TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
DEPARTMENT OF GENERAL SERVICES
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 1VAC30-45. Certification for
Noncommercial Environmental Laboratories (amending 1VAC30-45-10, 1VAC30-45-30 through
1VAC30-45-130, 1VAC30-45-300 through 1VAC30-45-400, 1VAC30-45-500,
1VAC30-45-510, 1VAC30-45-520, 1VAC30-45-600, 1VAC30-45-610, 1VAC30-45-660,
1VAC30-45-670, 1VAC30-45-720 through 1VAC30-45-771, 1VAC30-45-775,
1VAC30-45-791, 1VAC30-45-796, 1VAC30-45-798, 1VAC30-45-811, 1VAC30-45-850; adding
1VAC30-45-95; repealing 1VAC30-45-530, 1VAC30-45-780 through 1VAC30-45-788,
1VAC30-45-800 through 1VAC30-45-808, 1VAC30-45-820 through 1VAC30-45-829).
Statutory Authority: § 2.2-1105 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: September 1, 2016.
Agency Contact: Rhonda Bishton, Regulatory Coordinator,
Department of General Services, 1100 Bank Street, Suite 420, Richmond, VA
23219, telephone (804) 786-3311, FAX (804) 371-8305, or email
rhonda.bishton@dgs.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) streamline the procedures for
application and renewal of certification, (ii) reduce the requirement to
perform proficiency test studies to one study annually for each field of
certification, (iii) expand the time between on-site assessments from two years
to three years for laboratories regularly meeting certification standards, (iv)
eliminate requirements for specialized testing that noncommercial laboratories
currently do not perform, (v) add procedures for suspension of certification to
provide a laboratory time to correct problems to avoid decertification, (vi)
make explicit the requirements to notify a laboratory that the agency has cause
to deny certification or to decertify, (vii) simplify the appeal procedure
language, (viii) restructure and modify the fee system and increase the fees
paid by laboratories, and (ix) eliminate, or provide increased flexibility for,
a number of quality system provisions (Article 4).
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
of Regulations.
Part I
General Provisions
1VAC30-45-10. Purpose.
Section 2.2-1105 of the Code of Virginia directs the Division
of Consolidated Laboratory Services to establish a program to certify
environmental laboratories that perform tests, analyses, measurements or
monitoring required pursuant to the Commonwealth's air, waste and water laws
and regulations. This chapter sets out the required standards and the process
by which owners of noncommercial environmental laboratories may obtain
certification for their laboratories. 1VAC30-46 covers commercial
environmental laboratories and NELAP-accredited environmental laboratories
seeking reciprocal accreditation in Virginia.
1VAC30-45-30. Applicability.
A. This chapter applies to any owner of a noncommercial
environmental laboratory.
B. Any environmental laboratory owned by an agency of the
federal government may be certified as follows:
1. By DGS-DCLS DCLS to the standards set out in
this chapter; or
2. By a federal primary accrediting authority accreditation
body to the standards established by the National Environmental
Laboratory Accreditation Conference TNI.
C. Citizen monitoring groups. Section 62.1-44.19:11 of the
Code of Virginia both establishes a citizen water quality monitoring program
for Virginia and encourages the growth of the program. The Department of
Environmental Quality (DEQ) has a separate program of quality assurance and
quality control (QA/QC) standards for citizen monitoring groups and their
laboratories to follow. The following laboratories shall meet the [ DEG
DEQ ] QA/QC requirements developed for the purposes of citizen
monitoring of water quality in lieu of the requirements of 1VAC30-45 or
1VAC30-46:
1. Laboratories owned by citizen monitoring groups.
2. Laboratories at institutions of higher education affiliated
with citizen monitoring groups for the purposes of analyzing samples for the
groups.
D. Environmental research performed by environmental
laboratories owned by institutions of higher education. Institutions of
higher education. Environmental laboratories owned by institutions of
higher education located in Virginia that perform analyses for the purpose of
providing environmental research data to DEQ at DEQ's request shall meet the
QA/QC requirements specified by DEQ. An environmental laboratory owned by an
institution of higher education located in Virginia that performs environmental
research for DEQ shall not be subject to the requirements of either 1VAC30-45
or 1VAC30-46 unless DEQ requires the laboratory to do so.
1VAC30-45-40. Definitions.
Where a term is defined in this section, the term shall
have no other meaning, even if it is defined differently in the Code of
Virginia or another regulation of the Virginia Administrative Code. Unless
specifically defined in this section, the terms used in this chapter shall have
the meanings commonly ascribed to them by recognized authorities. The
following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following
meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Acceptance criteria" means specified limits placed
on characteristics of an item, process, or service defined in requirement
documents.
"Accuracy" means the degree of agreement between an
observed value and an accepted reference value. Accuracy includes a combination
of random error (precision) and systematic error (bias) components that are due
to sampling and analytical operations. Accuracy is an indicator of data
quality.
"Algae" means simple single-celled, colonial, or
multicelled, mostly aquatic plants, containing chlorophyll and lacking roots,
stems and leaves that are either suspended in water (phytoplankton) or attached
to rocks and other substrates (periphyton).
"Aliquot" means a portion of a sample taken for
analysis.
"Analyte" means the substance or physical property
to be determined in samples examined.
"Analytical method" means a technical procedure for
providing analysis of a sample, defined by a body such as the Environmental
Protection Agency or the American Society for Testing and Materials, that may
not include the sample preparation method.
"Assessment" means the evaluation process used to
measure or establish the performance, effectiveness, and conformance of an
organization and its systems or both to defined criteria.
"Assessor" means the person who performs on-site
assessments of laboratories' capability and capacity for meeting the
requirements under this chapter by examining the records and other physical
evidence for each one of the tests for which certification has been requested
assigned by DCLS to perform, alone or as part of an assessment team, an
assessment of an environmental laboratory.
"Audit" means a systematic evaluation to determine
the conformance to quantitative and qualitative specifications of some
operational function or activity.
"Authority" means, in the context of a governmental
body or local government, an authority created under the provisions of the
Virginia Water and Waste Authorities Act, Chapter 51 (§ 15.2-5100 et seq.) of
Title 15.2 of the Code of Virginia.
"Batch" means environmental samples that are
prepared together or analyzed together or both with the same process and
personnel, using the same lot or lots of reagents. "Analytical batch"
means a batch composed of prepared environmental samples (extracts, digestates
or concentrates) that are analyzed together as a group. An analytical batch can
include prepared samples originating from various environmental matrices and
can exceed 20 samples. "Preparation batch" means a batch composed of
one to 20 environmental samples of the same matrix that meets the criteria in
this definition for "batch" and with a maximum time between the start
of processing of the first and last sample in the batch to be 24 hours.
"Benthic macroinvertebrates" means bottom dwelling
animals without backbones that live at least part of their life cycles within
or upon available substrates within a body of water.
"Blank" means a sample that has not been exposed to
the analyzed sample stream in order to monitor contamination during sampling,
transport, storage or analysis. The blank is subjected to the usual analytical
and measurement process to establish a zero baseline or background value and is
sometimes used to adjust or correct routine analytical results. Blanks include
the following types:
1. Field blank. A blank prepared in the field by filling a
clean container with pure deionized water and appropriate preservative, if any,
for the specific sampling activity being undertaken.
2. Method blank. A sample of a matrix similar to the batch of
associated samples (when available) that is free from the analytes of interest
and is processed simultaneously with and under the same conditions as samples
through all steps of the analytical procedures, and in which no target analytes
or interferences are present at concentrations that impact the analytical
results for sample analyses.
"Calibration" means to determine, by measurement or
comparison with a standard, the correct value of each scale reading on a meter,
instrument or other device. The levels of the applied calibration standard
should bracket the range of planned or expected sample measurements.
"Calibration curve" means the graphical relationship
between the known values, such as concentrations, of a series of calibration
standards and their instrument response.
"Calibration standard" means a substance or
reference material used to calibrate an instrument.
"Certified reference material" means a reference
material one or more of whose property values are certified by a technically
valid procedure, accompanied by or traceable to a certificate or other
documentation that is issued by a certifying body.
"Client" or "customer" means the Department
of Environmental Quality (DEQ) when used in the context of quality assurance
and specific quality control provisions.
"Commercial environmental laboratory" means an
environmental laboratory where environmental analysis is performed for another
person.
"Corrective action" means the action taken to
eliminate the causes of an existing nonconformity, defect or other undesirable
situation in order to prevent recurrence.
"DGS-DCLS" "DCLS" means the
Division of Consolidated Laboratory Services of the Department of General
Services.
"Demonstration of capability" means the procedure
to establish the ability of the analyst to generate data of acceptable accuracy
and precision.
"Detection limit" means the lowest concentration or
amount of the target analyte that can be determined to be different from zero
by a single measurement at a stated degree of confidence.
"Environmental analysis" or "environmental
analyses" means any test, analysis, measurement, or monitoring used for
the purposes of the Virginia Air Pollution Control Law, the Virginia Waste
Management Act or the State Water Control Law (§ 10.1-1300 et seq., § 10.1-1400
et seq., and § 62.1-44.2 et seq., respectively, of the Code of Virginia).
For the purposes of these regulations, any test, analysis, measurement, or
monitoring required pursuant to the regulations promulgated under these three
laws, or by any permit or order issued under the authority of any of these laws
or regulations is "used for the purposes" of these laws. The term
shall not include the following:
1. Sampling of water, solid and chemical materials, biological
tissue, or air and emissions.
2. Field testing and measurement of water, solid and chemical
materials, biological tissue, or air and emissions, except when performed in an
environmental laboratory rather than at the site where the sample was taken.
3. Taxonomic identification of samples for which there is no
national accreditation standard such as algae, benthic macroinvertebrates,
macrophytes, vertebrates and zooplankton.
4. Protocols used pursuant to § 10.1-104.2 of the Code of
Virginia to determine soil fertility, animal manure nutrient content, or plant
tissue nutrient uptake for the purposes of nutrient management.
5. Geochemical and permeability testing for solid waste
compliance.
6. Materials specification for air quality compliance when
product certifications specify the data required by an air permit such as fuel
type, Btu content, sulfur content, or VOC content.
"Environmental laboratory" or
"laboratory" means a facility or a defined area within a facility
where environmental analysis is performed. A structure built solely to shelter
field personnel and equipment from inclement weather shall not be considered an
environmental laboratory.
"Establishment date" means the date set for the
accreditation program under 1VAC30-46 and the certification program to be
established under this chapter.
"Establishment of certification program" or
"established program" means that DGS-DCLS DCLS has
completed the initial accreditation of environmental laboratories covered by
1VAC30-46 and the initial certification of environmental laboratories covered
by 1VAC30-45.
"Facility" means something that is built or
installed to serve a particular function.
"Field of certification" or "FoC"
means an approach to certifying laboratories by those matrix,
technology/method, and analyte/analyte group analyte
combinations for which DCLS offers certification.
"Field of proficiency testing" or
"FoPT" means analytes for which a laboratory is required to successfully
analyze a PT sample in order to obtain or maintain certification, collectively
defined as matrix, technology/method, and analyte.
"Field testing and measurement" means any of the
following:
1. Any test for parameters under 40 CFR Part 136 for which the
holding time indicated for the sample requires immediate analysis; or
2. Any test defined as a field test in federal regulation.
The following is a limited list of currently recognized field
tests or measures that is not intended to be inclusive: continuous emissions
monitoring; on-line online monitoring; flow monitoring; tests for
pH, residual chlorine, temperature and dissolved oxygen; and field analysis for
soil gas.
"Finding" means an assessment conclusion that
identifies a condition having a significant effect on an item or activity. An
assessment finding is normally a deficiency and is normally accompanied by
specific examples of the observed condition. referenced to a laboratory
certification standard and supported by objective evidence that identifies a
deviation from a laboratory certification standard requirement.
"Governmental body" means any department, agency,
bureau, authority, or district of the United States government, of the
government of the Commonwealth of Virginia, or of any local government within
the Commonwealth of Virginia.
"Holding time (or maximum allowable holding time)"
means the maximum time that a sample may be held prior to analysis and still
be considered valid or not compromised can elapse between two specified
activities.
"Initial certification period" means the period
during which DGS-DCLS is accepting and processing applications for the first
time under this chapter as specified in 1VAC30-45-60.
"International System of Units (SI)" means the
coherent system of units adopted and recommended by the General Conference on
Weights and Measures.
"Laboratory control sample" or "LCS"
means a sample matrix, free from the analytes of interest, spiked with verified
known amounts of analytes or a material containing known and verified amounts
of analytes. It is generally used to establish intra-laboratory or analyst
specific precision and bias or to assess the performance of all or a portion of
the measurement system. "Laboratory control sample" or
"LCS" may also be named laboratory fortified blank, spiked blank, or
QC check sample.
"Laboratory manager" means the person who has
overall responsibility for the technical operation of the environmental
laboratory and who exercises actual day-to-day supervision of laboratory
operation for the appropriate fields of testing and reporting of results. The
title of this person may include but is not limited to laboratory director,
technical director, laboratory supervisor or laboratory manager.
"Legal entity" means an entity, other than a natural
person, who has sufficient existence in legal contemplation that it can
function legally, be sued or sue, and make decisions through agents as
in the case of corporations.
"Limit of detection" or "LOD" means an
estimate of the minimum amount of a substance that an analytical process can
reliably detect. An LOD is analyte and matrix specific and may be laboratory
dependent.
"Limit of quantitation" or "LOQ" means
the minimum levels, concentrations, or quantities of a target variable (e.g.,
target analyte) that can be reported with a specified degree of confidence.
"Local government" means a municipality (city or
town), county, sanitation district, or authority.
"Macrophytes" means any aquatic or terrestrial
plant species that can be identified and observed with the eye, unaided by
magnification.
"Matrix" means the component or substrate that may
contain the analyte of interest. A matrix can be a field of certification
matrix or a quality system matrix.
1. Field of certification matrix. These matrix definitions
shall be used when certifying a laboratory.
a. Non-potable Nonpotable water. Any aqueous
sample that has not been designated a potable or potential potable water
source. Includes surface water, groundwater, effluents, water treatment
chemicals, and TCLP or other extracts.
b. Solid and chemical materials. Includes soils, sediments,
sludges, products and byproducts of an industrial process that results in a
matrix not previously defined.
c. Biological tissue. Any sample of a biological origin such
as fish tissue, shellfish, or plant material. Such samples shall be grouped
according to origin.
d. Air and emissions. Whole gas or vapor samples including
those contained in flexible or rigid wall containers and the extracted
concentrated analytes of interest from a gas or vapor that are collected with a
sorbent tube, impinger solution, filter or other device.
2. Quality system matrix. For purposes of batch and quality
control requirement determinations, the following matrix types shall be used:
a. Drinking water. Any aqueous sample that has been designated
a potable or potential potable water source.
b. Aqueous. Any aqueous sample excluded from the definition of
drinking water matrix or saline/estuarine source. Includes surface water,
groundwater, effluents, and TCLP or other extracts.
c. Saline/estuarine. Any aqueous sample from an ocean or
estuary, or other salt water source.
d. Nonaqueous liquid. Any organic liquid with less than 15%
settleable solids.
e. Biological tissue. Any sample of a biological origin such
as fish tissue, shellfish, or plant material. Such samples shall be grouped
according to origin.
f. Solids. Includes soils, sediments, sludges and other
matrices with more than 15% settleable solids.
g. Chemical waste. A product or by-product byproduct
of an industrial process that results in a matrix not previously defined.
h. Air and emissions. Whole gas or vapor samples including
those contained in flexible or rigid wall containers and the extracted
concentrated analytes of interest from a gas or vapor that are collected with a
sorbent tube, impinger solution, filter or other device.
"Matrix spike (spiked sample or fortified sample)"
means a sample prepared by adding a known mass of target analyte to a specified
amount of matrix sample for which an independent estimate of target analyte
concentration is available. Matrix spikes are used, for example, to determine
the effect of the matrix on a method's recovery efficiency.
"Matrix spike duplicate (spiked sample or fortified
sample duplicate)" means a second replicate matrix spike prepared in the
laboratory and analyzed to obtain a measure of the precision of the recovery
for each analyte.
"National Environmental Laboratory Accreditation
Conference (NELAC)" means a voluntary organization of state and federal
environmental officials and interest groups with the primary purpose to
establish mutually acceptable standards for accrediting environmental
laboratories. A subset of NELAP.
"National Environmental Laboratory Accreditation
Program (NELAP)" means the overall National Environmental Laboratory
Accreditation Program of which NELAC is a part.
"National Institute of Standards and Technology" or
"NIST" means an agency of the U.S. Department of Commerce's
Technology Administration that is working with EPA, states, NELAC, and other
public and commercial entities to establish a system under which private sector
companies and interested states can be certified by NIST to provide
NIST-traceable proficiency testing (PT) samples.
"Negative control" means measures taken to ensure
that a test, its components, or the environment do not cause undesired effects,
or produce incorrect test results.
"Noncommercial environmental laboratory" means
either of the following:
1. An environmental laboratory where environmental analysis is
performed solely for the owner of the laboratory.
2. An environmental laboratory where the only performance of
environmental analysis for another person is one of the following:
a. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental
laboratory owned by a local government for an owner of a small wastewater
treatment system treating domestic sewage at a flow rate of less than or equal
to 1,000 gallons per day.
b. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental
laboratory operated by a corporation as part of a general contract issued by a
local government to operate and maintain a wastewater treatment system or a
waterworks.
c. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental
laboratory owned by a corporation as part of the prequalification process or to
confirm the identity or characteristics of material supplied by a potential or
existing customer or generator as required by a hazardous waste management
permit under 9VAC20-60.
d. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental
laboratory owned by a Publicly Owned Treatment Works (POTW) for an industrial
source of wastewater under a permit issued by the POTW to the industrial source
as part of the requirements of a pretreatment program under Part VII
(9VAC25-31-730 et seq.) of 9VAC25-31.
e. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental
laboratory owned by a county authority for any municipality within the county's
geographic jurisdiction when the environmental analysis pertains solely to the
purpose for which the authority was created.
f. Environmental analysis performed by an environmental
laboratory owned by an authority or a sanitation district for any participating
local government of the authority or sanitation district when the environmental
analysis pertains solely to the purpose for which the authority or sanitation
district was created.
"Owner" means any person who owns, operates, leases
or controls an environmental laboratory.
"Person" means an individual, corporation,
partnership, association, company, business, trust, joint venture or other
legal entity.
"Physical," for the purposes of fee test
categories, means the tests to determine the physical properties of a sample.
Tests for solids, turbidity and color are examples of physical tests.
"Positive control" means measures taken to ensure
that a test or its components are working properly and producing correct or
expected results from positive test subjects.
"Precision" means the degree to which a set of
observations or measurements of the same property, obtained under similar
conditions, conform to themselves. Precision is an indicator of data quality.
Precision is expressed usually as standard deviation, variance or range, in
either absolute or relative terms.
"Primary accrediting authority accreditation
body" means the agency or department designated at the territory,
state or federal level as the recognized authority with the responsibility and
accountability for granting NELAC accreditation to a specific laboratory for a
specific field of accreditation body responsible for assessing a
laboratory's total quality system, on-site assessment, and PT performance
tracking for fields of accreditation.
"Proficiency test or testing (PT)" means evaluating
a laboratory's performance under controlled conditions relative to a given set
of criteria through analysis of unknown samples provided by an external source.
"Proficiency test (PT) field of testing" means
the approach to offer proficiency testing by maxtrix, technology/method, and
analyte/analyte group.
"Proficiency test (PT) sample" means a sample, the
composition of which is unknown to both the analyst and the laboratory and
is provided to test whether the analyst or laboratory or both laboratory
can produce analytical results within specified acceptance criteria.
"Proficiency testing (PT) program" means the
aggregate of providing rigorously controlled and standardized environmental
samples to a laboratory for analysis, reporting of results, statistical
evaluation of the results and the collective demographics and results summary
of all participating laboratories.
"Program," in the context of a regulatory program,
means the relevant U.S. Environmental Protection Agency program such as the
water program under the Clean Water Act (CWA), the air program under the Clean
Air Act (CAA), the waste program under the Comprehensive Environmental
Response, Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA or Superfund) or the waste
program under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).
"Publicly Owned Treatment Works (POTW)" means a
treatment works as defined by § 212 of the CWA, which is owned by a state or
municipality (as defined by § 502(4) of the CWA). This definition includes any
devices and systems used in the storage, treatment, recycling, and reclamation
of municipal sewage or industrial wastes of a liquid nature. It also includes
sewers, pipes, and other conveyances only if they convey wastewater to a POTW
treatment plant. The term also means the municipality as defined in § 502(4) of
the CWA, which has jurisdiction over the indirect discharges to and the
discharges from such a treatment works.
"Quality assurance" or "QA" means
an integrated system of management activities involving planning, quality
control, quality implementation, assessment, reporting and quality
improvement to ensure that a product process, item, or service meets
defined standards of quality with a stated level of confidence is of the
type and quality needed and expected by the client.
"Quality assurance officer" means the person who
has responsibility for the quality system and its implementation. Where
staffing is limited, the quality assurance officer may also be the laboratory
manager.
"Quality control" or "QC" means
the overall system of technical activities whose purpose is to measure and
control the quality of a product or service so that it meets the needs of users
that measures the attributes and performance of a process, item, or service
against defined standards to verify that they meet the stated requirements
established by the customer; operational techniques and activities that are
used to fulfill requirements for quality; and also the system of activities and
checks used to ensure that measurement systems are maintained within prescribed
limits, providing protection against "out of control" conditions and
ensuring that the results are of acceptable quality.
"Quality manual" means a document stating the
management policies, objectives, principles, organizational structure and
authority, responsibilities, accountability, and implementation of an agency,
organization, or laboratory, to ensure the quality of its product and the
utility of its product to its users.
"Quality system" means a structured and documented
management system describing the policies, objectives, principles, organizational
authority, responsibilities, accountability, and implementation plan of an
organization for ensuring quality in its work processes, products (items), and
services. The quality system provides the framework for planning, implementing,
and assessing work performed by the organization and for carrying out required
quality assurance and quality control activities.
"Range" means the difference between the minimum
and maximum of a set of values.
"Reference material" means a material or substance
one or more properties of which are sufficiently well established to be used
for the calibration of an apparatus, the assessment of a measurement test
method, or for assigning values to materials.
"Reference standard" means a standard, generally of
the highest metrological quality available at a given location, from which
measurements made at that location are derived.
"Responsible official" means one of the following,
as appropriate:
1. If the laboratory is owned or operated by a private
corporation, "responsible official" means (i) a president, secretary,
treasurer, or a vice-president of the corporation in charge of a principal
business function, or any other person who performs similar policy-making or
decision-making functions for the corporation or (ii) the manager of one or
more manufacturing, production, or operating facilities employing more than 250
persons or having gross annual sales or expenditures exceeding $25 million (in
second-quarter 1980 dollars), if authority to sign documents has been assigned
or delegated in accordance with corporate procedures.
2. If the laboratory is owned or operated by a partnership,
association, or a sole proprietor, "responsible official" means a
general partner, officer of the association, or the proprietor, respectively.
3. If the laboratory is owned or operated by a governmental
body, "responsible official" means a director or highest official
appointed or designated to oversee the operation and performance of the
activities of the environmental laboratory.
4. Any person designated as the responsible official by an
individual described in subdivision 1, 2 or 3 of this definition, provided the
designation is in writing, the designation specifies an individual or position
with responsibility for the overall operation of the environmental laboratory,
and the designation is submitted to DGS-DCLS DCLS.
"Sampling" means the act of collection for the
purpose of analysis.
"Sanitation district" means a sanitation district
created under the provisions of Chapters 3 (§ 21-141 et seq.) through 5
(§ 21-291 et seq.) of Title 21 of the Code of Virginia.
"Sewage" means the water-carried human wastes from
residences, buildings, industrial establishments or other places together with
such industrial wastes and underground, surface, storm, or other water as may
be present.
"Simple test procedures" or "STP"
means any of the following:
1. Field testing and measurement performed in an environmental
laboratory.
2. The test procedures to determine:
a. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) or carbonaceous BOD
(CBOD);
b. Fecal coliform;
c. Total coliform;
d. Fecal streptococci;
e. E. coli;
f. Enterococci;
g. Settleable solids (SS);
h. Total dissolved solids (TDS);
i. Total solids (TS);
j. Total suspended solids (TSS);
k. Total volatile solids (TVS); and
l. Total volatile suspended solids (TVSS).
"Standard operating procedure (SOP)" or
"SOP" means a written document that details the method of an
operation, analysis or action whose techniques and procedures are thoroughly
prescribed and which is accepted for an operation, analysis, or action
with thoroughly prescribed techniques and steps. An SOP is officially approved
as the method for performing certain routine or repetitive tasks.
"Standardized reference material (SRM)" or
"SRM" means a certified reference material produced by the U.S.
National Institute of Standards and Technology or other equivalent organization
and characterized for absolute content, independent of analytical method.
"System laboratory" means a noncommercial
laboratory that analyzes samples from multiple facilities having the same
owner.
"TCLP" or "toxicity characteristic leachate
procedure" means Test Method 1311 in "Test Methods for Evaluating
Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," EPA Publication SW-846, as
incorporated by reference in 40 CFR 260.11. This method is used to determine
whether a solid waste exhibits the characteristic of toxicity (see 40 CFR
261.24).
"Test" means a technical operation that consists of
the determination of one or more characteristics or performance of a given
product, material, equipment, organism, physical phenomenon, process or service
according to a specified procedure.
"Test, analysis, measurement or monitoring required
pursuant to the Virginia Air Pollution Control Law" means any method of
analysis required by the Virginia Air Pollution Control Law (§ 10.1-1300 et
seq.); by the regulations promulgated under this law (9VAC5) including any
method of analysis listed either in the definition of "reference
method" in 9VAC5-10-20, or listed or adopted by reference in 9VAC5; or by
any permit or order issued under and in accordance with this law and these
regulations.
"Test, analysis, measurement or monitoring required
pursuant to the Virginia Waste Management Act" means any method of
analysis required by the Virginia Waste Management Act (§ 10.1-1400 et seq.);
by the regulations promulgated under this law (9VAC20), including any method of
analysis listed or adopted by reference in 9VAC20; or by any permit or order
issued under and in accordance with this law and these regulations.
"Test, analysis, measurement or monitoring required
pursuant to the Virginia Water Control Law" means any method of analysis
required by the Virginia Water Control Law (§ 62.1-44.2 et seq.); by the
regulations promulgated under this law (9VAC25), including any method of
analysis listed or adopted by reference in 9VAC25; or by any permit or order
issued under and in accordance with this law and these regulations.
"Test method" means an adoption of a scientific
technique for performing a specific measurement as documented in a laboratory
standard operating procedure or as published by a recognized authority.
"The NELAC Institute" or "TNI" means
the organization whose standards environmental laboratories must meet to become
accredited under 1VAC30-46, the regulation governing commercial environmental
laboratories in Virginia.
"Toxicity characteristic leachate procedure" or
"TCLP" means Test Method 1311 in "Test Methods for Evaluating
Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," EPA Publication SW-846, as
incorporated by reference in 40 CFR 260.11. This method is used to determine
whether a solid waste exhibits the characteristic of toxicity (see 40 CFR
261.24).
"Traceability" means the property of a
result of a measurement whereby it can be related to appropriate standards,
generally international or national standards, through an unbroken chain of
comparisons.
"U.S. Environmental Protection Agency" or
"EPA" means the federal government agency with responsibility for
protecting, safeguarding and improving the natural environment (i.e., air,
water and land) upon which human life depends.
"Virginia Air Pollution Control Law" means Chapter
13 (§ 10.1-1300 et seq.) of Title 10.1 of the Code of Virginia, which is
titled "Air Pollution Control Board."
"Virginia Environmental Laboratory Accreditation
Program" or "VELAP" means the program DCLS operates to certify
environmental laboratories under this chapter.
"Wastewater" means liquid and water-carried
industrial wastes and domestic sewage from residential dwellings, commercial
buildings, industrial and manufacturing facilities and institutions.
"Waterworks" means each system of structures and
appliances used in connection with the collection, storage, purification, and
treatment of water for drinking or domestic use and the distribution thereof to
the public, except distribution piping.
"Zooplankton" means microscopic animals that float
freely with voluntary movement in a body of water.
1VAC30-45-50. Scope of certification.
A. Noncommercial environmental laboratories shall be
certified based on the general laboratory standards set out in Part II
(1VAC30-45-200 et seq.) of this chapter and on the specific test methods or
analysis, monitoring or measurement required by regulatory permit or other
requirement under the Virginia Air Pollution Control Law, Virginia Waste
Management Act, or Virginia Water Control Law, the regulations
promulgated under these laws, and by permits and orders issued under and in
accordance with these laws or regulations.
B. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall review alternative test
methods and procedures for certification when these are proposed by the
applicant laboratory. The provisions of 1VAC30-45-70 E and 1VAC30-45-90 B
govern alternative test methods and procedures.
C. Certification shall be granted for one or more fields of
certification, including the matrix, the technology and methods used by the
noncommercial environmental laboratory, and the individual analytes or
analyte groups determined by the particular method used by the laboratory.
1VAC30-45-60. General: certification requirements.
A. Components of certification. The components of
certification include review of personnel qualifications, on-site assessment,
proficiency testing, and quality systems. The criteria for these components,
set out in Part II (1VAC30-45-200 et seq.) of this chapter, shall be fulfilled
for certification.
B. Individual laboratory sites and mobile laboratories.
1. Individual laboratory sites are subject to the same
application process, assessments, and other requirements as environmental
laboratories. Any remote laboratory sites are considered separate sites and
subject to separate on-site assessments.
2. Laboratories located at the same physical location shall be
considered an individual laboratory site if these laboratories are owned by the
same person, and have the same laboratory manager and quality system.
3. Laboratories located at separate, noncontiguous physical
locations may request to be considered as an individual laboratory site if
these laboratories are owned by the same person and have the same laboratory
manager and quality system.
4. 3. A mobile laboratory, which is configured
with equipment to perform analyses, whether associated with a fixed-based
laboratory or not, is considered an environmental laboratory and shall require
separate certification. This certification shall remain with the mobile
laboratory and be site independent. Moving the configured mobile laboratory to
a different site will not require a new or separate certification. Before
performing analyses at each new site, the laboratory shall ensure that
instruments and equipment have been checked for performance and have been
calibrated.
1VAC30-45-70. Process to apply and obtain certification.
A. Duty to apply. All owners of noncommercial environmental
laboratories shall apply for certification as specified by the provisions of
this section. Applications for certification must be obtained from DCLS
program staff by email at Lab_Cert@dgs.virginia.gov.
B. Timely initial applications.
1. Owners of noncommercial environmental laboratories
applying for certification under this chapter for the first time shall submit
an application to DGS-DCLS no later than September 29, 2009.
2. Owners of noncommercial environmental laboratories that
come into existence after January 1, 2009, shall submit an initial application
to DGS-DCLS no later than 180 calendar days prior to beginning operation.
C. Timely renewal applications. The owner of a certified
noncommercial environmental laboratory shall submit an application for renewal
of certification at least 90 calendar days prior to expiration of
certification.
B. Owners of noncommercial environmental laboratories
applying for certification under this chapter for the first time shall submit
an application to DCLS as specified under subsection F of this section.
