as the Virginia Regulatory  Town Hall, email to the extent possible, and the use of electronic mailing  lists. Last, but perhaps most importantly, to have uniform guidelines in place  to facilitate citizen participation in rulemaking and to make those guidelines  consistent, to the extent possible, among boards and agencies.
    As described above, promulgating the model PPGs will be beneficial  in that the Lottery PPGs will: 1) reflect current information, 2) incorporate  the use of technology such as the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall, email to the  extent possible, and the use of electronic mailing lists, and 3) be largely  consistent with other agency PPGs which will facilitate citizen participation  in rulemaking. 
    Businesses and Entities Affected. All businesses, other  entities, or individuals interested in participating in the regulatory process  as it relates to Lotterys regulations are potentially affected by the agencys  public participation guidelines. 
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed regulations do  not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal amendments do not  directly affect employment. 
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposal  amendments do not directly affect the use and value of private property.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed  amendments do not directly affect small businesses.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. The proposed amendments do not adversely affect small businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments do not  directly affect real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number  14 (10). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or  other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any  localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the  projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the  projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with  the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the  regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative  costs required for small businesses to comply with the regulation, including  the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and  other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect of the regulation on  affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any less intrusive or less  costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the regulation. The  analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of these economic  impacts.
    _____________________________
    1Some agencies and boards have not updated their PPGs  since the mid-late 1980s.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The State  Lottery Department concurs with the Department of Planning and Budget's  economic impact analysis.
    Summary:
    The regulations repeal existing regulations on regulation  development and public participation and incorporate the model public  participation guidelines developed by the Department of Planning and Budget  pursuant to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the model  public participation guidelines include the addition of negotiated rulemaking  panels and regulatory advisory panels and instructions for notification. 
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    11VAC5-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment, or repeal of the regulations of the  State Lottery Department. This chapter does not apply to regulations,  guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the provisions of the  Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    11VAC5-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the State Lottery Department,  which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's basic law to  make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this chapter may be  fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended, and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§ 2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    11VAC5-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    11VAC5-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 11VAC5-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    11VAC5-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the  publication of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of  Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    11VAC5-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    11VAC5-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    11VAC5-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    11VAC5-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    11VAC5-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing following  the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    11VAC5-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-1447; Filed October 19, 2011, 2:26 p.m. 
TITLE 11. GAMING
STATE LOTTERY BOARD
Fast-Track Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 11VAC5-10. Guidelines for  Public Participation in Regulation Development and Promulgation (repealing 11VAC5-10-10 through 11VAC5-10-80).
    11VAC5-11. Public Participation Guidelines (adding 11VAC5-11-10 through 11VAC5-11-110). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 2.2-4007.02 and 58.1-4007  of the Code of Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled.
    Public Comment Deadline: December 7, 2011.
    Effective Date: December 22, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: Mitch Belton, Contract and Project  Coordinator, State Lottery Department, 900 East Main Street, 9th Floor,  Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 692-7136, FAX (804) 692-7325, or email  mbelton@valottery.com.
    Basis: Under § 2.2-4007.02 of the Code of Virginia,  every rulemaking body in Virginia is required to adopt public participation  guidelines and to use those guidelines in the development of its regulations.  Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly requires agencies to adopt model  public participation guidelines issued by the Department of Planning and  Budget, or adopt the model guidelines with necessary amendments.
    Purpose: The purpose of this regulatory action is to  adopt model public participation guidelines as required by the Virginia General  Assembly.
    Rationale for Using Fast Track Process: Utilization of  the fast track regulatory process is warranted due to the fact that (i) the  proposed regulation is required by the General Assembly, and (ii) the proposed  regulation uses the model public participation guidelines developed by the  Department of Planning and Budget as its basis. Accordingly, this action is not  expected to be controversial.
    Substance: This action creates a new chapter within the  existing regulation and uses text verbatim, except applicable agency references  and dates, etc., from the applicable text of the model public participation  guidelines developed by the Department of Planning and Budget.
    Issues: The advantage to the Virginia Lottery Board is  that the new public participation guidelines will provide more consistent  regulatory participation for affected citizens, stakeholders, and customers.  The Lottery Department sees no disadvantages to the public, agency, or  Commonwealth in adopting this regulation.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The State  Lottery Department (Lottery) proposes to adopt the model public participation  guidelines developed by the Department of Planning and Budget in consultation  with the Office of the Attorney General (as required by Chapter 321 of the 2008  Acts of Assembly).
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes. 
    Estimated Economic Impact. Pursuant to Chapter 321 of the 2008  Acts of Assembly, the Department of Planning and Budget, in consultation with  the Office of the Attorney General, (i) developed model public participation  guidelines (PPGs) and (ii) provided these model PPGs to each agency that has  the authority to promulgate regulations. The purpose of the model PPG  legislation is threefold: first, to ensure that each agency or board has a  current set of PPGs in place.1 Second, to ensure that each agency or  boards PPGs incorporate the use of technology such as the Virginia Regulatory  Town Hall, email to the extent possible, and the use of electronic mailing  lists. Last, but perhaps most importantly, to have uniform guidelines in place  to facilitate citizen participation in rulemaking and to make those guidelines  consistent, to the extent possible, among boards and agencies.
    As described above, promulgating the model PPGs will be beneficial  in that the Lottery PPGs will: 1) reflect current information, 2) incorporate  the use of technology such as the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall, email to the  extent possible, and the use of electronic mailing lists, and 3) be largely  consistent with other agency PPGs which will facilitate citizen participation  in rulemaking. 
    Businesses and Entities Affected. All businesses, other  entities, or individuals interested in participating in the regulatory process  as it relates to Lotterys regulations are potentially affected by the agencys  public participation guidelines. 
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed regulations do  not disproportionately affect particular localities. 
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal amendments do not  directly affect employment. 
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposal  amendments do not directly affect the use and value of private property.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed  amendments do not directly affect small businesses.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. The proposed amendments do not adversely affect small businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments do not  directly affect real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number  14 (10). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or  other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any  localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the  projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the  projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with  the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the  regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative  costs required for small businesses to comply with the regulation, including  the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and  other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect of the regulation on  affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any less intrusive or less  costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the regulation. The  analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of these economic  impacts.
    _____________________________
    1Some agencies and boards have not updated their PPGs  since the mid-late 1980s.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The State  Lottery Department concurs with the Department of Planning and Budget's  economic impact analysis.
    Summary:
    The regulations repeal existing regulations on regulation  development and public participation and incorporate the model public  participation guidelines developed by the Department of Planning and Budget  pursuant to Chapter 321 of the 2008 Acts of Assembly. Highlights of the model  public participation guidelines include the addition of negotiated rulemaking  panels and regulatory advisory panels and instructions for notification. 
    CHAPTER 11 
  PUBLIC PARTICIPATION GUIDELINES 
    Part I 
  Purpose and Definitions 
    11VAC5-11-10. Purpose.
    The purpose of this chapter is to promote public  involvement in the development, amendment, or repeal of the regulations of the  State Lottery Department. This chapter does not apply to regulations,  guidelines, or other documents exempted or excluded from the provisions of the  Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
    11VAC5-11-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter  shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates  otherwise:
    "Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40  (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
    "Agency" means the State Lottery Department,  which is the unit of state government empowered by the agency's basic law to  make regulations or decide cases. Actions specified in this chapter may be  fulfilled by state employees as delegated by the agency.
    "Basic law" means provisions in the Code of  Virginia that delineate the basic authority and responsibilities of an agency.
    "Commonwealth Calendar" means the electronic  calendar for official government meetings open to the public as required by  § 2.2-3707 C of the Freedom of Information Act.
    ''Negotiated rulemaking panel'' or ''NRP'' means an ad hoc  advisory panel of interested parties established by an agency to consider  issues that are controversial with the assistance of a facilitator or mediator,  for the purpose of reaching a consensus in the development of a proposed  regulatory action.
    "Notification list" means a list used to notify  persons pursuant to this chapter. Such a list may include an electronic list  maintained through the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall or other list maintained  by the agency.
    "Open meeting" means any scheduled gathering of  a unit of state government empowered by an agency's basic law to make  regulations or decide cases, which is related to promulgating, amending or  repealing a regulation.
    "Person" means any individual, corporation,  partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint  venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial  entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, or instrumentality  thereof.
    "Public hearing" means a scheduled time at which  members or staff of the agency will meet for the purpose of receiving public  comment on a regulatory action.
    "Regulation" means any statement of general  application having the force of law, affecting the rights or conduct of any  person, adopted by the agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it  by applicable laws.
    "Regulatory action" means the promulgation,  amendment, or repeal of a regulation by the agency.
    "Regulatory advisory panel" or "RAP"  means a standing or ad hoc advisory panel of interested parties established by  the agency for the purpose of assisting in regulatory actions.
    "Town Hall" means the Virginia Regulatory Town  Hall, the website operated by the Virginia Department of Planning and Budget at  www.townhall.virginia.gov, which has online public comment forums and displays  information about regulatory meetings and regulatory actions under  consideration in Virginia and sends this information to registered public  users.
    "Virginia Register" means the Virginia Register  of Regulations, the publication that provides official legal notice of new,  amended, and repealed regulations of state agencies, which is published under  the provisions of Article 6 (§ 2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process  Act.
    Part II 
  Notification of Interested Persons
    11VAC5-11-30. Notification list.
    A. The agency shall maintain a list of persons who have  requested to be notified of regulatory actions being pursued by the agency.
    B. Any person may request to be placed on a notification  list by registering as a public user on the Town Hall or by making a request to  the agency. Any person who requests to be placed on a notification list shall  elect to be notified either by electronic means or through a postal carrier.
    C. The agency may maintain additional lists for persons  who have requested to be informed of specific regulatory issues, proposals, or  actions.
    D. When electronic mail is returned as undeliverable on  multiple occasions at least 24 hours apart, that person may be deleted from the  list. A single undeliverable message is insufficient cause to delete the person  from the list.
    E. When mail delivered by a postal carrier is returned as  undeliverable on multiple occasions, that person may be deleted from the list.
    F. The agency may periodically request those persons on  the notification list to indicate their desire to either continue to be  notified electronically, receive documents through a postal carrier, or be  deleted from the list.
    11VAC5-11-40. Information to be sent to persons on the  notification list.
    A. To persons electing to receive electronic notification  or notification through a postal carrier as described in 11VAC5-11-30, the  agency shall send the following information:
    1. A notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
    2. A notice of the comment period on a proposed, a  reproposed, or a fast-track regulation and hyperlinks to, or instructions on  how to obtain, a copy of the regulation and any supporting documents.
    3. A notice soliciting comment on a final regulation when  the regulatory process has been extended pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 or 2.2-4013 C of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The failure of any person to receive any notice or  copies of any documents shall not affect the validity of any regulation or  regulatory action.
    Part III 
  Public Participation Procedures 
    11VAC5-11-50. Public comment.
    A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory  action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to submit  data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency. Such  opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the Town  Hall. 
    1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide  copies of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic  impact analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the  agency's response to public comments received. 
    2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior  to or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments. 
    B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing  after the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as  follows: 
    1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA). 
    2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the  publication of a proposed regulation. 
    3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a reproposed regulation. 
    4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a final adopted regulation. 
    5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the  publication of a fast-track regulation. 
    6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the  publication of a notice of periodic review. 
    7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the  publication of a petition for rulemaking. 
    C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods  listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended. 
    D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with  substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the  agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public  comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of  Virginia. 
    E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary  description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed  regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant  to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia. 
    11VAC5-11-60. Petition for rulemaking.
    A. As provided in § 2.2-4007 of the Code of Virginia, any  person may petition the agency to consider a regulatory action.
    B. A petition shall include but is not limited to the  following information:
    1. The petitioner's name and contact information;
    2. The substance and purpose of the rulemaking that is  requested, including reference to any applicable Virginia Administrative Code  sections; and
    3. Reference to the legal authority of the agency to take  the action requested.
    C. The agency shall receive, consider and respond to a  petition pursuant to § 2.2-4007 and shall have the sole authority to dispose of  the petition.
    D. The petition shall be posted on the Town Hall and  published in the Virginia Register.
    E. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit the agency from  receiving information or from proceeding on its own motion for rulemaking.
    11VAC5-11-70. Appointment of regulatory advisory panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a regulatory advisory panel  (RAP) to provide professional specialization or technical assistance when the  agency determines that such expertise is necessary to address a specific  regulatory issue or action or when individuals indicate an interest in working  with the agency on a specific regulatory issue or action.
    B. Any person may request the appointment of a RAP and  request to participate in its activities. The agency shall determine when a RAP  shall be appointed and the composition of the RAP.
    C. A RAP may be dissolved by the agency if:
    1. The proposed text of the regulation is posted on the  Town Hall, published in the Virginia Register, or such other time as the agency  determines is appropriate; or
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act.
    11VAC5-11-80. Appointment of negotiated rulemaking panel.
    A. The agency may appoint a negotiated rulemaking panel  (NRP) if a regulatory action is expected to be controversial.
    B. An NRP that has been appointed by the agency may be  dissolved by the agency when:
    1. There is no longer controversy associated with the  development of the regulation;
    2. The agency determines that the regulatory action is  either exempt or excluded from the requirements of the Administrative Process  Act; or
    3. The agency determines that resolution of a controversy  is unlikely.
    11VAC5-11-90. Meetings.
    Notice of any open meeting, including meetings of a RAP or  NRP, shall be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and Commonwealth  Calendar at least seven working days prior to the date of the meeting. The  exception to this requirement is any meeting held in accordance with § 2.2-3707  D of the Code of Virginia allowing for contemporaneous notice to be provided to  participants and the public.
    11VAC5-11-100. Public hearings on regulations.
    A. The agency shall indicate in its notice of intended  regulatory action whether it plans to hold a public hearing following the  publication of the proposed stage of the regulatory action. 
    B. The agency may conduct one or more public hearings  during the comment period following the publication of a proposed regulatory  action. 
    C. An agency is required to hold a public hearing following  the publication of the proposed regulatory action when: 
    1. The agency's basic law requires the agency to hold a  public hearing; 
    2. The Governor directs the agency to hold a public  hearing; or 
    3. The agency receives requests for a public hearing from  at least 25 persons during the public comment period following the publication  of the notice of intended regulatory action. 
    D. Notice of any public hearing shall be posted on the  Town Hall and Commonwealth Calendar at least seven working days prior to  the date of the hearing. The agency shall also notify those persons who  requested a hearing under subdivision C 3 of this section. 
    11VAC5-11-110. Periodic review of regulations.
    A. The agency shall conduct a periodic review of its  regulations consistent with: 
    1. An executive order issued by the Governor pursuant to § 2.2-4017 of the Administrative Process Act to receive comment on all existing  regulations as to their effectiveness, efficiency, necessity, clarity, and cost  of compliance; and 
    2. The requirements in § 2.2-4007.1 of the Administrative  Process Act regarding regulatory flexibility for small businesses. 
    B. A periodic review may be conducted separately or in  conjunction with other regulatory actions. 
    C. Notice of a periodic review shall be posted on the Town  Hall and published in the Virginia Register. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-1447; Filed October 19, 2011, 2:26 p.m. 
TITLE 11. GAMING
CHARITABLE GAMING BOARD
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 11VAC15-22. Charitable Gaming  Rules and Regulations (repealing 11VAC15-22-10 through  11VAC15-22-120).
    11VAC15-31. Supplier Regulations (repealing 11VAC15-31-10 through  11VAC15-31-60).
    11VAC15-40. Charitable Gaming Regulations (adding 11VAC15-40-10 through 11VAC15-40-430). 
    Statutory Authority: § 18.2-340.15 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information:
    December 13, 2011 - 10:15 a.m. - Oliver Hill Building, 102  Governor Street, 2nd Floor Board Room, Richmond, VA
    Public Comment Deadline: January 6, 2012.
    Agency Contact: Erin Williams, Policy and Planning  Coordinator, Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, P.O. Box 1163,  Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 786-1308, FAX (804) 371-7479, TTY (800)  828-1120, or email erin.williams@vdacs.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 18.2-340.15 of the Code of Virginia  authorizes the Charitable Gaming Board to prescribe regulations and conditions  under which charitable gaming is conducted in Virginia to ensure consistency  with the purpose for which such gaming is permitted. Additionally, Chapter 264  of the 2007 Acts of Assembly amended the statute by requiring changes to the  charitable gaming regulations in order to implement electronic games of chance  systems. The Charitable Gaming Board approved the promulgation of a single  regulation that will consolidate the two current regulations and provide for  the implementation of regulations regarding electronic games of chance systems.  
    Purpose: The existence of two separate but closely  interrelated regulations governing charitable gaming has resulted in  duplicative, burdensome, and unnecessarily lengthy efforts in those instances  when the agency has had to amend both regulations in response to a single  change in the statute, as was the case with the passage of HB 1998 (Chapter 264  of the 2007 Acts of Assembly). The promulgation of a single, consolidated  regulation will greatly facilitate the agency's administration of the  charitable gaming program. 
    Proponents of the legislation that resulted in the  authorization of electronic games of chance systems in the Commonwealth have  indicated that charitable gaming organizations will see significant increases  in both attendance and revenues through the offering of electronic pull-tabs at  their gaming events. Attendance at charitable gaming events has dropped  considerably in the last few years, in some cases by as much as 40%, on account  of changing demographics, as well as the economic downturn. The ability to  offer electronic pull-tabs is expected to attract younger players to bingo  halls across Virginia, to lower the gaming organizations overhead costs through  reduced expenses for paper supplies, and to improve the organizations ability  to meet the 10% use of proceeds required by the Charitable Gaming Board.
    Substance: The proposed regulation consolidates the  substance of the current regulation titled Charitable Gaming Rules and Regulations,  11VAC15-22, as well as the substance of the current regulation titled Supplier  Regulations, 11VAC15-31. Substantive changes include the addition of provisions  regarding full automatic daubing of bingo numbers and progressive bingo games,  both of which were authorized by Chapter 429 of the 2010 Acts of Assembly. The  proposed regulations reduce the time required between gaming activities from  one hour to 30 minutes. The existing regulations pertaining to electronic bingo  devices (which are devices that support conventional bingo games and should not  be confused with devices that support electronic pull-tabs) were modified to  permit the use of electronic bingo device systems that do not identify at the  point of sale the number of the electronic bingo device issued to the player. 
    The section pertaining to electronic games of chance systems  includes rules for the conduct of electronic games of chance, requirements for  manufacturers and suppliers of electronic games of chance systems, and  construction and other standards for electronic games of chance systems.
    Issues: The inclusion of provisions pertaining to  electronic games of chance systems will provide charitable gaming organizations  a new option to promote greater attendance at their gaming events. Greater  attendance should increase the revenue organizations generate from their  charitable gaming activities, which, in turn, should facilitate compliance with  applicable requirements regarding the charitable use of organizations proceeds.  
    The promulgation of a single, consolidated regulation will  greatly facilitate the agency's administration of the charitable gaming program  by eliminating the need for duplicative regulatory actions due to the existence  of two interrelated regulations. 
    Special interest groups are monitoring the progress of this  regulation to ensure that it does not lead to casino-style gambling or expand  the type of gaming that is allowed in the Commonwealth. The agency has involved  these stakeholders during relevant discussions; the agency is not aware of  specific concerns with the proposed regulations. 
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Virginia  Charitable Gaming Board (Board) proposes to consolidate two separate  regulations, Charitable Gaming Rules and Regulations, 11VAC15-22, and Supplier  Regulations, 11VAC15-31, into one regulation that will also establish rules  regarding electronic games of chance systems for charitable gaming. 
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  one or more proposed changes. There is insufficient data to accurately compare  the magnitude of the benefits versus the costs for other changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Chapter 264 of the 2007 Virginia  Acts of Assembly authorized the use of electronic games of chance, also known  as electronic pull tabs, by charitable gaming organizations. The chapter also  specifies that no person shall offer to sell, sell or otherwise provide  charitable gaming supplies to any qualified organization and no manufacturer  shall distribute electronic games of chance systems for charitable gaming in  the Commonwealth unless and until such person has made application for and has  been issued a permit by the Department (of Agriculture and Consumer Services).  In practice electronic games of chance have not yet been available for  charitable gaming since the Board has not yet promulgated regulations that  would enable the issuing of a permit for the distribution of electronic games  of chance. In the current action the Board proposes rules that would enable the  distribution and use of electronic games of chance to go forward.
    In calendar year 2009, the most recent year data is available,  there were $279 million in gross receipts for charitable gaming in Virginia.1  Based on the experiences of other states which introduced electronic pull tabs,  the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services (Department)  expects gross receipts from charitable gaming to at least triple with the  advent of electronic pull tabs. Manufacturers and suppliers of electronic games  of chance will certainly benefit with increased business. Purchasing and using  electronic games of chance for fundraising is of course optional for charitable  organizations; so the charitable organizations will only purchase and use them  if they believe they will provide a net benefit through increased revenue  available for their charitable purposes. A significant portion of Virginians  believe that there is a negative impact on morality associated with gambling.  The introduction and use of electronic pull tabs will very likely increase at  least the dollar value of gambling in Virginia. It is beyond the scope of this  analysis to compare the benefits of increased business for manufacturers and suppliers  of electronic games of chance and the benefits of increased revenue for  charitable organizations to use for their charitable purposes to the potential  negative moral impact of increased gambling. That is intrinsically a subjective  value judgment. 
    The Board proposes several other changes that will have some  impact. The fee for a permit change would be eliminated. This is obviously  beneficial for permit holders. The Board believes funds for operation are  sufficient without charging this fee. The Department would use compliance  agreements rather than consent orders and remedial business plans rather than  corrective action plans. This would be less heavy handed and would likely  create a more cooperative relationship between the Department and charitable organizations.  The required break between charitable gaming activities would be reduced from  one hour to 30 minutes. This would enable more time to be devoted to  fundraising while still allotting sufficient transition time between charitable  organizations. All of these changes provide benefit without significant cost.
    Specific dollar amounts included in the current regulations  that are prescribed by the Code of Virginia would be replaced by references to  sections of the Code that prescribe these amounts. This is beneficial since  when and if these dollar amounts are changed in the Code the dollar amounts  currently listed in the regulations would then be in conflict with the Code.  When the Code and regulations conflict, the Code prevails. Thus, persons who read  the regulations would be misled under these circumstances. Amending regulations  can take a significant amount of time. Thus, replacing specified dollar amounts  included in the current regulations that are prescribed by the Code with  references to sections of the Code that prescribe these amounts would enable  the regulations to always be accurate concerning the effective legal dollar  figures. Thus this proposed change clearly provides a net benefit.
    The current regulations state that volunteer game workers may  not play bingo at any session they have worked or purchase instant bingo,  pull-tab, or seal card products from organizations they assist on the day they  have volunteered or from any deal they have helped sell, whichever is later.  Under the proposed regulations, no one involved in the conduct of bingo may  play bingo at any session they have worked or intend to work. No one involved  in the sale or redemption of any instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or  electronic game cards may purchase directly or through others instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal card, or electronic game card products from organizations they  assist on the day they have worked or from any deal they have helped sell or  redeem, whichever occurs later. Thus paid workers as well as volunteers are  prohibited from gambling in games in which they work on the days they work as  well as deals they have helped sell or redeem. Paid workers and volunteers  could still gamble on other days provided that the games are not deals they  have helped sell or redeem. This proposed change does introduce a new  limitation on paid workers, but it seems a reasonable change to help ensure  fairness while still permitting paid workers the opportunity to participate in  games in which they are not directly involved. 
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed regulations will  potentially affect the approximate 400 qualified charitable gaming  organizations and 19 charitable gaming suppliers in the Commonwealth as well as  manufacturers of electronic games of chance systems. The Virginia Department of  Agriculture and Consumer Services estimates that the majority of the charitable  gaming suppliers are small businesses.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do  not disproportionately affect particular localities.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal to establish rules  for electronic games of chance systems will enable the distribution and use of  electronic games of chance to go forward. This will likely significantly  increase business for manufacturers and suppliers of electronic games of  chance. Employment at some of these firms will likely moderately increase. 
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposal  to establish rules for electronic games of chance systems will enable the  distribution and use of electronic games of chance to go forward. This will  likely significantly increase business for manufacturers and suppliers of  electronic games of chance. The net value of these firms will likely increase.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed  amendments are unlikely to increase costs for small businesses.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. The proposed amendments are unlikely to significantly adversely affect  small businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number  14 (10). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or  other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any  localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the  projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the  projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with  the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the  regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect  of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any  less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of  the regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of  these economic impacts.
    ____________________________
    1Data source: Virginia Department of Agriculture and  Consumer Services
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services concurs with the analysis of  the Department of Planning and Budget.
    Summary:
    The proposed regulation consists of five parts pertaining  to (i) definitions, (ii) charitable gaming organizations and the conduct of  charitable gaming, (iii) charitable gaming suppliers, (iv) electronic games of  chance systems, and (v) administrative process. 
    The section pertaining to charitable gaming organizations  and the conduct of charitable gaming reflects the substance of the current  regulation titled Charitable Gaming Rules and Regulations, 11VAC15-22. The  section pertaining to charitable gaming suppliers reflects the substance of the  current regulation titled Supplier Regulations, 11VAC15-31. The section  pertaining to electronic games of chance systems includes rules for the conduct  of electronic games of chance, requirements for manufacturers and suppliers of  electronic games of chance systems, and construction and other standards for  electronic games of chance systems. The sections pertaining to definitions and  the administrative process consolidate the definitions and administrative  process sections found in the current regulations, 11VAC15-22 and 11VAC15-31.
    CHAPTER 40
  CHARITABLE GAMING REGULATIONS
    Part 1
  Definitions
    11VAC15-40-10. Definitions.
    In addition to the definitions contained in  § 18.2-340.16 of the Code of Virginia, the words and terms below when used  in this regulation shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly  indicates otherwise: 
    "Agent" means any person authorized by a  supplier to act for or in place of such supplier. 
    "Board" means the Virginia Charitable Gaming  Board. 
    "Board of directors" means the board of  directors, managing committee, or other supervisory body of a qualified  organization. 
    "Calendar day" means the period of 24  consecutive hours commencing at 12:01 a.m. and concluding at midnight. 
    "Calendar week" means the period of seven  consecutive calendar days commencing at 12:01 a.m. on Sunday and ending at  midnight the following Saturday. 
    "Cash" means United States currency or coinage. 
    "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of the  Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services.
    "Concealed face bingo card" means a nonreusable  bingo card constructed to conceal the card face. 
    "Conduct" means the actions associated with the  provision of a gaming operation during and immediately before or after the  permitted activity, which may include, but not be limited to (i) selling bingo  cards or packs, electronic devices, instant bingo or pull-tab cards, or raffle  tickets; (ii) calling bingo games; (iii) distributing prizes; and (iv) any  other services provided by volunteer workers. 
    "Control program" means software involved in any  critical game function.
    "Daubing" means covering a square containing a number  called with indelible ink or otherwise marking a number called on a card or an  electronic facsimile of a card. 
    "Deal" means each separate package or series of  packages consisting of one game of instant bingo, pull-tabs, or seal cards with  the same serial number. 
    "Decision bingo" means a bingo game where the  cost to a player to play is dependent on the number of bingo numbers called and  the prize payout is in direct relationship to the number of participants and  the number of bingo numbers called, but shall not exceed statutory prize limits  for a regular bingo game. 
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Agriculture and Consumer Services, Division of Consumer Protection, Office of  Charitable Gaming. 
    "Designator" means an object used in the number  selection process, such as a ping-pong ball, upon which bingo letters and  numbers are imprinted. 
    "Discount" means any reduction in cost of  admission or game packs or any other purchases through use of coupons, free  packs, or other similar methods. 
    "Disinterested player" means a player who is  unbiased. 
    "Disposable paper card" means a nonreusable,  paper bingo card manufactured with preprinted numbers. 
    "Distributed pull-tab system" means a computer  system consisting of a computer or computers and associated equipment for the  use of distributing a finite number of electronic instant bingo and/or pull-tab  outcomes (i.e., electronic game cards), a certain number of which entitle a  player to prize awards at various levels. 
    "Door prize" means any prize awarded by the  random drawing or random selection of a name or number based solely on  attendance at a gaming session. 
    "Electronic bingo device" means an electronic  device that uses proprietary software or hardware or, in conjunction with  commonly available software and computers, displays facsimiles of bingo cards  and allows a player to daub such cards or allows for the automatic daubing of  such cards. 
    "Electronic game card" means an electronic  version of a single instant bingo card or pull-tab. An electronic game card is  a predetermined game outcome in electronic form, distributed on-demand from a  finite number of game outcomes by a distributed pull-tab system. 
    "Equipment and video systems" means equipment  that facilitates the conduct of charitable gaming such as ball blowers,  flashboards, electronic verifiers, and replacement parts for such equipment. 
    "Event game" means a bingo game that is played  using instant bingo cards or pull-tabs in which the winners include both  instant winners and winners who are determined by the random draw of a bingo  ball, the random call of a bingo number, or the use of a seal card, and that is  sold and played to completion during a single bingo session.
    "Fiscal year" or "annual reporting  period" means the 12-month period beginning January 1 and ending December  31 of any given year. 
    "Flare" means a piece of paper, cardboard, or  similar material that bears printed information relating to the name of the  manufacturer or logo, name of the game, card count, cost per play, serial number,  the number of prizes to be awarded, and the specific prize amounts in a deal of  instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal cards. 
    "Free space number," "perm number,"  "center number," "card number," or "face number"  means the number generally printed in the center space of a bingo card that  identifies the unique pattern of numbers printed on that card. 
    "Game program" means a written list of all games  to be played including, but not limited to, the sales price of all bingo paper  and electronic bingo devices, pack configuration, prize amounts to be paid  during a session for each game, and an indication whether prize amounts are  fixed or are based on attendance. 
    "Game set" means the entire pool of electronic  game cards that contains predefined and randomized game results assigned under  a unique serial number. This term is equivalent to "deal" or  "deck."
    "Game subset" means a division of a game set  into equal sizes.
    "Gaming activity" means one bingo session and  the sale and redemption of instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or electronic  game cards done in conjunction with that bingo session and in accordance with  the provisions of this chapter.
    "Immediate family" means one's spouse, parent,  child, sibling, grandchild, grandparent, mother or father-in-law, or stepchild.  
    "Interested persons" means the president, an  officer, or a bingo manager of any qualified organization that is exempt or is  a permit applicant or holds a permit to conduct charitable gaming; or the  owner, director, officer or partner of an entity engaged in supplying  charitable gaming supplies to organizations. 
    "IRS" means the United States Internal Revenue  Service. 
    "Management" means the provision of oversight of  a gaming operation, which may include, but is not limited to, the  responsibilities of applying for and maintaining a permit or authorization;  compiling, submitting, and maintaining required records and financial reports;  and ensuring that all aspects of the operation are in compliance with all  applicable statutes and regulations. 
    "Manufacturer" means a person who or entity that  assembles from raw materials or subparts a completed piece of bingo or other  charitable gaming equipment or supplies. "Manufacturer" also means a  person who or entity that modifies, converts, adds, or removes parts to or from  bingo or other charitable gaming equipment or supplies to further their  promotion or sale for the conduct of charitable gaming. 
    "OCG number" means a unique identification  number issued by the department.
    "Operation" means the activities associated with  production of a charitable gaming activity, which may include, but is not  limited to, (i) the direct on-site supervision of the conduct of charitable  gaming; (ii) coordination of volunteers; and (iii) all responsibilities of  charitable gaming designated by the organization's management. 
    "Owner" means any individual with financial  interest of 10% or more in a supplier. 
    "Pack" means sheets of bingo paper or electronic  facsimiles assembled in the order of games to be played. This shall not include  any raffle. 
    "Player device" means an electronic unit that  may take the form of an upright cabinet or a handheld device or may be of any  other composition as approved by the department used to facilitate the play of  electronic instant bingo or pull-tab games.
    "Prize" means cash, merchandise, certificate, or  other item of value awarded to a winning player. 
    "Progressive bingo" means a bingo game in which  the prize is carried forward to the next game if a predetermined pattern is not  completed within a specified number of bingo numbers called.
    "Progressive seal card" means a seal card game  in which a prize is carried forward to the next deal if not won when a deal is  completed. 
    "Remuneration" means payment in cash or the  provision of anything of value for goods provided or services rendered. 
    "Seal card" means a board or placard used in  conjunction with a deal of the same serial number that contains one or more  concealed areas that, when removed or opened, reveal a predesignated winning  number, letter, or symbol located on that board or placard. 
    "Selection device" means a manually or  mechanically operated device to randomly select bingo numbers. 
    "Serial number" means a unique number printed by  the manufacturer on each bingo card in a set; each instant bingo, pull-tab, or  seal card in a deal; each electronic bingo device; or each door prize ticket. 
    "Series number" means the number of unique card  faces contained in a set of disposable bingo paper cards or bingo hard cards. A  9000 series, for example, has 9000 unique faces. 
    "Session" means a period of time during which  one or more bingo games are conducted that begins with the selection of the  first ball for the first game and ends with the selection of the last ball for  the last game. 
    "Treasure chest" means a raffle including a  locked treasure chest containing a prize that a participant, selected through  some other authorized charitable game, is afforded the chance to select from a  series of keys a predetermined key that will open the locked treasure chest to win  a prize. 
    "Use of proceeds" means the use of funds derived  by an organization from its charitable gaming activities, which are disbursed  for those lawful religious, charitable, community, or educational purposes.  This includes expenses relating to the acquisition, construction, maintenance,  or repair of any interest in the real property involved in the operation of the  organization and used for lawful religious, charitable, community, or  educational purposes. 
    "Voucher" means a printed ticket tendered to the  player, upon request, for any unused game plays and/or winnings that remain on  the player device. 
    "WINGO" means a variation of a traditional bingo  game that uses visual devices rather than a verbal caller and is intended for  play by hearing impaired persons. 
    Part II
  Charitable Gaming Organizations
    Article 1
  Permits
    11VAC15-40-20. Eligibility for permit to conduct charitable  gaming; when valid; permit requirements.
    A. The conduct of charitable gaming is a privilege that  may be granted or denied by the department. Except as  provided in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia, every eligible  organization, volunteer fire department, and rescue squad with anticipated  gross gaming receipts that exceed  the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia in any  12-month period shall obtain a permit from the department prior to the  commencement of charitable gaming activities. To be eligible for a permit an  organization must meet all of the requirements of § 18.2-340.24 of the  Code of Virginia.
    B. Pursuant to § 18.2-340.24 B of the Code of Virginia, the  department shall review a tax exempt request submitted to the IRS for a tax  exempt status determination and may issue an interim certification of  tax-exempt status solely for the purpose of charitable gaming, conditioned upon  a determination by the IRS. The department shall charge the fee set forth in  § 18.2-340.24 B of the Code of Virginia for this review. The fee shall be  payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
    C. A permit shall be valid only for activities, locations,  days, dates, and times as listed on the permit. 
    D. In accordance with § 18.2-340.19 A 1 of the Code  of Virginia, as a condition of receiving a permit, a minimum of 10% of  charitable gaming gross receipts shall be used for (i) those lawful religious,  charitable, community, or educational purposes for which the organization is  specifically chartered or organized or (ii) those expenses relating to the  acquisition, construction, maintenance, or repair of any interest in real  property involved in the operation of the organization and used for lawful  religious, charitable, community, or educational purposes.
    E. If an organization fails to meet the minimum use of  proceeds requirement, its permit may be suspended or revoked. However, the  department shall not suspend or revoke the permit of any organization solely  because of its failure to meet the required percentage without having first  provided the organization with an opportunity to implement a corrective action  plan. 
    F. An organization may request a temporary reduction in  the predetermined percentage specified in subsection D of this section from the  department. In reviewing such a request, the department shall consider such  factors appropriate to and consistent with the purpose of charitable gaming,  which may include, but not be limited to, (i) the organization's overall  financial condition; (ii) the length of time the organization has been involved  in charitable gaming; (iii) the extent of the deficiency; and (iv) the progress  that the organization has made in attaining the minimum percentage in  accordance with a corrective action plan pursuant to subsection E of this  section. 
    G. An organization whose permit is revoked for failure to  comply with provisions set forth in subsection D of this section shall be  eligible to reapply for a permit at the end of one year from the date of  revocation. The department, at its discretion, may issue the permit if it is  satisfied that the organization has made substantial efforts towards meeting  its corrective action plan. 
    11VAC15-40-30. Permit application process.
    A. Any organization anticipating gross gaming receipts  that exceed the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia  shall complete a department-prescribed application to request issuance or renewal  of an annual permit to conduct charitable gaming. Organizations shall submit a  nonrefundable fee payable to the Treasurer of Virginia in the amount of $200  with the application, unless the organization is exempt from such fee pursuant  to § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The department may initiate action against any  organization exempt from permit requirements when it reasonably believes the  organization is not in compliance with the provisions of charitable gaming laws  or applicable regulations, or both, of the board. 
    C. Permit holders requiring a special permit pursuant to  § 18.2-340.27 E of the Code of Virginia shall convey their request on a  form prescribed by the department. Organizations shall submit a fee payable to  the Treasurer of Virginia in the amount of $50 with the request for a special  permit, unless the organization is exempt from such fee pursuant to  § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia.
    D. Permits shall be valid for a period of one year from  the date of issuance or for a period specified on the permit. The department  may issue permits for periods of less than one year. 
    E. Permits shall be granted only after a background  investigation of an organization or interested persons, or both, to ensure  public safety and welfare as required by § 18.2-340.25 of the Code of  Virginia. Investigations shall consider the nature, the age and severity, and  the potential harm to public safety and welfare of any criminal offenses. The  investigation may include, but shall not be limited to, the following: 
    1. A search of Virginia criminal history records for the  chief executive officer and chief financial officer of the organization.  Information and authorization to conduct these records checks shall be provided  in the permit application. In addition, the department shall require that the  organization provides assurances that all other members involved in the  management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming meet the requirements of  subdivision 13 of § 18.2-340.33 of the Code of Virginia. Applications may  be denied if: 
    a. Any person participating in the management of any  charitable gaming has ever been: 
    (1) Convicted of a felony; or 
    (2) Convicted of any misdemeanor involving fraud, theft, or  financial crimes within the preceding five years. 
    b. Any person participating in the conduct of charitable  gaming has been: 
    (1) Convicted of any felony in the preceding 10 years; or 
    (2) Convicted of any misdemeanor involving fraud, theft, or  financial crimes within the preceding five years; 
    2. An inquiry as to whether the organization has been  granted tax-exempt status pursuant to § 501(c) by the Internal Revenue Service  and is in compliance with IRS annual filing requirements; 
    3. An inquiry as to whether the organization has entered  into any contract with, or has otherwise employed for compensation, any persons  for the purpose of organizing or managing, operating, or conducting any  charitable gaming activity; 
    4. Inquiries into the finances and activities of the  organization and the sources and uses of funds; and 
    5. Inquiries into the level of community or financial  support to the organization and the level of community involvement in the  membership and management of the organization. 
    F. The permit application for an organization that has not  previously held a permit shall include: 
    1. A list of members participating in the management or  operation of charitable gaming. For any organization that is not composed of  members, a person who is not a bona fide member may volunteer in the conduct of  a charitable game as long as that person is directly supervised by a bona fide  official member of the organization; 
    2. A copy of the articles of incorporation, bylaws,  charter, constitution, or other appropriate organizing document; 
    3. A copy of the determination letter issued by the IRS  under § 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code, if appropriate, or a letter from  the national office of an organization indicating the applicant organization is  in good standing and is currently covered by a group exemption ruling. A letter  of good standing is not required if the applicable national or state office has  furnished the department with a listing of member organizations in good  standing in the Commonwealth as of January 1 of each year and has agreed to  promptly provide the department any changes to the listing as they occur; 
    4. A copy of the organization's most recent annual  financial statement and balance sheet or most recent Form 990 that has been  filed with the IRS; 
    5. A copy of the written lease or proposed written lease  agreement and all other agreements if the organization rents or intends to rent  a facility where bingo is or will be conducted. Information on the lease shall  include name, address, and phone number of the landlord; maximum occupancy of  the building; and the rental amount per session; and 
    6. An authorization by an officer or other appropriate  official of the organization to permit the department to determine whether the  organization has been investigated or examined by the IRS in connection with  charitable gaming activities during the previous three years. 
    G. Copies of minutes of meetings of the organization and  any contracts with landlords or suppliers to which the organization is or may  be a party may be requested by the department prior to rendering a permitting  decision. 
    H. Organizations applying to renew a permit previously  issued by the department shall submit articles of incorporation, bylaws,  charter, constitution, or other organizing document, and IRS determination  letter only if there are any amendments or changes to these documents that are  directly related to the management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming.  
    I. Organizations may request permits to conduct joint  bingo games as provided in § 18.2-340.29 of the Code of Virginia.
    1. In the case of a joint game, all the organizations shall  file a permit application. 
    2. The nonrefundable permit fee for joint games shall be a  total of $200. Volunteer fire departments or rescue squads or auxiliary units  thereof that have been recognized in accordance with § 15.2-955 of the  Code of Virginia shall be exempt from the payment of applications fees. 
    3. A single permit shall be issued in the names of all the  organizations conducting a joint game. All restrictions and prohibitions  applying to single organizations shall apply to qualified organizations jointly  conducting bingo games pursuant to § 18.2-340.29 of the Code of Virginia. 
    4. No charitable gaming shall be conducted prior to the  issuance of a joint permit. 
    5. Applications for joint games shall include an  explanation of the division of manpower, costs, and proceeds for the joint  game. 
    J. An organization wishing to change dates, times, or  locations of its charitable gaming shall request a change in the permit. Change  requests shall be made in writing on a form prescribed by the department at  least 30 days in advance of the proposed effective date. 
    K. Changes in dates, times, or locations due to inclement  weather, disasters, or other circumstances outside the organization's control  may be made without a change in the permit. The organization shall request such  a change on a form prescribed by the department as soon as the necessity for  the change is known. 
    L. An organization may sell raffle tickets for a drawing  to be held outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia in the United States  provided: 
    1. The raffle is conducted by the organization in  conjunction with a meeting outside the Commonwealth of Virginia or with another  organization that is licensed to conduct raffles outside the Commonwealth of  Virginia; 
    2. The raffle is conducted in accordance with these  regulations and the laws and regulations of the state where the drawing is to  be held; and 
    3. The portion of the proceeds derived from the sale of  raffle tickets in the Commonwealth is reported to the department. 
    M. Any permitted organization that ceases to conduct  charitable gaming shall immediately notify the department in writing and  provide the department a report as to the disposition of all unused gaming  supplies on a form prescribed by the department.
    11VAC15-40-40. Suspension, revocation, or denial of permit.
    A. Pursuant to § 18.2-340.20 of the Code of Virginia,  the department may suspend, revoke, or deny the permit to conduct charitable  gaming of any organization for cause including, but not limited to, any of the  following reasons: 
    1. The organization is found to be in violation of or has  failed to meet any of the requirements of the statutes or regulations governing  the operation, management, and conduct of charitable gaming in the  Commonwealth.
    2. The organization is found to be not in good standing  with its state or national organization.
    3. The IRS revokes or suspends the organization's  tax-exempt status.
    4. The organization willfully and knowingly provides false  information in its application for a permit to conduct charitable gaming. 
    5. The organization is found to have a member involved in  the management, operation, or conduct of its charitable gaming who has been  convicted of any felony or any misdemeanor as follows: 
    a. For any person participating in the management or  operation of any charitable gaming: 
    (1) Convicted of a felony; or 
    (2) Convicted of any misdemeanor involving fraud, theft, or  financial crimes within the preceding five years. 
    b. For any person participating in the conduct of  charitable gaming: 
    (1) Convicted of any felony within the preceding 10 years;  or 
    (2) Convicted of any misdemeanor involving fraud, theft, or  financial crimes within the preceding five years. 
    B. The failure to meet any of the requirements of  § 18.2-340.24 of the Code of Virginia shall cause the denial of the  permit, and no organization shall conduct any charitable gaming until the  requirements are met and a permit is obtained. 
    C. Except when an organization fails to meet any of the  requirements of § 18.2-340.24 of the Code of Virginia, in lieu of  suspending, revoking, or denying a permit to conduct charitable gaming, the  department may afford an organization an opportunity to enter into a compliance  agreement specifying additional conditions or requirements as it may deem  necessary to ensure an organization's compliance with the statute and  regulations governing the conduct of charitable gaming activities and may  require that an organization participates in such training as is offered by the  department.
    D. If a permit is suspended, the department shall set the  terms of the suspension, which shall include the length of the suspension and a  requirement that, prior to reinstatement of the permit, the organization shall  submit a remedial business plan to address the conditions that resulted in the  suspension.
    Article 2
  Conduct of Games, Rules of Play, Electronic Bingo 
    11VAC15-40-50. Conduct of bingo, instant bingo, pull-tabs,  seal cards, event games, and raffles.
    A. Organizations subject to this chapter shall post their  permit at all times on the premises where charitable gaming is conducted. 
    B. No individual shall provide any information or engage  in any conduct that alters or is intended to alter the outcome of any  charitable game. 
    C. Individuals under 18 years of age may play bingo  provided such persons are accompanied by a parent or legal guardian. It shall  be the responsibility of the organization to ensure that such individuals are  eligible to play. An organization's house rules may further limit the play of  bingo or purchase raffle tickets by minors. 
    D. Individuals under the age of 18 may sell raffle tickets  for a qualified organization raising funds for activities in which they are  active participants. 
    E. No individual under the age of 18 may participate in  the management or operation of bingo games. Individuals 14 through 17 years of  age may participate in the conduct of a bingo game provided the organization  permitted for charitable gaming obtains and keeps on file written parental  consent from the parent or legal guardian and verifies the date of birth of  such youth. An organization's house rules may further limit the involvement of  minors in the conduct of bingo games. 
    F. No qualified organization shall sell any instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal card, event game card, or electronic game card to any individual  under 18 years of age. No individual under 18 years of age shall play or redeem  any instant bingo, pull-tab, seal card, event game card, or electronic game  card. 
    G. Unless otherwise prohibited by the Code of Virginia or  this chapter, nonmembers who are under the direct supervision of a bona fide  member may participate in the conduct of bingo. 
    H. All volunteer game workers shall have in their  possession a picture identification, such as a driver's license or other  government-issued identification, and shall make the picture identification  available for inspection upon request by a department agent while participating  in the management, operation, or conduct of a bingo game. 
    I. A game manager who is a bona fide member of the  organization and is designated by the organization's management as the person  responsible for the operation of the bingo game during a particular session  shall be present any time a bingo game is conducted. 
    J. Organizations shall ensure that all charitable gaming  equipment is in working order before charitable gaming activities commence. 
    K. Any organization selling bingo, instant bingo,  pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards, or electronic game cards shall: 
    1. Maintain a supplier's invoice or a legible copy thereof  at the location where the gaming is taking place and cards are sold. The  original invoice or legible copy shall be stored in the same storage space as  the gaming supplies. All gaming supplies shall be stored in a secure area that  has access limited only to bona fide members of the organization; and 
    2. Pay for all gaming supplies only by a check drawn on the  charitable gaming account of the organization. 
    A complete inventory of all such gaming supplies shall be  maintained by the organization on the premises where the gaming is being  conducted. 
    L. A volunteer working a bingo session may receive  complimentary food and nonalcoholic beverages provided on premises, as long as  the retail value of such food and beverages does not exceed $15 for each  session. 
    M. Permitted organizations shall not commingle records,  supplies, or funds from permitted activities with those from instant bingo,  pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards, or electronic game cards sold in  social quarters in accordance with § 18.2-340.26:1 of the Code of  Virginia. 
    N. Individuals who are not members of an organization or  are members who do not participate in any charitable gaming activities may be  paid reasonable fees for preparation of quarterly and annual financial reports.  
    O. No free packs, free electronic bingo devices,  discounts, or remuneration in any other form shall be provided directly or  indirectly to volunteers, members of their family, or individuals residing in  their household. The reduction of tuition, dues, or any fees or payments due as  a result of a member or shareholder, or anyone in their household, working  bingo games or raffles is prohibited. 
    P. Individuals providing security for an organization's  charitable gaming activity shall not participate in the charitable gaming  activity and shall not be compensated with charitable gaming supplies or with  rentals of electronic bingo devices. 
    Q. No organization shall award any prize money or any  merchandise valued in excess of the amounts specified by the Code of Virginia. 
    R. Multiple bingo sessions shall be permitted in a single  premise as long as the sessions are distinct from one another and are not used  to advertise or do not result in the awarding of more in prizes than is  permitted for a single qualified organization. All leases for organizations to  conduct charitable gaming in a single premise shall ensure gaming activity is  separated by an interval of at least 30 minutes. Bingo sales for the subsequent  session may take place during the 30-minute break once the building is cleared  of all patrons and workers from the previous session. 
    S. All bingo and instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal card,  event game card, or electronic game card sales, play, and redemption must occur  within the time specified on the charitable gaming permit. 
    T. Instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards,  or electronic game cards shall only be sold in conjunction with a bingo  session, except as authorized by § 18.2-340.26:2 of the Code of Virginia.  No instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal card, event game card, or electronic game  card sales shall take place more than two hours before or after a session. If  multiple sessions are held at the same location, no instant bingo, pull-tab,  seal card, event game card, or electronic game card sales shall be conducted  during the required 30-minute break between gaming activities. The department  may take action if it believes that a bingo session is not legitimate or is  being conducted in a manner such that instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards,  event game cards, or electronic game cards are not being sold in conjunction  with a bingo session. 
    U. Only a volunteer game worker of qualified organizations  may rent, exchange, or otherwise provide electronic bingo devices to players. 
    V. A qualified organization shall conduct only bingo games  and raffles listed on a game program for that session. The program shall list  all prize amounts. If the prize amounts are determined by attendance or at the  end of a game, the game program shall list the attendance required for the  prize amount or disclose that prizes shall be determined at the end of a game  and the method for determining the prize amount. In such case, the organization  shall announce the prize amount at the end of the game. 
    W. A qualified organization selling instant bingo,  pull-tabs, seal cards, or electronic game cards shall post a flare provided by  the manufacturer at the location where such cards are sold. All such sales and  prize payouts shall be in accordance with the flare for that deal. 
    X. Only qualified organizations, facilities in which  qualified organizations play bingo, and suppliers permitted by the department  shall advertise a bingo game. Providing players with information about bingo  games through printed advertising is permitted, provided the name of the  qualified organization shall be in a type size equal to or larger than the name  of the premises, the hall, or the word "bingo." Printed  advertisements shall identify the use of proceeds percentage reported in the  past quarter or fiscal year. 
    Y. Raffles that award prizes based on a percentage of  gross receipts shall use prenumbered tickets. 
    Z. The following rules shall apply to instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal card, or event game card dispensing devices: 
    1. A dispensing device shall only be used at a location and  time during which a qualified organization holds a permit to conduct charitable  gaming. Only cards purchased by an organization to be used during the  organization's charitable gaming activity shall be in the dispensing device. 
    2. Keys to the dispensing area and coin/cash box shall be  in the possession and control of the game manager or designee of the  organization's board of directors at all times. Keys shall at all times be  available at the location where the dispensing device is being used. 
    3. The game manager or designee shall provide access to the  dispensing device to a department agent for inspection upon request. 
    4. Only a volunteer game worker of an organization may  stock the dispensing device, remove cash, or pay winners' prizes. 
    AA. Organizations shall only purchase gaming supplies from  a supplier who has a current permit issued by the department. 
    BB. An organization shall not tamper with bingo paper  received from a supplier. 
    CC. The total amount of all discounts given by any  organization during any fiscal year shall not exceed 1.0% of the organization's  gross receipts. 
    11VAC15-40-60. Rules of play.
    A. Each organization shall adopt "house rules"  regarding conduct of the game. Such rules shall be consistent with the  provisions of the law and this chapter. "House rules" shall be  conspicuously posted or, at an organization's option, printed on the game  program. 
    B. All players shall be physically present at the location  where the bingo numbers for a bingo game are drawn to play the game or to claim  a prize. Seal card prizes that can only be determined after a seal is removed  or opened must be claimed within 30 days of the close of a deal. All other  prizes must be claimed on the game date. 
    C. The following rules of play shall govern the sale of  instant bingo, pull-tabs, and seal cards: 
    1. No cards that have been marked, defaced, altered,  tampered with, or otherwise constructed in a manner that tends to deceive the  public or affect the chances of winning or losing shall be placed into play. 
    2. Winning cards shall have the winning symbol or number  defaced or punched immediately after redemption by the organization's  authorized representative. 
    3. An organization may commingle unsold instant bingo cards  and pull-tabs with no more than one additional deal. The practice of  commingling deals shall be disclosed to the public via house rules or in a  similar manner. Seal card deals shall not be commingled. 
    4. If a deal is not played to completion and unsold cards  remain, the remaining cards shall be sold at the next session the same type of  ticket is scheduled to be sold. If no future date is anticipated, the  organization shall, after making diligent efforts to sell the entire deal,  consider the deal closed or completed. The unsold cards shall be retained for  three years following the close of the fiscal year and shall not be opened. 
    5. All seal card games purchased shall contain the sign-up  sheet, the seals, and the cards packaged together in each deal. 
    6. Progressive seal card prizes not claimed within 30 days  shall be carried forward to the next progressive game in progress and paid to  the next progressive game prize winner. 
    D. No one involved in the conduct of bingo may play bingo  at any session they have worked or intend to work. No one involved in the sale  or redemption of any instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or electronic game  cards may purchase directly or through others instant bingo, pull-tab, seal  card, or electronic game card products from organizations they assist on the  day they have worked or from any deal they have helped sell or redeem,  whichever occurs later.
    E. Electronic bingo. 
    1. Electronic bingo devices may be used by bingo players in  the following manner: 
    a. Players may input into the device each number called or  the device may automatically daub each number as the number is called;
    b. Players must notify the game operator or caller of a  winning pattern of bingo by a means other than use of the electronic device; 
    c. Players are limited to playing a maximum of 54 card  faces per device per game; 
    d. Electronic bingo devices shall not be reserved for  players. Each player shall have an equal opportunity to use the available  devices on a first come, first served basis; 
    e. Each electronic bingo device shall produce a player  receipt with the organization name, date, time, location, sequential  transaction or receipt number, number of electronic bingo cards loaded, cost of  electronic bingo cards loaded, and date and time of the transaction.   Images of cards or faces stored in an electronic device must be exact  duplicates of the printed faces if faces are printed; 
    f. Department agents may examine and inspect any electronic  bingo device and related system. Such examination and inspection shall include  immediate access to the device and unlimited inspection of all parts and  associated systems and may involve the removal of equipment from the game  premises for further testing; 
    g. All electronic bingo devices must be loaded or enabled  for play on the premises where the game will be played; 
    h. All electronic bingo devices shall be rented or  otherwise provided to a player only by an organization and no part of the  proceeds of the rental of such devices shall be paid to a landlord, or his  employee, agent, or member of his immediate family; and 
    i. If a player's call of a bingo is disputed by another  player, or if a department agent makes a request, one or more cards stored on  an electronic bingo device shall be printed by the organization. 
    2. Players may exchange a defective electronic bingo device  for another device provided a disinterested player verifies that the device is  not functioning. A disinterested player shall also verify that no numbers  called for the game in progress have been keyed into the replacement device  prior to the exchange. 
    F. The following rules of play shall govern the conduct of  raffles: 
    1. Before a prize drawing, each stub or other detachable  section of each ticket sold shall be placed into a receptacle from which the  winning tickets shall be drawn. The receptacle shall be designed so that each  ticket placed in it has an equal chance to be drawn. 
    2. All prizes shall be valued at fair market value. 
    G. The following rules shall apply to "decision  bingo" games: 
    1. Decision bingo shall be played on bingo cards in the  conventional manner. 
    2. Players shall enter a game by paying a predetermined  amount for each card face in play. 
    3. Players shall pay a predetermined fee for each set of  three bingo numbers called for each card in play. 
    4. The prize amount shall be the total of all fees not to  exceed the prize limit set forth for regular bingo in § 18.2-340.33 of the  Code of Virginia. Any excess funds shall be retained by the organization. 
    5. The predetermined amounts in subdivisions 2 and 3 of  this subsection shall be printed in the game program. The prize amount for a  game shall be announced before the prize is paid to the winner. 
    H. The following rules shall apply to "treasure  chest" games: 
    1. The organization shall list the treasure chest game on  the bingo game program as a "Treasure Chest Raffle." 
    2. The organization shall have house rules posted that  describe how the game is to be played. 
    3. The treasure chest participant shall only be selected  through some other authorized charitable game at the same bingo session. 
    4. The organization shall account for all funds as treasure  chest/raffle sales on the session reconciliation form. 
    5. If the player does not open the lock on the treasure  chest, the game manager or his designee shall proceed to try every key until  the correct key opens the treasure chest lock to show all players that one of  the keys will open the lock. 
    I. The following rules shall apply to progressive bingo  games:
    1. Bingo paper sold for use in progressive bingo games  shall conform to the standards set forth in 11VAC15-40-130.
    2. Organizations shall not include in admission packs the  bingo paper intended for use in progressive bingo games.
    3. Any progressive bingo game, its prize, and the number of  bingo numbers to be called shall be clearly announced before the progressive  bingo game is played and shall be posted on the premises where the progressive  bingo game is played during each session that a progressive bingo game is  played.
    4. Pricing for a progressive bingo game card or sheet shall  be listed on the game program.
    5. If the predetermined pattern is not covered within the  predetermined number of bingo numbers to be called, then the number of bingo  numbers called will increase by one number for each subsequent session the  progressive game is played.
    6. If the predetermined pattern is not covered within the  predetermined number of bingo numbers to be called for that progressive bingo  game, then the game will continue as a regular bingo game until the  predetermined pattern is covered and a regular bingo prize is awarded.
    7. The prize for any progressive bingo game shall be in  accordance with the provisions of § 18.2-340.33 of the Code of Virginia.
    J. The following rules shall apply to "WINGO": 
    1. "WINGO" shall be played only for the  hearing-impaired players. 
    2. "WINGO" shall utilize a visual device such as  an oversized deck of cards in place of balls selected from a blower. 
    3. A caller must be in an area visible to all players and  shall randomly select cards or other visual devices one at a time and display  them so that all players can see them. 
    4. The organization must have house rules for  "WINGO" and the rules shall identify how players indicate that they  have won. 
    5. All financial reporting shall be consistent with  reporting for a traditional bingo game. 
    K. The following rules of play shall apply to event games:
    1. No instant bingo cards or pull-tabs that have been  marked, defaced, altered, tampered with, or otherwise constructed in a manner  that tends to deceive the public or affect the chances of winning or losing  shall be placed into play.
    2. Instant bingo cards and pull-tabs used in an event game  shall not be offered for sale or sold at a purchase price other than the  purchase price indicated on the flare for that particular deal.
    3. The maximum prize amount for event games shall not  exceed the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.33 (9) of the Code of Virginia  for instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card.
    4. A sign-up sheet is not required for event games in which  the winner or winners are determined using a seal card. 
    5. Organizations shall determine the winner or winners of  event games during the same bingo session in which the instant bingo cards or  pull-tabs are sold.
    6. An authorized representative of the organization shall  deface or punch the winning instant bingo cards or winning pull-tabs  immediately after redemption.
    7. If unsold bingo cards or unsold pull-tabs remain, the  unsold cards shall be retained for three years following the close of the  fiscal year and shall not be opened. 
    Article 3
  Bank Accounts, Recordkeeping, Financial Reporting, Audits, Fees
    11VAC15-40-70. Bank accounts.
    A. A qualified organization shall maintain a charitable  gaming bank account that is separate from any other bank account and all gaming  receipts shall be deposited into the charitable gaming bank account. 
    B. Disbursements for expenses other than prizes and  reimbursement of meal expenses shall be made by check directly from a  charitable gaming account. 
    C. All charitable gaming bank account records, including  but not limited to monthly bank statements, canceled checks or facsimiles  thereof, and reconciliations, shall be maintained for three years following the  close of a fiscal year. 
    D. All receipts from each session of bingo games and  instant bingo, pull-tabs, or seal cards shall be deposited by the second  business day following the session at which they were received.
    E. Raffle proceeds shall be deposited into the qualified  organization's charitable gaming bank account no later than the end of the  calendar week following the week during which the organization received the  proceeds. 
    11VAC15-40-80. Recordkeeping.
    A. In addition to the records required by  § 18.2-340.30 D of the Code of Virginia, qualified organizations  conducting bingo shall maintain a system of records for a minimum of three  years, unless otherwise specified for each gaming session on forms prescribed  by the department, or reasonable facsimiles of those forms approved by the  department, that include: 
    1. Charitable gaming supplies purchased and used; 
    2. A session reconciliation form and an instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal card, or electronic game card reconciliation form completed and  signed within 48 hours of the end of the session by the bingo manager; 
    3. All discounts provided; 
    4. A reconciliation to account for cash received from floor  workers for the sale of extra bingo sheets for any game; 
    5. Number of electronic bingo devices rented, unique serial  numbers of such devices, number of faces sold by each unit, and a summary  report for each session to include date, time, location, and detailed  information on income and expenses;
    6. An admissions control system that provides a cross-check  on the number of players in attendance and admission sales. This may include a  ticket control system, cash register, or any similar system;
    7. All operating expenses including rent, advertising, and  security. Copies of invoices for all such expenses shall also be maintained;
    8. Expected and actual receipts from games played on hard  cards and number of games played on hard cards; 
    9. A record of the name and address of each winner for all  seal cards; in addition, the winning ticket and seal card shall be maintained  for a minimum of 90 days after the session;
    10. A record of all door prizes awarded; and
    11. For any prize or jackpot of a value that meets or  exceeds the reporting requirements in the Internal Revenue Service's  Publication 3079, the name and address of each individual to whom any such  prize or jackpot is awarded and the amount of the award. 
    B. Qualified organizations conducting raffles shall have a  recordkeeping system to account for cash receipts, cash disbursements, raffle  tickets purchased or sold, and prizes awarded. All records shall be maintained  for three years from the close of the fiscal year. The recordkeeping system  shall include:
    1. Invoices for the purchase of raffle tickets, which shall  reflect the following information:
    a. Name and address of supplier;
    b. Name of purchaser;
    c. Date of purchase; 
    d. Number of tickets printed;
    e. Ticket number sequence for tickets printed; and
    f. Sales price of individual ticket;
    2. A record of cash receipts from raffle ticket sales by  tracking the total number of tickets available for sale, the number issued to  sellers, the number returned, the number sold, and reconciliation of all raffle  sales to receipts; 
    3. Serial numbers of tickets for raffle sales initiated and  concluded at a bingo game or sequentially numbered tickets, which shall state  the name, address, and telephone number of the organization, the prize or  prizes to be awarded, the date of the prize drawing or selection, the selling  price of the raffle ticket, and the charitable gaming permit number;
    4. For any raffle prize of a value that meets or exceeds  the reporting requirements in the Internal Revenue Service's Publication 3079,  receipts on which prize winners must provide printed name, residence address,  and the amount and description of the prize received; and 
    5. Deposit records of the required weekly deposits of  raffle receipts. 
    C. All raffle tickets shall have a detachable section; be  consecutively numbered with the detachable section having the same number;  provide space for the purchaser's name, complete address, and telephone number;  and state (i) the name and address of the organization; (ii) the prize or  prizes to be awarded; (iii) the date, time and location of the prize drawing;  (iv) the selling price of the ticket; and (v) the charitable gaming permit  number. Winning tickets and unsold tickets shall be maintained for three years  from the close of the fiscal year. 
    D. All unused charitable gaming supplies shall either be  returned for refund to the original supplier in unopened original packaging in  resalable condition as determined by the supplier or turned in to the  department for destruction. The organization shall maintain a receipt for all  such supplies returned to the supplier or turned in to the department. 
    11VAC15-40-90. Financial reporting, penalties, inspections,  and audits.
    A. Each charitable gaming permit holder shall file an  annual report of receipts and disbursements by March 15 of each year on a form  prescribed by the department. The annual report shall cover the activity for  the fiscal year. 
    B. The annual report shall be accompanied by the audit and  administration fee as established by the department for the fiscal year unless  the fee has been remitted with quarterly reports or the organization is exempt from payment of the fee  pursuant to § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. An organization desiring an extension to file its  annual report for good cause shall request the extension in writing on a form  prescribed by the department and shall pay the projected audit and  administration fee, unless exempt from payment of the fee pursuant to  § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia. The extension request and payment  of projected fees shall be made in accordance with the provisions of  § 18.2-340.30 of the Code of Virginia.
    D. Unless exempted by § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of  Virginia, qualified organizations realizing any gross gaming receipts in any  calendar quarter shall file a quarterly report of receipts and disbursements on  a form prescribed by the department as follows:
           | Quarter Ending | Date Due | 
       | March 31 | June 1 | 
       | June 30 | September 1 | 
       | September 30 | December 1 | 
       | December 31 | March 1 | 
  
    Qualified organizations shall submit quarterly reports  with the appropriate audit and administration fee unless the organization is  exempt from payment of the fee pursuant to § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia.  An annual financial report may substitute for a quarterly report if the  organization has no further charitable gaming income during the remainder of  the reporting period and the annual report is filed by the due date for the  applicable calendar quarter.
    E. An organization desiring an extension to file its  quarterly report for good cause shall request the extension in writing on a  form prescribed by the department and shall pay the projected audit and  administration fee unless exempt from payment of the fee pursuant to  § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia. The extension request and payment  of projected fees shall be made in accordance with the provisions of  § 18.2-340.30 of the Code of Virginia.
    F. Organizations failing to file required reports, request  an extension, or make fee payments when due shall be charged a penalty of $25  per day from the due date until such time as the required report is filed. 
    G. Any qualified organization in possession of funds  derived from charitable gaming (including those who have ceased operations),  regardless of when such funds may have been received or whether it has a valid  permit from the department, shall file an annual financial report on a form  prescribed by the department on or before March 15 of each year until such  funds are depleted. If an organization ceases the conduct of charitable gaming,  it shall provide the department with the name of an individual who shall be  responsible for filing financial reports. If no such information is provided,  the president of an organization shall be responsible for filing reports until  all charitable gaming proceeds are depleted. 
    H. If an organization has been identified through  inspection, audit, or other means as having deficiencies in complying with  statutory or regulatory requirements or having ineffective internal controls,  the department may impose restrictions or additional recordkeeping and  financial reporting requirements. 
    I. Any records deemed necessary to complete an inspection,  audit, or investigation may be collected by the department, its employees, or  its agents from the premises of an organization or any location where  charitable gaming is conducted. The department shall provide a written receipt  of such records at the time of collection. 
    11VAC15-40-100. Use of proceeds.
    A. All payments by an organization intended as use of  proceeds must be made by check written from the organization's charitable  gaming account. 
    B. Use of proceeds payments may be made for scholarship  funds or the future acquisition, construction, remodeling, or improvement of  real property or the acquisition of other equipment or vehicles to be used for  religious, charitable, educational, or community purposes. In addition, an  organization may obtain department approval to establish a special fund account  or an irrevocable trust fund for special circumstances. Transfers to such an  account or an irrevocable trust fund from the organization's charitable gaming  account may be included as a use of proceeds if the payment is authorized by an  organization's board of directors. 
    No payments made to such a special fund account shall be  withdrawn for other than the specified purpose unless prior notification is  made to the department. 
    C. Expenditures of charitable gaming funds for social or  recreational activities or for events, activities, or programs that are open  primarily to an organization's members and their families shall not qualify as  use of proceeds unless substantial benefit to the community is demonstrated. 
    D. Payments made to or on behalf of indigent, sick, or  deceased members or their immediate families shall be allowed as use of  proceeds provided they are approved by the organization's board of directors  and the need is documented. 
    E. Payments made directly for the benefit of an individual  member, member of his family, or person residing in his household shall not be  allowed as a use of proceeds unless authorized by law or elsewhere in this  chapter. 
    F. Use of proceeds payments by an organization shall not  be made for any activity that is not permitted by federal, state, or local laws  or for any activity that attempts to influence or finance directly or  indirectly political persons or committees or the election or reelection of any  person who is or has been a candidate for public office. 
    G. Organizations shall maintain details of all use of  proceeds disbursements for a minimum of three years and shall make this  information available to the department upon request. 
    H. The department may disallow a use of proceeds payment  to be counted against the minimum percentage referred to in 11VAC15-40-20 D. If  any payment claimed as use of proceeds is subsequently disallowed, an  organization may be allowed additional time as specified by the department to  meet minimum use of proceeds requirements.
    Article 4
  Rent
    11VAC15-40-110. Requirements regarding renting premises,  agreements, and landlord participation.
    A. No organization shall rent or use any leased premises  to conduct charitable gaming unless all terms for rental or use are set forth  in a written agreement and signed by the parties thereto prior to the issuance  of a permit to conduct charitable gaming. A qualified organization that leases  a building or other premises that is utilized in whole or in part for the  purpose of conducting charitable gaming more frequently than two calendar days  in one calendar week shall only lease such premises directly from (i) a  qualified organization that is exempt from taxation pursuant to § 501 (c)  of the Internal Revenue Code or (ii) any county, city, or town. 
    B. Organizations shall not make payments to a landlord  except by check drawn on the organization's charitable gaming account. 
    C. No landlord, his agent or employee, member of his  immediate family, or person residing in his household shall make directly or indirectly  a loan to any officer, director, game manager, or entity involved in the  management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming of an organization in  Virginia that leases its charitable gaming facility from the landlord. 
    D. No landlord, his agent or employee, member of his  immediate family, or person residing in his household shall make any direct or  indirect payment to any officer, director, game manager, or entity involved in  the management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming conducted at a  facility rented from the landlord in Virginia unless the payment is authorized  by the lease agreement and is in accordance with the law. 
    E. No landlord, his agent or employee, member of his  immediate family, or person residing in the same household shall at charitable  games conducted on the landlord's premises: 
    1. Participate in the management, operation, or conduct of  any charitable games; 
    2. Sell, lease, or otherwise provide any bingo supplies  including, but not limited to, bingo cards, pull-tab cards, electronic game  cards, or other game pieces; or 
    3. Require as a condition of the lease or contract that a  particular manufacturer, distributor, or supplier of bingo supplies is used by  the organization. 
    "Bingo supplies" as used in this chapter shall  not include glue, markers, or tape sold from concession stands or from a  location physically separated from the location where bingo supplies are  normally sold. 
    F. No member of an organization involved in the  management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming shall provide any  services to a landlord or be remunerated in any manner by the landlord of the  facility where an organization is conducting its charitable gaming. 
    Part III
  Suppliers
    11VAC15-40-120. Suppliers of charitable gaming supplies: application,  qualifications, suspension, revocation or refusal to renew permit, maintenance,  and production of records.
    A. Prior to providing any charitable gaming supplies, a  supplier shall submit an application on a form prescribed by the department and  receive a permit. A $1,000 application fee payable to the Treasurer of Virginia  is required. In addition, a supplier must be authorized to conduct business in  the Commonwealth of Virginia, which may include, but not be limited to,  registration with the State Corporation Commission, the Department of Taxation,  and the Virginia Employment Commission. The actual cost of background  investigations for a permit may be billed by the department to an applicant.  The department shall act on an application within 90 days of receipt of the  application. 
    B. The department may refuse to issue a permit or may  suspend or revoke a permit if an officer, director, employee, agent, or owner: 
    1. Is operating without a valid license, permit, or  certificate as a supplier or manufacturer in any state in the United States; 
    2. Fails or refuses to recall a product as directed by the  department; 
    3. Conducts business with unauthorized entities or is not  authorized to conduct business in the Commonwealth of Virginia; 
    4. Has been convicted of or pleaded nolo contendere to any  crime as specified by § 18.2-340.34 B of the Code of Virginia; has had any  license, permit, certificate, or other authority related to activities defined  as charitable gaming in the Commonwealth suspended or revoked in the  Commonwealth or in any other jurisdiction; has failed to file or has been  delinquent in excess of one year in the filing of any tax returns or the  payment of any taxes due the Commonwealth; or has failed to establish a  registered office or registered agent in the Commonwealth if so required by  § 13.1-634 or 13.1-763 of the Code of Virginia. As this provision relates  to employees or agents, it shall only apply to individuals involved in sales to  or solicitations of customers in the Commonwealth of Virginia; 
    5. Fails to notify the department within 20 days of the  occurrence, knowledge, or receipt of the filing of any administrative or legal  action relating to charitable gaming or the distribution of charitable gaming  supplies involving or concerning the supplier, any officers or directors,  employees, agent, or owner during the term of its permit; 
    6. Fails to provide to the department upon request a  current Letter for Company Registration on file with the U.S. Department of  Justice-Gambling Devices Registration Unit, if required in accordance with The  Gambling Devices Act of 1962, 15 USC §§ 1171-1178, for any device that it  sells, distributes, services, or maintains in the Commonwealth of Virginia; or 
    7. Has been engaged in conduct that would compromise the  department's objective of maintaining the highest level of integrity in  charitable gaming. 
    C. A supplier shall not sell, offer to sell, or otherwise  provide charitable gaming supplies for use by anyone in the Commonwealth of  Virginia other than to an organization with a permit from the department or  another permitted supplier. However, a supplier may: 
    1. Sell charitable gaming supplies to an organization that  expects to gross the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of  Virginia or less in any 12-month period, providing that the amount of such  purchase would not be reasonably expected to produce more than the amount set  forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia in gross sales. For each  such organization, the supplier shall maintain the name, address, and telephone  number. The supplier shall also obtain a written and signed statement from an  officer or game manager of such organization confirming that gross receipts are  expected to be the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia  or less. Such statement shall be dated and kept on file for three years from  the end of a fiscal year. 
    2. Sell bingo cards and paper to persons or entities other  than qualified organizations provided such supplies shall not be sold or  otherwise provided for use in charitable gaming activities regulated by the  department or in unlawful gambling activities. For each such sale, the supplier  shall maintain the name, address, and telephone number of the purchaser. The  supplier shall also obtain a written statement from the purchaser verifying  that such supplies will not be used in charitable gaming or any unlawful  gambling activity. Such statement shall be dated and kept on file for three  years from the end of a fiscal year. Payment for such sales in excess of $50  shall be accepted in the form of a check. 
    3. Sell pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards, and  electronic game cards to organizations for use only upon the premises owned or  exclusively leased by the organization and at such times as the portion of the  premises in which the pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards, or electronic  game cards are sold is open only to members and their guests as authorized by  § 18.2-340.26:1 of the Code of Virginia. Each such sale shall be accounted  for separately and the accompanying invoice shall be clearly marked: "For  Use in Social Quarters Only." 
    All such sales shall be documented pursuant to subsection  H of this section and reported to the department pursuant to subsection J of  this section. This provision shall not apply to the sale to landlords of  equipment and video systems as defined in this chapter. Equipment and video  systems shall not include dispensing devices, electronic bingo devices, and  player devices. 
    D. A supplier shall not sell, offer to sell, or otherwise  provide charitable gaming supplies to any individual or organization in the  Commonwealth of Virginia unless the charitable gaming supplies are purchased or  obtained from a manufacturer or another permitted supplier. Suppliers may take  back for credit and resell supplies received from an organization with a permit  that has ceased charitable gaming or is returning supplies not needed. 
    E. No supplier, supplier's agent, or employee may be  involved in the management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming in the  Commonwealth of Virginia. No member of a supplier's immediate family or person  residing in the same household as a supplier may be involved in the management,  operation, or conduct of charitable gaming of any customer of the supplier in  the Commonwealth of Virginia. No supplier, supplier's agent, or employee may  participate in any charitable gaming of any customer of the supplier in the  Commonwealth of Virginia. For the purposes of this regulation, servicing of  electronic devices shall not be considered conduct or participation. 
    F. The department shall conduct a background investigation  prior to the issuance of a permit to any supplier. The investigation may  include, but shall not be limited to, the following: 
    1. A search of the Virginia Central Criminal Records  Exchange (CCRE) on all officers, directors, and owners; and 
    2. Verification of current compliance with Commonwealth of  Virginia tax laws. 
    If the officers, directors, or owners are domiciled  outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia, or have resided in the Commonwealth of  Virginia for fewer than five years, a criminal history search conducted by the  appropriate authority in any state in which they have resided during the  previous five years shall be provided by the applicant. 
    G. Appropriate information and authorizations shall be  provided to the department to verify information cited in subsection F of this  section. 
    H. Suppliers shall document each sale or rental of  charitable gaming supplies to an organization in the Commonwealth of Virginia  on an invoice, which reflects the following: 
    1. Name, address, and OCG number of the organization; 
    2. Date of sale or rental and location where bingo supplies  are shipped if different from the billing address; 
    3. Name, form number, and serial number of each deal of  instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, electronic game cards, or bundles and the  number of cards in each deal; 
    4. Quantity of deals sold, the cost per deal, the selling  price per card, the cash take-in per deal, and the cash payout per deal; 
    5. Serial number of the top sheet in each pack of  disposable bingo paper, the number of sheets in each pack or pad, the cut and  color, and the number of packs or pads sold; 
    6. Serial number for each series of uncollated bingo paper  and the number of sheets sold; 
    7. Detailed information concerning the type, quantity, and  individual price of any other charitable gaming supplies or related items  including, but not limited to, concealed face bingo cards, hard cards, markers  or daubers and refills, or any other merchandise. For concealed face bingo  cards, the number of sets, price per set, and the serial number of each set  shall be included; 
    8. Serial number of each player device, the form of the  player device, the number of player devices sold or rented, and the physical  address to which each player device is shipped; 
    9. Serial number and description of any other equipment  sold or rented that is used to facilitate the distribution, play, and  redemption of electronic game cards and the physical address to which the  equipment is shipped; and
    10. Any type of equipment, device, or product manufactured  for or intended to be used in the conduct of charitable games including, but  not limited to, designators, designator receptacles, number display boards,  selection devices, dispensing machines, and verification devices.
    I. Suppliers shall ensure that two copies of the detailed  invoice are provided to the customer for each sale of charitable gaming  supplies. 
    J. Each supplier shall provide a report to the department  by March 1 of each year on sales of charitable gaming supplies for the fiscal  year ending December 31 of the previous year to each organization in the  Commonwealth of Virginia. This report shall be provided to the department on  computer disk or other department-approved media. The report shall include the  name and address of each organization and the following information for each  sale or transaction: 
    1. Bingo paper sales including purchase price, description  of paper to include number of sheets in pack and number of faces on sheet, and  quantity of single sheets or packs shipped; 
    2. Deals of instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards,  electronic game cards, or any other raffle sales including purchase price, deal  name, deal form number, number of tickets in deal, ticket price, cash take-in  per deal, cash payout per deal, and number of deals; 
    3. Electronic bingo device sales including purchase or  rental price and number of units; 
    4. Equipment used to facilitate the distribution, play, and  redemption of electronic game cards including purchase or rental price,  description of equipment, number of units of each type of equipment, and the  physical address to which the equipment is shipped; and 
    5. Sales of miscellaneous items such as daubers, markers,  and other merchandise including purchase price, description of product, and  number of units. 
    K. The department shall set manufacturing and testing  criteria for all electronic bingo devices and other equipment used in the  conduct of charitable gaming. An electronic bingo device shall not be sold,  leased, or otherwise furnished to any person in the Commonwealth of Virginia  for use in the conduct of charitable gaming until an identical sample device  containing identical proprietary software has been certified by a testing  facility that has been formally recognized by the department as a testing  facility that upholds the standards of integrity established by the department.  The testing facility must certify that the device conforms, at a minimum, to  the restrictions and conditions set forth in these regulations. Once the  testing facility reports the test results to the department, the department  will either approve or disapprove the submission and inform the manufacturer of  the results within 10 business days. If any such equipment does not meet the  department's criteria, it shall be recalled and shall not be distributed in the  Commonwealth of Virginia. The cost of testing shall be borne by the  manufacturer of such equipment. 
    L. Department employees shall have the right to inspect  all electronic and mechanical equipment used in the conduct of charitable  gaming. 
    M. Suppliers, their agents and employees, members of the  supplier's immediate family, or persons residing in their household shall not  make any loan directly or indirectly to any organization or officer, director,  game manager, or entity involved in the management, operation, or conduct of  charitable gaming of a supplier's customer located in the Commonwealth of  Virginia. 
    N. No supplier, supplier's agent, or employee shall  directly or indirectly provide a rebate, discount, or refund to any person  other than an organization that purchases supplies or leases or purchases  equipment from the supplier. All such transactions shall be recorded on the  supplier's account books. 
    O. A supplier shall not rent, sell, or otherwise provide  electronic bingo devices or equipment used to distribute, play, or redeem  electronic game cards unless the supplier possesses a valid permit in the  Commonwealth of Virginia.
    P. A written agreement specifying the terms of lease or  rental shall be required for any electronic bingo devices or equipment used to  distribute, play, or redeem electronic game cards provided to an organization.
    11VAC15-40-130. Construction and other standards for bingo,  instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, event games, raffles, electronic bingo  devices, and instant bingo, pull-tab, and seal card dispensers.
    A. No supplier shall knowingly sell or otherwise provide  to an organization and no organization shall knowingly use bingo supplies  unless they conform to the following construction standards: 
    1. Disposable paper sold shall be of sufficient weight and  quality to allow for clearly readable numbers and to prevent ink from  spreading, bleeding, or otherwise obscuring other numbers or cards. 
    2. Each sheet of disposable bingo paper shall be comprised  of cards bearing a serial number. No serial number shall be repeated on or in  the same style, series, and color of cards within a three-year period. 
    3. Disposable bingo paper assembled in books or packs shall  not be separated except for single-sheet specials. This provision does not  apply to two-part cards on which numbers are filled by players and one part is  separated and provided to an organization for verification purposes. 
    4. Each unit of disposable bingo paper shall have an  exterior label listing the following information: 
    a. Description of product; 
    b. Number of packs or loose sheets; 
    c. Series numbers; 
    d. Serial number of the top sheet; 
    e. Number of cases; 
    f. Cut of paper; and 
    g. Color of paper. 
    5. "Lucky Seven" bingo cards or electronic  facsimiles thereof shall have a single face where seven numbers shall be  chosen. "Lucky Seven" sheets or electronic facsimiles thereof shall  have multiple faces where seven numbers shall be chosen per face. 
    B. No supplier shall knowingly sell or otherwise provide  to an organization and no organization shall knowingly use instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal cards, or event game cards unless they conform to the following  construction standards: 
    1. Cards shall be constructed so that concealed numbers,  symbols, or winner protection features cannot be viewed or determined from the  outside of the card by using a high intensity lamp of 500 watts, with or  without utilizing a focusing lens. 
    2. Deals shall be designed, constructed, glued, and  assembled in a manner to prevent determination of a winning or losing ticket  without removing the tabs or otherwise uncovering the symbols or numbers as  intended. 
    3. Each card in a deal shall bear the same serial number.  Only one serial number shall be used in a deal. No serial number used in a deal  shall be repeated by the same manufacturer on that same manufacturer's form  within a three-year period. The flare of each deal shall accompany the deal and  shall have affixed to it the same serial number as the tickets in such deal. 
    4. Numbers or symbols on cards shall be fully visible in  the window and shall be placed so that no part of a number or symbol remains  covered when the tab is removed. 
    5. Cards shall be glued on all edges and around each  window. Glue shall be of sufficient strength and type to prevent the  undetectable separation or delamination of the card. For banded tickets, the  glue must be of sufficient strength and quality to prevent the separation of  the band from the ticket. 
    6. The following minimum information shall be printed on a  card: 
    a. Break open pull-tab, instant bingo cards, and event game  cards: 
    (1) Name of the manufacturer or its distinctive logo; 
    (2) Name of the game; 
    (3) Manufacturer's form number; 
    (4) Price per individual card or bundle; 
    (5) Unique minimum five-digit game serial number printed on  the game information side of the card; and 
    (6) Number of winners and respective winning number or  symbols and specific prize amounts unless accompanied by a manufacturer's  preprinted publicly posted flare with that information. 
    b. Banded pull-tabs: 
    (1) Manufacturer; 
    (2) Serial number; 
    (3) Price per individual card or bundle unless accompanied  by a manufacturer's preprinted publicly posted flare with that information; and  
    (4) Number of winners and respective winning numbers or  symbols and prize amounts or a manufacturer's preprinted publicly posted flare  giving that information. 
    7. All seal card games sold to organizations shall contain  the sign-up sheet, seals, and cards packaged together in each deal. 
    C. Raffle tickets used independent of a bingo game must  conform to the following construction standards: 
    1. Each ticket shall have a detachable section and shall be  consecutively numbered. 
    2. Each section of a ticket shall bear the same number. The  section retained by the organization shall provide space for the purchaser's  name, complete address, and telephone number. 
    3. The following information shall be printed on the  purchaser's section of each ticket: 
    a. Dates and times of drawings; 
    b. Locations of the drawings; 
    c. Name of the charitable organization conducting the  raffle; 
    d. Price of the ticket; 
    e. Charitable gaming permit number; and 
    f. Prizes. 
    Exceptions to these construction standards are allowed only  with prior written approval from the department.
    D. Electronic bingo. 
    1. The department, at its discretion, may require  additional testing of electronic bingo devices at any time. Such additional  testing shall be at the manufacturer's expense and shall be a condition of the  continued use of such device. 
    2. All electronic bingo devices shall use proprietary  software and hardware or commonly available software and computers and shall be  enabled for play on the premises where the game is to be played. 
    3. Each electronic bingo device shall have a unique  identification number permanently coded into the software of such device.  Manufacturers of electronic bingo devices shall employ sufficient security  safeguards in designing and manufacturing the devices such that it may be  verified that all proprietary software components are authentic copies of the  approved software components and all functioning components of the device are  operating with identical copies of approved software programs. The device must  also have sufficient security safeguards so that any restrictions or  requirements authorized by the department or any approved proprietary software  are protected from alteration by unauthorized personnel. The device shall not  contain hard-coded or unchangeable passwords. Security measures that may be  employed to comply with these provisions include, but are not limited to, the  use of dongles, digital signature comparison hardware and software, secure boot  loaders, encryption, and key and callback password systems. 
    4. Electronic bingo devices shall not allow a player to  create a card by the input of specific numbers on each card. Manufacturers  shall ensure that an electronic bingo device does not allow for the play of any  bingo card faces other than those verifiably purchased by the patron. 
    5. Electronic bingo devices shall not accept cash,  currency, or tokens for play. 
    6. Electronic bingo devices shall require the manual entry  of numbers as they are called, the manual verification of numbers as they have  been electronically transmitted to the device, or the full automatic daubing of  numbers as each number is called. During the play of a bingo game, the  transmission of data to electronic bingo devices shall be limited to one-way communication  to the device and shall consist only of the number called. 
    7. A device shall not allow the play of more than 54 cards  per device per game. 
    8. The electronic bingo device system shall record a  sequential transaction number or audit tracking number for each transaction.  The system shall not allow the manual resetting or changing of this number. 
    9. The system shall produce a receipt and a transaction log  containing the following: 
    a. Organization name; 
    b. Location of bingo game; 
    c. Sequential transaction or receipt number; 
    d. Number of electronic bingo cards loaded; 
    e. Cost of electronic bingo cards loaded; and
    f. Date and time of each transaction. 
    10. The system shall maintain and make available on demand  a summary report for each session that includes the following:
    a. Organization name;
    b. Physical location of bingo game;
    c. Date and time of each transaction;
    d. Sequential transaction or receipt number;
    e. Number of electronic bingo cards loaded;
    f. Cost of electronic bingo cards loaded;
    g. A transaction history correlating each electronic sale  to the device identification number of the device on which the sale was played;
    h. Sufficient information to identify voids, including the  date and time of each voided transaction;
    i. Sufficient information to identify device returns; and
    j. Total gross receipts for each session. 
    11. Each device shall be programmed to automatically erase  all stored electronic cards at the end of the last game of a session, within a  set time from their rental to a player, or by some other clearance method  approved by the department. 
    12. All devices shall be reloaded with another set of cards  at the beginning of each session if the devices are to be reused at the same  location. 
    E. In instances where a defect in packaging or in the  construction of deals or electronic devices is discovered by or reported to the  department, the department shall notify the manufacturer of the deals or  devices containing the alleged defect. Should the department, in consultation  with the manufacturer, determine that a defect exists, and should the  department determine the defect affects game security or otherwise threatens  public confidence in the game, the department may, with respect to deals or  electronic devices for use still located within the Commonwealth of Virginia,  require the supplier to: 
    1. Recall the deals or electronic devices affected that  have not been sold or otherwise provided; or 
    2. Issue a total recall of all affected deals or electronic  devices. 
    F. No instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card dispenser may  be sold, leased, or otherwise furnished to any person or organization in the  Commonwealth of Virginia or used in the conduct of charitable gaming until an  identical sample device containing identical proprietary software, if  applicable, has been certified by a testing facility that has been formally  recognized by the department as a testing facility that upholds the standards  of integrity established by the department. The cost of testing shall be borne  by the manufacturer of such equipment. In addition, suppliers and manufacturers  of such dispensers shall comply with the requirements of The Gambling Devices  Act of 1962 (15 USC §§ 1171-1178). 
    G. All instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card dispensing  devices must meet the following standards: 
    1. Each dispenser shall be manufactured in a manner that  ensures a pull-tab ticket is dispensed only after insertion of United States  currency or coinage into the dispenser. Such ticket and any change due shall be  the only items dispensed from the machine. 
    2. Each dispenser shall be manufactured in a manner that  ensures the device neither displays nor has the capability of displaying or  otherwise identifying an instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card winning or  nonwinning ticket. 
    3. Each dispenser shall be manufactured in such a manner  that any visual animation does not simulate or display rolling or spinning  reels or produce audible music or enhanced sound effects. 
    4. Each dispenser shall be equipped with separate locks for  the instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card supply modules and money boxes. Locks  shall be configured so that no one key will operate both the supply modules and  money boxes. 
    H. The department may require additional testing of a  dispensing device at any time to ensure that it meets construction standards  and allows for fair play. Such tests shall be conducted at the cost of the  manufacturer of such devices. 
    I. The face value of cards being dispensed shall match the  amount deposited in the currency/coin acceptor less change provided. 
    11VAC15-40-140. Instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or  event game cards randomization standards.
    All instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or event game  cards shall meet the following randomization standards: 
    1. Deals shall be assembled so that winning tickets are  placed throughout each deal. 
    2. Deals shall be assembled and packaged in a manner that  prevents isolation of winning cards due to variations in printing, graphics,  colors, sizes, appearances of cut edges, or other markings of cards. 
    3. Winning cards shall be distributed and mixed among all  other cards in a deal so as to eliminate any pattern between deals or portions  of deals from which the location or approximate location of any winning card  may be determined. 
    Part IV
  Electronic Games of Chance Systems
    Article 1
  General Requirements
    11VAC15-40-150. Approval of distributed pull-tab systems,  validation systems, point-of-sale stations, and redemption terminals.
    A. The department shall set manufacturing and testing  criteria for all distributed pull-tab systems, validation systems,  point-of-sale stations, redemption terminals, and other equipment used in the  conduct of charitable gaming. A distributed pull-tab system, validation system,  point-of-sale station, redemption terminal, or other equipment shall not be  sold, leased, or otherwise furnished to any person in the Commonwealth of  Virginia for use in the conduct of charitable gaming until an identical sample  system or equipment containing identical software has been certified by a testing  facility that has been formally recognized by the department as a testing  facility that upholds the standards of integrity established by the department.  The testing facility must certify that the distributed pull-tab system and  associated hardware and software conform, at a minimum, to the requirements set  forth in this chapter. Once the testing facility reports the test results to  the department, the department will either approve or disapprove the  distributed pull-tab system or system components and inform the manufacturer of  the results within 10 business days. If any such system or equipment does not  meet the department's criteria, it shall be recalled and shall not be  distributed in the Commonwealth of Virginia. The cost of testing shall be borne  by the manufacturer of such equipment.
    B. No supplier shall knowingly sell or otherwise provide  to an organization and no organization shall knowingly use a distributed  pull-tab system, validation system, point-of-sale station, redemption terminal,  or other equipment used to conduct charitable gaming unless it conforms to the  requirements set forth in this regulation.
    C. If a defect in a distributed pull-tab system,  validation system, point-of-sale station, redemption terminal, or other  equipment used to conduct charitable gaming is discovered by or reported to the  department, the department shall notify the manufacturer of the system or  equipment containing the alleged defect. Should the department, in consultation  with the manufacturer, determine that a defect exists and should the department  determine the defect affects game security or otherwise threatens public  confidence in the game, the department may, with respect to any distributed  pull-tab system, validation system, point of sale station, redemption terminal,  or other equipment used to conduct charitable gaming still located within the  Commonwealth of Virginia, require the supplier to issue a recall of all  affected distributed pull-tab systems, validation systems, point-of-sale  stations, redemption terminals, or other equipment. 
    Article 2
  System Requirements
    11VAC15-40-160. Distributed pull-tab system.
    A distributed pull-tab system shall be dedicated primarily  to electronic accounting, reporting, and the presentation, randomization, and  transmission of electronic game cards to the player devices. It shall also be  capable of generating the data necessary to provide the reports required within  this article or otherwise specified by the department. 
    11VAC15-40-170. Dispensing of electronic game cards.
    A distributed pull-tab system shall dispense, upon  request, an electronic game card or cards. All games must be played without  replacement, drawing from a single finite game set.
    11VAC15-40-180. Game set requirements.
    Each game set shall meet the following minimum  requirements: 
    1. Each game set shall be made up of a finite number of  electronic game cards; 
    2. The game set shall consist of a maximum of 25,000  electronic game cards; 
    3. All electronic game cards in a particular game set shall  be of the same purchase price; 
    4. The maximum win amount awarded per any one electronic  game card shall not exceed the value set forth for pull-tabs by  § 18.2-340.33 of the Code of Virginia; 
    5. Each game set shall be assigned a unique serial number;  and 
    6. After randomization, game sets may be broken into  subsets of equal size. If game subsets are used, they shall each be assigned a  unique serial number and be traceable to a parent game set.
    11VAC15-40-190. Game set definition.
    If the system has the capability to create a game set from  a predefined set of criteria, the criteria must contain the following  information: 
    1. Game ID; 
    2. Game set version; 
    3. Manufacturer; 
    4. Game name; 
    5. Paytable ID; 
    6. Purchase price per electronic game card; 
    7. Subset size; 
    8. Total number of subsets; and 
    9. Prize values with an associated index and frequency. 
    11VAC15-40-200. Data required to be available for each game  set.
    A. The following data shall be available prior to the  opening of a game set for distribution and shall be maintained and be viewable  both electronically and, if requested, by printed report, upon demand: 
    1. A unique serial number identifying each game set and/or  subset; 
    2. A description of the game set sufficient to categorize  the game set or subset relative to other game sets; 
    3. The total number of electronic game cards in the game  set; 
    4. The number of game subsets to be created from the game  set and the number of electronic game cards in each subset when applicable; 
    5. The payout percentage of the entire game set; 
    6. The purchase price per electronic game card assigned to  the game set; and 
    7. Prize values with an associated index and frequency. 
    B. The following data shall be available subsequent to the  completion of a game set and shall be maintained and viewable both  electronically and, if requested, by printed report, upon demand: 
    1. A unique serial number identifying each game set and/or  subset; 
    2. Description of the game set sufficient to categorize the  game set relative to other game sets; 
    3. The total number of electronic game cards unsold; 
    4. The total number of electronic game cards purchased; 
    5. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset became available for play; 
    6. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset was completed or removed from play; 
    7. Location where game set and/or subset was played; 
    8. The final payout percentage of the game set when removed  from play; and 
    9. The purchase price per electronic game card assigned to  the game set. 
    C. In order to provide maximum game integrity, no audit or  other determination of the status of any game set or any subset, including, but  not limited to, a determination of the prizes won or prizes remaining to be  won, shall be conducted by anyone while a game set or subset is in play without  causing termination of the entire game set or subset. Only upon game set  termination shall the details of the associated game set and subsets be  revealed to the individual or individuals performing the audit. 
    D. Once terminated, a game set shall not be able to be  reopened. 
    11VAC15-40-210. Security requirements.
    A. A distributed pull-tab system computer must be in a  locked, secure enclosure with key controls in place. 
    B. A distributed pull-tab system shall provide a means for  terminating the game set if information about electronic game cards in an open  game set has been accessed or at the discretion of the department. In such  cases, traceability of unauthorized access including time and date, users  involved, and any other relevant information shall be available. 
    C. A distributed pull-tab system shall not permit the  alteration of any accounting or significant event information that was  communicated from the player device without supervised access controls. In the  event financial data is changed, an automated audit log must be capable of  being produced to document the following: 
    1. Data element altered; 
    2. Data element value prior to alteration; 
    3. Data element value after alteration; 
    4. Time and date of alteration; and 
    5. Personnel that performed alteration. 
    D. A distributed pull-tab system must provide password  security or other secure means of ensuring data integrity and enforcing user  permissions for all system components through the following means: 
    1. All programs and data files must only be accessible via  the entry of a password that will be known only to authorized personnel; 
    2. The distributed pull-tab system must have multiple  security access levels to control and restrict different classes;
    3. The distributed pull-tab system access accounts must be  unique when assigned to the authorized personnel and shared accounts amongst  authorized personnel must not be allowed; 
    4. The storage of passwords and PINs must be in an  encrypted, nonreversible form; and 
    5. A program or report must be available that will list all  registered users on the distributed pull-tab system including their privilege  level. 
    E. All components of a distributed pull-tab system must  have a password sign-on with two-level codes comprising the personal  identification code and a personal password. 
    1. The personal identification code must have a length of  at least six ASCII characters; and 
    2. The personal password must have a minimum length of six  alphanumeric characters, which should include at least one nonalphabetic  character. 
    F. A distributed pull-tab system must have the capability  to control potential data corruption that can be created by multiple  simultaneous log-ons by system management personnel. 
    1. A distributed pull-tab system shall specify which of the  access levels allow for multiple simultaneous sign-ons by different users and  which of the access levels do not allow for multiple sign-ons, and, if multiple  sign-ons are possible, what restrictions, if any, exist; or 
    2. If a distributed pull-tab system does not provide  adequate control, a comprehensive procedural control document must be drafted  for the department's review and approval. 
    G. Distributed pull-tab system software components/modules  shall be verifiable by a secure means at the system level. A distributed  pull-tab system shall have the ability to allow for an independent integrity  check of the components/modules from an outside source and is required for all  control programs that may affect the integrity of the distributed pull-tab  system. This must be accomplished by being authenticated by a third-party  device, which may be embedded within the distributed pull-tab system software  or having an interface or procedure for a third-party application to  authenticate the component. This integrity check will provide a means for field  verification of the distributed pull-tab system components. 
    H. A distributed pull-tab system may be used to configure  and perform security checks on player devices, provided such functions do not  affect the security, integrity, or outcome of any game and meets the  requirements set forth in this regulation regarding program storage devices. 
    11VAC15-40-220. Backup and recovery.
    A. A distributed pull-tab system computer shall have a  separate physical medium for securely storing game sets or subsets on the  computer, which shall be mirrored in real time by a backup medium. 
    B. All data required to be available or reported by this  chapter must be retained for a period of not less than three years. 
    C. All storage of critical data shall utilize error  checking and be stored on a nonvolatile physical medium. 
    D. The database shall be stored on redundant media so that  no single failure of any portion of the system would result in the loss or  corruption of data. 
    E. In the event of a catastrophic failure when the  distributed pull-tab system cannot be restarted in any other way, it shall be  possible to reload the distributed pull-tab system from the last viable backup  point and fully recover the contents of that backup, to consist of at least the  following information: 
    1. All significant events; 
    2. All accounting information; 
    3. Auditing information, including all open game sets and  the summary of completed game sets; and 
    4. Employee files with access levels. 
    11VAC15-40-230. Electronic accounting and reporting.
    A. One or more electronic accounting systems shall be  required to perform reporting and other functions in support of distributed  pull-tab system. The electronic accounting system shall not interfere with the  outcome of any gaming function. 
    B. The following reporting capabilities must be provided  by the electronic accounting system: 
    1. Electronic game card game set report – game sets in  play. An electronic game card game set report must be available on demand for  each game set currently in play. Game cards, outcomes, or prizes must not be  revealed. The report must contain the following information: 
    a. A unique serial number identifying each game set and/or  subsets; 
    b. A description of the game set sufficient to categorize  the game set or subset relative to other game sets; 
    c. The total number of electronic game cards in the game  set; 
    d. The number of game subsets to be created from the game  set and the number of electronic game cards in each subset when applicable; 
    e. The theoretical payout percentage of the entire game  set; 
    f. The purchase price per electronic game card assigned to  the game set; 
    g. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset became available for play; and 
    h. Location where the game set and/or subset is being  played. 
    2. Electronic game card game set report – completed game  set. An electronic game card game set report must be available on demand, for  each completed game set. The report must contain the following information: 
    a. A unique serial number identifying each game set and/or  subset; 
    b. Description of the game set sufficient to categorize the  game set relative to other game sets; 
    c. The total number of electronic game cards unsold; 
    d. The total number of electronic game cards purchased; 
    e. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset became available for play; 
    f. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset was completed or removed from play; 
    g. Location where game set and/or subset was played; 
    h. The final payout percentage of the game set when removed  from play; and 
    i. The purchase price per electronic game card assigned to  the game set. 
    3. A report that shall indicate all prizes that exceed the  threshold that triggers additional procedures to be followed for the purpose of  compliance with federal tax reporting requirements. At a minimum, on a daily  and monthly basis, the report shall provide the following information per  player device: 
    a. The date and time won; 
    b. Location of prize award; and 
    c. Amount of each prize occurrence. 
    4. Liability report. A liability report shall provide a  summary of the outstanding funds that carry from business day to business day.  At a minimum, this report shall include: 
    a. Amount of prizes and/or vouchers that were awarded in  dollars and cents, but have not yet been claimed that have not yet expired; and  
    b. Summary of all outstanding accounts. 
    5. Master reconciliation report. A master reconciliation  report must be available on a per session basis, monthly basis, and quarterly  basis at a minimum. A master reconciliation report shall include the following:  
    a. Total of all moneys used to purchase electronic game  cards; 
    b. Total of all prizes, in dollars and cents, awarded from  electronic game cards; 
    c. Total of all moneys inserted into a player device or  provided to a cashier for the purchase of electronic game cards; and 
    d. Total of all moneys removed from a player device. 
    C. A distributed pull-tab system shall be capable of  providing an electronic file in a format specified by the department on a  periodic basis to a location specified by the department. The data to be  reported will contain, at a minimum, the following items per session: 
    1. Organization identification; 
    2. Session date; 
    3. Total cash in; 
    4. Total cash out; 
    5. Total cash played; 
    6. Total cash won; 
    7. For all game sets on the system in play or in inventory:  
    a. Serial number; 
    b. Description; 
    c. Ticket price; 
    d. Number of subsets if applicable; 
    e. Number of tickets or number of tickets per subset; 
    f. Theoretical return percentage; and 
    g. Date game set was opened for play, when applicable; and
    8. For all game sets completed or closed since the previous  reporting date: 
    a. Serial number; 
    b. Description; 
    c. Ticket price; 
    d. Number of subsets, if applicable; 
    e. Number of tickets or number of tickets per subset; 
    f. Theoretical return percentage; 
    g. Date game set was opened; 
    h. Date game set was closed; 
    i. Total tickets sold; 
    j. Total dollars in; 
    k. Total prizes paid; and
    l. Actual return percentage. 
    11VAC15-40-240. Randomization.
    A. As used in this section, unless the context requires a  different meaning:
    "Card position" means the first card dealt,  second card dealt in sequential order. 
    "Number position" means the first number drawn in  sequential order. 
    B. A distributed pull-tab system shall utilize randomizing  procedures in the creation of game sets for electronic game cards or externally  generated randomized game sets that have been created using a method previously  approved by the department. 
    C. Any random number generation, shuffling, or  randomization of outcomes used in connection with a distributed pull-tab system  must be by use of a random number generation application that has successfully  passed standard tests for randomness and unpredictability including but not  limited to: 
    1. Each card position or number position satisfies the 99%  confidence limit using the standard chi-squared analysis. "Chi-squared  analysis" is the sum of the ratio of the square difference between the  expected result and the observed result to the expected result. 
    2. Each card position or number position does not produce a  significant statistic with regard to producing patterns of occurrences. Each  card position or number position will be considered random if it meets the 99%  confidence level with regard to the "run test" or any similar pattern  testing statistic. The "run test" is a mathematical statistic that  determines the existence of recurring patterns within a set of data. 
    3. Each card position or number position is independently  chosen without regard to any other card or number drawn within that game play.  This test is the "correlation test." Each pair of card positions or  number positions is considered random if it meets the 99% confidence level  using standard correlation analysis. 
    4. Each card position or number position is independently  chosen without reference to the same card position or number position in the  previous game. This test is the "serial correlation test." Each card position  or number position is considered random if it meets the 99% confidence level  using standard serial correlation analysis. 
    11VAC15-40-250. Communications and network requirements.
    A. Where the distributed pull-tab system components are  linked with one another in a network, communication protocols shall be used  that ensure that erroneous data or signals will not adversely affect the  operations of any such system components. 
    B. All data communication shall incorporate an error  detection and correction scheme to ensure the data is transmitted and received  accurately. 
    C. Connections between all components of the distributed  pull-tab system shall only be through the use of secure communication  protocol(s) that are designed to prevent unauthorized access or tampering,  employing Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), or equivalent encryption. 
    D. The minimum width (size) for encryption keys is 112  bits for symmetric algorithms and 1024 bits for public keys. 
    E. There must be a secure method implemented for changing  the current encryption key set. It is not acceptable to only use the current  key set to "encrypt" the next set. 
    F. There must be a secure method in place for the storage  of any encryption keys. Encryption keys must not be stored without being encrypted  themselves. 
    G. If a wireless network is used, wireless products used  in conjunction with any gaming system or system component must meet the  following minimum standards: 
    1. Employ a security process that complies with the Federal  Information Processing Standard 140-2 (FIPS 140-2); or 
    2. Employ an alternative method, as approved by the  department. 
    11VAC15-40-260. Significant events.
    The following significant events, if applicable, shall be  collected from the player device or point of sale and communicated to the  system for storage and a report of the occurrence of the significant event must  be made available upon request: 
    1. Power resets or power failure. 
    2. Communication loss between a player device and any  component of the distributed pull-tab system. 
    3. Player device jackpot (any award in excess of the single  win limit of the player device). 
    4. Door openings (any external door that accesses a  critical area of the player device). 
    5. Bill validator errors: 
    a. Stacker full (if supported); and 
    b. Bill jam. 
    6. Printer errors: 
    a. Printer empty; and 
    b. Printer disconnect or failure. 
    7. Corruption of the player device RAM or program storage  device.
    8. Any other significant events as defined by the protocol  employed by the distributed pull-tab system.
    11VAC15-40-270. Validation system and redemption.
    A distributed pull-tab system may utilize a voucher  validation system to facilitate gaming transactions. The validation system may  be entirely integrated into a distributed pull-tab system or exist as a  separate entity. 
    1. Payment by voucher printer as a method of redeeming  unused game plays and/or winnings on a player device is only permissible when  the device is linked to an approved validation system or distributed pull-tab  system that allows validation of the printed voucher. 
    a. A distributed pull-tab system may allow voucher out  only; vouchers shall not be inserted, scanned, or used in any way at the player  device for redemption. 
    b. The validation system must process voucher redemption  correctly according to the secure communication protocol implemented. 
    2. The algorithm or method used by the validation system or  distributed pull-tab system to generate the voucher validation numbers must  guarantee an insignificant percentage of repetitive validation numbers. 
    3. The validation system must retrieve the voucher  information correctly based on the secure communication protocol implemented  and store the voucher information in a database. The voucher record on the host  system must contain, at a minimum, the following voucher information: 
    a. Validation number; 
    b. Date and time the player device printed the voucher; 
    c. Value of voucher in dollars and cents; 
    d. Status of voucher; 
    e. Date and time the voucher will expire; 
    f. Serial number of player device; and 
    g. Location name or site identifier; 
    4. The validation system or distributed pull-tab system  must have the ability to identify the following occurrences and notify the  cashier when the following conditions exist: 
    a. Voucher cannot be found on file; 
    b. Voucher has already been paid; or 
    c. Amount of voucher differs from amount on file  (requirement may be met by display of voucher amount for confirmation by  cashier during the redemption process). 
    5. If the connection between the validation system and the  distributed pull-tab system fails, an alternate method or procedure of payment  must be available and shall include the ability to identify duplicate vouchers  and prevent fraud by redeeming vouchers that were previously issued by the  player device. 
    6. The following reports related to vouchers shall be  generated on demand: 
    a. Voucher Issuance Report shall be available from the  validation system that shows all vouchers generated by an electronic game card  device; and 
    b. Voucher Redemption Report shall detail individual  vouchers, the sum of the vouchers paid by the validation terminal or point of  sale by session, and include the following information: 
    (1) The date and time of the transaction; 
    (2) The dollar value of the transaction; 
    (3) Validation number; 
    (4) A transaction number; and 
    (5) Point-of-sale identification number or name.
    7. The validation system database must be encrypted and  password-protected and should possess a nonalterable user audit trail to  prevent unauthorized access. 
    8. The normal operation of any device that holds voucher  information shall not have any options or method that may compromise voucher  information. Any device that holds voucher information in its memory shall not  allow removal of the information unless it has first transferred that  information to the ticketing database or other secured component or components  of the validation system. 
    11VAC15-40-280. Point of sale; validation terminal.
    A. A distributed pull-tab system may utilize a  point-of-sale and/or validation terminal that is capable of facilitating the  sale of the organization's pull tab outcomes or used for the redemption of  credits from player accounts or vouchers. The point of sale may be entirely  integrated into a distributed pull-tab system or exist as a separate entity. 
    B. Point-of-sale use is only permissible when the device  is linked to an approved validation system or distributed pull-tab system. 
    C. If a distributed pull-tab system utilizes a point of  sale, it shall be capable of printing a receipt for each sale, void, or  redemption. 
    1. The receipt shall contain the following information: 
    a. Date and time of the transaction; 
    b. Dollar value of the transaction; 
    c. Validation number, if applicable; 
    d. Quantity of associated products, if applicable; 
    e. Transaction number; 
    f. Account number, if applicable; and 
    g. Point-of-sale identification number or name. 
    D. The following point-of-sale or validation terminal  reports shall be generated on demand: 
    1. Sales Transaction History Report shall show all sales  and voids by session and include the following information: 
    a. Date and time of the transaction; 
    b. Dollar value of the transaction; 
    c. Quantity of associated products; 
    d. Transaction number; and 
    e. Point of sale identification number or name; 
    2. Voucher Redemption Report shall detail individual  voucher redemptions paid by the validation terminal or point of sale by session  and include the following information: 
    a. Date and time of the transaction; 
    b. Dollar value of the transaction; 
    c. Validation number; 
    d. Transaction number; and 
    e. Point of sale identification number or name. 
    11VAC15-40-290. Location of equipment.
    All equipment used to facilitate the distribution, play,  or redemption of electronic pull-tab or instant bingo games must be physically  located within the boundaries of the Commonwealth of Virginia. This includes  but is not limited to the distributed pull-tab system, player devices,  redemption terminals, and point-of-sale stations. 
    Article 2
  Player Devices
    11VAC15-40-300. Player device general requirements.
    A. Each player device shall bear a seal approved by the  commissioner and affixed by the department.
    B. A player device shall not be capable of being used for  the purposes of engaging in any game prohibited by the department. 
    C. In addition to a video monitor or touch screen, each  player device may have one or more of the following: a bill acceptor, printer,  and electromechanical buttons for activating the game and providing player  input, including a means for the player to make selections and choices in  games. 
    D. For each player device, there shall be located anywhere  within the distributed pull-tab system, nonvolatile memory or its equivalent.  The memory shall be maintained in a secure location for the purpose of storing  and preserving a set of critical data that has been error checked in accordance  with the critical memory requirements of this regulation. 
    E. A player device shall not have any switches, jumpers,  wire posts, or other means of manipulation that could affect the operation or  outcome of a game. The player device may not have any functions or parameters  adjustable through any separate video display or input codes except for the  adjustment of features that are wholly cosmetic. 
    F. A player device shall not have any of the following  attributes: spinning or mechanical reels, pull handle, sounds other than an  audio effect to simulate the opening of a paper pull-tab or instant bingo card,  flashing lights, tower light, top box, coin tray, ticket acceptance, hopper, coin  acceptor, enhanced animation, cabinet or payglass artwork, or any other  attribute identified by the department. 
    G. A player device shall be robust enough to withstand  forced illegal entry that would leave behind physical evidence of the attempted  entry or such entry that causes an error code that is displayed and transmitted  to the distributed pull-tab system. Any such entry attempt shall inhibit game  play until cleared, and shall not affect the subsequent play or any other play,  prize, or aspect of the game. 
    H. The number of player devices, other than those player  devices that are handheld, present at any premise at which charitable gaming is  conducted shall be limited to one device for every 50 permissible occupants  under the maximum occupancy as determined pursuant to the Uniform Statewide  Building Code. The department shall determine whether a player device is  handheld. 
    11VAC15-40-310. Cabinet wiring.
    A. Proof of UL or equivalent certification shall be  required for all submitted electronic devices. 
    B. A player device shall be designed so that power and  data cables into and out of the player device can be routed so that the cables  are not accessible to the general public. 
    11VAC15-40-320. Player device identification.
    A player device shall have a permanently affixed  identification badge that cannot be removed without leaving evidence of  tampering. This badge shall be affixed to the exterior of the player device and  shall include the following information: 
    1. Manufacturer name; 
    2. A unique serial number; 
    3. The player device model number; 
    4. The date of manufacture; and 
    5. Any other information required by the department. 
    11VAC15-40-330. Doors; compartments.
    A. If a player device possesses an external door that  allows access to the interior of the machine the following rules shall apply: 
    1. Doors and their associated hinges shall be capable of  withstanding determined illegal efforts to gain access to the inside of the  player device and shall leave evidence of tampering if an illegal entry is made;  
    2. All external doors shall be locked and monitored by door  access sensors that shall detect and report all external door openings by way  of an audible alarm, on-screen display, or both; 
    3. The player device shall cease play when any external  door is opened; 
    4. It shall not be possible to disable a door open sensor  when the machine's door is closed without leaving evidence of tampering; 
    5. The sensor system shall register a door as being open  when the door is moved from its fully closed and locked position; and 
    6. Door open conditions shall be recorded in an electronic  log that includes a date/time stamp. 
    B. Player devices that contain control programs located  within an accessible area shall have a separate internal locked logic  compartment, that shall be keyed differently than the front door access lock.  The logic compartment shall be a locked cabinet area with its own locked door,  that houses critical electronic components that have the potential to  significantly influence the operation of the player device. There may be more  than one such logic area in a player device. Electronic component items that  are required to be housed in one or more logic areas are: 
    1. CPUs and other electronic components involved in the  operation and calculation or display of game play; 
    2. Communication controller electronics and components  housing the communication program storage media or, the communication board for  the on-line system may reside outside the player device; and 
    3. Logic compartment door open conditions shall be recorded  in a log that includes a date/time stamp. 
    C. Player devices that do not contain a door shall have  adequate security for any panels or entry points that allow access to the  interior of the device. 
    11VAC15-40-340. Memory clear.
    A. Following the initiation of a memory reset procedure  utilizing a certified reset method, the program shall execute a routine that  initializes the entire contents of memory to the default state. For player  devices that allow for partial memory clears, the methodology in doing so must  be accurate and the game application must validate the uncleared portions of  memory. The player device display after a memory reset shall not be the top  award. 
    B. It shall not be possible to change a configuration  setting that causes an alteration or obstruction to the electronic accounting  meters without a memory clear. 
    11VAC15-40-350. Critical memory.
    A. Critical memory shall be used to store all data that is  considered vital to the continued operation of the player device. Critical memory  storage shall be maintained by a methodology that enables errors to be  identified and corrected in most circumstances. This methodology may involve  signatures, checksums, partial checksums, multiple copies, timestamps, and/or  use of validity codes. This includes, but is not limited to: 
    1. All electronic meters required in 11VAC15-40-420 E;
    2. Current unused credits; 
    3. Player device or game configuration data; 
    4. Recall of all wagers and other information necessary to  fully reconstruct the game outcome associated with the last 10 plays; 
    5. Software state, which is the last state the player  device software was in before interruption; and 
    6. Error conditions that may have occurred on the player  device that may include: 
    a. Memory error or control program error; 
    b. Low memory battery, for batteries external to the memory  itself or low power source; 
    c. Program error or authentication mismatch; and 
    d. Power reset. 
    B. Comprehensive checks of critical memory shall be made  continually to test for possible corruption. In addition, all critical memory: 
    1. Shall have the ability to retain data for a minimum of  180 days after power is discontinued from the player device. If the method used  is an off-chip battery source, it shall recharge itself to its full potential  in a maximum of 24 hours. The shelf life shall be at least five years. Memory  that uses an off-chip back-up power source to retain its contents when the main  power is switched off shall have a detection system that will provide a method  for software to interpret and act upon a low battery condition; 
    2. Shall only be cleared by a department certified memory  clear method; and 
    3. Shall result in an error if the control program detects  an unrecoverable memory error. 
    11VAC15-40-360. Program storage devices.
    A. All program storage devices (writable/nonwritable),  including Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory (EPROM), DVD, CD-ROM, compact  flash, and any other type of program storage device shall be clearly marked  with sufficient information to identify the software and revision level of the  information stored in the devices. 
    B. Program storage devices shall meet the following  requirements: 
    1. Program storage, including CD-ROM, shall meet the  following rules: 
    a. The control program shall authenticate all critical  files by employing a hashing algorithm that produces a "message  digest" output of at least 128 bits at minimum, as certified by the  recognized independent test laboratory and agreed upon by the department. Any  message digest shall be stored on a read-only memory device within the player  device. Any message digest that resides on any other medium shall be encrypted,  using a public/private key algorithm with a minimum of a 512 bit key, or an  equivalent encryption algorithm with similar security certified by the  independent test laboratory and agreed upon by the department. 
    b. The player device shall authenticate all critical files  against the stored message digests. In the event of a failed authentication,  the player device should immediately enter an error condition with the  appropriate indication such as an audible signal, on-screen display, or both.  This error shall require operator intervention to clear. The player device  shall display specific error information and shall not clear until the file  authenticates properly and/or the player device's memory is cleared, the game  is restarted, and all files authenticate correctly. 
    2. CD-ROM specific based program storage shall: 
    a. Not be a rewriteable disk; and 
    b. The "write session" shall be closed to prevent  any further writing to the storage device. 
    C. Player devices where the control program is capable of  being erased and reprogrammed without being removed from the player device, or  other equipment or related peripheral devices shall meet the following  requirements: 
    1. Reprogrammable program storage shall only write to  alterable storage media containing data, files, and programs that are not  critical to the basic operation of the game. 
    2. Notwithstanding the foregoing, data may be written to  media containing critical data, files, and programs provided that: 
    a. A log of all information that is added, deleted, and  modified be stored on the media; 
    b. The control program verifies the validity of all data,  files, and programs that reside on the media using the methods required herein;  
    c. The player device's program contains appropriate  security to prevent unauthorized modifications; and 
    d. The player device's program does not allow game play  while the media containing the critical data, files, and programs is being  modified. 
    D. The control program shall ensure the integrity of all  critical program components during the execution of said components and the  first time the files are loaded for use even if only partially loaded. Space  that is not critical to machine security (e.g., video or sound) is not required  to be validated, although the department recommends a method be in place for  the files to be tested for corruption. If any of the video or sound files  contain payout amounts or other information needed by the player, the files are  to be considered critical. 
    11VAC15-40-370. Touch screens.
    Any touch screen must meet the following rules: 
    1. A touch screen shall be accurate once calibrated; 
    2. A touch screen shall be able to be recalibrated; and 
    3. A touch screen shall have no hidden or undocumented  buttons or touch points anywhere on the touch screen, except as provided for by  the game rules that affect game play. 
    11VAC15-40-380. Bill acceptors.
    A. A player device may have a mechanism that accepts U.S.  currency and provides a method to enable the player device software to  interpret and act appropriately upon a valid or invalid input. 
    B. An acceptance device shall be electronically based and  be configured to ensure that it only accept valid bills and rejects all others  in a highly accurate manner. 
    C. A bill input system shall be constructed in a manner  that protects against vandalism, abuse, or fraudulent activity. In addition, a  bill acceptance device shall only register credits when: 
    1. The bill has passed the point where it is accepted and  stacked; and 
    2. The bill acceptor has sent the "irrevocably  stacked" message to the machine. 
    D. A bill acceptor shall communicate to the player device  using a bidirectional protocol. 
    E. A bill acceptor shall be designed to prevent the use of  cheating methods such as stringing, the insertion of foreign objects, and any  other manipulation that may be deemed as a cheating technique. 
    F. If a bill acceptor is designed to be factory set only,  it shall not be possible to access or conduct maintenance or adjustments to  that bill acceptor in the field, other than: 
    1. The selection of bills and their limits; 
    2. Changing of certified EPROMs or downloading of certified  software; 
    3. The method for adjustment of the tolerance level for  accepting bills of varying quality should not be accessible from the exterior  of the player device. Adjustments of the tolerance level should only be allowed  with adequate levels of security in place. This can be accomplished through  lock and key, physical switch settings, or other accepted methods approved on a  case-by-case basis; 
    4. Maintenance, adjustment, and repair per approved factory  procedures; and 
    5. Options that set the direction or orientation of bill  acceptance. 
    G. A player device equipped with a bill acceptor shall  have the capability of detecting and displaying an error condition for the  following events: 
    1. Stacker full (it is recommended that an explicit  "stacker full" error message not be utilized since this may cause a  security issue); 
    2. Bill jams; 
    3. Bill acceptor door open. If a bill acceptor door is a  machine door, a door open signal is sufficient; 
    4. Stacker door open; and 
    5. Stacker removed. 
    H. A player device equipped with a bill acceptor shall  maintain sufficient electronic metering to be able to report the following: 
    1. Total monetary value of all bills accepted; 
    2. Total number of all bills accepted; 
    3. A breakdown of the bills accepted for each denomination;  and 
    4. The value of the last five items accepted by the bill  acceptor.
    11VAC15-40-390. Payment by voucher printers.
    A. If the player device has a printer that is used to  issue payment to the player by issuing a printed voucher for any unused game  plays and/or winnings, the player device shall meet the following rules: 
    1. The printer shall be located in a secure area of the  player device, but shall not be located in the logic area or any cash storage  area. The bill acceptor stacker or logic areas containing critical electronic  components shall not be accessed when the printer paper is changed; 
    2. The player device, in which the printer is housed, is  linked to a voucher validation system, which records the voucher information;  and
    3. Data printed on a voucher shall be provided to the  voucher validation system that records the following information regarding each  voucher printed: 
    a. Value of unused game plays and/or winnings in U.S.  currency, in numerical form; 
    b. Time the voucher was printed; 
    c. Date the voucher was printed; 
    d. Location name or site identifier;
    e. Serial number of player device; 
    f. Unique validation number or barcode; and 
    g. Expiration date and time. 
    B. If the player device is capable of printing a duplicate  voucher, the duplicate voucher shall clearly state the word "DUPLICATE"  on its face. 
    C. The printer shall use printer paper containing security  features such as a watermark as approved by the department. 
    D. A printer shall have mechanisms to allow the player  device to interpret and act upon the following conditions that must disable the  game, and produce an error condition that requires attendant intervention to  resume play: 
    1. Out of paper; 
    2. Printer jam or failure; and 
    3. Printer disconnect. The player device may detect this  error condition when the game tries to print. 
    E. A player device that uses a voucher printer shall  maintain a minimum of the last 25 transactions in critical memory. All voucher  transactions shall be logged with a date and time stamp. 
    11VAC15-40-400. Payment by account.
    A. Credit may be added to a player account via a cashier  or point of sale station. Credit may also be added by any supporting player  device through credits won or bills. 
    B. Money may be removed from a player account either  through downloading of credits to the player device or by cashing out at a  cashier's or point-of-sale station. 
    C. All monetary transactions between a supporting player  device and the distributed pull-tab system must be secured by means of a card  insertion into a magnetic card reader and PIN entry or by other protected  means. 
    Article 3
  Game Requirements
    11VAC15-40-410. Game play requirements.
    A. A player receives an electronic game card in return for  consideration. A player wins if the player's electronic game card contains a  combination of symbols or numbers that was designated in advance of the game as  a winning combination. There may be multiple winning combinations in each game.  Electronic versions of instant bingo and pull-tabs, as authorized by the  department, shall only utilize devices that allow players to play electronic  game cards. A player device shall meet the following minimum requirements: 
    1. A player may purchase an opportunity to play an  electronic game card by: 
    a. Insertion of U.S. currency (bills only);
    b. Purchase made at a point of sale terminal; or 
    c. Withdrawing deposits available in a player account. 
    2. In addition to the available games, the rules of play  shall be displayed on the player device's video screen. Rules of play shall  include all winning combinations. 
    3. Any number of game themes may be selectable for play on  any given player device. Only one of the game themes shall be playable at any  given time. 
    4. A player device shall be clearly labeled so as to inform  the public that no one under 18 years of age is allowed to play. 
    5. A player device shall not be capable of displaying any  enticing animation while in an idle state. A player device may use simple  display elements or screen savers to prevent monitor damage. 
    6. The results of the electronic game card shall be shown to  the player using a video display. No rolling, flashing, or spinning animations  are permitted. No rotating reels marked into horizontal segments by varying  symbols are permitted. No entertaining sound or music is permitted other than  an audio effect to simulate the opening of a paper pull-tab or instant bingo  card. Any sounds present used to simulate the opening of a paper pull-tab must  not be played at a level sufficient to disturb other players or patrons. 
    7. The player device shall have one or more buttons,  electromechanical or touch screen, to facilitate the following functions: 
    a. Viewing of the game "help" screens; 
    b. Viewing of the game rules; 
    c. Initiating game play; 
    d. Cashout or logout; and 
    e. One or more buttons designated to reveal the pull-tab or  instant bingo windows. 
    8. Following play on a player device, the result shall be  clearly shown on the video display along with any prizes that may have been  awarded. Prizes may be dispensed in the form of: 
    a. Voucher;
    b. Added to the machine balance meter; or 
    c. Added to the player's account balance. 
    9. An available balance may be collected from the player  device by the player pressing the "cashout" button or logging off of  the player device at any time other than during: 
    a. A game being played; 
    b. While in an audit mode or screen; 
    c. Any door open; 
    d. Test mode; 
    e. A machine balance meter or win meter incrementation  unless the entire amount is placed on the meter when the "cashout"  button is pressed; or 
    f. An error condition. 
    10. The default player device display, upon entering game  play mode, shall not be the top award. 
    B. A player device shall not have hardware or software  that determines the outcome of any electronic game card, produce its own  outcome, or affect the order of electronic game cards as dispensed from the  distributed pull-tab system. The game outcome shall be determined by the  distributed pull-tab system as outlined within these rules. 
    C. Game themes may not contain obscene or offensive  graphics, animations, or references. All game themes will be subject to  approval by the department. 
    D. Prior to approval for use, each player device must meet  the following specifications with respect to its operation: 
    1. After accepting an allowable cash payment from the  player, the player shall press a "play" button to initiate a game.
    2. The player device shall not display in any manner, the  number of electronic game cards of each finite category, or how many cards  remain.
    3. Awards of merchandise prizes in lieu of cash are  prohibited.
    4. The player must interact with the device to initiate a  game and reveal a win or loss. This may involve a button press on the console  or on the touch screen.
    5. The electronic game card must be initially displayed  with a cover and require player interaction to reveal the symbols and game  outcome.
    6. In no event may a player device simulate play of  roulette, poker, keno, lotto or lottery, twenty-one, blackjack, or any other  card game, or simulate play of any type of slot machine game, regardless of  whether the machine has a payback feature or extra play awards. Card symbols  such as ace, king, queen, or heart are acceptable, provided the aforementioned  is abided by.
    7. Games must not contain any elements of skill. 
    E. Each player device must meet the following  specifications with respect to its metering system: 
    1. A player device shall contain electronic metering  whereby meters record and display on the video screen the following information  at a minimum: 
    a. Total cash in for the bill acceptor if equipped with a  bill acceptor; 
    b. Total cash played; 
    c. Total cash won; 
    d. Total cash removed from player device; 
    e. Total count of electronic game cards played; and 
    f. Total count of electronic game cards won. 
    2. An electronic meter shall be capable of maintaining  correct totals and be of no less than 10 digits in length. 
    3. A player device shall not be capable of displaying the  number of electronic game cards that remain in the game set or the number of  winners or losers that have been drawn or still remain in the game set while  the game set is still being played. 
    4. An electronic meter shall not be capable of being  automatically reset or cleared, whether due to an error in any aspect of the  meter's or a game's operation or otherwise. 
    5. Currency meters shall be maintained in dollars and  cents.
    Part V
  Administrative Process
    11VAC15-40-420. Procedural rules for the conduct of  fact-finding conferences and hearings.
    A. Fact-finding conference; notification, appearance, and  conduct. 
    1. Unless automatic revocation or immediate suspension is  required by law, no permit to conduct charitable gaming or to sell charitable  gaming supplies shall be denied, suspended, or revoked except after review and  approval of such proposed denial, suspension, or revocation action by the  board, and upon notice stating the basis for such proposed action and the time  and place for a fact-finding conference as set forth in § 2.2-4019 of the  Administrative Process Act.
    2. If a basis exists for a refusal to renew, suspend, or a  revoke a permit, the department shall notify by certified mail or by hand  delivery the interested persons at the address of record maintained by the  department. 
    3. Notification shall include the basis for the proposed  action and afford interested persons the opportunity to present written and  oral information to the department that may have a bearing on the proposed  action at a fact-finding conference. If there is no withdrawal, a fact-finding  conference shall be scheduled at the earliest mutually agreeable date, but no  later than 60 days from the date of the notification. Organizations or  suppliers who wish to waive their right to a conference shall notify the  department at least 14 days before the scheduled conference. 
    4. If, after consideration of evidence presented during an  informal fact-finding conference, a basis for action still exists, the  interested persons shall be notified in writing within 60 days of the  fact-finding conference via certified or hand-delivered mail of the decision  and the right to a formal hearing. Parties to the conference may agree to  extend the report deadline if more time is needed to consider relevant  evidence. 
    B. Hearing; notification, appearance, and conduct. 
    1. If, after a fact-finding conference, a sufficient basis  still exists to deny, suspend, or revoke a permit, interested persons shall be  notified by certified or hand-delivered mail of the proposed action and of the  opportunity for a hearing on the proposed action. If an organization or  supplier desires to request a hearing, it shall notify the department within 14  days of receipt of a report on the conference. Parties may enter into a consent  agreement to settle the issues at any time prior to, or subsequent to, an  informal fact-finding conference. 
    2. If an interested party or representative fails to appear  at a hearing, the hearing officer may proceed in his absence and make a  recommendation. 
    3. Oral and written arguments may be submitted to and  limited by the hearing officer. Oral arguments shall be recorded in an appropriate  manner. 
    C. Hearing location. Hearings before a hearing officer  shall be held, insofar as practicable, in the county or city in which the  organization or supplier is located. If the parties agree, hearing officers may  conduct hearings at locations convenient to the greatest number of persons or  by telephone conference, video conference, or similar technology, in order to  expedite the hearing process. 
    D. Hearing decisions. 
    1. Recommendations of the hearing officer shall be a part  of the record and shall include a written statement of the hearing officer's  findings of fact and recommendations as well as the reasons or basis for the  recommendations. Recommendations shall be based upon all the material issues of  fact, law, or discretion presented on the record. 
    2. The department shall review the recommendation of the  hearing officer and render a decision on the recommendation within 30 days of  receipt. The decision shall cite the appropriate rule, relief, or denial  thereof as to each issue. 
    E. Agency representation. The commissioner's designee may  represent the department in an informal conference or at a hearing. 
    11VAC15-40-430. Reporting violations.
    A. Unless otherwise required by law, the identity of any  individual who provides information to the department or its agents regarding  alleged violations shall be held in strict confidence. 
    B. Any officer, director, or game manager of a qualified  organization or any officer or director of a supplier shall immediately report  to the department any information pertaining to the suspected misappropriation  or theft of funds or any other violations of charitable gaming statutes or  these regulations. 
    C. Failure to report the information required by  subsection B of this section may result in the denial, suspension, or  revocation of a permit. 
    D. Any officer, director, or game manager of a qualified  organization involved in the management, operation, or conduct of charitable  gaming shall immediately notify the department upon conviction of a felony or a  crime involving fraud, theft, or financial crimes. 
    E. Any officer, director, partner, or owner of a supplier  shall immediately notify the department upon conviction or plea of nolo  contendere to a felony or a crime involving gambling or an action against any  license or certificate held by the supplier in any state in the United States.
    F. Failure to report information required by subsection D  or E of this section by any officer, director, or game manager of a qualified  organization or by any supplier may result in the denial, suspension, or  revocation of a permit. 
    G. Any officer, director, or game manager of a qualified  organization involved in charitable gaming shall immediately report to the  department any change the Internal Revenue Service makes in the tax status of  the organization, or if the organization is a chapter of a national  organization covered by a group tax exempt determination, the tax status of the  national organization. 
    H. All organizations regulated by the department shall  display prominently a poster advising the public of a phone number where  complaints relating to charitable gaming may be made. Such posters shall be  provided by the department to organizations at no charge.
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name to access a form. The forms are  also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar  of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (11VAC15-40)
    GAME MANAGEMENT FORMS
    Bingo  Session Reconciliation Summary, Form 103 (rev. 1/11).
    Admission  Sales Reconciliation - Paper, Form 104-A (rev. 1/11).
    Floor  Sales Reconciliation - Paper, Form 104-B (rev. 1/11).
    Decision  Bingo Reconciliation, Form 104-C (rev. 1/11).
    Raffle/Treasure  Chest Sales Reconciliation - Bingo Session, Form 104-D (rev. 1/11).
    Instant  Bingo/Seal Cards/Pull-Tabs Reconciliation, Form 105 (rev. 1/11) .
    Storeroom  Inventory Issue - Paper, Form 106-A (rev. 7/08).
    Storeroom  Inventory Issue - Instant Bingo/Seal Cards/Pull-Tabs, Form 106-B (rev. 7/08).
    List  of Volunteer Workers, Form 107 (rev. 7/08).
    Prize  Receipt, Form 108 (rev. 7/08).
    Storeroom  Inventory - Paper, Form 109-A (rev. 1/11).
    Storeroom  Inventory - Instant Bingo/Seal Cards/Pull-Tabs, Form 109-B (rev. 1/11) .
    ORGANIZATION LICENSING FORMS 
    Charitable  Gaming Permit Application - New Applicants Only, Form 201 - N (rev. 1/11).
    Charitable  Gaming Permit Application - Renewal Applicants Only, Form 201 - R (rev. 1/11).
    Permit  Amendment (rev. 1/11).
    Gaming  Personnel Information Update (rev. 7/08).
    Report  of Game Termination (rev. 7/08).
    SUPPLIER LICENSING FORMS
    Charitable  Gaming Supplier Permit Application, Form 301 (rev. 1/11).
    Annual  Supplier Sales and Transaction Report, Form 302 (rev. 7/08).
    BINGO MANAGER AND BINGO CALLER REGISTRATION FORMS
    Charitable Gaming Bingo  Caller Certificate of Registration Application, Form 401 (rev. 1/11).
    Charitable Gaming Bingo  Manager Certificate of Registration Application, Form 402 (rev. 1/11).
    Amendment  to Certificate of Registration – Registered Bingo Callers and Bingo Managers  (rev. 1/11).
    Personal  Information Update – Registered Bingo Callers and Registered Bingo Managers,  Form 404 (rev. 7/07).
    Bona  Fide Member Verification, Form 405 (rev. 5/11).
    DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (11VAC15-40)
    IRS  Publication 3079, Tax-Exempt Organizations and Gaming (rev. 6/10).
    Security  Requirements for Cryptographic Modules, Federal Information Processing  Standard, FIPS Pub 140-2 (rev. 12/02).
    VA.R. Doc. No. R11-2560; Filed October 19, 2011, 2:33 p.m. 
TITLE 11. GAMING
CHARITABLE GAMING BOARD
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 11VAC15-22. Charitable Gaming  Rules and Regulations (repealing 11VAC15-22-10 through  11VAC15-22-120).
    11VAC15-31. Supplier Regulations (repealing 11VAC15-31-10 through  11VAC15-31-60).
    11VAC15-40. Charitable Gaming Regulations (adding 11VAC15-40-10 through 11VAC15-40-430). 
    Statutory Authority: § 18.2-340.15 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information:
    December 13, 2011 - 10:15 a.m. - Oliver Hill Building, 102  Governor Street, 2nd Floor Board Room, Richmond, VA
    Public Comment Deadline: January 6, 2012.
    Agency Contact: Erin Williams, Policy and Planning  Coordinator, Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, P.O. Box 1163,  Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 786-1308, FAX (804) 371-7479, TTY (800)  828-1120, or email erin.williams@vdacs.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 18.2-340.15 of the Code of Virginia  authorizes the Charitable Gaming Board to prescribe regulations and conditions  under which charitable gaming is conducted in Virginia to ensure consistency  with the purpose for which such gaming is permitted. Additionally, Chapter 264  of the 2007 Acts of Assembly amended the statute by requiring changes to the  charitable gaming regulations in order to implement electronic games of chance  systems. The Charitable Gaming Board approved the promulgation of a single  regulation that will consolidate the two current regulations and provide for  the implementation of regulations regarding electronic games of chance systems.  
    Purpose: The existence of two separate but closely  interrelated regulations governing charitable gaming has resulted in  duplicative, burdensome, and unnecessarily lengthy efforts in those instances  when the agency has had to amend both regulations in response to a single  change in the statute, as was the case with the passage of HB 1998 (Chapter 264  of the 2007 Acts of Assembly). The promulgation of a single, consolidated  regulation will greatly facilitate the agency's administration of the  charitable gaming program. 
    Proponents of the legislation that resulted in the  authorization of electronic games of chance systems in the Commonwealth have  indicated that charitable gaming organizations will see significant increases  in both attendance and revenues through the offering of electronic pull-tabs at  their gaming events. Attendance at charitable gaming events has dropped  considerably in the last few years, in some cases by as much as 40%, on account  of changing demographics, as well as the economic downturn. The ability to  offer electronic pull-tabs is expected to attract younger players to bingo  halls across Virginia, to lower the gaming organizations overhead costs through  reduced expenses for paper supplies, and to improve the organizations ability  to meet the 10% use of proceeds required by the Charitable Gaming Board.
    Substance: The proposed regulation consolidates the  substance of the current regulation titled Charitable Gaming Rules and Regulations,  11VAC15-22, as well as the substance of the current regulation titled Supplier  Regulations, 11VAC15-31. Substantive changes include the addition of provisions  regarding full automatic daubing of bingo numbers and progressive bingo games,  both of which were authorized by Chapter 429 of the 2010 Acts of Assembly. The  proposed regulations reduce the time required between gaming activities from  one hour to 30 minutes. The existing regulations pertaining to electronic bingo  devices (which are devices that support conventional bingo games and should not  be confused with devices that support electronic pull-tabs) were modified to  permit the use of electronic bingo device systems that do not identify at the  point of sale the number of the electronic bingo device issued to the player. 
    The section pertaining to electronic games of chance systems  includes rules for the conduct of electronic games of chance, requirements for  manufacturers and suppliers of electronic games of chance systems, and  construction and other standards for electronic games of chance systems.
    Issues: The inclusion of provisions pertaining to  electronic games of chance systems will provide charitable gaming organizations  a new option to promote greater attendance at their gaming events. Greater  attendance should increase the revenue organizations generate from their  charitable gaming activities, which, in turn, should facilitate compliance with  applicable requirements regarding the charitable use of organizations proceeds.  
    The promulgation of a single, consolidated regulation will  greatly facilitate the agency's administration of the charitable gaming program  by eliminating the need for duplicative regulatory actions due to the existence  of two interrelated regulations. 
    Special interest groups are monitoring the progress of this  regulation to ensure that it does not lead to casino-style gambling or expand  the type of gaming that is allowed in the Commonwealth. The agency has involved  these stakeholders during relevant discussions; the agency is not aware of  specific concerns with the proposed regulations. 
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Virginia  Charitable Gaming Board (Board) proposes to consolidate two separate  regulations, Charitable Gaming Rules and Regulations, 11VAC15-22, and Supplier  Regulations, 11VAC15-31, into one regulation that will also establish rules  regarding electronic games of chance systems for charitable gaming. 
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  one or more proposed changes. There is insufficient data to accurately compare  the magnitude of the benefits versus the costs for other changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Chapter 264 of the 2007 Virginia  Acts of Assembly authorized the use of electronic games of chance, also known  as electronic pull tabs, by charitable gaming organizations. The chapter also  specifies that no person shall offer to sell, sell or otherwise provide  charitable gaming supplies to any qualified organization and no manufacturer  shall distribute electronic games of chance systems for charitable gaming in  the Commonwealth unless and until such person has made application for and has  been issued a permit by the Department (of Agriculture and Consumer Services).  In practice electronic games of chance have not yet been available for  charitable gaming since the Board has not yet promulgated regulations that  would enable the issuing of a permit for the distribution of electronic games  of chance. In the current action the Board proposes rules that would enable the  distribution and use of electronic games of chance to go forward.
    In calendar year 2009, the most recent year data is available,  there were $279 million in gross receipts for charitable gaming in Virginia.1  Based on the experiences of other states which introduced electronic pull tabs,  the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services (Department)  expects gross receipts from charitable gaming to at least triple with the  advent of electronic pull tabs. Manufacturers and suppliers of electronic games  of chance will certainly benefit with increased business. Purchasing and using  electronic games of chance for fundraising is of course optional for charitable  organizations; so the charitable organizations will only purchase and use them  if they believe they will provide a net benefit through increased revenue  available for their charitable purposes. A significant portion of Virginians  believe that there is a negative impact on morality associated with gambling.  The introduction and use of electronic pull tabs will very likely increase at  least the dollar value of gambling in Virginia. It is beyond the scope of this  analysis to compare the benefits of increased business for manufacturers and suppliers  of electronic games of chance and the benefits of increased revenue for  charitable organizations to use for their charitable purposes to the potential  negative moral impact of increased gambling. That is intrinsically a subjective  value judgment. 
    The Board proposes several other changes that will have some  impact. The fee for a permit change would be eliminated. This is obviously  beneficial for permit holders. The Board believes funds for operation are  sufficient without charging this fee. The Department would use compliance  agreements rather than consent orders and remedial business plans rather than  corrective action plans. This would be less heavy handed and would likely  create a more cooperative relationship between the Department and charitable organizations.  The required break between charitable gaming activities would be reduced from  one hour to 30 minutes. This would enable more time to be devoted to  fundraising while still allotting sufficient transition time between charitable  organizations. All of these changes provide benefit without significant cost.
    Specific dollar amounts included in the current regulations  that are prescribed by the Code of Virginia would be replaced by references to  sections of the Code that prescribe these amounts. This is beneficial since  when and if these dollar amounts are changed in the Code the dollar amounts  currently listed in the regulations would then be in conflict with the Code.  When the Code and regulations conflict, the Code prevails. Thus, persons who read  the regulations would be misled under these circumstances. Amending regulations  can take a significant amount of time. Thus, replacing specified dollar amounts  included in the current regulations that are prescribed by the Code with  references to sections of the Code that prescribe these amounts would enable  the regulations to always be accurate concerning the effective legal dollar  figures. Thus this proposed change clearly provides a net benefit.
    The current regulations state that volunteer game workers may  not play bingo at any session they have worked or purchase instant bingo,  pull-tab, or seal card products from organizations they assist on the day they  have volunteered or from any deal they have helped sell, whichever is later.  Under the proposed regulations, no one involved in the conduct of bingo may  play bingo at any session they have worked or intend to work. No one involved  in the sale or redemption of any instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or  electronic game cards may purchase directly or through others instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal card, or electronic game card products from organizations they  assist on the day they have worked or from any deal they have helped sell or  redeem, whichever occurs later. Thus paid workers as well as volunteers are  prohibited from gambling in games in which they work on the days they work as  well as deals they have helped sell or redeem. Paid workers and volunteers  could still gamble on other days provided that the games are not deals they  have helped sell or redeem. This proposed change does introduce a new  limitation on paid workers, but it seems a reasonable change to help ensure  fairness while still permitting paid workers the opportunity to participate in  games in which they are not directly involved. 
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed regulations will  potentially affect the approximate 400 qualified charitable gaming  organizations and 19 charitable gaming suppliers in the Commonwealth as well as  manufacturers of electronic games of chance systems. The Virginia Department of  Agriculture and Consumer Services estimates that the majority of the charitable  gaming suppliers are small businesses.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do  not disproportionately affect particular localities.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal to establish rules  for electronic games of chance systems will enable the distribution and use of  electronic games of chance to go forward. This will likely significantly  increase business for manufacturers and suppliers of electronic games of  chance. Employment at some of these firms will likely moderately increase. 
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposal  to establish rules for electronic games of chance systems will enable the  distribution and use of electronic games of chance to go forward. This will  likely significantly increase business for manufacturers and suppliers of  electronic games of chance. The net value of these firms will likely increase.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed  amendments are unlikely to increase costs for small businesses.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. The proposed amendments are unlikely to significantly adversely affect  small businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number  14 (10). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or  other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any  localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the  projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the  projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with  the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the  regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect  of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any  less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of  the regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of  these economic impacts.
    ____________________________
    1Data source: Virginia Department of Agriculture and  Consumer Services
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services concurs with the analysis of  the Department of Planning and Budget.
    Summary:
    The proposed regulation consists of five parts pertaining  to (i) definitions, (ii) charitable gaming organizations and the conduct of  charitable gaming, (iii) charitable gaming suppliers, (iv) electronic games of  chance systems, and (v) administrative process. 
    The section pertaining to charitable gaming organizations  and the conduct of charitable gaming reflects the substance of the current  regulation titled Charitable Gaming Rules and Regulations, 11VAC15-22. The  section pertaining to charitable gaming suppliers reflects the substance of the  current regulation titled Supplier Regulations, 11VAC15-31. The section  pertaining to electronic games of chance systems includes rules for the conduct  of electronic games of chance, requirements for manufacturers and suppliers of  electronic games of chance systems, and construction and other standards for  electronic games of chance systems. The sections pertaining to definitions and  the administrative process consolidate the definitions and administrative  process sections found in the current regulations, 11VAC15-22 and 11VAC15-31.
    CHAPTER 40
  CHARITABLE GAMING REGULATIONS
    Part 1
  Definitions
    11VAC15-40-10. Definitions.
    In addition to the definitions contained in  § 18.2-340.16 of the Code of Virginia, the words and terms below when used  in this regulation shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly  indicates otherwise: 
    "Agent" means any person authorized by a  supplier to act for or in place of such supplier. 
    "Board" means the Virginia Charitable Gaming  Board. 
    "Board of directors" means the board of  directors, managing committee, or other supervisory body of a qualified  organization. 
    "Calendar day" means the period of 24  consecutive hours commencing at 12:01 a.m. and concluding at midnight. 
    "Calendar week" means the period of seven  consecutive calendar days commencing at 12:01 a.m. on Sunday and ending at  midnight the following Saturday. 
    "Cash" means United States currency or coinage. 
    "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of the  Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services.
    "Concealed face bingo card" means a nonreusable  bingo card constructed to conceal the card face. 
    "Conduct" means the actions associated with the  provision of a gaming operation during and immediately before or after the  permitted activity, which may include, but not be limited to (i) selling bingo  cards or packs, electronic devices, instant bingo or pull-tab cards, or raffle  tickets; (ii) calling bingo games; (iii) distributing prizes; and (iv) any  other services provided by volunteer workers. 
    "Control program" means software involved in any  critical game function.
    "Daubing" means covering a square containing a number  called with indelible ink or otherwise marking a number called on a card or an  electronic facsimile of a card. 
    "Deal" means each separate package or series of  packages consisting of one game of instant bingo, pull-tabs, or seal cards with  the same serial number. 
    "Decision bingo" means a bingo game where the  cost to a player to play is dependent on the number of bingo numbers called and  the prize payout is in direct relationship to the number of participants and  the number of bingo numbers called, but shall not exceed statutory prize limits  for a regular bingo game. 
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Agriculture and Consumer Services, Division of Consumer Protection, Office of  Charitable Gaming. 
    "Designator" means an object used in the number  selection process, such as a ping-pong ball, upon which bingo letters and  numbers are imprinted. 
    "Discount" means any reduction in cost of  admission or game packs or any other purchases through use of coupons, free  packs, or other similar methods. 
    "Disinterested player" means a player who is  unbiased. 
    "Disposable paper card" means a nonreusable,  paper bingo card manufactured with preprinted numbers. 
    "Distributed pull-tab system" means a computer  system consisting of a computer or computers and associated equipment for the  use of distributing a finite number of electronic instant bingo and/or pull-tab  outcomes (i.e., electronic game cards), a certain number of which entitle a  player to prize awards at various levels. 
    "Door prize" means any prize awarded by the  random drawing or random selection of a name or number based solely on  attendance at a gaming session. 
    "Electronic bingo device" means an electronic  device that uses proprietary software or hardware or, in conjunction with  commonly available software and computers, displays facsimiles of bingo cards  and allows a player to daub such cards or allows for the automatic daubing of  such cards. 
    "Electronic game card" means an electronic  version of a single instant bingo card or pull-tab. An electronic game card is  a predetermined game outcome in electronic form, distributed on-demand from a  finite number of game outcomes by a distributed pull-tab system. 
    "Equipment and video systems" means equipment  that facilitates the conduct of charitable gaming such as ball blowers,  flashboards, electronic verifiers, and replacement parts for such equipment. 
    "Event game" means a bingo game that is played  using instant bingo cards or pull-tabs in which the winners include both  instant winners and winners who are determined by the random draw of a bingo  ball, the random call of a bingo number, or the use of a seal card, and that is  sold and played to completion during a single bingo session.
    "Fiscal year" or "annual reporting  period" means the 12-month period beginning January 1 and ending December  31 of any given year. 
    "Flare" means a piece of paper, cardboard, or  similar material that bears printed information relating to the name of the  manufacturer or logo, name of the game, card count, cost per play, serial number,  the number of prizes to be awarded, and the specific prize amounts in a deal of  instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal cards. 
    "Free space number," "perm number,"  "center number," "card number," or "face number"  means the number generally printed in the center space of a bingo card that  identifies the unique pattern of numbers printed on that card. 
    "Game program" means a written list of all games  to be played including, but not limited to, the sales price of all bingo paper  and electronic bingo devices, pack configuration, prize amounts to be paid  during a session for each game, and an indication whether prize amounts are  fixed or are based on attendance. 
    "Game set" means the entire pool of electronic  game cards that contains predefined and randomized game results assigned under  a unique serial number. This term is equivalent to "deal" or  "deck."
    "Game subset" means a division of a game set  into equal sizes.
    "Gaming activity" means one bingo session and  the sale and redemption of instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or electronic  game cards done in conjunction with that bingo session and in accordance with  the provisions of this chapter.
    "Immediate family" means one's spouse, parent,  child, sibling, grandchild, grandparent, mother or father-in-law, or stepchild.  
    "Interested persons" means the president, an  officer, or a bingo manager of any qualified organization that is exempt or is  a permit applicant or holds a permit to conduct charitable gaming; or the  owner, director, officer or partner of an entity engaged in supplying  charitable gaming supplies to organizations. 
    "IRS" means the United States Internal Revenue  Service. 
    "Management" means the provision of oversight of  a gaming operation, which may include, but is not limited to, the  responsibilities of applying for and maintaining a permit or authorization;  compiling, submitting, and maintaining required records and financial reports;  and ensuring that all aspects of the operation are in compliance with all  applicable statutes and regulations. 
    "Manufacturer" means a person who or entity that  assembles from raw materials or subparts a completed piece of bingo or other  charitable gaming equipment or supplies. "Manufacturer" also means a  person who or entity that modifies, converts, adds, or removes parts to or from  bingo or other charitable gaming equipment or supplies to further their  promotion or sale for the conduct of charitable gaming. 
    "OCG number" means a unique identification  number issued by the department.
    "Operation" means the activities associated with  production of a charitable gaming activity, which may include, but is not  limited to, (i) the direct on-site supervision of the conduct of charitable  gaming; (ii) coordination of volunteers; and (iii) all responsibilities of  charitable gaming designated by the organization's management. 
    "Owner" means any individual with financial  interest of 10% or more in a supplier. 
    "Pack" means sheets of bingo paper or electronic  facsimiles assembled in the order of games to be played. This shall not include  any raffle. 
    "Player device" means an electronic unit that  may take the form of an upright cabinet or a handheld device or may be of any  other composition as approved by the department used to facilitate the play of  electronic instant bingo or pull-tab games.
    "Prize" means cash, merchandise, certificate, or  other item of value awarded to a winning player. 
    "Progressive bingo" means a bingo game in which  the prize is carried forward to the next game if a predetermined pattern is not  completed within a specified number of bingo numbers called.
    "Progressive seal card" means a seal card game  in which a prize is carried forward to the next deal if not won when a deal is  completed. 
    "Remuneration" means payment in cash or the  provision of anything of value for goods provided or services rendered. 
    "Seal card" means a board or placard used in  conjunction with a deal of the same serial number that contains one or more  concealed areas that, when removed or opened, reveal a predesignated winning  number, letter, or symbol located on that board or placard. 
    "Selection device" means a manually or  mechanically operated device to randomly select bingo numbers. 
    "Serial number" means a unique number printed by  the manufacturer on each bingo card in a set; each instant bingo, pull-tab, or  seal card in a deal; each electronic bingo device; or each door prize ticket. 
    "Series number" means the number of unique card  faces contained in a set of disposable bingo paper cards or bingo hard cards. A  9000 series, for example, has 9000 unique faces. 
    "Session" means a period of time during which  one or more bingo games are conducted that begins with the selection of the  first ball for the first game and ends with the selection of the last ball for  the last game. 
    "Treasure chest" means a raffle including a  locked treasure chest containing a prize that a participant, selected through  some other authorized charitable game, is afforded the chance to select from a  series of keys a predetermined key that will open the locked treasure chest to win  a prize. 
    "Use of proceeds" means the use of funds derived  by an organization from its charitable gaming activities, which are disbursed  for those lawful religious, charitable, community, or educational purposes.  This includes expenses relating to the acquisition, construction, maintenance,  or repair of any interest in the real property involved in the operation of the  organization and used for lawful religious, charitable, community, or  educational purposes. 
    "Voucher" means a printed ticket tendered to the  player, upon request, for any unused game plays and/or winnings that remain on  the player device. 
    "WINGO" means a variation of a traditional bingo  game that uses visual devices rather than a verbal caller and is intended for  play by hearing impaired persons. 
    Part II
  Charitable Gaming Organizations
    Article 1
  Permits
    11VAC15-40-20. Eligibility for permit to conduct charitable  gaming; when valid; permit requirements.
    A. The conduct of charitable gaming is a privilege that  may be granted or denied by the department. Except as  provided in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia, every eligible  organization, volunteer fire department, and rescue squad with anticipated  gross gaming receipts that exceed  the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia in any  12-month period shall obtain a permit from the department prior to the  commencement of charitable gaming activities. To be eligible for a permit an  organization must meet all of the requirements of § 18.2-340.24 of the  Code of Virginia.
    B. Pursuant to § 18.2-340.24 B of the Code of Virginia, the  department shall review a tax exempt request submitted to the IRS for a tax  exempt status determination and may issue an interim certification of  tax-exempt status solely for the purpose of charitable gaming, conditioned upon  a determination by the IRS. The department shall charge the fee set forth in  § 18.2-340.24 B of the Code of Virginia for this review. The fee shall be  payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
    C. A permit shall be valid only for activities, locations,  days, dates, and times as listed on the permit. 
    D. In accordance with § 18.2-340.19 A 1 of the Code  of Virginia, as a condition of receiving a permit, a minimum of 10% of  charitable gaming gross receipts shall be used for (i) those lawful religious,  charitable, community, or educational purposes for which the organization is  specifically chartered or organized or (ii) those expenses relating to the  acquisition, construction, maintenance, or repair of any interest in real  property involved in the operation of the organization and used for lawful  religious, charitable, community, or educational purposes.
    E. If an organization fails to meet the minimum use of  proceeds requirement, its permit may be suspended or revoked. However, the  department shall not suspend or revoke the permit of any organization solely  because of its failure to meet the required percentage without having first  provided the organization with an opportunity to implement a corrective action  plan. 
    F. An organization may request a temporary reduction in  the predetermined percentage specified in subsection D of this section from the  department. In reviewing such a request, the department shall consider such  factors appropriate to and consistent with the purpose of charitable gaming,  which may include, but not be limited to, (i) the organization's overall  financial condition; (ii) the length of time the organization has been involved  in charitable gaming; (iii) the extent of the deficiency; and (iv) the progress  that the organization has made in attaining the minimum percentage in  accordance with a corrective action plan pursuant to subsection E of this  section. 
    G. An organization whose permit is revoked for failure to  comply with provisions set forth in subsection D of this section shall be  eligible to reapply for a permit at the end of one year from the date of  revocation. The department, at its discretion, may issue the permit if it is  satisfied that the organization has made substantial efforts towards meeting  its corrective action plan. 
    11VAC15-40-30. Permit application process.
    A. Any organization anticipating gross gaming receipts  that exceed the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia  shall complete a department-prescribed application to request issuance or renewal  of an annual permit to conduct charitable gaming. Organizations shall submit a  nonrefundable fee payable to the Treasurer of Virginia in the amount of $200  with the application, unless the organization is exempt from such fee pursuant  to § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The department may initiate action against any  organization exempt from permit requirements when it reasonably believes the  organization is not in compliance with the provisions of charitable gaming laws  or applicable regulations, or both, of the board. 
    C. Permit holders requiring a special permit pursuant to  § 18.2-340.27 E of the Code of Virginia shall convey their request on a  form prescribed by the department. Organizations shall submit a fee payable to  the Treasurer of Virginia in the amount of $50 with the request for a special  permit, unless the organization is exempt from such fee pursuant to  § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia.
    D. Permits shall be valid for a period of one year from  the date of issuance or for a period specified on the permit. The department  may issue permits for periods of less than one year. 
    E. Permits shall be granted only after a background  investigation of an organization or interested persons, or both, to ensure  public safety and welfare as required by § 18.2-340.25 of the Code of  Virginia. Investigations shall consider the nature, the age and severity, and  the potential harm to public safety and welfare of any criminal offenses. The  investigation may include, but shall not be limited to, the following: 
    1. A search of Virginia criminal history records for the  chief executive officer and chief financial officer of the organization.  Information and authorization to conduct these records checks shall be provided  in the permit application. In addition, the department shall require that the  organization provides assurances that all other members involved in the  management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming meet the requirements of  subdivision 13 of § 18.2-340.33 of the Code of Virginia. Applications may  be denied if: 
    a. Any person participating in the management of any  charitable gaming has ever been: 
    (1) Convicted of a felony; or 
    (2) Convicted of any misdemeanor involving fraud, theft, or  financial crimes within the preceding five years. 
    b. Any person participating in the conduct of charitable  gaming has been: 
    (1) Convicted of any felony in the preceding 10 years; or 
    (2) Convicted of any misdemeanor involving fraud, theft, or  financial crimes within the preceding five years; 
    2. An inquiry as to whether the organization has been  granted tax-exempt status pursuant to § 501(c) by the Internal Revenue Service  and is in compliance with IRS annual filing requirements; 
    3. An inquiry as to whether the organization has entered  into any contract with, or has otherwise employed for compensation, any persons  for the purpose of organizing or managing, operating, or conducting any  charitable gaming activity; 
    4. Inquiries into the finances and activities of the  organization and the sources and uses of funds; and 
    5. Inquiries into the level of community or financial  support to the organization and the level of community involvement in the  membership and management of the organization. 
    F. The permit application for an organization that has not  previously held a permit shall include: 
    1. A list of members participating in the management or  operation of charitable gaming. For any organization that is not composed of  members, a person who is not a bona fide member may volunteer in the conduct of  a charitable game as long as that person is directly supervised by a bona fide  official member of the organization; 
    2. A copy of the articles of incorporation, bylaws,  charter, constitution, or other appropriate organizing document; 
    3. A copy of the determination letter issued by the IRS  under § 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code, if appropriate, or a letter from  the national office of an organization indicating the applicant organization is  in good standing and is currently covered by a group exemption ruling. A letter  of good standing is not required if the applicable national or state office has  furnished the department with a listing of member organizations in good  standing in the Commonwealth as of January 1 of each year and has agreed to  promptly provide the department any changes to the listing as they occur; 
    4. A copy of the organization's most recent annual  financial statement and balance sheet or most recent Form 990 that has been  filed with the IRS; 
    5. A copy of the written lease or proposed written lease  agreement and all other agreements if the organization rents or intends to rent  a facility where bingo is or will be conducted. Information on the lease shall  include name, address, and phone number of the landlord; maximum occupancy of  the building; and the rental amount per session; and 
    6. An authorization by an officer or other appropriate  official of the organization to permit the department to determine whether the  organization has been investigated or examined by the IRS in connection with  charitable gaming activities during the previous three years. 
    G. Copies of minutes of meetings of the organization and  any contracts with landlords or suppliers to which the organization is or may  be a party may be requested by the department prior to rendering a permitting  decision. 
    H. Organizations applying to renew a permit previously  issued by the department shall submit articles of incorporation, bylaws,  charter, constitution, or other organizing document, and IRS determination  letter only if there are any amendments or changes to these documents that are  directly related to the management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming.  
    I. Organizations may request permits to conduct joint  bingo games as provided in § 18.2-340.29 of the Code of Virginia.
    1. In the case of a joint game, all the organizations shall  file a permit application. 
    2. The nonrefundable permit fee for joint games shall be a  total of $200. Volunteer fire departments or rescue squads or auxiliary units  thereof that have been recognized in accordance with § 15.2-955 of the  Code of Virginia shall be exempt from the payment of applications fees. 
    3. A single permit shall be issued in the names of all the  organizations conducting a joint game. All restrictions and prohibitions  applying to single organizations shall apply to qualified organizations jointly  conducting bingo games pursuant to § 18.2-340.29 of the Code of Virginia. 
    4. No charitable gaming shall be conducted prior to the  issuance of a joint permit. 
    5. Applications for joint games shall include an  explanation of the division of manpower, costs, and proceeds for the joint  game. 
    J. An organization wishing to change dates, times, or  locations of its charitable gaming shall request a change in the permit. Change  requests shall be made in writing on a form prescribed by the department at  least 30 days in advance of the proposed effective date. 
    K. Changes in dates, times, or locations due to inclement  weather, disasters, or other circumstances outside the organization's control  may be made without a change in the permit. The organization shall request such  a change on a form prescribed by the department as soon as the necessity for  the change is known. 
    L. An organization may sell raffle tickets for a drawing  to be held outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia in the United States  provided: 
    1. The raffle is conducted by the organization in  conjunction with a meeting outside the Commonwealth of Virginia or with another  organization that is licensed to conduct raffles outside the Commonwealth of  Virginia; 
    2. The raffle is conducted in accordance with these  regulations and the laws and regulations of the state where the drawing is to  be held; and 
    3. The portion of the proceeds derived from the sale of  raffle tickets in the Commonwealth is reported to the department. 
    M. Any permitted organization that ceases to conduct  charitable gaming shall immediately notify the department in writing and  provide the department a report as to the disposition of all unused gaming  supplies on a form prescribed by the department.
    11VAC15-40-40. Suspension, revocation, or denial of permit.
    A. Pursuant to § 18.2-340.20 of the Code of Virginia,  the department may suspend, revoke, or deny the permit to conduct charitable  gaming of any organization for cause including, but not limited to, any of the  following reasons: 
    1. The organization is found to be in violation of or has  failed to meet any of the requirements of the statutes or regulations governing  the operation, management, and conduct of charitable gaming in the  Commonwealth.
    2. The organization is found to be not in good standing  with its state or national organization.
    3. The IRS revokes or suspends the organization's  tax-exempt status.
    4. The organization willfully and knowingly provides false  information in its application for a permit to conduct charitable gaming. 
    5. The organization is found to have a member involved in  the management, operation, or conduct of its charitable gaming who has been  convicted of any felony or any misdemeanor as follows: 
    a. For any person participating in the management or  operation of any charitable gaming: 
    (1) Convicted of a felony; or 
    (2) Convicted of any misdemeanor involving fraud, theft, or  financial crimes within the preceding five years. 
    b. For any person participating in the conduct of  charitable gaming: 
    (1) Convicted of any felony within the preceding 10 years;  or 
    (2) Convicted of any misdemeanor involving fraud, theft, or  financial crimes within the preceding five years. 
    B. The failure to meet any of the requirements of  § 18.2-340.24 of the Code of Virginia shall cause the denial of the  permit, and no organization shall conduct any charitable gaming until the  requirements are met and a permit is obtained. 
    C. Except when an organization fails to meet any of the  requirements of § 18.2-340.24 of the Code of Virginia, in lieu of  suspending, revoking, or denying a permit to conduct charitable gaming, the  department may afford an organization an opportunity to enter into a compliance  agreement specifying additional conditions or requirements as it may deem  necessary to ensure an organization's compliance with the statute and  regulations governing the conduct of charitable gaming activities and may  require that an organization participates in such training as is offered by the  department.
    D. If a permit is suspended, the department shall set the  terms of the suspension, which shall include the length of the suspension and a  requirement that, prior to reinstatement of the permit, the organization shall  submit a remedial business plan to address the conditions that resulted in the  suspension.
    Article 2
  Conduct of Games, Rules of Play, Electronic Bingo 
    11VAC15-40-50. Conduct of bingo, instant bingo, pull-tabs,  seal cards, event games, and raffles.
    A. Organizations subject to this chapter shall post their  permit at all times on the premises where charitable gaming is conducted. 
    B. No individual shall provide any information or engage  in any conduct that alters or is intended to alter the outcome of any  charitable game. 
    C. Individuals under 18 years of age may play bingo  provided such persons are accompanied by a parent or legal guardian. It shall  be the responsibility of the organization to ensure that such individuals are  eligible to play. An organization's house rules may further limit the play of  bingo or purchase raffle tickets by minors. 
    D. Individuals under the age of 18 may sell raffle tickets  for a qualified organization raising funds for activities in which they are  active participants. 
    E. No individual under the age of 18 may participate in  the management or operation of bingo games. Individuals 14 through 17 years of  age may participate in the conduct of a bingo game provided the organization  permitted for charitable gaming obtains and keeps on file written parental  consent from the parent or legal guardian and verifies the date of birth of  such youth. An organization's house rules may further limit the involvement of  minors in the conduct of bingo games. 
    F. No qualified organization shall sell any instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal card, event game card, or electronic game card to any individual  under 18 years of age. No individual under 18 years of age shall play or redeem  any instant bingo, pull-tab, seal card, event game card, or electronic game  card. 
    G. Unless otherwise prohibited by the Code of Virginia or  this chapter, nonmembers who are under the direct supervision of a bona fide  member may participate in the conduct of bingo. 
    H. All volunteer game workers shall have in their  possession a picture identification, such as a driver's license or other  government-issued identification, and shall make the picture identification  available for inspection upon request by a department agent while participating  in the management, operation, or conduct of a bingo game. 
    I. A game manager who is a bona fide member of the  organization and is designated by the organization's management as the person  responsible for the operation of the bingo game during a particular session  shall be present any time a bingo game is conducted. 
    J. Organizations shall ensure that all charitable gaming  equipment is in working order before charitable gaming activities commence. 
    K. Any organization selling bingo, instant bingo,  pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards, or electronic game cards shall: 
    1. Maintain a supplier's invoice or a legible copy thereof  at the location where the gaming is taking place and cards are sold. The  original invoice or legible copy shall be stored in the same storage space as  the gaming supplies. All gaming supplies shall be stored in a secure area that  has access limited only to bona fide members of the organization; and 
    2. Pay for all gaming supplies only by a check drawn on the  charitable gaming account of the organization. 
    A complete inventory of all such gaming supplies shall be  maintained by the organization on the premises where the gaming is being  conducted. 
    L. A volunteer working a bingo session may receive  complimentary food and nonalcoholic beverages provided on premises, as long as  the retail value of such food and beverages does not exceed $15 for each  session. 
    M. Permitted organizations shall not commingle records,  supplies, or funds from permitted activities with those from instant bingo,  pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards, or electronic game cards sold in  social quarters in accordance with § 18.2-340.26:1 of the Code of  Virginia. 
    N. Individuals who are not members of an organization or  are members who do not participate in any charitable gaming activities may be  paid reasonable fees for preparation of quarterly and annual financial reports.  
    O. No free packs, free electronic bingo devices,  discounts, or remuneration in any other form shall be provided directly or  indirectly to volunteers, members of their family, or individuals residing in  their household. The reduction of tuition, dues, or any fees or payments due as  a result of a member or shareholder, or anyone in their household, working  bingo games or raffles is prohibited. 
    P. Individuals providing security for an organization's  charitable gaming activity shall not participate in the charitable gaming  activity and shall not be compensated with charitable gaming supplies or with  rentals of electronic bingo devices. 
    Q. No organization shall award any prize money or any  merchandise valued in excess of the amounts specified by the Code of Virginia. 
    R. Multiple bingo sessions shall be permitted in a single  premise as long as the sessions are distinct from one another and are not used  to advertise or do not result in the awarding of more in prizes than is  permitted for a single qualified organization. All leases for organizations to  conduct charitable gaming in a single premise shall ensure gaming activity is  separated by an interval of at least 30 minutes. Bingo sales for the subsequent  session may take place during the 30-minute break once the building is cleared  of all patrons and workers from the previous session. 
    S. All bingo and instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal card,  event game card, or electronic game card sales, play, and redemption must occur  within the time specified on the charitable gaming permit. 
    T. Instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards,  or electronic game cards shall only be sold in conjunction with a bingo  session, except as authorized by § 18.2-340.26:2 of the Code of Virginia.  No instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal card, event game card, or electronic game  card sales shall take place more than two hours before or after a session. If  multiple sessions are held at the same location, no instant bingo, pull-tab,  seal card, event game card, or electronic game card sales shall be conducted  during the required 30-minute break between gaming activities. The department  may take action if it believes that a bingo session is not legitimate or is  being conducted in a manner such that instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards,  event game cards, or electronic game cards are not being sold in conjunction  with a bingo session. 
    U. Only a volunteer game worker of qualified organizations  may rent, exchange, or otherwise provide electronic bingo devices to players. 
    V. A qualified organization shall conduct only bingo games  and raffles listed on a game program for that session. The program shall list  all prize amounts. If the prize amounts are determined by attendance or at the  end of a game, the game program shall list the attendance required for the  prize amount or disclose that prizes shall be determined at the end of a game  and the method for determining the prize amount. In such case, the organization  shall announce the prize amount at the end of the game. 
    W. A qualified organization selling instant bingo,  pull-tabs, seal cards, or electronic game cards shall post a flare provided by  the manufacturer at the location where such cards are sold. All such sales and  prize payouts shall be in accordance with the flare for that deal. 
    X. Only qualified organizations, facilities in which  qualified organizations play bingo, and suppliers permitted by the department  shall advertise a bingo game. Providing players with information about bingo  games through printed advertising is permitted, provided the name of the  qualified organization shall be in a type size equal to or larger than the name  of the premises, the hall, or the word "bingo." Printed  advertisements shall identify the use of proceeds percentage reported in the  past quarter or fiscal year. 
    Y. Raffles that award prizes based on a percentage of  gross receipts shall use prenumbered tickets. 
    Z. The following rules shall apply to instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal card, or event game card dispensing devices: 
    1. A dispensing device shall only be used at a location and  time during which a qualified organization holds a permit to conduct charitable  gaming. Only cards purchased by an organization to be used during the  organization's charitable gaming activity shall be in the dispensing device. 
    2. Keys to the dispensing area and coin/cash box shall be  in the possession and control of the game manager or designee of the  organization's board of directors at all times. Keys shall at all times be  available at the location where the dispensing device is being used. 
    3. The game manager or designee shall provide access to the  dispensing device to a department agent for inspection upon request. 
    4. Only a volunteer game worker of an organization may  stock the dispensing device, remove cash, or pay winners' prizes. 
    AA. Organizations shall only purchase gaming supplies from  a supplier who has a current permit issued by the department. 
    BB. An organization shall not tamper with bingo paper  received from a supplier. 
    CC. The total amount of all discounts given by any  organization during any fiscal year shall not exceed 1.0% of the organization's  gross receipts. 
    11VAC15-40-60. Rules of play.
    A. Each organization shall adopt "house rules"  regarding conduct of the game. Such rules shall be consistent with the  provisions of the law and this chapter. "House rules" shall be  conspicuously posted or, at an organization's option, printed on the game  program. 
    B. All players shall be physically present at the location  where the bingo numbers for a bingo game are drawn to play the game or to claim  a prize. Seal card prizes that can only be determined after a seal is removed  or opened must be claimed within 30 days of the close of a deal. All other  prizes must be claimed on the game date. 
    C. The following rules of play shall govern the sale of  instant bingo, pull-tabs, and seal cards: 
    1. No cards that have been marked, defaced, altered,  tampered with, or otherwise constructed in a manner that tends to deceive the  public or affect the chances of winning or losing shall be placed into play. 
    2. Winning cards shall have the winning symbol or number  defaced or punched immediately after redemption by the organization's  authorized representative. 
    3. An organization may commingle unsold instant bingo cards  and pull-tabs with no more than one additional deal. The practice of  commingling deals shall be disclosed to the public via house rules or in a  similar manner. Seal card deals shall not be commingled. 
    4. If a deal is not played to completion and unsold cards  remain, the remaining cards shall be sold at the next session the same type of  ticket is scheduled to be sold. If no future date is anticipated, the  organization shall, after making diligent efforts to sell the entire deal,  consider the deal closed or completed. The unsold cards shall be retained for  three years following the close of the fiscal year and shall not be opened. 
    5. All seal card games purchased shall contain the sign-up  sheet, the seals, and the cards packaged together in each deal. 
    6. Progressive seal card prizes not claimed within 30 days  shall be carried forward to the next progressive game in progress and paid to  the next progressive game prize winner. 
    D. No one involved in the conduct of bingo may play bingo  at any session they have worked or intend to work. No one involved in the sale  or redemption of any instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or electronic game  cards may purchase directly or through others instant bingo, pull-tab, seal  card, or electronic game card products from organizations they assist on the  day they have worked or from any deal they have helped sell or redeem,  whichever occurs later.
    E. Electronic bingo. 
    1. Electronic bingo devices may be used by bingo players in  the following manner: 
    a. Players may input into the device each number called or  the device may automatically daub each number as the number is called;
    b. Players must notify the game operator or caller of a  winning pattern of bingo by a means other than use of the electronic device; 
    c. Players are limited to playing a maximum of 54 card  faces per device per game; 
    d. Electronic bingo devices shall not be reserved for  players. Each player shall have an equal opportunity to use the available  devices on a first come, first served basis; 
    e. Each electronic bingo device shall produce a player  receipt with the organization name, date, time, location, sequential  transaction or receipt number, number of electronic bingo cards loaded, cost of  electronic bingo cards loaded, and date and time of the transaction.   Images of cards or faces stored in an electronic device must be exact  duplicates of the printed faces if faces are printed; 
    f. Department agents may examine and inspect any electronic  bingo device and related system. Such examination and inspection shall include  immediate access to the device and unlimited inspection of all parts and  associated systems and may involve the removal of equipment from the game  premises for further testing; 
    g. All electronic bingo devices must be loaded or enabled  for play on the premises where the game will be played; 
    h. All electronic bingo devices shall be rented or  otherwise provided to a player only by an organization and no part of the  proceeds of the rental of such devices shall be paid to a landlord, or his  employee, agent, or member of his immediate family; and 
    i. If a player's call of a bingo is disputed by another  player, or if a department agent makes a request, one or more cards stored on  an electronic bingo device shall be printed by the organization. 
    2. Players may exchange a defective electronic bingo device  for another device provided a disinterested player verifies that the device is  not functioning. A disinterested player shall also verify that no numbers  called for the game in progress have been keyed into the replacement device  prior to the exchange. 
    F. The following rules of play shall govern the conduct of  raffles: 
    1. Before a prize drawing, each stub or other detachable  section of each ticket sold shall be placed into a receptacle from which the  winning tickets shall be drawn. The receptacle shall be designed so that each  ticket placed in it has an equal chance to be drawn. 
    2. All prizes shall be valued at fair market value. 
    G. The following rules shall apply to "decision  bingo" games: 
    1. Decision bingo shall be played on bingo cards in the  conventional manner. 
    2. Players shall enter a game by paying a predetermined  amount for each card face in play. 
    3. Players shall pay a predetermined fee for each set of  three bingo numbers called for each card in play. 
    4. The prize amount shall be the total of all fees not to  exceed the prize limit set forth for regular bingo in § 18.2-340.33 of the  Code of Virginia. Any excess funds shall be retained by the organization. 
    5. The predetermined amounts in subdivisions 2 and 3 of  this subsection shall be printed in the game program. The prize amount for a  game shall be announced before the prize is paid to the winner. 
    H. The following rules shall apply to "treasure  chest" games: 
    1. The organization shall list the treasure chest game on  the bingo game program as a "Treasure Chest Raffle." 
    2. The organization shall have house rules posted that  describe how the game is to be played. 
    3. The treasure chest participant shall only be selected  through some other authorized charitable game at the same bingo session. 
    4. The organization shall account for all funds as treasure  chest/raffle sales on the session reconciliation form. 
    5. If the player does not open the lock on the treasure  chest, the game manager or his designee shall proceed to try every key until  the correct key opens the treasure chest lock to show all players that one of  the keys will open the lock. 
    I. The following rules shall apply to progressive bingo  games:
    1. Bingo paper sold for use in progressive bingo games  shall conform to the standards set forth in 11VAC15-40-130.
    2. Organizations shall not include in admission packs the  bingo paper intended for use in progressive bingo games.
    3. Any progressive bingo game, its prize, and the number of  bingo numbers to be called shall be clearly announced before the progressive  bingo game is played and shall be posted on the premises where the progressive  bingo game is played during each session that a progressive bingo game is  played.
    4. Pricing for a progressive bingo game card or sheet shall  be listed on the game program.
    5. If the predetermined pattern is not covered within the  predetermined number of bingo numbers to be called, then the number of bingo  numbers called will increase by one number for each subsequent session the  progressive game is played.
    6. If the predetermined pattern is not covered within the  predetermined number of bingo numbers to be called for that progressive bingo  game, then the game will continue as a regular bingo game until the  predetermined pattern is covered and a regular bingo prize is awarded.
    7. The prize for any progressive bingo game shall be in  accordance with the provisions of § 18.2-340.33 of the Code of Virginia.
    J. The following rules shall apply to "WINGO": 
    1. "WINGO" shall be played only for the  hearing-impaired players. 
    2. "WINGO" shall utilize a visual device such as  an oversized deck of cards in place of balls selected from a blower. 
    3. A caller must be in an area visible to all players and  shall randomly select cards or other visual devices one at a time and display  them so that all players can see them. 
    4. The organization must have house rules for  "WINGO" and the rules shall identify how players indicate that they  have won. 
    5. All financial reporting shall be consistent with  reporting for a traditional bingo game. 
    K. The following rules of play shall apply to event games:
    1. No instant bingo cards or pull-tabs that have been  marked, defaced, altered, tampered with, or otherwise constructed in a manner  that tends to deceive the public or affect the chances of winning or losing  shall be placed into play.
    2. Instant bingo cards and pull-tabs used in an event game  shall not be offered for sale or sold at a purchase price other than the  purchase price indicated on the flare for that particular deal.
    3. The maximum prize amount for event games shall not  exceed the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.33 (9) of the Code of Virginia  for instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card.
    4. A sign-up sheet is not required for event games in which  the winner or winners are determined using a seal card. 
    5. Organizations shall determine the winner or winners of  event games during the same bingo session in which the instant bingo cards or  pull-tabs are sold.
    6. An authorized representative of the organization shall  deface or punch the winning instant bingo cards or winning pull-tabs  immediately after redemption.
    7. If unsold bingo cards or unsold pull-tabs remain, the  unsold cards shall be retained for three years following the close of the  fiscal year and shall not be opened. 
    Article 3
  Bank Accounts, Recordkeeping, Financial Reporting, Audits, Fees
    11VAC15-40-70. Bank accounts.
    A. A qualified organization shall maintain a charitable  gaming bank account that is separate from any other bank account and all gaming  receipts shall be deposited into the charitable gaming bank account. 
    B. Disbursements for expenses other than prizes and  reimbursement of meal expenses shall be made by check directly from a  charitable gaming account. 
    C. All charitable gaming bank account records, including  but not limited to monthly bank statements, canceled checks or facsimiles  thereof, and reconciliations, shall be maintained for three years following the  close of a fiscal year. 
    D. All receipts from each session of bingo games and  instant bingo, pull-tabs, or seal cards shall be deposited by the second  business day following the session at which they were received.
    E. Raffle proceeds shall be deposited into the qualified  organization's charitable gaming bank account no later than the end of the  calendar week following the week during which the organization received the  proceeds. 
    11VAC15-40-80. Recordkeeping.
    A. In addition to the records required by  § 18.2-340.30 D of the Code of Virginia, qualified organizations  conducting bingo shall maintain a system of records for a minimum of three  years, unless otherwise specified for each gaming session on forms prescribed  by the department, or reasonable facsimiles of those forms approved by the  department, that include: 
    1. Charitable gaming supplies purchased and used; 
    2. A session reconciliation form and an instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal card, or electronic game card reconciliation form completed and  signed within 48 hours of the end of the session by the bingo manager; 
    3. All discounts provided; 
    4. A reconciliation to account for cash received from floor  workers for the sale of extra bingo sheets for any game; 
    5. Number of electronic bingo devices rented, unique serial  numbers of such devices, number of faces sold by each unit, and a summary  report for each session to include date, time, location, and detailed  information on income and expenses;
    6. An admissions control system that provides a cross-check  on the number of players in attendance and admission sales. This may include a  ticket control system, cash register, or any similar system;
    7. All operating expenses including rent, advertising, and  security. Copies of invoices for all such expenses shall also be maintained;
    8. Expected and actual receipts from games played on hard  cards and number of games played on hard cards; 
    9. A record of the name and address of each winner for all  seal cards; in addition, the winning ticket and seal card shall be maintained  for a minimum of 90 days after the session;
    10. A record of all door prizes awarded; and
    11. For any prize or jackpot of a value that meets or  exceeds the reporting requirements in the Internal Revenue Service's  Publication 3079, the name and address of each individual to whom any such  prize or jackpot is awarded and the amount of the award. 
    B. Qualified organizations conducting raffles shall have a  recordkeeping system to account for cash receipts, cash disbursements, raffle  tickets purchased or sold, and prizes awarded. All records shall be maintained  for three years from the close of the fiscal year. The recordkeeping system  shall include:
    1. Invoices for the purchase of raffle tickets, which shall  reflect the following information:
    a. Name and address of supplier;
    b. Name of purchaser;
    c. Date of purchase; 
    d. Number of tickets printed;
    e. Ticket number sequence for tickets printed; and
    f. Sales price of individual ticket;
    2. A record of cash receipts from raffle ticket sales by  tracking the total number of tickets available for sale, the number issued to  sellers, the number returned, the number sold, and reconciliation of all raffle  sales to receipts; 
    3. Serial numbers of tickets for raffle sales initiated and  concluded at a bingo game or sequentially numbered tickets, which shall state  the name, address, and telephone number of the organization, the prize or  prizes to be awarded, the date of the prize drawing or selection, the selling  price of the raffle ticket, and the charitable gaming permit number;
    4. For any raffle prize of a value that meets or exceeds  the reporting requirements in the Internal Revenue Service's Publication 3079,  receipts on which prize winners must provide printed name, residence address,  and the amount and description of the prize received; and 
    5. Deposit records of the required weekly deposits of  raffle receipts. 
    C. All raffle tickets shall have a detachable section; be  consecutively numbered with the detachable section having the same number;  provide space for the purchaser's name, complete address, and telephone number;  and state (i) the name and address of the organization; (ii) the prize or  prizes to be awarded; (iii) the date, time and location of the prize drawing;  (iv) the selling price of the ticket; and (v) the charitable gaming permit  number. Winning tickets and unsold tickets shall be maintained for three years  from the close of the fiscal year. 
    D. All unused charitable gaming supplies shall either be  returned for refund to the original supplier in unopened original packaging in  resalable condition as determined by the supplier or turned in to the  department for destruction. The organization shall maintain a receipt for all  such supplies returned to the supplier or turned in to the department. 
    11VAC15-40-90. Financial reporting, penalties, inspections,  and audits.
    A. Each charitable gaming permit holder shall file an  annual report of receipts and disbursements by March 15 of each year on a form  prescribed by the department. The annual report shall cover the activity for  the fiscal year. 
    B. The annual report shall be accompanied by the audit and  administration fee as established by the department for the fiscal year unless  the fee has been remitted with quarterly reports or the organization is exempt from payment of the fee  pursuant to § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. An organization desiring an extension to file its  annual report for good cause shall request the extension in writing on a form  prescribed by the department and shall pay the projected audit and  administration fee, unless exempt from payment of the fee pursuant to  § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia. The extension request and payment  of projected fees shall be made in accordance with the provisions of  § 18.2-340.30 of the Code of Virginia.
    D. Unless exempted by § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of  Virginia, qualified organizations realizing any gross gaming receipts in any  calendar quarter shall file a quarterly report of receipts and disbursements on  a form prescribed by the department as follows:
           | Quarter Ending | Date Due | 
       | March 31 | June 1 | 
       | June 30 | September 1 | 
       | September 30 | December 1 | 
       | December 31 | March 1 | 
  