C. Renewal and reassessment.
1. DCLS shall renew certification annually for the
certified laboratory provided the laboratory does the following:
a. Maintains compliance with this chapter.
b. Attests to this compliance by signing the certificate of
compliance provided under subdivision F 3 of this section.
c. Reports acceptable proficiency test values as required
by Article 3 (1VAC30-45-500 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
d. Pays the fee required by 1VAC30-45-130.
2. DCLS shall reassess the certified environmental
laboratory during an on-site assessment as required by Article 2 (1VAC30-45-300
et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
D. Responsibilities of the owner and operator when the
laboratory is owned by one person and operated by another person.
1. When an environmental laboratory is owned by one person but
is operated by another person, the operator may submit the application for the
owner.
2. If the operator fails to submit the application, the owner
is not relieved of his responsibility to apply for certification.
3. While DGS-DCLS DCLS may notify noncommercial
environmental laboratories of the date their applications are due, failure of DGS-DCLS
DCLS to notify does not relieve the owner of his obligation to apply
under this chapter.
E. Submission of applications for modifications to
certification. An owner of a certified noncommercial environmental laboratory
shall follow the process set out in 1VAC30-45-90 B to add a new matrix, technology/method,
an analyte or analyte group, modify a test method or institute use of a method
or technology not in the laboratory's standard operating procedures, including
alternative test methods or procedures to modify the laboratory's scope
of certification.
F. Contents of application.
1. Applications shall include but not be limited to the
following information and documents:
a. Legal name of laboratory;
b. Name of owner of laboratory;
c. Name of operator of laboratory, if different than owner;
d. Street address and description of location of laboratory;
e. Mailing address of laboratory, if different from street
address;
f. Address of owner, if different from laboratory address;
g. Name, address, telephone number, facsimile number and e-mail
email, as applicable, of responsible official;
h. Name, address, telephone number, facsimile number and e-mail
email, as applicable, of laboratory manager;
i. Name, address, telephone number, facsimile number and e-mail
email, as applicable, of designated quality assurance officer;
j. Name title, and telephone number of laboratory
contact person;
k. Laboratory type (e.g., public water system, public
wastewater system or combination of the two, or industrial (with type of
industry indicated));
l. Laboratory hours of operation;
m. Fields of certification (matrix, technology/method, and analyte/analyte
group) analyte) for which certification is sought;
n. Methods employed, including analytes;
o. n. The results of the three most recent
proficiency test studies one successful unique PT study for each field
of proficiency testing as required by Article 3 (1VAC30-45-500 et seq.) of Part
II of this chapter;
p. o. Quality assurance manual; and
q. Lab identification number (for renewal only); and
r. p. For mobile laboratories, a unique vehicle
identification number, such as a manufacturer's vehicle identification number
(VIN#), serial number, or license number.
2. Fee. The application shall include payment of the fee as
specified in 1VAC30-45-130.
3. Certification of compliance.
a. The application shall include a "Certification of
Compliance" statement signed and dated by the responsible official, by the
quality control officer and by the laboratory manager.
b. The certification of compliance shall state: "The
applicant understands and acknowledges that the laboratory is required to be
continually in compliance with the Virginia environmental laboratory
certification program regulation (1VAC30, Chapter 45) and is subject to the
provisions of 1VAC30-45-100 in the event of noncompliance. I certify under
penalty of law that this document and all attachments were prepared under my
direction or supervision in accordance with a system designed to assure that
qualified personnel properly gather and evaluate the information submitted. Based
on my inquiry of the person or persons who manage the laboratory or those
persons directly responsible for gathering and evaluating the information, the
information submitted is, to the best of my knowledge and belief, true,
accurate and complete. Submitting false information or data shall result in
denial of certification or decertification. I hereby further certify that I am
authorized to sign this application."
G. Completeness determination.
1. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall determine whether an
application is complete and notify the laboratory of the result of such
determination. During the initial certification period, DGS-DCLS DCLS
shall provide this notice within 90 calendar days of its receipt of a
laboratory's initial application. Following the initial certification
period, DGS-DCLS shall provide this notice within 60 calendar days of
DGS-DCLS's receipt of a laboratory's initial application and within 30 calendar
days of DGS-DCLS' receipt of a laboratory's renewal application.
2. An application shall be determined complete if it contains
all the information required pursuant to subsection F of this section and is
sufficient to evaluate the laboratory prior to the on-site assessment.
Designating an application complete does not preclude DGS-DCLS DCLS
from requesting or accepting additional information.
3. If DGS-DCLS DCLS determines that an
application is incomplete, DGS-DCLS's the DCLS notification of
such determination shall explain why the application is incomplete and specify
the additional information needed to make the application complete.
4. Except during the initial certification period, if If
DCLS makes no determination is made within 60 within 90
calendar days of DGS-DCLS's its receipt of either (i) the
application or (ii) additional information, in the case of an application
determined to be incomplete, the application shall be determined to be
complete. During the initial certification period, the time period shall be
90 calendar days.
5. If the laboratory has not submitted the required additional
information within 90 days of receiving a notice from DGS-DCLS DCLS
requesting additional information, DGS-DCLS DCLS may return the
incomplete application and inform the laboratory that the application
cannot be processed. The laboratory may then submit a new application.
H. Grant of interim certification pending final determination
on application.
1. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall grant a laboratory
interim certification status under the following conditions:
a. The laboratory's application is determined to be complete;
b. The laboratory has satisfied all the requirements for
certification, including all requests for additional information, with the
exception of on-site assessment; and
c. DGS-DCLS DCLS is unable to schedule the
on-site assessment within 90 120 days of its determination that
the application is complete (for initial applications) or before the
laboratory's certification expires (for renewal applications).
2. A laboratory with interim certification status shall have
the same rights and status as a laboratory that has been granted certification
by DGS-DCLS DCLS.
3. Interim certification expires when DGS-DCLS DCLS
issues a final determination on certification.
I. On-site assessment. 1. An on-site assessment shall
be performed and the follow-up and reporting procedures for such assessments
shall be completed in accordance with Article 2 (1VAC30-45-300 et seq.) of Part
II of this chapter prior to issuance of a final determination on certification.
2. Alternative on-site assessment option. If DGS-DCLS is
unable to schedule an on-site assessment under the conditions of subsection H 1
c of this section, the owner of the applicant laboratory may use third-party
on-site assessors instead of DGS-DCLS on-site assessors under the following
conditions:
a. The third-party on-site assessors are on a
DGS-DCLS-approved list of on-site assessors; and
b. The owner of the applicant laboratory agrees to pay the
third-party on-site assessors.
J. Final determination on certification. 1. Upon
completion of the certification review process and corrective action, if any, DGS-DCLS
DCLS shall grant certification in accordance with subsection K of this
section or deny certification in accordance with subsection L of this section.
2. Except during the initial certification period, DGS-DCLS
shall complete action on a laboratory's application within nine months from the
time a completed application is received from the laboratory.
K. Grant of certification.
1. When a laboratory meets the requirements specified for
receiving certification, DGS-DCLS DCLS shall issue a certificate
to the laboratory. The DCLS shall send the certificate shall
be sent to the laboratory manager, and shall notify the
responsible official shall be notified.
2. The director of DGS-DCLS DCLS or his designee
shall sign the certificate. The certificate shall include the following
information:
a. Name of owner of laboratory;
b. Name of operator of laboratory, if different from owner;
c. Name of responsible official;
d. Address and location of laboratory;
e. Laboratory identification number;
f. Fields of certification (matrix, technology/method, analyte/analyte
group) and analyte) for which certification is granted;
g. Any addenda or attachments; and
h. Issuance date and expiration date.
3. The laboratory shall post the most recent certificate of
certification and any addenda to the certificate issued by DGS-DCLS DCLS
in a prominent place in the laboratory facility.
4. Certification shall expire two years one year
after the date on which certification is granted.
L. Denial of certification.
1. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall deny certification to an
environmental laboratory in total if the laboratory is found to be falsifying
any data or providing false information to support certification.
2. Denial of certification in total or in part.
a. DGS-DCLS DCLS may deny certification to an
environmental laboratory in total or in part if the laboratory fails to do any
of the following:
(1) Pay the required fees.
(2) Employ laboratory staff to meet the personnel
qualifications as required by Part II (1VAC30-45-200 et seq.) of this chapter.
(3) Successfully analyze and report proficiency testing
samples as required by Part II of this chapter.
(4) Submit a corrective action report plan in
accordance with Part II of this chapter in response to a deficiency report from
the on-site assessment team within the required 30 calendar days.
(5) Implement the corrective actions detailed in the
corrective action report plan within the [ time frame
timeframe ] specified by DGS-DCLS DCLS.
(6) Pass required on-site assessment as specified in Part II
of this chapter.
(7) Implement a quality system as defined in Part II of this
chapter.
b. DGS-DCLS DCLS may deny certification to an
environmental laboratory in total or in part if the laboratory's application is
not determined to be complete within 90 calendar days following notification of
incompleteness because the laboratory is delinquent in submitting information
required by DGS-DCLS DCLS in accordance with this chapter.
c. DGS-DCLS DCLS may deny certification to an
environmental laboratory in total or in part if the DGS-DCLS DCLS
on-site assessment team is unable to carry out the on-site assessment pursuant
to Article 2 (1VAC30-45-300 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter because a
representative of the environmental laboratory denied the team entry during the
laboratory's normal business hours that it specified in its application.
3. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall follow the process
specified in 1VAC30-45-110 when denying certification to an environmental
laboratory.
M. Reapplication following denial of certification. 1.
Upon denial of certification, the laboratory shall wait six months before
reapplying for certification. 2. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall not waive
application fees for a laboratory reapplying for certification.
1VAC30-45-80. Maintaining certification.
A. Certification remains in effect until withdrawn by DGS-DCLS
DCLS, withdrawn voluntarily at the written request of the certified
laboratory, or until expiration of the certification period. To maintain
certification, the certified laboratory shall comply with the elements listed
in this section and in 1VAC30-45-90.
B. Quality systems. Laboratories seeking to maintain
certification under this chapter shall assure consistency and promote the use
of quality assurance and quality control procedures. Article 4 (1VAC30-45-600
et seq.) of Part II of this chapter specifies the quality assurance and quality
control requirements that shall be met to maintain certification.
C. Proficiency tests. Laboratories seeking to maintain
certification under this chapter shall perform proficiency tests as required
under Article 3 (1VAC30-45-500 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
D. Recordkeeping and retention. All laboratory records
associated with certification parameters shall be kept as provided by the
requirements for records under Part II (1VAC30-45-200 et seq.) of this chapter.
These records shall be maintained for a minimum of three years unless the
records are required to be maintained for a longer period by another section of
this regulation or another regulation. All such records shall be available to DGS-DCLS
DCLS upon request.
1VAC30-45-90. Notifications and changes to certification
elements and status.
A. Changes to key certification criteria. The certified laboratory
shall notify DGS-DCLS DCLS in writing of any changes in key
certification criteria within 30 calendar days of the change. Key certification
criteria are laboratory ownership, location, key personnel, and major
instrumentation.
B. Changes to scope of certification.
1. DGS-DCLS DCLS may approve a laboratory's
application to add a new matrix, technology, analyte, or test method to a
laboratory's scope of certification or to otherwise modify the laboratory's
scope of certification by performing a data review.
2. To apply, the owner of the certified laboratory shall
submit the following to DGS-DCLS DCLS:
a. A letter written request signed by the owner
that briefly summarizes the addition to be made to the laboratory's scope of
certification.
b. Pertinent information demonstrating the laboratory's
capability to perform the additional matrix, technology/method, or analyte/analyte
group analyte, such as proficiency testing performance and quality
control performance.
c. A written standard operating procedure covering the new
matrix, technology/method, or analyte/analyte group analyte.
3. DGS-DCLS DCLS may approve a laboratory's
application for modification to its scope of certification by performing a
review of the application materials submitted, without an on-site assessment.
The addition of a technology or test method requiring the use of specific
equipment may require an on-site assessment. Other reviews of performance and
documentation may be carried out by DGS-DCLS DCLS depending on
the modification for which the laboratory applies.
4. Within 90 calendar days of the receipt of the application
from the certified environmental laboratory, DGS-DCLS DCLS shall
review and determine whether the proposed modification may be approved.
5. If the proposed modification to the laboratory's scope of
certification is approved, DGS-DCLS DCLS shall amend the
laboratory's certificate of certification.
6. DCLS shall not send the amended certificate of
certification to the laboratory until DCLS receives the payment of the fee
required under 1VAC30-45-130 F 1.
C. Change of ownership or location of laboratory.
1. The certified laboratory shall submit a written
notification to DGS-DCLS DCLS of the change of ownership or
location of the laboratory within 30 calendar days of the change. This
requirement applies only to fixed-based and not pertaining to change
of location does not apply to mobile laboratories.
2. Certification may be transferred when the legal status or
ownership of a certified laboratory changes as long as the transfer does not
affect the laboratory's personnel, equipment, or organization.
3. If the laboratory's personnel, equipment, or organization
are affected by the change of legal status or ownership, DGS-DCLS DCLS
may require recertification or reapplication in any or all of the categories
for which the laboratory is certified.
4. DGS-DCLS DCLS may require an on-site
assessment depending on the nature of the change of legal status or ownership. DGS-DCLS
DCLS shall determine the elements of any on-site assessment required.
5. When there is a change in ownership, the new owner of
the certified laboratory shall assure historical traceability of the laboratory
identification numbers.
6. 5. When there is a change in ownership, the
new owner of the certified laboratory shall keep all records and analyses
performed by the previous owner under his scope of pertaining to
certification for a period of three years, or longer if required by other
regulations. These records and analyses are subject to inspection by DGS-DCLS
DCLS during this three-year period. This provision applies regardless of
change of ownership, accountability or liability.
D. Voluntary withdrawal. Any environmental laboratory owner
who wishes to withdraw the laboratory from its certification status or from
being certified, in total or in part, shall submit written notification to DGS-DCLS
no later than 30 calendar days before the end of the laboratory's certification
term DCLS. Within 30 calendar days, DGS-DCLS DCLS
shall provide the laboratory with a written notice of withdrawal.
1VAC30-45-95. Suspension of certification.
A. DCLS may suspend certification from an environmental
laboratory in total or in part to allow the laboratory time to correct the
reason for which DCLS may withdraw certification. Suspension is limited to the
reasons listed in subsection B of this section.
B. DCLS may suspend certification from an environmental
laboratory in part or in total when the laboratory has failed to do any of the
following:
1. Participate in the proficiency testing program as
required by Article 3 (1VAC30-45-500 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
2. Satisfactorily complete proficiency testing studies as
required by Article 3 (1VAC30-45-500 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
3. Maintain a quality system as defined in Article 4
(1VAC30-45-600 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
4. Employ staff that meets the personnel qualifications of
Article 1 (1VAC30-45-200 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
5. Notify DCLS of any changes in key certification criteria
as set forth in 1VAC30-45-90.
C. Process to suspend certification.
1. When DCLS becomes aware of a cause to suspend a
laboratory, the agency shall send notification to the responsible official and
the laboratory manager stating it appears to DCLS that the laboratory has
failed to meet the 1VAC30-45 standards for one or more of the reasons listed in
subsection B of this section. DCLS shall send the notification by certified
mail.
2. The DCLS notification shall do the following:
a. Require the laboratory to provide DCLS with
documentation of the corrective action already taken with regard to its failure
to meet a standard under subsection B of this section.
b. State the corrective action the laboratory must take and
the time allowed for this corrective action to be completed in order to retain
certification.
3. The environmental laboratory may proceed to correct the
deficiencies for which DCLS may suspend the laboratory's certification.
4. Alternatively the laboratory may state in writing that
DCLS is incorrect in its observations regarding potential suspension and give
specific reasons why the laboratory believes DCLS should not suspend
certification. The laboratory has the right to due process as set forth in
1VAC30-45-110, the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the
Code of Virginia), and Part 2A of the Rules of the Supreme Court of Virginia.
5. With the exception of subdivision B 4 of this section,
DCLS may allow the laboratory up to 60 days to correct the problem for which it
may have its certification suspended.
6. DCLS shall set a date for suspension that follows the
period provided under subdivision 5 of this subsection to restore
certification.
7. If the laboratory does not correct its deficiencies
within the time period allowed or pursue options under subdivision 4 of this
subsection, DCLS may suspend a laboratory in part or in total.
8. DCLS shall notify the laboratory by letter if the
laboratory's certification is suspended in part or in total. DCLS shall send
the notification by certified mail. DCLS shall also notify the pertinent Virginia
state agency of the laboratory's suspension status.
9. The laboratory may provide information demonstrating why
suspension is not warranted in accordance with subdivision 4 of this
subsection.
D. Responsibilities of the environmental laboratory and
DCLS when certification has been suspended.
1. The term of suspension shall be limited to six months or
the period of certification whichever is longer.
2. The environmental laboratory shall not continue to
analyze samples or report analysis for the fields of certification for which
DCLS has suspended certification.
3. The environmental laboratory shall retain certification
for the fields of certification, methods, and analytes where it continues to
meet the requirements of this chapter.
4. The laboratory's suspended certification status shall
change to certified when the laboratory demonstrates to DCLS that the
laboratory has corrected the deficiency or deficiencies for which its
certification was suspended.
5. An environmental laboratory with suspended certification
shall not have to reapply for certification if the cause or causes for
suspension are corrected within the term of suspension.
6. If the laboratory fails to correct the causes of
suspension within the term of suspension, DCLS shall decertify the laboratory
in total or in part.
1VAC30-45-100. Decertification.
A. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall decertify an
environmental laboratory in total if the laboratory is found to be falsifying
any data or providing false information to support certification.
B. DGS-DCLS DCLS may decertify an environmental
laboratory in part or in total when the laboratory has failed to do any of the
following:
1. Participate in the proficiency testing program as required
by Article 3 (1VAC30-45-500 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
2. Complete Satisfactorily complete proficiency
testing studies and maintain a history of at least two successful
proficiency testing studies for each affected certified field of testing out of
the three most recent proficiency testing studies as defined in as required
by Article 3 (1VAC30-45-500 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
3. Maintain a quality system as defined in Article 4
(1VAC30-45-600 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
4. Employ staff that meet meets the personnel
qualifications in Article 1 (1VAC30-45-200 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
5. Submit an acceptable corrective action report plan
after two opportunities as specified in 1VAC30-45-390.
6. Implement corrective action specified in the laboratory's
corrective action report plan as set out under 1VAC30-45-390.
7. Notify DGS-DCLS DCLS of any changes in key
certification criteria as set forth in 1VAC30-45-90.
8. Use accurate references to the laboratory's certification
status in the laboratory's documentation.
9. Allow a DCLS assessment team entry during normal
business hours to conduct an on-site assessment required by Article 2
(1VAC30-45-300 et seq.) of Part II of this chapter.
10. Pay the required fees specified in 1VAC30-45-130.
C. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall follow the process
specified in 1VAC30-45-110 when decertifying an environmental laboratory.
D. Responsibilities of the environmental laboratory and DGS-DCLS
DCLS when certification has been withdrawn.
1. Laboratories that lose their certification in full shall
return their certificate to DGS-DCLS DCLS.
2. If a laboratory loses certification in part, an addendum
to the certificate shall be issued by DGS-DCLS DCLS shall issue a
revised certificate to the laboratory.
3. When the environmental laboratory has lost certification
in full or in part, the laboratory shall not continue to analyze samples or
report analyses for the fields of certification that DCLS has decertified.
E. After correcting the reason or cause for decertification
under 1VAC30-45-100 subsection A or B of this section, the
laboratory owner may reapply for certification under 1VAC30-45-70.
1VAC30-45-110. Procedures to deny certification, to or
decertify a laboratory, and; appeal procedures.
A. Notification.
1. If DGS-DCLS believes it has grounds DCLS
becomes aware of a cause to deny certification or to decertify an
environmental laboratory, DGS-DCLS DCLS shall notify the
environmental laboratory in writing of its intent to hold an informal fact
finding under § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia in order to make a decision on
the denial of certification or decertification this information and
require a response from the responsible official. DGS-DCLS DCLS
shall send this notification by certified mail to the responsible official and
provide a copy to the manager of the environmental laboratory. The notice of
informal fact finding shall provide a detailed explanation of the basis for the
notice.
2. For a potential denial of certification, the notice
shall state that the laboratory has failed to meet the 1VAC30-45 standards and
shall specify one or more of the reasons for denial of certification under
1VAC30-45-70 L, providing a detailed explanation of the basis for the denial of
certification.
3. For a potential decertification, the notice shall state
that the laboratory has failed to meet the 1VAC30-45 standards and shall
specify one or more of the reasons for decertification under 1VAC30-45-100 A or
B, providing a detailed explanation of the basis for decertification.
4. In its notice, DCLS shall request the laboratory to
notify DCLS in writing if the laboratory believes the agency is incorrect in
its determination. Before rendering a decision on decertification or denial of
certification, DCLS shall provide the opportunity for the laboratory to meet
with DCLS in an informal fact-finding proceeding pursuant to § 2.2-4019 of
the Code of Virginia.
5. If the laboratory believes DCLS to be incorrect in its
determination, the laboratory shall provide DCLS with a detailed written
demonstration of why DCLS should not deny certification to or decertify the
laboratory. The laboratory shall include this demonstration in the response
required under subdivision 6 of this subsection.
6. The laboratory shall provide DCLS with a written
response within 30 calendar days of the date of notification from DCLS. The
laboratory shall indicate whether it disputes the DCLS determination provided
in the agency notice and whether the laboratory requests an informal fact-finding
proceeding. If the laboratory does not respond, DCLS shall render its case
decision.
B. Following the informal fact finding held pursuant to § 2.2-4019
of the Code of Virginia, the director shall render a decision regarding
certification, and shall send this notification by certified mail to the
responsible official and provide a copy to the manager of the environmental
laboratory. If the director's decision is adverse to the environmental
laboratory, the responsible official may appeal this decision in accordance
with § 2.2-4026 of the Code of Virginia and Part 2A of the Rules of the Supreme
Court of Virginia.
C. The provisions of this section do not preclude informal
discussions between DGS-DCLS and any environmental laboratory that has been
notified of a possible denial of certification or of decertification. These
informal discussions to resolve the concerns that prompted the notice shall be
held prior to the informal fact-finding proceeding.
B. An environmental laboratory may appeal a final decision
by DCLS to deny certification to or decertify a laboratory pursuant to the
Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
D. C. The certification status of an
environmental laboratory appealing decertification shall not change pending the
final decision of the appeals filed under the Virginia Administrative Process
Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) and Part 2A of the Rules of
Supreme Court of Virginia.
1VAC30-45-120. Exemptions.
A. DGS-DCLS DCLS may grant a partial or full
exemption from the requirements of this chapter based on compliance and
performance.
B. DGS-DCLS DCLS may consider granting an
exemption if a laboratory applies for an exemption and has met all
certification requirements for a period of four consecutive years.
C. An environmental laboratory may apply for an exemption by
submitting a request. The request shall include the following information:
1. The scope of the requested exemption;
2. Whether the exemption should be partial or total;
3. If partial, what form the exemption will take; and
4. Why the exemption is appropriate.
D. Upon receiving an application for an exemption, DGS-DCLS
DCLS shall provide notice of the request for an exemption in the
Virginia Register of Regulations.
E. The notice shall provide a 30-day comment period on the
request and shall specify the nature of the request.
F. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall grant or deny the
exemption request and provide a written response to the requesting laboratory
within 90 calendar days of receipt of the request.
G. Exemptions granted by DGS-DCLS DCLS shall be
for a period of no more than 24 months.
1VAC30-45-130. Fees.
A. General.
1. Fees shall be submitted with all applications, including
reapplications, for certification and all renewal applications for
certification. Applications shall not be designated as complete until the fee
is received by DGS-DCLS. Environmental laboratories shall pay a fee with
all applications, including reapplications, for certification. DCLS shall not
designate an application as complete until it receives payment of the fee.
2. Each certified environmental laboratory shall pay an
annual fee to maintain its certification. DCLS shall send an invoice to the
certified environmental laboratory.
3. Fees shall be nonrefundable.
B. Fee computation.
1. Fees shall be computed based on the test methods for
which a laboratory seeks certification and on the laboratory type. For the
purpose of fee calculation, the designations for the laboratory type are (i) a
general environmental laboratory or (ii) an environmental laboratory performing
only simple test procedures.
2. The fee shall be the total of the base fee and the test
category fees for the specific laboratory type to be certified.
3. The test category fees cover categories for the test
methods to be certified as specified in the laboratory's application.
4. If the total of the base fee and the test category fees
is more than the maximum fee designated for the specific laboratory type to be
certified, the laboratory shall pay the maximum fee.
C. Laboratories B. Environmental laboratories
performing only simple test procedures shall pay an annual fee of $600.
1. The base fee shall be $100.
2. The maximum fee shall be $600.
D. General environmental laboratories.
1. The base fee shall be $1,700.
2. The maximum fee shall be $5,200.
E. Test category fees.
1. Fees shall be charged for each category of tests to be
certified.
2. The fee for each category includes one or more
analytical methods unless otherwise specified. With the exception of the test
categories labeled oxygen demand and physical, test categories related to test
methods for water are defined by 40 CFR 136.3.
3. Fees.
TEST CATEGORY
|
FEE
|
Oxygen demand (BOD or COD)
|
$375
|
Bacteriology
|
$375
|
Inorganic chemistry, fewer than four methods
|
$375
|
Inorganic chemistry, four or more methods
|
$750
|
Chemistry metals, one – two methods
|
$450
|
Chemistry metals, more than two methods
|
$1,000
|
Organic chemistry, fewer than four methods
|
$600
|
Organic chemistry, four or more methods
|
$1,200
|
Aquatic toxicity, acute methods only
|
$400
|
Aquatic toxicity, acute and chronic methods
|
$700
|
Radiochemical
|
$1,000
|
Physical
|
$375
|
C. Fee computation for general environmental laboratories.
1. Fees shall be applied on an annual basis.
2. Environmental laboratories shall pay the total of the
base fee and the test category fees set out in subsections D and E of this
section.
D. Base fees for general environmental laboratories.
1. DCLS determines the base fee for a laboratory by taking
into account both the total number of methods and the total number of field of
certification matrices for which the laboratory would be certified.
2. DCLS shall charge the base fees set out in Table 1. The
base fee for a laboratory is located by first finding the row for the total
number of methods to be certified and then finding the box on that row located
in the column headed by the total number of matrices to be certified. For
example, DCLS charges a base fee of $1300 to a laboratory performing a total of
eight methods for one matrix.
TABLE 1: BASE FEES
|
Number of Methods
|
1 Matrix
|
2 Matrices
|
1 - 9
|
$1300
|
$1430
|
10 - 29
|
$1400
|
$1575
|
30 - 99
|
$1550
|
$1825
|
E. Test category fees for general environmental
laboratories.
1. The test category fees cover the types of testing for which
a laboratory may be certified as specified in the laboratory's application or
as certified at the time of annual billing.
2. Fees shall be charged for each category of tests to be
certified.
3. Fees shall be charged for the total number of field of certification
matrices to be certified under the specific test category. For example, if a
laboratory is performing inorganic chemistry for both nonpotable water and
solid and chemical materials matrices, the fee for this test category would be
found in the column for two matrices.
4. The fee for each category includes one or more
analytical methods unless otherwise specified.
5. DCLS shall charge the test category fees set out in
Table 2. The test category fees for a laboratory are located by first finding
the row with the total number of test methods for the test category to be
certified. The fee to be charged for the test category will be found on that
row in the column headed by the total number of matrices to be certified. A
laboratory performing four test methods for inorganic chemistry in nonpotable
water and solid and chemical materials (two matrices) would be charged a test
category fee of $375.
6. Noncommercial environmental laboratories that perform
toxicity, radiochemical, or asbestos testing shall pay the test category fees
established for these types of testing in 1VAC30-46-150.
TABLE 2: TEST CATEGORY FEES
|
Test Category
|
Fees by Number of Matrices
|
|
One
|
Two
|
Oxygen demand
|
$225
|
$335
|
Bacteriology, 1 - 3 total methods
|
$175
|
$265
|
Bacteriology, 4 or more total methods
|
$220
|
$330
|
Physical, 1 - 5 total methods
|
$175
|
$265
|
Physical, 6 - 10 total methods
|
$220
|
$330
|
Inorganic chemistry, 1 - 10 total methods
|
$250
|
$375
|
Inorganic chemistry, 11 - 20 total methods
|
$315
|
$475
|
Inorganic chemistry, 21 - 49 total methods
|
$394
|
$590
|
Chemistry metals,
1 - 5 total methods
|
$325
|
$490
|
Chemistry metals,
6 - 20 total methods
|
$410
|
$615
|
Organic chemistry,
1 - 5 total methods
|
$400
|
$600
|
Organic chemistry,
6 - 20 total methods
|
$500
|
$750
|
7. Fee examples. Three examples are provided.
a. Example 1:
Base Fee
|
One matrix and four test methods
|
$1300
|
Test Category Fees
|
|
|
One Matrix
|
|
|
Nonpotable Water
|
Bacteriology (2 methods)
|
$175
|
Nonpotable Water
|
Oxygen demand (1 method)
|
$225
|
Nonpotable Water
|
Physical (1)
|
$175
|
TOTAL
|
|
$1875
|
b. Example 2:
Base Fee
|
One matrix and 15 test methods
|
$1400
|
Test Category Fees
|
|
|
One Matrix
|
|
|
Nonpotable Water
|
Bacteriology (2 methods)
|
$175
|
Nonpotable Water
|
Inorganic chemistry
(9 methods)
|
$250
|
Nonpotable Water
|
Chemistry metals
(2 methods)
|
$325
|
Nonpotable Water
|
Oxygen demand
(1 method)
|
$225
|
Nonpotable Water
|
Physical (1)
|
$175
|
TOTAL
|
|
$2550
|
c. Example 3:
Base Fee
|
Two matrices and 27 test methods
|
$1575
|
Test Category Fees
|
|
|
One Matrix
|
|
|
Nonpotable Water
|
Bacteriology (4 methods)
|
$220
|
Nonpotable Water
|
Oxygen demand
(1 method)
|
$225
|
Solid and Chemical Materials
|
Chemistry metals
(1 method)
|
$325
|
Two Matrices
|
|
|
Nonpotable Water and Solid and Chemical Materials
|
Inorganic chemistry
(13 methods)
|
$475
|
Nonpotable Water and Solid and Chemical Materials
|
Physical
(7 methods)
|
$330
|
TOTAL
|
|
$3150
|
F. Additional fees. Additional fees shall be charged to
laboratories applying for the following: (i) modification to scope of
certification under 1VAC30-45-90 B, (ii) transfer of ownership under
1VAC30-45-90 C, (iii) exemption under 1VAC30-45-120, (iv) request that
multiple noncontiguous laboratory sites be considered as one site under
1VAC30-45-60 B 3, or (v) (iv) petition for a variance under
1VAC30-45-140.
1. For any certified environmental laboratory that applies
to modify its scope of certification as specified under 1VAC30-45-90 B, DCLS
shall assess a fee determined by the method in subsection G of this section.
2. Under 1VAC30-45-90 C, DCLS may charge a transfer fee to
a certified laboratory that transfers ownership. A fee shall be charged if DCLS
(i) needs to review documentation sent by the laboratory about the transfer of
ownership or (ii) determines that an on-site assessment is necessary to
evaluate the effect of the transfer of ownership. DCLS shall assess a fee
determined by the method in subsection G of this section. If, under
1VAC30-45-90 C, DCLS determines that the change of ownership or location of
laboratory requires recertification of or reapplication by the laboratory, the
laboratory shall pay the application fees required under this section.
1. 3. General environmental laboratories
applying for an exemption under 1VAC30-45-120 shall pay an initial
application fee of $250 and if the exemption is granted, up to an additional
$1,000 depending on the scope of the exemption. $700 plus an additional
fee based on the actual time needed for DCLS to assess the exemption request.
The total fee shall not exceed the actual time DCLS takes to assess the
exemption request. Laboratories performing only simple test procedures
applying for an exemption under 1VAC30-45-120 shall pay an initial
application fee of $100 and if the exemption is granted, up to an additional
$1,000 depending on the scope of the exemption. The fee assessed for the scope
of the exemption shall be based on the actual time needed for DGS-DCLS to make
the determination $300 plus an additional fee based on the actual time
needed for DCLS to assess the exemption request. The total fee shall not exceed
the actual time DCLS takes to assess the exemption request. The fee
assessed shall be calculated using the method in subsection G of this section.
2. For any certified environmental laboratory that applies
to modify its scope of certification as specified under 1VAC30-45-90 B,
DGS-DCLS shall assess a fee determined by the method in subsection G of this
section.
3. Under 1VAC30-45-90 C, DGS-DCLS may charge a transfer fee
to a certified laboratory that transfers ownership. A fee shall be charged if
DGS-DCLS (i) needs to review documentation sent by the laboratory about the
transfer of ownership or (ii) determines that an on-site assessment is
necessary to evaluate the effect of the transfer of ownership. DGS-DCLS shall
assess a fee determined by the method in subsection G of this section. If
DGS-DCLS determines that a fee should be charged, the fee shall be a minimum of
$100 and a maximum of $1,000. If, under 1VAC30-45-90 C, DGS-DCLS determines
that the change of ownership or location of laboratory requires recertification
of or reapplication by the laboratory, the laboratory shall pay the application
fees required under this section.
4. Under 1VAC30-45-60 B 3, the owner of multiple
noncontiguous laboratories may request that DGS-DCLS consider these
laboratories to be one site. If, as a result of the request being granted,
DGS-DCLS needs to perform multiple on-site assessments, DGS-DCLS shall charge a
fee for the additional on-site assessments. The fee shall be the sum of
reasonable travel costs and labor charges for the additional on-site
assessments. The labor charges will be determined following the method in
subsection G of this section.
5. 4. Under 1VAC30-45-140, any person regulated
by this chapter may petition the director to grant a variance from any
requirement of this chapter. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall charge a an
initial fee for the time needed of $700 plus an additional fee
based on the actual time needed for DCLS to review the petition, including
any on-site assessment required. The total fee shall not exceed the actual
time DCLS takes to review and make a determination on the request for a variance.
The fee shall be determined by the method specified in subsection G of this
section.
G. Fee determination.
1. The fee shall be the sum of the total hourly charges for
all reviewers plus any on-site review costs incurred.
2. An hourly charge per reviewer shall be determined by (i)
obtaining a yearly cost by multiplying the reviewer's annual salary by 1.35
(accounts for overhead such as taxes and insurance) and then (ii) dividing the
yearly cost by 1,642 (number of annual hours established by Fiscal Services,
DGS, for billing purposes).
3. The charge per reviewer shall be determined by multiplying
the number of hours expended in the review by the reviewer's hourly charge.
4. If an on-site review is required, travel time and on-site
review time shall be charged at the same hourly charge per reviewer, and any
travel expenses shall be added.
H. Out-of-state laboratories - travel costs. The owner of an
environmental laboratory located in another state who applies for certification
under this chapter shall also pay a fee equal to the reasonable travel costs
associated with conducting an on-site assessment at the laboratory. Reasonable
travel costs include transportation, lodging, per diem, and telephone and
duplication charges.
I. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall derive the travel costs
charged under subsections G and H of this section from the Commonwealth of
Virginia reimbursement allowances and rates for lodging, per diem, and mileage.
Article 2
On-Site Assessment
1VAC30-45-300. Frequency of on-site assessment.
A. [ Frequency.
1. ] A comprehensive on-site assessment shall be
conducted of each laboratory as a condition for granting certification
initially and at renewal every two years.
[ 2. ] DCLS shall reassess each certified
laboratory [ every two years at least once every
three years ] starting from the date of the previous assessment
plus or minus six months.
[ 3. DCLS may conduct an on-site assessment of a
laboratory every two years plus or minus six months under any of the following
circumstances:
a. When a laboratory has received "not
acceptable" PT results.
b. When a laboratory's corrective action presented to VELAP
for "not acceptable" PT studies does not identify and correct the
root cause of the PT study failure.
c. When DCLS has suspended certification for a laboratory
in full or in part.
d. When on-site observations include nonconformances
previously identified at an on-site assessment, indicating the corrective
action was not implemented or not maintained.
e. When on-site observations include failure to qualify
nonconforming data to the data user.
f. When on-site observations indicate the laboratory's
failure to monitor and maintain regulatory conformance in documentation,
traceability, or quality control requirements such that data generated by the
laboratory are of questionable quality or defensibility. ]
B. Other on-site assessments.
1. If DGS-DCLS DCLS identified a deficiency on a
previous on-site assessment, the agency may conduct a follow-up on-site
assessment.
2. DGS-DCLS DCLS may conduct an on-site
assessment when a laboratory applies to modify its scope of certification,;
when a transfer of owner occurs that affects personnel, equipment, or the
laboratory facilities,; or when a laboratory applies for an
exemption or a variance. Any other change occurring in a laboratory's
operations that might reasonably be expected to alter or impair analytical
capability and quality may trigger an on-site assessment.
1VAC30-45-310. Announced and unannounced on-site assessments.
A. DGS-DCLS DCLS may conduct, at its
discretion, either announced or unannounced on-site assessments.
B. Advance notice of an assessment shall not be necessary.
C. To the maximum extent practical, DGS-DCLS DCLS,
when necessary, shall work with the owner of an environmental laboratory to
obtain government security clearances for assessment personnel as far in
advance as possible. The owner of the environmental laboratory shall facilitate
expeditious attainment of the necessary clearances.
D. To the maximum extent practical, assessment personnel
shall minimize disruption of a laboratory's operations and take into account
competing demands on the time of laboratory personnel.
1VAC30-45-320. Request for records.
Prior to the actual site visit, DGS-DCLS DCLS
may request in writing from a laboratory those records required to be
maintained by this chapter.
1VAC30-45-330. Areas to be assessed.
DGS-DCLS DCLS shall assess the laboratory
against the personnel and quality control standards in Article 1 (1VAC30-45-200
et seq.) and Article 4 (1VAC30-45-600 et seq.) of this part. The specific areas
evaluated in an on-site assessment shall include but not be limited to:
1. Adequacy of the laboratory facility.
2. Organization and management of the laboratory.
3. Qualifications and experience of laboratory personnel.
4. Receipt, tracking and handling of samples.
5. Quantity, condition, and performance of laboratory
instrumentation and equipment.
6. Preparation and traceability of calibration standards.
7. Test methods (including the adequacy of the laboratory's
standard operating procedures as well as confirmation of the analyst's
adherence to SOPs, and the analyst's proficiency with the described task).
8. Data reduction procedures, including an examination of raw
data and confirmation that final reported results can be traced to the raw
data/original observations.
9. Quality assurance and quality control procedures, including
adherence to the laboratory's quality assurance plan and adequacy of the plan.
10. Recordkeeping.
1VAC30-45-340. National security considerations.
A. Assessments at facilities owned or operated by federal
agencies or contractors may require security clearances, appropriate badging,
or a security briefing before the assessment begins.
B. The laboratory shall notify DGS-DCLS DCLS in
writing of any information that is controlled for national security reasons and
cannot be released to the public.
1VAC30-45-350. Arrival, admittance, and opening
conference.
A. Arrival. Assessment personnel shall arrive at the
laboratory during established working hours. The laboratory manager (or, if
unavailable, the laboratory manager's designee) shall be located as soon as
possible after the assessment personnel arrive on the premises.
B. Admittance of assessment personnel.
1. A laboratory's refusal to admit the assessment
personnel for an on-site assessment shall result in an automatic failure of the
laboratory to receive certification or loss of an existing certification by the
laboratory, unless there are extenuating circumstances that are accepted and
documented by DGS-DCLS DCLS. The team leader for the assessment
personnel shall notify DGS-DCLS DCLS as soon as possible after
refusal of entry.
2. DCLS shall consider any verbal or physical threat to the
health and safety of its assessors or any overt antagonism towards its
assessors as a refusal to admit the assessors for the purpose of on-site
assessment. The assessors shall vacate the laboratory and shall notify DCLS as
soon as possible of the circumstances of this refusal to admit. This refusal to
admit shall result in an automatic failure of the laboratory to receive
certification or the automatic loss of an existing certification by the
laboratory.
C. Health and safety.
1. Under no circumstance, and especially as a precondition to
gain access to a laboratory, shall assessment personnel be required or even
allowed to sign any waiver of responsibility on the part of the laboratory for
injuries incurred during an assessment.
2. Assessment personnel shall comply with all facility and
laboratory safety procedures.
D. Opening conference. An opening conference shall be
conducted and shall address the following topics:
1. The purpose of the assessment;
2. The identification of assessment personnel;
3. The test methods that will be examined;
4. Any pertinent records and procedures to be examined during
the assessment and the names of the individuals in the laboratory responsible
for providing assessment personnel with such records;
5. The roles and responsibilities of laboratory staff and
managers;
6. Any special safety procedures that the laboratory may think
necessary for the protection of assessment personnel;
7. The standards and criteria that will be used in judging the
adequacy of the laboratory operation;
8. Confirmation of the tentative time for the exit conference;
and
9. Discussion of any questions the laboratory may have about
the assessment process.
1VAC30-45-380. Closing conference.
A. Assessment personnel shall meet with representatives of
the laboratory following the assessment for a closing conference.
B. During the closing conference, assessment personnel shall
inform the laboratory of the preliminary findings and the basis for such
findings. The laboratory shall have an opportunity to provide further
explanation or clarification relevant to the preliminary findings. If the
laboratory objects to the preliminary findings during the closing conference,
all objections shall be documented by the assessment personnel and included in
the final report to DGS-DCLS DCLS.
C. Additional problem areas may be identified in the final
report.
D. Any potentially illegal activity that may be the subject
of further action shall not be discussed in the closing conference.
1VAC30-45-390. Follow-up and reporting procedures.
A. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall present an assessment
report to the laboratory within 30 calendar days of the assessment.
B. If there are deficiencies identified in the assessment
report, the laboratory shall have 30 calendar days from the date of its receipt
of the assessment report to provide a response to DGS-DCLS DCLS.
This response shall be called a corrective action report plan.
C. An exception to the deadlines specified in subsections A
and B of this section may occur in appropriate circumstances. Two circumstances
that may be considered appropriate by DGS-DCLS DCLS are where a
possible enforcement investigation or other action has been initiated or where
the laboratory shows good cause for an extension.
D. The corrective action report plan shall
include the following:
1. Any objections that the laboratory has with regard to the
assessment report;
2. The action that the laboratory proposes to implement to
correct each deficiency identified in the assessment report; and
3. The time period required to accomplish the corrective
action.
E. DGS-DCLS DCLS shall determine and shall
notify the laboratory within 30 calendar days of receipt whether the corrective
action report plan is an acceptable response to the deficiencies
identified in the assessment report.
F. If the corrective action report plan (or a
portion of the report) plan) is determined to be unacceptable to
remedy the deficiency, DGS-DCLS DCLS shall provide written
notification to the responsible official and manager of the laboratory
including a detailed explanation of the basis for such determination. Following
receipt of such notification, the laboratory shall have an additional 30
calendar days to submit a revised corrective action report plan
acceptable to DGS-DCLS DCLS.
1VAC30-45-400. Documentation of on-site assessment.
A. Checklists. The checklists used by assessment personnel
during the assessment shall become a part of DGS-DCLS's DCLS's
file for the laboratory.
B. Assessment report format.
1. The final assessment report shall contain a narrative
description of the adequacy of the laboratory as it relates to the assessment
standards specified in this chapter and in 1VAC30-45-330.
2. Assessment reports shall contain:
a. Name of owner of the laboratory (or operator of the
laboratory, if different from the owner);
b. Identification of the laboratory assessed;
c. Date of the assessment;
d. Identification and affiliation of all assessment personnel;
e. Identification of participants in the assessment process;
f. Identification of analytes and test methods assessed;
g. Statement of the objective of the assessment;
h. Summary;
i. Assessment observations, findings (including any
deficiencies), objections noted by the laboratory, and requirements; and
j. Comments and recommendations.
3. The assessment findings and requirements shall be
referenced to the standards in Part II (1VAC30-45-200 et seq.) of this chapter
so that both the finding is understood and the specific requirement is
outlined. The assessor shall specify the laboratory records, documents,
equipment, procedures, or staff evaluated and the observations that contributed
to each identified deficiency. The assessment report shall support with
sufficient data all assessment findings and the overall evaluation of the
laboratory.
4. The comments and recommendations section may be used to
convey recommendations aimed at helping the laboratory improve.
C. Release of report.
1. The assessment report shall be released initially by DGS-DCLS
DCLS to the responsible official and the laboratory manager. The
assessment report shall not be released to the public until findings of the
assessment and the corrective actions have been finalized, all information
relating to national security has been stricken from the report in accordance
with prescribed procedures, and the report has been provided to the laboratory.
2. Once the assessment report has been released to the
laboratory, any member of the public may request a copy of the report under the
requirements of the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq. of
the Code of Virginia).
3. Checklists used by assessment personnel during the on-site
assessment shall be provided to the laboratory with the final on-site
assessment report [ upon request ].
D. The laboratory shall have access to documentation
pertaining to any on-site assessment of its facilities. Any laboratory wishing
to review its files shall request such assistance of DGS-DCLS DCLS
five days prior to visiting DGS-DCLS DCLS. A laboratory may
request copies of its documents without visiting DGS-DCLS DCLS. A
reasonable fee may be charged for copying, mailing, and staff time.
Article 3
Proficiency Testing
1VAC30-45-500. Laboratory enrollment in proficiency testing
program.
A. Required level of participation.
1. To be certified initially and to maintain certification,
a laboratory shall participate in two single-blind, single-concentration PT
studies, where available, per year for each PT field of testing for which it
seeks or wants to maintain certification. Laboratories applying to be certified
for environmental toxicology (aquatic toxicity, sediment toxicity, or soils
toxicity) shall meet the requirements of subdivision 3 of this subsection.
2. Laboratories shall obtain PT samples from any PT
provider approved under the requirements of the NELAC standards for proficiency
test providers set out in Chapter 2 of the 2003 standards such as NIST. For PT
fields of testing having no approved providers listed by NELAC, the laboratory
shall consult DGS-DCLS for an approved provider.
3. Laboratories applying to be certified for environmental
toxicology (aquatic toxicity, sediment toxicity, or soils toxicity). To be
certified initially and to maintain certification, a laboratory shall
participate in at least one PT study per year (i.e., not more than 12 months
apart), when available, for each method code (matrix, organism, exposure system
and endpoint) for which it seeks or wants to maintain certification.
Laboratories seeking certification for aquatic toxicity testing shall meet the
requirements of 1VAC30-45-530.
1. To be certified initially and to maintain certification,
a laboratory shall participate in PT studies as specified in 1VAC30-45-520 B
for the fields of certification (FoC) for which the laboratory seeks or wants
to maintain certification.
2. The applicant laboratory shall obtain PT samples from a
PT provider approved by TNI. If a PT sample is not available from a TNI-approved
provider, the laboratory shall consult DCLS for an approved provider.
B. Requesting certification.
1. When applying for certification, the laboratory owner shall
notify DGS-DCLS DCLS of the fields of testing certification
for which the laboratory chooses to become certified and shall participate in
the appropriate PT studies.
2. For all fields of testing certification for
which PT samples are not available, the laboratory shall ensure the reliability
of its testing procedures by maintaining a quality system that meets all
applicable requirements of Article 4 (1VAC30-45-600 et seq.) of Part II of this
chapter.
C. Reporting results. 1. Each laboratory shall
authorize the PT study provider to release all certification and remediation
results and "acceptable" or "not acceptable" status the
results of the final evaluation report of the laboratory's PT study
directly to DGS-DCLS DCLS, in addition to the laboratory.
2. The results of all of the PT sample tests including
"acceptable" or "not acceptable" status shall be part of
the public record.
1VAC30-45-510. Requirements for laboratory testing of PT study
samples.
A. The samples shall be analyzed and the results returned
to the PT study provider no later than 45 calendar days from the scheduled
study shipment date. Samples for environmental toxicology shall be analyzed
within 45 calendar days of sample receipt. The laboratory shall report the
result within 45 calendar days of completion of the PT. The laboratory
shall report the analytical results from its analysis of the PT study to the PT
provider on or before the closing date of the study using the reporting format
specified by the PT provider.
B. The laboratory's management and all analysts shall ensure
that all PT samples are managed, analyzed, and reported in the same manner as
real environmental samples utilizing the same staff, methods as used for
routine analysis of that analyte, procedures, equipment, and facilities. When
analyzing a PT sample, the laboratory shall employ the same calibration, laboratory
quality control and acceptance criteria, sequence of analytical steps, number
of replicates and other procedures as used when analyzing routine samples.
C. Restrictions on exchanging information. Laboratories shall
comply with all of the following restrictions on the transfer of PT samples and
communication of PT sample results prior to the time the results of the study
are released. Laboratory management or staff shall not:
1. Send any PT sample, or a portion of a PT sample, to another
laboratory for any analysis for which it seeks certification or is certified.
2. Knowingly receive any PT sample or portion of a PT sample
from another laboratory for any analysis for which the sending laboratory seeks
certification or is certified.
3. Communicate with any individual at another laboratory
(including intra-company communication) concerning the PT sample.
4. Attempt to obtain the assigned value of any PT sample from
their PT provider.
D. Maintenance of records. The laboratory shall maintain
copies of all written, printed, and electronic records, including but not
limited to bench sheets, instrument strip charts or printouts, data
calculations, and data reports, resulting from the analysis of any PT sample
for three years or for as long as is required by the applicable regulatory
program. These records shall include a copy of the PT study report forms used
by the laboratory to record PT results. All of these laboratory records shall
be made available to the DCLS assessors of DGS-DCLS during
on-site audits assessments of the laboratory.
1VAC30-45-520. PT criteria for laboratory certification.
A. Result categories.
1. The criteria described in this section apply individually
to each PT field of testing FoPT, as defined by the laboratory
seeking to obtain or maintain certification in its certification request. These
criteria apply only to the PT portion of the overall certification standard.
2. There are two PT result categories: "acceptable"
and "not acceptable."
B. Initial and continuing certification.
1. A laboratory seeking to obtain or maintain certification
shall successfully complete two PT studies one PT study for each
requested PT field of testing within the most recent three rounds attempted
FoC.
2. Once a laboratory has been granted certification status, it
shall continue to complete PT studies for each PT field of testing FoPT
and maintain a history of at least two one acceptable PT studies
for each PT field of testing out of the most recent three study each
calendar year. The laboratory shall complete its PT studies by September 30 of
each calendar year.
3. For a laboratory seeking to obtain initial
certification, the most recent three rounds attempted shall have occurred
within 18 months of the laboratory's application date. When the PT
sample used for initial certification was analyzed by the laboratory prior to
the date of application, the analysis date of the PT sample shall be no more
than 12 months prior to the application date of certification.
4. For a laboratory seeking initial certification, or for
For a laboratory performing supplemental testing, the PT studies shall
be at least 15 calendar days apart from the closing date of one study to the
shipment date of another study for the same PT field of testing FoPT.
5. For a laboratory to maintain certification, completion
dates of successive proficiency rounds for a given PT field of testing shall be
approximately six months apart. Failure to meet the semiannual schedule is
regarded as a failed study.
5. When the PT study result is reported by the PT provider
as "acceptable" the environmental laboratory has satisfied the PT
requirement.
6. When the PT study result is "not acceptable,"
the environmental laboratory shall follow the procedure in subsection C of this
section.
7. DCLS shall consider a laboratory's analytical result for
a FoPT not acceptable when the laboratory makes any reporting error or omission
that results in a nonspecific match between the analytical result for the FoPT
and any criterion that identifies the laboratory or the field of certification
for which the PT sample was analyzed for the purpose of initial or continued
certification.
C. Procedure and requirements for "not
acceptable" PT study results.
1. When a laboratory receives a PT study result of
"not acceptable," the laboratory shall determine the cause for the
failure and perform and document corrective action. The corrective action
documentation shall be completed within 30 days of receiving the "not
acceptable" PT study result and be submitted to DCLS upon request. [ DCLS
may extend the time for corrective action and documentation. ]
2. Upon completion of the corrective action the laboratory
shall perform another PT study for each FoPT that had a "not
acceptable" result.
3. If the laboratory successfully completes the makeup PT
study by receiving an "acceptable" result before December 31, DCLS
shall not suspend the laboratory's certification for the pertinent FoC.
4. If the laboratory receives a "not acceptable"
result on the makeup PT study, DCLS shall notify the laboratory that there is
cause to suspend the laboratory's certification for the FoC for which the PT
study was "not acceptable."
5. DCLS shall not extend the period for annual PT study
completion beyond December 31 each year. Failure to satisfactorily complete a
PT study [ , including any corrective action and makeup PT study, ]
by December 31 shall result in suspension of certification in total or in
part.
6. If the laboratory receives a "not acceptable"
result on three successive PT studies, DCLS shall decertify the laboratory for
the pertinent FoC until such time that the laboratory:
a. Completes corrective action for all failed studies and
submits its corrective action report to DCLS;
b. Obtains an "acceptable" result for the PT
studies; and
c. Applies for a change to its scope of certification and
pays applicable fees required by 1VAC30-45-90 B and 1VAC30-45-130 F.
7. DCLS shall follow the provisions of 1VAC30-45-110 in
decertifying the laboratory.
C. Supplemental studies.
1. A laboratory may elect to participate in PT studies more
frequently than required by the semiannual schedule. This may be desirable, for
example, when a laboratory first applies for certification or when a laboratory
fails a study and wishes to quickly reestablish its history of successful
performance.
2. These additional studies shall be reported and are
counted and scored the same way as routinely scheduled studies and shall be at
least 15 calendar days apart.
D. Failed studies and
corrective action.
1. Whenever a laboratory fails a study, it shall determine
the cause for the failure and take any necessary corrective action. It shall
then document in its own records and provide to DGS-DCLS both the investigation
and the action taken.
2. If a laboratory fails two out of the three most recent
studies for a given field of testing, its performance is considered
unacceptable for that field. The laboratory shall then meet the requirements of
initial certification as described in subsection B of this section.
E. Second failed study.
1. The PT provider reports laboratory PT performance
results to DGS-DCLS at the same time that it reports the results to the
laboratory.
2. If a laboratory fails a second study out of the most
recent three, as described in subdivision D 2 of this section, DGS-DCLS shall
take action within 60 calendar days to determine the certification status for
the unacceptable PT field of testing.
F. Scheduling of PT studies. Laboratories shall determine
the schedule for their PT studies.
G. D. Withdrawal from PT studies. A laboratory
may withdraw from a PT study for an analyte or analytes or for the entire
study if the laboratory notifies both the PT provider and DGS-DCLS before the
closing date of the PT study. This does not exempt the laboratory from
participating in the semiannual schedule. any FoPT on or before the
close date of the study. Withdrawing from a study shall not exempt the
laboratory from meeting the annual analysis requirements necessary for
continued certification.
1VAC30-45-530. Special requirements for aquatic toxicity.
(Repealed.)
A. Laboratories seeking certification for aquatic toxicity
testing shall be assessed through on-site assessment and evaluation of EPA
Discharge Monitoring Report-Quality Assurance (DMR-QA) test results when
available. A failed DMR-QA endpoint shall require both of the following:
1. A formal response to DGS-DCLS with an explanation of the
probable cause for the endpoint failure and description of corrective actions
to be taken (where appropriate).
2. A decision by DGS-DCLS to accept the response or require
additional actions on the part of the laboratory or by DGS-DCLS.
B. If a laboratory's response is unacceptable and DGS-DCLS
does not require additional on-site assessments, the laboratory shall complete
another study. Such additional studies shall be conducted at least 15 calendar
days from the previous study until the results are acceptable to DGS-DCLS.
DGS-DCLS may conduct additional on-site assessments as necessary based on the
results of any additional studies.
C. When the DMR-QA whole effluent toxicity portion does
not include all test procedures required for a permit, the laboratory shall
perform a proficiency test for aquatic toxicity testing.
D. DGS-DCLS shall not base loss of certification for
aquatic toxicity testing solely on PT results.
Article 4
Quality System
1VAC30-45-600. Quality system.
A. This article sets out the general requirements that an
environmental laboratory has to successfully demonstrate to be recognized as
competent to carry out specific environmental tests. The environmental
laboratory shall establish, implement and maintain a quality system based on
the required elements contained in this article.
B. The quality system shall be appropriate to the type, range
and volume of testing, analysis, measurement or monitoring performed by the
laboratory.
C. The quality system's documentation shall be
communicated to, understood by, available to, and implemented by the
appropriate personnel. All personnel concerned with testing and calibration
activities within the laboratory shall familiarize themselves with the quality
documentation and implement the policies and procedures in their work.
C. D. If more stringent standards or
requirements are included in a mandated test method or by regulation, the laboratory
shall demonstrate that such requirements are met. If it is not clear which
standard or requirement is more stringent, the standard or requirement from the
method or regulation is to be followed.
D. E. Provisions pertaining to the management
of the quality system appear in 1VAC30-45-610 through 1VAC30-45-700. Provisions
pertaining to the technical requirements for the quality system appear in
1VAC30-45-710 through 1VAC30-45-770.
1VAC30-45-610. Quality manual.
A. General.
1. The laboratory shall document its quality system in a
quality manual. The quality manual shall reflect all quality assurance and
quality control practices and programs used by the laboratory. The required
elements of the quality system may be described in more than one document.
2. The quality manual shall be maintained current under the
responsibility of the quality assurance officer.
3. The quality manual and any related documents shall be
communicated to, understood by, available to, and implemented by all laboratory
personnel.
4. The quality manual shall include but not be limited to the
elements listed in subsection subsections B and C of this
section.
B. The elements of a quality manual shall include but not be
limited to:
1. Title page. The quality manual shall list the following
items on the title page:
a. 1. A document title;
b. 2. The laboratory's full name and address;
c. 3. The name, address (if different from
above), and telephone number of the responsible official, laboratory manager,
and quality assurance officer;
d. 4. The laboratory facility or facilities
covered by the quality manual;
e. 5. Signed and dated concurrence, with
appropriate titles, of the responsible official, laboratory manager, and
quality assurance officer; and
f. 6. The effective date of the quality manual.;
2. 7. Table of contents. and
applicable lists of references, glossaries, and appendices; and
3. 8. A quality policy statement, including
objectives of the quality system and commitment to good ethical
laboratory practices and to upholding the requirements of this chapter's
standards.
C. The quality manual shall include or reference but not
be limited to:
4. 1. The organization and management structure
of the laboratory, its place in any parent organization and relevant
organizational charts.
5. The relationship between management, technical
operations, support services and the quality system.
6. The capabilities of the laboratory or scope of its
operation.
7. 2. Job descriptions of key staff and
reference to the job descriptions of other staff.
8. 3. Processes or procedures for establishing
that personnel have adequate training and experience in the duties they are
expected to carry out and are receiving any needed training.
9. Ethics policy statement developed by the laboratory.
Processes and procedures for educating and training personnel in their ethical
and legal responsibilities including the potential penalties for improper,
unethical or illegal actions.
10. 4. Mechanisms for ensuring that the
laboratory reviews all new work to ensure that it has the appropriate
facilities and resources before commencing such work.
11. 5. Procedures to ensure that all records
required by this chapter are retained, as well as procedures for control and
maintenance of documentation through a document control system that ensures
that all standard operating procedures, manuals, or documents clearly indicate
the time period during which the procedure or document was in force.
12. 6. Procedures for dealing with complaints.
13. 7. Procedures for audits and data review.
14. Reference to verification 8. Verification
practices that may include inter-laboratory comparisons, proficiency testing
programs, use of reference materials and internal quality control schemes.
15. 9. Procedures to be followed for feedback
and corrective action whenever testing discrepancies are detected, or
departures from documented policies and procedures occur.
16. 10. The laboratory management arrangements
for permitting departures from documented policies and procedures or from
standard specifications when the departures are planned and controlled.
17. Reference to the 11. The major equipment and
reference measurement standards used as well as the physical facility and
environment used by the laboratory in conducting tests.
18. Reference to procedures 12. Procedures for
calibration, verification and maintenance of equipment.
19. 13. A list of all technology/methods under
which the laboratory performs its certified testing.
20. The laboratory's procedures 14. Procedures
for achieving traceability of measurements, including standards.
21. 15. Procedures for receiving, handling,
storing, and disposing of submitted samples.
22. Reference to procedures 16. Procedures for
reporting analytical results.
17. Policy addressing the use of unique electronic signatures,
where applicable.
C. D. Review and approval of quality manual.
1. The quality assurance officer shall review the laboratory's
quality assurance program, manual and any related documentation whenever there
is any change in test methods employed by the laboratory, change in equipment,
or any other change in the laboratory that affects the quality assurance
program.
2. The quality assurance manual shall be reviewed and approved
by the quality assurance officer, the laboratory manager, and the responsible
official at least annually.
1VAC30-45-660. Required records.
A. Sample handling.
1. The laboratory shall maintain a record of all procedures to
which a sample is subjected while in the possession of the laboratory. These
shall include but are not limited to all records pertaining to sample
preservation, identification, receipt, acceptance or rejection, log-in, storage
and tracking. The laboratory shall also maintain sampling information on each
sample. This includes time and date of collection, type of sample (grab or
composite), type of container, sampling point and preservation.
2. The laboratory shall have documented procedures for the
receipt and retention of samples, including provisions necessary to protect the
integrity of the samples.
B. Laboratory support activities. The laboratory shall retain
the following documents and data:
1. All original raw data, whether hard copy or electronic, for
calibrations, samples and quality control measures, including analysts' work
sheets and data output records (chromatograms, strip charts, and other
instrument response readout records).
2. A written description or reference to the specific test
method used that includes a description of the specific computational steps
used to translate parametric observations into a reportable analytical value.
3. Copies of final reports.
4. Archived standard operating procedures.
5. Correspondence relating to laboratory activities.
6. All corrective action reports plans, audits,
and audit responses.
7. Proficiency test results and raw data.
8. Results of data review, verification, and cross-checking
procedures.