    Qualified organizations shall submit quarterly reports  with the appropriate audit and administration fee unless the organization is  exempt from payment of the fee pursuant to § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia.  An annual financial report may substitute for a quarterly report if the  organization has no further charitable gaming income during the remainder of  the reporting period and the annual report is filed by the due date for the  applicable calendar quarter.
    E. An organization desiring an extension to file its  quarterly report for good cause shall request the extension in writing on a  form prescribed by the department and shall pay the projected audit and  administration fee unless exempt from payment of the fee pursuant to  § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia. The extension request and payment  of projected fees shall be made in accordance with the provisions of  § 18.2-340.30 of the Code of Virginia.
    F. Organizations failing to file required reports, request  an extension, or make fee payments when due shall be charged a penalty of $25  per day from the due date until such time as the required report is filed. 
    G. Any qualified organization in possession of funds  derived from charitable gaming (including those who have ceased operations),  regardless of when such funds may have been received or whether it has a valid  permit from the department, shall file an annual financial report on a form  prescribed by the department on or before March 15 of each year until such  funds are depleted. If an organization ceases the conduct of charitable gaming,  it shall provide the department with the name of an individual who shall be  responsible for filing financial reports. If no such information is provided,  the president of an organization shall be responsible for filing reports until  all charitable gaming proceeds are depleted. 
    H. If an organization has been identified through  inspection, audit, or other means as having deficiencies in complying with  statutory or regulatory requirements or having ineffective internal controls,  the department may impose restrictions or additional recordkeeping and  financial reporting requirements. 
    I. Any records deemed necessary to complete an inspection,  audit, or investigation may be collected by the department, its employees, or  its agents from the premises of an organization or any location where  charitable gaming is conducted. The department shall provide a written receipt  of such records at the time of collection. 
    11VAC15-40-100. Use of proceeds.
    A. All payments by an organization intended as use of  proceeds must be made by check written from the organization's charitable  gaming account. 
    B. Use of proceeds payments may be made for scholarship  funds or the future acquisition, construction, remodeling, or improvement of  real property or the acquisition of other equipment or vehicles to be used for  religious, charitable, educational, or community purposes. In addition, an  organization may obtain department approval to establish a special fund account  or an irrevocable trust fund for special circumstances. Transfers to such an  account or an irrevocable trust fund from the organization's charitable gaming  account may be included as a use of proceeds if the payment is authorized by an  organization's board of directors. 
    No payments made to such a special fund account shall be  withdrawn for other than the specified purpose unless prior notification is  made to the department. 
    C. Expenditures of charitable gaming funds for social or  recreational activities or for events, activities, or programs that are open  primarily to an organization's members and their families shall not qualify as  use of proceeds unless substantial benefit to the community is demonstrated. 
    D. Payments made to or on behalf of indigent, sick, or  deceased members or their immediate families shall be allowed as use of  proceeds provided they are approved by the organization's board of directors  and the need is documented. 
    E. Payments made directly for the benefit of an individual  member, member of his family, or person residing in his household shall not be  allowed as a use of proceeds unless authorized by law or elsewhere in this  chapter. 
    F. Use of proceeds payments by an organization shall not  be made for any activity that is not permitted by federal, state, or local laws  or for any activity that attempts to influence or finance directly or  indirectly political persons or committees or the election or reelection of any  person who is or has been a candidate for public office. 
    G. Organizations shall maintain details of all use of  proceeds disbursements for a minimum of three years and shall make this  information available to the department upon request. 
    H. The department may disallow a use of proceeds payment  to be counted against the minimum percentage referred to in 11VAC15-40-20 D. If  any payment claimed as use of proceeds is subsequently disallowed, an  organization may be allowed additional time as specified by the department to  meet minimum use of proceeds requirements.
    Article 4
  Rent
    11VAC15-40-110. Requirements regarding renting premises,  agreements, and landlord participation.
    A. No organization shall rent or use any leased premises  to conduct charitable gaming unless all terms for rental or use are set forth  in a written agreement and signed by the parties thereto prior to the issuance  of a permit to conduct charitable gaming. A qualified organization that leases  a building or other premises that is utilized in whole or in part for the  purpose of conducting charitable gaming more frequently than two calendar days  in one calendar week shall only lease such premises directly from (i) a  qualified organization that is exempt from taxation pursuant to § 501 (c)  of the Internal Revenue Code or (ii) any county, city, or town. 
    B. Organizations shall not make payments to a landlord  except by check drawn on the organization's charitable gaming account. 
    C. No landlord, his agent or employee, member of his  immediate family, or person residing in his household shall make directly or indirectly  a loan to any officer, director, game manager, or entity involved in the  management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming of an organization in  Virginia that leases its charitable gaming facility from the landlord. 
    D. No landlord, his agent or employee, member of his  immediate family, or person residing in his household shall make any direct or  indirect payment to any officer, director, game manager, or entity involved in  the management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming conducted at a  facility rented from the landlord in Virginia unless the payment is authorized  by the lease agreement and is in accordance with the law. 
    E. No landlord, his agent or employee, member of his  immediate family, or person residing in the same household shall at charitable  games conducted on the landlord's premises: 
    1. Participate in the management, operation, or conduct of  any charitable games; 
    2. Sell, lease, or otherwise provide any bingo supplies  including, but not limited to, bingo cards, pull-tab cards, electronic game  cards, or other game pieces; or 
    3. Require as a condition of the lease or contract that a  particular manufacturer, distributor, or supplier of bingo supplies is used by  the organization. 
    "Bingo supplies" as used in this chapter shall  not include glue, markers, or tape sold from concession stands or from a  location physically separated from the location where bingo supplies are  normally sold. 
    F. No member of an organization involved in the  management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming shall provide any  services to a landlord or be remunerated in any manner by the landlord of the  facility where an organization is conducting its charitable gaming. 
    Part III
  Suppliers
    11VAC15-40-120. Suppliers of charitable gaming supplies: application,  qualifications, suspension, revocation or refusal to renew permit, maintenance,  and production of records.
    A. Prior to providing any charitable gaming supplies, a  supplier shall submit an application on a form prescribed by the department and  receive a permit. A $1,000 application fee payable to the Treasurer of Virginia  is required. In addition, a supplier must be authorized to conduct business in  the Commonwealth of Virginia, which may include, but not be limited to,  registration with the State Corporation Commission, the Department of Taxation,  and the Virginia Employment Commission. The actual cost of background  investigations for a permit may be billed by the department to an applicant.  The department shall act on an application within 90 days of receipt of the  application. 
    B. The department may refuse to issue a permit or may  suspend or revoke a permit if an officer, director, employee, agent, or owner: 
    1. Is operating without a valid license, permit, or  certificate as a supplier or manufacturer in any state in the United States; 
    2. Fails or refuses to recall a product as directed by the  department; 
    3. Conducts business with unauthorized entities or is not  authorized to conduct business in the Commonwealth of Virginia; 
    4. Has been convicted of or pleaded nolo contendere to any  crime as specified by § 18.2-340.34 B of the Code of Virginia; has had any  license, permit, certificate, or other authority related to activities defined  as charitable gaming in the Commonwealth suspended or revoked in the  Commonwealth or in any other jurisdiction; has failed to file or has been  delinquent in excess of one year in the filing of any tax returns or the  payment of any taxes due the Commonwealth; or has failed to establish a  registered office or registered agent in the Commonwealth if so required by  § 13.1-634 or 13.1-763 of the Code of Virginia. As this provision relates  to employees or agents, it shall only apply to individuals involved in sales to  or solicitations of customers in the Commonwealth of Virginia; 
    5. Fails to notify the department within 20 days of the  occurrence, knowledge, or receipt of the filing of any administrative or legal  action relating to charitable gaming or the distribution of charitable gaming  supplies involving or concerning the supplier, any officers or directors,  employees, agent, or owner during the term of its permit; 
    6. Fails to provide to the department upon request a  current Letter for Company Registration on file with the U.S. Department of  Justice-Gambling Devices Registration Unit, if required in accordance with The  Gambling Devices Act of 1962, 15 USC §§ 1171-1178, for any device that it  sells, distributes, services, or maintains in the Commonwealth of Virginia; or 
    7. Has been engaged in conduct that would compromise the  department's objective of maintaining the highest level of integrity in  charitable gaming. 
    C. A supplier shall not sell, offer to sell, or otherwise  provide charitable gaming supplies for use by anyone in the Commonwealth of  Virginia other than to an organization with a permit from the department or  another permitted supplier. However, a supplier may: 
    1. Sell charitable gaming supplies to an organization that  expects to gross the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of  Virginia or less in any 12-month period, providing that the amount of such  purchase would not be reasonably expected to produce more than the amount set  forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia in gross sales. For each  such organization, the supplier shall maintain the name, address, and telephone  number. The supplier shall also obtain a written and signed statement from an  officer or game manager of such organization confirming that gross receipts are  expected to be the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia  or less. Such statement shall be dated and kept on file for three years from  the end of a fiscal year. 
    2. Sell bingo cards and paper to persons or entities other  than qualified organizations provided such supplies shall not be sold or  otherwise provided for use in charitable gaming activities regulated by the  department or in unlawful gambling activities. For each such sale, the supplier  shall maintain the name, address, and telephone number of the purchaser. The  supplier shall also obtain a written statement from the purchaser verifying  that such supplies will not be used in charitable gaming or any unlawful  gambling activity. Such statement shall be dated and kept on file for three  years from the end of a fiscal year. Payment for such sales in excess of $50  shall be accepted in the form of a check. 
    3. Sell pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards, and  electronic game cards to organizations for use only upon the premises owned or  exclusively leased by the organization and at such times as the portion of the  premises in which the pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards, or electronic  game cards are sold is open only to members and their guests as authorized by  § 18.2-340.26:1 of the Code of Virginia. Each such sale shall be accounted  for separately and the accompanying invoice shall be clearly marked: "For  Use in Social Quarters Only." 
    All such sales shall be documented pursuant to subsection  H of this section and reported to the department pursuant to subsection J of  this section. This provision shall not apply to the sale to landlords of  equipment and video systems as defined in this chapter. Equipment and video  systems shall not include dispensing devices, electronic bingo devices, and  player devices. 
    D. A supplier shall not sell, offer to sell, or otherwise  provide charitable gaming supplies to any individual or organization in the  Commonwealth of Virginia unless the charitable gaming supplies are purchased or  obtained from a manufacturer or another permitted supplier. Suppliers may take  back for credit and resell supplies received from an organization with a permit  that has ceased charitable gaming or is returning supplies not needed. 
    E. No supplier, supplier's agent, or employee may be  involved in the management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming in the  Commonwealth of Virginia. No member of a supplier's immediate family or person  residing in the same household as a supplier may be involved in the management,  operation, or conduct of charitable gaming of any customer of the supplier in  the Commonwealth of Virginia. No supplier, supplier's agent, or employee may  participate in any charitable gaming of any customer of the supplier in the  Commonwealth of Virginia. For the purposes of this regulation, servicing of  electronic devices shall not be considered conduct or participation. 
    F. The department shall conduct a background investigation  prior to the issuance of a permit to any supplier. The investigation may  include, but shall not be limited to, the following: 
    1. A search of the Virginia Central Criminal Records  Exchange (CCRE) on all officers, directors, and owners; and 
    2. Verification of current compliance with Commonwealth of  Virginia tax laws. 
    If the officers, directors, or owners are domiciled  outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia, or have resided in the Commonwealth of  Virginia for fewer than five years, a criminal history search conducted by the  appropriate authority in any state in which they have resided during the  previous five years shall be provided by the applicant. 
    G. Appropriate information and authorizations shall be  provided to the department to verify information cited in subsection F of this  section. 
    H. Suppliers shall document each sale or rental of  charitable gaming supplies to an organization in the Commonwealth of Virginia  on an invoice, which reflects the following: 
    1. Name, address, and OCG number of the organization; 
    2. Date of sale or rental and location where bingo supplies  are shipped if different from the billing address; 
    3. Name, form number, and serial number of each deal of  instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, electronic game cards, or bundles and the  number of cards in each deal; 
    4. Quantity of deals sold, the cost per deal, the selling  price per card, the cash take-in per deal, and the cash payout per deal; 
    5. Serial number of the top sheet in each pack of  disposable bingo paper, the number of sheets in each pack or pad, the cut and  color, and the number of packs or pads sold; 
    6. Serial number for each series of uncollated bingo paper  and the number of sheets sold; 
    7. Detailed information concerning the type, quantity, and  individual price of any other charitable gaming supplies or related items  including, but not limited to, concealed face bingo cards, hard cards, markers  or daubers and refills, or any other merchandise. For concealed face bingo  cards, the number of sets, price per set, and the serial number of each set  shall be included; 
    8. Serial number of each player device, the form of the  player device, the number of player devices sold or rented, and the physical  address to which each player device is shipped; 
    9. Serial number and description of any other equipment  sold or rented that is used to facilitate the distribution, play, and  redemption of electronic game cards and the physical address to which the  equipment is shipped; and
    10. Any type of equipment, device, or product manufactured  for or intended to be used in the conduct of charitable games including, but  not limited to, designators, designator receptacles, number display boards,  selection devices, dispensing machines, and verification devices.
    I. Suppliers shall ensure that two copies of the detailed  invoice are provided to the customer for each sale of charitable gaming  supplies. 
    J. Each supplier shall provide a report to the department  by March 1 of each year on sales of charitable gaming supplies for the fiscal  year ending December 31 of the previous year to each organization in the  Commonwealth of Virginia. This report shall be provided to the department on  computer disk or other department-approved media. The report shall include the  name and address of each organization and the following information for each  sale or transaction: 
    1. Bingo paper sales including purchase price, description  of paper to include number of sheets in pack and number of faces on sheet, and  quantity of single sheets or packs shipped; 
    2. Deals of instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards,  electronic game cards, or any other raffle sales including purchase price, deal  name, deal form number, number of tickets in deal, ticket price, cash take-in  per deal, cash payout per deal, and number of deals; 
    3. Electronic bingo device sales including purchase or  rental price and number of units; 
    4. Equipment used to facilitate the distribution, play, and  redemption of electronic game cards including purchase or rental price,  description of equipment, number of units of each type of equipment, and the  physical address to which the equipment is shipped; and 
    5. Sales of miscellaneous items such as daubers, markers,  and other merchandise including purchase price, description of product, and  number of units. 
    K. The department shall set manufacturing and testing  criteria for all electronic bingo devices and other equipment used in the  conduct of charitable gaming. An electronic bingo device shall not be sold,  leased, or otherwise furnished to any person in the Commonwealth of Virginia  for use in the conduct of charitable gaming until an identical sample device  containing identical proprietary software has been certified by a testing  facility that has been formally recognized by the department as a testing  facility that upholds the standards of integrity established by the department.  The testing facility must certify that the device conforms, at a minimum, to  the restrictions and conditions set forth in these regulations. Once the  testing facility reports the test results to the department, the department  will either approve or disapprove the submission and inform the manufacturer of  the results within 10 business days. If any such equipment does not meet the  department's criteria, it shall be recalled and shall not be distributed in the  Commonwealth of Virginia. The cost of testing shall be borne by the  manufacturer of such equipment. 
    L. Department employees shall have the right to inspect  all electronic and mechanical equipment used in the conduct of charitable  gaming. 
    M. Suppliers, their agents and employees, members of the  supplier's immediate family, or persons residing in their household shall not  make any loan directly or indirectly to any organization or officer, director,  game manager, or entity involved in the management, operation, or conduct of  charitable gaming of a supplier's customer located in the Commonwealth of  Virginia. 
    N. No supplier, supplier's agent, or employee shall  directly or indirectly provide a rebate, discount, or refund to any person  other than an organization that purchases supplies or leases or purchases  equipment from the supplier. All such transactions shall be recorded on the  supplier's account books. 
    O. A supplier shall not rent, sell, or otherwise provide  electronic bingo devices or equipment used to distribute, play, or redeem  electronic game cards unless the supplier possesses a valid permit in the  Commonwealth of Virginia.
    P. A written agreement specifying the terms of lease or  rental shall be required for any electronic bingo devices or equipment used to  distribute, play, or redeem electronic game cards provided to an organization.
    11VAC15-40-130. Construction and other standards for bingo,  instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, event games, raffles, electronic bingo  devices, and instant bingo, pull-tab, and seal card dispensers.
    A. No supplier shall knowingly sell or otherwise provide  to an organization and no organization shall knowingly use bingo supplies  unless they conform to the following construction standards: 
    1. Disposable paper sold shall be of sufficient weight and  quality to allow for clearly readable numbers and to prevent ink from  spreading, bleeding, or otherwise obscuring other numbers or cards. 
    2. Each sheet of disposable bingo paper shall be comprised  of cards bearing a serial number. No serial number shall be repeated on or in  the same style, series, and color of cards within a three-year period. 
    3. Disposable bingo paper assembled in books or packs shall  not be separated except for single-sheet specials. This provision does not  apply to two-part cards on which numbers are filled by players and one part is  separated and provided to an organization for verification purposes. 
    4. Each unit of disposable bingo paper shall have an  exterior label listing the following information: 
    a. Description of product; 
    b. Number of packs or loose sheets; 
    c. Series numbers; 
    d. Serial number of the top sheet; 
    e. Number of cases; 
    f. Cut of paper; and 
    g. Color of paper. 
    5. "Lucky Seven" bingo cards or electronic  facsimiles thereof shall have a single face where seven numbers shall be  chosen. "Lucky Seven" sheets or electronic facsimiles thereof shall  have multiple faces where seven numbers shall be chosen per face. 
    B. No supplier shall knowingly sell or otherwise provide  to an organization and no organization shall knowingly use instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal cards, or event game cards unless they conform to the following  construction standards: 
    1. Cards shall be constructed so that concealed numbers,  symbols, or winner protection features cannot be viewed or determined from the  outside of the card by using a high intensity lamp of 500 watts, with or  without utilizing a focusing lens. 
    2. Deals shall be designed, constructed, glued, and  assembled in a manner to prevent determination of a winning or losing ticket  without removing the tabs or otherwise uncovering the symbols or numbers as  intended. 
    3. Each card in a deal shall bear the same serial number.  Only one serial number shall be used in a deal. No serial number used in a deal  shall be repeated by the same manufacturer on that same manufacturer's form  within a three-year period. The flare of each deal shall accompany the deal and  shall have affixed to it the same serial number as the tickets in such deal. 
    4. Numbers or symbols on cards shall be fully visible in  the window and shall be placed so that no part of a number or symbol remains  covered when the tab is removed. 
    5. Cards shall be glued on all edges and around each  window. Glue shall be of sufficient strength and type to prevent the  undetectable separation or delamination of the card. For banded tickets, the  glue must be of sufficient strength and quality to prevent the separation of  the band from the ticket. 
    6. The following minimum information shall be printed on a  card: 
    a. Break open pull-tab, instant bingo cards, and event game  cards: 
    (1) Name of the manufacturer or its distinctive logo; 
    (2) Name of the game; 
    (3) Manufacturer's form number; 
    (4) Price per individual card or bundle; 
    (5) Unique minimum five-digit game serial number printed on  the game information side of the card; and 
    (6) Number of winners and respective winning number or  symbols and specific prize amounts unless accompanied by a manufacturer's  preprinted publicly posted flare with that information. 
    b. Banded pull-tabs: 
    (1) Manufacturer; 
    (2) Serial number; 
    (3) Price per individual card or bundle unless accompanied  by a manufacturer's preprinted publicly posted flare with that information; and  
    (4) Number of winners and respective winning numbers or  symbols and prize amounts or a manufacturer's preprinted publicly posted flare  giving that information. 
    7. All seal card games sold to organizations shall contain  the sign-up sheet, seals, and cards packaged together in each deal. 
    C. Raffle tickets used independent of a bingo game must  conform to the following construction standards: 
    1. Each ticket shall have a detachable section and shall be  consecutively numbered. 
    2. Each section of a ticket shall bear the same number. The  section retained by the organization shall provide space for the purchaser's  name, complete address, and telephone number. 
    3. The following information shall be printed on the  purchaser's section of each ticket: 
    a. Dates and times of drawings; 
    b. Locations of the drawings; 
    c. Name of the charitable organization conducting the  raffle; 
    d. Price of the ticket; 
    e. Charitable gaming permit number; and 
    f. Prizes. 
    Exceptions to these construction standards are allowed only  with prior written approval from the department.
    D. Electronic bingo. 
    1. The department, at its discretion, may require  additional testing of electronic bingo devices at any time. Such additional  testing shall be at the manufacturer's expense and shall be a condition of the  continued use of such device. 
    2. All electronic bingo devices shall use proprietary  software and hardware or commonly available software and computers and shall be  enabled for play on the premises where the game is to be played. 
    3. Each electronic bingo device shall have a unique  identification number permanently coded into the software of such device.  Manufacturers of electronic bingo devices shall employ sufficient security  safeguards in designing and manufacturing the devices such that it may be  verified that all proprietary software components are authentic copies of the  approved software components and all functioning components of the device are  operating with identical copies of approved software programs. The device must  also have sufficient security safeguards so that any restrictions or  requirements authorized by the department or any approved proprietary software  are protected from alteration by unauthorized personnel. The device shall not  contain hard-coded or unchangeable passwords. Security measures that may be  employed to comply with these provisions include, but are not limited to, the  use of dongles, digital signature comparison hardware and software, secure boot  loaders, encryption, and key and callback password systems. 
    4. Electronic bingo devices shall not allow a player to  create a card by the input of specific numbers on each card. Manufacturers  shall ensure that an electronic bingo device does not allow for the play of any  bingo card faces other than those verifiably purchased by the patron. 
    5. Electronic bingo devices shall not accept cash,  currency, or tokens for play. 
    6. Electronic bingo devices shall require the manual entry  of numbers as they are called, the manual verification of numbers as they have  been electronically transmitted to the device, or the full automatic daubing of  numbers as each number is called. During the play of a bingo game, the  transmission of data to electronic bingo devices shall be limited to one-way communication  to the device and shall consist only of the number called. 
    7. A device shall not allow the play of more than 54 cards  per device per game. 
    8. The electronic bingo device system shall record a  sequential transaction number or audit tracking number for each transaction.  The system shall not allow the manual resetting or changing of this number. 
    9. The system shall produce a receipt and a transaction log  containing the following: 
    a. Organization name; 
    b. Location of bingo game; 
    c. Sequential transaction or receipt number; 
    d. Number of electronic bingo cards loaded; 
    e. Cost of electronic bingo cards loaded; and
    f. Date and time of each transaction. 
    10. The system shall maintain and make available on demand  a summary report for each session that includes the following:
    a. Organization name;
    b. Physical location of bingo game;
    c. Date and time of each transaction;
    d. Sequential transaction or receipt number;
    e. Number of electronic bingo cards loaded;
    f. Cost of electronic bingo cards loaded;
    g. A transaction history correlating each electronic sale  to the device identification number of the device on which the sale was played;
    h. Sufficient information to identify voids, including the  date and time of each voided transaction;
    i. Sufficient information to identify device returns; and
    j. Total gross receipts for each session. 
    11. Each device shall be programmed to automatically erase  all stored electronic cards at the end of the last game of a session, within a  set time from their rental to a player, or by some other clearance method  approved by the department. 
    12. All devices shall be reloaded with another set of cards  at the beginning of each session if the devices are to be reused at the same  location. 
    E. In instances where a defect in packaging or in the  construction of deals or electronic devices is discovered by or reported to the  department, the department shall notify the manufacturer of the deals or  devices containing the alleged defect. Should the department, in consultation  with the manufacturer, determine that a defect exists, and should the  department determine the defect affects game security or otherwise threatens  public confidence in the game, the department may, with respect to deals or  electronic devices for use still located within the Commonwealth of Virginia,  require the supplier to: 
    1. Recall the deals or electronic devices affected that  have not been sold or otherwise provided; or 
    2. Issue a total recall of all affected deals or electronic  devices. 
    F. No instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card dispenser may  be sold, leased, or otherwise furnished to any person or organization in the  Commonwealth of Virginia or used in the conduct of charitable gaming until an  identical sample device containing identical proprietary software, if  applicable, has been certified by a testing facility that has been formally  recognized by the department as a testing facility that upholds the standards  of integrity established by the department. The cost of testing shall be borne  by the manufacturer of such equipment. In addition, suppliers and manufacturers  of such dispensers shall comply with the requirements of The Gambling Devices  Act of 1962 (15 USC §§ 1171-1178). 
    G. All instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card dispensing  devices must meet the following standards: 
    1. Each dispenser shall be manufactured in a manner that  ensures a pull-tab ticket is dispensed only after insertion of United States  currency or coinage into the dispenser. Such ticket and any change due shall be  the only items dispensed from the machine. 
    2. Each dispenser shall be manufactured in a manner that  ensures the device neither displays nor has the capability of displaying or  otherwise identifying an instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card winning or  nonwinning ticket. 
    3. Each dispenser shall be manufactured in such a manner  that any visual animation does not simulate or display rolling or spinning  reels or produce audible music or enhanced sound effects. 
    4. Each dispenser shall be equipped with separate locks for  the instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card supply modules and money boxes. Locks  shall be configured so that no one key will operate both the supply modules and  money boxes. 
    H. The department may require additional testing of a  dispensing device at any time to ensure that it meets construction standards  and allows for fair play. Such tests shall be conducted at the cost of the  manufacturer of such devices. 
    I. The face value of cards being dispensed shall match the  amount deposited in the currency/coin acceptor less change provided. 
    11VAC15-40-140. Instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or  event game cards randomization standards.
    All instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or event game  cards shall meet the following randomization standards: 
    1. Deals shall be assembled so that winning tickets are  placed throughout each deal. 
    2. Deals shall be assembled and packaged in a manner that  prevents isolation of winning cards due to variations in printing, graphics,  colors, sizes, appearances of cut edges, or other markings of cards. 
    3. Winning cards shall be distributed and mixed among all  other cards in a deal so as to eliminate any pattern between deals or portions  of deals from which the location or approximate location of any winning card  may be determined. 
    Part IV
  Electronic Games of Chance Systems
    Article 1
  General Requirements
    11VAC15-40-150. Approval of distributed pull-tab systems,  validation systems, point-of-sale stations, and redemption terminals.
    A. The department shall set manufacturing and testing  criteria for all distributed pull-tab systems, validation systems,  point-of-sale stations, redemption terminals, and other equipment used in the  conduct of charitable gaming. A distributed pull-tab system, validation system,  point-of-sale station, redemption terminal, or other equipment shall not be  sold, leased, or otherwise furnished to any person in the Commonwealth of  Virginia for use in the conduct of charitable gaming until an identical sample  system or equipment containing identical software has been certified by a testing  facility that has been formally recognized by the department as a testing  facility that upholds the standards of integrity established by the department.  The testing facility must certify that the distributed pull-tab system and  associated hardware and software conform, at a minimum, to the requirements set  forth in this chapter. Once the testing facility reports the test results to  the department, the department will either approve or disapprove the  distributed pull-tab system or system components and inform the manufacturer of  the results within 10 business days. If any such system or equipment does not  meet the department's criteria, it shall be recalled and shall not be  distributed in the Commonwealth of Virginia. The cost of testing shall be borne  by the manufacturer of such equipment.
    B. No supplier shall knowingly sell or otherwise provide  to an organization and no organization shall knowingly use a distributed  pull-tab system, validation system, point-of-sale station, redemption terminal,  or other equipment used to conduct charitable gaming unless it conforms to the  requirements set forth in this regulation.
    C. If a defect in a distributed pull-tab system,  validation system, point-of-sale station, redemption terminal, or other  equipment used to conduct charitable gaming is discovered by or reported to the  department, the department shall notify the manufacturer of the system or  equipment containing the alleged defect. Should the department, in consultation  with the manufacturer, determine that a defect exists and should the department  determine the defect affects game security or otherwise threatens public  confidence in the game, the department may, with respect to any distributed  pull-tab system, validation system, point of sale station, redemption terminal,  or other equipment used to conduct charitable gaming still located within the  Commonwealth of Virginia, require the supplier to issue a recall of all  affected distributed pull-tab systems, validation systems, point-of-sale  stations, redemption terminals, or other equipment. 
    Article 2
  System Requirements
    11VAC15-40-160. Distributed pull-tab system.
    A distributed pull-tab system shall be dedicated primarily  to electronic accounting, reporting, and the presentation, randomization, and  transmission of electronic game cards to the player devices. It shall also be  capable of generating the data necessary to provide the reports required within  this article or otherwise specified by the department. 
    11VAC15-40-170. Dispensing of electronic game cards.
    A distributed pull-tab system shall dispense, upon  request, an electronic game card or cards. All games must be played without  replacement, drawing from a single finite game set.
    11VAC15-40-180. Game set requirements.
    Each game set shall meet the following minimum  requirements: 
    1. Each game set shall be made up of a finite number of  electronic game cards; 
    2. The game set shall consist of a maximum of 25,000  electronic game cards; 
    3. All electronic game cards in a particular game set shall  be of the same purchase price; 
    4. The maximum win amount awarded per any one electronic  game card shall not exceed the value set forth for pull-tabs by  § 18.2-340.33 of the Code of Virginia; 
    5. Each game set shall be assigned a unique serial number;  and 
    6. After randomization, game sets may be broken into  subsets of equal size. If game subsets are used, they shall each be assigned a  unique serial number and be traceable to a parent game set.
    11VAC15-40-190. Game set definition.
    If the system has the capability to create a game set from  a predefined set of criteria, the criteria must contain the following  information: 
    1. Game ID; 
    2. Game set version; 
    3. Manufacturer; 
    4. Game name; 
    5. Paytable ID; 
    6. Purchase price per electronic game card; 
    7. Subset size; 
    8. Total number of subsets; and 
    9. Prize values with an associated index and frequency. 
    11VAC15-40-200. Data required to be available for each game  set.
    A. The following data shall be available prior to the  opening of a game set for distribution and shall be maintained and be viewable  both electronically and, if requested, by printed report, upon demand: 
    1. A unique serial number identifying each game set and/or  subset; 
    2. A description of the game set sufficient to categorize  the game set or subset relative to other game sets; 
    3. The total number of electronic game cards in the game  set; 
    4. The number of game subsets to be created from the game  set and the number of electronic game cards in each subset when applicable; 
    5. The payout percentage of the entire game set; 
    6. The purchase price per electronic game card assigned to  the game set; and 
    7. Prize values with an associated index and frequency. 
    B. The following data shall be available subsequent to the  completion of a game set and shall be maintained and viewable both  electronically and, if requested, by printed report, upon demand: 
    1. A unique serial number identifying each game set and/or  subset; 
    2. Description of the game set sufficient to categorize the  game set relative to other game sets; 
    3. The total number of electronic game cards unsold; 
    4. The total number of electronic game cards purchased; 
    5. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset became available for play; 
    6. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset was completed or removed from play; 
    7. Location where game set and/or subset was played; 
    8. The final payout percentage of the game set when removed  from play; and 
    9. The purchase price per electronic game card assigned to  the game set. 
    C. In order to provide maximum game integrity, no audit or  other determination of the status of any game set or any subset, including, but  not limited to, a determination of the prizes won or prizes remaining to be  won, shall be conducted by anyone while a game set or subset is in play without  causing termination of the entire game set or subset. Only upon game set  termination shall the details of the associated game set and subsets be  revealed to the individual or individuals performing the audit. 
    D. Once terminated, a game set shall not be able to be  reopened. 
    11VAC15-40-210. Security requirements.
    A. A distributed pull-tab system computer must be in a  locked, secure enclosure with key controls in place. 
    B. A distributed pull-tab system shall provide a means for  terminating the game set if information about electronic game cards in an open  game set has been accessed or at the discretion of the department. In such  cases, traceability of unauthorized access including time and date, users  involved, and any other relevant information shall be available. 
    C. A distributed pull-tab system shall not permit the  alteration of any accounting or significant event information that was  communicated from the player device without supervised access controls. In the  event financial data is changed, an automated audit log must be capable of  being produced to document the following: 
    1. Data element altered; 
    2. Data element value prior to alteration; 
    3. Data element value after alteration; 
    4. Time and date of alteration; and 
    5. Personnel that performed alteration. 
    D. A distributed pull-tab system must provide password  security or other secure means of ensuring data integrity and enforcing user  permissions for all system components through the following means: 
    1. All programs and data files must only be accessible via  the entry of a password that will be known only to authorized personnel; 
    2. The distributed pull-tab system must have multiple  security access levels to control and restrict different classes;
    3. The distributed pull-tab system access accounts must be  unique when assigned to the authorized personnel and shared accounts amongst  authorized personnel must not be allowed; 
    4. The storage of passwords and PINs must be in an  encrypted, nonreversible form; and 
    5. A program or report must be available that will list all  registered users on the distributed pull-tab system including their privilege  level. 
    E. All components of a distributed pull-tab system must  have a password sign-on with two-level codes comprising the personal  identification code and a personal password. 
    1. The personal identification code must have a length of  at least six ASCII characters; and 
    2. The personal password must have a minimum length of six  alphanumeric characters, which should include at least one nonalphabetic  character. 
    F. A distributed pull-tab system must have the capability  to control potential data corruption that can be created by multiple  simultaneous log-ons by system management personnel. 
    1. A distributed pull-tab system shall specify which of the  access levels allow for multiple simultaneous sign-ons by different users and  which of the access levels do not allow for multiple sign-ons, and, if multiple  sign-ons are possible, what restrictions, if any, exist; or 
    2. If a distributed pull-tab system does not provide  adequate control, a comprehensive procedural control document must be drafted  for the department's review and approval. 
    G. Distributed pull-tab system software components/modules  shall be verifiable by a secure means at the system level. A distributed  pull-tab system shall have the ability to allow for an independent integrity  check of the components/modules from an outside source and is required for all  control programs that may affect the integrity of the distributed pull-tab  system. This must be accomplished by being authenticated by a third-party  device, which may be embedded within the distributed pull-tab system software  or having an interface or procedure for a third-party application to  authenticate the component. This integrity check will provide a means for field  verification of the distributed pull-tab system components. 
    H. A distributed pull-tab system may be used to configure  and perform security checks on player devices, provided such functions do not  affect the security, integrity, or outcome of any game and meets the  requirements set forth in this regulation regarding program storage devices. 
    11VAC15-40-220. Backup and recovery.
    A. A distributed pull-tab system computer shall have a  separate physical medium for securely storing game sets or subsets on the  computer, which shall be mirrored in real time by a backup medium. 
    B. All data required to be available or reported by this  chapter must be retained for a period of not less than three years. 
    C. All storage of critical data shall utilize error  checking and be stored on a nonvolatile physical medium. 
    D. The database shall be stored on redundant media so that  no single failure of any portion of the system would result in the loss or  corruption of data. 
    E. In the event of a catastrophic failure when the  distributed pull-tab system cannot be restarted in any other way, it shall be  possible to reload the distributed pull-tab system from the last viable backup  point and fully recover the contents of that backup, to consist of at least the  following information: 
    1. All significant events; 
    2. All accounting information; 
    3. Auditing information, including all open game sets and  the summary of completed game sets; and 
    4. Employee files with access levels. 
    11VAC15-40-230. Electronic accounting and reporting.
    A. One or more electronic accounting systems shall be  required to perform reporting and other functions in support of distributed  pull-tab system. The electronic accounting system shall not interfere with the  outcome of any gaming function. 
    B. The following reporting capabilities must be provided  by the electronic accounting system: 
    1. Electronic game card game set report – game sets in  play. An electronic game card game set report must be available on demand for  each game set currently in play. Game cards, outcomes, or prizes must not be  revealed. The report must contain the following information: 
    a. A unique serial number identifying each game set and/or  subsets; 
    b. A description of the game set sufficient to categorize  the game set or subset relative to other game sets; 
    c. The total number of electronic game cards in the game  set; 
    d. The number of game subsets to be created from the game  set and the number of electronic game cards in each subset when applicable; 
    e. The theoretical payout percentage of the entire game  set; 
    f. The purchase price per electronic game card assigned to  the game set; 
    g. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset became available for play; and 
    h. Location where the game set and/or subset is being  played. 
    2. Electronic game card game set report – completed game  set. An electronic game card game set report must be available on demand, for  each completed game set. The report must contain the following information: 
    a. A unique serial number identifying each game set and/or  subset; 
    b. Description of the game set sufficient to categorize the  game set relative to other game sets; 
    c. The total number of electronic game cards unsold; 
    d. The total number of electronic game cards purchased; 
    e. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset became available for play; 
    f. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset was completed or removed from play; 
    g. Location where game set and/or subset was played; 
    h. The final payout percentage of the game set when removed  from play; and 
    i. The purchase price per electronic game card assigned to  the game set. 
    3. A report that shall indicate all prizes that exceed the  threshold that triggers additional procedures to be followed for the purpose of  compliance with federal tax reporting requirements. At a minimum, on a daily  and monthly basis, the report shall provide the following information per  player device: 
    a. The date and time won; 
    b. Location of prize award; and 
    c. Amount of each prize occurrence. 
    4. Liability report. A liability report shall provide a  summary of the outstanding funds that carry from business day to business day.  At a minimum, this report shall include: 
    a. Amount of prizes and/or vouchers that were awarded in  dollars and cents, but have not yet been claimed that have not yet expired; and  
    b. Summary of all outstanding accounts. 
    5. Master reconciliation report. A master reconciliation  report must be available on a per session basis, monthly basis, and quarterly  basis at a minimum. A master reconciliation report shall include the following:  
    a. Total of all moneys used to purchase electronic game  cards; 
    b. Total of all prizes, in dollars and cents, awarded from  electronic game cards; 
    c. Total of all moneys inserted into a player device or  provided to a cashier for the purchase of electronic game cards; and 
    d. Total of all moneys removed from a player device. 
    C. A distributed pull-tab system shall be capable of  providing an electronic file in a format specified by the department on a  periodic basis to a location specified by the department. The data to be  reported will contain, at a minimum, the following items per session: 
    1. Organization identification; 
    2. Session date; 
    3. Total cash in; 
    4. Total cash out; 
    5. Total cash played; 
    6. Total cash won; 
    7. For all game sets on the system in play or in inventory:  
    a. Serial number; 
    b. Description; 
    c. Ticket price; 
    d. Number of subsets if applicable; 
    e. Number of tickets or number of tickets per subset; 
    f. Theoretical return percentage; and 
    g. Date game set was opened for play, when applicable; and
    8. For all game sets completed or closed since the previous  reporting date: 
    a. Serial number; 
    b. Description; 
    c. Ticket price; 
    d. Number of subsets, if applicable; 
    e. Number of tickets or number of tickets per subset; 
    f. Theoretical return percentage; 
    g. Date game set was opened; 
    h. Date game set was closed; 
    i. Total tickets sold; 
    j. Total dollars in; 
    k. Total prizes paid; and
    l. Actual return percentage. 
    11VAC15-40-240. Randomization.
    A. As used in this section, unless the context requires a  different meaning:
    "Card position" means the first card dealt,  second card dealt in sequential order. 
    "Number position" means the first number drawn in  sequential order. 
    B. A distributed pull-tab system shall utilize randomizing  procedures in the creation of game sets for electronic game cards or externally  generated randomized game sets that have been created using a method previously  approved by the department. 
    C. Any random number generation, shuffling, or  randomization of outcomes used in connection with a distributed pull-tab system  must be by use of a random number generation application that has successfully  passed standard tests for randomness and unpredictability including but not  limited to: 
    1. Each card position or number position satisfies the 99%  confidence limit using the standard chi-squared analysis. "Chi-squared  analysis" is the sum of the ratio of the square difference between the  expected result and the observed result to the expected result. 
    2. Each card position or number position does not produce a  significant statistic with regard to producing patterns of occurrences. Each  card position or number position will be considered random if it meets the 99%  confidence level with regard to the "run test" or any similar pattern  testing statistic. The "run test" is a mathematical statistic that  determines the existence of recurring patterns within a set of data. 
    3. Each card position or number position is independently  chosen without regard to any other card or number drawn within that game play.  This test is the "correlation test." Each pair of card positions or  number positions is considered random if it meets the 99% confidence level  using standard correlation analysis. 
    4. Each card position or number position is independently  chosen without reference to the same card position or number position in the  previous game. This test is the "serial correlation test." Each card position  or number position is considered random if it meets the 99% confidence level  using standard serial correlation analysis. 
    11VAC15-40-250. Communications and network requirements.
    A. Where the distributed pull-tab system components are  linked with one another in a network, communication protocols shall be used  that ensure that erroneous data or signals will not adversely affect the  operations of any such system components. 
    B. All data communication shall incorporate an error  detection and correction scheme to ensure the data is transmitted and received  accurately. 
    C. Connections between all components of the distributed  pull-tab system shall only be through the use of secure communication  protocol(s) that are designed to prevent unauthorized access or tampering,  employing Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), or equivalent encryption. 
    D. The minimum width (size) for encryption keys is 112  bits for symmetric algorithms and 1024 bits for public keys. 
    E. There must be a secure method implemented for changing  the current encryption key set. It is not acceptable to only use the current  key set to "encrypt" the next set. 
    F. There must be a secure method in place for the storage  of any encryption keys. Encryption keys must not be stored without being encrypted  themselves. 
    G. If a wireless network is used, wireless products used  in conjunction with any gaming system or system component must meet the  following minimum standards: 
    1. Employ a security process that complies with the Federal  Information Processing Standard 140-2 (FIPS 140-2); or 
    2. Employ an alternative method, as approved by the  department. 
    11VAC15-40-260. Significant events.
    The following significant events, if applicable, shall be  collected from the player device or point of sale and communicated to the  system for storage and a report of the occurrence of the significant event must  be made available upon request: 
    1. Power resets or power failure. 
    2. Communication loss between a player device and any  component of the distributed pull-tab system. 
    3. Player device jackpot (any award in excess of the single  win limit of the player device). 
    4. Door openings (any external door that accesses a  critical area of the player device). 
    5. Bill validator errors: 
    a. Stacker full (if supported); and 
    b. Bill jam. 
    6. Printer errors: 
    a. Printer empty; and 
    b. Printer disconnect or failure. 
    7. Corruption of the player device RAM or program storage  device.
    8. Any other significant events as defined by the protocol  employed by the distributed pull-tab system.
    11VAC15-40-270. Validation system and redemption.
    A distributed pull-tab system may utilize a voucher  validation system to facilitate gaming transactions. The validation system may  be entirely integrated into a distributed pull-tab system or exist as a  separate entity. 
    1. Payment by voucher printer as a method of redeeming  unused game plays and/or winnings on a player device is only permissible when  the device is linked to an approved validation system or distributed pull-tab  system that allows validation of the printed voucher. 
    a. A distributed pull-tab system may allow voucher out  only; vouchers shall not be inserted, scanned, or used in any way at the player  device for redemption. 
    b. The validation system must process voucher redemption  correctly according to the secure communication protocol implemented. 
    2. The algorithm or method used by the validation system or  distributed pull-tab system to generate the voucher validation numbers must  guarantee an insignificant percentage of repetitive validation numbers. 
    3. The validation system must retrieve the voucher  information correctly based on the secure communication protocol implemented  and store the voucher information in a database. The voucher record on the host  system must contain, at a minimum, the following voucher information: 
    a. Validation number; 
    b. Date and time the player device printed the voucher; 
    c. Value of voucher in dollars and cents; 
    d. Status of voucher; 
    e. Date and time the voucher will expire; 
    f. Serial number of player device; and 
    g. Location name or site identifier; 
    4. The validation system or distributed pull-tab system  must have the ability to identify the following occurrences and notify the  cashier when the following conditions exist: 
    a. Voucher cannot be found on file; 
    b. Voucher has already been paid; or 
    c. Amount of voucher differs from amount on file  (requirement may be met by display of voucher amount for confirmation by  cashier during the redemption process). 
    5. If the connection between the validation system and the  distributed pull-tab system fails, an alternate method or procedure of payment  must be available and shall include the ability to identify duplicate vouchers  and prevent fraud by redeeming vouchers that were previously issued by the  player device. 
    6. The following reports related to vouchers shall be  generated on demand: 
    a. Voucher Issuance Report shall be available from the  validation system that shows all vouchers generated by an electronic game card  device; and 
    b. Voucher Redemption Report shall detail individual  vouchers, the sum of the vouchers paid by the validation terminal or point of  sale by session, and include the following information: 
    (1) The date and time of the transaction; 
    (2) The dollar value of the transaction; 
    (3) Validation number; 
    (4) A transaction number; and 
    (5) Point-of-sale identification number or name.
    7. The validation system database must be encrypted and  password-protected and should possess a nonalterable user audit trail to  prevent unauthorized access. 
    8. The normal operation of any device that holds voucher  information shall not have any options or method that may compromise voucher  information. Any device that holds voucher information in its memory shall not  allow removal of the information unless it has first transferred that  information to the ticketing database or other secured component or components  of the validation system. 
    11VAC15-40-280. Point of sale; validation terminal.
    A. A distributed pull-tab system may utilize a  point-of-sale and/or validation terminal that is capable of facilitating the  sale of the organization's pull tab outcomes or used for the redemption of  credits from player accounts or vouchers. The point of sale may be entirely  integrated into a distributed pull-tab system or exist as a separate entity. 
    B. Point-of-sale use is only permissible when the device  is linked to an approved validation system or distributed pull-tab system. 
    C. If a distributed pull-tab system utilizes a point of  sale, it shall be capable of printing a receipt for each sale, void, or  redemption. 
    1. The receipt shall contain the following information: 
    a. Date and time of the transaction; 
    b. Dollar value of the transaction; 
    c. Validation number, if applicable; 
    d. Quantity of associated products, if applicable; 
    e. Transaction number; 
    f. Account number, if applicable; and 
    g. Point-of-sale identification number or name. 
    D. The following point-of-sale or validation terminal  reports shall be generated on demand: 
    1. Sales Transaction History Report shall show all sales  and voids by session and include the following information: 
    a. Date and time of the transaction; 
    b. Dollar value of the transaction; 
    c. Quantity of associated products; 
    d. Transaction number; and 
    e. Point of sale identification number or name; 
    2. Voucher Redemption Report shall detail individual  voucher redemptions paid by the validation terminal or point of sale by session  and include the following information: 
    a. Date and time of the transaction; 
    b. Dollar value of the transaction; 
    c. Validation number; 
    d. Transaction number; and 
    e. Point of sale identification number or name. 
    11VAC15-40-290. Location of equipment.
    All equipment used to facilitate the distribution, play,  or redemption of electronic pull-tab or instant bingo games must be physically  located within the boundaries of the Commonwealth of Virginia. This includes  but is not limited to the distributed pull-tab system, player devices,  redemption terminals, and point-of-sale stations. 
    Article 2
  Player Devices
    11VAC15-40-300. Player device general requirements.
    A. Each player device shall bear a seal approved by the  commissioner and affixed by the department.
    B. A player device shall not be capable of being used for  the purposes of engaging in any game prohibited by the department. 
    C. In addition to a video monitor or touch screen, each  player device may have one or more of the following: a bill acceptor, printer,  and electromechanical buttons for activating the game and providing player  input, including a means for the player to make selections and choices in  games. 
    D. For each player device, there shall be located anywhere  within the distributed pull-tab system, nonvolatile memory or its equivalent.  The memory shall be maintained in a secure location for the purpose of storing  and preserving a set of critical data that has been error checked in accordance  with the critical memory requirements of this regulation. 
    E. A player device shall not have any switches, jumpers,  wire posts, or other means of manipulation that could affect the operation or  outcome of a game. The player device may not have any functions or parameters  adjustable through any separate video display or input codes except for the  adjustment of features that are wholly cosmetic. 
    F. A player device shall not have any of the following  attributes: spinning or mechanical reels, pull handle, sounds other than an  audio effect to simulate the opening of a paper pull-tab or instant bingo card,  flashing lights, tower light, top box, coin tray, ticket acceptance, hopper, coin  acceptor, enhanced animation, cabinet or payglass artwork, or any other  attribute identified by the department. 
    G. A player device shall be robust enough to withstand  forced illegal entry that would leave behind physical evidence of the attempted  entry or such entry that causes an error code that is displayed and transmitted  to the distributed pull-tab system. Any such entry attempt shall inhibit game  play until cleared, and shall not affect the subsequent play or any other play,  prize, or aspect of the game. 
    H. The number of player devices, other than those player  devices that are handheld, present at any premise at which charitable gaming is  conducted shall be limited to one device for every 50 permissible occupants  under the maximum occupancy as determined pursuant to the Uniform Statewide  Building Code. The department shall determine whether a player device is  handheld. 
    11VAC15-40-310. Cabinet wiring.
    A. Proof of UL or equivalent certification shall be  required for all submitted electronic devices. 
    B. A player device shall be designed so that power and  data cables into and out of the player device can be routed so that the cables  are not accessible to the general public. 
    11VAC15-40-320. Player device identification.
    A player device shall have a permanently affixed  identification badge that cannot be removed without leaving evidence of  tampering. This badge shall be affixed to the exterior of the player device and  shall include the following information: 
    1. Manufacturer name; 
    2. A unique serial number; 
    3. The player device model number; 
    4. The date of manufacture; and 
    5. Any other information required by the department. 
    11VAC15-40-330. Doors; compartments.
    A. If a player device possesses an external door that  allows access to the interior of the machine the following rules shall apply: 
    1. Doors and their associated hinges shall be capable of  withstanding determined illegal efforts to gain access to the inside of the  player device and shall leave evidence of tampering if an illegal entry is made;  
    2. All external doors shall be locked and monitored by door  access sensors that shall detect and report all external door openings by way  of an audible alarm, on-screen display, or both; 
    3. The player device shall cease play when any external  door is opened; 
    4. It shall not be possible to disable a door open sensor  when the machine's door is closed without leaving evidence of tampering; 
    5. The sensor system shall register a door as being open  when the door is moved from its fully closed and locked position; and 
    6. Door open conditions shall be recorded in an electronic  log that includes a date/time stamp. 
    B. Player devices that contain control programs located  within an accessible area shall have a separate internal locked logic  compartment, that shall be keyed differently than the front door access lock.  The logic compartment shall be a locked cabinet area with its own locked door,  that houses critical electronic components that have the potential to  significantly influence the operation of the player device. There may be more  than one such logic area in a player device. Electronic component items that  are required to be housed in one or more logic areas are: 
    1. CPUs and other electronic components involved in the  operation and calculation or display of game play; 
    2. Communication controller electronics and components  housing the communication program storage media or, the communication board for  the on-line system may reside outside the player device; and 
    3. Logic compartment door open conditions shall be recorded  in a log that includes a date/time stamp. 
    C. Player devices that do not contain a door shall have  adequate security for any panels or entry points that allow access to the  interior of the device. 
    11VAC15-40-340. Memory clear.
    A. Following the initiation of a memory reset procedure  utilizing a certified reset method, the program shall execute a routine that  initializes the entire contents of memory to the default state. For player  devices that allow for partial memory clears, the methodology in doing so must  be accurate and the game application must validate the uncleared portions of  memory. The player device display after a memory reset shall not be the top  award. 
    B. It shall not be possible to change a configuration  setting that causes an alteration or obstruction to the electronic accounting  meters without a memory clear. 
    11VAC15-40-350. Critical memory.
    A. Critical memory shall be used to store all data that is  considered vital to the continued operation of the player device. Critical memory  storage shall be maintained by a methodology that enables errors to be  identified and corrected in most circumstances. This methodology may involve  signatures, checksums, partial checksums, multiple copies, timestamps, and/or  use of validity codes. This includes, but is not limited to: 
    1. All electronic meters required in 11VAC15-40-420 E;
    2. Current unused credits; 
    3. Player device or game configuration data; 
    4. Recall of all wagers and other information necessary to  fully reconstruct the game outcome associated with the last 10 plays; 
    5. Software state, which is the last state the player  device software was in before interruption; and 
    6. Error conditions that may have occurred on the player  device that may include: 
    a. Memory error or control program error; 
    b. Low memory battery, for batteries external to the memory  itself or low power source; 
    c. Program error or authentication mismatch; and 
    d. Power reset. 
    B. Comprehensive checks of critical memory shall be made  continually to test for possible corruption. In addition, all critical memory: 
    1. Shall have the ability to retain data for a minimum of  180 days after power is discontinued from the player device. If the method used  is an off-chip battery source, it shall recharge itself to its full potential  in a maximum of 24 hours. The shelf life shall be at least five years. Memory  that uses an off-chip back-up power source to retain its contents when the main  power is switched off shall have a detection system that will provide a method  for software to interpret and act upon a low battery condition; 
    2. Shall only be cleared by a department certified memory  clear method; and 
    3. Shall result in an error if the control program detects  an unrecoverable memory error. 
    11VAC15-40-360. Program storage devices.
    A. All program storage devices (writable/nonwritable),  including Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory (EPROM), DVD, CD-ROM, compact  flash, and any other type of program storage device shall be clearly marked  with sufficient information to identify the software and revision level of the  information stored in the devices. 
    B. Program storage devices shall meet the following  requirements: 
    1. Program storage, including CD-ROM, shall meet the  following rules: 
    a. The control program shall authenticate all critical  files by employing a hashing algorithm that produces a "message  digest" output of at least 128 bits at minimum, as certified by the  recognized independent test laboratory and agreed upon by the department. Any  message digest shall be stored on a read-only memory device within the player  device. Any message digest that resides on any other medium shall be encrypted,  using a public/private key algorithm with a minimum of a 512 bit key, or an  equivalent encryption algorithm with similar security certified by the  independent test laboratory and agreed upon by the department. 
    b. The player device shall authenticate all critical files  against the stored message digests. In the event of a failed authentication,  the player device should immediately enter an error condition with the  appropriate indication such as an audible signal, on-screen display, or both.  This error shall require operator intervention to clear. The player device  shall display specific error information and shall not clear until the file  authenticates properly and/or the player device's memory is cleared, the game  is restarted, and all files authenticate correctly. 
    2. CD-ROM specific based program storage shall: 
    a. Not be a rewriteable disk; and 
    b. The "write session" shall be closed to prevent  any further writing to the storage device. 
    C. Player devices where the control program is capable of  being erased and reprogrammed without being removed from the player device, or  other equipment or related peripheral devices shall meet the following  requirements: 
    1. Reprogrammable program storage shall only write to  alterable storage media containing data, files, and programs that are not  critical to the basic operation of the game. 
    2. Notwithstanding the foregoing, data may be written to  media containing critical data, files, and programs provided that: 
    a. A log of all information that is added, deleted, and  modified be stored on the media; 
    b. The control program verifies the validity of all data,  files, and programs that reside on the media using the methods required herein;  
    c. The player device's program contains appropriate  security to prevent unauthorized modifications; and 
    d. The player device's program does not allow game play  while the media containing the critical data, files, and programs is being  modified. 
    D. The control program shall ensure the integrity of all  critical program components during the execution of said components and the  first time the files are loaded for use even if only partially loaded. Space  that is not critical to machine security (e.g., video or sound) is not required  to be validated, although the department recommends a method be in place for  the files to be tested for corruption. If any of the video or sound files  contain payout amounts or other information needed by the player, the files are  to be considered critical. 
    11VAC15-40-370. Touch screens.
    Any touch screen must meet the following rules: 
    1. A touch screen shall be accurate once calibrated; 
    2. A touch screen shall be able to be recalibrated; and 
    3. A touch screen shall have no hidden or undocumented  buttons or touch points anywhere on the touch screen, except as provided for by  the game rules that affect game play. 
    11VAC15-40-380. Bill acceptors.
    A. A player device may have a mechanism that accepts U.S.  currency and provides a method to enable the player device software to  interpret and act appropriately upon a valid or invalid input. 
    B. An acceptance device shall be electronically based and  be configured to ensure that it only accept valid bills and rejects all others  in a highly accurate manner. 
    C. A bill input system shall be constructed in a manner  that protects against vandalism, abuse, or fraudulent activity. In addition, a  bill acceptance device shall only register credits when: 
    1. The bill has passed the point where it is accepted and  stacked; and 
    2. The bill acceptor has sent the "irrevocably  stacked" message to the machine. 
    D. A bill acceptor shall communicate to the player device  using a bidirectional protocol. 
    E. A bill acceptor shall be designed to prevent the use of  cheating methods such as stringing, the insertion of foreign objects, and any  other manipulation that may be deemed as a cheating technique. 
    F. If a bill acceptor is designed to be factory set only,  it shall not be possible to access or conduct maintenance or adjustments to  that bill acceptor in the field, other than: 
    1. The selection of bills and their limits; 
    2. Changing of certified EPROMs or downloading of certified  software; 
    3. The method for adjustment of the tolerance level for  accepting bills of varying quality should not be accessible from the exterior  of the player device. Adjustments of the tolerance level should only be allowed  with adequate levels of security in place. This can be accomplished through  lock and key, physical switch settings, or other accepted methods approved on a  case-by-case basis; 
    4. Maintenance, adjustment, and repair per approved factory  procedures; and 
    5. Options that set the direction or orientation of bill  acceptance. 
    G. A player device equipped with a bill acceptor shall  have the capability of detecting and displaying an error condition for the  following events: 
    1. Stacker full (it is recommended that an explicit  "stacker full" error message not be utilized since this may cause a  security issue); 
    2. Bill jams; 
    3. Bill acceptor door open. If a bill acceptor door is a  machine door, a door open signal is sufficient; 
    4. Stacker door open; and 
    5. Stacker removed. 
    H. A player device equipped with a bill acceptor shall  maintain sufficient electronic metering to be able to report the following: 
    1. Total monetary value of all bills accepted; 
    2. Total number of all bills accepted; 
    3. A breakdown of the bills accepted for each denomination;  and 
    4. The value of the last five items accepted by the bill  acceptor.
    11VAC15-40-390. Payment by voucher printers.
    A. If the player device has a printer that is used to  issue payment to the player by issuing a printed voucher for any unused game  plays and/or winnings, the player device shall meet the following rules: 
    1. The printer shall be located in a secure area of the  player device, but shall not be located in the logic area or any cash storage  area. The bill acceptor stacker or logic areas containing critical electronic  components shall not be accessed when the printer paper is changed; 
    2. The player device, in which the printer is housed, is  linked to a voucher validation system, which records the voucher information;  and
    3. Data printed on a voucher shall be provided to the  voucher validation system that records the following information regarding each  voucher printed: 
    a. Value of unused game plays and/or winnings in U.S.  currency, in numerical form; 
    b. Time the voucher was printed; 
    c. Date the voucher was printed; 
    d. Location name or site identifier;
    e. Serial number of player device; 
    f. Unique validation number or barcode; and 
    g. Expiration date and time. 
    B. If the player device is capable of printing a duplicate  voucher, the duplicate voucher shall clearly state the word "DUPLICATE"  on its face. 
    C. The printer shall use printer paper containing security  features such as a watermark as approved by the department. 
    D. A printer shall have mechanisms to allow the player  device to interpret and act upon the following conditions that must disable the  game, and produce an error condition that requires attendant intervention to  resume play: 
    1. Out of paper; 
    2. Printer jam or failure; and 
    3. Printer disconnect. The player device may detect this  error condition when the game tries to print. 
    E. A player device that uses a voucher printer shall  maintain a minimum of the last 25 transactions in critical memory. All voucher  transactions shall be logged with a date and time stamp. 
    11VAC15-40-400. Payment by account.
    A. Credit may be added to a player account via a cashier  or point of sale station. Credit may also be added by any supporting player  device through credits won or bills. 
    B. Money may be removed from a player account either  through downloading of credits to the player device or by cashing out at a  cashier's or point-of-sale station. 
    C. All monetary transactions between a supporting player  device and the distributed pull-tab system must be secured by means of a card  insertion into a magnetic card reader and PIN entry or by other protected  means. 
    Article 3
  Game Requirements
    11VAC15-40-410. Game play requirements.
    A. A player receives an electronic game card in return for  consideration. A player wins if the player's electronic game card contains a  combination of symbols or numbers that was designated in advance of the game as  a winning combination. There may be multiple winning combinations in each game.  Electronic versions of instant bingo and pull-tabs, as authorized by the  department, shall only utilize devices that allow players to play electronic  game cards. A player device shall meet the following minimum requirements: 
    1. A player may purchase an opportunity to play an  electronic game card by: 
    a. Insertion of U.S. currency (bills only);
    b. Purchase made at a point of sale terminal; or 
    c. Withdrawing deposits available in a player account. 
    2. In addition to the available games, the rules of play  shall be displayed on the player device's video screen. Rules of play shall  include all winning combinations. 
    3. Any number of game themes may be selectable for play on  any given player device. Only one of the game themes shall be playable at any  given time. 
    4. A player device shall be clearly labeled so as to inform  the public that no one under 18 years of age is allowed to play. 
    5. A player device shall not be capable of displaying any  enticing animation while in an idle state. A player device may use simple  display elements or screen savers to prevent monitor damage. 
    6. The results of the electronic game card shall be shown to  the player using a video display. No rolling, flashing, or spinning animations  are permitted. No rotating reels marked into horizontal segments by varying  symbols are permitted. No entertaining sound or music is permitted other than  an audio effect to simulate the opening of a paper pull-tab or instant bingo  card. Any sounds present used to simulate the opening of a paper pull-tab must  not be played at a level sufficient to disturb other players or patrons. 
    7. The player device shall have one or more buttons,  electromechanical or touch screen, to facilitate the following functions: 
    a. Viewing of the game "help" screens; 
    b. Viewing of the game rules; 
    c. Initiating game play; 
    d. Cashout or logout; and 
    e. One or more buttons designated to reveal the pull-tab or  instant bingo windows. 
    8. Following play on a player device, the result shall be  clearly shown on the video display along with any prizes that may have been  awarded. Prizes may be dispensed in the form of: 
    a. Voucher;
    b. Added to the machine balance meter; or 
    c. Added to the player's account balance. 
    9. An available balance may be collected from the player  device by the player pressing the "cashout" button or logging off of  the player device at any time other than during: 
    a. A game being played; 
    b. While in an audit mode or screen; 
    c. Any door open; 
    d. Test mode; 
    e. A machine balance meter or win meter incrementation  unless the entire amount is placed on the meter when the "cashout"  button is pressed; or 
    f. An error condition. 
    10. The default player device display, upon entering game  play mode, shall not be the top award. 
    B. A player device shall not have hardware or software  that determines the outcome of any electronic game card, produce its own  outcome, or affect the order of electronic game cards as dispensed from the  distributed pull-tab system. The game outcome shall be determined by the  distributed pull-tab system as outlined within these rules. 
    C. Game themes may not contain obscene or offensive  graphics, animations, or references. All game themes will be subject to  approval by the department. 
    D. Prior to approval for use, each player device must meet  the following specifications with respect to its operation: 
    1. After accepting an allowable cash payment from the  player, the player shall press a "play" button to initiate a game.
    2. The player device shall not display in any manner, the  number of electronic game cards of each finite category, or how many cards  remain.
    3. Awards of merchandise prizes in lieu of cash are  prohibited.
    4. The player must interact with the device to initiate a  game and reveal a win or loss. This may involve a button press on the console  or on the touch screen.
    5. The electronic game card must be initially displayed  with a cover and require player interaction to reveal the symbols and game  outcome.
    6. In no event may a player device simulate play of  roulette, poker, keno, lotto or lottery, twenty-one, blackjack, or any other  card game, or simulate play of any type of slot machine game, regardless of  whether the machine has a payback feature or extra play awards. Card symbols  such as ace, king, queen, or heart are acceptable, provided the aforementioned  is abided by.
    7. Games must not contain any elements of skill. 
    E. Each player device must meet the following  specifications with respect to its metering system: 
    1. A player device shall contain electronic metering  whereby meters record and display on the video screen the following information  at a minimum: 
    a. Total cash in for the bill acceptor if equipped with a  bill acceptor; 
    b. Total cash played; 
    c. Total cash won; 
    d. Total cash removed from player device; 
    e. Total count of electronic game cards played; and 
    f. Total count of electronic game cards won. 
    2. An electronic meter shall be capable of maintaining  correct totals and be of no less than 10 digits in length. 
    3. A player device shall not be capable of displaying the  number of electronic game cards that remain in the game set or the number of  winners or losers that have been drawn or still remain in the game set while  the game set is still being played. 
    4. An electronic meter shall not be capable of being  automatically reset or cleared, whether due to an error in any aspect of the  meter's or a game's operation or otherwise. 
    5. Currency meters shall be maintained in dollars and  cents.
    Part V
  Administrative Process
    11VAC15-40-420. Procedural rules for the conduct of  fact-finding conferences and hearings.
    A. Fact-finding conference; notification, appearance, and  conduct. 
    1. Unless automatic revocation or immediate suspension is  required by law, no permit to conduct charitable gaming or to sell charitable  gaming supplies shall be denied, suspended, or revoked except after review and  approval of such proposed denial, suspension, or revocation action by the  board, and upon notice stating the basis for such proposed action and the time  and place for a fact-finding conference as set forth in § 2.2-4019 of the  Administrative Process Act.
    2. If a basis exists for a refusal to renew, suspend, or a  revoke a permit, the department shall notify by certified mail or by hand  delivery the interested persons at the address of record maintained by the  department. 
    3. Notification shall include the basis for the proposed  action and afford interested persons the opportunity to present written and  oral information to the department that may have a bearing on the proposed  action at a fact-finding conference. If there is no withdrawal, a fact-finding  conference shall be scheduled at the earliest mutually agreeable date, but no  later than 60 days from the date of the notification. Organizations or  suppliers who wish to waive their right to a conference shall notify the  department at least 14 days before the scheduled conference. 
    4. If, after consideration of evidence presented during an  informal fact-finding conference, a basis for action still exists, the  interested persons shall be notified in writing within 60 days of the  fact-finding conference via certified or hand-delivered mail of the decision  and the right to a formal hearing. Parties to the conference may agree to  extend the report deadline if more time is needed to consider relevant  evidence. 
    B. Hearing; notification, appearance, and conduct. 
    1. If, after a fact-finding conference, a sufficient basis  still exists to deny, suspend, or revoke a permit, interested persons shall be  notified by certified or hand-delivered mail of the proposed action and of the  opportunity for a hearing on the proposed action. If an organization or  supplier desires to request a hearing, it shall notify the department within 14  days of receipt of a report on the conference. Parties may enter into a consent  agreement to settle the issues at any time prior to, or subsequent to, an  informal fact-finding conference. 
    2. If an interested party or representative fails to appear  at a hearing, the hearing officer may proceed in his absence and make a  recommendation. 
    3. Oral and written arguments may be submitted to and  limited by the hearing officer. Oral arguments shall be recorded in an appropriate  manner. 
    C. Hearing location. Hearings before a hearing officer  shall be held, insofar as practicable, in the county or city in which the  organization or supplier is located. If the parties agree, hearing officers may  conduct hearings at locations convenient to the greatest number of persons or  by telephone conference, video conference, or similar technology, in order to  expedite the hearing process. 
    D. Hearing decisions. 
    1. Recommendations of the hearing officer shall be a part  of the record and shall include a written statement of the hearing officer's  findings of fact and recommendations as well as the reasons or basis for the  recommendations. Recommendations shall be based upon all the material issues of  fact, law, or discretion presented on the record. 
    2. The department shall review the recommendation of the  hearing officer and render a decision on the recommendation within 30 days of  receipt. The decision shall cite the appropriate rule, relief, or denial  thereof as to each issue. 
    E. Agency representation. The commissioner's designee may  represent the department in an informal conference or at a hearing. 
    11VAC15-40-430. Reporting violations.
    A. Unless otherwise required by law, the identity of any  individual who provides information to the department or its agents regarding  alleged violations shall be held in strict confidence. 
    B. Any officer, director, or game manager of a qualified  organization or any officer or director of a supplier shall immediately report  to the department any information pertaining to the suspected misappropriation  or theft of funds or any other violations of charitable gaming statutes or  these regulations. 
    C. Failure to report the information required by  subsection B of this section may result in the denial, suspension, or  revocation of a permit. 
    D. Any officer, director, or game manager of a qualified  organization involved in the management, operation, or conduct of charitable  gaming shall immediately notify the department upon conviction of a felony or a  crime involving fraud, theft, or financial crimes. 
    E. Any officer, director, partner, or owner of a supplier  shall immediately notify the department upon conviction or plea of nolo  contendere to a felony or a crime involving gambling or an action against any  license or certificate held by the supplier in any state in the United States.
    F. Failure to report information required by subsection D  or E of this section by any officer, director, or game manager of a qualified  organization or by any supplier may result in the denial, suspension, or  revocation of a permit. 
    G. Any officer, director, or game manager of a qualified  organization involved in charitable gaming shall immediately report to the  department any change the Internal Revenue Service makes in the tax status of  the organization, or if the organization is a chapter of a national  organization covered by a group tax exempt determination, the tax status of the  national organization. 
    H. All organizations regulated by the department shall  display prominently a poster advising the public of a phone number where  complaints relating to charitable gaming may be made. Such posters shall be  provided by the department to organizations at no charge.
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name to access a form. The forms are  also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar  of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (11VAC15-40)
    GAME MANAGEMENT FORMS
    Bingo  Session Reconciliation Summary, Form 103 (rev. 1/11).
    Admission  Sales Reconciliation - Paper, Form 104-A (rev. 1/11).
    Floor  Sales Reconciliation - Paper, Form 104-B (rev. 1/11).
    Decision  Bingo Reconciliation, Form 104-C (rev. 1/11).
    Raffle/Treasure  Chest Sales Reconciliation - Bingo Session, Form 104-D (rev. 1/11).
    Instant  Bingo/Seal Cards/Pull-Tabs Reconciliation, Form 105 (rev. 1/11) .
    Storeroom  Inventory Issue - Paper, Form 106-A (rev. 7/08).
    Storeroom  Inventory Issue - Instant Bingo/Seal Cards/Pull-Tabs, Form 106-B (rev. 7/08).
    List  of Volunteer Workers, Form 107 (rev. 7/08).
    Prize  Receipt, Form 108 (rev. 7/08).
    Storeroom  Inventory - Paper, Form 109-A (rev. 1/11).
    Storeroom  Inventory - Instant Bingo/Seal Cards/Pull-Tabs, Form 109-B (rev. 1/11) .
    ORGANIZATION LICENSING FORMS 
    Charitable  Gaming Permit Application - New Applicants Only, Form 201 - N (rev. 1/11).
    Charitable  Gaming Permit Application - Renewal Applicants Only, Form 201 - R (rev. 1/11).
    Permit  Amendment (rev. 1/11).
    Gaming  Personnel Information Update (rev. 7/08).
    Report  of Game Termination (rev. 7/08).
    SUPPLIER LICENSING FORMS
    Charitable  Gaming Supplier Permit Application, Form 301 (rev. 1/11).
    Annual  Supplier Sales and Transaction Report, Form 302 (rev. 7/08).
    BINGO MANAGER AND BINGO CALLER REGISTRATION FORMS
    Charitable Gaming Bingo  Caller Certificate of Registration Application, Form 401 (rev. 1/11).
    Charitable Gaming Bingo  Manager Certificate of Registration Application, Form 402 (rev. 1/11).
    Amendment  to Certificate of Registration – Registered Bingo Callers and Bingo Managers  (rev. 1/11).
    Personal  Information Update – Registered Bingo Callers and Registered Bingo Managers,  Form 404 (rev. 7/07).
    Bona  Fide Member Verification, Form 405 (rev. 5/11).
    DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (11VAC15-40)
    IRS  Publication 3079, Tax-Exempt Organizations and Gaming (rev. 6/10).
    Security  Requirements for Cryptographic Modules, Federal Information Processing  Standard, FIPS Pub 140-2 (rev. 12/02).
    VA.R. Doc. No. R11-2560; Filed October 19, 2011, 2:33 p.m. 
TITLE 11. GAMING
CHARITABLE GAMING BOARD
Proposed Regulation
    Titles of Regulations: 11VAC15-22. Charitable Gaming  Rules and Regulations (repealing 11VAC15-22-10 through  11VAC15-22-120).
    11VAC15-31. Supplier Regulations (repealing 11VAC15-31-10 through  11VAC15-31-60).
    11VAC15-40. Charitable Gaming Regulations (adding 11VAC15-40-10 through 11VAC15-40-430). 
    Statutory Authority: § 18.2-340.15 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information:
    December 13, 2011 - 10:15 a.m. - Oliver Hill Building, 102  Governor Street, 2nd Floor Board Room, Richmond, VA
    Public Comment Deadline: January 6, 2012.
    Agency Contact: Erin Williams, Policy and Planning  Coordinator, Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, P.O. Box 1163,  Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 786-1308, FAX (804) 371-7479, TTY (800)  828-1120, or email erin.williams@vdacs.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 18.2-340.15 of the Code of Virginia  authorizes the Charitable Gaming Board to prescribe regulations and conditions  under which charitable gaming is conducted in Virginia to ensure consistency  with the purpose for which such gaming is permitted. Additionally, Chapter 264  of the 2007 Acts of Assembly amended the statute by requiring changes to the  charitable gaming regulations in order to implement electronic games of chance  systems. The Charitable Gaming Board approved the promulgation of a single  regulation that will consolidate the two current regulations and provide for  the implementation of regulations regarding electronic games of chance systems.  
    Purpose: The existence of two separate but closely  interrelated regulations governing charitable gaming has resulted in  duplicative, burdensome, and unnecessarily lengthy efforts in those instances  when the agency has had to amend both regulations in response to a single  change in the statute, as was the case with the passage of HB 1998 (Chapter 264  of the 2007 Acts of Assembly). The promulgation of a single, consolidated  regulation will greatly facilitate the agency's administration of the  charitable gaming program. 
    Proponents of the legislation that resulted in the  authorization of electronic games of chance systems in the Commonwealth have  indicated that charitable gaming organizations will see significant increases  in both attendance and revenues through the offering of electronic pull-tabs at  their gaming events. Attendance at charitable gaming events has dropped  considerably in the last few years, in some cases by as much as 40%, on account  of changing demographics, as well as the economic downturn. The ability to  offer electronic pull-tabs is expected to attract younger players to bingo  halls across Virginia, to lower the gaming organizations overhead costs through  reduced expenses for paper supplies, and to improve the organizations ability  to meet the 10% use of proceeds required by the Charitable Gaming Board.
    Substance: The proposed regulation consolidates the  substance of the current regulation titled Charitable Gaming Rules and Regulations,  11VAC15-22, as well as the substance of the current regulation titled Supplier  Regulations, 11VAC15-31. Substantive changes include the addition of provisions  regarding full automatic daubing of bingo numbers and progressive bingo games,  both of which were authorized by Chapter 429 of the 2010 Acts of Assembly. The  proposed regulations reduce the time required between gaming activities from  one hour to 30 minutes. The existing regulations pertaining to electronic bingo  devices (which are devices that support conventional bingo games and should not  be confused with devices that support electronic pull-tabs) were modified to  permit the use of electronic bingo device systems that do not identify at the  point of sale the number of the electronic bingo device issued to the player. 
    The section pertaining to electronic games of chance systems  includes rules for the conduct of electronic games of chance, requirements for  manufacturers and suppliers of electronic games of chance systems, and  construction and other standards for electronic games of chance systems.
    Issues: The inclusion of provisions pertaining to  electronic games of chance systems will provide charitable gaming organizations  a new option to promote greater attendance at their gaming events. Greater  attendance should increase the revenue organizations generate from their  charitable gaming activities, which, in turn, should facilitate compliance with  applicable requirements regarding the charitable use of organizations proceeds.  
    The promulgation of a single, consolidated regulation will  greatly facilitate the agency's administration of the charitable gaming program  by eliminating the need for duplicative regulatory actions due to the existence  of two interrelated regulations. 
    Special interest groups are monitoring the progress of this  regulation to ensure that it does not lead to casino-style gambling or expand  the type of gaming that is allowed in the Commonwealth. The agency has involved  these stakeholders during relevant discussions; the agency is not aware of  specific concerns with the proposed regulations. 
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Virginia  Charitable Gaming Board (Board) proposes to consolidate two separate  regulations, Charitable Gaming Rules and Regulations, 11VAC15-22, and Supplier  Regulations, 11VAC15-31, into one regulation that will also establish rules  regarding electronic games of chance systems for charitable gaming. 
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  one or more proposed changes. There is insufficient data to accurately compare  the magnitude of the benefits versus the costs for other changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Chapter 264 of the 2007 Virginia  Acts of Assembly authorized the use of electronic games of chance, also known  as electronic pull tabs, by charitable gaming organizations. The chapter also  specifies that no person shall offer to sell, sell or otherwise provide  charitable gaming supplies to any qualified organization and no manufacturer  shall distribute electronic games of chance systems for charitable gaming in  the Commonwealth unless and until such person has made application for and has  been issued a permit by the Department (of Agriculture and Consumer Services).  In practice electronic games of chance have not yet been available for  charitable gaming since the Board has not yet promulgated regulations that  would enable the issuing of a permit for the distribution of electronic games  of chance. In the current action the Board proposes rules that would enable the  distribution and use of electronic games of chance to go forward.
    In calendar year 2009, the most recent year data is available,  there were $279 million in gross receipts for charitable gaming in Virginia.1  Based on the experiences of other states which introduced electronic pull tabs,  the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services (Department)  expects gross receipts from charitable gaming to at least triple with the  advent of electronic pull tabs. Manufacturers and suppliers of electronic games  of chance will certainly benefit with increased business. Purchasing and using  electronic games of chance for fundraising is of course optional for charitable  organizations; so the charitable organizations will only purchase and use them  if they believe they will provide a net benefit through increased revenue  available for their charitable purposes. A significant portion of Virginians  believe that there is a negative impact on morality associated with gambling.  The introduction and use of electronic pull tabs will very likely increase at  least the dollar value of gambling in Virginia. It is beyond the scope of this  analysis to compare the benefits of increased business for manufacturers and suppliers  of electronic games of chance and the benefits of increased revenue for  charitable organizations to use for their charitable purposes to the potential  negative moral impact of increased gambling. That is intrinsically a subjective  value judgment. 
    The Board proposes several other changes that will have some  impact. The fee for a permit change would be eliminated. This is obviously  beneficial for permit holders. The Board believes funds for operation are  sufficient without charging this fee. The Department would use compliance  agreements rather than consent orders and remedial business plans rather than  corrective action plans. This would be less heavy handed and would likely  create a more cooperative relationship between the Department and charitable organizations.  The required break between charitable gaming activities would be reduced from  one hour to 30 minutes. This would enable more time to be devoted to  fundraising while still allotting sufficient transition time between charitable  organizations. All of these changes provide benefit without significant cost.
    Specific dollar amounts included in the current regulations  that are prescribed by the Code of Virginia would be replaced by references to  sections of the Code that prescribe these amounts. This is beneficial since  when and if these dollar amounts are changed in the Code the dollar amounts  currently listed in the regulations would then be in conflict with the Code.  When the Code and regulations conflict, the Code prevails. Thus, persons who read  the regulations would be misled under these circumstances. Amending regulations  can take a significant amount of time. Thus, replacing specified dollar amounts  included in the current regulations that are prescribed by the Code with  references to sections of the Code that prescribe these amounts would enable  the regulations to always be accurate concerning the effective legal dollar  figures. Thus this proposed change clearly provides a net benefit.
    The current regulations state that volunteer game workers may  not play bingo at any session they have worked or purchase instant bingo,  pull-tab, or seal card products from organizations they assist on the day they  have volunteered or from any deal they have helped sell, whichever is later.  Under the proposed regulations, no one involved in the conduct of bingo may  play bingo at any session they have worked or intend to work. No one involved  in the sale or redemption of any instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or  electronic game cards may purchase directly or through others instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal card, or electronic game card products from organizations they  assist on the day they have worked or from any deal they have helped sell or  redeem, whichever occurs later. Thus paid workers as well as volunteers are  prohibited from gambling in games in which they work on the days they work as  well as deals they have helped sell or redeem. Paid workers and volunteers  could still gamble on other days provided that the games are not deals they  have helped sell or redeem. This proposed change does introduce a new  limitation on paid workers, but it seems a reasonable change to help ensure  fairness while still permitting paid workers the opportunity to participate in  games in which they are not directly involved. 
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed regulations will  potentially affect the approximate 400 qualified charitable gaming  organizations and 19 charitable gaming suppliers in the Commonwealth as well as  manufacturers of electronic games of chance systems. The Virginia Department of  Agriculture and Consumer Services estimates that the majority of the charitable  gaming suppliers are small businesses.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do  not disproportionately affect particular localities.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal to establish rules  for electronic games of chance systems will enable the distribution and use of  electronic games of chance to go forward. This will likely significantly  increase business for manufacturers and suppliers of electronic games of  chance. Employment at some of these firms will likely moderately increase. 
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposal  to establish rules for electronic games of chance systems will enable the  distribution and use of electronic games of chance to go forward. This will  likely significantly increase business for manufacturers and suppliers of  electronic games of chance. The net value of these firms will likely increase.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed  amendments are unlikely to increase costs for small businesses.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. The proposed amendments are unlikely to significantly adversely affect  small businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments are  unlikely to significantly affect real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number  14 (10). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or  other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any  localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the  projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the  projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with  the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the  regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the  regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing  required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect  of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any  less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of  the regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of  these economic impacts.
    ____________________________
    1Data source: Virginia Department of Agriculture and  Consumer Services
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The  Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services concurs with the analysis of  the Department of Planning and Budget.
    Summary:
    The proposed regulation consists of five parts pertaining  to (i) definitions, (ii) charitable gaming organizations and the conduct of  charitable gaming, (iii) charitable gaming suppliers, (iv) electronic games of  chance systems, and (v) administrative process. 
    The section pertaining to charitable gaming organizations  and the conduct of charitable gaming reflects the substance of the current  regulation titled Charitable Gaming Rules and Regulations, 11VAC15-22. The  section pertaining to charitable gaming suppliers reflects the substance of the  current regulation titled Supplier Regulations, 11VAC15-31. The section  pertaining to electronic games of chance systems includes rules for the conduct  of electronic games of chance, requirements for manufacturers and suppliers of  electronic games of chance systems, and construction and other standards for  electronic games of chance systems. The sections pertaining to definitions and  the administrative process consolidate the definitions and administrative  process sections found in the current regulations, 11VAC15-22 and 11VAC15-31.
    CHAPTER 40
  CHARITABLE GAMING REGULATIONS
    Part 1
  Definitions
    11VAC15-40-10. Definitions.
    In addition to the definitions contained in  § 18.2-340.16 of the Code of Virginia, the words and terms below when used  in this regulation shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly  indicates otherwise: 
    "Agent" means any person authorized by a  supplier to act for or in place of such supplier. 
    "Board" means the Virginia Charitable Gaming  Board. 
    "Board of directors" means the board of  directors, managing committee, or other supervisory body of a qualified  organization. 
    "Calendar day" means the period of 24  consecutive hours commencing at 12:01 a.m. and concluding at midnight. 
    "Calendar week" means the period of seven  consecutive calendar days commencing at 12:01 a.m. on Sunday and ending at  midnight the following Saturday. 
    "Cash" means United States currency or coinage. 
    "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of the  Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services.
    "Concealed face bingo card" means a nonreusable  bingo card constructed to conceal the card face. 
    "Conduct" means the actions associated with the  provision of a gaming operation during and immediately before or after the  permitted activity, which may include, but not be limited to (i) selling bingo  cards or packs, electronic devices, instant bingo or pull-tab cards, or raffle  tickets; (ii) calling bingo games; (iii) distributing prizes; and (iv) any  other services provided by volunteer workers. 
    "Control program" means software involved in any  critical game function.
    "Daubing" means covering a square containing a number  called with indelible ink or otherwise marking a number called on a card or an  electronic facsimile of a card. 
    "Deal" means each separate package or series of  packages consisting of one game of instant bingo, pull-tabs, or seal cards with  the same serial number. 
    "Decision bingo" means a bingo game where the  cost to a player to play is dependent on the number of bingo numbers called and  the prize payout is in direct relationship to the number of participants and  the number of bingo numbers called, but shall not exceed statutory prize limits  for a regular bingo game. 
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Agriculture and Consumer Services, Division of Consumer Protection, Office of  Charitable Gaming. 
    "Designator" means an object used in the number  selection process, such as a ping-pong ball, upon which bingo letters and  numbers are imprinted. 
    "Discount" means any reduction in cost of  admission or game packs or any other purchases through use of coupons, free  packs, or other similar methods. 
    "Disinterested player" means a player who is  unbiased. 
    "Disposable paper card" means a nonreusable,  paper bingo card manufactured with preprinted numbers. 
    "Distributed pull-tab system" means a computer  system consisting of a computer or computers and associated equipment for the  use of distributing a finite number of electronic instant bingo and/or pull-tab  outcomes (i.e., electronic game cards), a certain number of which entitle a  player to prize awards at various levels. 
    "Door prize" means any prize awarded by the  random drawing or random selection of a name or number based solely on  attendance at a gaming session. 
    "Electronic bingo device" means an electronic  device that uses proprietary software or hardware or, in conjunction with  commonly available software and computers, displays facsimiles of bingo cards  and allows a player to daub such cards or allows for the automatic daubing of  such cards. 
    "Electronic game card" means an electronic  version of a single instant bingo card or pull-tab. An electronic game card is  a predetermined game outcome in electronic form, distributed on-demand from a  finite number of game outcomes by a distributed pull-tab system. 
    "Equipment and video systems" means equipment  that facilitates the conduct of charitable gaming such as ball blowers,  flashboards, electronic verifiers, and replacement parts for such equipment. 
    "Event game" means a bingo game that is played  using instant bingo cards or pull-tabs in which the winners include both  instant winners and winners who are determined by the random draw of a bingo  ball, the random call of a bingo number, or the use of a seal card, and that is  sold and played to completion during a single bingo session.
    "Fiscal year" or "annual reporting  period" means the 12-month period beginning January 1 and ending December  31 of any given year. 
    "Flare" means a piece of paper, cardboard, or  similar material that bears printed information relating to the name of the  manufacturer or logo, name of the game, card count, cost per play, serial number,  the number of prizes to be awarded, and the specific prize amounts in a deal of  instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal cards. 
    "Free space number," "perm number,"  "center number," "card number," or "face number"  means the number generally printed in the center space of a bingo card that  identifies the unique pattern of numbers printed on that card. 
    "Game program" means a written list of all games  to be played including, but not limited to, the sales price of all bingo paper  and electronic bingo devices, pack configuration, prize amounts to be paid  during a session for each game, and an indication whether prize amounts are  fixed or are based on attendance. 
    "Game set" means the entire pool of electronic  game cards that contains predefined and randomized game results assigned under  a unique serial number. This term is equivalent to "deal" or  "deck."
    "Game subset" means a division of a game set  into equal sizes.
    "Gaming activity" means one bingo session and  the sale and redemption of instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or electronic  game cards done in conjunction with that bingo session and in accordance with  the provisions of this chapter.
    "Immediate family" means one's spouse, parent,  child, sibling, grandchild, grandparent, mother or father-in-law, or stepchild.  
    "Interested persons" means the president, an  officer, or a bingo manager of any qualified organization that is exempt or is  a permit applicant or holds a permit to conduct charitable gaming; or the  owner, director, officer or partner of an entity engaged in supplying  charitable gaming supplies to organizations. 
    "IRS" means the United States Internal Revenue  Service. 
    "Management" means the provision of oversight of  a gaming operation, which may include, but is not limited to, the  responsibilities of applying for and maintaining a permit or authorization;  compiling, submitting, and maintaining required records and financial reports;  and ensuring that all aspects of the operation are in compliance with all  applicable statutes and regulations. 
    "Manufacturer" means a person who or entity that  assembles from raw materials or subparts a completed piece of bingo or other  charitable gaming equipment or supplies. "Manufacturer" also means a  person who or entity that modifies, converts, adds, or removes parts to or from  bingo or other charitable gaming equipment or supplies to further their  promotion or sale for the conduct of charitable gaming. 
    "OCG number" means a unique identification  number issued by the department.
    "Operation" means the activities associated with  production of a charitable gaming activity, which may include, but is not  limited to, (i) the direct on-site supervision of the conduct of charitable  gaming; (ii) coordination of volunteers; and (iii) all responsibilities of  charitable gaming designated by the organization's management. 
    "Owner" means any individual with financial  interest of 10% or more in a supplier. 
    "Pack" means sheets of bingo paper or electronic  facsimiles assembled in the order of games to be played. This shall not include  any raffle. 
    "Player device" means an electronic unit that  may take the form of an upright cabinet or a handheld device or may be of any  other composition as approved by the department used to facilitate the play of  electronic instant bingo or pull-tab games.
    "Prize" means cash, merchandise, certificate, or  other item of value awarded to a winning player. 
    "Progressive bingo" means a bingo game in which  the prize is carried forward to the next game if a predetermined pattern is not  completed within a specified number of bingo numbers called.
    "Progressive seal card" means a seal card game  in which a prize is carried forward to the next deal if not won when a deal is  completed. 
    "Remuneration" means payment in cash or the  provision of anything of value for goods provided or services rendered. 
    "Seal card" means a board or placard used in  conjunction with a deal of the same serial number that contains one or more  concealed areas that, when removed or opened, reveal a predesignated winning  number, letter, or symbol located on that board or placard. 
    "Selection device" means a manually or  mechanically operated device to randomly select bingo numbers. 
    "Serial number" means a unique number printed by  the manufacturer on each bingo card in a set; each instant bingo, pull-tab, or  seal card in a deal; each electronic bingo device; or each door prize ticket. 
    "Series number" means the number of unique card  faces contained in a set of disposable bingo paper cards or bingo hard cards. A  9000 series, for example, has 9000 unique faces. 
    "Session" means a period of time during which  one or more bingo games are conducted that begins with the selection of the  first ball for the first game and ends with the selection of the last ball for  the last game. 
    "Treasure chest" means a raffle including a  locked treasure chest containing a prize that a participant, selected through  some other authorized charitable game, is afforded the chance to select from a  series of keys a predetermined key that will open the locked treasure chest to win  a prize. 
    "Use of proceeds" means the use of funds derived  by an organization from its charitable gaming activities, which are disbursed  for those lawful religious, charitable, community, or educational purposes.  This includes expenses relating to the acquisition, construction, maintenance,  or repair of any interest in the real property involved in the operation of the  organization and used for lawful religious, charitable, community, or  educational purposes. 
    "Voucher" means a printed ticket tendered to the  player, upon request, for any unused game plays and/or winnings that remain on  the player device. 
    "WINGO" means a variation of a traditional bingo  game that uses visual devices rather than a verbal caller and is intended for  play by hearing impaired persons. 
    Part II
  Charitable Gaming Organizations
    Article 1
  Permits
    11VAC15-40-20. Eligibility for permit to conduct charitable  gaming; when valid; permit requirements.
    A. The conduct of charitable gaming is a privilege that  may be granted or denied by the department. Except as  provided in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia, every eligible  organization, volunteer fire department, and rescue squad with anticipated  gross gaming receipts that exceed  the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia in any  12-month period shall obtain a permit from the department prior to the  commencement of charitable gaming activities. To be eligible for a permit an  organization must meet all of the requirements of § 18.2-340.24 of the  Code of Virginia.
    B. Pursuant to § 18.2-340.24 B of the Code of Virginia, the  department shall review a tax exempt request submitted to the IRS for a tax  exempt status determination and may issue an interim certification of  tax-exempt status solely for the purpose of charitable gaming, conditioned upon  a determination by the IRS. The department shall charge the fee set forth in  § 18.2-340.24 B of the Code of Virginia for this review. The fee shall be  payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
    C. A permit shall be valid only for activities, locations,  days, dates, and times as listed on the permit. 
    D. In accordance with § 18.2-340.19 A 1 of the Code  of Virginia, as a condition of receiving a permit, a minimum of 10% of  charitable gaming gross receipts shall be used for (i) those lawful religious,  charitable, community, or educational purposes for which the organization is  specifically chartered or organized or (ii) those expenses relating to the  acquisition, construction, maintenance, or repair of any interest in real  property involved in the operation of the organization and used for lawful  religious, charitable, community, or educational purposes.
    E. If an organization fails to meet the minimum use of  proceeds requirement, its permit may be suspended or revoked. However, the  department shall not suspend or revoke the permit of any organization solely  because of its failure to meet the required percentage without having first  provided the organization with an opportunity to implement a corrective action  plan. 
    F. An organization may request a temporary reduction in  the predetermined percentage specified in subsection D of this section from the  department. In reviewing such a request, the department shall consider such  factors appropriate to and consistent with the purpose of charitable gaming,  which may include, but not be limited to, (i) the organization's overall  financial condition; (ii) the length of time the organization has been involved  in charitable gaming; (iii) the extent of the deficiency; and (iv) the progress  that the organization has made in attaining the minimum percentage in  accordance with a corrective action plan pursuant to subsection E of this  section. 
    G. An organization whose permit is revoked for failure to  comply with provisions set forth in subsection D of this section shall be  eligible to reapply for a permit at the end of one year from the date of  revocation. The department, at its discretion, may issue the permit if it is  satisfied that the organization has made substantial efforts towards meeting  its corrective action plan. 
    11VAC15-40-30. Permit application process.
    A. Any organization anticipating gross gaming receipts  that exceed the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia  shall complete a department-prescribed application to request issuance or renewal  of an annual permit to conduct charitable gaming. Organizations shall submit a  nonrefundable fee payable to the Treasurer of Virginia in the amount of $200  with the application, unless the organization is exempt from such fee pursuant  to § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia.
    B. The department may initiate action against any  organization exempt from permit requirements when it reasonably believes the  organization is not in compliance with the provisions of charitable gaming laws  or applicable regulations, or both, of the board. 
    C. Permit holders requiring a special permit pursuant to  § 18.2-340.27 E of the Code of Virginia shall convey their request on a  form prescribed by the department. Organizations shall submit a fee payable to  the Treasurer of Virginia in the amount of $50 with the request for a special  permit, unless the organization is exempt from such fee pursuant to  § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia.
    D. Permits shall be valid for a period of one year from  the date of issuance or for a period specified on the permit. The department  may issue permits for periods of less than one year. 
    E. Permits shall be granted only after a background  investigation of an organization or interested persons, or both, to ensure  public safety and welfare as required by § 18.2-340.25 of the Code of  Virginia. Investigations shall consider the nature, the age and severity, and  the potential harm to public safety and welfare of any criminal offenses. The  investigation may include, but shall not be limited to, the following: 
    1. A search of Virginia criminal history records for the  chief executive officer and chief financial officer of the organization.  Information and authorization to conduct these records checks shall be provided  in the permit application. In addition, the department shall require that the  organization provides assurances that all other members involved in the  management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming meet the requirements of  subdivision 13 of § 18.2-340.33 of the Code of Virginia. Applications may  be denied if: 
    a. Any person participating in the management of any  charitable gaming has ever been: 
    (1) Convicted of a felony; or 
    (2) Convicted of any misdemeanor involving fraud, theft, or  financial crimes within the preceding five years. 
    b. Any person participating in the conduct of charitable  gaming has been: 
    (1) Convicted of any felony in the preceding 10 years; or 
    (2) Convicted of any misdemeanor involving fraud, theft, or  financial crimes within the preceding five years; 
    2. An inquiry as to whether the organization has been  granted tax-exempt status pursuant to § 501(c) by the Internal Revenue Service  and is in compliance with IRS annual filing requirements; 
    3. An inquiry as to whether the organization has entered  into any contract with, or has otherwise employed for compensation, any persons  for the purpose of organizing or managing, operating, or conducting any  charitable gaming activity; 
    4. Inquiries into the finances and activities of the  organization and the sources and uses of funds; and 
    5. Inquiries into the level of community or financial  support to the organization and the level of community involvement in the  membership and management of the organization. 
    F. The permit application for an organization that has not  previously held a permit shall include: 
    1. A list of members participating in the management or  operation of charitable gaming. For any organization that is not composed of  members, a person who is not a bona fide member may volunteer in the conduct of  a charitable game as long as that person is directly supervised by a bona fide  official member of the organization; 
    2. A copy of the articles of incorporation, bylaws,  charter, constitution, or other appropriate organizing document; 
    3. A copy of the determination letter issued by the IRS  under § 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code, if appropriate, or a letter from  the national office of an organization indicating the applicant organization is  in good standing and is currently covered by a group exemption ruling. A letter  of good standing is not required if the applicable national or state office has  furnished the department with a listing of member organizations in good  standing in the Commonwealth as of January 1 of each year and has agreed to  promptly provide the department any changes to the listing as they occur; 
    4. A copy of the organization's most recent annual  financial statement and balance sheet or most recent Form 990 that has been  filed with the IRS; 
    5. A copy of the written lease or proposed written lease  agreement and all other agreements if the organization rents or intends to rent  a facility where bingo is or will be conducted. Information on the lease shall  include name, address, and phone number of the landlord; maximum occupancy of  the building; and the rental amount per session; and 
    6. An authorization by an officer or other appropriate  official of the organization to permit the department to determine whether the  organization has been investigated or examined by the IRS in connection with  charitable gaming activities during the previous three years. 
    G. Copies of minutes of meetings of the organization and  any contracts with landlords or suppliers to which the organization is or may  be a party may be requested by the department prior to rendering a permitting  decision. 
    H. Organizations applying to renew a permit previously  issued by the department shall submit articles of incorporation, bylaws,  charter, constitution, or other organizing document, and IRS determination  letter only if there are any amendments or changes to these documents that are  directly related to the management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming.  
    I. Organizations may request permits to conduct joint  bingo games as provided in § 18.2-340.29 of the Code of Virginia.
    1. In the case of a joint game, all the organizations shall  file a permit application. 
    2. The nonrefundable permit fee for joint games shall be a  total of $200. Volunteer fire departments or rescue squads or auxiliary units  thereof that have been recognized in accordance with § 15.2-955 of the  Code of Virginia shall be exempt from the payment of applications fees. 
    3. A single permit shall be issued in the names of all the  organizations conducting a joint game. All restrictions and prohibitions  applying to single organizations shall apply to qualified organizations jointly  conducting bingo games pursuant to § 18.2-340.29 of the Code of Virginia. 
    4. No charitable gaming shall be conducted prior to the  issuance of a joint permit. 
    5. Applications for joint games shall include an  explanation of the division of manpower, costs, and proceeds for the joint  game. 
    J. An organization wishing to change dates, times, or  locations of its charitable gaming shall request a change in the permit. Change  requests shall be made in writing on a form prescribed by the department at  least 30 days in advance of the proposed effective date. 
    K. Changes in dates, times, or locations due to inclement  weather, disasters, or other circumstances outside the organization's control  may be made without a change in the permit. The organization shall request such  a change on a form prescribed by the department as soon as the necessity for  the change is known. 
    L. An organization may sell raffle tickets for a drawing  to be held outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia in the United States  provided: 
    1. The raffle is conducted by the organization in  conjunction with a meeting outside the Commonwealth of Virginia or with another  organization that is licensed to conduct raffles outside the Commonwealth of  Virginia; 
    2. The raffle is conducted in accordance with these  regulations and the laws and regulations of the state where the drawing is to  be held; and 
    3. The portion of the proceeds derived from the sale of  raffle tickets in the Commonwealth is reported to the department. 
    M. Any permitted organization that ceases to conduct  charitable gaming shall immediately notify the department in writing and  provide the department a report as to the disposition of all unused gaming  supplies on a form prescribed by the department.
    11VAC15-40-40. Suspension, revocation, or denial of permit.
    A. Pursuant to § 18.2-340.20 of the Code of Virginia,  the department may suspend, revoke, or deny the permit to conduct charitable  gaming of any organization for cause including, but not limited to, any of the  following reasons: 
    1. The organization is found to be in violation of or has  failed to meet any of the requirements of the statutes or regulations governing  the operation, management, and conduct of charitable gaming in the  Commonwealth.
    2. The organization is found to be not in good standing  with its state or national organization.
    3. The IRS revokes or suspends the organization's  tax-exempt status.
    4. The organization willfully and knowingly provides false  information in its application for a permit to conduct charitable gaming. 
    5. The organization is found to have a member involved in  the management, operation, or conduct of its charitable gaming who has been  convicted of any felony or any misdemeanor as follows: 
    a. For any person participating in the management or  operation of any charitable gaming: 
    (1) Convicted of a felony; or 
    (2) Convicted of any misdemeanor involving fraud, theft, or  financial crimes within the preceding five years. 
    b. For any person participating in the conduct of  charitable gaming: 
    (1) Convicted of any felony within the preceding 10 years;  or 
    (2) Convicted of any misdemeanor involving fraud, theft, or  financial crimes within the preceding five years. 
    B. The failure to meet any of the requirements of  § 18.2-340.24 of the Code of Virginia shall cause the denial of the  permit, and no organization shall conduct any charitable gaming until the  requirements are met and a permit is obtained. 
    C. Except when an organization fails to meet any of the  requirements of § 18.2-340.24 of the Code of Virginia, in lieu of  suspending, revoking, or denying a permit to conduct charitable gaming, the  department may afford an organization an opportunity to enter into a compliance  agreement specifying additional conditions or requirements as it may deem  necessary to ensure an organization's compliance with the statute and  regulations governing the conduct of charitable gaming activities and may  require that an organization participates in such training as is offered by the  department.
    D. If a permit is suspended, the department shall set the  terms of the suspension, which shall include the length of the suspension and a  requirement that, prior to reinstatement of the permit, the organization shall  submit a remedial business plan to address the conditions that resulted in the  suspension.
    Article 2
  Conduct of Games, Rules of Play, Electronic Bingo 
    11VAC15-40-50. Conduct of bingo, instant bingo, pull-tabs,  seal cards, event games, and raffles.
    A. Organizations subject to this chapter shall post their  permit at all times on the premises where charitable gaming is conducted. 
    B. No individual shall provide any information or engage  in any conduct that alters or is intended to alter the outcome of any  charitable game. 
    C. Individuals under 18 years of age may play bingo  provided such persons are accompanied by a parent or legal guardian. It shall  be the responsibility of the organization to ensure that such individuals are  eligible to play. An organization's house rules may further limit the play of  bingo or purchase raffle tickets by minors. 
    D. Individuals under the age of 18 may sell raffle tickets  for a qualified organization raising funds for activities in which they are  active participants. 
    E. No individual under the age of 18 may participate in  the management or operation of bingo games. Individuals 14 through 17 years of  age may participate in the conduct of a bingo game provided the organization  permitted for charitable gaming obtains and keeps on file written parental  consent from the parent or legal guardian and verifies the date of birth of  such youth. An organization's house rules may further limit the involvement of  minors in the conduct of bingo games. 
    F. No qualified organization shall sell any instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal card, event game card, or electronic game card to any individual  under 18 years of age. No individual under 18 years of age shall play or redeem  any instant bingo, pull-tab, seal card, event game card, or electronic game  card. 
    G. Unless otherwise prohibited by the Code of Virginia or  this chapter, nonmembers who are under the direct supervision of a bona fide  member may participate in the conduct of bingo. 
    H. All volunteer game workers shall have in their  possession a picture identification, such as a driver's license or other  government-issued identification, and shall make the picture identification  available for inspection upon request by a department agent while participating  in the management, operation, or conduct of a bingo game. 
    I. A game manager who is a bona fide member of the  organization and is designated by the organization's management as the person  responsible for the operation of the bingo game during a particular session  shall be present any time a bingo game is conducted. 
    J. Organizations shall ensure that all charitable gaming  equipment is in working order before charitable gaming activities commence. 
    K. Any organization selling bingo, instant bingo,  pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards, or electronic game cards shall: 
    1. Maintain a supplier's invoice or a legible copy thereof  at the location where the gaming is taking place and cards are sold. The  original invoice or legible copy shall be stored in the same storage space as  the gaming supplies. All gaming supplies shall be stored in a secure area that  has access limited only to bona fide members of the organization; and 
    2. Pay for all gaming supplies only by a check drawn on the  charitable gaming account of the organization. 
    A complete inventory of all such gaming supplies shall be  maintained by the organization on the premises where the gaming is being  conducted. 
    L. A volunteer working a bingo session may receive  complimentary food and nonalcoholic beverages provided on premises, as long as  the retail value of such food and beverages does not exceed $15 for each  session. 
    M. Permitted organizations shall not commingle records,  supplies, or funds from permitted activities with those from instant bingo,  pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards, or electronic game cards sold in  social quarters in accordance with § 18.2-340.26:1 of the Code of  Virginia. 
    N. Individuals who are not members of an organization or  are members who do not participate in any charitable gaming activities may be  paid reasonable fees for preparation of quarterly and annual financial reports.  
    O. No free packs, free electronic bingo devices,  discounts, or remuneration in any other form shall be provided directly or  indirectly to volunteers, members of their family, or individuals residing in  their household. The reduction of tuition, dues, or any fees or payments due as  a result of a member or shareholder, or anyone in their household, working  bingo games or raffles is prohibited. 
    P. Individuals providing security for an organization's  charitable gaming activity shall not participate in the charitable gaming  activity and shall not be compensated with charitable gaming supplies or with  rentals of electronic bingo devices. 
    Q. No organization shall award any prize money or any  merchandise valued in excess of the amounts specified by the Code of Virginia. 
    R. Multiple bingo sessions shall be permitted in a single  premise as long as the sessions are distinct from one another and are not used  to advertise or do not result in the awarding of more in prizes than is  permitted for a single qualified organization. All leases for organizations to  conduct charitable gaming in a single premise shall ensure gaming activity is  separated by an interval of at least 30 minutes. Bingo sales for the subsequent  session may take place during the 30-minute break once the building is cleared  of all patrons and workers from the previous session. 
    S. All bingo and instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal card,  event game card, or electronic game card sales, play, and redemption must occur  within the time specified on the charitable gaming permit. 
    T. Instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards,  or electronic game cards shall only be sold in conjunction with a bingo  session, except as authorized by § 18.2-340.26:2 of the Code of Virginia.  No instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal card, event game card, or electronic game  card sales shall take place more than two hours before or after a session. If  multiple sessions are held at the same location, no instant bingo, pull-tab,  seal card, event game card, or electronic game card sales shall be conducted  during the required 30-minute break between gaming activities. The department  may take action if it believes that a bingo session is not legitimate or is  being conducted in a manner such that instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards,  event game cards, or electronic game cards are not being sold in conjunction  with a bingo session. 
    U. Only a volunteer game worker of qualified organizations  may rent, exchange, or otherwise provide electronic bingo devices to players. 
    V. A qualified organization shall conduct only bingo games  and raffles listed on a game program for that session. The program shall list  all prize amounts. If the prize amounts are determined by attendance or at the  end of a game, the game program shall list the attendance required for the  prize amount or disclose that prizes shall be determined at the end of a game  and the method for determining the prize amount. In such case, the organization  shall announce the prize amount at the end of the game. 
    W. A qualified organization selling instant bingo,  pull-tabs, seal cards, or electronic game cards shall post a flare provided by  the manufacturer at the location where such cards are sold. All such sales and  prize payouts shall be in accordance with the flare for that deal. 
    X. Only qualified organizations, facilities in which  qualified organizations play bingo, and suppliers permitted by the department  shall advertise a bingo game. Providing players with information about bingo  games through printed advertising is permitted, provided the name of the  qualified organization shall be in a type size equal to or larger than the name  of the premises, the hall, or the word "bingo." Printed  advertisements shall identify the use of proceeds percentage reported in the  past quarter or fiscal year. 
    Y. Raffles that award prizes based on a percentage of  gross receipts shall use prenumbered tickets. 
    Z. The following rules shall apply to instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal card, or event game card dispensing devices: 
    1. A dispensing device shall only be used at a location and  time during which a qualified organization holds a permit to conduct charitable  gaming. Only cards purchased by an organization to be used during the  organization's charitable gaming activity shall be in the dispensing device. 
    2. Keys to the dispensing area and coin/cash box shall be  in the possession and control of the game manager or designee of the  organization's board of directors at all times. Keys shall at all times be  available at the location where the dispensing device is being used. 
    3. The game manager or designee shall provide access to the  dispensing device to a department agent for inspection upon request. 
    4. Only a volunteer game worker of an organization may  stock the dispensing device, remove cash, or pay winners' prizes. 
    AA. Organizations shall only purchase gaming supplies from  a supplier who has a current permit issued by the department. 
    BB. An organization shall not tamper with bingo paper  received from a supplier. 
    CC. The total amount of all discounts given by any  organization during any fiscal year shall not exceed 1.0% of the organization's  gross receipts. 
    11VAC15-40-60. Rules of play.
    A. Each organization shall adopt "house rules"  regarding conduct of the game. Such rules shall be consistent with the  provisions of the law and this chapter. "House rules" shall be  conspicuously posted or, at an organization's option, printed on the game  program. 
    B. All players shall be physically present at the location  where the bingo numbers for a bingo game are drawn to play the game or to claim  a prize. Seal card prizes that can only be determined after a seal is removed  or opened must be claimed within 30 days of the close of a deal. All other  prizes must be claimed on the game date. 
    C. The following rules of play shall govern the sale of  instant bingo, pull-tabs, and seal cards: 
    1. No cards that have been marked, defaced, altered,  tampered with, or otherwise constructed in a manner that tends to deceive the  public or affect the chances of winning or losing shall be placed into play. 
    2. Winning cards shall have the winning symbol or number  defaced or punched immediately after redemption by the organization's  authorized representative. 
    3. An organization may commingle unsold instant bingo cards  and pull-tabs with no more than one additional deal. The practice of  commingling deals shall be disclosed to the public via house rules or in a  similar manner. Seal card deals shall not be commingled. 
    4. If a deal is not played to completion and unsold cards  remain, the remaining cards shall be sold at the next session the same type of  ticket is scheduled to be sold. If no future date is anticipated, the  organization shall, after making diligent efforts to sell the entire deal,  consider the deal closed or completed. The unsold cards shall be retained for  three years following the close of the fiscal year and shall not be opened. 
    5. All seal card games purchased shall contain the sign-up  sheet, the seals, and the cards packaged together in each deal. 
    6. Progressive seal card prizes not claimed within 30 days  shall be carried forward to the next progressive game in progress and paid to  the next progressive game prize winner. 
    D. No one involved in the conduct of bingo may play bingo  at any session they have worked or intend to work. No one involved in the sale  or redemption of any instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or electronic game  cards may purchase directly or through others instant bingo, pull-tab, seal  card, or electronic game card products from organizations they assist on the  day they have worked or from any deal they have helped sell or redeem,  whichever occurs later.
    E. Electronic bingo. 
    1. Electronic bingo devices may be used by bingo players in  the following manner: 
    a. Players may input into the device each number called or  the device may automatically daub each number as the number is called;
    b. Players must notify the game operator or caller of a  winning pattern of bingo by a means other than use of the electronic device; 
    c. Players are limited to playing a maximum of 54 card  faces per device per game; 
    d. Electronic bingo devices shall not be reserved for  players. Each player shall have an equal opportunity to use the available  devices on a first come, first served basis; 
    e. Each electronic bingo device shall produce a player  receipt with the organization name, date, time, location, sequential  transaction or receipt number, number of electronic bingo cards loaded, cost of  electronic bingo cards loaded, and date and time of the transaction.   Images of cards or faces stored in an electronic device must be exact  duplicates of the printed faces if faces are printed; 
    f. Department agents may examine and inspect any electronic  bingo device and related system. Such examination and inspection shall include  immediate access to the device and unlimited inspection of all parts and  associated systems and may involve the removal of equipment from the game  premises for further testing; 
    g. All electronic bingo devices must be loaded or enabled  for play on the premises where the game will be played; 
    h. All electronic bingo devices shall be rented or  otherwise provided to a player only by an organization and no part of the  proceeds of the rental of such devices shall be paid to a landlord, or his  employee, agent, or member of his immediate family; and 
    i. If a player's call of a bingo is disputed by another  player, or if a department agent makes a request, one or more cards stored on  an electronic bingo device shall be printed by the organization. 
    2. Players may exchange a defective electronic bingo device  for another device provided a disinterested player verifies that the device is  not functioning. A disinterested player shall also verify that no numbers  called for the game in progress have been keyed into the replacement device  prior to the exchange. 
    F. The following rules of play shall govern the conduct of  raffles: 
    1. Before a prize drawing, each stub or other detachable  section of each ticket sold shall be placed into a receptacle from which the  winning tickets shall be drawn. The receptacle shall be designed so that each  ticket placed in it has an equal chance to be drawn. 
    2. All prizes shall be valued at fair market value. 
    G. The following rules shall apply to "decision  bingo" games: 
    1. Decision bingo shall be played on bingo cards in the  conventional manner. 
    2. Players shall enter a game by paying a predetermined  amount for each card face in play. 
    3. Players shall pay a predetermined fee for each set of  three bingo numbers called for each card in play. 
    4. The prize amount shall be the total of all fees not to  exceed the prize limit set forth for regular bingo in § 18.2-340.33 of the  Code of Virginia. Any excess funds shall be retained by the organization. 
    5. The predetermined amounts in subdivisions 2 and 3 of  this subsection shall be printed in the game program. The prize amount for a  game shall be announced before the prize is paid to the winner. 
    H. The following rules shall apply to "treasure  chest" games: 
    1. The organization shall list the treasure chest game on  the bingo game program as a "Treasure Chest Raffle." 
    2. The organization shall have house rules posted that  describe how the game is to be played. 
    3. The treasure chest participant shall only be selected  through some other authorized charitable game at the same bingo session. 
    4. The organization shall account for all funds as treasure  chest/raffle sales on the session reconciliation form. 
    5. If the player does not open the lock on the treasure  chest, the game manager or his designee shall proceed to try every key until  the correct key opens the treasure chest lock to show all players that one of  the keys will open the lock. 
    I. The following rules shall apply to progressive bingo  games:
    1. Bingo paper sold for use in progressive bingo games  shall conform to the standards set forth in 11VAC15-40-130.
    2. Organizations shall not include in admission packs the  bingo paper intended for use in progressive bingo games.
    3. Any progressive bingo game, its prize, and the number of  bingo numbers to be called shall be clearly announced before the progressive  bingo game is played and shall be posted on the premises where the progressive  bingo game is played during each session that a progressive bingo game is  played.
    4. Pricing for a progressive bingo game card or sheet shall  be listed on the game program.
    5. If the predetermined pattern is not covered within the  predetermined number of bingo numbers to be called, then the number of bingo  numbers called will increase by one number for each subsequent session the  progressive game is played.
    6. If the predetermined pattern is not covered within the  predetermined number of bingo numbers to be called for that progressive bingo  game, then the game will continue as a regular bingo game until the  predetermined pattern is covered and a regular bingo prize is awarded.
    7. The prize for any progressive bingo game shall be in  accordance with the provisions of § 18.2-340.33 of the Code of Virginia.
    J. The following rules shall apply to "WINGO": 
    1. "WINGO" shall be played only for the  hearing-impaired players. 
    2. "WINGO" shall utilize a visual device such as  an oversized deck of cards in place of balls selected from a blower. 
    3. A caller must be in an area visible to all players and  shall randomly select cards or other visual devices one at a time and display  them so that all players can see them. 
    4. The organization must have house rules for  "WINGO" and the rules shall identify how players indicate that they  have won. 
    5. All financial reporting shall be consistent with  reporting for a traditional bingo game. 
    K. The following rules of play shall apply to event games:
    1. No instant bingo cards or pull-tabs that have been  marked, defaced, altered, tampered with, or otherwise constructed in a manner  that tends to deceive the public or affect the chances of winning or losing  shall be placed into play.
    2. Instant bingo cards and pull-tabs used in an event game  shall not be offered for sale or sold at a purchase price other than the  purchase price indicated on the flare for that particular deal.
    3. The maximum prize amount for event games shall not  exceed the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.33 (9) of the Code of Virginia  for instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card.
    4. A sign-up sheet is not required for event games in which  the winner or winners are determined using a seal card. 
    5. Organizations shall determine the winner or winners of  event games during the same bingo session in which the instant bingo cards or  pull-tabs are sold.
    6. An authorized representative of the organization shall  deface or punch the winning instant bingo cards or winning pull-tabs  immediately after redemption.
    7. If unsold bingo cards or unsold pull-tabs remain, the  unsold cards shall be retained for three years following the close of the  fiscal year and shall not be opened. 
    Article 3
  Bank Accounts, Recordkeeping, Financial Reporting, Audits, Fees
    11VAC15-40-70. Bank accounts.
    A. A qualified organization shall maintain a charitable  gaming bank account that is separate from any other bank account and all gaming  receipts shall be deposited into the charitable gaming bank account. 
    B. Disbursements for expenses other than prizes and  reimbursement of meal expenses shall be made by check directly from a  charitable gaming account. 
    C. All charitable gaming bank account records, including  but not limited to monthly bank statements, canceled checks or facsimiles  thereof, and reconciliations, shall be maintained for three years following the  close of a fiscal year. 
    D. All receipts from each session of bingo games and  instant bingo, pull-tabs, or seal cards shall be deposited by the second  business day following the session at which they were received.
    E. Raffle proceeds shall be deposited into the qualified  organization's charitable gaming bank account no later than the end of the  calendar week following the week during which the organization received the  proceeds. 
    11VAC15-40-80. Recordkeeping.
    A. In addition to the records required by  § 18.2-340.30 D of the Code of Virginia, qualified organizations  conducting bingo shall maintain a system of records for a minimum of three  years, unless otherwise specified for each gaming session on forms prescribed  by the department, or reasonable facsimiles of those forms approved by the  department, that include: 
    1. Charitable gaming supplies purchased and used; 
    2. A session reconciliation form and an instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal card, or electronic game card reconciliation form completed and  signed within 48 hours of the end of the session by the bingo manager; 
    3. All discounts provided; 
    4. A reconciliation to account for cash received from floor  workers for the sale of extra bingo sheets for any game; 
    5. Number of electronic bingo devices rented, unique serial  numbers of such devices, number of faces sold by each unit, and a summary  report for each session to include date, time, location, and detailed  information on income and expenses;
    6. An admissions control system that provides a cross-check  on the number of players in attendance and admission sales. This may include a  ticket control system, cash register, or any similar system;
    7. All operating expenses including rent, advertising, and  security. Copies of invoices for all such expenses shall also be maintained;
    8. Expected and actual receipts from games played on hard  cards and number of games played on hard cards; 
    9. A record of the name and address of each winner for all  seal cards; in addition, the winning ticket and seal card shall be maintained  for a minimum of 90 days after the session;
    10. A record of all door prizes awarded; and
    11. For any prize or jackpot of a value that meets or  exceeds the reporting requirements in the Internal Revenue Service's  Publication 3079, the name and address of each individual to whom any such  prize or jackpot is awarded and the amount of the award. 
    B. Qualified organizations conducting raffles shall have a  recordkeeping system to account for cash receipts, cash disbursements, raffle  tickets purchased or sold, and prizes awarded. All records shall be maintained  for three years from the close of the fiscal year. The recordkeeping system  shall include:
    1. Invoices for the purchase of raffle tickets, which shall  reflect the following information:
    a. Name and address of supplier;
    b. Name of purchaser;
    c. Date of purchase; 
    d. Number of tickets printed;
    e. Ticket number sequence for tickets printed; and
    f. Sales price of individual ticket;
    2. A record of cash receipts from raffle ticket sales by  tracking the total number of tickets available for sale, the number issued to  sellers, the number returned, the number sold, and reconciliation of all raffle  sales to receipts; 
    3. Serial numbers of tickets for raffle sales initiated and  concluded at a bingo game or sequentially numbered tickets, which shall state  the name, address, and telephone number of the organization, the prize or  prizes to be awarded, the date of the prize drawing or selection, the selling  price of the raffle ticket, and the charitable gaming permit number;
    4. For any raffle prize of a value that meets or exceeds  the reporting requirements in the Internal Revenue Service's Publication 3079,  receipts on which prize winners must provide printed name, residence address,  and the amount and description of the prize received; and 
    5. Deposit records of the required weekly deposits of  raffle receipts. 
    C. All raffle tickets shall have a detachable section; be  consecutively numbered with the detachable section having the same number;  provide space for the purchaser's name, complete address, and telephone number;  and state (i) the name and address of the organization; (ii) the prize or  prizes to be awarded; (iii) the date, time and location of the prize drawing;  (iv) the selling price of the ticket; and (v) the charitable gaming permit  number. Winning tickets and unsold tickets shall be maintained for three years  from the close of the fiscal year. 
    D. All unused charitable gaming supplies shall either be  returned for refund to the original supplier in unopened original packaging in  resalable condition as determined by the supplier or turned in to the  department for destruction. The organization shall maintain a receipt for all  such supplies returned to the supplier or turned in to the department. 
    11VAC15-40-90. Financial reporting, penalties, inspections,  and audits.
    A. Each charitable gaming permit holder shall file an  annual report of receipts and disbursements by March 15 of each year on a form  prescribed by the department. The annual report shall cover the activity for  the fiscal year. 
    B. The annual report shall be accompanied by the audit and  administration fee as established by the department for the fiscal year unless  the fee has been remitted with quarterly reports or the organization is exempt from payment of the fee  pursuant to § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia. 
    C. An organization desiring an extension to file its  annual report for good cause shall request the extension in writing on a form  prescribed by the department and shall pay the projected audit and  administration fee, unless exempt from payment of the fee pursuant to  § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia. The extension request and payment  of projected fees shall be made in accordance with the provisions of  § 18.2-340.30 of the Code of Virginia.
    D. Unless exempted by § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of  Virginia, qualified organizations realizing any gross gaming receipts in any  calendar quarter shall file a quarterly report of receipts and disbursements on  a form prescribed by the department as follows:
           | Quarter Ending | Date Due | 
       | March 31 | June 1 | 
       | June 30 | September 1 | 
       | September 30 | December 1 | 
       | December 31 | March 1 | 
  