C. Analytical records. The laboratory shall retain essential
information associated with analytical documents, such as strip charts, tabular
printouts, computer data files, analytical notebooks, and run logs. This
information includes, but is not limited to, all manual calculations, (e.g.,
manual integrations); sample preparation; standard and reagent origin,
receipt, preparation, and use; quality control protocols and assessment; and
method performance criteria.
D. Administrative records. The laboratory shall maintain the
following administrative records:
1. Personnel qualifications, experience and training records.
2. Records of demonstration of capability for each analyst or
work cell.
3. A log of names, initials and signatures for all individuals
who are responsible for signing or initialing any laboratory record.
1VAC30-45-670. Audits.
A. Internal audits.
1. The laboratory shall arrange for annual internal audits to
verify that its operations continue to comply with the requirements of the
laboratory's quality system. It is the responsibility of the quality assurance
officer to plan and organize audits as required by a predetermined schedule and
requested by management.
2. Trained and qualified personnel who are, wherever resources
permit, independent of the activity to be audited, shall carry out these
audits. Personnel shall not audit their own activities except when it can be
demonstrated that an effective audit will be carried out.
3. Where the audit findings cast doubt on the correctness or
validity of the laboratory's calibrations or test results, the laboratory shall
take immediate corrective action.
4. A laboratory may have an audit performed under contract by
an outside source competent to audit the laboratory's operations.
B. Managerial review.
1. The laboratory management shall conduct a review, at least
annually, of its quality system and its testing and calibration activities to
ensure its continuing suitability and effectiveness and to introduce any
necessary changes or improvements in the quality system and laboratory
operations.
2. The review shall take account of reports from managerial
and supervisory personnel, the outcome of recent internal audits, assessments
by external bodies, the results of inter-laboratory comparisons or proficiency
tests, corrective actions and other relevant factors.
3. The laboratory shall have a procedure for review by
management and maintain records of review findings and actions.
4. Where the staff of a laboratory is limited to a single
analyst, a supervisor may perform a managerial review.
C. Audit review. All audit and review findings and any
corrective actions that arise from them shall be documented. The laboratory
management shall ensure that these actions are discharged within the agreed
[ time frame timeframe ] as indicated in the quality
manual or standard operating procedures or both. For clarification,
documentation of audit and review findings should be a simple procedure,
essentially a memorandum setting out the findings of the audit and managerial
review and any action to follow.
D. Corrective actions.
1. In addition to providing acceptance criteria and specific
protocols for corrective actions in the method standard operating procedures,
the laboratory shall implement general procedures to be followed to determine
consistently when departures from documented policies, procedures and quality
control have occurred. These procedures may include but are not limited to the following:
a. Identify the individual or individuals responsible for
assessing each quality control data type;
b. Identify the individual or individuals responsible for
initiating or recommending corrective actions or both;
c. Define how the analyst shall treat a data set if the
associated quality control measurements are unacceptable;
d. Specify how out-of-control situations and subsequent
corrective actions are to be documented; and
e. Specify procedures for management (including the quality
assurance officer) to review corrective action reports plans.
2. To the extent possible, samples shall be reported only if
all quality control measures are acceptable. If a quality control measure is
found to be out of control, and the data are to be reported, all samples
associated with the failed quality control measure shall be reported with the
appropriate data qualifiers.
1VAC30-45-720. Equipment and reference materials.
A. The laboratory shall be furnished with all items of
equipment, including reference materials, required for the correct performance
of tests for which certification is sought. The laboratory shall maintain
records of reference materials sufficient to provide proper performance of
tests. In those cases where the laboratory needs to use equipment outside its
permanent control it shall ensure that the relevant requirements of this
article are met.
B. All equipment shall be properly maintained, inspected and
cleaned. Maintenance procedures shall be documented.
C. Any item of the equipment that has been subjected to
overloading or mishandling, or that gives suspect results, or has been shown by
verification or otherwise to be defective shall be taken out of service
immediately, clearly identified as being out of service and, wherever possible,
stored at a specified place until it has been repaired and shown by
calibration, verification or test to perform satisfactorily. The laboratory
shall examine the effect of this defect on previous calibrations or tests.
D. Each item of equipment including reference materials shall
be labeled, marked or otherwise identified to indicate its calibration status.
E. Records of each major item of equipment significant to the
tests performed shall be maintained. These records shall include documentation
on all routine and non-routine maintenance activities. The laboratory shall
maintain records of reference materials sufficient to provide proper
performance of tests. The records shall include:
1. The name of the item of equipment;
2. The manufacturer's name, type identification, and serial
number or other unique identification;
3. Date received and date placed in service (if available);
4. 3. Current location, where appropriate;
5. If available, condition when received (e.g., new, used,
reconditioned);
6. 4. Copy of the manufacturer's instructions,
where available;
7. 5. Dates and results of calibrations or
verifications or both and date of the next calibration or verification;
8. 6. Details of maintenance carried out to date
and planned for the future; and
9. 7. History of any damage, malfunction,
modification or repair.
1VAC30-45-730. Test methods and standard operating procedures.
A. Methods documentation.
1. The laboratory shall have documented instructions on the
use and operation of all relevant equipment, on the handling and preparation of
samples, and for calibration or testing, where the absence of such instructions
could jeopardize the calibrations or tests.
2. All instructions, standards, manuals and reference data
relevant to the work of the laboratory shall be maintained up to date and be
readily available to the staff.
B. Standard operating procedures (SOPs).
1. Laboratories shall maintain SOPs that accurately reflect
all phases of current laboratory activities such as assessing data integrity,
corrective actions, handling customer complaints, and all test methods. These
documents, for example, may be equipment manuals provided by the manufacturer
or internally written documents. The test methods may be copies of published
methods as long as any changes or selected options in the methods are
documented and included in the laboratory methods manual.
2. The SOPs shall be organized. Each SOP shall clearly
indicate the effective date of the document, the revision number, and the
signature or signatures of the responsible laboratory manager or managers.
3. Copies of all SOPs shall be accessible to all personnel.
C. Laboratory methods manuals. SOPs for laboratory
methods.
1. The laboratory shall have and maintain an in-house
methods manual or manuals SOP for each certified analyte or test
method.
2. This manual may consists of copies of published or
referenced methods or standard operating procedures that have been SOP
may be a copy of a published or referenced method or may be written by the
laboratory. In cases where modifications to the published method have been made
by the laboratory or where the referenced test method is ambiguous or provides
insufficient detail, these changes or clarifications shall be clearly
described. Each test method shall include or reference where applicable:
a. Identification of the test method;
b. Applicable matrix or matrices;
c. Method detection limit Limits of detection or
quantitation;
d. Scope and application, including components parameters
to be analyzed;
e. Summary of the test method;
f. Definitions;
g. Interferences;
h. Safety;
i. Equipment and supplies;
j. Reagents and standards;
k. Sample collection, preservation, shipment and storage;
l. Quality control;
m. Calibration and standardization;
n. Procedure;
o. Calculations Data analysis and calculations;
p. Method performance;
q. Pollution prevention;
r. Data assessment and acceptance criteria for quality control
measures;
s. Corrective actions for out-of-control data;
t. Contingencies for handling out-of-control or unacceptable
data;
u. Waste management;
v. References; and
w. Any tables, diagrams, flowcharts and validation data.
D. Test methods.
1. Laboratories shall use (i) promulgated test methods in
accordance with the Code of Federal Regulations; (ii) test methods stated in
any current permit issued by Virginia the State Air Pollution
Control Board, the Virginia Waste Management Board, or the State Water Control
Board; or (iii) alternate test procedures approved by the board issuing the
permit or the Department of Environmental Quality, including applicable quality
assurance requirements, and sample preservation, container, storage, and holding
time requirements. [ Laboratories shall use the latest valid edition
of a method unless it is not appropriate to do so. ]
2. The laboratory shall use appropriate test methods and
procedures for all tests and related activities within its responsibility (including
sample handling, transport and storage, preparation and analysis). The method
and procedures shall be consistent with the accuracy required and with any
standard specifications relevant to the calibrations or tests concerned.
3. When the use of reference test methods for a sample
analysis is mandated, only those methods shall be used.
4. Where test methods are employed that are not required, as
in the Performance Based Measurement System approach, the methods shall be
fully documented and validated (see subsection E of this section).
E. Demonstration of capability.
1. Prior to acceptance and institution of any test method,
satisfactory initial demonstration of method capability is required. In
general, this demonstration does not test the performance of the method in real
world samples, but in the applicable and available clean quality system matrix
sample (a quality system matrix in which no target analytes or interferences
are present at concentrations that impact the results of a specific test method),
e.g. for example, drinking water, solids, biological tissue and
air. Laboratories shall follow the procedure in subsection F of this section to
demonstrate capability.
2. Thereafter, continuing ongoing demonstration
of method performance, such as laboratory control samples, is required.
3. In cases where a laboratory analyzes samples using a test
method that has been in use by the laboratory before July 1999 for at
least one year prior to applying for certification, and there have been no
significant changes in instrument type, personnel or test method, the
continuing demonstration of method performance and the analyst's documentation
of continued proficiency shall be acceptable. The laboratory shall have records
on file to demonstrate that an initial demonstration of capability is not
required.
4. In all cases, the laboratory shall [ complete and
retain a certification statement and shall make the statement available upon
request. The laboratory shall retain all associated supporting data necessary
to reproduce the analytical results summarized in the certification statement
document each demonstration of capability as required by subsection G of
this section ].
5. The laboratory shall complete a demonstration of capability
each time there is a change in instrument type, personnel or test method,
including the addition of an analyte to a certified test method.
6. In laboratories with specialized work cells (a group
consisting of analysts with specifically defined tasks that together perform
the test method), the group as a unit shall meet the criteria of this
subsection. This demonstration of capability shall be fully documented.
F. Procedure for demonstration of capability. The following
steps shall be performed for mandated test methods. However, before any results
are reported using this method, actual sample spike results may be used to meet
this standard, (i.e., at least four consecutive matrix spikes
within the last 12 months). For analytes that do not lend themselves to
spiking, (e.g., TSS), the demonstration of
capability may be performed using quality control samples. The laboratory may
document that other approaches to demonstration of capability are adequate.
This documentation shall be included in the laboratory's quality manual:
1. A quality control (QC) sample may be obtained from an
outside source or may be prepared by the laboratory using alternate source
stock standards that are prepared independently from those used in instrument
calibration.
2. The analyte or analytes shall be diluted in a volume of
clean quality system matrix sufficient to prepare four aliquots at the
concentration specified, or if unspecified, to a concentration of 1-4 times the
limit of quantitation.
3. At least four aliquots shall be prepared and analyzed
according to the test method either concurrently or over a period of days.
4. Using all of the results, calculate the mean recovery in
the appropriate reporting units (such as g/L) and the standard deviations of
the population sample (n-1) (in the same units) for each parameter of interest.
When it is not possible to determine mean and standard deviations, such as for
presence or absence of the analyte and logarithmic values, the laboratory shall
assess performance against established and documented criteria.
5. Compare the information from subdivision 4 of this
subsection to the corresponding acceptance criteria for precision and accuracy
in the test method (if applicable) or in laboratory-generated acceptance
criteria (if there are not established mandatory criteria). If all parameters
meet the acceptance criteria, the analysis of actual samples may begin. If any
one of the parameters do not meet the acceptance criteria, the performance is
unacceptable for that parameter.
6. When one or more of the tested parameters fail at least one
of the acceptance criteria, the analyst shall proceed according to either
subdivision 6 a or 6 b below of this subsection.
a. Locate and correct the source of the problem and repeat the
test for all parameters of interest beginning with subdivision 3 of this
subsection.
b. Beginning with subdivision 3 of this subsection, repeat the
test for all parameters that failed to meet criteria. Repeated failure,
however, confirms a general problem with the measurement system. If this
occurs, locate and correct the source of the problem and repeat the test for
all compounds of interest beginning with subdivision 3 of this subsection.
[ G. Certification statement. The following
certification statement shall be used to document the completion of each demonstration
of capability. A copy of the certification statement shall be retained in the
personnel records of each affected employee.
Demonstration of Capability
Certification Statement
Date: Page __of __
Laboratory Name:
Laboratory Address:
Analyst(s) Name(s):
Matrix:
(examples: laboratory pure water, soil, air, solid,
biological tissue)
Method number, SOP#, Rev#, and Analyte, or Class of Analytes
or Measured Parameters
(examples: barium by 200.7, trace metals by 6010 B, benzene
by 8021 B, etc.)
We, the undersigned, CERTIFY that:
1. The analysts identified above, using the cited test
method(s), which is in use at this facility for the analyses of samples under
the Virginia Environmental Laboratory Certification Program, have met the
Demonstration of Capability.
2. The test method(s) was performed by the analyst(s)
identified on this certification.
3. A copy of the test method(s) and the laboratory-specific
SOPs are available for all personnel on-site.
4. The data associated with the demonstration capability
are true, accurate, complete and self-explanatory(1).
5. All raw data (including a copy of this certification
form) necessary to reconstruct and validate these analyses have been retained
at the facility, and that the associated information is well organized and
available for review by authorized assessors.
Laboratory Manager's Name and Title________________
Signature________________ Date_______
Quality Assurance Officer's Name___________________
Signature________________ Date_______
(1)True - consistent with supporting data.
Accurate - based on good laboratory practices consistent with sound scientific
principles and practices. Complete - includes the results of all supporting
performance testing. Self-explanatory - data properly labeled and stored so
that the results are clear and require no additional explanation.
G. Documentation of demonstration of capability. The
laboratory shall document each demonstration of capability so that the
following information shall be readily available for each employee:
1. Analyst or analysts involved in preparation and
analysis.
2. Matrix.
3. Analytes, class of analytes, measured parameters, or
organisms.
4. Identification of methods performed.
5. Identification of laboratory-specific SOP used for
analysis, including revision number.
6. Date or dates of analysis.
7. All raw data necessary to reconstruct and validate the
analyses.
8. Data evaluation required by subsection F of this
section. ]
H. Sample aliquots. Where sampling (as in obtaining sample
aliquots from a submitted sample) is carried out as part of the test method,
the laboratory shall use documented procedures and appropriate techniques to
obtain representative subsamples.
I. Data verification. Calculations and data transfers shall
be subject to appropriate checks. The laboratory shall establish standard
operating procedures to ensure that (i) the reported data are free from
transcription and calculation errors and (ii) all quality control measures are
reviewed and evaluated before data are reported. The laboratory also shall
establish standard operating procedures addressing manual calculations
including manual integrations.
J. Documentation and labeling of standards and reagents.
Documented procedures shall exist for the reception and storage of consumable
materials used for the technical operations of the laboratory.
1. The laboratory shall retain records for all standards,
reagents, reference materials and media including the manufacturer/vendor, the
manufacturer's Certificate of Analysis or purity (if available), the date of
receipt, recommended storage conditions, and an expiration date after which the
material shall not be used unless its reliability is verified by the
laboratory.
2. Original containers (such as provided by the manufacturer
or vendor) shall be labeled with an expiration date if this date is provided
by the manufacturer or vendor.
3. Records shall be maintained on standard and reference
material preparation. These records shall indicate traceability to purchased
stocks or neat compounds, reference to the method of preparation, date of
preparation, expiration date and preparer's initials.
4. Sufficient identification of containers of prepared
reagents and standards shall be provided to ensure proper performance of tests.
K. Computers and electronic data related requirements. Where
computers, automated equipment or microprocessors are used for the capture,
processing, manipulation, recording, reporting, storage or retrieval of test
data, the laboratory shall ensure the following:
1. Computer software developed by the user is documented in
sufficient detail and is suitably validated as being adequate for use.
2. Procedures are established and implemented for protecting
the integrity of data, such as integrity of data entry or capture, data
storage, data transmission and data processing.
3. Computer and automated equipment are maintained to ensure
proper functioning and provided with the environmental and operating conditions
necessary to maintain the integrity of calibration and test data.
4. Appropriate procedures are established and implemented for
the maintenance of security of data including the prevention of unauthorized
access to, and the unauthorized amendment of, computer records.
1VAC30-45-740. Measurement traceability and calibration.
A. General requirements. All equipment used for environmental
tests, including equipment for subsidiary measurements (e.g., for environmental
conditions) having a significant effect on the accuracy or validity of the
result of the environmental test or sampling shall be calibrated before being
put into service and on a continuing basis. The laboratory shall have an
established program and procedure for the calibration of its equipment. This
includes balances, thermistors, thermometers and control standards. Such a
program shall include a system for selecting, using, calibrating, checking,
controlling and maintaining measurement standards, reference materials used as
measurement standards, and measuring and test equipment used to perform
environmental tests.
B. Traceability of calibration.
1. The laboratory shall ensure that the equipment used can
provide the uncertainty of measurement needed.
2. The overall program of calibration or verification or both
and validation of equipment shall be designed and operated so as to ensure that
measurements made by the laboratory are traceable to national standards of
measurement.
3. Where traceability of measurements to the International
System of Units (SI) is not possible or not relevant, the same requirements for
traceability to, for example, certified reference materials, agreed methods and/or
or consensus standards, are required. The laboratory shall provide
satisfactory evidence of correlation of results, for example by participation
in a suitable program of inter-laboratory comparisons, proficiency testing, or
independent analysis.
C. Reference standards and reference materials.
1. Reference standards. The laboratory shall have a program
and procedure for the calibration of its reference standards. Reference
standards of measurement shall be calibrated by a body that can provide
traceability as described in subsection B of this section. Such reference
standards of measurement held by the laboratory (such as Class S or equivalent
weights or traceable thermometers) shall be used for calibration only and for
no other purpose, unless it can be demonstrated that their performance as
reference standards would not be invalidated. Where commercially available,
this traceability shall be to a national standard of measurement.
2. Reference materials. Reference materials shall, where
commercially available, be traceable to SI units of measurement, or to
certified reference materials. Where possible, traceability shall be to
national or international standards of measurement, or to national or
international standard reference materials. Internal reference materials shall
be checked as far as is technically and economically practicable.
D. Calibration. Calibration requirements are divided into two
parts: (i) requirements for analytical support equipment and (ii) requirements
for instrument calibration. In addition, the requirements for instrument
calibration are divided into initial instrument calibration and continuing
instrument calibration verification.
1. Support equipment. These standards apply to all devices
that may not be the actual test instrument, but are necessary to support
laboratory operations. These include but are not limited to balances, ovens,
refrigerators, freezers, incubators, water baths, temperature measuring devices
(including thermometers and thermistors), thermal/pressure sample preparation
devices and volumetric dispensing devices (such as Eppendorf®, or automatic
dilutor or dispensing devices) if quantitative results are dependent on their
accuracy, as in standard preparation and dispensing or dilution into a
specified volume.
a. All support equipment shall be maintained in proper working
order. The records of all repair and maintenance activities, including service
calls, shall be kept.
b. All support equipment shall be calibrated or verified at
least annually, using NIST traceable references when available, over the entire
range of use. The results of such calibration shall be within the
specifications required of the application for which this equipment is used. If
not, the laboratory shall either (i) remove the equipment from service until
repaired or (ii) maintain records of established correction factors to correct
all measurements.
c. Raw data records shall be retained to document equipment performance.
d. Prior to use on each working day On each day the
equipment is used, balances, ovens, refrigerators, freezers, and water
baths shall be checked in the expected use range, with NIST traceable
references where available. The acceptability for use or continued use shall be
according to the needs of the analysis or application for which the equipment
is being used.
e. Mechanical volumetric dispensing devices including burettes
(except Class A glassware) shall be checked for accuracy on at least a quarterly
use basis. Glass microliter syringes are to be considered in the same manner as
Class A glassware, but shall come with a certificate attesting to established
accuracy or the accuracy shall be initially demonstrated and documented by the
laboratory.
f. For chemical tests, the temperature, cycle time and
pressure of each run of autoclaves shall be documented by the use of
appropriate chemical indicators or temperature recorders and pressure gauges.
g. For biological tests that employ autoclave sterilization,
the following requirements apply:
(1) The performance of each autoclave shall be initially
evaluated by establishing its functional properties and performance, for
example heat distribution characteristics with respect to typical uses.
Autoclaves shall meet specified temperature tolerances. Pressure cookers fitted
only with a pressure gauge are not recommended for sterilization of media or
decontamination of wastes.
(2) Records of autoclave operations including temperature and
time shall be maintained. This shall be done for every cycle. Acceptance and
rejection criteria shall be established and used to evaluate the autoclave
efficiency and effectiveness.
2. Instrument calibration.
a. This standard specifies the essential elements that define
the procedures and documentation for initial instrument calibration and
continuing instrument calibration verification to ensure that the data shall be
of known quality and be appropriate for a given regulation or decision. This
standard does not specify detailed procedural steps for calibration, but
establishes the essential elements for selection of the appropriate technique
or techniques. If more stringent standards or requirements are included in a
mandated test method or by regulation, the laboratory shall demonstrate that
such requirements are met. If it is not apparent which standard is more
stringent, then the requirements of the regulation or mandated test method are
to be followed.
b. Initial instrument calibrations. The following items are
essential elements of initial instrument calibration:
(1) The laboratory shall include or reference the details of
the initial instrument calibration procedures, including calculations,
integrations, acceptance criteria and associated statistics in the standard
operating procedure for the test method. When initial instrument calibration
procedures are referenced in the test method, then the laboratory shall retain
the referenced material and make it available for review.
(2) The laboratory shall retain sufficient raw data records to
permit reconstruction of the initial instrument calibration, (e.g.,
calibration date, test method, instrument, analysis date, each analyte name,
analyst's initials or signature, concentration and response, calibration curve
or response factor, or unique equation or coefficient used to reduce instrument
responses to concentration).
(3) Sample results shall be quantitated from the initial
instrument calibration and may not be quantitated from any continuing
instrument calibration verification unless otherwise required by regulation,
method, or program.
(4) All initial instrument calibrations shall be verified with
a standard obtained from a second manufacturer or lot. Traceability shall be to
a national standard, when available. This element does not apply to
laboratories performing only simple test procedures.
(5) Criteria for the acceptance of an initial instrument
calibration shall be established, (e.g., correlation coefficient
and relative percent difference). The criteria used shall be 0.995 or
greater for the calibration coefficient unless a different criterion is
included in the method being used.
(6) Results of samples not bracketed by initial calibration
standards (within calibration range) shall be reported as having less certainty,
(e.g., defined qualifiers or flags or explained in the case narrative).
The lowest calibration standard shall be above the detection limit.
(7) If the initial instrument calibration results are outside
established acceptance criteria, corrective actions shall be performed. Data
associated with an unacceptable initial instrument calibration shall not be
reported.
(8) Calibration standards shall include concentrations at or
below the regulatory limit or decision level, if these limits or levels are
known by the laboratory, unless these concentrations are below the laboratory's
demonstrated detection limits.
(9) If a reference or mandated method does not specify the
number of calibration standards, the minimum number is two, not including
blanks or a zero standard. The laboratory shall have a standard operating
procedure for determining the number of points for establishing the initial
instrument calibration.
c. Continuing instrument calibration verification.
(1) When an initial instrument calibration is not performed on
the day of analysis, the validity of the initial calibration shall be verified
prior to sample analyses by a continuing instrument calibration check with each
analytical batch. This provision does not apply to laboratories performing only
simple test procedures.
(2) The following items are essential elements of continuing
instrument calibration verification:
(a) The laboratory shall include or reference the details of
the continuing instrument calibration procedure, calculations and associated
statistics in the standard operating procedure for the test method.
(b) The laboratory shall verify calibration for each compound,
element, or other discrete chemical species, except for multicomponent analytes
such as Aroclors, Total Petroleum Hydrocarbons, or Toxaphene where a
representative chemical related substance or mixture can be used.
(c) The laboratory shall perform a continuing instrument
calibration verification as follows:
(i) At the beginning and end of each analytical batch. If an
internal standard is used, only one verification needs to be performed at the
beginning of the analytical batch;
(ii) Whenever it is expected that the analytical system may be
out of calibration or might not meet the verification acceptance criteria;
(iii) If the time period for calibration or the most previous
calibration verification has expired; or
(iv) For analytical systems that contain a calibration
verification requirement.
(d) Sufficient raw data records shall be retained to permit
reconstruction of the continuing instrument calibration verification, (e.g.,
or test method, instrument, analysis date, each analyte name, concentration and
response, calibration curve or response factor, or unique equations or
coefficients used to convert instrument responses into concentrations).
Continuing calibration verification records shall explicitly connect the
continuing verification data to the initial instrument calibration.
(e) Criteria for the acceptance of a continuing instrument
calibration verification shall be established, (e.g., percent
recovery or relative percent difference).
(f) If the continuing instrument calibration verification
results obtained are outside established acceptance criteria, corrective
actions shall be performed. If routine corrective action procedures fail to
produce a second consecutive (immediate) calibration verification within
acceptance criteria, then either the laboratory has to demonstrate acceptable
performance after corrective action with two consecutive successful calibration
verifications, or a new initial instrument calibration shall be performed. If
the laboratory has not verified calibration, sample analyses shall not occur
until the analytical system is calibrated or calibration verified. If samples
are analyzed using a system on which the calibration has not yet been verified,
the results shall be flagged. Data associated with an unacceptable calibration
verification may be fully useable under the following special conditions:
(i) When the acceptance criteria for the continuing calibration
verification are exceeded high, (i.e., high bias,)
and there are associated samples that are nondetects, then those nondetects may
be reported. Otherwise the samples affected by the unacceptable calibration
verification shall be reanalyzed after a new calibration curve has been
established, evaluated and accepted.
(ii) When the acceptance criteria for the continuing
calibration verification are exceeded low, (i.e., low bias,)
those sample results may be reported if they exceed a maximum regulatory limit
or decision level. Otherwise the samples affected by the unacceptable
verification shall be reanalyzed after a new calibration curve has been
established, evaluated and accepted.
1VAC30-45-750. Quality assurance.
A. General. The laboratory shall have quality control
procedures for monitoring the validity of environmental tests undertaken. The
resulting data shall be recorded in such a way that trends are detectable and,
where practicable, statistical techniques shall be applied to the reviewing of
the results. This monitoring shall be planned and reviewed and may include, but
not be limited to, the following:
1. Regular use of certified reference materials and/or or
internal quality control using secondary reference materials or both.
2. Participation in interlaboratory comparison or proficiency
testing program.
3. Replicate tests using the same or different methods.
4. Retesting of retained samples.
5. Correlation of results for different characteristics of a
sample (for example (e.g., total phosphate should be greater than
or equal to orthophosphate).
B. Essential quality control procedures. The general quality
control principles in [ subsections subsection ] C
[ through F ] of this section shall apply, where applicable,
to all environmental laboratories. The manner in which they are implemented is
dependent on the types of tests performed by the laboratory. 1VAC30-45-760
through 1VAC30-45-829 specify quality control requirements for specific test
types. 1VAC30-45-770 through 1VAC30-45-775, 1VAC30-45-790 through
1VAC30-45-798, and 1VAC30-45-810 through 1VAC30-45-818 specify quality control
requirements for chemical testing, microbiological testing, and air testing,
respectively. Noncommercial environmental laboratories that analyze
environmental samples using other types of testing such as toxicity,
radiochemical, or asbestos testing shall meet the quality control standards for
the specific method and the specific type of testing in the 2009 TNI Standards
for Environmental Laboratories. The standards for any given test type shall
assure that the applicable principles are addressed.
C. All laboratories shall have detailed written protocols in
place to monitor the following quality controls:
1. Positive and negative controls to monitor tests such as
blanks, spikes, reference toxicants.
2. Tests to define the variability or repeatability of the
laboratory results or both such as replicates.
3. Measures to assure the accuracy of the test method
including calibration or continuing calibrations or both, use of certified
reference materials, proficiency test samples, or other measures.
4. Measures to evaluate test method capability, such as method
detection limits and quantitation limits or range of applicability such as
linearity.
5. Selection of appropriate formulae to reduce raw data to
final results such as regression analysis, comparison to internal and external
standard calculations, and statistical analyses.
6. Selection and use of reagents and standards of appropriate
quality.
7. Measures to assure the selectivity of the test for its
intended purpose.
8. Measures to assure constant and consistent test conditions
(both instrumental and environmental) where required by the test method such as
temperature, humidity, light, or specific instrument conditions.
1VAC30-45-760. Quality control requirements.
A. General.
1. The quality control protocols specified by the laboratory's
method manual SOPs shall be followed (1VAC30-45-730 C). The
laboratory shall ensure that either the (i) applicable essential standards
outlined in this section through 1VAC30-45-829 1VAC30-45-775,
1VAC30-45-791 through 1VAC30-45-798, and 1VAC30-45-811 or (ii) mandated
methods or regulations, whichever are more stringent, are incorporated into
their method manuals SOPs. When it is not apparent which is more
stringent, the quality control controls in the mandated method or
regulations is are to be followed.
2. All quality control measures shall be assessed and
evaluated on an ongoing basis and quality control acceptance criteria shall be
used to determine the validity of the data. The laboratory shall have
procedures for the development of acceptance/rejection criteria where no method
or regulatory criteria exists.
B. Initial test method evaluation. For all test methods other
than toxicity and microbiology, the requirements of subdivisions 1 and 2
of this subsection apply. For toxicity and microbiology testing, the
initial test method evaluation requirements are contained in 1VAC30-45-780
through 1VAC30-45-788 and 1VAC30-45-790 through 1VAC30-45-798,
respectively. For the evaluation of precision and bias (subdivision 3 of
this subsection), the requirements of subdivision 3 a of this subsection apply
to standard methods. The requirements of subdivision 3 b of this subsection
apply to the methods referenced in that subdivision.
1. Limit of detection (LOD).
a. The laboratory shall determine the LOD for the method for
each target analyte of concern in the quality system matrices. All sample
processing steps of the analytical method shall be included in the
determination of the LOD.
b. The validity of the LOD shall be confirmed by qualitative
identification of the [ analyte(s) analyte ] in a
quality control sample in each quality system matrix containing the analyte at
no more than two to three times the LOD for single analyte tests and one to
four times the LOD for multiple analyte tests. This verification shall be
performed on every instrument that is to be used for analysis of samples and
reporting of data.
c. An LOD study is not required for any component for which
spiking solutions or quality control samples are not available such as
temperature, or, when test results are not to be reported to the LOD (versus
the limit of quantitation or working range of instrument calibration),
according to 1VAC30-45-771, 1VAC30-45-805, and 1VAC30-45-814,
and 1VAC30-45-826. Where an LOD study is not performed, the laboratory may
not report a value below the limit of quantitation.
2. Limit of quantitation (LOQ).
a. The laboratory shall determine the LOQ for each analyte of
concern according to a defined, documented procedure.
b. The LOQ study is not required for any component or property
for which spiking solutions or quality control samples are not commercially
available or otherwise inappropriate (e.g., pH).
c. The validity of the LOQ shall be confirmed by successful
analysis of a QC sample containing the analytes of concern in each quality
system matrix one to two times the claimed LOQ. A successful analysis is one
where the recovery of each analyte is within the established test method
acceptance criteria or client data quality objectives for accuracy. This single
analysis is not required if the bias and precision of the measurement system is
evaluated at the LOQ.
3. Evaluation of precision and bias.
a. Standard methods. The laboratory shall evaluate the
precision and bias of a standard method for each analyte of concern for each
quality system matrix according to either of the following:
(1) The single-concentration four-replicate recovery study
procedures in 1VAC30-45-730 F; or
(2) An alternate procedure documented in the quality manual
when the analyte cannot be spiked into the sample matrix and quality control
samples are not commercially available.
b. Nonstandard methods.