    Qualified organizations shall submit quarterly reports  with the appropriate audit and administration fee unless the organization is  exempt from payment of the fee pursuant to § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia.  An annual financial report may substitute for a quarterly report if the  organization has no further charitable gaming income during the remainder of  the reporting period and the annual report is filed by the due date for the  applicable calendar quarter.
    E. An organization desiring an extension to file its  quarterly report for good cause shall request the extension in writing on a  form prescribed by the department and shall pay the projected audit and  administration fee unless exempt from payment of the fee pursuant to  § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia. The extension request and payment  of projected fees shall be made in accordance with the provisions of  § 18.2-340.30 of the Code of Virginia.
    F. Organizations failing to file required reports, request  an extension, or make fee payments when due shall be charged a penalty of $25  per day from the due date until such time as the required report is filed. 
    G. Any qualified organization in possession of funds  derived from charitable gaming (including those who have ceased operations),  regardless of when such funds may have been received or whether it has a valid  permit from the department, shall file an annual financial report on a form  prescribed by the department on or before March 15 of each year until such  funds are depleted. If an organization ceases the conduct of charitable gaming,  it shall provide the department with the name of an individual who shall be  responsible for filing financial reports. If no such information is provided,  the president of an organization shall be responsible for filing reports until  all charitable gaming proceeds are depleted. 
    H. If an organization has been identified through  inspection, audit, or other means as having deficiencies in complying with  statutory or regulatory requirements or having ineffective internal controls,  the department may impose restrictions or additional recordkeeping and  financial reporting requirements. 
    I. Any records deemed necessary to complete an inspection,  audit, or investigation may be collected by the department, its employees, or  its agents from the premises of an organization or any location where  charitable gaming is conducted. The department shall provide a written receipt  of such records at the time of collection. 
    11VAC15-40-100. Use of proceeds.
    A. All payments by an organization intended as use of  proceeds must be made by check written from the organization's charitable  gaming account. 
    B. Use of proceeds payments may be made for scholarship  funds or the future acquisition, construction, remodeling, or improvement of  real property or the acquisition of other equipment or vehicles to be used for  religious, charitable, educational, or community purposes. In addition, an  organization may obtain department approval to establish a special fund account  or an irrevocable trust fund for special circumstances. Transfers to such an  account or an irrevocable trust fund from the organization's charitable gaming  account may be included as a use of proceeds if the payment is authorized by an  organization's board of directors. 
    No payments made to such a special fund account shall be  withdrawn for other than the specified purpose unless prior notification is  made to the department. 
    C. Expenditures of charitable gaming funds for social or  recreational activities or for events, activities, or programs that are open  primarily to an organization's members and their families shall not qualify as  use of proceeds unless substantial benefit to the community is demonstrated. 
    D. Payments made to or on behalf of indigent, sick, or  deceased members or their immediate families shall be allowed as use of  proceeds provided they are approved by the organization's board of directors  and the need is documented. 
    E. Payments made directly for the benefit of an individual  member, member of his family, or person residing in his household shall not be  allowed as a use of proceeds unless authorized by law or elsewhere in this  chapter. 
    F. Use of proceeds payments by an organization shall not  be made for any activity that is not permitted by federal, state, or local laws  or for any activity that attempts to influence or finance directly or  indirectly political persons or committees or the election or reelection of any  person who is or has been a candidate for public office. 
    G. Organizations shall maintain details of all use of  proceeds disbursements for a minimum of three years and shall make this  information available to the department upon request. 
    H. The department may disallow a use of proceeds payment  to be counted against the minimum percentage referred to in 11VAC15-40-20 D. If  any payment claimed as use of proceeds is subsequently disallowed, an  organization may be allowed additional time as specified by the department to  meet minimum use of proceeds requirements.
    Article 4
  Rent
    11VAC15-40-110. Requirements regarding renting premises,  agreements, and landlord participation.
    A. No organization shall rent or use any leased premises  to conduct charitable gaming unless all terms for rental or use are set forth  in a written agreement and signed by the parties thereto prior to the issuance  of a permit to conduct charitable gaming. A qualified organization that leases  a building or other premises that is utilized in whole or in part for the  purpose of conducting charitable gaming more frequently than two calendar days  in one calendar week shall only lease such premises directly from (i) a  qualified organization that is exempt from taxation pursuant to § 501 (c)  of the Internal Revenue Code or (ii) any county, city, or town. 
    B. Organizations shall not make payments to a landlord  except by check drawn on the organization's charitable gaming account. 
    C. No landlord, his agent or employee, member of his  immediate family, or person residing in his household shall make directly or indirectly  a loan to any officer, director, game manager, or entity involved in the  management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming of an organization in  Virginia that leases its charitable gaming facility from the landlord. 
    D. No landlord, his agent or employee, member of his  immediate family, or person residing in his household shall make any direct or  indirect payment to any officer, director, game manager, or entity involved in  the management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming conducted at a  facility rented from the landlord in Virginia unless the payment is authorized  by the lease agreement and is in accordance with the law. 
    E. No landlord, his agent or employee, member of his  immediate family, or person residing in the same household shall at charitable  games conducted on the landlord's premises: 
    1. Participate in the management, operation, or conduct of  any charitable games; 
    2. Sell, lease, or otherwise provide any bingo supplies  including, but not limited to, bingo cards, pull-tab cards, electronic game  cards, or other game pieces; or 
    3. Require as a condition of the lease or contract that a  particular manufacturer, distributor, or supplier of bingo supplies is used by  the organization. 
    "Bingo supplies" as used in this chapter shall  not include glue, markers, or tape sold from concession stands or from a  location physically separated from the location where bingo supplies are  normally sold. 
    F. No member of an organization involved in the  management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming shall provide any  services to a landlord or be remunerated in any manner by the landlord of the  facility where an organization is conducting its charitable gaming. 
    Part III
  Suppliers
    11VAC15-40-120. Suppliers of charitable gaming supplies: application,  qualifications, suspension, revocation or refusal to renew permit, maintenance,  and production of records.
    A. Prior to providing any charitable gaming supplies, a  supplier shall submit an application on a form prescribed by the department and  receive a permit. A $1,000 application fee payable to the Treasurer of Virginia  is required. In addition, a supplier must be authorized to conduct business in  the Commonwealth of Virginia, which may include, but not be limited to,  registration with the State Corporation Commission, the Department of Taxation,  and the Virginia Employment Commission. The actual cost of background  investigations for a permit may be billed by the department to an applicant.  The department shall act on an application within 90 days of receipt of the  application. 
    B. The department may refuse to issue a permit or may  suspend or revoke a permit if an officer, director, employee, agent, or owner: 
    1. Is operating without a valid license, permit, or  certificate as a supplier or manufacturer in any state in the United States; 
    2. Fails or refuses to recall a product as directed by the  department; 
    3. Conducts business with unauthorized entities or is not  authorized to conduct business in the Commonwealth of Virginia; 
    4. Has been convicted of or pleaded nolo contendere to any  crime as specified by § 18.2-340.34 B of the Code of Virginia; has had any  license, permit, certificate, or other authority related to activities defined  as charitable gaming in the Commonwealth suspended or revoked in the  Commonwealth or in any other jurisdiction; has failed to file or has been  delinquent in excess of one year in the filing of any tax returns or the  payment of any taxes due the Commonwealth; or has failed to establish a  registered office or registered agent in the Commonwealth if so required by  § 13.1-634 or 13.1-763 of the Code of Virginia. As this provision relates  to employees or agents, it shall only apply to individuals involved in sales to  or solicitations of customers in the Commonwealth of Virginia; 
    5. Fails to notify the department within 20 days of the  occurrence, knowledge, or receipt of the filing of any administrative or legal  action relating to charitable gaming or the distribution of charitable gaming  supplies involving or concerning the supplier, any officers or directors,  employees, agent, or owner during the term of its permit; 
    6. Fails to provide to the department upon request a  current Letter for Company Registration on file with the U.S. Department of  Justice-Gambling Devices Registration Unit, if required in accordance with The  Gambling Devices Act of 1962, 15 USC §§ 1171-1178, for any device that it  sells, distributes, services, or maintains in the Commonwealth of Virginia; or 
    7. Has been engaged in conduct that would compromise the  department's objective of maintaining the highest level of integrity in  charitable gaming. 
    C. A supplier shall not sell, offer to sell, or otherwise  provide charitable gaming supplies for use by anyone in the Commonwealth of  Virginia other than to an organization with a permit from the department or  another permitted supplier. However, a supplier may: 
    1. Sell charitable gaming supplies to an organization that  expects to gross the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of  Virginia or less in any 12-month period, providing that the amount of such  purchase would not be reasonably expected to produce more than the amount set  forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia in gross sales. For each  such organization, the supplier shall maintain the name, address, and telephone  number. The supplier shall also obtain a written and signed statement from an  officer or game manager of such organization confirming that gross receipts are  expected to be the amount set forth in § 18.2-340.23 of the Code of Virginia  or less. Such statement shall be dated and kept on file for three years from  the end of a fiscal year. 
    2. Sell bingo cards and paper to persons or entities other  than qualified organizations provided such supplies shall not be sold or  otherwise provided for use in charitable gaming activities regulated by the  department or in unlawful gambling activities. For each such sale, the supplier  shall maintain the name, address, and telephone number of the purchaser. The  supplier shall also obtain a written statement from the purchaser verifying  that such supplies will not be used in charitable gaming or any unlawful  gambling activity. Such statement shall be dated and kept on file for three  years from the end of a fiscal year. Payment for such sales in excess of $50  shall be accepted in the form of a check. 
    3. Sell pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards, and  electronic game cards to organizations for use only upon the premises owned or  exclusively leased by the organization and at such times as the portion of the  premises in which the pull-tabs, seal cards, event game cards, or electronic  game cards are sold is open only to members and their guests as authorized by  § 18.2-340.26:1 of the Code of Virginia. Each such sale shall be accounted  for separately and the accompanying invoice shall be clearly marked: "For  Use in Social Quarters Only." 
    All such sales shall be documented pursuant to subsection  H of this section and reported to the department pursuant to subsection J of  this section. This provision shall not apply to the sale to landlords of  equipment and video systems as defined in this chapter. Equipment and video  systems shall not include dispensing devices, electronic bingo devices, and  player devices. 
    D. A supplier shall not sell, offer to sell, or otherwise  provide charitable gaming supplies to any individual or organization in the  Commonwealth of Virginia unless the charitable gaming supplies are purchased or  obtained from a manufacturer or another permitted supplier. Suppliers may take  back for credit and resell supplies received from an organization with a permit  that has ceased charitable gaming or is returning supplies not needed. 
    E. No supplier, supplier's agent, or employee may be  involved in the management, operation, or conduct of charitable gaming in the  Commonwealth of Virginia. No member of a supplier's immediate family or person  residing in the same household as a supplier may be involved in the management,  operation, or conduct of charitable gaming of any customer of the supplier in  the Commonwealth of Virginia. No supplier, supplier's agent, or employee may  participate in any charitable gaming of any customer of the supplier in the  Commonwealth of Virginia. For the purposes of this regulation, servicing of  electronic devices shall not be considered conduct or participation. 
    F. The department shall conduct a background investigation  prior to the issuance of a permit to any supplier. The investigation may  include, but shall not be limited to, the following: 
    1. A search of the Virginia Central Criminal Records  Exchange (CCRE) on all officers, directors, and owners; and 
    2. Verification of current compliance with Commonwealth of  Virginia tax laws. 
    If the officers, directors, or owners are domiciled  outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia, or have resided in the Commonwealth of  Virginia for fewer than five years, a criminal history search conducted by the  appropriate authority in any state in which they have resided during the  previous five years shall be provided by the applicant. 
    G. Appropriate information and authorizations shall be  provided to the department to verify information cited in subsection F of this  section. 
    H. Suppliers shall document each sale or rental of  charitable gaming supplies to an organization in the Commonwealth of Virginia  on an invoice, which reflects the following: 
    1. Name, address, and OCG number of the organization; 
    2. Date of sale or rental and location where bingo supplies  are shipped if different from the billing address; 
    3. Name, form number, and serial number of each deal of  instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, electronic game cards, or bundles and the  number of cards in each deal; 
    4. Quantity of deals sold, the cost per deal, the selling  price per card, the cash take-in per deal, and the cash payout per deal; 
    5. Serial number of the top sheet in each pack of  disposable bingo paper, the number of sheets in each pack or pad, the cut and  color, and the number of packs or pads sold; 
    6. Serial number for each series of uncollated bingo paper  and the number of sheets sold; 
    7. Detailed information concerning the type, quantity, and  individual price of any other charitable gaming supplies or related items  including, but not limited to, concealed face bingo cards, hard cards, markers  or daubers and refills, or any other merchandise. For concealed face bingo  cards, the number of sets, price per set, and the serial number of each set  shall be included; 
    8. Serial number of each player device, the form of the  player device, the number of player devices sold or rented, and the physical  address to which each player device is shipped; 
    9. Serial number and description of any other equipment  sold or rented that is used to facilitate the distribution, play, and  redemption of electronic game cards and the physical address to which the  equipment is shipped; and
    10. Any type of equipment, device, or product manufactured  for or intended to be used in the conduct of charitable games including, but  not limited to, designators, designator receptacles, number display boards,  selection devices, dispensing machines, and verification devices.
    I. Suppliers shall ensure that two copies of the detailed  invoice are provided to the customer for each sale of charitable gaming  supplies. 
    J. Each supplier shall provide a report to the department  by March 1 of each year on sales of charitable gaming supplies for the fiscal  year ending December 31 of the previous year to each organization in the  Commonwealth of Virginia. This report shall be provided to the department on  computer disk or other department-approved media. The report shall include the  name and address of each organization and the following information for each  sale or transaction: 
    1. Bingo paper sales including purchase price, description  of paper to include number of sheets in pack and number of faces on sheet, and  quantity of single sheets or packs shipped; 
    2. Deals of instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards,  electronic game cards, or any other raffle sales including purchase price, deal  name, deal form number, number of tickets in deal, ticket price, cash take-in  per deal, cash payout per deal, and number of deals; 
    3. Electronic bingo device sales including purchase or  rental price and number of units; 
    4. Equipment used to facilitate the distribution, play, and  redemption of electronic game cards including purchase or rental price,  description of equipment, number of units of each type of equipment, and the  physical address to which the equipment is shipped; and 
    5. Sales of miscellaneous items such as daubers, markers,  and other merchandise including purchase price, description of product, and  number of units. 
    K. The department shall set manufacturing and testing  criteria for all electronic bingo devices and other equipment used in the  conduct of charitable gaming. An electronic bingo device shall not be sold,  leased, or otherwise furnished to any person in the Commonwealth of Virginia  for use in the conduct of charitable gaming until an identical sample device  containing identical proprietary software has been certified by a testing  facility that has been formally recognized by the department as a testing  facility that upholds the standards of integrity established by the department.  The testing facility must certify that the device conforms, at a minimum, to  the restrictions and conditions set forth in these regulations. Once the  testing facility reports the test results to the department, the department  will either approve or disapprove the submission and inform the manufacturer of  the results within 10 business days. If any such equipment does not meet the  department's criteria, it shall be recalled and shall not be distributed in the  Commonwealth of Virginia. The cost of testing shall be borne by the  manufacturer of such equipment. 
    L. Department employees shall have the right to inspect  all electronic and mechanical equipment used in the conduct of charitable  gaming. 
    M. Suppliers, their agents and employees, members of the  supplier's immediate family, or persons residing in their household shall not  make any loan directly or indirectly to any organization or officer, director,  game manager, or entity involved in the management, operation, or conduct of  charitable gaming of a supplier's customer located in the Commonwealth of  Virginia. 
    N. No supplier, supplier's agent, or employee shall  directly or indirectly provide a rebate, discount, or refund to any person  other than an organization that purchases supplies or leases or purchases  equipment from the supplier. All such transactions shall be recorded on the  supplier's account books. 
    O. A supplier shall not rent, sell, or otherwise provide  electronic bingo devices or equipment used to distribute, play, or redeem  electronic game cards unless the supplier possesses a valid permit in the  Commonwealth of Virginia.
    P. A written agreement specifying the terms of lease or  rental shall be required for any electronic bingo devices or equipment used to  distribute, play, or redeem electronic game cards provided to an organization.
    11VAC15-40-130. Construction and other standards for bingo,  instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, event games, raffles, electronic bingo  devices, and instant bingo, pull-tab, and seal card dispensers.
    A. No supplier shall knowingly sell or otherwise provide  to an organization and no organization shall knowingly use bingo supplies  unless they conform to the following construction standards: 
    1. Disposable paper sold shall be of sufficient weight and  quality to allow for clearly readable numbers and to prevent ink from  spreading, bleeding, or otherwise obscuring other numbers or cards. 
    2. Each sheet of disposable bingo paper shall be comprised  of cards bearing a serial number. No serial number shall be repeated on or in  the same style, series, and color of cards within a three-year period. 
    3. Disposable bingo paper assembled in books or packs shall  not be separated except for single-sheet specials. This provision does not  apply to two-part cards on which numbers are filled by players and one part is  separated and provided to an organization for verification purposes. 
    4. Each unit of disposable bingo paper shall have an  exterior label listing the following information: 
    a. Description of product; 
    b. Number of packs or loose sheets; 
    c. Series numbers; 
    d. Serial number of the top sheet; 
    e. Number of cases; 
    f. Cut of paper; and 
    g. Color of paper. 
    5. "Lucky Seven" bingo cards or electronic  facsimiles thereof shall have a single face where seven numbers shall be  chosen. "Lucky Seven" sheets or electronic facsimiles thereof shall  have multiple faces where seven numbers shall be chosen per face. 
    B. No supplier shall knowingly sell or otherwise provide  to an organization and no organization shall knowingly use instant bingo,  pull-tab, seal cards, or event game cards unless they conform to the following  construction standards: 
    1. Cards shall be constructed so that concealed numbers,  symbols, or winner protection features cannot be viewed or determined from the  outside of the card by using a high intensity lamp of 500 watts, with or  without utilizing a focusing lens. 
    2. Deals shall be designed, constructed, glued, and  assembled in a manner to prevent determination of a winning or losing ticket  without removing the tabs or otherwise uncovering the symbols or numbers as  intended. 
    3. Each card in a deal shall bear the same serial number.  Only one serial number shall be used in a deal. No serial number used in a deal  shall be repeated by the same manufacturer on that same manufacturer's form  within a three-year period. The flare of each deal shall accompany the deal and  shall have affixed to it the same serial number as the tickets in such deal. 
    4. Numbers or symbols on cards shall be fully visible in  the window and shall be placed so that no part of a number or symbol remains  covered when the tab is removed. 
    5. Cards shall be glued on all edges and around each  window. Glue shall be of sufficient strength and type to prevent the  undetectable separation or delamination of the card. For banded tickets, the  glue must be of sufficient strength and quality to prevent the separation of  the band from the ticket. 
    6. The following minimum information shall be printed on a  card: 
    a. Break open pull-tab, instant bingo cards, and event game  cards: 
    (1) Name of the manufacturer or its distinctive logo; 
    (2) Name of the game; 
    (3) Manufacturer's form number; 
    (4) Price per individual card or bundle; 
    (5) Unique minimum five-digit game serial number printed on  the game information side of the card; and 
    (6) Number of winners and respective winning number or  symbols and specific prize amounts unless accompanied by a manufacturer's  preprinted publicly posted flare with that information. 
    b. Banded pull-tabs: 
    (1) Manufacturer; 
    (2) Serial number; 
    (3) Price per individual card or bundle unless accompanied  by a manufacturer's preprinted publicly posted flare with that information; and  
    (4) Number of winners and respective winning numbers or  symbols and prize amounts or a manufacturer's preprinted publicly posted flare  giving that information. 
    7. All seal card games sold to organizations shall contain  the sign-up sheet, seals, and cards packaged together in each deal. 
    C. Raffle tickets used independent of a bingo game must  conform to the following construction standards: 
    1. Each ticket shall have a detachable section and shall be  consecutively numbered. 
    2. Each section of a ticket shall bear the same number. The  section retained by the organization shall provide space for the purchaser's  name, complete address, and telephone number. 
    3. The following information shall be printed on the  purchaser's section of each ticket: 
    a. Dates and times of drawings; 
    b. Locations of the drawings; 
    c. Name of the charitable organization conducting the  raffle; 
    d. Price of the ticket; 
    e. Charitable gaming permit number; and 
    f. Prizes. 
    Exceptions to these construction standards are allowed only  with prior written approval from the department.
    D. Electronic bingo. 
    1. The department, at its discretion, may require  additional testing of electronic bingo devices at any time. Such additional  testing shall be at the manufacturer's expense and shall be a condition of the  continued use of such device. 
    2. All electronic bingo devices shall use proprietary  software and hardware or commonly available software and computers and shall be  enabled for play on the premises where the game is to be played. 
    3. Each electronic bingo device shall have a unique  identification number permanently coded into the software of such device.  Manufacturers of electronic bingo devices shall employ sufficient security  safeguards in designing and manufacturing the devices such that it may be  verified that all proprietary software components are authentic copies of the  approved software components and all functioning components of the device are  operating with identical copies of approved software programs. The device must  also have sufficient security safeguards so that any restrictions or  requirements authorized by the department or any approved proprietary software  are protected from alteration by unauthorized personnel. The device shall not  contain hard-coded or unchangeable passwords. Security measures that may be  employed to comply with these provisions include, but are not limited to, the  use of dongles, digital signature comparison hardware and software, secure boot  loaders, encryption, and key and callback password systems. 
    4. Electronic bingo devices shall not allow a player to  create a card by the input of specific numbers on each card. Manufacturers  shall ensure that an electronic bingo device does not allow for the play of any  bingo card faces other than those verifiably purchased by the patron. 
    5. Electronic bingo devices shall not accept cash,  currency, or tokens for play. 
    6. Electronic bingo devices shall require the manual entry  of numbers as they are called, the manual verification of numbers as they have  been electronically transmitted to the device, or the full automatic daubing of  numbers as each number is called. During the play of a bingo game, the  transmission of data to electronic bingo devices shall be limited to one-way communication  to the device and shall consist only of the number called. 
    7. A device shall not allow the play of more than 54 cards  per device per game. 
    8. The electronic bingo device system shall record a  sequential transaction number or audit tracking number for each transaction.  The system shall not allow the manual resetting or changing of this number. 
    9. The system shall produce a receipt and a transaction log  containing the following: 
    a. Organization name; 
    b. Location of bingo game; 
    c. Sequential transaction or receipt number; 
    d. Number of electronic bingo cards loaded; 
    e. Cost of electronic bingo cards loaded; and
    f. Date and time of each transaction. 
    10. The system shall maintain and make available on demand  a summary report for each session that includes the following:
    a. Organization name;
    b. Physical location of bingo game;
    c. Date and time of each transaction;
    d. Sequential transaction or receipt number;
    e. Number of electronic bingo cards loaded;
    f. Cost of electronic bingo cards loaded;
    g. A transaction history correlating each electronic sale  to the device identification number of the device on which the sale was played;
    h. Sufficient information to identify voids, including the  date and time of each voided transaction;
    i. Sufficient information to identify device returns; and
    j. Total gross receipts for each session. 
    11. Each device shall be programmed to automatically erase  all stored electronic cards at the end of the last game of a session, within a  set time from their rental to a player, or by some other clearance method  approved by the department. 
    12. All devices shall be reloaded with another set of cards  at the beginning of each session if the devices are to be reused at the same  location. 
    E. In instances where a defect in packaging or in the  construction of deals or electronic devices is discovered by or reported to the  department, the department shall notify the manufacturer of the deals or  devices containing the alleged defect. Should the department, in consultation  with the manufacturer, determine that a defect exists, and should the  department determine the defect affects game security or otherwise threatens  public confidence in the game, the department may, with respect to deals or  electronic devices for use still located within the Commonwealth of Virginia,  require the supplier to: 
    1. Recall the deals or electronic devices affected that  have not been sold or otherwise provided; or 
    2. Issue a total recall of all affected deals or electronic  devices. 
    F. No instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card dispenser may  be sold, leased, or otherwise furnished to any person or organization in the  Commonwealth of Virginia or used in the conduct of charitable gaming until an  identical sample device containing identical proprietary software, if  applicable, has been certified by a testing facility that has been formally  recognized by the department as a testing facility that upholds the standards  of integrity established by the department. The cost of testing shall be borne  by the manufacturer of such equipment. In addition, suppliers and manufacturers  of such dispensers shall comply with the requirements of The Gambling Devices  Act of 1962 (15 USC §§ 1171-1178). 
    G. All instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card dispensing  devices must meet the following standards: 
    1. Each dispenser shall be manufactured in a manner that  ensures a pull-tab ticket is dispensed only after insertion of United States  currency or coinage into the dispenser. Such ticket and any change due shall be  the only items dispensed from the machine. 
    2. Each dispenser shall be manufactured in a manner that  ensures the device neither displays nor has the capability of displaying or  otherwise identifying an instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card winning or  nonwinning ticket. 
    3. Each dispenser shall be manufactured in such a manner  that any visual animation does not simulate or display rolling or spinning  reels or produce audible music or enhanced sound effects. 
    4. Each dispenser shall be equipped with separate locks for  the instant bingo, pull-tab, or seal card supply modules and money boxes. Locks  shall be configured so that no one key will operate both the supply modules and  money boxes. 
    H. The department may require additional testing of a  dispensing device at any time to ensure that it meets construction standards  and allows for fair play. Such tests shall be conducted at the cost of the  manufacturer of such devices. 
    I. The face value of cards being dispensed shall match the  amount deposited in the currency/coin acceptor less change provided. 
    11VAC15-40-140. Instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or  event game cards randomization standards.
    All instant bingo, pull-tabs, seal cards, or event game  cards shall meet the following randomization standards: 
    1. Deals shall be assembled so that winning tickets are  placed throughout each deal. 
    2. Deals shall be assembled and packaged in a manner that  prevents isolation of winning cards due to variations in printing, graphics,  colors, sizes, appearances of cut edges, or other markings of cards. 
    3. Winning cards shall be distributed and mixed among all  other cards in a deal so as to eliminate any pattern between deals or portions  of deals from which the location or approximate location of any winning card  may be determined. 
    Part IV
  Electronic Games of Chance Systems
    Article 1
  General Requirements
    11VAC15-40-150. Approval of distributed pull-tab systems,  validation systems, point-of-sale stations, and redemption terminals.
    A. The department shall set manufacturing and testing  criteria for all distributed pull-tab systems, validation systems,  point-of-sale stations, redemption terminals, and other equipment used in the  conduct of charitable gaming. A distributed pull-tab system, validation system,  point-of-sale station, redemption terminal, or other equipment shall not be  sold, leased, or otherwise furnished to any person in the Commonwealth of  Virginia for use in the conduct of charitable gaming until an identical sample  system or equipment containing identical software has been certified by a testing  facility that has been formally recognized by the department as a testing  facility that upholds the standards of integrity established by the department.  The testing facility must certify that the distributed pull-tab system and  associated hardware and software conform, at a minimum, to the requirements set  forth in this chapter. Once the testing facility reports the test results to  the department, the department will either approve or disapprove the  distributed pull-tab system or system components and inform the manufacturer of  the results within 10 business days. If any such system or equipment does not  meet the department's criteria, it shall be recalled and shall not be  distributed in the Commonwealth of Virginia. The cost of testing shall be borne  by the manufacturer of such equipment.
    B. No supplier shall knowingly sell or otherwise provide  to an organization and no organization shall knowingly use a distributed  pull-tab system, validation system, point-of-sale station, redemption terminal,  or other equipment used to conduct charitable gaming unless it conforms to the  requirements set forth in this regulation.
    C. If a defect in a distributed pull-tab system,  validation system, point-of-sale station, redemption terminal, or other  equipment used to conduct charitable gaming is discovered by or reported to the  department, the department shall notify the manufacturer of the system or  equipment containing the alleged defect. Should the department, in consultation  with the manufacturer, determine that a defect exists and should the department  determine the defect affects game security or otherwise threatens public  confidence in the game, the department may, with respect to any distributed  pull-tab system, validation system, point of sale station, redemption terminal,  or other equipment used to conduct charitable gaming still located within the  Commonwealth of Virginia, require the supplier to issue a recall of all  affected distributed pull-tab systems, validation systems, point-of-sale  stations, redemption terminals, or other equipment. 
    Article 2
  System Requirements
    11VAC15-40-160. Distributed pull-tab system.
    A distributed pull-tab system shall be dedicated primarily  to electronic accounting, reporting, and the presentation, randomization, and  transmission of electronic game cards to the player devices. It shall also be  capable of generating the data necessary to provide the reports required within  this article or otherwise specified by the department. 
    11VAC15-40-170. Dispensing of electronic game cards.
    A distributed pull-tab system shall dispense, upon  request, an electronic game card or cards. All games must be played without  replacement, drawing from a single finite game set.
    11VAC15-40-180. Game set requirements.
    Each game set shall meet the following minimum  requirements: 
    1. Each game set shall be made up of a finite number of  electronic game cards; 
    2. The game set shall consist of a maximum of 25,000  electronic game cards; 
    3. All electronic game cards in a particular game set shall  be of the same purchase price; 
    4. The maximum win amount awarded per any one electronic  game card shall not exceed the value set forth for pull-tabs by  § 18.2-340.33 of the Code of Virginia; 
    5. Each game set shall be assigned a unique serial number;  and 
    6. After randomization, game sets may be broken into  subsets of equal size. If game subsets are used, they shall each be assigned a  unique serial number and be traceable to a parent game set.
    11VAC15-40-190. Game set definition.
    If the system has the capability to create a game set from  a predefined set of criteria, the criteria must contain the following  information: 
    1. Game ID; 
    2. Game set version; 
    3. Manufacturer; 
    4. Game name; 
    5. Paytable ID; 
    6. Purchase price per electronic game card; 
    7. Subset size; 
    8. Total number of subsets; and 
    9. Prize values with an associated index and frequency. 
    11VAC15-40-200. Data required to be available for each game  set.
    A. The following data shall be available prior to the  opening of a game set for distribution and shall be maintained and be viewable  both electronically and, if requested, by printed report, upon demand: 
    1. A unique serial number identifying each game set and/or  subset; 
    2. A description of the game set sufficient to categorize  the game set or subset relative to other game sets; 
    3. The total number of electronic game cards in the game  set; 
    4. The number of game subsets to be created from the game  set and the number of electronic game cards in each subset when applicable; 
    5. The payout percentage of the entire game set; 
    6. The purchase price per electronic game card assigned to  the game set; and 
    7. Prize values with an associated index and frequency. 
    B. The following data shall be available subsequent to the  completion of a game set and shall be maintained and viewable both  electronically and, if requested, by printed report, upon demand: 
    1. A unique serial number identifying each game set and/or  subset; 
    2. Description of the game set sufficient to categorize the  game set relative to other game sets; 
    3. The total number of electronic game cards unsold; 
    4. The total number of electronic game cards purchased; 
    5. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset became available for play; 
    6. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset was completed or removed from play; 
    7. Location where game set and/or subset was played; 
    8. The final payout percentage of the game set when removed  from play; and 
    9. The purchase price per electronic game card assigned to  the game set. 
    C. In order to provide maximum game integrity, no audit or  other determination of the status of any game set or any subset, including, but  not limited to, a determination of the prizes won or prizes remaining to be  won, shall be conducted by anyone while a game set or subset is in play without  causing termination of the entire game set or subset. Only upon game set  termination shall the details of the associated game set and subsets be  revealed to the individual or individuals performing the audit. 
    D. Once terminated, a game set shall not be able to be  reopened. 
    11VAC15-40-210. Security requirements.
    A. A distributed pull-tab system computer must be in a  locked, secure enclosure with key controls in place. 
    B. A distributed pull-tab system shall provide a means for  terminating the game set if information about electronic game cards in an open  game set has been accessed or at the discretion of the department. In such  cases, traceability of unauthorized access including time and date, users  involved, and any other relevant information shall be available. 
    C. A distributed pull-tab system shall not permit the  alteration of any accounting or significant event information that was  communicated from the player device without supervised access controls. In the  event financial data is changed, an automated audit log must be capable of  being produced to document the following: 
    1. Data element altered; 
    2. Data element value prior to alteration; 
    3. Data element value after alteration; 
    4. Time and date of alteration; and 
    5. Personnel that performed alteration. 
    D. A distributed pull-tab system must provide password  security or other secure means of ensuring data integrity and enforcing user  permissions for all system components through the following means: 
    1. All programs and data files must only be accessible via  the entry of a password that will be known only to authorized personnel; 
    2. The distributed pull-tab system must have multiple  security access levels to control and restrict different classes;
    3. The distributed pull-tab system access accounts must be  unique when assigned to the authorized personnel and shared accounts amongst  authorized personnel must not be allowed; 
    4. The storage of passwords and PINs must be in an  encrypted, nonreversible form; and 
    5. A program or report must be available that will list all  registered users on the distributed pull-tab system including their privilege  level. 
    E. All components of a distributed pull-tab system must  have a password sign-on with two-level codes comprising the personal  identification code and a personal password. 
    1. The personal identification code must have a length of  at least six ASCII characters; and 
    2. The personal password must have a minimum length of six  alphanumeric characters, which should include at least one nonalphabetic  character. 
    F. A distributed pull-tab system must have the capability  to control potential data corruption that can be created by multiple  simultaneous log-ons by system management personnel. 
    1. A distributed pull-tab system shall specify which of the  access levels allow for multiple simultaneous sign-ons by different users and  which of the access levels do not allow for multiple sign-ons, and, if multiple  sign-ons are possible, what restrictions, if any, exist; or 
    2. If a distributed pull-tab system does not provide  adequate control, a comprehensive procedural control document must be drafted  for the department's review and approval. 
    G. Distributed pull-tab system software components/modules  shall be verifiable by a secure means at the system level. A distributed  pull-tab system shall have the ability to allow for an independent integrity  check of the components/modules from an outside source and is required for all  control programs that may affect the integrity of the distributed pull-tab  system. This must be accomplished by being authenticated by a third-party  device, which may be embedded within the distributed pull-tab system software  or having an interface or procedure for a third-party application to  authenticate the component. This integrity check will provide a means for field  verification of the distributed pull-tab system components. 
    H. A distributed pull-tab system may be used to configure  and perform security checks on player devices, provided such functions do not  affect the security, integrity, or outcome of any game and meets the  requirements set forth in this regulation regarding program storage devices. 
    11VAC15-40-220. Backup and recovery.
    A. A distributed pull-tab system computer shall have a  separate physical medium for securely storing game sets or subsets on the  computer, which shall be mirrored in real time by a backup medium. 
    B. All data required to be available or reported by this  chapter must be retained for a period of not less than three years. 
    C. All storage of critical data shall utilize error  checking and be stored on a nonvolatile physical medium. 
    D. The database shall be stored on redundant media so that  no single failure of any portion of the system would result in the loss or  corruption of data. 
    E. In the event of a catastrophic failure when the  distributed pull-tab system cannot be restarted in any other way, it shall be  possible to reload the distributed pull-tab system from the last viable backup  point and fully recover the contents of that backup, to consist of at least the  following information: 
    1. All significant events; 
    2. All accounting information; 
    3. Auditing information, including all open game sets and  the summary of completed game sets; and 
    4. Employee files with access levels. 
    11VAC15-40-230. Electronic accounting and reporting.
    A. One or more electronic accounting systems shall be  required to perform reporting and other functions in support of distributed  pull-tab system. The electronic accounting system shall not interfere with the  outcome of any gaming function. 
    B. The following reporting capabilities must be provided  by the electronic accounting system: 
    1. Electronic game card game set report – game sets in  play. An electronic game card game set report must be available on demand for  each game set currently in play. Game cards, outcomes, or prizes must not be  revealed. The report must contain the following information: 
    a. A unique serial number identifying each game set and/or  subsets; 
    b. A description of the game set sufficient to categorize  the game set or subset relative to other game sets; 
    c. The total number of electronic game cards in the game  set; 
    d. The number of game subsets to be created from the game  set and the number of electronic game cards in each subset when applicable; 
    e. The theoretical payout percentage of the entire game  set; 
    f. The purchase price per electronic game card assigned to  the game set; 
    g. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset became available for play; and 
    h. Location where the game set and/or subset is being  played. 
    2. Electronic game card game set report – completed game  set. An electronic game card game set report must be available on demand, for  each completed game set. The report must contain the following information: 
    a. A unique serial number identifying each game set and/or  subset; 
    b. Description of the game set sufficient to categorize the  game set relative to other game sets; 
    c. The total number of electronic game cards unsold; 
    d. The total number of electronic game cards purchased; 
    e. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset became available for play; 
    f. The time and date that the game set and/or each game  subset was completed or removed from play; 
    g. Location where game set and/or subset was played; 
    h. The final payout percentage of the game set when removed  from play; and 
    i. The purchase price per electronic game card assigned to  the game set. 
    3. A report that shall indicate all prizes that exceed the  threshold that triggers additional procedures to be followed for the purpose of  compliance with federal tax reporting requirements. At a minimum, on a daily  and monthly basis, the report shall provide the following information per  player device: 
    a. The date and time won; 
    b. Location of prize award; and 
    c. Amount of each prize occurrence. 
    4. Liability report. A liability report shall provide a  summary of the outstanding funds that carry from business day to business day.  At a minimum, this report shall include: 
    a. Amount of prizes and/or vouchers that were awarded in  dollars and cents, but have not yet been claimed that have not yet expired; and  
    b. Summary of all outstanding accounts. 
    5. Master reconciliation report. A master reconciliation  report must be available on a per session basis, monthly basis, and quarterly  basis at a minimum. A master reconciliation report shall include the following:  
    a. Total of all moneys used to purchase electronic game  cards; 
    b. Total of all prizes, in dollars and cents, awarded from  electronic game cards; 
    c. Total of all moneys inserted into a player device or  provided to a cashier for the purchase of electronic game cards; and 
    d. Total of all moneys removed from a player device. 
    C. A distributed pull-tab system shall be capable of  providing an electronic file in a format specified by the department on a  periodic basis to a location specified by the department. The data to be  reported will contain, at a minimum, the following items per session: 
    1. Organization identification; 
    2. Session date; 
    3. Total cash in; 
    4. Total cash out; 
    5. Total cash played; 
    6. Total cash won; 
    7. For all game sets on the system in play or in inventory:  
    a. Serial number; 
    b. Description; 
    c. Ticket price; 
    d. Number of subsets if applicable; 
    e. Number of tickets or number of tickets per subset; 
    f. Theoretical return percentage; and 
    g. Date game set was opened for play, when applicable; and
    8. For all game sets completed or closed since the previous  reporting date: 
    a. Serial number; 
    b. Description; 
    c. Ticket price; 
    d. Number of subsets, if applicable; 
    e. Number of tickets or number of tickets per subset; 
    f. Theoretical return percentage; 
    g. Date game set was opened; 
    h. Date game set was closed; 
    i. Total tickets sold; 
    j. Total dollars in; 
    k. Total prizes paid; and
    l. Actual return percentage. 
    11VAC15-40-240. Randomization.
    A. As used in this section, unless the context requires a  different meaning:
    "Card position" means the first card dealt,  second card dealt in sequential order. 
    "Number position" means the first number drawn in  sequential order. 
    B. A distributed pull-tab system shall utilize randomizing  procedures in the creation of game sets for electronic game cards or externally  generated randomized game sets that have been created using a method previously  approved by the department. 
    C. Any random number generation, shuffling, or  randomization of outcomes used in connection with a distributed pull-tab system  must be by use of a random number generation application that has successfully  passed standard tests for randomness and unpredictability including but not  limited to: 
    1. Each card position or number position satisfies the 99%  confidence limit using the standard chi-squared analysis. "Chi-squared  analysis" is the sum of the ratio of the square difference between the  expected result and the observed result to the expected result. 
    2. Each card position or number position does not produce a  significant statistic with regard to producing patterns of occurrences. Each  card position or number position will be considered random if it meets the 99%  confidence level with regard to the "run test" or any similar pattern  testing statistic. The "run test" is a mathematical statistic that  determines the existence of recurring patterns within a set of data. 
    3. Each card position or number position is independently  chosen without regard to any other card or number drawn within that game play.  This test is the "correlation test." Each pair of card positions or  number positions is considered random if it meets the 99% confidence level  using standard correlation analysis. 
    4. Each card position or number position is independently  chosen without reference to the same card position or number position in the  previous game. This test is the "serial correlation test." Each card position  or number position is considered random if it meets the 99% confidence level  using standard serial correlation analysis. 
    11VAC15-40-250. Communications and network requirements.
    A. Where the distributed pull-tab system components are  linked with one another in a network, communication protocols shall be used  that ensure that erroneous data or signals will not adversely affect the  operations of any such system components. 
    B. All data communication shall incorporate an error  detection and correction scheme to ensure the data is transmitted and received  accurately. 
    C. Connections between all components of the distributed  pull-tab system shall only be through the use of secure communication  protocol(s) that are designed to prevent unauthorized access or tampering,  employing Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), or equivalent encryption. 
    D. The minimum width (size) for encryption keys is 112  bits for symmetric algorithms and 1024 bits for public keys. 
    E. There must be a secure method implemented for changing  the current encryption key set. It is not acceptable to only use the current  key set to "encrypt" the next set. 
    F. There must be a secure method in place for the storage  of any encryption keys. Encryption keys must not be stored without being encrypted  themselves. 
    G. If a wireless network is used, wireless products used  in conjunction with any gaming system or system component must meet the  following minimum standards: 
    1. Employ a security process that complies with the Federal  Information Processing Standard 140-2 (FIPS 140-2); or 
    2. Employ an alternative method, as approved by the  department. 
    11VAC15-40-260. Significant events.
    The following significant events, if applicable, shall be  collected from the player device or point of sale and communicated to the  system for storage and a report of the occurrence of the significant event must  be made available upon request: 
    1. Power resets or power failure. 
    2. Communication loss between a player device and any  component of the distributed pull-tab system. 
    3. Player device jackpot (any award in excess of the single  win limit of the player device). 
    4. Door openings (any external door that accesses a  critical area of the player device). 
    5. Bill validator errors: 
    a. Stacker full (if supported); and 
    b. Bill jam. 
    6. Printer errors: 
    a. Printer empty; and 
    b. Printer disconnect or failure. 
    7. Corruption of the player device RAM or program storage  device.
    8. Any other significant events as defined by the protocol  employed by the distributed pull-tab system.
    11VAC15-40-270. Validation system and redemption.
    A distributed pull-tab system may utilize a voucher  validation system to facilitate gaming transactions. The validation system may  be entirely integrated into a distributed pull-tab system or exist as a  separate entity. 
    1. Payment by voucher printer as a method of redeeming  unused game plays and/or winnings on a player device is only permissible when  the device is linked to an approved validation system or distributed pull-tab  system that allows validation of the printed voucher. 
    a. A distributed pull-tab system may allow voucher out  only; vouchers shall not be inserted, scanned, or used in any way at the player  device for redemption. 
    b. The validation system must process voucher redemption  correctly according to the secure communication protocol implemented. 
    2. The algorithm or method used by the validation system or  distributed pull-tab system to generate the voucher validation numbers must  guarantee an insignificant percentage of repetitive validation numbers. 
    3. The validation system must retrieve the voucher  information correctly based on the secure communication protocol implemented  and store the voucher information in a database. The voucher record on the host  system must contain, at a minimum, the following voucher information: 
    a. Validation number; 
    b. Date and time the player device printed the voucher; 
    c. Value of voucher in dollars and cents; 
    d. Status of voucher; 
    e. Date and time the voucher will expire; 
    f. Serial number of player device; and 
    g. Location name or site identifier; 
    4. The validation system or distributed pull-tab system  must have the ability to identify the following occurrences and notify the  cashier when the following conditions exist: 
    a. Voucher cannot be found on file; 
    b. Voucher has already been paid; or 
    c. Amount of voucher differs from amount on file  (requirement may be met by display of voucher amount for confirmation by  cashier during the redemption process). 
    5. If the connection between the validation system and the  distributed pull-tab system fails, an alternate method or procedure of payment  must be available and shall include the ability to identify duplicate vouchers  and prevent fraud by redeeming vouchers that were previously issued by the  player device. 
    6. The following reports related to vouchers shall be  generated on demand: 
    a. Voucher Issuance Report shall be available from the  validation system that shows all vouchers generated by an electronic game card  device; and 
    b. Voucher Redemption Report shall detail individual  vouchers, the sum of the vouchers paid by the validation terminal or point of  sale by session, and include the following information: 
    (1) The date and time of the transaction; 
    (2) The dollar value of the transaction; 
    (3) Validation number; 
    (4) A transaction number; and 
    (5) Point-of-sale identification number or name.
    7. The validation system database must be encrypted and  password-protected and should possess a nonalterable user audit trail to  prevent unauthorized access. 
    8. The normal operation of any device that holds voucher  information shall not have any options or method that may compromise voucher  information. Any device that holds voucher information in its memory shall not  allow removal of the information unless it has first transferred that  information to the ticketing database or other secured component or components  of the validation system. 
    11VAC15-40-280. Point of sale; validation terminal.
    A. A distributed pull-tab system may utilize a  point-of-sale and/or validation terminal that is capable of facilitating the  sale of the organization's pull tab outcomes or used for the redemption of  credits from player accounts or vouchers. The point of sale may be entirely  integrated into a distributed pull-tab system or exist as a separate entity. 
    B. Point-of-sale use is only permissible when the device  is linked to an approved validation system or distributed pull-tab system. 
    C. If a distributed pull-tab system utilizes a point of  sale, it shall be capable of printing a receipt for each sale, void, or  redemption. 
    1. The receipt shall contain the following information: 
    a. Date and time of the transaction; 
    b. Dollar value of the transaction; 
    c. Validation number, if applicable; 
    d. Quantity of associated products, if applicable; 
    e. Transaction number; 
    f. Account number, if applicable; and 
    g. Point-of-sale identification number or name. 
    D. The following point-of-sale or validation terminal  reports shall be generated on demand: 
    1. Sales Transaction History Report shall show all sales  and voids by session and include the following information: 
    a. Date and time of the transaction; 
    b. Dollar value of the transaction; 
    c. Quantity of associated products; 
    d. Transaction number; and 
    e. Point of sale identification number or name; 
    2. Voucher Redemption Report shall detail individual  voucher redemptions paid by the validation terminal or point of sale by session  and include the following information: 
    a. Date and time of the transaction; 
    b. Dollar value of the transaction; 
    c. Validation number; 
    d. Transaction number; and 
    e. Point of sale identification number or name. 
    11VAC15-40-290. Location of equipment.
    All equipment used to facilitate the distribution, play,  or redemption of electronic pull-tab or instant bingo games must be physically  located within the boundaries of the Commonwealth of Virginia. This includes  but is not limited to the distributed pull-tab system, player devices,  redemption terminals, and point-of-sale stations. 
    Article 2
  Player Devices
    11VAC15-40-300. Player device general requirements.
    A. Each player device shall bear a seal approved by the  commissioner and affixed by the department.
    B. A player device shall not be capable of being used for  the purposes of engaging in any game prohibited by the department. 
    C. In addition to a video monitor or touch screen, each  player device may have one or more of the following: a bill acceptor, printer,  and electromechanical buttons for activating the game and providing player  input, including a means for the player to make selections and choices in  games. 
    D. For each player device, there shall be located anywhere  within the distributed pull-tab system, nonvolatile memory or its equivalent.  The memory shall be maintained in a secure location for the purpose of storing  and preserving a set of critical data that has been error checked in accordance  with the critical memory requirements of this regulation. 
    E. A player device shall not have any switches, jumpers,  wire posts, or other means of manipulation that could affect the operation or  outcome of a game. The player device may not have any functions or parameters  adjustable through any separate video display or input codes except for the  adjustment of features that are wholly cosmetic. 
    F. A player device shall not have any of the following  attributes: spinning or mechanical reels, pull handle, sounds other than an  audio effect to simulate the opening of a paper pull-tab or instant bingo card,  flashing lights, tower light, top box, coin tray, ticket acceptance, hopper, coin  acceptor, enhanced animation, cabinet or payglass artwork, or any other  attribute identified by the department. 
    G. A player device shall be robust enough to withstand  forced illegal entry that would leave behind physical evidence of the attempted  entry or such entry that causes an error code that is displayed and transmitted  to the distributed pull-tab system. Any such entry attempt shall inhibit game  play until cleared, and shall not affect the subsequent play or any other play,  prize, or aspect of the game. 
    H. The number of player devices, other than those player  devices that are handheld, present at any premise at which charitable gaming is  conducted shall be limited to one device for every 50 permissible occupants  under the maximum occupancy as determined pursuant to the Uniform Statewide  Building Code. The department shall determine whether a player device is  handheld. 
    11VAC15-40-310. Cabinet wiring.
    A. Proof of UL or equivalent certification shall be  required for all submitted electronic devices. 
    B. A player device shall be designed so that power and  data cables into and out of the player device can be routed so that the cables  are not accessible to the general public. 
    11VAC15-40-320. Player device identification.
    A player device shall have a permanently affixed  identification badge that cannot be removed without leaving evidence of  tampering. This badge shall be affixed to the exterior of the player device and  shall include the following information: 
    1. Manufacturer name; 
    2. A unique serial number; 
    3. The player device model number; 
    4. The date of manufacture; and 
    5. Any other information required by the department. 
    11VAC15-40-330. Doors; compartments.
    A. If a player device possesses an external door that  allows access to the interior of the machine the following rules shall apply: 
    1. Doors and their associated hinges shall be capable of  withstanding determined illegal efforts to gain access to the inside of the  player device and shall leave evidence of tampering if an illegal entry is made;  
    2. All external doors shall be locked and monitored by door  access sensors that shall detect and report all external door openings by way  of an audible alarm, on-screen display, or both; 
    3. The player device shall cease play when any external  door is opened; 
    4. It shall not be possible to disable a door open sensor  when the machine's door is closed without leaving evidence of tampering; 
    5. The sensor system shall register a door as being open  when the door is moved from its fully closed and locked position; and 
    6. Door open conditions shall be recorded in an electronic  log that includes a date/time stamp. 
    B. Player devices that contain control programs located  within an accessible area shall have a separate internal locked logic  compartment, that shall be keyed differently than the front door access lock.  The logic compartment shall be a locked cabinet area with its own locked door,  that houses critical electronic components that have the potential to  significantly influence the operation of the player device. There may be more  than one such logic area in a player device. Electronic component items that  are required to be housed in one or more logic areas are: 
    1. CPUs and other electronic components involved in the  operation and calculation or display of game play; 
    2. Communication controller electronics and components  housing the communication program storage media or, the communication board for  the on-line system may reside outside the player device; and 
    3. Logic compartment door open conditions shall be recorded  in a log that includes a date/time stamp. 
    C. Player devices that do not contain a door shall have  adequate security for any panels or entry points that allow access to the  interior of the device. 
    11VAC15-40-340. Memory clear.
    A. Following the initiation of a memory reset procedure  utilizing a certified reset method, the program shall execute a routine that  initializes the entire contents of memory to the default state. For player  devices that allow for partial memory clears, the methodology in doing so must  be accurate and the game application must validate the uncleared portions of  memory. The player device display after a memory reset shall not be the top  award. 
    B. It shall not be possible to change a configuration  setting that causes an alteration or obstruction to the electronic accounting  meters without a memory clear. 
    11VAC15-40-350. Critical memory.
    A. Critical memory shall be used to store all data that is  considered vital to the continued operation of the player device. Critical memory  storage shall be maintained by a methodology that enables errors to be  identified and corrected in most circumstances. This methodology may involve  signatures, checksums, partial checksums, multiple copies, timestamps, and/or  use of validity codes. This includes, but is not limited to: 
    1. All electronic meters required in 11VAC15-40-420 E;
    2. Current unused credits; 
    3. Player device or game configuration data; 
    4. Recall of all wagers and other information necessary to  fully reconstruct the game outcome associated with the last 10 plays; 
    5. Software state, which is the last state the player  device software was in before interruption; and 
    6. Error conditions that may have occurred on the player  device that may include: 
    a. Memory error or control program error; 
    b. Low memory battery, for batteries external to the memory  itself or low power source; 
    c. Program error or authentication mismatch; and 
    d. Power reset. 
    B. Comprehensive checks of critical memory shall be made  continually to test for possible corruption. In addition, all critical memory: 
    1. Shall have the ability to retain data for a minimum of  180 days after power is discontinued from the player device. If the method used  is an off-chip battery source, it shall recharge itself to its full potential  in a maximum of 24 hours. The shelf life shall be at least five years. Memory  that uses an off-chip back-up power source to retain its contents when the main  power is switched off shall have a detection system that will provide a method  for software to interpret and act upon a low battery condition; 
    2. Shall only be cleared by a department certified memory  clear method; and 
    3. Shall result in an error if the control program detects  an unrecoverable memory error. 
    11VAC15-40-360. Program storage devices.
    A. All program storage devices (writable/nonwritable),  including Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory (EPROM), DVD, CD-ROM, compact  flash, and any other type of program storage device shall be clearly marked  with sufficient information to identify the software and revision level of the  information stored in the devices. 
    B. Program storage devices shall meet the following  requirements: 
    1. Program storage, including CD-ROM, shall meet the  following rules: 
    a. The control program shall authenticate all critical  files by employing a hashing algorithm that produces a "message  digest" output of at least 128 bits at minimum, as certified by the  recognized independent test laboratory and agreed upon by the department. Any  message digest shall be stored on a read-only memory device within the player  device. Any message digest that resides on any other medium shall be encrypted,  using a public/private key algorithm with a minimum of a 512 bit key, or an  equivalent encryption algorithm with similar security certified by the  independent test laboratory and agreed upon by the department. 
    b. The player device shall authenticate all critical files  against the stored message digests. In the event of a failed authentication,  the player device should immediately enter an error condition with the  appropriate indication such as an audible signal, on-screen display, or both.  This error shall require operator intervention to clear. The player device  shall display specific error information and shall not clear until the file  authenticates properly and/or the player device's memory is cleared, the game  is restarted, and all files authenticate correctly. 
    2. CD-ROM specific based program storage shall: 
    a. Not be a rewriteable disk; and 
    b. The "write session" shall be closed to prevent  any further writing to the storage device. 
    C. Player devices where the control program is capable of  being erased and reprogrammed without being removed from the player device, or  other equipment or related peripheral devices shall meet the following  requirements: 
    1. Reprogrammable program storage shall only write to  alterable storage media containing data, files, and programs that are not  critical to the basic operation of the game. 
    2. Notwithstanding the foregoing, data may be written to  media containing critical data, files, and programs provided that: 
    a. A log of all information that is added, deleted, and  modified be stored on the media; 
    b. The control program verifies the validity of all data,  files, and programs that reside on the media using the methods required herein;  
    c. The player device's program contains appropriate  security to prevent unauthorized modifications; and 
    d. The player device's program does not allow game play  while the media containing the critical data, files, and programs is being  modified. 
    D. The control program shall ensure the integrity of all  critical program components during the execution of said components and the  first time the files are loaded for use even if only partially loaded. Space  that is not critical to machine security (e.g., video or sound) is not required  to be validated, although the department recommends a method be in place for  the files to be tested for corruption. If any of the video or sound files  contain payout amounts or other information needed by the player, the files are  to be considered critical. 
    11VAC15-40-370. Touch screens.
    Any touch screen must meet the following rules: 
    1. A touch screen shall be accurate once calibrated; 
    2. A touch screen shall be able to be recalibrated; and 
    3. A touch screen shall have no hidden or undocumented  buttons or touch points anywhere on the touch screen, except as provided for by  the game rules that affect game play. 
    11VAC15-40-380. Bill acceptors.
    A. A player device may have a mechanism that accepts U.S.  currency and provides a method to enable the player device software to  interpret and act appropriately upon a valid or invalid input. 
    B. An acceptance device shall be electronically based and  be configured to ensure that it only accept valid bills and rejects all others  in a highly accurate manner. 
    C. A bill input system shall be constructed in a manner  that protects against vandalism, abuse, or fraudulent activity. In addition, a  bill acceptance device shall only register credits when: 
    1. The bill has passed the point where it is accepted and  stacked; and 
    2. The bill acceptor has sent the "irrevocably  stacked" message to the machine. 
    D. A bill acceptor shall communicate to the player device  using a bidirectional protocol. 
    E. A bill acceptor shall be designed to prevent the use of  cheating methods such as stringing, the insertion of foreign objects, and any  other manipulation that may be deemed as a cheating technique. 
    F. If a bill acceptor is designed to be factory set only,  it shall not be possible to access or conduct maintenance or adjustments to  that bill acceptor in the field, other than: 
    1. The selection of bills and their limits; 
    2. Changing of certified EPROMs or downloading of certified  software; 
    3. The method for adjustment of the tolerance level for  accepting bills of varying quality should not be accessible from the exterior  of the player device. Adjustments of the tolerance level should only be allowed  with adequate levels of security in place. This can be accomplished through  lock and key, physical switch settings, or other accepted methods approved on a  case-by-case basis; 
    4. Maintenance, adjustment, and repair per approved factory  procedures; and 
    5. Options that set the direction or orientation of bill  acceptance. 
    G. A player device equipped with a bill acceptor shall  have the capability of detecting and displaying an error condition for the  following events: 
    1. Stacker full (it is recommended that an explicit  "stacker full" error message not be utilized since this may cause a  security issue); 
    2. Bill jams; 
    3. Bill acceptor door open. If a bill acceptor door is a  machine door, a door open signal is sufficient; 
    4. Stacker door open; and 
    5. Stacker removed. 
    H. A player device equipped with a bill acceptor shall  maintain sufficient electronic metering to be able to report the following: 
    1. Total monetary value of all bills accepted; 
    2. Total number of all bills accepted; 
    3. A breakdown of the bills accepted for each denomination;  and 
    4. The value of the last five items accepted by the bill  acceptor.
    11VAC15-40-390. Payment by voucher printers.
    A. If the player device has a printer that is used to  issue payment to the player by issuing a printed voucher for any unused game  plays and/or winnings, the player device shall meet the following rules: 
    1. The printer shall be located in a secure area of the  player device, but shall not be located in the logic area or any cash storage  area. The bill acceptor stacker or logic areas containing critical electronic  components shall not be accessed when the printer paper is changed; 
    2. The player device, in which the printer is housed, is  linked to a voucher validation system, which records the voucher information;  and
    3. Data printed on a voucher shall be provided to the  voucher validation system that records the following information regarding each  voucher printed: 
    a. Value of unused game plays and/or winnings in U.S.  currency, in numerical form; 
    b. Time the voucher was printed; 
    c. Date the voucher was printed; 
    d. Location name or site identifier;
    e. Serial number of player device; 
    f. Unique validation number or barcode; and 
    g. Expiration date and time. 
    B. If the player device is capable of printing a duplicate  voucher, the duplicate voucher shall clearly state the word "DUPLICATE"  on its face. 
    C. The printer shall use printer paper containing security  features such as a watermark as approved by the department. 
    D. A printer shall have mechanisms to allow the player  device to interpret and act upon the following conditions that must disable the  game, and produce an error condition that requires attendant intervention to  resume play: 
    1. Out of paper; 
    2. Printer jam or failure; and 
    3. Printer disconnect. The player device may detect this  error condition when the game tries to print. 
    E. A player device that uses a voucher printer shall  maintain a minimum of the last 25 transactions in critical memory. All voucher  transactions shall be logged with a date and time stamp. 
    11VAC15-40-400. Payment by account.
    A. Credit may be added to a player account via a cashier  or point of sale station. Credit may also be added by any supporting player  device through credits won or bills. 
    B. Money may be removed from a player account either  through downloading of credits to the player device or by cashing out at a  cashier's or point-of-sale station. 
    C. All monetary transactions between a supporting player  device and the distributed pull-tab system must be secured by means of a card  insertion into a magnetic card reader and PIN entry or by other protected  means. 
    Article 3
  Game Requirements
    11VAC15-40-410. Game play requirements.
    A. A player receives an electronic game card in return for  consideration. A player wins if the player's electronic game card contains a  combination of symbols or numbers that was designated in advance of the game as  a winning combination. There may be multiple winning combinations in each game.  Electronic versions of instant bingo and pull-tabs, as authorized by the  department, shall only utilize devices that allow players to play electronic  game cards. A player device shall meet the following minimum requirements: 
    1. A player may purchase an opportunity to play an  electronic game card by: 
    a. Insertion of U.S. currency (bills only);
    b. Purchase made at a point of sale terminal; or 
    c. Withdrawing deposits available in a player account. 
    2. In addition to the available games, the rules of play  shall be displayed on the player device's video screen. Rules of play shall  include all winning combinations. 
    3. Any number of game themes may be selectable for play on  any given player device. Only one of the game themes shall be playable at any  given time. 
    4. A player device shall be clearly labeled so as to inform  the public that no one under 18 years of age is allowed to play. 
    5. A player device shall not be capable of displaying any  enticing animation while in an idle state. A player device may use simple  display elements or screen savers to prevent monitor damage. 
    6. The results of the electronic game card shall be shown to  the player using a video display. No rolling, flashing, or spinning animations  are permitted. No rotating reels marked into horizontal segments by varying  symbols are permitted. No entertaining sound or music is permitted other than  an audio effect to simulate the opening of a paper pull-tab or instant bingo  card. Any sounds present used to simulate the opening of a paper pull-tab must  not be played at a level sufficient to disturb other players or patrons. 
    7. The player device shall have one or more buttons,  electromechanical or touch screen, to facilitate the following functions: 
    a. Viewing of the game "help" screens; 
    b. Viewing of the game rules; 
    c. Initiating game play; 
    d. Cashout or logout; and 
    e. One or more buttons designated to reveal the pull-tab or  instant bingo windows. 
    8. Following play on a player device, the result shall be  clearly shown on the video display along with any prizes that may have been  awarded. Prizes may be dispensed in the form of: 
    a. Voucher;
    b. Added to the machine balance meter; or 
    c. Added to the player's account balance. 
    9. An available balance may be collected from the player  device by the player pressing the "cashout" button or logging off of  the player device at any time other than during: 
    a. A game being played; 
    b. While in an audit mode or screen; 
    c. Any door open; 
    d. Test mode; 
    e. A machine balance meter or win meter incrementation  unless the entire amount is placed on the meter when the "cashout"  button is pressed; or 
    f. An error condition. 
    10. The default player device display, upon entering game  play mode, shall not be the top award. 
    B. A player device shall not have hardware or software  that determines the outcome of any electronic game card, produce its own  outcome, or affect the order of electronic game cards as dispensed from the  distributed pull-tab system. The game outcome shall be determined by the  distributed pull-tab system as outlined within these rules. 
    C. Game themes may not contain obscene or offensive  graphics, animations, or references. All game themes will be subject to  approval by the department. 
    D. Prior to approval for use, each player device must meet  the following specifications with respect to its operation: 
    1. After accepting an allowable cash payment from the  player, the player shall press a "play" button to initiate a game.
    2. The player device shall not display in any manner, the  number of electronic game cards of each finite category, or how many cards  remain.
    3. Awards of merchandise prizes in lieu of cash are  prohibited.
    4. The player must interact with the device to initiate a  game and reveal a win or loss. This may involve a button press on the console  or on the touch screen.
    5. The electronic game card must be initially displayed  with a cover and require player interaction to reveal the symbols and game  outcome.
    6. In no event may a player device simulate play of  roulette, poker, keno, lotto or lottery, twenty-one, blackjack, or any other  card game, or simulate play of any type of slot machine game, regardless of  whether the machine has a payback feature or extra play awards. Card symbols  such as ace, king, queen, or heart are acceptable, provided the aforementioned  is abided by.
    7. Games must not contain any elements of skill. 
    E. Each player device must meet the following  specifications with respect to its metering system: 
    1. A player device shall contain electronic metering  whereby meters record and display on the video screen the following information  at a minimum: 
    a. Total cash in for the bill acceptor if equipped with a  bill acceptor; 
    b. Total cash played; 
    c. Total cash won; 
    d. Total cash removed from player device; 
    e. Total count of electronic game cards played; and 
    f. Total count of electronic game cards won. 
    2. An electronic meter shall be capable of maintaining  correct totals and be of no less than 10 digits in length. 
    3. A player device shall not be capable of displaying the  number of electronic game cards that remain in the game set or the number of  winners or losers that have been drawn or still remain in the game set while  the game set is still being played. 
    4. An electronic meter shall not be capable of being  automatically reset or cleared, whether due to an error in any aspect of the  meter's or a game's operation or otherwise. 
    5. Currency meters shall be maintained in dollars and  cents.
    Part V
  Administrative Process
    11VAC15-40-420. Procedural rules for the conduct of  fact-finding conferences and hearings.
    A. Fact-finding conference; notification, appearance, and  conduct. 
    1. Unless automatic revocation or immediate suspension is  required by law, no permit to conduct charitable gaming or to sell charitable  gaming supplies shall be denied, suspended, or revoked except after review and  approval of such proposed denial, suspension, or revocation action by the  board, and upon notice stating the basis for such proposed action and the time  and place for a fact-finding conference as set forth in § 2.2-4019 of the  Administrative Process Act.
    2. If a basis exists for a refusal to renew, suspend, or a  revoke a permit, the department shall notify by certified mail or by hand  delivery the interested persons at the address of record maintained by the  department. 
    3. Notification shall include the basis for the proposed  action and afford interested persons the opportunity to present written and  oral information to the department that may have a bearing on the proposed  action at a fact-finding conference. If there is no withdrawal, a fact-finding  conference shall be scheduled at the earliest mutually agreeable date, but no  later than 60 days from the date of the notification. Organizations or  suppliers who wish to waive their right to a conference shall notify the  department at least 14 days before the scheduled conference. 
    4. If, after consideration of evidence presented during an  informal fact-finding conference, a basis for action still exists, the  interested persons shall be notified in writing within 60 days of the  fact-finding conference via certified or hand-delivered mail of the decision  and the right to a formal hearing. Parties to the conference may agree to  extend the report deadline if more time is needed to consider relevant  evidence. 
    B. Hearing; notification, appearance, and conduct. 
    1. If, after a fact-finding conference, a sufficient basis  still exists to deny, suspend, or revoke a permit, interested persons shall be  notified by certified or hand-delivered mail of the proposed action and of the  opportunity for a hearing on the proposed action. If an organization or  supplier desires to request a hearing, it shall notify the department within 14  days of receipt of a report on the conference. Parties may enter into a consent  agreement to settle the issues at any time prior to, or subsequent to, an  informal fact-finding conference. 
    2. If an interested party or representative fails to appear  at a hearing, the hearing officer may proceed in his absence and make a  recommendation. 
    3. Oral and written arguments may be submitted to and  limited by the hearing officer. Oral arguments shall be recorded in an appropriate  manner. 
    C. Hearing location. Hearings before a hearing officer  shall be held, insofar as practicable, in the county or city in which the  organization or supplier is located. If the parties agree, hearing officers may  conduct hearings at locations convenient to the greatest number of persons or  by telephone conference, video conference, or similar technology, in order to  expedite the hearing process. 
    D. Hearing decisions. 
    1. Recommendations of the hearing officer shall be a part  of the record and shall include a written statement of the hearing officer's  findings of fact and recommendations as well as the reasons or basis for the  recommendations. Recommendations shall be based upon all the material issues of  fact, law, or discretion presented on the record. 
    2. The department shall review the recommendation of the  hearing officer and render a decision on the recommendation within 30 days of  receipt. The decision shall cite the appropriate rule, relief, or denial  thereof as to each issue. 
    E. Agency representation. The commissioner's designee may  represent the department in an informal conference or at a hearing. 
    11VAC15-40-430. Reporting violations.
    A. Unless otherwise required by law, the identity of any  individual who provides information to the department or its agents regarding  alleged violations shall be held in strict confidence. 
    B. Any officer, director, or game manager of a qualified  organization or any officer or director of a supplier shall immediately report  to the department any information pertaining to the suspected misappropriation  or theft of funds or any other violations of charitable gaming statutes or  these regulations. 
    C. Failure to report the information required by  subsection B of this section may result in the denial, suspension, or  revocation of a permit. 
    D. Any officer, director, or game manager of a qualified  organization involved in the management, operation, or conduct of charitable  gaming shall immediately notify the department upon conviction of a felony or a  crime involving fraud, theft, or financial crimes. 
    E. Any officer, director, partner, or owner of a supplier  shall immediately notify the department upon conviction or plea of nolo  contendere to a felony or a crime involving gambling or an action against any  license or certificate held by the supplier in any state in the United States.
    F. Failure to report information required by subsection D  or E of this section by any officer, director, or game manager of a qualified  organization or by any supplier may result in the denial, suspension, or  revocation of a permit. 
    G. Any officer, director, or game manager of a qualified  organization involved in charitable gaming shall immediately report to the  department any change the Internal Revenue Service makes in the tax status of  the organization, or if the organization is a chapter of a national  organization covered by a group tax exempt determination, the tax status of the  national organization. 
    H. All organizations regulated by the department shall  display prominently a poster advising the public of a phone number where  complaints relating to charitable gaming may be made. Such posters shall be  provided by the department to organizations at no charge.
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name to access a form. The forms are  also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar  of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (11VAC15-40)
    GAME MANAGEMENT FORMS
    Bingo  Session Reconciliation Summary, Form 103 (rev. 1/11).
    Admission  Sales Reconciliation - Paper, Form 104-A (rev. 1/11).
    Floor  Sales Reconciliation - Paper, Form 104-B (rev. 1/11).
    Decision  Bingo Reconciliation, Form 104-C (rev. 1/11).
    Raffle/Treasure  Chest Sales Reconciliation - Bingo Session, Form 104-D (rev. 1/11).
    Instant  Bingo/Seal Cards/Pull-Tabs Reconciliation, Form 105 (rev. 1/11) .
    Storeroom  Inventory Issue - Paper, Form 106-A (rev. 7/08).
    Storeroom  Inventory Issue - Instant Bingo/Seal Cards/Pull-Tabs, Form 106-B (rev. 7/08).
    List  of Volunteer Workers, Form 107 (rev. 7/08).
    Prize  Receipt, Form 108 (rev. 7/08).
    Storeroom  Inventory - Paper, Form 109-A (rev. 1/11).
    Storeroom  Inventory - Instant Bingo/Seal Cards/Pull-Tabs, Form 109-B (rev. 1/11) .
    ORGANIZATION LICENSING FORMS 
    Charitable  Gaming Permit Application - New Applicants Only, Form 201 - N (rev. 1/11).
    Charitable  Gaming Permit Application - Renewal Applicants Only, Form 201 - R (rev. 1/11).
    Permit  Amendment (rev. 1/11).
    Gaming  Personnel Information Update (rev. 7/08).
    Report  of Game Termination (rev. 7/08).
    SUPPLIER LICENSING FORMS
    Charitable  Gaming Supplier Permit Application, Form 301 (rev. 1/11).
    Annual  Supplier Sales and Transaction Report, Form 302 (rev. 7/08).
    BINGO MANAGER AND BINGO CALLER REGISTRATION FORMS
    Charitable Gaming Bingo  Caller Certificate of Registration Application, Form 401 (rev. 1/11).
    Charitable Gaming Bingo  Manager Certificate of Registration Application, Form 402 (rev. 1/11).
    Amendment  to Certificate of Registration – Registered Bingo Callers and Bingo Managers  (rev. 1/11).
    Personal  Information Update – Registered Bingo Callers and Registered Bingo Managers,  Form 404 (rev. 7/07).
    Bona  Fide Member Verification, Form 405 (rev. 5/11).
    DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (11VAC15-40)
    IRS  Publication 3079, Tax-Exempt Organizations and Gaming (rev. 6/10).
    Security  Requirements for Cryptographic Modules, Federal Information Processing  Standard, FIPS Pub 140-2 (rev. 12/02).
    VA.R. Doc. No. R11-2560; Filed October 19, 2011, 2:33 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  following regulatory action is exempt from the Administrative Process Act in accordance  with § 2.2-4006 A 4 c of the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations  that are necessary to meet the requirements of federal law or regulations,  provided such regulations do not differ materially from those required by  federal law or regulation. The State Board of Health will receive, consider,  and respond to petitions by any interested person at any time with respect to  reconsideration or revision.
         Title of Regulation: 12VAC5-590. Waterworks  Regulations (amending 12VAC5-590-10, 12VAC5-590-340,  12VAC5-590-350, 12VAC5-590-370, 12VAC5-590-380, 12VAC5-590-410, 12VAC5-590-420,  12VAC5-590-440, 12VAC5-590-460, 12VAC5-590-500, 12VAC5-590-530, 12VAC5-590-540,  12VAC5-590-545, 12VAC5-590-550; adding 12VAC5-590-379, 12VAC5-590-421,  12VAC5-590-425). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 32.1-12 and 32.1-170 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: December 7, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: Robert A. K. Payne, Compliance Manager,  Department of Health, 109 Governor Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804)  864-7498, or email rob.payne@vdh.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments provide for (i) periodic sanitary surveys of  groundwater source waterworks that require the evaluation of eight critical  elements and the identification of significant deficiencies; (ii) source water  monitoring to test for the presence of E. coli; (iii) required corrective  actions for any waterworks with a significant deficiency or source water E.  coli contamination; and (iv) compliance monitoring to ensure that treatment  technology installed to treat drinking water achieves at least 99.99%  inactivation or removal of viruses.
    Part I
  General Framework for Waterworks Regulations
    Article 1
  Definitions
    12VAC5-590-10. Definitions.
    As used in this chapter, the following words and terms shall  have meanings respectively set forth unless the context clearly requires a  different meaning:
    "Action level" means the concentration of lead or  copper in water specified in 12VAC5-590-385, which determines, in some cases,  the treatment requirements contained in 12VAC5-590-405 that an owner is  required to complete.
    "Air gap separation" means the unobstructed  vertical distance through the free atmosphere between the lowest opening from  any pipe or faucet supplying pure water to a tank, plumbing fixture, or other  device and the rim of the receptacle.
    "Annual daily water demand" means the average rate  of daily water usage over at least the most recent three-year period.
    "Applied water" means water that is ready for  filtration.
    "Approved" means material, equipment, workmanship,  process or method that has been accepted by the commissioner as suitable for  the proposed use.
    "Auxiliary water system" means any water system on  or available to the premises other than the waterworks. These auxiliary waters  may include water from a source such as wells, lakes, or streams; or process  fluids; or used water. They may be polluted or contaminated or objectionable,  or constitute an unapproved water source or system over which the water purveyor  does not have control.
    "Backflow" means the flow of water or other  liquids, mixtures, or substances into the distribution piping of a waterworks  from any source or sources other than its intended source.
    "Backflow prevention device" means any approved  device, method, or type of construction intended to prevent backflow into a  waterworks.
    "Bag filters" means pressure-driven separation  devices that remove particulate matter larger than one micrometer using an  engineered porous filtration media. They are typically constructed of a  nonrigid, fabric filtration media housed in a pressure vessel in which the  direction of flow is from the inside of the bag to outside.
    "Bank filtration" means a water treatment process  that uses a well to recover surface water that has naturally infiltrated into  groundwater through a river bed or bank(s). Infiltration is typically enhanced  by the hydraulic gradient imposed by a nearby pumping water supply or other  well(s).
    "Best available technology (BAT)" means the best  technology, treatment techniques, or other means which the commissioner finds,  after examination for efficacy under field conditions and not solely under  laboratory conditions and in conformance with applicable EPA regulations, are  available (taking cost into consideration).
    "Board" means the State Board of Health.
    "Breakpoint chlorination" means the addition of  chlorine to water until the chlorine demand has been satisfied and further  additions result in a residual that is directly proportional to the amount  added.
    "Cartridge filters" means pressure-driven  separation devices that remove particulate matter larger than one micrometer  using an engineered porous filtration media. They are typically constructed as  rigid or semi-rigid, self-supporting filter elements housed in pressure vessels  in which flow is from the outside of the cartridge to the inside.
    "Chlorine" means dry chlorine.
    "Chlorine gas" means dry chlorine in the gaseous  state.
    "Chlorine solution (chlorine water)" means a  solution of chlorine in water.
    "Coagulation" means a process using coagulant  chemicals and mixing by which colloidal and suspended materials are  destabilized and agglomerated into floc.
    "Coliform bacteria group" means a group of bacteria  predominantly inhabiting the intestines of man or animal but also occasionally  found elsewhere. It includes all aerobic and facultative anaerobic,  gram-negative, non-sporeforming bacilli that ferment lactose with production of  gas. Also included are all bacteria that produce a dark, purplish-green colony with  metallic sheen by the membrane filter technique used for coliform  identification.
    "Combined distribution system" means the  interconnected distribution system consisting of the distribution systems of  wholesale waterworks and of the consecutive waterworks that receive finished  water.
    "Commissioner" means the State Health Commissioner.
    "Community waterworks" means a waterworks which  serves at least 15 service connections used by year-round residents or  regularly serves at least 25 year-round residents.
    "Compliance cycle" means the nine-year calendar  year cycle during which a waterworks shall monitor. Each compliance cycle  consists of three three-year compliance periods. The first calendar year cycle  begins January 1, 1993, and ends December 31, 2001; the second begins January  1, 2002, and ends December 31, 2010; the third begins January 1, 2011, and ends  December 31, 2019.
    "Compliance period" means a three-year calendar  year period within a compliance cycle. Each compliance cycle has three  three-year compliance periods. Within the first compliance cycle, the first  compliance period runs from January 1, 1993, to December 31, 1995; the second  from January 1, 1996, to December 31, 1998; the third from January 1, 1999, to  December 31, 2001.
    "Comprehensive performance evaluation" or  "(CPE)" means a thorough review and analysis of a treatment plant's  performance-based capabilities and associated administrative, operational and  maintenance practices. It is conducted to identify factors that may be adversely  impacting a plant's capability to achieve compliance and emphasizes approaches  that can be implemented without significant capital improvements. For purposes  of compliance with 12VAC5-590-530 C 1 b (2), the comprehensive performance  evaluation shall consist of at least the following components: assessment of  plant performance; evaluation of major unit processes; identification and  prioritization of performance limiting factors; assessment of the applicability  of comprehensive technical assistance; and preparation of a CPE report.
    "Confluent growth" means a continuous bacterial  growth covering the entire filtration area of a membrane filter, or a portion  thereof, in which bacterial colonies are not discrete.
    "Consecutive waterworks" means a waterworks which  has no water production or source facility of its own and which obtains all of  its water from another permitted waterworks or receives some or all of its  finished water from one or more wholesale waterworks. Delivery may be through a  direct connection or through the distribution system of one or more consecutive  waterworks.
    "Consumer" means any person who drinks water from a  waterworks.
    "Consumer's water system" means any water system  located on the consumer's premises, supplied by or in any manner connected to a  waterworks.
    "Contaminant" means any objectionable or hazardous  physical, chemical, biological, or radiological substance or matter in water.
    "Conventional filtration treatment" means a series  of processes including coagulation, flocculation, sedimentation, and filtration  resulting in substantial particulate removal.
    "Corrosion inhibitor" means a substance capable of  reducing the corrosivity of water toward metal plumbing materials, especially  lead and copper, by forming a protective film on the interior surface of those  materials.
    "Cross connection" means any connection or  structural arrangement, direct or indirect, to the waterworks whereby backflow  can occur.
    "CT" or "CT calc" means the product of  "residual disinfectant concentration" (C) in mg/L determined before  or at the first customer, and the corresponding "disinfectant contact  time" (T) in minutes, i.e., "C" x "T".
    "Daily fluid intake" means the daily intake of  water for drinking and culinary use and is defined as two liters.
    "Dechlorination" means the partial or complete  reduction of residual chlorine in water by any chemical or physical process at  a waterworks with a treatment facility.
    "Degree of hazard" means the level of health  hazard, as derived from an evaluation of the potential risk to health and the  adverse effect upon the waterworks.
    "Diatomaceous earth filtration" means a process  resulting in substantial particulate removal in which (i) a precoat cake of  diatomaceous earth filter media is deposited on a support membrane (septum),  and (ii) while the water is filtered by passing through the cake on the septum,  additional filter media known as body feed is continuously added to the feed  water to maintain the permeability of the filter cake.
    "Direct filtration" means a series of processes  including coagulation and filtration but excluding sedimentation resulting in  substantial particulate removal.
    "Disinfectant" means any oxidant (including  chlorine) that is added to water in any part of the treatment or distribution  process for the purpose of killing or deactivating pathogenic organisms.
    "Disinfectant contact time ("T" in CT  calculations)" means the time in minutes that it takes for water to move  from the point of disinfectant application to the point where residual  disinfectant concentration ("C") is measured.
    "Disinfection" means a process that inactivates  pathogenic organisms in water by chemical oxidants or equivalent agents.
    "Disinfection profile" means a summary of Giardia  lamblia or virus inactivation through the treatment plant.
    "Distribution main" means a water main whose  primary purpose is to provide treated water to service connections.
    "District Engineer" means the employee assigned by  the Commonwealth of Virginia, Department of Health, Office of Drinking Water to  manage its regulatory activities in a geographical area of the state consisting  of a state planning district or subunit of a state planning district.
    "Domestic or other nondistribution system plumbing  problem" means a coliform contamination problem in a waterworks with more  than one service connection that is limited to the specific service connection  from which the coliform positive sample was taken.
    "Domestic use or usage" means normal family or  household use, including drinking, laundering, bathing, cooking, heating,  cleaning and flushing toilets (see Article 2 (§ 32.1-167 et seq.) of Chapter 6  of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia).
    "Double gate-double check valve assembly" means an  approved assembly composed of two single independently acting check valves  including tightly closing shutoff valves located at each end of the assembly  and petcocks and test gauges for testing the watertightness of each check  valve.
    "Dual sample set" means a set of two samples  collected at the same time and same location, with one sample analyzed for TTHM  and the other sample analyzed for HAA5. Dual sample sets are collected for the  purposes of conducting an initial distribution system evaluation (IDSE) under  12VAC5-590-370 B 3 e (2) and determining compliance with the TTHM and HAA5 MCLs  under 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 e (3).
    "Effective corrosion inhibitor residual" means, for  the purpose of 12VAC5-590-405 A 1 only, a concentration sufficient to form a  passivating film on the interior walls of a pipe.
    "Enhanced coagulation" means the addition of  sufficient coagulant for improved removal of disinfection byproduct precursors  by conventional filtration treatment.
    "Enhanced softening" means the improved removal of  disinfection byproduct precursors by precipitative softening.
    "Entry point" means the place where water from the  source after application of any treatment is delivered to the distribution  system.
    "Equivalent residential connection" means a volume  of water used equal to a residential connection which is 400 gallons per day  unless supportive data indicates otherwise.
    "Exception" means an approved deviation from a  "shall" criteria contained in Part III (12VAC5-590-640 et seq.) of  this chapter.
    "Exemption" means a conditional waiver of a  specific PMCL or treatment technique requirement which is granted to a specific  waterworks for a limited period of time.
    "Filter profile" means a graphical representation  of individual filter performance, based on continuous turbidity measurements or  total particle counts versus time for an entire filter run, from startup to  backwash inclusively, that includes an assessment of filter performance while  another filter is being backwashed.
    "Filtration" means a process for removing  particulate matter from water by passage through porous media.
    "Finished water" means water that is introduced  into the distribution system of a waterworks and is intended for distribution  and consumption without further treatment, except as treatment necessary to  maintain water quality in the distribution system (e.g., booster disinfection,  addition of corrosion control chemicals).
    "First draw sample" means a one-liter sample of tap  water, collected in accordance with 12VAC5-590-375 B 2, that has been standing  in plumbing pipes at least six hours and is collected without flushing the tap.
    "Flocculation" means a process to enhance  agglomeration or collection of smaller floc particles into larger, more easily  settleable particles through gentle stirring by hydraulic or mechanical means.
    "Flowing stream" means a course of running water  flowing in a definite channel.
    "Free available chlorine" means that portion of the  total residual chlorine remaining in water at the end of a specified contact  period which will react chemically and biologically as hypochlorous acid or  hypochlorite ion.
    "GAC10" means granular activated carbon filter beds  with an empty-bed contact time of 10 minutes based on average daily flow and a  carbon reactivation frequency of every 180 days, except that the reactivation  frequency for GAC10 used as a best available technology for compliance with  12VAC5-590-410 C 2 b (1) (b) shall be 120 days.
    "GAC20" means granular activated carbon filter beds  with an empty-bed contact time of 20 minutes based on average daily flow and a  carbon reactivation frequency of every 240 days.
    "Governmental entity" means the Commonwealth, a  town, city, county, service authority, sanitary district or any other  governmental body established under the Code of Virginia, including  departments, divisions, boards or commissions.
    "Gross alpha particle activity" means the total radioactivity  due to alpha particle emission as inferred from measurements on a dry sample.
    "Gross beta particle activity" means the total  radioactivity due to beta particle emission as inferred from measurements on a  dry sample.
    "Groundwater" means all water obtained from sources  not classified as surface water (or surface water sources).
    "Groundwater system" means any waterworks that  uses groundwater as its source of supply; however, a waterworks that combines  all its groundwater with surface water or with groundwater under the direct  influence of surface water prior to treatment is not a groundwater system.  Groundwater systems include consecutive waterworks that receive finished  groundwater from a wholesale waterworks.
    "Groundwater under the direct influence of surface  water" or "GUDI" means any water beneath the surface of  the ground with significant occurrence of insects or other macroorganisms,  algae, or large-diameter pathogens such as Giardia lamblia, or Cryptosporidium.  It also means significant and relatively rapid shifts in water characteristics  such as turbidity, temperature, conductivity, or pH that closely correlate to  climatological or surface water conditions. The commissioner in accordance with  12VAC5-590-430 will determine direct influence of surface water.
    "Haloacetic acids (five)" or "(HAA5)"  means the sum of the concentrations in milligrams per liter of the haloacetic  acid compounds (monochloroacetic acid, dichloroacetic acid, trichloroacetic  acid, monobromoacetic acid, and dibromoacetic acid), rounded to two significant  figures after addition.
    "Halogen" means one of the chemical elements  chlorine, bromine, fluorine, astatine or iodine.
    "Health hazard" means any condition, device, or  practice in a waterworks or its operation that creates, or may create, a danger  to the health and well-being of the water consumer.
    "Health regulations" means regulations which  include all primary maximum contaminant levels, treatment technique  requirements, and all operational regulations, the violation of which would  jeopardize the public health.
    "Hypochlorite" means a solution of water and some  form of chlorine, usually sodium hypochlorite.
    "Initial compliance period" means for all regulated  contaminants, the initial compliance period is the first full three-year  compliance period beginning at least 18 months after promulgation with the  exception of waterworks with 150 or more service connections for contaminants  listed at Table 2.3, VOC 19-21; Table 2.3, SOC 19-33; and antimony, beryllium,  cyanide (as free cyanide), nickel, and thallium which shall begin January 1993.
    "Interchangeable connection" means an arrangement  or device that will allow alternate but not simultaneous use of two sources of  water.
    "Karstian "Karst geology" means  an area predominantly underlain by limestone, dolomite, or gypsum and  characterized by rapid underground drainage. Such areas often feature  sinkholes, caverns, and sinking or disappearing creeks. In Virginia, this  generally includes all that area west of the Blue Ridge and, in Southwest  Virginia, east of the Cumberland Plateau.
    "Lake/reservoir" means a natural or man-made basin  or hollow on the Earth's surface in which water collects or is stored that may  or may not have a current or single direction of flow.
    "Large waterworks" means, for the purposes of  12VAC5-590-375, 12VAC5-590-405, 12VAC5-590-530 D, and 12VAC5-590-550 D only, a  waterworks that serves more than 50,000 persons.
    "Lead free" means the following:
    1. When used with respect to solders and flux refers to  solders and flux containing not more than 0.2% lead;
    2. When used with respect to pipes and pipe fittings refers to  pipes and pipe fittings containing not more than 8.0% lead;
    3. When used with respect to plumbing fittings and fixtures  intended by the plumbing manufacturer to dispense water for human ingestion  refers to fittings and fixtures that are in compliance with standards  established in accordance with 42 USC § 300g-6(e).
    "Lead service line" means a service line made of  lead which connects the water main to the building inlet and any lead pigtail,  gooseneck or other fitting that is connected to such lead line.
    "Legionella" means a genus of bacteria, some  species of which have caused a type of pneumonia called Legionnaires Disease.
    "Liquid chlorine" means a liquefied, compressed  chlorine gas as shipped in commerce.
    "Locational running annual average" or  "LRAA" means the average of sample analytical results for samples  taken at a particular monitoring location during the previous four calendar  quarters.
    "Log inactivation (log removal)" means that a 99%  reduction is a 2-log inactivation; a 99.9% reduction is a 3-log inactivation; a  99.99% reduction is a 4-log inactivation.
    "Man-made beta particle and photon emitters" means  all radionuclides emitting beta particles and/or photons listed in the most  current edition of "Maximum Permissible Body Burdens and Maximum  Permissible Concentration of Radionuclides in Air or Water for Occupational  Exposure," National Bureau of Standards Handbook 69, except the daughter  products of thorium-232, uranium-235 and uranium-238.
    "Maximum daily water demand" means the rate of  water usage during the day of maximum water use.
    "Maximum contaminant level (MCL)" means the maximum  permissible level of a contaminant in pure water which is delivered to any user  of a waterworks. MCLs are set as close to the MCLGs as feasible using the best  available treatment technology. MCLs may be either "primary" (PMCL),  meaning based on health considerations or "secondary" (SMCL) meaning  based on aesthetic considerations.
    "Maximum residual disinfectant level (MRDL)" means  a level of a disinfectant added for water treatment that may not be exceeded at  the consumer's tap without an unacceptable possibility of adverse health  effects. For chlorine and chloramines, a waterworks is in compliance with the  MRDL when the running annual average of monthly averages of samples taken in  the distribution system, computed quarterly, is less than or equal to the MRDL.  For chlorine dioxide, a waterworks is in compliance with the MRDL when daily  samples are taken at the entrance to the distribution system and no two  consecutive daily samples exceed the MRDL. MRDLs are enforceable in the same  manner as maximum contaminant levels. There is convincing evidence that  addition of a disinfectant is necessary for control of waterborne microbial  contaminants. Notwithstanding the MRDLs listed in Table 2.12, operators may  increase residual disinfectant levels of chlorine or chloramines (but not  chlorine dioxide) in the distribution system to a level and for a time  necessary to protect public health to address specific microbiological  contamination problems caused by circumstances such as distribution line  breaks, storm runoff events, source water contamination, or cross-connections.
    "Maximum residual disinfectant level goal (MRDLG)"  means the maximum level of a disinfectant added for water treatment at which no  known or anticipated adverse effect on the health of persons would occur, and  which allows an adequate margin of safety. MRDLGs are nonenforceable health  goals and do not reflect the benefit of the addition of the chemical for  control of waterborne microbial contaminants.
    "Maximum total trihalomethane potential (MTP)"  means the maximum concentration of total trihalomethanes produced in a given  water containing a disinfectant residual after seven days at a temperature of  25°C or above.
    "Medium-size waterworks" means, for the purpose of  12VAC5-590-375, 12VAC5-590-405, 12VAC5-590-530, and 12VAC5-590-550 D only, a  waterworks that serves greater than 3,300 and less than or equal to 50,000  persons.
    "Membrane filtration" means a pressure or  vacuum-driven separation process in which particulate matter larger than one  micrometer is rejected by an engineered barrier, primarily through a size  exclusion mechanism, and that has a measurable removal efficiency of a target  organism that can be verified through the application of a direct integrity  test. This definition includes the common membrane technologies of  microfiltration, ultrafiltration, nanofiltration, and reverse osmosis.
    "Method detection limit" means the minimum  concentration of a substance that can be measured and reported with 99%  confidence that the analyte concentration is greater than zero and is  determined from analysis of a sample in a given matrix containing the analyte.
    "Most probable number (MPN)" means that number of  organisms per unit volume that, in accordance with statistical theory, would be  more likely than any other number to yield the observed test result or that  would yield the observed test result with the greatest frequency, expressed as  density of organisms per 100 milliliters. Results are computed from the number  of positive findings of coliform-group organisms resulting from  multiple-portion decimal-dilution plantings.
    "Noncommunity waterworks" means a waterworks that  is not a community waterworks, but operates at least 60 days out of the year.
    "Nonpotable water" means water not classified as  pure water.
    "Nontransient noncommunity waterworks (NTNC)" means  a waterworks that is not a community waterworks and that regularly serves at  least 25 of the same persons over six months out of the year.
    "Office" or "ODW" means the  Commonwealth of Virginia, Department of Health, Office of Drinking Water.
    "One hundred year flood level" means the flood  elevation which will, over a long period of time, be equaled or exceeded on the  average once every 100 years.
    "Operator" means any individual employed or  appointed by any owner, and who is designated by such owner to be the person in  responsible charge, such as a supervisor, a shift operator, or a substitute in  charge, and whose duties include testing or evaluation to control waterworks  operations. Not included in this definition are superintendents or directors of  public works, city engineers, or other municipal or industrial officials whose  duties do not include the actual operation or direct supervision of waterworks.
    "Optimal corrosion control treatment" means the  corrosion control treatment that minimizes the lead and copper concentrations  at users' taps while ensuring that the treatment does not cause the waterworks  to violate any other section of this chapter.
    "Owner" or "water purveyor" means an  individual, group of individuals, partnership, firm, association, institution,  corporation, governmental entity, or the federal government which supplies or  proposes to supply water to any person within this state from or by means of  any waterworks (see Article 2 (§ 32.1-167 et seq.) of Chapter 6 of Title 32.1  of the Code of Virginia).
    "Picocurie (pCi)" means that quantity of  radioactive material producing 2.22 nuclear transformations per minute.
    "Plant intake" means the works or structures at the  head of a conduit through which water is diverted from a source (e.g., river or  lake) into the treatment plant.
    "Point of disinfectant application" means the point  where the disinfectant is applied and water downstream of that point is not  subject to recontamination by surface water runoff.
    "Point-of-entry treatment device (POE)" means a  treatment device applied to the water entering a house or building for the  purpose of reducing contaminants in the water distributed throughout the house  or building.
    "Point-of-use treatment device (POU)" means a  treatment device applied to a single tap for the purpose of reducing contaminants  in the water at that one tap.
    "Pollution" means the presence of any foreign  substance (chemical, physical, radiological, or biological) in water that tends  to degrade its quality so as to constitute an unnecessary risk or impair the  usefulness of the water.
    "Pollution hazard" means a condition through which  an aesthetically objectionable or degrading material may enter the waterworks  or a consumer's water system.
    "Post-chlorination" means the application of  chlorine to water subsequent to treatment.
    "Potable water" – see "Pure water."
    "Practical quantitation level (PQL)" means the  lowest level achievable by good laboratories within specified limits during  routine laboratory operating conditions.
    "Prechlorination" means the application of chlorine  to water prior to filtration.
    "Presedimentation" means a preliminary treatment  process used to remove gravel, sand and other particulate material from the  source water through settling before the water enters the primary clarification  and filtration processes in a treatment plant.
    "Process fluids" means any fluid or solution which  may be chemically, biologically, or otherwise contaminated or polluted which  would constitute a health, pollutional, or system hazard if introduced into the  waterworks. This includes, but is not limited to:
    1. Polluted or contaminated water;
    2. Process waters;
    3. Used waters, originating from the waterworks which may have  deteriorated in sanitary quality;
    4. Cooling waters;
    5. Contaminated natural waters taken from wells, lakes, streams,  or irrigation systems;
    6. Chemicals in solution or suspension; and,
    7. Oils, gases, acids, alkalis, and other liquid and gaseous  fluid used in industrial or other processes, or for fire fighting purposes.
    "Pure water" or "potable water"  means water fit for human consumption and domestic use which is sanitary and  normally free of minerals, organic substances, and toxic agents in excess of  reasonable amounts for domestic usage in the area served and normally adequate  in quantity and quality for the minimum health requirements of the persons  served (see Article 2 (§ 32.1-167 et seq.) of Chapter 6 of Title 32.1 of the  Code of Virginia).
    "Raw water main" means a water main which conveys  untreated water from a source to a treatment facility.
    "Reduced pressure principle backflow prevention device  (RPZ device)" means a device containing a minimum of two independently  acting check valves together with an automatically operated pressure  differential relief valve located between the two check valves. During normal  flow and at the cessation of normal flow, the pressure between these two checks  shall be less than the supply pressure. In case of leakage of either check  valve, the differential relief valve, by discharging to the atmosphere, shall  operate to maintain the pressure between the check valves at less than the  supply pressure. The unit shall include tightly closing shut-off valves located  at each end of the device, and each device shall be fitted with properly  located test cocks. These devices shall be of the approved type.
    "REM" means the unit of dose equivalent from  ionizing radiation to the total body or any internal organ or organ system. A  "millirem" (MREM) is 1/1000 of a REM.
    "Repeat compliance period" means any subsequent  compliance period after the initial compliance period.
    "Residual disinfectant concentration ("C" in  CT Calculations)" means the concentration of disinfectant measured in mg/L  in a representative sample of water.
    "Responsible charge" means designation by the owner  of any individual to have duty and authority to operate or modify the operation  of waterworks processes.
    "Sanitary facilities" means piping and fixtures,  such as sinks, lavatories, showers, and toilets, supplied with potable water  and drained by wastewater piping.
    "Sanitary survey" means an investigation of any  condition that may affect public health evaluation conducted by ODW of a  waterworks' water supply, facilities, equipment, operation, maintenance,  monitoring records. and overall management of a waterworks to ensure the provision  of pure water.
    "Secondary water source" means any approved water  source, other than a waterworks' primary source, connected to or available to  that waterworks for emergency or other nonregular use.
    "Sedimentation" means a process for removal of  solids before filtration by gravity or separation.
    "Service connection" means the point of delivery of  water to a customer's building service line as follows:
    1. If a meter is installed, the service connection is the  downstream side of the meter;
    2. If a meter is not installed, the service connection is the  point of connection to the waterworks;
    3. When the water purveyor is also the building owner, the  service connection is the entry point to the building.
    "Service line sample" means a one-liter sample of  water, collected in accordance with 12VAC5-590-375 B 2 c, that has been  standing for at least six hours in a service line.
    "Sewer" means any pipe or conduit used to convey  sewage or industrial waste streams.
    "Significant deficiency" means any defect in a  waterworks' design, operation, maintenance, or administration, as well as the  failure or malfunction of any waterworks component, that may cause, or has the  potential to cause, an unacceptable risk to health or could affect the reliable  delivery of pure water to consumers.
    "Single family structure" means, for the purpose of  12VAC5-590-375 B only, a building constructed as a single-family residence that  is currently used as either a residence or a place of business.
    "Slow sand filtration" means a process involving  passage of raw water through a bed of sand at low velocity (generally less than  0.4 m/h) resulting in substantial particulate removal by physical and  biological mechanisms.
    "Small waterworks" means, for the purpose of  12VAC5-590-375, 12VAC5-590-405, 12VAC5-590-530 D and 12VAC5-590-550 D only, a  waterworks that serves 3,300 persons or fewer.
    "Standard sample" means that portion of finished  drinking water that is examined for the presence of coliform bacteria.
    "Surface water" means all water open to the atmosphere  and subject to surface runoff.
    "SUVA" means specific ultraviolet absorption at 254  nanometers (nm), an indicator of the humic content of water. It is a calculated  parameter obtained by dividing a sample's ultraviolet absorption at a  wavelength of 254 nm (UV254) (in m-1) by its concentration of  dissolved organic carbon (DOC) (in mg/L).
    "Synthetic organic chemicals (SOC)" means one of  the family of organic man-made compounds generally utilized for agriculture or  industrial purposes.
    "System hazard" means a condition posing an actual,  or threat of, damage to the physical properties of the waterworks or a  consumer's water system.
    "Terminal reservoir" means an impoundment providing  end storage of water prior to treatment.
    "Too numerous to count" means that the total number  of bacterial colonies exceeds 200 on a 47-mm diameter membrane filter used for  coliform detection.
    "Total effective storage volume" means the volume  available to store water in distribution reservoirs measured as the difference  between the reservoir's overflow elevation and the minimum storage elevation.  The minimum storage elevation is that elevation of water in the reservoir that  can provide a minimum pressure of 20 psi at a flow as determined in  12VAC5-590-690 C to the highest elevation served within that reservoir's  service area under systemwide maximum daily water demand.
    "Total organic carbon (TOC)" means total organic  carbon in mg/L measured using heat, oxygen, ultraviolet irradiation, chemical  oxidants, or combinations of these oxidants that convert organic carbon to  carbon dioxide, rounded to two significant figures.
    "Total trihalomethanes (TTHM)" means the sum of the  concentrations of the trihalomethanes expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L)  and rounded to two significant figures. For the purpose of these regulations,  the TTHM's shall mean trichloromethane (chloroform), dibromochloromethane,  bromodichloromethane, and tribromomethane (bromoform).
    "Transmission main" means a water main whose  primary purpose is to move significant quantities of treated water among  service areas.
    "Treatment technique requirement" means a  requirement which specifies for a contaminant a specific treatment technique(s)  demonstrated to the satisfaction of the division to lead to a reduction in the  level of such contaminant sufficient to comply with these regulations.
    "Triggered source water monitoring" means  monitoring required of any groundwater system as a result of a total  coliform-positive sample in the distribution system.
    "Trihalomethane (THM)" means one of the family of  organic compounds, named as derivatives of methane, wherein three of the four  hydrogen atoms in methane are each substituted by a halogen atom in the  molecular structure.
    "Two-stage lime softening" means a process in which  chemical addition and hardness precipitation occur in each of two distinct unit  clarification processes in series prior to filtration.
    "Uncovered finished water storage facility" means a  tank, reservoir, or other facility used to store water that will undergo no  further treatment to reduce microbial pathogens (except residual disinfection)  and is directly open to the atmosphere.
    "Unregulated contaminant (UC)" means a contaminant  for which a monitoring requirement has been established, but for which no MCL  or treatment technique requirement has been established.
    "Used water" means any water supplied by a water  purveyor from the waterworks to a consumer's water system after it has passed  through the service connection.
    "Variance" means a conditional waiver of a specific  regulation which is granted to a specific waterworks. A PMCL Variance is a  variance to a Primary Maximum Contaminant Level, or a treatment technique  requirement. An Operational Variance is a variance to an operational regulation  or a Secondary Maximum Contaminant Level. Variances for monitoring, reporting  and public notification requirements will not be granted.
    "Virus" means a microbe that is infectious to  humans by waterborne transmission.
    "Volatile synthetic organic chemical (VOC)" means  one of the family of manmade organic compounds generally characterized by low  molecular weight and rapid vaporization at relatively low temperatures or  pressures.
    "Waterborne disease outbreak" means the significant  occurrence of acute infectious illness, epidemiologically associated with the  ingestion of water from a waterworks which is deficient in treatment, as  determined by the commissioner or the State Epidemiologist.
    "Water purveyor" (same as owner).
    "Water supply" means water that shall have been  taken into a waterworks from all wells, streams, springs, lakes, and other  bodies of surface waters (natural or impounded), and the tributaries thereto,  and all impounded groundwater, but the term "water supply" shall not  include any waters above the point of intake of such waterworks (see Article 2  (§ 32.1-167 et seq.) of Chapter 6 of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia).
    "Water supply main" or "main" means any  water supply pipeline that is part of a waterworks distribution system.
    "Water Well Completion Report" means a report form  published by the State Water Control Board entitled "Water Well Completion  Report" which requests specific information pertaining to the ownership,  driller, location, geological formations penetrated, water quantity and quality  encountered as well as construction of water wells. The form is to be completed  by the well driller.
    "Waterworks" means a system that serves piped water  for drinking or domestic use to (i) the public, (ii) at least 15 connections,  or (iii) an average of 25 individuals for at least 60 days out of the year. The  term "waterworks" shall include all structures, equipment and  appurtenances used in the storage, collection, purification, treatment and  distribution of pure water except the piping and fixtures inside the building  where such water is delivered (see Article 2 (§ 32.1-167 et seq.) of Chapter 6  of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia).
    "Waterworks with a single service connection" means  a waterworks which supplies drinking water to consumers via a single service  line.
    "Wholesale waterworks" means a waterworks that  treats source water as necessary to produce finished water and then delivers  some or all of that finished water to another waterworks. Delivery may be  through a direct connection or through the distribution system of one or more  consecutive waterworks.
    Part II
  Operation Regulations for Waterworks
    Article 1
  General
    12VAC5-590-340. General.
    All physical, chemical, bacteriological, or radiological  analyses for the purpose of demonstrating compliance with primary and secondary  maximum contaminant levels, or action levels, or contaminants that do  not have PMCLs but for which compliance samples must be analyzed by certified  laboratories shall be performed by the Commonwealth of Virginia, Department  of General Services, Division of Consolidated Laboratory Services (DCLS) or in  laboratories certified by the Division of Consolidated Laboratory Services for  such purposes. The owner is responsible for the collection and submission of  all samples. A sample is deemed to have been collected only if and when its  results are made known to the Division of Water Supply Engineering Office  of Drinking Water.
    12VAC5-590-350. Sanitary surveys.
    A. Frequent sanitary surveys assessments  shall be made by the owner of the water supply source and waterworks to locate  and identify health hazards to the waterworks. The manner and frequency of  making these surveys assessments, and the rate at which  discovered health hazards are to be removed, shall be in accordance with a  program approved by the division the responsibility of the owner. These  surveys shall be submitted to the division for review. Every effort shall  be made by the owner, to the extent of his jurisdiction, to prevent the  degradation of the quality of water supply sources (see Appendix E). The  division may also perform sanitary surveys.
    B. The commissioner may perform sanitary surveys. Owners  shall provide any existing information that will enable the commissioner to  conduct the sanitary survey.
    C. A sanitary survey includes, but is not limited to, an  onsite evaluation of all of the following eight components:
    1. Source;
    2. Treatment;
    3. Distribution system;
    4. Finished water storage;
    5. Pumps, pumping facilities, and controls;
    6. Monitoring, reporting, and data verification;
    7. Waterworks management and operation; and
    8. Number and classification of licensed operator(s)  required in 12VAC5-590-460. Licensed operators shall also comply with all  applicable regulations promulgated by the Virginia Board for Water Works and  Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System Professionals, Department  of Professional and Occupational Regulation.
    D. Significant deficiencies discovered as a result of a  sanitary survey shall be addressed in accordance with the following:
    1. The commissioner shall issue written notification  describing the significant deficiency to the owner.
    2. Within 30 days of the significant deficiency  notification, the owner shall consult with the commissioner regarding the  appropriate corrective action with a schedule for implementing corrective  action. Any waterworks with significant deficiencies must have a Corrective  Action Plan (CAP) as described in 12VAC5-590-421 A.
    3. Within 45 days of the significant deficiency  notification, the owner shall submit a CAP with a schedule for meeting the  requirements of 12VAC5-590-421 A.
    Article 2
  General Information
    12VAC5-590-370. Sampling frequency.
    The commissioner may exempt consecutive waterworks that  obtain potable water from another water system for distribution from all  monitoring requirements in this section except for bacteriological (subsection  A of this section), disinfectant residuals, byproducts and disinfection  byproduct precursors (subdivision B 3 of this section), and lead and copper  (subdivision B 6 of this section). The required sampling frequencies are as  follows:
    A. Bacteriological.
    1. The owner shall collect total coliform samples at sites  which are representative of water throughout the distribution system according  to a written sample siting report. The report shall be established or approved  by the district engineer after investigation of the source, method of treatment  and storage, and protection of the water concerned. The report shall include,  but is not limited to, the following:
    a. The frequency of sampling distributed evenly throughout the  month/quarter.
    b. Distribution map showing the generalized location where  specific sampling sites will be selected.
    c. Supporting statement explaining how specific individual  sites are selected, how sampling will be rotated among the sites, how repeat  samples will be collected and other information demonstrating that sampling  will be conducted in a manner to comply with this chapter.
    d. Adequate sampling points to provide sampling representative  of all the conditions in the system.
    e. For small systems (less than 3,301 population), sample  sites shall also be identified by address and code number location.
    f. Minimum of three sample locations for each sample required  monthly so repeat sample locations are previously ascertained as being adequate  in number and five customer service connections upstream and downstream. (See  Appendix J for an example.)
    g. The sampling point required to be repeat sampled shall not  be eliminated from future collections based on a history of questionable water  quality unless the sampling point is unacceptable as determined by the district  engineer.
    2. The minimum number of bacteriological samples for total  coliform evaluation to be collected and analyzed monthly from the distribution  system of a community or nontransient noncommunity waterworks shall be in  accordance with Table 2.1. Owners of all noncommunity waterworks that use a  surface water source or a groundwater source under the direct influence of  surface water, and large noncommunity (serving 1,000 or more persons per day)  waterworks, shall collect and submit samples monthly for analysis in accordance  with Table 2.1. Owners of all other noncommunity waterworks shall submit  samples for analysis each calendar quarter in accordance with Table 2.1.
    3. The samples shall be taken at reasonably evenly spaced time  intervals throughout the month or quarter.
    If the results of a sanitary survey or other factors determine  that some other frequency is more appropriate than that stated above, a  modified sampling program report may be required. The altered frequency shall  be confirmed or changed on the basis of subsequent surveys.
           | TABLE 2.1 | 
       | POPULATION SERVED PER DAY | MINIMUM NUMBER OF SAMPLES(See subdivision A 2 of this section)
 | 
       | 25 to 1,000 | 1 | 
       | 1,001 to 2,500 | 2 | 
       | 2,501 to 3,300 | 3 | 
       | 3,301 to 4,100 | 4 | 
       | 4,101 to 4,900 | 5 | 
       | 4,901 to 5,800 | 6 | 
       | 5,801 to 6,700 | 7 | 
       | 6,701 to 7,600 | 8 | 
       | 7,601 to 8,500 | 9 | 
       | 8,501 to 12,900 | 10 | 
       | 12,901 to 17,200 | 15 | 
       | 17,201 to 21,500 | 20 | 
       | 21,501 to 25,000 | 25 | 
       | 25,001 to 33,000 | 30 | 
       | 33,001 to 41,000 | 40 | 
       | 41,001 to 50,000 | 50 | 
       | 50,001 to 59,000 | 60 | 
       | 59,001 to 70,000 | 70 | 
       | 70,001 to 83,000 | 80 | 
       | 83,001 to 96,000 | 90 | 
       | 96,001 to 130,000 | 100 | 
       | 130,001 to 220,000 | 120 | 
       | 220,001 to 320,000 | 150 | 
       | 320,001 to 450,000 | 180 | 
       | 450,001 to 600,000 | 210 | 
       | 600,001 to 780,000 | 240 | 
       | 780,001 to 970,000 | 270 | 
       | 970,001 to 1,230,000 | 300 | 
       | 1,230,001 to 1,520,000 | 330 | 
       | 1,520,001 to 1,850,000 | 360 | 
       | 1,850,001 to 2,270,000 | 390 | 
  
    4. All bacteriological analyses shall be performed in  accordance with 12VAC5-590-440 by the DCLS or by a laboratory certified by DCLS  for drinking water samples.
    B. Chemical. The location of sampling points, the chemicals  measured, the frequency, and the timing of sampling within each compliance  period shall be established or approved by the commissioner at the time of  issuance of a waterworks operation permit. The commissioner may increase  required monitoring where necessary to detect variations within the waterworks.  Analysis of field composite samples shall not be allowed. Samples for  contaminants that may exhibit seasonal variations shall be collected during the  period of the year when contamination is most likely to occur. Failure to  comply with the sampling schedules in this section shall require public  notification pursuant to 12VAC5-590-540.
    Any other dates contained in this chapter notwithstanding,  all waterworks shall comply with all applicable PMCLs listed in Tables 2.2 and  2.3.
    Design criteria for new or modified waterworks or owners  developing new sources of supply are found in 12VAC5-590-820, 12VAC5-590-830  and 12VAC5-590-840.
    1. Inorganic chemical. Community and nontransient noncommunity  waterworks owners shall conduct monitoring to determine compliance with the  MCLs in Table 2.2 in accordance with this section. All other noncommunity  waterworks owners shall conduct monitoring to determine compliance with the  nitrate and nitrite PMCLs in Table 2.2 (as appropriate) in accordance with this  section. Monitoring shall be conducted as follows:
    a. The owner of any groundwater source waterworks with 150 or  more service connections shall take a minimum of one sample at each entry point  to the distribution system which is representative of each source, after  treatment, unless a change in condition makes another sampling point more  representative of each source or treatment plant (hereafter called a sampling  point) starting in the compliance period beginning January 1, 1993. The owner  of any groundwater source waterworks with fewer than 150 service connections  shall take a minimum of one sample at each sampling point for asbestos, barium,  cadmium, chromium, fluoride, mercury, nitrate, nitrite, and selenium in the  compliance period beginning January 1, 1993, for antimony, beryllium, cyanide  (as free cyanide), nickel, and thallium in the compliance period beginning  January 1, 1996, and for arsenic (for community and nontransient noncommunity  waterworks) in compliance with subdivision B 1 d (6) (b) of this section.
    b. The owner of any waterworks which uses a surface water  source in whole or in part with 150 or more service connections shall take a  minimum of one sample at each entry point to the distribution system after any  application of treatment or in the distribution system at a point which is  representative of each source, after treatment, unless a change in conditions  makes another sampling point more representative of each source or treatment  plant (hereafter called a sampling point) beginning January 1, 1993. The owner  of any waterworks which use a surface water source in whole or in part with  fewer than 150 service connections shall take a minimum of one sample at each  sampling point for asbestos, barium, cadmium, chromium, fluoride, mercury,  nitrate, nitrite, and selenium beginning January 1, 1993, for antimony,  beryllium, cyanide (as free cyanide), nickel, and thallium beginning January 1,  1996, and for arsenic (for community and nontransient noncommunity waterworks)  in compliance with subdivision B 1 d (6) (a) of this section.
    c. If a waterworks draws water from more than one source and  the sources are combined before distribution, the owner shall sample at an  entry point to the distribution system during periods of normal operating  conditions (i.e., when water is representative of all sources being used).
    d. The frequency of monitoring for asbestos shall be in  accordance with subdivision B 1 d (1) of this section; the frequency of  monitoring for barium, cadmium, chromium, fluoride, mercury, and selenium shall  be in accordance with subdivision B 1 d (2) of this section; the frequency of  monitoring for antimony, beryllium, cyanide (as free cyanide), nickel, and  thallium shall be in accordance with subdivision B 1 d (3) of this section; the  frequency of monitoring for nitrate shall be in accordance with subdivision B 1  d (4) of this section; the frequency of monitoring for nitrite shall be in  accordance with subdivision B 1 d (5) of this section; and the frequency of  monitoring for arsenic shall be in accordance with subdivision B 1 d (6) of  this section.
    (1) The frequency of monitoring conducted to determine  compliance with the PMCL for asbestos specified in Table 2.2 shall be conducted  as follows:
    (a) The owner of each community and nontransient noncommunity  waterworks is required to monitor for asbestos during the first three-year  compliance period of each nine-year compliance cycle beginning in the compliance  period starting January 1, 1993.
    (b) If the owner believes the waterworks is not vulnerable to  either asbestos contamination in its source water or due to corrosion of  asbestos-cement pipe, or both, the owner may apply to the commissioner for a  waiver of the monitoring requirement in subdivision B 1 d (1) (a) of this  section. If the commissioner grants the waiver, the owner is not required to  monitor.
    (c) The commissioner may grant a waiver based on a  consideration of the following factors:
    (i) Potential asbestos contamination of the water source; and
    (ii) The use of asbestos-cement pipe for finished water  distribution and the corrosive nature of the water.
    (d) A waiver remains in effect until the completion of the  three-year compliance period. The owner of a waterworks not receiving a waiver  shall monitor in accordance with the provisions of subdivision B 1 d (1) (a) of  this section.
    (e) The owner of a waterworks vulnerable to asbestos  contamination due solely to corrosion of asbestos-cement pipe shall take one  sample at a tap served by asbestos-cement pipe and under conditions where  asbestos contamination is most likely to occur.
    (f) The owner of a waterworks vulnerable to asbestos  contamination due solely to source water shall monitor sampling points in  accordance with subdivision B 1 of this section.
    (g) The owner of a waterworks vulnerable to asbestos  contamination due both to its source water supply and corrosion of  asbestos-cement pipe shall take one sample at a tap served by asbestos-cement  pipe and under conditions where asbestos contamination is most likely to occur.
    (h) The owner of a waterworks which exceeds the PMCL as  determined in 12VAC5-590-410 B 1 shall monitor quarterly beginning in the next  quarter after the exceedance occurred.
    (i) The commissioner may decrease the quarterly monitoring  requirement to the frequency specified in subdivision B 1 d (1) (a) of this  section provided the commissioner has determined that the waterworks is  reliably and consistently below the PMCL. In no case can the commissioner make  this determination unless the owner of a groundwater source waterworks takes a  minimum of two quarterly samples or the owner of a waterworks which uses a  surface water source in whole or in part takes a minimum of four quarterly samples.
    (j) If monitoring data collected after January 1, 1990, are  generally consistent with the requirements of subdivision B 1 d (1) of this  section, then the commissioner may allow an owner to use that data to satisfy  the monitoring requirement for the initial compliance period beginning January  1, 1993.
    (2) The frequency of monitoring conducted to determine  compliance with the MCLs in Table 2.2 for barium, cadmium, chromium, fluoride,  mercury, and selenium shall be as follows:
    (a) The owner of a groundwater source waterworks shall take  one sample at each sampling point during each compliance period beginning in  the compliance period starting January 1, 1993.
    (b) The owner of a waterworks which uses a surface water  source in whole or in part shall take one sample annually at each sampling  point beginning January 1, 1993.
    (c) An owner may apply to the commissioner for a waiver from  the monitoring frequencies specified in subdivision B 1 d (2) (a) or (b) of  this section.
    (d) A condition of the waiver shall require that the owner  shall take a minimum of one sample while the waiver is effective. The term  during which the waiver is effective shall not exceed one compliance cycle  (i.e., nine years).
    (e) The commissioner may grant a waiver provided the owner of  a waterworks that uses a surface water source in whole or in part has monitored  annually for at least three years and groundwater waterworks have conducted a  minimum of three rounds of monitoring. (At least one sample shall have been  taken since January 1, 1990.) The owner of any waterworks which uses a surface  water source in whole or in part or a groundwater source waterworks shall  demonstrate that all previous analytical results were less than the PMCL.  Waterworks that use a new water source are not eligible for a waiver until  three rounds of monitoring from the new source have been completed.
    (f) In determining the appropriate reduced monitoring  frequency, the commissioner shall consider:
    (i) Reported concentrations from all previous monitoring;
    (ii) The degree of variation in reported concentrations; and
    (iii) Other factors that may affect contaminant concentrations  such as changes in groundwater pumping rates, changes in the waterworks  configuration, changes in the waterworks operating procedures, or changes in  stream flows or characteristics.
    (g) A decision by the commissioner to grant a waiver shall be  made in writing and shall set forth the basis for the determination. The  request for a waiver may be initiated by the commissioner or upon an  application by the owner. The owner shall specify the basis for the request.  The commissioner shall review and, where appropriate, revise the determination  of the appropriate monitoring frequency when the owner submits new monitoring  data or when other data relevant to the waterworks appropriate monitoring  frequency become available.
    (h) Owners of waterworks that exceed the PMCLs as calculated  in 12VAC5-590-410 shall monitor quarterly beginning in the next quarter after  the exceedance occurred.
    (i) The commissioner may decrease the quarterly monitoring  requirement to the frequencies specified in subdivision B 2 1 d  (2) (a), (b) or (c) of this section provided a determination has been made that  the waterworks is reliably and consistently below the PMCL. In no case can the  commissioner make this determination unless the owner of a groundwater source  waterworks takes a minimum of two quarterly samples or the owner of a  waterworks which uses a surface water source in whole or in part takes a  minimum of four quarterly samples.
    (3) The frequency of monitoring conducted to determine  compliance with the PMCLs in Table 2.2 for antimony, beryllium, cyanide (as  free cyanide), nickel, and thallium shall be as follows:
    (a) The owner of a groundwater source waterworks with 150 or  more service connections shall take one sample at each sampling point during  each compliance period beginning in the compliance period starting January 1,  1993. The owner of a groundwater source waterworks with fewer than 150 service  connections shall take one sample at each sampling point during each compliance  period beginning in the compliance period starting January 1, 1996.
    (b) The owner of a waterworks that uses a surface water source  in whole or in part with 150 or more service connections shall take one sample  annually at each sampling point beginning January 1, 1993. The owner of a  waterworks that uses a surface water source in whole or in part with fewer than  150 service connections shall take one sample annually at each sampling point  beginning January 1, 1996.
    (c) An owner may apply to the commissioner for a waiver from  the monitoring frequencies specified in subdivision B 2 1 d (3)  (a) or (b) of this section.
    (d) A condition of the waiver shall require that the owner  take a minimum of one sample while the waiver is effective. The term during  which the waiver is effective shall not exceed one compliance cycle (i.e., nine  years).
    (e) The commissioner may grant a waiver provided the owner of  a waterworks that uses a surface water source in whole or in part has monitored  annually for at least three years and groundwater waterworks have conducted a  minimum of three rounds of monitoring. (At least one sample shall have been  taken since January 1, 1990.) The owner of any waterworks which uses a surface  water source in whole or in part or a groundwater source waterworks shall  demonstrate that all previous analytical results were less than the PMCL.  Waterworks that use a new water source are not eligible for a waiver until  three rounds of monitoring from the new source have been completed.
    (f) In determining the appropriate reduced monitoring  frequency, the commissioner shall consider:
    (i) Reported concentrations from all previous monitoring;
    (ii) The degree of variation in reported concentrations; and
    (iii) Other factors which may affect contaminant  concentrations such as changes in groundwater pumping rates, changes in the  waterworks configuration, changes in the waterworks operating procedures, or  changes in stream flows or characteristics.
    (g) A decision by the commissioner to grant a waiver shall be  made in writing and shall set forth the basis for the determination. The  request for a waiver may be initiated by the commissioner or upon an  application by the owner. The owner shall specify the basis for the request.  The commissioner shall review and, where appropriate, revise the determination  of the appropriate monitoring frequency when the owner submits new monitoring  data or when other data relevant to the waterworks appropriate monitoring  frequency become available.
    (h) Owners of waterworks that exceed the PMCLs as calculated  in 12VAC5-590-410 shall monitor quarterly beginning in the next quarter after  the exceedance occurred.
    (i) The commissioner may decrease the quarterly monitoring  requirement to the frequencies specified in subdivision B 2 1 d  (3) (a), (b) or (c) of this section provided a determination has been made that  the waterworks is reliably and consistently below the PMCL. In no case shall  the commissioner make this determination unless the owner of a groundwater  source waterworks takes a minimum of two quarterly samples or the owner of a  waterworks which uses a surface water source in whole or in part takes a  minimum of four quarterly samples.
    (4) All community, nontransient noncommunity and noncommunity  waterworks owners shall monitor to determine compliance with the PMCL for  nitrate in Table 2.2.
    (a) Owners of community and nontransient noncommunity  waterworks that use a groundwater source shall monitor annually beginning  January 1, 1993.
    (b) Owners of community and nontransient noncommunity  waterworks that use a surface water source in whole or in part shall monitor  quarterly beginning January 1, 1993.
    (c) For owners of community and nontransient noncommunity  waterworks that use groundwater, the repeat monitoring frequency shall be  quarterly for at least one year following any one sample in which the  concentration is greater than 50% of the PMCL. The commissioner may allow the  owner of a waterworks, that uses groundwater, to reduce the sampling frequency  to annually after four consecutive quarterly samples are reliably and  consistently less than the PMCL.
    (d) For community and nontransient noncommunity waterworks,  the commissioner may allow the owner of a waterworks that uses a surface water  source in whole or in part, to reduce the sampling frequency to annually if all  analytical results from four consecutive quarters are less than 50% of the  PMCL. Such waterworks shall return to quarterly monitoring if any one sample is  greater than or equal to 50% of the PMCL.
    (e) The owners of all other noncommunity waterworks shall  monitor annually beginning January 1, 1993.
    (f) After the initial round of quarterly sampling is  completed, the owner of each community and nontransient noncommunity waterworks  that is monitoring annually shall take subsequent samples during the quarter(s)  which previously resulted in the highest analytical result.
    (5) All owners shall monitor to determine compliance with the  PMCL for nitrite in Table 2.2.
    (a) All owners shall take one sample at each sampling point in  the compliance period beginning January 1, 1993.
    (b) After the initial sample, the owner of any waterworks  where an analytical result for nitrite is less than 50% of the PMCL shall  monitor at the frequency specified by the commissioner.
    (c) The repeat monitoring frequency for any owner shall be  quarterly for at least one year following any one sample in which the  concentration is greater than 50% of the PMCL. The commissioner may allow an  owner to reduce the sampling frequency to annually after determining the  analysis results are reliably and consistently less than the PMCL.
    (d) Owners of waterworks which are monitoring annually shall  take each subsequent sample during the quarter(s) which previously resulted in  the highest analytical result.
    (6) The frequency of monitoring conducted to determine  compliance with the PMCLs in Table 2.2 for arsenic shall be as follows:
    (a) The owner of each community and nontransient noncommunity  waterworks that uses a surface water source in whole or in part shall take one  sample annually at each sampling point beginning January 23, 2006.
    (b) The owner of each community and nontransient noncommunity  groundwater source waterworks shall take one sample at each entry point during  each compliance period starting January 23, 2006.
    (c) Owners of waterworks that exceed the PMCL, as calculated  in 12VAC5-590-410, shall monitor quarterly beginning in the next quarter after  the exceedance has occurred.
    (d) The commissioner may decrease the quarterly monitoring  requirement to the frequencies specified in subdivision B 1 d (6) (a) or (b) of  this section provided a determination has been made that the waterworks is  reliably and consistently below the PMCL. In no case can the commissioner make  this determination unless the owner of a groundwater source waterworks takes a  minimum of two quarterly samples or the owner of a waterworks that uses a  surface water source in whole or in part takes a minimum of four quarterly  samples.
    (e) No waivers shall be granted by the commissioner for  arsenic.
    2. Organic chemicals. Owners of all community and nontransient  noncommunity waterworks shall sample for organic chemicals in accordance with  their water source. Where two or more sources are combined before distribution,  the owner shall sample at the entry point for the combined sources during  periods of normal operating conditions.
    a. Owners of waterworks that use groundwater shall take a  minimum of one sample at each entry point to the distribution system which is  representative of each source, after treatment (hereafter called a sampling  point).
    b. Owners of waterworks that use a surface water source in  whole or in part shall take a minimum of one sample at points in the  distribution system that are representative of each source or at each entry  point to the distribution system, after treatment (hereafter called a sampling  point).
    c. The owner of each community and nontransient noncommunity  waterworks shall take four consecutive quarterly samples for each contaminant  listed in Table 2.3-VOC 2 through 21 and SOC during each compliance period,  beginning in the compliance period starting January 1, 1993.
    d. Reduced monitoring.
    (1) VOC.
    (a) If the initial monitoring for contaminants listed in Table  2.3-VOC 1 through 8 and the monitoring for the contaminants listed in Table  2.3-VOC 9 through 21 as allowed in subdivision B 2 d (1) (c) of this section  has been completed by December 31, 1992, and the waterworks did not detect any  contaminant listed in Table 2.3-VOC 1 through 21, then the owner of each  groundwater waterworks and waterworks that use a surface water source in whole  or in part shall take one sample annually beginning January 1, 1993.
    (b) After a minimum of three years of annual sampling, the  commissioner may allow the owner of a groundwater waterworks with no previous  detection of any contaminant listed in Table 2.3-VOC 2 through 21 to take one  sample during each compliance period.
    (c) The commissioner may allow the use of monitoring data  collected after January 1, 1988, for purposes of initial monitoring compliance.  If the data are generally consistent with the other requirements in this  section, the commissioner may use these data (i.e., a single sample rather than  four quarterly samples) to satisfy the initial monitoring requirement of  subdivision B 2 c of this section. Owners of waterworks that use grandfathered  samples and did not detect any contaminants listed in Table 2.3-VOC, 2 through  21, shall begin monitoring annually in accordance with subdivision B 2 d (1)  (a) of this section beginning January 1, 1993.
    (2) SOC.
    (a) Owners of waterworks serving more than 3,300 persons that  do not detect a contaminant listed in Table 2.3-SOC in the initial compliance  period, may reduce the sampling frequency to a minimum of two quarterly samples  in one year during each repeat compliance period.
    (b) Owners of waterworks serving less than or equal to 3,300  persons that do not detect a contaminant listed in Table 2.3-SOC in the initial  compliance period may reduce the sampling frequency to a minimum of one sample  during each repeat compliance period.
    e. Waiver application.
    (1) For VOCs. The owner of any community and nontransient  noncommunity groundwater waterworks which does not detect a contaminant listed  in Table 2.3-VOC may apply to the commissioner for a waiver from the  requirements of subdivisions B 2 d (1) (a) and (b) of this section after  completing the initial monitoring. A waiver shall be effective for no more than  six years (two compliance periods). The commissioner may also issue waivers to  small systems for the initial round of monitoring for 1,2,4-trichlorobenzene.
    (2) For SOCs. The owner of any community and nontransient  noncommunity waterworks may apply to the commissioner for a waiver from the  requirement of subdivisions B 2 c and d (2) of this section. The owner shall  reapply for a waiver for each compliance period.
    f. The commissioner may grant a waiver after evaluating the  following factors: Knowledge of previous use (including transport, storage, or  disposal) of the contaminant within the watershed or zone of influence of the  source. If a determination by the commissioner reveals no previous use of the  contaminant within the watershed or zone of influence, a waiver may be granted.  If previous use of the contaminant is unknown or it has been used previously,  then the following factors shall be used to determine whether a waiver is  granted.
    (1) Previous analytical results.
    (2) The proximity of the waterworks to a potential point or  nonpoint source of contamination. Point sources include spills and leaks of  chemicals at or near a waterworks or at manufacturing, distribution, or storage  facilities, or from hazardous and municipal waste landfills and other waste  handling or treatment facilities. Nonpoint sources for SOCs include the use of  pesticides to control insect and weed pests on agricultural areas, forest  lands, home and gardens, and other land application uses.
    (3) The environmental persistence and transport of the  contaminants listed in Table 2.3 VOC and SOC.
    (4) How well the water source is protected against  contamination, such as whether it is a waterworks that uses a surface water  source in whole or in part or whether it is a groundwater source waterworks.  Groundwater source waterworks shall consider factors such as depth of the well,  the type of soil, wellhead protection, and well structure integrity. Owners of  waterworks that use surface water in whole or in part shall consider watershed  protection.
    (5) Special factors.
    (a) For VOCs. The number of persons served by the waterworks  and the proximity of a smaller waterworks to a larger waterworks.
    (b) For SOCs. Elevated nitrate levels at the waterworks supply  source.
    (c) For SOCs. Use of PCBs in equipment used in the production,  storage, or distribution of water (i.e., PCBs used in pumps, transformers,  etc.).
    g. Condition for waivers.
    (1) As a condition of the VOC waiver the owner of a  groundwater waterworks shall take one sample at each sampling point during the  time the waiver is effective (i.e., one sample during two compliance periods or  six years) and update its vulnerability assessment considering the factors  listed in subdivision B 2 f of this section. Based on this vulnerability  assessment the commissioner shall reconfirm that the waterworks is  nonvulnerable. If the commissioner does not make this reconfirmation within  three years of the initial determination, then the waiver is invalidated and  the owner is required to sample annually as specified in subdivision B 2 d (1)  (a) of this section.
    (2) The owner of any community and nontransient noncommunity  waterworks that use surface water in whole or in part which does not detect a  contaminant listed in Table 2.3-VOC may apply to the commissioner for a waiver  from the requirements of subdivision B 2 d (1) (a) of this section after  completing the initial monitoring. Waterworks meeting these criteria shall be  determined by the commissioner to be nonvulnerable based on a vulnerability  assessment during each compliance period. Each owner receiving a waiver shall  sample at the frequency specified by the commissioner (if any).
    (3) There are no conditions to SOC waivers.
    h. If a contaminant listed in Table 2.3-VOC 2 through 21 or  SOC 1 through 33 is detected then (NOTE: Detection occurs when a contaminant  level exceeds the current detection limit as defined by EPA.):
    (1) Each owner shall monitor quarterly at each sampling point  which resulted in a detection.
    (2) The commissioner may decrease the quarterly monitoring  requirement specified in subdivision B 2 h (1) of this section provided it has  determined that the waterworks is reliably and consistently below the PMCL. In  no case shall the commissioner make this determination unless the owner of a  groundwater waterworks takes a minimum of two quarterly samples and the owner  of a waterworks that use surface water in whole or in part takes a minimum of  four quarterly samples.
    (3) If the commissioner determines that the waterworks is  reliably and consistently below the PMCL, the commissioner may allow the  waterworks to monitor annually. Owners of waterworks that monitor annually  shall monitor during the quarter(s) that previously yielded the highest  analytical result.
    (4) Owners of waterworks that have three consecutive annual  samples with no detection of a contaminant may apply to the commissioner for a  waiver for VOC as specified in subdivision B 2 e (1) or to SOC as specified in  subdivision B 2 e (2) of this section.
    (5) Subsequent monitoring due to contaminant detection.
    (a) Owners of groundwater waterworks that have detected one or  more of the following two-carbon organic compounds: trichloroethylene,  tetrachloroethylene, 1,2-dichloroethane, 1,1,1-trichloroethane,  cis-1,2-dichloroethylene, trans-1,2-dichloroethylene, or 1,1-dichloroethylene  shall monitor quarterly for vinyl chloride. A vinyl chloride sample shall be  taken at each sampling point at which one or more of the two-carbon organic  compounds was detected. If the results of the first analysis do not detect  vinyl chloride, the commissioner may reduce the quarterly monitoring frequency  of vinyl chloride monitoring to one sample during each compliance period.  Owners of waterworks that use surface water in whole or in part are required to  monitor for vinyl chloride as specified by the commissioner.
    (b) If monitoring results in detection of one or more of  certain related contaminants (heptachlor and heptachlor epoxide), then  subsequent monitoring shall analyze for all related contaminants.
    i. Owners of waterworks that violate the requirements of Table  2.3 for VOCs or SOCs, as determined by 12VAC5-590-410 C, shall monitor  quarterly. After a minimum of four consecutive quarterly samples that show the  waterworks is in compliance as specified in 12VAC5-590-410 C and the  commissioner determines that the waterworks is reliably and consistently below  the PMCL, the owner may monitor at the frequency and time specified in  subdivision B 2 h (3) of this section.
    3. Disinfectant residuals, disinfection byproducts and  disinfection byproduct precursors.
    a. Unless otherwise noted, owners of all waterworks that use a  chemical disinfectant shall comply with the requirements of this section as  follows:
    (1) Owners of community or nontransient noncommunity  waterworks that use surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of  surface water and serving 10,000 or more persons shall comply with this section  beginning January 1, 2002.
    (2) Owners of community or nontransient noncommunity  waterworks that use surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of  surface water serving fewer than 10,000 persons and waterworks using only  groundwater not under the direct influence of surface water shall comply with  this section beginning January 1, 2004.
    (3) Owners of transient noncommunity waterworks that use  surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of surface water and  serving 10,000 or more persons and using chlorine dioxide as a disinfectant or  oxidant shall comply with any requirements for chlorine dioxide in this section  beginning January 1, 2002.
    (4) Owners of transient noncommunity waterworks that use  surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of surface water  serving fewer than 10,000 persons and using chlorine dioxide as a disinfectant  or oxidant and waterworks using only groundwater not under the direct influence  of surface water and using chlorine dioxide as a disinfectant or oxidant shall  comply with any requirements for chlorine dioxide in this section beginning  January 1, 2004.
    b. Owners shall take all samples during normal operating  conditions.
    (1) Analysis under this section for disinfection byproducts  (TTHM, HAA5, chlorite and bromate) shall be conducted by a laboratory that has  received certification by EPA or the state except as noted in subdivision B 3 b  (2) of this section.
    (2) Measurement under this section of daily chlorite samples  at the entry point to the distribution system, disinfection residuals (free  chlorine, combined chlorine, total chlorine and chlorine dioxide), alkalinity,  bromide, TOC, SUVA (DOC and UV254), pH and magnesium shall be made  by a party approved by the commissioner.
    (3) DPD colorimetric test kits may be used to measure residual  disinfectant concentrations for chlorine, chloramines and chlorine dioxide.
    c. Failure to monitor in accordance with the monitoring plan  required under subdivision B 3 j of this section is a monitoring violation.  Failure to monitor shall be treated as a violation for the entire period  covered by the annual average where compliance is based on a running annual  average of monthly or quarterly samples or averages and the owner's failure to  monitor makes it impossible to determine compliance with PMCLs or MRDLs.
    d. Owners may use only data collected under the provisions of  this section or the US EPA Information Collection Rule, 40 CFR Part 141 Subpart  M, Information Collection Requirements (ICR) for Public Water Systems, to  qualify for reduced monitoring.
    e. TTHM/HAA5 monitoring. Owners of community or nontransient  noncommunity waterworks shall monitor TTHM and HAA5 at the frequency indicated  below, unless otherwise indicated:
    (1) Running annual average monitoring requirements.
    (a) Routine monitoring requirements:
    (i) Owners of waterworks using surface water or groundwater  under the direct influence of surface water and serving at least 10,000 persons  shall collect four water samples per quarter per treatment plant. At least 25%  of all samples collected each quarter shall be at locations representing  maximum residence time in the distribution system. The remaining samples shall  be taken at locations representative of at least average residence time in the  distribution system and representative of the entire distribution system. When  setting the sample locations the waterworks shall take into account number of  persons served, different sources of water, and different treatment methods.
    (ii) Owners of waterworks using surface water or groundwater  under the direct influence of surface water and serving from 500 to 9,999  persons shall collect one sample per quarter per treatment plant. The sample  location shall represent maximum residence time in the distribution system.
    (iii) Owners of waterworks using surface water or groundwater  under the direct influence of surface water and serving fewer than 500 persons  shall collect one sample per year per treatment plant during the month of warmest  water temperature. The sample location shall represent maximum residence time  in the distribution system. If the sample (or average of annual samples, if  more than one sample is taken) exceeds PMCL in Table 2.13, the owner shall  increase monitoring to one sample per treatment plant per quarter, taken at a  point reflecting the maximum residence time in the distribution system, until  waterworks meets reduced monitoring criteria.
    (iv) Owners of waterworks using only groundwater not under  direct influence of surface water using chemical disinfectant and serving at  least 10,000 persons shall collect one sample per quarter per treatment plant.  The sample location shall represent maximum residence time in the distribution  system.
    (v) Owners of waterworks using only groundwater not under  direct influence of surface water using chemical disinfectant and serving fewer  than 10,000 persons shall collect one sample per year per treatment plant  during the month of warmest water temperature. The sample location shall represent  maximum residence time in the distribution system. If the sample (or average of  annual samples, if more than one sample is taken) exceeds PMCL in Table 2.13,  the owner shall increase monitoring to one sample per treatment plant per  quarter, taken at a point reflecting the maximum residence time in the  distribution system, until the waterworks meets the criteria for reduced  monitoring found in subdivision B 3 e (1) (d) of this section.
    (vi) If an owner elects to sample more frequently than the  minimum required, at least 25% of all samples collected each quarter (including  those taken in excess of the required frequency) shall be taken at locations  that represent the maximum residence time of the water in the distribution  system. The remaining samples shall be taken at locations representative of at  least average residence time in the distribution system.
    (vii) With prior approval of the commissioner, owners of  waterworks that utilize multiple wells from a common aquifer may consider these  multiple sources as one treatment plant for determining the minimum number of  samples to be collected for TTHM and HAA5 analysis.
    (b) After one year of routine monitoring an owner may reduce  monitoring, except as otherwise provided, as follows:
    (i) Owners of waterworks using surface water or groundwater  under the direct influence of surface water and serving at least 10,000 persons  that has a source water annual average TOC level, before any treatment, of  equal to or less than 4.0 mg/L and a TTHM annual average equal to or less than  0.040 mg/L and HAA5 annual average equal to or less than 0.030 mg/L may reduce  its monitoring to one sample per treatment plant per quarter at a distribution  system location reflecting maximum residence time.
    (ii) Owners of waterworks using surface water or groundwater  under the direct influence of surface water serving from 500 to 9,999 persons  that has a source water annual average TOC level, before any treatment, equal  to or less than 4.0 mg/L and a TTHM annual average equal to or less than 0.040  mg/L and HAA5 annual average equal to or less than 0.030 mg/L may reduce its  monitoring to one sample per treatment plant per year at a distribution system  location reflecting maximum residence time during the month of warmest water  temperature.
    (iii) Owners of waterworks using only groundwater not under  the direct influence of surface water, using chemical disinfectant and serving  at least 10,000 persons that has a TTHM annual average of equal to or less than  0.040 mg/L and HAA5 annual average of equal to or less than 0.030 mg/L may  reduce its monitoring to one sample per treatment plant per year at a  distribution system location reflecting maximum residence time during the month  of warmest water temperature.
    (iv) Owners of waterworks using only groundwater not under the  direct influence of surface water, using chemical disinfectant and serving  fewer than 10,000 persons that has a TTHM annual average equal to or less than  0.040 mg/L and HAA5 annual average equal to or less than 0.030 mg/L for two consecutive  years or TTHM annual average equal to or less than 0.020 mg/L and HAA5 annual  average of equal to or less than 0.015 mg/L for one year may reduce its  monitoring to one sample per treatment plant per three-year monitoring cycle at  a distribution system location reflecting maximum residence time during the  month of warmest water temperature, with the three-year cycle beginning on  January 1 following the quarter in which the system qualifies for reduced  monitoring.
    (v) Owners of waterworks using surface water or groundwater  under the direct influence of surface water serving fewer than 500 persons may  not reduce its monitoring to less than one sample per treatment plant per year.
    (vi) In order to qualify for reduced monitoring for TTHM and  HAA5 under subdivision B 3 e (1) (b) (i) through (iv) of this section, owners  of waterworks using surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of  surface water not monitoring under the provisions of subdivision B 3 (i) shall  take monthly TOC samples every 30 days at a location prior to any treatment,  beginning April 1, 2008. In addition to meeting other criteria for reduced  monitoring in subdivision B 3 e (1) (b) (i) through (iv) of this section, the  source water TOC running annual average shall be less than or equal to 4.0 mg/L  (based on the most recent four quarters of monitoring) on a continuing basis at  each treatment plant to reduce or remain on reduced monitoring for TTHM and  HAA5. Once qualified for reduced monitoring for TTHM and HAA5 under subdivision  B 3 e (1) (b) (i) through (iv) of this section, a system may reduce source  water TOC monitoring to quarterly TOC samples taken every 90 days at a location  prior to any treatment.
    (c) Owners of waterworks on a reduced monitoring schedule may  remain on that reduced schedule as long as the average of all samples taken in  the year (for waterworks that must monitor quarterly) or the result of the  sample (for waterworks that must monitor no more frequently than annually) is  no more than 0.060 mg/L and 0.045 mg/L for TTHMs and HAA5, respectively. Owners  of waterworks that do not meet these levels shall resume monitoring at the  frequency identified in subdivision B 3 e (1) (a) of this section in the  quarter immediately following the monitoring period in which the waterworks  exceeds 0.060 mg/L or 0.045 mg/L for TTHMs and HAA5, respectively. For  waterworks using only groundwater not under the direct influence of surface  water and serving fewer than 10,000 persons, if either the TTHMs annual average  is greater than 0.080 mg/L or the HAA5 annual average is greater than 0.060  mg/L, the owner shall go to increased monitoring identified in subdivision B 3  e (1) (a) of this section in the quarter immediately following the monitoring  period in which the waterworks exceeds 0.080 mg/L or 0.060 mg/L for TTHM or  HAA5 respectively.
    (d) Owners of waterworks on increased monitoring may return to  routine monitoring if, after at least one year of monitoring, their TTHM annual  average is equal to or less than 0.060 mg/L and their HAA5 annual average is  equal to or less than 0.045 mg/L.
    (e) The commissioner may return a waterworks to routine  monitoring at the commissioner's discretion.
    (2) Initial distribution system evaluations (IDSE).
    (a) This subdivision establishes monitoring and other  requirements for identifying locational running annual average (LRAA)  compliance monitoring locations for determining compliance with maximum  contaminant levels for total trihalomethanes (TTHM) and haloacetic acids (five)  (HAA5). Owners shall use an IDSE to determine locations with representative  high TTHM and HAA5 concentrations throughout the distribution system. IDSEs are  used in conjunction with, but separate from running annual average compliance  monitoring locations, subdivision B 3 e (1) (a) of this section, to identify  and select locational running annual average compliance monitoring locations,  subdivision B 3 e (3) of this section.
    (b) This subdivision applies to the following waterworks:
    (i) Community waterworks that use a primary or residual disinfectant  other than ultraviolet light or delivers water that has been treated with a  primary or residual disinfectant other than ultraviolet light; or,
    (ii) Nontransient noncommunity waterworks that serve at least  10,000 people and use a primary or residual disinfectant other than ultraviolet  light or delivers water that has been treated with a primary or residual  disinfectant other than ultraviolet light.
    (c) Owners shall comply with the following schedule:
     
         
                 | Waterworks Population | Owners shall submit a standard monitoring plan or system    specific study plan1 or 40/30 certification2 to the    commissioner by or receive very small system waiver from the commissioner. | Owners shall complete standard monitoring or system specific    study by | Owners shall submit IDSE report to the commissioner by3 | 
       | Waterworks that are not part of a combined distribution    system and waterworks that serve the largest population in the combined    distribution system | 
       | Equal to or greater than 100,000 | October 1, 2006 | September 30, 2008 | January 1, 2009 | 
       | 50,000-99,999 | April 1, 2007 | March 31, 2009 | July 1, 2009 | 
       | 10,000-49,999 | October 1, 2007 | September 30, 2009 | January 1, 2010 | 
       | Less than 10,000 (CWS Only) | April 1, 2008 | March 31, 2010 | July 1, 2010 | 
       | Other waterworks that are part of a combined distribution    system | 
       | Wholesale waterworks or consecutive waterworks | -at the same time as the waterworks with the earliest    compliance date in the combined distribution system | -at the same time as the waterworks with the earliest    compliance date in the combined distribution system | -at the same time as the waterworks with the earliest    compliance date in the combined distribution system | 
       | 1If, within 12 months after the date identified in    this column, the commissioner does not approve the plan or notify the owner    that the review has been completed; the owner may consider the submitted plan    as approved. The owner shall implement the plan and shall complete standard    monitoring or a system specific study no later than the date identified in    the third column. 2The owner shall submit the 40/30 certification under    subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (v) of this section by the date indicated. 3If, within three months after the date identified in    this column (nine months after the date identified in this column if the    owner is required to comply with the schedule for waterworks populations    10,000 to 49,999), the commissioner does not approve the IDSE report or    notify the owner that the review has not been completed, the owner may    consider the submitted report as approved and the owner shall implement the    recommended monitoring in accordance with subdivision B 3 e (3) of this    section as required. | 
  
         
           
     
    For the purpose of this schedule, the  commissioner has determined that the combined distribution system does not  include consecutive waterworks that receive water from a wholesale waterworks  only on an emergency basis or receive less than 10% of their total water  consumption from a wholesale waterworks. The commissioner has also determined  that the combined distribution system does not include wholesale waterworks  that deliver water to a consecutive waterworks only on an emergency basis or  delivers less than 10% of the total water used by a consecutive waterworks.
    (d) Owners shall conduct standard monitoring that meets the  requirements in subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iii) of this section, or a system  specific study that meets the requirements in subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv) of  this section, or certify to the commissioner that the waterworks meets 40/30  certification criteria under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (v) of this section, or  qualify for a very small system waiver under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (vi) of  this section.
    (i) Owners shall have taken the full complement of routine  TTHM and HAA5 compliance samples required of a waterworks based on population  and source water under subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section (or the owner  shall have taken the full complement of reduced TTHM and HAA5 compliance  samples required of an owner based population and source water under  subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section if the waterworks meet reduced monitoring  criteria under subdivision B 3 e (1)) of this section during the period  specified in subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (v) ((a)) of this section to meet the  40/30 certification criteria in subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (v) of this section.  Owners shall have taken TTHM and HAA5 samples under subdivision B 3 e (1) of  this section to be eligible for the very small system waiver in subdivision B 3  e (2) (d) (vi) of this section.
    (ii) If the owner has not taken the required samples, the  owner shall conduct standard monitoring that meets the requirements in  subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iii) of this section, or a system specific study  that meets the requirements in subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv) of this section.
    (iii) Standard Monitoring.
    ((a)) The standard monitoring plan shall comply with the  following paragraphs ((i)) through ((iv)). Owners shall prepare and submit the  standard monitoring plan to the commissioner according to the schedule in  subdivision B 3 e (2) (c) of this section.
    ((i)) The standard monitoring plan shall include a schematic  of the waterworks distribution system (including distribution system entry  points and their sources, and storage facilities), with notes indicating  locations and dates of all projected standard monitoring, and all projected  compliance monitoring in accordance with subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section.
    ((ii)) The standard monitoring plan shall include  justification of standard monitoring location selection and a summary of data  relied on to justify standard monitoring location selection.
    ((iii)) The standard monitoring plan shall specify the  population served and waterworks type (surface water, groundwater under the  direct influence of surface water or groundwater).
    ((iv)) Owners shall retain a complete copy of the submitted  standard monitoring plan, including any modification required by the  commissioner of the standard monitoring plan, for as long as the owner is  required to retain the IDSE report under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iii) ((c)) ((iv))  of this section.
    ((b)) Owners shall monitor as indicated in the following  table. Owners shall collect dual sample sets at each monitoring location. One  sample in the dual sample set shall be analyzed for TTHM. The other sample in  the dual sample set shall be analyzed for HAA5. Owners shall conduct one  monitoring period during the peak historical month for TTHM levels or HAA5  levels or the month of warmest water temperature. Owners shall review available  compliance, study, or operational data to determine the peak historical month  for TTHM or HAA5 levels or warmest water temperature.
     
         
                 | Source Water Type | Population Size Category | Monitoring Periods and Frequency of Sampling | Distribution System Monitoring Locations1 | 
       | Total per monitoring period | Near Entry Points | Average Residence Time | High TTHM Locations | High HAA5 Locations | 
       | Surface water or ground-water under the direct influence of    surface water. | Less than 500 consecutive systems waterworks | one (during peak historical month)2 | 2 | 1 |   | 1 |   | 
       | Less than 500 nonconsecutive systems waterworks | 2 |   |   | 1 | 1 | 
       | 500-3,300 consecutive systems waterworks | four (every 90 days) | 2 | 1 |   | 1 |   | 
       | 500-3,300 nonconsecutive systems waterworks | 2 |   |   | 1 | 1 | 
       | 3,301-9,999 | 4 |   | 1 | 2 | 1 | 
       | 10,000-49,999 | six (every 60 days) | 8 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 2 | 
       | 50,000-249,999 | 16 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 4 | 
       | 250,000-999,999 | 24 | 4 | 6 | 8 | 6 | 
       | 1,000,000-4,999,999 | 32 | 6 | 8 | 10 | 8 | 
       | Equal to or greater than 5,000,000 | 40 | 8 | 10 | 12 | 10 | 
       | Ground-water | Less than 500 consecutive systems waterworks | one (during peak historical month)2 | 2 | 1 |   | 1 |   | 
       | Less than 500 nonconsecutive systems waterworks | 2 |   |   | 1 | 1 | 
       | 500-9,999 | four (every 90 days) | 2 |   |   | 1 | 1 | 
       | 10,000-99,999 | 6 | 1 | 1 | 2 | 2 | 
       | 100,000-499,999 | 8 | 1 | 1 | 3 | 3 | 
       | Equal to or greater than 500,000 | 12 | 2 | 2 | 4 | 4 | 
       | 1A dual sample set (i.e., a TTHM and an HAA5 sample)    shall be taken at each monitoring location during each monitoring period. 2The peak historical month is the month with the    highest TTHM or HAA5 levels or the warmest water temperature. | 
  
         
          ((i)) Owners shall take samples at  locations other than the existing monitoring locations used in subdivision B 3  e (1) of this section. Monitoring locations shall be distributed throughout the  distribution system.
    ((ii)) If the number of entry points to  the distribution system is fewer than the specified number of entry point monitoring  locations, excess entry point samples shall be replaced equally at high TTHM  and HAA5 locations. If there is an odd extra location number, the owner shall  take a sample at a high TTHM location. If the number of entry points to the  distribution system is more than the specified number of entry point monitoring  locations, owners shall take samples at entry points to the distribution system  having the highest annual water flows.
    ((iii)) The monitoring under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iii)  ((b)) of this section may not be reduced.
    ((c)) The IDSE report shall include the elements required in  the following paragraphs. Owners shall submit the IDSE report to the  commissioner according to the schedule in subdivision B 3 e (2) (c) of this  section.
    ((i)) The IDSE report shall include all TTHM and HAA5  analytical results from compliance monitoring required under subdivision B 3 e  (1) of this section and all standard monitoring conducted during the period of  the IDSE as individual analytical results and LRAAs presented in a tabular or  spreadsheet format acceptable to the commissioner. If changed from the standard  monitoring plan submitted under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iii) ((a)) of this  section, the report shall also include a schematic of the distribution system,  the population served, and system type (surface water, groundwater under the  direct influence of surface water or groundwater).
    ((ii)) The IDSE report shall include an explanation of any  deviations from the approved standard monitoring plan.
    ((iii)) Owners shall recommend and justify the compliance  monitoring locations to be used in accordance with subdivision B 3 e (3) of  this section and timing based on the protocol in subdivision B 3 e (2) (e) of  this section.
    ((iv)) Owners shall retain a complete copy of the IDSE report  submitted under this section for 10 years after the date the report was  submitted to the commissioner. If the commissioner modifies the LRAA monitoring  requirements recommended in the IDSE report or if the commissioner approves  alternative monitoring locations, the owner shall keep a copy of the  commissioner's notification on file for 10 years after the date of the  commissioner's notification. The owner shall make the IDSE report and any  commissioner's notification available for review by the commissioner or the  public.
    (iv) System Specific Studies.
    ((a)) The system specific study plan shall be based on either  existing monitoring results as required under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv)  ((a)) or modeling as required under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv) ((a)) of  this section. Owners shall prepare and submit the waterworks specific study  plan to the commissioner according to the schedule in subdivision B 3 e (2) (c)  of this section.
    ((i)) Existing monitoring results. Owners may comply by submitting  monitoring results collected before the waterworks is required to begin  monitoring under subdivision B 3 e (2) (c) of this section. The monitoring  results and analysis shall meet the criteria in subdivisions ((1)) and ((2)) as  follows:
    ((1)) Minimum requirements.
    ((A)) TTHM and HAA5 results shall be based on samples  collected and analyzed in accordance with 12VAC5-590-440. Samples shall be  collected no earlier than five years prior to the study plan submission date.
    ((B)) The monitoring locations and frequency shall meet the  conditions identified in the following table. Each location shall be sampled  once during the peak historical month for TTHM levels or HAA5 levels or the  month of warmest water temperature for every 12 months of data submitted for that  location. Monitoring results shall include all compliance monitoring results in  accordance with subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section plus additional  monitoring results as necessary to meet minimum sample requirements.
           | System Type | Population Size Category | Number of Monitoring Locations | Number of Samples | 
       | TTHM | HAA5 | 
       | Surface water or groundwater    under the direct influence of surface water | Less than 500 | 3 | 3 | 3 | 
       | 500-3,300 | 3 | 9 | 9 | 
       | 3,301-9,999 | 6 | 36 | 36 | 
       | 10,000-49,999 | 12 | 72 | 72 | 
       | 50,000-249,999 | 24 | 144 | 144 | 
       | 250,000-999,999 | 36 | 216 | 216 | 
       | 1,000,000-4,999,999 | 48 | 288 | 288 | 
       | Equal to or greater than    5,000,000 | 60 | 360 | 360 | 
       | Groundwater | Less than 500 | 3 | 3 | 3 | 
       | 500-9,999 | 3 | 9 | 9 | 
       | 10,000-99,999 | 12 | 48 | 48 | 
       | 100,000-499,999 | 18 | 72 | 72 | 
       | Equal to or greater than    500,000 | 24 | 96 | 96 | 
  
    ((2)) Reporting monitoring results. Owners shall report the  following information:
    ((A)) Owners shall report previously collected monitoring  results and certify that the reported monitoring results include all compliance  and non-compliance results generated during the time period beginning with the  first reported result and ending with the most recent results collected in  accordance with subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section.
    ((B)) Owners shall certify that the samples were  representative of the entire distribution system and that treatment, and  distribution system have not changed significantly since the samples were  collected.
    ((C)) The study monitoring plan shall include a schematic of  the distribution system (including distribution system entry points and their  sources, and storage facilities), with notes indicating the locations and dates  of all completed or planned system specific study monitoring.
    ((D)) The system specific study plan shall specify the  population served and system type (surface water, groundwater under the direct  influence of surface water or groundwater).
    ((E)) Owners shall retain a complete copy of the system  specific study plan submitted, including any modification requested by the  commissioner of the system specific study plan, for as long as the owner is  required to retain the IDSE report under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv) ((b))  ((vii)) of this section.
    ((F)) If previously collected data that fully meets the number  of samples required under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv) ((a)) ((ii)) ((i))  ((1)) ((b)) of this section and the commissioner rejects some of the data, the  owner shall either conduct additional monitoring to replace rejected data on a  schedule the commissioner approves or conduct standard monitoring under  subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iii) of this section.
    ((ii)) Modeling. Owners may comply through analysis of an  extended period simulation hydraulic model. The extended period simulation  hydraulic model and analysis shall meet the following criteria:
    ((1)) Minimum requirements.
    ((A)) The model shall simulate 24-hour variation in demand and  show a consistently repeating 24-hour pattern of residence time.
    ((B)) The model shall represent the criteria listed in the  following table:
           | 75% of pipe volume; | 
       | 50% of pipe length; | 
       | All pressure zones; | 
       | All 12-inch diameter and larger pipes; | 
       | All 8-inch and larger pipes that connect pressure zones,    influence zones from different sources, storage facilities, major demand    areas, pumps, and control valves, or are known or expected to be significant    conveyors of water; | 
       | All 6-inch and larger pipes that connect remote areas of a    distribution system to the main portion of the system; | 
       | All storage facilities with standard operations represented    in the model; and | 
       | All active pump stations with controls represented in the    model; and | 
       | All active control valves. | 
  
    ((C)) The model shall be calibrated, or have calibration  plans, for the current configuration of the distribution system during the  period of high TTHM formation potential. All storage facilities shall be  evaluated as part of the calibration process. All required calibration shall be  completed no later than 12 months after plan submission.
    ((2)) Reporting modeling. The system specific study plan shall  include the following information:
    ((A)) Tabular or spreadsheet data demonstrating that the model  meets requirements in subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv) ((a)) ((ii)) ((1)) ((b))  of this section.
    ((B)) A description of all calibration activities undertaken,  and if calibration is complete, a graph of predicted tank levels versus  measured tank levels for the storage facility with the highest residence time  in each pressure zone, and a time series graph of the residence time at the  longest residence time storage facility in the distribution system showing the  predictions for the entire simulation period (i.e., from time zero until the  time it takes to for the model to reach a consistently repeating pattern of  residence time).
    ((C)) Model output showing preliminary 24-hour average  residence time predictions throughout the distribution system.
    ((D)) Timing and number of samples representative of the  distribution system planned for at least one monitoring period of TTHM and HAA5  dual sample monitoring at a number of locations no less than would be required  for the system under standard monitoring in subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iii) of  this section during the historical month of high TTHM. These samples shall be  taken at locations other than existing compliance monitoring locations listed  in subdivision B 3 e (1) (a) of this section.
    ((E)) Description of how all requirements will be completed no  later than 12 months after owner submits the system specific study plan.
    ((F)) Schematic of the distribution system (including  distribution system entry points and their sources, and storage facilities),  with notes indicating the locations and dates of all completed system specific  study monitoring (if calibration is complete) and all compliance monitoring  listed in subdivision B 3 e (1) (a) of this section.
    ((G)) Population served and system type (surface water,  groundwater under the direct influence of surface water or groundwater).
    ((H)) Owners shall retain a complete copy of the system  specific study plan submitted, including any modification recommended by the  commissioner to the waterworks specific study plan, for as long as the owner is  required to retain the IDSE report under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv) ((b))  ((vii)) of this section.
    ((3)) If an owner submits a model that does not fully meet the  requirements under paragraph (iv) ((a)) ((ii)) of this section, the owners  shall correct the deficiencies and respond to commissioner's inquiries  concerning the model. If the owner fails to correct deficiencies or respond to  inquiries to the commissioner's satisfaction, the owner shall conduct standard  monitoring under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iii) of this section.
    ((b)) The IDSE report shall include the elements required in  the following paragraphs. Owners shall submit the IDSE report according to the  schedule in subdivision B 3 e (2) (c) of this section.
    ((i)) The IDSE report shall include all TTHM and HAA5  analytical results from compliance monitoring in subdivision B 3 e (1) (a)  of this section and all system specific study monitoring conducted during the  period of the system specific study presented in a tabular or spreadsheet  format acceptable to the commissioner. If changed from the system specific  study plan submitted under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv) ((a)) of this  section, the IDSE report shall also include a schematic of the distribution  system, the population served; and system type (surface water, groundwater  under the direct influence of surface water or groundwater).
    ((ii)) Owners of waterworks using the modeling provision under  subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv) ((a)) ((ii)) of this section shall include final  information for the elements described in subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv) ((a))  ((ii)) ((2)) of this section, and a 24-hour time series graph of residence time  for each LRAA compliance monitoring location selected.
    ((iii)) The owner shall recommend and justify LRAA compliance  monitoring locations and timing based on the protocol in subdivision B 3 e (2)  (e) of this section.
    ((iv)) The IDSE report shall include an explanation of any  deviations from the waterworks approved system specific study plan.
    ((v)) The IDSE report shall include the basis (analytical and  modeling results) and justification the owner used to select the recommended  LRAA monitoring locations.
    ((vi)) The owner may submit the IDSE report in lieu of the  system specific study plan on the schedule identified in subdivision B 3 e (2)  (c) of this section for submission of the system specific study plan if the  owner believes the necessary information has been obtained by the time that the  waterworks specific study plan is due. If the owner elects this approach, the  IDSE report shall also include all information required under subdivision B 3 e  (2) (d) (iv) ((a)) of this section.
    ((vii)) The owner shall retain a complete copy of the IDSE  report submitted under this subdivision for 10 years after the date submitted.  If the commissioner modifies the LRAA monitoring requirements that the owner  recommended in the IDSE report or if the commissioner approves alternative  monitoring locations, the owner shall keep a copy of the commissioner's  notification on file for 10 years after the date of the commissioner's  notification. The owner shall make the IDSE report and any notification from  the commissioner available for review by the commissioner or the public.
    (v) 40/30 certifications.
    ((a)) Eligibility. Waterworks are eligible for 40/30  certification if the waterworks had no TTHM or HAA5 monitoring violations under  subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section and no individual sample exceeded 0.040  mg/L for TTHM or 0.030 mg/L for HAA5 during an eight consecutive calendar  quarter period beginning no earlier than the date specified in the following  table.
           | If the waterworks 40/30    Certification Is Due | Then the waterworks    eligibility for 40/30 certification is based on eight consecutive calendar    quarters of compliance monitoring under subdivision B 3 e (1) results    beginning no earlier than1 | 
       | October 1, 2006 | January 2004 | 
       | April 1, 2007 | January 2004 | 
       | October 1, 2007 | January 2005 | 
       | April 1, 2008 | January 2005 | 
       | 1Unless the waterworks is    on reduced monitoring under subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section and was not    required to monitor during the specified period. If the owner did not monitor    during the specified period, the owner shall base eligibility on compliance    samples taken during the 12 months preceding the specified period. | 
  
    ((b)) Requirements for 40/30 certification:
    ((i)) Certify to the commissioner that every individual  compliance sample taken under subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section during the  periods specified in subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (v) ((a)) of this section were  less than or equal to 0.040 mg/L for TTHM and less than or equal to 0.030 mg/L  for HAA5, and that the waterworks has not had any TTHM or HAA5 monitoring  violations during the period specified in subdivision ((a)).
    ((ii)) The commissioner may require the owner to submit  compliance monitoring results, distribution system schematics, and/or  recommended LRAA compliance monitoring locations in addition to the  certification. If an owner fails to submit the requested information, the  commissioner may require standard monitoring under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d)  (iii) of this section or a system specific study under subdivision B 3 e (2)  (d) (iv) of this section.
    ((iii)) The commissioner may still require standard monitoring  under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iii) or a system specific study under  subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv) of this section even if the waterworks meet the  criteria in subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (v) ((a)) of this section.
    ((iv)) The owner shall retain a complete copy of the  certification submitted under this subdivision for 10 years after the date that  the owner submitted the certification. The owner shall make the certification,  all data upon which the certification is based, and any notification from the  commissioner available for review by the commissioner or the public.
    (vi) Very small system waivers.
    ((a)) If the waterworks serves fewer than 500 people and has  taken TTHM and HAA5 samples under subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section, the  owner is not required to comply with this subdivision unless the commissioner  notifies the owner to conduct standard monitoring under subdivision B 3 e (2)  (d) (iii) or a system specific study under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv) of  this section.
    ((b)) If the owner has not taken TTHM and HAA5 samples under  subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section or if the commissioner notifies the owner  to comply with this subdivision, the owner shall conduct standard monitoring  under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iii) of this section or a system specific  study under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv) of this section.
    (e) LRAA compliance monitoring location recommendations.
    (i) The IDSE report shall include recommendations and  justification for where and during what month(s) TTHM and HAA5 monitoring in accordance  with subdivision B 3 e (3) of this section should be conducted. These  recommendations shall be based on the criteria in the paragraphs in this  section.
    (ii) Owners shall select the number of monitoring locations  specified in the following table. These recommended locations will be used as  LRAA routine compliance monitoring locations, unless the commissioner requires  different or additional locations. The locations should be distributed  throughout the distribution system to the extent possible.
     
         
                 | Source Water Type | Population Size Category | Monitoring Frequency1 | Distribution System Monitoring    Location | 
       | Total per monitoring period2 | Highest TTHM Locations | Highest HAA5 Locations | Existing Compliance Locations    in accordance with subdivision B 3 e (1) | 
       | Surface water or ground-water    under the direct influence of surface water | Less than 500 | per year | 2 | 1 | 1 |   | 
       | 500-3,300 | per quarter | 2 | 1 | 1 |   | 
       | 3,301-9,999 | per quarter | 2 | 1 | 1 |   | 
       | 10,000-49,999 | per quarter | 4 | 2 | 1 | 1 | 
       | 50,000-249,999 | per quarter | 8 | 3 | 3 | 2 | 
       | 250,000-999,999 | per quarter | 12 | 5 | 4 | 3 | 
       | 1,000,000-4,999,999 | per quarter | 16 | 6 | 6 | 4 | 
       | Equal to or greater than    5,000,000 | per quarter | 20 | 8 | 7 | 5 | 
       | Ground-water | Less than 500 | per year | 2 | 1 | 1 |   | 
       | 500-9,999 | per year | 2 | 1 | 1 |   | 
       | 10,000-99,999 | per quarter | 4 | 2 | 1 | 1 | 
       | 100,000-499,999 | per quarter | 6 | 3 | 2 | 1 | 
       | Equal to or greater than    500,000 | per quarter | 8 | 3 | 3 | 2 | 
       | 1All owners shall monitor during month of highest DBP    concentrations. 2Owners of waterworks on quarterly monitoring (except    for surface water source or GUDI source waterworks serving 500-3,300) shall    take dual sample sets every 90 days at each monitoring location. Groundwater    source waterworks serving 500-9,999 (on annual monitoring) shall take dual    sample sets annually at each monitoring location. Waterworks serving fewer    than 500 and surface water source or GUDI source waterworks serving 500-3,300    shall take individual TTHM and HAA5 samples (instead of a dual sample set) at    the locations with the highest TTHM and HAA5 concentrations, respectively.    Waterworks serving fewer than 500 shall sample annually and surface water    source or GUDI source systems serving 500-3,300 shall sample every 90 days.    Only one location with a dual sample set per monitoring period is needed if    highest TTHM and HAA5 concentrations occur at the same location (and month,    if monitoring annually). | 
  
         
          (iii) Owners shall recommend LRRA compliance monitoring  locations based on standard monitoring results, system specific study results,  and compliance monitoring results under subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section.  Owners shall follow the protocol in subdivision B 3 e (2) (e) (iii) ((a))  through ((h)) of this section. If required to monitor at more than eight  locations, the owner shall repeat the protocol as necessary. If a owner does  not have existing compliance monitoring results under subdivision B 3 e (1) of  this section or if the owner does not have enough existing compliance  monitoring results under subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section, the owner shall  repeat the protocol, skipping the provisions of subdivision B 3 e (2) (e) (iii)  ((c)) and ((g)) of this section as necessary, until the owner has identified  the required total number of monitoring locations.
    ((a)) Location with the highest TTHM LRAA not previously  selected as a LRAA monitoring location.
    ((b)) Location with the highest HAA5 LRAA not previously  selected as a LRAA monitoring location.
    ((c)) Existing average residence time compliance monitoring  location under subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section (maximum residence time  compliance monitoring location for ground water systems) with the highest HAA5  LRAA not previously selected as a LRAA monitoring location.
    ((d)) Location with the highest TTHM LRAA not previously  selected as a LRAA monitoring location.
    ((e)) Location with the highest TTHM LRAA not previously  selected as a LRAA monitoring location.
    ((f)) Location with the highest HAA5 LRAA not previously  selected as a LRAA monitoring location.
    ((g)) Existing average residence time compliance monitoring  location under subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section (maximum residence time  compliance monitoring location for ground water systems) with the highest TTHM  LRAA not previously selected as a LRAA monitoring location.
    ((h)) Location with the highest HAA5 LRAA not previously  selected as a LRAA monitoring location.
    (iv) An owner may recommend locations other than those  specified in subdivision B 3 e (2) (e) (iii) of this section if the owner  includes a rationale for selecting other locations. If the commissioner  approves the alternate locations, the owners shall monitor at these locations  to determine compliance under subdivision B 3 e (3) of this section.
    (v) The recommended schedule shall include LRAA monitoring  during the peak historical month for TTHM and HAA5 concentration, unless the  commissioner approves another month. Once the owner has identified the peak  historical month, and if the owner is required to conduct routine monitoring at  least quarterly, the owner shall schedule LRAA compliance monitoring at a  regular frequency of every 90 days or fewer.
    (f) The owner shall use only the analytical methods specified  in 12VAC5-590-440, or otherwise approved by EPA for monitoring, to demonstrate  compliance.
    (g) IDSE results will not be used for the purpose of  determining compliance with MCLs in Table 2.13.
    (3) Locational running annual average monitoring requirements.
    (a) This subdivision establishes monitoring and other  requirements for achieving compliance with maximum contaminant levels based on  locational running annual averages (LRAA) for total trihalomethanes (TTHM) and  haloacetic acids (five) (HAA5), and for achieving compliance with maximum  residual disinfectant residuals for chlorine and chloramines for certain  consecutive systems waterworks.
    (b) This subdivision applies to community waterworks or  nontransient noncommunity waterworks that uses a primary or residual  disinfectant other than ultraviolet light or delivers water that has been  treated with a primary or residual disinfectant other than ultraviolet light.
    (c) Owner shall comply on the schedule in the following table  based on the type of waterworks:
           | Type of Waterworks | Waterworks shall comply with    Locational Running Average monitoring by:1 | 
       | Waterworks that are not part of a combined distribution    system and waterworks that serve the largest population in the combined    distribution system | 
       | Waterworks serving equal to or greater than 100,000 | April 1, 2012 | 
       | Waterworks serving 50,000-99,999 | October 1, 2012 | 
       | Waterworks serving 10,000-49,999 | October 1, 2013 | 
       | Waterworks serving less than 10,000 | October 1, 2013 if no Cryptosporidium monitoring is required    under 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 a (1) (c) or October 1, 2014 if Cryptosporidium monitoring is required    under 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 a (1) (c) | 
       | Other waterworks that are part of a combined distribution    system | 
       | Consecutive waterworks or    wholesale waterworks | -at the same time as the    waterworks with the earliest compliance date in the combined distribution    system | 
       | 1The commissioner may grant up to an additional 24    months for compliance with MCLs and operational evaluation levels if the    waterworks require capital improvements to comply with an MCL. | 
  
    (i) Waterworks monitoring frequency is specified in  subdivision B 3 e (3) (d) (ii) of this section.
    ((a)) Owners of waterworks required to conduct quarterly  monitoring shall begin monitoring in the first full calendar quarter that  includes the compliance date in the table in subdivision B 3 e (3) (c) of this  section.
    ((b)) Owners of waterworks required to conduct monitoring at a  frequency that is less than quarterly shall begin monitoring in the calendar  month recommended in the IDSE report prepared under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d)  (iii) or subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv) of this section or the calendar month  identified in the LRAA monitoring plan developed under subdivision B 3 e (3)  (e) of this section no later than 12 months after the compliance date in the  table in subdivision B 3 e (3) (c) of this section.
    (ii) Owners of waterworks required to conduct quarterly  monitoring shall make compliance calculations at the end of the fourth calendar  quarter that follows the compliance date and at the end of each subsequent  quarter (or earlier if the LRAA calculated based on fewer than four quarters of  data would cause the MCL to be exceeded regardless of the monitoring results of  subsequent quarters). Owners of waterworks required to conduct monitoring at a  frequency that is less than quarterly shall make compliance calculations  beginning with the first compliance sample taken after the compliance date.
    (iii) For the purpose of the schedule in subdivision B 3 e (3)  (c) of this section, the commissioner has determine that the combined  distribution system does not include consecutive waterworks that receive water  from a wholesale waterworks only on an emergency basis or receive less than 10%  of their total water consumption from a wholesale waterworks. The commissioner  has also determine that the combined distribution system does not include  wholesale waterworks which deliver water to a consecutive waterworks only on an  emergency basis or deliver less than 10% of the total water used by a  consecutive waterworks.
    (d) Routine monitoring.
    (i) Owners submitting an IDSE report shall begin monitoring at  the locations and months the owner recommended in the IDSE report submitted  under subdivision B 3 e (2) (e) of this section following the schedule in  subdivision B 3 e (3) (c) of this section, unless the commissioner requires  other locations or additional locations after review. If the owner submitted a  40/30 certification under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (v) of this section or the  waterworks qualified for a very small system waiver under subdivision B 3 e (2)  (d) (vi) of this section or the waterworks is a nontransient noncommunity  waterworks serving less than 10,000, the owner shall monitor at the location(s)  and dates identified in the monitoring plan in subdivision B 3 j of this  section, updated as required by subdivision B 3 e (3) (e) of this section.
    (ii) Owners shall monitor at no fewer than the number of  locations identified in the following table:
     
         
                 | Source Water Type | Population Size Category | Monitoring Frequency1 | Distribution System Monitoring    Location Total per Monitoring Period2 | 
       | Surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of    surface water | Less than 500 | per year | 2 | 
       | 500-3,300 | per quarter | 2 | 
       | 3,301-9,999 | per quarter | 2 | 
       | 10,000-49,999 | per quarter | 4 | 
       | 50,000-249,999 | per quarter | 8 | 
       | 250,000-999,999 | per quarter | 12 | 
       | 1,000,000-4,999,999 | per quarter | 16 | 
       | Equal to or greater than 5,000,000 | per quarter | 20 | 
       | Groundwater | Less than 500 | per year | 2 | 
       | 500-9,999 | per year | 2 | 
       | 10,000-99,999 | per quarter | 4 | 
       | 100,000-499,999 | per quarter | 6 | 
       | Equal to or greater than    500,000 | per quarter | 8 | 
       | 1All owners shall monitor    during month of highest DBP concentrations. 2Owners of waterworks on    quarterly monitoring (except for surface water source or GUDI source    waterworks serving 500-3,300) shall take dual sample sets every 90 days at    each monitoring location. Groundwater source waterworks serving 500-9,999 (on    annual monitoring) shall take dual sample sets annually at each monitoring    location. Waterworks serving fewer than 500 and surface water source or GUDI    source waterworks serving 500-3,300 shall take individual TTHM and HAA5    samples (instead of a dual sample set) at the locations with the highest TTHM    and HAA5 concentrations, respectively. Waterworks serving fewer than 500    shall sample annually and surface water source or GUDI source systems serving    500-3,300 shall sample every 90 days. Only one location with a dual sample    set per monitoring period is needed if highest TTHM and HAA5 concentrations    occur at the same location (and month, if monitoring annually). | 
  
         
          (iii) Owners of waterworks not using disinfection that begin  using a disinfectant other than UV light after the dates in subdivision B 3 e  (2) of this section for complying with the IDSE requirements shall consult with  the commissioner to identify compliance monitoring locations. Owners shall then  develop a monitoring plan under subdivision B 3 e (3) (e) of this section that  includes those monitoring locations.
    (iv) Owners shall use an approved method listed in  12VAC5-590-440 for TTHM and HAA5 analyses. Analyses shall be conducted by  laboratories that have received certification by EPA or the state DCLS  as specified in 12VAC5-590-440.
    (e) Monitoring plan.
    (i) Owners shall develop and implement a monitoring plan to be  kept on file for review by the commissioner and the public. The monitoring plan  shall be completed no later than the date the owner conducts the initial  monitoring and contain:
    ((a)) Monitoring locations;
    ((b)) Monitoring dates; and
    ((c)) Compliance calculation procedures.
    (ii) If the owner was not required to submit an IDSE report  under either subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iii) or subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (iv)  of this section, and the waterworks did not have sufficient monitoring  locations under subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section to identify the required  number of LRAA compliance monitoring locations indicated in subdivision B 3 e  (2) (e) (ii) of this section, the owner shall identify additional locations by  alternating selection of locations representing high TTHM levels and high HAA5  levels until the required number of compliance monitoring locations have been  identified. The owner shall also provide the rationale for identifying the  locations as having high levels of TTHM or HAA5. If the waterworks has more  monitoring locations under subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section than required  for LRAA compliance monitoring in subdivision B 3 e (2) (e) (ii) of this  section, the owner shall identify which locations the waterworks will use for  LRAA compliance monitoring by alternating selection of locations representing  high TTHM levels and high HAA5 levels until the required number of LRAA  compliance monitoring locations have been identified.
    (iii) Owners of waterworks using surface water or groundwater  under the direct influence of surface water serving more than 3,300 people  shall submit a copy of the monitoring plan to the commissioner prior to the  date the waterworks conducts the initial monitoring, unless the IDSE report  submitted under subdivision B 3 e (2) of this section contains all the  information required by this section.
    (iv) Owners may revise the monitoring plan to reflect changes  in treatment, distribution system operations and layout (including new service  areas), or other factors that may affect TTHM or HAA5 formation, or for reasons  approved by the commissioner, after consultation with the commissioner  regarding the need for changes and the appropriateness of the changes. If the  owner changes monitoring locations, the owner shall replace existing compliance  monitoring locations with the lowest LRAA with new locations that reflect the  current distribution system locations with expected high TTHM or HAA5 levels.  The commissioner may also require modifications in the monitoring plan. Owners  of waterworks using surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of  surface water serving more than 3,300 people shall submit a copy of the  modified monitoring plan to the commissioner prior to the date the owner is required  to comply with the revised monitoring plan.
    (f) Reduced monitoring
    (i) Owners may reduce monitoring to the level specified in the  following table any time the LRAA is less than or equal to 0.040 mg/L for TTHM  and less than or equal to 0.030 mg/L for HAA5 at all monitoring locations.  Owners may only use data collected under the provisions of this subdivision or  subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section to qualify for reduced monitoring. In  addition, the source water annual average TOC level, before any treatment,  shall be less than or equal to 4.0 mg/L at each treatment plant treating  surface water or ground water under the direct influence of surface water,  based on monitoring conducted under either subdivision B 3 e (1) (b) (vi) or B  3 i of this section.
     
         
                      | Source Water Type | Population Size Category | Monitoring Frequency1 | Distribution System Monitoring Location per Monitoring     Period | 
          | Surface water or ground-water under the direct influence of    surface water | Less than 500 |   | monitoring may not be reduced | 
       | 500-3,300 | per year | 1 TTHM and 1 HAA5 sample: one at the location and during the    quarter with the highest TTHM single measurement, one at the location and    during the quarter with the highest HAA5 single measurement; 1 dual sample    set per year if the highest TTHM and HAA5 measurements occurred at the same    location and quarter. | 
       | 3,301-9,999 | per year | 2 dual sample sets: one at the location and during the    quarter with the highest TTHM single measurement, one at the location and    during the quarter with the highest HAA5 single measurement | 
       | 10,000-49,999 | per quarter | 2 dual sample sets at the locations with the highest TTHM    and highest HAA5 LRAAs | 
       | 50,000-249,999 | per quarter | 4 dual sample sets - at the locations with the two highest    TTHM and two highest HAA5 LRAAs | 
       | 250,000-999,999 | per quarter | 6 dual sample sets - at the locations with the three highest    TTHM and three highest HAA5 LRAAs | 
       | 1,000,000-4,999,999 | per quarter | 8 dual sample sets - at the locations with the four highest    TTHM and four highest HAA5 LRAAs | 
       | Equal to or greater than 5,000,000 | per quarter | 10 dual sample sets - at the locations with the five highest    TTHM and five highest HAA5 LRAAs | 
       | Groundwater | Less than 500 | every third year | 1 TTHM and 1 HAA5 sample: one at the location and during the    quarter with the highest TTHM single measurement, one at the location and    during the quarter with the highest HAA5 single measurement; 1 dual sample    set per year if the highest TTHM and HAA5 measurements occurred at the same    location and quarter. | 
       | 500-9,999 | per year | 1 TTHM and 1 HAA5 sample: one at the location and during the    quarter with the highest TTHM single measurement, one at the location and    during the quarter with the highest HAA5 single measurement; 1 dual sample    set per year if the highest TTHM and HAA5 measurements occurred at the same    location and quarter. | 
       | 10,000-99,999 | per year | 2 dual sample sets: one at the location and during the    quarter with the highest TTHM single measurement, one at the location and    during the quarter with the highest HAA5 single measurement | 
       | 100,000-499,999 | per quarter | 2 dual sample sets; at the locations with the highest TTHM    and highest HAA5 LRAAs | 
       | Equal to or greater than 500,000 | per quarter | 4 dual sample sets at the locations with the two highest    TTHM and two highest HAA5 LRAAs | 
       | 1Owners of waterworks on quarterly monitoring shall    take dual sample sets every 90 days. | 
  
         
          (ii) owners may remain on reduced monitoring as long as the  TTHM LRAA is less than or equal to 0.040 mg/L and the HAA5 LRAA is less than or  equal to 0.030 mg/L at each monitoring location (for waterworks with quarterly  reduced monitoring) or each TTHM sample is less than or equal to 0.060 mg/L and  each HAA5 sample is less than or equal to 0.045 mg/L (for waterworks with  annual or less frequent monitoring). In addition, the source water annual  average TOC level, before any treatment, shall be less than or equal to 4.0  mg/L at each treatment plant treating surface water or ground water under the  direct influence of surface water, based on monitoring conducted under either  subdivision B 3 e (1) (b) (vi) or B 3 i of this section.
    (iii) If the LRAA based on quarterly monitoring at any  monitoring location exceeds either 0.040 mg/L for TTHM or 0.030 mg/L for HAA5  or if the annual (or less frequent) sample at any location exceeds either 0.060  mg/L for TTHM or 0.045 mg/L for HAA5, or if the source water annual average TOC  level, before any treatment, is greater than 4.0 mg/L at any treatment plant  treating surface water or ground water under the direct influence of surface water,  the owner shall resume routine monitoring under subdivision B 3 e (3) (d) of  this section or begin increased monitoring if subdivision B 3 e (3) (g) of this  section applies.
    (iv) The commissioner may return the waterworks to routine  monitoring at the commissioner's discretion.
    (v) A waterworks may remain on reduced monitoring after the  dates identified in subdivision B 3 e (3) (c) of this section for compliance  with this section only if the waterworks qualifies for a 40/30 certification  under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (v) of this section or has received a very  small system waiver under subdivision B 3 e (2) (d) (vi) of this section, plus  the waterworks meets the reduced monitoring criteria in subdivision B 3 e (3)  (f) of this section, and the owner did not change or add monitoring locations  from those used for compliance monitoring under subdivision B 3 e (1) of this  section. If the monitoring locations under this subdivision differ from the  monitoring locations under subdivision B 3 e (1) of this section, the owner may  not remain on reduced monitoring after the dates identified in subdivision B 3  e (3) (c) of this section for compliance with this subdivision.
    (vi) Owners shall use an approved method listed in  12VAC5-590-440 for TTHM and HAA5 analyses. Analyses shall be conducted by  laboratories that have received certification by EPA or DCLS as specified in  12VAC5-590-440.
    (g) Increased Monitoring
    (i) Owners of waterworks required to monitor at a particular  location annually or less frequently than annually under subdivision B 3 e (3)  (d) or subdivision B 3 e (3) (f) of this section, shall increase monitoring to  dual sample sets once per quarter (taken every 90 days) at all locations if a  TTHM sample is greater than 0.080 mg/L or a HAA5 sample is greater than 0.060  mg/L at any location.
    (ii) A waterworks is in violation of the MCL when the LRAA  exceeds the MCLs in Table 2.13, calculated based on four consecutive quarters  of monitoring (or the LRAA calculated based on fewer than four quarters of data  if the MCL would be exceeded regardless of the monitoring results of subsequent  quarters). Waterworks are in violation of the monitoring requirements for each  quarter that a monitoring result would be used in calculating an LRAA if the  owner fails to monitor.
    (iii) Owners may return to routine monitoring once the  waterworks has conducted increased monitoring for at least four consecutive  quarters and the LRAA for every monitoring location is less than or equal to  0.060 mg/L for TTHM and less than or equal to 0.045 mg/L for HAA5.
    (iv) Owners of waterworks on increased monitoring under  subdivision e (1) in this section shall remain on increased monitoring until  the waterworks qualify for a return to routine monitoring under subdivision B 3  e (3) (g) (iii) of this section. The owner shall conduct increased monitoring  under subdivision B 3 e (3) (g) of this section at the monitoring locations in  the monitoring plan developed under subdivision B 3 e (3) (e) of this section  beginning at the date identified in subdivision B 3 e (3) (c) of this section  for compliance with this subdivision and remain on increased monitoring until  the waterworks qualifies for a return to routine monitoring under subdivision B  3 e (3) (g) (iii) of this section.
    (v) Owners shall use an approved method listed in  12VAC5-590-440 for TTHM and HAA5 analyses. Analyses shall be conducted by  laboratories that have received certification by EPA or DCLS as specified in  12VAC5-590-440.
    f. Chlorite. Owners of community and nontransient noncommunity  waterworks using chlorine dioxide, for disinfection or oxidation, shall conduct  monitoring for chlorite.
    (1) Routine monitoring.
    (a) Daily monitoring. Owners shall take daily samples at the  entrance to the distribution system. For any daily sample that exceeds the chlorite  PMCL in Table 2.13, the owner shall take additional samples in the distribution  system the following day at the locations required by subdivision B 3 f (1) (c)  of this section, in addition to the sample required at the entrance to the  distribution system.
    (b) Monthly monitoring. Owners shall take a three-sample set  each month in the distribution system. The owner shall take one sample at each  of the following locations: near the first customer, at a location  representative of average residence time, and at a location reflecting maximum  residence time in the distribution system. Any additional routine sampling  shall be conducted in the same manner (as three-sample sets, at the specified  locations). The owner may use the results of additional monitoring conducted  under subdivision B 3 f (1) (c) of this section to meet the requirement for  monitoring in this paragraph.
    (c) Additional monitoring requirements. On each day following  a routine sample monitoring result that exceeds the chlorite PMCL in Table 2.13  at the entrance to the distribution system, the owner is required to take three  chlorite distribution system samples at the following locations: as close to  the first customer as possible, in a location representative of average  residence time, and as close to the end of the distribution system as possible  (reflecting maximum residence time in the distribution system).
    (2) Reduced monitoring.
    (a) Chlorite monitoring at the entrance to the distribution  system required by subdivision B 3 f (1) (a) of this section may not be  reduced.
    (b) Chlorite monitoring in the distribution system required by  subdivision B 3 f (1) (b) of this section may be reduced to one three-sample  set per quarter after one year of monitoring where no individual chlorite  sample taken in the distribution system under subdivision B 3 f (1) (b) of this  section has exceeded the chlorite PMCL in Table 2.13 and the owner has not been  required to conduct monitoring under subdivision B 3 f (1) (c) of this section.  The owner may remain on the reduced monitoring schedule until either any of the  three individual chlorite samples taken quarterly in the distribution system  under subdivision B 3 f (1) (b) of this section exceeds the chlorite PMCL or  the owner is required to conduct monitoring under subdivision B 3 f (1) (c) of  this section, at which time the owner shall revert to routine monitoring.
    g. Bromate.
    (1) The owner of a community or nontransient noncommunity  waterworks treatment plant using ozone, for disinfection or oxidation, shall  take one sample per month and analyze it for bromate. The owner shall take  samples monthly at the entrance to the distribution system while the ozonation  system is operating under normal conditions.
    (2) Reduced monitoring.
    (a) Until March 31, 2009, owners of waterworks required to  analyze for bromate may reduce monitoring from monthly to quarterly, if the  waterworks average source water bromide concentration is less than 0.05 mg/L  based on representative monthly bromide measurements for one year. The owner  may remain on reduced bromate monitoring until the running annual average  source water bromide concentration, computed quarterly, is equal to or greater  than 0.05 mg/L based on representative monthly measurements. If the running  annual average source water bromide concentration is equal to or greater than  0.05 mg/L, the owner shall resume routine monitoring required by subdivision B  3 g (1) of this section in the following month.
    (b) Beginning April 1, 2009, owners may no longer use the  provisions of subdivision B 3 g (2) (a) of this section to qualify for reduced  monitoring. An owner required to analyze for bromate may reduce monitoring from  monthly to quarterly, if the waterworks running annual average bromate  concentration is equal to or less than 0.0025 mg/L based on monthly bromate  measurements under subdivision B 3 g (1) of this section for the most recent  four quarters, with samples analyzed in accordance with 12VAC5-590-440. If a  waterworks has qualified for reduced bromate monitoring under subdivision B 3 g  (2) (a) of this section, the owner may remain on reduced monitoring as long as  the running annual average of quarterly bromate samples is equal to or less  than 0.0025 mg/L based on samples analyzed in accordance with 12VAC5-590-440.  If the running annual average bromate concentration is greater than 0.0025  mg/L, the owner shall resume routine monitoring required by subdivision B 3 g  (1) of this section.
    (3) Bromide. Owners of waterworks required to analyze for  bromate may reduce bromate monitoring from monthly to once per quarter, if the  owner demonstrates that the average source water bromide concentration is less  than 0.05 mg/L based upon representative monthly measurements for one year. The  owner shall continue bromide monitoring to remain on reduced bromate  monitoring.
    h. Monitoring requirements for disinfectant residuals.
    (1) Chlorine and chloramines.
    (a) Owners of waterworks that use chlorine or chloramines  shall measure the residual disinfectant level in the distribution system at the  same point in the distribution system and at the same time as total coliforms  are sampled, as specified in subsection A. Owners of waterworks that use  surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of surface water may  use the results of residual disinfectant concentration sampling found in  subdivision B 7 c (1) of this section in lieu of taking separate samples.
    (b) Residual disinfectant level monitoring may not be reduced.
    (2) Chlorine dioxide.
    (a) Owners of waterworks that use chlorine dioxide for  disinfection or oxidation shall take daily samples at the entrance to the  distribution system. For any daily sample that exceeds the MRDL in Table 2.12,  the owner shall take samples in the distribution system the following day at  the locations required by subdivision B 3 h (2) (b) of this section, in  addition to the sample required at the entrance to the distribution system.
    (b) On each day following a routine sample monitoring result  that exceeds the MRDL in Table 2.12, the owner is required to take three  chlorine dioxide distribution system samples. If chlorine dioxide or  chloramines are used to maintain a disinfectant residual in the distribution  system, or if chlorine is used to maintain a disinfectant residual in the  distribution system and there are no disinfection addition points after the  entrance to the distribution system (i.e., no booster chlorination), the owner  shall take three samples as close to the first customer as possible, at  intervals of at least six hours. If chlorine is used to maintain a disinfectant  residual in the distribution system and there are one or more disinfection  addition points after the entrance to the distribution system (i.e., booster  chlorination), the owner shall take one sample at each of the following  locations: as close to the first customer as possible, in a location  representative of average residence time, and as close to the end of the  distribution system as possible (reflecting maximum residence time in the  distribution system).
    (c) Chlorine dioxide monitoring may not be reduced.
    i. Monitoring requirements for disinfection byproduct  precursors (DBPP).
    (1) Owners of community or nontransient noncommunity  waterworks using surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of  surface water and using conventional filtration treatment (as defined in  12VAC5-590-10) shall monitor each treatment plant for TOC no later than the  point of combined filter effluent turbidity monitoring and representative of  the treated water. All owners required to monitor under subdivision (B 3 i (1))  shall also monitor for TOC in the source water prior to any treatment at the  same time as monitoring for TOC in the treated water. These samples (source  water and treated water) are referred to as paired samples. At the same time as  the source water sample is taken, all owners shall monitor for alkalinity in  the source water prior to any treatment. Owners shall take one paired sample  and one source water alkalinity sample per month per plant at a time  representative of normal operating conditions and influent water quality.
    (2) Owners of community or nontransient noncommunity  waterworks that use surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of  surface water with an average treated water TOC of less than 2.0 mg/L for two  consecutive years, or less than 1.0 mg/L for one year, may reduce monitoring  for both TOC and alkalinity to one paired sample and one source water  alkalinity sample per plant per quarter. The owners shall revert to routine  monitoring in the month following the quarter when the annual average treated  water TOC equal to or greater than 2.0 mg/L.
    j. The owner of each waterworks required to monitor under  subdivision B 3 of this section shall develop and implement a monitoring plan.  The owner shall maintain the plan and make it available for inspection by the  commissioner and the general public no later than 30 days following the  applicable compliance dates in subdivision B 3 a of this section. The owners of  all community or nontransient noncommunity waterworks that use surface water or  groundwater under the direct influence of surface water serving more than 3,300  people shall submit a copy of the monitoring plan to the commissioner no later  than the date of the first report required under 12VAC5-590-530 A. The  commissioner may also require the plan to be submitted by any other owner.  After review, the commissioner may require changes in any plan elements. The  plan shall include at least the following elements:
    (1) Specific locations and schedules for collecting samples  for any parameters included in subdivision B 3 of this section.
    (2) How the owner will calculate compliance with PMCLs, MRDLs,  and treatment techniques.
    (3) The sampling plan for a consecutive waterworks shall  reflect the entire consecutive distribution system.
    4. Unregulated contaminants (UCs). Owners of all community and  nontransient noncommunity waterworks shall sample for the contaminants listed  in Table 2.6 and Table 2.7 as follows:
    a. Table 2.6—Group A
    (1) Owners of waterworks that use a surface water source in  whole or in part shall sample at the entry points to the distribution system  which is representative of each source, after treatment (hereafter called a  sampling point). The minimum number of samples is one year of consecutive  quarterly samples per sampling point beginning in accordance with Table 2.8.
    (2) Owners of waterworks that use groundwater shall sample at  points of entry to the distribution system which is representative of each  source (hereafter called a sampling point). The minimum number of samples is  one sample per sampling point beginning in accordance with Table 2.8.
    (3) The commissioner may require a confirmation sample for  positive or negative results.
    (4) Owners of waterworks serving less than 150 connections may  inform the commissioner, in writing, that their waterworks is available for  sampling instead of performing the required sampling.
    (5) All waterworks required to sample under this section shall  repeat the sampling at least every five years.
    b. Table 2.6—Group B and Table 2.7
    (1) The owner of each community and nontransient noncommunity  waterworks shall take four consecutive quarterly samples at the entry points to  the distribution system which is representative of each source (hereafter  called a sampling point) for each contaminant listed in Table 2.6 Group B and  report the results to the commissioner. Monitoring shall be completed by  December 31, 1995.
    (2) The owner of each community and nontransient noncommunity  waterworks shall take one sample at each sampling point for each contaminant  listed in Table 2.7 and report the results to the commissioner. Monitoring  shall be completed by December 31, 1995.
    (3) The owner of each community and nontransient noncommunity  waterworks may apply to the commissioner for a waiver from the monitoring  requirements of subdivisions B 4 b (1) and (2) of this section for the  contaminants listed in Table 2.6 Group B and Table 2.7.
    (4) The commissioner may grant a waiver for the requirement of  subdivision B 4 b (1) of this section based on the criteria specified in subdivision  B 2 f of this section. The commissioner may grant a waiver from the requirement  of subdivision B 4 b (2) of this section if previous analytical results  indicate contamination would not occur, provided this data was collected after  January 1, 1990.
    (5) If the waterworks utilizes more than one source and the  sources are combined before distribution, the owner shall sample at an entry  point to the distribution system during periods of normal operating conditions  (i.e., when water is representative of all sources being used).
    (6) The commissioner may require a confirmation sample for  positive or negative results.
    (7) Instead of performing the monitoring required by this  section, the owner of a community waterworks or nontransient noncommunity  waterworks serving fewer than 150 service connections may send a letter to the  commissioner stating that the waterworks is available for sampling. This letter  shall be sent to the commissioner by January 1, 1994. The owner shall not send  such samples to the commissioner unless requested to do so by the commissioner.
    (8) All waterworks required to sample under this subdivision  shall repeat the sampling at least every five years.
    5. Reserved.
    6. Reserved.
    7. Monitoring filtration and disinfection.
    a. The owner of a waterworks that uses a surface water source  or a groundwater source under the direct influence of surface water and  provides filtration treatment shall monitor in accordance with this section  beginning June 29, 1993, or when filtration is installed, whichever is later.
    b. Turbidity measurements as required by 12VAC5-590-370 C  shall be performed on representative samples of the filtered water every four  hours (or more frequently) that the waterworks serves water to the public. An  owner may substitute continuous turbidity monitoring for grab sample monitoring  if it validates the continuous measurement for accuracy on a regular basis  using a protocol approved by the commissioner. For any waterworks using slow  sand filtration or filtration treatment other than conventional treatment,  direct filtration, or diatomaceous earth filtration, the office may reduce the  sampling frequency to once per day if it determines that less frequent  monitoring is sufficient to indicate effective filtration performance. For  waterworks serving 500 or fewer persons, the commissioner may reduce the  turbidity sampling frequency to once per day, regardless of the type of  filtration treatment used, if the commissioner determines that less frequent  monitoring is sufficient to indicate effective filtration performance.
    (1) In addition to the above, as of January 1, 2001,  waterworks serving at least 10,000 people and as of January 1, 2005, waterworks  serving less than 10,000 people supplied by surface water or groundwater under  the direct influence of surface water using conventional filtration treatment  or direct filtration shall conduct continuous monitoring of turbidity for each  individual filter, using an approved method in 12VAC5-590-440. The turbidimeter  shall be calibrated using the procedure specified by the manufacturer. The  owner shall record the results of individual filter turbidity monitoring every  15 minutes.
    (2) If there is a failure in the continuous turbidity  monitoring equipment, the owner shall conduct grab sampling every four hours in  lieu of continuous monitoring but for no more than five working days (for  waterworks serving at least 10,000 people) or 14 days (for waterworks serving  less than 10,000 people) following the failure of the equipment.
    (3) If a waterworks serving less than 10,000 people consists  of two or fewer filters, continuous monitoring of the combined filter effluent  may be used in lieu of individual filter monitoring.
    c. The residual disinfectant concentration of the water  entering the distribution system shall be monitored continuously, and the  lowest value shall be recorded each day, except that if there is a failure in  the continuous monitoring equipment, grab sampling every four hours may be  conducted in lieu of continuous monitoring, but for no more than five working  days following the failure of the equipment, and owners of waterworks serving  3,300 or fewer persons may take grab samples in lieu of continuous monitoring  on an ongoing basis at the frequencies each day prescribed below:
           | Table 2.5Grab Sample Monitoring Frequency
 | 
       | Waterworks Size By Population | Samples/Day1 | 
       | 500 or less | 1 | 
       | 501 to 1,000 | 2 | 
       | 1,000 to 2,500 | 3 | 
       | 2,501 to 3,300 | 4 | 
       | 1The day's samples cannot be taken at the same time.    The sampling intervals are subject to commissioner's review and approval. If    at any time the residual disinfectant concentration falls below 0.2 mg/L in a    waterworks using grab sampling in lieu of continuous monitoring, the    waterworks owner shall take a grab sample every four hours until the residual    disinfectant concentration is equal to or greater than 0.2 mg/L. | 
  
    (1) The residual disinfectant concentration shall be measured  at least at the same points in the distribution system and at the same time as  total coliforms are sampled, as specified in subsection A of this section, except  that the district engineer may allow an owner which uses both a surface water  source or a groundwater source under direct influence of surface water, and a  groundwater source to take disinfectant residual samples at points other than  the total coliform sampling points if the division determines that such points  are more representative of treated (disinfected) water quality within the  distribution system. Heterotrophic bacteria, measured as heterotrophic plate  count (HPC) as specified in 12VAC5-590-420 B may be measured in lieu of  residual disinfectant concentration.
    (2) If the commissioner determines, based on site-specific  considerations, that a waterworks has no means for having a sample transported  and analyzed for HPC by a certified laboratory under the requisite time and  temperature conditions and that the waterworks is providing adequate  disinfection in the distribution system, the requirements of subdivision B 7  (1) of this section do not apply to that waterworks.
    d. The following information on the samples taken in the  distribution system in conjunction with total coliform monitoring pursuant to  12VAC5-590-420 B shall be reported monthly to the district engineer by the  owner:
    (1) Number of instances where the residual disinfectant  concentration is measured;
    (2) Number of instances where the residual disinfectant  concentration is not measured but HPC is measured;
    (3) Number of instances where the residual disinfectant  concentration is measured but not detected and no HPC is measured;
    (4) Number of instances where no residual disinfectant  concentration is detected and where the HPC is greater than 500/mL;
    (5) Number of instances where the residual disinfectant  concentration is not measured and HPC is greater than 500/mL.
    (6) For the current and previous month the waterworks serves  water to the public, the value of "V" in percent in the following  formula:
    V = (c + d + e) / (a + b) X 100
    where
    a = the value in subdivision B 7 d (1) of this section,
    b = the value in subdivision B 7 d (2) of this section,
    c = the value in subdivision B 7 d (3) of this section,
    d = the value in subdivision B 7 d (4) of this section,
    e = the value in subdivision B 7 d (5) of this section,
    (7) If the commissioner determines, based on site-specific  considerations, that an owner has no means for having a sample transported and  analyzed for HPC by a certified laboratory within the requisite time and  temperature conditions and that the waterworks is providing adequate  disinfection in the distribution system, the requirements of subdivision B 7 c  (1) of this section do not apply.
    e. An owner need not report the data listed in 12VAC5-590-530  C 2 a if all data listed in 12VAC5-590-530 C 2 a through c remain on file at  the waterworks and the district engineer determines that the owner has  submitted all the information required by 12VAC5-590-530 C 2 a through c for at  least 12 months.
    8. Operational. Owners may be required by the commissioner to  collect additional samples to provide quality control for any treatment  processes that are employed.
    C. Physical. All samples for turbidity analysis shall be  taken at a representative entry point or points to the water distribution  system unless otherwise specified. Turbidity samples shall be analyzed in  accordance with 12VAC5-590-480 B 1 a, at least once per day at all waterworks  that use surface water sources or groundwater sources under the direct  influence of surface water.
    D. Radiological. The location of sampling points, the  radionuclides measured in community waterworks, the frequency, and the timing  of sampling within each compliance period shall be established or approved by  the commissioner. The commissioner may increase required monitoring where  necessary to detect variations within the waterworks. Failure to comply with  the sampling schedules in this section will require public notification  pursuant to 12VAC5-590-540.
    Community waterworks owners shall conduct monitoring to  determine compliance with the PMCLs in Table 2.5 and 12VAC5-590-400 in  accordance with this section.
    1. Monitoring and compliance requirements for gross alpha  particle activity, radium-226, radium-228, and uranium.
    a. Community waterworks owners shall conduct initial  monitoring to determine compliance with 12VAC5-590-400 B 2, 12VAC5-590-400 B 3  and 12VAC5-590-400 B 4 by December 31, 2007. For the purposes of monitoring for  gross alpha particle activity, radium-226, radium-228, uranium, and beta  particle and photon radioactivity in drinking water, "detection  limit" is defined as in Appendix B of this chapter.
    (1) Applicability and sampling location for existing community  waterworks or sources. The owners of all existing community waterworks using  ground water, surface water or waterworks using both ground and surface water  shall sample at every entry point to the distribution system that is  representative of all sources being used under normal operating conditions. The  community waterworks owner shall take each sample at the same entry point  unless conditions make another sampling point more representative of each  source.
    (2) Applicability and sampling location for new community  waterworks or sources. All new community waterworks or community waterworks  that use a new source of water shall begin to conduct initial monitoring for  the new source within the first quarter after initiating use of the source.  Community waterworks owners shall conduct more frequent monitoring when  directed by the commissioner in the event of possible contamination or when  changes in the distribution system or treatment processes occur which may increase  the concentration of radioactivity in finished water.
    b. Initial monitoring: Community waterworks owners shall  conduct initial monitoring for gross alpha particle activity, radium-226,  radium-228, and uranium as follows:
    (1) Community waterworks without acceptable historical data,  as defined below, shall collect four consecutive quarterly samples at all entry  points before December 31, 2007.
    (2) Grandfathering of data: The commissioner may allow  historical monitoring data collected at an entry point to satisfy the initial  monitoring requirements for that entry point, for the following situations:
    (a) To satisfy initial monitoring requirements, a community  waterworks owner having only one entry point to the distribution system may use  the monitoring data from the last compliance monitoring period that began  between June 2000 and December 8, 2003.
    (b) To satisfy initial monitoring requirements, a community  waterworks owner with multiple entry points and having appropriate historical  monitoring data for each entry point to the distribution system may use the  monitoring data from the last compliance monitoring period that began between  June 2000 and December 8, 2003.
    (3) For gross alpha particle activity, uranium, radium-226,  and radium-228 monitoring, the commissioner may waive the final two quarters of  initial monitoring for an entry point if the results of the samples from the  previous two quarters are below the method detection limit specified in  Appendix B.
    (4) If the average of the initial monitoring results for an  entry point is above the PMCL, the community waterworks owner shall collect and  analyze quarterly samples at that entry point until the owner has results from  four consecutive quarters that are at or below the PMCL, unless the community  waterworks owner enters into another schedule as part of a formal compliance  agreement with the commissioner.
    c. Reduced monitoring: The commissioner may allow community  waterworks owners to reduce the future frequency of monitoring from once every  three years to once every six or nine years at each entry point, based on the  following criteria:
    (1) If the average of the initial monitoring results for each  contaminant (i.e., gross alpha particle activity, uranium, radium-226, or  radium-228) is below the method detection limit specified in Appendix B, the  community waterworks owner shall collect and analyze for that contaminant using  at least one sample at that entry point every nine years.
    (2) For gross alpha particle activity and uranium, if the  average of the initial monitoring results for each contaminant is at or above  the method detection limit specified in Appendix B but at or below 1/2 of the  PMCL, the community waterworks owner shall collect and analyze for that  contaminant using at least one sample at that entry point every six years. For  combined radium-226 and radium-228, the analytical results shall be combined.  If the average of the combined initial monitoring results for radium-226 and  radium-228 is at or above the method detection limit specified in Appendix B  but at or below 1/2 the PMCL, the community waterworks owner shall collect and  analyze for that contaminant using at least one sample at that entry point  every six years.
    (3) For gross alpha particle activity and uranium, if the  average of the initial monitoring results for each contaminant is above 1/2 the  PMCL but at or below the PMCL, the community waterworks owner shall collect and  analyze at least one sample at that entry point every three years. For combined  radium-226 and radium-228, the analytical results shall be combined. If the  average of the combined initial monitoring results for radium-226 and  radium-228 is above 1/2 the PMCL but at or below the MPCL, the community  waterworks owner shall collect and analyze at least one sample at that entry  point every three years.
    (4) Community waterworks owners shall use the samples  collected during the reduced monitoring period to determine the monitoring  frequency for subsequent monitoring periods (e.g., if a community waterworks'  entry point is on a nine-year monitoring period, and the sample result is above  1/2 the PMCL, then the next monitoring period for that entry point is three  years).
    (5) If a community waterworks owner has a monitoring result  that exceeds the PMCL while on reduced monitoring, the community waterworks  owner shall collect and analyze quarterly samples at that entry point until the  community waterworks owner has results from four consecutive quarters that are  below the PMCL, unless the community waterworks enters into another schedule as  part of a formal compliance agreement with the commissioner.
    d. Compositing: To fulfill quarterly monitoring requirements  for gross alpha particle activity, radium-226, radium-228, or uranium, a  community waterworks owner may composite up to four consecutive quarterly  samples from a single entry point if analysis is done within a year of the  first sample. The commissioner will treat analytical results from the  composited sample as the average analytical result to determine compliance with  the PMCLs and the future monitoring frequency. If the analytical result from  the composited sample is greater than 1/2 the PMCL, the commissioner may direct  the community waterworks owner to take additional quarterly samples before  allowing the community waterworks owner to sample under a reduced monitoring  schedule.
    e. A gross alpha particle activity measurement may be  substituted for the required radium-226 measurement provided that the measured  gross alpha particle activity does not exceed 5 pCi/L. A gross alpha particle  activity measurement may be substituted for the required uranium measurement  provided that the measured gross alpha particle activity does not exceed 15  pCi/L.
    The gross alpha measurement shall have a confidence interval  of 95% (1.65, where is the standard deviation of the net counting rate of the  sample) for radium-226 and uranium. When a community waterworks owner uses a  gross alpha particle activity measurement in lieu of a radium-226 and/or  uranium measurement, the gross alpha particle activity analytical result will  be used to determine the future monitoring frequency for radium-226 and/or  uranium. If the gross alpha particle activity result is less than the detection  limit as specified in Appendix B, 1/2 the detection limit will be used to determine  compliance and the future monitoring frequency.
    2. Monitoring and compliance requirements for beta particle  and photon radioactivity. To determine compliance with the maximum contaminant  levels in 12VAC5-590-400 B 5 for beta particle and photon radioactivity, a  community waterworks owner shall monitor at a frequency as follows:
    a. Community waterworks owners (using surface or groundwater)  designated by the commissioner as vulnerable shall sample for beta particle and  photon radioactivity. Community waterworks owners shall collect quarterly  samples for beta emitters and annual samples for tritium and strontium-90 at  each entry point to the distribution system, beginning within one quarter after  being notified by the commissioner. Community waterworks already designated by  the commissioner shall continue to sample until the commissioner reviews and  either reaffirms or removes the designation.
    (1) If the gross beta particle activity minus the naturally  occurring potassium-40 beta particle activity at an entry point has a running  annual average (computed quarterly) less than or equal to 50 pCi/L (screening  level), the commissioner may reduce the frequency of monitoring at that entry  point to once every three years. Community waterworks owners shall collect all  samples required in subdivision 2 a of this subsection during the reduced  monitoring period.
    (2) For community waterworks in the vicinity of a nuclear  facility, the commissioner may allow the community waterworks owners to utilize  environmental surveillance data collected by the nuclear facility in lieu of  monitoring at the community waterworks' entry point(s), where the commissioner  determines if such data is applicable to a particular community waterworks. In  the event that there is a release from a nuclear facility, community waterworks  owners which are using surveillance data shall begin monitoring at the  community waterworks' entry point(s) in accordance with subdivision 2 a of this  subsection.
    b. Community waterworks owners (using surface or groundwater)  designated by the commissioner as utilizing waters contaminated by effluents  from nuclear facilities shall sample for beta particle and photon  radioactivity. Community waterworks owners shall collect quarterly samples for  beta emitters and iodine-131 and annual samples for tritium and strontium-90 at  each entry point to the distribution system, beginning within one quarter after  being notified by the commissioner. Owners of community waterworks already  designated by the commissioner as using waters contaminated by effluents from  nuclear facilities shall continue to sample until the commissioner reviews and  either reaffirms or removes the designation.
    (1) Quarterly monitoring for gross beta particle activity  shall be based on the analysis of monthly samples or the analysis of a  composite of three monthly samples. The former is recommended.
    (2) For iodine-131, a composite of five consecutive daily  samples shall be analyzed once each quarter. As directed by the commission,  more frequent monitoring shall be conducted when iodine-131 is identified in  the finished water.
    (3) Annual monitoring for strontium-90 and tritium shall be  conducted by means of the analysis of a composite of four consecutive quarterly  samples or analysis of four quarterly samples. The latter procedure is  recommended.
    (4) If the gross beta particle activity minus the naturally  occurring potassium-40 beta particle activity at a sampling point has a running  annual average (computed quarterly) less than or equal to 15 pCi/L (screening  level), the commissioner may reduce the frequency of monitoring at that  sampling point to every three years. Community waterworks owners shall collect  all samples required in subdivision 2 b of this subsection during the reduced  monitoring period.
    (5) For community waterworks in the vicinity of a nuclear  facility, the commissioner may allow the community waterworks owner to utilize  environmental surveillance data collected by the nuclear facility in lieu of  the monitoring at the community waterworks' entry point(s), where the  commissioner determines such data is applicable to a particular waterworks. In  the event that there is a release from a nuclear facility, community waterworks  owners which are using surveillance data shall begin monitoring at the  community waterworks' entry point(s) in accordance with subdivision 2 b of this  subsection.
    c. Owners of community waterworks designated by the  commissioner to monitor for beta particle and photon radioactivity can not  apply to the commissioner for a waiver from the monitoring frequencies  specified in subdivision 2 a or b of this subsection.
    d. Community waterworks owners may analyze for naturally  occurring potassium-40 beta particle activity from the same or equivalent  sample used for the gross beta particle activity analysis. Community waterworks  owners are allowed to subtract the potassium-40 beta particle activity value  from the total gross beta particle activity value to determine if the screening  level is exceeded. The potassium-40 beta particle activity shall be calculated  by multiplying elemental potassium concentrations (in mg/L) by a factor of  0.82.
    e. If the gross beta particle activity minus the naturally  occurring potassium-40 beta particle activity exceeds the appropriate screening  level, an analysis of the sample shall be performed to identify the major  radioactive constituents present in the sample and the appropriate doses shall  be calculated and summed to determine compliance with 12VAC5-590-400 B 5 a,  using the formula in 12VAC590-400 B 5 b. Doses shall also be calculated and  combined for measured levels of tritium and strontium to determine compliance.
    f. Community waterworks owners shall monitor monthly at the  entry point(s) which exceed the maximum contaminant level in 12VAC5-590-400 B 5  beginning the month after the exceedance occurs. Community waterworks owners  shall continue monthly monitoring until the community waterworks has  established, by a rolling average of three monthly samples, that the PMCL is  being met. Community waterworks owners who establish that the PMCL is being met  shall return to quarterly monitoring until they meet the requirements set forth  in subdivision 2 a (1) or 2 b (4) of this subsection.
    3. General monitoring and compliance requirements for  radionuclides.
    a. The commissioner may require more frequent monitoring than  specified in subdivisions 1 and 2 of this subsection, or may require  confirmation samples at his discretion. The results of the initial and  confirmation samples shall be averaged for use in compliance determinations.
    b. Each community waterworks owner shall monitor at the time  designated by the commissioner during each compliance period.
    c. Compliance: Compliance with 12VAC5-590-400 B 2 through  12VAC5-590-400 B 5 will be determined based on the analytical results(s)  obtained at each entry point. If one entry point is in violation of a PMCL, the  community waterworks is in violation of the PMCL.
    (1) For community waterworks monitoring more than once per  year, compliance with the PMCL is determined by a running annual average at  each entry point. If the average of any entry point is greater than the PMCL,  then the community waterworks is out of compliance with the PMCL.
    (2) For community waterworks monitoring more than once per  year, if any sample result will cause the running average to exceed the PMCL at  any entry point, the community waterworks is out of compliance with the PMCL  immediately.
    (3) Community waterworks owners shall include all samples  taken and analyzed under the provisions of this section in determining compliance,  even if that number is greater than the minimum required.
    (4) If a community waterworks owner does not collect all  required samples when compliance is based on a running annual average of  quarterly samples, compliance will be based on the running average of the  samples collected.
    (5) If a sample result is less than the method detection limit  as specified in Appendix B, zero will be used to calculate the annual average,  unless a gross alpha particle activity is being used in lieu of radium-226 and/or  uranium. If the gross alpha particle activity result is less than the method  detection limit as specified in Appendix B, 1/2 the method detection limit will  be used to calculate the annual average.
    d. The commissioner has the discretion to delete results of  obvious sampling or analytic errors.
    e. If the PMCL for radioactivity set forth in 12VAC5-590-400 B  through 12VAC5-590-400 B 5 is exceeded, the owner of a community waterworks  shall give notice to the commissioner pursuant to 12VAC5-590-530 and to the  public as required by 12VAC5-590-540.
    12VAC5-590-379. Groundwater system monitoring.
    A. General monitoring requirements.
    1. Owners of groundwater systems, including consecutive and  wholesale waterworks, shall conduct monitoring in accordance with this section,  except that requirements do not apply to waterworks that combine all of their  groundwater with surface water or with groundwater under the direct influence  of surface water prior to treatment in accordance with 12VAC5-590-420.
    2. Source water monitoring for owners of groundwater  systems that do not provide 4-log treatment of viruses for their groundwater  sources before or at the first customer are described in subsection B of this  section.
    3. Owners of groundwater systems that provide at least  4-log treatment of viruses before or at the first customer are required to  conduct compliance monitoring in accordance with 12VAC5-590-421 C.
    4. Owners of groundwater systems that have confirmed fecal  contamination, as determined by source water monitoring conducted under  subsection B of this section or have been notified of a significant deficiency  as described in 12VAC5-590-350 D shall implement one or more of the corrective  actions outlined in 12VAC5-590-421 A 1, as prescribed by the commissioner.
    5. Owners of groundwater systems that do not provide 4-log  treatment of viruses before or at the first customer and are not performing  compliance monitoring shall provide triggered source water monitoring plans to  the commissioner.
    6. Any source water sample collected in accordance with  this section shall be analyzed for E. coli using one of the analytical methods  in 40 CFR 141.402 (c).
    B. Groundwater source microbial monitoring.
    1. Triggered source water monitoring.
    a. General requirements. Groundwater system owners shall  conduct triggered source water monitoring if both the conditions identified in  subdivisions B 1 a (1) and (2) of this section exist.
    (1) The groundwater system does not provide at least 4-log  treatment of viruses before or at the first customer for each groundwater  source; and
    (2) The groundwater system owner is notified that a sample  collected under 12VAC5-590-370 A is total coliform-positive and the sample is  not invalidated under 12VAC5-590-380 E.
    b. Sampling requirements. Groundwater system owners shall  collect, within 24 hours of notification of the total coliform-positive sample,  one groundwater source sample from each groundwater source in use at the time  the total coliform-positive sample was collected under 12VAC5-590-370 A, except  as provided in this subdivision B 1 b.
    (1) The commissioner may extend the 24-hour time limit on a  case-by-case basis if the owner cannot collect the groundwater source water  sample within 24 hours due to circumstances beyond his control. In the case of  an extension, the commissioner shall specify how much time the owner has to  collect the sample.
    (2) If approved by the commissioner, owners of waterworks  with more than one groundwater source may meet the requirements of subdivision  B 1 of this section by sampling a representative groundwater source or sources.  Owners shall submit, for the commissioner's approval, a triggered source water  monitoring plan that identifies one or more groundwater sources that are  representative of each monitoring site in the waterworks' bacteriological  sample siting report or that identifies groundwater sources that are  hydro-geologically similar and clearly identifies which sources will be  sampled.
    (3) A groundwater system serving 1,000 people or fewer may  use a triggered source water sample collected from a groundwater source to meet  both the requirements of 12VAC5-590-380 and to satisfy the monitoring  requirements of subdivision B 1 of this section for a groundwater source.
    c. Additional requirements.
    (1) If an E. coli positive triggered source water sample  collected under subdivision B 1 of this section is not invalidated under  subdivision B 2 of this section, the groundwater system owner shall provide  public notification and collect five additional source water samples from the  same source within 24 hours of being notified of the E. coli positive sample.
    (2) If any of the five additional samples are E. coli  positive, the groundwater system owner shall comply with the treatment  technique requirements of 12VAC5-590-421.
    d. Consecutive and wholesale waterworks.
    (1) A consecutive groundwater system owner that has a total  coliform-positive sample collected in accordance with 12VAC5-590-370 A shall  notify the wholesale waterworks owner and the district engineer within  24 hours of being notified of the total coliform-positive sample.
    (2) A wholesale groundwater system owner shall comply with  the following:
    (a) A wholesale groundwater system owner that receives  notice from a consecutive waterworks it serves that a sample collected in  accordance with 12VAC5-590-370 A is total coliform-positive shall, within 24  hours of being notified, collect a sample from its groundwater source(s) as  described in subdivision B 1 of this section.
    (b) If the sample collected under subdivision B 1 of this  section is E. coli positive, the wholesale groundwater system owner shall  within 24 hours notify all consecutive waterworks served by that groundwater  source of the E. coli source water positive sample as described in  12VAC5-590-540 and shall meet the requirements of subdivision B 1 c of this  section.
    e. Exception to the triggered source water monitoring  requirements. A groundwater system owner is not required to comply with the  source water monitoring requirements of subdivision B 1 of this section if the  commissioner determines, and documents in writing, that the total  coliform-positive sample collected in accordance with 12VAC5-590-370 A is  invalidated under 12VAC5-590-380 E.
    2. Invalidation of an E. coli positive groundwater source  sample.
    a. A groundwater system owner may obtain the commissioner's  invalidation of an E. coli positive groundwater source sample collected under  subdivision B 1 of this section only under the conditions specified in  subdivisions B 2 a (1) and (2) of this section:
    (1) The groundwater system owner provides the commissioner  with written notice from the laboratory that improper sample analysis occurred;  or
    (2) The commissioner determines and documents in writing  that there is substantial evidence that the E. coli positive groundwater source  sample is not related to source water quality.
    b. If the commissioner invalidates an E. coli positive  groundwater source sample, the groundwater system owner shall collect another  source water sample under subdivision B 1 of this section within 24 hours of being  notified by the commissioner of the invalidation decision and have it analyzed  for E. coli.
    3. Sampling location. All groundwater source samples  required under subdivision B 1 of this section shall be collected at a location  prior to any treatment of the groundwater source unless otherwise approved by  the commissioner.
    4. Public notification. The owner of a groundwater system  with a source sample collected under subsection B of this section that is E.  coli positive and that is not invalidated under subdivision B 2 of this  section, including consecutive waterworks served by the groundwater source,  shall conduct public notification as required in 12VAC5-590-540 A 1.
    5. Monitoring violations. Failure to meet the monitoring  requirements of subdivision B 1 of this section is a violation and requires the  groundwater system owner to provide public notification as required in  12VAC5-590-540 A 3.
    12VAC5-590-380. Bacteriological quality.
    A. The standard sample volume for the coliform test shall  consist of 100 milliliters.
    B. Waterworks need only to determine the presence or absence  of total coliforms; a determination of total coliform density is not required.
    C. Primary Maximum Contaminant Levels (PMCLs) for  microbiological contaminants.
    1. The PMCL is based on the presence or absence of total  coliforms in a sample, rather than coliform density.
    a. A waterworks which is required to collect at least 40  samples per month is in compliance if no more than 5.0% of the samples  collected during a month are total coliform positive.
    b. A waterworks which is required to collect fewer than 40  samples per month is in compliance if no more than one sample collected during  the month is total coliform positive.
    2. Any fecal coliform positive repeat sample or E. coli  positive repeat sample, or any total coliform positive repeat sample following  a fecal coliform positive or E. coli positive routine sample constitutes a  violation of the PMCL for total coliforms. For purposes of the public  notification requirements in 12VAC5-590-540, this is a violation that may pose  an acute risk to health and is a Tier 1 condition.
    3. Compliance must be determined with the PMCL for total  coliforms for each month in which monitoring for total coliforms is required.
    4. The board hereby identifies the following as the best  technology, treatment techniques, or other means available for achieving  compliance with the maximum contaminant level for total coliforms.
    a. Protection of wells from contamination by coliforms by  appropriate placement and construction;
    b. Maintenance of a disinfectant residual throughout the  distribution system;
    c. Proper maintenance of the distribution system including  appropriate pipe replacement and repair procedures, main flushing programs,  proper operation and maintenance of storage tanks and reservoirs, continual  maintenance of positive water pressure in all parts of the distribution system  and an approved cross connection control program;
    d. Filtration and disinfection of surface water or surface  influenced groundwater or disinfection of ground water using strong oxidants  such as chlorine, chlorine dioxide, or ozone.
    D. A total coliform positive result is indicative of a  breakdown in the protective barriers and shall be cause for special follow-up  action to locate and eliminate the cause of contamination.
    1. Repeat monitoring. If a routine sample is total coliform  positive, the waterworks owner shall collect a set of repeat samples within 24  hours of being notified of the positive result. A waterworks owner who collects  more than one routine sample a month shall collect no fewer than three repeat  samples for each total coliform positive sample found. A waterworks owner who  collects one routine sample a month or fewer shall collect no fewer than four  repeat samples for each total coliform positive sample found. For  groundwater systems, the requirements of 12VAC5-590-379 shall also apply.  Owners of groundwater systems who are required to collect four repeat samples  may use one of the repeat samples to satisfy the requirements of 12VAC5-590-379.  These repeat samples must be analyzed for E. coli using one of the analytical  methods in 40 CFR 141.402 (c).
    2. The waterworks owner shall collect at least one repeat  sample from the sampling tap where the original total coliform positive sample  was taken, and at least one repeat sample at a tap within five service  connections upstream and at least one repeat sample at a tap within five  service connections downstream of the original sampling site. If a total  coliform positive sample is at the end of the distribution system, or one away  from the end of the distribution system, the division commissioner  may waive the requirement to collect at least one repeat sample upstream or  downstream of the original sampling site.
    3. The waterworks owner shall collect all repeat samples on  the same day, except the division commissioner may allow a  waterworks with a single service connection to collect the required set of  repeat samples over a four-day period or to collect a larger volume repeat  sample(s) in one or more sample containers of any size as long as the total  volume collected is at least 400 ml (300 ml for systems which collect more than  one routine sample per month).
    4. If one or more repeat samples in the set is total coliform  positive, the waterworks owner shall collect an additional set of repeat  samples in the manner specified in subdivisions 1 through 3 of this subsection.  The additional samples shall be collected within 24 hours of being notified of  the positive result. The waterworks owner shall repeat this process until  either (i) total coliforms are not detected in one complete set of repeat  samples or (ii) the PMCL for total coliforms has been exceeded and the division  commissioner so notified.
    5. Waterworks owners required to collect fewer than five  routine samples per month and having one or more total coliform positive  samples shall collect at least five routine samples during the next month the  waterworks provides water to the public, except that the division commissioner  may waive this requirement if the conditions of subdivision 5 a or 5 b of this  subsection are met. The division commissioner shall not waive the  requirement for a system to collect repeat samples in subdivisions 1 through 4  of this subsection. For groundwater systems, if any of the routine samples  collected in accordance with subdivision D 5 of this section are total coliform  positive, then the requirements of 12VAC5-590-379 shall apply.
    a. The division commissioner may waive the  requirement to collect five routine samples the next month the waterworks  provides water to the public if the division (or an agent of the owner  previously approved by the division) commissioner (or an agent  previously approved by the commissioner), performs a site visit before the  end of the next month the waterworks provides water to the public. Although a  sanitary survey need not be performed, the site visit shall be sufficiently  detailed to allow the division commissioner to determine whether  additional monitoring or any corrective action is needed.
    b. The division commissioner may waive the  requirement to collect five routine samples the next month the waterworks  provides water to the public if the division commissioner has  determined why the sample was total coliform positive and establishes that the  waterworks owner has corrected the problem or will correct the problem before  the end of the next month the waterworks serves water to the public. In this  case, the division commissioner shall document this decision to  waive the following month's additional monitoring requirement in writing,  have it approved and signed by the supervisor of the state official who  recommends such a decision, and make this document available to the EPA and  public. The written documentation shall describe the specific cause of the  total coliform positive sample and what action the waterworks owner has taken  or will take to correct this problem. The division commissioner  cannot waive the requirement to collect five routine samples the next month the  waterworks provides water to the public solely on the grounds that all repeat  samples are total coliform negative. Under this subdivision, a waterworks owner  shall still take at least one routine sample before the end of the next month  it serves water to the public and use the results to determine compliance with  the MCL for total coliforms.
    6. Results of all routine and repeat samples not invalidated  by the division commissioner shall be included in determining  compliance with the MCL for total coliforms.
    7. Special purpose samples, such as those taken to determine  whether disinfection practices are sufficient following pipe placement,  replacement or repair, shall not be used to determine compliance. Repeat  samples are not considered special purpose samples.
    E. A total coliform positive sample invalidated under this  paragraph does not count towards meeting the minimum monitoring requirements of  this section.
    1. The division commissioner may invalidate a  total coliform positive sample only if all of the following conditions are met:
    a. The laboratory establishes that improper sample analysis  caused the total coliform positive result;
    b. The division commissioner, on the basis of  the results of repeat samples collected as required by subdivisions D 1 through  4 of this section determines that the total coliform positive sample resulted  from a domestic or other nondistribution system plumbing problem. The division  commissioner cannot invalidate a sample on the basis of repeat sample  results unless all repeat sample(s) collected at the same tap as the original  total coliform-positive sample are also total coliform-positive, and all repeat  samples collected within five service connections of the original tap are total  coliform-negative (e.g., the division commissioner cannot  invalidate a total coliform-positive sample on the basis of repeat samples if  all the repeat samples are total coliform-negative, or if the waterworks has  only one service connection); and
    c. The division commissioner has substantial  grounds to believe that a total coliform positive result is due to a  circumstance or condition which does not reflect water quality in the  distribution system. In this case, the waterworks owner shall still collect all  repeat samples required under subdivisions D 1 through 4 of this section, and use  them to determine compliance with the MCL for total coliforms. To invalidate a  total coliform positive sample under this subdivision, the decision with the  rationale for the decision shall be documented in writing, and approved and  signed by the supervisor of the field engineer who recommended the decision  commissioner. The division commissioner shall make this  document available to EPA and the public. The written documentation shall state  the specific cause of the total coliform positive sample, and what action the  waterworks owner has taken, or will take, to correct this problem. The division  commissioner shall not invalidate a total coliform positive sample  solely on the grounds that all repeat samples are total coliform negative.
    2. A laboratory must invalidate a sample because of sampling  interference (i.e., turbid culture in absence of (i) gas production, or (ii)  acid reaction; or exhibition of confluent growth; or production of colonies too  numerous to count). The waterworks owners shall collect a replacement sample  from the same location, and have it analyzed for the presence of total  coliforms. The waterworks owner must continue to resample within 24 hours and  have the samples analyzed until they obtain a valid result. The division  commissioner may waive the 24-hour time limit on a case-by-case basis.
    F. Fecal coliforms/Escherichia coli (E. coli) testing.
    1. If any routine or repeat sample or replacement is total  coliform positive, the waterworks owner shall analyze that total coliform  positive culture medium to determine if fecal coliforms are present, except  that the waterworks owner may test for E. coli in lieu of fecal coliforms. If  fecal coliforms or E. coli are present, the waterworks owner must notify the division's  appropriate field office ODW by the end of the day when the  waterworks is notified of the test result, unless the division's ODW's  field office is closed, in which case the division commissioner  must be notified before the end of the next business day.
    2. The division commissioner has the discretion  to allow a waterworks, on a case-by-case basis, to forgo fecal coliform or E.  coli testing on a total coliform-positive sample if that waterworks assumes  that the total coliform-positive sample is fecal coliform-positive or E.  coli-positive. Accordingly, the waterworks must notify the division commissioner  as specified in subdivision 1 of this subsection and the provisions of  subdivision C 2 of this section apply.
    G. Violation determination flowchart -- See Appendix K.
    H. Groundwater sources.
    1. Groundwater sources shall be disinfected in  accordance with 12VAC5-590-1000 when the total coliform geometric  mean of 20 or more raw water samples (measured by the  multiple-portion decimal-dilution (MPN) method) measured by a method  yielding a multiple-portion decimal-dilution (MPN) result is greater than  three. The value 1.0 shall be used to represent a negative coliform result  in the calculation of the geometric mean.
    2. Groundwater sources containing a total  coliform concentrations as measured by the multiple-portion decimal-dilution  (MPN) method geometric mean of 100 or more organisms per 100  milliliters based on the geometric mean of 20 or with more than  10% of these samples exceeding 100 organisms per 100 milliliters  constitutes unacceptable contamination for disinfection treatment only.
    3. Groundwater with widely fluctuating or increasing  bacteriological results may be determined by the division to be unsuitable for  disinfection treatment alone sources shall be disinfected in accordance  the requirements of 12VAC5-590-1000 when the source water quality contributes  to the waterworks' failure to meet the bacteriological PMCL specified in  subsection C of this section.
    4. Groundwater sources shall be disinfected in accordance  with 12VAC5-590-421 A 1 d when the results of source development samples  specified in 12VAC5-590-840 B 11 indicate the presence of E. coli in two or  more samples.
    5. Groundwater sources shall be disinfected in accordance  with 12VAC5-590-421 A 1 d when the results of raw water monitoring conducted in  accordance with 12VAC5-590-425 indicate the presence of E. coli in two or more  samples during any running six-month period.
    I. Groundwater systems conducting source water monitoring  as described in 12VAC5-590-379 shall determine the presence or absence of E.  coli. All samples shall be analyzed in accordance with 12VAC5-590-440 by the  DCLS or by a laboratory certified by DCLS for drinking water samples.
    12VAC5-590-410. Determination of compliance.
    For the purposes of determining compliance with a PMCL or  action level, the following criteria shall be used:
    A. Bacteriological results. Compliance with the PMCL for  coliform bacteria shall be determined as specified in 12VAC5-590-380 C. Repeat  samples shall be used as a basis for determining compliance with these  regulations.
    B. Inorganic chemicals.
    1. Antimony, arsenic, asbestos, barium, beryllium, cadmium,  cyanide (as free cyanide), chromium, fluoride, mercury, nickel, selenium, and  thallium. Where the results of sampling for antimony, arsenic, asbestos,  barium, beryllium, cadmium, cyanide (as free cyanide), chromium, fluoride,  mercury, nickel, selenium, or thallium exceed the PMCL, the owner shall take a  confirmation sample, at the same sampling point, within two weeks of  notification of the analytical results of the first sample.
    a. The results of the initial and confirmation samples shall  be averaged to determine compliance with subdivision B 1 c of this subsection.  The commissioner has the discretion to delete results of obvious sampling errors.
    b. The commissioner may require more frequent monitoring.
    c. Compliance with antimony, arsenic, asbestos, barium,  beryllium, cadmium, cyanide (as free cyanide), chromium, fluoride, mercury,  nickel, selenium, and thallium in Table 2.2 of 12VAC5-590-440 shall be  determined based on the analytical result(s) obtained at each sampling point.
    (1) Owners that are conducting monitoring more frequently than  annually, compliance with the PMCL for antimony, arsenic, asbestos, barium,  beryllium, cadmium, cyanide (as free cyanide), chromium, fluoride, mercury,  nickel, selenium, and thallium is determined by a running annual average at  each sampling point. If the average at any sampling point is greater than the  PMCL, then the waterworks is out of compliance. If any one sample would cause  the annual average to be exceeded, then the waterworks is out of compliance  immediately. Any sample below the method detection limit shall be calculated at  zero for the purpose of determining the annual average. If an owner fails to collect  the required number of samples, compliance (average concentration) shall be  based on the total number of samples collected.
    (2) Owners that are monitoring annually, or less frequently,  the waterworks is not out of compliance with the PMCL for antimony,  arsenic, asbestos, barium, beryllium, cadmium, cyanide (as free cyanide),  chromium, fluoride, mercury, nickel, selenium, and thallium if the average of  the original sample and a confirmation sample of a contaminant at any sampling  point is greater than the PMCL. Owners of waterworks monitoring annually or  less frequently whose sample result exceeds the PMCL shall begin quarterly  sampling. The waterworks shall not be considered in violation of the PMCL until  it has completed one year of quarterly sampling. However, if the confirmation  sample is not collected, the waterworks is in violation of the PMCL for  antimony, arsenic, asbestos, barium, beryllium, cadmium, cyanide (as free  cyanide), chromium, fluoride, mercury, nickel, selenium, or thallium. If an owner  fails to collect the required number of samples, compliance (average  concentration) shall be based on the total number of samples collected.
    2. Nitrate and nitrite. Compliance with the PMCL is determined  based on one sample from each sampling point if the levels of these  contaminants are below the PMCLs. Where nitrate or nitrite sample results  exceed the PMCL, the owner shall take a confirmation sample from the same  sampling point that exceeded the PMCL within 24 hours of the owner's receipt of  the analytical results of the first sample. The results of the initial and  confirmation sample shall be averaged to determine compliance with this  subdivision. Owners unable to comply with the 24-hour sampling requirement  shall immediately notify the consumers in the area served by the waterworks in  accordance with 12VAC5-590-540. Owners exercising this option shall take and  analyze a confirmation sample within two weeks of notification of the  analytical results of the first sample. The commissioner may require more  frequent monitoring. The commissioner has the discretion to delete results of  obvious sampling errors.
    C. Organic chemicals.
    1. VOCs and SOCs. A confirmation sample shall be required for  positive results for contaminants listed in Table 2.3. The commissioner has the  discretion to delete results of obvious sampling errors from this calculation.
    a. The results of the initial and confirmation sample shall be  averaged to determine the waterworks' compliance in accordance with subdivision  C 1 b of this subsection.
    b. Compliance with Table 2.3 shall be determined based on the  analytical results obtained at each sampling point. Any samples below the  detection limit shall be calculated as zero for the purposes of determining the  annual average. (Note: Refer to detection definition at 12VAC5-590-370 B 2 h.)  If an owner fails to collect the required number of samples, compliance  (average concentration) will be based on the total number of samples collected.
    (1) Owners that are conducting monitoring more frequently than  annually, compliance is determined by a running annual average of all samples  taken at each sampling point. If the annual average of any sampling point is  greater than the PMCL, then the waterworks is out of compliance. If the initial  sample or a subsequent sample would cause the annual average to be exceeded,  then the waterworks is out of compliance immediately. Any samples below the  detection limit shall be calculated as zero for purposes of determining the  annual average. (Note: Refer to detection definition at 12VAC5-590-370 B 2 h.)
    (2) If monitoring is conducted annually, or less frequently,  the waterworks is not in violation if the average of the initial and  confirmation sample is greater than the PMCL for that contaminant; however, the  owner shall begin quarterly sampling. The waterworks will not be considered in  violation of the PMCL until the owner has completed one year of quarterly  sampling. If any sample will cause the running annual average to exceed the  PMCL at any sampling point, the waterworks is immediately out of compliance  with the PMCL.
    2. Disinfectant residuals, disinfection byproducts and  disinfection byproduct precursors. Compliance with 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 a through  B 3 k is as follows:
    a. General requirements.
    (1) Where compliance is based on a running annual average of  monthly or quarterly samples or averages and the owner fails to monitor for  TTHM, HAA5, or bromate, this failure to monitor will be treated as a monitoring  violation for the entire period covered by the annual average. Where compliance  is based on a running annual average of monthly or quarterly samples or  averages and the owner's failure to monitor makes it impossible to determine  compliance with MRDLs for chlorine and chloramines, this failure to monitor  shall be treated as a monitoring violation for the entire period covered by the  annual average.
    (2) All samples taken and analyzed under subdivision C 2 of  this section shall be included in determining compliance, even if that number  is greater than the minimum required.
    (3) If during the first year of monitoring under  12VAC5-590-370 B 3 b, any individual quarter's average will cause the running  annual average of that waterworks to exceed the PMCL in Table 2.12 and Table  2.13, the waterworks is out of compliance at the end of that quarter.
    b. Disinfection byproducts.
    (1) TTHMs and HAA5.
    (a) Running Annual Average. All waterworks using surface water  or groundwater under the direct influence of surface water serving 10,000 or  more persons shall comply with this section beginning January 1, 2002. All  waterworks using surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of  surface water serving less than 10,000 persons and all waterworks using  groundwater not under the direct influence of surface water shall comply with this  section beginning January 1, 2004. All waterworks shall comply with this  section until the dates listed in 12VAC5-590-370 B e (3) (c).
    (i) For waterworks monitoring quarterly, compliance with PMCLs  in Table 2.13 shall be based on a running annual arithmetic average, computed  quarterly, of quarterly arithmetic averages of all samples collected by the  owner as prescribed by 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 e (1).
    (ii) For waterworks monitoring less frequently than quarterly,  the owner demonstrates PMCL compliance if the average of samples taken that  year under the provisions of 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 e (1) does not exceed the PMCLs  in Table 2.13. If the average of these samples exceeds the PMCL, the owner  shall increase monitoring to once per quarter per treatment plant and such a  waterworks is not in violation of the PMCL until it has completed one year of  quarterly monitoring, unless the result of fewer then four quarter of  monitoring will cause the running annual average to exceed the PMCL, in which  case the waterworks is in violation at the end of that quarter. Owners of  waterworks required to increase monitoring frequency to quarterly monitoring  shall calculate compliance by including the sample that triggered the increase  monitoring plus the following three quarter of monitoring.
    (iii) If the running annual arithmetic average of quarterly  averages covering any consecutive four-quarter period exceeds the PMCL in Table  2.12 and Table 2.13, the waterworks is in violation of the PMCL and the owner  shall notify the public pursuant to 12VAC5-590-540 in addition to reporting to  the commissioner pursuant to 12VAC5-590-530.
    (iv) If an owner fails to complete four consecutive quarters  of monitoring, compliance with the PMCL in Table 2.13 for the last four-quarter  compliance period shall be based on an average of the available data.
    (b) Locational Running Annual Average (LRAA). All waterworks  shall comply with this section beginning on the dates listed in 12VAC5-590-370  B e (3) (c).
    (i) Owners of waterworks required to monitor quarterly shall  calculate LRAAs for TTHM and HAA5 using monitoring results collected under  12VAC5-590-370 B 3 e (3) and determine that each LRAA does not exceed the PMCL  in order to comply with PMCLs in Table 2.13. If the owner fails to complete  four consecutive quarters of monitoring, the owner shall calculate compliance  with the PMCL based on the average of the available data from the most recent  four quarters. If the owner takes more than one sample per quarter at a  monitoring location, the owner shall average all samples taken in the quarter  at that location to determine a quarterly average to be used in the LRAA  calculation.
    (ii) Owners of waterworks required to monitor yearly or less  frequently shall determine that each sample taken is less than the PMCL in order  to determine compliance with PMCLs in Table 2.13. If any sample exceeds the  PMCL, the owner shall comply with the requirements of 12VAC5–590-370 B 3 e (3)  (g). If no sample exceeds the PMCL, the sample result for each monitoring  location is considered the LRAA for that monitoring location.
    (iii) Waterworks are in violation of the monitoring  requirements for each quarter that a monitoring result would be used in  calculating an LRAA if the owner fails to monitor.
    (iv) Waterworks have exceeded the operational evaluation level  at any monitoring location where the sum of the two previous quarters' TTHM  results plus twice the current quarter's TTHM result, divided by four to  determine an average, exceeds 0.080 mg/L, or where the sum of the two previous  quarters' HAA5 results plus twice the current quarter's HAA5 result, divided by  four to determine an average, exceeds 0.060 mg/L.
    ((a)) Owners of waterworks that exceed the operational  evaluation level shall conduct an operational evaluation and submit a written  report of the evaluation to the commissioner no later than 90 days after being  notified of the analytical result that causes the waterworks to exceed the  operational evaluation level. The written report shall be made available to the  public upon request.
    ((b)) The operational evaluation report shall include an  examination of waterworks treatment and distribution operational practices,  including storage tank operations, excess storage capacity, distribution system  flushing, changes in sources or source water quality, and treatment changes or  problems that may contribute to TTHM and HAA5 formation and what steps could be  considered to minimize future exceedances.
    ((c)) The owner may request and the commissioner may allow  waterworks to limit the scope of the evaluation if the owner is able to  identify the cause of the operational evaluation level exceedance. The request  to limit the scope of the evaluation does not extend the schedule in paragraph  ((a)) of this section for submitting the written report. The commissioner shall  approve this limited scope of evaluation in writing and the owner shall keep  that approval with the completed report.
    (2) Bromate. Compliance shall be based on a running annual  arithmetic average, computed quarterly, of monthly samples (or, for months in  which the waterworks takes more than one sample, the average of all samples  taken during the month) collected by the owner as prescribed by 12VAC5-590-370  B 3 g. If the average of samples covering any consecutive four-quarter period  exceeds the PMCL in Table 2.13, the waterworks is in violation of the PMCL and  the owner shall notify the public pursuant to 12VAC5-590-540, in addition to  reporting to the commissioner pursuant to 12VAC5-590-530. If an owner fails to  complete 12 consecutive months' monitoring, compliance with the PMCL for the  last four-quarter compliance period shall be based on an average of the  available data.
    (3) Chlorite. Compliance shall be based on an arithmetic  average of each three sample set taken in the distribution system as prescribed  by 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 f (1) (a), (b) and (c). If the arithmetic average of any  three sample set exceeds the PMCL in Table 2.13, the waterworks is in violation  of the PMCL and the owner shall notify the public pursuant to 12VAC5-590-540, in  addition to reporting to the commissioner pursuant to 12VAC5-590-530.
    c. Disinfectant residuals.
    (1) Chlorine and chloramines.
    (a) Compliance shall be based on a running annual arithmetic  average, computed quarterly, of monthly averages of all samples collected by  the waterworks under 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 h (1) (a). If the average covering any  consecutive four-quarter period exceeds the MRDL in Table 2.12, the waterworks  is in violation of the MRDL and the owner shall notify the public pursuant to  12VAC5-590-540, in addition to reporting to the commissioner pursuant to  12VAC5-590-530.
    (b) In cases where waterworks switch between the use of  chlorine and chloramines for residual disinfection during the year, compliance  shall be determined by including together all monitoring results of both  chlorine and chloramines in calculating compliance. Reports submitted pursuant  to 12VAC5-590-530 shall clearly indicate which residual disinfectant was  analyzed for each sample.
    (2) Chlorine dioxide.
    (a) Acute violations. Compliance shall be based on consecutive  daily samples collected by the owner under 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 h (2) (a). If any  daily sample taken at the entrance to the distribution system exceeds the MRDL  in Table 2.12, and on the following day one (or more) of the three samples  taken in the distribution system exceed the MRDL, the waterworks is in  violation of the MRDL and the owner shall take immediate corrective action to  lower the level of chlorine dioxide below the MRDL and the owner shall notify  the public pursuant to the procedures for Tier 1 conditions in 12VAC5-590-540  in addition to reporting to the commissioner in pursuant to 12VAC5-590-530.  Failure to take samples in the distribution system the day following an  exceedance of the chlorine dioxide MRDL at the entrance to the distribution  system will also be considered an MRDL violation and the owner shall notify the  public of the violation in accordance with the provisions for Tier 1 conditions  in 12VAC5-590-540 in addition to reporting to the commissioner in pursuant to  12VAC5-590-530.
    (b) Nonacute violations. Compliance shall be based on  consecutive daily samples collected by the owner under 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 h (2)  (a). If any two consecutive daily samples taken at the entrance to the  distribution system exceed the MRDL in Table 2.12 and all distribution system  samples taken are below the MRDL, the waterworks is in violation of the MRDL  and the owner shall take corrective action to lower the level of chlorine  dioxide below the MRDL at the point of sampling and shall notify the public  pursuant to the procedures for Tier 2 conditions in 12VAC5-590-540 in addition  to reporting to the commissioner in pursuant to 12VAC5-590-530. Failure to  monitor at the entrance to the distribution system the day following an exceedance  of the chlorine dioxide MRDL at the entrance to the distribution system is also  an MRDL violation and the owner shall notify the public of the violation in  accordance with the provisions for Tier 2 conditions in 12VAC5-590-540 in  addition to reporting to the commissioner in pursuant to 12VAC5-590-530.
    d. Disinfection byproduct precursors (DBPP). Compliance shall  be determined as specified by 12VAC5-590-420 H 3. Owners may begin monitoring  to determine whether Step 1 TOC removals can be met 12 months prior to the  compliance date for the waterworks. This monitoring is not required and failure  to monitor during this period is not a violation. However, any owner that does  not monitor during this period, and then determines in the first 12 months after  the compliance date that it is not able to meet the Step 1 requirements in  12VAC5-590-420 H 2 b and shall therefore apply for alternate minimum TOC  removal (Step 2) requirements, is not eligible for retroactive approval of  alternate minimum TOC removal (Step 2) requirements as allowed pursuant to  12VAC5-590-420 H 2 c and is in violation. Owners may apply for alternate  minimum TOC removal (Step 2) requirements any time after the compliance date.  For waterworks required to meet Step 1 TOC removals, if the value calculated  under 12VAC5-590-420 H 3 a (4) is less than 1.00, the waterworks is in  violation of the treatment technique requirements and the owner shall notify  the public pursuant to 12VAC5-590-540 in addition to reporting to the  commissioner pursuant to 12VAC5-90-530.
    D. Radiological results (gross alpha, combined radium-226 and  radium-228, uranium and man-made radioactivity). Compliance with the  radiological PMCLs shall be in accordance with 12VAC5-590-370 D 3 c. PMCLs are  indicated in subsection B of Table 2.5. Sampling for radiological analysis  shall be in compliance with 12VAC5-590-370 D 1 and D 2. Furthermore, compliance  shall be determined by rounding off results to the same number of significant  figures as the PMCL for the substance in question.
    E. Reserved.
    F. Turbidity. The requirements in this subsection apply to  filtered waterworks until June 29, 1993. The requirements in this section apply  to unfiltered waterworks with surface water sources or groundwater sources  under the direct influence of surface water that are required to install  filtration equipment until June 29, 1993, or until filtration is installed,  whichever is later. When a sample exceeds the PMCL for turbidity a confirmation  sample shall be collected for analysis as soon as possible. In cases where a  turbidimeter is required at the waterworks, the preferable resampling time is  within one hour of the initial sampling. The repeat sample shall be the sample  used for the purpose of calculating the monthly average. Compliance for public notification  purposes shall be based on the monthly averages of the daily samples. However,  public notification is also required if the average of samples taken on two  consecutive days exceeds five NTU.
    G. All analyses for PMCL and action level compliance determinations  shall be consistent with current Environmental Protection Agency Regulations  found at 40 CFR Part 141.
    12VAC5-590-420. Treatment technique requirement.
    This section establishes treatment technique requirements in  lieu of maximum contaminant levels for specified contaminants. Failure to meet  any requirement of this section after the applicable date specified is a  treatment technique violation.
    A. The filtration and disinfection provisions of this section  are required treatment techniques for any waterworks supplied by a surface  water source and waterworks supplied by a groundwater source under the direct  influence of surface water. This section establishes treatment technique  requirements in lieu of PMCL's for the following contaminants: Giardia lamblia,  viruses, heterotrophic bacteria (HPC), Legionella, Cryptosporidium and  turbidity. Each waterworks with a surface water source or a groundwater source  under the direct influence of surface water shall provide treatment of that  source water that complies with these treatment technique requirements. The  treatment technique requirements consist of installing and properly operating  water treatment processes which reliably achieve:
    1. At least 99.9% (3-log) removal and/or inactivation of  Giardia lamblia cysts between a point where the raw water is not subject to  recontamination by surface water runoff and a point downstream before or at the  first customer; and
    2. At least 99.99% (4-log) removal and/or inactivation of  viruses between a point where the raw water is not subject to recontamination  by surface water runoff and a point downstream before or at the first customer;  and
    3. At least 99% (2-log) removal of Cryptosporidium between a  point where the raw water is not subject to recontamination by surface water  runoff and a point downstream before or at the first customer.
    B. A waterworks using a surface water source or a groundwater  source under the direct influence of surface water is considered to be in  compliance with the requirements of subsection A of this section if it meets  the following disinfection filtration and enhanced filtration and disinfection  for Cryptosporidium requirements:
    1. Disinfection. Waterworks with a surface water source or a  groundwater source under the direct influence of surface water shall provide  disinfection treatment in accordance with this section.
    a. The disinfection treatment shall be sufficient to ensure  that the total treatment processes of that waterworks achieve at least 99.9%  (3-log) inactivation and/or removal of Giardia lamblia cysts and at least  99.99% (4-log) inactivation and/or removal of viruses.
    b. The residual disinfectant concentration in the water  entering the distribution system cannot be less than 0.2 mg/L for more than  four hours.
    c. The residual disinfectant concentration in the distribution  system, measured as total chlorine, combined chlorine, or chlorine dioxide  cannot be undetectable in more than 5.0% of the samples each month, for any two  consecutive months that the waterworks serves water to the public. Water in the  distribution system with a heterotrophic bacteria concentration less than or  equal to 500/mL, measured as heterotrophic plate count (HPC) is deemed to have  a detectable disinfectant residual for purposes of determining compliance with this  requirement. Thus, the value "V" in percent in the following formula  cannot exceed 5.0% in one month, for any two consecutive months.
    V = (c + d + e) / (a + b) X 100
    a = number of instances where the residual disinfectant  concentration is measured;
    b = number of instances where the residual disinfectant  concentration is not measured but HPC is measured;
    c = number of instances where the residual disinfectant  concentration is measured but not detected and no HPC is measured;
    d = number of instances where no residual disinfectant  concentration is detected and where the HPC is greater than 500/mL; and
    e = number of instances where the residual disinfectant  concentration s not measured and HPC is greater than 500/mL.
    d. The commissioner may determine, based on site-specific  considerations, that an owner has no means for having a sample transported and  analyzed for HPC by a certified laboratory under the requisite time and  temperature conditions and the waterworks is providing adequate disinfection in  the distribution system, that the requirements of subdivision B 1 c of this  section does not apply.
    2. Filtration. (Also see 12VAC5-590-880.) All waterworks that  use a surface water source or a groundwater source under the direct influence  of surface water shall provide filtration treatment by using one of the  following methods:
    a. Conventional filtration or direct filtration.
    (1) Achieve a filtered water turbidity of less than or equal  to 0.3 NTU in at least 95% of the measurements taken each month. Samples shall  be representative of the waterworks' filtered water.
    (2) The turbidity level of representative samples of a  system's filtered water shall at no time exceed 1 NTU, measured as specified in  12VAC5-590-440.
    (3) A system that uses lime softening may acidify representative  samples prior to analysis using a protocol approved by the commissioner.
    b. Slow sand filtration.
    (1) The turbidity level of representative samples of a  waterworks' filtered water shall be less than or equal to one NTU in at least  95% of the measurements taken each month, except that if the commissioner  determines there is no significant interference with disinfection at a higher  turbidity level, the commissioner may substitute this higher turbidity limit  for that waterworks.
    (2) The turbidity level of representative samples of a  waterworks' filtered water shall at no time exceed five NTU.
    c. Diatomaceous earth filtration.
    (1) The turbidity level of representative samples of a  waterworks' filtered water shall be less than or equal to one NTU in at least  95% of the measurements taken each month.
    (2) The turbidity level of representative samples of a  waterworks' filtered water shall at no time exceed five NTU.
    d. Other filtration technologies. An owner may use a  filtration technology not listed in subdivisions 2 a through c of this  subsection if the owner demonstrates to the commissioner (by pilot plant  studies or other means) that the alternative filtration technology, in  combination with disinfection treatment, achieves 99.9% removal (3-log) and/or  inactivation of Giardia lamblia cysts, 99.99% removal (4-log) and/or  inactivation of viruses, and 99% removal (2-log) of Cryptosporidium oocysts.  For an owner that makes this demonstration, a turbidity limit of representative  samples of a waterworks' filtered water, not to exceed 0.3 NTU, shall be  established by the commissioner, which the waterworks must meet at least 95% of  the time. In addition, the commissioner shall establish a maximum turbidity  limit of representative samples of a waterworks' filtered water, not to exceed  1 NTU that the waterworks must not exceed at any time. These turbidity limits  shall consistently achieve the removal rates and/or inactivation rates stated  in this subdivision.
    e. Each waterworks using a surface water source or groundwater  source under the direct influence of surface water shall be operated by  licensed operators of the appropriate classification as per the Virginia Board  for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators Regulations (18VAC155-20).
    f. If the commissioner has determined that a waterworks has a  surface water source or a groundwater source under the direct influence of  surface water, filtration is required. The waterworks shall provide  disinfection during the interim before filtration is installed as follows:
    (1) The residual disinfectant concentration in the  distribution system shall not be less than 2.0 mg/L for more than four hours.
    (2) The owner shall issue continuing boil water notices  through the public notification procedure in 12VAC5-590-540 until such time as  the required filtration equipment is installed.
    (3) As an alternative to subdivisions B f 2 (1) and (2) of  this section, the owner may demonstrate that the source can meet the  appropriate C-T values shown in Appendix L and be considered to satisfy the  requirements for 99.9% removal of Giardia cysts and virus, respectively. In  addition, the waterworks owner shall comply with the following:
    (a) Justify that other alternative sources of supply meeting  these regulations are not immediately available.
    (b) Analysis of the source is performed quarterly for the  contaminants listed in Tables 2.2, 2.3, and 2.4. The primary maximum  contaminant levels shall not be exceeded.
    (c) Daily turbidity monitoring and maintenance of the  turbidity level not to exceed five NTU.
    (d) MPN analysis of the raw water based on the minimum sample  frequency chart below:
           | Population Served | Coliform Samples/Week | 
       | ≤500 | 1 | 
       | 501 - 3,300 | 2 | 
       | 3,301 - 10,000 | 3 | 
       | 10,001 - 25,000 | 4 | 
       | >25,000 | 5 | 
       | Note: Shall be taken on separate days.  | 
  
    (e) Bacteriological sampling of the distribution system at a  frequency of twice that required by Table 2.1.
    3. Enhanced filtration and disinfection for Cryptosporidium –  All waterworks using a surface water source or a groundwater source under the  direct influence of surface water shall comply with the following requirements  based on their population or if the waterworks is a wholesaler, based on the  population of the largest waterworks in the combined distribution system:
    a. Owners shall conduct an initial and a second round of  source water monitoring for each plant that treats a surface water or  groundwater under the direct influence of surface water source. This monitoring  may include sampling for Cryptosporidium, E. coli, and turbidity to determine  what level, if any, of additional Cryptosporidium treatment is required.
    (1) Initial round of source water monitoring. Owners shall  conduct the following monitoring on the schedule in subdivision B 3 a (3) of  this section unless they meet the monitoring avoidance criteria in subdivision  B 3 a (4) of this section.
    (a) Owners of waterworks serving at least 10,000 people shall  sample their source water for Cryptosporidium, E. coli, and turbidity at least  monthly for 24 months.
    (b) Owners of waterworks serving fewer than 10,000 people:
    (i) shall sample their source water for E. coli at least once  every two weeks for 12 months, or
    (ii) may avoid E. coli monitoring if the waterworks notifies  the commissioner that it will monitor for Cryptosporidium as described in  paragraph (c) of this section. The owner shall notify the commissioner no later  than three months prior to the date the waterworks is otherwise required to  start E. coli monitoring.
    (c) Owners of waterworks serving fewer than 10,000 people  shall sample their source water for Cryptosporidium at least twice per month  for 12 months or at least monthly for 24 months if they meet one of the  following, based on monitoring conducted under subdivision B 3 a (1) (b) of  this section:
    (i) For waterworks using lake/reservoir sources, the annual  mean E. coli concentration is greater than 10 E. coli/100 mL.
    (ii) For waterworks using flowing stream sources, the annual  mean E. coli concentration is greater than 50 E. coli/100 mL.
    (iii) The waterworks does not conduct E. coli monitoring as  described in paragraph (1) (b) of this section.
    (iv) Waterworks using ground water under the direct influence  of surface water shall comply with the requirements of subdivision B 3 a (1)  (c) of this section based on the E. coli level that applies to the nearest  surface water body. If no surface water body is nearby, the waterworks shall  comply based on the requirements that apply to waterworks using lake/reservoir  sources.
    (d) For waterworks serving fewer than 10,000 people, the  commissioner may approve monitoring for an indicator other than E. coli under  subdivision B 3 a (1) (b) (i) of this section. The commissioner also may  approve an alternative to the E. coli concentration in subdivision B 3 a (1)  (c) (i), (ii) or (iv) of this section to trigger Cryptosporidium monitoring.  This approval by the commissioner shall be provided to the waterworks in  writing and shall include the basis for the commission's commissioner's  determination that the alternative indicator and/or trigger level will provide  a more accurate identification of whether a waterworks will exceed the Bin 1  Cryptosporidium level in subdivision B 3 c (1) (a) of this section.
    (e) Waterworks may sample more frequently than required under  this section if the sampling frequency is evenly spaced throughout the  monitoring period.
    (2) Second round of source water monitoring: Owners shall  conduct a second round of source water monitoring that meets the requirements  for monitoring parameters, frequency, and duration described in subdivision B 3  a (1) of this section, unless they meet the monitoring exemption criteria in  subdivision B 3 a (4) of this section. Owners shall conduct this monitoring on  the schedule in subdivision B 3 a (3) of this section.
    (3) Monitoring schedule. Owners shall begin the monitoring  required in subdivisions B 3 a (1) and (2) of this section no later than the  month beginning with the date listed in the following table:
           | Source Water Monitoring Starting Dates Table  | 
       | Owners of waterworks that serve... | Shall begin the first round of source water monitoring no    later than the month beginning... | And shall begin the second round of source water monitoring    no later than the month beginning... | 
       | At least 100,000 people | October 1, 2006 | April 1, 2015 | 
       | From 50,000 to 99,999 people | April 1, 2007 | October 1, 2015 | 
       | From 10,000 to 49,999 people | April 1, 2008 | October 1, 2016 | 
       | Fewer than 10,000 and monitor for E. coli | October 1, 2008 | October 1, 2017 | 
       | Fewer than 10,000 and monitor for Cryptosporidium1 | April 1, 2010 | April 1, 2019 | 
       | 1Applies to waterworks that meet the conditions of    subdivision B 3 a (1) (c) of this section.  | 
  