(1) For laboratory-developed test methods or nonstandard test
methods that were not in use by the laboratory before July 2003, the laboratory
shall have a documented procedure to evaluate precision and bias. The
laboratory shall also compare results of the precision and bias measurements
with criteria given in the reference method or criteria established by the
laboratory.
(2) Precision and bias measurements shall evaluate the method
across the analytical calibration range of the method. The laboratory shall
also evaluate precision and bias in the relevant quality system matrices and
shall process the samples through the entire measurement system for each
analyte of interest.
(3) The following are examples of a systematic approach to
evaluate precision and bias:
(a) Example 1. Analyze QC samples in triplicate containing the
analytes of concern at or near the limit of quantitation, at the upper-range of
the calibration (upper 20%) and at a mid-range concentration. Process these
samples on different days as three sets of samples through the entire measurement
system for each analyte of interest. Each day one QC sample at each
concentration is analyzed. A separate method blank shall be subjected to the
analytical method along with the QC samples on each of the three days. (Note
that the three samples at the LOQ concentration can demonstrate sensitivity as
well.) For each analyte, calculate the mean recovery for each day, for each
level over days, and for all nine samples. Calculate the relative standard
deviation for each of the separate means obtained. Compare the standard
deviations for the different days and the standard deviations for the different
concentrations. If the different standard deviations are all statistically
insignificant (e.g., F-test), then compare the overall mean and standard deviation
with the established criteria from above.
(b) Example 2. A validation protocol such as the Tier I, Tier
II, and Tier III requirements in U.S. EPA Office of Water's Alternate Test
Procedure (ATP) approval process.
4. Evaluation of selectivity. The laboratory shall evaluate
selectivity by following the checks established within the method. These checks
may include mass spectral tuning, second column confirmation, ICP inter-element
interference checks, chromatography retention time windows, sample blanks, spectrochemical
absorption or fluorescence profiles, co-precipitation evaluations, and
electrode response factors.
1VAC30-45-770. Chemical testing: positive and negative
controls.
A. Negative control – method performance.
1. Purpose. The method blank is used to assess the preparation
batch for possible contamination during the preparation and processing steps.
The method blank shall be processed along with and under the same conditions as
the associated samples to include all steps of the analytical procedure.
Procedures shall be in place to determine if a method blank is contaminated.
Any affected samples associated with a contaminated method blank shall be
reprocessed for analysis or the results reported with appropriate data
qualifying codes.
2. Frequency. The method blank shall be analyzed at a minimum
of one per preparation batch. In those instances for which no separate
preparation method is used (example: (e.g., volatiles in water)
the batch shall be defined as environmental samples that are analyzed together
with the same method and personnel, using the same lots of reagents, not to
exceed the analysis of 20 environmental samples.
3. Composition. The method blank shall consist of a quality
system matrix that is similar to the associated samples and is known to be free
of the analytes of interest.
4. Evaluation criteria and corrective action. While the goal
is to have no detectable contaminants, each method blank shall be critically
evaluated as to the nature of the interference and the effect on the analysis
of each sample within the batch. The source of contamination shall be
investigated and measures taken to minimize or eliminate the problem and
affected samples reprocessed or data shall be appropriately qualified if:
a. The concentration of a targeted analyte in the blank is at
or above the reporting limit as established by the test method or by
regulation, and is greater than 1/10 of the amount measured in any sample.
b. The blank contamination otherwise affects the sample
results as per the test method requirements or the individual project data
quality objectives.
c. When a blank is determined to be contaminated, the cause
shall be investigated and measures taken to minimize or eliminate the problem.
Samples associated with a contaminated blank shall be evaluated as to the best
corrective action for the samples (e.g., reprocessing or data qualifying
codes). In all cases the corrective action shall be documented.
B. Positive control – method performance. Laboratory control
sample (LCS).
1. Purpose. The LCS is used to evaluate the performance of the
total analytical system, including all preparation and analysis steps. Results
of the LCS are compared to established criteria and, if found to be outside of
these criteria, indicates that the analytical system is "out of
control." Any affected samples associated with an out of control LCS shall
be reprocessed for re-analysis or the results reported with appropriate data
qualifying codes.
2. Frequency. The LCS shall be analyzed at a minimum of one
per preparation batch. Exceptions would be for those analytes for which no
spiking solutions are available such as total suspended solids, total dissolved
solids, total volatile solids, total solids, pH, color, odor, temperature,
dissolved oxygen or turbidity. In those instances for which no separate
preparation method is used (example: volatiles in water) the batch shall be
defined as environmental samples that are analyzed together with the same
method and personnel, using the same lots of reagents, not to exceed the
analysis of 20 environmental samples.
3. Composition. The LCS is a quality system matrix, known to
be free of analytes of interest, spiked with known and verified concentrations
of analytes. NOTE: the matrix spike may be used in place of this control as
long as the acceptance criteria are as stringent as for the LCS. Alternatively
the LCS may consist of a media containing known and verified concentrations of
analytes or as Certified Reference Material (CRM). All analyte concentrations
shall be within the calibration range of the methods. The following shall be
used in choosing components for the spike mixtures:
The components to be spiked shall be as specified by the
mandated test method or other regulatory requirement or as requested by the
client. In the absence of specified spiking components the laboratory shall
spike per the following:
a. For those components that interfere with an accurate
assessment such as spiking simultaneously with technical chlordane, toxaphene
and PCBs, the spike should be chosen that represents the chemistries and
elution patterns of the components to be reported.
b. For those test methods that have extremely long lists of
analytes, a representative number may be chosen. The analytes selected should
be representative of all analytes reported. The following criteria shall be
used for determining the minimum number of analytes to be spiked. However, the
laboratory shall insure that all targeted components are included in the spike
mixture over a two-year period. For methods that include 1-10 targets, spike
all components; for methods that include 11-20 targets, spike at least 10%
10 components or 80%, whichever is greater; and for methods with more
than 20 targets, spike at least 16 components.
4. Evaluation criteria and corrective action.
a. The results of the individual batch LCS are calculated in
percent recovery or other appropriate statistical technique that allows
comparison to established acceptance criteria. The laboratory shall document
the calculation.
b. The individual LCS is compared to the acceptance criteria
as published in the mandated test method. Where there are no established
criteria, the laboratory shall determine internal criteria and document the
method used to establish the limits or utilize client specified assessment
criteria.
c. A LCS that is determined to be within the criteria
effectively establishes that the analytical system is in control and validates
system performance for the samples in the associated batch. Samples analyzed
along with a LCS determined to be "out of control" shall be
considered suspect and the samples reprocessed and re-analyzed or the data
reported with appropriate data qualifying codes.
5. If a large number of analytes are in the LCS, it becomes
statistically likely that a few will be outside control limits. This may not
indicate that the system is out of control, therefore corrective action may not
be necessary. Upper and lower marginal exceedance (ME) limits can be
established to determine when corrective action is necessary. A ME is defined
as being beyond the LCS control limit (3 standard deviations), but within the
ME limits. ME limits are between 3 and 4 standard deviations around the mean.
a. The number of allowable marginal exceedances is based on
the number of analytes in the LCS. If more analytes exceed the LCS control
limits than is allowed, or if any one analyte exceeds the ME limits, the LCS
fails and corrective action is necessary. This marginal exceedance approach is
relevant for methods with long lists of analytes. It will not apply to target
analyte lists with fewer than 11 analytes.
b. The number of allowable marginal exceedances is as follows:
Number of analytes in LCS
|
Number of analytes allowed in ME of the LCS control limit
|
Greater than 90
|
Five
|
71-90
|
Four
|
51-70
|
Three
|
31-50
|
Two
|
11-30
|
One
|
Fewer than 11
|
None
|
c. Marginal exceedances shall be random. If the same analyte
exceeds the LCS control limit repeatedly, it is an indication of a systemic
problem. The source of the error shall be located and corrective action taken.
Laboratories shall have a written procedure to monitor the application of
marginal exceedance allowance to the LCS to ensure random behavior.
C. Sample specific controls - general.
1. The laboratory shall document procedures for determining
the effect of the sample matrix on method performance. These procedures relate
to the analyses of quality system matrix specific Quality Control (QC) samples
and are designed as data quality indicators for a specific sample using the
designated test method. These controls alone are not used to judge laboratory
performance.
2. Examples of matrix specific QC include: Matrix Spike (MS);
Matrix Spike Duplicate (MSD); sample duplicates; and surrogate spikes. The
laboratory shall have procedures in place for tracking, managing, and handling
matrix specific QC criteria including spiking appropriate components at
appropriate concentrations, calculating recoveries and relative percent
difference, evaluating and reporting results based on performance of the QC
samples.
D. Sample specific controls - matrix spike and matrix spike
duplicates.
1. Purpose. Matrix specific QC samples indicate the effect of
the sample matrix on the precision and accuracy of the results generated using
the selected method. The information from these controls is sample/matrix
specific and would not normally be used to determine the validity of the entire
batch.
2. Frequency. The frequency of the analysis of matrix specific
samples shall be determined as part of a systematic planning process (e.g., Data
Quality Objectives) or as specified by the test method.
3. Composition. The components to be spiked shall be as
specified by the mandated test method. Any permit specified analytes, as
specified by regulation or client requested analytes shall also be included. If
there are no specified components, the laboratory shall spike per the
following:
a. For those components that interfere with an accurate
assessment such as spiking simultaneously with technical chlordane, toxaphene
and PCBs, the spike should be chosen that represents the chemistries and
elution patterns of the components to be reported.
b. For those test methods that have extremely long lists of
analytes, a representative number may be chosen using the following criteria
for choosing the number of analytes to be spiked. However, the laboratory shall
insure that all targeted components are included in the spike mixture over a
two-year period.
(1) For methods that include 1-10 targets, spike all
components;
(2) For methods that include 11-20 targets, spike at least 10%
10 components or 80%, whichever is greater;
(3) For methods with more than 20 targets, spike at least 16
components.
4. Evaluation criteria and corrective action.
a. The results from matrix spike/matrix spike duplicate are
primarily designed to assess the precision and accuracy of analytical results
in a given matrix and are expressed as percent recovery (%R), relative percent
difference (RPD), or other appropriate statistical technique that allows
comparison to established acceptance criteria. The laboratory shall document
the calculation for %R, RPD or other statistical treatment used.
b. The results are compared to the acceptance criteria as
published in the mandated test method. Where there are no established criteria,
the laboratory shall determine internal criteria and document the method used
to establish the limits. For matrix spike results outside established criteria
corrective action shall be documented or the data reported with appropriate
data qualifying codes.
E. Sample specific controls - matrix duplicates.
1. Purpose. Matrix duplicates are defined as replicate
aliquots of the same sample taken through the entire analytical procedure. The
results from this analysis indicate the precision of the results for the
specific sample using the selected method. The matrix duplicate provides a
usable measure of precision only when target analytes are found in the sample
chosen for duplication.
2. Frequency. The frequency of the analysis of matrix
duplicates may be determined as part of a systematic planning process (e.g.,
Data Quality Objectives) or as specified by the mandated test method.
3. Composition. Matrix duplicates are performed on replicate
aliquots of actual samples. The composition is usually not known.
4. Evaluation criteria and corrective action.
a. The results from matrix duplicates are primarily designed
to assess the precision of analytical results in a given matrix and are
expressed as relative percent difference (RPD) or another statistical treatment
(e.g., absolute differences). The laboratory shall document the calculation for
relative percent difference or other statistical treatments.
b. Results are compared to the acceptance criteria as published
in the mandated test method. Where there are no established criteria, the
laboratory shall determine internal criteria and document the method used to
establish the limits. For matrix duplicates results outside established
criteria corrective action shall be documented or the data reported with
appropriate data qualifying codes.
F. Sample specific controls - surrogate spikes.
1. Purpose. Surrogates are used most often in organic
chromatography test methods and are chosen to reflect the chemistries of the
targeted components of the method. Added prior to sample
preparation/extraction, they provide a measure of recovery for every sample
matrix.
2. Frequency. Except where the matrix precludes its use or
when not commercially available, surrogate compounds shall be added to all
samples, standards, and blanks for all appropriate test methods.
3. Composition. Surrogate compounds are chosen to represent
the various chemistries of the target analytes in the method or [ MQO
measurement quality objectives ]. They are often specified by the
mandated method and are deliberately chosen for their being unlikely to occur
as an environmental contaminant. Often this is accomplished by using deuterated
analogs of select compounds.
4. Evaluation criteria and corrective action. The results are
compared to the acceptance criteria as published in the mandated test method.
Where there are no established criteria, the laboratory should determine
internal criteria and document the method used to establish the limits.
Surrogates outside the acceptance criteria shall be evaluated for the effect
indicated for the individual sample results. Data quality objectives or other
site-specific requirements may guide the appropriate corrective action. Results
reported from analyses with surrogate recoveries outside the acceptance
criteria should include appropriate data qualifiers.
1VAC30-45-771. Chemical testing: limit of detection and limit
of quantitation.
A. General. All procedures used shall be documented.
Documentation shall include the quality system matrix type. All supporting data
shall be retained.
B. Limit of detection (LOD). The laboratory shall utilize a
test method that provides an LOD that is appropriate and relevant for the
intended use of the data. An LOD is not required for a test method when test
results are not reported outside of the calibration range. LODs shall be
determined by the protocol in the mandated test method or applicable
regulation. If the protocol for determining LODs is not specified, the
selection of the procedure shall reflect instrument limitations and the
intended application of the test method.
1. The LOD shall be initially determined for the compounds of
interest in each test method in a quality system matrix in which there are no
target analytes or interferences at a concentration that would impact the
results. Alternatively the LOD shall be determined in the quality system matrix
of interest (see definition of matrix).
2. LODs shall be determined each time there is a change in the
test method that affects how the test is performed, or when a change in
instrumentation occurs that affects the sensitivity of the analysis.
3. The laboratory shall have established procedures to
relate LOD with LOQ.
4. 3. The LOD shall be verified annually for
each quality system matrix, method and analyte according to the procedure
specified in 1VAC30-45-760 B 1.
C. Limit of quantitation (LOQ).
1. Any established LOQ shall be above the LOD.
2. The LOQ shall be verified annually for each quality system
matrix, method and analyte according to the procedure specified in
1VAC30-45-760 B 2. Alternatively, the annual LOQ verification is not required
if the LOD is reevaluated or verified according to subdivision B [ 4
3 ] of this section.
1VAC30-45-775. Chemical testing: constant and consistent test
conditions.
A. The laboratory shall assure that the test instruments
consistently operate within the specifications required of the application for
which the equipment is used.
B. Glassware cleaning. Glassware shall be cleaned to meet
the sensitivity of the test method.
C. B. Any cleaning and storage procedures that
are not specified by the test method shall be documented in laboratory records
and SOPs.
1VAC30-45-780. Toxicity testing: general. (Repealed.)
These standards apply to laboratories measuring the
toxicity and/or bioaccumulation of contaminants in effluents (aquatic
toxicity), receiving waters, sediments, elutriates, leachates and soils. In
addition to the essential quality control standards set out in 1VAC30-45-781
through 1VAC30-45-788, some methods may have additional or other requirements
based on factors such as the type of quality system matrix evaluated.
1VAC30-45-781. Toxicity testing: positive and negative
controls. (Repealed.)
A. Positive control. Reference toxicant tests demonstrate
a laboratory's ability to obtain consistent results with the test method and
evaluate the overall health and sensitivity of test organisms over time.
1. The laboratory shall demonstrate its ability to obtain
consistent results with standard reference toxicants (SRT) and complete an
initial Demonstration of Capability (DOC) in order to attain accreditation in
toxicity testing methods.
a. An initial DOC shall consist of five or more acceptable
SRT tests for each test method, species and endpoint with different batches of
organisms. Appropriate negative controls (water, sediment, or soil) shall be
tested at the frequency and duration specified in the test method. Initial DOCs
shall be prepared in accordance with the requirements of 1VAC30-45-730 F.
b. Initial DOC is established by maintenance of SRT test
results on control charts. A laboratory shall record the control performance
and statistical endpoints (such as NOEC or ECp) for each method species and
endpoint on control charts. Initial DOC is established where 95% of the test
results required in subdivision A 1 a of this section fall within the control
limits established in accordance with subdivision A 1 c of this section and
meet test acceptability criteria (TAC). The laboratory shall evaluate precision
(i.e., coefficient of variation (CV)) or sensitivity (i.e., statistical minimum
significant difference (SMSD) measures; see subdivision A 1 d of this section)
for these tests against method-specific or, lacking the former,
laboratory-derived criteria to determine validity of the initial DOC.
c. For endpoints that are point estimates (ICp, ECp),
control charts are constructed by plotting the cumulative mean and the control
limits that consist of the upper and lower 95% confidence limits (+/- 2 standard
deviations). In case of highly variable point estimates that exceed
method-specific criteria, the control chart limits are adjusted accordingly.
For endpoints from hypothesis tests (NOEC, NOAEC), the values are plotted
directly and the control limits consist of one concentration interval above and
below the concentration representing the central tendency (i.e., the mode).
d. For endpoints that are point estimates, the cumulative
mean CV is calculated and for endpoints from hypothesis tests, the SMSD is
calculated. These values are maintained on a control chart.
2. Ongoing laboratory performance shall be demonstrated by
routine SRT testing for each test method and species and endpoint in accordance
with the minimum frequency requirements specified in subdivision A 3 of this
section.
a. Intralaboratory precision is determined on an ongoing
basis through the use of control charts as established in subdivision A 1 b of
this section. The control charts shall be plotted as point estimate values,
such as EC25 for chronic tests and LC50 for acute tests, or as appropriate
hypothesis test values, such as the NOEC or NOAEC, over time within a
laboratory.
b. After initial laboratory DOC is determined, the control
limits and CV for an individual test method, endpoints and species shall be
adjusted as additional test results are obtained. After 20 data points are
collected for a test method and species, the control chart is maintained using
only the last 20 data points, i.e., each successive mean value and control limit
is calculated using only the last 20 values.
c. Control chart limits are expected to be exceeded
occasionally regardless of how well a laboratory performs. Acceptance limits
for point estimates (ICp, ECp) that are based on 95% confidence limits should theoretically
be exceeded for one in 20 tests. Depending on the dilution factor and test
sensitivity, control charts based on hypothesis test values (NOEC, NOAEC) may
be expected to be exceeded on a similar frequency. Test results that fall
outside of control chart limits at a frequency of 5.0% or less, or that fall
just outside control chart limits (especially in the case of highly proficient
laboratories that may develop relatively narrow acceptance limits over time),
are not rejected de facto. Such data are evaluated in comparison with control
chart characteristics including the width of the acceptance limits and the
degree of departure of the value from acceptance limits.
d. Consistent with the test methods used, laboratories
shall develop acceptance/rejection policies for SRT data that consider the
source of test organisms, the direction of the deviation, test dilution factor,
test sensitivity (for hypothesis test values), testing frequency,
out-of-control test frequency, relative width of acceptance limits, inter-test
CV, and degree of difference between test results and acceptance limits.
e. In the case of reference toxicant data that fails to
meet control chart acceptance criteria, the test data are examined for defects,
corrective action taken, and the test repeated if necessary, using a different
batch of organisms or the data is qualified.
3. The frequency of ongoing laboratory reference toxicant
testing shall be as follows unless the method specifically requires less
frequent SRT tests (e.g., sediment tests):
a. For test methods conducted at a frequency of monthly or
greater, SRT tests shall be conducted at an ongoing frequency of monthly.
b. For test methods and species commonly used in the
laboratory, but that are tested at a frequency of less than monthly, SRT tests
shall be conducted concurrently with the environmental test.
c. If the test organisms are obtained from an outside
source the sensitivity of each batch of organisms received from a supplier
shall be determined via a concurrent SRT test unless the supplier can provide
control chart data for the last five SRT tests using the same SRT and test
conditions. Supplied SRT data may not be older than six months.
d. The DOC for an analyst shall be consistent with
1VAC30-45-220 B but the frequency need not exceed the method-specified
requirements and subdivision A 3 a and A 3 b of this section.
4. These standards do not currently specify a particular
reference toxicant and dilution series. If the permitting authority identifies
a reference toxicant or dilution series for a particular test, the laboratory
shall follow the specified requirements. All reference toxicant tests conducted
for a given test method and species shall use the same reference toxicant, test
concentrations, dilution water and data analysis methods. A dilution factor of
0.5x or greater shall be used for both acute and chronic tests.
5. The reference toxicant tests shall be conducted
following the same procedures as the environmental toxicity tests for which the
precision is being evaluated, unless otherwise specified in the test method
(for example, 10-day sediment tests employ 96-h water-only reference toxicant
tests). The test duration, laboratory dilution water, feeding, organism age,
range and density, test volumes, renewal frequency, water quality measurements,
and the number of test concentrations, replicates and organisms per replicate
shall be the same as specified for the environmental toxicity test.
B. Negative control: control, brine control, control
sediment, control soil or dilution water.
1. The standards for the use, type and frequency of testing
of negative controls are specified by the test methods and by permit or
regulation and shall be followed. A negative control is included with each test
to evaluate test performance and the health and sensitivity of the specific
batch of organisms.
2. Appropriate additional negative controls shall be
included when sample adjustments (for example, addition of thiosulfate for
dechlorination) or solvent carriers are used in the test.
3. Test acceptability criteria (TAC). The test
acceptability criteria specified in the test method shall be achieved for both
the reference toxicant and the effluent or environmental sample toxicity test.
The criteria shall be calculated and shall meet the method specified
requirements for performing toxicity tests.
1VAC30-45-782. Toxicity testing: variability and/or
reproducibility. (Repealed.)
Intralaboratory precision shall be determined on an
ongoing basis through the use of further reference toxicant tests and related
control charts as described in 1VAC30-45-840 A.
1VAC30-45-783. Toxicity testing: accuracy. (Repealed.)
This principle is not applicable to toxicity testing.
1VAC30-45-784. Toxicity testing: test sensitivity. (Repealed.)
A. The statistical minimum significant difference (SMSD)
shall be calculated according to the formula specified by the test method and
reported with the test results.
B. Point estimates: (LCp, ICp, or ECp) Confidence
intervals shall be reported as a measure of the precision around the point
estimate value, when the calculation is possible.
C. The SMSD shall be calculated and reported for only
hypothesis test values, such as the NOEC or NOAEC.
1VAC30-45-785. Toxicity testing: selection of appropriate
statistical analysis methods. (Repealed.)
A. If required, methods of data analysis and endpoints are
specified by language in the regulation, permit or the test method.
B. Dose response curves. The data shall be plotted in the
form of a curve relating the dose of the chemical or concentration of sample to
cumulative percentage of test organisms demonstrating a response such as death.
Evaluation criteria shall be established for interpretation of concentration or
dose response curves.
1VAC30-45-786. Toxicity testing: selection and use of
reagents and standards. (Repealed.)
A. The grade of all reagents used in toxicity tests is
specified in the test method except the reference standard. All reference
standards shall be prepared from chemicals that are analytical reagent grade or
better. The preparation of all standards and reference toxicants shall be
documented.
B. All standards and reagents associated with chemical
measurements, such as dissolved oxygen, pH or specific conductance, shall
comply with the standards outlined in 1VAC30-45-740 D 1 d.
C. Only reagent-grade water collected from distillation or
deionization units is used to prepare reagents.
1VAC30-45-787. Toxicity testing: selectivity. (Repealed.)
The permit or regulation specifies the selectivity of the test.
1VAC30-45-788. Toxicity testing: constant and consistent
test conditions. (Repealed.)
A. If closed refrigerator-sized incubators are used,
culturing and testing of organisms shall be separated to avoid cross-contamination.
B. Laboratory space shall be adequate for the types and
numbers of tests performed. The building shall provide adequate cooling,
heating and illumination for conducting testing and culturing; hot and cold
running water shall be available for cleaning equipment.
C. Air used for aeration of test solutions, dilution
waters and cultures shall be free of oil and fumes.
D. The laboratory or a contracted outside expert shall
positively identify test organisms to species on an annual basis. The taxonomic
reference (citation and page(s)) and the names(s) of the taxonomic expert(s)
shall be kept on file at the laboratory. When organisms are obtained from an
outside source, the supplier shall provide this same information.
E. Instruments used for routine support measurements of
chemical and physical parameters such as pH, DO, conductivity, salinity,
alkalinity, hardness, chlorine, ammonia, and weight shall be calibrated, and/or
standardized per manufacturer's instructions. As these are support
measurements, only the calibration and verification requirements specified at
1VAC30-45-740 D 1 apply. All measurements and calibrations shall be documented.
F. Test temperature shall be maintained as specified for
the test method. Temperature control equipment shall be adequate to maintain
the required test temperature(s). The average daily temperature of the test
solutions shall be maintained within the method-specified range. The minimum
frequency of measurement shall be once per 24-hour period. The test temperature
for continuous-flow toxicity tests shall be recorded and monitored
continuously. Where electronic data loggers are used, temperature shall be
monitored at a frequency sufficient to capture temporal variations of the
environmental control system.
G. Reagent-grade water, prepared by any combination of
distillation, reverse osmosis, ion exchange, activated carbon and particle
filtration, shall meet the method specified requirements.
H. The quality of the standard dilution water used for
testing or culturing shall be sufficient to allow satisfactory survival, growth
and reproduction of the test species as demonstrated by routine reference
toxicant tests and negative control performance. Water used for culturing and
testing shall be analyzed for toxic metals and organics whenever the minimum
acceptability criteria for control survival, growth or reproduction are not met
and no other cause, such as contaminated glassware or poor stock, can be
identified. It is recognized that the analyte lists of some methods manuals may
not include all potential toxicants, are based on estimates of chemical
toxicity available at the time of publication and may specify detection limits
that are not achievable in all matrices. However, for those analytes not
listed, or for which the measured concentration or limit of detection is
greater than the method-specified limit, the laboratory shall demonstrate that
the analyte at the measured concentration or reported limit of detection does
not exceed one-tenth of the expected chronic value for the most sensitive
species tested and/or cultured. The expected chronic value is based on
professional judgment and the best available scientific data. The "USEPA
Ambient Water Quality Criteria Documents" and the EPA AQUIRE database
provide guidance and data on acceptability and toxicity of individual metals
and organic compounds.
I. The quality of the food used for testing or culturing
shall be sufficient to allow satisfactory survival, growth and reproduction of
the test species as demonstrated by routine reference toxicant tests and negative
control performance. The laboratory shall have written procedures for the
evaluation of food acceptance.
J. A subset of organisms used in bioaccumulation tests
shall be analyzed at the start of the test (baseline) for the target compounds
to be measured in the bioaccumulation tests.
K. Test chamber size and test solution volume shall be as
specified in the test method. All test chambers used in a test shall be
identical.
L. Test organisms shall be fed the quantity and type food
or nutrients specified in the test method. They shall also be fed at the
intervals specified in the test methods.
M. All organisms in a test shall be from the same source.
Where available certified seeds are used for soil tests.
N. All organisms used in tests, or used as broodstock to
produce neonate test organisms (for example cladocerans and larval fish), shall
appear healthy, show no signs of stress or disease and exhibit acceptable
survival (90% or greater) during the 24-hour period immediately preceding use
in tests.
O. All materials used for test chambers, culture tanks,
tubing, etc., and coming in contact with test samples, solutions, control
water, sediment or soil or food shall be nontoxic and cleaned as described in
the test methods. Materials shall not reduce or add to sample toxicity.
Appropriate materials for use in toxicity testing and culturing are described
in the referenced manuals.
P. Light intensity shall be maintained as specified in the
methods manuals. Measurements shall be made and recorded on a yearly basis. Photoperiod
shall be maintained as specified in the test methods and shall be documented at
least quarterly. For algal and plant tests, the light intensity shall be
measured and recorded at the start of each test.
Q. The testing laboratory shall document the health and
culturing conditions of all organisms used for testing. Such documentation
shall include culture conditions (e.g., salinity, hardness, temperature, pH)
and observations of any stress, disease or mortality. When organisms are
obtained from an outside source, the laboratory shall obtain written
documentation of these water quality parameters and biological observations for
each lot of organism received. These observations shall adequately address the
24-hour time period referenced in subsection N of this section. The laboratory
shall also record each of these observations and water quality parameters upon
the arrival of the organisms at the testing laboratory.
R. Age and the age range of the test organisms shall be as
specified in the test method. Supporting information, such as hatch dates and
times, times of brood releases and metrics (for example, chironomid head
capsule width) shall be documented.
S. The maximum holding time of effluents (elapsed time
from sample collection to first use in a test) shall not exceed 36 hours;
samples may be used for renewal up to 72 hours after first use except as
prescribed by the method and approved by the regulatory agency having authority
for program oversight.
T. All samples shall be chilled to 0 to 6°C during or
immediately after collection except as prescribed by the method.
U. Organisms used in a given test shall be from the same
batch.
V. All tests shall have the minimum number of replicates
per treatment as prescribed by the method.
W. The control population of Ceriodaphnia in chronic
effluent or receiving water tests shall contain no more than 20% males.
X. The culturing of C. dubia shall be adequate such that
blocking by parentage can be established.
Y. Dissolved oxygen and pH in aquatic tests shall be
within acceptable range at test initiation and aeration (minimal) is provided
to tests if, and only if, acceptable dissolved oxygen concentrations cannot be
otherwise maintained or if specified by the test method.
Z. Test soils or sediments shall be within the geochemical
tolerance range of the test organism.
AA. An individual test may be conditionally acceptable if
temperature, dissolved oxygen, pH and other specified conditions fall outside
specifications, depending on the degree of the departure and the objectives of
the tests (see test conditions and test acceptability criteria specified for
each test method).
1VAC30-45-791. Microbiology testing: sterility checks and
blanks, positive and negative controls.
A. Sterility checks and blanks. The laboratory shall
demonstrate that the filtration equipment and filters, sample containers, media
and reagents have not been contaminated through improper handling or
preparation, inadequate sterilization, or environmental exposure.
1. A sterility blank shall be analyzed for each lot of
pre-prepared, ready-to-use medium (including chromofluorogenic reagent) and for
each batch of medium prepared in the laboratory. This shall be done prior to
first use of the medium.
2. For filtration technique, the laboratory shall conduct one
beginning and one ending sterility check for each laboratory sterilized
filtration unit used in a filtration series. The filtration series may
include single or multiple filtration units, which have been sterilized prior
to beginning the series. For presterilized single use funnels a sterility check
shall be performed on one funnel per lot. The filtration series is considered
ended when more than 30 minutes elapses between successive filtrations. During
a filtration series, filter funnels shall be rinsed with three 20-30 ml
portions of sterile rinse water after each sample filtration. In addition,
laboratories shall insert a sterility blank after every 10 samples or sanitize
filtration units by UV light after each sample filtration.
3. For pour plate technique, sterility blanks of the medium
shall be made by pouring, at a minimum, one uninoculated plate for each lot of
pre-prepared, ready-to-use media and for each batch of medium prepared in the
laboratory.
4. Sterility checks on sample containers shall be performed on
at least one container for each lot of purchased, presterilized containers with
nonselective growth media. For containers prepared and sterilized in the
laboratory, a sterility check shall be performed on one container per sterilized
batch with nonselective growth media.
5. A sterility blank shall be performed on each batch of
dilution water prepared in the laboratory and on each batch of pre-prepared,
ready-to-use dilution water with nonselective growth media.
6. At least one filter from each new lot of membrane filters
shall be checked for sterility with nonselective growth media.
B. Positive controls.
1. Positive culture controls demonstrate that the medium can
support the growth of the target [ organism(s) organism ],
and that the medium produces the specified or expected reaction to the target
[ organism(s) organism ].
2. Each preprepared, ready-to-use lot of medium (including
chromofluorogenic reagent) and each batch of medium prepared in the laboratory
shall be tested and demonstrate a known positive response. This shall be done
prior to first use of the medium.
C. Negative controls. The provisions of this subsection shall
not apply to wastewater treatment plants.
1. Negative culture controls demonstrate that the medium does
not support the growth of [ non-target nontarget ]
organisms or does not demonstrate the typical positive reaction of the target organism(s)
organism or organisms.
2. Each pre-prepared, ready-to-use lot of selective medium
(including chromofluorogenic reagent) and each batch of selective medium
prepared in the laboratory shall be analyzed with one or more known negative
culture controls, (i.e., nontarget organisms,) as
appropriate to the method. This shall be done prior to first use of the medium.
1VAC30-45-796. Microbiology testing: quality of standards,
reagents, and media.
A. The laboratory shall ensure that the quality of the
reagents and media used is appropriate for the test concerned.
B. Culture media may be prepared from commercial dehydrated
powders or may be purchased ready to use. The laboratory may prepare media from
basic ingredients when commercial media are not available or when it can be
demonstrated that commercial media do not provide adequate results. Media
prepared by the laboratory from basic ingredients shall be tested for
performance (e.g., for selectivity, sensitivity, sterility, growth promotion,
growth inhibition) prior to first use. Detailed testing criteria information
shall be defined in either the laboratory's test methods, SOPs, quality manual,
or similar documentation.
C. Reagents, commercial dehydrated powders and media shall be
used within the shelf-life of the product and shall be documented according to
1VAC30-45-730 J.
D. Distilled water, deionized water or reverse osmosis
produced water free from bactericidal and inhibitory substances shall be used
in the preparation of media, solutions and buffers. The quality of the water
shall be monitored for chlorine residual, specific conductance, and
heterotrophic bacteria plate count monthly (when in use), when maintenance is
performed on the water treatment system, or at startup after a period of disuse
longer than one month.
E. Analysis for metals and the Bacteriological Water Quality
Test (to determine presence of toxic agents or growth promoting substances)
shall be performed annually. Results of these analyses shall meet the
specifications of the required method and records of analyses shall be
maintained for three years. (An exception to performing the Bacteriological
Water Quality Test shall be given to laboratories that can supply documentation
to show that their water source meets the criteria, as specified by the method,
for Type I or Type II reagent water.)
F. Media, solutions and reagents shall be prepared, used and
stored according to a documented procedure following the manufacturer's
instructions or the test method. Documentation for media prepared in the
laboratory shall include date of preparation, preparer's initials, type and
amount of media prepared, manufacturer and lot number, final pH of the media,
and expiration date. Documentation for media purchased pre-prepared, ready to
use shall include manufacturer, lot number, type and amount of media
received, date of receipt, expiration date of the media, and pH of the media.
1VAC30-45-798. Microbiology testing: constant and consistent
test conditions.
A. Laboratory facilities. Floors and work surfaces shall be
nonabsorbent and easy to clean and disinfect. Work surfaces shall be adequately
sealed. Laboratories shall provide sufficient storage space, and shall be clean
and free from dust accumulation. Plants, food, and drink shall be prohibited
from the laboratory work area.
B. Laboratory equipment.
1. Temperature measuring devices. Temperature measuring
devices such as liquid-in-glass thermometers, thermocouples, and platinum
resistance thermometers used in incubators, autoclaves and other equipment
shall be the appropriate quality to meet specification(s) specifications
in the test method. The graduation of the temperature measuring devices shall
be appropriate for the required accuracy of measurement and they shall be
calibrated to national or international standards for temperature (see
1VAC30-45-740 C). Calibration shall be done at least annually.
2. Autoclaves.
a. The performance of each autoclave shall be initially
evaluated by establishing its functional properties and performance, for
example, heat distribution characteristics with respect to typical uses.
Autoclaves shall meet specified temperature tolerances. Pressure cookers shall
not be used for sterilization of growth media.
b. Demonstration of sterilization temperature shall be
provided by use of continuous temperature recording device or by use of a
maximum registering thermometer with every cycle. Appropriate biological
indicators shall be used once per month to determine effective sterilization.
Temperature sensitive tape shall be used with the contents of each autoclave
run to indicate that the autoclave contents have been processed.
c. Records of autoclave operations shall be maintained for
every cycle. Records shall include date, contents, maximum temperature reached,
pressure, time in sterilization mode, total run time (may be recorded as time
in and time out) and analyst's initials.
d. Autoclave maintenance shall be performed annually,
either internally or by service contract, shall be performed annually
and shall include a pressure check and calibration of temperature device.
Records of the maintenance shall be maintained in equipment logs. If the
laboratory demonstrates regular monitoring of pressure (e.g., for each
autoclaved batch) and annual calibration of the maximum registering
thermometer, the annual autoclave pressure and temperature device checks shall
not be required.
e. The autoclave mechanical timing device shall be checked
quarterly against a stopwatch and the actual time elapsed documented.
3. Volumetric equipment. Volumetric equipment shall be
calibrated as follows:
a. Equipment with movable parts such as automatic dispensers,
dispensers/diluters, and mechanical hand pipettes shall be verified for
accuracy quarterly.
b. Equipment such as filter funnels, bottles, nonclass A
glassware, and other marked containers shall be calibrated once per lot prior
to first use.
c. The volume of the disposable volumetric equipment such as
sample bottles and disposable pipettes shall be checked once per lot.
4. UV instruments. UV instruments used for sanitization shall
be tested quarterly for effectiveness with an appropriate UV light meter or by
plate count agar spread plates. Replace bulbs if output is less than 70% of
original for light tests or if count reduction is less than 99% for a plate
containing 200 to 300 organisms.
5. Conductivity meters, oxygen meters, pH meters, hygrometers,
and other similar measurement instruments shall be calibrated according to the
method specified requirements (see 1VAC30-45-740 D 1 d).
6. Incubators, water baths, and ovens.
a. The stability and uniformity of temperature
distribution and time required after test sample addition to reestablish
equilibrium conditions in incubators and water baths shall be established.
Temperature of incubators and water baths shall be documented twice daily, at
least four hours apart, on each day of use.
b. Ovens used for sterilization shall be checked for
sterilization effectiveness monthly with appropriate biological indicators.
Records shall be maintained for each cycle that include date, cycle time,
temperature, contents and analyst's initials.
7. Labware (glassware and plasticware).
a. The laboratory shall have a documented procedure for
washing labware, if applicable. Detergents designed for laboratory use shall be
used.
b. Glassware shall be made of borosilicate or other
noncorrosive material, free of chips and cracks, and shall have readable
measurement marks.
c. Labware that is washed and reused shall be tested for
possible presence of residues that may inhibit or promote growth of
microorganisms by performing the Inhibitory Residue Test annually, and each
time the lab changes the lot of detergent or washing procedures.
d. Washed labware shall be tested at least once daily, each
day of washing, for possible acid or alkaline residue by testing at least one
piece of labware with a suitable pH indicator such as bromothymol blue. Records
of tests shall be maintained.
1VAC30-45-800. Radiochemical testing: general. (Repealed.)
These standards apply to laboratories undertaking the
examination of environmental samples by radiochemical analysis. These
procedures for radiochemical analysis may involve some form of chemical
separation followed by detection of the radioactive decay of analyte (or
indicative daughters) and tracer isotopes where used. For the purpose of these
standards, procedures for the determination of radioactive isotopes by mass spectrometry
(e.g., ICP-MS or TIMS) or optical (e.g., KPA) techniques are not addressed
herein.
1VAC30-45-801. Radiochemical testing: negative and positive
controls. (Repealed.)
A. Negative controls.
1. Method blank shall be performed at a frequency of one
per preparation batch. The results of this analysis shall be one of the quality
control measures to be used to assess the batch. The method blank result shall
be assessed against the specific acceptance criteria specified in the
laboratory method manual. When the specified method blank acceptance criteria
is not met, the specified corrective action and contingencies shall be followed
and results reported with appropriate data qualifying codes. The occurrence of
a failed method blank acceptance criteria and the actions taken shall be noted
in the laboratory report.
2. In the case of gamma spectrometry, generally a
nondestructive analysis, a method blank shall be prepared using a calibrated
counting geometry similar to that used for the samples. The container of the
appropriate geometry can be empty or filled to similar volume to partially
simulate gamma attenuation due to a sample matrix.
3. There shall be no subtraction of the required method
blank result from the sample results in the associated preparation or analytical
batch unless permitted by method or program. This does not preclude the
application of any correction factor (e.g., instrument background, analyte
presence in tracer, reagent impurities, peak overlap, etc.) to all analyzed
samples, both program/project submitted and internal quality control samples.
However, these correction factors shall not depend on the required method blank
result in the associated analytical batch.
4. The method blank sample shall be prepared with similar
aliquot size to that of the routine samples for analysis and the method blank
result and acceptance criteria shall be calculated in a manner that compensates
for sample results based upon differing aliquot size.
B. Positive controls.
1. Laboratory control samples shall be performed at a
frequency of one per preparation batch. The results of this analysis shall be
one of the quality control measures to be used to assess the batch. The
laboratory control sample result shall be assessed against the specific
acceptance criteria specified in the laboratory method manual. When the
specified laboratory control sample acceptance criteria is not met the
specified corrective action and contingencies shall be followed. The occurrence
of a failed laboratory control sample acceptance criteria and the actions taken
shall be noted in the laboratory report.
2. Matrix spike shall be performed at a frequency of one
per preparation batch for those methods that include a chemical separation
process without the use of an internal standard or carrier, and where there is
sufficient sample to do so. Although gross alpha, gross beta and tritium
measurements do not involve a chemical separation process, matrix spikes shall
be performed for these analyses on aqueous samples. The results of this analysis
shall be one of the quality control measures to be used to assess the batch.
The matrix spike result shall be assessed against the specific acceptance
criteria specified in the laboratory method manual. When the specified matrix
spike acceptance criteria is not met, the specified corrective action and
contingencies shall be followed. The occurrence of a failed matrix spike
acceptance criteria and the actions taken shall be noted in the laboratory
report. The lack of sufficient sample aliquot size to perform a matrix spike
shall be noted in the laboratory report.
3. The activity of the laboratory control sample shall (i)
be at least five times the limit of detection and (ii) at a level comparable to
that of routine samples when such information is available if the sample
activities are expected to exceed five times the limit of detection.
4. The activity of the matrix spike analytes(s) shall be
greater than five times the limit of detection.
5. The laboratory standards used to prepare the laboratory
control sample and matrix spike shall be from a source independent of the
laboratory standards used for instrument calibration and shall meet the
requirements for reference standards provided in 1VAC30-45-807 A.
6. The matrix spike shall be prepared by adding a known
activity of target analyte after subsampling if required but before any
chemical treatment (e.g., chemical digestion, dissolution, separation, etc.).
Where a radiochemical method, other than gamma spectroscopy, has more than one
reportable analyte isotope (e.g., plutonium, Pu 238 and Pu 239, using alpha
spectrometry), only one of the analyte isotopes need be included in the
laboratory control or matrix spike sample at the indicated activity level.
However, where more than one analyte isotope is present above the specified
limit of detection, each shall be assessed against the specified acceptance
criteria.
7. Where gamma spectrometry is used to identify and
quantitate more than one analyte isotope, the laboratory control sample shall
contain isotopes that represent the low (e.g., americium-241), medium (e.g.,
cesium-137) and high (e.g., cobalt-60) energy range of the analyzed gamma
spectra. As indicated by these examples the isotopes need not exactly bracket
the calibrated energy range or the range over which isotopes are identified and
quantitated.
8. The laboratory control sample shall be prepared with
similar aliquot size to that of the routine samples for analyses.
C. Other controls.
1. Tracer. For those methods that utilize a tracer (i.e.,
internal standard) each sample result shall have an associated tracer recovery
calculated and reported. The tracer shall be added to the sample after
subsampling if required but before any chemical treatment (e.g., chemical
digestion, dissolution, separation, etc.) unless otherwise specified by the
method. The tracer recovery for each sample result shall be one of the quality
control measures to be used to assess the associated sample result acceptance.
The tracer recovery shall be assessed against the specific acceptance criteria
specified in the laboratory method manual. When the specified tracer recovery
acceptance criteria is not met the specified corrective action and
contingencies shall be followed. The occurrence of a failed tracer recovery
acceptance criteria and the actions taken shall be noted in the laboratory
report.
2. Carrier. For those methods that utilize a carrier for
recovery determination, each sample shall have an associated carrier recovery
calculated and reported. The carrier shall be added to the sample after
subsampling if required but before any chemical treatment (e.g., chemical
digestion, dissolution, separation, etc.) unless otherwise specified by the
method. The carrier recovery for each sample shall be one of the quality
control measures to be used to assess the associated sample result acceptance.
The carrier recovery shall be assessed against the specific acceptance criteria
specified in the laboratory method manual. When the specified carrier recovery
acceptance criteria is not met the specified corrective action and
contingencies shall be followed. The occurrence of a failed carrier recovery
acceptance criteria and the actions taken shall be noted in the laboratory
report.
1VAC30-45-802. Radiochemical testing: analytical
variability/reproducibility. (Repealed.)
A. Replicate shall be performed at a frequency of one per
preparation batch where there is sufficient sample to do so. The results of
this analysis shall be one of the quality control measures to be used to assess
batch acceptance. The replicate result shall be assessed against the specific
acceptance criteria specified in the laboratory method manual. When the
specified replicate acceptance criteria is not met the specified corrective
action and contingencies shall be followed. The occurrence of a failed
replicate acceptance criteria and the actions taken shall be noted in the
laboratory report.
B. For low level samples (less than approximately three
times the limit of detection) the laboratory may analyze duplicate laboratory
control samples or a replicate matrix spike (matrix spike and a matrix spike
duplicate) to determine reproducibility within a preparation batch.
1VAC30-45-803. Radiochemical testing: method evaluation.
(Repealed.)
In order to ensure the accuracy of the reported result,
the following procedures shall be in place:
1. Initial demonstration of capability shall be performed
initially (prior to the analysis of any samples) and with a significant change
in instrument type (e.g., different detection technique), personnel or method.
2. Proficiency test samples. The laboratory shall use the
results of such analysis to evaluate its ability to produce accurate data.
1VAC30-45-804. Radiochemical testing: radiation measurement
instrumentation. (Repealed.)
A. General. Because of the stability and response nature
of modern radiation measurement instrumentation, it is not typically necessary
to verify calibrate these systems each day of use. However, verification of
calibration is required as outlined in subsection B of this section. This
section addresses those practices that are necessary for proper calibration and
those requirements of 1VAC30-45-740 D (instrument calibrations) that are not
applicable to some types of radiation measurement instrumentation.
B. Instrument calibration.
1. Given that activity detection efficiency is independent
of sample activity at all but extreme activity levels, the requirements of
1VAC30-45-740 D 2 b (7) are not applicable to radiochemical method calibrations
except mass attenuation in gas-proportional counting and sample quench in
liquid scintillation counting. Radiation measurement instruments are subject to
calibration prior to initial use, when the instrument is placed back in service
after malfunctioning and the instrument's response has changed as determined by
a performance check or when the instrument's response exceeds predetermined
acceptance criteria for the instrument quality control.
2. Instrument calibration shall be performed with reference
standards as defined in 1VAC30-45-807 A. The standards shall have the same
general characteristics (i.e., geometry, homogeneity, density, etc.) as the
associated samples.
3. The frequency of calibration shall be addressed in the
laboratory method manual if not specified in the method. A specific frequency
(e.g., monthly) or observations from the associated control or tolerance chart,
as the basis for calibration shall be specified.
C. Continuing instrument calibration verification
(performance checks). Performance checks shall be performed using appropriate
check sources and monitored with control charts or tolerance charts to ensure
that the instrument is operating properly and that the detector response has
not significantly changed and, therefore, the instrument calibration has not
changed. The same check source used in the preparation of the tolerance chart
or control chart at the time of calibration shall be used in the calibration
verification of the instrument. The check sources shall provide adequate
counting statistics for a relatively short count time and the source should be
sealed or encapsulated to prevent loss of activity and contamination of the
instrument and laboratory personnel.
1. For gamma spectroscopy systems, the performance checks
for efficiency and energy calibration shall be performed on a day-of-use basis
along with performance checks on peak resolution.
2. For alpha spectroscopy systems, the performance check
for energy calibration shall be performed on a weekly basis and the performance
check for counting efficiency shall be performed on at least a monthly basis.
3. For gas-proportional and liquid scintillation counters,
the performance check for counting efficiency shall be performed on a
day-of-use basis. For batches of samples that uninterruptedly count for more
than a day a performance check can be performed at the beginning and end of the
batch as long as this time interval is no greater than one week. Verification
of instrument calibration does not directly verify secondary calibrations,
e.g., the mass efficiency curve or the quench curve.
4. For scintillation counters the calibration verification
for counting efficiency shall be performed on a day of use basis.
D. Background measurement. Background measurements shall
be made on a regular basis and monitored using control charts or tolerance
charts to ensure that a laboratory maintains its capability to meet required
data quality objectives. These values may be subtracted from the total measured
activity in the determination of the sample activity.
1. For gamma spectroscopy systems, background measurements
shall be performed on at least a monthly basis.
2. For alpha spectroscopy systems, background measurements
shall be performed on at least a monthly basis.
3. For gas-proportional counters, background measurements
shall be performed on at least on a weekly basis.
4. For scintillation counters, background measurements
shall be performed each day of use.
E. Instrument contamination monitoring. The laboratory
shall have a written procedure for monitoring radiation measurement instrumentation
for radioactive contamination. The procedure shall indicate the frequency of
the monitoring and shall indicate criteria, which initiates corrective action.
1VAC30-45-805. Radiochemical testing: Minimum detectable
activity (MDA)/Minimum detectable concentration (MDC)/Lower level of detection
(LLD). (Repealed.)
A. MDA/MDC/LLD shall be determined prior to sample
analysis and shall be redetermined each time there is a significant change in
the test method or instrument type.
B. The procedures employed shall be documented and
consistent with mandated method or regulation.
1VAC30-45-806. Radiochemical testing: data reduction. (Repealed.)
A. The requirements of 1VAC30-45-730 K apply.
B. Measurement uncertainties. Each result shall be
reported with the associated measurement uncertainty. The procedures for
determining the measurement uncertainty shall be documented and be consistent
with mandated method and regulation.
1VAC30-45-807. Radiochemical testing: quality of standards
and reagents. (Repealed.)
A. The quality control program shall establish and
maintain provisions for radionuclide standards.
1. Reference standards that are used in a radiochemical
laboratory shall be obtained from the National Institute of Standards and
Technology (NIST), or suppliers who participate in supplying NIST standards or
NIST traceable radionuclides. Any reference standards purchased outside the
United States shall be traceable back to each country's national standards
laboratory. Commercial suppliers of reference standards shall conform to ANSI
N42.22 to assure the quality of their products.
2. Reference standards shall be accompanied with a
certificate of calibration whose content is as described in ANSI N42.22 - 1995,
Section 8, Certificates.
3. Laboratories should consult with the supplier if the
laboratory's verification of the activity of the reference traceable standard
indicates a noticeable deviation from the certified value. The laboratory shall
not use a value other than the decay corrected certified value. The laboratory
shall have a written procedure for handling, storing and establishment of
expiration dates for reference standards.
B. All reagents used shall be analytical reagent grade or
better.
1VAC30-45-808. Radiochemical testing: constant and
consistent test conditions. (Repealed.)
The laboratory shall maintain a radiological control
program that addresses analytical radiological control. The program shall
address the procedures for segregating samples with potentially widely varying
levels of radioactivity. The radiological control program shall explicitly
define how low level and high level samples will be identified, segregated and
processed in order to prevent sample cross-contamination. The radiological
control program shall include the measures taken to monitor and evaluate
background activity or contamination on an ongoing basis.
1VAC30-45-811. Air testing: negative and positive controls.
A. Negative controls.
1. Method blanks shall be performed at a frequency of at least
one per batch of 20 environmental samples or less per sample preparation
method. The results of the method blank analysis shall be used to evaluate the
contribution of the laboratory provided sampling media and analytical sample
preparation procedures to the amount of analyte found in each sample. If the
method blank result is greater than the limit of quantitation and contributes
greater than 10% of the total amount of analyte found in the sample, the source
of the contamination shall be investigated and measures taken to eliminate the
source of contamination. If contamination is found, the data shall be qualified
in the report.
2. Collection efficiency. Sampling trains consisting of
multiple sections (e.g., filters, sorbent tubes, impingers) that are received
intact by the laboratory shall be separated into "front" and
"back" sections if required by the client. Each section shall be
processed and analyzed separately and the analytical results reported
separately.
B. Positive controls. Laboratory control sample (LCS) shall
be analyzed at a rate of at least one per batch of 20 or fewer samples per
sample preparation method for each analyte. If a spiking solution is not
available, a calibration solution whose concentration approximates that of the
samples shall be included in each batch and with each lot of media. If a
calibration solution must be used for the LCS, the client will be notified
prior to the start of analysis. The concentration of the LCS shall be
relevant to the intended use of the data and either at a regulatory limit or below
it.
C. Surrogates shall be used as required by the test method.
D. Matrix spike shall be used as required by the test method.
1VAC30-45-820. Asbestos testing: general. (Repealed.)
These standards apply to laboratories undertaking the
examination of asbestos samples. These standards are organized by analytical
technique, including transmission electron microscopy (TEM) for the analysis of
water, wastewater, air, and bulk samples; phase contrast microscopy (PCM) for
analysis of workplace air; and polarized light microscopy (PLM) for analysis of
bulk samples. These procedures for asbestos analysis involve sample preparation
followed by detection of asbestos. If NIST SRMs specified below are
unavailable, the laboratory may substitute an equivalent reference material
with a certificate of analysis.
1VAC30-45-821. Asbestos testing: negative controls. (Repealed.)
A. Transmission electron microscopy.
1. Water and wastewater.
a. Blank determinations shall be made prior to sample
collection. When using polyethylene bottles, one bottle from each batch, or a
minimum of one from each 24 shall be tested for background level. When using
glass bottles, four bottles from each 24 shall be tested. An acceptable bottle
blank level is defined as =0.01 MFL > 10 µm. (EPA/600/R-94/134,
Method 100.2, Section 8.2)
b. A process blank sample consisting of fiber-free water
shall be run before the first field sample. The quantity of water shall be
=10 mL for a 25-mm diameter filter and = 50 mL for a 47-mm diameter
filter. (EPA/600/R-94/134, Method 100.2, Section 11.8)
2. Air.
a. A blank filter shall be prepared with each set of
samples. A blank filter shall be left uncovered during preparation of the
sample set and a wedge from that blank filter shall be prepared alongside
wedges from the sample filters. At minimum, the blank filter shall be analyzed
for each 20 samples analyzed. (40 CFR Part 763, Appendix A to Subpart E
(AHERA), Table 1)
b. Maximum contamination on a single blank filter shall be
no more than 53 structures/mm2. Maximum average contamination for
all blank filters shall be no more than 18 structures/mm2. (AHERA,
III.F.2)
3. Bulk samples.
a. Contamination checks using asbestos-free material, such
as the glass fiber blank in SRM 1866 (Page C-3, NIST Handbook 150-3, August 1994)
shall be performed at a frequency of one for every 20 samples analyzed. The
detection of asbestos at a concentration exceeding 0.1% will require an
investigation to detect and remove the source of the asbestos contamination.
b. The laboratory shall maintain a list of nonasbestos
fibers that can be confused with asbestos (Section 7.5, Page C-8, NIST Handbook
150-3, August 1994). The list shall include crystallographic and/or chemical
properties that disqualify each fiber being identified as asbestos (Section
2.5.5.2.1 Identification, Page 54, EPA/600/R-93/116).
c. The laboratory should have a set of reference asbestos
materials from which a set of reference diffraction and X-ray spectra have been
developed.
B. Phase contrast microscopy. At least two field blanks
(or 10% of the total samples, whichever is greater) shall be submitted for
analysis with each set of samples. Field blanks shall be handled in a manner
representative of actual handling of associated samples in the set with a
single exception that air shall not be drawn through the blank sample. A blank
cassette shall be opened for approximately 30 seconds at the same time other
cassettes are opened just prior to analysis. Results from field blank samples
shall be used in the calculation to determine final airborne fiber
concentration. The identity of blank filters should be unknown to the counter
until all counts have been completed. If a field blank yields greater than
seven fibers per 100 graticule fields, report possible contamination of the samples.
C. Polarized light microscopy.
1. Friable materials. At least one blank slide shall be
prepared daily or with every 50 samples analyzed, whichever is less. This is
prepared by mounting a subsample of an isotropic verified non-ACM (e.g.,
fiberglass in SRM 1866) in a drop of immersion oil (nD should
reflect usage of various nD's) on a clean slide, rubbing preparation
tools (forceps, dissecting needles, etc.) in the mount and placing a clean
coverslip on the drop. The entire area under the coverslip shall be scanned to
detect any asbestos contamination. A similar check shall be made after every 20
uses of each piece of homogenization equipment. An isotropic verified non-ACM
shall be homogenized in the clean equipment, a slide prepared with the material
and the slide scanned for asbestos contamination. (This can be substituted for
the blank slide mentioned in this section.)
2. Nonfriable materials. At least one non-ACM nonfriable
material shall be prepared and analyzed with every 20 samples analyzed. This non-ACM
shall go through the full preparation and analysis regimen for the type of
analysis being performed.
1VAC30-45-822. Asbestos testing: test
variability/reproducibility. (Repealed.)
A. Transmission electron microscopy. Quality assurance
analyses shall be performed regularly covering all time periods, instruments,
tasks, and personnel. The selection of samples shall be random and samples of
special interest may be included in the selection of samples for quality
assurance analyses. When possible, the checks on personnel performance shall be
executed without their prior knowledge. A disproportionate number of analyses
shall not be performed prior to internal or external audits. It is recommended
that a laboratory initially be at 100% quality control (all samples
reanalyzed). The proportion of quality control samples can later be lowered
gradually, as control indicates, to a minimum of 10%.
1. Water and wastewater. All analyses shall be performed on
relocator grids so that other laboratories can easily repeat analyses on the
same grid openings. Quality assurance analyses shall not be postponed during
periods of heavy workloads. The total number of QA samples and blanks shall be
greater than or equal to 10% of the total sample workload. Precision of analyses
is related to concentration, as gleaned from interlaboratory proficiency
testing. Relative standard deviations (RSD) for amphibole asbestos decreased
from 50% at 0.8 MFL to 25% at 7 MFL in interlaboratory proficiency testing,
while RSD for chrysotile was higher, 50% at 6 MFL.
a. Replicate. A second, independent analysis shall be
performed on the same grids but on different grid openings than used in the
original analysis of a sample. Results shall be within 1.5X of Poisson standard
deviation. This shall be performed at a frequency of 1 per 100 samples.
(EPA/600/R-94/134, Method 100.2, Table 2)
b. Duplicate. A second aliquot of sample shall be filtered
through a second filter, prepared and analyzed in the same manner as the
original preparation of that sample. Results shall be within 2.0X of Poisson
standard deviation. This shall be performed at a frequency of one per 100
samples. (EPA/600/R-94/134, Method 100.2, Table 2)
c. Verified analyses. A second, independent analysis shall
be performed on the same grids and grid openings used in the original analysis
of a sample. The two sets of results shall be compared according to Turner and
Steel (NISTIR 5351). This shall be performed at a frequency of one per 20
samples. Qualified analysts shall maintain an average of = 80% true
positives, = 20% false negatives, and = 10% false positives.
2. Air.
a. All analyses shall be performed on relocator grids so
that other laboratories can easily repeat analyses on the same grid openings.
b. The laboratory and TEM analysts shall obtain mean
analytical results on NIST SRM 1876b so that trimmed mean values fall within
80% of the lower limit and 110% of the upper limit of the 95% confidence limits
as published on the certificate. These limits are derived from the allowable false
positives and false negatives given in subdivision A 2 e (3) of this
subsection. SRM 1876b shall be analyzed a minimum of once per year by each TEM
analyst.
c. The laboratory shall have documentation demonstrating
that TEM analysts correctly classify at least 90% of both bundles and single
fibrils of asbestos structures greater than or equal to 1 mm in length in known
standard materials traceable to NIST, such as NIST bulk asbestos SRM 1866.
d. Interlaboratory analyses shall be performed to detect
laboratory bias. The frequency of interlaboratory verified analysis shall
correspond to a minimum of 1 per 200 grid square analyses.
e. If more than one TEM is used for asbestos analysis,
intermicroscope analyses shall be performed to detect instrument bias.
(1) Replicate. A second, independent analysis shall be
performed in accordance with Section D.6.2.1.1.a. (AHERA, Table III)
(2) Duplicate. A second wedge from a sample filter shall be
prepared and analyzed in the same manner as the original preparation of that
sample. Results shall be within 2.0X of Poisson standard deviation. This shall
be performed at a frequency of 1 per 100 samples. (AHERA, Table III)
(3) Verified analyses. A second, independent analysis shall
be performed on the same grids and grid openings in accordance with subdivision
A 1 c of this section.
3. Bulk samples. Determination of precision and accuracy
should follow guidelines in NISTIR 5951, Guide for Quality Control on the
Qualitative and Quantitative Analysis of Bulk Asbestos Samples: Version 1.
Because bulk samples with low (< 10%) asbestos content are the most
problematic, a laboratory's quality control program should focus on such
samples. At least 30% of a laboratory's QC analyses shall be performed on
samples containing from 1.0% to 10% asbestos.
a. Intra-analyst precision. At least one out of 50 samples
shall be reanalyzed by the same analyst. For single analyst laboratories, at
least one out of every 10 samples shall be reanalyzed by the same analyst.
b. Inter-analyst precision. At least one out of 15 samples
shall be reanalyzed by another analyst. Inter-analyst results will require
additional reanalysis, possibly including another analyst, to resolve
discrepancies when classification (ACM vs. non-ACM) errors occur, when asbestos
identification errors occur, or when inter-analyst precision is found to be
unacceptable.
c. Inter-laboratory precision. The laboratory shall
participate in round robin testing with at least one other laboratory. Samples
shall be sent to this other lab at least four times per year. These samples
shall be samples previously analyzed as QC samples. Results of these analyses
shall be assessed in accordance with QC requirements. As a minimum, the QC
requirements shall address misclassifications (false positives, false
negatives) and misidentification of asbestos types.
B. Phase contrast microscopy.
1. Inter-laboratory precision. Each laboratory analyzing
air samples for compliance determination shall implement an inter-laboratory
quality assurance program that as a minimum includes participation of at least
two other independent laboratories. Each laboratory shall participate in round
robin testing at least once every six months with at least all the other
laboratories in its inter-laboratory quality assurance group. Each laboratory
shall submit slides typical of its own workload for use in this program. The
round robin shall be designed and results analyzed using appropriate
statistical methodology. Results of this QA program shall be posted in each
laboratory to keep the microscopists informed.