    (4) Monitoring avoidance.
    (a) Owners are not required to conduct source water monitoring  under subdivision C 3 a of this section if the waterworks will provide a total  of at least 5.5-log of treatment for Cryptosporidium, equivalent to meeting the  treatment requirements of Bin 4 in subdivision B 3 c (2) of this section.
    (b) If an owner chooses to provide the level of treatment in  subdivision B 3 a (4) (a) of this section, rather than start source water  monitoring, the owners shall notify the commissioner in writing no later than  the date the owner is otherwise required to submit a sampling schedule for  monitoring under subdivision B 3 a (5) of this section. Alternatively, an owner  may choose to stop sampling at any point after the owner has initiated  monitoring if the owner notifies the commissioner in writing that it will  provide this level of treatment. Owners shall install and operate technologies  to provide this level of treatment by the applicable treatment compliance date  in subdivision B 3 c (3).
    (5) Sampling schedules.
    (a) Owners of waterworks required to conduct source water  monitoring in accordance with subdivision B 3 a shall submit a sampling  schedule that specifies the calendar dates when the owner shall collect each  required sample.
    (i) Owners shall submit sampling schedules to the commissioner  no later than three months prior to the applicable date listed in subdivision B  3 a (3) for each round of required monitoring.
    (ii) If the commissioner does not respond to an owner  regarding the sampling schedule, the owner shall sample at the reported  schedule.
    (b) Owners shall collect samples within two days before or two  days after the dates indicated in their sampling schedule (i.e., within a  five-day period around the schedule date) unless one of the conditions of the  following paragraphs apply.
    (i) If an extreme condition or situation exists that may pose  danger to the sample collector, or that cannot be avoided and causes the owner  to be unable to sample in the scheduled five-day period, the owner shall sample  as close to the scheduled date as is feasible unless the commissioner approves  an alternative sampling date. The owner shall submit an explanation for the  delayed sampling date to the commissioner concurrent with the shipment of the  sample to the laboratory.
    (ii) If an owner is unable to report a valid analytical result  for a scheduled sampling date due to equipment failure, loss of or damage to  the sample, failure to comply with the analytical method requirements,  including the quality control requirements of 12VAC5-590-440, or the failure of  an approved laboratory to analyze the sample, then the owner shall collect a  replacement sample. The owner shall collect the replacement sample not later  than 21 days after receiving information that an analytical result cannot be  reported for the scheduled date unless the owner demonstrates that collecting a  replacement sample within this time frame is not feasible or the commissioner  approves an alternative resampling date. The owner shall submit an explanation  for the delayed sampling date to the commissioner concurrent with the shipment  of the sample to the laboratory.
    (c) Owners of waterworks that fail to meet the criteria of  subdivision B 3 a (5) (b) of this section for any source water sample required  under subdivision B 3 a shall revise their sampling schedules to add dates for  collecting all missed samples. Owners shall submit the revised schedule to the  commissioner for approval prior to when the owner begins collecting the missed  samples.
    (6) Sampling locations.
    (a) Owners of waterworks required to conduct source water  monitoring under subdivision B 3 a shall collect samples for each plant that  treats a surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of surface  water source. Where multiple plants draw water from the same influent, such as  the same pipe or intake, the commissioner may approve one set of monitoring  results to be used to satisfy the requirements subdivision B 3 a for all  plants.
    (b) Owners shall collect source water samples prior to  chemical treatment, such as coagulants, oxidants and disinfectants. However,  the commissioner may approve the collection of a source water sample after  chemical treatment. To grant this approval, the commissioner shall determine  that collecting a sample prior to chemical treatment is not feasible for the  waterworks and that the chemical treatment is unlikely to have a significant  adverse effect on the analysis of the sample.
    (c) Owners of waterworks that recycle filter backwash water  shall collect source water samples prior to the point of filter backwash water  addition.
    (d) Bank filtration.
    (i) Waterworks that receive Cryptosporidium treatment credit  for bank filtration under 12VAC5-590-420 B 2 d, shall collect source water  samples in the surface water prior to bank filtration.
    (ii) Waterworks that use bank filtration as pretreatment to a  filtration plant shall collect source water samples from the well (i.e., after  bank filtration). Use of bank filtration during monitoring shall be consistent  with routine operational practice. Waterworks collecting samples after a bank  filtration process may not receive treatment credit for the bank filtration  under subdivision B 3 d (4) (c) of this section.
    (e) Multiple sources. Owners of waterworks with plants that  use multiple water sources, including multiple surface water sources and  blended surface water and ground water sources shall collect samples as  specified in subdivision B 3 a (6) (e) (i) or (ii) of this section. The use of  multiple sources during monitoring shall be consistent with routine operational  practice.
    (i) If a sampling tap is available where the sources are  combined prior to treatment, waterworks shall collect samples from the tap.
    (ii) If a sampling tap where the sources are combined prior to  treatment is not available, owners shall collect samples at each source near  the intake on the same day and shall follow either subdivision B 3 a (6) (e)  (ii) ((a)) or ((b)) of this section for sample analysis.
    ((a)) Owners may composite samples from each source into one  sample prior to analysis. The volume of sample from each source shall be  weighted according to the proportion of the source in the total plant flow at  the time the sample is collected.
    ((b)) Owners may analyze samples from each source separately  and calculate a weighted average of the analysis results for each sampling  date. The weighted average shall be calculated by multiplying the analysis  result for each source by the fraction the source contributed to total plant  flow at the time the sample was collected and then summing these values.
    (f) Additional Requirements. Owners shall submit a description  of their sampling location(s) to the commissioner at the same time as the  sampling schedule required in subdivision B 3 a (3) of this section. This  description shall address the position of the sampling location in relation to  the waterworks water source(s) and treatment processes, including pretreatment,  points of chemical treatment, and filter backwash recycle. If the commissioner  does not respond to an owner regarding sampling location(s), the owner shall sample  at the reported location(s).
    (7) Analytical methods. All analytical methods shall be  conducted in accordance with 12VAC5-590-440.
    (8) Approved laboratories.
    (a) Cryptosporidium. Owners shall have Cryptosporidium samples  analyzed by a laboratory that is approved under EPA's Laboratory Quality  Assurance Evaluation Program for Analysis of Cryptosporidium in Water or a  laboratory that has been certified for Cryptosporidium analysis by an  equivalent state laboratory certification program.
    (b) E. coli. Any laboratory certified by the state for total  coliform or fecal coliform analysis under 12VAC5-590-440 is approved for E.  coli analysis when the laboratory uses the same technique for E. coli that the  laboratory uses under 12VAC5-590-440. Laboratories shall use methods for  enumeration of E. coli in source water approved in 12VAC5-590-440.
    (c) Turbidity. Measurements of turbidity shall be made by a  party approved by the commissioner.
    (9) Reporting of the source water results shall be in  accordance with 12VAC5-590-530.
    (10) Plants operating only part of the year. Owners of  waterworks treating surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of  surface water that operates for only part of the year shall conduct source  water monitoring in accordance with this section, but with the following  modifications:
    (a) Owners shall sample their source water only during the  months that the plant operates unless the commissioner specifies another  monitoring period based on plant operating practices.
    (b) Owners of waterworks with plants that operate less than  six months per year and that monitor for Cryptosporidium shall collect at least  six Cryptosporidium samples per year during each of two years of monitoring.  Samples shall be evenly spaced throughout the period the plant operates.
    (11) New sources;
    (a) Owners of waterworks that begin using a new source of  surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of surface water after  the waterworks is required to begin monitoring under subdivision B 3 a (3) of  this section shall monitor the new source on a schedule the commissioner  approves. Source water monitoring shall meet the requirements of this section.  The owner shall also meet the bin classification and Cryptosporidium treatment  requirements of subdivision B 3 c (1) and (2) of this section, for the new  source on a schedule the commissioner approves.
    (b) The requirements of this section apply to waterworks using  surface water or groundwater under the direct influence of surface water that  begin operation after the monitoring start date applicable to the waterworks  size under subdivision B 3 a (3) of this section.
    (c) The owner shall begin a second round of source water  monitoring no later than six years following initial bin classification under  in subdivision B 3 c (1) of this section.
    (12) Failure to collect any source water sample required under  this section in accordance with the sampling schedule, sampling location,  analytical method, approved laboratory, and reporting requirements of  subdivision B 3 a (5), (6), (7), (8), or (9) of this section is a monitoring  violation.
    (13) Grandfathering monitoring data. Owners may use  (grandfather) monitoring data collected prior to the applicable monitoring  start date in subdivision B 3 a (3) of this section to meet the initial source  water monitoring requirements in subdivision B 3 a (1) of this section.  Grandfathered data may substitute for an equivalent number of months at the end  of the monitoring period. All data submitted under this paragraph shall meet  the requirements in (13) (a) through (h) listed below and be approved by the  commissioner:
    (a) An owner may grandfather Cryptosporidium samples to meet  the requirements of this section when the owner does not have corresponding E.  coli and turbidity samples. A waterworks that grandfathers Cryptosporidium  samples without E. coli and turbidity samples is not required to collect E.  coli and turbidity samples when the system completes the requirements for  Cryptosporidium monitoring under this section.
    (b) E. coli sample analysis. The analysis of E. coli samples  shall meet the analytical method and approved laboratory requirements of  subdivision B 3 a (7) and (8) of this section.
    (c) Cryptosporidium sample analysis. The analysis of  Cryptosporidium samples shall meet the requirements of subdivision B 3 a (8) of  this section.
    (d) Sampling location. The sampling location shall meet the  conditions in subdivision B 3 a (6) of this section.
    (e) Sampling frequency. Cryptosporidium samples were collected  no less frequently than each calendar month on a regular schedule, beginning no  earlier than January 1999. Sample collection intervals may vary for the  conditions specified in subdivision B 3 a (5) (b) (i) and (ii) of this section,  if the owner provides documentation of the condition when reporting monitoring  results.
    (i) The commissioner may approve grandfathering of previously  collected data where there are time gaps in the sampling frequency if the owner  conducts additional monitoring the commissioner specifies to ensure that the  data used to comply with the initial source water monitoring requirements of  subdivision B 3 a of this section are seasonally representative and unbiased.
    (ii) Owners may grandfather previously collected data where  the sampling frequency within each month varied. If the Cryptosporidium  sampling frequency varied, owners shall follow the monthly averaging procedure  in subdivision B 3 c (1) (a) (v) of this section, when calculating the bin  classification for filtered systems.
    (f) Reporting monitoring results for grandfathering. Owners  that request to grandfather previously collected monitoring results shall  report the following information by the applicable dates listed in the  following paragraphs. Owners shall report this information to the commissioner.
    (i) Owners shall report that they intend to submit previously  collected monitoring results for grandfathering. This report shall specify the  number of previously collected results the owner shall submit, the dates of the  first and last sample, and whether an owner shall conduct additional source  water monitoring to meet the requirements in subdivision B 3 a of this section.  Owners shall report this information no later than the date the sampling  schedule listed in subdivision B 3 a (3) of this section is required.
    (ii) Owners shall report previously collected monitoring  results for grandfathering, along with the associated documentation listed in  paragraphs ((a)) through ((d)) listed below, no later than two months after the  applicable date listed in subdivision B 3 a (3) of this section.
    ((a)) For each sample result, owners shall report the  applicable data elements in 12VAC5-590-530 C 1 c.
    ((b)) Owners shall certify that the reported monitoring  results include all results the waterworks generated during the time period beginning  with the first reported result and ending with the final reported result. This  applies to samples that were collected from the sampling location specified for  source water monitoring under subdivision B 3 a (13) (f) of this section, not  spiked, and analyzed using the laboratory's routine process for the analytical  methods listed in this section.
    ((c)) Owners shall certify that the samples were  representative of a plant's source water(s) and the source water(s) have not  changed. Owners shall report a description of the sampling location(s), which  shall address the position of the sampling location in relation to the  waterworks' water source(s) and treatment processes, including points of  chemical addition and filter backwash recycle.
    ((d)) For Cryptosporidium samples, the laboratory or  laboratories that analyzed the samples shall provide a letter certifying that  the quality control criteria specified in the methods listed in subdivision B 3  a (8) of this section were met for each sample batch associated with the  reported results. Alternatively, the laboratory may provide bench sheets and  sample examination report forms for each field, matrix spike, IPR, OPR, and  method blank sample associated with the reported results.
    (g) If the commissioner determines that a previously collected  data set submitted for grandfathering was generated during source water  conditions that were not normal for the waterworks, such as a drought, the  commissioner may disapprove the data. Alternatively, the commissioner may approve  the previously collected data if the owner reports additional source water  monitoring data, as determined by the commissioner, to ensure that the data set  used under subdivision B 3 c (1) of this section represents average source  water conditions for the waterworks.
    (h) If an owner submits previously collected data that fully  meets the number of samples required for initial source water monitoring under  subdivision B 3 a (1) of this section and some of the data are rejected due to  not meeting the requirements of this section, the owner shall conduct  additional monitoring to replace rejected data on a schedule the commissioner  approves. Owners are not required to begin this additional monitoring until two  months after notification that data have been rejected and additional  monitoring is necessary.
    b. Owners of waterworks that plan to make a significant change  to their disinfection practice shall develop disinfection profiles and  calculate disinfection benchmarks, as described in subdivision B 3 a (1) and (2)  below.
    (1) Requirements when making a significant change in  disinfection practice.
    (a) Following the completion of initial source water  monitoring under subdivision B 3 a (1) of this section, owners of waterworks  that plan to make a significant change to its disinfection practice, as defined  in subdivision B 3 b (1) (b) of this section, shall develop disinfection  profiles and calculate disinfection benchmarks for Giardia lamblia and viruses  as described in subdivision B 3 b (2) of this section. Prior to changing the  disinfection practice, the owner shall notify the commissioner and shall  include in this notice the information in subdivision B 3 b (1) a) (i) through  (iii) of this section.
    (i) A completed disinfection profile and disinfection  benchmark for Giardia lamblia and viruses as described in subdivision B 3 b (2)  of this section.
    (ii) A description of the proposed change in disinfection  practice.
    (iii) An analysis of how the proposed change will affect the  current level of disinfection.
    (b) Significant changes to disinfection practice are defined  as follows:
    (i) Changes to the point of disinfection;
    (ii) Changes to the disinfectant(s) used in the treatment  plant;
    (iii) Changes to the disinfection process; or
    (iv) Any other modification identified by the commissioner as  a significant change to disinfection practice.
    (2) Developing the disinfection profile and benchmark.
    (a) Owners of waterworks required to develop disinfection  profiles in accordance with subdivision B 3 b (1) of this section shall follow  the requirements of this section. Owners shall monitor at least weekly for a  period of 12 consecutive months to determine the total log inactivation for  Giardia lamblia and viruses. If owners monitor more frequently, the monitoring  frequency shall be evenly spaced. Owners of waterworks that operate for fewer  than 12 months per year shall monitor weekly during the period of operation.  Owners shall determine log inactivation for Giardia lamblia through the entire  plant, based on CT99.9 values in Appendix L. Owners shall determine log  inactivation for viruses through the entire treatment plant based on a protocol  approved by the commissioner.
    (b) Owners of waterworks with a single point of disinfectant  application prior to the entrance to the distribution system shall conduct the  monitoring in subdivision B 3 b (2) (b) (i) through (iv) of this section.  Owners of waterworks with more than one point of disinfectant application shall  conduct the monitoring in subdivision B 3 b (2) (b) (i) through (iv) of this section  for each disinfection segment. Owners shall monitor the parameters necessary to  determine the total inactivation ratio, using analytical methods in Appendix L.
    (i) For waterworks using a disinfectant other than UV, the  temperature of the disinfected water shall be measured at each residual  disinfectant concentration sampling point during peak hourly flow or at an  alternative location approved by the commissioner.
    (ii) For waterworks using chlorine, the pH of the disinfected  water shall be measured at each chlorine residual disinfectant concentration  sampling point during peak hourly flow or at an alternative location approved  by the commissioner.
    (iii) The disinfectant contact time(s) (t) shall be determined  during peak hourly flow.
    (iv) The residual disinfectant concentration(s) (C) of the  water before or at the first customer and prior to each additional point of  disinfectant application shall be measured during peak hourly flow.
    (c) In lieu of conducting new monitoring under subdivision B 3  b (2) (b) of this section, owners may elect to meet the requirements of  subdivision B 3 b (2) (c) (i) or (ii) of this section.
    (i) Owners of waterworks that have at least one year of  existing data that are substantially equivalent to data collected under the  provisions of subdivision B 3 b (2) (b) of this section may use these data to  develop disinfection profiles as specified in this section if the owner has  neither made a significant change to its treatment practice nor changed sources  since the data were collected. Owners may develop disinfection profiles using  up to three years of existing data.
    (ii) Owners may use disinfection profile(s) developed under  12VAC5-590-500 E 2 in lieu of developing a new profile if the owner has neither  made a significant change to its treatment practice nor changed sources since  the profile was developed. Owners that have not developed a virus profile under  12VAC5-590-500 E 2 shall develop a virus profile using the same monitoring data  on which the Giardia lamblia profile is based.
    (d) Owners of waterworks shall calculate the total  inactivation ratio for Giardia lamblia as specified in subdivision B 3 b (2)  (d) (i) through (iii) of this section.
    (i) Owners of waterworks using only one point of disinfectant  application may determine the total inactivation ratio for the disinfection  segment based on either of the methods in subdivision B 3 b (2) (d) (i)   ((a)) or ((b)) of this section.
    ((a)) Determine one inactivation ratio (CTcalc/CT99.9) before  or at the first customer during peak hourly flow.
    ((b)) Determine successive CTcalc/CT99.9 values, representing  sequential inactivation ratios, between the point of disinfectant application  and a point before or at the first customer during peak hourly flow. The owner  shall calculate the total inactivation ratio by determining (CTcalc/CT99.9) for  each sequence and then adding the (CTcalc/CT99.9) values together to determine  (Σ (CTcalc/CT99.9)).
    (ii) Owners of waterworks using more than one point of  disinfectant application before the first customer shall determine the CT value  of each disinfection segment immediately prior to the next point of  disinfectant application, or for the final segment, before or at the first  customer, during peak hourly flow. The (CTcalc/CT99.9) value of each segment  and (Σ (CTcalc/CT99.9)) shall be calculated using the method in paragraph  (i) ((b)) of this section.
    (iii) The owner shall determine the total logs of inactivation  by multiplying the value calculated in subdivision B 3 b (2) (d) (i) or (ii) of  this section by 3.0.
    (iv) Owners shall calculate the log of inactivation for  viruses using a protocol approved by the commissioner.
    (e) Owners shall use the procedures specified in  (i) and  (ii) listed below to calculate a disinfection benchmark.
    (i) For each year of profiling data collected and calculated  under subdivision B 3 b (2) (a) through (d) of this section, owners shall  determine the lowest mean monthly level of both Giardia lamblia and virus  inactivation. Owners shall determine the mean Giardia lamblia and virus  inactivation for each calendar month for each year of profiling data by  dividing the sum of daily or weekly Giardia lamblia and virus log inactivation  by the number of values calculated for that month.
    (ii) The disinfection benchmark is the lowest monthly mean  value (for waterworks with one year of profiling data) or the mean of the  lowest monthly mean values (for waterworks with more than one year of profiling  data) of Giardia lamblia and virus log inactivation in each year of profiling  data.
    c. Owners shall determine their Cryptosporidium treatment bin  classification as described in subdivision B 3 c (1) and provide additional  treatment for Cryptosporidium, if required, as described in subdivision B 3 c  (2). Owners shall implement Cryptosporidium treatment according to the schedule  in subdivision B 3 c (3).
    (1) Bin classification for waterworks.
    (a) Following completion of the initial round of source water  monitoring required under subdivision B 3 a (1), owners shall calculate an  initial Cryptosporidium bin concentration for each plant for which monitoring  was required. Calculation of the bin concentration shall use the  Cryptosporidium results reported under subdivision B 3 a (1) and shall follow  these procedures:
    (i) For waterworks that collect a total of at least 48  samples, the bin concentration is equal to the arithmetic mean of all sample  concentrations.
    (ii) For waterworks that collect a total of at least 24  samples, but not more than 47 samples, the bin concentration is equal to the  highest arithmetic mean of all sample concentrations in any 12 consecutive  months during which Cryptosporidium samples were collected.
    (iii) For waterworks that serve fewer than 10,000 people and  monitor for Cryptosporidium for only one year (i.e., collect 24 samples in 12  months), the bin concentration is equal to the arithmetic mean of all sample  concentrations.
    (iv) For waterworks with plants operating only part of the  year that monitor fewer than 12 months per year under subdivision B 3 a (1),  the bin concentration is equal to the highest arithmetic mean of all sample  concentrations during any year of Cryptosporidium monitoring.
    (v) If the monthly Cryptosporidium sampling frequency varies,  owners shall first calculate a monthly average for each month of monitoring.  Owners shall then use these monthly average concentrations, rather than  individual sample concentrations, in the applicable calculation for bin  classification in subdivision B 3 c (1) (a) (i) through (iv) of this section.
    (b) Owners shall determine their initial bin classification  from the following table and using the Cryptosporidium bin concentration calculated  under subdivision B 3 c (1) (a) of this section:
           | Bin Classification Table for Filtered Systems | 
       | For owners of waterworks that are: | with a Cryptosporidium bin concentration of1 ... | The bin classification is... | 
       | ...required to monitor for Cryptosporidium under subdivision    B 3 a (1) | Cryptosporidium less than 0.075 oocysts/L | Bin 1 | 
       | Cryptosporidium equal to or greater than 0.075 oocysts/L but    less than 1.0 oocysts/L | Bin 2 | 
       | Cryptosporidium equal to or greater than 1.0 oocysts/L but    less than 3.0 oocysts/L | Bin 3 | 
       | Cryptosporidium equal to or greater than 3.0 oocysts/L | Bin 4 | 
       | ...serving fewer than 10,000 people and NOT required to    monitor for Cryptosporidium under B 3 a (1)(c) | NA | Bin 1 | 
       | 1Based on calculations in subdivision B 3 c (1) (a) or    (c) of this section, as applicable | 
  
    (c) Following completion of the second round of source water  monitoring required under subdivision B 3 a (2), owners shall recalculate their  Cryptosporidium bin concentration using the Cryptosporidium results reported  under subdivision B 3 a (2) and following the procedures in subdivision B 3 c  (1) (a)(i) through (iv) of this section. Owners shall then redetermine their  bin classification using this bin concentration and the table in subdivision B  3 c (1) (b) of this section.
    (d) Reporting of bin classifications
    (i) Owners shall report their initial bin classification under  subdivision B 3 c (1) (b) of this section to the commissioner for approval no  later than six months after the waterworks is required to complete initial  source water monitoring based on the schedule in subdivision B 3 a (3).
    (ii) Owners shall report their bin classification under  subdivision B 3 c (1) (c) of this section to the commissioner for approval no  later than six months after the owner is required to complete the second round  of source water monitoring based on the schedule in subdivision B 3 c (1) 3 a  (3) of this section.
    (iii) The bin classification report to the commissioner shall  include a summary of source water monitoring data and the calculation procedure  used to determine bin classification.
    (e) Failure to comply with the conditions of subdivision B 3 c  (1) (d) of this section is a violation of the treatment technique requirement.
    (2) Waterworks additional Cryptosporidium treatment  requirements.
    (a) Waterworks shall provide the level of additional treatment  for Cryptosporidium specified in this paragraph based on their bin  classification as determined under subdivision B 3 c (1) of this section and  according to the schedule in subdivision B 3 c (3) (b) of this section.
     
     
     
     
     
     
     
     
     
     
     
     
     
         
                 | If the waterworks bin classification is... | And the waterworks uses the following filtration treatment in    full compliance with 12VAC5-590-420 A and B, then the additional    Cryptosporidium treatment requirements are... | 
       |   | Conventional filtration treatment (including softening) | Direct filtration  | Slow sand or diatomaceous earth filtration | Alternative filtration technologies | 
       | Bin 1 | No additional treatment | No additional treatment | No additional treatment | No additional treatment | 
       | Bin 2 | 1-log treatment | 1.5-log treatment | 1-log treatment  | (1) | 
       | Bin 3 | 2-log treatment | 2.5-log treatment | 2-log treatment | (2) | 
       | Bin 4 | 2.5-log treatment | 3-log treatment | 2.5-log treatment | (3) | 
       | 1As determined by the commissioner such that the total    Cryptosporidium removal and inactivation is at least 4.0-log 2As determined by the commissioner such that the total    Cryptosporidium removal and inactivation is at least 5.0-log 3As determined by the commissioner such that the total    Cryptosporidium removal and inactivation is at least 5.5-log | 
  
         
          (b) Additional treatment
    (i) Owners shall use one or more of the treatment and  management options listed in subdivision B 3 d, termed the microbial toolbox,  to comply with the additional Cryptosporidium treatment required in subdivision  B 3 c (2) (a) of this section.
    (ii) Waterworks classified in Bin 3 and Bin 4 shall achieve at  least 1-log of the additional Cryptosporidium treatment required under  subdivision B 3 c (2) (a) of this section using either one or a combination of  the following: bag filters, bank filtration, cartridge filters, chlorine  dioxide, membranes, ozone, or UV, as described in subdivision B 3 d (3) through  (7) of this section.
    (c) Failure by a waterworks in any month to achieve treatment  credit by meeting criteria in subdivision B 3 d (3) through (7) of this section  for microbial toolbox options that is at least equal to the level of treatment  required in subdivision B 3 c (2) (a) of this section is a violation of the  treatment technique requirement.
    (d) If the commissioner determines during a sanitary survey or  an equivalent source water assessment that after a waterworks completed the  monitoring conducted under subdivision B 3 a (1) or (2) of this section,  significant changes occurred in the waterworks' watershed that could lead to  increased contamination of the source water by Cryptosporidium, the owner shall  take actions specified by the commissioner to address the contamination. These  actions may include additional source water monitoring and/or implementing  microbial toolbox options listed in subdivision B 3 d (2) of this section.
    (3) Schedule for compliance with Cryptosporidium treatment  requirements.
    (a) Following initial bin classification in accordance with  subdivision B 3 c (1) (b) of this section, waterworks shall provide the level  of treatment for Cryptosporidium required under subdivision B 3 c (2) of this  section according to the schedule in subdivision B 3 c (3) (b) of this section.
    (b) Cryptosporidium treatment compliance dates.
           | Cryptosporidium Treatment    Compliance Dates Table | 
       | Waterworks that serve.... | Shall comply with    Cryptosporidium treatment requirements no later than1... | 
       | At least 100,000 people | April 1, 2012 | 
       | From 50,000 to 99,999 people | October 1, 2012 | 
       | From 10,000 to 49,999 people | October 1, 2013 | 
       | Fewer than 10,000 people | October 1, 2014 | 
       | 1The commissioner may allow up to an additional two    years for complying with the treatment requirement for waterworks making    capital improvements. | 
  
    (c) If the bin classification for a filtered system changes  following the second round of source water monitoring, as determined under  subdivision B 3 c (1) (c) of this section, the waterworks shall provide the  level of treatment for Cryptosporidium required under subdivision B 3 c (2) of  this section on a schedule the commissioner approves.
    d. Owners of waterworks required to provide additional  treatment for Cryptosporidium shall implement microbial toolbox options that  are designed and operated as described in subdivision B 3 d (1) through (7) of  this section.
    (1) Waterworks receive the treatment credits listed in the  table in subdivision B 3 d (2) of this section by meeting the conditions for  microbial toolbox options described in subdivision B 3 d (3) through (7) of  this section. Waterworks apply these treatment credits to meet the treatment  requirements in subdivision B 3 c (2) of this section.
    (2) Microbial Toolbox Summary Table: Options, Treatment  Credits and Criteria
         
                 | Microbial Toolbox Summary    Table: Options, Treatment Credits and Criteria | 
       | Toolbox Option | Cryptosporidium treatment    credit with design and implementation criteria | 
       | Source Protection and    Management Toolbox Options | 
       | Watershed control program
 | 0.5-log credit for program    approved by the commissioner comprising required elements, annual program    status report to the commissioner, and regular watershed survey. Specific    criteria are in subdivision B 3 d (3) (a)
 | 
       | Alternative source/ intake management | No prescribed credit. Owners may conduct simultaneous    monitoring for treatment bin classification at alternative intake locations    or under alternative intake management strategies. Specific criteria are in    subdivision B 3 d (3) (b). | 
       | Pre Filtration Toolbox Options | 
       | Presedimentation basin with coagulation | 0.5-log credit during any month that presedimentation basins    achieve a monthly mean reduction of 0.5-log or greater in turbidity or    alternative performance criteria approved by the commissioner. To be    eligible, basins shall be operated continuously with coagulant addition and    all plant flow shall pass through basins. Specific criteria are in    subdivision B 3 d (4) (a) | 
       | Two-stage lime softening | 0.5-log credit for two-stage softening where chemical    addition and hardness precipitation occur in both stages. All plant flow    shall pass through both stages. Single-stage softening is credited as    equivalent to conventional treatment. Specific criteria are in subdivision B    3 d (4) (b). | 
       | Bank filtration | 0.5-log credit for 25-foot setback; 1.0-log credit for    50-foot setback; aquifer shall be unconsolidated sand containing at least 10%    fines; average turbidity in wells shall be less than 1 NTU. Waterworks using    wells followed by filtration when conducting source water monitoring shall    sample the well to determine bin classification and are not eligible for    additional credit. Specific criteria are in subdivision B 3 d (4) (c). | 
       | Treatment Performance Toolbox Options | 
       | Combined filter performance | 0.5-log credit for combined filter effluent turbidity less    than or equal to 0.15 NTU in at least 95% of measurements each month.    Specific criteria are in subdivision B 3 d (5) (a). | 
       | Individual filter performance | 0.5-log credit (in addition to 0.5-log combined filter    performance credit) if individual filter effluent turbidity is less than or    equal to 0.15 NTU in at least 95% of samples each month in each filter and is    never greater than 0.3 NTU in two consecutive measurements in any filter.    Specific criteria are in subdivision B 3 d (5) (b). | 
       | Additional Filtration Toolbox Options | 
       | Bag or cartridge filters (individual filters) | Up to 2-log credit based on the removal efficiency    demonstrated during challenge testing with a 1.0-log factor of safety.    Specific criteria are in subdivision B 3 d (6) (a). | 
       | Bag or cartridge filters (in series) | Up to 2.5-log credit based on the removal efficiency    demonstrated during challenge testing with a 0.5-log factor of safety.    Specific criteria are in subdivision B 3 d (6) (a). | 
       | Membrane filtration | Log credit equivalent to    removal efficiency demonstrated in challenge test for device if supported by    direct integrity testing. Specific criteria are in subdivision B 3 d (6) (b). | 
       | Second stage filtration | 0.5-log credit for second separate granular media filtration    stage if treatment train includes coagulation prior to first filter. Specific    criteria are in subdivision B 3 d (6) (c). | 
       | Slow sand filters | 2.5-log credit as a secondary filtration step; 3.0-log credit    as a primary filtration process. No prior chlorination for either option.    Specific criteria are in subdivision B 3 d (6) (d). | 
       | Inactivation Toolbox Options | 
       | Chlorine dioxide | Log credit based on measured    CT in relation to CT table. Specific criteria in subdivision B 3 d (7) (b). | 
       | Ozone | Log credit based on measured CT in relation to CT table.    Specific criteria in subdivision B 3 d (7) (b). | 
       | UV | Log credit based on validated UV dose in relation to UV dose    table; reactor validation testing required to establish UV dose and    associated operating conditions. Specific criteria in subdivision B 3 d (7)    (d). | 
  
         
          (3) Source toolbox components.
    (a) Watershed control program. Waterworks receive 0.5-log  Cryptosporidium treatment credit for implementing a watershed control program  that meets the requirements of this section.
    (i) Owners that intend to apply for the watershed control  program credit shall notify the commissioner of this intent no later than two  years prior to the treatment compliance date applicable to the waterworks in  subdivision B 3 a (3) of this section.
    (ii) Owners shall submit to the commissioner a proposed  watershed control plan no later than one year before the applicable treatment  compliance date in subdivision B 3 a (3) of this section. The commissioner  shall approve the watershed control plan for the waterworks to receive  watershed control program treatment credit. The watershed control plan shall  include the following elements:
    ((a)) Identification of an "area of influence"  outside of which the likelihood of Cryptosporidium or fecal contamination  affecting the treatment plant intake is not significant. This is the area to be  evaluated in future watershed surveys under subdivision B 3 d (3) (a) (v) ((b))  of this section.
    ((b)) Identification of both potential and actual sources  of Cryptosporidium contamination and an assessment of the relative impact of  these sources on the waterworks' source water quality.
    ((c)) An analysis of the effectiveness and feasibility of  control measures that could reduce Cryptosporidium loading from sources of  contamination to the waterworks' source water.
    ((d)) A statement of goals and specific actions the owner  shall undertake to reduce source water Cryptosporidium levels. The plan shall  explain how the actions are expected to contribute to specific goals, identify  watershed partners and their roles, identify resource requirements and  commitments, and include a schedule for plan implementation with deadlines for  completing specific actions identified in the plan.
    (iii) Waterworks with existing watershed control programs  (i.e., programs in place on January 5, 2006) are eligible to seek this credit.  Their watershed control plans shall meet the criteria in subdivision B 3 d (3)  (a) (ii) of this section and shall specify ongoing and future actions that will  reduce source water Cryptosporidium levels.
    (iv) If the commissioner does not respond to an owner  regarding approval of a watershed control plan submitted under this section and  the owner meets the other requirements of this section, the watershed control  program shall be considered approved and 0.5 log Cryptosporidium treatment  credit shall be awarded unless and until the commissioner subsequently withdraws  such approval.
    (v) To maintain the 0.5-log credit, owners shall complete  the following actions:
    ((a)) Submit an annual watershed control program status  report to the commissioner. The annual watershed control program status report  shall describe the owner's implementation of the approved plan and assess the  adequacy of the plan to meet its goals. It shall explain how the waterworks is  addressing any shortcomings in plan implementation, including those previously  identified by the commissioner or as the result of the watershed survey  conducted under subdivision B 3 d (3) (a) (v) ((b)) of this section. It shall  also describe any significant changes that have occurred in the watershed since  the last watershed sanitary survey. If an owner determines during implementation  that making a significant change to the approved watershed control program is  necessary, the owner shall notify the commissioner prior to making any such  changes. If any change is likely to reduce the level of source water  protection, the owner shall also list in the notification the actions the  owners will take to mitigate this effect.
    ((b)) Undergo a watershed sanitary survey every three years  for community waterworks and every five years for noncommunity waterworks and  submit the survey report to the commissioner. The survey shall be conducted  according to commissioner's guidelines and by persons the commissioner  approves.
    ((i)) The watershed sanitary survey shall meet the  following criteria: encompass the region identified in the watershed control  plan approved by the commissioner as the area of influence; assess the  implementation of actions to reduce source water Cryptosporidium levels; and  identify any significant new sources of Cryptosporidium.
    ((ii)) If the commissioner determines that significant  changes may have occurred in the watershed since the previous watershed  sanitary survey, the waterworks shall undergo another watershed sanitary survey  by a date the commissioner requires, which may be earlier than the regular date  in subdivision B 3 d (3) (a) (v) ((b)) of this section.
    ((c)) The owner shall make the watershed control plan,  annual status reports, and watershed sanitary survey reports available to the  public upon request. These documents shall be in a plain language style and  include criteria by which to evaluate the success of the program in achieving  plan goals. The commissioner may approve an owner to withhold from the public  portions of the annual status report, watershed control plan, and watershed  sanitary survey based on water supply security considerations.
    (vi) If the commissioner determines that an owner is not  carrying out the approved watershed control plan, the commissioner may withdraw  the watershed control program treatment credit.
    (a) Reserved.
    (b) Alternative source.
    (i) An owner may conduct source water monitoring that reflects  a different intake location (either in the same source or for an alternate  source) or a different procedure for the timing or level of withdrawal from the  source (alternative source monitoring). If the commissioner approves, an owner  may determine the bin classification under subdivision B 3 c (1) of this  section based on the alternative source monitoring results.
    (ii) If an owner conducts alternative source monitoring under  subdivision B 3 d (3) (b) (i) of this section, the owner shall also monitor  their current plant intake concurrently as described in subdivision B 3 a of  this section.
    (iii) Alternative source monitoring under subdivision B 3 d  (3) (b) (i) of this section shall meet the requirements for source monitoring  to determine bin classification, as described in subdivision B 3 a (1) through  (13) of this section. Owners shall report the alternative source monitoring  results to the commissioner, along with supporting information documenting the  operating conditions under which the samples were collected.
    (iv) If an owner determines the bin classification under  subdivision B 3 c (1) of this section using alternative source monitoring  results that reflect a different intake location or a different procedure for  managing the timing or level of withdrawal from the source, the owner shall  relocate the intake or permanently adopt the withdrawal procedure, as  applicable, no later than the applicable treatment compliance date in  subdivision B 3 c (3) of this section.
    (4) Pre-filtration treatment toolbox components.
    (a) Presedimentation. Waterworks receive 0.5-log  Cryptosporidium treatment credit for a presedimentation basin during any month  the process meets the following criteria:
    (i) The presedimentation basin shall be in continuous  operation and shall treat the entire plant flow taken from a surface water or  groundwater under the direct influence of surface water source.
    (ii) The waterworks shall continuously add a coagulant to the  presedimentation basin.
    (iii) The presedimentation basin shall achieve the performance  criteria in either of the following.
    ((a)) Demonstrates at least 0.5-log mean reduction of influent  turbidity. This reduction shall be determined using daily turbidity  measurements in the presedimentation process influent and effluent and shall be  calculated as follows: log10(monthly mean of daily influent turbidity) -  log10(monthly mean of daily effluent turbidity).
    ((b)) Complies with performance criteria approved by the  commissioner that demonstrate at least 0.5-log mean removal of micron-sized  particulate material through the presedimentation process.
    (b) Two-stage lime softening. Waterworks receive an additional  0.5-log Cryptosporidium treatment credit for a two-stage lime softening plant  if chemical addition and hardness precipitation occur in two separate and  sequential softening stages prior to filtration. Both softening stages shall  treat the entire plant flow taken from a surface water or groundwater under the  direct influence of surface water source.
    (c) Bank filtration. Waterworks receive Cryptosporidium  treatment credit for bank filtration that serves as pretreatment to a  filtration plant by meeting the criteria in this paragraph. Waterworks using  bank filtration when they begin source water monitoring under subdivision B 3 a  (1) of this section shall collect samples as described in subdivision B 3 a (6)  (d) of this section and are not eligible for this credit.
    (i) Wells with a ground water flow path of at least 25 feet  receive 0.5-log treatment credit; wells with a ground water flow path of at  least 50 feet receive 1.0-log treatment credit. The ground water flow path  shall be determined as specified in subdivision B 3 d (c) (iv) of this section.
    (ii) Only wells in granular aquifers are eligible for  treatment credit. Granular aquifers are those comprised of sand, clay, silt,  rock fragments, pebbles or larger particles, and minor cement. A waterworks  shall characterize the aquifer at the well site to determine aquifer properties.  Owners shall extract a core from the aquifer and demonstrate that in at least  90% of the core length, grains less than 1.0 mm in diameter constitute at least  10% of the core material.
    (iii) Only horizontal and vertical wells are eligible for  treatment credit.
    (iv) For vertical wells, the ground water flow path is the  measured distance from the edge of the surface water body under high flow  conditions (determined by the 100-year floodplain elevation boundary or by the  floodway, as defined in Federal Emergency Management Agency flood hazard maps)  to the well screen. For horizontal wells, the ground water flow path is the  measured distance from the bed of the river under normal flow conditions to the  closest horizontal well lateral screen.
    (v) Owners shall monitor each wellhead for turbidity at least  once every four hours while the bank filtration process is in operation. If  monthly average turbidity levels, based on daily maximum values in the well,  exceed 1 NTU, the owner shall report this result to the commissioner and  conduct an assessment within 30 days to determine the cause of the high  turbidity levels in the well. If the commissioner determines that microbial  removal has been compromised, the commissioner may revoke treatment credit  until the owner implements corrective actions approved by the commissioner to  remediate the problem.
    (vi) Springs and infiltration galleries are not eligible for  treatment credit under this section.
    (vii) Bank filtration demonstration of performance. The  commissioner may approve Cryptosporidium treatment credit for bank filtration  based on a demonstration of performance study that meets the criteria in this  paragraph. This treatment credit may be greater than 1.0-log and may be awarded  to bank filtration that does not meet the criteria in subdivision B 3 d (4) (c)  (i) through (v) of this section.
    ((a)) The study shall follow a protocol approved by the  commissioner and shall involve the collection of data on the removal of  Cryptosporidium or a surrogate for Cryptosporidium and related hydrogeologic  and water quality parameters during the full range of operating conditions.
    ((b)) The study shall include sampling both from the  production well(s) and from monitoring wells that are screened and located  along the shortest flow path between the surface water source and the  production well(s).
    (5) Treatment performance toolbox components.
    (a) Combined filter performance. Waterworks using conventional  filtration treatment or direct filtration treatment receive an additional  0.5-log Cryptosporidium treatment credit during any month the waterworks meets  the criteria in this paragraph. Combined filter effluent (CFE) turbidity shall  be less than or equal to 0.15 NTU in at least 95% of the measurements.  Turbidity shall be measured as described in 12VAC5-590-370 B 7 b and  12VAC5-590-370 E.
    (b) Individual filter performance. Waterworks using  conventional filtration treatment or direct filtration treatment receive  0.5-log Cryptosporidium treatment credit, which can be in addition to the  0.5-log credit under subdivision B 3 d (5) (a) of this section, during any  month the waterworks meets the criteria in this paragraph. Compliance with  these criteria shall be based on individual filter turbidity monitoring as  described in 12VAC5-590-370 B 7 b (1).
    (i) The filtered water turbidity for each individual filter  shall be less than or equal to 0.15 NTU in at least 95% of the measurements  recorded each month.
    (ii) No individual filter may have a measured turbidity  greater than 0.3 NTU in two consecutive measurements taken 15 minutes apart.
    (iii) Any waterworks that has received treatment credit for  individual filter performance and fails to meet the requirements of subdivision  B 3 d (5) (b) (i) or (ii) of this section during any month does not receive a  treatment technique violation under subdivision B 3 c (2) (c) if the  commissioner determines the following:
    ((a)) The failure was due to unusual and short-term  circumstances that could not reasonably be prevented through optimizing  treatment plant design, operation, and maintenance.
    ((b)) The waterworks has experienced no more than two such  failures in any calendar year.
    (6) Additional filtration toolbox components.
    (a) Bag and cartridge filters. Waterworks receive  Cryptosporidium treatment credit of up to 2.0-log for individual bag or  cartridge filters and up to 2.5-log for bag or cartridge filters operated in  series by meeting the criteria in subdivision B 3 d (6) (a) (i) through (x) of  this section. To be eligible for this credit, owners shall report the results of  challenge testing that meets the requirements of subdivision B 3 d (6) (a)(ii)  through (ix) of this section to the commissioner. The filters shall treat the  entire plant flow taken from a surface water or groundwater under the direct  influence of surface water source.
    (i) The Cryptosporidium treatment credit awarded to bag or  cartridge filters shall be based on the removal efficiency demonstrated during  challenge testing that is conducted according to the criteria in subdivision B  3 d (6) (a) (ii) through (ix) of this section. A factor of safety equal to  1-log for individual bag or cartridge filters and 0.5-log for bag or cartridge  filters in series shall be applied to challenge testing results to determine  removal credit. Owners may use results from challenge testing conducted prior  to January 5, 2006, if the prior testing was consistent with the criteria  specified in subdivision B 3 d (6) (a) (ii) through (ix) of this section.
    (ii) Challenge testing shall be performed on full-scale bag or  cartridge filters, and the associated filter housing or pressure vessel, that  are identical in material and construction to the filters and housings the  waterworks will use for removal of Cryptosporidium. Bag or cartridge filters  shall be challenge tested in the same configuration that the waterworks will  use, either as individual filters or as a series configuration of filters.
    (iii) Challenge testing shall be conducted using  Cryptosporidium or a surrogate that is removed no more efficiently than  Cryptosporidium. The microorganism or surrogate used during challenge testing  is referred to as the challenge particulate. The concentration of the challenge  particulate shall be determined using a method capable of discreetly  quantifying the specific microorganism or surrogate used in the test; gross  measurements such as turbidity shall not be used.
    (iv) The maximum feed water concentration that can be used  during a challenge test shall be based on the detection limit of the challenge  particulate in the filtrate (i.e., filtrate detection limit) and shall be  calculated using the following equation:
    Maximum Feed Concentration = 1 x 104 x (Filtrate  Detection Limit)
    (v) Challenge testing shall be conducted at the maximum design  flow rate for the filter as specified by the manufacturer.
    (vi) Each filter evaluated shall be tested for a duration  sufficient to reach 100% of the terminal pressure drop, which establishes the  maximum pressure drop under which the filter may be used to comply with the  requirements of subdivision B 3 d (6) (a) of this section.
    (vii) Removal efficiency of a filter shall be determined from  the results of the challenge test and expressed in terms of log removal values  using the following equation:
    LRV = LOG10(Cf) - LOG10(Cp)
    where LRV = log removal value demonstrated during challenge  testing; Cf = the feed concentration measured during the challenge  test; and Cp = the filtrate concentration measured during the  challenge test. In applying this equation, the same units shall be used for the  feed and filtrate concentrations. If the challenge particulate is not detected  in the filtrate, then the term Cp shall be set equal to the  detection limit.
    (viii) Each filter tested shall be challenged with the  challenge particulate during three periods over the filtration cycle: within  two hours of start-up of a new filter; when the pressure drop is between 45 and  55% of the terminal pressure drop; and at the end of the cycle after the  pressure drop has reached 100% of the terminal pressure drop. An LRV shall be  calculated for each of these challenge periods for each filter tested. The LRV  for the filter (LRVfilter) shall be assigned the value of the minimum LRV  observed during the three challenge periods for that filter.
    (ix) If fewer than 20 filters are tested, the overall removal  efficiency for the filter product line shall be set equal to the lowest LRV  filter among the filters tested. If 20 or more filters are tested, the overall  removal efficiency for the filter product line shall be set equal to the 10th  percentile of the set of LRVfilter values for the various filters tested. The  percentile is defined by (i/(n+1)) where i is the rank of n individual data  points ordered lowest to highest. If necessary, the 10th percentile may be  calculated using linear interpolation.
    (x) If a previously tested filter is modified in a manner that  could change the removal efficiency of the filter product line, challenge  testing to demonstrate the removal efficiency of the modified filter shall be  conducted and submitted to the commissioner.
    (b) Membrane filtration.
    (i) Waterworks receive Cryptosporidium treatment credit for  membrane filtration that meets the criteria of this paragraph. Membrane  cartridge filters that meet the definition of membrane filtration in  12VAC5-590-10 are eligible for this credit. The level of treatment credit a  waterworks receives is equal to the lower of the values determined as follows:
    ((a)) The removal efficiency demonstrated during challenge  testing conducted under the conditions in subdivision B 3 d (6) (b) (ii) of  this section.
    ((b)) The maximum removal efficiency that can be verified  through direct integrity testing used with the membrane filtration process  under the conditions in subdivision B 3 d (6) (b) (iii) of this section.
    (ii) Challenge Testing. The membrane used by the waterworks  shall undergo challenge testing to evaluate removal efficiency, and the owner  shall report the results of challenge testing to the commissioner. Challenge  testing shall be conducted according to the criteria in paragraphs ((a)) through  ((g)) of this section as follows (owners may use data from challenge testing  conducted prior to January 5, 2006, if the prior testing was consistent with  the criteria):
    ((a)) Challenge testing shall be conducted on either a  full-scale membrane module, identical in material and construction to the  membrane modules used in the waterworks' treatment facility, or a smaller-scale  membrane module, identical in material and similar in construction to the  full-scale module. A module is defined as the smallest component of a membrane  unit in which a specific membrane surface area is housed in a device with a  filtrate outlet structure.
    ((b)) Challenge testing shall be conducted using  Cryptosporidium oocysts or a surrogate that is removed no more efficiently than  Cryptosporidium oocysts. The organism or surrogate used during challenge  testing is referred to as the challenge particulate. The concentration of the  challenge particulate, in both the feed and filtrate water, shall be determined  using a method capable of discretely quantifying the specific challenge  particulate used in the test; gross measurements such as turbidity shall not be  used.
    ((c)) The maximum feed water concentration that can be used  during a challenge test is based on the detection limit of the challenge  particulate in the filtrate and shall be determined according to the following  equation:
    Maximum Feed Concentration = 3.16 x 106 x (Filtrate  Detection Limit)
    ((d)) Challenge testing shall be conducted under  representative hydraulic conditions at the maximum design flux and maximum  design process recovery specified by the manufacturer for the membrane module.  Flux is defined as the throughput of a pressure driven membrane process  expressed as flow per unit of membrane area. Recovery is defined as the volumetric  percent of feed water that is converted to filtrate over the course of an  operating cycle uninterrupted by events such as chemical cleaning or a solids  removal process (i.e., backwashing).
    ((e)) Removal efficiency of a membrane module shall be calculated  from the challenge test results and expressed as a log removal value according  to the following equation:
    LRV = LOG10(Cf) - LOG10(Cp)
    where LRV = log removal value demonstrated during the  challenge test; Cf = the feed concentration measured during the  challenge test; and Cp = the filtrate concentration measured during  the challenge test. Equivalent units shall be used for the feed and filtrate  concentrations. If the challenge particulate is not detected in the filtrate,  the term Cp is set equal to the detection limit for the purpose of  calculating the LRV. An LRV shall be calculated for each membrane module  evaluated during the challenge test.
    ((f)) The removal efficiency of a membrane filtration process  demonstrated during challenge testing shall be expressed as a log removal value  (LRVC-Test). If fewer than 20 modules are tested, then LRVC-Test  is equal to the lowest of the representative LRVs among the modules tested. If  20 or more modules are tested, then LRVC-Test is equal to the 10th  percentile of the representative LRVs among the modules tested. The percentile  is defined by (i/(n+1)) where i is the rank of n individual data points ordered  lowest to highest. If necessary, the 10th percentile may be calculated using  linear interpolation.
    ((g)) The challenge test shall establish a quality control  release value (QCRV) for a nondestructive performance test that demonstrates  the Cryptosporidium removal capability of the membrane filtration module. This  performance test shall be applied to each production membrane module used by  the waterworks that was not directly challenge tested in order to verify  Cryptosporidium removal capability. Production modules that do not meet the  established QCRV are not eligible for the treatment credit demonstrated during  the challenge test.
    ((h)) If a previously tested membrane is modified in a manner  that could change the removal efficiency of the membrane or the applicability  of the non-destructive performance test and associated QCRV, additional  challenge testing to demonstrate the removal efficiency of, and determine a new  QCRV for, the modified membrane shall be conducted and submitted to the  commissioner.
    (iii) Direct integrity testing. Owners shall conduct direct  integrity testing in a manner that demonstrates a removal efficiency equal to  or greater than the removal credit awarded to the membrane filtration process  and meets the requirements described in subdivision B 3 d 6 (b) (iii) ((a))  through ((f)) of this section. A direct integrity test is defined as a physical  test applied to a membrane unit in order to identify and isolate integrity  breaches (i.e., one or more leaks that could result in contamination of the  filtrate).
    ((a)) The direct integrity test shall be independently applied  to each membrane unit in service. A membrane unit is defined as a group of  membrane modules that share common valving that allows the unit to be isolated  from the rest of the system for the purpose of integrity testing or other  maintenance.
    ((b)) The direct integrity method shall have a resolution of  three micrometers or less, where resolution is defined as the size of the  smallest integrity breach that contributes to a response from the direct  integrity test.
    ((c)) The direct integrity test shall have a sensitivity  sufficient to verify the log treatment credit awarded to the membrane  filtration process by the commissioner, where sensitivity is defined as the  maximum log removal value that can be reliably verified by a direct integrity  test. Sensitivity shall be determined using the approach in either of the  following as applicable to the type of direct integrity test the waterworks  uses:
    ((i)) For direct integrity tests that use an applied pressure  or vacuum, the direct integrity test sensitivity shall be calculated according  to the following equation:
    LRVDIT = LOG10(Qp /(VCF x Qbreach))
    where LRVDIT = the sensitivity of the direct  integrity test;
    Qp = total design filtrate flow from the membrane  unit;
    Qbreach = flow of water from an integrity breach  associated with the smallest integrity test response that can be reliably  measured, and
    VCF = volumetric concentration factor. The volumetric  concentration factor is the ratio of the suspended solids concentration on the  high pressure side of the membrane relative to that in the feed water.
    ((ii)) For direct integrity tests that use a particulate or  molecular marker, the direct integrity test sensitivity shall be calculated  according to the following equation:
    LRVDIT = LOG10(Cf) - LOG10(Cp)
    where LRVDIT = the sensitivity of the direct  integrity test;
    Cf = the typical feed concentration of the marker  used in the test; and
    Cp = the filtrate concentration of the marker from  an integral membrane unit.
    ((d)) Owners shall establish a control limit within the  sensitivity limits of the direct integrity test that is indicative of an  integral membrane unit capable of meeting the removal credit awarded by the  commissioner.
    ((e)) If the result of a direct integrity test exceeds the  control limit established under subdivision B 3 d (6) (b) (iii) ((d)) of this  section, the owners shall remove the membrane unit from service. Owners shall  conduct a direct integrity test to verify any repairs, and may return the  membrane unit to service only if the direct integrity test is within the  established control limit.
    ((f)) Owners shall conduct direct integrity testing on each  membrane unit at a frequency of not less than once each day that the membrane  unit is in operation. The commissioner may approve less frequent testing, based  on demonstrated process reliability, the use of multiple barriers effective for  Cryptosporidium, or reliable process safeguards.
    (iv) Indirect integrity monitoring. Owners shall conduct  continuous indirect integrity monitoring on each membrane unit according to the  criteria in ((a)) through ((e)). Indirect integrity monitoring is defined as  monitoring some aspect of filtrate water quality that is indicative of the  removal of particulate matter. A waterworks that implements continuous direct  integrity testing of membrane units in accordance with the criteria in B 3 d  (6) (b) (iv) (iii) ((a)) through ((f)) of this section is not subject to the  requirements for continuous indirect integrity monitoring. Owners shall submit  a monthly report to the commissioner summarizing all continuous indirect integrity  monitoring results triggering direct integrity testing and the corrective  action that was taken in each case.
    ((a)) Unless the commissioner approves an alternative  parameter, continuous indirect integrity monitoring shall include continuous  filtrate turbidity monitoring.
    ((b)) Continuous monitoring shall be conducted at a frequency  of no less than once every 15 minutes.
    ((c)) Continuous monitoring shall be separately conducted on  each membrane unit.
    ((d)) If indirect integrity monitoring includes turbidity and  if the filtrate turbidity readings are above 0.15 NTU for a period greater than  15 minutes (i.e., two consecutive 15-minute readings above 0.15 NTU), direct  integrity testing shall immediately be performed on the associated membrane  unit as specified in subdivision B 3 d (6) (b) (iii) ((a)) through ((f)) of  this section.
    ((e)) If indirect integrity monitoring includes a alternative  parameter approved by the commissioner and if the alternative parameter exceeds  a control limit approved by the commissioner for a period greater than 15  minutes, direct integrity testing shall immediately be performed on the  associated membrane units as specified in subdivision B 3 d (6) (b) (iii) ((a))  through ((f)) of this section.
    (c) Second stage filtration. Waterworks receive 0.5-log  Cryptosporidium treatment credit for a separate second stage of filtration that  consists of sand, dual media, GAC, or other fine grain media following granular  media filtration if the commissioner approves. To be eligible for this credit, the  first stage of filtration shall be preceded by a coagulation step and both  filtration stages shall treat the entire plant flow taken from a surface water  or groundwater under the direct influence of surface water source. A cap, such  as GAC, on a single stage of filtration is not eligible for this credit. The  commissioner shall approve the treatment credit based on an assessment of the  design characteristics of the filtration process.
    (d) Slow sand filtration (as secondary filter). Waterworks are  eligible to receive 2.5-log Cryptosporidium treatment credit for a slow sand  filtration process that follows a separate stage of filtration if both  filtration stages treat entire plant flow taken from a surface water or ground  water under the direct influence of surface water source and no disinfectant  residual is present in the influent water to the slow sand filtration process.  The commissioner shall approve the treatment credit based on an assessment of  the design characteristics of the filtration process. This paragraph does not  apply to treatment credit awarded to slow sand filtration used as a primary  filtration process.
    (7) Inactivation toolbox components.
    (a) Calculation of CT values
    (i) CT is the product of the disinfectant contact time (T, in  minutes) and disinfectant concentration (C, in milligrams per liter). Owners of  waterworks with treatment credit for chlorine dioxide or ozone under  subdivision B 3 d (7) (b) of this section shall calculate CT at least once each  day, with both C and T measured during peak hourly flow in accordance with the  procedure listed in Appendix L.
    (ii) Waterworks with several disinfection segments in sequence  may calculate CT for each segment, where a disinfection segment is defined as a  treatment unit process with a measurable disinfectant residual level and a  liquid volume. Under this approach, owners shall add the Cryptosporidium CT  values in each segment to determine the total CT for the treatment plant.
    (b) CT values for chlorine dioxide and ozone.
    (i) Waterworks receive the Cryptosporidium treatment credit  listed in the following table by meeting the corresponding chlorine dioxide CT  value for the applicable water temperature, as described in subdivision B 3 d  (7) (a) of this section.
     
         
                 | CT Values (mg-min/L) for    Cryptosporidium Inactivation by Chlorine Dioxide1 | 
       | Log credit | Water Temperature, °C | 
       | Less than or equal to 0.5 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 5 | 7 | 10 | 15 | 20 | 25 | 30 | 
       | 0.25 | 159 | 153 | 140 | 128 | 107 | 90 | 69 | 45 | 29 | 19 | 12 | 
       | 0.5 | 319 | 305 | 279 | 256 | 214 | 180 | 138 | 89 | 58 | 38 | 24 | 
       | 1.0 | 637 | 610 | 558 | 511 | 429 | 360 | 277 | 179 | 116 | 75 | 49 | 
       | 1.5 | 956 | 915 | 838 | 767 | 643 | 539 | 415 | 268 | 174 | 113 | 73 | 
       | 2.0 | 1275 | 1220 | 1117 | 1023 | 858 | 719 | 553 | 357 | 232 | 150 | 98 | 
       | 2.5  | 1594 | 1525  | 1396 | 1278 | 1072 | 899 | 691 | 447  | 289  | 188 | 122 | 
       | 3.0 | 1912 | 1830  | 1675 | 1534  | 1286 | 1079  | 830 | 536  | 347  | 226 | 147 | 
       | 1Waterworks may use this equation to determine log    credit between the indicated values: Log credit = (0.001506×(1.09116)Temp)× CT | 
  
    (ii) Waterworks receive the Cryptosporidium treatment credit  listed in the following table by meeting the corresponding ozone CT values for  the applicable water temperature, as described in subdivision B 3 d (7) (a) of  this section.
           | CT Values (mg-min/L) for    Cryptosporidium Inactivation by Ozone1 | 
       | Log credit | Water Temperature, °C | 
       | Less than or equal to 0.5 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 5 | 7 | 10 | 15 | 20 | 25 | 30 | 
       | 0.25 | 6.0 | 5.8 | 5.2 | 4.8 | 4.0 | 3.3 | 2.5 | 1.6 | 1.0 | 0.6 | 0.39 | 
       | 0.5 | 12 | 12 | 10 | 9.5 | 7.9 | 6.5 | 4.9 | 3.1 | 2.0 | 1.2 | 0.78 | 
       | 1.0 | 24 | 23 | 21 | 19 | 16 | 13 | 9.9 | 6.2 | 3.9 | 2.5 | 1.6 | 
       | 1.5 | 36 | 35 | 31 | 29 | 24 | 20 | 15 | 9.3  | 5.9 | 3.7 | 2.4 | 
       | 2.0 | 48 | 46 | 42 | 38 | 32 | 26 | 20 | 12  | 7.8 | 4.9 | 3.1 | 
       | 2.5  | 60 | 58 | 52 | 48 | 40 | 33 | 25 | 16 | 9.8  | 6.2 | 3.9 | 
       | 3.0  | 72 | 69  | 63 | 57 | 47 | 39 | 30 | 19 | 12 | 7.4 | 4.7 | 
       | 1Waterworks may use this equation to determine log    credit between the indicated values: Log credit = (0.0397×(1.09757)Temp)× CT | 
  
    (c) Ultraviolet light. Waterworks receive Cryptosporidium,  Giardia lamblia, and virus treatment credits for ultraviolet (UV) light  reactors by achieving the corresponding UV dose values shown in subdivision B 3  d (7) (c) (i) of this section. Waterworks shall validate and monitor UV  reactors as described in subdivision B 3 d (7) (c) (ii) and (iii) of this section  to demonstrate that they are achieving a particular UV dose value for treatment  credit.
    (i) UV dose table. The treatment credits listed in this table  are for UV light at a wavelength of 254 nm as produced by a low pressure  mercury vapor lamp. To receive treatment credit for other lamp types,  waterworks shall demonstrate an equivalent germicidal dose through reactor  validation testing, as described in subdivision B 3 d (7) (c) (ii) of this  section. The UV dose values in this table are applicable only to post-filter  applications of UV in filtered systems.
           | UV dose table for Cryptosporidium, Giardia lamblia, and virus    inactivation credit | 
       | Log credit | Cryptosporidium UV dose (mJ/cm2) | Giardia lamblia UV dose (mJ/cm2) | Virus UV dose (mJ/cm2) | 
       | 0.5 | 1.6 | 1.5 | 39 | 
       | 1.0 | 2.5 | 2.1 | 58 | 
       | 1.5 | 3.9 | 3.0 | 79 | 
       | 2.0 | 5.8 | 5.2 | 100 | 
       | 2.5 | 8.5 | 7.7 | 121 | 
       | 3.0 | 12 | 11 | 143 | 
       | 3.5 | 15 | 15 | 163 | 
       | 4.0 | 22 | 22 | 186 | 
  
         
          (ii) Reactor validation testing. Waterworks shall use UV  reactors that have undergone validation testing to determine the operating  conditions under which the reactor delivers the UV dose required in subdivision  B 3 d (7) (c) (i) of this section (i.e., validated operating conditions). These  operating conditions shall include flow rate, UV intensity as measured by a UV  sensor, and UV lamp status.
    ((a)) When determining validated operating conditions, owners  shall account for the following factors: UV absorbance of the water; lamp  fouling and aging; measurement uncertainty of online sensors; UV dose  distributions arising from the velocity profiles through the reactor; failure  of UV lamps or other critical waterworks components; and inlet and outlet  piping or channel configurations of the UV reactor.
    ((b)) Validation testing shall include the following: full  scale testing of a reactor that conforms uniformly to the UV reactors used by  the waterworks and inactivation of a test microorganism whose dose response  characteristics have been quantified with a low pressure mercury vapor lamp.
    (iii) Reactor monitoring.
    ((a)) Owners shall monitor their UV reactors to determine if  the reactors are operating within validated conditions, as determined under  subdivision B 3 d (7) (c) (ii) of this section. This monitoring shall include  UV intensity as measured by a UV sensor, flow rate, lamp status, and other  parameters the commissioner designates based on UV reactor operation. Owners  shall verify the calibration of UV sensors and shall recalibrate sensors in  accordance with a protocol the commissioner approves.
    ((b)) To receive treatment credit for UV light, waterworks  shall treat at least 95% of the water delivered to the public during each month  by UV reactors operating within validated conditions for the required UV dose,  as described in subdivision B 3 d (7) (c) (i) and (ii) of this section. Owners  shall demonstrate compliance with this condition by the monitoring required  under subdivision B 3 d (7) (c) (iii)((a)) of this section.
    e. Owners shall comply with the applicable recordkeeping and  reporting requirements described in 12VAC5-590-530 and 12VAC5-590-550.
    C. Reserved.
    D. Reserved.
    E. Reserved.
    F. Reserved.
    G. Beginning January 1, 1993, each owner shall certify  annually in writing to the commissioner (using third party or manufacturer's  certification) that, when polymers containing acrylamide or epichlorohydrin are  used by the waterworks in drinking water systems, the combination (or product)  of dose and monomer level does not exceed the following specified levels:  Acrylamide = 0.05% dosed at 1 ppm (or equivalent) of polymer. Epichlorohydrin =  0.01% dosed at 20 ppm (or equivalent) of polymer. Certifications may rely on  manufacturers or third parties, as approved by the commissioner.
    H. Treatment technique for control of disinfection byproduct  (DBPP) precursors.
    1. Applicability.
    a. Waterworks that use surface water or groundwater under the  direct influence of surface water using conventional filtration treatment shall  operate with enhanced coagulation or enhanced softening to achieve the TOC  percent removal levels specified in subdivision H 2 of this section unless the  waterworks meets at least one of the alternative compliance criteria listed in  subdivision H 1 b or c of this section.
    b. Alternative compliance criteria for enhanced coagulation  and enhanced softening waterworks. Owners of waterworks that use surface water  or groundwater under the direct influence of surface water provided with  conventional filtration treatment may use the alternative compliance criteria  in subdivisions H 1 b (1) through (6) of this section to comply with this  section in lieu of complying with subdivision H 2 of this section. Owners shall  still comply with monitoring requirements in 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 i.
    (1) The waterworks' source water TOC level, measured according  to 12VAC5-590-440, is less than 2.0 mg/L, calculated quarterly as a running  annual average.
    (2) The waterworks' treated water TOC level, measured  according to 12VAC5-590-440, is less than 2.0 mg/L, calculated quarterly as a  running annual average.
    (3) The waterworks' source water TOC level, measured according  to 12VAC5-590-440, is less than 4.0 mg/L, calculated quarterly as a running  annual average; the source water alkalinity, measured according to  12VAC5-590-440, is greater than 60 mg/L (as CaCO3), calculated  quarterly as a running annual average; and either the TTHM and HAA5 running  annual averages are no greater than 0.040 mg/L and 0.030 mg/L, respectively; or  prior to the effective date for compliance in 12VAC590-370 B 3 a, the owner has  made a clear and irrevocable financial commitment not later than the effective  date for compliance in 12VAC590-370 B 3 a to use of technologies that will  limit the levels of TTHMs and HAA5 to no more than 0.040 mg/L and 0.030 mg/L,  respectively. Owners shall submit evidence of a clear and irrevocable financial  commitment, in addition to a schedule containing milestones and periodic  progress reports for installation and operation of appropriate technologies, to  the commissioner for approval not later than the effective date for compliance  in 12VAC590-370 B 3 a. These technologies shall be installed and operating not  later than June 30, 2005. Failure to install and operate these technologies by  the date in the approved schedule will constitute a violation of these  regulations.
    (4) The TTHM and HAA5 running annual averages are no greater  than 0.040 mg/L and 0.030 mg/L, respectively, and the waterworks uses only  chlorine for primary disinfection and maintenance of a residual in the  distribution system.
    (5) The waterworks' source water SUVA, prior to any treatment  and measured monthly according to 12VAC5-590-440, is less than or equal to 2.0  L/mg-m, calculated quarterly as a running annual average.
    (6) The waterworks' finished water SUVA, measured monthly  according to 12VAC5-590-440, is less than or equal to 2.0 L/mg-m, calculated  quarterly as a running annual average.
    c. Additional alternative compliance criteria for softening  waterworks. Waterworks practicing enhanced softening that cannot achieve the  TOC removals required by subdivision H 2 b of this section may use the  alternative compliance criteria in subdivisions H 1 c (1) and (2) of this  section in lieu of complying with subdivision H 2 of this section. Owners shall  still comply with monitoring requirements in 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 i.
    (1) Softening that results in lowering the treated water alkalinity  to less than 60 mg/L (as CaCO3), measured monthly according to  12VAC5-590-440 and calculated quarterly as a running annual average.
    (2) Softening that results in removing at least 10 mg/L of  magnesium hardness (as CaCO3), measured monthly according to  12VAC5-590-440 and calculated quarterly as a running annual average.
    2. Enhanced coagulation and enhanced softening performance  requirements.
    a. Waterworks shall achieve the percent reduction of TOC  specified in subdivision H 2 b of this section between the source water and the  combined filter effluent, unless the commissioner approves a waterworks'  request for alternate minimum TOC removal (Step 2) requirements under  subdivision H 2 c of this section.
    b. Required Step 1 TOC reductions, indicated in the following  table, are based upon specified source water parameters measured in accordance  with 12VAC5-590-440. Waterworks practicing softening are required to meet the  Step 1 TOC reductions in the far-right column (Source water alkalinity greater  than 120 mg/L) for the specified source water TOC:
    Step 1 Required Removal of TOC by Enhanced Coagulation and  Enhanced Softening for Community or Nontransient Noncommunity Waterworks That  Use Surface Water or Groundwater Under the Direct Influence of Surface Water Using  Conventional Treatment 1, 2
           | Source-water TOC mg/L | Source-water alkalinity, mg/L    as CaCO3 | 
       | 0-60 | greater than 60-120 | greater than 1203 | 
       | greater than 2.0 - 4.0 | 35.0% | 25.0% | 15.0% | 
       | greater than 4.0 - 8.0 | 45.0% | 35.0% | 25.0% | 
       | greater than 8.0 | 50.0% | 40.0% | 30.0% | 
       | 1Waterworks meeting at least one of the conditions in    subdivisions H 1 b (1) through (6) of this section are not required to    operate with enhanced coagulation. | 
       | 2Softening waterworks meeting one of the alternative    compliance criteria in subdivision H 1 c of this section are not required to    operate with enhanced softening. | 
       | 3Waterworks practicing softening shall meet the TOC    removal requirements in this column. | 
  
    c. Waterworks that use surface water or groundwater under the  direct influence of surface water with conventional treatment systems that  cannot achieve the Step 1 TOC removals required by subdivision H 2 b of this  section due to water quality parameters or operational constraints shall apply  to the commissioner, within three months of failure to achieve the TOC removals  required by subdivision H 2 b of this section, for approval of alternative  minimum TOC (Step 2) removal requirements submitted by the waterworks. If the  commissioner approves the alternative minimum TOC removal (Step 2) requirements,  the commissioner may make those requirements retroactive for the purposes of  determining compliance. Until the commissioner approves the alternate minimum  TOC removal (Step 2) requirements, the owner shall meet the Step 1 TOC removals  contained in subdivision H 2 b of this section.
    d. Alternate minimum TOC removal (Step 2) requirements.  Applications, made to the commissioner by waterworks using enhanced  coagulation, for approval of alternative minimum TOC removal (Step 2)  requirements under subdivision H 2 c of this section shall include, at a  minimum, results of bench- or pilot-scale testing conducted under subdivision H  2 d (1) of this section. The submitted bench- or pilot-scale testing shall be  used to determine the alternate enhanced coagulation level.
    (1) Alternate enhanced coagulation level is defined as  coagulation at a coagulant dose and pH as determined by the method described in  subdivisions H 2 d (1) through (5) of this section such that an incremental  addition of 10 mg/L of alum (or equivalent amount of ferric salt) results in a  TOC removal of equal to or less than 0.3 mg/L. The percent removal of TOC at  this point on the "TOC removal versus coagulant dose" curve is then  defined as the minimum TOC removal required for the waterworks. Once approved  by the commissioner, this minimum requirement supersedes the minimum TOC  removal required by the table in subdivision H 2 b of this section. This  requirement will be effective until such time as the commissioner approves a  new value based on the results of a new bench- and pilot-scale test. Failure to  achieve the alternative minimum TOC removal levels set by the commissioner is a  violation of these regulations.
    (2) Bench- or pilot-scale testing of enhanced coagulation  shall be conducted by using representative water samples and adding 10 mg/L  increments of alum (or equivalent amounts of ferric salt) until the pH is  reduced to a level less than or equal to the enhanced coagulation Step 2 target  pH shown in the following table:
           | Enhanced Coagulation Step 2 Target pH | 
       | Alkalinity (mg/L as CaCO3) | Target pH | 
       | 0-60 | 5.5 | 
       | greater than 60-120 | 6.3 | 
       | greater than 120-240 | 7.0 | 
       | greater than 240 | 7.5 | 
  
    (3) For waters with alkalinities of less than 60 mg/L for  which addition of small amounts of alum or equivalent addition of iron  coagulant drives the pH below 5.5 before significant TOC removal occurs, the  owner shall add necessary chemicals to maintain the pH between 5.3 and 5.7 in  samples until the TOC removal of 0.3 mg/L per 10 mg/L alum added (or equivalent  addition of iron coagulant) is reached.
    (4) The owner may operate at any coagulant dose or pH  necessary (consistent with other sections of these regulations) to achieve the  minimum TOC percent removal approved under subdivision H 2 c of this section.
    (5) If the TOC removal is consistently less than 0.3 mg/L of  TOC per 10 mg/L of incremental alum dose at all dosages of alum (or equivalent  addition of iron coagulant), the water is deemed to contain TOC not amenable to  enhanced coagulation. The waterworks may then apply to the commissioner for a  waiver of enhanced coagulation requirements.
    3. Compliance calculations.
    a. Owners of waterworks that use surface water or groundwater  under the direct influence of surface water other than those identified in  subdivision H 1 b or H 1 c of this section shall comply with requirements  contained in subdivision H 2 b or H 2 c of this section. Owners shall calculate  compliance quarterly, beginning after the waterworks has collected 12 months of  data, by determining an annual average using the following method:
    (1) Determine actual monthly TOC percent removal, equal to:
         (1-(treated water TOC/source water  TOC))X100
    (2) Determine the required monthly TOC percent removal (from  either the table in subdivision H 2 b of this section or from subdivision H 2 c  of this section).
    (3) Divide the value in subdivision H 3 a (1) of this section  by the value in subdivision H 3 a (2) of this section.
    (4) Add together the results of subdivision H 3 a (3) of this  section for the last 12 months and divide by 12.
    (5) If the value calculated in subdivision H 3 a (4) of this  section is less than 1.00, the waterworks is not in compliance with the TOC  percent removal requirements.
    b. Owners may use the provisions in subdivisions H 3 b (1)  through (5) of this section in lieu of the calculations in subdivisions H 3 a  (1) through (5) of this section to determine compliance with TOC percent  removal requirements.
    (1) In any month that the waterworks' treated or source water  TOC level, measured according to 12VAC5-590-440, is less than 2.0 mg/L, the  owner may assign a monthly value of 1.0 (in lieu of the value calculated in  subdivision H 3 a (3) of this section) when calculating compliance under the  provisions of subdivision H 3 a of this section.
    (2) In any month that a waterworks practicing softening  removes at least 10 mg/L of magnesium hardness (as CaCO3), the  waterworks may assign a monthly value of 1.0 (in lieu of the value calculated  in subdivision H 3 a (3) of this section) when calculating compliance under the  provisions of subdivision H 3 a of this section.
    (3) In any month that the waterworks' source water SUVA, prior  to any treatment and measured according to 12VAC5-590-440, is equal to or less  than 2.0 L/mg-m, the owner may assign a monthly value of 1.0 (in lieu of the  value calculated in subdivision H 3 a (3) of this section) when calculating  compliance under the provisions of subdivision H 3 a of this section.
    (4) In any month that the waterworks' finished water SUVA,  measured according to 12VAC5-590-440, is equal to or less than 2.0 L/mg-m, the  owner may assign a monthly value of 1.0 (in lieu of the value calculated in  subdivision H 3 a (3) of this section) when calculating compliance under the  provisions of subdivision H 3 a of this section.
    (5) In any month that a waterworks practicing enhanced  softening lowers alkalinity below 60 mg/L (as CaCO3), the owner may  assign a monthly value of 1.0 (in lieu of the value calculated in subdivision H  3 a (3) of this section) when calculating compliance under the provisions of  subdivision H 3 a of this section.
    c. Waterworks that use surface water or groundwater under the  direct influence of surface water and using conventional treatment may also  comply with the requirements of this section by meeting the criteria in subdivision  H 1 b or c of this section.
    4. Enhanced coagulation or enhanced softening is the treatment  technique required to control the level of DBP precursors in drinking water  treatment and distribution systems for waterworks using surface water or  groundwater under the direct influence of surface water and using conventional  treatment.
    I. The best technology, treatment techniques, or other means  available for achieving compliance with the maximum contaminant levels for  disinfection byproducts show in Table 2.13 are listed below:
    1. The best technology, treatment techniques, or other means  available for achieving compliance with the maximum contaminant levels for  bromate and chlorite:
           | Disinfection byproduct | Best available technology | 
       | Bromate | Control of ozone treatment process to reduce production of    bromate.  | 
       | Chlorite | Control of treatment processes to reduce disinfectant demand    and control of disinfection treatment processes to reduce disinfectant levels | 
  
    2. The best technology, treatment techniques, or other means  available for achieving compliance with the running annual average maximum  contaminant levels for TTHM and HAA5:
           | Disinfection byproduct | Best available technology | 
       | Total trihalomethanes (TTHM) and Haloacetic acids (five)    (HAA5) | Enhanced coagulation or enhanced softening or GAC10, with    chlorine as the primary and residual disinfectant | 
  
    3. The best technology, treatment techniques, or other means  available for achieving compliance with the locational running annual average  maximum contaminant levels for TTHM and HAA5 for all systems that disinfect  their source water:
           | Disinfection byproduct | Best available technology | 
       | Total trihalomethanes (TTHM) and Haloacetic acids (five)    (HAA5) | Enhanced coagulation or enhanced softening, plus GAC10; or    nanofiltration with a molecular weight cutoff less than or equal to 1000    Daltons; or GAC20 | 
  
    4. The best technology, treatment techniques, or other means  available for achieving compliance with the locational running annual average  maximum contaminant levels for TTHM and HAA5 for consecutive systems waterworks  and applies only to the disinfected water that consecutive systems waterworks  buy or otherwise receive:
           | Disinfection byproduct | Best available technology | 
       | Total trihalomethanes (TTHM) and Haloacetic acids (five)    (HAA5) | SystemsWaterworks serving equal to or greater    than 10,000: Improved distribution system and storage tank management to    reduce residence time, plus the use of chloramines for disinfectant residual    maintenance
 SystemsWaterworks serving less than 10,000:    Improved distribution system and storage tank management to reduce residence    time
 | 
  
    J. The best technology, treatment techniques, or other means  available for achieving compliance with the maximum residual disinfectant  levels identified in Table 2.12 is the control of treatment processes to reduce  disinfectant demand and control of disinfection treatment processes to reduce  disinfectant levels.
    K. If spent filter backwash water, thickener supernatant, or  liquids from dewatering processes are recycled, in any waterworks supplied by a  surface water source and waterworks supplied by a groundwater source under the  direct influence of surface water that employ conventional filtration or direct  filtration treatment, then they are subject to the recycle treatment technique  requirement. Under this requirement recycle flows shall be returned through all  the processes of the treatment system, or an alternative location approved by  the state, by June 8, 2004.
    L. Waterworks with uncovered finished water storage  facilities shall comply with the requirements to cover the facility or treat  the discharge from the facility as described in this paragraph.
    1. Waterworks using uncovered finished water storage  facilities shall comply with the conditions of this section.
    2. Owners shall notify the commissioner of the use of each  uncovered finished water storage facility no later than April 1, 2008.
    3. Owners shall meet the conditions of subdivision L 3 a or b  of this section for each uncovered finished water storage facility or be in compliance  with a State-approved schedule to meet these conditions no later than April 1,  2009.
    a. All uncovered finished water storage facilities shall be  covered.
    b. Waterworks shall treat the discharge from the uncovered  finished water storage facility to the distribution system to achieve  inactivation and/or removal of at least 4-log virus, 3-log Giardia lamblia, and  2-log Cryptosporidium using a protocol approved by the commissioner.
    4. Failure to comply with the requirements of this section is  a violation of the treatment technique requirement.
    12VAC5-590-421. Groundwater system treatment techniques.
    A. Owners of groundwater systems that (i) have confirmed  E. coli contamination as described in 12VAC5-590-379 B or (ii) have been  notified in writing of a significant deficiency as described in 12VAC5-590-350  D shall meet the requirements of this section. Failure to meet any requirement  of this section after the applicable time period specified is a treatment  technique violation.
    1. Owners of groundwater systems meeting either one of the  conditions in clause (i) or (ii) above shall implement one or more of the  following corrective actions:
    a. Correct all significant deficiencies;
    b. Provide an alternate source of water;
    c. Eliminate the source of contamination; or
    d. Provide treatment of the groundwater source that  reliably achieves at least 4-log treatment of viruses before or at the first  consumer.
    2. Unless the ODW directs the groundwater system owner to  implement a specific corrective action, the groundwater system owner shall  consult with the ODW regarding the appropriate corrective action within 30 days  of receiving written notification from the commissioner or the laboratory. This  consultation may take the form of a telephone conversation, electronic mail,  meeting, or other mechanism agreed to by the ODW.
    3. Within 45 days of receiving this notification, the  groundwater system owner shall submit a written Corrective Action Plan (CAP) to  the commissioner that satisfactorily addresses the deficiency. The CAP shall  include a schedule for completing individual actions, and shall include one or  more of the corrective actions in subdivision A 1 of this section. Approval of  the CAP by the commissioner constitutes an approved CAP.
    4. Within 120 days of receiving written notification from  the commissioner or the laboratory, the groundwater system owner shall either:
    a. Have a completed corrective action in accordance with  the commissioner-approved CAP including commissioner-specified interim  measures; or
    b. Be in compliance with a commissioner-approved CAP and  schedule subject to the conditions specified in subdivisions 4 b 1 and 2  of this subsection.
    (1) Any subsequent modifications to a commissioner-approved  CAP and schedule shall also be approved by the commissioner.
    (2) If the commissioner specifies interim measures for  protection of the public health pending the commissioner's approval of the CAP  and schedule or pending completion of the CAP, the groundwater system owner  shall comply with these interim measures as well as with any schedule specified  by the commissioner.
    5. When a significant deficiency is identified at a waterworks  that uses both groundwater and surface water or a GUDI source, the owner  shall comply with this section unless the commissioner has determined  that the significant deficiency is in a portion of the distribution system that  is served solely by surface water or a GUDI.
    B. Owners of groundwater systems that provide at least  4-log treatment of viruses before or at the first customer shall conduct  compliance monitoring to demonstrate treatment effectiveness.
    1. Existing groundwater sources. A groundwater system that  is not required to meet the source water monitoring requirements of  12VAC5-590-379 for any groundwater source(s) because the owner has been  notified by the ODW that the groundwater system provides at least 4-log  treatment of viruses before or at the first customer for any groundwater  source(s) shall comply with the following:
    a. The groundwater system owner shall have written approval  from the ODW that the groundwater system provides at least 4-log treatment of  viruses before or at the first customer served by the groundwater source.
    b. The groundwater system owner shall conduct compliance  monitoring as required by subsection C of this section within 30 days of  placing the source in service.
    2. New groundwater sources. A groundwater system owner that  places a new groundwater source into service shall meet the requirements of  subdivisions 1 a and b of this subsection and conduct raw water monitoring in  accordance with 12VAC5-590-425. The groundwater system owner shall provide  engineering, operational, or other information as required by the ODW.
    C. The owner of a groundwater system subject to the  requirements of subsection B of this section shall monitor the effectiveness  and reliability of treatment for that groundwater source before or at the first  customer as follows:
    1. Chemical disinfection.
    a. The owner of a groundwater system that serves greater  than 3,300 people shall continuously monitor and record the residual  disinfectant concentration using analytical methods specified in 40 CFR 141.74  (a)(2) at a location approved by the ODW and shall record the lowest residual  disinfectant concentration each day that water from the groundwater source is  served to the public. The groundwater system owner shall maintain the  ODW-determined residual disinfectant concentration every day the groundwater  system serves water from the groundwater source to the public. If there is a  failure in the continuous monitoring equipment, the groundwater system owner  shall conduct grab sampling every four hours until the continuous monitoring  equipment is returned to service. The system shall resume continuous residual  disinfectant monitoring within 14 days.
    b. The owner of a groundwater system that serves 3,300 or  fewer people shall monitor the residual disinfectant concentration using  analytical methods specified in 40 CFR 141.74 (a)(2) at a location approved by  the ODW and record the residual disinfection concentration each day that water  from the groundwater source is served to the public. The groundwater system  owner shall maintain the ODW-determined residual disinfectant concentration  every day the groundwater system serves water from the groundwater source to  the public. The groundwater system owner shall take a daily grab sample during  the hour of peak flow or at another time specified by the ODW. If any daily  grab sample measurement falls below the ODW-determined residual disinfectant  concentration, the groundwater system owner shall take follow-up samples every  four hours until the residual disinfectant concentration is restored to the  ODW-determined level. A groundwater system that serves 3,300 or fewer people  may monitor continuously to meet the requirements of this subsection.
    c. Failure to maintain the ODW-specified minimum residual  disinfectant concentration for a period of more than four hours is a violation  of the treatment technique requirement.
    2. A groundwater system owner that uses an ODW-approved alternative  treatment to meet the requirements of this section by providing at least 4-log  treatment of viruses before or at the first customer shall:
    a. Monitor the alternative treatment in accordance with all  ODW-specified monitoring requirements; and
    b. Operate the alternative treatment in accordance with all  ODW-specified compliance requirements necessary to achieve at least 4-log  treatment of viruses.
    3. Failure to meet the monitoring requirements of  subsection C of this section is a violation and requires the groundwater system  owner to provide public notification as required in 12VAC5-590-540.
    D. Discontinuing compliance monitoring or treatment.
    1. A groundwater system owner may discontinue compliance  monitoring if the ODW determines and documents in writing that compliance  monitoring is no longer necessary for that groundwater source. Owners of  groundwater systems that have ODW approval to discontinue compliance monitoring  shall be subject to the triggered source water monitoring requirements of 12VAC5-590-379.
    2. A groundwater system owner discontinuing compliance  monitoring is still subject to the requirements of 12VAC5-590-380 H.
    3. Owners of waterworks with groundwater sources that have  been required by the commissioner to provide at least 4-log treatment of  viruses shall not discontinue treatment or monitoring.
    12VAC5-590-425. Raw water monitoring requirements for  groundwater sources.
    A. The owner of any groundwater source utilizing chlorine  disinfection or any other treatment or chemical addition that may alter or  affect the bacteriological quality of the raw water shall collect source  samples for bacteriological analysis in accordance with this section.
    B. All bacteriological samples under this section shall be  collected from the raw water prior to any treatment or chemical addition.
    1. The owner shall provide a suitable raw water sample tap  at each groundwater source.
    2. If conditions are such that it is not possible to  install a raw water sample tap, an alternate sample location acceptable to the  commissioner may be utilized for this monitoring.
    C. All samples shall be analyzed in accordance with  12VAC5-590-440 by the DCLS or by a laboratory certified by DCLS for drinking  water samples and by a test method that will yield a Most Probable Number (MPN)  result for both total coliforms and E. coli.
    D. Number of samples.
    1. The number of routine raw water samples to be collected  and the frequency of sampling shall be determined by the district engineer. The  district engineer will notify the waterworks owner of the raw water sampling  requirements.
    2. As a minimum, the owner shall collect raw water samples  in accordance with the following table:
                | Source Type | Minimum Routine Raw Water Monitoring Frequency | Parameters | 
          | Well located in non-karst geology | One sample per year | Total coliforms MPN and E coli MPN | 
       | Well located in karst geology | One sample per calendar quarter | Total coliforms MPN and E coli MPN | 
       | Spring | One sample per month | Total coliforms MPN and E coli MPN | 
  
    3. When a single sample result from any groundwater source  that requires a routine raw water monitoring frequency of less than monthly  indicates total coliforms in excess of 50 colonies per 100 mL or the presence  of E. coli, the owner shall collect one confirmation sample within 10 calendar  days of notification of the results. The district engineer may require that  additional samples be collected and will establish the specific number of  samples and the monitoring frequency.
    E. If the results of the raw water monitoring required by  this section indicate total coliforms in excess of 50 colonies per 100 ml in  two or more samples collected during any running six-month period or the  presence of E. coli in two or more samples collected during any running  six-month period, the waterworks owner shall provide all necessary information  required in 12VAC5-590-430 to the district engineer and the commissioner will  make a GUDI determination for the groundwater source.
    F. If the results of the raw water monitoring required by  this section indicate the presence of E. coli in two or more samples collected  during any running six-month period, the waterworks owner shall:
    1. Issue a Tier 1 public notice in accordance with  12VAC5-590-540 A 1.
    2. Provide disinfection treatment to achieve a 4-log virus  inactivation as specified in 12VAC5-590-421 A 1 d.
    3. Conduct compliance monitoring as specified in  12VAC5-590-421 C 1.
    12VAC5-590-440. Analytical methods.
    Analytical methods to determine compliance with the  requirements of this chapter shall be those specified in the applicable edition  of "Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,"  published by the American Public Health Association, the American Water Works  Association, and the Water Pollution Control Federation; "Methods for  Chemical Analysis of Water and Wastes," Environmental Protection Agency,  Office of Technology Transfer, Washington, D.C. 20460, 1974; and "Methods  for the Determination of Organic Compounds in Finished Drinking Water and Raw  Source Water" (Sept 1986), EPA, Environmental Monitoring and Support  Laboratory, Cincinnati, OH 45268 or in the case of primary maximum contaminant  levels and lead and copper action levels, those methods shall be followed by  the Division of Consolidated Laboratory Services and All drinking water  analyses for compliance purposes shall have been performed by analytical  methods that are consistent with current U.S. Environmental Protection  Agency regulations found at 40 CFR Part 141 and 40 CFR Part 143. All  laboratories Laboratories seeking certification to perform drinking  water analyses shall comply with all appropriate applicable  regulations promulgated by the Department of General Services, Division of  Consolidated Laboratory Services.
    Testing for alkalinity, calcium, conductivity,  disinfectant residual, orthophosphate, pH, silica, temperature, and turbidity  for compliance purposes may be performed by any person or party acceptable to  the commissioner.
           |   | Table 2.2 ― Inorganic Chemicals. | 
       |   | Substance | Primary Maximum Contaminant Level (mg/L) | 
       |   | Antimony | 0.006 | 
       |   | Arsenic (As) | 0.010*** | 
       |   | Asbestos | 7 Million Fibers/Liter (longer than 10 um) | 
       |   | Barium (Ba) | 2 | 
       |   | Beryllium | 0.004 | 
       |   | Cadmium (Cd) | 0.005 | 
       |   | Chromium (Cr) | 0.1 | 
       |   | Cyanide (as free Cyanide) | 0.2 | 
       |   | Fluoride (F) | 4.0 # | 
       |   | Mercury (Hg) | 0.002 | 
       |   | Nickel | 0.1No Limits Designated
 | 
       |   | Nitrate (as N) | 10** | 
       |   | Nitrite (as N) | 1 | 
       |   | Total Nitrate and Nitrite (as N) | 10 | 
       |   | Selenium (Se) | 0.05 | 
       |   | Thallium | 0.002 | 
       |   | Substance | Secondary Maximum Contaminant Level (mg/L) | 
       |   | Chloride (Cl) | 250.0 | 
       |   | Copper (Cu) | 1.0 | 
       |   | Corrosivity | Noncorrosive, See Appendix B | 
       |   | Fluoride | 2.0 | 
       |   | Foaming Agents | 0.5* | 
       |   | Iron (Fe) | 0.3 | 
       |   | Manganese (Mn) | 0.05 | 
       |   | Sodium (Na) | No Limits Designated | 
       |   | Sulfate (SO4) | 250.0 | 
       |   | Zinc (Zn) | 5.0 | 
       |   | Substance | Action Level (mg/L) | 
       |   | Lead (Pb) | 0.015 | 
       |   | Copper (Cu) | 1.3 | 
       |   | # Note. For artificially fluoridated waterworks the minimum    concentration of fluoride should be 0.8 mg/L and the maximum should be 1.0    mg/L. The optimum control limit is 0.9 mg/L. (See Appendix B) | 
       |   | *Note. Concentration reported in terms of Methylene Blue    Active Substances. | 
       |   | **Note. See Appendix B for Exception Regarding Noncommunity    Waterworks. | 
       |   | ***Note. The PMCL for arsenic is 0.010 mg/L for community    and nontransient noncommunity waterworks effective January 23, 2006. Arsenic    sampling results shall be reported to the nearest 0.001 mg/L. | 
  
     
           |   | Table 2.3 ― Organic Chemicals. | 
       |   | Substance | Primary Maximum Contaminant Levels (mg/L) | 
       |   | VOC | 
       |   | 1. Vinyl Chloride | 0.002 | 
       |   | 2. Benzene | 0.005 | 
       |   | 3. Carbon Tetrachloride | 0.005 | 
       |   | 4. 1,2‑Dichloroethane | 0.005 | 
       |   | 5. Trichloroethylene (TCE) | 0.005 | 
       |   | 6. 1,1‑Dichloroethylene | 0.007 | 
       |   | 7. 1,1,1‑Trichloroethane | 0.2 | 
       |   | 8. para‑Dichlorobenzene | 0.075 | 
       |   | 9. cis‑1,2‑Dichloroethylene | 0.07 | 
       |   | 10. 1,2‑Dichloropropane | 0.005 | 
       |   | 11. Ethylbenzene | 0.7 | 
       |   | 12. Monochlorobenzene | 0.1 | 
       |   | 13. o‑Dichlorobenznen | 0.6 | 
       |   | 14. Styrene | 0.1 | 
       |   | 15. Tetrachloroethylene | 0.005 | 
       |   | 16. Toluene | 1 | 
       |   | 17. trans‑1,2‑Dichloroethylene | 0.1 | 
       |   | 18. Xylene (total) | 10 | 
       |   | 19. Dichloromethane  | 0.005 | 
       |   | 20. 1,2,4‑Trichlorobenzene  | 0.07 | 
       |   | 21. 1,1,2‑Trichloroethane  | 0.05 | 
       |   | SOC | 
       |   | 1. Alachlor | 0.002 | 
       |   | 2. Atrazine | 0.003 | 
       |   | 3. Carbofuran | 0.04 | 
       |   | 4. Chlordane | 0.002 | 
       |   | 5. Heptachlor | 0.0004 | 
       |   | 6. Heptachlor epoxide | 0.0002 | 
       |   | 7. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) | 0.0005 | 
       |   | 8. Dibromochloropropane (DBCP) | 0.0002 | 
       |   | 9. Ethylene dibromide (EDB) | 0.00005 | 
       |   | 10. Lindane | 0.0002 | 
       |   | 11. Methoxychlor | 0.04 | 
       |   | 12. Toxaphene | 0.003 | 
       |   | 13.,4‑Dichlorophenoxyacetic Acid (2,4‑D) | 0.07 | 
       |   | 14. 2,4,5‑Trichlorophenoxypropionic Acid (2,4,5‑TP    or Silvex) | 0.05 | 
       |   | 15. Reserved |   | 
       |   | 16. Reserved |   | 
       |   | 17. Reserved |   | 
       |   | 18. Pentachlorophenol | 0.001 | 
       |   | 19. Benzo(a)pyrene | 0.0002 | 
       |   | 20. Dalapon | 0.2 | 
       |   | 21. Di(2‑ethylhexy)adipate | 0.4 | 
       |   | 22. Di(2‑ethylhexy)phthalate | 0.006 | 
       |   | 23. Dinoseb | 0.007 | 
       |   | 24. Diquat | 0.02 | 
       |   | 25. Endothall | 0.1 | 
       |   | 26. Endrin | 0.002 | 
       |   | 27. Glyphosate | 0.7 | 
       |   | 28. Hexachlorobenzene | 0.001 | 
       |   | 29. Hexachlorocyclopentadiene | 0.05 | 
       |   | 30. Oxamyl (Vydate) | 0.2 | 
       |   | 31. Picloram | 0.5 | 
       |   | 32. Simazine | 0.004 | 
       |   | 33. 2,3,7,8‑TCDD (Dioxin) | 3 X 10-8 | 
  
     
           |   | Table 2.4 ― Physical Quality. | 
       |   | Parameter | Maximum Contaminant Level | Concentration | 
       |   | Color | Secondary | 15 Color Units | 
       |   | Odor | Secondary | 3 Threshold odor numbers | 
       |   | pH | Secondary | 6.5‑8.5 | 
       |   | Total Dissolved | Secondary | 500 mg/L Solids (TDS) | 
       |   | Turbidity | Primary | *1 Turbidity Unit | 
       |   | * See Appendix B for operational requirements. | 
  
     
           |   | Table 2.5 ― Radiological Quality. | 
       |   | A. Maximum Contaminant Level Goals for Radionuclides | 
       |   | SUBSTANCESubstance
 | MCLG | 
       |   | 1. Combined radium-226 and radium-228. | Zero | 
       |   | 2. Gross alpha particle activity (excluding Radon and    uranium) | Zero | 
       |   | 3. Beta particle and photon radioactivity. | Zero | 
       |   | 4. Uranium | Zero | 
       |   | B. Primary Maximum Contaminant Levels for Radionuclides | 
       |   | SUBSTANCESubstance
 | Primary Maximum Contaminant Level | 
       |   | 1. Combined radium‑226 and radium‑228 | 5 pCi/L | 
       |   | 2. Gross Alpha Activity (excluding Radon and Uranium) | 15 pCi/L | 
       |   | 3. Uranium | 30 μg/L | 
       |   | Primary Maximum Contaminant Levels for Beta Particle and    Photon Radioactivity from Man-Made Radionuclides  | 
       |   | 1. The average annual concentration of Beta particle and    Photon radioactivity from man-made radionuclides in drinking water shall not    produce an annual dose equivalent to the total body or any internal organ    greater than 4 millirem/year.  | 
       |   | 2. Except for the radionuclides listed in Schedule I, the    concentration of man-made radionuclides causing 4 MREM total body or organ    dose equivalents shall be calculated on the basis of a 2 liter per day    drinking water intake using the 168-hour data listed in "Maximum    Permissible Body Burdens and Maximum Permissible Concentrations of    Radionuclides in Air and Water for Occupational Exposure,'"    MBS Handbook 69 as amended August 1963, U.S. Department of Commerce. If two    or more radionuclides are present, the sum of their annual dose equivalent to    the total body or to any organ exceed 4 millirem/year. | 
       |   | Schedule 1 | 
       |   | Average annual concentrations assumed to produce a total body    organ dose of 4 mrem/year. | 
       |   | Radionuclide | Critical Organ | pCi/liter | 
       |   | Tritium | Total Body | 20,000 | 
       |   | Strontium‑90 | Bone Marrow | 8 | 
       |   | * See Appendix B. | 
       |  |  |  |  |  | 
  
     
           |   | Table 2.6 ― Unregulated Contaminant Organics to be    Monitored. | 
       |   | Group A | 
       |   | 1. Chloroform | 12. Chloromethane | 
       |   | 2. Bromodichloromethane | 13. Bromoethane | 
       |   | 3. Chlorodibromomethane | 14. 1,2,3‑Trichloropropane | 
       |   | 4. Bromoform | 15. 1,1,1,2-Tetrachloroethane | 
       |   | 5. Chlorobenzene | 16. Chloroethane | 
       |   | 6. m‑Dichlorobenzene  | 17. 2,2‑Dichloropropane | 
       |   | 7. Dibromomethane  | 18. o‑Chlorotoluene | 
       |   | 8. 1,1‑Dichloropropene  | 19. p‑Chlorotoluene | 
       |   | 9. 1,1‑Dichloroethane  | 20. Bromobenzene | 
       |   | 10. 1,1,2,2‑Tetrachloroethane | 21. 1,3‑Dichloropropene | 
       |   | 11. 1,3‑Dichloropropane |   | 
       |   | Group B | 
       |   | 1. Aldrin | 8. Metoachlor | 
       |   | 2. Butachlor | 9. Metribuzin | 
       |   | 3. Carbaryl | 10. Propachlor | 
       |   | 4. Dicamba | 11. Aldicarb | 
       |   | 5. Dieldrin | 12. Aldicarb sulfone | 
       |   | 6. Methomyl | 13. Aldicarb sulfoxide | 
       |   | 7. 3‑Hyposycarbofuran |   | 
  
     
         
           |   | Table 2.8 ― Organic Chemical Monitoring Implementation    Schedule. | 
       |   | Number of Persons Served | Monitoring to Begin During the Quarter that Begins | 
       |   | Over 10,000 | January 1,1988 | 
       |   | 3,300 to 10,000 | January 1,1989 | 
       |   | less than 3,300 | January 1,1991 | 
  
     
           |   | Table 2.9 ― PMCL Effective Dates. | 
       |   | Table 2.3, Organics Chemicals, VOC 1 through 8 (Phase I) | January 9, 1989 | 
       |   | Total Trihalomethanes and Fluoride | July 1, 1991 | 
       |   | Table 2.3, Organics Chemicals, VOC 9 through 18 and SOC 1    through 14 (Phase II VOCs and SOCs) | July 30, 1992 | 
       |   | Asbestos, Cadmium, Chromium, Mercury, Nitrate, Nitrite, Total    Nitrate+Nitrite, Selenium (Phase II IOCs) | July 30, 1992 | 
       |   | Table 2.3, Organics Chemicals, SOC 15 through 18 and Table    2.2, Inorganic Chemicals, Barium (Phase II SOCs and IOCs) | January 1, 1993 | 
       |   | Table 2.3, Organics Chemicals, VOC 19 through 21, SOC 19    through 33 and Table 2.2, Inorganic Chemicals; antimony, beryllium, cyanide    (as free cyanide), nickel, and thallium | January 17, 1994 | 
       |   | Uranium | December 8, 2003 | 
  
     
           |   | Table 2.10 ― Maximum Contaminant Level Goals for    Microbiological Contaminants. | 
       |   | Contaminant | MCLG | 
       |   | Giardia lamblia | Zero | 
       |   | Viruses | Zero | 
       |   | Legionella | Zero | 
       |   | Total coliforms (including fecal coliforms and Escherichia    coli) | Zero | 
       |   | Cryptosporidium | Zero | 
  
     
           |   | Table 2.11 ― Maximum Contaminant Level Goals for    Disinfection Byproducts. | 
       |   | Disinfection byproduct | MCLG (mg/L) | 
       |   | Bromate | Zero | 
       |   | Bromodichloromethane | Zero | 
       |   | Bromoform | Zero | 
       |   | Chlorite | 0.8 | 
       |   | Chloroform | Zero0.07
 | 
       |   | Dibromochloromethane | 0.06 | 
       |   | Dichloroacetic acid | Zero | 
       |   | Monochloroacetic acid | 0.07 | 
       |   | Trichloroacetic acid | 0.02 | 
  
     
           |   | Table 2.12 ― Maximum Residual Disinfectant Level Goals    (MRDLG) and Maximum Residual Disinfectant Levels (MRDL) for Disinfectants | 
       |   | Disinfectant residual  | MRDLG (mg/L)  | MRDL (mg/L) | 
       |   | Chlorine | 4 (as Cl2)  | 4.0 (as Cl2) | 
       |   | Chloramines | 4 (as Cl2)  | 4.0 (as Cl2) | 
       |   | Chlorine dioxide | 0.8 (as ClO2)  | 0.8 (as ClO2) | 
  
    Notwithstanding the MRDLs in Table 2.12, owners may increase  residual disinfectant levels in the distribution system of chlorine or  chloramines (but not chlorine dioxide) to a level and for a time necessary to  protect public health, to address specific microbiological contamination  problems caused by circumstances such as, but not limited to, distribution line  breaks, storm run-off events, source water contamination events, or  cross-connection events.
           |   | Table 2.13 ― Primary Maximum Contaminant Levels (PMCL)    for Disinfection Byproducts | 
       |   | Disinfection byproduct  | PMCL (mg/L) | 
       |   | Total trihalomethanes (TTHM) | 0.080 | 
       |   | Haloacetic Acids (five) (HAA5) | 0.060 | 
       |   | Bromate | 0.010 | 
       |   | Chlorite | 1.0 | 
  
    12VAC5-590-460. Personnel.
    The operation of waterworks, both small and large, must rest  in the hands of qualified persons. The number of such employees in a waterworks  system depends principally upon the size, the quality of the raw water, and the  type of treatment processes used.
    A. Waterworks operators designated by the waterworks owner to  be in responsible charge must possess a valid waterworks operator license  issued by the Board for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite  Sewage Professionals, Department of Professional and Occupational  Regulation, in accordance with that board's regulations (18VAC160-20-10 et  seq.) and Chapters 1, 2, 3, and 23 of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia. The  license must be of a classification equal to or higher than that of the  waterworks. Additional operating personnel at the waterworks must also be  licensed as specified below.
    B. The number and class of operators in attendance and  additional operating personnel are a minimum to meet the requirements of  protection of the public health of the consumer and safety of the operating  personnel. The classification of operators and additional operating personnel  in attendance must conform with Table 2.9.
    1. The owner shall designate one or more properly licensed  operators to be in responsible charge of the waterworks at all times. When no  designated operator is on duty or in communication with the operating personnel  in attendance at the waterworks, a substitute operator shall be designated by  the owner. The substitute operator shall possess a valid operator license of a  classification equal to or greater than that of the waterworks.
    2. All waterworks having design capacity of 2.0 mgd or higher  and employing filtration must have a minimum of two operating personnel on duty  whenever the plant is in operation. All other waterworks employing filtration  must have a minimum of one operating person on duty whenever the plant is in  operation.
    3. Waterworks designed for softening only and utilizing  chemical precipitation:
    a. Waterworks having a design capacity of 2.0 mgd or higher  must have a minimum of two operating personnel in attendance at all times the  plant is in operation; and
    b. All other waterworks must have a minimum of one operator  operating person in attendance at all times the treatment plant is in  operation.
    4. Waterworks utilizing iron and manganese removal by  precipitation and having a design capacity of 0.5 mgd or higher must have a minimum  of one operating person on duty at all times the treatment plant is in  operation.
    5. Waterworks providing treatment or no treatment and serving  400 or more persons and not previously covered will require daily attendance at  each treatment facility by an operating person for sufficient time to insure  proper operation of the facility and protection of the public health, as  determined by the division.
         
                 | TABLE 2.9MINIMUM CLASSIFICATION FOR WATERWORKS OPERATIONS
 ADDITIONAL OPERATING PERSONNEL
 | 
       | PLANT CLASSI-FICATION | PLANT CAPACITY (MGC) | EQUIVALENT POPULATION SERVED | TREATMENT | OPERATOR IN RESPONSIBLE CHARGE    (CLASS) | SHIFT SUPERVISOR (CLASS) | OTHERS | 
       | CLASS I | 15.0 or more | 150,000 | Conventional filtration or    filter rate more than 2 gpm/ft2 | I | I | II,III,IV Trainee* | 
       | CLASS I | 5.0 but less than 15.0 | 50,000 but less than 150,000 | Conventional filtration filter    rate more than 2 gpm/ft2 | I | II | II,III,IV Trainee* | 
       | CLASS II | Less than 5.0 | Less than 50,000 | Filtering rater greater than 2    gpm/ft2 | II | II | III, IV Trainee* | 
       | CLASS II | 0.5 but less than 5.0 | 5,000 but less than 50,000 | Conventional filtration | II | III | III, IV Trainee* | 
       | CLASS III | Less than 0.5 | Less than 5,000 | Conventional filtration | III | III | IV or Trainee* | 
       | CLASS III | 5,000 or more |   | Approved treatment other than    conventional filtration and fluoridation | III | IV | IV or Trainee* | 
       | CLASS III | Sufficient persons or    connections to be classified as a Public Water supply |   | Not under higher    classifications but using fluoridation | III | IV | Trainee* | 
       | CLASS    IV | Less    than 5,000 |   | Approved    treatment other than conventional filtration and fluoridation or no treatment    serving 400 or more persons | IV | IV | Trainee* | 
       | * Trainees should meet basic    prerequisites for operators with the exception of experience and have    potential for licensing wherever listed in these guidelines. Owner must    provide a qualified substitute operator when only one operator is normally    employed. The substitute must have the same class license as the operator. | 
  
         
          12VAC5-590-500. Disinfection by chlorination.
    A. All water supplies derived from surface water sources in  whole or in part shall be disinfected in accordance with 12VAC5-590-1000 until  June 29, 1993. It is recommended that a chlorine residual be maintained.  Beginning June 29, 1993, every owner of a waterworks shall comply with  the disinfection requirements of 12VAC5-590-420.
    B. Owners of waterworks utilizing surface waters as a water  supply shall practice prechlorination. The requirement for prechlorination may  be waived by the division commissioner when warranted.
    C. Owners of waterworks utilizing groundwater as a water  supply that has been determined by the division commissioner to  be under the direct influence of surface water, as provided in 12VAC5-590-430,  will be required to disinfect. If the commissioner determines that the groundwater  supply is surface influenced, the owner shall provide disinfection during the  interim before filtration is installed in accordance with 12VAC5-590-420 B 2 f.  If filtration is installed prior to June 29, 1993, the owner shall comply with  the disinfection requirements of 12VAC5-590-1000 until June 29, 1993. By June  29, 1993, all owners of waterworks using a groundwater source determined to be  under the direct influence of surface water shall comply with the disinfection  requirements of 12VAC5-590-420.
    D. The owner Owners of any waterworks  utilizing groundwater as a water supply that is not governed by  12VAC5-590-500 will be required to disinfect in accordance with 12VAC5-590-1000  if a sanitary survey reveals a potential source of contamination or if the water  fails to meet the bacteriological quality standards set forth in Article 1  (12VAC5-590-340 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter. systems subject to  the requirements of 12VAC5-590-421 A 1 d shall provide a disinfectant residual  concentration (C) and contact time (T) to achieve a 4-log inactivation of  viruses. CT shall be calculated in accordance with Appendix L, which contains  information on calculation methods and contact tank baffling factors. 
    E. Disinfection profile data and disinfection benchmark data.
    1. The owner of any waterworks that has disinfection profile  data shall retain this data in graphic form, as a spreadsheet, or in some other  format acceptable to the commissioner for review as part of sanitary surveys  conducted by the commissioner. Appendix L lists the procedure for developing a  disinfection profile.
    2. Disinfection benchmarking.
    a. The owner of any waterworks that has developed a  disinfection profile and that decides to make a significant change to its  disinfection practice shall consult with the commissioner prior to making such  change. Significant changes to disinfection practice are:
    (1) Changes to the point of disinfection;
    (2) Changes to the disinfectants used in the treatment plant;
    (3) Changes to the disinfection process; and
    (4) Any other modification identified by the commissioner.
    b. The owner of any waterworks that is modifying its  disinfection practice shall calculate its disinfection benchmark using the  following procedure:
    (1) For each year of profiling data collected, the owner shall  determine the lowest average monthly Giardia lamblia inactivation in each year  of profiling data. The owner shall determine the average Giardia lamblia  inactivation for each calendar month for each year of profiling data by  dividing the sum of daily (or weekly) Giardia lamblia inactivation by the  number of values calculated for that month.
    (2) The disinfection benchmark is the lowest monthly average  value (for waterworks with one year of profiling data) or average of lowest  monthly average values (for waterworks with more than one year of profiling  data) of the monthly logs of Giardia lamblia inactivation in each year of  profiling data.
    (3) The owner of a waterworks that uses either chloramines or  ozone for primary disinfection shall also calculate the disinfection benchmark  for viruses using a method approved by the commissioner.
    c. The owner shall submit the following information to the  commissioner as part of the waterworks' consultation process.
    (1) A description of the proposed change;
    (2) The disinfection profile for Giardia lamblia (and, if  necessary, viruses) and benchmark listed in subdivision E 2 b of this section;
    (3) An analysis of how the proposed change will affect the  current levels of disinfection; and
    (4) Any additional information to justify the change.
    12VAC5-590-530. Reporting.
    A. The results of any required monitoring activity shall be  reported by the owner (or their authorized agent) to the ODW no later than (i)  the 10th day of the month following the month during which the tests test  results were taken received, or (ii) the 10th day following the  end of the monitoring period, whichever is shorter, unless stipulated otherwise  by the commissioner. The results of any required monitoring activity shall  be reported by the owner in a format prescribed by the commissioner.
    1. Owners of waterworks required to sample quarterly shall  report to the ODW within 10 days after the end of each quarter in which samples  were collected.
    2. Owners of waterworks required to sample less frequently  than quarterly shall report to the district engineer within 10 days after the  end of each monitoring period in which samples were collected.
    B. It shall be the duty and responsibility of an owner to  report to the ODW in the most expeditious manner (usually by telephone) under  the following circumstances. If it is done by telephone a confirming report  shall be mailed as soon as practical.
    1. When a bacteriological examination shows a repeat sample is  required (see 12VAC5-590-380 D), a report shall be made within 48 hours. An  owner shall report a total coliform PMCL violation to the district engineer no  later than the end of the next business day.
    2. When the daily average of turbidity testing exceeds 5 NTU a  report shall be made within 48 hours.
    3. When a PMCL of an inorganic or organic chemical is exceeded  for a single sample the owner shall report same within seven days. If any one  sample result would cause the compliance average to be exceeded the owner shall  report same in 48 hours.
    4. When the average value of samples collected pursuant to  12VAC5-590-410 exceeds the PMCL of any organic or inorganic chemical the owner  shall report same within 48 hours.
    5. When the maximum contaminant level for radionuclides has  been exceeded as determined by Table 2.5 the results shall be reported within  48 hours.
    6. The owner shall report to the district engineer within 48  hours the failure to comply with the monitoring and sanitary survey  requirements of this chapter.
    7. The owner shall report to the district engineer within 48  hours the failure to comply with the requirements of any schedule prescribed  pursuant to a variance or exemption.
    8. The owner shall report a Tier 1 violation or situation, as  described in 12VAC5-590-540 A 1, to the district engineer as soon as practical,  but no later than 24 hours after the owner learns of the Tier 1 violation or  situation. At the same time the report is made, the owner shall consult with  the field office to determine the need for any additional actions to address  the violation or situation.
    9. The owner shall report a violation of treatment technique  requirement resulting from a single exceedance of the maximum allowable  turbidity limit, as described in 12VAC5-590-420 B 2 a (2), B 2 a (3) (b), B 2 b  (2), B 2 c (2), and B 2 d, to the district engineer as soon as practical, but  no later than 24 hours after the owner learns of the violation. At the same  time the report is made, the owner shall consult with the field office to  determine the need for any additional actions to address the violation or  situation.
    C. Reporting requirements for filtration treatment and  disinfection treatment.
    1. The owner of a waterworks that provides filtration  treatment shall report monthly to the commissioner the following specified  information beginning June 29, 1993, or when filtration is installed, whichever  is later.
    a. Turbidity measurements as required by 12VAC5-590-370 B 7 a  shall be reported within 10 days after the end of each month the waterworks  serves water to the public. Information that shall be reported includes:
    (1) The total number of filtered water turbidity measurements  taken during the month.
    (2) The number and percentage of filtered water turbidity  measurements taken during the month which are less than or equal to the  turbidity limits specified in 12VAC5-590-420 B 2 for the filtration technology  being used.
    (3) The date and value of any turbidity measurements taken  during the month which exceed 5 NTU.
    b. The owner of a waterworks using surface water or  groundwater under the direct influence of surface water that provides  conventional filtration treatment or direct filtration shall report monthly to  the commissioner the information specified in subdivisions C 1 a (1) and (2) of  this section. Also, the owner of a waterworks that provides filtration approved  under 12VAC5-590-420 B 2 d shall report monthly to the commissioner the  information specified in subdivision C 1 a (1) of this section.
    (1) Turbidity measurements as required by 12VAC5-590-420 B 2 a  (3) shall be reported within 10 days after the end of each month the system  serves water to the public. Information that shall be reported includes:
    (a) The total number of filtered water turbidity measurements  taken during the month.
    (b) The number and percentage of filtered water turbidity  measurements taken during the month that are less than or equal to the  turbidity limits specified in 12VAC5-590-420 B 2 a (3) or 12VAC5-590-420 B 2 d.
    (c) The date and value of any turbidity measurements taken  during the month that exceed 1 NTU for systems using conventional filtration  treatment or direct filtration, or that exceed the maximum level set by the  commissioner under 12VAC590-420 B 2 d.
    (2) The owner shall maintain the results of individual filter  monitoring taken under 12VAC5-590-370 B 7 b (1) for at least three years. The  owner shall report that he has conducted individual filter turbidity monitoring  under 12VAC5-590-370 B 7 b (1) within 10 days after the end of each month the  waterworks serves water to the public. Owners shall report individual filter  turbidity measurement results taken under 12VAC5-590-370 B 7 b (1) within 10  days after the end of each month the waterworks serves water to the public only  if measurements demonstrate one or more of the conditions in subdivisions C 1 b  (2) (a) or (b) of this section. The owners of waterworks that use lime  softening may apply to the commissioner for alternative exceedance levels for  the levels specified in subdivisions C 1 b (2) (a) or (b) of this section if  they can demonstrate that higher turbidity levels in individual filters are due  to lime carryover only and not due to degraded filter performance.
    (a) For waterworks serving 10,000 or more people:
    (i) For any individual filter that has a measured turbidity  level of greater than 1.0 NTU in two consecutive measurements taken 15 minutes  apart, the owner shall report the filter number, the turbidity measurement, and  the date, or dates, on which the exceedance occurred. In addition, the owner  shall either produce a filter profile for the filter within seven days of the  exceedance (if the owner is not able to identify an obvious reason for the  abnormal filter performance) and report that the profile has been produced or  report the obvious reason for the exceedance.
    (ii) For any individual filter that has a measured turbidity  level of greater than 0.5 NTU in two consecutive measurements taken 15 minutes  apart at the end of the first four hours of continuous filter operation after  the filter has been backwashed or otherwise taken offline, the owner shall report  the filter number, the turbidity, and the date, or dates, on which the  exceedance occurred. In addition, the owner shall either produce a filter  profile for the filter within seven days of the exceedance (if the owner is not  able to identify an obvious reason for the abnormal filter performance) and  report that the profile has been produced or report the obvious reason for the  exceedance.
    (iii) For any individual filter that has a measured turbidity  level of greater than 1.0 NTU in two consecutive measurements taken 15 minutes  apart at any time in each of three consecutive months, the owner shall report  the filter number, the turbidity measurement, and the date, or dates, on which  the exceedance occurred. In addition, the owner shall conduct a self-assessment  of the filter within 14 days of the exceedance and report that the  self-assessment was conducted. The self-assessment shall consist of at least  the following components: assessment of filter performance; development of a  filter profile; identification and prioritization of factors limiting filter  performance; assessment of the applicability of corrections; and preparation of  a filter self-assessment report.
    (iv) For any individual filter that has a measured turbidity  level of greater than 2.0 NTU in two consecutive measurements taken 15 minutes  apart at any time in each of two consecutive months, the owner shall report the  filter number, the turbidity measurement, and the date, or dates, on which the  exceedance occurred. In addition, the owner shall arrange for the conduct of a  comprehensive performance evaluation by the commissioner or a third party  approved by the commissioner no later than 30 days following the exceedance and  have the evaluation completed and submitted to the commissioner no later than 90  days following the exceedance.
    (b) For waterworks serving less than 10,000 people:
    (i) For any individual filter (or the turbidity of combined  filter effluent for systems with two filters that monitor combined filter  effluent in lieu of individual filters) that has a measured turbidity level of  greater than 1.0 NTU in two consecutive measurements taken 15 minutes apart,  the owner shall report the filter number(s), the turbidity measurement(s), and  the date, or dates, on which the exceedance occurred and the cause (if known)  for the exceedance(s).
    (ii) For any individual filter (or the turbidity of combined  filter effluent for systems with two filters that monitor combined filter  effluent in lieu of individual filters) that has a measured turbidity level of  greater than 1.0 NTU in two consecutive measurements taken 15 minutes apart at  any time in each of three consecutive months, the owner shall conduct a  self-assessment of the filter(s) within 14 days of the day the filter exceeded  1.0 NTU unless a comprehensive performance evaluation as specified in paragraph  (iii) of this section was required. Owners of waterworks with two filters that  monitor the combined filter effluent in lieu of individual filters shall  conduct a self assessment on both filters. The self-assessment shall be  reported to the commissioner and consist of at least the following components:  date self-assessment was triggered; date the self-assessment was completed;  assessment of filter performance; development of a filter profile; identification  and prioritization of factors limiting filter performance; assessment of the  applicability of corrections; and preparation of a filter self-assessment  report. The self assessment shall be submitted within 10 days after the end of  the month or 14 days after the self assessment was triggered only if it was  triggered during the last four days of the month.
    (iii) For any individual filter (or the turbidity of combined  filter effluent for systems with two filters that monitor combined filter  effluent in lieu of individual filters) that has a measured turbidity level of  greater than 2.0 NTU in two consecutive measurements taken 15 minutes apart at  any time in each of two consecutive months, the owner shall arrange for a  comprehensive performance evaluation by the commissioner or a third party  approved by the commissioner no later than 60 days following the day the filter  exceeded 2.0 NTU in two consecutive months. The owner shall report within 10  days after the end of the month that a comprehensive performance evaluation is  required and the date that it was triggered. If a comprehensive performance  evaluation has been completed by the commissioner or a third party approved by  the commissioner within the 12 prior months or the owner and the commissioner  are jointly participating in an ongoing Comprehensive Technical Assistance  project at the waterworks, a new comprehensive performance evaluation is not  required. If conducted, a comprehensive performance evaluation shall be  completed and submitted to the commissioner no later than 120 days following  the day the filter exceeded 2.0 NTU in two consecutive measurements for the  second straight month.
    c. Reporting source water monitoring results.
    (1) Owners shall report results from the source water  monitoring required in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 a no later than 10 days after the end  of the first month following the month when the sample is collected.
    (2) Owners shall report the applicable information in (a) and  (b) as follows for the source water monitoring required in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3  a.
    (a) Owners shall report the following data elements for each  Cryptosporidium analysis:
           |   | Data element | 
       |   | PWS ID | 
       |   | Facility ID | 
       |   | Sample collection date | 
       |   | Sample type (field or matrix spike) | 
       |   | Sample volume filtered (L), to nearest ¼ L | 
       |   | Was 100% of filtered volume examined | 
       |   | Number of oocysts counted | 
  
    (i) For matrix spike samples, the owner shall also report the  sample volume spiked and estimated number of oocysts spiked. These data are not  required for field samples.
    (ii) For samples in which less than 10 L is filtered or less  than 100% of the sample volume is examined, the owner shall also report the  number of filters used and the packed pellet volume.
    (iii) For samples in which less than 100% of sample volume is  examined, the owner shall also report the volume of resuspended concentrate and  volume of this resuspension processed through immunomagnetic separation.
    (b) Owners shall report the following data elements for each  E. coli analysis:
           |   | Data element | 
       |   | 1. PWS ID | 
       |   | 2. Facility ID | 
       |   | 3. Sample collection date | 
       |   | 4. Analytical method number | 
       |   | 5. Method type | 
       |   | 6. Source type (flowing    stream, lake/reservoir, GUDI) | 
       |   | 7. E. coli/100 mL | 
       |   | 8. Turbiditya | 
       |   | aOwners of waterworks serving fewer than 10,000 people    that are not required to monitor for turbidity under in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 a    are not required to report turbidity with their E. coli results. | 
  
    2. Disinfection information specified below shall be reported  to the district engineer within 10 days after the end of each month the waterworks  serves water to the public. Information that shall be reported includes:
    a. For each day, the lowest measurement of residual  disinfectant concentration in mg/L in water entering the distribution system.
    b. The date and duration of each period when the residual  disinfectant concentration in water entering the distribution system fell below  0.2 mg/L and when the district engineer was notified of the occurrence.
    c. The following information on the samples taken in the  distribution system in conjunction with total coliform monitoring pursuant to  12VAC5-590-420 B.
    (1) Number of instances where the residual disinfectant  concentration is measured;
    (2) Number of instances where the residual disinfectant  concentration is not measured but HPC is measured;
    (3) Number of instances where the residual disinfectant  concentration is measured but not detected and no HPC is measured;
    (4) Number of instances where no residual disinfectant  concentration is detected and where HPC is greater than 500/mL;
    (5) Number of instances where the residual disinfectant  concentration is not measured and HPC is greater than 500/mL;
    (6) For the current and previous month the system serves water  to the public, the value of "V" in percent in the following formula:
           |   | V = | c + d + e | X 100 | 
       | a + b | 
  
    a = the value in subdivision C 2 c (1) of this section
    b = the value in subdivision C 2 c (2) of this section
    c = the value in subdivision C 2 c (3) of this section
    d = the value in subdivision C 2 c (4) of this section
    e = the value in subdivision C 2 c (5) of this section
    (7) If the division determines, based on site specific  considerations, that a waterworks owner has no means for having a sample  transported and analyzed for HPC by a certified laboratory within the requisite  time and temperature conditions and that the waterworks is providing adequate  disinfection in the distribution system, the requirements of subdivision C 2 c  (1) through (6) of this section do not apply.
    d. An owner need not report the data listed in subdivision C 2  a of this section if all data listed in subdivisions C 2 a through c of this  section remain on file at the waterworks and the commissioner determines that  the owner has submitted all of the information required by subdivisions C 2 a  through c of this section for the last 12 months.
    3. If at any time the chlorine residual falls below 0.2 mg/L  in the water entering the distribution system, the owner shall notify the  district engineer as soon as possible, but no later than by the end of the next  business day. The owner also shall notify the district engineer by the end of  the next business day whether or not the residual was restored to at least 0.2  mg/L within four hours.
    D. Reporting requirements for lead and copper. All owners  shall report all of the following information to the district engineer in  accordance with this subsection.
    1. Reporting requirements for tap water monitoring for lead  and copper and for water quality parameter monitoring.
    a. Except as provided in subdivision D 1 a (7) of this  section, an owner shall report the information specified below for all tap  water samples specified in 12VAC5-90-375 B 12VAC5-590-375 B and  for all water quality parameter samples specified in 12VAC5-590-375 C within  the first 10 days following the end of each applicable monitoring period  specified in 12VAC5-590-375 B and 12VAC5-590-375 C (i.e., every six months,  annually, every three years, or every nine years). For monitoring periods with  a duration less than six months, the end of the monitoring period is the last  date samples can be collected during the period as specified in 12VAC5-590-375  B and 12VAC5-590-375 C.
    (1) The results of all tap samples for lead and copper  including location or a location site code and the criteria under  12VAC5-590-375 B 1 c through 12VAC5-590-375 B 1 f or 12VAC5-590-375 C under  which the site was selected for the waterworks' sampling pool.
    (2) Documentation for each tap water lead or copper sample for  which the owner requests invalidation pursuant to 12VAC5-590-375 B 6.
     (3) The 90th percentile lead and copper concentrations  measured from among all lead and copper tap water samples collected during each  monitoring period (calculated in accordance with 12VAC5-590-385 C) unless the  district engineer calculates the 90th percentile lead and copper levels under  subdivision D 8 of this section.
    (4) With the exception of initial tap sampling conducted  pursuant to 12VAC5-590-375 B 4 a, the owner shall designate any site that was  not sampled during previous monitoring periods, and include an explanation of why  sampling sites have changed;
    (5) The results of all tap samples for pH, and where  applicable, alkalinity, calcium, conductivity, temperature, and orthophosphate  or silica collected under 12VAC5-590-375 C 2 through 12VAC5-590-375 C 5.
    (6) The results of all samples collected at the entry point(s)  to the distribution system for applicable water quality parameters under  12VAC5-590-375 C 2 through 12VAC5-590-375 C 5.
    (7) The owner shall report the results of all water quality  parameter samples collected under 12VAC5-590-375 C 3 through 12VAC5-590-375 C 6  during each six month monitoring period specified in 12VAC5-590-375 C 4 within  the first ten days following the end of the monitoring period unless the  commissioner has specified a more frequent reporting requirement.
    b. The owner of a nontransient noncommunity waterworks, or a  community waterworks meeting the criteria of 12VAC5-590-405 D 2 e, that does  not have enough taps that can provide first-draw samples, must either:
    (1) Provide written documentation to the commissioner  identifying standing times and locations for enough non-first-draw samples to  make up the sampling pool under 12VAC5-590-375 B 2 e by the start of the first  applicable monitoring period under 12VAC5-590-375 B 4, unless the commissioner  has waived prior approval of non-first-draw sample sites selected by the owner  pursuant to 12VAC5-590-375 B 2 e; or
    (2) If the commissioner has waived prior approval of  non-first-draw sample sites selected by the owner, identify, in writing, each  site that did not meet the six hour minimum standing time and the length of  standing time for that particular substitute sample collected pursuant to  12VAC5-590-375 B 2 e and include this information with the lead and copper  sample results required to be submitted pursuant to subdivision D 1 a (1) of  this section.
    c. At a time specified by the commissioner, or if no specific  time is designated by the commissioner, then as early as possible prior to the  addition of a new source or any long-term change in water treatment, an owner  deemed to have optimized corrosion control under 12VAC5-590-405 A 2 b (3); an  owner subject to reduced monitoring pursuant to 12VAC5-590-375 B 4 d; or an  owner subject to a monitoring waiver pursuant to 12VAC5-590-375 B 7, shall  submit written documentation to the district engineer describing the change or  addition. The district engineer must review and the commissioner must approve  the addition of a new source or a long-term change in treatment before it is  implemented by the owner. Examples of long-term treatment changes include the  addition of a new treatment process or modification of an existing treatment  process. Examples of modification include switching secondary contaminants  disinfectants, switching coagulants (e.g., alum to ferric chloride) ,  switching corrosion inhibitor products (e.g., orthophosphate to blended  phosphate). Long-term changes can include dose changes to existing chemicals if  the waterworks is planning long-term changes to its finished water pH or  residual inhibitor concentration. Long-term treatment changes would not include  chemical dose fluctuations associated with daily raw water quality changes.
    d. The owner of any small waterworks applying for a monitoring  waiver under 12VAC5-590-375 B 7 or subject to a waiver granted pursuant to  12VAC5-590-375 B 7 c, shall provide the following information to the  commissioner in writing by the specified deadline:
    (1) By the start of the first applicable monitoring period in  12VAC5-590-375 B 4, the owner of any small waterworks applying for a monitoring  waiver shall provide the documentation required to demonstrate that it meets  the waiver criteria of 12VAC5-590-375 B 7 a and 12VAC5-590-375 B 7 b.
    (2) No later than nine years after the monitoring previously  conducted pursuant to 12VAC5-590-375 B 7 b or 12VAC5-590-375 B 7 d (1), the  owner of each small waterworks desiring to maintain its monitoring waiver shall  provide the information required by 12VAC5-590-375 B 7 d (1) and 12VAC5-590-375  B 7 d (2).
    (3) No later than 60 days after becoming aware that it is no  longer free of lead-containing or copper-containing material, the owner of each  small waterworks with a monitoring waiver shall provide written notification to  the district engineer, setting forth the circumstances resulting in the lead-containing  or copper-containing materials being introduced into the waterworks and what  corrective action, if any, the owner plans to take to remove these materials.
    e. The owner of each groundwater-source waterworks that limits  water quality parameter monitoring to a subset of entry points under  12VAC5-590-375 C 3 c shall provide, by the commencement of such monitoring,  written correspondence to the district engineer that identifies the selected  entry points and includes information sufficient to demonstrate that the sites  are representative of water quality and treatment conditions throughout the  waterworks.
    2. Water supply (source water) monitoring reporting  requirements.
    a. An owner shall report the sampling results for all source  water samples collected in accordance with 12VAC5-590-375 D within the first 10  days following the end of each source water monitoring period (i.e., annually,  per compliance period, per compliance cycle) specified in 12VAC5-590-375 D.
    b. With the exception of the first round of source water  sampling conducted pursuant to 12VAC5-590-375 D 2, the owner shall specify any  site which was not sampled during previous monitoring periods, and include an  explanation of why the sampling point has changed.
    3. Corrosion control treatment reporting requirements. By the  applicable dates under 12VAC5-590-405 A 2 (a), owners shall report the  following information:
    a. For owners demonstrating that they have already optimized  corrosion control, information required in 12VAC5-590-405 A 2 b (2) or  12VAC5-590-405 A 2 b (3).
    b. For owners required to optimize corrosion control, the  owner's recommendation regarding optimal corrosion control treatment under  12VAC5-590-405 A 1 a.
    c. For owners required to evaluate the effectiveness of  corrosion control treatments under 12VAC5-590-405 A 1 c, the information  required by that subdivision.
    d. For owners required to install optimal corrosion control  designated by the commissioner under 12VAC5-590-405 A 1 d, a letter certifying  that the owner has completed installing that treatment.
    4. Water supply source water treatment reporting requirements.  By the applicable dates in 12VAC5-590-405 B, owners shall provide the following  information to the district engineer:
    a. If required under 12VAC5-590-405 B 2 a, the owner's  recommendation regarding source water treatment;
    b. For owners required to install source water treatment under  12VAC5-590-405 B 2 b, a letter certifying that the owner has completed  installing the treatment designated by the commissioner within 24 months after  the commissioner designated the treatment.
    5. Lead service line replacement reporting requirements.  Owners shall report the following information to the district engineer to  demonstrate compliance with the requirements of 12VAC5-590-405 C:
    a. No later than 12 months after the end of a monitoring  period in which a waterworks exceeds the lead action level in sampling referred  to in 12VAC5-590-405 C 1, the owner shall submit written documentation to the  district engineer of the materials evaluation conducted as required in  12VAC5-590-375 B 1, to identify the initial number of lead service lines in the  distribution system at the time the waterworks exceeds the lead action level,  and provide the owner's schedule for annually replacing at least 7.0% of the  initial number of lead service lines in its distribution system.
    b. No later than 12 months after the end of a monitoring  period in which a waterworks exceeds the lead action level in sampling referred  to in 12VAC5-590-405 C 1, and every 12 months thereafter, the owner shall  demonstrate to the district engineer in writing that the owner has either:
    (1) Replaced in the previous 12 months at least 7.0% of the  initial lead service lines (or a greater number of lines specified by the  commissioner under 12VAC5-590-405 C 6) in the distribution system, or
    (2) Conducted sampling that demonstrates that the lead  concentration in all service line samples from an individual line(s), taken  pursuant to 12VAC5-590-375 B 2 c, is less than or equal to 0.015 mg/L. In such cases,  the total number of lines replaced and/or which meet the criteria in  12VAC5-590-405 C 4 shall equal at least 7.0% of the initial number of lead  lines identified under subdivision D 5 a of this section (or the percentage  specified by the commissioner under 12VAC5-590-405 C 6).
    c. The annual letter submitted to the district engineer under  subdivision D 5 b of this section shall contain the following information:
    (1) The number of lead service lines scheduled to be replaced  during the previous year of the waterworks' replacement schedule;
    (2) The number and location of each lead service line replaced  during the previous year of the waterworks' replacement schedule;
    (3) If measured, the water lead concentration and location of  each lead service line sampled, the sampling method, and the date of sampling.
    d. The owner of any waterworks that collects lead service line  samples following partial lead service line replacement required by  12VAC5-590-405 C shall report the results to the district engineer within the  first ten days of the month following the month in which the owner receives the  laboratory results, or as specified by the commissioner. Owners shall also  report any additional information as specified by the commissioner, and in a  time and manner prescribed by the commissioner, to verify that all partial lead  service line replacement activities have taken place.
    6. Public education program reporting requirements. Owners  shall report the following information to the district engineer to demonstrate  compliance with the requirements of 12VAC5-590-405 D.
    a. The owner of any waterworks that is subject to the public  education requirements in 12VAC5-590-405 D shall, within 10 days after the end  of each period in which the owner is required to perform public education tasks  in accordance with 12VAC5-590-405 D 2, send written notice to the district  engineer that contains:
    (1) A demonstration that the owner has delivered the public  education materials that meet the content requirements of 12VAC5-590-405 D 1  and the delivery requirements of 12VAC5-590-405 D 2, and
    (2) A list of all the newspapers, radio stations, television  stations, and facilities and organizations to which the owner delivered public  education materials during the period in which the owner was required to  perform public education tasks.
    b. Unless required by the commissioner, an owner who  previously has submitted the information required by subdivision D 6 a (2) of  this section need not resubmit the information required by subdivision D 6 a  (2) of this section, as long as there has been no changes in the distribution  list and the owner certifies that the public education materials were  distributed to the same list submitted previously.
    c. No later than three months following the end of the  monitoring period, the owner shall mail a sample copy of the consumer  notification of tap results to the district engineer along with a certification  that the notification has bee been distributed in a manner  consistent with the requirements of 12VAC5-590-405 D 4.
    7. Reporting of additional monitoring data. The owner of any  waterworks which collects sampling data in addition to that required by  12VAC5-590-375 shall report the results to the district engineer within the  first 10 days following the end of the applicable monitoring period under  12VAC5-590-375 B, 12VAC5-590-375 C, and 12VAC5-590-375 D during which the  samples are collected.
    8. Reporting of the 90th percentile lead and copper  concentrations where the district engineer calculates a waterworks' 90th  percentile concentrations. An owner is not required to report the 90th  percentile lead and copper concentrations measured from among all lead and  copper tap samples collected during each monitoring period, as required by  subdivision D 1 a (4) of this section if:
    a. The commissioner has previously notified the owner that the  district engineer will calculate the waterworks' 90th percentile lead and  copper concentrations, based on the lead and copper tap results submitted  pursuant to subdivision D 8 b (1) of this section, and has specified a date  before the end of the applicable monitoring period by which the owner shall  provide the results of the lead and copper tap water samples;
    b. The owner has provided the following information to the  district engineer by the date specified in subdivision D 8 a of this section:
    (1) The results of all tap samples for lead and copper  including the location of each site and the criteria under 12VAC5-590-375 B 1 c  through 12VAC5-590-375 B 1 f or 12VAC5-590-375 B 1 g under which the site was  selected for the waterworks sampling pool, pursuant to subdivision D 1 a (1) of  this section;
    (2) An identification of sampling sites utilized during the  current monitoring period that were not sampled during the previous monitoring  periods, and an explanation why sampling sites have changed; and
    (3) The district engineer has provided the results of the 90th  percentile lead and copper calculations, in writing, to the owner before the  end of the monitoring period.
    E. Reporting requirements for disinfection byproducts. Owners  shall report the following information in accordance with subsection A of this  section. (The district engineer may choose to perform calculations and  determine whether the PMCL was violated, in lieu of having the owner report  that information):
    1. Running Annual Average Reporting:
    a. The owner of a waterworks monitoring for TTHM and HAA5  under the requirements of 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 e (1) on a quarterly or more  frequent basis shall report:
    (1) The number of samples taken during the last quarter.
    (2) The location, date, and result of each sample taken during  the last quarter.
    (3) The arithmetic average of all samples taken in the last  quarter.
    (4) The annual arithmetic average of the quarterly arithmetic  averages of this section for the last four quarters.
    (5) Whether, based on 12VAC5-590-410 C 2 b (1) (a), the PMCL  was violated.
    b. The owner of a waterworks monitoring for TTHMs and HAA5  under the requirements of 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 e (1) less frequently than  quarterly (but at least annually) shall report:
    (1) The number of samples taken during the last year.
    (2) The location, date, and result of each sample taken during  the last monitoring period.
    (3) The arithmetic average of all samples taken over the last  year.
    (4) Whether, based on 12VAC5-590-410 C 2 b (1) (a) the PMCL  was violated.
    c. The owner of a waterworks monitoring for TTHMs and HAA5  under the requirements of 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 e (1) less frequently than  annually shall report:
    (1) The location, date, and result of the last sample taken.
    (2) Whether, based on 12VAC5-590-410 C 2 b (1) (a), the PMCL  was violated.
    2. Locational Running Annual Average (LRAA) Reporting:
    a. Owners shall report the following information for each  monitoring location to the commissioner:
    (1) Number of samples taken during the last quarter.
    (2) Date and results of each sample taken during the last  quarter.
    (3) Arithmetic average of quarterly results for the last four  quarters for each LRAA, beginning at the end of the fourth calendar quarter  that follows the compliance date and at the end of each subsequent quarter. If  the LRAA calculated based on fewer than four quarters of data would cause the  PMCL to be exceeded regardless of the monitoring results of subsequent  quarters, the owner shall report this information to the commissioner as part  of the first report due following the compliance date or anytime thereafter  that this determination is made. If the owner is required to conduct monitoring  at a frequency that is less than quarterly, the owner shall make compliance  calculations beginning with the first compliance sample taken after the  compliance date, unless the owner is required to conduct increased monitoring  under 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 e (3) (g).
    (4) Whether, based on Table 2.13, the PMCL was violated at any  monitoring location.
    (5) Any operational evaluation levels, under 12VAC5-590-410 C  2 b (1) (b) (iv), that were exceeded during the quarter and, if so, the  location and date, and the calculated TTHM and HAA5 levels.
    b. Owners of waterworks using surface water or GUDI seeking to  qualify for or remain on reduced TTHM/HAA5 monitoring shall report the  following source water TOC information for each treatment plant that treats  surface water or ground water under the direct influence of surface water to  the commissioner within 10 days of the end of any quarter in which monitoring  is required:
    (1) The number of source water TOC samples taken each month  during last quarter.
    (2) The date and result of each sample taken during last  quarter.
    (3) The quarterly average of monthly samples taken during last  quarter or the result of the quarterly sample.
    (4) The running annual average (RAA) of quarterly averages  from the past four quarters.
    (5) Whether the RAA exceeded 4.0 mg/L.
    3. The owner of a waterworks monitoring for chlorite under the  requirements of 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 f shall report:
    a. The number of entry point samples taken each month for the  last three months.
    b. The location, date, and result of each sample (both entry  point and distribution system) taken during the last quarter.
    c. For each month in the reporting period, the arithmetic  average of all samples taken in each three sample set taken in the distribution  system.
    d. Whether, based on 12VAC5-590-410 C 2 b, the PMCL was  violated, in which month and how many times it was violated each month.
    4. The owner of a waterworks monitoring for bromate under the  requirements of 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 g shall report:
    a. The number of samples taken during the last quarter.
    b. The location, date, and result of each sample taken during  the last quarter.
    c. The arithmetic average of the monthly arithmetic averages  of all samples taken in the last year.
    d. Whether, based on 12VAC5-590-410 C 2 b, the PMCL was  violated.
    F. Reporting requirements for disinfectants. Owners shall report  the information specified below in accordance with subsection A of this  section. (The district engineer may choose to perform calculations and  determine whether the MRDL was violated, in lieu of having the owner report  that information):
    1. The owner of a waterworks monitoring for chlorine or  chloramines under the requirements of 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 h shall report:
    a. The number of samples taken during each month of the last  quarter.
    b. The monthly arithmetic average of all samples taken in each  month for the last 12 months.
    c. The arithmetic average of all monthly averages for the last  12 months.
    d. Whether, based on 12VAC5-590-410 C 2 c, the MRDL was  violated.
    2. The owner of a waterworks monitoring for chlorine dioxide  under the requirements of 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 h shall report:
    a. The dates, results, and locations of samples taken during  the last quarter.
    b. Whether, based on 12VAC5-590-410 C 2 c, the MRDL was  violated.
    c. Whether the MRDL was exceeded in any two consecutive daily  samples and whether the resulting violation was acute or nonacute.
    G. Reporting requirements for disinfection byproduct  precursors and enhanced coagulation or enhanced softening. Owners shall report  the following information in accordance with subsection A of this section. (The  district engineer may choose to perform calculations and determine whether the  treatment technique was met, in lieu of having the owner report that  information):
    1. The owner of a waterworks monitoring monthly or quarterly  for TOC under the requirements of 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 i and required to meet the  enhanced coagulation or enhanced softening requirements in 12VAC5-590-420 H 2 b  or c shall report:
    a. The number of paired (source water and treated water)  samples taken during the last quarter.
    b. The location, date, and results of each paired sample and  associated alkalinity taken during the last quarter.
    c. For each month in the reporting period that paired samples  were taken, the arithmetic average of the percent reduction of TOC for each  paired sample and the required TOC percent removal.
    d. Calculations for determining compliance with the TOC  percent removal requirements, as provided in 12VAC5-590-420 H 3 a.
    e. Whether the system is in compliance with the enhanced  coagulation or enhanced softening percent removal requirements in  12VAC5-590-420 H 2 a for the last four quarters.
    2. The owner of a waterworks monitoring monthly or quarterly  for TOC under the requirements of 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 i and meeting one or more  of the alternative compliance criteria in 12VAC5-590-420 H 1 b or c shall  report:
    a. The alternative compliance criterion that the system is  using.
    b. The number of paired samples taken during the last quarter.
    c. The location, date, and result of each paired sample and  associated alkalinity taken during the last quarter.
    d. The running annual arithmetic average based on monthly  averages (or quarterly samples) of source water TOC for systems meeting a  criterion in 12VAC5-590-420 H 1 b (1) or (3) or of treated water TOC for  systems meeting the criterion in 12VAC5-590-420 H 1 b (2).
    e. The running annual arithmetic average based on monthly  averages (or quarterly samples) of source water SUVA for systems meeting the  criterion in 12VAC5-590-420 H 1 b (5) or of treated water SUVA for systems  meeting the criterion in 12VAC5-590-420 H 1 b (6).
    f. The running annual average of source water alkalinity for  systems meeting the criterion in 12VAC5-590-420 H 1 b (3) and of treated water  alkalinity for systems meeting the criterion in 12VAC5-590-420 H 1 c (1).
    g. The running annual average for both TTHM and HAA5 for  systems meeting the criterion in 12VAC5-590-420 H 1 b (3) or (4).
    h. The running annual average of the amount of magnesium  hardness removal (as CaCO3, in mg/L) for systems meeting the  criterion in 12VAC5-590-420 H 1 c (2).
    i. Whether the system is in compliance with the particular  alternative compliance criterion in 12VAC5-590-420 H 1 b or c.
    H. Reporting of analytical results to the district engineer  will not be required in instances where the state laboratory performs the  analysis and reports same to the district engineer.
    I. Recycle flow reporting requirements. The owner of any  waterworks supplied by a surface water source and waterworks supplied by a  groundwater source under the direct influence of surface water that employs  conventional filtration or direct filtration treatment shall notify the  commissioner in writing by December 8, 2003, if the system recycles spent  filter backwash water, thickener supernatant, or liquids from dewatering  processes. This notification shall include, as a minimum:
    1. A plant schematic showing the origin of all flows that are  recycled, including but not limited to spent filter backwash water, thickener  supernatant, and liquids from dewatering processes. The schematic shall also  specify the hydraulic conveyance used to transport all recycle flows and the  location where recycle flows are reintroduced back into the treatment plant.
    2. Typical recycle flow in gallons per minute (gpm), the  highest observed plant flow experienced in the previous year (gpm), design flow  for the treatment plant (gpm), and state-approved operating capacity for the  plant.
    J. Reporting of requirements for enhanced treatment for  cryptosporidium.
    1. Owners shall report sampling schedules under 12VAC5-590-420  B 3 a (5) and source water monitoring results under 12VAC5-590-530 C 1 c unless  they notify the commissioner that they will not conduct source water monitoring  due to meeting the criteria of 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 a (4).
    2. Owners shall report the use of uncovered finished water  storage facilities to the commissioner as described in 12VAC5-590-420 L.
    3. Owners of waterworks that provide filtration shall report  their Cryptosporidium bin classification as described in 12VAC-590-420 B 3 c.
    4. Owners shall report disinfection profiles and benchmarks to  the commissioner as described in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 b (1) through (2) prior to  making a significant change in disinfection practice.
    5. Owners shall report to the commissioner in accordance with  the following table for any microbial toolbox options used to comply with  treatment requirements under 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (2). Alternatively, the  commissioner may approve a waterworks to certify operation within required  parameters for treatment credit rather than reporting monthly operational data  for toolbox options.
         