2. Intra- and inter-analyst precision. Each analyst shall
select and count a prepared slide from a "reference slide library" on
each day on which air counts are performed. Reference slides shall be prepared
using well-behaved samples taken from the laboratory workload. Fiber densities
shall cover the entire range routinely analyzed by the laboratory. These slides
shall be counted by all analysts to establish an original standard deviation
and corresponding limits of acceptability. Results from the daily reference
sample analysis shall be compared to the statistically derived acceptance
limits using a control chart or a database. It is recommended that the labels
on the reference slides be periodically changed so that the analysts do not
become familiar with the samples. Intra- and inter-analyst precision may be
estimated from blind recounts on reference samples. Inter-analyst precision
shall be posted in each laboratory to keep the microscopists informed.
C. Polarized light microscopy. Refer to subdivision A 3 of
this section.
1VAC30-45-823. Asbestos testing: other quality control
measures. (Repealed.)
A. Transmission electron microscopy.
1. Water and wastewater.
a. Filter preparations shall be made from all six asbestos
types from NIST SRMs 1866 and 1867. These preparations shall have
concentrations between one and 20 structures (> 10 µm) per 0.01 mm2.
One of these preparations shall be analyzed independently at a frequency of one
per 100 samples analyzed. Results shall be evaluated as verified asbestos
analysis in accordance with Turner and Steel (NISTIR 5351).
b. NIST SRM 1876b shall be analyzed annually by each
analyst. Results shall be evaluated in accordance with limits published for
that SRM. This SRM is not strictly appropriate for waterborne asbestos but
analysts can demonstrate general TEM asbestos competence by producing results
within the published limits of this (the only recognized TEM counting standard)
SRM.
2. Air.
a. Filter preparations shall be made from all six asbestos
types in accordance with subdivision A 1 a of this section.
b. NIST SRM 1876b shall be analyzed annually in accordance
with subdivision A 1 b of this section.
3. Bulk samples. All analysts shall be able to correctly
identify the six regulated asbestos types (chrysotile, amosite, crocidolite,
anthophyllite, actinolite, and tremolite). Standards for the six asbestos types
listed are available from NIST (SRMs 1866 and 1867). These materials can also
be used as identification standards for AEM (Section 3.2.1 Qualitative
Analysis, Page 57, EPA/600/R-93/116).
B. Phase contrast microscopy.
1. Test for nonrandom fiber distribution. Blind recounts by
the same analyst shall be performed on 10% of the filters counted. A person
other than the counter should re-label slides before the second count. A test
for type II error (NIOSH 7400, Issue 2, 15 August 1994, Section 13) shall be
performed to determine whether a pair of counts by the same analyst on the same
slide should be rejected due to nonrandom fiber distribution. If a pair of
counts is rejected by this test, the remaining samples in the set shall be
recounted and the new counts shall be tested against first counts. All rejected
paired counts shall be discarded. It shall not be necessary to use this statistic
on blank recounts.
2. All individuals performing airborne fiber analysis shall
have taken the NIOSH Fiber Counting Course for sampling and evaluating airborne
asbestos dust or an equivalent course.
3. All laboratories shall participate in a national sample
testing scheme such as the Proficiency Analytical Testing (PAT) program or the
Asbestos Analysts Registry (AAR) program, both sponsored by the American
Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA), or equivalent.
C. Polarized light microscopy.
1. Friable materials. Because accuracy cannot be determined
by reanalysis of routine field samples, at least one out of 100 samples shall
be a standard or reference sample that has been routinely resubmitted to
determine analyst's precision and accuracy. A set of these samples should be
accumulated from proficiency testing samples with predetermined weight
compositions or from standards generated with weighed quantities of asbestos
and other bulk materials (Perkins and Harvey, 1993; Parekh et al., 1992; Webber
et al., 1982). At least half of the reference samples submitted for this QC
shall contain between 1.0% and 10% asbestos.
2. Nonfriable materials. At least one out of 100 samples
shall be a verified quantitative standard that has routinely been resubmitted
to determine analyst precision and accuracy.
1VAC30-45-824. Asbestos testing: method evaluation. (Repealed.)
In order to ensure the accuracy of reported results, the
following procedures shall be in place:
1. Demonstration of capability shall be performed initially
(prior to the analysis of any samples) and with a significant change in
instrument type, personnel, or method.
2. Performance audits. The results of such analyses shall
be used by the laboratory to evaluate the ability of the laboratory to produce
accurate data.
1VAC30-45-825. Asbestos testing: asbestos calibration. (Repealed.)
Refer to methods referenced in the following sections for
specific equipment requirements.
1. Transmission electron microscopy: general. Analytical
electron microscopy equipment will not be discussed in this document.
2. Transmission electron microscopy: water and wastewater.
All calibrations listed below (unless otherwise noted) shall be performed under
the same analytical conditions used for routine asbestos analysis and shall be
recorded in a notebook and include date and analyst's signature. Frequencies
stated below may be reduced to "before next use" if no samples are
analyzed after the last calibration period has expired. Likewise, frequencies
may have to be increased following non-routine maintenance or unacceptable
calibration performance.
a. Magnification calibration. Magnification calibration
shall be done at the fluorescent screen, with the calibration specimen at the
eucentric position, at the magnification used for fiber counting, generally
10,000 and 20,000x. A logbook shall be maintained with the dates of the
calibration recorded. Calibrations shall be performed monthly to establish the
stability of magnification. Calibration data shall be displayed on control
charts that show trends over time. (EPA/600/R-94/134, Method 100.2, Section
10.1)
b. Camera constant. The camera length of the TEM in the
Selected Area Electron Diffraction (SAED) mode shall be calibrated before SAED
patterns of unknown samples are observed. The diffraction specimen shall be at
the eucentric position for this calibration. This calibration shall allow
accurate (< 10% variation) measurement of layer-line spacings on the medium
used for routine measurement, i.e., the phosphor screen or camera film. This
shall also allow accurate (< 5.0% variation) measurement of zone axis SAED
patterns on permanent media, e.g., film. Calibrations shall be performed
monthly to establish the stability of the camera constant (EPA/600/R-94/134,
Method 100.2, Section 10.2). Where nonasbestiform minerals may be expected
(e.g., winchite, richterite, industrial talc, vermiculite, etc.), an internal
camera constant standard such as gold, shall be deposited and measured on each
sample to facilitate accurate indexing of zone axis SAED patterns. In such
cases, layer line analysis alone shall not be used. Calibration data shall be
displayed on control charts that show trends over time.
c. Spot size. The diameter of the smallest beam spot at
crossover shall be less than 250 nm as calibrated quarterly. Calibration data
shall be displayed on control charts that show trends over time.
(EPA/600/R-94/134, Method 100.2, Section 10.3)
d. Beam dose. The beam dose shall be calibrated so that
beam damage to chrysotile is minimized, specifically so that an electron
diffraction pattern from a single fibril =1 µm in length from a NIST
SRM chrysotile sample is stable in the electron beam dose for at least 15
seconds.
e. EDXA system.
(1) The x-ray energy vs. channel number for the EDXA system
shall be calibrated to within 20 eV for at least two peaks between 0.7 keV and
10 keV. One peak shall be from the low end (0.7 keV to 2 keV) and the other
peak from the high end (7 keV to 10 keV) of this range. The calibration of the
x-ray energy shall be checked prior to each analysis of samples and
recalibrated if out of the specified range.
(2) The ability of the system to resolve the Na Ka line
from the Cu L line shall be confirmed quarterly by obtaining a spectrum from
the NIST SRM 1866 crocidolite sample on a copper grid.
(3) The k-factors for elements found in asbestos (Na, Mg,
Al, Si, Ca, and Fe) relative to Si shall be calibrated semiannually, or anytime
the detector geometry may be altered. NIST SRM 2063a shall be used for Mg, Si,
Ca, Fe, while k-factors for Na and Al may be obtained from suitable materials
such as albite, kaersutite, or NIST SRM 99a. The k-factors shall be determined
to a precision (2s) within 10% relative to the mean value obtained for Mg, Al,
Si, Ca, and Fe, and within 20% relative to the mean value obtained for Na. The
k-factor relative to Si for Na shall be between 1.0 and 4.0, for Mg and Fe
shall be between 1.0 and 2.0, and for Al and Ca shall be between 1.0 and 1.75.
The k-factor for Mg relative to Fe shall be 1.5 or less. Calibration data shall
be displayed on control charts that show trends over time.
(4) The detector resolution shall be checked quarterly to
ensure a full-width half-maximum resolution of <175 eV at Mn Ka (5.90 keV).
Calibration data shall be displayed on control charts that show trends over
time.
(5) The portions of a grid in a specimen holder for which
abnormal x-ray spectra are generated under routine asbestos analysis conditions
shall be determined and these areas shall be avoided in asbestos analysis.
(6) The sensitivity of the detector for collecting x-rays
from small volumes shall be documented quarterly by collecting resolvable Mg
and Si peaks from a unit fibril of NIST SRM 1866 chrysotile.
f. Low temperature asher. The low temperature asher shall
be calibrated quarterly by determining a calibration curve for the weight vs.
ashing time of collapsed mixed-cellulose-ester (MCE) filters. Calibration data
shall be displayed on control charts that show trends over time.
g. Grid openings. The magnification of the grid opening
measurement system shall be calibrated using an appropriate standard at a
frequency of 20 openings/20 grids/lot of 1000 or one opening/sample. The
variation in the calibration measurements (2s) is <5.0% of the mean
calibration value.
3. Air. All calibrations shall be performed in accordance
with subdivision 2 of this section, with the exception of magnification.
Magnification calibration shall be done at the fluorescent screen, with the
calibration specimen at the eucentric position, at the magnification used for
fiber counting, generally 15,000 to 20,000x (AHERA, III.G.1.c). A logbook shall
be maintained with the dates of the calibration recorded. Calibrations shall be
performed monthly to establish the stability of magnification.
4. Bulk samples. All calibrations shall be performed in
accordance with subdivision 3 of this section.
5. Phase contrast microscopy.
a. At least once daily, the analyst shall use the telescope
ocular (or Bertrand lens, for some microscopes) supplied by the manufacturer to
ensure that the phase rings (annular diaphragm and phase-shifting elements) are
concentric.
b. The phase-shift limit of detection of the microscope
shall be checked monthly or after modification or relocation using an HSE/NPL
phase-contrast test slide for each analyst/microscope combination (refer to
NIOSH 7400, Issue 2, 15 August 1994, Section 10b). This procedure assures that
the minimum detectable fiber diameter (< ca. 0.25mm) for this microscope is
achieved.
c. Prior to ordering the Walton-Beckett graticule,
calibration, in accordance with NIOSH 7400, Issue 2, 15 August 1994, Appendix
A, shall be performed to obtain a counting area 100 mm in diameter at the image
plane. The diameter, dc (mm), of the circular counting area and the
disc diameter shall be specified when ordering the graticule. The field
diameter (D) shall be verified (or checked), to a tolerance of 100 µm ± 2
µm, with a stage micrometer upon receipt of the graticule from the
manufacturer. When changes (zoom adjustment, disassembly, replacement, etc.)
occur in the eyepiece-objective-reticle combination, field diameter shall be
remeasured (or recalibrated) to determine field area (mm2).
Recalibration of field diameter shall also be required when there is a change
in interpupillary distance (i.e., change in analyst). Acceptable range for
field area shall be 0.00754 mm2 to 0.00817 mm2. The
actual field area shall be documented and used.
6. Polarized light microscopy.
a. Microscope alignment. To accurately measure the required
optical properties, a properly aligned polarized light microscope (PLM) shall
be utilized. The PLM shall be aligned before each use. (Section 2.2.5.2.3,
EPA/600/R-93/116, July 1993)
b. Refractive index liquids. Series of nD = 1.49
through 1.72 in intervals less than or equal to 0.005. Refractive index liquids
for dispersion staining, high-dispersion series 1.550, 1.605, 1.680. The
accurate measurement of the refractive index (RI) of a substance requires the
use of calibrated refractive index liquids. These liquids shall be calibrated
at first use and semiannually, or next use, whichever is less frequent, to an
accuracy of 0.004, with a temperature accuracy of 2°C using a refractometer or
RI glass beads.
1VAC30-45-826. Asbestos testing: analytical sensitivity.
(Repealed.)
A. Transmission electron microscopy.
1. Water and wastewater. An analytical sensitivity
of 200,000 fibers per liter (0.2 MFL) is required for each sample analyzed
(EPA/600/R-94/134, Method 100.2, Section 1.6). Analytical sensitivity is
defined as the waterborne concentration represented by the finding of one
asbestos structure in the total area of filter examined. This value will depend
on the fraction of the filter sampled and the dilution factor (if applicable).
2. Air. An analytical sensitivity of 0.005 structures/cm2
is required for each sample analyzed. Analytical sensitivity is defined as the
airborne concentration represented by the finding of one asbestos structure in
the total area of filter examined. This value will depend on the effective
surface area of the filter, the filter area analyzed, and the volume of air
sampled (AHERA, Table I).
3. Bulk samples.
a. The range is dependent on the type of bulk material
being analyzed. The sensitivity may be as low as 0.0001% depending on the
extent to which interfering materials can be removed during the preparation of
AEM specimens. (Section 2.5.2 Range, Page 51, EPA/600/R-93/116)
b. There should be an error rate of less than 1.0% on the
qualitative analysis for samples that contain chrysotile, amosite, and crocidolite.
A slightly higher error rate may occur for samples that contain anthophyllite,
actinolite, and tremolite, as it can be difficult to distinguish among the
three types. (Section 3, Page 10, NIST Handbook 150-3, August 1994)
B. Phase contrast microscopy. The normal quantitative
working range of the test method is 0.04 to 0.5 fiber/cm2 for a 1000
L air sample. An ideal counting range on the filter shall be 100 to 1300
fibers/mm2. The limit of detection (LOD) is estimated to be 5.5
fibers per 100 fields or 7 fibers/mm2. The LOD in fiber/cc will
depend on sample volume and quantity of interfering dust but shall be <0.01
fiber/cm2 for atmospheres free of interferences. (NIOSH 7400, Issue
2, 15 August 1994)
C. Polarized light microscopy. The laboratory shall utilize
a test method that provides a limit of detection that is appropriate and
relevant for the intended use of the data. Limit of detection shall be
determined by the protocol in the test method or applicable regulation.
1VAC30-45-827. Asbestos testing: data reduction. (Repealed.)
A. Transmission electron microscopy.
1. Water and wastewater.
a. The concentration of asbestos in a given sample shall be
calculated in accordance with EPA/600/R-94/134, Method 100.2, Section 12.1.
Refer to 1VAC30-45-730 K for additional data reduction requirements.
b. Measurement uncertainties. The laboratory shall
calculate and report the upper and lower 95% confidence limits on the mean
concentration of asbestos fibers found in the sample (EPA/600/R-94/134, Method
100.2, Section 12.2.2).
2. Air.
a. The concentration of asbestos in a given sample shall be
calculated in accordance with the method utilized, e.g., AHERA. Refer to
1VAC30-45-730 K for additional data reduction requirements.
b. Measurement uncertainties. The laboratory shall
calculate and report the upper and lower 95% confidence limits on the mean
concentration of asbestos fibers found in the sample.
3. Bulk samples.
a. The concentration of asbestos in a given sample shall be
calculated in accordance with the method utilized (e.g., EPA/600/R-93/116, July
1993). Refer to 1VAC30-45-730 K for additional data reduction requirements.
b. Measurement uncertainties. Proficiency testing for floor
tiles analyzed by TEM following careful gravimetric reduction (New York ELAP
Certification Manual Item 198.4) has revealed an interlaboratory standard
deviation of approximately 20% for residues containing 70% or more asbestos.
Standard deviations range from 20% to 60% for residues with lower asbestos
content.
B. Phase contrast microscopy.
1. Airborne fiber concentration in a given sample shall be
calculated in accordance with NIOSH 7400, Issue 2, 15 August 1994, Sections 20
and 21. Refer to 1VAC30-45-730 K for additional data reduction requirements.
2. Measurement uncertainties. The laboratory shall
calculate and report the intra-laboratory and inter-laboratory relative
standard deviation with each set of results. (NIOSH 7400, Issue 2, 15 August
1994)
3. Fiber counts above 1300 fibers/mm2 and fiber
counts from samples with >50% of the filter area covered with particulate
should be reported as "uncountable" or "probably biased."
Other fiber counts outside the 100-1300 fibers/mm2 range should be
reported as having "greater than optimal variability" and as being
"probably biased."
C. Polarized light microscopy.
1. The concentration of asbestos in a given sample shall be
calculated in accordance with the method utilized (e.g., EPA/600/R-93/116, July
1993). Refer to 1VAC30-45-730 K for additional data reduction requirements.
2. Method uncertainties. The individual laboratory shall
determine precision and accuracy for the percent range involved. If point counting
and/or visual estimates are used, a table of reasonable expanded errors (refer
to EPA/600/R-93/116, July 1993, Table 2-1) should be generated for different
concentrations of asbestos.
1VAC30-45-828. Asbestos testing: quality of standards and
reagents. (Repealed.)
A. Transmission electron microscopy.
1. The quality control program shall establish and maintain
provisions for asbestos standards.
a. Reference standards that are used in an asbestos
laboratory shall be obtained from the National Institute of Standards and
Technology (NIST), EPA, or suppliers who participate in supplying NIST
standards or NIST traceable asbestos. Any reference standards purchased outside
the United States shall be traceable back to each country's national standards
laboratory. Commercial suppliers of reference standards shall conform to ANSI
N42.22 to assure the quality of their products.
b. Reference standards shall be accompanied with a
certificate of calibration whose content is as described in ANSI N42.22-1995, Section
8, Certificates.
2. All reagents used shall be analytical reagent grade or
better.
3. The laboratory shall have mineral fibers or data from
mineral fibers that will allow differentiating asbestos from at least the
following "look-alikes": fibrous talc, sepiolite, wollastonite,
attapulgite (palygorskite), halloysite, vermiculite scrolls, antigorite,
lizardite, pyroxenes, hornblende, richterite, winchite, or any other
asbestiform minerals that are suspected as being present in the sample.
B. Phase contrast microscopy. Standards of known
concentration have not been developed for this testing method. Routine workload
samples that have been statistically validated and national proficiency testing
samples such as PAT and AAR samples available from the AIHA may be utilized as
reference samples (refer to 1VAC30-45-822 B 2) to standardize the optical
system and analyst. All other testing reagents and devices (HSE/NPL test slide
and Walton-Beckett Graticule) shall conform to the specifications of the method
(refer to NIOSH 7400, Issue 2, 15 August 1994).
C. Polarized light microscopy. Refer to 1VAC30-45-828 A.
1VAC30-45-829. Asbestos testing: constant and consistent
test conditions. (Repealed.)
The laboratory shall establish and adhere to written
procedures to minimize the possibility of cross-contamination between samples.
1VAC30-45-850. Sample handling, sample acceptance policy,
and sample receipt.
While the laboratory may not have control of field sampling
activities, the following are essential to ensure the validity of the
laboratory's data.
1. Sample tracking. The laboratory shall have a documented
system for uniquely identifying the items to be tested to ensure that there can
be no confusion regarding the identity of such items at any time. This system
shall include identification for all samples, subsamples and subsequent
extracts or digestates or both. The use of container shape, size or other
physical characteristic, such as amber glass or purple top, is not an
acceptable means of identifying the sample. System laboratories shall use a
permanent chronological record such as a logbook or electronic database to
document receipt of all containers. This sample receipt log shall record the
following at a minimum: name of facility where sample was taken, date and time
of laboratory receipt, unique laboratory ID code, and signature or initials of
the person making the entries.
2. Sample acceptance policy. The laboratory shall have a
written sample acceptance policy that clearly outlines the circumstances under which
samples shall be accepted or rejected. The policy shall ensure that only
properly obtained samples with appropriate sampling records (see 1VAC30-45-640
B) are analyzed and that the samples are handled properly. This sample
acceptance policy shall be made available to sample collection personnel. The
policy shall include elements such as appropriate documentation of the sample's
identification, use of appropriate sample containers, adherence to specified
holding times, adequate sample volume to perform necessary tests, and
procedures to be used when samples show signs of damage, contamination or
inadequate preservation.
3. Sample receipt protocols.
a. Upon receipt, the condition of the sample, including any
abnormalities or departures from standard condition as prescribed in the
relevant test method, shall be recorded. All items specified by the sample
acceptance policy shall be checked.
b. All samples that require thermal preservation shall be
considered acceptable if the arrival temperature is either within 2 degrees
Celsius °C of the required temperature or the method specified
range. For samples with a specified temperature of 4 degrees Celsius °C,
samples with a temperature of ranging from just above freezing temperature of
water to 6 degrees Celsius °C shall be acceptable. Samples that
are hand delivered to the laboratory immediately after collection or on the
same day that are collected may not meet this these criteria. In
these cases, the samples shall be considered acceptable if there is evidence that
the chilling process has begun such as arrival on ice. Thermal preservation
is not required in the field if the laboratory receives the sample and either
begins the analysis or refrigerates the sample within 15 minutes of collection.
c. The laboratory shall implement procedures for checking
chemical preservation using readily available techniques, such as pH or free
chlorine prior to or during sample preparation or analysis.
d. The results of all checks required by the sample acceptance
policy and relevant test method shall be recorded.
4. Storage conditions.
a. The laboratory shall have documented procedures and
appropriate facilities to avoid deterioration, contamination or damage to the
sample during storage, handling, preparation, and testing. Any relevant
instructions provided with the item shall be followed. Where items have to be
stored or conditioned under specific environmental conditions, these conditions
shall be maintained, monitored and recorded.
b. Samples shall be stored according to the conditions
specified by preservation protocols:
(1) Samples that require thermal preservation shall be stored
under refrigeration that is within 2 degrees Celsius °C of the
specified preservation temperature unless method specific criteria exist. For
samples with a specified storage temperature of 4 degrees Celsius °C,
storage at a temperature above the freezing point of water to 6 degrees
Celsius °C shall be acceptable.
(2) Samples shall be stored away from all standards, reagents,
food and other potentially contaminating sources. Samples shall be stored in
such a manner to prevent cross contamination.
c. Sample fractions, extracts, leachates and other sample
preparation products shall be stored according to subdivision 4 a of this
section or according to specifications in the test method.
d. Where a sample or portion of the sample is to be held
secure (for example (e.g., for reasons of record, safety or
value, or to enable check calibrations or tests to be performed later), the
laboratory shall have storage and security arrangements that protect the
condition and integrity of the secured items or portions concerned.
5. Sample disposal. The laboratory shall have standard
operating procedures for the disposal of samples, digestates, leachates and
extracts or other sample preparation products.
NOTICE: The following forms
used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms are
not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be
viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly
Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (1VAC30-45)
Application for Certification of Environmental Laboratories
DGS-21-156 (eff. 1/09) (Application for Certification under
1VAC30-45 must be obtained from DCLS program staff at
Lab_Cert@dgs.virginia.gov)
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (1VAC30-45)
The Standards for Environmental Laboratories and
Accreditation Bodies, 2009, The NELAC Institute (TNI), P.O. Box 2439,
Weatherford, TX 76086; www.nelac-institute.org:
Volume
1: Management and Technical Requirements for Laboratories Performing
Environmental Analysis (EL-V1-2009)
Volume
2: General Requirements for Accreditation Bodies Accrediting Environmental
Laboratories (EL-V2-2009)
VA.R. Doc. No. R12-3334; Filed June 8, 2016, 11:31 a.m.
TITLE 2. AGRICULTURE
BOARD OF AGRICULTURE AND CONSUMER SERVICES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services is claiming an exemption from the
Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4002 A 13 of the Code
of Virginia, which excludes the Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services when
promulgating regulations pursuant to § 3.2-5121 of the Code of Virginia,
which conform, insofar as practicable, with the federal Food and Drug
Administration's Food Code. Pursuant to § 3.2-5121 C, the regulatory
action is exempt from portions of the Administrative Process Act provided the
State Board of Health adopts the same version and both agencies' regulations
have the same effective date.
Title of Regulation: 2VAC5-585. Retail Food
Establishment Regulations (amending 2VAC5-585-40 through 2VAC5-585-100,
2VAC5-585-130 through 2VAC5-585-200, 2VAC5-585-220, 2VAC5-585-230,
2VAC5-585-250 through 2VAC5-585-410, 2VAC5-585-430 through 2VAC5-585-600,
2VAC5-585-620, 2VAC5-585-630, 2VAC5-585-650 through 2VAC5-585-680,
2VAC5-585-700 through 2VAC5-585-765, 2VAC5-585-780 through 2VAC5-585-870,
2VAC5-585-900, 2VAC5-585-930 through 2VAC5-585-960, 2VAC5-585-980,
2VAC5-585-990, 2VAC5-585-1000, 2VAC5-585-1070, 2VAC5-585-1090, 2VAC5-585-1100,
2VAC5-585-1110, 2VAC5-585-1120, 2VAC5-585-1180, 2VAC5-585-1190, 2VAC5-585-1230,
2VAC5-585-1240, 2VAC5-585-1300 through 2VAC5-585-1330, 2VAC5-585-1350,
2VAC5-585-1360, 2VAC5-585-1370, 2VAC5-585-1450, 2VAC5-585-1460, 2VAC5-585-1500
through 2VAC5-585-1570, 2VAC5-585-1630 through 2VAC5-585-1680, 2VAC5-585-1700,
2VAC5-585-1720, 2VAC5-585-1730, 2VAC5-585-1740, 2VAC5-585-1770, 2VAC5-585-1780,
2VAC5-585-1790, 2VAC5-585-1810, 2VAC5-585-1890, 2VAC5-585-1900, 2VAC5-585-1920,
2VAC5-585-1960, 2VAC5-585-2000, 2VAC5-585-2010, 2VAC5-585-2040 through
2VAC5-585-2110, 2VAC5-585-2120 through 2VAC5-585-2210, 2VAC5-585-2230 through
2VAC5-585-2280, 2VAC5-585-2310 through 2VAC5-585-2360, 2VAC5-585-2420,
2VAC5-585-2430, 2VAC5-585-2460, 2VAC5-585-2490, 2VAC5-585-2520, 2VAC5-585-2540,
2VAC5-585-2550, 2VAC5-585-2570, 2VAC5-585-2840, 2VAC5-585-2930, 2VAC5-585-2990
through 2VAC5-585-3040, 2VAC5-585-3070, 2VAC5-585-3130, 2VAC5-585-3150,
2VAC5-585-3210, 2VAC5-585-3240, 2VAC5-585-3250, 2VAC5-585-3270, 2VAC5-585-3310
through 2VAC5-585-3480, 2VAC5-585-3500, 2VAC5-585-3510, 2VAC5-585-3541,
2VAC5-585-3542, 2VAC5-585-3600, 2VAC5-585-3620, 2VAC5-585-3630, 2VAC5-585-3800
through 2VAC5-585-3840, 2VAC5-585-3860, 2VAC5-585-3910, 2VAC5-585-3930,
2VAC5-585-3940, 2VAC5-585-3950, 2VAC5-585-4040, 2VAC5-585-4050, 2VAC5-585-4060;
adding 2VAC5-585-65, 2VAC5-585-67, 2VAC5-585-255, 2VAC5-585-725, 2VAC5-585-755,
2VAC5-585-1435, 2VAC5-585-1535, 2VAC5-585-1885, 2VAC5-585-2045, 2VAC5-585-2505,
2VAC5-585-2595, 2VAC5-585-3047, 2VAC5-585-3655, 2VAC5-585-3660; repealing
2VAC5-585-15, 2VAC5-585-1870).
Statutory Authority: § 3.2-5121 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: July 12, 2016.
Agency Contact: Ryan Davis, Program Manager, Office of
Dairy and Foods, Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, P.O. Box
1163, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 786-8910, FAX (804) 371-7792, TTY
(800) 828-1120, or email ryan.davis@vdacs.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The Retail Food Establishment Regulations (2VAC5-585)
establish minimum sanitary standards for retail food establishments such as
supermarkets, grocery stores, and convenience stores. Those standards include
the safe and sanitary maintenance, storage, operation, and use of equipment;
the safe preparation, handling, protection, and preservation of food including
necessary refrigeration or heating methods and procedures for vector and pest
control; requirements for toilet and handwashing facilities for employees;
requirements for appropriate lighting and ventilation; requirements for an
approved water supply and sewage disposal system; personal hygiene standards
for employees; and the appropriate use of precautions to prevent the
transmission of communicable diseases.
The current regulation is based on the U.S. Food and Drug
Administration (FDA) 2005 Food Code and the 2007 Food Code Supplement. The existing
regulation is amended to be consistent with the current 2013 FDA Food Code.
Many of the changes refine and provide further clarity to existing regulations.
Amendments include requirements that (i) retail food
establishments must refrigerate cut leafy greens in order to ensure that the
product is safe to consume; (ii) food establishments must have employees who
are fully informed regarding food allergens and their dangers; (iii) retail
food establishment employees must be aware of their responsibility to inform
management of any health or illness issue that might affect the safety of food
products; (iv) the food establishment must have procedures in place for
addressing vomitus or fecal matter discharge on surfaces in the food
establishment; (v) wild mushrooms cannot be sold unless the establishment has
been approved to do so by the regulatory authority; (vi) bare hand contact with
ready-to-eat food ingredients is allowed in certain instances; (vii) game
animals that are sold must be raised, slaughtered, and processed under a
voluntary inspection program that is conducted by the U.S. Department of
Agriculture or the state agency that has animal health jurisdiction; (viii) the
food establishment must discontinue operations and notify the Virginia Department
of Agriculture and Consumer Services if an imminent health hazard exists at the
establishment; (ix) the food establishment must immediately contact the agency
to report a food employee illness due to nontyphoidal Salmonella if it is
determined that the illness is of a nature that can be transmitted through
food; (x) the food establishment must correct all priority item violations
within 72 hours and all priority foundation item violations within 10 days; and
(xi) the food establishment must have at least one supervisor who is a
certified food protection manager.
Changes made to the final regulation include (i) adding
definitions for "approved water system," "potable water,"
"private well," "pure water," and "waterworks";
(ii) making the person in charge responsible for ensuring that employees are
properly maintaining the temperatures of time/temperature control for safety
foods during hot and cold holding; (iii) removing definitions for
"drinking water" and "public water system"; (iii) requiring
food allergy awareness as a component of employee training; (iv) updating the
Guide for Control of Molluscan Shellfish to the 2013 edition; (v) exempting
eggs sold pursuant to § 3.2-5305 of the Code of Virginia from the
U.S. Consumer Grade B tolerances; (vi) requiring a food establishment to
provide cleaning agents and sanitizers during hours of operation; (vii)
requiring a food establishment to sample its water system before placing the
system into service; (viii) requiring a food establishment to test its water for
nitrate and total coliform; (ix) requiring food establishments to maintain
reports of water samples for five years; (x) requiring that the water source in
a food establishment meet both the maximum daily and peak hourly water demands;
(xi) adding provisions to allow dogs to accompany patrons in certain food
establishments that provide food service in an outdoor setting; (xii) requiring
the inclusion of additional information in a Hazard Analysis and Critical
Control Points plan; and (xiii) requiring the Virginia Department of
Agriculture and Consumer Services to provide training and continuing education
to its inspectors.