          Microbial Toolbox Reporting Requirements
           | Toolbox option | Owners shall submit the following information | On the following schedule | 
       | Watershed control program (WCP)
 | Notice of intention to develop a new or continue an    existing watershed control program
 | No later than two years before the applicable treatment    compliance date in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3).
 | 
       | Watershed control plan 
 | No later than one year before the applicable treatment    compliance date in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3).
 | 
       | Annual watershed control program status report
 | Every 12 months, beginning one year after the applicable    treatment compliance date in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3).
 | 
       | Watershed sanitary survey report
 | For community waterworks, every three years beginning    three years after the applicable treatment compliance date in 12VAC5-590-420    B 3 c (3). For noncommunity waterworks, every five years beginning five years    after the applicable treatment compliance date in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3).
 | 
       | Alternative source/intake management | Verification that waterworks has relocated the intake or    adopted the intake withdrawal procedure reflected in monitoring results | No later than the applicable treatment compliance date in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Presedimentation | Monthly verification of the following: (i) Continuous basin operation (ii) Treatment of 100% of the flow (iii) Continuous addition of a coagulant (iv) At least 0.5-log mean reduction of influent turbidity or    compliance with alternative performance criteria approved by the commissioner. | Monthly reporting within 10 days following the month in which    the monitoring was conducted, beginning on the applicable treatment    compliance date in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Two-stage lime softening | Monthly verification of the following: (i) Chemical addition and hardness precipitation occurred in    two separate and sequential softening stages prior to filtration (ii) Both stages treated 100% of the plant flow | Monthly reporting within 10 days following the month in which    the monitoring was conducted, beginning on the applicable treatment    compliance date in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Bank filtration | Initial demonstration of the following: (i) Unconsolidated, predominantly sandy aquifer (ii) Setback distance of at least 25 ft. (0.5-log credit) or    50 ft. (1.0-log credit) | No later than the applicable treatment compliance date in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | If monthly average of daily max turbidity is greater than 1    NTU then system shall report result and submit an assessment of the cause. | Report within 30 days following the month in which the    monitoring was conducted, beginning on the applicable treatment compliance    date in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Combined filter performance | Monthly verification of combined filter effluent (CFE) turbidity    levels less than or equal to 0.15 NTU in at least 95% of the four-hour CFE    measurements taken each month | Monthly reporting within 10 days following the month in which    the monitoring was conducted, beginning on the applicable treatment    compliance date in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Individual filter performance | Monthly verification of the following: (i) Individual filter effluent (IFE) turbidity levels less    than or equal to 0.15 NTU in at least 95% of samples each month in each    filter (ii) No individual filter greater than 0.3 NTU in two    consecutive readings 15 minutes apart | Monthly reporting within 10 days following the month in which    the monitoring was conducted, beginning on the applicable treatment    compliance date in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Demonstration of performance | Results from testing following a protocol approved by the    commissioner. | No later than the applicable treatment compliance date in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | (ii) As required by the commissioner, monthly verification of    operation within conditions of commissioner approval for demonstration of    performance credit | Within 10 days following the month in which monitoring was    conducted, beginning on the applicable treatment compliance date in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Bag filters and cartridge filters | Demonstration that the following criteria are met: (i) Process meets the definition of bag or cartridge    filtration (ii) Removal efficiency established through challenge testing    that meets criteria in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 d (6) (a). | No later than the applicable treatment compliance date in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Monthly verification that 100% of plant flow was filtered | Within 10 days following the month in which monitoring was    conducted, beginning on the applicable treatment compliance date in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Membrane filtration | Results of verification testing demonstrating the following: (i) Removal efficiency established through challenge testing    that meets criteria in subsection J of this section (ii) Integrity test method and parameters, including    resolution, sensitivity, test frequency, control limits, and associated    baseline | No later than the applicable treatment compliance date in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Monthly report summarizing the following: (i) All direct integrity tests above the control limit; (ii) If applicable, any turbidity or alternative indirect    integrity monitoring approved by the commissioner results triggering direct    integrity testing and the corrective action that was taken | Within 10 days following the month in which monitoring was    conducted, beginning on the applicable treatment compliance date in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Second stage filtration | Monthly verification that 100% of flow was filtered through    both stages and that first stage was preceded by a coagulation step | Within 10 days following the month in which monitoring was    conducted, beginning on the applicable treatment compliance date in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Slow sand filtration (as secondary filter) | Monthly verification that both a slow sand filter and a    preceding separate stage of filtration treated 100% of flow from surface    water or groundwater under the direct influence of surface water sources. | Within 10 days following the month in which monitoring was    conducted, beginning on the applicable treatment compliance date in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Chlorine dioxide | Summary of CT values for each day as described in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 d (7)(b)(i). | Within 10 days following the month in which monitoring was    conducted, beginning on the applicable treatment compliance date in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Ozone | Summary of CT values for each day as described in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 d (7)(b)(ii). | Within 10 days following the month in which monitoring was    conducted, beginning on the applicable treatment compliance date in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | UV | Validation test results demonstrating operating conditions    that achieve required UV dose | No later than the applicable treatment compliance date in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
       | Monthly report summarizing the percentage of water entering    the distribution system that was not treated by UV reactors operating within    validated conditions for the required dose as specified in 12VAC5-590-420 B 3    d (7) (c). | Within 10 days following the month in which monitoring was    conducted, beginning on the applicable treatment compliance date in    12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (3). | 
  
         
          K. Reporting requirements for groundwater systems. Owners  of groundwater systems shall report the following information in accordance  with subsection A of this section.
    1. Owners of groundwater systems conducting compliance  monitoring as required by 12VAC5-590-421 C shall notify the ODW as soon as  possible any time the groundwater system fails to meet the ODW specified  minimum residual disinfectant concentration for more than four hours, but no  later than the next business day.
    2. Owners of groundwater systems that are required to  conduct corrective action as described in 12VAC5-590-421 A shall notify the ODW  within 30 days of completion of corrective action.
    3. Owners of groundwater systems subject to the source  monitoring requirements of 12VAC5-590-379 that do not conduct this monitoring  under the provision of 12VAC5-590-380 E, shall provide documentation to the ODW  within 30 days of the collection that the sample met the criteria defined in  12VAC5-590-380 E.
    K. L. Information to be included on the  operation monthly report shall be determined by the commissioner for each  waterworks on an individual basis. Appendix G contains suggested monthly  operation report requirements.
    12VAC5-590-540. Public notices.
    A. All owners shall give public notice to (i) persons served  by the waterworks and (ii) the owner of any consecutive waterworks to which it  sells or otherwise provides water under the following circumstances:
    1. Tier 1.
    a. Violation of the PMCL for total coliforms when fecal  coliform or E. coli are present in the distribution system;
    b. Failure to test for fecal coliforms or E. coli when any  repeat sample tests positive for coliform;
    c. Violation of the PMCL for nitrate, nitrite, or total  nitrate and nitrite;
    d. Failure to take a confirmation sample within 24 hours of  the waterworks receipt of the first sample showing an exceedance of the nitrate  or nitrite PMCL;
    e. Exceedance of the nitrate PMCL by noncommunity waterworks,  where permitted to exceed the PMCL by the commissioner;
    f. Violation of the MRDL for chlorine dioxide when one or more  samples taken in the distribution system the day following an exceedance of the  MRDL at the entry point of the distribution system exceed the MRDL;
    g. Failure to monitor chlorine dioxide residuals in the  distribution system the day following an exceedance of the chlorine dioxide  MRDL at the entrance to the distribution system;
    h. Violation of the treatment technique requirements for  filtration and disinfection resulting from a single exceedance of the maximum  allowable turbidity limit, where the commissioner determines after consultation  that a Tier 1 notice is required;
    i. Failure to consult with the commissioner within 24 hours  after the owner learns of the violation of the treatment technique requirements  for filtration and disinfection resulting from a single exceedance of the  maximum allowable turbidity limit;
    j. Occurrence of a waterborne disease outbreak or other  waterborne emergency (such as a failure or significant interruption in key  water treatment processes, a natural disaster that disrupts the water supply or  distribution system, or a chemical spill or unexpected loading of possible  pathogens into the source water that significantly increases the potential for  drinking water contamination);
    k. Detection of E. coli, enterococci, or coliphage in  groundwater source samples;
    l. Other violations or situations with significant potential  to have serious adverse effects on human health as a result of short-term  exposure, as determined by the commissioner on a case-by-case basis.
    2. Tier 2.
    a. All violations of the PMCL, MRDL, and treatment technique  requirements, except where a Tier 1 public notice is required or where the  commissioner determines that a Tier 1 notice is required per subdivision A 1 l  of this subsection;
    b. Violations of the monitoring and testing procedure  requirements, where the commissioner determines that a Tier 2 rather than a  Tier 3 public notice is required, taking into account potential health impacts  and persistence of the violation;
    c. Failure to comply with the terms and conditions of any  variance or exemption in place;
    d. Failure to take corrective action or failure to maintain at  least four-log treatment of viruses (using inactivation, removal, or an  approved combination of four-log virus inactivation and removal) before or at  the first customer under the treatment technique requirements for waterworks  with groundwater sources.
    3. Tier 3.
    a. Monitoring violations, except where a Tier 1 public notice  is required per subdivisions 1 d and 1 g of this subsection, or where the  commissioner determines that a Tier 2 public notice is required per subdivision  2 b of this subsection;
    b. Failure to comply with a testing procedure, except where a  Tier 1 notice is required per subdivision 1 b of this subsection or where the  commissioner determines that a Tier 2 notice is required per subdivision 2 b of  this subsection;
    c. Operation under a variance or an exemption to a PMCL or treatment  technique requirement;
    d. Availability of unregulated contaminant monitoring results;  and
    e. Exceedance of the fluoride secondary maximum contaminant  level (SMCL).
    B. If a waterworks has a violation, failure, exceedance, or  situation in a portion of the distribution system that is physically or  hydraulically isolated from other parts of the distribution system, the  commissioner may allow the owner to limit distribution of the public notice to  only those persons served by that portion of the waterworks which is out of  compliance. The decision granting limited distribution of the public notice  shall be issued in writing.
    C. Public notice distribution requirements.
    1. For Tier 1 violations, exceedances, or situations, the  owner shall:
    a. Provide a public notice as soon as practical but no later  than 24 hours after the owner learns of the violation, exceedance, or  situation;
    b. Initiate consultation with the commissioner as soon as  practical, but no later than 24 hours after the owner learns of the violation  or situation, to determine additional public notice requirements;
    c. Comply with any additional public notice requirements,  including any repeat notices or direction on the duration of the posted  notices, that are established as a result of the consultation with the  commissioner. Such requirements may include the timing, form, manner,  frequency, and content of repeat notices (if any) and other actions designed to  reach all persons served; and
    d. Provide the public notice in a form and manner reasonably  calculated to reach all persons served. The form and manner shall fit the  specific situation, and shall be designed to reach residential, transient, and  non-transient users of the waterworks. In order to reach all persons served,  owners shall use, at a minimum, one or more of the following forms of delivery:
    (1) Appropriate broadcast media (such as radio and  television);
    (2) Posting of the public notice in conspicuous locations  throughout the area served by the waterworks;
    (3) Hand delivery of the public notice to persons served by  the water system; or
    (4) Another delivery method approved in writing by the  commissioner.
    2. For Tier 2 violations, exceedances, or situations the owner  shall:
    a. Provide the public notice as soon as practical, but no  later than 30 days after the owner learns of the violation, exceedance, or  situation. The commissioner may allow, on a case-by-case determination,  additional time for the initial notice of up to three months from the date the  owner learns of the violation, exceedance, or situation; however, the  commissioner shall not grant an extension to the 30-day deadline for any  unresolved violation.
    b. Repeat the public notice every three months as long as the  violation, exceedance, or situation persists, unless the commissioner determines  that appropriate circumstances warrant a different repeat notice frequency. In  no circumstance shall the repeat notice be given less frequently than once per  year. Repeat notice frequency less than every three months shall not be allowed  for (i) a PMCL violation total coliforms; (ii) a treatment technique violation  for filtration and disinfection; and (iii) other ongoing violations,  exceedances, or situations.
    c. Consult with the commissioner as soon as practical but no  later than 24 hours after the owner learns of a violation of the treatment  technique requirements for filtration and disinfection resulting from a single  exceedance of the maximum allowable turbidity limit to determine whether a Tier  1 public notice is required to protect public health. If consultation does not  take place within the 24-hour period, the owner shall distribute a Tier 1  public notice of the violation within the next 24 hours (i.e., no later than 48  hours after the owner learns of the violation).
    d. Provide the initial public notice and any repeat notices in  a form and manner that is reasonably calculated to reach persons served in the  required time period.
    (1) For community waterworks, the owner shall:
    (a) Mail or otherwise directly deliver the public notice to  each customer receiving a bill and to other service connections to which water  is delivered by the waterworks; and
    (b) Use any other distribution method reasonably calculated to  reach other persons regularly served by the waterworks, if they would not  normally be reached by the notice required in subdivision 2 d (1) (a) of this  subsection. Such persons may include those who do not pay water bills or do not  have service connection addresses (e.g., house renters, apartment dwellers,  university students, nursing home patients, prison inmates, etc.). Other  methods may include: Publication in a local newspaper; delivery of multiple  copies for distribution by customers that provide their drinking water to  others (e.g., apartment building owners or large private employers); posting in  public places served by the system or on the Internet; or delivery to community  organizations.
    (2) For noncommunity waterworks, the owner shall:
    (a) Post the public notice in conspicuous locations throughout  the distribution system frequented by persons served by the waterworks, or by  mail or direct delivery to each customer and service connection (where known);  and
    (b) Use any other method reasonably calculated to reach other  persons served by the system if they would not normally be reached by the  notice required in subdivision 2 d (2) (a) of this subsection. Such persons may  include those served who may not see a posted notice because the posted notice  is not in a location they routinely pass by.
    Other methods may include publication in a local newspaper or  newsletter distributed to customers, use of e-mail to notify employees or  students, or delivery of multiple copies in central locations (e.g., community  centers).
    e. Maintain a posted public notice in place for as long as the  violation, exceedance, or situation persists, but in no case for less than  seven days, even if the violation, exceedance, or situation is resolved.
    3. For Tier 3 violations, exceedances, or situations the owner  shall:
    a. Provide the public notice not later than one year after the  owner learns of the violation, exceedance, or situation or begins operating  under a variance or exemption.
    b. Repeat the public notice annually for as long as the  violation, exceedance, variance, exemption, or other situation persists.
    c. Maintain a posted public notice in place for as long as the  violation, exceedance, variance, exemption, or other situation persists, but in  no case less than seven days even if the violation or situation is resolved.
    d. Instead of individual Tier 3 public notices, the owner may  use an annual report detailing all violations, exceedances, and situations that  occurred during the previous twelve months, as long as the timing requirements  of subdivision 3 a of this subsection are met. For community waterworks the Consumer  Confidence Report (CCR) may be used as a vehicle for the initial Tier 3 public  notice and all required repeat notices, provided:
    (1) The CCR is provided to persons served by the waterworks no  later than 12 months after the owner learns of the violation, exceedance, or  other situation;
    (2) The Tier 3 public notice contained in the CCR meets the  content requirements in subsection E of this section.
    (3)The CCR is distributed in a manner meeting the delivery  requirements in subdivision D 3 e of this section.
    e. For community waterworks the owner shall:
    (1) Mail or otherwise directly deliver the public notice to  each customer receiving a bill and to other service connections to which water  is delivered by the waterworks; and
    (2) Use any other method reasonably calculated to reach other  persons regularly served by the system, if they would not normally be reached  by the notice required in subdivision 3 e (1) of this subsection. Such persons  may include those who do not pay water bills or do not have service connection  addresses (e.g., house renters, apartment dwellers, university students,  nursing home patients, prison inmates, etc.). Other methods may include  publication in a local newspaper, delivery of multiple copies for distribution  by customers that provide their drinking water to others (e.g., apartment  building owners or large private employers), posting in public places or on the  Internet, or delivery to community organizations.
    f. For noncommunity waterworks the owner shall:
    (1) Post the public notice in conspicuous locations throughout  the distribution system frequented by persons served by the waterworks, or by  mail or direct delivery to each customer and service connection (where known);  and
    (2) Use any other method reasonably calculated to reach other  persons served by the system, if they would not normally be reached by the  notice required in subdivision 3 f (1) of this subsection. Such persons may  include those who may not see a posted notice because the notice is not in a  location they routinely pass by. Other methods may include: Publication in a  local newspaper or newsletter distributed to customers; use of E-mail to notify  employees or students; or, delivery of multiple copies in central locations  (e.g., community centers).
    D. Public notice contents.
    1. Each public notice for PMCL, MRDL, and TT violations and  other situations requiring a public notice shall include the following  elements:
    a. A description of the violation, exceedance, or situation,  including the contaminant(s) of concern, and (as applicable) the contaminant  level(s);
    b. When the violation or situation occurred;
    c. Any potential adverse health effects from the violation,  exceedance, or situation, including the standard language under subdivision 5 a  or 5 b of this subsection, whichever is applicable;
    d. The population at risk, including subpopulations  particularly vulnerable if exposed to the contaminant in their drinking water;
    e. Whether alternative water supplies should be used;
    f. What actions consumers should take, including when they  should seek medical help, if known;
    g. What the owner is doing to correct the violation,  exceedance, or situation;
    h. When the owner expects the waterworks to return to  compliance or resolve the situation;
    i. The name, business address, and phone number of the owner,  operator, or designee as a source of additional information concerning the  notice; and
    j. A statement to encourage the notice recipient to distribute  the public notice to other persons served, using the standard language under  subdivision 5 c of this subsection, where applicable.
    2. Each public notice for a waterworks that has been granted a  variance or exemption shall include the following elements:
    a. An explanation of the reasons for the variance or  exemption;
    b. The date on which the variance or exemption was issued;
    c. A brief status report on the steps the owner is taking to  install treatment, find alternative sources of water, or otherwise comply with  the terms and schedules of the variance or exemption; and
    d. A notice of any opportunity for public input in the review  of the variance or exemption.
    3. Each public notice for a waterworks that violates the  conditions of a variance or exemption shall contain the ten elements listed in  subdivision 1 of this subsection.
    4. Each public notice shall:
    a. Be displayed in a conspicuous way when printed or posted;
    b. Not contain overly technical language or very small print;
    c. Not be formatted in a way that defeats the purpose of the  notice;
    d. Not contain language which nullifies the purpose of the  notice.
    e. Contain information in the appropriate language(s), for  waterworks serving a large proportion of non-English speaking consumers,  regarding the importance of the notice or contain a telephone number or address  where persons served may contact the owner to obtain a translated copy of the  notice or to request assistance in the appropriate language.
    5. The public notice shall include the following standard  language:
    a. For PMCL or MRDL violations, treatment technique  violations, and violations of the condition of a variance or  exemption--standard health effects language as specified in Appendix O  corresponding to each PMCL, MRDL, and treatment technique violation and for  each violation of a condition of a variance or exemption.
    b. For monitoring and testing procedure violations --standard  language as specified below, including the language necessary to fill in the  blanks:
    We are required to monitor your drinking water for specific  contaminants on a regular basis. Results of regular monitoring are an indicator  of whether or not your drinking water meets health standards. During  (compliance period), we (did not monitor or test or did not complete all  monitoring or testing) for (contaminant(s)), and therefore cannot be sure of  the quality of your drinking water during that time.
    c. For all public notices--standard language (where  applicable), as specified below:
    Please share this information with all the other people who  drink this water, especially those who may not have received this notice  directly (for example, people in apartments, nursing homes, schools, and  businesses). You can do this by posting this notice in a public place or  distributing copies by hand or mail.
    E. Public notice to new billing units or customers.
    1. For community waterworks the owner shall give a copy of the  most recent public notice for any continuing violation, variance or exemption,  or other ongoing situations requiring a public notice to all new billing units  or new customers prior to or at the time service begins.
    2. For noncommunity waterworks the owner shall continuously  post the public notice in conspicuous locations in order to inform new  consumers of any continuing violation, variance or exemption, or other  situation requiring a public notice for as long as the violation, variance,  exemption, or other situation persists.
    F. Special notice of the availability of unregulated  contaminant monitoring results.
    1. The owner of a community waterworks or non-transient,  noncommunity waterworks shall notify persons served by the system of the  availability of the results of such sampling no later than 12 months after the  monitoring results are known.
    2. The special notice shall meet the requirements for a Tier 3  public notice and shall identify a person and telephone number to contact for  information on the monitoring results.
    G. Special notice for exceedance of the SMCL for fluoride.
    1. Community waterworks that exceed the SMCL of 2 mg/L, but do  not exceed the PMCL of 4 mg/L for fluoride, shall provide public notice to  persons served as soon as practical but no later than 12 months from the day  the owner learns of the exceedance.
    2. A copy of the notice shall be sent to all new billing units  and new customers at the time service begins and to the district engineer.
    3. The owner shall repeat the notice at least annually for as  long as the SMCL is exceeded.
    4. If the public notice is posted, the notice shall remain in  place for as long as the SMCL is exceeded, but in no case less than seven days  even if the exceedance is eliminated.
    5. On a case-by-case basis, the commissioner may require an  initial notice sooner than 12 months and repeat notices more frequently than  annually.
    6. The form and manner of the public notice (including repeat  notices) shall meet the requirements for a Tier 3 public notice.
    7. The public notice shall contain the following language,  including the language necessary to fill in the blanks:
    This is an alert about your drinking water and a cosmetic  dental problem that might affect children under nine years of age. At low  levels, fluoride can help prevent cavities, but children drinking water  containing more than 2 milligrams per liter (mg/L) of fluoride may develop  cosmetic discoloration of their permanent teeth (dental fluorosis). The  drinking water provided by your community waterworks (name) has a fluoride  concentration of (insert value) mg/L. Dental fluorosis, in its moderate or  severe forms, may result in a brown staining and/or pitting of the permanent  teeth. This problem occurs only in developing teeth, before they erupt from the  gums. Children under nine should be provided with alternative sources of  drinking water or water that has been treated to remove the excess fluoride to  avoid the possibility of staining and pitting of their permanent teeth. You may  also want to contact your dentist about proper use by young children of  fluoride-containing products by young children. Older children and adults may  safely drink the water. Drinking water containing more than 4 mg/L of fluoride  (the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's drinking water standard) can  increase your risk of developing bone disease. Your drinking water does not  contain more than 4 mg/L of fluoride, but we are required to notify you when we  discover that the fluoride levels in your drinking water exceed 2 mg/L because  of this cosmetic dental problem. For more information, please call (name of  water system contact) of (name of community waterworks) at (phone number). Some  home water treatment units are also available to remove fluoride from drinking  water. To learn more about available home water treatment units, you may call  NSF International at 1-877-NSF-HELP.
    H. Special notice for nitrate exceedances above PMCL by  noncommunity waterworks.
    1. The owner of a noncommunity waterworks granted permission  by the commissioner to exceed the nitrate PMCL shall provide public notice to  persons served meeting the requirements for a Tier 1 notice.
    2. The public notice shall be posted continuously and shall  indicate the fact that nitrate levels exceed 10 mg/L and the potential health  effects of exposure, meeting the requirements for Tier 1 public notice delivery  and content.
    I. Special notice for repeated failure to conduct sampling of  the source water for Cryptosporidium.
    1. An owner who is required to sample source water shall  provide public notice to persons served when he has failed to collect any three  months of required samples. The form and manner of the public notice shall  satisfy the requirements of a Tier 2 notice, and the notice shall be repeated  in accordance with the requirements of a Tier 2 notice.
    2. The notice shall contain the following language, including  the language to fill in the blanks:
    We are required to monitor the source of your drinking water  for Cryptosporidium. Results of the monitoring are to be used to determine  whether water treatment at the [blank – fill in treatment plant name] is  sufficient to adequately remove Cryptosporidium from your drinking water. We  are required to complete this monitoring and make this determination by [blank  – fill in required bin determination date]. We "did not monitor" or  "did not complete all monitoring or testing" on schedule and,  therefore, we may not be able to determine by the required date what treatment  modifications, if any, shall be made to ensure adequate Cryptosporidium  removal. Missing this deadline may, in turn, jeopardize our ability to have the  required treatment modifications, if any, completed by the deadline required,  [blank – fill in date].
    For more information, please call [blank – fill in name of  waterworks contact] of [blank – fill in name of waterworks] at [blank – fill in  phone number].
    3. The notice shall contain a description of what the owner is  doing to correct the violation and when the owner expects the waterworks to  return to compliance or resolve the situation.
    J. Special notice for failure to determine bin classification  or mean Cryptosporidium level.
    1. An owner who is required to determine a bin classification  or to determine mean Cryptosporidium level shall provide public notice to  persons served when the determination has not been made as required. The form  and manner of the public notice shall satisfy the requirements of a Tier 2  notice, and the notice shall be repeated in accordance with the requirements of  a Tier 2 notice. However, a public notice is not required if the owner is  complying with a schedule to address the violation approved by the ODW.
    2. The notice shall contain the following language, including  the language to fill in the blanks:
    We are required to monitor the source of your drinking water  for Cryptosporidium in order to determine by [blank – fill in date] whether  water treatment at the [blank – fill in treatment plant name] is sufficient to  adequately remove Cryptosporidium from you drinking water. We have not made  this determination by the required date. Our failure to do this may jeopardize  our ability to have the required treatment modifications, if any, completed by  the required deadline of [blank – fill in date]. For more information, please  call [blank – fill in name of waterworks contact] of [blank – fill in name of  waterworks] at [blank – fill in telephone number].
    3. The notice shall contain a description of what the owner is  doing to correct the violation and when the owner expects the waterworks to  return to compliance or resolve the situation.
    K. Special notice for significant deficiencies by  noncommunity groundwater systems.
    1. Any owner of a noncommunity groundwater system who has  not corrected a significant deficiency within one year of being notified by the  ODW shall provide public notice to the consumers.
    2. The form and manner of the public notice shall satisfy  the requirements of a Tier 2 notice.
    3. The owner shall continue to notify the public annually  until the requirements of 12VAC5-590-421 have been satisfied. The notice shall  include:
    a. The nature of the significant deficiency and the date it  was identified by the ODW; and
    b. The ODW approved plan and schedule for correcting the  significant deficiency including interim measures, progress to date, and which  of the interim measures have been completed.
    4. For noncommunity groundwater systems with a large  proportion of non-English speaking consumers, the notice shall contain  information in the appropriate language or languages regarding the importance  of the notice or contain a telephone number or address where the consumers may  contact the owner to obtain a translated copy of the notice or assistance with  the appropriate language.
    5. If directed by the ODW, the owner of a noncommunity groundwater  system with significant deficiencies that have been corrected shall inform the  consumers of the significant deficiencies, how the deficiencies were corrected,  and the date or dates of correction.
    K. L. The district engineer may give notice to  the public required by this section on behalf of the owner if the district  engineer complies with the requirements of this section. However, the owner  remains legally responsible for ensuring that the requirements of this section  are met.
    L. M. Within 10 days of completion of each  initial and repeat public notice, the owner shall provide the district  engineer:
    1. A certification that he has fully complied with the public  notice requirements; and
    2. A representative copy of each type of notice distributed,  published, posted and made available to the persons served by the waterworks  and to the media.
    M. N. The owner shall maintain copies of each  public notice and certification for at least three years after issuance.
    12VAC5-590-545. Consumer confidence reports.
    A. Purpose and applicability.
    1. Each community waterworks owner shall deliver to his  customers an annual report that contains information on the quality of the  water delivered by the waterworks and characterizes the risks, if any, from  exposure to contaminants detected in the drinking water.
    2. For the purpose of this section, customers are defined as  billing units or service connections to which water is delivered by a community  waterworks.
    3. For the purpose of this section, a contaminant is detected  when the laboratory reports the contaminant level as a measured level and not  as nondetected (ND) or less than (<) a certain level. The owner shall  utilize a laboratory that complies with 12VAC5-590-340, and the laboratory's  analytical and reporting procedures shall have been in accordance with  12VAC5-590-440; laboratory certification requirements of the Commonwealth of  Virginia, Department of General Services, Division of Consolidated Laboratory  Services; and consistent with current U. S. Environmental Protection Agency  regulations found at 40 CFR Part 141.
    B. Effective dates.
    1. Each existing community waterworks owner shall deliver his  report by July 1 annually.
    2. The owner of a new community waterworks shall deliver his  first report by July 1 of the year after its first full calendar year in  operation and annually thereafter.
    3. The owner of a community waterworks that sells water to a  consecutive waterworks shall deliver the applicable information necessary to  comply with the requirements contained in this section to the consecutive  waterworks by April 1 annually, or on a date mutually agreed upon by the seller  and the purchaser and specifically included in a contract between the parties.
    C. Content.
    1. Each community waterworks owner shall provide his customers  an annual report that contains the information on the source of the water  delivered as follows:
    a. Each report shall identify the source or sources of the  water delivered by the community waterworks by providing information on:
    (1) The type of the water (e.g., surface water, ground water);  and
    (2) The commonly used name, if any, and location of the body  or bodies of water.
    b. Where a source water assessment has been completed, the  report shall:
    (1) Notify consumers of the availability of the assessment;
    (2) Describe the means to obtain the assessment; and
    (3) Include a brief summary of the waterworks' susceptibility  to potential sources of contamination.
    c. The owner should highlight in the report significant  sources of contamination in the source water area if such information is  readily available.
    2. For the purpose of compliance with this section, each  report shall include the following definitions:
    a. "Maximum contaminant level goal" or  "MCLG" means the level of a contaminant in drinking water below which  there is no known or expected risk to health. MCLGs allow for a margin of  safety.
    b. "Maximum contaminant level" or "MCL"  means the highest level of a contaminant that is allowed in drinking water.  MCLs are set as close to the MCLGs as feasible using the best available  treatment technology.
    c. A report for a community water system waterworks  operating under a variance or an exemption issued by the commissioner under  12VAC5-590-140 and 12VAC5-590-150 shall include the following definition:  "Variances and exemptions" means state or EPA permission not to meet  an MCL or a treatment technique under certain conditions.
    d. A report that contains data on contaminants that EPA  regulates using any of the following terms shall include the applicable  definitions:
    (1) "Treatment technique" means a required process  intended to reduce the level of a contaminant in drinking water.
    (2) "Action level" means the concentration of a  contaminant that, if exceeded, triggers treatment or other requirements that an  owner shall follow.
    (3) "Maximum residual disinfectant level goal" or  "MRDLG" means the level of a drinking water disinfectant below which  there is no known or expected risk to health. MRDLGs do not reflect the  benefits of the use of disinfectants to control microbial contaminants.
    (4) "Maximum residual disinfectant level" or  "MRDL" means the highest level of a disinfectant allowed in drinking  water. There is convincing evidence that addition of a disinfectant is  necessary for control of microbial contaminants.
    3. Information on detected contaminants.
    a. This section specifies the requirements for information to  be included in each report for the following contaminants:
    (1) Contaminants subject to a PMCL, action level, maximum  residual disinfectant level, or treatment technique as specified in  12VAC5-590-370;
    (2) Unregulated contaminants subject to monitoring as  specified in 12VAC5-590-370; and
    (3) Disinfection byproducts or microbial contaminants, except  Cryptosporidium, for which monitoring is required by Information Collection  Rule (40 CFR 141.142 and 141.143 (7-1-97 Edition)), except as provided under  subdivision 5 a of this subsection, and which are detected in the finished  water.
    b. The data relating to these contaminants shall be displayed  in one table or in several adjacent tables. Any additional monitoring results  that a community waterworks owner chooses to include in the report shall be  displayed separately.
    c. The data shall be derived from data collected to comply  with EPA and state monitoring and analytical requirements during the calendar  year preceding the year the report is due, except that:
    (1) Where an owner is allowed to monitor for contaminants  specified in subdivision 3 a (1) and (3) of this subsection less often than  once a year, the table or tables shall include the date and results of the most  recent sampling, and the report shall include a brief statement indicating that  the data presented in the report are from the most recent testing done in  accordance with the regulations. No data older than five years need be  included.
    (2) Results of monitoring in compliance with the Information  Collection Rule (40 CFR 141.142 and 141.143 (7-1-97 Edition)) need only be  included for five years from the date of last sample or until any of the  detected contaminants becomes regulated and subject to routine monitoring  requirements, whichever comes first.
    d. For detected contaminants subject to a PMCL, action level,  or treatment technique as specified in 12VAC5-590-370 and listed in Tables 2.1,  2.2 (Primary Maximum Contaminant Levels only), 2.3, 2.4 (Primary Maximum  Contaminant Levels only), and 2.5, the table or tables shall contain:
    (1) The PMCL for that contaminant expressed as a number equal  to or greater than 1.0 as provided in Appendix O, with an exception for beta/photon  emitters. When the detected level of beta/photon emitters has been reported in  the units of pCi/L and does not exceed 50 pCi/L, the report may list the PMCL  as 50 pCi/L. In this case, the owner shall include in the report the following  footnote: The PMCL for beta particles is 4 mrem/year. EPA considers 50 pCi/L to  be the level of concern for beta particles;
    (2) The MCLG for that contaminant expressed in the same units  as the PMCL as provided in Appendix O;
    (3) If there is no PMCL for a detected contaminant, the table  shall indicate that there is a treatment technique, or specify the action  level, applicable to that contaminant, and the report shall include the  definitions for treatment technique and/or action level, as appropriate,  specified in subdivision 3 d of this subsection;
    (4) For contaminants subject to a PMCL, except turbidity and  total coliforms, the highest contaminant level used to determine compliance and  the range of detected levels is as follows:
    (a) When compliance with the PMCL is determined annually or  less frequently, the highest detected level at any sampling point and the range  of detected levels expressed in the same units as the PMCL.
    (b) When compliance with the PMCL is determined by calculating  a running annual average of all samples taken at a sampling point, the highest  average of any of the sampling points and the range of all sampling points  expressed in the same units as the PMCL. For the PMCLs for TTHM and HAA5, the  owner shall include the highest locational running annual average and the range  of individual sample results for all sampling points expressed in the same  units as the PMCL. If more than one location exceeds the TTHM or HAA5 PMCL, the  owner shall include the locational running annual averages for all locations that  exceed the PMCL.
    (c) When compliance with the PMCL is determined on a  systemwide basis by calculating a running annual average of all samples at all  sampling points, the average and range of detection expressed in the same units  as the PMCL. The range of detection for TTHM and HAA5 shall include individual  sample results for the IDSE conducted under 12VAC5-590-370 B 3 e (2) for the  calendar year that the IDSE samples were taken.
    (5) For turbidity, the highest single measurement and the  lowest monthly percentage of samples meeting the turbidity limits specified in  12VAC5-590-420 for the filtration technology being used. The report should  include an explanation of the reasons for measuring turbidity;
    (6) For lead and copper, the 90th percentile value of the most  recent round of sampling and the number of sampling sites exceeding the action  level; 
    (7) For total coliform:
    (a) The highest monthly number of positive samples for  waterworks collecting fewer than 40 samples per month;
    (b) The highest monthly percentage of positive samples for  waterworks collecting at least 40 samples per month;
    (8) For fecal coliform, the total number of positive samples;
    (9) The likely source or sources of detected contaminants.  Specific information regarding contaminants may be available in sanitary  surveys and source water assessments, and should be used when available to the  owner. If the owner lacks specific information on the likely source, the report  shall include one or more of the typical sources for that contaminant listed in  Appendix O that are most applicable to the system.
    e. If a community waterworks owner distributes water to his  customers from multiple hydraulically independent distribution systems that are  fed by different raw water sources:
    (1) The table shall contain a separate column for each service  area and the report shall identify each separate distribution system; or
    (2) The owner shall produce a separate report tailored to  include data for each service area.
    f. The table or tables shall clearly identify any data  indicating violations of PMCLs, MRDLs, or treatment techniques and the report  shall contain a clear and readily understandable explanation of the violation  including:
    (1) The length of the violation;
    (2) The potential adverse health effects using the relevant  language of Appendix O; and
    (3) Actions taken by the waterworks owner to address the  violation.
    g. For detected unregulated contaminants subject to monitoring  as specified in 12VAC5-590-370 and listed in Tables 2.6 and 2.7, for which  monitoring is required, the table or tables shall contain the average and range  at which the contaminant was detected. The report may include a brief  explanation of the reasons for monitoring for unregulated contaminants.
    4. Information on Cryptosporidium, radon, and other  contaminants:
    a. If the owner has performed any monitoring for  Cryptosporidium, including monitoring performed to satisfy the requirements of  the Informational Collection Rule (40 CFR 141.143 (7-1-97 Edition)), which  indicates that Cryptosporidium may be present in the source water or the  finished water, the report shall include:
    (1) A summary of the results of the monitoring; and
    (2) An explanation of the significance of the results.
    b. If the owner has performed any monitoring for radon which  indicates that radon may be present in the finished water, the report shall  include:
    (1) The results of the monitoring; and
    (2) An explanation of the significance of the results.
    c. If the owner has performed additional monitoring that  indicates the presence of other contaminants in the finished water, the report  should include any results that may indicate a health concern, as determined by  the commissioner. Detections above a proposed MCL or health advisory level may  indicate possible health concerns. For such contaminants, the report should  include:
    (1) The results of the monitoring; and
    (2) An explanation of the significance of the results noting  the existence of a health advisory or a proposed regulation.
    5. Compliance with other regulations.
    a. In addition to the requirements of subdivision 3 f of this  subsection the report shall note any violation that occurred during the year  covered by the report of a requirement listed below.
    (1) Monitoring and reporting of compliance data;
    (2) Filtration and disinfection prescribed by 12VAC5-590-420.  For owners who have failed to install adequate filtration or disinfection  equipment or processes, or have had a failure of such equipment or processes  which constitutes a violation, the report shall include the following language  as part of the explanation of potential adverse health effects: Inadequately  treated water may contain disease-causing organisms. These organisms include  bacteria, viruses, and parasites, which can cause symptoms such as nausea,  cramps, diarrhea, and associated headaches;
    (3) Lead and copper control requirements prescribed by  12VAC5-590-370. For owners who fail to take one or more of the prescribed  actions, the report shall include the applicable language of Appendix O for  lead, copper, or both;
    (4) Treatment techniques for Acrylamide and Epichlorohydrin  prescribed by 12VAC5-590-420 G. For owners who violate the requirements of that  section, the report shall include the relevant language from Appendix O;
    (5) Recordkeeping of compliance data;
    (6) Special monitoring requirements for unregulated  contaminants prescribed by 12VAC5-590-370 B 4 and for sodium;
    (7) Violation of the terms of a variance, an exemption, or an  administrative or judicial order.
    b. The report shall contain:
    (1) A clear and readily understandable explanation of the  violation;
    (2) Any potential adverse health effects; and
    (3) The steps the owner has taken to correct the violation.
    c. For community groundwater systems, the following shall  be included:
    (1) A significant deficiency that is uncorrected at the  time of the report; or
    (2) An E. coli positive groundwater source sample that is  not invalidated at the time of the report.
    d. The owner of a community groundwater system shall report  annually the information in subdivision 5 c of this subsection until the ODW  determines that the significant deficiency or the E. coli positive source water  sample has been satisfactorily addressed. The report shall include the  following information:
    (1) The nature of the significant deficiency or the source  of the E. coli contamination and the date the significant deficiency was  identified by the ODW or the date or dates of the E. coli positive source  samples.
    (2) If the E. coli contamination has been addressed in  accordance with 12VAC5-590-421 and the date of such action.
    (3) The ODW approved plan and schedule for correcting the  significant deficiency or E. coli contamination including interim measures,  progress to date, and which interim measures have been completed.
    (4) In communities with a large portion of non-English  speaking consumers, the notice shall contain information in the appropriate  language or languages regarding the importance of the notice or contain a  telephone number or address where the consumers may contact the owner to obtain  a translated copy of the notice or assistance with the appropriate language.
    (5) For E. coli contamination, the potential health effects  language shall be included.
    e. If directed by the ODW, the owner of a community  groundwater system with significant deficiencies that have been corrected at  the time of the report shall inform his consumers of the significant  deficiencies, how the deficiencies were corrected, and the date or dates of  correction under subdivisions 5 d (1) through (4) of this subsection.
    6. Variances and exemptions. If a system is operating under  the terms of a variance or an exemption issued by the commissioner under  12VAC5-590-140 and 12VAC5-590-150, the report shall contain:
    a. An explanation of the reasons for the variance or  exemption;
    b. The date on which the variance or exemption was issued;
    c. A brief status report on the steps the owner is taking to  install treatment, find alternative sources of water, or otherwise comply with  the terms and schedules of the variance or exemption; and
    d. A notice of any opportunity for public input in the review  or renewal of the variance or exemption.
    7. Additional information.
    a. The report shall contain a brief explanation regarding  contaminants, which may reasonably be expected to be found in drinking water  including bottled water. This explanation shall include the exact language of  subdivisions 8 a (1), (2) and (3) of this subsection or the owner shall use his  own comparable language following approval by the commissioner. The report also  shall include the exact language of subdivision 8 a (4) of this subsection.
    (1) The sources of drinking water (both tap water and bottled  water) include rivers, lakes, streams, ponds, reservoirs, springs, and wells.  As water travels over the surface of the land or through the ground, it  dissolves naturally occurring minerals and, in some cases, radioactive  material, and can pick up substances resulting from the presence of animals or  from human activity.
    (2) Contaminants that may be present in source water include:  (i) microbial contaminants, such as viruses and bacteria, which may come from  sewage treatment plants, septic systems, agricultural livestock operations, and  wildlife; (ii) inorganic contaminants, such as salts and metals, which can be  naturally occurring or result from urban stormwater runoff, industrial or  domestic wastewater discharges, oil and gas production, mining, or farming;  (iii) pesticides and herbicides, which may come from a variety of sources such  as agriculture, urban stormwater runoff, and residential uses; (iv) organic  chemical contaminants, including synthetic and volatile organic chemicals,  which are byproducts of industrial processes and petroleum production, and can  also come from gas stations, urban stormwater runoff, and septic systems; (v)  radioactive contaminants, which can be naturally occurring or be the result of  oil and gas production and mining activities.
    (3) In order to ensure that tap water is safe to drink, EPA  prescribes regulations that limit the amount of certain contaminants in water  provided by public water systems. FDA regulations establish limits for  contaminants in bottled water which must provide the same protection for public  health.
    (4) Drinking water, including bottled water, may reasonably be  expected to contain at least small amounts of some contaminants. The presence  of contaminants does not necessarily indicate that water poses a health risk.  More information about contaminants and potential health effects can be  obtained by calling the Environmental Protection Agency's Safe Drinking Water  Hotline (800-426-4791).
    b. The report shall include the telephone number of the owner,  operator, or designee of the community waterworks as a source of additional  information concerning the report.
    c. In communities with a large proportion of non-English  speaking residents, as determined by the commissioner, the report shall contain  information in the appropriate language or languages regarding the importance  of the report or contain a telephone number or address where such residents may  contact the system to obtain a translated copy of the report or assistance in  the appropriate language.
    d. The report shall include the following information about  opportunities for public participation in decisions that may affect the quality  of the water. The waterworks owner should consider including the following  additional relevant information:
    (1) The time and place of regularly scheduled board meetings  of the governing body which has authority over the waterworks.
    (2) If regularly scheduled board meetings are not held, the  name and telephone number of a waterworks representative who has operational or  managerial authority over the waterworks.
    e. The owner may include such additional information as he  deems necessary for public education consistent with, and not detracting from,  the purpose of the report.
    D. Additional health information.
    1. All reports shall prominently display the following  language: Some people may be more vulnerable to contaminants in drinking water  than the general population. Immuno-compromised persons such as persons with  cancer who are undergoing chemotherapy, persons who have undergone organ  transplants, people with HIV/AIDS or other immune system disorders, some  elderly, and infants can be particularly at risk from infections. These people  should seek advice about drinking water from their health care providers.  EPA/CDC guidelines on appropriate means to lessen the risk of infection by  Cryptosporidium and other microbial contaminants are available from the Safe  Drinking Water Hotline (800-426-4791).
    2. Any waterworks owner who detects arsenic at levels above  0.005 mg/L, but equal to or below the PMCL of 0.010 mg/L, shall include in his  report the following informational statement about arsenic: While your drinking  water meets EPA's standard for arsenic, it does contain low levels of arsenic.  EPA's standard balances the current understanding of arsenic's possible health  effects against the cost of removing arsenic from drinking water. EPA continues  to research the health effects of low levels of arsenic, which is a mineral  known to cause cancer in humans at high concentrations and is linked to other  health effects such as skin damage and circulatory problems.
    In lieu of the statement required in this subdivision, the  waterworks owner may include his own educational statement after receiving  approval from the commissioner.
    3. A waterworks owner who detects arsenic levels above 0.010  mg/L shall include the health effects language contained in Appendix O.
    4. An owner who detects nitrate at levels above 5 mg/L, but  below the PMCL, shall include in his report the following informational  statement about the impacts of nitrate on children: Nitrate in drinking water  at levels above 10 ppm is a health risk for infants of less than six months of  age. High nitrate levels in drinking water can cause blue baby syndrome.  Nitrate levels may rise quickly for short periods of time because of rainfall  or agricultural activity. If you are caring for an infant you should ask advice  from your health care provider.
    In lieu of the statement required in this subdivision, the  waterworks owner may include his own educational statement after receiving  approval from the commissioner.
    5. All reports shall prominently display the following  language: If present, elevated levels of lead can cause serious health  problems, especially for pregnant women and young children. Lead in drinking  water is primarily from materials and components associated with service lines  and home plumbing. [NAME OF UTILITY] is responsible for providing high quality  drinking water, but cannot control the variety of materials used in plumbing  components. When your water has been sitting for several hours, you can  minimize the potential for lead exposure by flushing your tap for 30 seconds to  two minutes before using water for drinking or cooking. If you are concerned  about lead in your water, you may wish to have your water tested. Information  on lead in drinking water, testing methods, and steps you can take to minimize  exposure is available from the Safe Drinking Water Hotline (800-426-4791).
    In lieu of the statement required in this subdivision, the  owner may include his own educational statement after receiving approval from  the commissioner.
    6. Community waterworks owners who detect TTHM above 0.080  mg/L, but below the PMCL, as an annual average shall include health effects  language prescribed by paragraph 73 81 of Appendix O.
    E. Report delivery and recordkeeping.
    1. Each community waterworks owner shall mail or otherwise  directly deliver one copy of the report to each customer.
    2. The owner shall make a good faith effort that shall be  tailored to the consumers who are served by the system but are not bill paying  customers, such as renters and workers. This good faith effort shall include at  least one, and preferably two or more, of the following methods appropriate to  the particular waterworks:
    a. Posting the reports on the Internet;
    b. Mailing to postal patrons in metropolitan areas;
    c. Advertising the availability of the report in the news  media;
    d. Publication in a local newspaper;
    e. Posting in public places such as libraries, community  centers, and public buildings;
    f. Delivery of multiple copies for distribution by  single-biller customers such as apartment buildings or large private employers;
    g. Delivery to community organizations.
    h. Other methods as approved by the commissioner.
    3. No later than July 1 of each year the owner shall deliver a  copy of the report to the district engineer, followed within three months by a  certification that the report has been distributed to customers and that the  information in the report is correct and consistent with the compliance  monitoring data previously submitted to the commissioner.
    4. No later than July 1 of each year the owner shall deliver  the report to any other agency or clearinghouse specified by the commissioner.
    5. Each community waterworks owner shall make the report  available to the public upon request.
    6. The owner of each community waterworks serving 100,000 or  more persons shall post the current year's report to a publicly accessible site  on the Internet.
    7. Each community waterworks owner shall retain copies of the  report for no less than three years.
    12VAC5-590-550. Recordkeeping.
    All owners shall retain at their waterworks or at a  convenient location near their waterworks the following records for the minimum  time periods specified:
    A. Records of microbiological analyses and turbidity analyses  -- Five years.
    B. Chemical Analyses -- 10 years.
    C. Individual filter monitoring required under 12VAC5-590-530  C 1 b (2) -- Three years.
    D. Results of Disinfection Profile including raw data and  analysis -- Indefinitely.
    E. Disinfection Benchmarking including raw data and analysis  -- Indefinitely.
    F. The following information shall be provided for subsections  A and B of this section:
    1. Date, place, and time of sampling as well as the name of  the person who collected the sample;
    2. Identification of sample (e.g., routine, check sample, raw  water, other);
    3. Date of analysis;
    4. Laboratory and/or person responsible for performing  analysis;
    5. Analytical method/technique used; and
    6. Results of the analysis.
    G. Original records of all sampling data and analyses,  reports, surveys, letters, evaluations, schedules, commissioner determinations,  and any other information required by 12VAC5-590-405 A 1 and 2, B, C, and D;  and 12VAC5-590-375 B, C, and D pertaining to lead and copper. Each waterworks  owner shall retain the records required by this section for no fewer than 12  years.
    H. Owners shall keep results from the initial round of source  water monitoring under 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 a (1) and the second round of source  water monitoring under 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 a (2) until three years after bin  classification under 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 c (1) for the particular round of monitoring.
    I. Owners shall keep any notification to the commissioner  that they will not conduct source water monitoring due to meeting the criteria  of 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 a (4) for three years.
    J. Owners shall keep the results of treatment monitoring  associated with microbial toolbox options under 12VAC5-590-420 B 3 d (3)  through (7) and with uncovered finished water reservoirs under 12VAC5-590-420  L, as applicable, for three years.
    K. Action taken to correct violations of these regulations --  three years after last action with respect to violation involved.
    L. Copies of reports, summaries, or communications relating  to any sanitary surveys performed -- 10 years following inspection.
    M. Variance or exemptions granted (and records related  thereto) -- five years following expiration of variance or exemption.
    N. Cross connection control program records -- 10 years.
    O. Owners of waterworks that recycle flow, as stipulated in  12VAC5-590-420 K, shall collect and retain on file recycle flow information for  review and evaluation by the district engineer beginning June 8, 2004.  Information shall include, as a minimum:
    1. Copy of the recycle notification submitted to the district  engineer under 12VAC5-590-530 I.
    2. List of all recycle flows and the frequency with which they  are returned.
    3. Average and maximum backwash flow rate through the filters  and the average and maximum duration of the filter backwash process, in  minutes.
    4. Typical filter run length and a written summary of how the  filter run length is determined.
    5. The type of treatment provided for the recycle flow.
    6. Data on the physical dimensions of the equalization and/or  treatment units, typical and maximum hydraulic loading rates, type of treatment  chemicals used, average dose, frequency of use, and frequency at which solids  are removed, if applicable.
    P. Copies of monitoring plans developed pursuant to these  regulations shall be kept for the same period of time as the records of  analyses taken under the plan are required to be kept under paragraph A or B of  this section, except as specified elsewhere in these regulations.
    Q. All owners shall retain the following additional records:
    1. Plant operational records.
    2. Water well completion reports.
    3. As-built engineering plans and specifications of facilities.
    4. Shop drawings of major equipment.
    5. Records of equipment repair or replacement.
    6. Updated map of water distribution system.
    7. All accident reports.
    R. Additional recordkeeping requirements for groundwater  systems.
    1. Records of corrective actions – 10 years.
    2. Records of public notification as required by  12VAC5-590-540 – Three years.
    3. Records of invalidation of groundwater source samples –  Five years.
    4. For consecutive waterworks, records of notification to  the wholesale waterworks of coliform positive samples – Five years.
    5. For waterworks required to conduct compliance  monitoring:
    a. Records of the ODW specified minimum disinfectant  residual – 10 years.
    b. Records of the lowest daily residual disinfectant  concentration – Five years.
    c. Records of the dates and duration of any failure to  maintain the ODW specified minimum residual disinfectant concentration for a  period of more than four hours – Five years.
    d. Records of any ODW specified compliance parameters for  alternative treatment and records of the date and duration of any failure to  meet the alternative treatment operating requirements for more than four hours  – Five years.
         
          APPENDIX O. 
  REGULATED CONTAMINANTS FOR CONSUMER CONFIDENCE REPORTS AND PUBLIC NOTIFICATION 
    Key 
    AL = Action Level 
  MCL = Maximum Contaminant Level 
  MCLG = Maximum Contaminant Level Goal 
  MFL = million fibers per liter 
  mrem/year = milirems per year (a measure of radiation absorbed by the body) 
  MRDL = Maximum Residual Disinfectant Level 
  MRDLG = Maximum Residual Disinfectant Level Goal 
  NTU = Nephelometric Turbidity Units 
  pCi/l = picocuries per liter (a measure of radioactivity) 
  ppb = parts per billion, or micrograms per liter (μg/L) 
  ppm = parts per million, or milligrams per liter (mg/L) 
  ppq = parts per quadrillion, or picograms per liter 
  ppt = parts per trillion, or nanograms per liter 
  TT = Treatment Technique
           | Contaminant (units) | Traditional MCL in mg/l | To convert for CCR, multiply by | MCL in CCR units | MCLG | Major Sources in Drinking Water | Health Effects Language | 
       | Microbiological    Contaminants | 
       | (1) Total Coliform Bacteriacoliform bacteria | MCL: (systems that collect    40 or more samples per month)(waterworks that collect 40 or more    samples per month) 5% of monthly samples are positive;(systems that    collect fewer than 40 samples per month)(waterworks that collect    fewer than 40 samples per month)1 positive monthly sample | 0 | Naturally present in the    environment | Coliforms are bacteria that    are naturally present in the environment and are used as an indicator that    other, potentially-harmful, bacteria may be present. Coliforms were found in    more samples than allowed and this was a warning of potential problems | 
       | (2) Fecal coliform and E. coli | MCL: a routine sample and a    repeat sample are total coliform positive, and one is also fecal coliform of    E. coli positive | 0 | Human and animal fecal waste | Fecal coliforms and E. coli    are bacteria whose presence indicates that the water may be contaminated with    human or animal wastes. Microbes in these wastes can cause short-term    effects, such as diarrhea, cramps, nausea, headaches, or other symptoms. They    may pose a special health risk for infants, young children, some of the    elderly, and people with severely-compromised immune systems. | 
       | (3) Source water fecal indicators    (E. coli, enterococci, coliphage)indicator (E. coli) | TT |   | TT | 0 for E. coli, none for    entero-cocci and coli-phage | Human and animal fecal waste | Fecal indicators are microbes    whose presence indicates that the water may be contaminated with human or    animal wastes.  Microbes in these wastes can cause short-term health    effects, such as diarrhea, cramps, nausea, headaches, or other    symptoms.  They may pose a special health risk for infants, young    children, some of the elderly, and people with severely compromised immune    system. | 
       | (4) Groundwater rule TT    violations other than (3) above1 | TT |   |   | TT |   | Inadequately treated or    inadequately protected water may contain disease-causing organisms.     These organisms can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, nausea, cramps, and    associated headaches. | 
       | (5) Turbidity | TT | - | TT | n/a | Soil runoff | Turbidity has no health    effects. However, turbidity can interfere with disinfection and provide a    medium for microbial growth. Turbidity may indicate the presence of    disease-causing organisms. These organisms include bacteria, viruses, and    parasites that can cause symptoms such as nausea, cramps, diarrhea and    associated headaches. | 
       | (6) Giardia lamblia, viruses,    Hetrotrophic plate count, Legionella, Cryptosporidium1 | TT53 | - | n/a | 0 | n/a | Inadequately treated water may    contain disease-causing organisms. These organisms include bacteria, viruses,    and parasites which can cause symptoms such as nausea, cramps, diarrhea, and    associated headaches. | 
       | Radioactive Contaminants | 
       | (7) Beta/photon emitters    (mrem/yr) | 4 mrem/yr | - | 4 | 0 | Decay of natural and man-made    deposits | Certain minerals are    radioactive and may emit forms of radiation known as photons and beta    radiation. Some people who drink water containing beta and photon emitters in    excess of the MCL over many years may have an increased risk of getting    cancer. | 
       | (8) Alpha emitters (pCi/L) | 15 pCi/L | - | 15 | 0 | Erosion of natural deposits | Certain minerals are    radioactive and may emit a form of radiation known as alpha radiation. Some    people who drink water containing alpha emitters in excess of the MCL over    many years may have an increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (9) Combined radium (pCi/L) | 5 pCi/L | - | 5 | 0 | Erosion of natural deposits | Some people who drink water    containing radium-226 or radium-228 in excess of the MCL over many years may    have an increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (10) Uranium (ppb) | 30 μg/L | - | 30 | 0 | Erosion of natural deposits | Some people who drink water    containing uranium in excess of the MCL over many years may have an increased    risk of getting cancer and kidney toxicity. | 
       | Inorganic Contaminants | 
       | (11) Antimony (ppb) | 0.006 | 1000 | 6 | 6 | Discharge from petroleum    refineries; fire retardants; ceramics; electronics; solder | Some people who drink water    containing antimony well in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience increases in blood cholesterol and decreases in blood sugar. | 
       | (12) Arsenic (ppb)  |  0.0102 | 1000 | 10.2 | 02 | Erosion of natural deposits;    Runoff from orchards; Runoff from glass and electronics production wastes | Some people who drink water    containing arsenic in excess of the MCL over many years could experience skin    damage or problems with their circulatory system, and may have an increased    risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (13) Asbestos (MFL) | 7 MFL | - | 7 | 7 | Decay of asbestos cement water    mains; Erosion of natural deposits | Some people who drink water    containing asbestos in excess of the MCL over many years may have an    increased risk of developing benign intestinal polyps. | 
       | (14) Barium (ppm) | 2 | - | 2 | 2 | Discharge of drilling wastes;    Discharge from metal refineries; Erosion of natural deposits | Some people who drink water    containing barium in excess of the MCL over many years could experience an    increase in their blood pressure. | 
       | (15) Beryllium (ppb) | 0.004 | 1000 | 4 | 4 | Discharge from metal    refineries and coal-burning factories; Discharge from electrical, aerospace,    and defense industries | Some people who drink water    containing beryllium well in excess of the MCL over many years could develop    intestinal lesions. | 
       | (16) Cadmium (ppb) | 0.005 | 1000 | 5 | 5 | Corrosion of galvanized pipes;    Erosion of natural deposits; Discharge from metal refineries; Run-off from    waste batteries and paints | Some people who drink water    containing cadmium in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    kidney damage. | 
       | (17) Chromium (ppb) | 0.1 | 1000 | 100 | 100 | Discharge from steel and pulp    mills; Erosion of natural deposits | Some people who drink water    containing chromium well in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience allergic dermatitis. | 
       | (18) Copper (ppm) | AL=1.3 | - | AL=1.3 | 1.3 | Corrosion of household    plumbing systems; Erosion of natural deposits | Copper is an essential    nutrient, but some people who drink water containing copper in excess of the    action level over a relatively short amount of time could experience    gastrointestinal distress. Some people who drink water containing copper in    excess of the action level over many years could suffer liver or kidney    damage. People with Wilson's Disease should consult their personal doctor. | 
       | (19) Cyanide (ppb) | 0.2 | 1000 | 200 | 200 | Discharge from steel/metal    factories; Discharge from plastic and fertilizer factories | Some people who drink water    containing cyanide well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    nerve damage or problems with their thyroid. | 
       | (20) Fluoride (ppm) | 4 | - | 4 | 4 | Erosion of natural deposits;    Water additive which promotes strong teeth; Discharge from fertilizer and    aluminum factories | Some people who drink water    containing fluoride in excess of the MCL over many years could get bone    disease, including pain and tenderness of the bones. Fluoride in drinking    water at half the MCL or more may cause mottling of children's teeth, usually    in children less than nine years old. Mottling, also known as dental    fluorosis, may include brown staining and/or pitting of the teeth, and occurs    only in developing teeth before they erupt from the gums. | 
       | (21) Lead (ppb) | AL=0.015 | 1000 | AL=15 | 0 | Corrosion of household    plumbing systems; Erosion of natural deposits | Infants and children who drink    water containing lead in excess of the action level could experience delays    in their physical or mental development. Children could show slight deficits    in attention span and learning abilities. Adults who drink this water over    many years could develop kidney problems or high blood pressure. | 
       | (22) Mercury [inorganic] (ppb) | .002 | 1000 | 2 | 2 | Erosion of natural deposits;    Discharge from refineries and factories; Runoff from landfills; Runoff from    cropland | Some people who drink water    containing inorganic mercury well in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience kidney damage. | 
       | (23) Nitrate (ppm) | 10 | - | 10 | 10 | Runoff from fertilizer use;    Leaching from septic tanks, sewage; Erosion of natural deposits | Infants below the age of six    months who drink water containing nitrate in excess of the MCL could become    seriously ill and, if untreated, may die. Symptoms include shortness of    breath and blue baby syndrome. | 
       | (24) Nitrite (ppm) | 1 | - | 1 | 1 | Runoff from fertilizer use;    Leaching from septic tanks, sewage; Erosion of natural deposits | Infants below the age of six    months who drink water containing nitrite in excess of the MCL could become    seriously ill and, if untreated, may die. Symptoms include shortness of    breath and blue baby syndrome. | 
       | (25) Total Nitrate and Nitrite | 10 | - | n/a | 10 | n/a | Infants below the age of six    months who drink water containing nitrate and nitrite in excess of the MCL    could become seriously ill and, if untreated, may die. Symptoms include    shortness of breath and blue baby syndrome. | 
       | (26) Selenium (ppb) | 0.05 | 1000 | 50 | 50 | Discharge from petroleum and    metal refineries; Erosion of natural deposits; Discharge from mines | Selenium is an essential    nutrient. However, some people who drink water containing selenium in excess    of the MCL over many years could experience hair or fingernail losses,    numbness in fingers or toes, or problems with their circulation. | 
       | (27) Thallium (ppb) | 0.002 | 1000 | 2 | 0.5 | Leaching from ore-processing sites;    Discharge from electronics, glass, and drug factories | Some people who drink water    containing thallium in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    hair loss, changes in their blood, or problems with their kidneys,    intestines, or liver. | 
       | Synthetic Organic    Contaminants including Pesticides and Herbicides | 
       | (28) 2,4-D (ppb) | 0.07 | 1000 | 70 | 70 | Runoff from herbicides used on    row crops | Some people who drink water    containing the weed killer 2,4-D well in excess of the MCL over many years    could experience problems with their kidneys, liver, or adrenal glands. | 
       | (29) 2,4,5-TP [Silvex] (ppb) | 0.05 | 1000 | 50 | 50 | Residue of banned herbicide | Some people who drink water    containing silvex in excess of the MCL over many years could experience liver    problems. | 
       | (30) Acrylamide | TT | - | TT | 0 | Added to water during    sewage/wastewater treatment | Some people who drink water    containing high levels of acrylamide over a long period of time could have    problems with their nervous system or blood, and may have an increased risk    of getting cancer. | 
       | (31) Alachlor (ppb) | 0.002 | 1000 | 2 | 0 | Runoff from herbicide used on    row crops | Some people who drink water    containing alachlor in excess of the MCL over many years could have problems    with their eyes, liver, kidneys, or spleen, or experience anemia, and may    have an increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (32) Atrazine (ppb) | 0.003 | 1000 | 3 | 3 | Runoff from herbicide used on    row crops | Some people who drink water    containing the atrazine well in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience problems with their cardiovascular system or reproductive    difficulties. | 
       | (33) Benzo(a)pyrene[PAH]   | 0.0002 | 1,000,000 | 200 | 0 | Leaching from linings of water    storage tanks and distribution lines | Some people who drink water    containing benzo(a)pyrene in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience reproductive difficulties and may have an increased risk of    getting cancer. | 
       | (34) Carbofuran (ppb) | 0.04 | 1000 | 40 | 40 | Leaching of soil fumigant used    on rice and alfalfa | Some people who drink water    containing carbofuran in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    problems with their blood, or nervous or reproductive systems. | 
       | (35) Chlordane (ppb) | 0.002 | 1000 | 2 | 0 | Residue of banned termiticide | Some people who drink water    containing chlordane in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    problems with their liver or nervous system, and may have an increased risk    of getting cancer. | 
       | (36) Dalapon (ppb) | 0.2 | 1000 | 200 | 200 | Runoff from herbicide used on    rights of way | Some people who drink water    containing dalapon well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    minor kidney changes. | 
       | (37) Di(2-ethylhexyl) adipate    (ppb) | 0.4 | 1000 | 400 | 400 | Discharge from chemical    factories | Some people who drink water    containing di(2-ethyhexyl)adipate well in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience toxic effects, such as weight loss, liver enlargement or possible    reproductive difficulties. | 
       | (38) Di(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate    (ppb) | 0.006 | 1000 | 6 | 0 | Discharge from rubber and    chemical factories | Some people who drink water    containing di(2-ethylhexyl)phthalate in excess of the MCL over many years may    have problems with their liver, or experience reproductive difficulties, and    may have an increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (39) Dibromochloropropane    (ppt) | 0.0002 | 1,000,000 | 200 | 0 | Runoff/leaching from soil    fumigant used on soybeans, cotton, pineapples, and orchards | Some people who drink water    containing DBCP well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    reproductive problems and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (40) Dinoseb (ppb) | 0.007 | 1000 | 7 | 7 | Runoff from herbicide used on    soybeans and vegetables | Some people who drink water    containing dinoseb well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    reproductive difficulties. | 
       | (41) Diquat (ppb) | 0.02 | 1000 | 20 | 20 | Runoff from herbicide use | Some people who drink water    containing diquat in excess of the MCL over many years could get cataracts. | 
       | (42) Dioxin [2,3,7,8-TCDD]    (ppq) | 0.00000003 | 1,000,000,000 | 30 | 0 | Emissions from waste    incineration and other combustion; Discharge from chemical factories | Some people who drink water    containing dioxin in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    reproductive difficulties and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (43) Endothall (ppb) | 0.1 | 1000 | 100 | 100 | Runoff from herbicide use | Some people who drink water    containing endothall in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    problems with their stomach or intestines. | 
       | (44) Endrin (ppb) | 0.002 | 1000 | 2 | 2 | Runoff of banned insecticide | Some people who drink water    containing endrin in excess of the MCL over many years could experience liver    problems. | 
       | (45) Epichlorohydrin | TT | - | TT | 0 | Discharge from industrial    chemical factories; An impurity of some water treatment chemicals | Some people who drink water    containing high levels of epichlorohydrin over a long period of time could    experience stomach problems, and may have an increased risk of getting    cancer. | 
       | (46) Ethylene dibromide (ppt) | 0.00005 | 1,000,000 | 50 | 0 | Discharge from petroleum    refineries | Some people who drink water    containing ethylene dibromide in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience problems with their liver, stomach, reproductive system, or    kidneys, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (47) Glyphosate (ppb) | 0.7 | 1000 | 700 | 700 | Runoff from herbicide use | Some people who drink water    containing glyphosate in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    problems with their kidneys or reproductive difficulties. | 
       | (48) Heptachlor (ppt) | 0.0004 | 1,000,000 | 400 | 0 | Residue of banned pesticide | Some people who drink water    containing heptachlor in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    liver damage and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (49) Heptachlor epoxide (ppt) | 0.0002 | 1,000,000 | 200 | 0 | Breakdown of heptachlor | Some people who drink water    containing heptachlor epoxide in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience liver damage, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (50) Hexachlorobenzene (ppb) | 0.001 | 1000 | 1 | 0 | Discharge from metal    refineries and agricultural chemical factories | Some people who drink water    containing hexachlorobenzene in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience problems with their liver or kidneys or adverse reproductive    effects, and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (51) Hexachlorocyclopentadiene    (ppb) | 0.05 | 1000 | 50 | 50 | Discharge from chemical    factories | Some people who drink water    containing hexachlorocyclopentadiene well in excess of the MCL over many    years could experience problems with their stomach or kidneys. | 
       | (52) Lindane (ppt) | 0.0002 | 1,000,000 | 200 | 200 | Runoff/leaching from    insecticide used on cattle, lumber, gardens | Some people who drink water    containing lindane in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    problems with their kidneys or liver. | 
       | (53) Methoxychlor (ppb) | 0.04 | 1000 | 40 | 40 | Runoff/leaching from    insecticide used on fruits, vegetables, alfalfa, livestock | Some people who drink water    containing methoxychlor in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    reproductive difficulties. | 
       | (54)    Oxamyl [Vydate] (ppb) | 0.2 | 1000 | 200 | 200 | Runoff/leaching    from insecticide used on apples, potatoes and tomatoes | Some    people who drink water containing ethylene oxamyl in excess of the MCL over    many years could experience slight nervous system effects. | 
       | (55) PCBs [Polychlorinated    biphenyls] (ppt) | 0.0005 | 1,000,000 | 500 | 0 | Runoff from landfills;    Discharge of waste chemicals | Some people who drink water    containing PCBs in excess of the MCL over many years could experience changes    in their skin, problems with their thymus gland, immune deficiencies, or    reproductive or nervous system difficulties, and may have an increased risk    of getting cancer. | 
       | (56) Pentachlorophenol (ppb) | 0.001 | 1000 | 1 | 0 | Discharge from wood preserving    factories | Some people who drink water    containing pentachlorophenol in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience problems with their liver or kidneys, and may have an increased    risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (57) Picloram (ppb) | 0.5 | 1000 | 500 | 500 | Herbicide runoff | Some people who drink water    containing picloram in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    problems with their liver. | 
       | (58) Simazine (ppb) | 0.004 | 1000 | 4 | 4 | Herbicide runoff | Some people who drink water    containing simazine in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    problems with their blood. | 
       | (59) Toxaphene (ppb) | 0.003 | 1000 | 3 | 0 | Runoff/leaching from    insecticide used on cotton and cattle | Some people who drink water    containing toxaphene in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    problems with their thyroid, kidneys, or liver and may have an increased risk    of getting cancer. | 
       | Volatile Organic    Contaminants | 
       | (60) Benzene (ppb) | 0.005 | 1000 | 5 | 0 | Discharge from factories;    Leaching from gas storage tanks and landfills | Some people who drink water    containing benzene in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    anemia or a decrease in blood platelets, and may have an increased risk of    getting cancer. | 
       | (61) Carbon tetrachloride    (ppb) | 0.005 | 1000 | 5 | 0 | Discharge from chemical plants    and other industrial activities | Some people who drink water    containing carbon tetrachloride in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience problems with their liver and may have an increased risk of    getting cancer. | 
       | (62) Chlorobenzene (ppb) | 0.1 | 1000 | 100 | 100 | Discharge from chemical and    agricultural chemical factories | Some people who drink water    containing chlorobenzene in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience problems with their liver or kidneys. | 
       | (63) o-Dichlorobenzene (ppb) | 0.6 | 1000 | 600 | 600 | Discharge from industrial    chemical factories | Some people who drink water    containing o-dichlorobenzene well in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience problems with their liver, kidneys, or spleen, or changes in their    blood. | 
       | (64) p-Dichlorobenzene (ppb) | 0.075 | 1000 | 75 | 75 | Discharge from industrial    chemical factories | Some people who drink water    containing p-dichlorobenzene in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience anemia, damage to their liver, kidneys, or circulatory systems. | 
       | (65) 1,2-Dichloroethane (ppb) | 0.005 | 1000 | 5 | 0 | Discharge from industrial    chemical factories | Some people who drink water    containing 1,2-dichloroethane in excess of the MCL over many years may have    an increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (66) 1,1-Dichloroethylene    (ppb) | 0.007 | 1000 | 7 | 7 | Discharge from industrial    chemical factories | Some people who drink water    containing 1,1-dichloroethylene in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience problems with their liver. | 
       | (67)    cis-1,2-Dichloroethylene (ppb) | 0.07 | 1000 | 70 | 70 | Discharge    from industrial chemical factories | Some    people who drink water containing cis-1,2-dichloroethylene in excess of the    MCL over many years could experience problems with their liver. | 
       | (68)    trans-1,2-Dichloroethylene (ppb) | 0.1 | 1000 | 100 | 100 | Discharge from industrial    chemical factories | Some people who drink water    containing trans-1,2-dichloroethylene well in excess of the MCL over many    years could experience problems with their liver. | 
       | (69) Dichloromethane (ppb) | 0.005 | 1000 | 5 | 0 | Discharge from pharmaceutical    and chemical factories | Some people who drink water    containing dichloromethane in excess of the MCL over many years could have    liver problems and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (70) 1,2-Dichloropropane (ppb) | 0.005 | 1000 | 5 | 0 | Discharge from industrial    chemical factories | Some people who drink water    containing 1,2-dichloropropane in excess of the MCL over many years may have    an increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (71) Ethylbenzene (ppb) | 0.7 | 1000 | 700 | 700 | Discharge from petroleum    refineries | Some people who drink water    containing ethylbenzene well in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience problems with their liver or kidneys. | 
       | (72) Styrene (ppb) | 0.1 | 1000 | 100 | 100 | Discharge from rubber and    plastic factories; Leaching from landfills | Some people who drink water    containing styrene well in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    problems with their liver, kidneys, or circulatory system. | 
       | (73) Tetrachloroethylene (ppb) | 0.005 | 1000 | 5 | 0 | Discharge from factories and    dry cleaners | Some people who drink water    containing tetrachloroethylene in excess of the MCL over many years could    have problems with their liver, and may have an increased risk of getting    cancer. | 
       | (74) 1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene    (ppb) | 0.07 | 1000 | 70 | 70 | Discharge from    textile-finishing factories | Some people who drink water    containing 1,2,4-trichlorobenzene well in excess of the MCL over many years    could experience changes in their adrenal glands. | 
       | (75) 1,1,1,-Trichloroethane    (ppb) | 0.2 | 1000 | 200 | 200 | Discharge from metal    degreasing sites and other factories | Some people who drink water    containing 1,1,1-trichloroethane in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience problems with their liver, nervous system, or circulatory system. | 
       | (76) 1,1,2-Trichloroethane    (ppb) | 0.005 | 1000 | 5 | 3 | Discharge from industrial    chemical factories | Some people who drink water    containing 1,1,2-trichloroethane well in excess of the MCL over many years    could have problems with their liver, kidneys, or immune systems. | 
       | (77) Trichloroethylene (ppb) | 0.005 | 1000 | 5 | 0 | Discharge from metal    degreasing sites and other factories | Some people who drink water    containing trichloroethylene in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience problems with their liver and may have an increased risk of    getting cancer. | 
       | (78) Toluene (ppm) | 1 | -  | 1 | 1 | Discharge from petroleum    factories | Some people who drink water containing    toluene well in excess of the MCL over many years could have problems with    their nervous system, kidneys, or liver. | 
       | (79) Vinyl Chloride (ppb) | 0.002 | 1000 | 2 | 0 | Leaching from PVC piping;    Discharge from plastic factories | Some people who drink water containing    vinyl chloride in excess of the MCL over many years may have an increased    risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (80) Xylenes (ppm) | 10 | -  | 10 | 10 | Discharge from petroleum    factories; Discharge from chemical factories | Some people who drink water    containing xylenes in excess of the MCL over many years could experience    damage to their nervous system. | 
       | Disinfection By-Products, Precursors, and Residuals | 
       | (81) TTHMs [total    trihalomethanes] (ppb) | 0.080 | 1000 | 80 | n/a | By-product of drinking water    disinfection | Some people who drink water    containing trihalomethanes in excess of the MCL over many years could    experience problems with their liver, kidneys, or central nervous systems,    and may have an increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (82) Haloacetic acids (HAA)    (ppb) | 0.060 | 1000 | 60 | n/a | By-product of drinking water    disinfection | Some people who drink water    containing haloacetic acids in excess of the MCL over many years may have an    increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (83) Bromate (ppb) | 0.010 | 1000 | 10 | 0 | By-product of drinking water    disinfection | Some people who drink water    containing bromate in excess of the MCL over many years may have an increased    risk of getting cancer. | 
       | (84) Chloramines (ppm) | MRDL=4.0 | - | MRDL=4.0 | MRDLG=4 | Water additive used to control    microbes | Some people who use water containing    chloramines well in excess of the MRDL could experience irritating effects to    their eyes and nose. Some people who drink water containing chloramines well    in excess of the MRDL could experience stomach discomfort or anemia. | 
       | (85) Chlorine (ppb)(ppm) | MRDL=4.0 | - | MRDL=4.0 | MRDLG=4 | Water additive used to control    microbes | Some people who use water    containing chlorine well in excess of the MRDL could experience irritating    effects to their eyes and nose. Some people who drink water containing    chlorine well in excess of the MRDL could experience stomach discomfort. | 
       | (86) Chlorine dioxide (ppb)42 | MRDL=0.8 | 1000 | MRDL=800 | MRDLG=800 | Water additive used to control    microbes | Some infants and young    children who drink water containing chlorine dioxide in excess of the MRDL    could experience nervous system effects. Similar effects may occur in fetuses    of pregnant women who drink water containing chlorine dioxide in excess of    the MRDL. Some people may experience anemia. | 
       | (86a) Chlorine dioxide, where    any two consecutive daily samples taken at the entrance to the distribution    system are above the MRDL.1 | MRDL=0.8 |   |   | MRDLG=0.8 |   | The chlorine dioxide    violations reported today are the result of exceedances at the treatment    facility only, not within the distribution system which delivers water to    consumers. Continued compliance with chlorine dioxide levels within the    distribution system minimizes the potential risk of these violations to    consumers. | 
       | (86b) Chlorine dioxide, where    one or more distribution system samples are above the MRDL.1 | MRDL=0.8 |   |   | MRDLG=0.8 |   | The chlorine dioxide    violations reported today include exceedances of the EPA standard within the    distribution system which delivers water to consumers. Violations of the    chlorine dioxide standard within the distribution system may harm human    health based on short-term exposures. Certain groups, including fetuses,    infants, and young children, may be especially susceptible to nervous system    effects from excessive chlorine dioxide exposure. | 
       |  |  |  |  |  |  |  |  |  |  | 
  
         
                 | (87) Chlorite (ppm) | 1.0 | - | 1.0 | 0.8 | By-product of drinking water    disinfection | Some infants and young    children who drink water containing chlorite in excess of the MCL could    experience nervous system effects. Similar effects may occur in fetuses of    pregnant women who drink water containing chlorite in excess of the MCL. Some    people may experience anemia. | 
       | (88) Total organic carbon    (ppm) | TT | - | TT | n/a | Naturally present in the    environment | Total organic carbon (TOC) has    no health effects. However, total organic carbon provides a medium for the    formation of disinfection byproducts. These byproducts include    trihalomethanes (THMs) and haloacetic acids (HAAs). Drinking water containing    these byproducts in excess of the MCL may lead to adverse health effects,    liver or kidney problems, or nervous systems effects, and may lead to an    increased risk of getting cancer. | 
       | 1This information is for public notification purposes    only. 2These arsenic values are effective January 23, 2006.    Until then, the MCL is 0.05 mg/l and there is no MCLG.
 32This    information is for Consumer Confidence Report purposes only.
 43Violations    of the treatment technique requirements for filtration and disinfection that    involve turbidity exceedances may use the health effects language for    turbidity instead.
 | 
  
         
          DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC5-590) 
    Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental  Samples, June 1991, United States Environmental Protection Agency. 
    Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental  Samples -- Supplement I, May 1994, United States Environmental Protection  Agency. 
    Methods for the Determination of Inorganic Substances in  Environmental Samples, August 1993, United States Environmental Protection  Agency. 
    Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in  Drinking Water, July 1991, United States Environmental Protection Agency. 
    Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in  Drinking Water -- Supplement I, July 1990, United States Environmental  Protection Agency. 
    Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in  Drinking Water -- Supplement II, August 1992, United States Environmental  Protection Agency. 
    Technical Notes on Drinking Water Methods, October 1994,  United States Environmental Protection Agency. 
    "Maximum Permissible Body Burdens and Maximum  Permissible Concentration of Radionuclides in Air or Water for Occupational  Exposure," National Bureau of Standards Handbook 69. 
    Standard Methods for the Examination of Water and Wastewater,  18th edition, American Public Health Association, American Waterworks  Association, and Water Pollution Control Federation, 1992. 
    Methods for the Determination of Metals in Environmental  Samples (including supplement I), USEPA May 1994. 
    Methods for the Determination of Organic Compounds in  Drinking Water (including supplement I and II), USEPA, October 1994. 
    Technical Notes on Drinking Water Methods, USEPA, October  1994. 
    ANSI/NSF Standard for Drinking Water Treatment System  Components, ANSI/NSF 61, American National Standard Institute, November, 1994. 
    AWWA Standard for American National Standard for  Cement-Mortar Lining for Ductile-Iron Pipe and Fittings for Water, C-104,  American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for American National Standard for Polyethylene  Encasement for Ductile-Iron Pipe and Fittings for Water, C-105, American  Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for American National Standard for Ductile-Iron  and Gray-Iron Fittings 3 Inch Through 48 Inch for Water, C-110, American  Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for American National Standard for  Rubber-Gasket Joints for Ductile-Iron Pressure Pipe and Fittings, C-111,  American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for American National Standard for Flanged  Ductile-Iron Pipe with Threaded Flanges, C-115, American Waterworks  Association. 
    AWWA Standard for American National Standard for the  Thickness Design of Ductile-Iron Pipe, C-150, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for American National Standard for Ductile-Iron  Pipe, Centrifugally Cast, for Water or Other Liquids, C-151, American  Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for American National Standard for Ductile-Iron  Pipe, Compact Fittings, 3 Inch Through 16 Inch, for Water and Other Liquids,  C-153, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Steel Water Pipe, 6 Inch and Larger, C-200,  American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Coal-Tar Protective Coatings and Linings  for Steel Water Pipelines- Enamel and Tape-Hot Applied, C-203, American  Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Cement-Mortar Protective Lining and Coating  for Steel Water Pipe-4 Inch and Larger-Shop Applied, C-205, American Waterworks  Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Field Welding of Steel Water Pipe, C-206,  American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Steel Pipe Flanges for Waterworks Service-4  Inch and Larger-Shop Applied, C-207, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Dimensions for Fabricated Steel Water Pipe  Fittings, C-208, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standards for Cold-Applied Coatings for the Exterior of  Special Sections, Connections, and Fittings for Steel Water Pipelines, C-209,  American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Liquid-Epoxy Coating Systems for the  Interior and Exterior of Steel Water Pipelines, C-210, American Waterworks  Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Fusion-Bonded Epoxy Coating for the  Interior and Exterior of Steel Water Pipelines, C-213, American Waterworks  Association. 
    AWWA Standards for Tape Coating Systems for the Exterior of  Steel Water Pipelines, C-214, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Extruded Polyolefin Coatings for the  Exterior of Steel Water Pipelines, C-215, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Cross-Linked Polyolefin Coatings for the  Exterior of Special Sections, Connections, and Fittings for Buried Steel Water  Pipelines, C-216, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Cold-Applied Petrolatum Tape and Petroleum  Wax Tape Coatings for the Exterior of Special Sections, Connections, and  Fittings for Buried Steel Water Pipelines, C-217, American Waterworks Association.  
    AWWA Standard for Coating the Exterior of Aboveground Steel  Water Pipelines and Fittings, C-218, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Bolted, Sleeve-Type Couplings for Plain-End  Pipe, C-219, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Stainless Steel Pipe, 4 Inch and Larger,  C-220, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Reinforced Concrete Pressure Pipe,  Steel-Cylinder Type, for Water and Other Liquids, C-300, American Waterworks  Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Prestressed Concrete Pressure Pipe,  Steel-Cylinder Type, for Water and Other Liquids, C-301, American Waterworks  Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Reinforced Concrete Pressure Pipe,  Noncylinder Type, for Water and Other Liquids, C-302, American Waterworks  Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Reinforced Concrete Pressure Pipe,  Noncylinder Type, Pretensioned, for Water and Other Liquids, C-303, American  Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Design of Prestressed Concrete Cylinder  Pipe, C-304, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for the Selection of Asbestos-Cement  Transmission and Feeder Main Pipe, C-403, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Cement-Mortar Lining of Water Pipelines-4  Inch (1000 mm) and Larger-In Place, C-602, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Underground Service Line Valves and  Fittings, C-800, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Polyvinyl Chloride Pressure Pipe, 4 Inch  Through 12 Inch for Water Distribution, C-900, American Waterworks Association.  
    AWWA Standard for Polybutylene Pressure Pipe and Tubings, 1/2  Inch Through 3 Inch, for Water Service, C-902, American Waterworks Association.  
    AWWA Standard for Polyethylene Pressure Pipe and Fittings, 4  Inch Through 63 Inch, for Water Distribution, C-906, American Waterworks  Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Polyethylene Pressure Pipe and Tubing, 1/2  Inch Through 3 Inch, for Water Service, C-901, American Waterworks Association.  
    AWWA Standard for Polyvinyl Chloride Water Transmission Pipe,  Nominal Diameters 14 Inch Through 36 Inch, C-905, American Waterworks  Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Polyvinyl Chloride Pressure Fittings, 4  Inch Through 8 Inch, C-907, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Fiberglass Pressure Pipe, C-950. American Waterworks  Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Asbestos-Cement Pressure Pipe, 4 Inch  Through 16 Inch, for Water Distribution Systems, C-400, American Waterworks  Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Selection of Asbestos-Cement Pressure Pipe,  4 Inch Through 16 Inch, for Water Distribution Systems, C-401, American  Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Asbestos-Cement Transmission Pipe, 18 Inch  Through 42 Inch, for Potable Water and Other Liquids, C-402, American  Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Installation of Ductile-Iron Pipe and Their  Appurtenances, C-600, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Installation of Asbestos-Cement Pressure  Pipe, C-603, American Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Grooved and Shouldered Joints, C-606, American  Waterworks Association. 
    AWWA Standard for Disinfecting Water Mains, C-651, American  Waterworks Association. 
    Control of Communicable Diseases in Man, 15 edition, American  Public Health Association, 1990. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-1086; Filed October 14, 2011, 5:23 p.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Final Regulation
    Title of Regulation:  12VAC5-613. Regulations for Alternative Onsite Sewage Systems (adding 12VAC5-613-10 through 12VAC5-613-210). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 32.1-12 and 32.1-164 of the  Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: December 7, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: Allen Knapp, Director, Division of  Onsite Sewage and Wastewater Services, Department of Health, 109 Governor  Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 864-7470, or email  allen.knapp@vdh.virginia.gov.
    Summary: 
    This regulation creates an inspection, sampling, and  reporting frequency for all alternative onsite sewage systems (AOSSs). The  regulations (i) establish the performance requirements for AOSSs, as well as  horizontal setbacks for those designed in accordance with § 32.1-163.6 of  the Code of Virginia; (ii) establish nitrogen limitations for all large AOSSs  and require all small AOSSs to reduce nutrient loads within the Chesapeake Bay  Watershed; (iii) establish treatment levels for performance and provide a  methodology for evaluating treatment unit efficacy; (iv) add a new section to  allow professional engineers to waive certain performance and sampling location  requirements; and (v) supplement the existing Sewage Handling and Disposal  Regulations (12VAC5-610), which contain permitting and enforcement procedures  and other requirements for onsite sewage systems, including AOSSs. 
    The proposed requirement that owners have a relationship  with a licensed operator for the purpose of providing operation and maintenance  to the AOSSs is deleted for consistency with § 32.1-164 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A  summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be  obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar  of Regulations. 
    CHAPTER 613 
  REGULATIONS FOR ALTERNATIVE ONSITE SEWAGE SYSTEMS 
    Part I 
  General 
    12VAC5-613-10. Definitions.
    The following words and terms used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings. Terms not defined in this chapter shall have the  meanings prescribed in Chapter 6 (§ 32.1-163 et seq.) of Title 32.1 of the  Code of Virginia or in 12VAC5-610 unless the plain reading of the language  requires a different meaning.
    "Alternative onsite sewage system,"  "AOSS," or "alternative onsite system" means a treatment  works that is not a conventional onsite sewage system and does not result in a  point source discharge.
    "Best management practice" means a conservation  or pollution control practice approved by the division, such as wastewater  treatment units, shallow effluent dispersal fields, saturated or unsaturated  soil zones, or vegetated buffers, that manages nutrient losses or other  potential pollutant sources to minimize pollution of water resources.
    [ "Biochemical oxygen demand" or  "BOD" means the measure of the amount of oxygen required by bacteria  for stabilizing material that can be decomposed under aerobic conditions. ]  
    "Biochemical oxygen demand, five-day" or  "BOD5" means the quantitative measure of the amount of  oxygen consumed by bacteria while stabilizing, digesting, or treating  biodegradable organic matter under aerobic conditions over a five-day  incubation period; BOD5 is expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/l).
    "Board" means the State Board of Health.
    "Chesapeake Bay Watershed" means the following  Virginia river basins: Potomac River Basin (see 9VAC25-260-390 and  9VAC25-260-400), James River Basin (see 9VAC25-260-410, 9VAC25-260-415,  9VAC25-260-420, and 9VAC25-260-430), Rappahannock River Basin (see  9VAC25-260-440), Chesapeake Bay and small coastal basins (see 9VAC25-260-520,  Section 2 through Section 3g), and the York River Basin (see 9VAC25-260-530).
    "Conventional onsite sewage system" means a  treatment works consisting of one or more septic tanks with gravity, pumped, or  siphoned conveyance to a gravity distributed subsurface drainfield.
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of  Health.
    "Direct dispersal of effluent to ground water"  means less than six inches of vertical separation between the point of effluent  application or the bottom of a trench or other excavation and ground water.
    "Disinfection" means a process used to destroy  or inactivate pathogenic microorganisms in wastewater to render them  non-infectious.
    "Dissolved oxygen" or "DO" means the  concentration of oxygen dissolved in effluent, expressed in mg/l or as percent  saturation, where saturation is the maximum amount of oxygen that can  theoretically be dissolved in water at a given altitude and temperature.
    "Division" means the Division of Onsite Sewage  and Water Services, Environmental Engineering, and Marina Programs within the  department [ or equivalent  ]. 
    "Effluent" means sewage that has undergone  treatment.
    "General approval" means that a treatment unit  has been evaluated [ and approved for TL-2 or TL-3 ]  in accordance with the requirements of this chapter [ and  12VAC5-610 and approved for TL-2 or TL-3 in accordance with this chapter ].  
    "GPD/sf" means gallons per day per square foot.
    "Ground water" means any water, except capillary  moisture, beneath the land surface in the zone of saturation or beneath the bed  of any stream, lake, reservoir, or other body of surface water wholly or  partially within the boundaries of this Commonwealth, whatever the subsurface  geologic structure in which such water stands, flows, percolates, or otherwise  occurs. Ground water includes a seasonal or perched water table. 
    "High-level disinfection" means a disinfection  method that results in a fecal coliform concentration less than or equal to 2.2  colonies/100 ml. Chlorine disinfection requires a minimum total residual  chlorine (TRC) concentration at the end of a 30 minute contact time of 1.5  mg/l. Ultraviolet disinfection requires a minimum dose of 50,000 μW-sec/cm2.  Influent turbidity to the disinfection unit shall be less than or equal to 2  Nephelometric turbidity units (NTU) on average.
    "Ksat" means saturated hydraulic conductivity. 
    "Large AOSS" means an AOSS that serves more than  three attached or detached single-family residences [ with a  combined average daily sewage flow greater than 1,000 GPD ] or a  structure with an average daily sewage flow in excess of 1,000 [ gpd GPD  ]. 
    "Limiting feature" means a feature of the soil  that limits or intercepts the vertical movement of water, including seasonal,  perched or permanent water table, pans, soil restrictions, and pervious or  impervious bedrock.
    "Local health department" means the local health  department having jurisdiction over the AOSS.
    "Maintenance" means performing adjustments to  equipment and controls and in-kind replacement of normal wear and tear parts  such as light bulbs, fuses, filters, pumps, motors, or other like components.  Maintenance includes pumping the tanks or cleaning the building sewer on a  periodic basis. Maintenance shall not include replacement of tanks, drainfield  piping, and distribution boxes or work requiring a construction permit and an  installer. 
    "MGD" means million gallons per day. 
    "MPI" means minutes per inch.
    "Operate" means the act of making a decision on  one's own volition to (i) place into or take out of service a unit process or  unit processes or (ii) make or cause adjustments in the operation of a unit  process at a treatment works. 
    "Operation" means the biological, chemical, and  mechanical processes of transforming sewage or wastewater to compounds or  elements and water that no longer possess an adverse environmental or health  impact. 
    "Operator" means any individual employed or  contracted by any owner who is licensed or certified under Chapter  23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia as being  qualified to operate, monitor and maintain an alternative onsite sewage system.
    "Organic loading rate" means the biodegradable  fraction of chemical oxygen demand (BOD, biodegradable fats, oils, and grease  and volatile solids) delivered to a treatment component in a specified time  interval expressed as mass per time or area; examples include pounds per day,  pounds per cubic foot per day (pretreatment), or pounds per square foot per day  (infiltrative surface or pretreatment). For a typical residential system, these  regulations assume that biochemical loading (BOD5) equals organic  loading.
    "Owner" means the Commonwealth or any of its  political subdivisions, including sanitary districts, sanitation district  commissions and authorities, or any individual, any group of individuals acting  individually or as a group, or any public or private institution, corporation,  company, partnership, firm, or association that owns or proposes to own a  sewerage system or treatment works. 
    "pH" means the measure of the acid or base  quality of water that is the negative log of the hydrogen ion concentration.
    "Pollution" means such alteration of the  physical, chemical, or biological properties of any state waters as will or is  likely to create a nuisance or render such waters (i) harmful or detrimental or  injurious to the public health, safety, or welfare or to the health of animals,  fish, or aquatic life; (ii) unsuitable with reasonable treatment for use as  present or possible future sources of public water supply; or (iii) unsuitable  for recreational, commercial, industrial, agricultural, or other reasonable  uses. Pollution shall include any discharge of untreated sewage into state  waters.
    [ "Point source discharge" means any  discernible, confined, and discrete conveyance including, but not limited to,  any pipe, ditch, channel, tunnel, conduit, well, discrete fissure, container,  rolling stock, concentrated animal feeding operation, landfill leachate  collection system, vessel, or other floating craft from which pollutants are or  may be discharged. This term does not include return flows from irrigated  agriculture or agricultural storm water run-off. ] 
    "Project area" means one or more recorded lots  or a portion of a recorded lot owned by the owner of an AOSS or controlled by  easement upon which an AOSS is located or that is contiguous to a soil  treatment area and that is designated as such for purposes of compliance with the  performance requirements of this chapter. In the case of an AOSS serving  multiple dwellings, the project area may include multiple recorded lots as in a  subdivision.
    "Project area boundary" [ or  "project boundary" ] means the [ physical ]  limits of the three-dimensional [ space defined when  length, width, and depth of the project area, whereby each dimension is  identified as follows: ] (i) the horizontal component is the  [ length and width of the ] project area; (ii) the upper  vertical limit is the ground surface in and around the AOSS; and (iii) the  lower vertical limit is [ the vertical separation  required by this chapter; a permeability limiting feature; or the permanent  water table the limiting feature ].
    [ "Relationship with an operator" means  an agreement between the owner of an AOSS and operator wherein the operator has  been retained by the owner to operate the AOSS in accordance with the  requirements of this chapter. ] 
    "Renewable operating permit" means an operation  permit that expires and must be revalidated at a predetermined frequency or  schedule in accordance with this chapter.
    "Reportable incident" means one or more of the  following: an alarm event [ lasting more than 24 hours; an alarm  event that reoccurs ]; any failure to achieve one or more  performance requirements; removal of solids; replacement of media; or  replacement of any major component of the system including electric and  electronic components, pumps, blowers, and valves.  The routine  [ maintenance cleaning ] of effluent filters  is not a reportable incident. 
    "Saturated hydraulic conductivity" means a  quantitative measure of a saturated soil's capacity to transmit water when  subjected to a hydraulic gradient. 
    "Settleable solids" means a measure of the  volume of suspended solids that will settle out of suspension within a  specified time, expressed in milliliters per liter (ml/l).
    "Sewage Handling and Disposal Regulations" means  12VAC5-610 [ adopted by the board or its successor ].  
    "Small AOSS" means an AOSS that serves no more  than three attached or detached single-family residences [ with  a combined average flow of less than or equal to 1,000 GPD, ] or a  structure with an average daily sewage flow of less than or equal to 1,000 [ gpd  GPD ]. 
    "Soil treatment area" means the physical location  in [ or on ] the naturally occurring soil  medium where final treatment and dispersal of effluent occurs [ ;  the soil treatment area includes subsurface drainfields and drip dispersal  fields ]. 
    "Standard disinfection" means a disinfection  process that results in a fecal coliform concentration of less than or equal to  200 colonies/100 ml. Chlorine disinfection requires a minimum TRC concentration  at the end of a 30 minute contact time of 1.0 mg/l. Influent TSS to the  disinfection unit shall average 30 mg/l or less.
    "Standard engineering practice" means the care,  diligence, competence, and judgment that a reasonably prudent and experienced  professional engineer licensed in the Commonwealth of Virginia would exercise  given the circumstances, including site and soil conditions, of a particular  AOSS design. 
    "State waters" means all water, on the surface  and under the ground, wholly or partially within or bordering the Commonwealth  or within its jurisdiction, including wetlands. 
    "Subsurface drainfield" means a system installed  within the soil and designed to accommodate treated sewage from a treatment  works. 
    [ "Surface waters" means: (i) all waters  that are currently used, were used in the past, or may be susceptible to use in  interstate or foreign commerce, including all waters that are subject to the  ebb and flow of the tide; (ii) all interstate waters, including interstate  wetlands; (iii) all other waters such as intrastate lakes, rivers, streams  (including intermittent streams), mudflats, sandflats, wetlands, sloughs,  prairie potholes, wet meadows, playa lakes, or natural ponds and the use,  degradation, or destruction of which would affect or could affect interstate or  foreign commerce including any such waters: (a) that are or could be used by  interstate or foreign travelers for recreational or other purposes; (b) from  which fish or shellfish are or could be taken and sold in interstate or foreign  commerce; or (c) that are used or could be used for industrial purposes by  industries in interstate commerce; (iv) all impoundments of waters otherwise  defined as surface waters under this definition; (v) tributaries of waters  identified in clauses (i) through (iv) of this definition; (vi) the territorial  sea; and (vii) wetlands adjacent to waters (other than water that are  themselves wetlands) identified in clauses (i) through (vi) of this definition. ]  
    "Total nitrogen" or "TN" means the  measure of the complete nitrogen content of wastewater including all organic,  inorganic, and oxidized forms expressed in mg/l as nitrogen. 
    "Total residual chlorine" or "TRC"  means a measurement of the combined available chlorine and the free available  chlorine available in a sample after a specified contact time.
    "Total suspended solids" or "TSS"  means a measure of the mass of all suspended solids in a sample typically  measured in milligrams per liter (mg/l). 
    "Treatment level 2 effluent" or "TL-2  effluent" means [ secondary ] effluent [ as  defined in 12VAC5-610-120 ] that has been treated to produce BOD5  and TSS concentrations equal to or less than 30 mg/l each.
    "Treatment level 3 effluent" or "TL-3  effluent" means effluent that has been treated to produce BOD5  and TSS concentrations equal to or less than 10 mg/l each.
    "Treatment unit" or "treatment system"  means a method, technique, equipment, or process other than a septic tank or  septic tanks used to treat sewage to produce effluent of a specified quality  before the effluent is dispersed to a soil treatment area.
    "Turbidity" means a measurement of the relative  clarity of effluent as a result of the presence of varying amounts of suspended  organic and inorganic materials or color.
    "Vertical separation" means the vertical  distance between the point of effluent application to the soil or the bottom of  a trench or other excavation and a limiting feature of the soil treatment area  such as seasonal high ground water, bedrock, or other restriction. 
    "Wetlands" means those areas that are inundated  or saturated by surface or ground water at a frequency and duration sufficient  to support, and that under normal circumstances do support, a prevalence of  vegetation typically adapted for life in saturated soil conditions. Wetlands  generally include swamps, marshes, bogs, and similar areas [ and  as otherwise identified by the Army Corps of Engineers  ].
    12VAC5-613-20. Purpose and authority.
    A. Pursuant to the requirements of §§ 32.1-12  [ and 32.1-163, 32.1-163.6, and 32.1-164 ] of  the Code of Virginia, the board has promulgated this chapter to: 
    1. Establish a program for regulating the operation and  maintenance of alternative onsite sewage systems;
    2. Establish performance requirements for alternative  onsite sewage systems;
    3. Establish horizontal setbacks for alternative onsite  sewage systems that are necessary to protect public health and the environment;
    4. Discharge the board's responsibility to supervise and  control the safe and sanitary collection, conveyance, transportation,  treatment, and disposal of sewage by onsite sewage systems and treatment works  as they affect the public health and welfare;
    5. Protect the quality of surface water and ground water;
    6. Guide the commissioner in determining whether a permit  or other authorization for an alternative onsite sewage system shall be issued  or denied; and 
    7. Inform owners, applicants, onsite soil evaluators,  system designers, and other persons of the requirements for obtaining a permit  or other authorization for an AOSS.
    B. The division may, as it deems necessary, develop best  management practices for the purposes of recognizing acceptable methods to  reduce pollution from AOSSs.
    12VAC5-613-30. Applicability and scope.
    A. As provided in this section, this chapter governs the  design, construction, and operation of AOSSs.
    B. Part II of this chapter, Performance Requirements,  applies only to AOSSs with applications filed on or after [ the  effective date of this chapter December 7, 2011 ]. 
    C. Any AOSS with an application filed prior to [ the  effective date of this chapter December 7, 2011, ] is  subject to the performance requirements contained in the regulations in effect  at the time the system was permitted or the performance requirements contained  in the operation permit.
    D. Small AOSSs designed, constructed, permitted, and  operated in accordance with this chapter; the prescriptive design, location,  and construction criteria of 12VAC5-610-20; and the policies and procedures of  the department are presumed to comply with the ground water quality  requirements of [ 12VAC5-610-90 A 12VAC5-613-90  A ]. 
    E. Part III of this chapter, Operation and Maintenance  Requirements, shall apply to all AOSSs, including those with applications filed  prior to [ the effective date of this chapter  December 7, 2011 ].
    F. Requirements for renewable operation permits contained  in this chapter shall apply only to AOSSs with applications filed on or after  [ the effective date of this chapter December 7, 2011 ].
    G. The laboratory sampling requirements of this chapter  apply only to AOSSs with applications filed on or after [ the  effective date of this chapter December 7, 2011 ].
    H. Any AOSS with an application filed prior to [ the  effective date of this chapter December 7, 2011, ] is  subject to the laboratory sampling requirements contained in the regulations in  effect at the time the system was permitted or the sampling requirements  contained in the operation permit.
    I. AOSSs designed pursuant to § 32.1-163.6 of the  Code of Virginia are subject to the following requirements:
    1. Performance requirements of this chapter [ unless  waived pursuant to 12VAC5-613-210 ]; 
    2. Horizontal setback requirements of this chapter; 
    3. Operation, maintenance, inspection, and sampling  requirements of this chapter; and
    4. Standard engineering practice.
    J. Dispersal of treated or untreated sewage to a wetland  [ that ] is subject to permitting by the Virginia  Department of Environmental Quality pursuant to the requirements of Title 62.1  of the Code of Virginia [ and ] is specifically  excluded from this chapter.  
    K. Spray irrigation systems are subject to permitting by  the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality and are specifically excluded  from this chapter.
    L. Treatment units for small AOSSs that are recognized by  the department as generally approved for TL-2 or TL-3 as of [ the  effective date of this chapter December 7, 2011, ] shall  retain such status for a period of five years from [ the  effective date of this chapter December 7, 2011, ] after  which the units shall be evaluated pursuant to the requirements of this  chapter.
    M. After [ the effective date of this  chapter December 7, 2011 ], new applications for general  approval for TL-2 or TL-3 shall be subject to the requirements of this chapter.  The department may continue to evaluate any treatment unit for small AOSSs that  is undergoing evaluation as of [ the effective date of this  chapter December 7, 2011, ] using the protocol in place  on the date of application for general approval.
    [ N. The additional nutrient requirements for AOSSs  in the Chesapeake Bay watershed contained in 12VAC5-613-90 D shall take effect  on [ July 1, 2013, or two years after the effective date of this  chapter, whichever is later December 7, 2013 ]. 
    12VAC5-613-40. Relationship to other regulations.
    A. This chapter is supplemental to 12VAC5-610 (Sewage  Handling and Disposal Regulations). 
    B. All procedures pertaining to enforcement, minimum  requirements for filing applications, and processing of applications, including  appeals and case decisions contained in the Sewage Handling and Disposal  Regulations shall apply to the permitting of AOSSs under this chapter.
    C. In any case where there is a conflict between this  chapter and the Sewage Handling and Disposal Regulations, this chapter shall [ be  controlling control ]. 
    D. This chapter supersedes Table 5.4 of the Sewage  Handling and Disposal Regulations for all AOSSs designed to disperse TL-2 or  TL-3 effluent. Table 5.4 of the Sewage Handling and Disposal Regulations  [ (12VAC5-610-950) ] shall govern the design of any AOSS  designed to disperse septic tank effluent to the soil treatment area  [ unless waived pursuant to 12VAC5-613-210 ].  
    E. [ In accordance with standard  engineering practice, all All ] plans and specifications  for AOSSs shall be properly sealed by a professional engineer licensed in the  Commonwealth pursuant to Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia unless such plans are  prepared pursuant to an exemption from the licensing requirements of Title 54.1  of the Code of Virginia. [ All ] AOSS designs  [ submitted prepared by a professional engineer shall be  reviewed by the department ] pursuant to § 32.1-163.6 of the  Code of Virginia [ shall have a statement on the title page of  the plans clearly identifying the plans as a § 32.1-163.6 submittal. Where  this statement is not included on the title page, the department will review  the plans pursuant to the Sewage Handling and Disposal Regulations and  applicable policies unless otherwise designated in writing by  the professional engineer ].  
    F. When AOSS designs are prepared pursuant to an exemption  from the licensing requirements of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, the  designer shall provide a certification statement in a form approved by the  division identifying the specific exemption under which the plans and  specifications were prepared and certifying that the designer is authorized to  prepare such plans pursuant to the exemption.
    G. [ In accordance with standard  engineering practice, each Each ] application under  § 32.1-163.6 of the Code of Virginia shall include a site [ and  soil ] characterization report using the Field Book for Describing  and Sampling Soils, Version 2.0, National Soil Survey Center, Natural Resources  Conservation Service, U.S. Department of Agriculture, September 2002. The  report may contain such information that the designer deems appropriate;  however, it must describe the following minimum attributes of the site of the  proposed soil treatment area:
    1. Depth to limiting features, [ including ]  seasonal or perched water tables, pans, restrictions, or pervious or  impervious bedrock;
    2. Slope of the project area;
    3. Ksat or percolation rate at the proposed installation  depth and at depths below the soil treatment area to demonstrate compliance  with this chapter. Ksat or percolation rate may be estimated for small AOSSs.  The Ksat or percolation rate must be measured using an appropriate device for  large AOSSs;
    4. Landscape or landform; and
    5. Project area along with those physical features in the  vicinity of the proposed AOSS normally associated with plans for onsite sewage  systems; such physical features include streams, bodies of water, roads,  utilities, wells and other drinking water sources, existing and proposed  structures, and property boundaries.
    12VAC5-613-50. Violations and enforcement.
    A. [ Failure Subject to the  limitations of 12VAC5-613-30.B, failure ] by any [ owner  of an ] AOSS to achieve one or more performance requirements  prescribed by this chapter [ or specified for the AOSS ] shall  be a violation of this chapter. 
    B. Failure by any owner [ , operator or  person, ] to comply with the conditions of an operation permit  shall be a violation of this chapter. 
    C. Failure by any owner [ , operator or  person, ] to accomplish any mandated visit, operation,  maintenance, repair, monitoring, sampling, reporting, or inspection requirement  prescribed by this chapter shall be a violation of this chapter.
    D. Failure [ by any owner ] to  follow the approved operation and maintenance manual (O&M manual) shall be  deemed a violation of this chapter when such failure results in the failure to  achieve one or more performance requirements prescribed by this chapter.
    E. [ Failure by any operator to perform any  mandated activity in accordance with 12VAC5-613-110, 12VAC5-613-120,  12VAC5-613-180, or 12VAC5-613-190 shall be a violation of this chapter.
    F. ] Nothing in this chapter shall be  construed to limit the authority of the board, the commissioner, or the  department to enforce this chapter or to enforce the requirements of  12VAC5-610.
    [ F. G. ] In accordance  with the Sewage Handling and Disposal Regulations and § 32.1-25 of the  Code of Virginia, the commissioner may take such samples and conduct such  monitoring, including ground water samples and monitoring, that he deems  necessary to enforce this chapter.
    [ G. H. ] The board,  commissioner, and department may use any lawful means to enforce this chapter  including voiding a construction or operation permit, imposition of civil  penalties, or criminal prosecution pursuant to § 32.1-27 of the Code of  Virginia. 
    [ I. Except when there is additional evidence that an  AOSS has failed to achieve one or more of the performance requirements of this  chapter or when a licensed operator has filed a report indicating that an AOSS  cannot be returned to normal function via routine maintenance, the department  shall not rely solely on the results of an individual grab sample to establish  the factual basis for a violation of this chapter. ] 
    12VAC5-613-60. Operation permits and land records.
    [ A. The department shall not issue an operation  permit for an AOSS unless the owner has established a relationship with an  operator and provided the operator's name and license number to the local  health department. The owner shall maintain a relationship with an operator  during all periods when the AOSS is in operation.
    B. A. ] The department shall not  issue an operation permit for an AOSS until the [ property ]  owner has recorded an instrument that complies with § 15.2-2157 E of  the Code of Virginia in the land records of the circuit court having  jurisdiction over the site of the AOSS. [ The local health  department shall receive legal documentation indicating that the instrument has  been duly recorded before issuance of the operation permit. ] 
    [ C. B. ] When all or part  of the project area is to be used in the management of nitrogen from a large  AOSS, the [ property ] owner [ or the owner of  the AOSS ] shall record legal documentation in the land records of  the circuit court having jurisdiction over the site of the AOSS. Such  documentation shall [ be in a form approved by the division  and shall protect and preserve the land area contain assurances that  the land area will be protected and preserved ] in accordance with the  management methods established by the designer. [ The local  health department shall receive legal documentation indicating that the  instrument has been duly recorded before issuance of the operation permit. ]  
    [ D. C. ] All large AOSSs  and any AOSS permitted pursuant to 12VAC5-613-90 C shall be subject a renewable  operating permit. Such permits shall be issued for a period of five years. [ Owners  The owner of the AOSS ] shall [ be required to ]  apply for a new permit at least 180 days prior to the expiration date.
    12VAC5-613-70. General approval testing and evaluation.  
    The division shall develop a protocol to verify the  expected performance of treatment units of small AOSSs that meet TL-2 or TL-3  effluent quality. The protocol to evaluate and test field performance of TL-3  treatment units shall include the following minimum requirements:
    1. The manufacturer shall evaluate at least 20 treatment  units installed in the Commonwealth of Virginia for single family residences  occupied full-time, year-round throughout the testing and evaluation period;
    2. The manufacturer shall provide the division with  quarterly results of influent and effluent samples measuring, at a minimum, BOD  and TSS for each installed treatment unit; 
    3. Operation and maintenance shall be performed on each  treatment unit during the evaluation period in accordance with the provisions  of this chapter; and
    4. An independent third party with no stake in the outcome  of the approval process shall oversee and administer the testing and evaluation  protocol. Examples of an independent third party include faculty members in an  appropriate program of an accredited college or university, a licensed  professional engineer experienced in the field of environmental engineering, or  a testing firm that is [ deemed by acceptable to ]  the division [ to be acceptable ]. 
    Part II
  Performance Requirements
    12VAC5-613-80. Performance requirements; general.
    All AOSS designed, constructed, and operated pursuant to  this chapter shall comply with the following performance requirements  [ unless waived pursuant to 12VAC5-613-210 ]: 
    1. The presence of raw or partially treated sewage on the  ground's surface or in adjacent ditches or waterways is prohibited; 
    2. The exposure of insects, animals, or humans to raw or  partially treated sewage is prohibited;
    3. The backup of sewage into plumbing fixtures is  prohibited;
    4. The direct dispersal of effluent into ground water shall  comply with 12VAC5-613-90 C;
    5. All treatment units and treatment systems shall be  designed for the anticipated [ receiving ] wastewater [ strength  characteristics ] and peak flow;
    6. Dosing of the treatment unit or treatment system shall  accommodate the design peak flow within the treatment unit's rated capacity;
    [ 7. The dispersal of septic tank effluent is  prohibited for large AOSSs; 
    8. 7. ] The AOSS shall be  designed so that all components are of sufficient structural integrity to  minimize the potential of physical harm to humans and animals;
    [ 9. 8. ] The conveyance  system for any AOSS shall be designed and installed with sufficient structural  integrity to resist inflow and infiltration and to maintain forward flow;
    [ 10. 9. ] The AOSS shall be  designed to minimize noise, odor, or other nuisances at the property boundary;
    [ 11. 10. ] Maximum trench  bottom hydraulic loading rates for pressure-dosed systems using TL-2 and TL-3  effluent are found in Table 1 and are to be used as follows:
    a. The designer is responsible for reducing loading rates  according to the features and properties of the soils in the soil treatment  area as well as for reducing loading rates for other types of dispersal; 
    b. Adherence to the maximum [ sizing  trench bottom hydraulic loading rate ] criteria herein does not  assure or guarantee that other performance requirements of this chapter,  including effluent dispersal or ground water quality, will be met. It is the  designer's responsibility to ensure that the proposed design is adequate to  achieve all performance requirements of this chapter; 
    c. Trench bottom hydraulic loading rates for pressure-dosed  systems shall not exceed the values in Table 1;
    d. [ Trench bottom hydraulic loading  rates shall be reduced from the values in Table 1 Hydraulic  loading rates shall be incrementally reduced from the TL-2 values in Table 1 ]  when a treatment unit or system is not designed to achieve TL-2 or TL-3. In  such cases, the designer shall, for monitoring purposes, specify the effluent  quality of the treatment unit. If the specified BOD5 exceeds 60  mg/l, the designer shall use loading rates for septic tank effluent;
    e. Trench bottom hydraulic loading rates for gravity dosed  systems shall be reduced from the values in Table 1; and
    f. Area hydraulic loading rates for systems such as drip  dispersal, pads, [ spray irrigation, ] and  mounds shall be reduced from the values in Table 1 and shall reflect standard  engineering practice.
           |   | Table 1Maximum Pressure-Dosed Trench Bottom Hydraulic Loading Rates
 | 
       |   | Percolation Rate(MPI)
 | [ Saturated hydraulic conductivity (cm/day)
 | TL-2 Effluent(gpd/sf)
 | TL-3 Effluent(gpd/sf)
 | 
       |   | ≤15 | > 17 | 1.8 | 3.0 | 
       |   | 15 to 25 | 15 to 17 | 1.4 | 2.0 | 
       |   | >25 to 45 | 10 to < 15 | 1.2 | 1.5 | 
       |   | >45 to 90 | 4 to < 10 | 0.8 | 1.0 | 
       |   | >90 | < 4 ]  | 0.4 | 0.5 | 
  
    [ 12. 11. ] Septic tank  effluent may only be discharged to a soil treatment area when the vertical  separation to a limiting feature consists of at least 18 inches of  naturally-occurring, in-situ soil. AOSSs designed to disperse septic tank  effluent require at least 12 inches of soil cover over the soil treatment area;  
    [ 13. Adequate vertical separation shall be  maintained to ensure the performance requirements of this chapter. Adequate  vertical separation shall be demonstrated as follows: 12.  Whenever the depth to a permeability limiting feature on the naturally  occurring site is less than 18 inches as measured from the ground surface,  whenever the treatment works does not provide at least 18 inches of vertical  separation to a permeability limiting feature, or whenever the design is for a  large AOSS, then the following shall apply: ]
    a. [ For any small AOSS where the vertical  separation to a permeability-limiting feature is less than 18 inches below the  point of effluent application or the bottom of the trench or other excavation,  or where the vertical separation to ground water is less than six inches in the  naturally-occurring soil, the The ] designer shall  demonstrate that (i) the site is not flooded during the wet season, (ii) there  is a hydraulic gradient sufficient to move the applied effluent off the site,  and (iii) water mounding will not adversely affect the functioning of the soil  treatment area or create ponding on the surface; 
    [ b. For any large AOSS regardless of site  constraints, the designer shall demonstrate that (i) the site is not flooded  during the wet season, (ii) there is a hydraulic gradient sufficient to move  the applied effluent off the site, and (iii) water mounding will not adversely  affect the functioning of the soil treatment area or create ponding on the  surface;
    c. b. ] For large AOSSs, the  department may require the owner to monitor the degree of saturation beneath  the soil treatment area [ to verify that water mounding is not  affecting the vertical separation ]; and 
    [ d. c. ] For any system in  which artificial drainage is proposed as a method to meet the requirements of  this chapter, the designer shall provide calculations [ and  or ] other documentation sufficient to demonstrate the  effectiveness of the proposed drainage.
    [ 14. 13 ] The following  minimum effluent quality shall be met for the described vertical separation to  limiting feature as measured from the point of effluent application or the  bottom of the trench or other excavation:
           | Table 2Minimum Effluent Requirements for Vertical Separation to Limiting Features
 | 
       | Vertical [ separationSeparation ] | Minimum Effluent Quality | 
       | ≥18" (requires naturally occurring,    undisturbed soils) | Septic | 
       | <18" to 12" (requires minimum 6" of    naturally occurring, undisturbed soils) | TL-2  | 
       | 0" to <12"  | TL-3 and standard disinfection* | 
  
    *Note: Where direct dispersal of effluent to ground water  occurs, effluent quality shall be governed by 12VAC5-613-90 C.
    [  15. The organic loading rate shall not exceed  2.1 x 10-4 BOD lb/day/sf on a trench-bottom basis; and 
    16. 14. ] The designer shall  specify methods and materials that will achieve the performance requirements of  this chapter whenever sand, soil, or soil-like material is used to increase the  vertical separation. 
    [ 15. All treatment units or treatment systems shall  prevent the bulking of solids to the treatment area. ] 
    12VAC5-613-90. Performance requirements; ground water  protection.
    A. The AOSS shall not pose a greater risk of ground water  pollution than systems otherwise permitted pursuant to 12VAC5-610. After  wastewater has passed through a treatment unit or septic tank and through the  soil in the soil treatment area, the concentration of fecal coliform organisms  shall not exceed 2.2 cfu/100 ml at the lower vertical limit of the project area  boundary.
    B. Each large AOSS shall comply with TN limit of 5 mg/l at  the project area boundary. Prior to the issuance of a construction permit, the  designer shall demonstrate compliance with this requirement through modeling or  other calculations. Such demonstration may incorporate multiple nitrogen  removal methods such as pretreatment, vegetative uptake (only for AOSSs with  shallow soil treatment areas), denitrification, and other viable nitrogen  management methods. Ground water and other monitoring may be required at the  department's discretion.
    C. AOSSs with direct dispersal of effluent to ground water  are subject to the following requirements:
    1. If the concentration of any constituent in ground water  is less than the limits set forth at 9VAC25-280, the natural quality for the  constituent shall be maintained; natural quality shall also be maintained for  all constituents not set forth in 9VAC25-280. If the concentration of any  constituent in ground water exceeds the limit in the standard for that  constituent, no addition of that constituent to the naturally occurring  concentration shall be made. The commissioner shall consult with the Department  of Environmental Quality prior to granting any variance from this subsection.
    2. Ground water and laboratory sampling in accordance with  12VAC5-613-100 G.
    3. The treatment unit or system shall comply with the  following at a minimum: 
    a. The effluent quality from the treatment unit or system  shall be measured prior to the point of effluent application to the soil  treatment area and shall be as follows: BOD5 and TSS concentrations  each equal to or less than 5 mg/l; fecal coliform concentrations less than or  equal to 2.2 col/100 ml as a geometric mean with no [ single ]  sample exceeding 14 col/100 ml; [ and ] TN  [ of ] concentration of less than 5 mg/l [ ,  except in the Chesapeake Bay Watershed where the TN concentration shall be less  than or equal to 3 mg/l; and total phosphorus concentration  of less than 1 mg/l, except in the Chesapeake Bay Watershed where the  total phosphorus concentration shall be less than or equal to 0.3 mg/l  ]; 
    b. High level disinfection is required; and 
    c. Treatment systems shall incorporate filtration capable  of demonstrating compliance with an average turbidity of less than or equal to  2 NTU prior to disinfection.
    4. Gravity dispersal to the soil treatment area is  prohibited.
    5. Loading rates to the soil treatment area shall not  exceed the loading rates in Table 1 of this section.
    6. A renewable operating permit shall be obtained and  maintained in accordance with 12VAC5-613-60 D.
    7. The designer shall provide sufficient hydrogeologic  analysis to demonstrate that a proposed AOSS will function as designed for the  life of the structure served without degradation of the soil treatment area.  This shall include a determination of ground water flow direction and rate. 
    D. The following additional nutrient requirements apply to  all AOSSs in the Chesapeake Bay Watershed: 
    1. All small AOSSs shall provide a 50% reduction of TN as  compared to a conventional gravity drainfield system; compliance with this  subdivision may be demonstrated through the following:
    a. Compliance with one or more best management practices [approved  recognized ] by the division [ such as the use of  a NSF 245 certified treatment ]; or 
    b. Relevant and necessary calculations provided to show one  or both of the following: 
    (1) Effluent TN concentration of 20 mg/l measured prior to  application to the soil dispersal field; or
    (2) A mass loading of 4.5 lbs N or less per person per year  at the project boundary provided that no reduction for N is allotted for uptake  or denitrification for the dispersal of effluent below the root zone (>18  inches below the soil surface).
    [ 2. All large AOSSs shall demonstrate less than 3  mg/l TN at the project boundary. Dilution may not be used to demonstrate  compliance with this subdivision. At a minimum, the treatment system shall  provide for the following effluent quality prior to application to the soil  dispersal field:
           |   | Table 3 Maximum TN Effluent Quality Requirements for Large AOSSs
 | 
       |   | Design Flow
 | Maximum Total Nitrogen    Effluent Concentration from Treatment System as TN
 | 
       |   | >1000 gpd to 40,000 gpd
 | 20 mg/l
 | 
       |   | > 40,000 gpd to 100,000    gpd
 | 10 mg/l
 | 
       |   | >100,000 gpd
 | 5 mg/l
 | 
  
    3. Ground water and other monitoring may be required at  the department's discretion for large AOSSs.
    E. No portion of an AOSS soil treatment area may be  located in a wetland. Other portions of an AOSS may be located in wetlands  subject to approval or permitting, as appropriate, by the Virginia Department  of Environmental Quality.
    2. All large AOSSs up to and including 10,000 gallons per  day shall provide a 50% reduction of TN at the project boundary as compared to  a conventional gravity drainfield system. Compliance with this subdivision may  be demonstrated as follows:
    a. A demonstrated effluent quality of less than or equal to  20 mg/l TN measured prior to application to the soil treatment area; or
    b. In situ monitoring of the treatment works within 24  vertical inches of the point of effluent application to the soil treatment area  to demonstrate the effluent leaving the treatment works has a TN concentration  of less than or equal to 20 mg/l. The designer shall identify an intermediate  compliance point within the treatment system and a corresponding TN  concentration for use in the event that a representative in situ sample cannot  be obtained. The intermediate compliance point and the corresponding TN  concentration for use must be approved by the department and shall be  conditions of the operation permit.
    The AOSS operation permit shall be conditioned upon  compliance with the constituent concentrations approved pursuant to this  subdivision.
    3. All large AOSSs over 10,000 gallons per day shall comply  with the following TN requirements:
    a. A demonstrated effluent quality of less than or equal to  8 mg/l TN measured prior to application to the soil treatment area; or
    b. In situ monitoring of the treatment works within 24  vertical inches of the point of effluent application to the soil treatment area  to demonstrate the effluent leaving the treatment works has a TN concentration  of less than or equal to 5 mg/l. The designer shall identify an intermediate  compliance point within the treatment system and a corresponding TN  concentration for use in the event that a representative in situ sample cannot  be obtained. The intermediate compliance point and the corresponding TN  concentration for use must be approved by the department and shall be  conditions of the operation permit.
    The AOSS operation permit shall be conditioned upon  compliance with the constituent concentrations approved pursuant to this  subdivision.
    4. For direct dispersal of effluent to groundwater in the  Chesapeake Bay Watershed, TN concentration shall be less than or equal to 3  mg/l and total phosphorus concentration shall be less than or equal to 0.3  mg/l. ] 
    12VAC5-613-100. Performance requirements; laboratory  sampling and monitoring.
    A. Laboratory sampling is not required for any small AOSS  with an installed soil treatment area that is sized for septic tank effluent  and complies with the requirements of 12VAC5-610 for septic tank effluent.
    B. All effluent samples must be taken at the end of all  treatment, prior to the point where the effluent is discharged to the soil  treatment area [ unless changed pursuant to 12VAC5-610-90 or  12VAC5-610-210 ]. The designer shall identify the sampling points.  When required, the sampling point for chlorine disinfection shall be at the end  of the chlorine contact tank if TRC is to be used to measure compliance.
    C. All sampling and monitoring shall be conducted  according to procedures approved under 40 CFR Part 136 or alternative  methods approved by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency unless other  procedures have been specified in this chapter.
    D. The owner of each small AOSS [ is  required to submit must ensure that ] an initial grab  sample of the effluent from the treatment unit [ and have the  sample is collected within 180 days of system operation. The sample  must be ] analyzed in accordance with 40 CFR Part 136 or  alternative methods approved by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency within  the first 180 days of operation. Thereafter, if the treatment unit has received  general approval, a grab sample is required once every five years. Samples  shall be analyzed for BOD5 and, if disinfection is required, fecal  coliform. Treatment units utilizing chlorine disinfection may alternatively  sample for TRC instead of fecal coliform. Sample results shall be submitted to  the local health department by the 15th of the month following the month in  which the sample was taken.
    E. For small AOSSs that utilize a treatment unit that has not  received general approval, in addition to the initial sample required by  subsection D of this section, four additional grab samples of the effluent from  the treatment unit shall be collected, analyzed, and submitted to the  department within the first two years of operation and annually thereafter. The  interval for collecting the samples shall not be less than quarterly or more  than semiannually. Sample results shall be submitted to the local health  department by the 15th of the month following the month in which the sample was  taken. After two years of sampling in accordance with this subsection, the  owner may submit a request to the department to reduce the sampling frequency  to once every five years. The department shall grant such requests if the mean  of five or more consecutive samples complies with the applicable performance  requirements of this chapter.
    F. Sampling and monitoring requirements for AOSS treatment  systems with flows greater than 1,000 [ gpd GPD ]  are contained in Table [ 4 3 ]:
     
         
                 | Table [ 4 3 ]Sampling and Monitoring for Large AOSSs
 | 
       | PLANT SIZE | >2.0 MGD | >1.0 [ - to ] 2.0 MGD  | > [ 0.1-100,000 GPD to ]    1.0  MGD | [ >0.04-0.1 MGD> 40,000 GPD to    100,000 GPD ] | [ >0.010 -0.04 MGD>10,000 GPD    to 40,000 GPD ] | [ >0.001-0.010 MGD>1,000 GPD to    10,000 GPD ] | 
       | Flow | Totalizing, Indicating, & Recording | Totalizing, Indicating, & Recording | Totalizing, Indicating, & Recording | Totalizing, Indicating, & Recording | Measured | [ Measured or ] Estimate | 
       | BOD5, TSS | 24-HC* 1/day | 24-HC 5 days/wk | 8-HC 3 days/wk | 4-HC 1 day/wk | Grab quarterly | Grab 1/yr | 
       | Total Nitrogen | 24-HC weekly | 24-HC weekly | 8-HC monthly | 4-HC quarterly | Grab quarterly | Grab 1/yr  | 
       | TRC, End of Contact Tank** | Grab daily | Grab daily | Grab weekly | Grab weekly | Grab weekly | Grab 1/yr  | 
       | Fecal Coliform*** | Grab weekly | Grab weekly | Grab monthly | Grab monthly | Grab quarterly  | Grab 1/yr  | 
  
    *HC – hourly, flow weighted composite samples
    ** if disinfection required and chlorine used
    ***if disinfection required [ and another  disinfecting process such as ultraviolet light is used and a  disinfectant other than chlorine used ] 
         
          G. Systems with direct dispersal to ground water as  described in 12VAC5-613-90.C shall comply with the following:
    1. Small AOSS treatment systems: 
    a. Shall incorporate a method to [ continuously  remotely ] monitor the operation of [ critical ]  treatment units [ and processes ], including the  status of the disinfection unit, and automatically notify the operator and  local health department if an alarm condition occurs; 
    b. Shall be sampled quarterly in accordance with  12VAC5-613-90 C and as defined in the renewable operating permit; and 
    c. No treatment units or systems shall be deemed generally  approved.
    2. Large AOSSs must be continuously monitored for the  proper operation of all treatment units. If the wastewater treatment works is  not manned 24 hours a day, telemetry shall be provided that monitors all  critical systems, including turbidity into the disinfection unit and the  functionality of the disinfection unit, and notifies the operator [ of  alarm conditions and local health department if an alarm condition  occurs ].
    [ a. ] Treatment works with a design flow  of less than 40,000 [ gpd GPD ] shall be  sampled at least monthly in accordance with 12VAC5-613-90 C and as defined in  the renewable operating permit.
    [ b. ] Treatment works with a design flow  of 40,000 [ gpd GPD ] or greater shall be  sampled at the frequency specified in Table [ 4 3 ]  of this section. Total phosphorus and other limited parameters not listed in  Table [ 4 3 ] of this section shall be  conducted at a frequency defined in the renewable operating permit. [ The  treatment works must comply with the continuous operability requirements of a  Reliability Class I rating as described in 9VAC25-790. Appropriate backup power  sources, equipment redundancy, and failsafe modes must be in place. ] 
    3. Ground water monitoring is required for all large AOSSs  with direct dispersal of effluent to the ground water and such monitoring shall  be conducted in accordance with the renewable operating permit.
    12VAC5-613-110. Performance requirements; field  measurements, sampling, and observations.
    A. For treatment units or treatment systems with flows [ up  to 0.04 MGD, field measurements, sampling, and observations shall be performed  at each mandated visit and during any reportable incident response visit as  recommended in Table 5. The operator shall report the results of all field  measurements, sampling, and observations greater than 1,000 GPD  and less than or equal to 40,000 GPD, the following parameters shall be evaluated  or tested when applicable: flow, pH, TRC, DO, odor, turbidity (visual), and  settleable solids ]. 
           | Table 5Recommended Field Measurements, Sampling, and Observations
 for AOSSs up to 0.04 MGD
 | 
       | Parameter
 | Average Daily Flow (gpd)
 | 
       |  
 | ≤ 1,000 gpd
 | >0.001-0.010 MGD
 | >0.01-0.04 MGD
 | 
       | Flow
 | Required (measured or estimated)
 | Required
 | Required
 | 
       | pH
 | Operator discretion
 | Required
 | Required
 | 
       | TRC (After contact tank)*
 | Required
 | Required
 | Required
 | 
       | DO**
 | Operator discretion
 | Required
 | Required
 | 
       | Odor*
 | Operator discretion
 | Required
 | Required
 | 
       | Turbidity (visual)*
 | Operator discretion
 | Required
 | Required
 | 
       | Settleable solids**
 | Operator discretion
 | Required
 | Required
 | 
  
    *Not required for systems without chlorine disinfection
    **Not required for systems without an activated sludge  component ] 
    B. For treatment systems with flows greater than  [ 0.04 MDG 40,000 GPD ], the operator shall  follow the operational and control testing requirements of the O&M manual.
    Part III
  Operation and Maintenance Requirements
    12VAC5-613-120. Operator responsibilities.
    A. Whenever an operator performs a visit that is required  by this chapter or observes a reportable incident, he shall document the  results of that visit in accordance with 12VAC5-613-190 [ or as  otherwise specified in the operation permit ]. 
    B. Whenever an operator performs a visit that is required  by this chapter, he shall do so in such a manner as to accomplish the various  responsibilities and assessments required by this chapter through visual or  other observations and through laboratory and field tests that are required by  this chapter or that he deems appropriate. 
    C. Each operator shall keep an electronic or hard copy log  for each AOSS for which he is responsible. The operator shall provide a copy of  the log to the owner. In addition, the operator shall make the log available to  the department upon request. At a minimum, the operator shall record the  following items in the log:
    1. Results of all testing and sampling;
    2. Reportable incidents; 
    3. Maintenance, corrective actions, and repair activities  that are performed other than for reportable incidents; 
    4. Recommendations for repair and replacement of system  components;
    5. Sludge or solids removal; and
    6. The date reports were given to the owner.
    D. When performing activities pursuant to a visit that is  required by this chapter, the operator is responsible for the entire AOSS,  including treatment components and soil treatment area components [ and  the operator shall follow the approved O&M manual ]. 
    [ E. An operator shall notify the appropriate local  health department when his relationship with an owner terminates. ]  
    12VAC5-613-130. Sludge and solids removal.
    Any person who pumps or otherwise removes sludge or solids  from any septic tank or treatment unit of an AOSS shall file a report with the  appropriate local health department on a form approved by the division.
    12VAC5-613-140. Owner responsibilities.
    It is the owner's responsibility to do the following:
    [ 1. Maintain a relationship with an operator;
    2. 1. ] Have the AOSS operated  and maintained by an operator;
    [ 3. 2. ] Have an operator  visit the AOSS at the frequency required by this chapter; 
    [ 4. 3. ] Have an operator  collect any samples required by this chapter; 
    [ 5. 4. ] Keep a copy of the  log provided by the operator on the property where the AOSS is located in  electronic or hard copy form, make the log available to the department upon  request, and make a reasonable effort to transfer the log to any future owner;
    [ 6. Keep 5. Follow the O&M manual  and keep ] a copy of the O&M manual in electronic or hard copy  form for the AOSS on the property where the AOSS is located, make the O&M  manual available to the department upon request, and make a reasonable effort  to transfer the O&M manual to any future owner; and
    [ 7. 6. ] Comply with the  onsite sewage system requirements contained in local ordinances adopted  pursuant to the Chesapeake Bay Preservation Act (§ 10.1-2100 et seq. of  the Code of Virginia) and the Chesapeake Bay Preservation Area Designation and  Management Regulations (9VAC10-20) when an AOSS is located within a Chesapeake  Bay Preservation Area.
    12VAC5-613-150. Operator requirements for AOSS with flows up  to [ 0.04 MGD 40,000 GPD ], minimum  frequency of visits.
    The owner of each AOSS shall have that AOSS visited by an  operator in accordance with Table [ 6. 4. ]  
           | Table [ 64 ]Minimum Operator Visit Frequency for AOSSs up to [
 0.04    MGD40,000 GPD ] | 
       | Avg. Daily Flow  | Initial Visit | Regular visits following initial visit | 
       | ≤ 1,000 [ gpdGPD ] | Within 180 calendar days of the issuance of the operation    permit | Every 12 months | 
       | [ >0.001-0.010 MGD> 1,000    GPD to 10,000 GPD ] | First week of actual operation | Quarterly | 
       | [ >0.010-0.04 MGD>10,000 GPD to    40,000 GPD ] | First week of actual operation | Monthly | 
  
    12VAC5-613-160. Operator requirements for systems with flows  greater than [ 0.04 MGD 40,000 GPD ].  
    A. AOSSs with average daily flows [ in  excess of 0.04 MGD greater than 40,000 GPD ] shall  be attended by a licensed operator and manned in accordance with the  recommendations specified in the Sewage Collection and Treatment Regulations  for sewage treatment works (9VAC25-790).
    B. [ In instances where the hours of  attendance by a licensed operator are less than the daily hours the treatment  works is to be manned by operating staff.  A licensed operator is not  required to be physically located at the treatment works site during the  remaining designated manning hours provided that the licensed operator is able  to respond to requests for assistance in a satisfactory manner  as  described in the O&M manual When the operating staff cannot be  physically present at the treatment works site during the designated manning  hours, then the operating staff shall have a method in place for an operator to  respond to the operation and maintenance needs of the treatment works within  the timeframe provided by the O&M manual or as otherwise directed by  the department ].
    C. [ Notwithstanding the language of the  Sewage Collection and Treatment Regulations for sewage treatment works  (9VAC25-790), attendance by the operator may not be waived  Attendance by the operator pursuant to this section shall not be waived ].
    D. The department may reduce operator or staffing  requirements when automatic monitoring, telemetry, or other electronic  monitoring or process controls are employed. All reductions must be approved by  the division director. 
    12VAC5-613-170. Operation and maintenance manual.
    A. This chapter outlines the minimum requirements for  operation, maintenance, sampling, and inspection of AOSSs. Operation,  maintenance, sampling, and inspection schedules for some AOSSs may exceed these  minimum requirements, in which case the designer is responsible for determining  such additional requirements based upon the proposed use, design flow, project  area, loading rates, nitrogen removal, treatment level, and other factors. 
    B. Prior to the issuance of an operation permit, the owner  shall [ have the designer submit ensure  that ] an O&M manual [ is submitted ]  to the local health department for approval. [ The  designer shall provide a copy of the O&M manual to the owner. ]  
    C. The O&M manual shall [ be written to ]  be easily understood by any potential owner and shall include the following  minimum items:
    1. Basic information on the AOSS design including treatment [ unity unit ]  capacity, installation depth, pump operating conditions, a list of the  components comprising the AOSS, a dimensioned site layout, sampling locations,  and contact information for replacement parts for each unit process;
    2. A list of any control functions and how to use them; 
    3. All operation, maintenance, sampling, and inspection  schedules for the AOSS, including any requirements that exceed the minimum  requirements of this chapter; 
    4. The performance (laboratory) data sampling and reporting  schedule; 
    5. The limits of the AOSS design and how to operate the  system within those design limits; 
    6. For systems with flows greater than [ 0.04  MGD 40,000 GPD ], the O&M manual shall include  operational and control testing recommendations that shall be based upon  9VAC25-790-970; and 
    7. Other information deemed necessary or appropriate by the  designer. 
    12VAC5-613-180. Mandatory visits; inspection requirements.
    When an operator is required to make a visit to an AOSS  the operator shall, at a minimum, accomplish the following:
    1. Inspect all components of the AOSS and conduct field  measurements, sampling, and other observations required by this chapter, the  O&M manual, or deemed necessary by the operator to assess the performance  of the AOSS and its components. 
    2. Review and evaluate the operation of the AOSS, perform  routine maintenance, make adjustments, and replace worn or dysfunctional  components with functionally equivalent parts such that the system can  reasonably be expected to return to normal operation.
    3. If the AOSS is not functioning as designed or in  accordance with the performance requirements of this chapter and, in the  operator's professional judgment, cannot be reasonably expected to return to  normal operation through routine operation and maintenance report immediately to  the owner the remediation efforts necessary to return the AOSS to normal [ function  operation ]. 
    12VAC5-613-190. Reports.
    When required to file a report, the operator shall  complete the report in a form approved by the division. In accordance with § 32.1-164  H of the Code of Virginia, the operator shall file each report using a  web-based system and pay the required fee. The operator may, solely at his own  discretion, file reports in addition to those required by this chapter. Each  report shall be filed by the 15th of the month following the month in which the  visit occurred and shall include the following minimum elements:
    1. The name and license number of the operator;
    2. The date and time of the report;
    3. The purpose of the visit, such as required visit,  follow-up, or reportable incident; 
    4. A summary statement stating whether:
    a. The AOSS is functioning as designed and in accordance  with the performance requirements of this chapter;
    b. After providing routine operation and maintenance, the  operator believes the AOSS will return to normal operation; or
    c. The system is not functioning as designed or in  accordance with the performance requirements of this chapter and additional  actions are required by the owner to return the AOSS to normal operation;
    5. All maintenance performed or adjustments made, including  parts replaced;
    6. The results of field measurements, sampling, and  observations;
    7. The name of the laboratory that analyzed samples, if  appropriate; and
    8. A statement certifying the date the operator provided a  copy of the report in electronic or hard copy form to the owner.
    Part IV
  Horizontal Setback Requirements
    12VAC5-613-200. Horizontal setback requirements.
    AOSSs designed pursuant to § 32.1-163.6 of the Code  of Virginia are subject to the following horizontal setbacks that are necessary  to protect public health and the environment:
    1. The horizontal setback distances as found in 12VAC5-610  that apply to public and private drinking water sources of all types, including  wells, springs, reservoirs, and other surface water sources, except that in  cases where an existing sewage system is closer to a private drinking water  source, the AOSS shall be no closer to the drinking water source than the  existing sewage system;
    2. The horizontal setback distances that apply to shellfish  waters as found in 12VAC5-610; 
    3. The horizontal setback distances that apply to sink  holes as found in 12VAC5-610;
    4. A five foot horizontal separation [ from  wetlands from the edge of the soil treatment area to a wetland  that is subject to permitting by the Virginia Department of Environmental  Quality pursuant to the requirements of Title 62.1 of the Code of Virginia ];  and
    5. Unless the AOSS complies with the ground water  protection requirements of 12VAC5-613-90.C, a horizontal separation between the  soil treatment area and any drainage trench or excavation that comes within six  inches vertically of ground water shall be as follows:
    a. AOSSs utilizing septic tank effluent shall be subject to  a horizontal separation contained in 12VAC5-610;
    b. AOSSs utilizing TL-2 or TL-3 (without disinfection)  shall be subject to a horizontal separation of 20 feet; and
    c. AOSSs utilizing TL-3 with disinfection shall be subject  to a horizontal separation of 10 feet.
     [ Part V
  Waivers from Certain Performance Requirements
    12VAC5-613-210. Waivers from certain performance  requirements.
    A. A professional engineer designing a treatment works  pursuant to § 32.1-163.6 of the Code of Virginia may deviate from the design  criteria in subdivisions 10, 11, and 13 of 12VAC5-613-80 and from the  laboratory sampling location specified in 12VAC5-613-100 B through F in  accordance with this part.
    B. Designs pursuant to this part shall at a minimum be  substantiated by:
    1. Documentation from applicable engineering standards,  texts, or other publications;
    2. Relevant peer-reviewed research; or
    3. Regulations or technical guidance from other states or  the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.
    C. The soil treatment area shall be adequately sized to  accommodate the hydraulic and organic capacity of the underlying soil to be  used; 
    D. Sampling and monitoring pursuant to 12VAC5-613-100 B  through F may be accomplished either in situ, immediately beneath the soil  treatment area and within 24 inches of the point of effluent application, or  within the treatment system at a point identified by the design engineer.
    1. The professional engineer shall provide a sampling and  monitoring plan to demonstrate that the design complies with the water quality  standards in 12VAC5-613-90. 
    2. For in situ monitoring, the design engineer shall  specify locations within the soil treatment area's zone of influence (i.e.,  mounding) where samples representative of the effluent quality being achieved  by the treatment works can be collected. Monitoring wells or lysimeters shall  be located at least six inches above any seasonal or permanent water table.  Monitoring may be conducted using sampling wells, lysimeters, or other methods  approved by the department. Suction lysimeters may not be used for fecal coliform  monitoring. 
    3. The design engineer shall identify an intermediate  compliance point (or points) within the treatment system along with  corresponding constituent concentrations (e.g., BOD5, fecal  coliforms) for use if in situ monitoring is not desired or if an in situ sample  cannot be obtained for any reason. The intermediate compliance point and the  corresponding constituent concentrations shall be approved by the department.  The AOSS operation permit shall be conditioned upon compliance with the constituent  concentrations approved pursuant to this subdivision.
    E. The following additional performance requirements shall  apply to in situ monitoring:
    1. BOD5 less than or equal to 5 mg/l.
    2. Fecal coliforms less than or equal to 2.2 col/100 ml.
    F. The frequency of sampling shall be in accordance with  12VAC5-613-100. ] 
        NOTICE: The following  form used in administering the regulation has been filed by the agency. The  form is not being published; however, online users of this issue of the  Virginia Register of Regulations may click on the name of the form to access  it. The form is also available for public inspection from the agency contact or  at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd  Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (12VAC5-613)
    Alternative  Onsite Sewage System Inspection Report (eff. 10/10).
    DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC5-613)
    Field  Book for Describing and Sampling Soils, Version 2.0, September 2002, National  Soil Survey Center, Natural Resources Conservation Service, U.S. Department of  Agriculture.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2164; Filed October 19, 2011, 9:01 a.m. 
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF BEHAVIORAL HEALTH AND DEVELOPMENTAL SERVICES
Final Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 12VAC35-105. Rules and  Regulations for the Licensing of Providers of Mental Health, Mental  Retardation, Substance Abuse, the Individual and Family Developmental  Disabilities Support Waiver, and Residential Brain Injury Services (amending 12VAC35-105-10 through  12VAC35-105-70, 12VAC35-105-90, 12VAC35-105-100, 12VAC35-105-110,  12VAC35-105-115, 12VAC35-105-130 through 12VAC35-105-240, 12VAC35-105-260  through 12VAC35-105-560, 12VAC35-105-580 through 12VAC35-105-620,  12VAC35-105-650, 12VAC35-105-660, 12VAC35-105-680, 12VAC35-105-690,  12VAC35-105-700, 12VAC35-105-710, 12VAC35-105-720, 12VAC35-105-740,  12VAC35-105-750, 12VAC35-105-770, 12VAC35-105-790 through 12VAC35-105-840,  12VAC35-105-870 through 12VAC35-105-910, 12VAC35-105-925, 12VAC35-105-930  through 12VAC35-105-1020, 12VAC35-105-1040, 12VAC35-105-1050, 12VAC35-105-1060,  12VAC35-105-1080, 12VAC35-105-1090, 12VAC35-105-1100, 12VAC35-105-1110,  12VAC35-105-1140 through 12VAC35-105-1250, 12VAC35-105-1270 through  12VAC35-105-1370, 12VAC35-105-1390, 12VAC35-105-1400, 12VAC35-105-1410; adding  12VAC35-105-155, 12VAC35-105-265, 12VAC35-105-325, 12VAC35-105-645,  12VAC35-105-665, 12VAC35-105-675, 12VAC35-105-691, 12VAC35-105-693,  12VAC35-105-1055, 12VAC35-105-1235, 12VAC35-105-1255; repealing  12VAC35-105-630, 12VAC35-105-640, 12VAC35-105-670, 12VAC35-105-730,  12VAC35-105-850, 12VAC35-105-860). 
    Statutory Authority: § 37.2-203 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Effective Date: December 7, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: Les Saltzberg, Director, Office of  Licensing, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, 1220  Bank Street, P.O. Box 1797, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-6885, FAX  (804) 692-0066, or email les.saltzberg@dbhds.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments reflect the recodification of Title 37.1 of  the Code of Virginia to Title 37.2. The regulation is revised to be consistent  with the system's mission and goals of person-centered planning, recovery, and  the empowerment of individuals receiving services. Provisions have been added  to strengthen the ability of the licensing authority to take disciplinary  action or to impose restrictions when providers fail to comply with licensing  standards and deny licenses to applicants under certain conditions, when  appropriate. The licensing requirements and definitions have been updated to  reflect current practice and relevant regulations and laws.
    The most significant changes to the regulations from the  published proposed regulations include (i) modifications to reflect 2010  Medicaid regulatory changes and (ii) clarifications regarding professional  qualifications and provider staffing requirements that are based on the  intensity and nature of the services being provided.
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A  summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be  obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar  of Regulations. 
    CHAPTER 105 
  RULES AND REGULATIONS FOR THE LICENSING OF PROVIDERS OF MENTAL  HEALTH, MENTAL RETARDATION, SUBSTANCE ABUSE, THE INDIVIDUAL AND FAMILY  DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES SUPPORT WAIVER, AND RESIDENTIAL BRAIN INJURY BY  THE DEPARTMENT OF BEHAVIORAL HEALTH AND DEVELOPMENTAL SERVICES
    Part I 
  General Provisions 
    Article 1 
  Authority and Applicability 
    12VAC35-105-10. Authority and applicability. 
    A. Section 37.1-179.1 37.2-404 of the Code of  Virginia authorizes the commissioner to license providers subject to rules and  regulations promulgated adopted by the State Mental Health,  Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services Board of Behavioral  Health and Developmental Services.
    B. No provider shall establish, maintain, conduct [ , ]  or operate any service for persons with mental illness or mental retardation  or persons with substance addiction or abuse without first receiving a  license from the commissioner. 
    Article 2. 
  Definitions 
    12VAC35-105-20. Definitions.
    The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall  have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise: 
    "Abuse" (§ 37.2-100 of the Code of Virginia) means  any act or failure to act by an employee or other person responsible for the  care of an individual receiving services in a facility or program  operated, licensed, or funded by the department, excluding those operated by  the Virginia Department of Corrections, that was performed or was failed to  be performed knowingly, recklessly, or intentionally, and that caused or might  have caused physical or psychological harm, injury, or death to an  individual a person receiving services care or treatment  for mental illness, mental retardation (intellectual disability), or substance  abuse (substance use [ disorder disorders ] ).  Examples of abuse include, but are not limited to, the following acts  such as: 
    1. Rape, sexual assault, or other criminal sexual behavior; 
    2. Assault or battery; 
    3. Use of language that demeans, threatens, intimidates,  or humiliates the person; 
    4. Misuse or misappropriation of the person's assets, goods,  or property; 
    5. Use of excessive force when placing a person in physical or  mechanical restraint; 
    6. Use of physical or mechanical restraints on a person that  is not in compliance with federal and state laws, regulations, and policies,  professional accepted standards of practice, or the person's individual  service individualized services plan; 
    7. Use of more restrictive or intensive services or denial of  services to punish the person or that is not consistent with his individual  service individualized services plan. 
    "Activities of daily living" or "ADLs"  means personal care activities and [ include includes ]  bathing, dressing, transferring, toileting, grooming, hygiene, feeding, and  eating. An individual's degree of independence in performing these activities  is part of determining the appropriate level of care and services. 
    "Admission" means the process of acceptance into a  service that includes orientation to service goals, rules and requirements,  and assignment to appropriate employees as defined by the provider's  policies [ . ] 
    "Authorized representative" means a person  permitted by law or [ the Rules and Regulations to Assure Rights  of Individuals Receiving Services from Providers Licensed, Funded, or Operated  by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services ( ]  12VAC35-115 [ ) ] to authorize the disclosure  of information or consent to treatment and services or [ the ]  participation in human research.
    "Behavior management intervention"  means those principles and methods employed by a provider to help an individual  receiving services [ to ] achieve a positive outcome and to  address [ and correct inappropriate ] challenging  behavior in a constructive and safe manner. Behavior management intervention  principles and methods must be employed in accordance with the individualized service  services plan and written policies and procedures governing service  expectations, treatment goals, safety, and security. 
    "Behavioral treatment" or "positive  behavior support program" means any set of documented procedures that are  an integral part of the interdisciplinary treatment plan and are developed on  the basis of a systemic data collection such as a functional assessment for the  purpose of assisting an individual receiving services to achieve any or all of  the following: (i) improved behavioral functioning and effectiveness; (ii)  alleviation of the symptoms of psychopathology; or (iii) reduction of serious  behaviors. A behavioral treatment program can also be referred to as a  behavioral treatment plan or behavioral support plan. 
    "Behavioral treatment plan," "functional  plan," or "behavioral support plan" means any set of documented  procedures that are an integral part of the individualized services plan and  are developed on the basis of a systematic data collection, such as a  functional assessment, for the purpose of assisting individuals to achieve  [ the following ]:
    1. Improved behavioral functioning and effectiveness;
    2. Alleviation of symptoms of psychopathology; or
    3. Reduction of challenging behaviors.
    "Brain injury" means any injury to the brain that  occurs after birth, but before age 65, that is acquired through traumatic or  nontraumatic insults. Nontraumatic insults may include [ , but are not  limited to, ] anoxia, hypoxia, aneurysm, toxic exposure,  encephalopathy, surgical interventions, tumor, and stroke. Brain injury does  not include hereditary, congenital, or degenerative brain disorders [ , ]  or injuries induced by birth trauma. 
    [ "Brain Injury Waiver" means a Virginia  Medicaid home and community-based waiver for persons with brain injury approved  by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. ] 
    "Care" or "treatment" means a set of  individually planned interventions, training, habilitation, or supports that  help an individual obtain or maintain an optimal level of functioning, reduce  the effects of disability or discomfort, or ameliorate symptoms, undesirable  changes or conditions specific to physical, mental, behavioral, cognitive, or  social functioning the individually planned [ , sound,  and ] therapeutic interventions that conform to current  acceptable professional practice and that are intended to improve or maintain  functioning of an individual receiving services delivered by a provider.
    "Case management service" means assisting  [ services that can include ] assistance to individuals  and their families to access family members in assessing needed  services and supports that are essential to meeting their basic needs  identified in their individualized service plan, which include not only  accessing needed mental health, mental retardation and substance abuse  services, but also any medical, nutritional, social, educational, vocational  and employment, housing, economic assistance, transportation, leisure and  recreational, legal, and advocacy services and supports that the individual  needs to function in a community setting responsive to the person's  individual needs. Case management services include: identifying [ and  reaching out to ] potential users of the service; assessing  needs and planning services; linking the individual to services and supports;  assisting the individual directly to locate, develop, or obtain needed services  and resources; coordinating services with other providers; enhancing community  integration; making collateral contacts; monitoring service delivery; discharge  planning; and advocating for individuals in response to their changing needs.  Maintaining waiting lists for services, case management tracking and  periodically contacting individuals for the purpose of determining the  potential need for services shall be considered screening and referral and not  admission into licensed case management. [ The term "case  "Case ] management service" does not include maintaining  service waiting lists or periodically contacting or tracking individuals to  determine potential service needs. 
    [ "Clubhouse service" means the provision  of recovery-oriented psychosocial rehabilitation services in a nonresidential  setting on a regular basis not less than two hours per day, five days per week,  in which clubhouse members and employees work together in the development and  implementation of structured activities involved in the day-to-day operation of  the clubhouse facilities and in other social and employment opportunities  through skills training, peer support, vocational rehabilitation, and community  resource development. 
    "Clinical experience" means providing direct  services to individuals with mental illness or the provision of direct  geriatric services or special education services. Experience may include  supervised internships, practicums, and field experience. ] 
    "Commissioner" means the Commissioner of the  Department of Mental Behavioral Health, Mental Retardation  and Substance Abuse Services or his authorized agent Developmental  Services.
    "Community gero-psychiatric residential services"  means 24-hour nonacute care in conjunction with treatment provided  to individuals with mental illness, behavioral problems, and concomitant health  problems who are usually age 65 or older in a geriatric setting that  provides is less intensive services than a psychiatric  hospital, but more intensive mental health services than a  nursing home or group home. Individuals with mental illness, behavioral  problems, and concomitant health problems (usually age 65 and older),  appropriately treated in a geriatric setting, are provided Services  include assessment and individualized services planning by an interdisciplinary  services team, intense supervision, psychiatric care, behavioral treatment  planning and [ behavioral behavior ] interventions,  nursing, and other health related services. An Interdisciplinary Services  Team assesses the individual and develops the services plan. 
    "Community intermediate care facility/mental retardation  (ICF/MR)" means a service residential facility licensed  by the Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation, and Substance Abuse  Services in which care is provided in which care is provided to  individuals who have mental retardation (intellectual disability) or a  developmental disability due to brain injury [ who are not in  need of nursing care, but ] who need more intensive training and  supervision than may be available in an assisted living facility or group home.  Such facilities must shall comply with Title XIX of the Social  Security Act standards and federal certification requirements, provide  health or rehabilitative services, and provide active treatment to individuals  receiving services toward the achievement of a more independent level of  functioning or an improved quality of life. 
    "Complaint" means an allegation brought to the  attention of the department that a licensed provider violated of a  violation of these regulations or a provider's policies and procedures related  to these regulations. 
    "Co-occurring disorders" means the presence of  more than one and often several of the following disorders that are identified  independently of one another and are not simply a cluster of symptoms resulting  from a single disorder: mental illness, mental retardation (intellectual  disability), or substance [ abuse (substance ] use  [ disorder disorders) ]; brain injury; or  developmental disability.
    "Co-occurring services" means individually planned  [ , sound, and ] therapeutic treatment that  addresses in an integrated concurrent manner the service needs of individuals  who have co-occurring disorders [ who have an established  diagnosis in one domain such as mental illness, mental retardation (intellectual  disability), substance abuse disorder, developmental disability, or brain  injury and signs or symptoms of an evolving disorder in another domain; or who  present acute signs or symptoms of a co-occurring condition ]. 
    "Consumer service plan" or "CSP" means  that document addressing all needs of recipients of home and community-based  care developmental disability services (IFDDS Waiver), in all life areas.  Supporting documentation developed by service providers is to be incorporated  in the CSP by the support coordinator. Factors to be considered when these  plans are developed may include, but are not limited to, recipient ages, level  of functioning, and preferences. 
    "Corrective action plan" means the provider's  pledged corrective action in response to noncompliances cited areas  of noncompliance documented by the regulatory authority. A corrective  action plan must be completed within a specified time. 
    "Correctional facility" means a facility operated  under the management and control of the Virginia Department of Corrections. 
    [ "Corporal punishment" means punishment  administered through the intentional inflicting of pain or discomfort to the an  individual's body (i) through actions such as, but not limited to, striking  or hitting the individual with any part of the body or with an  implement; (ii) through pinching, pulling or shaking; or (iii) through any  similar action that normally inflicts pain or discomfort to the individual. ]
    "Crisis" means a [ deteriorating or  unstable ] situation [ often developing suddenly or  rapidly ] in which an individual presents an immediate danger to  self or others or is at risk of serious mental or physical health deterioration  that produces [ acute, heightened, ] emotional,  mental, physical, medical, or behavioral distress [ or  challenges ]; or any situation or circumstance in which the  individual perceives or experiences a sudden loss of his ability to use  effective problem-solving and coping skills. 
    "Crisis stabilization" means direct, intensive intervention  to individuals who are experiencing serious psychiatric or behavioral problems,  or both, that jeopardize their current community living situation. This service  shall include temporary intensive services and supports that avert emergency  psychiatric hospitalization or institutional placement or prevent out-of-home  placement. This service shall be designed to stabilize recipients and  strengthen the current living situations so that individuals can be maintained  in the community during and beyond the crisis period nonresidential [ ambulatory ]  or residential direct care and treatment to nonhospitalized individuals  experiencing an acute crisis that may jeopardize their current community living  situation. Crisis stabilization is intended to avert hospitalization or rehospitalization;  provide normative environments with a high assurance of safety and security for  crisis intervention; stabilize individuals in crisis; and mobilize the  resources of the community support system, family members, and others for  ongoing rehabilitation and recovery. 
    "Day support service" means the provision of  individualized planned activities, supports, training, supervision, and  transportation to individuals with mental retardation or related conditions, or  brain injury, to improve functioning or maintain an optimal level of  functioning structured programs of [ treatment, ]  activity [ , ] or training services [ for  adults with an intellectual disability or a developmental disability, ] generally  in clusters of two or more continuous hours per day provided to groups or  individuals in nonresidential [ (center-based) settings or  in the community (noncenter-based) community-based ] settings.  Services may Day support services may provide opportunities for peer  interaction and community integration and are designed to enhance the  following skills: self-care and hygiene, eating, toileting, task  learning, community resource utilization, environmental and behavioral skills,  social skills, medication management, prevocational skills, and  transportation skills. Services provide opportunities for peer  interaction and community integration. Services may be provided in a facility  (center based) or provided out in the community (noncenter based). Services are  provided for two or more consecutive hours per day. The term "day  support service" does not include services in which the primary function  is to provide extended sheltered or competitive employment, supported or  transitional employment-related services, general education educational  services, or general recreational services, or outpatient services  licensed pursuant to this chapter. 
    [ "Day treatment services" means ] the  provision of coordinated, intensive, comprehensive, and multidisciplinary  treatment to individuals through a combination of diagnostic, medical,  psychiatric, case management, psychosocial rehabilitation, prevocational and  educational services. Services are provided for two or more consecutive hours  per day  [ treatment that includes the major diagnostic,  medical, psychiatric, psychosocial, and prevocational and educational treatment  modalities designed for adults with serious mental illnesses or substance use  or co-occurring disorders who require coordinated, intensive, comprehensive,  and multidisciplinary treatment that is not provided in outpatient services.  Partial hospitalization is a type of day treatment service. See definitions of  "therapeutic day treatment services for children and adolescents" and  "partial hospitalization." ]
    "Department" means the Virginia Department of Mental  Health, Mental Retardation Behavioral Health and Substance Abuse  Developmental Services. 
    [ "Developmental disabilities" means autism  or a severe, chronic disability that meets all of the following conditions  identified in 42 CFR 435.1009: 
    1. Attributable to cerebral palsy, epilepsy, or any other  condition, other than mental illness, that is found to be closely related to  mental retardation (intellectual disability) because this condition results in  impairment of general intellectual functioning or adaptive behavior similar to  behavior of individuals with mental retardation (intellectual disability) and  requires treatment or services similar to those required for these individuals;  
    2. Manifested before the individual reaches age 18; 
    3. Likely to continue indefinitely; and 
    4. Results in substantial functional limitations in three  or more of the following areas of major life activity: 
    a. Self-care; 
    b. Understanding and use of language; 
    c. Learning; 
    d. Mobility; 
    e. Self-direction; or 
    f. Capacity for independent living. ] 
    "Discharge" means the process by which the  individual's active involvement with a [ provider service ]  is terminated by the provider [ or, ] individual  [ , or authorized representative ]. 
    "Discharge plan" means the written plan that  establishes the criteria for an individual's discharge from a service and identifies  and coordinates planning for aftercare delivery of any  services needed after discharge. 
    "Dispense" means to deliver a drug to an ultimate  user by or pursuant to the lawful order of a practitioner, including the  prescribing and administering, packaging, labeling or compounding necessary to  prepare the substance for that delivery. (§ 54.1-3400 et seq. of the Code of  Virginia.) 
    "Emergency service" means mental health, mental  retardation or substance abuse services available unscheduled and  sometimes scheduled crisis intervention, stabilization, and referral assistance  provided over the telephone or face-to-face, if indicated, [ available ]  24 hours a day and seven days per week that provide crisis intervention,  stabilization, and referral assistance over the telephone or face-to-face for  individuals seeking services for themselves or others. Emergency services also  may include walk-ins, home visits, jail interventions, pre-admission screenings,  [ and ] preadmission [ and ] other  screening activities designed to stabilize an individual within the  setting most appropriate to the individual's current condition associated  with [ judicial admission to a state hospital, inpatient or  crisis stabilization unit, training center, or other activities associated with ]  the judicial [ admission ] process  [ , such as mandatory outpatient treatment orders ]. 
    "Group home or community residential  service" means a congregate residential service providing 24-hour  supervision in a community-based [ , home-like dwelling home  having eight or fewer residents ]. These services are provided for  individuals needing assistance Services include supervision, supports,  counseling, and training in activities of daily living or for  individuals whose [ service individualized services ]  plan identifies the need for the specific type types of supervision  or counseling services available in this setting. [ Section 15.2-2291 of the Code of Virginia defines group homes for zoning purposes as  having eight or fewer residents. ]
    "Home and noncenter based" means that a service is  provided in the individual's home or other noncenter-based setting. This  includes [ but is not limited to ] noncenter-based day  support, supportive in-home, and intensive in-home services. 
    "IFDDS Waiver" means the Individual and Family  Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver. 
    "Individual" or "individual receiving  services" means a person receiving care or treatment or other  services from a provider that are licensed under this chapter  whether that person is referred to as a patient, consumer, client,  resident, student, individual, recipient, family member, relative, or other  term. When the term is used, the requirement applies to every individual  receiving [ licensed ] services [ of from ]  the provider. 
    "Individualized services plan" or "ISP"  means a comprehensive and regularly updated written plan of action to meet  the needs and preferences of an individual that describes the  individual's needs, the measurable goals and objectives to address those needs,  and strategies to reach the individual's goals. An ISP is  person-centered, empowers the individual, and is designed to meet the needs and  preferences of the individual. The ISP is developed through a partnership  between the individual and the provider and includes an individual's treatment  plan, habilitation plan, person-centered plan, or plan of care [ ,  which are all considered individualized service plans ]. 
    "Initial assessment" means an assessment conducted  prior to or at admission to determine whether the individual meets the  service's admission criteria; what the individual's immediate service, health,  and safety needs are; and whether the provider has the capability and staffing  to provide the needed services.
    "Inpatient psychiatric service" means a intensive  24-hour intensive medical, nursing care, and treatment services  provided for to individuals with mental [ illness illnesses ]  or problems with substance [ abuse (substance ] use  disorders [ ) ] in a hospital as defined in § 32.1-123 of  the Code of Virginia or in a special unit of such a hospital. 
    "Instrumental activities of daily living" or  "IADLs" means meal preparation, housekeeping, laundry, and managing  money. A person's degree of independence in performing these activities is part  of determining appropriate level of care and services. 
    "Intensive Community Treatment (ICT) service" means  a self-contained interdisciplinary team of at least five full-time equivalent  clinical staff, a program assistant, and a full-time psychiatrist that: 
    1. Assumes responsibility for directly providing needed  treatment, rehabilitation, and support services to identified individuals with  severe and persistent mental [ illnesses illness ] especially  those who have severe symptoms that are not effectively remedied by available  treatments or who because of reasons related to their mental illness resist or  avoid involvement with mental health services; 
    2. Minimally refers individuals to outside service providers; 
    3. Provides services on a long-term care basis with continuity  of caregivers over time; 
    4. Delivers 75% or more of the services outside program  offices; and 
    5. Emphasizes outreach, relationship building, and  individualization of services. 
    The individuals to be served by ICT are individuals who  have severe symptoms and impairments not effectively remedied by available  treatments or who, because of reasons related to their mental illness, resist  or avoid involvement with mental health services. 
    "Intensive in-home service" means family  preservation interventions for children and adolescents who have or are at-risk  of serious emotional disturbance, including such individuals who also  have a diagnosis of mental retardation (intellectual disability). Services  are Intensive in-home service is usually time-limited and  is provided typically in the residence of an individual who is at risk of  being moved to out-of-home placement or who is being transitioned back home  from an out-of-home placement. These services include The service  includes 24-hour per day emergency response; crisis treatment; individual  and family counseling; life, parenting, and communication skills; and  case management activities and coordination with other services; and  emergency response. 
    [ "Intensive outpatient service" means  treatment provided in a concentrated manner ] (involving multiple  outpatient visits per week) [ over a period of time for individuals  requiring intensive outpatient stabilization. ] These  services usually [ Intensive outpatient services include  multiple group therapy sessions during the week, individual and family therapy,  individual monitoring, and case management. ] 
    "Investigation" means a detailed inquiry or  systematic examination of the operations of a provider or its services  regarding [ a an alleged ]  violation of  regulations or law. An investigation may be undertaken as a result of a  complaint, an incident report [ , ] or other information that  comes to the attention of the department. 
    "Legally authorized representative" means a  person permitted by law to give informed consent for disclosure of information  and give informed consent to treatment, including medical treatment, and  participation in human research for an individual who lacks the mental capacity  to make these decisions. 
    "Licensed mental health professional (LMHP)" means  a physician, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed professional counselor,  licensed clinical social worker, licensed substance abuse treatment  practitioner, licensed marriage and family [ counselor  therapist ], or certification as a certified psychiatric  clinical nurse specialist. 
    "Location" means a place where services are or  could be provided.
    [ "Managed "Medically managed ]  withdrawal services" means detoxification services to eliminate or  reduce the effects of alcohol or other drugs in the individual's body.
    "Mandatory outpatient treatment order" means an  order issued by [ the a ] court  pursuant to § 37.2-817 [  D ] of the Code of  Virginia. 
    "Medical detoxification" means a service provided  in a hospital or other 24-hour care facility [ , ]  under  the supervision of medical personnel using medication to systematically  eliminate or reduce effects of alcohol or other drugs in the individual's  body. 
    "Medical evaluation" means the process of assessing  an individual's health status that includes a medical history and a physical  examination of an individual conducted by a licensed medical practitioner  operating within the scope of his license. 
    "Medication" means prescribed or over-the-counter  drugs or both. 
    "Medication administration" means the direct  application of medications by injection, inhalation, [ or ]  ingestion [ , ] or any other means to an individual receiving  services by (i) persons legally permitted to administer medications or (ii) the  individual at the direction and in the presence of persons legally permitted to  administer medications. 
    [ "Medication assisted treatment (Opioid  treatment service)" means an intervention strategy that combines  outpatient treatment with the administering or dispensing of synthetic  narcotics, such as methadone or buprenorphine (suboxone), approved by the  federal Food and Drug Administration for the purpose of replacing the use of  and reducing the craving for opioid substances, such as heroin or other  narcotic drugs. ] 
    "Medication error" means that an error has  been made in administering a medication to an individual [ and  includes ] when any of the following occur: (i) the wrong medication  is given to an individual [ , such as ] (ii) the wrong  individual is given the medication, (iii) the wrong dosage is given to an  individual, (iv) medication is given to an individual at the wrong time or not  at all, or (v) the [ proper wrong ] method  is [ not ] used to give the medication to the individual.  
    "Medication storage" means any area where  medications are maintained by the provider, including a locked cabinet, locked  room, or locked box. 
    "Mental Health Community Support Service (MHCSS)"  means the provision of recovery-oriented [ psychosocial rehabilitation ]  services to individuals with long-term, severe [ psychiatric  disabilities mental illness ] including. MHCSS [ include  includes ] skills training and assistance in accessing and effectively  utilizing services and supports that are essential to meeting the needs  identified in their the individualized service services  plan and development of environmental supports necessary to sustain active  community living as independently as possible. MHCSS Services are may  be provided in any setting in which the individual's needs can be  addressed, skills training applied, and recovery experienced. 
    "Mental illness" means a disorder of thought,  mood, emotion, perception, or orientation that significantly impairs judgment,  behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to address basic life  necessities and requires care and treatment for the health, safety, or recovery  of the individual or for the safety of others.
    "Mental retardation (intellectual disability)"  means substantial a disability originating before the age of 18 years  characterized concurrently by (i) significantly subaverage general  intellectual functioning as demonstrated by performance on a standardized  measure of intellectual functioning administered in conformity with accepted  professional practice that is at least two standard deviations below the mean;  and (ii) that originates during the development period and is associated  with impairment significant limitations in adaptive behavior as  expressed in conceptual, social, and practical adaptive skills (§ 37.2-100  of the Code of Virginia). It exists concurrently with related  limitations in two or more of the following applicable adaptive skill areas:  communication, self-care, home living, social skills, community use,  self-direction, health and safety, functional academics, leisure, and work.  [ According to the American Association on Intellectual and  Developmental Disabilities (AAIDD) definition, these impairments should be  assessed in the context of the individual's environment, considering cultural  and linguistic diversity as well as differences in communication and sensory  motor and behavioral factors. Within an individual, limitations often coexist  with strengths. The purpose of describing limitations is to develop a profile  of needed supports. With personalized supports over a sustained period, the  functioning of an individual will improve. In some organizations, the term  "intellectual disability" is used instead of "mental  retardation." ] 
    "Mentally ill" means any person afflicted with  mental disease to such an extent that for his own welfare or the welfare of  others he requires care and treatment, or with mental disorder or functioning  classifiable under the diagnostic criteria from the Diagnostic and Statistical  Manual of Mental Disorders of the American Psychiatric Association, Fourth  Edition, 1994, that affects the well-being or behavior of an individual. 
    "Neglect" means the failure by an individual or provider  responsible for providing services to provide nourishment, treatment, care,  goods, or services necessary to the health, safety or welfare of a person  receiving care or treatment for mental illness, mental retardation or substance  abuse (§ 37.2-100 of the Code of Virginia). This definition of neglect also  applies to individuals receiving in-home support, crisis stabilization, and day  support under the IFDDS or Brain Injury Waiver and individuals receiving  residential brain injury services a program or facility operated,  licensed, or funded by the department, excluding those operated by the Department  of Corrections, responsible for providing services to do so, including  nourishment, treatment, care, goods, or services necessary to the health,  safety, or welfare of a person receiving care or treatment for mental illness,  mental retardation (intellectual disability), or substance abuse [ (substance  use disorders) ]. 
    "Neurobehavioral services" means the assessment,  evaluation, and treatment of cognitive, perceptual, behavioral, and other  impairments caused by brain injury that affect an individual's ability to  function successfully in the community. 
    [ "Opioid treatment service" means an  intervention strategy that combines treatment with the administering or  dispensing of opioid agonist treatment medication. An individual-specific,  physician-ordered dose of medication is administered or dispensed either for  detoxification or maintenance treatment. ] 
    "Outpatient service" means a variety of  treatment interventions generally provided to individuals, groups or  families on an hourly schedule, on an individual, group, or family  basis, and usually in a clinic or similar facility or in another location.  Outpatient services may include, but are not limited to, emergency  services, crisis intervention services, diagnosis and evaluation, intake and  screening, counseling, psychotherapy, behavior management, psychological  testing and assessment, chemotherapy and medication management services, and  jail based services diagnosis and evaluation, screening and intake,  counseling, psychotherapy, behavior management, psychological testing and  assessment, laboratory and other ancillary services, medical services, [ and ]  medication services [ , and, jail and detention-based  services ]. "Outpatient service" specifically includes: 
    1. Services operated by a community services board [ or  a behavioral health authority ] established pursuant to Chapter 5 (§ 37.2-500 et seq.) [ or Chapter 6 (§ 37.2-600 et seq.) ] of  Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia; 
    2. Services [ funded wholly or in part, directly  or indirectly, contracted ] by a community services board or  a behavioral health authority established pursuant to Chapter 5 (§ 37.2-500  et seq.) or Chapter 6 (§ 37.2-600 et seq.) of Title 37.2 of the Code of  Virginia; or 
    3. Services that are owned, operated, or controlled by a corporation  organized pursuant to the provisions of either Chapter 9 (§ 13.1-601 et seq.)  or Chapter 10 (§ 13.1-801 et seq.) of Title 13.1 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Partial hospitalization service"  means [ the provision within a medically supervised setting of day  treatment services that are ] time-limited active treatment  interventions [ , that are ] more intensive than  outpatient services, designed to stabilize and ameliorate acute symptoms, and  serve as an alternative to inpatient hospitalization or to reduce the length of  a hospital stay. Partial hospitalization is focused on individuals [ with  serious mental illness, substance abuse (substance use disorders), or  co-occurring disorders ] at risk of hospitalization or who have  been recently discharged from an inpatient setting. 
    "Person-centered" means focusing on the needs  and preferences of the individual; empowering and supporting the individual in  defining the direction for his life; and promoting self-determination,  community involvement, and recovery.
    [ "Plan of care" means a document  addressing all needs of recipients of home and community-based care  developmental disability services (IFDDS Waiver) in all life areas. It includes  supporting documentation developed by service providers. Factors considered in  developing this plan may include recipient ages, level of functioning, and  preferences. ] 
    "Program of Assertive Community Treatment (PACT)  service" means a self-contained interdisciplinary team of at least 10  full-time equivalent clinical staff, a program assistant, and a full- or  part-time psychiatrist that: 
    1. Assumes responsibility for directly providing needed  treatment, rehabilitation, and support services to identified individuals with  severe and persistent mental illnesses;, [ especially  including ] those who have severe symptoms that are not effectively  remedied by available treatments or who because of reasons related to their  mental illness resist or avoid involvement with mental health services;
    2. Minimally refers individuals to outside service providers; 
    3. Provides services on a long-term care basis with continuity  of caregivers over time; 
    4. Delivers 75% or more of the services outside program  offices; and 
    5. Emphasizes outreach, relationship building, and  individualization of services. 
    The individuals to be served by PACT are individuals who  have severe symptoms and impairments not effectively remedied by available  treatments or who, because of reasons related to their mental illness, resist  or avoid involvement with mental health services. 
    "Provider" means any person, entity [ , ]  or organization, excluding an agency of the federal government by whatever name  or designation, that delivers (i) services to [ persons individuals ]  with mental illness, mental retardation (intellectual disability), or  substance abuse [ (substance use disorders) ];,  (ii) services to [ persons individuals ] who receive  day support, in-home support, or crisis stabilization services funded through  the IFDDS Waiver;, [ (iii) services to persons under the  Brain Injury Waiver; ] or [ (iv) (iii) ]  residential services for [ persons individuals ] with  brain injury. The person, entity [ , ] or organization shall  include a hospital as defined in § 32.1-123 of the Code of Virginia, community  services board, behavioral health authority, private provider, and any other  similar or related person, entity [ , ] or organization. It  shall not include any individual practitioner who holds a license issued by a  health regulatory board of the Department of Health Professions or who is  exempt from licensing pursuant to §§ 54.1-2901, 54.1-3001, 54.1-3501, 54.1-3601  and 54.1-3701 of the Code of Virginia. 
    "Psychosocial rehabilitation [ service ]"  means [ a program of two or more consecutive hours per day provided to  groups of adults in a nonresidential setting. Individuals must demonstrate a  clinical need for the service arising from a condition due to mental,  behavioral, or emotional illness that results in significant functional  impairments in major life activities. This service provides education to teach  the individual about mental illness, substance abuse, and appropriate  medication to avoid complication and relapse and opportunities to learn and use  independent skills and to enhance social and interpersonal skills within a consistent  program structure and environment. ] care or treatment for  individuals with long-term, severe psychiatric disabilities, which is designed  to improve their quality of life by assisting them to assume responsibility  over their lives and to function as actively and independently in society as  possible, through the strengthening of individual skills and the development of  environmental supports necessary to sustain community living [ the  process of providing assessment, medication education, opportunities to learn  and use independent living skills and enhance social and interpersonal skills,  opportunities for vocational and other education, family support and education,  and advocacy in a supportive community environment focusing on normalization.  It emphasizes strengthening the individual's ability to deal with everyday life  rather than focusing on the treatment of pathological conditions. ]  Psychosocial rehabilitation includes skills training, peer support, vocational  rehabilitation, and community resource development oriented toward empowerment,  recovery, and competency. 
    "Qualified Brain Injury Professional (QBIP)"  means a clinician in the health professions who is trained and experienced in  providing brain injury services to individuals who have a brain injury  diagnosis including a (i) physician: a doctor of medicine or osteopathy; (ii)  psychiatrist: a doctor of medicine or osteopathy, specializing in psychiatry  and licensed in Virginia; (iii) psychologist: a person with a master's degree  in psychology from a college or university with at least one year of clinical  experience; (iv) social worker: a person with at least a bachelor's degree in  human services or related field (social work, psychology, psychiatric  rehabilitation, sociology, counseling, vocational rehabilitation, human  services counseling, or other degree deemed equivalent to those described) from  an accredited college, with at least two years of clinical experience providing  direct services to individuals with a diagnosis of brain injury; (v) certified  brain injury specialist; (vi) registered nurse licensed in Virginia with at  least one year of clinical experience; or (vii) any other licensed  rehabilitation professional with one year of clinical experience. 
    "Qualified Developmental Disabilities Professional  (QDDP)" means an individual possessing at least one year of documented  experience working directly with individuals who have related conditions and is  one of the following: a doctor of medicine or osteopathy, a registered nurse,  or an individual holding at least a bachelor's degree in a human service field  including, but not limited to, sociology, social work, special education,  rehabilitation counseling, or psychology. 
    "Qualified Mental Health [ Professional  (QMHP)" Professional-Adult (QMHP-A)" ] means a  clinician in the health professions a person [ working  in a PACT or ICT in the human services field ] who is  trained and experienced in providing psychiatric or mental health services to  individuals who have a [ psychiatric diagnosis mental illness ];  including [ a ] (i) [ physician: ] a  doctor of medicine or osteopathy [ licensed in Virginia ];  (ii) [ psychiatrist: ] a doctor of medicine or osteopathy,  specializing in psychiatry and licensed in Virginia; (iii) [ psychologist: ]  an individual with a master's degree in psychology from [ a an  accredited ] college or university with at least one year of clinical  experience; (iv) [ a ] social worker: an individual with at  least a bachelor's degree in human services or related field (social work, psychology,  psychiatric rehabilitation, sociology, counseling, vocational rehabilitation,  human services counseling or other degree deemed equivalent to those described)  from an accredited college and with at least one year of clinical experience  providing direct services to [ persons individuals ]  with a diagnosis of mental illness; (v) [ Registered a person  with at least a bachelor's degree from an accredited college in an unrelated  field that includes at least 15 semester credits (or equivalent) in a human  services field and who has at least three years of clinical experience; (vi) a  Certified ] Psychiatric Rehabilitation Provider [ (RPRP) (CPRP) ]  registered with the International Association of Psychosocial Rehabilitation  Services (IAPSRS) United States Psychiatric Rehabilitation Association  (USPRA); [ (vi) (vii) a ] registered nurse licensed in the  Commonwealth of Virginia with at least one year of clinical experience; or  [ (vii) (viii) ] any other licensed mental health  professional. 
    [ "Qualified Mental Health Professional-Child  (QMHP-C)" means a person in the human services field who is trained and  experienced in providing psychiatric or mental health services to children who  have a mental illness. To qualify as a QMHP-C, the individual must have the designated  clinical experience and must either (i) be a doctor of medicine or osteopathy  licensed in Virginia; (ii) have a master's degree in psychology from an  accredited college or university with at least one year of clinical experience  with children and adolescents; (iii) have a social work bachelor's or master's  degree from an accredited college or university with at least one year of  documented clinical experience with children or adolescents; (iv) be a  registered nurse with at least one year of clinical experience with children  and adolescents; (v) have at least a bachelor's degree in a human services  field or in special education from an accredited college with at least one year  of clinical experience with children and adolescents, or (vi) be a licensed  mental health professional. 
    "Qualified Mental Health Professional-Eligible  (QMHP-E)" means a person who has: (i) at least a bachelor's degree in a  human service field or special education from an accredited college without one  year of clinical experience or (ii) at least a bachelor's degree in a  nonrelated field and is enrolled in a master's or doctoral clinical program,  taking the equivalent of at least three credit hours per semester and is  employed by a provider that has a triennial license issued by the department  and has a department and DMAS-approved supervision training program.
    "Qualified Mental Retardation Professional  (QMRP)" means a person who possesses at least one year of documented  experience working directly with individuals who have mental retardation  (intellectual disability) or other developmental disabilities and one of the  following credentials: (i) a doctor of medicine or osteopathy licensed in  Virginia, (ii) a registered nurse licensed in Virginia, or (iii) completion of  at least a bachelor's degree in a human services field, including, but not  limited to sociology, social work, special education, rehabilitation  counseling, or psychology. ]
    "Qualified Mental Retardation Professional  (QMRP)" means an individual possessing at least one year of documented  experience working directly with individuals who have mental retardation or  other developmental disabilities and is one of the following: a doctor of  medicine or osteopathy, a registered nurse, or holds at least a bachelor's  degree in a human services field including, but not limited to, sociology,  social work, special education, rehabilitation counseling, and psychology. 
    "Qualified Paraprofessional in Brain Injury  (QPPBI)" means an individual with at least a high school diploma and two years  experience working with individuals with disabilities. 
    "Qualified Paraprofessional in Mental Health  (QPPMH)" means an individual a person who must, at a  minimum, meet one of the following criteria: (i) registered with the [ International  Association of Psychosocial Rehabilitation Services (IAPSRS) United  States Psychiatric Association (USPRA) ] as an Associate Psychiatric  Rehabilitation Provider (APRP); (ii) [ has ] an [ Associate's  Degree associate's degree ] in a related field (social work,  psychology, psychiatric rehabilitation, sociology, counseling, vocational  rehabilitation, human services counseling) and at least one year of experience  providing direct services to [ persons individuals ]  with a diagnosis of mental illness; or (iii) [ has ] a minimum  of 90 hours classroom training and 12 weeks of experience under the direct  personal supervision of a [ QMHP QMHP-Adult ] providing  services to [ persons individuals ] with mental  illness and at least one year of experience (including the 12 weeks of supervised  experience).
    "Recovery" means a journey of healing and  transformation enabling an individual with a mental illness to live a  meaningful life in a community of his choice while striving to achieve his full  potential. For individuals with substance [ abuse (substance ]  use disorders [ ) ], recovery is an incremental  process leading to positive social change and a full return to biological,  psychological, and social functioning. For individuals with mental retardation  (intellectual disability), the concept of recovery does not apply in the sense  that [ persons individuals ] with  mental retardation (intellectual disability) will need supports throughout  their entire [ life lives ] although  these may change over time. With supports, individuals with mental retardation  (intellectual disability) are capable of living lives that are fulfilling and  satisfying and that bring meaning to themselves and others [ that  whom ] they know.
    "Referral" means the process of directing an  applicant or an individual to a provider or service that is designed to provide  the assistance needed. 
    [ "Related conditions" or  "developmental disabilities" means autism or a severe, chronic  disability that meets all of the following conditions identified in 42 CFR  435.1009: 
    1. Attributable to cerebral palsy, epilepsy or any other  condition, other than mental illness, that is found to be closely related to  mental retardation (intellectual disability) because this condition  results in impairment of general intellectual functioning or adaptive behavior  similar to behavior of persons with mental retardation (intellectual  disability) ,and requires treatment or services similar to those required  for these persons; 
    2. Manifested before the person reaches age 22; 
    3. Likely to continue indefinitely; and 
    4. Results in substantial functional limitations in three  or more of the following areas of major life activity: 
    a. Self-care; 
    b. Understanding and use of language; 
    c. Learning; 
    d. Mobility; 
    e. Self-direction; or 
    f. Capacity for independent living.  ] 
    "Residential crisis stabilization service" means (i)  providing short-term, intensive treatment to [ nonhospitalized ]  individuals who require multidisciplinary treatment in order to stabilize acute  psychiatric symptoms and prevent admission to a psychiatric inpatient unit;  (ii) providing normative environments with a high assurance of safety and  security for crisis intervention; and (iii) mobilizing the resources of the  community support system, family members, and others for ongoing rehabilitation  and recovery. 
    "Residential service" means a category of  service providing 24-hour care support in conjunction with  care and treatment or a training program in a setting other than a hospital or  training center. Residential services provide a range of living  arrangements from highly structured and intensively supervised to relatively  independent requiring a modest amount of staff support and monitoring.  Residential services include, but are not limited to: residential  treatment, group or community homes, supervised living, residential  crisis stabilization, community gero-psychiatric residential, community  intermediate care facility-MR, sponsored residential homes, medical and social  detoxification, neurobehavioral services, and substance abuse residential  treatment for women and children. 
    "Residential treatment service" means providing an  intensive and highly structured mental health, substance abuse, or  neurobehavioral service, or services for co-occurring disorders in a  residential setting, other than an inpatient service.
    "Respite care service" means providing for a  short-term, time limited period of care of an individual for the purpose of  providing relief to the individual's family, guardian, or regular care giver.  [ Individuals Persons ] providing respite care are  recruited, trained, and supervised by a licensed provider. These services may  be provided in a variety of settings including residential, day support,  in-home, or [ in ] a sponsored residential home.
    "Restraint" means the use of an approved a  mechanical device, medication, physical intervention, or hands-on  hold, or pharmacologic agent to involuntarily prevent an  individual receiving services from moving his body to engage in a behavior that  places him or others at imminent risk. This term includes restraints  used for behavioral, medical, or protective purposes. There are three  kinds of restraints:
    1. A restraint used for "behavioral" purposes  means the use of an approved physical hold, a psychotropic medication, or a  mechanical device that is used for the purpose of controlling behavior or  involuntarily restricting the freedom of movement of the individual in an  instance in which there is an imminent risk of an individual harming himself or  others, including staff; when nonphysical interventions are not viable; and  safety issues require an immediate response. 
    2. A restraint used for "medical" purposes means  the use of an approved mechanical or physical hold to limit the mobility of the  individual for medical, diagnostic, or surgical purposes and the related  post-procedure care processes, when the use of such a device is not a standard  practice for the individual's condition. 
    3. A restraint used for "protective" purposes  means the use of a mechanical device to compensate for a physical deficit, when  the individual does not have the option to remove the device. The device may  limit an individual's movement and prevent possible harm to the individual  (e.g., bed rail or gerichair) or it may create a passive barrier to protect the  individual (e.g., helmet). 
    4. A "mechanical restraint" means the use of an  approved mechanical device that involuntarily restricts the freedom of movement  or voluntary functioning of a limb or a portion of a person's body as a means  to control his physical activities, and the individual receiving services does  not have the ability to remove the device. 
    5. A "pharmacological restraint" means a drug  that is given involuntarily for the emergency control of behavior when it is  not standard treatment for the individual's medical or psychiatric condition. 
    6. A "physical restraint" (also referred to  "manual hold") means the use of approved physical interventions or  "hands-on" holds to prevent an individual from moving his body to  engage in a behavior that places him or others at risk of physical harm.  Physical restraint does not include the use of "hands-on" approaches  that occur for extremely brief periods of time and never exceed more than a few  seconds duration and are used for the following purposes: (i) to intervene in  or redirect a potentially dangerous encounter in which the individual may  voluntarily move away from the situation or hands-on approach or (ii) to  quickly de-escalate a dangerous situation that could cause harm to the  individual or others. 
    1. Mechanical restraint means the use of a mechanical  device that cannot be removed by the individual to restrict the individual's  freedom of movement or functioning of a limb or portion of an individual's body  when that behavior places him or others at imminent risk.
    2. Pharmacological restraint means the use of a medication  that is administered involuntarily for the emergency control of an individual's  behavior when that individual's behavior places him or others at imminent risk  and the administered medication is not a standard treatment for the  individual's medical or psychiatric condition.
    3. Physical restraint, also referred to as manual hold,  means the use of a physical intervention or hands-on hold to prevent an  individual from moving his body when that individual's behavior places him or  others at imminent risk.
    "Restraints for behavioral purposes" means using  a physical hold, medication, or a mechanical device to control behavior or  involuntary restrict the freedom of movement of an individual in an instance  when all of the following conditions are met: (i) there is an emergency; (ii)  nonphysical interventions are not viable; and (iii) safety issues require an  immediate response.
    "Restraints for medical purposes" means using a  physical hold, medication, or mechanical device to limit the mobility of an  individual for medical, diagnostic, or surgical purposes, such as routine  dental care or radiological procedures and related post-procedure care  processes, when use of the restraint is not the accepted clinical practice for  treating the individual's condition.
    "Restraints for protective purposes" means using  a mechanical device to compensate for a physical or cognitive deficit when the  individual does not have the option to remove the device. The device may limit  an individual's movement, for example, bed rails or a gerichair, and prevent  possible harm to the individual or it may create a passive barrier, such as a  helmet to protect the individual.
    "Restriction" means anything that limits or  prevents an individual from freely exercising his rights and privileges. 
    "Screening" means the preliminary assessment of  an individual's appropriateness for admission or readmission to a service process  or procedure for determining whether the individual meets the minimum criteria  for admission. 
    "Seclusion" means the involuntary placement of an  individual receiving services alone, in a locked room or  secured area from which he is physically prevented from leaving an area  secured by a door that is locked or held shut by a staff person [ , ]  by physically blocking the door, or by any other physical [ or  verbal ] means so that the individual cannot leave it. 
    "Serious injury" means any injury resulting in  bodily [ hurt, ] damage, harm [ , ] or loss  that requires medical attention by a licensed physician, doctor of  osteopathic medicine, physician assistant, or nurse practitioner while the  individual is supervised by or involved in services [ ; or  injuries related to the individual's diagnosis wherever they occur ],  such as [ , ] attempted suicides, medication  overdoses, [ or ] reactions from medications  administered or prescribed by the service [ , and when the  injuries require medical attention by a licensed physician, doctor of  osteopathic medicine, physician assistant, or nurse practitioner ].
    "Service" or "services" means (i) planned  individualized interventions intended to reduce or ameliorate mental illness,  mental retardation (intellectual disability), or substance abuse [ (substance  use disorders) ] through care, treatment, training, habilitation,  or other supports that are delivered by a provider to individuals with mental  illness, mental retardation (intellectual disability), or substance  abuse [ (substance use disorders) ]. Services include  outpatient services, intensive in-home services, opioid treatment services,  inpatient psychiatric hospitalization, community gero-psychiatric residential  services, assertive community treatment and other clinical services; day  support, day treatment, partial hospitalization, psychosocial rehabilitation,  and habilitation services; case management services; and supportive  residential, [ special school, ] halfway house, and other  residential services; (ii) day support, in [ - ] home support,  and crisis stabilization services provided to individuals under the IFDDS  Waiver; and (iii) planned individualized interventions intended to reduce or  ameliorate the effects of brain injury through care, treatment, or other  supports [ provided under the Brain Injury Waiver ] or in  residential services for persons with brain injury. 
    "Shall" means an obligation to act is imposed. 
    "Shall not" means an obligation not to act is  imposed. 
    "Skills training" means systematic skill building  through curriculum-based psychoeducational and cognitive-behavioral  interventions. These interventions break down complex objectives for role  performance into simpler components, including basic cognitive skills such as  attention, to facilitate learning and competency.
    "Social detoxification service" means providing  nonmedical supervised care for the individual's natural process of  withdrawal from [ excessive ] use of alcohol or other drugs. 
    "Sponsored residential home" means a service where  providers arrange for, supervise [ , ] and provide  programmatic, financial, and service support to families or individuals persons  (sponsors) providing care or treatment in their own homes for [ adults  individuals receiving services ]. 
    "State board" means the State Board of  Behavioral Health and Developmental Services. The board has statutory responsibility  for adopting regulations that may be necessary to carry out the provisions of  Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia and other laws of the Commonwealth  administered by the commissioner or the department.
    "State methadone authority" means the  [ Virginia Department of Mental [ Behavioral ]  Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services [ department and  Developmental Services ] that is authorized by the federal Center for  Substance Abuse Treatment to exercise the responsibility and authority for governing  the treatment of opiate addiction with an opioid drug. This is the  agency designated by the Governor to exercise the responsibility and authority  for governing the treatment of opiate addiction with an opioid drug. 
    "Substance abuse [ " or "  ( ] substance use [ disorder) disorders)  ]" means the use, of drugs enumerated in the Virginia  Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) without a compelling medical  reason, of or alcohol and other drugs which that (i)  results in psychological or physiological dependency dependence  or danger to self or others as a function of continued and compulsive  use in such a manner as to induce or (ii) results in mental,  emotional [ , ] or physical impairment and cause that  causes socially dysfunctional or socially disordering behavior; and  (iii) [ , ] because of such substance abuse [ , ]  requires care and treatment for the health of the individual. This care and  treatment may include counseling, rehabilitation, or medical or psychiatric  care. 
    [ "Substance abuse intensive outpatient  service" means treatment provided in a concentrated manner for two or more  consecutive hours per day to groups of individuals in a nonresidential setting.  This service is provided over a period of time for individuals requiring more  intensive services than an outpatient service can provide. Substance abuse  intensive outpatient services include multiple group therapy sessions during  the week, individual and family therapy, individual monitoring, and case  management. ] 
    "Substance abuse residential treatment for women with  children service" means a 24-hour residential service providing an  intensive and highly structured substance abuse service for women with children  who live in the same facility. 
    "Supervised living residential service" means the  provision of significant direct supervision and community support services to  individuals living in apartments or other residential settings. These services  differ from supportive in-home service because the provider assumes  responsibility for management of the physical environment of the residence, and  staff supervision and monitoring are daily and available on a 24-hour basis.  Services are provided based on the needs of the individual in areas such as  food preparation, housekeeping, medication administration, personal hygiene,  [ treatment, counseling, ] and budgeting. 
    "Supportive in-home service" (formerly supportive  residential) means the provision of community support services and other  structured services to assist individuals. Services, to  strengthen individual skills, and  [ to that ]  provide environmental supports necessary to attain and sustain independent  community residential living. They Services include, but are  not limited to, drop-in or friendly-visitor support and counseling to more  intensive support, monitoring, training, in-home support, respite care,  and family support services. Services are based on the needs of the individual  and include training and assistance. These services normally do not involve  overnight care by the provider; however, due to the flexible nature of these  services, overnight care may be provided on an occasional basis.
    [ "Systemic corrective action" means the  provider's plans to address any cited violation of these regulations that will  significantly reduce the probability that the violation will re-occur. ]  
    "Therapeutic day treatment for children and  adolescents" means a treatment program that serves (i) children and  adolescents from birth through age 17 [ and under certain  circumstances up to 21 ] with serious emotional disturbances,  substance use, or co-occurring disorders or (ii) children from birth through  age seven who are at risk of serious emotional disturbance, in order to combine  psychotherapeutic interventions with education and mental health or substance  abuse treatment. Services include: evaluation; medication education and  management; opportunities to learn and use daily living skills and to enhance  social and interpersonal skills; and individual, group, and family counseling.
    "Time out" means assisting an individual to  regain emotional control by removing the individual from his immediate  environment to a different, open location until he is calm or the problem  behavior has subsided the involuntary removal of an individual by a  staff person from a source of reinforcement to a different, open  location for a specified period of time or until the problem behavior has  subsided to discontinue or reduce the frequency of problematic behavior.  
    "Volunteer" means a person who, without financial  remuneration, provides services to individuals on behalf of the provider. 
    Part II 
  Licensing Process 
    12VAC35-105-30. Licenses.
    A. Licenses are issued to providers who offer services to one  or a combination of the following disability groups: persons with individuals  who have mental illness, persons with mental retardation (intellectual  disability), persons with or substance addiction or  [ abuse ] problems; persons with related conditions [ (substance ]  use [ disorder) disorders) ]; have  developmental disability and are served under the IFDDS Waiver,;  or persons with have brain injury and are [ receiving  served in ] residential [ services settings  or under the Brain Injury Waiver ] or in a residential  service. 
    B. Providers shall be licensed to provide specific services  as defined in this chapter or as determined by the commissioner. These services  include: 
    1. Case management; 
    2. Clubhouse; 
    3. 2. Community gero-psychiatric residential; 
    4. 3. Community intermediate care facility-MR; 
    5. Crisis 4. Residential crisis stabilization (residential  and nonresidential); 
    5. Nonresidential crisis stabilization;
    6. Day support; 
    7. Day treatment, includes [ club house  and ] therapeutic day treatment for children and adolescents;  
    8. Group home and community residential; 
    9. Inpatient psychiatric; 
    10. Intensive Community Treatment (ICT); 
    11. Intensive in-home; 
    [ 12. Intensive outpatient;
    13. 12. ] Medical detoxification  Managed withdrawal, including medical detoxification and social  detoxification; 
    [ 14. 13. ] Mental health community  support; 
    [ 15. 14. ]  Opioid treatment  [ /medication assisted treatment ]; 
    [ 16. 15. ] Emergency;
    [ 16. 17. ] Outpatient; 
    [ 17. 18. ] Partial hospitalization; 
    [ 18. 19. ] Program of assertive  community treatment (PACT); 
    [ 19. 20. ] Psychosocial  rehabilitation; 
    [ 20. 21. ] Residential treatment; 
    [ 21. 22. ] Respite care; 
    22. Social detoxification; 
    [ 23. 22. ] Sponsored residential  home; 
    [ 24. 23. ] Substance abuse  residential treatment for women with children; 
    [ 24. Substance abuse intensive outpatient; ]  
    25. Supervised living residential; and 
    26. Supportive in-home. 
    C. A license addendum describes shall describe  the services licensed, the population disabilities of individuals who  may be served, the specific locations where services are to be  provided or organized administered, and the terms, and  conditions for each service offered by a licensed provider. For residential and  inpatient services, the license identifies the number of beds individuals  each residential location may serve at a given time.
    12VAC35-105-40. Application requirements.
    A. All providers that are not currently licensed shall be  required to apply for a license using the application designated by the  commissioner. Providers applying for a license must shall submit:  
    1. A working budget showing projected revenue and expenses for  the first year of operation, including a revenue plan. 
    2. Documentation of working capital to include: 
    a. Funds or a line of credit sufficient to cover at least 90  days of operating expenses if the provider is a corporation, unincorporated  organization or association, a sole proprietor, or a partnership. 
    b. Appropriated revenue if the provider is a state or local  government agency, board or commission. 
    3. Documentation of authority to conduct business in the  Commonwealth of Virginia. 
    4. A disclosure statement identifying the legal names and  dates of any services licensed [ to in Virginia or  other states that ] the applicant [ in other states  or in Virginia holds or has held ], previous  sanctions or negative actions against any license to provide services that the  applicant holds or has held in any other state or in Virginia, [ and ]  the names and dates of any disciplinary actions involving the applicant's  current or past licensed services [ , and any criminal  convictions and conviction dates involving the applicant.owners of the  organization ]. 
    B. Providers must shall submit an application  listing each service to be provided and submit the following items for each  service: 
    1. A staffing plan; 
    2. Employee credentials or and job descriptions  containing all the elements outlined in 12VAC35-105-410 A; 
    3. A service description containing all the elements outlined  in 12VAC35-105-580 C; and
    4. Records management policy containing all the elements  outlined in 12VAC35-105-390 and 12VAC35-105-870 A; and.
    5. A certificate of occupancy, floor plan (with  dimensions), and any required inspections for all service locations. 
    C. The provider shall confirm his intent to renew the  license prior to the expiration date of the license and notify the  department in advance of any changes in service or location. 
    12VAC35-105-50. Issuance of licenses.
    A. The commissioner issues may issue the following  types of licenses [ .: 
    B. 1. ] A conditional license shall be  issued to a new provider or service for services that  demonstrates compliance with administrative and policy regulations but has not  demonstrated compliance with all the regulations. 
    [ 1. a. ] A conditional license shall  not exceed six months. 
    [ 2. b. ] A conditional license may be  renewed if the provider is not able to demonstrate compliance with all the  regulations at the end of the license period. A conditional license and any  renewals shall not exceed 12 successive months for all conditional licenses and  renewals combined. 
    [ 3. c. ] A provider [ or  service ] holding a conditional license [ for a  service ] shall demonstrate progress toward compliance. 
    [ 4. d. ] A provider holding  a conditional license shall not add services or locations during the  conditional period.
    [ 5. e. ] A group home or  community residential service provider shall  [ not serve  more than four individuals in a single location during the conditional period.  be limited to providing services in a single location, serving no more than  four individuals during the conditional period. ] 
    [ C. 2. ] A provisional license may be  issued to a provider or for a service that has demonstrated an  inability to maintain compliance with regulations, has violations of human  rights or licensing regulations that pose a threat to the health or safety of  individuals being served, has multiple violations of human rights or licensing  regulations, or has failed to comply with a previous corrective action plan. 
    [ 1. a. ] A provisional license may be  issued at any time. 
    [ 2. b. ] The term of a provisional  license [ may shall ] not exceed six months. 
    [ 3. c. ] A provisional license may be  renewed; but a provisional license and any renewals shall not exceed 12  successive months for all provisional licenses and renewals combined. 
    [ 4. d. ] A provider [ or  service ] holding a provisional license [ for a service ]  shall demonstrate progress toward compliance. 
    [ 5. e. ] A provider  [ for a service ] holding a provisional license [ for  a service ] shall not increase its services or locations or expand  the capacity of the service.
    5. [ 6. f. ] A  provisional license for a service shall be noted as a stipulation on the  provider license. The stipulation shall also indicate the violations to be  corrected and the expiration date of the provisional license. 
    [ D. 3. ] A full license shall be  issued after a provider or service demonstrates compliance with all the  applicable regulations. 
    [ 1. a. ] A full license may be  granted to a provider for service for up to three years. The length of  the license shall be in the sole discretion of the commissioner. 
    [ 2. b. ] If a full license is granted  for three years, it shall be referred to as a triennial license. A triennial  license shall be granted to providers for services who that  have had no noncompliances or only violations that did not pose a threat to  the health of safety of individuals being served during the previous license  period demonstrated compliance with the regulations. The  commissioner may waive this limitation if the provider has demonstrated  consistent compliance for more than a year or that sufficient provider  oversight is in place issue a triennial license to a provider for  service that had violations during the previous license period if those  violations did not pose a threat to the health or safety of individuals being  served and the provider or service has demonstrated consistent compliance for  more than a year and has a process [ in place ] that  provides sufficient oversight to maintain compliance [ in place ].  
    [ 3. c. ] If a full license is granted  for one year, it shall be referred to as an annual license. 
    [ 4. d. ] The term of the first full  renewal license after the expiration of a conditional or provisional license may  shall not exceed one year. 
    [ E. B. ] The license may bear stipulations.  [ Stipulations ] may be limitations on the provider or may  impose additional requirements. Terms of any such stipulations on licenses  issued to the provider shall be specified on the provider license. [ 1.  Stipulations may be added to the license issued to the provider to  The commissioner may add stipulations on a license issued to a provider that  may ] place limits on the provider or to impose additional  requirements on the provider. [ Terms of any such stipulations  shall be specified on the provider license.
    2. Stipulations may also recognize the expertise of the  provider as defined and approved by the department to serve individuals with  specialized needs. ] 
    [ F. C. ] A license shall not be  transferred or assigned to another provider. A new application shall be made  and a new license issued when there is a change in ownership. 
    [ G. D. ] A license shall not be  issued or renewed unless the provider is affiliated with a local human rights  committee. 
    [ H. E. ] No service may shall  be issued a license with an expiration date that is after the expiration  date of the provider license. 
    [ I. F. ] A license continues shall  continue in effect after the expiration date if the provider has submitted  a renewal application before the date of expiration and there are no grounds to  deny the application. The department shall issue a letter stating the  provider or service license shall be effective for six additional months if the [ renewed ]  license is not issued before the date of expiration.
    12VAC35-105-60. Modification. 
    A. Upon written request by the provider, the license may  be modified during the term of the license with respect to the populations A  provider shall submit a written service modification application at least 45  days in advance of a proposed modification to its license. The modification may  address the characteristics of individuals served (disability, age, [ and  or ] gender), the services offered, the locations where services  are provided, existing stipulations and the, or the  maximum number of beds. Approval of such request shall be at the sole  discretion of the commissioner individuals served under the provider  [ or service ] license. 
    B. A change requiring a modification of the license shall  not be implemented prior to approval by the commissioner. The department may  give approval to implement a modification pending the issuance of the modified  license based on guidelines determined by the commissioner Upon receipt  of the completed service modification application, the commissioner may revise  the provider [ or service ] license. Approval of  such request shall be at the sole discretion of the commissioner. 
    C. A change requiring a modification of the license shall  not be implemented prior to approval by the commissioner. The department may send  the provider a letter approving implementation of the modification pending the  issuance of the modified license.
    12VAC35-105-70. Onsite reviews.
    A. The department shall conduct an announced or unannounced  onsite review of all new providers and services to determine compliance with  this chapter. 
    B. The department shall conduct unannounced onsite reviews of  licensed providers and each of its services service at any time  and at least annually to determine compliance with these regulations. The  annual unannounced onsite reviews shall be focused on preventing specific risks  to individuals, including an evaluation of the physical facilities in which the  services are provided. 
    C. The department may conduct announced and unannounced  onsite reviews at any time as part of the investigations of complaints or  incidents to determine if there is a violation of this chapter. 
    12VAC35-105-90. Compliance.
    A. The department shall determine the level of compliance  with each regulation as follows: 
    1. "Compliance" (C) means the provider is  clearly in compliance with [ acts in accordance with  meets the requirements of ] a regulation. 
    2. "Noncompliance" (NC) means the provider is  clearly in noncompliance with [ violates or ] fails  to meet [ or violates ] part or all of a regulation.  
    3. "Not Determined" (ND) means that the provider  must provide additional information to determine compliance with a regulation. 
    4. "Not Applicable" (NA) means the provider is specifically  exempted from or not required to demonstrate compliance with the provisions  of a regulation at the time. 
    B. The provider, including its employees, contract service  providers, student interns [ , ] and volunteers, shall comply  with all applicable regulations. 
    12VAC35-105-100. Sanctions.
    A. The commissioner may invoke the sanctions enumerated in §  37.1-185.1 § 37.2-419 of the Code of Virginia upon receipt of  information that a licensed provider is: 
    1. In violation of the provisions of §§ 37.1-84.1 and  37.1-179 through 37.1-189.1 §§ 37.2-400 through 37.2-422 of the  Code of Virginia, these regulations, or the provisions of the Rules and  Regulations to Assure the Rights of Individuals Receiving Services from  Providers of Mental Health, Mental Retardation and Substance Abuse Services  Licensed, Funded, or Operated by the Department of [ Mental  Health, Mental Retardation Behavioral Health ] and  [ Substance Abuse Developmental ] Services  (12VAC35-115); and 
    2. Such violation adversely impacts affects the  human rights of individuals, or poses an imminent and substantial threat to the  health, safety or welfare of individuals. 
    The commissioner shall notify the provider in writing of the  specific violations found [ , ] and of his intention to  convene an informal conference pursuant to § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia  at which the presiding officer will be asked to recommend issuance of a special  order. 
    B. The sanctions contained in the special order shall remain  in effect during the pendency of any appeal of the special order. 
    12VAC35-105-110. Denial, revocation or suspension of a license.
    A. An application for a license or license renewal may be  denied and a full, conditional, or provisional license may be revoked or  suspended for one or more of the following reasons: 
    1. The provider [ or applicant ] has violated  any provisions of Chapter 8 (§ 37.1-179 et seq.) of Title 37.1 Article  2 (§ 37.2-403 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 37.2 of the Code of  Virginia or these licensing regulations; 
    2. The provider's [ or applicant's ] conduct  or practices are detrimental to the welfare of any individual receiving  services or in violation of human rights identified in § 37.1-84.1 § 37.2-400  of the Code of Virginia or the human rights regulations (12VAC35-115); 
    3. The provider [ or applicant ]  permits, aids, or abets the commission of an illegal act; 
    4. The provider [ or applicant ] fails  or refuses to submit reports or to make records available as requested by the  department; 
    5. The provider [ or applicant ] refuses  to admit a representative of the department [ who displays a  state-issued photo identification ] to the premises; or 
    6. The provider [ or applicant ] fails to  submit or implement an adequate corrective action plan.; or
    7. The provider [ or applicant ] submits [ substantively  any ] misleading or false information to the department. 
    B. A provider shall be notified in writing of the  department's intent to deny, revoke [ , ] or suspend a  License; the reasons for the action; the right to appeal; and the appeal  process. The provider has the right to appeal the department's decision under  the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the  Code of Virginia). 
    12VAC35-105-115. Summary suspension. 
    A. In conjunction with any proceeding for revocation, denial  [ , ] or other action, when conditions or practices exist that  pose an immediate and substantial threat to the health, safety, and welfare of  the residents individuals living there, the commissioner may  issue an order of summary suspension of the license to operate any group home  or residential facility service for adults when he believes the  operation of the home or facility residential service should be  suspended during the pendency of such proceeding. 
    B. Prior to the issuance of an order of summary suspension,  the department shall contact the Executive Secretary of the Supreme Court of  Virginia to obtain the name of a hearing officer. The department shall schedule  the time, date, and location of the administrative hearing with the hearing  officer.
    C. The order of summary suspension shall take effect upon its  issuance. It shall be delivered by personal service and certified mail, return  receipt requested, to the address of record of the licensee as soon as  practicable. The order shall set forth:
    1. The time, date, and location of the hearing; 
    2. The procedures for the hearing; 
    3. The hearing and appeal rights; and
    4. Facts and evidence that formed the basis for the order of  summary suspension.
    D. The hearing shall take place within three business days of  the issuance of the order of summary suspension.
    E. The department shall have the burden of proving in any  summary suspension hearing that it had reasonable grounds to require the  licensee to cease operations during the pendency of the concurrent revocation,  denial, or other proceeding. 
    F. The administrative hearing officer shall provide written  findings and conclusions together with a recommendation as to whether the  license should be summarily suspended [ , ] to the  commissioner within five business days of the hearing.
    G. The commissioner shall issue a final order of summary  suspension or make a determination that the summary suspension is not warranted  based on the facts presented and the recommendation of the hearing officer  within seven business days of receiving the recommendation of the hearing officer.
    H. The commissioner shall issue and serve on the group home  or residential facility for adults or its designee by personal service or by  certified mail, return receipt requested either:
    1. A final order of summary suspension including (i) the basis  for accepting or rejecting the hearing officer's recommendation, and (ii)  notice that the [ licensee of the ] group home or residential  [ facility service ] may appeal the commissioner's  decision to the appropriate circuit court no later than 10 days following  issuance of the order; or
    2. Notification that the summary suspension is not warranted  by the facts and circumstances presented and that the order of summary  suspension is rescinded.
    I. The licensee may appeal the commissioner's decision on the  summary suspension to the appropriate circuit court no more than 10 days after  issuance of the final order.
    J. The outcome of concurrent revocation, denial, and other  proceedings shall not be affected by the outcome of any hearing pertaining to  the appropriateness of the order of summary suspension.
    K. At the time of the issuance of the order of summary  suspension, the department shall contact the appropriate agencies to inform  them of the action and the need to develop relocation plans for [ residents  the individuals receiving residential or center-based services ],  and ensure that any other legal guardians or responsible family members are  informed of the pending action. 
    12VAC35-105-130. Confidentiality of records. 
    Records that are confidential under federal or state law  shall be maintained as confidential by the department and shall not be further  disclosed except as required or permitted by law. 
    Part III 
  Administrative Services 
    Article 1 
  Management and Administration 
    12VAC35-105-140. License availability. 
    The current license or a copy shall be prominently displayed  for public inspection in all service locations. 
    12VAC35-105-150. Compliance with applicable laws, regulations  and policies.
    The provider including its employees, contractors, students,  and volunteers shall comply with: 
    1. These regulations; 
    2. Terms The terms and stipulations of the  license; 
    3. All applicable federal, state [ , ]   or local laws [ , ] and regulations including [ but  not limited to ]: 
    a. Laws regarding employment practices including the  Equal Employment Opportunity Act; 
    b. The Americans with Disabilities Act and the  Virginians with Disabilities Act; 
    c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration regulations; 
    d. Virginia Department of Health regulations; 
    e. Laws or and regulations of the Department of  Health Professions; 
    [ f. Virginia Department of Medical Assistance  Services regulations;
    f. g. ] Uniform Statewide Building Code;  and 
    [ g. h. ] Uniform Statewide Fire  Prevention Code. 
    4. Section 37.1-84.1 37.2-400 of the Code of  Virginia on the human rights of individuals receiving services and  related human rights regulations adopted by the state board; and 
    5. Section 37.1-197.1 of the Code of Virginia regarding  prescreening and predischarge planning. Providers responsible for complying  with § 37.1-197.1 are required to develop and implement policies and procedures  that include: 
    a. Identification of employees or services responsible for  prescreening and predischarge planning services for all disability groups; and 
    b. Completion of predischarge plans prior to an  individual's discharge in consultation with the state facility which: 
    (1) Involve the individual or his legally authorized  representative and reflect the individual's preferences to the greatest extent  possible consistent with the individual's needs. 
    (2) Include the mental health, mental retardation,  substance abuse, social, educational, medical, employment, housing, legal,  advocacy, transportation, and other services that the individual will need upon  discharge into the community and identify the public or private agencies or  persons that have agreed to provide them. 
    6. 5.The provider's own policies. All  required policies shall be in writing. 
    12VAC35-105-155. Preadmission screening, [ predischarge  discharge ] planning, involuntary commitment, and mandatory  outpatient treatment orders.
    A. Providers responsible for complying with § [ § 37.2-60  and ] 37.2-505 of the Code of Virginia regarding community service  board [ and behavioral health authority ] preadmission screening  and [ predischarge discharge ] planning  shall [ establish and ] implement policies and  procedures that include:
    1. Identification, qualification, training, and  responsibilities of employees responsible for [ prescreening  preadmission screening ] and [ predischarge  discharge ] planning.
    2. Completion of [ predischarge plans  a discharge plan ] prior to an individual's discharge in  consultation with the state facility that:
    a. [ Involve Involves ]  the individual or his authorized representative and [ reflect  reflects ] the individual's preferences to the greatest extent  possible consistent with the individual's needs.
    b. [ Include Involves ]  mental health, mental retardation (intellectual disability), substance  abuse, social, educational, medical, employment, housing, legal, advocacy,  transportation, and other services that the individual will need upon discharge  into the community and [ identify identifies ]  the public or private agencies or persons that have agreed to provide them.
    B. Any provider who serves individuals through an  emergency custody order, temporary detention order, or mandatory outpatient  treatment order shall [ develop and ] implement  policies and procedures to comply with §§ 37.2-800 through 37.2-817 of the  Code of Virginia. 
    12VAC35-105-160. Reviews by the department; requests for  information.
    A. The provider shall permit representatives from the  department to conduct reviews to: 
    1. Verify application information; 
    2. Assure compliance with this chapter; and 
    3. Investigate complaints. 
    B. The provider shall cooperate fully with inspections and  provide all information requested to assist representatives from the department  who conduct inspections. 
    C. The provider shall collect, maintain, and report or  make available [ to the department ] the following  information [ to the department ]: 
    1. Each allegation of abuse or neglect shall be reported  to the assigned human rights advocate and the individual's authorized  representative within 24 hours from the receipt of the initial allegation and  the investigating authority shall provide a written report of the results of  the investigation of abuse or neglect to the provider and the human rights  advocate within 10 working days, unless an exemption has been granted, from the  date the investigation began. The report shall include but not be limited to  the following: whether abuse, neglect or exploitation occurred; type of abuse;  and whether the act resulted in physical or psychological injury. Reported  information shall include the type of abuse, neglect, or exploitation that is  alleged and whether there is physical or psychological injury to the  individual.
    2. Deaths and Each instance of death or serious injuries  injury shall be reported in writing to the [ department department's  assigned licensing specialist ] within 24 hours of discovery and by  phone to the legally individual's authorized representative  [ as applicable ] within 24 hours to. Reported  information shall include [ , but not be limited to, ]  the following: the date and place of the individual's death or serious  injury; the nature of the individual's injuries and the  treatment required received; and the circumstances of the  death or serious injury. Deaths that occur in a hospital as a result of  illness or injury occurring when the individual was in a licensed service shall  be reported.
    3. Each instance of seclusion or restraint that does not  comply with the human rights regulations or approved variances [ , ]  or that results in injury to an individual [ , ] shall be  reported to the legally individual's authorized representative  and the assigned human rights advocate within 24 hours. 
    [ 4. Reports and other such information  required by the department to establish compliance with these regulations or  any other local, state, and federal statutues or regulations.
    D. The provider shall submit, or make available, reports and  information that the department requires to establish compliance with these  regulations and applicable statutes. 
    E. D. ] Records that are confidential  under federal or state law shall be maintained as confidential by the  department and shall not be further disclosed except as [ required or  permitted ] by law; however, there shall be no right of access to  communications that are privileged pursuant to § 8.01-581.17 of the Code of  Virginia. 
    [ F. If E. ] Additional  information requested by the department if compliance with a regulation  cannot be determined, the department shall issue a licensing report  requesting additional information. Additional information must shall  be submitted within 10 business days of the issuance of the licensing report requesting  additional information. Extensions may be granted by the department when  requested prior to the due date, but extensions shall not exceed an additional  10 business days.
    [ F. G. ] Applicants and  providers shall not submit [ substantively any ]  misleading or false information to the department.
    12VAC35-105-170. Corrective action plan.
    A. If there is noncompliance with any of these regulations  applicable regulation during an initial or ongoing review or  investigation, the department shall issue a licensing report describing the  noncompliance and requesting the provider to submit a corrective action plan for  each violation cited. 
    B. The provider shall submit to the department and implement  a written corrective action plan for each regulation with which it is  found to be in noncompliance with these regulations identified on violation  as identified in the licensing report. 
    C. The corrective action plan shall include a: 
    1. Description of the [ systemic ] corrective  actions to be taken that will minimize the possibility that the violation  will occur again; 
    2. Date of completion for each corrective action; and 
    3. Signature of the person responsible for the service. 
    D. The provider shall submit a corrective action plans  plan to the department within 15 business days of the issuance of the  licensing report. Extensions may be granted by the department when requested  prior to the due date, but extensions shall not exceed an additional 10  business days. An immediate corrective action plan shall be required if  the department determines that the violations pose a danger to individuals receiving  the service. 
    E. A corrective action plan shall be approved by the  department Upon receipt of the corrective action plan, the department  shall review the plan and [ shall ] determine  whether the plan is approved or not approved. The provider has an  additional 10 business days to submit a revised corrective action plan after  receiving a notice that the plan submitted has not been approved by the  department. 
    F. When the provider disagrees with a citation of a  violation, the provider shall discuss this disagreement with the licensing  specialist initially. If the disagreement is not resolved, the provider may ask  for a meeting with the licensing specialist's supervisor [ , in  consultation with the director of licensing, ] to challenge a  finding of noncompliance. The determination of the [ supervisor  director ] is final. 
    G. The provider shall monitor implementation of  [ pledged approved ] corrective action and include a  plan for [ such ] monitoring in its quality assurance  activities specified in 12VAC30-105-620. 
    12VAC35-105-180. Notification of changes. 
    A. The provider shall notify the department in writing prior  to implementing changes that affect: 
    1. Organizational or administrative structure, including the  name of the provider; 
    2. Geographic location of the provider or its services; 
    3. Service description as defined in these regulations; 
    4. Significant changes in qualifications required for a  position or qualifications of an individual occupying a position to the  staffing plan, position descriptions, or employee or contractor qualifications;  or 
    5. Bed capacity for services providing residential or  inpatient services. 
    B. The provider shall not implement the specified changes  without the prior approval of the department. 
    C. The provider shall provide any documentation necessary for  the department to determine continued compliance with these regulations after  any of these specified changes are implemented. 
    D. A provider shall notify the department in writing of its  intent to discontinue services 30 days prior to the cessation of services. The  provider will shall continue to provide all services that are  identified in every each individual's Individualized Services  Plan (ISP) ISP after it has given official notice of its intent to  cease operations and until each individual is appropriately discharged. The  provider will shall further continue to maintain substantial  compliance with all applicable regulations as it discontinues its services. 
    E. All individuals receiving services [ or  and ] their authorized representatives shall be notified of the  provider's intent to cease services in writing 30 days prior to the cessation  of services. This written notification will shall be documented  in each individual's ISP. Also, refer to [ as outlined in  Records Management, Part V (12VAC35-105-870 et seq.) of this chapter ].  
    12VAC35-105-190. Operating authority, governing body and  organizational structure.
    A. The provider shall provide the following evidence  of its operating authority.:
    1. A public organization Public organizations  shall provide documents describing the administrative framework of the  governmental department of which it is a component or describing the legal  and administrative framework under which it was established and operates. 
    2. All private organizations except sole proprietorships shall  provide a certification certificate from the State Corporation  Commission. 
    B. The provider's provider shall provide an  organizational chart that clearly identifies its governing body and  organizational structure shall be clearly identified by providing an  organizational chart. 
    C. The provider shall document the role and actions of the  governing body, which shall be consistent with its operating authority. The  provider shall identify its operating elements and services, the internal  relationship among these elements and services, and the its  management or leadership structure. 
    12VAC35-105-210. Fiscal accountability.
    A. The provider shall document financial resources to  operate its services or facilities or shall have a line of credit sufficient to  cover 90 days of operating expense, based on a working budget showing projected  revenue and expenses arrangements or a line of credit that are adequate  to ensure maintenance of ongoing operations for at least 90 days on an ongoing  basis. The amount needed shall be based on a working budget showing  projected revenue and expenses. 
    B. At the end of each fiscal year, the provider shall  prepare, according to generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) or those  standards promulgated by the Governmental Accounting Standards Board (GASB) and  the State Auditor of Public Accounts: 
    1. An operating statement showing revenue and expenses for the  fiscal year just ended. 
    2. A balance sheet showing assets and liabilities for the  fiscal year just ended. At least once every three years, all financial  records shall be audited by The department may require an audit of all  financial records by an independent Certified Public Accountant (CPA) or audited  as otherwise provided by law or regulation. 
    3. Providers operating as a part of a local government  agency are excluded from providing not required to provide a  balance sheet; however, they shall provide a financial statement. 
    C. The provider shall have written internal controls to  minimize the risk of theft or embezzlement of provider funds. 
    D. The provider shall identify in writing the title and  qualifications of the person who has the authority and responsibility for the  fiscal management of its services. At a minimum, the person who has the  authority and responsibility for the fiscal management of the  provider shall be bonded or otherwise indemnified. 
    [ E. The provider shall notify the department in  writing when its line of credit or other financial arrangement has been  cancelled or significantly reduced at any time during the licensing period. ]  
    12VAC35-105-220. Indemnity coverage.
    To protect the interests of individuals, employees, and the  provider from risks of liability, there shall be indemnity coverage to include:  
    1. General liability; 
    2. Professional liability; 
    3. Vehicular Commercial vehicular liability; and  
    4. Property damage. 
    12VAC35-105-230. Written fee schedule. 
    If the provider charges for services, the written schedule of  rates and charges shall be available to the individual or authorized  representative upon request. 
    12VAC35-105-240. Policy on funds of individuals receiving  services. 
    A. The provider shall [ establish and ]  implement a written policy for handling funds of individuals receiving  services, including providing for separate accounting of individual funds. 
    B. The provider shall have documented financial controls to  minimize the risk of theft or embezzlement of funds of individuals receiving  services. 
    C. The provider shall purchase a surety bond or otherwise  provide assurance for the security of all funds of individuals receiving  services deposited with the provider. 
    Article 2 
  Physical Environment 
    12VAC35-105-260. Building inspection and classification. 
    All locations shall be inspected and approved as required by  the appropriate building regulatory entity. Approval Documentation of  approval shall be a Certificate of Use and Occupancy indicating the  building is classified for its proposed licensed purpose. The provider shall  submit a copy of the Certificate of Use and Occupancy to the department for new  locations. This section does not apply to correctional facilities or home  and noncenter-based services. Sponsored residential services service  providers shall certify compliance of that their sponsored  residential homes comply with this regulation. 
    12VAC35-105-265. Floor plans.
    All services shall submit floor plans with room dimensions  to the department for new locations. This does not apply to home or  noncenter-based services.
    12VAC35-105-270. Building modifications. 
    A. Building The provider shall submit building  plans and specifications for new any planned construction of  locations, change in at a new location, changes in the use of  existing locations, and any structural modifications or additions to existing  locations where services are provided shall be submitted for review by  the department to determine compliance with the licensing regulations. This  section does not apply to correctional facilities, jails, or home and  noncenter-based services. 
    B. An The provider shall submit an interim plan  to the department addressing safety and continued service delivery shall  be required for new if new construction or for conversion, involving  structural modifications or additions to existing buildings is planned. 
    12VAC35-105-280. Physical environment.
    A. The physical environment, design, structure,  furnishings, and lighting shall be appropriate to the population individuals  served and the services provided and.
    B. The physical environment shall be accessible to  individuals with physical and sensory disabilities [ , if applicable ].  
    B. C. The physical environment and furnishings  shall be clean, dry, free of foul odors, safe, and well-maintained. 
    C. The physical environment, design, structure,  furnishing, and lighting shall be appropriate to the population served and the  services provided. 
    D. Floor surfaces and floor covering coverings  shall promote mobility in areas used by individuals and shall promote  maintenance of sanitary conditions. 
    E. The physical environment shall be well ventilated.  Temperatures shall be maintained between 65°F and 80°F [ in all areas used  by individuals ]. 
    F. Adequate hot and cold running water of a safe and  appropriate temperature shall be available. Hot water accessible to individuals  being served shall be maintained within a range of [ 100-120°F 100-110°F ].  If temperatures cannot be maintained within the specified range, the provider  shall make provisions for protecting individuals from injury due to scalding. 
    G. Lighting shall be sufficient for the activities being  performed and all areas within buildings and outside entrances and parking  areas shall be lighted for safety. 
    H. Recycling, composting, and garbage disposal shall not  create a nuisance, permit transmission of disease, or create a breeding place  for insects or rodents. 
    I. If smoking is permitted, the provider shall make  provisions for alternate smoking areas that are separate from the  service environment. This [ regulation subsection ]  does not apply to home-based services. 
    J. For all program areas added after September 19, 2002,  minimum room height shall be 7-1/2 feet. 
    K. This [ section regulation ] does  not apply to home and noncenter-based services. Sponsored residential services  shall certify compliance of sponsored residential homes with this [ regulation  section ]. 
    12VAC35-105-290. Food service inspections. 
    Any location where the provider is responsible for preparing  or serving food shall request inspection and [ shall ] obtain  approval by state or local health authorities regarding food service and  general sanitation at the time of the original application and annually  thereafter. Documentation of the most recent three inspections and approval  shall be kept on file. This [ regulation section  ] does not apply to sponsored residential services or to group homes or  community residential homes. 
    12VAC35-105-300. Sewer and water inspections.
    A. A location Service locations shall either  be on a public water and sewage systems system or the  location's on a nonpublic water and sewage system shall be  inspected and approved by state or local health authorities at the time of its  original application and annually thereafter. Documentation of the three most  recent inspections and approval shall be kept on file. Sponsored Prior  to a location being licensed, the provider shall obtain the report from the  building inspector pertaining to the septic system and its capacity. Nonpublic  water and sewer systems shall be maintained in good working order and in  compliance with local and state laws. Providers of sponsored residential  home services shall certify compliance of that their sponsored  residential homes comply with this [ regulation section  ]. 
    B. A location that is Service locations that are  not on a public water system shall have a water sample tested prior to being  licensed and annually by an accredited, independent laboratory for the  absence of chloroform. The water sample shall also be tested for lead or  nitrates if recommended by the local health department. Documentation of the  three most recent inspections shall be kept on file. 
    12VAC35-105-310. Weapons.
    The provider or facility shall have and implement a  written policy governing the use and possession of firearms, pellet guns, air  rifles [ , ]  and other weapons on the facility's  premises [ , including parking areas, ] of the  provider's services. The policy shall provide that no firearms, pellet  guns, air rifles [ , ]  and other weapons on the  facility's premises shall be permitted unless the weapons are: 
    1. In the possession of licensed security or sworn  law-enforcement personnel; 
    2. Kept securely under lock and key; or 
    3. Used under the supervision of a responsible adult in  accordance with policies and procedures developed by the facility provider  for the weapons' lawful and safe use. 
    12VAC35-105-320. Fire inspections. 
    The provider shall document at the time of its original  application and annually thereafter that buildings and equipment in residential  service locations with more than eight beds serving more than  eight individuals are maintained in accordance with the Virginia Statewide  Fire Prevention Code (13VAC5-51). This section does not apply to correctional  facilities or home and noncenter-based or sponsored residential home services. 
    12VAC35-105-325. Community liaison.
    Each residential service shall designate a staff person as  a community liaison responsible for facilitating cooperative relationships with  neighbors, local law-enforcement personnel, local government officials, and the  community at large. 
    Article 3 
  Physical Environment of Residential/Inpatient Service Locations 
    12VAC35-105-330. Beds. 
    A. The provider shall not operate more beds than the number  for which its service location or locations are licensed. 
    B. A community intermediate care facility for the mentally  retarded ICF/MR may not have more than 20 12 beds at  any one location. This applies to new applications for services after  September 19, 2002 and not to existing services or locations licensed  prior to [ the effective date of these regulations  December 7, 2011 ]. 
    12VAC35-105-340. Bedrooms. 
    A. Size of bedrooms Bedrooms shall meet the following  square footage requirements.:
    1. Single occupancy bedrooms shall have no less than 80 square  feet of floor space. 
    2. Multiple occupancy bedrooms shall have no less than 60  square feet of floor space per individual. 
    3. This subsection does not apply to community  gero-psychiatric residential services. 
    B. No more than four individuals shall share a bedroom,  except in group homes where no more than two individuals shall share a room.  This does not apply to group home locations licensed prior to [ the  effective date of these regulations December 7, 2011 ].
    C. Each individual shall be assigned have  adequate [ private ] storage space accessible to the bedroom  for clothing and personal belongings. 
    D. This section does not apply to correctional facilities and  jails. Sponsored Providers of sponsored residential home services  shall certify compliance of that their sponsored residential  homes comply with this [ regulation section ]. 
    12VAC35-105-350. Condition of beds. 
    Beds shall be clean, comfortable, and equipped with a  mattress, pillow, blankets, and bed linens. When a bed is soiled, providers  shall assist individuals with bathing as needed, and provide clean clothing and  bed linen. Sponsored Providers of sponsored residential home  services shall certify compliance of that their sponsored  residential homes comply with this [ regulation section ].  
    12VAC35-105-360. Privacy. 
    A. Bedroom and bathroom windows and doors shall provide  privacy. 
    B. Bathrooms [ not ] intended for [ individual ]  use [ by more than one individual at the same time ] shall  provide privacy for showers and toilets. 
    C. No required path of travel to the bathroom shall be  through another bedroom. 
    D. This section does not apply to correctional facilities and  jails. Sponsored Providers of sponsored residential home services  shall certify compliance of that their sponsored residential  homes comply with this [ regulation section ]. 
    12VAC35-105-370. Ratios of toilets, basins [ , ]  and showers or baths. 
    For all residential and inpatient locations established,  constructed [ , ] or reconstructed after January 13, 1995,  there shall be at least one toilet, one hand basin, and shower or bath for  every four individuals. Sponsored This section does not apply to  correctional facilities or jails. Providers of sponsored residential home  services shall certify compliance of that their sponsored  residential homes comply with this [ regulation section ].  This section does not apply to correctional facilities or jails. 
    12VAC35-105-380. Lighting. 
    Each service location shall have adequate lighting in  halls and bathrooms at night. Sponsored Providers of sponsored  residential home services shall certify compliance of that their  sponsored residential homes comply with this [ regulation section  ]. 
    Article 4 
  Human Resources 
    12VAC35-105-390. Confidentiality and security of personnel  records. 
    A. The provider shall maintain an organized system to manage  and protect the confidentiality of personnel files and records. 
    B. Physical and data security controls shall exist for electronic  records personnel records maintained in electronic databases. 
    C. Providers shall comply with requirements of the American  Americans with Disabilities Act and the Virginians with Disabilities Act  regarding retention of employee health-related information in a file separate  from personnel files. 
    12VAC35-105-400. Criminal registry checks. 
    A. The provider shall develop a policy for the criminal  history and registry checks for all employees, contractors, students and  volunteers. The policy shall contain, at a minimum, a disclosure statement  concerning whether the person has ever been convicted of or is the subject of  pending charges for any offense Providers shall comply with the  background check requirements for direct care positions outlined in [ §  §§ ] 37.2-416 [ , 37.2-506, and 37.2-607 ]  of the Code of Virginia for individuals hired after July 1, 1999. 
    B. After July 1, 1999, providers shall comply with the  background check requirements for direct care positions outlined in §  37.1-183.3 of the Code of Virginia Prior to a new employee beginning his  duties, the provider shall obtain the employee's written consent and personal  information necessary to obtain a search of the registry of founded complaints  of child abuse and neglect maintained by the Virginia Department of Social  Services [ . ]  
    C. The provider shall submit all information required by  the department to complete the background checks for all employees, and for  contractors, students and volunteers, if required by the provider's policy develop  a [ written ] policy for criminal history and  registry checks for all employees, contractors, students, and volunteers. The  policy shall require at a minimum a disclosure statement from the employee,  contractor, student, or volunteer stating whether the person has ever been  convicted of or is the subject of pending charges for any offense and shall  address what actions the provider will take should it be discovered that an  employee, student, contractor, or volunteer has a founded case of abuse or neglect  or both, or a conviction or pending criminal charge. 
    D. Prior to a new employee beginning his duties, the  provider shall obtain the employee's written consent and personal information  necessary to obtain a search of the registry of founded complaints of child  abuse and neglect maintained by the Department of Social Services. Results of  the search of the registry shall be maintained in the employee's personnel  record The provider shall submit all information required by the  department to complete the background and registry checks for all employees and  for contractors, students, and volunteers if required by the provider's policy.  
    E. The provider shall maintain the following documentation: 
    1. The disclosure statement; and 
    2. Documentation that the provider submitted all information  required by the department to complete the background and registry checks, and  memoranda from the department transmitting the results to the provider, and  the results from the Child Protective Registry check. 
    12VAC35-105-410. Job description. 
    A. Each employee or contractor shall have a written job  description that includes: 
    1. Job title; 
    2. Duties and responsibilities required of the position; 
    3. Job title of the immediate supervisor; and 
    4. Minimum knowledge, skills, and abilities, experience or  professional qualifications required for entry level as specified in  12VAC35-105-420. 
    B. Employees or contractors shall have access to their  current job description. There The provider shall be a have  written documentation of the mechanism for advising used to  advise employees or contractors of changes to their job responsibilities. 
    12VAC35-105-420. Qualifications of employees or contractors. 
    A. Any person who assumes the responsibilities of any employee  position as an employee or a contractor shall meet the minimum  qualifications of that position as determined by job descriptions. 
    B. Employees and contractors shall comply, as required, with  the regulations of the Department of Health Professions. The provider shall  design and, implement a mechanism, and document the  process used to verify professional credentials. 
    C. Service directors Supervisors shall have  experience in working with the population individuals being  served and in providing the services outlined in the service description. 
    D. Job descriptions shall include minimum knowledge, skills  and abilities, professional qualification qualifications and  experience appropriate to the duties and responsibilities required of the  position. 
    [ E. All staff shall demonstrate a working knowledge  of the policies and procedures that are applicable to his specific job or  position. ] 
    12VAC35-105-430. Employee or contractor personnel records.
    A. Employee or contractor personnel record records,  whether hard-copy or electronic, shall include: 
    1. Identifying Individual identifying  information; 
    2. Education and training history; 
    3. Employment history; 
    4. Results of the any provider credentialing  process including methods of verification of applicable professional licenses  or certificates; 
    5. Results of reasonable efforts to secure job-related  references and reasonable verification of employment history; 
    6. Results of the required criminal background checks  and a search searches of the registry of founded complaints of  child abuse and neglect, if any; 
    7. Results of performance evaluations; 
    8. A record of disciplinary action taken by the provider, if  any; 
    9. A record of adverse action by any licensing and  oversight bodies and or organizations and state human  rights regulations, if any; and 
    10. A record of participation in employee development  activities, including orientation. 
    B. Each employee or contractor personnel record shall be  retained in its entirety for a minimum of three years after the employee's  or contractor's termination of employment. 
    12VAC35-105-440. Orientation of new employees, contractors,  volunteers, and students.
    New employees, contractors, volunteers, and students shall be  oriented commensurate with their function or job-specific responsibilities  within 15 business days. Orientation to The provider shall document  that the orientation covers each of the following policies shall be  documented. Orientation shall include, procedures, and practices: 
    1. Objectives and philosophy of the provider; 
    2. Practices of confidentiality including access, duplication,  and dissemination of any portion of an individual's record; 
    3. Practices that assure an individual's rights including  orientation to human rights regulations; 
    4. Applicable personnel policies; 
    5. Emergency preparedness procedures; 
    [ 6. Person-centeredness; ] 
    [ 6. 7. ] Infection control practices  and measures; and 
    [ 7. 8. ] Other policies and  procedures that apply to specific positions and specific duties and  responsibilities. 
    12VAC35-105-450. Employee training and development.
    The provider shall provide training and development  opportunities for employees to enable them to perform [ fully ]  support the individuals served and to carry out the responsibilities of  their job jobs. The provider shall develop a training  policy must address that addresses the frequency of retraining on  medication administration, behavior [ management intervention ],  [ and ] emergency preparedness [ , and infection  control, to include flu epidemics ]. Training Employee  participation in training and development opportunities shall be  documented in the employee personnel records and accessible to the  department. 
    12VAC35-105-460. Emergency medical or first aid training. 
    There shall be at least one employee or contractor on duty at  each location who holds a current certificate [ , (i) ]  issued by [ a recognized the American Red Cross, the American  Heart Association, or comparable ] authority [ , ] in  standard first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation [ , (CPR) ]  or [ with (ii) as an ] emergency medical [ training  technician ]. A [ nurse or physician licensed  medical professional ] who holds a current professional license shall  be deemed to hold a current certificate in first aid, but not in CPR. 
    12VAC35-105-470. Notification of policy changes. 
    All employees or contractors shall be kept informed of policy  changes that affect performance of duties. The provider shall have written  documentation of the process used to advise employees or contractors of policy  changes.
    12VAC35-105-480. Employee or contractor performance evaluation.
    A. The provider shall [ develop and ]  implement a [ written ] policy for evaluating employee or  and contractor performance. 
    B. Employee development needs and plans shall be a part of  the performance evaluation. 
    C. The provider shall evaluate employee or and  contractor performance at least annually. 
    12VAC35-105-490. Written grievance policy. 
    The provider shall [ have implement ]  a written grievance policy and a mechanism to shall inform  employees of grievance procedures. The provider shall have documentation of  the process used to advise employees of grievance procedures.
    12VAC35-105-500. Students and volunteers. 
    A. The provider shall [ have and ] implement  a [ written ] policy that clearly defines and communicates the  requirements for the use and responsibilities of students and volunteers  including selection and supervision. 
    B. The provider shall not rely on students or volunteers for  the provision of direct care services. The provider staffing plan shall not include  volunteers or students. 
    12VAC35-105-510. Tuberculosis screening.
    A. Each new employee, contractor, student [ , ]  or volunteer who will have direct contact with individuals being served receiving  services shall obtain a statement of certification by a qualified licensed  practitioner indicating the absence of tuberculosis in a communicable form  within 30 days of employment or initial contact with individuals receiving  services. The employee shall submit a copy of the original screening to  the provider. A statement of certification shall not be required for an  a new employee who has separated from service with another licensed  provider with a break in service of six months or less or who is  currently working for another licensed provider. The employee must submit a  copy of the original screening to the provider. 
    B. All employees, contractors, students [ , ]  or volunteers in substance abuse co-occurring outpatient or substance  abuse residential treatment services shall be certified as tuberculosis  free on an annual basis by a qualified licensed practitioner. 
    C. Any employee, contractor, student [ , ]  or volunteer who comes in contact with a known case of active tuberculosis  disease or who develops symptoms of active tuberculosis disease (including, but  not limited to fever, chills, hemoptysis, cough, fatigue, night sweats, weight  loss [ , ] or anorexia) of three weeks duration shall be  screened as determined appropriate for continued contact with employees,  contractors, students, volunteers, or individuals receiving services based  on consultation with the local health department. 
    D. An employee, contractor, student [ , ] or  volunteer suspected of having active tuberculosis shall not be permitted to  return to work or have contact with employees, contractors, students,  volunteers [ , ] or individuals receiving services until a  physician has determined that the person is free of active tuberculosis. 
    Article 5 
  Health and Safety Management 
    12VAC35-105-520. Risk management. 
    A. The provider shall designate a person responsible for risk  management. 
    B. The provider shall [ document and ]  implement a [ written ] plan to identify, monitor, reduce  [ , ] and minimize risks associated with personal injury, infectious  disease, property damage or loss, and other sources of potential  liability. 
    C. As part of the plan, the The provider shall  conduct and document that a safety inspection has been performed at  least annually its own safety inspections of all each  service locations location owned, rented, or leased by  the provider. Recommendations for safety improvement shall be documented  and implemented by the provider. 
    D. The provider shall document serious injuries to employees,  contractors, students, volunteers [ , ] and visitors.  Documentation shall be kept on file for three years. The provider shall  evaluate injuries at least annually. Recommendations for improvement shall be  documented and implemented by the provider. 
    E. The risk management plan shall establish and implement  policies to identify any populations at risk for falls and to develop a  prevention/management program. 
    F. The provider shall develop, document and implement  infection control measures, including the use of universal precautions. 
    12VAC35-105-530. Emergency preparedness and response plan.
    A. The provider shall develop a written emergency  preparedness and response plan for all of [ a provider's its  ] services and locations that describes [ its ] approach  to emergencies throughout the organization or community. This plan shall  include an analysis of potential emergencies that could disrupt the normal  course of service delivery including emergencies that would require expanded or  extended care over a prolonged period of time. The plan shall address: 
    1. Specific procedures describing mitigation, preparedness,  response [ , ] and recovery strategies, actions, and  responsibilities for each emergency.
    2. Documentation of contact [ involvement  coordination ] with the local emergency coordinator authorities  to determine local disaster risks and community-wide plans to address different  disasters and emergency situations. 
    2. Analysis of the provider's capabilities and potential  hazards, including natural disasters, severe weather, fire, flooding, work  place violence or terrorism, missing persons, severe injuries, or other  emergencies that would disrupt the normal course of service delivery. 
    3. The process for notifying local and state authorities of  the emergency and a process for contacting staff when emergency response  measures are initiated. 
    4. Written emergency management policies outlining  specific responsibilities for provision of administrative direction and  management of response activities, coordination of logistics during the  emergency, communications, life safety of employees, contractors, students,  volunteers, visitors [ , ] and individuals receiving services,  property protection, community outreach, and recovery and restoration. 
    4. 5. Written emergency response procedures for initiating  the response and recovery phase of the plan including a description of how,  when, and by whom the phases will be activated. This includes assessing the  situation; protecting individuals receiving services, employees, contractors,  students, volunteers, visitors, equipment [ , ] and vital  records; and restoring services. Emergency procedures shall address: 
    a. Communicating with employees, contractors and community  responders Warning and [ notification of  notifying ] individuals receiving services; 
    b. Warning and notification of individuals receiving  services Communicating with employees, contractors, and community  responders; 
    c. Designating alternative roles and responsibilities of  staff during emergencies including to whom they will report in the provider's  organization command structure and when activated in the community's command  structure; 
    d. Providing emergency access to secure areas and  opening locked doors; 
    d. e. Conducting evacuations to emergency  shelters or alternative sites and accounting for all individuals receiving  services; 
    e. f. Relocating individuals receiving  residential or inpatient services, if necessary; 
    f. g. Notifying family members and legal  guardians or authorized representatives; 
    g. h. Alerting emergency personnel and sounding  alarms; 
    h. i. Locating and shutting off utilities when  necessary; and
    j. Maintaining a 24 hour telephone answering capability to  respond to emergencies for individuals receiving services.
    6. Processes for managing the following under emergency  conditions:
    a. Activities related to the provision of care, treatment,  and services including [ but not limited to ] scheduling,  modifying, or discontinuing services; controlling information about individuals  receiving services; providing medication; and transportation services;
    b. Logistics related to critical supplies such as  pharmaceuticals, food, linen, and water;
    c. Security including access, crowd control, and traffic  control; and
    d. Back-up communication systems in the event of electronic  or power failure.
    7. Specific processes and protocols for evacuation of the  provider's building or premises when the environment cannot support adequate  care, treatment, and services. 
    5. 8. Supporting documents that would be needed  in an emergency, including emergency call lists, building and site maps  necessary to shut off utilities, designated escape routes, and list of major  resources such as local emergency shelters. 
    6. 9. Schedule for testing the implementation of  the plan and conducting emergency preparedness drills. 
    B. The provider shall [ develop and ]  implement periodic annual emergency preparedness and response  training for all employees, [ individuals receiving services, ]  contractors, students, and volunteers. Training This training  shall also be provided as part of orientation for new employees and  cover responsibilities for: 
    1. Alerting emergency personnel and sounding alarms; 
    2. Implementing evacuation procedures, including evacuation of  individuals with special needs (i.e., deaf, blind, nonambulatory); 
    3. Using, maintaining, and operating emergency equipment; 
    4. Accessing emergency medical information for individuals  receiving services; and 
    5. Utilizing community support services. 
    C. The provider shall review the emergency preparedness plan  annually and make necessary revisions. Such revisions shall be communicated to  employees, contractors, students and, volunteers, and  individuals receiving services and incorporated into training for  employees, contractors, students [ , ] and volunteers and  [ into the ] orientation of individuals to services. 
    D. In the event of a disaster, fire, emergency or any other  condition that may jeopardize the health, safety [ and, or ]  welfare of individuals, the provider shall take appropriate action to protect  the health, safety [ ,  ] and  welfare of [ the ]  individuals receiving services and take appropriate actions to remedy the  conditions as soon as possible. 
    E. Employees, contractors, students [ , ]  and volunteers shall be knowledgeable in and prepared to implement the  emergency preparedness plan in the event of an emergency. The plan shall  include a policy regarding periodic regularly scheduled emergency  preparedness training for all employees, contractors, students [ , ] and  volunteers. 
    F. In the event of a disaster, fire, emergency, or any other  condition that may jeopardize the health, safety [ and, or ]  welfare of individuals, the provider should first respond and stabilize the  [ disaster/emergency disaster or emergency ]. After the  [ disaster/emergency disaster or emergency ] is  stabilized, the provider should report the [ disaster/emergency disaster  or emergency ] to the department, but no later than 72 24  hours after the incident occurs. 
    G. Providers of residential services shall have at all  times a three-day supply of emergency food and water for all residents and  staff. Emergency food supplies should include foods that do not require  cooking. Water supplies shall include one gallon of water [ , ]  per person [ , ] per day.
    H. This [ section regulation ]  does not apply to home and noncenter-based services.
    12VAC35-105-540. Access to telephone in emergencies; emergency  telephone numbers.
    A. Telephones shall be accessible for emergency purposes. 
    B. Current emergency telephone numbers and location of the  nearest hospital, ambulance service, rescue squad and other trained medical  personnel, poison control center, fire station and the police are prominently  posted near the telephones Instructions for contacting emergency  services and telephone numbers shall be prominently posted near the telephone  including [ directions to the nearest hospital and ]  how to contact provider medical personnel if appropriate. 
    C. This [ section regulation ] does  not apply to home and noncenter-based services and correctional facilities. 
    12VAC35-105-550. First aid kit accessible.
    A. A well-stocked first aid kit shall be maintained  and readily accessible for minor injuries and medical emergencies at each  service location and to employees or contractors providing in-home services or  traveling with individuals. The minimum requirements of a well-stocked first  aid kit that shall be maintained include a thermometer, bandages, saline  solution, band-aids, sterile gauze, tweezers, instant ice-pack, adhesive tape,  first-aid cream, and antiseptic soap, an accessible, unexpired 30 cc  bottle of Syrup of Ipecac (for use at the direction of the Poison Control  Center or a physician), and activated charcoal (for use at the direction of the  Poison Control Center or a physician). 
    B. A cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) face guard or  mask shall be readily accessible.
    12VAC35-105-560. Operable flashlights or battery lanterns. 
    Operable flashlights or battery lanterns shall be readily  accessible to employees and contractors in services that operate between dusk  and dawn to use in emergencies. This [ section regulation ]  does not apply to home and noncenter-based services. 
    12VAC35-105-580. Service description requirements. 
    A. The provider shall develop, implement, review [ , ]  and revise its descriptions of services offered according to the  provider's mission and shall have that information make service  descriptions available for public review. 
    B. The provider shall document that outline how  each service offers a structured program of care individualized  interventions and care designed to meet the individuals' physical and emotional  needs; provide protection, guidance and supervision; and meet the objectives of  any required [ service individualized services ] plan.  
    C. The provider shall prepare a written description of each  service it offers. Service description elements Elements of each  service description shall include: 
    1. Goals Service goals; 
    2. Care A description of care, treatment,  training, habilitation, or other supports provided; 
    3. Characteristics and needs of the population individuals  to be served; 
    4. Contract services, if any; 
    5. Admission Eligibility requirements and admission,  continued stay, and exclusion criteria; 
    6. Termination of treatment Service termination  and discharge or transition criteria; and 
    7. Type and role of employees or contractors. 
    D. The provider shall revise a the written  service description whenever the [ operation of the ] service  [ description ] changes. 
    E. The provider shall not implement services that are  inconsistent with its most current service description. 
    F. The provider shall admit only those individuals whose  service needs are consistent with the service description, for whom services  are available, and for which staffing levels and types meet the needs of the  individuals served.
    G. The provider shall provide for the physical  separation of children and adults in residential and inpatient services and  shall provide separate group programming for adults and children, except in the  case of family services. The provider shall provide for the safety of children  accompanying parents receiving services. Older adolescents transitioning from  school to adult activities may participate in mental retardation (intellectual  disability) day support services with adults. 
    G. If the provider offers substance abuse treatment  services, the H. The service description for substance abuse  treatment services shall address the timely and appropriate treatment of  [ substance abusing ] pregnant women [ with substance  abuse (substance use disorders) ]. 
    I. If the provider plans to serve individuals as of a  result of a temporary detention order to a service, prior to admitting those  individuals to that service, the provider shall submit a written plan for  adequate staffing and security measures to ensure the individual can be served  safely within the service to the department for approval. If [ the  plan is ] approved [ , ] the department  will add a stipulation to the license authorizing the provider to serve  individuals who are under temporary detention orders.
    [ J. The provider shall have a written plan on  cultural and linguistic competency that assists the organization in delivering  culturally competent services and use the National Standards on Culturally and  Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS) as a primary guidance document. ]  
    12VAC35-105-590. Provider staffing plan. 
    A. The provider shall [ design and ]  implement a [ written ] staffing plan including that  includes the type types [ , and ] role  roles [ , ] and numbers of employees and  contractors [ that are ] reflects the required to  provide the service. This staffing plan shall reflect the: 
    1. Needs of the population individuals served; 
    2. Types of services offered; 
    3. The service description; and 
    4. The number Number of people to be  served at a given time. 
    B. The provider shall develop a written transition  staffing plan for new services, added locations, and changes in capacity. 
    C. The provider shall meet the following staffing  requirements relate related to supervision. 
    1. The provider shall describe how employees, volunteers,  contractors [ , ] and student interns are to will  be supervised in the staffing plan and how that supervision will be  documented. 
    2. Supervision of employees, volunteers, contractors [ , ]  and student interns shall be provided by persons who have experience in working  with [ the population served individuals receiving services ]  and in providing the services outlined in the service description. In  addition, supervision of mental health services shall be performed by a QMHP  and supervision of mental retardation services shall be performed by a QMRP or  an employee or contractor with experience equivalent to the educational  requirement. Supervision of IFDDS Waiver services shall be performed by a QDDP  or an employee or contractor with equivalent experience. Supervision of Brain  Injury Waiver services or residential services shall be performed by a QBIP or  an employee or contractor with equivalent experience. 
    3. Supervision shall be appropriate to the services provided  and the needs of the individual. Supervision shall be documented. 
    4. Supervision shall include responsibility for approving  assessments and individualized services plans [ , as appropriate ].  This responsibility may be delegated to an employee or contractor who is a  QMHP, QMRP, QDDP, or QBIP or who has equivalent experience meets the  qualification for supervision as defined in this [ regulation  section ].
    [ 5. Supervision of mental health and substance  abuse services and co-occurring disorders shall be provided by a person who is  trained and experienced in providing psychiatric, mental health, or substance  abuse services to individuals who have a psychiatric or substance abuse  disorder diagnosis including (i) a doctor of medicine or osteopathy; (ii) a  psychiatrist who is a doctor of medicine or osteopathy specializing in  psychiatry and licensed in Virginia; (iii) a psychologist who has a master's  degree in psychology from a college or university with at least one year of  clinical experience; (iv) a social worker with at least a bachelor's degree in  human services or related field (social work, psychology, psychiatric  rehabilitation, sociology, counseling, vocational rehabilitation, human  services counseling, or other degree deemed equivalent to those described); (v)  a Registered Psychiatric Rehabilitation Provider (RPRP) registered with the  United States Psychiatric Rehabilitation Association (USPRA); (vi) a registered  nurse licensed in Virginia with at least one year of clinical experience; or  (vii) any other licensed mental health professional with at least one year of  clinical experience. 
    5. Supervision of mental health, substance abuse, or  co-occurring services that are of an acute or clinical nature such as  outpatient, inpatient, intensive in-home, or day treatment shall be provided by  a licensed mental health professional or a mental health professional who is  license-eligible and registered with a board of the Department of Health  Professions.
    6. Supervision of mental health, substance abuse, or  co-occurring services that are of a supportive or maintenance nature, such as  psychosocial rehabilitation, mental health supports shall be provided by a  QMHP-A. An individual who is QMHP-E may not provide this type of supervision. ]  
    [ 6. 7. ] Supervision of  mental retardation (intellectual disability) services shall be provided by a  person with at least one year of documented experience working directly with  individuals who have mental retardation (intellectual disability) or other  developmental disabilities and holds at least a bachelor's degree in a human  services field [ including but not limited to  such as ] sociology, social work, special education, rehabilitation  counseling, nursing, or psychology. [ Experience may be  substituted for the education requirement. ] 
    [ 7. 8. ] Supervision of  individual and family developmental disabilities support (IFDDS) services shall  be provided by a person possessing at least one year of documented experience  working directly with individuals who have [ related  conditions developmental disabilities ] and is one of  the following: a doctor of medicine or osteopathy [ licensed in  Virginia ]; a registered nurse [ licensed in Virginia ];  or a person holding at least a bachelor's degree in a human [ service  services ] field [ including but not limited to  such as ] sociology, social work, special education, rehabilitation  counseling, or psychology. [ Experience may be substituted for  the education requirement. ] 
    [ 8. 9. ] Supervision of  brain injury services shall be provided at a minimum by a clinician in the  health professions [ field ] who is trained and  experienced in providing brain injury services to individuals who have a brain  injury diagnosis including: (i) a doctor of medicine or osteopathy [ licensed  in Virginia ]; (ii) a psychiatrist who is a doctor of medicine or  osteopathy specializing in psychiatry and licensed in Virginia; (iii) a  psychologist who has a master's degree in psychology from a college or  university with at least one year of clinical experience; (iv) a social worker  who has a bachelor's degree in human services or a related field (social work,  psychology, psychiatric evaluation, sociology, counseling, vocational  rehabilitation, human services counseling, or other degree deemed equivalent to  those described) from an accredited college or university with at least two  years of clinical experience providing direct services to individuals with a  diagnosis of brain injury; (v) a Certified Brain Injury Specialist; (vi) a  registered nurse licensed in Virginia with at least one year of clinical  experience; or (vii) any other licensed rehabilitation professional with one  year of clinical experience.
    [ 9. Providers of intensive in-home services shall  define the nature and frequency of supervision by the LMHP provided to  employees working directly with individuals receiving services. The LMHP shall  provide direct supervision to these employees at least bi-weekly.
    10. Individuals employed as supervisors prior to [the  effective date of these regulations] may supervise services based on their  experience.
    11. Supervision shall include responsibility for  approving assessments and individualized services plans. This responsibility  may be delegated to an employee or contractor who meets the qualifications for  supervision as defined in these regulations. ] 
    D. The provider shall employ or contract with persons with  appropriate training, as necessary, to meet the specialized needs of and to  ensure the safety of individuals being served in residential services with  medical or nursing needs,; speech, language, or hearing  problems; or other needs where specialized training is necessary. 
    E. The provider Providers of brain injury  services shall employ or contract with a neuropsychologist or licensed clinical  psychologist specializing in brain injury to assist, as appropriate, with  initial assessments, development of individualized services plans, crises,  staff training, and service design. 
    F. Direct care staff in who provide brain  injury services shall meet the qualifications of a QPPBI and successfully  complete an approved training curriculum on brain injuries within six months of  employment have at least a high school diploma and two years of  experience working with individuals with disabilities or shall have  successfully completed an approved training curriculum on brain injuries within  six months of employment. 
    12VAC35-105-600. Nutrition. 
    A. A provider preparing and serving food shall: 
    1. Have Implement a written plan for the  provision of food services, which ensures access to nourishing, well-balanced,  [ healthful varied, and healthy ] meals; 
    2. Make reasonable efforts to prepare meals that consider  [ the ] cultural background, personal preferences, and food  habits and that meet the dietary needs of the individuals served; and 
    3. Assist individuals who require assistance feeding themselves  in a manner that effectively addresses any deficits. 
    B. Providers of residential and inpatient services shall  [ develop and ] implement a policy to monitor each  individual's food consumption [ and nutrition ] for: 
    1. Warning signs of changes in physical or mental status  related to nutrition; and 
    2. Compliance with any needs determined by the individualized  services plan or prescribed by a physician, nutritionist [ , ]  or health care professional. 
    12VAC35-105-610. Community participation. 
    Opportunities shall be provided for individuals receiving  services Individuals receiving residential [ ,  and ] day support [ , and day treatment ]  services shall be afforded [ the opportunity  opportunities ] to participate in community activities [ that  are based on their personal interests or preferences ]. This  regulation applies to residential, day support and day treatment services. The  provider shall have written documentation that such opportunities were made  available to individuals served.
    12VAC35-105-620. Monitoring and evaluating service quality. 
    The provider shall [ have implement ]  a mechanism written policies and procedures to monitor and  evaluate service quality and effectiveness on a systematic and ongoing basis. Input  from individuals receiving services and their authorized representatives, if  applicable, about services used and satisfaction level of participation in the  direction of service planning shall be part of the provider's quality assurance  system. The provider shall implement improvements, when indicated. 
    Article 2 
  Screening, Admission, Assessment, Service Planning [ , ]   and Orientation 
    12VAC35-105-630. Policies on screening, admission and  referrals. (Repealed.)
    A. The provider shall establish written criteria for  admission that include: 
    1. A description of the population to be served; 
    2. A description of the types of services offered; and 
    3. Exclusion criteria. 
    B. The provider shall admit only those individuals whose  service needs are consistent with the service description, for whom services  are available, and for which staffing levels and types meet the needs of the  individuals served. 
    C. The provider shall complete a preliminary assessment  detailed enough to determine that the individual qualifies for admission and to  develop a preliminary individualized services plan for individuals admitted to  services. Employee or contractors responsible for screening, admitting and  referral shall have immediate access to written service descriptions and  admission criteria. 
    D. The provider shall assist individuals who are not  admitted to identify other appropriate services. 
    E. The provider shall develop and implement procedures for  screening, admitting, and referring individuals to services, to include staff  who are designated to perform these activities. 
    12VAC35-105-640. Screening and referral services  documentation and retention. (Repealed.)
    A. The provider shall maintain written documentation of  each screening performed, including: 
    1. Date of initial contact; 
    2. Name, age, and gender of the individual; 
    3. Address and phone number, if applicable; 
    4. Presenting needs or situation to include  psychiatric/medical problems, current medications and history of medical care; 
    5. Name of screening employee or contractor; 
    6. Method of screening; 
    7. Screening recommendation; and 
    8. Disposition of individual. 
    B. The provider shall retain documentation for each  screening. For individuals not admitted, documentation shall be retained for  six months. Documentation shall be included in the individual's record if the  individual is admitted. 
    12VAC35-105-645. Initial contacts, screening, admission,  assessment, service planning, orientation, and discharge.
    A. The provider shall [ develop and ]  implement policies and procedures for initial contacts and screening,  admissions, and referral of individuals to other services and designate staff  to perform these activities.
    B. The provider shall maintain written documentation of an  individual's initial contact and screening prior to his admission including  the:
    1. Date of contact;
    2. Name, age, and gender of the individual;
    3. Address and telephone number of the individual, if  applicable;
    4. Reason why the individual is requesting services; and
    5. Disposition of the individual including his referral to  other services for further assessment, placement on a waiting list for service,  or admission to the service. 
    C. The provider shall assist individuals who are not  admitted to identify other appropriate services.
    D. The provider shall retain documentation of the individual's  initial contacts and screening for six months. Documentation shall be included  in the individual's record if the individual is admitted to the service.
    12VAC35-105-650. Assessment policy. 
    A. The provider shall document [ develop  and ] implement an a written assessment policy. The  policy shall define how assessments will be [ conducted and ]  documented. 
    B. The provider shall conduct an assessment to identify an  individual's physical, medical, behavioral, functional, and social strengths,  preferences and needs, as applicable. The assessment shall address: 
    1. Onset/duration of problems; 
    2. Social/behavioral/developmental/family history; 
    3. Employment/vocation/educational background; 
    4. Previous interventions/outcomes; 
    5. Financial resources and benefits; 
    6. Health history and current medical care needs; 
    7. Legal status, including guardianship, commitment and  representative payee status, and relevant criminal charges or convictions,  probation or parole status; 
    8. Daily living skills; 
    9. Social/family supports; 
    10. Housing arrangements; and 
    11. Ability to access services. 
    B. The provider shall [ solicit the  individual's own assessment and shall ] actively involve the  individual and authorized representative, if applicable, in the preparation of  initial and comprehensive assessments and in subsequent reassessments. In these  assessments and reassessments [ , ] the provider shall  consider the individual's needs, strengths, goals, preferences, and abilities  within the individual's cultural context. 
    C. The assessment policy shall designate employees or  contractors who are responsible for conducting assessments. Employees  or contractors responsible for assessments These employees or  contractors shall have experience in working with the population needs  of individuals who are being assessed and with, the  assessment tool or tools being utilized, and the provision of  services that the individuals may require. 
    D. Frequency of assessments. 
    1. A preliminary assessment shall be done prior to  admission; 
    2. The preliminary assessment shall be updated and  finalized during the first 30 days of service prior to completing the  individualized services plan. Longer term assessments may be included as part  of the individualized services plan. The provider shall document the reason for  assessments requiring more than 30 days. 
    3. Reassessments shall be completed when there is a need  based on the medical, psychiatric or behavioral status of the individual and at  least annually. 
    E. D. Assessment is an ongoing activity. The  provider shall make reasonable attempts to obtain previous assessments [ or  relevant history ]. 
    E. An [ initial ] assessment  shall be [ completed initiated ] prior to  or at admission to the service. With the participation of the individual and  the individual's authorized representative, if applicable, the provider shall  complete an initial assessment detailed enough to determine whether the  individual qualifies for admission and to [ develop  initiate ] an [ initial ] ISP for  those individuals who are admitted to the service. This [ initial ]  assessment shall assess immediate service, health [ , ]  and safety needs, and at a minimum [ address  include ] the individual's:
    1. Diagnosis;
    2. Presenting needs including the individual's stated  needs, psychiatric needs, support needs, and the onset and duration of  problems;
    3. Current medical problems;
    4. Current medications;
    5. Current and past substance use or abuse, including  co-occurring mental health and substance abuse disorders; and 
    6. At-risk behavior to self and others.
    F. A comprehensive assessment shall update and finalize  the initial assessment. The timing for completion of the comprehensive  assessment shall be based upon the nature and scope of the service but shall  occur no later than [ 30 days, after admission for providers  of mental health and substance abuse services and ] 60 days after  admission [ for providers of mental retardation (intellectual  disability) and developmental disabilities services ]. It shall  address: 
    1. Onset and duration of problems; 
    2. Social, behavioral, developmental [ , ]  and family history and supports;
    3. Cognitive functioning including strengths and  weaknesses; 
    4. Employment, [ vocation  vocational, ] and educational background; 
    5. Previous interventions and outcomes; 
    6. Financial resources and benefits; 
    7. Health history and current medical care needs, to  include: 
    a. Allergies;
    b. Recent physical complaints and medical conditions;
    c. Nutritional needs;
    d. Chronic conditions;
    e. Communicable diseases;
    f. Restrictions on physical activities if any;
    g. Past serious illnesses, serious injuries, and  hospitalizations;
    h. Serious illnesses and chronic conditions of the  individual's parents, siblings, and significant others in the same household;  [ and ] 
    i. Current and past substance [ usage  use ] including alcohol, prescription and nonprescription  medications, and illicit drugs [ ; and. ] 
    [ j. Reproductive history including pregnancy  status. ]
    8. Psychiatric and substance use issues including current  mental health or substance use needs, presence of co-occurring disorders,  history of substance use or abuse, and circumstances that increase the  individual's risk for mental health or substance use issues;
    9. History of abuse, neglect, sexual [ and,  or ] domestic violence, or trauma including psychological trauma;
    10. Legal status including [ guardianship  authorized representative ], commitment, and representative payee  status;
    11. Relevant criminal charges or convictions and probation  or parole status;
    12. Daily living skills;
    13. Housing arrangements;
    14. Ability to access services including transportation  needs; and
    15. As applicable, and in all residential services, fall  risk, communication methods or needs, and mobility and adaptive equipment  needs.
    G. Providers of short-term intensive services including  inpatient and crisis stabilization services shall develop policies for  completing comprehensive assessments within the time frames appropriate for  those services.
    H. Providers of non-intensive or short-term services shall  meet the requirements for the initial assessment at a minimum. Non-intensive  services are services provided in jails, nursing homes, or other locations when  access to records and information is limited by the location and nature of the  services. Short-term services typically are provided for less than 60 days.
    I. Providers may utilize standardized state or federally  sanctioned assessment tools that do not meet all the criteria of  12VAC35-105-650 as the initial or comprehensive assessment tools as long as the  tools assess the individual's health and safety issues and substantially meet  the requirements of this [ regulation section  ].
    J. Individuals who receive medication-only services shall  be reassessed at least annually to determine whether there is a change in the  need for additional services and the effectiveness of the medication. 
    [ K. The provider shall retain documentation for  each assessment for a period of six months. Documentation shall be included in  the individual's record if the individual is admitted. 
    L. The provider shall assist individuals who are not  scheduled for further assessment or who are not admitted to identify other  appropriate services. ] 
    12VAC35-105-660. Individualized services plan (ISP). 
    A. The provider shall develop a preliminary individualized  services plan for the first 30 days. The preliminary individualized services  plan shall be developed and implemented within 24 hours of admission and shall  continue in effect until the individualized services plan is developed or the  individual is discharged, whichever comes first actively involve the  individual and authorized representative, as appropriate, in the development,  review, and revision of a person-centered ISP. The individualized services  planning process shall be consistent with laws protecting confidentiality,  privacy, human rights of individuals receiving services, and rights of minors.  
    B. The provider shall develop an individualized services  plan for each individual as soon as possible after admission but no later than  30 days after admission. Providers of short-term services must develop and  implement a policy to develop individualized services plans within a time frame  consistent with the expected length of stay of individuals. Services requiring  longer term assessments may include the completion of those as part of the  individualized services plan as long as all appropriate services are  incorporated into the individualized services plan based on the assessment  completed within 30 days of admission and the individualized services plan is  updated upon the completion of assessment initial person-centered ISP  for the first 60 days [ for mental retardation (intellectual  disability) and developmental disabilities services or for the first 30 days  for mental health and substance abuse services ]. This ISP shall be  developed and implemented within 24 hours of admission to address immediate  service, health, and safety needs and shall continue in effect until the ISP is  developed or the individual is discharged, whichever comes first. 
    C. The individualized services plan shall address: 
    1. The individual's needs and preferences. 
    2. Relevant psychological, behavioral, medical,  rehabilitation and nursing needs as indicated by the assessment; 
    3. Individualized strategies, including the intensity of  services needed; 
    4. A communication plan for individuals with communication  barriers, including language barriers; and 
    5. The behavior treatment plan, if applicable. 
    D. The provider shall comply with the human rights  regulations in regard to participation in decision-making by the individual or  legally authorized representative in developing or revising the individualized  services plan. 
    E. The provider shall involve family members, guardian, or  others, if appropriate, in developing, reviewing, or revising, at least  annually, the individualized service plans consistent with laws protecting  confidentiality, privacy, the human rights of individuals receiving services  (see 12VAC35-115-60) and the rights of minors. 
    F. Employees or contractors responsible for implementation  of an individualized services plan shall demonstrate a working knowledge of the  plan's goals, objectives and strategies. 
    G. The provider shall designate a person who will develop  and implement individualized service plans. 
    H. The provider shall implement the individualized  services plan and review it at least every three months or whenever there is a  revised assessment. These reviews shall evaluate the individual's progress  toward meeting the plan's objectives. The goals, objectives and strategies of  the individualized services plan shall be updated, if indicated. 
    I. The individualized service plan shall be consistent  with the CSP for individuals served by the IFDDS Waiver. 
    J. In brain injury services, the individualized services  plan shall be reassessed and revised more frequently than annually, consistent  with the individual's course of recovery. 
    C. The provider shall [ develop and ]  implement a person-centered comprehensive ISP as soon as possible after  admission based upon the nature and scope of services but no later than [ 30  days after admission for providers of mental health and substance abuse  services and ] 60 days after admission [ for providers  of mental retardation (intellectual disability) and developmental disabilities  services ].
    12VAC35-105-665. ISP requirements
    A. The comprehensive ISP shall [ address  or include: 1. The be based on the ] individual's needs,  strengths, abilities, personal preferences, goals, and natural supports  [ ;  identified in the assessment. The ISP shall include: ]
    [ 2. A summary of or reference to the assessment;
    3. 1. ] Relevant and attainable  goals, measurable objectives, and specific strategies for addressing each [ identifiable ]  need;
    [ 4. 2. ] Services and  supports and frequency of services required to accomplish the goals including  relevant psychological, mental health, substance abuse, behavioral, medical,  rehabilitation, training, and nursing needs and supports [ as  indicated by the assessment ]; 
    [ 5. 3. ] The role of the  individual and others in implementing the service plan;
    [ 6. 4. ] A communication  plan for individuals with communication barriers, including language barriers;
    [ 7. 5. ] A [ behavior  behavioral ] support or treatment plan, if applicable;
    [ 8. 6. ] A safety plan that  addresses identified risks to the individual or to others, including a fall  risk plan;
    [ 9. 7. ] A crisis or  relapse plan, if applicable; 
    [ 10. 8. ] Target dates for  accomplishment of goals and objectives [ and estimated  duration of ISP ];
    [ 11. Discharge goals, if applicable; ]  
    [ 12. 9. ] Identification of  employees or contractors responsible for coordination and integration of  services, including employees of other agencies; and
    [ 13. 10. ] Recovery plans  [ , if applicable ].
    B. The ISP shall be signed and dated at a minimum by the  person responsible for implementing the plan and the individual receiving  services or the authorized representative. If the signature of the individual  receiving services or the authorized representative cannot be obtained [ , ]  the provider shall document his attempt to [ attain  obtain ] the necessary signature and the reason why he was unable  to obtain it. 
    C. The provider shall designate a person who will be  responsible for developing, implementing, reviewing, and revising each  individual's ISP in collaboration with the individual or authorized  representative, as appropriate.
    D. Employees or contractors who are responsible for  implementing the ISP shall demonstrate a working knowledge of the objectives  and strategies contained in the individual's current ISP.
    E. Providers of short-term intensive services such as  inpatient and crisis stabilization services that are typically provided for  less than 30 days shall [ develop and ] implement  a policy to develop an ISP within a timeframe consistent with the length of  stay of individuals.
    F. The ISP shall be consistent with the plan of care for  individuals served by the IFDDS Waiver.
    G. When a provider provides more than one service to an  individual the provider may maintain a single ISP document that contains  individualized objectives and strategies for each service provided.
    H. Whenever possible the identified goals in the ISP shall  be written in the words of the individual receiving services.
    12VAC35-105-670. Individualized services plan requirements.  (Repealed.)
    A. The individualized services plan shall include, at a  minimum: 
    1. A summary or reference to the assessment; 
    2. Goals and measurable objectives for addressing each  identified need; 
    3. The services and supports and frequency of service to  accomplish the goals and objectives; 
    4. Target dates for accomplishment of goals and objectives;  
    5. Estimated duration of service plan; 
    6. Discharge plan, where applicable; and 
    7. The employees or contractors responsible for coordination  and integration of services, including employees of other agencies. 
    B. The individualized services plan shall be signed and  dated, at a minimum, by the person responsible for implementing the plan and  the individual receiving services or the legally authorized representative. If  unable to obtain the signature of the individual receiving services or the  legally authorized representative, the provider shall document the reason. 
    12VAC35-105-675. Reassessments and ISP reviews.
    A. Reassessments shall be completed at least annually and  when there is a need based on the medical, psychiatric, or behavioral status of  the individual.
    B. The provider shall update the ISP at least annually.  The provider shall review the ISP at least every three months [ from  the date of the implementation of the ISP ] or whenever there is a  revised assessment based upon the individual's changing needs or goals. These  reviews shall evaluate the individual's progress toward meeting the plan's  goals and objectives and the continued relevance of the ISP's objectives and  strategies. The provider shall update the goals, objectives, and strategies  contained in the ISP, if indicated, and implement any updates made. 
    12VAC35-105-680. Progress notes or other documentation. 
    The provider shall use signed and dated progress notes or  other documentation to document the services provided [ , ]   and the implementation of [ and outcomes the goals  and objectives ] of individualized services plans contained  in the ISP. 
    12VAC35-105-690. Orientation. 
    A. The provider shall [ develop and ]  implement a written policy regarding the orientation of individuals and the  legally their authorized representative representatives,  if applicable to services. 
    B. At a minimum, As appropriate to the scope and  level of services the policy shall require the [ provision to  individuals and ] the legally [ authorized ] representative  of [ representatives the ] following information, as  appropriate to the scope and level of services: 
    1. The mission of the provider or service; 
    2. Confidentiality Service confidentiality  practices and protections for individuals receiving services; 
    3. Human rights policies and protections and instructions  on how to report violations; 
    4. Participation Opportunities for participation  in treatment services and discharge planning; 
    5. Fire safety and emergency preparedness procedures [ ,  if applicable ]; 
    6. The provider's grievance procedure; 
    7. Service guidelines including criteria for [ admission  to and ] discharge or transfer from services; 
    [ 8. Physical plant or building lay-out; 
    9. 8. ] Hours and days of operation; and  
    [ 10. 9. ] Availability of after-hours  service; and
    [ 11. 10. ] Any charges or  fees due from the individual.
    C. In addition, individuals receiving treatment services in a  correctional facilities will facility shall receive an  orientation to the facility's security restrictions. 
    D. The provider shall document that orientation has been  provided to individuals and the legal guardian/authorized representative the  individual and authorized representative, if applicable, received an  orientation to services. 
    12VAC35-105-691. Transition of individuals among service  [ locations ].
    A. The provider shall [ have  implement ] written procedures that define the process for  transitioning an individual between or among services [ or  locations ] operated by the provider. At a minimum the policy  shall address:
    1. The process by which the provider will assure continuity  of services during and following transition [ .; ]  
    2. The participation of the individual [ and  his family ] or [ his ] authorized  representative, as applicable, in the decision to move and in the planning for  transfer;
    3. The process and timeframe for transferring the [ access  to ] individual's record and ISP to the destination location;
    4. The process and timeframe for [ transmitting  completing ] the transfer summary [ to the  destination location service ]; and 
    5. The process and timeframe for transmitting [ or  accessing ], where applicable, discharge [ and  admission ] summaries to the destination [ location  service ].
    B. The transfer summary shall include at a minimum the  following:
    [ 1. Description of each service provided at the  initial location;
    2. Description of each service to be provided at the  destination location; 
    3. 1. ] Reason for the  individual's transfer;
    [ 4. 2. ] Documentation of  involvement by the individual [ and his family ]  or [ his ] authorized representative, as applicable,  in the decision to and planning for the transfer;
    [ 5. 3. ] Current  psychiatric and [ known ] medical conditions or  issues of the individual and the identity of the individual's health care  providers;
    [ 6. 4. ] Updated progress  of the individual in meeting goals and objectives in his ISP;
    [ 7. 5. ] Emergency medical  information;
    [ 8. 6. ] Dosages of all  currently prescribed medications and over-the-counter medications used by the  individual [ when prescribed by the provider or known by the case  manager ];
    [ 9. 7. ] Transfer date; and
    [ 10. 8. ] Signature of  employee or contractor responsible for preparing the transfer summary.
    C. The transfer summary may be documented in the  individual's progress notes or in information easily accessible within an  electronic [ health ] record.
    12VAC35-105-693. Discharge.
    A. The provider shall have [ written ]  policies and procedures regarding the discharge or termination of  individuals from the service. These policies and procedures shall include  medical and clinical criteria for discharge.
    B. Discharge instructions shall be provided in writing to  the individual [ and, ] his authorized  representative, [ and the successor provider, ] as  applicable. Discharge instructions shall include at a minimum medications and  dosages; names, phone numbers, and addresses of any providers to whom the  individual is referred; current medical issues or conditions; and the identity  of [ the treating ] health care providers. [ This  applies to residential and inpatient services only. ] 
    C. The provider shall make appropriate arrangements or  referrals to all service providers identified in the discharge plan prior to  the individual's scheduled discharge date.
    D. The content of the discharge plan and the determination  to discharge the individual shall be consistent with the ISP and the criteria  for discharge.
    E. The provider shall document in the individual's service  record that the individual, his authorized representative, and his family  members, as appropriate, have been involved in the discharge planning process.
    F. A written discharge summary shall be completed within  30 days of discharge and shall include at a minimum the following:
    1. Reason for the individual's admission to and discharge  from the service;
    2. Description of the individual's or authorized  representative's participation in discharge planning;
    3. The individual's current level of functioning or  functioning limitations, if applicable;
    4. Recommended procedures, activities, or referrals to  assist the individual in maintaining or improving functioning and increased  independence;
    5. The status, location, and arrangements that have been  made for future services;
    6. Progress made by the individual in achieving goals and  objectives identified in the ISP and summary of critical events during service  provision;
    7. Discharge date;
    8. Discharge medications [ prescribed by the  provider ], if applicable;
    9. Date the discharge summary was actually written or  documented; and
    10. Signature of the person who prepared the summary.
    Article 3
  Crisis Intervention and Clinical Emergencies
    12VAC35-105-700. Written policies and procedures for a  crisis or clinical emergency interventions; required elements. 
    A. The provider shall [ develop and ]   implement written policies and procedures for prompt intervention in the  event of a crisis or clinical a behavioral, medical, or psychiatric  emergency that occurs may occur during screening and referral or  during, at admission and, or during the period of  service provision. A clinical emergency refers to either a medical or  psychiatric emergency. 
    B. The policies and procedures shall include: 
    1. A definition of what constitutes a crisis and  clinical or behavioral, medical, or psychiatric emergency; 
    2. Procedures for stabilization and immediate access to  immediately accessing appropriate internal and external resources including  a provision for. This shall include a provision for obtaining  physician and mental health clinical services if the provider's or service's  on-call or back-up physician back up or mental health clinical  services are not available at the time of the emergency; 
    3. Employee or contractor responsibilities; and 
    4. Location of emergency medical information for individuals  each individual receiving services, including any advance psychiatric  or medical directive or crisis response plan developed by the individual,  which shall be readily accessible to employees or contractors on duty in  an emergency or crisis. 
    12VAC35-105-710. Documenting crisis intervention and clinical  emergency services. 
    A. The provider shall develop a method for documenting the  provision of crisis intervention and clinical emergency services.  Documentation shall include the following: 
    1. Date and time; 
    2. Nature Description of the nature of or  circumstances surrounding the crisis or emergency; 
    3. Name of individual; 
    4. Precipitating Description of precipitating  factors; 
    5. Interventions/treatment Interventions or  treatment provided; 
    6. Employees Names of employees or contractors involved  responding to or consulted during the crisis or emergency; and 
    7. Outcome. 
    B. If a crisis or clinical emergency involves an  individual who is admitted into service, documentation of the crisis  intervention documentation or provision of emergency services  shall become part of his record. 
    Article 4 
  Medical Management 
    12VAC35-105-720. Health care policy. 
    A. The provider shall [ develop and ]  implement a written policy, appropriate to the scope and level of  service that addresses provision of adequate and appropriate medical  care. This policy shall describe how: 
    1. Medical care needs will be assessed including  circumstances that will prompt the decision to obtain a medical assessment.  
    2. Individualized services plans will address any  medical care needs appropriate to the scope and level of service. 
    3. Identified medical care needs will be addressed. 
    [ 4. Substance abuse will be assessed.
    5. 4. ] The provider manages  will manage medical care needs or responds respond to  abnormal findings. 
    [ 5. 6. ] The provider communicates  will communicate medical assessments and diagnostic laboratory results  to individuals the individual and authorized representatives  representative, as appropriate. 
    [ 6. 7. ] The provider keeps will  keep accessible to staff and contractors on duty the names,  addresses, and phone numbers of the individual's medical and  dental providers. 
    [ 7. 8. ] The provider ensures will  ensure a means for facilitating and arranging, as appropriate,  transportation to medical and dental appointments and medical tests, when  services cannot be provided on site. 
    B. The provider shall [ establish and ]  implement [ written ] policies to identify any  individuals who are at risk for falls and develop and implement a fall  prevention and management plan and program for each at risk individual.
    C. Providers of residential or inpatient services  shall [ either ] provide or arrange for the provision of  appropriate medical care. A provider Providers of other services  shall define instances when it they shall provide or arrange for  appropriate medical and dental care and instances when it they  shall refer the individual to appropriate medical care. 
    D. The provider shall [ develop, document,  and ] implement [ written ] infection  control measures including the use of universal precautions.
    E. The provider shall report outbreaks of infectious  diseases to the Department of Health pursuant to § 32.1-37 of the Code of  Virginia.
    12VAC35-105-730. Medical information. (Repealed.)
    A. The provider shall develop and implement a medical  evaluation or document its ability to obtain a medical evaluation that consists  of, at a minimum, a health history and emergency medical information. 
    B. A health history shall include: 
    1. Allergies; 
    2. Recent physical complaints and medical conditions; 
    3. Chronic conditions; 
    4. Communicable diseases; 
    5. Handicaps or restriction on physical activities, if any;  
    6. Past serious illnesses, serious injuries and  hospitalizations; 
    7. Serious illnesses and chronic conditions of the  individual's parents, siblings and significant others in the same household; 
    8. Current and past drug usage including alcohol,  prescription and nonprescription medications, and illicit drugs; and 
    9. Sexual health and reproductive history. 
    12VAC35-105-740. Physical examination [ for residential  and inpatient services ]. 
    A. [ The provider shall develop in consultation  with a qualified practitioner and implement a policy on the provision of  physical examinations in consultation with a qualified practitioner. ]  Providers of residential [ or inpatient ] services shall  administer or obtain results of physical exams within 30 days of an  individual's admission. [ The examination must have been conducted  within one year of admission to the service. ] Providers of inpatient  services shall administer physical exams within 24 hours of an individual's  admission. 
    B. A physical examination shall include, at a minimum: 
    1. General physical condition (history and physical); 
    2. Evaluation for communicable diseases; 
    3. Recommendations for further diagnostic tests and treatment,  if appropriate; 
    4. Other examinations that may be indicated, if  appropriate; and 
    5. The date of examination and signature of a qualified  practitioner. 
    C. Locations designated for physical examinations shall  ensure individual privacy. 
    [ D. The provider shall make arrangements for the  timely receipt of any further diagnostic tests, treatments, or examinations  that may be indicated by the physical examination. 
    E. D. ] The provider shall  [ document review and follow-up with the ] results  of the physical examination and of any follow-up diagnostic tests, treatments,  or examinations in the individual's [ records  record ].
    12VAC35-105-750. Emergency medical information. 
    A. The provider shall maintain the following emergency  medical information for each individual: 
    1. If available, the name, address, and telephone number of: 
    a. The individual's physician; and 
    b. [ A relative, The ] legally  authorized representative [ , ] or other person to be  notified; 
    2. Medical insurance company name and policy or Medicaid,  Medicare [ , ] or CHAMPUS number, if any; and 
    3. Currently prescribed medications and over-the-counter  medications used by the individual; 
    4. Medication and food allergies; 
    5. History of substance abuse; 
    6. Significant medical problems or conditions; 
    7. Significant ambulatory or sensory problems;
    8. Significant communication problems; and 
    8. 9. Advance directive, if one exists. 
    B. Current emergency medical information shall be readily  available to employees or contractors wherever program services are provided. 
    Article 5 
  Medication Management Services 
    12VAC35-105-770. Medication management. 
    A. The provider shall [ develop and ] implement  written policies addressing: 
    1. The safe administration, handling, storage, and disposal of  medications; 
    2. The use of medication orders; 
    3. The handling of packaged medications brought by individuals  from home or other residences; 
    4. Employees or contractors who are authorized to  administer medication and training required for administration of medication; 
    5. The use of professional samples; and 
    6. The window within which medications can be given in  relation to the ordered [ or established ] time of  administration. 
    B. Medications shall be administered only by persons who  are authorized [ to do so ] by state law. 
    C. Medications shall be administered only to the individuals  for whom the medications are prescribed and shall be administered as  prescribed. 
    D. The provider shall maintain a daily log of all medicines  received and refused by each individual. This log shall identify the employee  or contractor who administered the medication, the name of the medication  and dosage administered or refused, and the time the medication was  administered or refused. 
    E. If the provider administers medications or supervises  self-administration of medication in a service, a current medication order for  all medications the individual receives shall be maintained on site. 
    F. The provider shall promptly dispose of discontinued drugs,  outdated drugs, and drug containers with worn, illegible, or missing labels  according to the applicable regulations of the Virginia Board of Pharmacy. 
    12VAC35-105-790. Medication administration and storage or  pharmacy operation. 
    A. The A provider responsible for medication  administration and medication storage or pharmacy operations shall comply with:  
    1. The Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq. of the Code of  Virginia); 
    2. The Virginia Board of Pharmacy regulations [ (18VAC110-20) ];  
    3. The Virginia Board of Nursing regulations [ and  Medication Administration Curriculum (18VAC90-20-370 through 18VAC90-20-390) ];  and 
    4. Applicable federal laws and regulations relating to  controlled substances. 
    B. The A provider responsible for medication  administration and storage or pharmacy operation shall provide in-service  training to employees and consultation to individuals or legally and  authorized representatives on issues of basic pharmacology including medication  side effects. 
    Article 6 
  Behavior Management Interventions
    12VAC35-105-800. Policies and procedures on behavior management  techniques interventions and supports. 
    A. The provider shall [ develop and ] implement  [ written ] policies and procedures that describe the use of  behavior management techniques interventions, including [ ,  but not limited to, ] seclusion, restraint, and time out. The  policies and procedures shall: 
    1. Be consistent with applicable federal and state laws and  regulations; 
    2. Emphasize positive approaches to behavior management  interventions; 
    3. List and define behavior management techniques interventions  in the order of their relative degree of intrusiveness or restrictiveness and  the conditions under which they may be used in each service for each  individual; 
    4. Protect the safety and well-being of the individual at all  times, including during fire and other emergencies; 
    5. Specify the mechanism for monitoring the use of behavior management  techniques interventions; and 
    6. Specify the methods for documenting the use of behavior management  techniques interventions. 
    B. The behavior management policies and procedures shall  be developed, implemented, and monitored by employees or contractors trained in  behavior management programming Employees and contractors trained in  behavior support interventions shall implement and monitor all behavior  interventions. 
    C. Policies and procedures related to behavior management  shall be available to individuals, their families, guardians and advocates  except that it does not apply to services provided in correctional facilities  interventions shall be available to individuals, their families, authorized  representatives, and advocates. Notification of policies does not need to occur  in correctional facilities. 
    D. Individuals receiving services shall not discipline,  restrain, seclude [ , ] or implement behavior management  techniques interventions on other individuals receiving services. 
    E. Injuries resulting from or occurring during the  implementation of behavior management techniques interventions  shall be recorded in the clinical individual's services record  and reported to [ the assigned human rights advocate and ] the  employee or contractor responsible for the overall coordination of services. 
    12VAC35-105-810. Behavioral treatment plan. 
    A [ written ] behavioral treatment plan may  be developed as part of the individualized services plan in response to  behavioral needs identified through the assessment process. A behavioral  treatment plan may include restrictions only if the plan has been developed  according to procedures outlined in the human rights regulations. Behavioral  A behavioral treatment plan shall be developed, implemented,  and monitored by employees or contractors trained in behavioral treatment. 
    12VAC35-105-820. Prohibited actions. 
    The following actions shall be prohibited: 
    1. Prohibition of contacts and visits with [ the  individual's ] attorney, probation officer, placing agency  representative, minister or chaplain; 
    2. Any action that is humiliating, degrading, or abusive; 
    [ 3. Corporal punishment; ] 
    [ 4. 3. ] Subjection to unsanitary  living conditions; 
    [ 5. 4. ] Deprivation of opportunities  for bathing or access to toilet facilities except as ordered by a licensed  physician for a legitimate medical purpose and documented in the individual's  record; 
    [ 6. 5. ] Deprivation of appropriate  services and treatment; 
    [ 7. 6. ] Deprivation of health care; 
    [ 8. 7. ] Administration of laxatives,  enemas, or emetics except as ordered by a physician or other professional  acting within the scope of his license for a legitimate medical purpose and  documented in the individual's record; 
    [ 9. 8. ] Applications of aversive  stimuli except as permitted pursuant to other applicable state regulations; 
    [ 10. 9. ] Limitation on contacts with  regulators, advocates or staff attorneys employed by the department or the Department  for the Rights of Virginians with Disabilities Virginia Office for  Protection and Advocacy. 
    [ 11. 10. ] Deprivation of drinking  water or food necessary to meet an individual's daily nutritional needs except  as ordered by a licensed physician for a legitimate medical purpose and  documented in the individual's record; 
    [ 12. 11. ] Prohibition on contacts and  or visits with family or legal guardian an authorized  representative except as permitted by other applicable state regulations or  by order of a court of competent jurisdiction; 
    [ 13. 12. ] Delay or withholding of  incoming or outgoing mail except as permitted by other applicable state and  federal regulations or by order of a court of competent jurisdiction; and 
    [ 14. 13. ] Deprivation of  opportunities for sleep or rest except as ordered by a licensed physician for a  legitimate medical purpose and documented in the individual's record. 
    12VAC35-105-830. Seclusion, restraint, and time out. 
    A. The use of seclusion, restraint, and time out shall comply  with applicable federal and state laws and regulations and be consistent with  the provider's policies and procedures. 
    B. Devices used for mechanical restraint shall be designed  specifically for behavior management of human beings in clinical or therapeutic  programs. 
    C. Application of time out, seclusion, [ and  or ] restraint shall be documented in the individual's record and  [ , at a minimum, ] include the following: 
    1. Physician's order [ for seclusion or mechanical  restraint or chemical restraint ]; 
    2. Date and time; 
    3. Employees or contractors involved; 
    4. Circumstances and reasons for use, including [ but  not limited to ] other behavior management techniques attempted; 
    5. Duration; 
    6. Type of technique used; and 
    7. Outcomes, including documentation of debriefing of the  individual and staff involved following the incident. 
    12VAC35-105-840. Requirements for seclusion room. 
    A. The room used for seclusion shall meet the design  requirements for buildings used for detention or seclusion of [ persons  individuals ]. 
    B. The seclusion room shall be at least six feet wide and six  feet long with a minimum ceiling height of eight feet. 
    C. The seclusion room shall be free of all protrusions, sharp  corners, hardware, fixtures or other devices which may cause injury to the occupant  individual.
    D. Windows in the seclusion room shall be so constructed as  to minimize breakage and otherwise prevent the occupant individual  from harming himself. 
    E. Light fixtures and other electrical receptacles in the  seclusion room shall be recessed or so constructed as to prevent the occupant  individual from harming himself. Light controls shall be located outside  the seclusion room. 
    F. Doors to the seclusion room shall be at least 32 inches  wide, shall open outward and shall contain observation view panels of  transparent wire glass or its approved equivalent, not exceeding 120 square  inches but of sufficient size for someone outside the door to see into all  corners of the room. 
    G. The seclusion room shall contain only a mattress with a  washable mattress covering designed to avoid damage by tearing. 
    H. The seclusion room shall maintain temperatures appropriate  for the season. 
    I. All space in the seclusion room shall be visible through  the locked door, either directly or by mirrors. 
    Article 7 
  Continuity of Service and Discharge 
    12VAC35-105-850. Transition of individuals among services.  (Repealed.) 
    A. The provider shall have written procedures to define  the process for the transition of an individual among services of the provider.  At a minimum, the policy will address: 
    1. Continuity of service; 
    2. Participation of the individual and his family; 
    3. Transfer of the individual's record; 
    4. Transfer summary; and 
    5. Where applicable, discharge and admission summaries. 
    B. The transfer summary will include at a minimum: 
    1. The originating service; 
    2. The destination service; 
    3. Reason for transfer; 
    4. Current psychiatric and medical condition of the  individual; 
    5. Updated progress on meeting the goals and objectives of  the ISP; 
    6. Medications and dosages in use; 
    7. Transfer date; and 
    8. Signature of employee or contractor responsible for  preparing the transfer summary. 
    12VAC35-105-860. Discharge. (Repealed.)
    A. The provider shall have written policies and procedures  regarding the discharge of individuals from the service and termination of  services. These policies and procedures shall include medical or clinical  criteria for discharge. 
    B. Discharge instructions shall be provided, in writing,  to the individual or his legally authorized representative or both. Discharge  instructions shall include, at a minimum, medications and dosages, phone  numbers and addresses of any providers to whom the individual is referred,  current medical issues, conditions, and the identity of health care providers.  This regulation applies to residential and inpatient services. 
    C. The provider shall make appropriate arrangements or  referrals to all services identified by the discharge plan prior to the  individual's scheduled discharge date. 
    D. Discharge planning and discharge shall be consistent with  the individualized services plan and the criteria for discharge. 
    E. The individual's, the individual's legally authorized  representative and the individual's family's involvement in discharge planning  shall be documented in the individual's service record. 
    F. A written discharge summary shall be completed within  30 days of discharge and shall include, at a minimum, the: 
    1. Reason for admission and discharge; 
    2. Individual's participation in discharge planning; 
    3. Individual's level of functioning or functional  limitations, if applicable; 
    4. Recommendations on procedures, activities, or referrals  to assist the individual in maintaining or improving functioning and increased  independence and the status, location and arrangements for future services that  have been made; 
    5. Progress made achieving the goals and objectives  identified in the individualized services plan and summary of critical events  during service provision; 
    6. Discharge date; 
    7. Discharge medications, if applicable; 
    8. Date the discharge summary was actually  written/documented; and 
    9. Signature of person who prepared summary. 
    Part V 
  Records Management 
    12VAC35-105-870. [ Written Paper ] and  electronic records management policy. 
    A. The provider shall [ develop and ]  implement a written [ and electronic ] records  management policy that shall describe describes confidentiality,  accessibility, security, and retention of [ paper and electronic ]  records pertaining to individuals, including: 
    1. Access and limitation of access, duplication and,  or dissemination of individual information only to persons legally  who are authorized to access such information according to  federal and state laws; 
    2. Storage, processing [ , ] and handling of  active and closed records; 
    3. Storage, processing [ , ] and handling of  electronic records; 
    4. Security measures to that protect records  from loss, unauthorized alteration, inadvertent or unauthorized access,  disclosure of information, and transportation of records between service  sites; physical and data security controls shall exist for electronic  records; 
    5. Strategies for service continuity and record recovery  from interruptions that result from disasters or emergencies including  contingency plans, electronic or manual back-up systems, and data retrieval  systems;
    6. Designation of the person responsible for  records management; and 
    6. 7. Disposition of records in the event  that the service ceases operation. If the disposition of records would  involve involves a transfer to another provider, the provider shall  have a written agreement with that provider. 
    B. The records management policy shall be consistent with applicable  state and federal laws and regulations including: 
    1. Section 32.1-127.1:03 of the Code of Virginia; 
    2. 42 USC § 290dd; 
    3. 42 CFR Part 2; and 
    4. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability  Act (Public Law 104-191 , 42 [ 45 USC § 300gg et seq. ]  ) and implementing regulations (42 CFR Part 146) (45 CFR Parts 160,  162, and 164). 
    12VAC35-105-880. Documentation policy. 
    A. The provider shall define, by policy, all records it  maintains that address an individual's care and treatment and what each record  contains. 
    B. The provider shall define, by policy, and implement  a system of documentation which that supports appropriate service  planning, coordination, and accountability. At a minimum this policy shall  outline: 
    1. The location of the individual's record; 
    2. Methods of access by employees or contractors to the  individual's record; and 
    3. Methods of updating the individual's record by employees or  contractors including the frequency and format of updates. 
    C. Entries in the individual's record shall be current,  dated, and authenticated by the person persons making the entry  entries. [ Errors For paper records, errors ] shall  be corrected by striking through [ and initialing ] the  incorrect information [ and initialing the correction ].  If records are electronic, the provider shall [ develop and ] implement  a written policy to identify [ to include the  identification of errors and corrections on the identification of  corrections ] of to the record. 
    12VAC35-105-890. Individual's service record. 
    A. There shall be a [ single, ] separate  primary record for each individual [ or family ] admitted  for service. A separate record shall be maintained for each family member who  is receiving individual treatment. 
    B. All individuals admitted to the service shall have  identifying information on the face sheet readily accessible in  the individual's service record. Identifying information on a standardized  face sheet or sheets shall include the following: 
    1. Identification number unique for the individual; 
    2. Name of individual; 
    3. Current residence, if known; 
    4. Social security number; 
    5. Gender; 
    6. Marital status; 
    7. Date of birth; 
    8. Name of legal guardian or authorized representative,  if applicable; 
    9. Name, address, and telephone number for emergency contact; 
    10. Adjudicated legal incompetency or legal incapacity, if  applicable; and 
    11. Date of admission to service. 
    C. In addition to the face sheet, an individual's  service record shall contain, at a minimum: 
    1. Screening documentation; 
    2. Assessments; 
    3. Medical evaluation, as applicable to the service; 
    4. Individualized services plans and reviews; 
    5. Progress notes; and 
    6. A discharge summary, if applicable. 
    12VAC35-105-900. Record storage and security. 
    A. When not in use, active and closed [ paper ]  records shall be stored in a locked cabinet or room. 
    B. Physical and data security controls shall exist for  to protect electronic records. 
    12VAC35-105-910. Retention of individual's service records. 
    [ A. An Unless otherwise specified by state or  federal requirements, the The ] provider shall retain an  individual's service records shall be kept record for [ a  minimum of three years after his discharge date or date of last  contact unless otherwise specified by state or federal requirements the  time period specified by state or federal requirements ]. 
    [ B. Permanent information kept on each individual shall  include The provider shall retain the following individual information  permanently: 
    1. Individual's name; 
    2. Social security number; 
    3. Date of individual's birth; 
    4. Dates of admission and discharge, and
    5. Name and address of legal guardian authorized  representative, if any. ]
    Part VI 
  Additional Requirements for Selected Services 
    Article 1 
  [ Medication Assisted Treatment ( ] Opioid Treatment Services  [ ) ] 
    12VAC35-105-925. Standards for the evaluation of [ the  need for ] new licenses for providers of services to [ persons  individuals ] with opioid addiction.
    A. Applicants requesting an initial license to provide a new  service for the treatment of opioid addiction through the use of methadone or  any other opioid treatment medication or controlled substance shall  supply information to demonstrate the department that demonstrates  the [ need for, and ] appropriateness of [ , ] the  proposed service in accordance with this section.
    [ B. Applicants shall demonstrate that the geographic  and demographic parameters of the service area are reasonable and the proposed  service is expected to serve a sufficient number of individuals to justify the  service as documented in subsection D of this section. For purposes of  demonstrating need, applicants shall define a service area that is located  entirely in Virginia and does not extend more than 100 miles from the proposed  location of the service. Applicants also shall identify the number of  individuals they seek to be licensed to serve.
    C. Applicants shall submit admission policies that give  priority to individuals residing in the service area for admission and  placement on waiting lists.
    D. Applicants shall demonstrate that there are persons  residing in their service areas who have an opioid addiction who would benefit  from the proposed service. The following information may be used by the  applicant to document that individuals in the service area are known or  reasonably expected to need the proposed service:
    1. Numbers of persons on waiting lists for admission to any  existing opioid addiction or other public substance abuse treatment program in  the service area for the most recent available 12-month period;
    2. Numbers of opioid use disorder cases (e.g., overdoses)  originating from the proposed service area that have been treated in hospital  emergency rooms for the most recent available 12-month period;
    3. Projections of the number of persons in the service area  who are likely to obtain services for opioid addiction, based on drug-use  forecasting data;
    4. Data reported on suicidal and accidental deaths related  to opioid use in the proposed service area for the most recent available  12-month period;
    5. Data regarding arrests from local law-enforcement  officials in the proposed service area related to illicit opioid activities;
    6. Data on communicable diseases for the proposed service  area related to injection drug abuse (e.g. HIV, AIDS, TB, and Hepatitis B and  C);
    7. Data on the availability of any evidence-based  alternative service or services that have been proven effective in the  treatment of opioid addiction and that are accessible to persons within the  proposed service area, including services provided by physicians' offices; and
    8. Letters of support from citizens, governmental  officials, or health care providers, that indicate that there are conditions or  problems associated with substance abuse in the community that demonstrate a  need for opioid treatment services in the service area.
    E. The department shall determine whether a need exists  for the proposed service based on the documentation provided in accordance with  subsection D of this section and the consideration of the following standards:
    1. Whether there are a sufficient number of persons in the  proposed service area who are likely to need the specific opioid treatment  service that the applicant intends to provide;
    2. Whether the data indicate that evidence-based service  capacity in the service area is not responsive to or sufficient enough to meet  the needs of individuals with opioid addiction; and
    3. Whether there is documentation of support to confirm the  need for the proposed service in the proposed service area.
    F. B. ] The proposed site of the service  shall comply with § 37.2-406 of the Code of Virginia and, with the  exception of services that are proposed to be located in Planning District 8,  shall not be located within one-half mile of a public or private licensed day  care center or a public or private K-12 school. 
    [ G. C. ] In jurisdictions without  zoning ordinances, the department shall request that the local governing body advise  it as to whether the proposed site is suitable for and compatible with use as  an office and the delivery of health care services. The department shall make  this request when it notifies the local governing body of a pending  application.
    [ H. D. ] Applicants shall  demonstrate that the building or space to be used to provide the proposed  service is suitable for the treatment of opioid addiction by submitting  documentation of the following:
    1. The proposed site complies with the requirements of the  local building regulatory entity;
    2. The proposed site complies with local zoning laws or  ordinances, including any required business licenses;
    3. In the absence of local zoning ordinances, the proposed  site is suitable for and compatible with use as offices and the delivery of  health care services;
    4. In jurisdictions where there are no parking ordinances, the  proposed site has sufficient off-street parking to accommodate the needs of the  individuals being served and prevent the disruption of traffic flow;
    5. The proposed site can accommodate individuals during  periods of inclement weather;
    6. The proposed site complies with the Virginia Statewide Fire  Prevention Code; and
    7. The applicant has a written plan to ensure security for  storage of methadone at the site, which complies with regulations of the Drug  Enforcement Agency (DEA), and the Virginia Board of Pharmacy.
    [ I. E. ] Applicants shall submit  information to demonstrate that there are sufficient personnel available to  meet the following staffing requirements and qualifications:
    1. The program director shall be licensed or certified by the  applicable Virginia health regulatory board or by a nationally recognized  certification board [ , ] or eligible for this license or  certification with relevant training, experience, or both, in the treatment of  [ persons individuals ] with opioid addiction;
    2. The medical director shall be a board-certified  addictionologist or have successfully completed or will complete within one  year [ , ] a course of study in opiate addiction that is  approved by the department;
    3. A minimum of one pharmacist;
    4. Nurses;
    5. Counselors shall be licensed or certified by the applicable  Virginia health regulatory board or by a nationally recognized certification  board [ , ] or eligible for this license or certification; and  
    6. Personnel to provide support services.
    [ J. F. ] Applicants shall submit a  description for the proposed service that includes:
    1. Proposed mission, philosophy, and goals of the provider;
    2. Care, treatment, and services to be provided, including a  comprehensive discussion of levels of care provided and alternative treatment  strategies offered;
    3. Proposed hours and days of operation;
    4. Plans for on-site security; and
    5. A diversion control plan for dispensed medications,  including policies for use of drug screens.
    [ K. G. ] Applicants shall, in  addition to the requirements of 12VAC35-105-580 C 2, provide documentation of  their capability to provide the following services and support directly or by  arrangement with other specified providers when such services and supports are  (i) requested by an individual being served or (ii) identified as an individual  need, based on the assessment conducted in accordance with 12VAC35-105-60 B and  included in the individualized services plan:
    1. Psychological services;
    2. Social services;
    3. Vocational services;
    4. Educational services; and 
    5. Employment services.
    [ L. H. ] Applicants shall submit  documentation of contact with community services boards or behavioral health  authorities in their service areas to discuss [ its their ]  plans for operating in the area and to develop joint agreements, as  appropriate.
    [ M. I. ] Applicants shall provide  policies and procedures that [ require every six months ] each  individual served to be assessed [ every six months ] by the  treatment team to determine if that individual is appropriate for safe and  voluntary medically supervised withdrawal, alternative therapies including  other medication assisted treatments, or continued federally approved pharmacotherapy  treatment for opioid addiction.
    [ N. J. ] Applicants shall submit  policies and procedures describing services they will provide to individuals  who wish to discontinue opioid treatment services.
    [ O. K. ] Applicants shall provide  assurances that the service will have a community liaison responsible for  developing and maintaining cooperative relationships with community  organizations, other service providers, local law enforcement, local government  officials, and the community at large.
    [ P. L. ] The department [ ,  including the Office of Licensing, Office of Human Rights, or Office of  Substance Abuse Services, ] shall conduct announced and unannounced  reviews and complaint investigations, in collaboration with the state  methadone authority, Virginia Board of Pharmacy, and DEA to  determine compliance with the regulations.
    12VAC35-105-930. Registration, certification or accreditation. 
    A. The opioid treatment service shall maintain current  registration or certification with: 
    1. The Federal federal Drug Enforcement  Administration; 
    2. The federal Department of Health and Human Services; and 
    3. The Virginia Board of Pharmacy. 
    B. If required by federal regulations, a A  provider of opioid treatment services shall [ be required to ] maintain  accreditation with an entity approved under federal regulations. 
    12VAC35-105-940. Criteria for involuntary termination from  treatment. 
    A. The provider shall establish criteria for involuntary  termination from treatment that describe the rights of the individual receiving  services and the responsibilities and rights of the provider. 
    B. The provider shall establish a grievance procedure as part  of the rights of the individual. 
    C. On admission, the individual shall be given a copy of the  criteria and shall sign a statement acknowledging receipt of same. The signed  acknowledgement shall be maintained in the individual's record. 
    D. Upon admission and annually all individuals shall sign  an authorization for disclosure of information to allow programs access to the  Virginia Prescription Monitoring System. Failure to comply shall be grounds for  nonadmission to the program.
    12VAC35-105-950. Service operation schedule. 
    A. The service's days of operation shall meet the needs of  the population individuals served. If the service dispenses or  administers a medication requiring daily dosing, the service shall operate  seven days a week, 12 months a year, except for official state holidays. Prior  approval from the state methadone authority shall be required for  additional closed days. 
    B. The service may close on Sundays if the following  criteria are met:
    1. The provider develops and implements policies and  procedures that address recently inducted individuals receiving services,  individuals not currently on a stable dose of medication, patients that present  noncompliance treatment behaviors, and individuals who previously picked up  [ take-homes take-home medications ] on  Sundays, security of take-home [ medication ] doses,  and health and safety of individuals receiving services.
    2. The provider receives prior approval from the state  methadone authority for Sunday closings.
    3. Once approved, the provider shall notify individuals  receiving services in writing at least 30 days in advance of their intent to  close on Sundays. The notice shall address the risks to the individuals and the  security of take-home medications. All individuals shall receive an orientation  addressing take-home policies and procedures, and this orientation shall be  documented in the [ patient individual's ]  record prior to receiving take-home medications.
    4. The provider shall establish procedures for emergency  access to dosing information 24 hours a day, seven days a week. This  information may be provided via an answering service, pager, or other  electronic measures. Information needed includes the individual's last dosing  time and date, and dose.
    C. Medication dispensing hours shall include at least  two hours each day of operation outside normal working hours, i.e., before 9  a.m. and after 5 p.m. The state methadone authority may approve an  alternative schedule if that schedule meets the needs of the population served.  
    12VAC35-105-960. Physical examinations. 
    A. The individual shall have a complete physical [ evaluation  examination ] prior to admission to the service unless the  individual is transferring from another licensed opioid agonist service.  [ A full physical examination, including the The ]  results of serology and other tests [ , ] shall be [ completed  available ] within 14 days of admission. 
    B. Physical exams of each individual shall be completed  annually or more frequently if there is a change in the individual's physical  or mental condition. 
    C. The provider shall maintain the report of the individual's  physical examination in the individual's service record. 
    D. On admission, all individuals shall be [ tested offered  testing ] for AIDS/HIV. The individual may sign a notice of refusal  without prejudice. 
    E. The provider shall coordinate treatment services for  individuals who are prescribed benzodiapines and prescription narcotics with  the treating physician. The coordination shall be the responsibility of the  provider's physician and shall be documented.
    12VAC35-105-970. Counseling sessions. 
    The provider shall conduct face-to-face counseling sessions  (either individual or group) at least every two weeks for the first year of an  individual's treatment and every month in the second year of the  individual's treatment. After two years, the number of face-to-face  counseling sessions that an individual receives shall be based on the  individual's progress in treatment. Absences The failure of an  individual to participate in counseling sessions shall be addressed as part  of the overall treatment process. 
    12VAC35-105-980. Drug screens. 
    A. The provider shall perform at least eight random drug  screens during a 12-month period unless the conditions in subdivision B of this  subsection apply; 
    B. Whenever an individual's drug screen indicates continued  illicit drug use or when clinically and environmentally indicated, random drug  screens shall be performed weekly. 
    C. Drug screens shall be analyzed for opiates, methadone (if  ordered), benzodiazepines [ , ] and cocaine. In addition, drug  screens for other drugs with that have the potential for  addiction shall be performed when clinically and environmentally indicated. 
    D. The provider shall [ develop and ] implement  a [ written ] policy on how the results of drug screens shall  be used to direct treatment. 
    12VAC35-105-990. Take-home medication. 
    A. Prior to dispensing regularly scheduled take-home  medication, the provider shall ensure the individual demonstrates a level of  current lifestyle stability as evidenced by the following: 
    1. Regular clinic attendance, including dosing and  participation in counseling or group sessions; 
    2. Absence of recent alcohol abuse and [ other ]  illicit drug use; 
    3. Absence of significant behavior problems; and 
    4. Absence of recent criminal activities, charges [ , ]  or convictions;
    5. Stability of the individual's home environment and  social relationships; 
    6. Length of time in treatment; 
    7. Ability to assure take-home medications are safely  stored; and 
    8. Demonstrated rehabilitative benefits of take-home  medications outweigh the risks of possible diversion.
    B. The provider shall educate the individual on the safe  transportation and storage of take-home medication. 
    12VAC35-105-1000. Preventing duplication of medication  services. 
    To prevent duplication of opioid medication services to an  individual, the provider shall have [ develop and ]  implement a [ written ] policy and implement  procedures to contact for contacting every opioid treatment  service within a 50-mile radius before admitting an individual. 
    12VAC35-105-1010. Guests. 
    A. No medication shall be dispensed The provider  shall not dispense medication to any guest unless the guest has been  receiving such medication services from another provider and documentation from  such that provider has been received prior to dispensing  medication. 
    B. Guests may receive medication for up to 28 days. To  continue receiving medication after 28 days, the guest must be admitted to the  service. Individuals receiving guest medications as part of a residential  treatment service may exceed the 28-day maximum time limit. 
    12VAC35-105-1020. Detoxification prior to involuntary  discharge. 
    Individuals The provider shall give an individual  who are is being involuntarily discharged shall be given  an opportunity to detoxify from opioid agonist medication not less than 10 days  or not more than 30 days prior to his discharge from the service, unless  the state methadone authority has granted an exception. 
    12VAC35-105-1040. Emergency preparedness plan. 
    The provider's emergency preparedness plan shall  include provision for the continuation of opioid treatment in the event of an  emergency or natural disaster. 
    12VAC35-105-1050. Security of opioid agonist medication  supplies. 
    A. At a minimum, the provider shall secure opioid  agonist medication supplies shall be secured as follows: by  restricting access to medication areas to medical or pharmacy personnel.
    1. Admittance to the medication area shall be restricted to  medical or pharmacy personnel; 
    2. B. Medication inventory shall be  reconciled The provider shall reconcile the medication inventory  monthly; and. 
    3. C. Inventory The provider shall  keep inventory records, including the monthly reconciliation, shall be  kept for three years. 
    B. D. The provider shall maintain a current  plan to control the diversion of medication to unprescribed or illegal uses. 
    Article 2 
  [ Medically ] Managed Withdrawal Services
    12VAC35-105-1055. Description of level of care provided.
    In the service description the provider shall describe the  level of services and the medical management provided. 
    Article 2 
  Social Detoxification Services 
    12VAC35-105-1060. Cooperative agreements with community  agencies. 
    The provider shall establish cooperative agreements with  other community agencies to accept referrals for treatment, including  provisions for physician coverage if not provided on-site, and emergency  medical care. The agreements shall clearly outline the responsibility of each  party. 
    12VAC35-105-1080. Direct-care training for providers of  detoxification services. 
    A. The provider shall document staff training in the areas  of: 
    1. Management of withdrawal; and 
    2. First responder training; or.
    3. First aid and CPR training. 
    B. New employees or contractors shall be trained within 30  days of employment. Untrained employees or contractors shall not be solely  responsible for the care of individuals. 
    12VAC35-105-1090. Minimum number of employees or contractors on  duty. 
    In detoxification service locations, at least two employees  or contractors shall be on duty at all times. If the location is within or  contiguous to another service location, at least one employee or contractor  shall be on duty at the location with trained backup employees or contractors  immediately available. In other managed withdrawal settings the number of  staff on duty shall be appropriate for the services offered and individuals served.
    12VAC35-105-1100. Documentation. 
    Employees or contractors on each shift shall document  services provided and significant events in the individual's record on each  shift. 
    12VAC35-105-1110. Admission assessments. 
    During the admission process, providers of detoxification  managed withdrawal services shall: 
    1. Identify individuals with a high-risk for medical  complications or who may pose a danger to themselves or others; 
    2. Assess substances used and time of last use; 
    3. Determine time of last meal; 
    4. Administer a urine screen; 
    6. 5. Analyze blood alcohol content or  administer a breathalyzer; and 
    7. 6. Record vital signs. 
    Article 3 
  Services in Department of Corrections Correctional Facilities 
    12VAC35-105-1140. Clinical and security coordination. 
    A. The provider shall have formal and informal methods of  resolving procedural and programmatic issues regarding individual care arising  between the clinical and security employees or contractors. 
    B. The provider shall demonstrate ongoing communication  between clinical and security employees to ensure individual care. 
    C. The provider shall provide cross-training for the clinical  and security employees or contractors that includes: 
    1. Mental health, mental retardation (intellectual  disability), and substance abuse education; 
    2. Use of clinical and security restraints; and 
    3. Channels of communication. 
    D. Employees or contractors shall receive periodic in-service  training, and have knowledge of and be able to demonstrate the  appropriate use of clinical and security restraint. 
    E. Security and behavioral assessments shall be completed at  the time of admission to determine service eligibility and at least weekly for  the safety of individuals, other persons, employees, and visitors. 
    F. Personal grooming and care services for individuals shall  be a cooperative effort between the clinical and security employees or  contractors. 
    G. Clinical needs and security level shall be considered when  arrangements are made regarding privacy for individual contact with family and  attorneys. 
    H. Living quarters shall be assigned on the basis of the  individual's security level and clinical needs. 
    I. An assessment of the individual's clinical condition and  needs shall be made when disciplinary action or restrictions are required for  infractions of security measures. 
    J. Clinical services consistent with the individual's  condition and plan of treatment shall be provided when security detention or  isolation is imposed. 
    12VAC35-105-1150. Other requirements for correctional facilities.  
    A. Group bathroom facilities shall be partitioned between  toilets and urinals to provide privacy. 
    B. If uniform clothing is required, the clothing shall be  properly fitted, climatically suitable, durable, and presentable. 
    C. Financial compensation for work performed shall be  determined by the Department of Corrections. Personal housecleaning tasks may  be assigned without compensation to the individual. 
    D. The use of audio equipment, such as televisions, radios,  and record players, shall not interfere with therapeutic activities. 
    E. Aftercare planning for individuals nearing the end of  incarceration shall include a provision for continuing medication and  follow-up services with area community services to facilitate successful  reintegration into the community including specific appointment provided to the  inmate no later than the day of release. 
    Article 4 
  Sponsored Residential Homes Services 
    12VAC35-105-1160. Sponsored residential home information. 
    Providers of sponsored residential home services shall  maintain the following information: 
    1. Names and ages of residential sponsors; 
    2. Date of sponsored residential home agreement; 
    3. The maximum number of individuals that can be placed in the  home at a given time; 
    4. Names and ages of all other individuals who are not  receiving services, but are residing in a sponsored residential  home; 
    5. Address and telephone number of the sponsored residential  home; and 
    6. All Names of all staff employed in the home,  including on-call and substitute staff. 
    12VAC35-105-1170. Sponsored residential home agreements. 
    A. The provider shall [ develop and ] maintain  a written agreement with residential home sponsors. Sponsors are individuals  persons who provide the home where the service is located and are directly  responsible for the provision of services. The agreement shall include the:  
    1. Be available for inspection by the licensing specialist;  and Provider's responsibilities; 
    2. Include a provision for granting the right of entry to  state licensing specialists or human rights advocates to investigate  complaints. Sponsor's responsibilities;
    3. Scope of services;
    4. Supervision;
    5. Compensation;
    6. Training; and
    7. Reporting requirements and procedures.
    B. The agreement shall be available for inspection by the  licensing specialist and shall include a provision for granting the right of  entry to state licensing specialists or human rights advocates to conduct  inspections. 
    12VAC35-105-1180. Sponsor qualification and approval process. 
    A. The provider shall evaluate and certify each  sponsored residential homes home other than his own through  face-to-face interviews, home visits inspections, and other  information documenting compliance with this [ regulation section  ]. The provider shall submit the certification form to the department  before individuals are placed in the home and ensure that the following  requirements are met annually. 
    B. The provider shall certify and document that all  each sponsored residential homes meet home meets the  criteria for physical environment and residential services [ designated ] in  these regulations. 
    C. The provider shall document the ability of the  sponsored staff's ability residential home staff to meet the  needs of the individuals placed in the home by assessing and documenting: 
    1. The sponsored staff's ability of the [ sponsor  or any ] staff to communicate and understand individuals  receiving services; 
    2. The sponsored staff's ability of the [ sponsor  or any ] staff to provide the care, treatment, training, or  habilitation for individual individuals receiving services in the  home; 
    3. The abilities of all members of the sponsored  household to accept individuals with disabilities and their disability-related  characteristics, especially the ability of children in the household to adjust  to nonfamily members living with them; and 
    4. The financial capacity of the sponsor to meet the sponsor's  own expenses for up to 90 days, independent of payments received for residents  living in the home.; and 
    5. The education, qualifications, and experience of the  [ sponsor or ] staff with the individuals served including  Virginia Department of Motor Vehicles driving record, tuberculosis screening,  first-aid and CPR certification, and completion of medication administration  and behavior [ management ] interventions  training.
    D. The provider shall obtain three job-related  references, past licensing history, criminal background checks,  and a search of the registry of founded complaints of child abuse and neglect  maintained by the Department of Social Services for the sponsor and all adults  in the home who are staff. The provider must develop policies for  obtaining references, background and registry checks for all adults in the home  who are not staff and not the individuals being served. 
    E. The provider shall [ develop and ]  implement written policies for obtaining references, criminal background  checks, and registry checks for all adults in the home who are neither staff  nor individuals being served. The policy shall indicate what action the provider  will take if the results indicate that a member of the sponsor family has been  convicted of a barrier crime or fails to meet the requirements of this  regulation should an ineligible result be received. 
    F. Sponsored The sponsored residential  home members shall submit to the provider the results of a physical and  mental health examination of family members when requested by the  provider based on indications of a physical or mental health problem issue.  
    F. G. Sponsored residential homes shall not  also operate as group homes or Department of Social Services approved homes  or foster homes. 
    H. The provider shall submit the name, address, and  certification of the sponsored residential home to the department prior to  adding the home. The provider shall submit the name and address of the  sponsored residential home to the department prior to closing the home. The  provider shall submit a service modification when approving homes more than 100  miles from the previously approved homes. 
    12VAC35-105-1190. Sponsored residential home service policies. 
    A. The provider shall [ develop and ] implement  [ written ] policies to provide orientation and supportive  services to sponsored the sponsored residential home staff  specific to individual the needs of the individuals receiving  services. 
    B. The provider shall [ develop and ] implement  a training plan for the sponsored sponsor staff consistent with resident  the needs of the individuals receiving services. 
    C. The provider shall specify staffing arrangements in all sponsored  residential homes, including on-call and substitute care arrangements.  
    D. The provider shall [ develop and ] implement  a written policy on managing, monitoring, and supervising  sponsored residential homes. This policy shall address changes in supervision  arrangements as the number of homes increase.
    E. The provider shall conduct at least semi-annual  unannounced visits to inspections of each sponsored residential homes  home other than his own. Inspections shall be performed at least on a  quarterly basis during the year with at least two being unannounced  inspections.
    F. On an on-going basis and at least annually, the provider  shall review and document compliance of by each sponsored  residential homes home and sponsors sponsor with  regulations related to sponsored residential homes. 
    G. The provider shall develop written policies regarding  termination of for terminating a sponsored residential home. 
    H. The provider shall document that all residents or their  authorized representatives are provided the opportunity to choose a new  placement when the current placement ends. Prior to moving an individual to  another placement the provider shall conduct and document a meeting to include  the individual and [ their his ] authorized  representative, if applicable, case manager, the current sponsor, and a  receiving placement staff, if possible.
    12VAC35-105-1200. Supervision. 
    A. The provider shall have a supervisor for every [ 20  15 ] sponsored residential homes where individuals are residing. 
    B. A responsible adult shall be available to provide  supervision to the individual as specified in the individualized service plan. 
    B. C. Any member of the sponsor family who  transports individuals receiving services must have a valid driver's license  and automobile liability insurance. The vehicle used to transport individuals  receiving services shall have a valid registration and inspection sticker. 
    C. D. The sponsor shall inform the provider in  advance of any anticipated additions or changes in the sponsored residential  home or as soon as possible after an unexpected change occurs. 
    E. In addition to the current reporting requirements the  sponsor shall report all hospitalizations of [ the ]  individuals being served to the provider and the individual's case manager  within 24 hours. 
    12VAC35-105-1210. Sponsored residential home service records. 
    Providers of sponsored residential home services shall  maintain [ the following ] records on each sponsored  residential home [ , which shall include ]: 
    1. Documentation of three references for the owner  of the sponsor home; 
    2. Criminal background checks and results of the search of the  registry of founded complaints of child abuse and neglect on for  all adults who are staff adult employees in the home; 
    3. Orientation and training provided by the provider to the  sponsor and employees; 
    4. A The log of provider visits to each inspections  of the sponsored residential home including the date, the staff person  visiting employee conducting the inspection, the purpose of the visit  inspection, and a description of any significant events [ or  findings ]; and 
    5. The sponsor will maintain a daily log maintained  by the sponsor of significant events related to individuals receiving  services. 
    12VAC35-105-1220. Regulations pertaining to employees staff.  
    Providers will shall certify and document  compliance of sponsors with regulations pertaining to employees staff.  
    12VAC35-105-1230. Maximum number of beds or occupants in  sponsored residential home.
    The maximum number of individuals served in a sponsored  residential home beds is two. The maximum number of occupants in a  sponsored residential home is seven. 
    12VAC35-105-1235. Sponsored residential home services for  children.
    In addition, the following requirements shall be met for  homes serving children:
    1. The provider shall develop a service description based  upon evidence-based practices or an accepted therapeutic model of mental  health, [ mental retardation (intellectual disability),  developmental or ] substance abuse [ services ],  or brain injury care for children.
    2. The provider shall use a treatment team model consisting  of staff who provide intensive support and consultation to the sponsor parents.
    3. Weekly team meetings and supervision shall be held with  the sponsor parent or parents to review progress on each case, review the daily  behavioral information collected, and adjust the child's individualized  services plan.
    4. The sponsor parent or parents shall keep a daily log of  behavioral and other child specific information and be available for daily  Monday through Friday contact from the provider.
    5. The sponsor parent or parents shall receive 25 hours per  year of in-service training pertaining to providing services for the child they  serve in addition to the training otherwise required in these regulations. The  sponsor parent or parents shall also participate in ongoing training at least  once a quarter.
    6. The provider is not considered a child placing agency.  Children are placed with the provider by licensed child placing agencies, local  departments of social services, or parents. 
    7. The sponsor parent or parents shall be at least 25 years  old.
    8. The sponsor parent or parents shall be able to provide  care and supervision during nonschool hours. 
    9. The provider shall have access through directly providing  it or developing agreements for 24-hour emergency mental health care for  children [ served ] with serious emotional disturbances  [ served ].
    Article 5 
  Case Management Services 
    12VAC35-105-1240. Service requirements for providers of case  management services. 
    A. As part of the intake assessment, the provider of case  management services shall identify individuals whose needs may be addressed  through case management services. 
    B. Providers of case management services shall  document that the services below are performed consistent with the individual's  assessment and individualized services plan ISP. 
    1. Enhancing community integration through increased  opportunities for community access and involvement and creating opportunities  to enhance community living skills to promote community adjustment including,  to the maximum extent possible, the use of local community resources available  to the general public; 
    2. Making collateral contacts with the individual's  significant others with properly authorized releases to promote implementation  of the individual's individualized services plan and his community adjustment; 
    3. Assessing needs and planning services to include developing  a case management individualized services plan; 
    4. Linking the individual to those community supports that are  most likely to promote the personal [ habilitative/rehabilitative  habilitative or rehabilitative ] and life goals of the individual  as developed in the individualized service plan (ISP) ISP; 
    5. Assisting the individual directly to locate, develop, or  obtain needed services, resources, and appropriate public benefits; 
    6. Assuring the coordination of services and service planning  within a provider agency, with other providers [ , ] and with  other human service agencies and systems, such as local health and social  services departments; 
    7. Monitoring service delivery through contacts with  individuals receiving services [ , and ] service  providers and periodic site and home visits to assess the quality of care and  satisfaction of the individual; 
    8. Providing follow up instruction, education [ , ]  and counseling to guide the individual and develop a supportive relationship  that promotes the individualized services plan ISP; 
    9. Advocating for individuals in response to their changing  needs, based on changes in the individualized services plan;
    10. Developing a crisis plan for an individual that  includes the individual's references regarding treatment in an emergency  situation;
    11. 10. Planning for transitions in [ the ]  individual's [ lives life ] ; and 
    12. 11. Knowing and monitoring the individual's  health status, any medical conditions, and his medications and potential side  effects, and assisting the individual in accessing primary care and other  medical services, as needed.; and
    12. Understanding the capabilities of services to meet the  individual's [ indentified identified ] needs  and preferences and to serve the individual without placing the individual,  other participants, or staff at risk of serious harm.
    12VAC35-105-1250. Qualifications of case management employees  or contractors. 
    A. Employees or contractors providing case management  services shall have knowledge of: 
    1. Services and systems available in the community including  primary health care, support services, eligibility criteria and intake  processes and generic community resources; 
    2. The nature of serious mental illness, mental retardation and/or  (intellectual disability), substance abuse [ (substance use  disorders) ], or co-occurring disorders depending on the population  [ individual's individuals ] served, including  clinical and developmental issues; 
    3. Different types of assessments, including functional  assessment, and their uses in service planning; 
    4. Treatment modalities and intervention techniques, such as  behavior management, independent living skills training, supportive counseling,  family education, crisis intervention, discharge planning [ , ]  and service coordination; 
    5. Types of mental health, [ mental retardation (intellectual  disability) developmental, ] and substance abuse programs  available in the locality; 
    6. The service planning process and major components of a  service plan; 
    7. The use of medications in the care or treatment of the  population served; and 
    8. All applicable federal and state laws [ , state  and ] regulations and local ordinances. 
    B. Employees or contractors providing case management  services shall have skills in: 
    1. Identifying and documenting an individual's need for  resources, services, and other supports; 
    2. Using information from assessments, evaluations,  observation, and interviews to develop service plans; 
    3. Identifying and documenting how resources, services [ , ] and  natural supports such as family can be utilized to promote achievement of an  individual's personal [ habilitative/rehabilitative habilitative  or rehabilitative ] and life goals; and 
    4. Coordinating the provision of services by diverse public  and private providers. 
    C. Employees or contractors providing case management  services shall have abilities to: 
    1. Work as team members, maintaining effective inter- and  intra-agency working relationships; 
    2. Work independently performing position duties under general  supervision; and 
    3. Engage [ in ] and sustain ongoing  relationships with individuals receiving services. 
    12VAC35-105-1255. Case manager choice.
    The provider shall [ develop and ]  implement a [ written ] policy [ as  to describing ] how individuals are assigned case  managers and how they can request a change of their assigned case manager. 
    12VAC35-105-1270. Physical environment requirements of  community gero-psychiatric residential services. 
    A. Providers shall be responsible for ensuring safe mobility  and unimpeded access to programs or services by installing and maintaining  ramps, handrails, grab bars, elevators, protective surfaces [ , ]  and other assistive devices or accommodations as determined by periodic review  of the needs of the individuals being served. Entries, doors, halls [ , ]  and program areas, including bedrooms, must have adequate room to accommodate  [ wheel chairs wheelchairs ] and allow for proper  transfer of individuals. Single bedrooms shall have at least 100 square feet  and multi-bed rooms shall have [ at least ] 80 square feet per  individual. 
    B. Floors must have resilient, nonabrasive, and  slip-resistant floor surfaces and floor coverings that promote mobility in  areas used by individuals and promote maintenance of sanitary conditions. 
    C. Temperatures shall be maintained between 70°F and 80°F  throughout resident areas. 
    D. Bathrooms, showers [ , ] and program  areas must be accessible to individuals. There must be at least one bathing  unit available by lift, door [ , ] or swivel-type tub. 
    E. Areas must be provided for quiet and for  recreation. 
    F. Areas must be provided for charting, storing of  administrative supplies, a utility room, employee hand washing, dirty linen,  clean linen storage, clothes washing, and equipment storage. 
    12VAC35-105-1280. Monitoring. 
    Employees or contractors shall regularly monitor  individuals in all areas of the residence to ensure safety. 
    12VAC35-105-1290. Service requirements for providers of  gero-psychiatric residential services. 
    A. Providers shall provide mental health, nursing and  rehabilitative services; medical and psychiatric services; and pharmaceutical  services for each individual as specified in the individualized services  plan ISP. 
    B. Providers shall provide crisis stabilization services. 
    C. Providers shall [ develop and ] implement  written policies and procedures that support an active program of mental health  and behavioral management [ services ] directed toward  assisting each individual to achieve outcomes consistent with the highest level  of self-care, independence [ , ] and quality of life.  Programming may be on-site or at another location in the community. 
    D. Providers shall [ develop and ] implement  written policies and procedures that respond to the nursing needs of each  individual to achieve outcomes consistent with the highest level of self-care,  independence [ , ] and quality of life. Providers shall be  responsible for: 
    1. Providing each individual services to prevent clinically  avoidable complications, including [ but not limited to ]:  skin care, dexterity and mobility, continence, hydration [ , ]  and nutrition; 
    2. Giving each individual proper daily personal attention and  care, including skin, nail, hair [ , ] and oral hygiene, in  addition to any specific care ordered by the attending physician; 
    3. Dressing each individual in clean clothing and encouraging  each individual to wear day clothing when out of bed; 
    4. Providing each individual tub or shower baths as often as  needed, but not less than twice weekly [ , ] or a sponge bath  daily if the medical condition prohibits tub or shower baths.; 
    5. Providing each individual appropriate pain management; and 
    6. Ensuring that each individual has his own personal  utensils, grooming items, adaptive devices [ , ] and other  personal belongings including those with sentimental value. 
    E. Providers shall integrate [ behavioral/mental health  behavioral and mental health ] care and [ medical/nursing  medical and nursing ] care in the [ individualized services  plan ISP ]. 
    F. Providers shall have available nourishment between  scheduled meals. 
    12VAC35-105-1300. Staffing requirements for community  gero-psychiatric residential services. 
    A. Community gero-psychiatric residential services shall be  under the direction of a: 
    1. Program director with experience in gero-psychiatric  services [ .; ] 
    2. Medical director [ .; and ] 
    3. Director of clinical services who is a registered nurse  with experience in gero-psychiatric services. 
    B. Providers shall provide qualified nursing supervisors,  nurses, and certified nurse aides on all shifts, seven days per week, in  sufficient number to meet the assessed nursing care and behavioral management  needs determined by the individualized services plans ISPs. 
    C. Providers shall provide qualified staff for behavioral,  psychosocial rehabilitation, rehabilitative, mental health, or recreational  programming to meet the needs determined by the individualized services plan  ISP. These services shall be under the direction of a registered nurse,  licensed psychologist, licensed clinical social worker, or licensed therapist. 
    12VAC35-105-1310. Interdisciplinary services planning team. 
    A. At a minimum, a registered nurse, a licensed psychologist,  a licensed social worker, a therapist (recreational, occupational or physical  therapist), a pharmacist, and a psychiatrist shall participate in the  development and review of the individualized services plan ISP.  Other employees or contractors as appropriate shall be included. 
    B. The interdisciplinary services planning team shall meet to  develop the individualized services plans ISP and review it  quarterly. Members of the team shall be available for consultation on an as  needed basis. 
    C. The interdisciplinary services planning team shall review  the medications prescribed at least quarterly and consult with the primary care  physician as needed. 
    D. The interdisciplinary services planning team shall  integrate medical care plans prescribed by the primary care physician into the individualized  services plan ISP and consult with the primary care physician as  needed. 
    12VAC35-105-1330. Medical director. 
    Providers of community gero-psychiatric community residential  services shall employ or have a written agreement with one or more  psychiatrists with training and experience in gero-psychiatric services to  serve as medical director. The duties of the medical director shall include  [ , but are not limited to ]: 
    1. Responsibility for [ the ] overall medical  and psychiatric care; 
    2. Advising the program director and the director of clinical  services on [ medical/psychiatric medical and psychiatric ]  issues, including the criteria for residents to be admitted, transferred  [ , ] or discharged; 
    3. Advising on the development, execution [ , ]  and coordination of policies and procedures that have a direct effect upon the  quality of medical, nursing [ , ] and psychiatric care  delivered to [ residents individuals ]; and 
    4. Acting as liaison and consulting with the administrator and  the primary care physician on matters regarding medical, nursing [ , ]  and psychiatric care policies and procedures. 
    12VAC35-105-1340. Physician services and medical care. 
    A. Each individual in a community gero-psychiatric  residential service shall be under the care of a primary care physician. Nurse  practitioners and physician assistants licensed to practice in Virginia may  provide care in accordance with their practice agreements. Prior to, or at the  time of admission, each individual, his legally authorized  representative, or the entity responsible for his care shall designate a  primary care physician. 
    B. The primary care physician shall conduct a physical  examination at the time of admission or within 72 hours of admission into a  community gero-psychiatric residential service. The primary care physician  shall develop, in coordination with the interdisciplinary services planning  team, a medical care plan of treatment for an individual. 
    C. All physicians or other prescribers shall review all  medication orders at least every 60 days or whenever there is a change in  medication. 
    D. The provider shall have a signed agreement with a local  general hospital describing back-up and emergency medical care plans. 
    Article 7 
  Intensive Community Treatment and Program of Assertive Community Treatment  Services 
    12VAC35-105-1360. Admission and discharge criteria. 
    A. Individuals must meet the following admission criteria: 
    1. Severe Diagnosis of a severe and persistent  mental illness, predominantly schizophrenia, other psychotic disorder, or  bipolar disorder [ , ] that seriously impairs functioning in  the community. Individuals with a sole diagnosis of substance addiction or  abuse or mental retardation (intellectual disability) are not eligible  for services. 
    2. Impairments on a continuing or intermittent basis  without intensive community support to include one or more of the following  Significant challenges to community integration without intensive community  support including persistent or recurrent difficulty with one or more of the  following: 
    a. Inability to consistently perform Performing  practical daily living tasks required for basic adult functioning in the  community; 
    b. Persistent or recurrent failure to perform daily living  tasks except with significant support of assistance by family, friends or  relatives Maintaining employment at a self-sustaining level or  consistently carrying out homemaker roles; or 
    c. Inability to be consistently employed at a  self-sustaining level or inability to consistently carry out homemaker roles;  or 
    d. Inability to maintain c. Maintaining a safe  living situation. 
    3. High service needs indicated due to one or more of  the following problems: 
    a. Residence in a state [ mental health facility hospital ]  or other psychiatric hospital but clinically assessed to be able to live in a  more independent situation if intensive services were provided or anticipated  to require extended hospitalization, if more intensive services are not  available; 
    b. High user of state mental health facility or other acute  psychiatric hospital inpatient services within the past two years or a frequent  user of psychiatric emergency services (more than four times per year) Multiple  admissions to or at least one recent long-term stay (30 days or more) in a  state [ mental health facility hospital ]  or other acute psychiatric hospital inpatient setting within the past two  years; or a recent history of more than four interventions by psychiatric  emergency services per year; 
    c. Intractable (i.e., persistent or very recurrent) Persistent  or very recurrent severe major symptoms (e.g., affective, psychotic,  suicidal); 
    d. Co-occurring substance addiction or abuse of significant  duration (e.g., greater than six months); 
    e. High risk or a recent history (within the past six months)  of criminal justice involvement (e.g., arrest and or  incarceration); 
    f. Unable to meet Ongoing difficulty meeting  basic survival needs or residing in substandard housing, homeless, or at  imminent risk of becoming homeless; or 
    g. Unable Inability to consistently participate  in traditional office-based services. 
    B. Individuals receiving PACT individuals or  ICT services should not be discharged for failure to comply with treatment  plans or other expectations of the provider, except in certain circumstances as  outlined. Individuals must meet at least one of the following criteria to be  discharged: 
    1. Moving Change in the individual's residence to a  location out of the service area; 
    2. Death of the individual; 
    3. Incarceration of the individual for a period to  exceed a year or long term hospitalization for (more than  one year); however, the provider is expected to prioritize these individuals  for PACT or ICT services upon their anticipated return to the community if the  individual wishes to return to services and the service level is appropriate to  his needs; 
    4. Choice of the individual (the with the  provider is responsible for revising the individualized services plan  ISP to meet any concerns of the individual leading to the choice of discharge)  discharge; or 
    5. Demonstration by the individual of an ability to  function Significant sustained recovery by the individual in all  major role areas with minimal team contact and support for at least two years  as determined by both the individual and ICT or PACT team. 
    12VAC35-105-1370. Treatment team and staffing plan. 
    A. ICT and PACT Services are delivered by  interdisciplinary teams. 
    1. The PACT and ICT team teams  shall have employees or contractors, 80% of whom meet the qualifications of  QMHP, who are qualified to provide the services described in 12VAC35-105-1410,  including at least five full-time equivalent clinical employees or contractors  on an ICT team and at least 10 full-time equivalent clinical employees or  contractors on a PACT team, a program assistant, and a full- or part-time  psychiatrist. The team shall include the following positions: 
    a. Team Leader - one full time equivalent (FTE) [ QMHP  QMHP-Adult ] with at least three years experience in the  provision of mental health services to adults with serious mental illness. The  team leader shall oversee all aspects of team operations and shall routinely  provide direct services to individuals in the community.
    b. Nurses - one or more FTE registered nurse with one year  of experience or licensed practical nurse with three years of experience in the  provision of mental health services to adults with serious mental illness PACT  and ICT nurses shall be full-time employees or contractors with the following  minimum qualifications: A registered nurse (RN) shall have one year of  experience in the provision of mental health services to adults with serious  mental illness. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) shall have three years of  experience in the provision of mental health services to adults with serious  mental illness. ICT teams shall have at least one qualified full-time nurse.  PACT teams shall have at least three qualified full-time nurses at least one of  whom shall be a qualified RN. 
    c. Mental health professionals — two or more FTE QMHPs  (half of whom shall hold a master's degree), including a vocational specialist  and a substance abuse specialist One full-time vocational specialist and  one full-time substance abuse specialist. These staff members shall provide  direct services to [ consumers individuals ]  in their area of specialty and provide leadership to other team members to  also assist individuals with their self identified employment or substance  abuse recovery goals. 
    d. Peer specialists - one or more FTE full-time [ equivalent ]  QPPMH or [ QMHP QMHP-Adult ] who is or has been a  recipient of mental health services for severe and persistent mental illness. The  peer specialist shall be a fully integrated team member who provides peer  support directly to individuals and provides leadership to other team members  in understanding and supporting individuals' recovery goals.
    e. Program assistant - one full-time person with skills  and abilities in medical records management, operating and coordinating shall  operate and coordinate the management information system, maintaining  maintain accounts and budget records for individual and program  expenditures, and providing provide receptionist activities. 
    f. Psychiatrist - one physician who is board certified in  psychiatry or who is board eligible in psychiatry and is  licensed to practice medicine [ in Virginia ]. An equivalent  ratio to 20 minutes (.008 FTE) of psychiatric time for each individual served  must be maintained. The psychiatrist shall be a fully integrated team member  who attends team meetings and actively participates in developing and  implementing each individual ISP.
    2. In addition, a PACT team includes at least three FTE  nurses (at least one of whom is an RN and five or more mental health  professionals. [ QMHP QMHP-Adult ] and  mental health professional standards:
    a. At least 80% of the clinical employees or contractors,  not including the program assistant or psychiatrist, shall meet [ QMHP  QMHP-Adult ] standards and shall be qualified to provide the  services described in 12VAC35-105-1410.
    b. Mental health professionals – At least half of the  clinical employees or contractors, not including the team leader or nurses and  including the peer specialist if that person holds such a degree, shall hold a  master's degree in a human service field.
    3. Staffing capacity:
    a. An ICT team shall have at least five full-time  equivalent clinical employees or contractors. A PACT team shall have at least  10 full-time equivalent clinical employees or contractors.
    B. b. ICT and PACT teams must shall  include a minimum number of employees (counting contractors but not counting  the psychiatrist and program assistant) to maintain an employee to individual  ratio of at least 1:10. 
    c. ICT teams may serve no more than 80 individuals.  PACT teams may serve no more than 120 individuals. 
    d. A transition plan will shall be  required of PACT teams that will allow for "start-up" when newly  forming teams are not in full compliance with the PACT model relative to  staffing patterns and client [ consumer  individuals receiving services ] capacity. 
    C. B. ICT and PACT teams shall meet daily  Monday through Friday or at least four days per week to review and plan routine  services and to plan for address or prevent emergency and crisis  situations. 
    D. C. ICT teams shall operate a minimum of 8  hours per day, 5 days per week and shall provide services on a case-by-case  basis in the evenings and on weekends. PACT teams shall be available to  individuals 24 hours per day and shall operate a minimum of 12 hours each  weekday and 8 hours each weekend day and each holiday. 
    E. D. The ICT [ and or ]  PACT team shall make crisis services directly available 24 hours a day but may  arrange coverage through another crisis services provider if the team  coordinates with the crisis services provider daily. The PACT team shall  operate an after-hours on-call system and be available to individuals by  telephone or in person. 
    12VAC35-105-1390. ICT and PACT service daily operation and  progress notes.
    A. ICT teams and PACT teams shall conduct daily  organizational meetings Monday through Friday at a regularly scheduled time to  review the status of all individuals and the outcome of the most recent  employee or contractor contact, assign daily and weekly tasks to employees and  contractors, revise treatment plans as needed, plan for emergency and crisis  situations, and to add service contacts that are identified as needed. 
    B. A daily log that provides a roster of individuals served  in the ICT or PACT services program and documentation of services provided and  contacts made with them shall be maintained and utilized in the daily team  meeting. There shall also be at least a weekly individual progress  note documenting progress or lack of progress toward goals and objectives as  outlined in the Psychosocial Rehabilitation Services Plan services  provided in accordance with the ISP or attempts to engage the [ consumer  individual ] in services. 
    12VAC35-105-1400. ICT and PACT assessment. 
    The provider shall solicit the individual's own assessment of  his needs, strengths, goals, preferences [ , ] and abilities  to identify the need for recovery oriented treatment, rehabilitation [ , ]  and support services and the status of his environmental supports within the  individual's cultural context. The With the participation of the  individual, the provider [ will shall ] assess: 
    1. Psychiatric history, mental status and diagnosis, including  the content of an advance directive; 
    2. Medical, dental [ , ] and other health needs;  
    3. Extent and effect of drug or alcohol use; 
    4. Education and employment [ , ] including  current daily  [ structures structured ] use of  time, school or work status, interests and preferences [ , ] and  the effect of psychiatric symptomatology on and supports and barriers to  educational and employment performance; 
    5. Social development and functioning [ , ]  including childhood and family history, culture and religious beliefs,  leisure interests, and social skills; 
    6. Housing and daily living skills, including the support  needed to obtain and maintain decent, affordable housing integrated into the  broader community; the current ability to meet basic needs such as personal  hygiene, food preparation, housekeeping, shopping, money management [ , ]  and the use of public transportation and other community based resources; 
    7. Family and social network [ , ] including  the current scope and strength of [ a an ] individual's  network of family, peers, friends, and co-workers, and their  understanding and expectations of the team's services; 
    8. Finances and benefits [ , ] including the  management of income, the need for and eligibility for benefits, and the  limitations and restrictions of those benefits; and 
    9. Legal and criminal justice involvement [ , ]  including [ the ] guardianship, commitment, representative  payee status, and [ the ] experience as either [ a ]  victim or [ an ] accused person. 
    12VAC35-105-1410. Service requirements. 
    Providers shall document that the following services are  provided consistent with the individual's assessment and individualized  services plan ISP. 
    1. Ongoing assessment to ascertain the needs, strengths,  and preferences of the individual; 
    2. Case management; 
    3. Nursing; 
    4. Symptom assessment and management Support for  wellness self-management, including the development and implementation of  individual recovery plans [ ;, ] symptom  assessment [ ;, ] and recovery education;  
    5. Psychopharmacological treatment, administration [ , ]  and monitoring; 
    6. Substance abuse assessment and treatment for individuals  with a dual co-occurring diagnosis of mental illness and  substance abuse; 
    7. Individual supportive therapy; 
    8. Skills training in activities of daily living, social  skills, interpersonal relationships, and leisure time; 
    9. Supportive in-home services; 
    10. Work-related services to help find and maintain  employment; 
    11. Support for resuming education; 
    12. Support, education, consultation, and skill-teaching to  family members and significant others; 
    13. Collaboration with families and assistance to individuals  with children; 
    14. Direct support to help individuals secure and maintain  decent, affordable housing that is integrated into the broader community and to  obtain legal and advocacy services, financial support, money-management  services, medical and dental services, transportation, and natural supports in  the community; and
    15. Mobile crisis assessment, intervention interventions  to prevent or resolve potential crises, and [ facilitation into and  out of admission to and discharge from ] psychiatric hospitals.  
        NOTICE:  The forms used in administering the above regulation are not being published;  however, the name of each form is listed below. The forms are available for  public inspection by contacting the agency contact for this regulation, or at  the office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd  Floor, Richmond, Virginia.
         FORMS (12VAC35-105)
    Initial Provider Application For Licensing (rev.1/10).
    Renewal Provider Application For Licensing (rev. 2/09).
    Service Modification - Provider Request, DMH 966E 1140  (rev. 1/09). 
    DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC35-105) 
    Diagnostic Criteria from the Diagnostic and Statistical  Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition, American Psychiatric Association, Washington,  D.C., 1994. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R07-260; Filed October 17, 2011, 1:05 p.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF MEDICINE
Final Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 18VAC85-101. Regulations  Governing the Licensure of Radiologic Technologists and Radiologic  Technologists-Limited (amending 18VAC85-101-10, 18VAC85-101-25, 18VAC85-101-30,  18VAC85-101-55, 18VAC85-101-100, 18VAC85-101-130, 18VAC85-101-145,  18VAC85-101-150, 18VAC85-101-152, 18VAC85-101-153, 18VAC85-101-161; adding  18VAC85-101-27, 18VAC85-101-28, 18VAC85-101-91, 18VAC85-101-92). 
    Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-2956.8:1  of the Code of Virginia.
    Effective Date: December 7, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: William L. Harp, M.D., Executive  Director, Board of Medicine, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233,  telephone (804) 367-4621, FAX (804) 527-4429, or email  william.harp@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    The amendments add the new profession of radiologist  assistants (RAs) to 18VAC85-101, Regulations Governing the Licensure of  Radiologic Technologists and Radiologists-Limited, and change the title of the  regulation to Regulations Governing the Practice of Radiologic Technology. The  amendments specify (i) the requirements for licensure of RAs, including the  education and examination that will ensure minimum competency to practice; (ii)  provisions for applicant and licensure fees; (iii) requirements for renewal and  reinstatement of a license to include evidence of continuing competency to  practice; and (iv) provisions for scope of practice, including supervision by a  doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine specialized by training and practice  in radiology. Current regulations, such as standards of conduct and renewal  schedules, are amended to be applicable to RAs as well as radiologic  technologists and radiologic technologists-limited. 
    Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A  summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be  obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar  of Regulations. 
    [ CHAPTER 101 
  REGULATIONS GOVERNING THE LICENSURE PRACTICE OF RADIOLOGIC TECHNOLOGISTS  AND RADIOLOGIC TECHNOLOGISTS-LIMITED TECHNOLOGY ]
    Part I 
  General Provisions 
    18VAC85-101-10. Definitions. 
    In addition to definitions in § 54.1-2900 of the Code of  Virginia, the following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have  the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise: 
    "ACRRT" means the American Chiropractic Registry of  Radiologic Technologists. 
    "ARRT" means the American Registry of Radiologic  Technologists. 
    "Bone densitometry" means a process for measuring  bone mineral density by utilization of single x-ray absorptiometry (SXA), dual  x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) or other technology that is substantially equivalent  as determined by the board. 
    "Direct supervision" means that a licensed radiologic  technologist, doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic or podiatry is  present and is fully responsible for the activities performed by radiologic  personnel, with the exception of radiologist assistants. 
    "Direction" means the delegation of radiologic  functions to be performed upon a patient from a licensed doctor of medicine,  osteopathy, chiropractic, or podiatry, to a licensed radiologic technologist or  a radiologic technologist-limited for a specific purpose and confined to a  specific anatomical area, that will be performed under the direction of and in  continuing communication with the delegating practitioner. 
    "ISCD" means the International Society for Clinical  Densitometry. 
    "Radiologist" means a doctor of medicine or  osteopathic medicine [ specializing in radiology who is  certified by the American Board of Radiology, the American Osteopathic Board of  Radiology, the British Royal College of Radiology, or the Canadian College of  Physicians and Surgeons specialized by training and practice in  radiology ]. 
    [ "RT-R® R.T.(R)" ]  means a person who is currently certified by the ARRT as a radiologic  technologist with certification in [ radiology  radiography ].
    "Traineeship" means a period of activity during  which an applicant for licensure as a radiologic technologist works under the  direct supervision of a practitioner approved by the board while waiting for  the results of the licensure examination or an applicant for licensure as a  radiologic technologist-limited working under direct supervision and  observation to fulfill the practice requirements in 18VAC85-101-60. 
    18VAC85-101-25. Fees.
    A. Unless otherwise provided, fees listed in this section  shall not be refundable.
    B. Initial licensure fees.
    1. The application fee for radiologic technologist or  radiologist assistant licensure shall be $130.
    2. The application fee for the radiologic technologist-limited  licensure shall be $90.
    3. All examination fees shall be determined by and made  payable as designated by the board.
    C. Licensure renewal and reinstatement for a radiologic  technologist or a radiologist assistant.
    1. The fee for active license renewal for a radiologic  technologist shall be $135, and the fee for inactive license renewal shall  be $70. If a radiologist assistant holds a current license as a radiologic  technologist, the renewal fee shall be $50. If a radiologist assistant does not  hold a current license as a radiologic technologist, the renewal fee shall be  $150.
    2. An additional fee of $50 to cover administrative costs for  processing a late renewal application within one renewal cycle shall be imposed  by the board.
    3. The fee for reinstatement of a radiologic technologist  or a radiologist assistant license that has lapsed for a period of two  years or more shall be $180 and shall be submitted with an application for  licensure reinstatement.
    4. The fee for reinstatement of a license pursuant to § 54.1-2408.2 of the Code of Virginia shall be $2,000.
    D. Licensure renewal and reinstatement for a radiologic  technologist-limited.
    1. The fee for active license renewal shall be $70, and the  fee for inactive license renewal shall be $35.
    2. An additional fee of $25 to cover administrative costs for  processing a late renewal application within one renewal cycle shall be imposed  by the board.
    3. The fee for reinstatement of a license that has lapsed for  a period of two years or more shall be $120 and shall be submitted with an  application for licensure reinstatement.
    4. The fee for reinstatement of a license pursuant to § 54.1-2408.2 of the Code of Virginia shall be $2,000.
    E. Other fees.
    1. The application fee for a traineeship as a radiologic  technologist or a radiologic technologist-limited shall be $25.
    2. The fee for a letter of good standing or verification to  another state for licensure shall be $10; the fee for certification of scores  to another jurisdiction shall be $25.
    3. The fee for a returned check shall be $35.
    4. The fee for a duplicate license shall be $5.00, and the fee  for a duplicate wall certificate shall be $15.
    Part II
  Licensure Requirements - Radiologist Assistants 
    18VAC85-101-27. Educational requirements for radiologist  assistants.
    An applicant for licensure as a radiologist assistant  shall be a graduate of an educational program that is currently recognized by  the ARRT for the purpose of allowing an applicant to sit for the ARRT  certification examination leading to the Registered Radiologist Assistant  credential. 
    18VAC85-101-28. Licensure requirements.
    A. An applicant for licensure as a radiologist assistant  shall:
    1. Meet the educational requirements specified in  18VAC85-101-27;
    2. Submit the required application, fee, and credentials to  the board; 
    3. Hold certification by the ARRT as an [ RT-R®  R.T.(R) ] or be licensed in Virginia as a radiologic  technologist;
    4. Submit evidence of passage of an examination for  radiologist assistants resulting in national certification as an Registered  Radiologist Assistant by the ARRT; and
    5. Hold current certification in Advanced Cardiac Life  Support (ACLS).
    B. If an applicant has been licensed or certified in  another jurisdiction as a radiologist assistant or a radiologic technologist,  he shall provide information on the status of each license or certificate held.
    C. An applicant who fails the ARRT examination for  radiologist assistants shall follow the policies and procedures of the ARRT for  successive attempts.
    Part II III
  Licensure Requirements - Radiologic Technologist 
    18VAC85-101-30. Educational requirements for radiologic  technologists. 
    An applicant for licensure as a radiologic technologist shall  be a graduate of an educational program acceptable to the ARRT for the purpose  of sitting for the ARRT certification examination. 
    Part III IV
  Licensure Requirements - Radiologic Technologist-Limited 
    18VAC85-101-55. Educational requirements for radiologic  technologists-limited.
    A. An applicant for licensure as a radiologic  technologist-limited shall be trained by one of the following: 
    1. Successful completion of a program that is directed by a  radiologic technologist with a bachelor's degree and current ARRT  certification, has instructors who are licensed radiologic technologists or  doctors of medicine or osteopathic medicine who are board certified in  radiology, and has a minimum of the following coursework: 
    a. Image production/equipment operation - 25 clock hours;
    b. Radiation protection - 15 clock hours; and 
    c. Radiographic procedures in the anatomical area of the  radiologic technologist-limited's practice - 10 clock hours taught by a  radiologic technologist with current ARRT certification or a licensed doctor of  medicine, osteopathy, podiatry or chiropractic; 
    2. An ACRRT-approved program; 
    3. The ISCD certification course for bone densitometry; or 
    4. Any other program acceptable to the board. 
    B. A radiologic technologist-limited who has been trained  through the ACRRT-approved program or the ISCD certification course and who  also wishes to be authorized to perform x-rays in other anatomical areas shall  meet the requirements of subdivision A 1 of this section.
    Part V
  Practice of Radiologist Assistants
    18VAC85-101-91. General requirements.
    A. A licensed radiologist assistant is authorized to:
    1. Assess and evaluate the physiological and psychological  responsiveness of patients undergoing radiologic procedures; 
    2. Perform patient assessment, and assist in patient  management and patient education;
    3. Evaluate image quality, make initial observations, and  communicate observations to the supervising radiologist; 
    4. Administer contrast media or other medications  prescribed by the supervising radiologist; and 
    5. Perform, or assist the supervising radiologist in  performing, imaging procedures consistent with the guidelines adopted by the  American College of Radiology, the American Society of Radiologic  Technologists, and the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists.
    B. A licensed radiologist assistant is not authorized to:
    1. Provide official interpretation of imaging studies; or 
    2. Dispense or prescribe medications.
    18VAC85-101-92. Supervision of radiologist assistants.
    A radiologist assistant shall practice under the direct  supervision of a radiologist. Direct supervision shall mean that the  radiologist is present in the facility and immediately available to assist and  direct the performance of a procedure by a radiologist assistant. The supervising  radiologist may determine that direct supervision requires his physical  presence for the performance of certain procedures, based on factors such as  the complexity or invasiveness of the procedure and the experience and  expertise of the radiologist assistant.
    Part IV VI 
  Practice of Radiologic Technologists 
    18VAC85-101-100. General requirements. 
    A. All services rendered by a radiologic technologist shall  be performed only upon direction of a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy,  chiropractic, or podiatry. 
    B. Licensure as a radiologic technologist is not required for  persons who are employed by a licensed hospital pursuant to § 54.1-2956.8:1 of  the Code of Virginia. 
    Part V VII
  Practice of Radiologic Technologist-Limited 
    18VAC85-101-130. General requirements. 
    A. A radiologic technologist-limited is permitted to perform  radiologic functions within his capabilities and the anatomical limits of his  training and examination. A radiologic technologist-limited is responsible for  informing the board of the anatomical area or areas in which he is qualified by  training and examination to practice. 
    B. A radiologic technologist-limited shall not instill  contrast media during radiologic examinations or perform mammography,  fluoroscopic procedures, computerized tomography, or vascular-interventional  procedures. The radiologic technologist-limited is responsible to a licensed  radiologic technologist, or doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, or  podiatry. 
    18VAC85-101-145. Registration for voluntary practice by  out-of-state licensees. 
    Any radiologist assistant, radiologic technologist,  or radiologic technologist-limited who does not hold a license to practice in  Virginia and who seeks registration to practice under subdivision 27 of § 54.1-2901 of the Code of Virginia on a voluntary basis under the auspices of a  publicly supported, all volunteer, nonprofit organization that sponsors the  provision of health care to populations of underserved people shall: 
    1. File a complete application for registration on a form  provided by the board at least five business days prior to engaging in such  practice. An incomplete application will not be considered; 
    2. Provide a complete record of professional licensure in each  state in which he has held a license and a copy of any current license; 
    3. Provide the name of the nonprofit organization, the dates  and location of the voluntary provision of services; 
    4. Pay a registration fee of $10; and 
    5. Provide a notarized statement from a representative of the  nonprofit organization attesting to its compliance with provisions of  subdivision 27 of § 54.1-2901 of the Code of Virginia. 
    Part VI VIII
  Renewal of Licensure 
    18VAC85-101-150. Biennial renewal of license.
    A. A radiologist assistant, radiologic technologist,  or radiologic technologist-limited who intends to continue practice shall renew  his license biennially during his birth month in each odd-numbered year and pay  to the board the prescribed renewal fee.
    B. A license that has not been renewed by the first day of  the month following the month in which renewal is required shall be expired. 
    C. An additional fee as prescribed in 18VAC85-101-25 shall be  imposed by the board. 
    D. In order to renew an active license as a radiologic  technologist, a licensee shall attest to having completed 24 hours of  continuing education as acceptable to the ARRT within the last biennium. 
    E. In order to renew an active license as a radiologic  technologist-limited, a licensee shall attest to having completed 12 hours of  continuing education within the last biennium that corresponds to the  anatomical areas in which the limited licensee practices. Hours shall be  acceptable to the ARRT, or by the ACRRT for limited licensees whose scope of  practice is chiropractic, or by any other entity approved by the board for  limited licensees whose scope of practice is podiatry or bone densitometry. 
    F. In order to renew an active license as a radiologist  assistant, a licensee shall attest to having completed 50 hours of continuing  education as acceptable to the ARRT within the last biennium. A minimum of 25  hours of continuing education shall be recognized by the ARRT as intended for  radiologist assistants or radiologists and shall be specific to the radiologist  assistant's area of practice. Continuing education hours earned for renewal of  a radiologist assistant license shall satisfy the requirements for renewal of a  radiologic technologist license.
    G. Other provisions for continuing education shall be  as follows: 
    1. A practitioner shall be exempt from the continuing  education requirements for the first biennial renewal following the date of  initial licensure in Virginia. 
    2. The practitioner shall retain in his records the Continued  Competency Activity and Assessment Form available on the board's website with  all supporting documentation for a period of four years following the renewal  of an active license. 
    3. The board shall periodically conduct a random audit of its  active licensees to determine compliance. The practitioners selected for the  audit shall provide all supporting documentation within 30 days of receiving  notification of the audit. 
    4. Failure to comply with these requirements may subject the  licensee to disciplinary action by the board. 
    5. The board may grant an extension of the deadline for satisfying  continuing competency requirements, for up to one year, for good cause shown  upon a written request from the licensee prior to the renewal date. 
    6. The board may grant an exemption for all or part of the  requirements for circumstances beyond the control of the licensee, such as  temporary disability, mandatory military service, or officially declared  disasters. 
    18VAC85-101-152. Inactive license.
    A. A licensed radiologist assistant, radiologic  technologist, or radiologic technologist-limited who holds a current,  unrestricted license in Virginia may, upon a request on the renewal application  and submission of the required fee, be issued an inactive license. The holder  of an inactive license shall not be required to maintain continuing education  hours and shall not be entitled to perform any act requiring a license to  practice radiography in Virginia.
    B. To reactivate an inactive license, a licensee shall:
    1. Submit the required application;
    2. Pay a fee equal to the difference between the current renewal  fee for inactive licensure and the renewal fee for active licensure; and
    3. Verify that he has completed continuing education hours  equal to those required for the period in which he held an inactive license in  Virginia, not to exceed one biennium.
    C. The board reserves the right to deny a request for  reactivation to any licensee who has been determined to have committed an act  in violation of § 54.1-2915 of the Code of Virginia or any provisions of this  chapter.
    18VAC85-101-153. Restricted volunteer license.
    A. A licensed radiologist assistant, radiologic  technologist, or a radiologic technologist-limited who held an  unrestricted license issued by the Virginia Board of Medicine or by a board in  another state as a licensee in good standing at the time the license expired or  became inactive may be issued a restricted volunteer license to practice  without compensation in a clinic that is organized in whole or in part for the  delivery of health care services without charge in accordance with § 54.1-106  of the Code of Virginia. 
    B. To be issued a restricted volunteer license, a licensed  radiologic technologist or a radiologic technologist-limited licensee  shall submit an application to the board that documents compliance with  requirements of § 54.1-2928.1 of the Code of Virginia and the application fee  prescribed in 18VAC85-101-25.
    C. The licensee who intends to continue practicing with a  restricted volunteer license shall renew biennially during his birth month,  meet the continued competency requirements prescribed in subsection D of this  section, and pay to the board the renewal fee prescribed in 18VAC85-101-25. 
    D. The holder of a restricted volunteer license shall not be  required to attest to hours of continuing education for the first renewal of  such a license. For each renewal thereafter, a licensed radiologic technologist  shall attest to having completed 12 hours of Category A continuing education as  acceptable to and documented by the ARRT within the last biennium. A radiologic  technologist-limited shall attest to having completed six hours of Category A  continuing education within the last biennium that corresponds to the  anatomical areas in which the limited licensee practices. Hours shall be  acceptable to and documented by the ARRT or by any other entity approved by the  board for limited licensees whose scope of practice is podiatry or bone  densitometry. 
    Part VII IX 
  Standards of Professional Conduct 
    18VAC85-101-161. Confidentiality. 
    A practitioner shall not willfully or negligently breach the  confidentiality between a practitioner and a patient. A breach of  confidentiality that is required or permitted by applicable law or beyond the  control of the practitioner shall not be considered negligent or willful. 
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the Board of  Medicine. The forms are not being published; however, the name of each form is  listed below and may hyperlink to the actual form. Online users of this issue  of the Virginia Register of Regulations may access the form, if available, by  clicking on the name of the form. The forms are also available for public  inspection at the Department of Health Professions, Perimeter Center, 9960  Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Henrico, Virginia 23233-1463, or at the Office of the  Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond,  Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (18VAC85-101) 
    Instructions for Completing an Application for Licensure  as a Radiologic Technologist By Examination/Endorsement (rev. 9/07). 
    Instructions  for Completing an Application for Licensure as a Radiologic Technologist By  Examination/Endorsement (rev. 11/10).
    Instructions  for Completing an Application for Licensure as a Radiologist Assistant (rev.  11/10).
    Application for a License as a Radiologic Technologist  (rev. 9/07). 
    Application  for a License as a Radiologic Technologist (rev. 11/10).
    Application  for a License to Practice as a Radiologist Assistant (rev. 11/10).
    Form A, Claims History Sheet (rev. 8/07). 
    [ Form A, Claims History Sheet (rev. 11/10).
    Form  A, Radiologic Technologist, Claims History Sheet (rev. 11/10). ] 
    Form  A, Radiologist Assistant, Claims History (rev. 11/10).
    Form B, Activity Questionnaire (rev. 8/07). 
    [ Form B, Activity Questionnaire (rev. 11/10).
    Form  B, Radiologic Technologist, Activity Questionnaire (rev. 11/10). ]  
    Form  B, Radiologist Assistant, Activity Questionnaire (rev. 11/10).
    Form C, Clearance from Other States (rev. 8/07). 
    [ Form C, Clearance from Other States (rev.  11/10).
    Form  C, Radiologic Technologist, Clearance from Other States (rev. 11/10). ]
    Form  C, Radiologist Assistant, Clearance from Other States (rev. 11/10).
    Form E, Certification Request from ARRT (rev. 8/07). 
    [ Form E, Certification Request from ARRT (rev.  11/10).
    Form  E, Radiologist Assistant, Certification Request from ARRT (rev. 11/10).
    Form  E, Radiologic Technologist, Certification Request from ARRT (rev. 11/10). ]  
    Form F, Traineeship Application (rev. 8/07). 
    Form  F, Traineeship Application (rev. 11/10).
    Form L, Certificate of Radiologic Technology Education  (rev. 8/07). 
    [ Form L, Certificate of Radiologic Technology  Education (rev. 11/10).
    Form  L, Radiologic Technologist, Certificate of Professional Education (rev. 11/10). ]  
    Form  L, Radiologist Assistant, Certificate of Professional Education (rev. 11/10).
    Instructions for Completing an Application for Licensure  as a Radiologic Technologist-Limited (rev. 2/08). 
    Application for a License to Practice Radiologic  Technology-Limited (rev. 8/07). 
    Form T/A (1) and T/A (2), Radiologic Technologist-Limited  Training Application for Abdomen/Pelvis pursuant to Virginia Regulations  18VAC85-101-60 B (3) (rev. 8/07). 
    Form T/C (1) and T/C (2), Radiologic Technologist-Limited  Clinical Training Application (rev. 8/07). 
    Form T/E, Radiologic Technologist-Limited Traineeship  Application (rev. 8/07). 
    Instructions  for Completing an Application for Licensure as a Radiologic  Technologist-Limited (rev. 11/10).
    Application  for a License to Practice Radiologic Technology-Limited (rev. 11/10).
    Form  T/A (1) and T/A (2), Radiologic Technologist-Limited Training Application for  Abdomen/Pelvis pursuant to Virginia Regulations 18VAC85-101-60 B (3) (rev.  11/10).
    Form  T/C (1) and T/C (2), Radiologic Technologist-Limited Clinical Training  Application (rev. 11/10).
    Form  T/E, Radiologic Technologist-Limited Traineeship Application (rev. 11/10).
    [ Form  A, Radiologic Technologist-Limited, Claims History Sheet (rev. 11/10).
    Form  B, Radiologic Technologist-Limited, Activity Questionnaire (rev. 11/10).
    Form  C, Radiologic Technologist-Limited, Clearance From Other States (rev. 11/10). ]
    Instructions for Completing Reinstatement of Radiologic Technology  Licensure (rev. 8/07). 
    Application for Reinstatement of License to Practice  Radiologic Technologist (rev. 10/07). 
    Instructions for Completing Reinstatement of Radiologic  Technologist-Limited Licensure (rev. 8/07). 
    Application for Reinstatement of License to Practice  Radiologic Technologist-Limited (eff. 10/07). 
    Application for Registration for Volunteer  Practice (rev. 8/07).
    Sponsor Certification for Volunteer Registration  (rev. 8/08).
    Continued Competency Activity and Assessment Form  (eff. 7/08).
    VA.R. Doc. No. R10-2130; Filed October 17, 2011, 11:20 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF NURSING
Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 18VAC90-20. Regulations  Governing the Practice of Nursing (amending 18VAC90-20-182). 
    Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled.
    Public Comment Deadline: December 7, 2011.
    Effective Date: December 22, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: Jay P. Douglas, R.N., Executive  Director, Board of Nursing, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA  23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4515, FAX (804) 527-4455, or email  jay.douglas@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia  provides the Board of Nursing the authority to promulgate regulations to  administer the regulatory system.
    The specific authority for the Board of Nursing to issue a  single state license to an applicant who has lost a license in another Compact  state is found in § 54.1-2408 of the Code of Virginia.
    Purpose: If a nurse has had his license suspended or  revoked by another state in the Nurse Licensure Compact (NLC) and subsequently  that nurse moves to Virginia, he is in a catch-22 situation. Since he now  resides in Virginia, he is ineligible by virtue of the Compact to apply for  reinstatement of his nursing license in the former home state where the license  was suspended or revoked. Yet, prior to July 1, 2010, § 54.1-2408 of the  Code of Virginia prohibited the Board of Nursing from licensing an individual  who has been suspended or revoked. Therefore, even if that individual is eligible  for reinstatement, he is unable to obtain a license either in Virginia or in  the original Compact state. In order to protect the health and safety of  patients in Virginia, the board will consider whether the applicant has met all  terms and conditions and is eligible for reinstatement in the state where he  was suspended or revoked.
    The amendment in 18VAC90-20-182 will ensure Virginia's  compliance with the NLC policies and rules and provide a mechanism for the  Board of Nursing to consider the application of an individual who now resides  in Virginia and by virtue of the requirements of the NLC is ineligible to apply  for licensure in the former home state where the license was suspended or  revoked. The Nurse Licensure Compact Administrator Group has requested that all  Compact states adopt regulations to conform to the NLC policy allowing for  issuance of a license in this circumstance that would be valid for practice  solely in the home state. States would be prohibited from issuing a license  with a multistate privilege if the license had not been reinstated in the  former home state.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: The issue of  licensure for an applicant who had a license that was surrendered, suspended,  revoked, or denied in another Compact state but has met all terms and  conditions is not controversial. When House Bill 662 was introduced into the  2010 Session of the General Assembly at the request of the Department of Health  Professions, the inclusion of an amendment to allow such issuance was supported  by all nursing groups, employers, and other interested parties. Therefore, the  addition of subsection B in 18VAC90-20-182, permitted by the passage of  enactment of Chapter 414 of the 2010 Acts of Assembly and the amendment to  § 54.1-2408, should not be controversial. 
    Substance: Subsection B is added to 18VAC90-20-182 to  provide that an individual who had a license that was surrendered, revoked, or  suspended, or an application denied for cause in a prior state of primary  residence, may be issued a single state license in a new primary state of  residence until such time as the individual would be eligible for an  unrestricted license by the prior state(s) of adverse action. Once eligible for  licensure in the prior state(s), a multistate license may be issued.
    Issues: The primary advantage to the public is the  continued availability of nurses who have completed terms and conditions placed  on their licenses in other states. The primary advantage to the agency is  continued consistency with the Model Rules and Regulations of the Nurse  Licensure Compact. There are no disadvantages.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to  amendments made to § 54.1-2408 in 2010, the proposed regulations allow the  Board of Nursing to issue a single-state license to a nurse who has had her  license suspended, revoked, or surrendered in another Nurse Licensure Compact  state.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Under the current regulations, if a  nurse has had his or her license suspended, revoked, or surrendered in another  state in the Nurse Licensure Compact and subsequently moved to Virginia, he or  she is ineligible by virtue of the Compact to apply for reinstatement of his  nursing license in the former home state where the license was suspended,  revoked, or surrendered.1 Also, prior to July 1, 2010,  § 54.1-2408 prohibited the Board of Nursing from licensing an individual  who has been suspended, revoked, or surrendered in another Compact state.  Therefore, even if that individual may have been eligible for reinstatement, he  or she was unable to obtain a license either in Virginia or in the Compact  state.
    Amendments made to § 54.1-2408 in 2010 allow the Board of  Nursing to issue a license to a nurse who has had her license suspended,  revoked, or surrendered in another Compact state. The proposed regulations  incorporate this statutory change into the regulations.
    The main benefit of the proposed change is making it possible  for the Board of Nursing to issue a single-state license to a nurse who has had  her license suspended, revoked, or surrendered in another state in the Nurse  Licensure Compact and subsequently moved to Virginia. While reinstatement of a  license may require some small administrative costs, they are not expected to  be significant. The number of nurses whose licenses may be issued under the  proposed regulations is expected to be less than ten.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The regulations of the Board  of Nursing apply to approximately 90,000 nurses. However, the number of nurses  whose licenses may be reinstated under the proposed regulations is expected to  be less than ten.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed regulations  apply throughout the Commonwealth.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed regulations make  it possible to reinstate a nurse who had his or her license suspended or  revoked by another state in the Nurse Licensure Compact and subsequently moved  to Virginia. Thus, an increase in the supply of nurses can be expected. The  number of nurses whose licenses may be reinstated under the proposed  regulations is expected to be less than ten.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  regulations are not expected to have any effect on the use and value of private  property.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed  regulations are not expected to have any costs and other effects on small  businesses.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. The proposed regulations are not expected to have any adverse effects  on small businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed regulations are not  expected to have any effects of real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number  14 (10). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or  other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any  localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the  projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the  projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with  the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04  requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an identification and  estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the regulation; (ii) the  projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for  small businesses to comply with the regulation, including the type of  professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other  documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect of the regulation on  affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any less intrusive or less  costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the regulation. The  analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of these economic  impacts.
    _________________________________________________
    1Currently, there are 24 states in the Nurse Licensure  Compact.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board  of Nursing concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning and Budget  on proposed amended regulations for 18VAC90-20, Regulations Governing the  Practice of Nursing. 
    Summary:
    Based on Chapter 414 of the 2010 Acts of Assembly, the  amendments allow the Board of Nursing to issue a single-state license to a  nurse whose license was suspended, revoked, or surrendered in another Nurse  Licensure Compact state.
    18VAC90-20-182. Limitations of a multistate licensure  privilege. 
    A. The board shall include in all disciplinary orders  that limit practice or require monitoring the requirement that the licensee subject  to the order shall agree to limit practice to Virginia during the period in  which the order is in effect. A nurse may be allowed to practice in other party  states while an order is in effect with prior written authorization from both  the board and boards of other party states. 
    B. An individual who had a license that was surrendered,  revoked, or suspended, or an application denied for cause in a prior state of  primary residence, may be issued a single state license in a new primary state  of residence until such time as the individual would be eligible for an  unrestricted license by the prior state(s) of adverse action. Once eligible for  licensure in the prior state(s), a multistate license may be issued.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-2538; Filed October 17, 2011, 11:27 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF NURSING
Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 18VAC90-20. Regulations  Governing the Practice of Nursing (amending 18VAC90-20-210). 
    Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: December 7, 2011.
    Effective Date: December 22, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: Jay P. Douglas, R.N., Executive  Director, Board of Nursing, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA  23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4515, FAX (804) 527-4455, or email  jay.douglas@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia  provides the Board of Nursing the authority to promulgate regulations to  administer the regulatory system.
    Purpose: The purpose of the regulatory action is to  eliminate the requirement for applicants from other countries to be duly  licensed in another country to qualify for licensure in Virginia, as it now  places many applicants in a catch-22 position. Once they have applied for the  visa-screen and declared their intent to immigrate to the U. S., they are  ineligible for licensure in their home country. The dilemma has been  exacerbated by changes in immigration laws in recent years. 
    Applicants from foreign countries must have a Commission on  Graduate of Foreign Nursing Schools (CGFNS) credentials review and the test of  English proficiency. Those requirements, coupled with a requirement for passage  of the National Council Licensing Examination (NCLEX), the national licensing  examination that all nurses (RN or PN) must take, should assure that  foreign-trained nurses have the basic nursing knowledge, clinical ability, and  communication skills to practice with safety. Since NCLEX is more generally  available in foreign countries than in the past, many nurses are able to come  to the United States fully qualified for licensure. NCLEX is currently  administered in Australia, Canada, England, Germany, Hong Kong, India, Japan,  Mexico, Philippines, Puerto Rico, and Taiwan. Many applicants from those  countries have already completed all requirements for licensure in Virginia and  some are U. S. citizens. Because they are unable to obtain a license in the  foreign country, they are unable to be licensed in Virginia.
    Rationale for Using Fast Track Process: The current  regulatory requirement is burdensome and unnecessary for public safety. It  creates a barrier to licensure that prevents qualified nurses from other  countries from coming to Virginia. Therefore, the board would like to eliminate  the barrier as soon as possible and is supportive of a fast-track action. The  board does not expect the proposal to be controversial. 
    Substance: 18VAC90-20-210 is amended to eliminate the  requirement that a registered nurse or practical nurse applicant from a foreign  country be duly licensed under the laws of that country in order to qualify for  licensure in Virginia.
    Issues: The primary advantage to the public is the  availability of nurses who have completed all educational and examination  requirements for licensure but who are currently unable to be licensed in  Virginia. There are no disadvantages to the public. There are no advantages or  disadvantages to the agency.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of  Nursing proposes to eliminate prior licensure requirement for applicants  educated in foreign countries.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Current regulations require that  applicants educated in foreign countries hold a nursing license in that country  to be eligible for licensure in Virginia. This requirement creates two types of  problems. First, declaration of intent to immigrate to the United States makes  applicants ineligible for licensure in some of the foreign countries. Second,  some of the United States citizens obtain their nursing education in foreign  countries for reasons such as having familial ties there or taking advantage of  lower cost of nursing education. Because applicants in these circumstances are  unable to obtain a license in the foreign country, they are unable to be  licensed in Virginia under current regulations. The proposed regulations will  eliminate prior licensure requirement for applicants educated in foreign  countries.
    There appears to be sufficient safeguards in place to ensure  that the knowledge, ability, and skills necessary to practice safe nursing in  Virginia are not compromised due to the proposed change. Credentials of  applicants from foreign countries will continue to be reviewed by the  Commission on Graduate of Foreign Nursing Schools. Also, foreign educated  nurses must pass the National Council Licensing Examination, the national  licensing examination that all registered and practical nurses must take.  According to Department of Health Professions, review of credentials and the  passage of the national licensing examination should assure that foreign  trained nurses have the basic nursing knowledge, clinical ability, and  communication skills to practice with safety.
    The proposed regulations will mainly benefit individuals who  received their nursing education in a different country, who do not have a  license in that country and who wish to be licensed in Virginia. It is probable  that some of these individuals may be currently working in professions other  than nursing and may not be fully utilizing their skills.
    In addition, nursing employers in Virginia are expected to  benefit from this change as the proposed change has the potential to increase  the number of nurses available for employment. However, there is no reliable  estimate for the potential increase in the number of nurses available for  employment due to this proposed change. Given the current nursing shortage in  Virginia, the potential employees are expected to benefit from this change.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed regulations will  affect nursing applicants educated in foreign countries who do not hold a  license in those countries. There is no reliable estimate for the number of  such individuals. However, there are approximately 98,000 nurses licensed in  Virginia.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed regulations  apply throughout the Commonwealth.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed regulations are  expected to increase the supply of nurses which in turn should have a positive  impact on employment given the current nursing shortage in Virginia.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  regulations are not anticipated to have a significant effect on the use and  value of private property.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed  regulations are not anticipated to have significant costs and other effects on  small businesses.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. The proposed regulations are not anticipated to have an adverse effect  on small businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed regulations are not  anticipated to have an effect on real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number  14 (10). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or  other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any  localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the  projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the  projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with  the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the regulation;  (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs  required for small businesses to comply with the regulation, including the type  of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other  documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect of the regulation on  affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any less intrusive or less  costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the regulation. The  analysis presented above represents DPBs best estimate of these economic  impacts.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board  of Nursing concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning and Budget  on proposed amended regulations for 18VAC90-20, Regulations Governing the  Practice of Nursing. 
    Summary:
    The amendments eliminate the requirement that a registered  nurse or practical nurse applicant from a foreign country be duly licensed  under the laws of that country in order to qualify for licensure in Virginia.
    18VAC90-20-210. Licensure of applicants from other countries.
    A. With the exception of applicants from Canada who are  eligible to be licensed by endorsement, applicants whose basic nursing  education was received in, and who are duly licensed under the laws of,  another country, shall be scheduled to take the licensing examination  provided they meet the statutory qualifications for licensure. Verification of  qualification shall be based on documents submitted as required in subsection B  or C of this section.
    B. Such applicants for registered nurse licensure shall: 
    1. Submit evidence from the CGFNS that the secondary education,  and nursing education, and license are comparable to those  required for registered nurses in the Commonwealth; 
    2. Submit evidence of passage of an English language  proficiency examination approved by the CGFNS, unless the applicant meets the  CGFNS criteria for an exemption from the requirement; and
    3. Submit the required application and fee for licensure by  examination. 
    C. Such applicants for practical nurse licensure shall:
    1. Submit evidence from the CGFNS that the secondary education,  and nursing education, and license are comparable to those  required for practical nurses in the Commonwealth;
    2. Submit evidence of passage of an English language  proficiency examination approved by the CGFNS, unless the applicant meets the  CGFNS criteria for an exemption from the requirement; and
    3. Submit the required application and fee for licensure by  examination.
    D. An applicant for licensure as a registered nurse who has  met the requirements of subsections A and B of this section may practice for a  period not to exceed 90 days from the date of approval of an application  submitted to the board when he is working as a nonsupervisory staff nurse in a  licensed nursing home or certified nursing facility.
    1. Applicants who practice nursing as provided in this  subsection shall use the designation "foreign nurse graduate" on  nametags or when signing official records.
    2. During the 90-day period, the applicant shall take and pass  the licensing examination in order to remain eligible to practice nursing in  Virginia.
    3. Any person practicing nursing under this exemption who  fails to pass the licensure examination within the 90-day period may not  thereafter practice nursing until he passes the licensing examination.
    E. In addition to CGFNS, the board may accept credentials  from other recognized agencies that review credentials of foreign-educated  nurses if such agencies have been approved by the board.
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-2658; Filed October 17, 2011, 8:41 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF PHARMACY
Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 18VAC110-20. Regulations  Governing the Practice of Pharmacy (amending 18VAC110-20-710). 
    Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled.
    Public Comment Deadline: December 7, 2011.
    Effective Date: December 22, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: Caroline Juran, RPh, Executive Director,  Board of Pharmacy, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463,  telephone (804) 367-4416, FAX (804) 527-4472, or email  caroline.juran@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 54.1-2400 established the general powers  and duties of health regulatory boards, including the Board of Pharmacy's  responsibility to promulgate regulations and establish renewal schedules.
    The specific authority to control prescription drugs in the  Commonwealth is found in Chapters 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.) and 34  (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia.
    Purpose: The elimination of a requirement for a security  system for certain emergency medical services (EMS) agencies will make it less  burdensome for a few small agencies to carry fluids that may be essential for  the stabilization of a patient being transporting to the hospital. Any  reduction in regulation that makes maintenance of an EMS agency less costly is  beneficial and contributes to the health and safety of the people in its  community.
    Rationale for Using Fast Track Process: The amendments  are proposed to eliminate an unnecessary security requirement for EMS agencies.  The change is not expected to be controversial.
    Substance: The substance of the amended regulation is to  eliminate the requirement for a security system for EMS agencies that only  stock IV fluids without added drugs.
    Issues: The primary advantage to the public is the  elimination of an expense for EMS agencies, particularly those who provide  limited but essential services in many communities. There are no disadvantages.  There are no advantages or disadvantages to the agency or the Commonwealth. 
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of  Pharmacy proposes to no longer require a security system for Emergency Medical  Services agencies that only stock intravenous fluids with no drug additives.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. The Board of Pharmacy proposes to  eliminate the requirement for a security system for Emergency Medical Services  (EMS) agencies that only stock intravenous fluids without added drugs. The  security system is required to deter pilferage or diversion of drugs. According  to Department of Health Professions (DHP), it is unnecessarily burdensome for  EMS agencies that only stock intravenous fluids without added drugs to have an  alarm system. DHP estimates that less than 10 EMS agencies would stock only  intravenous fluids. While this change has the potential to reduce compliance  costs of certain EMS agencies, DHP does not know which agencies may be affected  and does not have an estimate for the size of expected savings. Also, EMS  agencies may have other incentives to obtain or maintain a security system  making it difficult to assess the likely impact.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed changes are  expected to affect less than 10 EMS agencies.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed regulations  apply throughout the Commonwealth.
    Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed changes do not  seem to be significant enough to have a notable effect on employment.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed  changes do not seem to be significant enough to have a notable effect on the  use and value of private property.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed  regulations do not impose costs on small businesses. Other effects on small  businesses are the same as discussed above.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. There is no adverse impact expected on small businesses.
    Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed regulations are not  expected to create any real estate development costs.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number  14 (10). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or  other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any  localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the  projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the  projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with  the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property.  Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the  regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative  costs required for small businesses to comply with the regulation, including  the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and  other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect of the regulation on  affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any less intrusive or less  costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the regulation. The  analysis presented above represents DPBs best estimate of these economic  impacts.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board  of Pharmacy concurs with the economic impact analysis of the Department of  Planning and Budget on fast-track regulations to eliminate the security  requirement for certain EMS agencies.
    Summary:
    The amendment eliminates the requirement for an alarm  system for emergency medical services agencies that only stock intravenous  fluids with no drug additives.
    18VAC110-20-710. Requirements for storage and security for  controlled substances registrants. 
    A. Drugs shall be stored under conditions which meet USP-NF  specifications or manufacturers' suggested storage for each drug. 
    B. Any drug which has exceeded the expiration date shall not  be administered; it shall be separated from the stock used for administration  and maintained in a separate, locked area until properly disposed. 
    C. If a controlled substances registrant wishes to dispose of  unwanted or expired Schedule II through VI drugs, he shall transfer the drugs  to another person or entity authorized to possess and to provide for proper  disposal of such drugs. 
    D. Drugs shall be maintained in a lockable cabinet, cart,  device or other area which shall be locked at all times when not in use. The  keys or access code shall be restricted to the supervising practitioner and  persons designated access in accordance with 18VAC110-20-700 C. 
    E. In a facility not staffed 24 hours a day, the drugs shall  be stored in a fixed and secured room, cabinet or area which has a security  device for the detection of breaking which meets the following conditions: 
    1. The device shall be a sound, microwave, photoelectric,  ultrasonic, or any other generally accepted and suitable device. 
    2. The installation and device shall be based on accepted  alarm industry standards. 
    3. The device shall be maintained in operating order, have an  auxiliary source of power, be monitored in accordance with accepted industry  standards, be maintained in operating order; and shall be capable of sending an  alarm signal to the monitoring entity if breached and the communication line is  not operational.
    4. The device shall fully protect all areas where prescription  drugs are stored and shall be capable of detecting breaking by any means when  activated. 
    5. Access to the alarm system shall be restricted to only  designated and necessary persons, and the system shall be activated whenever  the drug storage areas are closed for business. 
    6. An alarm system is not required for researchers, animal  control officers, humane societies, or alternate delivery sites as  provided in 18VAC110-20-275, or emergency medical services agencies stocking  only intravenous fluids with no added drug. 
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-2432; Filed October 17, 2011, 11:29 a.m. 
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF VETERINARY MEDICINE
Fast-Track Regulation
    Title of Regulation: 18VAC150-20. Regulations  Governing the Practice of Veterinary Medicine (amending 18VAC150-20-190). 
    Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of  Virginia.
    Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are  scheduled. 
    Public Comment Deadline: December 7, 2011.
    Effective Date: December 22, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: Leslie L. Knachel, Executive Director,  Board of Veterinary Medicine, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA  23233, telephone (804) 367-4468, FAX (804) 527-4471, or email  leslie.knachel@dhp.virginia.gov.
    Basis: Section 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia  establishes the responsibility of the Board of Veterinary Medicine to  promulgate regulations and administer a licensure and renewal program.
    Chapter 38 (§ 54.1-3800 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of  Virginia grants the board the following specific powers and duties: 
    1. Establish essential requirements and standards for approval  of veterinary programs. 
    2. Establish and monitor programs for the practical training of  qualified students of veterinary medicine or veterinary technology in college  or university programs of veterinary medicine or veterinary technology. 
    3. Regulate, inspect and register all establishments and  premises where veterinary medicine is practiced. 
    Purpose: The purpose of the amended regulation is to  update requirements for drug destruction consistent with current U.S. Drug  Enforcement Administration (DEA) policies and rules. Proper destruction of  drugs is essential to protect the health and safety of citizens who may be  affected by improper flushing, incineration, or disposal in a landfill. Use of  expired drugs that may be ineffective could affect the health and welfare of  the animals that are patients of veterinarians.
    Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: This regulation  is appropriate for the fast-track process because the agency does not have the  option of continuing the current regulation, which calls for following  instructions in a DEA package that no longer exists. The amendment states the  guidance of the DEA for drug destruction and is identical to the regulation for  drug destruction by other entities that stock drugs.
    Substance: The amendments delete the requirement that  Schedule II through V drugs be destroyed by following the instructions  contained in the drug destruction packet available from the board office, which  provides the latest U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration approved drug  destruction guidelines. The amendments specify that the drugs can be destroyed  by: (i) transferring the drugs to another entity authorized to possess or  provide for proper disposal of such drugs; or (ii) destroying the drugs by  burning in an incinerator that is in compliance with applicable local, state,  and federal laws and regulations. Regulations further provide that if Schedule  II through V drugs are to be destroyed, a DEA drug destruction form shall be  fully completed and used as the record of all drugs to be destroyed. A copy of  the destruction form shall be retained at the veterinarian practice site with  other inventory records. 
    Issues: The primary advantage to the public would be the  timely and effective destruction of stocks of unused, expired, or adulterated  prescription drugs that could find their way into illegal distribution or  abuse. For those reasons, the DEA has a drug destruction form that should be  completed by any entity that has the legal authority to maintain a stock of  controlled substances. There are no disadvantages to the public, which is  better protected by the proper destruction of prescription drugs. There are no  advantages or disadvantages to the agency.
    Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact  Analysis:
    Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of  Veterinary Medicine proposes to specify the drug destruction procedures in the  regulations instead of requiring compliance with the drug destruction  instructions contained in the packet available from the board office which  provides the latest U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration approved drug  destruction guidelines.
    Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for  all proposed changes.
    Estimated Economic Impact. Current regulations require  destruction of schedule II, III, IV, and V drugs according to the drug destruction  instructions contained in the packet available from the board office which  provides the latest U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) approved drug  destruction guidelines. However, DEA no longer has a drug destruction packet.  Thus, the proposed regulations spell out the drug destruction procedures in the  regulations.
    The proposed procedures are the same as the guidelines  established by DEA which include transferring drugs to an authorized reverse  distributor, destroying by incineration that meets local state, and federal  requirements, and completing a drug destruction form. Since the proposed  requirements are the same as current requirements followed in practice, no  significant economic effect is expected other than improving the clarity of the  regulations.
    Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed regulations  apply to 709 full service veterinary facilities and 240 restricted service  veterinary facilities.
    Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed regulations  apply throughout the Commonwealth.
    Projected Impact on Employment. No impact on employment is  expected.
    Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. No impact on  the use and value of private property is expected.
    Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. Although most of the  709 full service veterinary facilities and 240 restricted service veterinary  facilities are believed to be small businesses, proposed regulations are not  expected to have any significant costs or other effects on small businesses.
    Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse  Impact. No adverse impact on small businesses is expected.
    Real Estate Development Costs. No effect on real estate  development costs is expected.
    Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has  analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with  § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number  14 (10). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses  include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or  other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any  localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the  projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the projected  costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the  regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property. Further,  if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses,  § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an  identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the  regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other  administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the regulation,  including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required  reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect of the  regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any less  intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the  regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of  these economic impacts.
    Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board  of Veterinary Medicine concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning  and Budget for the proposed fast-track action on drug destruction in  18VAC150-20, Regulations Governing the Practice of Veterinary Medicine.
    Summary:
    The amendments set out the drug destruction procedures that  veterinarians must follow in the regulations instead of requiring compliance  with the drug destruction instructions contained in the packet available from  the board office, which provides the latest U.S. Drug Enforcement  Administration approved drug destruction guidelines.
    18VAC150-20-190. Requirements for drug storage, dispensing,  destruction, and records for all establishments, full service and restricted. 
    A. All drugs shall be maintained, administered, dispensed,  prescribed and destroyed in compliance with state and federal laws, which  include the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq. of the Code of  Virginia), applicable parts of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Control Act  (21 USC § 301 et seq.), the Prescription Drug Marketing Act (21 USC § 301  et seq.), and the Controlled Substances Act (21 USC § 801 et seq.), as  well as applicable portions of Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
    B. All repackaged tablets and capsules dispensed for  companion animals shall be in approved safety closure containers, except safety  caps shall not be required when any person who requests that the medication not  have a safety cap, or in such cases in which the medication is of such form or  size that it cannot be reasonably dispensed in such containers (e.g., topical  medications, ophthalmic, or otic). A client request for nonsafety packaging  shall be documented in the patient record.
    C. All drugs dispensed for companion animals shall be labeled  with the following: 
    1. Name and address of the facility; 
    2. Name of client; 
    3. Animal identification; 
    4. Date dispensed; 
    5. Directions for use; 
    6. Name, strength (if more than one dosage form exists), and  quantity of the drug; and 
    7. Name of the prescribing veterinarian. 
    D. All drugs shall be maintained in a secured manner with precaution  taken to prevent diversion. 
    1. All Schedule II through V drugs shall be maintained under  lock at all times, with access to the veterinarian or veterinary technician  only, but not to any unlicensed personnel. 
    2. Whenever a veterinarian discovers a theft or any unusual  loss of Schedule II, III, IV, or V drugs, he shall immediately report such  theft or loss to the Board of Veterinary Medicine and to the U.S. Drug  Enforcement Administration. 
    E. Schedule II, III, IV and V drugs shall be destroyed by following  the instructions contained in the drug destruction packet available from the  board office which provides the latest U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration  approved drug destruction guidelines (i) transferring the drugs to  another entity authorized to possess or provide for proper disposal of such  drugs or (ii) destroying the drugs by burning in an incinerator that is in  compliance with applicable local, state, and federal laws and regulations. If  Schedule II through V drugs are to be destroyed, a DEA drug destruction form  shall be fully completed and used as the record of all drugs to be destroyed. A  copy of the destruction form shall be retained at the veterinarian practice  site with other inventory records. 
    F. The drug storage area shall have appropriate provision for  temperature control for all drugs and biologics, including a refrigerator with  the interior thermometer maintained between 36°F and 46°F. Drugs stored at room  temperature shall be maintained between 59°F and 86°F. The stock of drugs shall  be reviewed frequently and removed from the working stock of drugs at the  expiration date. 
    G. A distribution record shall be maintained in addition to  the patient's record, in chronological order, for the administration and  dispensing of all Schedule II-V drugs. 
    This record is to be maintained for a period of two years  from the date of transaction. This record shall include the following: 
    1. Date of transaction; 
    2. Drug name, strength, and the amount dispensed, administered  and wasted; 
    3. Client and animal identification; and 
    4. Identification of the veterinarian authorizing the  administration or dispensing of the drug. 
    H. Original invoices for all Schedule II, III, IV and V drugs  received shall be maintained in chronological order on the premises where the  stock of drugs is held and actual date of receipt is noted. Invoices for  Schedule II drugs shall be maintained separately from other records. All drug  records shall be maintained for a period of two years from the date of  transaction. 
    I. A complete and accurate inventory of all Schedule II, III,  IV and V drugs shall be taken, dated, and signed on any date that is within two  years of the previous biennial inventory. Drug strength must be specified. This  inventory shall indicate if it was made at the opening or closing of business  and shall be maintained on the premises where the drugs are held for two years  from the date of taking the inventory.
    J. Veterinary establishments in which bulk reconstitution of  injectable, bulk compounding or the prepackaging of drugs is performed shall  maintain adequate control records for a period of one year or until the  expiration, whichever is greater. The records shall show the name of the  drug(s) used; strength, if any; date repackaged; quantity prepared; initials of  the veterinarian verifying the process; the assigned lot or control number; the  manufacturer's or distributor's name and lot or control number; and an  expiration date.
        NOTICE: The following  forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms  are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name of the new or amended form to  access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be  viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly  Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (18VAC150-20) 
    Licensure Procedure for Veterinarians (rev. 8/07).
    Application for a License to Practice Veterinary  Medicine (rev. 8/09).
    Instructions to the Applicant for Licensure by Examination as  a Veterinary Technician (rev. 4/09).
    Instructions to the Veterinary Technician  Licensure Applicant (rev. 7/11).
    Application for a License to Practice Veterinary  Technology (rev. 8/09).
    Applicant Instructions for New, Upgrading to Full Service, or  Change of Location Inspections (rev. 8/07).
    Application for Veterinary Establishment Permit  (rev. 8/09).
    Application for Reinstatement (rev. 8/09).
    Licensure Verification - Veterinarian (rev. 7/11).
    Licensure Verification - Veterinary Technician (rev. 9/07).
    Application for Registration for Volunteer Practice (rev.  8/07).
    Sponsor Certification for Volunteer Registration (rev. 8/07).
    Application for Registration to Practice as an Equine Dental  Technician (eff. 11/07).
    Recommendation for Registration as a Equine Dental Technician  (eff. 11/07). 
    Registrants  Inventory of Drugs Surrendered, Form DEA-41 (eff. 9/01).
    VA.R. Doc. No. R12-2530; Filed October 17, 2011, 11:30 a.m. 
TITLE 20. PUBLIC UTILITIES AND TELECOMMUNICATIONS
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Final Regulation
        REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The  State Corporation Commission is exempt from the Administrative Process Act in  accordance with § 2.2-4002 A 2 of the Code of Virginia, which exempts  courts, any agency of the Supreme Court, and any agency that by the  Constitution is expressly granted any of the powers of a court of record.
         Title of Regulation: 20VAC5-330. Limitations on  Disconnection of Electric and Water Service (adding 20VAC5-330-10 through  20VAC5-330-50).  
    Statutory Authority: Chapters 500, 662, and 673 of the  2011 Acts of Assembly.
    Effective Date: October 31, 2011. 
    Agency Contact: Timothy R. Faherty, Consumer Services  Manager, Division of Energy Regulation, State Corporation Commission, P.O. Box  1197, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9629, FAX (804) 371-9350, or  email tim.faherty@scc.virginia.gov.
    Summary:
    This regulation establishes limitations on the authority of  an investor-owned electric utility, electric cooperative, or public utility  providing water service to terminate electric service or water service to the  residence of any customer who provides the certification of a licensed  physician that the customer or a family member who resides with the customer  has a serious medical condition. The regulation also provides a cost recovery  mechanism under which electric and water utilities are authorized to recover  any losses on customer accounts that are written off or otherwise determined to  be uncollectible as a result of the regulation. 
    Substantive changes to the proposed regulation include: (i)  revising the definition of serious medical condition; (ii) revising the steps  to be taken by the electric or water service provider upon receipt of a request  for a delay from a customer without a Serious Medical Condition Certification  Form on file; and (iii) modifying the Serious Medical Condition Certification  Form to require the physician completing the form to provide the name of the  state in which the physician is licensed. 
    AT RICHMOND, OCTOBER 18, 2011
    COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA, ex rel.
    STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
    CASE NO. PUE-2011-00060
    Ex Parte: In re: Establishing rules providing
  limitations on disconnection of electric and water
  service for persons with serious medical conditions
    ORDER ADOPTING REGULATIONS
    On July 11, 2011, the State Corporation Commission  ("Commission") initiated a rulemaking required by Chapters 500, 662,  and 673 of the 2011 Acts of Assembly ("Acts"). Through these Acts,  the Virginia General Assembly directed the Commission to conduct a proceeding  for the purpose of establishing limitations on the authority of an investor‑owned  electric utility, electric cooperative, or public utility providing water  service to terminate electric service or water service to the residence of any  customer who provides the certification of a licensed physician that the  customer, or a family member who resides with the customer, has a serious  medical condition. The Acts, inter alia, directed the Commission to:  (i) establish limitations that are consistent with the public interest;  (ii) establish a cost recovery mechanism under which electric and water  utilities shall be authorized to recover any losses on customer accounts that  are written off or otherwise determined to be uncollectible as a result of  these regulations; and (iii) make these regulations effective no later  than October 31, 2011. Finally, the Acts provided that in the proceeding  establishing these regulations, the Commission was to consult with the  Commissioner of Health, the Commissioner of Social Services, the Virginia  Poverty Law Center, the Virginia League of Social Services Executives, electric  utilities, water utilities, and other persons the Commission deems appropriate  ("Designated Entities").
    The Commission's July 11, 2011 Order for Notice and Comment  ("July 11, 2011 Order"), set out proposed rules ("Proposed  Rules") that had been prepared by the Staff of the Commission  ("Staff") after consulting with the Designated Entities and other  interested parties. The July 11, 2011 Order also provided that public notice of  the Proposed Rules be given so as to afford any persons or entities, including  the Designated Entities, an opportunity to comment formally on the Proposed  Rules, to request a hearing thereon, or to propose modifications or supplements  to the Proposed Rules.
    Notice of the proceeding was published in the Virginia  Register on August 1, 2011, and in newspapers of general circulation throughout  the Commonwealth.1 Interested persons were  directed to file any comments and requests for hearing on the Proposed Rules on  or before August 16, 2011.
    Comments in this proceeding were submitted by: Delegate Ward  L. Armstrong, Delegate Gregory D. Habeeb, Delegate Salvatore R. Iaquinto, The  Virginia Poverty Law Center, David M. Debiasi for AARP Virginia, Jean  Duggan for Bay Aging, Virginia Electric and Power Company, Appalachian Power  Company, Kentucky Utilities Company d/b/a Old Dominion Power, the Virginia  Electric Cooperatives,2 Bluefield Valley  Waterworks Company, Aqua Virginia, Inc., Virginia American Water Company, Sarah  R. Ebbett, Mehdi Nabavi, Bobbie Henley, Becky J. Smith, Mary S. Martin, Avi  Dey, Gwendolyn D. Cook, and Lennis J. Harris.  The Commission did not  receive a request for a hearing on the Proposed Rules.
    As directed by the July 11, 2011 Order, the Staff filed a  report ("Staff Report") on August 30, 2011, in which the Staff,  in part, reviewed the comments on the Proposed Rules. The Staff Report also  presented revisions to the Proposed Rules to the Commission after consideration  of the comments filed in this proceeding.
    NOW THE COMMISSION, upon consideration of this matter, is of  the opinion and finds that, except as described below, the proposed regulations  as revised and set forth in the Staff Report should be adopted as Chapter 330  of the Virginia Administrative Code ("VAC").
    With regard to the definition of "serious medical  condition" set forth in 20 VAC 5‑330‑20, we find  that, upon review of the Acts directing that we undertake this rulemaking, a  definition more closely following the language initially proposed by the  Virginia Department of Health should be adopted at this juncture.3
    Furthermore, we find that language added in 20 VAC 5-330-40  B, which provides that a customer is entitled to only one 10-day delay in a  12-month period for purposes of securing a completed Serious Medical Condition  Certification Form, should be revised as set forth herein.4
    These regulations will be titled "Limitations on  Disconnection of Electric and Water Service" and will be made effective as  of October 31, 2011.
    Accordingly, IT IS ORDERED THAT:
    (1) The Commission's regulations regarding Limitations on  Disconnection of Electric and Water Service, 20 VAC 5-330-10 et seq.,  are hereby adopted as shown in Appendix A to this Order, and shall become  effective as of October 31, 2011.
    (2) A copy of these regulations as set out in Appendix A of  this Order shall be forwarded to the Registrar of Regulations for publication  in the Virginia Register.
    (3) There being nothing further to come before the  Commission, this case hereby is dismissed from the Commission's docket of  active cases, and the papers filed herein shall be placed in the Commission's  file for ended causes.
    AN ATTESTED COPY hereof shall be sent by the Clerk of the  Commission to all persons on the official Service List in this matter. The  Service List is available from the Clerk of the Commission, c/o Document  Control Center, 1300 East Main Street, First Floor, Tyler Building, Richmond,  Virginia 23219.  A copy hereof shall be delivered to the Commission's Office  of General Counsel and Divisions of Energy Regulation and Public Utility  Accounting.
    __________________
    1 See Memoranda from Laura S. Martin of the  Commission's Division of Information Resources, filed in this docket on August  3, 2011, and August 15, 2011.
    2 The  Virginia Electric Cooperatives include A&N Electric Cooperative, BARC  Electric Cooperative, Central Virginia Electric Cooperative, Community Electric  Cooperative, Craig-Botetourt Electric Cooperative, Mecklenburg Electric  Cooperative, Northern Neck Electric Cooperative, Northern Virginia Electric  Cooperative, Powell Valley Electric Cooperative, Prince George Electric  Cooperative, Rappahannock Electric Cooperative, Shenandoah Valley Electric  Cooperative, and Southside Electric Cooperative and their statewide service  organization, the Virginia, Maryland, and Delaware Association of Electric  Cooperatives.
    3 Staff  Report at Attachment 2.
    4 With this  revision we clarify that while this 10-day delay under this subsection is  required only once in a 12-month period, 20 VAC 5-330-40 A, C, and D provide  that a 30-day delay in service termination may be exercised twice in a 12-month  period once a completed Serious Medical Condition Certification Form is filed.
    CHAPTER 330
  LIMITATIONS ON DISCONNECTION OF ELECTRIC AND WATER SERVICE
    20VAC5-330-10. Applicability and scope.
    This chapter is promulgated pursuant to Chapters 500, 662,  and 673 of the 2011 Acts of Assembly. The provisions in this chapter apply to  investor-owned electric utilities, electric cooperatives, and public utilities  providing water service. In order to promote public health and safety, this  chapter is designed to establish reasonable limitations, consistent with the  public interest, on the ability of investor-owned electric utilities, electric  cooperatives, and public utilities providing water service to terminate service  to residential customers who have a serious medical condition or to residential  customers who reside with a family member with a serious medical condition and  to provide such residential customers adequate time prior to the termination of  electric or water service to either enter into a payment plan with the utility  or make other arrangements for housing or medical care. Nothing in this chapter  shall be interpreted to require an investor-owned electric utility, electric  cooperative, or public utility providing water service to terminate service  after the expiration of the timelines established herein.
    [ Furthermore, nothing in this chapter shall be  interpreted to prohibit an investor-owned electric utility, electric  cooperative, or public utility providing water service from terminating service  in the event of an emergency or in the event an investor-owned electric  utility, electric cooperative, or public utility providing water service  reasonably believes that theft of service or meter tampering has occurred in  connection with the service. ]
    20VAC5-330-20. Definitions.
    The following terms when used in this chapter shall have  the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
    "Licensed physician" means a person licensed to  practice medicine or osteopathic medicine (M.D. or D.O.) in any of the 50  states or the District of Columbia.
    "Serious medical condition" means a physical or  psychiatric condition that requires medical intervention to prevent further  disability, loss of function, or death. Such conditions are characterized by a  need for ongoing medical supervision or the consultation of a physician. A  serious medical condition carries with it a risk to health beyond that  experienced by the majority of children and adults in their day-to-day minor  illnesses and injuries. Individuals with a serious medical condition may  require administration of specialized treatments and may be dependent on  medical technology such as ventilators, dialysis machines, enteral or  parenteral nutrition support, or continuous oxygen. Medical interventions may  include medications with special storage requirements, use of powered  equipment, or access to water. [ Further, a medical condition  shall only be considered a serious medical condition if a licensed physician  certifies that electric or water service is necessary in the treatment of the  medical condition. ] 
    "Serious Medical Condition Certification Form"  means a written document, approved by the State Corporation Commission, signed  by (i) a licensed physician, (ii) the customer, and (iii) the patient or the  patient's legal guardian or power of attorney. The Serious Medical Condition  Certification Form shall (i) identify the medical condition of the customer or  family member who resides with the customer, (ii) include a certification by a  licensed physician that the medical condition meets the definition of a serious  medical condition, (iii) identify the anticipated length of time that the serious  medical condition will persist, and (iv) identify any equipment prescribed or  treatment required for the medical condition.
    20VAC5-330-30. General provisions.
    A. A request for a waiver of any of the provisions of this  chapter shall be considered by the State Corporation Commission on a  case-by-case basis, and may be granted upon such terms and conditions as the  State Corporation Commission may impose.
    B. An investor-owned electric utility, electric  cooperative, or public utility providing water service shall use the Serious  Medical Condition Certification Form (Form SMCC) provided on the State  Corporation Commission's website at http://www.scc.virginia.gov/pue/rules.aspx  unless the State Corporation Commission approves the use of an alternative  form. 
    C. An investor-owned electric utility, electric  cooperative, or public utility providing water service may require a customer  to provide it a new Serious Medical Condition Certification Form either  annually or upon the expiration of the anticipated length of time that the  serious medical condition will persist if such time is less than 12 months. 
    D. An investor-owned electric utility, electric  cooperative, or public utility providing water service may take reasonable  actions to verify the validity of the Serious Medical Condition Certification  Form. Such actions include, but are not limited to, contacting (i) the licensed  physician to confirm the medical condition of the patient and the treatment or  treatments associated therewith; (ii) the Virginia Department of Health  Professions, or the applicable state's licensing board, to verify that the  physician is a licensed physician; or (iii) the customer to verify that the  patient currently resides at the residence. 
    E. In the event that the investor-owned electric utility,  electric cooperative, or public utility providing water service is of the  opinion that the information provided on the Serious Medical Condition  Certification Form is invalid, or otherwise is of the opinion that there has  been fraud or abuse of the process provided in this chapter, it may petition  the State Corporation Commission for redress pursuant to 5VAC5-20-100 B, State  Corporation Commission's Rules of Practice and Procedure.
    20VAC5-330-40. Limitations on service termination to  residential customers.
    A. Following the issuance of a notice of intent to  terminate service pursuant to § 56-247.1 [ D or F  A 4 or 6 ] of the Code of Virginia, an investor-owned electric  utility, electric cooperative, or public utility providing water service shall,  upon request from a residential customer who has a Serious Medical Condition  Certification Form filed with the utility, delay termination of service for a  minimum of an additional 30 calendar days beyond the expiration of the notice.
    B. Following the issuance of a notice of intent to  terminate service pursuant to § 56-247.1 [ D or F  A 4 or 6 ] of the Code of Virginia, an investor-owned electric  utility, electric cooperative, or public utility providing water service shall,  upon request from a residential customer who does not have a Serious Medical  Condition Certification Form filed with the utility, delay termination of  service for 10 calendar days upon oral or written notification from a  residential customer that such customer or a family member residing with the  customer has a serious medical condition. The 10-calendar day delay in service  termination shall commence on the date the investor-owned electric utility,  electric cooperative, or public utility providing water service receives  notification. At the time of such notification, the investor-owned electric  utility, electric cooperative, or public utility providing water service shall:
    1. Advise the residential customer that service termination  will be delayed for 10 calendar days pending receipt of the Serious Medical  Condition Certification Form;
    2. Provide the customer access to the Serious Medical  Condition Certification Form via its website [ or advise the  consumer that access can be obtained via the Commission's website ];
    3. Not later than [ the next two ]  business [ day days after receiving notification ],  mail, email, or deliver via facsimile transmission a copy of the Serious  Medical Condition Certification Form upon a request from the customer; and
    4. Not later than [ the next two ]  business [ day days after receiving  notification ], mail the customer a letter advising the customer:
    a. The date notification was received;
    b. The date that the 10-calendar day delay expires; and
    c. That upon receipt of a Serious Medical Condition  Certification Form within the 10-calendar day time period provided for in this  subsection, it will delay the termination of service 30 calendar days from the  date of termination initially noticed.
    Upon receipt of a Serious Medical Condition Certification  Form within the 10-calendar day time period provided for in this subsection, an  investor-owned electric utility, electric cooperative, or public utility  providing water service shall provide the 30-calendar day delay in termination  of service required in subsection A of this section. [ An  investor-owned electric utility, electric cooperative, or public utility  providing water service shall not be required to provide a 10-calendar day  delay in service termination pursuant to this subsection more than once in a  12-month period. ]
    C. In the event an investor-owned electric utility,  electric cooperative, or public utility providing water service has terminated  service to a residential customer within the preceding 14 calendar days, the  investor-owned electric utility, electric cooperative, or public utility  providing water service shall promptly restore service upon (i) receipt of a  Serious Medical Condition Certification Form, or confirmation of such a form on  file; and (ii) a request from the customer to reconnect service. The investor-owned  electric utility, electric cooperative, or public utility providing water  service shall not be permitted to require any payment as a condition to  reconnect; however, it may charge the customer, on the next monthly bill, any  applicable reconnection fees that are on file in its State Corporation  Commission approved tariffs and terms and conditions of service. Following the  reconnection of service, the investor-owned electric utility, electric  cooperative, or public utility providing water service shall delay termination  of service for a minimum of 30 calendar days from the date it reconnects the  customer. 
    D. An investor-owned electric utility, electric  cooperative, or public utility providing water service shall permit a  residential customer to delay termination of service under this chapter two  times within a 12-month period. The 30-calendar day delays may be consecutive.  Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit an investor-owned electric utility,  electric cooperative, or public utility providing water service from providing  to a customer additional delay from the termination of service beyond the delay  required.
    E. During the delay in service termination pursuant to  subsections A and C of this section, the investor-owned electric utility,  electric cooperative, or public utility providing water service shall: 
    1. In the event the investor-owned electric utility,  electric cooperative, or public utility providing water service is able to  establish payment arrangements with the customer, mail to the customer a letter  detailing the agreement not later than three business days after the agreement  on payment arrangements is made; or 
    2. In the event the investor-owned electric utility,  electric cooperative, or public utility providing water service is unable to  establish payment arrangements with the customer, mail the customer a letter,  not later than 10 calendar days prior to the expiration of the 30-calendar day  delay required by this chapter, advising the customer of (i) the date that  service may be terminated and (ii) any payment arrangements available to the  customer. The letter shall also advise the customer of his right to delay  service termination pursuant to this chapter twice within a 12-month period.
    F. The investor-owned electric utility, electric cooperative,  or public utility providing water service shall (i) maintain a copy of any  letters required under this section for a minimum of 12 months and (ii) provide  such copies to the State Corporation Commission's Division of Energy Regulation  upon request. 
    20VAC5-330-50. Cost recovery mechanism.
    A. An investor-owned electric utility, electric  cooperative, or public utility providing water service shall be permitted to  recover losses on customer accounts resulting from the implementation of this  chapter in the same manner as other uncollectable costs are recovered through  rates.
    B. An investor-owned electric utility, electric  cooperative, or public utility providing water service shall maintain  write-offs and recoveries of uncollectable accounts in such a manner that would  allow those amounts written off as a result of the implementation of this  chapter to be separately identified.
        NOTICE: The following  form used in administering the regulation was filed by the agency. The form is  not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia  Register of Regulations may click on the name to access the form. The form is  also available through the agency contact or at the Office of the Registrar of  Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
         FORMS (20VAC5-330)
    Serious  Medical Condition Certification Form, Form SMCC (10/11).
    VA.R. Doc. No. R11-2908; Filed October 18, 2011, 11:25 a.m.