The amendments are adopted concurrently with the Virginia
Department of Health action adopting certain changes based on the 2013 FDA Food
Code and Supplement, also published in this issue of the Virginia Register of
Regulations.
2VAC5-585-15. Categories of requirements. (Repealed.)
Requirements contained in this regulation are presented as
being in one of three categories of importance: critical item (as defined in
2VAC5-585-40); "swing" (i.e., those that may or may not be critical
depending on the circumstances); and noncritical. An asterisk (*) after a
catchline (the language immediately following a section number that introduces
the subject of the section) indicates that all of the provisions within that
section are critical unless otherwise indicated, as follows:
1. Any provisions that are "swing" items are
followed by the superscripted letter S and any provisions that are noncritical
are followed by the superscripted letter N.
2. Any unmarked provisions within a section that has an
asterisked catchline are critical. All provisions following a catchline that is
not marked with an asterisk are noncritical.
Article 2
Definitions
2VAC5-585-40. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this regulation
chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly
indicates otherwise:
"Accredited program" means a food protection
manager certification program that has been evaluated and listed by an
accrediting agency as conforming to national standards for organizations that
certify individuals. "Accredited program" refers to the certification
process and is a designation based upon an independent evaluation of factors
such as the sponsor's mission; organizational structure; staff resources;
revenue sources; policies; public information regarding program scope,
eligibility requirements, recertification, discipline, and grievance
procedures; and test development and administration. "Accredited
program" does not refer to training functions or educational programs.
"Additive" means either a (i) "food
additive" having the meaning stated in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic
Act, 21 USC § 321(s) and 21 CFR Part 170 170.3(e)(1) or (ii)
"color additive" having the meaning stated in the Federal Food, Drug,
and Cosmetic Act, 21 USC § 321(t) and 21 CFR Part 70 70.3(f).
"Adulterated" has the meaning stated in the Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, 21 USC § 342.
"Approved" means acceptable to the department based
on a determination of conformity with principles, practices, and generally
recognized standards that protect public health.
[ "Approved water system" means a permitted
waterworks constructed, maintained, and operated pursuant to 12VAC5-590 or a
private well constructed, maintained, and operated pursuant to 12VAC5-630. ]
"Asymptomatic" means without obvious symptoms; not
showing or producing indication indications of a disease or other
medical condition, such as an individual infected with a pathogen but not
exhibiting or producing any signs or symptoms of vomiting, diarrhea, or
jaundice. Asymptomatic includes not showing symptoms because symptoms have
resolved or subsided, or because symptoms never manifested.
"aw" "Aw"
means water activity that is a measure of the free moisture in a food, is the
quotient of the water vapor pressure of the substance divided by the vapor
pressure of pure water at the same temperature, and is indicated by the symbol aw
Aw.
"Balut" means an embryo inside a fertile egg that
has been incubated for a period sufficient for the embryo to reach a specific
stage of development after which it is removed from incubation before hatching.
"Beverage" means a liquid for drinking, including
water.
"Board" means the Board of Agriculture and Consumer
Services.
"Bottled drinking water" means water that is sealed
in bottles, packages, or other containers and offered for sale for human
consumption, including bottled mineral water.
"Casing" means a tubular container for sausage
products made of either natural or artificial (synthetic) material.
"Certification number" means a unique combination
of letters and numbers assigned by a shellfish control authority to a molluscan
shellfish dealer according to the provisions of the National Shellfish
Sanitation Program.
"CFR" means Code of Federal Regulations.
Citations in this chapter to the CFR refer sequentially to the title, part, and
section numbers [ for. For ] example, 40
CFR 180.194 refers to Title 40, Part 180, Section 194.
"CIP" means cleaned in place by the circulation or
flowing by mechanical means through a piping system of a detergent solution,
water rinse, and sanitizing solution onto or over equipment surfaces that
require cleaning, such as the method used, in part, to clean and sanitize a
frozen dessert machine. "CIP" does not include the cleaning of
equipment such as band saws, slicers, or mixers that are subjected to
in-place manual cleaning without the use of a CIP system.
"CFR" means Code of Federal Regulations.
Citations in this regulation to the CFR refer sequentially to the title, part,
and section numbers, such as 21 CFR 178.1010 refers to Title 21, Part 178,
Section 1010.
"Code of Federal Regulations" means the
compilation of the general and permanent rules published in the Federal
Register by the executive departments and agencies of the federal government
that:
1. Is published annually by the U.S. Government Printing
Office; and
2. Contains FDA rules in 21 CFR, USDA rules in 7 CFR and
9 CFR, EPA rules in 40 CFR, and Wildlife and Fisheries rules in 50 CFR.
"Commingle" means:
1. To combine shellstock harvested on different days or from
different growing areas as identified on the tag or label; or
2. To combine shucked shellfish from containers with different
container codes or different shucking dates.
"Comminuted" means reduced in size by methods
including chopping, flaking, grinding, or mincing. "Comminuted"
includes (i) fish or meat products that are reduced in size and
restructured or reformulated such as gefilte fish, gyros, ground beef, and
sausage; and (ii) a mixture of two or more types of meat that
have been reduced in size and combined, such as sausages made from two or more
meats.
"Commissioner" means the Commissioner of
Agriculture and Consumer Services, his duly designated officer, or his
agent.
"Conditional employee" means a potential food
employee to whom a job offer is made, conditional on responses to subsequent
medical questions or examinations designed to identify potential food employees
who may be suffering from a disease that can be transmitted through food and
done in compliance with Title 1 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990.
"Confirmed disease outbreak" means a foodborne
disease outbreak in which laboratory analysis of appropriate specimens
identifies a causative organism or chemical agent and
epidemiological analysis implicates the food as the source of the illness.
"Consumer" means a person who is a member of the
public, takes possession of food, is not functioning in the capacity of an
operator of a food establishment or food processing plant, and does not offer
the food for resale.
"Core item" means a provision in this chapter
that is not designated as a priority item or a priority foundation item.
"Core item" includes an item that usually relates to general
sanitation, operational controls, sanitation standard operating procedures,
facilities or structures, equipment design, or general maintenance.
"Corrosion-resistant materials" means a material
that maintains acceptable surface cleanability characteristics under prolonged
influence of the food to be contacted, the normal use of cleaning compounds and
sanitizing solutions, and other conditions of the use environment.
"Counter-mounted equipment" means equipment that is
not easily movable portable and is designed to be mounted off the
floor on a table, counter, or shelf.
"Critical control point" means a point or procedure
in a specific food system where loss of control may result in an unacceptable
health risk.
"Critical item" means a provision of this
regulation that, if in noncompliance, is more likely than other violations to
contribute to food contamination, illness, or environmental health hazard.
"Critical item" is an item that is denoted in this regulation with an
asterisk (*).
"Critical limit" means the maximum or minimum value
to which a physical, biological, or chemical parameter must be controlled at a
critical control point to minimize the risk that the identified food safety
hazard may occur.
"Cut leafy greens" means fresh leafy greens
whose leaves have been cut, shredded, sliced, chopped, or torn. The term
"leafy greens" includes iceberg lettuce, romaine lettuce, leaf
lettuce, butter lettuce, baby leaf lettuce (i.e., immature lettuce or leafy
greens), escarole, endive, spring mix, spinach, cabbage, kale, arugula, and
chard. The term "leafy greens" does not include herbs such as
cilantro or parsley.
"Dealer" means a person who is authorized by a
shellfish control authority for the activities of a shellstock shipper,
shucker-packer, repacker, reshipper, or depuration processor of molluscan
shellfish according to the provisions of the National Shellfish Sanitation
Program.
"Department" means the Virginia Department of
Agriculture and Consumer Services.
"Disclosure" means a written statement that clearly
identifies the animal-derived foods that are, or can be ordered, raw,
undercooked, or without otherwise being processed to eliminate pathogens in
their entirety, or items that contain an ingredient that is raw,
undercooked, or without otherwise being processed to eliminate pathogens.
[ "Drinking water" means water that
meets the "water quality standards" requirements for bacteria and
nitrates of the Virginia Waterworks Regulations (12VAC5-590). Drinking water is
traditionally known as "potable water." Drinking water includes the
term water except where the term used connotes that the water is not potable,
such as "boiler water," "mop water," "rainwater,"
"wastewater," and ] "nondrinking" water
[ "nondrinking water." ]
"Dry storage area" means a room or area designated
for the storage of packaged or containerized bulk food that is not potentially
hazardous time/temperature control for safety food and dry goods
such as single-service items.
"Easily cleanable" means a characteristic of a
surface that:
1. Allows effective removal of soil by normal cleaning
methods;
2. Is dependent on the material, design, construction, and
installation of the surface; and
3. Varies with the likelihood of the surface's role in
introducing pathogenic or toxigenic agents or other contaminants into food
based on the surface's approved placement, purpose, and use.
"Easily cleanable" includes a tiered application of
the criteria that qualify the surface as easily cleanable as specified above in
this definition to different situations in which varying degrees of
cleanability are required such as:
1. The appropriateness of stainless steel for a food
preparation surface as opposed to the lack of need for stainless steel to be
used for floors or for tables used for consumer dining; or
2. The need for a different degree of cleanability for a
utilitarian attachment or accessory in the kitchen as opposed to a decorative
attachment or accessory in the consumer dining area.
"Easily movable" means:
1. Portable; mounted on casters, gliders, or rollers; or
provided with a mechanical means to safely tilt a unit of equipment for
cleaning; and
2. Having no utility connection, a utility connection that
disconnects quickly, or a flexible utility connection line of sufficient length
to allow the equipment to be moved for cleaning of the equipment and adjacent
area.
"Egg" means the shell egg of avian species such as
chicken, duck, goose, guinea, quail, ratites, or turkey. Egg does not include a
balut, egg of the reptile species such as alligator, or an egg product.
"Egg product" means all, or a portion of, the
contents found inside eggs separated from the shell and pasteurized in a food
processing plant, with or without added ingredients, intended for human
consumption, such as dried, frozen, or liquid eggs. Egg product does not
include food that contains eggs only in a relatively small proportion such as
cake mixes.
"Employee" means the operator, person in
charge, food employee, person having supervisory or management duties,
person on the payroll, family member, volunteer, person performing work under
contractual agreement, or other person working in a food establishment.
"Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
(EHEC)" means E. coli, which cause hemorrhagic colitis, meaning
bleeding enterically or bleeding from the intestine. The term is typically used
in association with E. coli that have the capacity to produce Shiga
toxins and to cause attaching and effacing lesion in the intestine. EHEC is a
subset of Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC), whose members produce
additional virulence factors. Infections with EHEC may be asymptomatic but are
classically associated with bloody diarrhea (hemorrhagic colitis) and hemolytic
euremic syndrome (HUS) or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Examples
of serotypes of EHEC include: E. coli O157:H7; E. coli O157:NM; E.
coli O26:H11; E. coli O145:NM; E. coli O103:H2; or E. coli
O111:NM. Also see Shiga toxin-producing E. coli.
"EPA" means the U.S. Environmental Protection
Agency.
"Equipment" means an article that is used in the
operation of a food establishment. "Equipment" includes, but is
not limited to, items, such as a freezer, grinder, hood, ice maker,
meat block, mixer, oven, reach-in refrigerator, scale, sink, slicer, stove,
table, temperature measuring device for ambient air, vending machine, or
warewashing machine.
"Equipment" does not include items apparatuses
used for handling or storing large quantities of packaged foods that are
received from a supplier in a cased or overwrapped lot, such as hand trucks,
forklifts, dollies, pallets, racks, and skids.
"Exclude" means to prevent a person from working as
a food an employee in a food establishment or entering a food
establishment as an employee.
"°F" means degrees Fahrenheit.
"FDA" means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
"Fish" means fresh or saltwater finfish,
crustaceans, and other forms of aquatic life (including alligator, frog,
aquatic turtle, jellyfish, sea cucumber, and sea urchin and the roe of such
animals) other than birds or mammals; all mollusks, if such animal life is
intended for human consumption; and includes any edible human food product
derived in whole or in part from fish, including fish that has been processed
in any manner.
"Food" means (i) a raw, cooked, or processed
edible substance, ice, beverage, or ingredient used or intended for use or for
sale in whole or in part for human consumption or (ii) chewing gum.
"Foodborne disease outbreak" means the occurrence
of two or more cases of a similar illness resulting from the ingestion of a
common food.
"Food-contact surface" means a surface of equipment
or a utensil with which food normally comes into contact, or a surface of equipment
or a utensil from which food may drain, drip, or splash into a food, or onto a
surface normally in contact with food.
"Food employee" means an individual working with
unpackaged food, food equipment or utensils, or food-contact surfaces.
"Food establishment," as used in this
regulation, means an operation that stores, prepares, packages, serves,
vends food directly to the consumer, or otherwise offers for retail
sale provides food for human consumption (i) such as a market;,
restaurant;, satellite or catered feeding location;,
catering operation if the operation provides food directly to a consumer or to
a conveyance used to transport people;, vending location;,
conveyance used to transport people;, institution;,
or food bank and (ii) that relinquishes possession of a food to a consumer
directly, or indirectly through a delivery service such as home delivery of
grocery orders or restaurant take out takeout orders, or delivery
service that is provided by common carriers.
"Food establishment," as used in this
regulation, includes (i) an element of the operation such as a
transportation vehicle or a central preparation facility that supplies a
vending location or satellite feeding location and (ii) an operation that is
conducted in a mobile, stationary, temporary, or permanent facility or location,
where consumption is on or off the premises.
"Food establishment," as used in this
regulation, does not include:
1. An establishment that offers only prepackaged foods that
are not potentially hazardous time/temperature control for safety
foods;
2. A produce stand that only offers whole, uncut fresh fruits
and vegetables;
3. A food processing plant, including those that are
located on the premises of a food establishment;
4. A food warehouse;
5. A kitchen in a private home; or
6. A private home that receives catered or home delivered
food.
"Food processing plant" means a commercial
operation that manufactures, packages, labels, or stores food for human
consumption and provides food for sale or distribution to other business
entities such as food processing plants or food establishments. "Food
processing plant" does not include a "food establishment" as
previously defined in this section. establishment."
"Game animal" means an animal, the products of
which are food, that is not classified as cattle, (i) livestock,
sheep, swine, goat, horse, mule, or other equine in 9 CFR Part 301,
Definitions, as Poultry in 9 CFR Part 381, Poultry Products Inspection
Regulations, or as fish as previously defined in this section. 301.2;
(ii) poultry; or (iii) fish. "Game animal" includes mammals such
as reindeer, elk, deer, antelope, water buffalo, bison, rabbit, squirrel,
opossum, raccoon, nutria, or muskrat, and nonaquatic reptiles such as land
snakes. "Game animal" does not include ratites such as ostrich,
emu, and rhea.
"General use pesticide" means a pesticide that is
not classified by EPA for restricted use as specified in 40 CFR 152.175.
"Grade A standards" means the requirements of the United
States Public Health Service/FDA "Grade "A"
Pasteurized Milk Ordinance (2003)", 2013 Revision, (U.S. Food
and Drug Administration) and "Grade A Condensed and Dry Milk
Ordinance (1995)" with which certain fluid and dry milk and milk
products comply.
"HACCP Plan" plan" means a
written document that delineates the formal procedures for following the Hazard
Analysis Critical Control Point principles developed by the National Advisory
Committee on Microbiological Criteria for Foods.
"Handwashing sink" means a lavatory, a basin or
vessel for washing, a wash basin, or a plumbing fixture especially placed for
use in personal hygiene and designed for the washing of hands. Handwashing sink
includes an automatic handwashing facility.
"Hazard" means a biological, chemical, or physical
property that may cause an unacceptable consumer health risk.
"Health practitioner" means a physician licensed to
practice medicine, or if allowed by law, a nurse practitioner, physician
assistant, or similar medical profession professional.
"Hermetically sealed container" means a container
that is designed and intended to be secure against the entry of microorganisms
and, in the case of low acid canned foods, to maintain the commercial sterility
of its contents after processing.
"Highly susceptible population" means persons who
are more likely than other people in the general population to experience
foodborne disease because they are (i) immunocompromised; preschool age
children, or older adults; and (ii) obtaining food at a facility that provides
services such as custodial care, health care, or assisted living, such as a
child or adult day care center, kidney dialysis center, hospital or nursing
home, or nutritional or socialization services such as a senior center.
"Imminent health hazard" means a significant threat
or danger to health that is considered to exist when there is evidence
sufficient to show that a product, practice, circumstance, or event creates a
situation that requires immediate correction or cessation of operation to
prevent injury based on the number of potential injuries, and the nature,
severity, and duration of the anticipated injury.
"Injected" means tenderizing a meat with deep
penetration or injecting the meat such as with juices that may be referred to
as "injecting," "pinning," or "stitch pumping."
During injection infectious or toxigenic microorganisms may be introduced from
its surface to its interior. manipulating meat to which a solution has
been introduced into its interior by processes such as "injecting,"
"pump marinating," or "stitch pumping."
"Juice" means the aqueous liquid expressed or
extracted from one or more fruits or vegetables, purées of the edible portions
of one or more fruits or vegetables, or any concentrate of such liquid or
purée. Juice does not include, for purposes of HACCP, liquids, purées, or
concentrates that are not used as beverages or ingredients of beverages.
"Kitchenware" means food preparation and storage
utensils.
"Law" means applicable local, state, and federal
statutes, regulations, and ordinances.
"Linens" means fabric items such as cloth hampers,
cloth napkins, table cloths, wiping cloths, and work garments, including cloth
gloves.
"Major food allergen" means milk, egg, fish (such
as bass, flounder, cod, and including crustacean shellfish such as crab, lobster,
or shrimp), tree nuts (such as almonds, pecans, or walnuts), wheat, peanuts,
and soybeans; or a food ingredient that contains protein derived from
one of these foods. Major food allergen does not include (i) any highly
refined oil derived from a major food allergen in this definition and any
ingredient derived from such highly refined oil; or (ii) any
ingredient that is exempt under the petition or notification process specified
in the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004 (P. L. 108-282,
Title II, Sec. 201) (Pub. L. No. 108-282).
"Meat" means the flesh of animals used as food
including the dressed flesh of cattle, swine, sheep, or goats and other edible
animals, except fish, poultry, and wild game animals as specified under
2VAC5-585-330 A 2 and 3 and 4.
"Mechanically tenderized" means manipulating
meat with deep penetration by processes that may be referred to as "blade
tenderizing," "jaccarding," "pinning,"
"needling," or using blades, pins, needles or any mechanical device.
"Mechanically tenderized" does not include processes by which
solutions are injected into meat.
"mg/L" means milligrams per liter, which is the
metric equivalent of parts per million (ppm).
"Molluscan shellfish" means any edible species of
fresh or frozen oysters, clams, mussels, and scallops or edible portions
thereof, except when the scallop product consists only of the shucked adductor
muscle.
"Noncontinuous cooking" means the cooking of
food in a food establishment using a process in which the initial heating of
the food is intentionally halted so that it may be cooled and held for complete
cooking at a later time prior to sale or service. "Noncontinuous
cooking" does not include cooking procedures that only involve temporarily
interrupting or slowing an otherwise continuous cooking process.
"Operator" means the entity that is legally
responsible for the operation of the food establishment such as the owner, the
owner's agent, or other person.
"Packaged" means bottled, canned, cartoned, securely
bagged, or securely packaged wrapped, whether packaged in a food
establishment or a food processing plant. "Packaged" does not
include a wrapper, carry-out box, or other nondurable container used
to containerize food with the purpose of facilitating food protection during
service and receipt of the food by the consumer. wrapped or placed in a
carry-out container to protect the food during service or delivery to the
consumer, by a food employee, upon consumer request.
"Person" means an association, a corporation,
individual, partnership, other legal entity, government, or governmental
subdivision or agency.
"Person in charge" means the individual present at
a food establishment who is responsible for the operation at the time of
inspection.
"Personal care items" means items or substances
that may be poisonous, toxic, or a source of contamination and are used to
maintain or enhance a person's health, hygiene, or appearance. Personal care
items include items such as medicines;, first aid supplies;,
and other items such as cosmetics, and toiletries such as toothpaste and
mouthwash.
"pH" means the symbol for the negative logarithm of
the hydrogen ion concentration, which is a measure of the degree of acidity or
alkalinity of a solution. Values between 0 and 7.0 indicate acidity and
values between 7.0 and 14 indicate alkalinity. The value for pure distilled
water is 7.0, which is considered neutral.
"Physical facilities" means the structure and
interior surfaces of a food establishment including accessories such as soap
and towel dispensers and attachments such as light fixtures and heating or air
conditioning system vents.
"Plumbing fixture" means a receptacle or device
that is permanently or temporarily connected to the water distribution system
of the premises and demands a supply of water from the system or discharges
used water, waste materials, or sewage directly or indirectly to the drainage
system of the premises.
"Plumbing system" means the water supply and
distribution pipes; plumbing fixtures and traps; soil, waste, and vent pipes;
sanitary and storm sewers and building drains, including their respective
connections, devices, and appurtenances within the premises; and water-treating
equipment.
"Poisonous or toxic materials" means substances
that are not intended for ingestion and are included in four categories:
1. Cleaners and sanitizers, which include cleaning and
sanitizing agents and agents such as caustics, acids, drying agents, polishes,
and other chemicals;
2. Pesticides, except sanitizers, which include
substances such as insecticides and rodenticides;
3. Substances necessary for the operation and maintenance of
the establishment such as nonfood grade lubricants, paints, and personal
care items that may be deleterious to health; and
4. Substances that are not necessary for the operation and
maintenance of the establishment and are on the premises for retail sale, such
as petroleum products and paints.
[ "Potable water" means water fit for human
consumption that is obtained from an approved water supply and that is (i)
sanitary and normally free of minerals, organic substances, and toxic agents in
excess of reasonable amounts and (ii) adequate in quantity and quality for the
minimum health requirements of the person served. Potable water is
traditionally known as drinking water and excludes such nonpotable forms as
boiler water, mop water, rainwater, wastewater, and nondrinking water. ]
"Potentially hazardous
food (time/temperature control for safety food)" means a food that
requires time/temperature control for safety (TCS) to limit pathogenic
microorganism growth or toxin formation:
1. Potentially hazardous food
(time/temperature control for safety food) includes an animal food that is raw
or heat-treated; a plant food that is heat-treated or consists of raw seed
sprouts, cut melons, cut tomatoes, or mixtures of cut tomatoes that are not
modified in a way so that they are unable to support pathogenic microorganism
growth or toxin formation, or garlic-in-oil mixtures that are not modified in a
way that results in mixtures that do not support pathogenic microorganism
growth or toxin formation; and except as specified in subdivision 2 of this
definition, a food that because of the interaction of its Aw and pH
values is designated as Product Assessment Required (PA) in Table A or B of
this definition:
Table A. Interaction of pH
and Aw for control of spores in food heat treated to destroy vegetative cells
and subsequently packaged.
|
Aw values
|
pH values
|
4.6 or less
|
>4.6-5.6
|
>5.6
|
<0.92
|
non-PHF*/non-TCS food**
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
> 0.92-0.95
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
PA***
|
>0.95
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
PA
|
PA
|
*PHF means Potentially
Hazardous Food
**TCS means
Time/Temperature Control for Safety Food
***PA means Product
Assessment required
|
Table B. Interaction of pH
and Aw for control of vegetative cells and spores in food not heat treated or
heat treated but not packaged.
|
Aw values
|
pH values
|
< 4.2
|
4.2 - 4.6
|
> 4.6 - 5.0
|
> 5.0
|
<0.88
|
non-PHF*/non-TCS food**
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
0.88-0.90
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
PA***
|
>0.90-0.92
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
PA
|
PA
|
>0.92
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
PA
|
PA
|
PA
|
*PHF means Potentially
Hazardous Food
**TCS means
Time/Temperature Control for Safety Food
***PA means Product
Assessment required
|
2. Potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for
safety food) does not include:
a. An air-cooled hard-boiled egg with shell intact, or an
egg with shell intact that is not hard boiled, but has been pasteurized to
destroy all viable Salmonellae;
b. A food in an unopened hermetically sealed container that
is commercially processed to achieve and maintain commercial sterility under
conditions of nonrefrigerated storage and distribution;
c. A food that because of its pH or Aw value, or
interaction of Aw and pH values, is designated as a non-PHF/non-TCS
food in Table A or B of this definition;
d. A food that is designated as Product Assessment required
(PA) in Table A or B of this definition and has undergone a Product Assessment
showing that the growth or toxin formation of pathogenic microorganisms that
are reasonably likely to occur in that food is precluded due to:
(1) Intrinsic factors including added or natural
characteristics of the food such as preservatives, antimicrobials, humectants,
acidulants, or nutrients;
(2) Extrinsic factors including environmental or
operational factors that affect the food such as packaging, modified atmosphere
such as reduced oxygen packaging, shelf-life and use, or temperature range of
storage and use; or
(3) A combination of intrinsic and extrinsic factors; or
e. A food that does not support the growth or toxin
formation of pathogenic microorganisms in accordance with one of the
subdivisions 2 a through 2 d of this definition even though the food may
contain a pathogenic microorganism or chemical or physical contaminant at a
level sufficient to cause illness or injury.
"Poultry" means any domesticated bird (chickens,
turkeys, ducks, geese, or guineas), guineas, ratites, or squabs),
whether live or dead, as defined in 9 CFR Part 381, Poultry Products
Inspection Regulations, 381.1 and any migratory waterfowl, game
bird, or squab such as pheasant, partridge, quail, grouse, or
guineas, or pigeon or squab, whether live or dead, as defined in 9
CFR Part 362 362.1, Voluntary Poultry Inspection Regulations.
"Poultry" does not include ratites.
"Premises" means the physical facility, its
contents, and the contiguous land or property under the control of the operator
or person in charge or the physical facility, its contents, and the
land or property not described above if its facilities and contents are under
the control of the operator and may impact food establishment personnel,
facilities, or operations, and a food establishment is only one component of a
larger operation.
"Primal cut" means a basic major cut into which
carcasses and sides of meat are separated, such as a beef round, pork loin,
lamb flank, or veal breast.
"Priority item" means a provision in this
chapter whose application contributes directly to the elimination, prevention,
or reduction to an acceptable level of hazards associated with foodborne
illness or injury and there is no other provision that more directly controls
the hazard. "Priority item" includes items with a quantifiable
measure to show control of hazards such as cooking, reheating, cooling, and
handwashing and is denoted in this chapter with a superscript Pp.
"Priority foundation item" means a provision in
this chapter whose application supports, facilitates, or enables one or more
priority items. "Priority foundation item" includes an item that
requires the purposeful incorporation of specific actions, equipment, or
procedures by industry management to attain control of risk factors that
contribute to foodborne illness or injury such as personnel training,
infrastructure or necessary equipment, HACCP plans, documentation or
recordkeeping, and labeling and is denoted in this chapter with a superscript
PfPf.
[ "Public water system" has the
meaning stated in 40 CFR Part 141, National Primary Drinking Water Regulations.
"Private well" means any water well constructed
for a person on land that is owned or leased by that person and is usually
intended for household, groundwater source heat pump, agricultural use,
industrial use, or other nonpublic water well.
"Pure water" means potable water fit for human
consumption that is (i) sanitary and normally free of minerals, organic
substances, and toxic agents in excess of reasonable amounts and (ii) adequate
in quantity and quality for the minimum health requirements of the persons served.
Potable water is traditionally known as drinking water and excludes such
nonpotable forms as boiler water, mop water, rainwater, wastewater, and
nondrinking water. ]
"Ratite" means a flightless bird such as an emu,
ostrich, or rhea.
"Ready-to-eat food" means food that:
1. (i) Is in a form that is edible without additional
preparation to achieve food safety, as specified under subsections A through
C of 2VAC5-585-700 or A, B, and C; 2VAC5-585-710; or
2VAC5-585-730; (ii) is a raw or partially cooked animal food and the consumer
is advised as specified under subdivisions D 1 and D 2 of 2VAC5-585-700 D
1 and D 3; or (iii) is prepared in accordance with a variance that is
granted as specified under subdivisions D 1 and D 3 of 2VAC5-585-700 D
4; and
2. May receive additional preparation for palatability or
aesthetic, epicurean, gastronomic, or culinary purposes.
"Ready-to-eat food" includes:
1. Raw animal food that is cooked as specified under
2VAC5-585-700 or 2VAC5-585-710, or frozen as specified under 2VAC5-585-730;
2. Raw fruits and vegetables that are washed as specified
under 2VAC5-585-510;
3. Fruits and vegetables that are cooked for hot holding,
as specified under 2VAC5-585-720;
4. All potentially hazardous food time/temperature
control for safety food that is cooked to the temperature and time required
for the specific food under Article 4 (2VAC5-585-700 et seq.) of Part III of
this regulation chapter and cooled as specified in 2VAC5-585-800;
5. Plant food for which further washing, cooking, or other processing
is not required for food safety, and from which rinds, peels, husks, or shells,
if naturally present, are removed;
6. Substances derived from plants such as spices, seasonings,
and sugar;
7. A bakery item such as bread, cakes, pies, fillings, or icing
for which further cooking is not required for food safety;
8. The following products that are produced in accordance with
USDA guidelines and that have received a lethality treatment for pathogens:
dry, fermented sausages, such as dry salami or pepperoni; salt-cured meat and
poultry products, such as prosciutto ham, country cured ham, and Parma ham; and
dried meat and poultry products, such as jerky or beef sticks; and
9. Food manufactured according to 21 CFR Part 113,
Thermally Processed Low-Acid Foods Packaged in Hermetically Sealed Containers.
"Reduced oxygen packaging" means (i) the reduction
of the amount of oxygen in a package by removing oxygen; displacing oxygen and
replacing it with another gas or combination of gases; or otherwise controlling
the oxygen content to a level below that normally found in the atmosphere
(approximately 21% at sea level); and (ii) a process as specified in clause (i)
of this definition that involves a food for which the hazards Clostridium
botulinum or Listeria monocytogenes require control in the final packaged form.
"Reduced oxygen packaging" includes:
1. Vacuum packaging, in which air is removed from a package of
food and the package is hermetically sealed so that a vacuum remains inside the
package, such as sous vide;
2. Modified atmosphere packaging, in which the atmosphere of a
package of food is modified so that its composition is different from air but
the atmosphere may change over time due to the permeability of the packaging
material or the respiration of the food. Modified atmosphere packaging includes
reduction in the proportion of oxygen, total replacement of oxygen, or an
increase in the proportion of other gases such as carbon dioxide or nitrogen;
3. Controlled atmosphere packaging, in which the atmosphere of
a package of food is modified so that until the package is opened, its
composition is different from air, and continuous control of that atmosphere is
maintained, such as by using oxygen scavengers or a combination of total
replacement of oxygen, nonrespiring food, and impermeable packaging material;
4. Cook chill packaging, in which cooked food is hot filled
into impermeable bags that have the air expelled and are then sealed or crimped
closed. The bagged food is rapidly chilled and refrigerated at temperatures
that inhibit the growth of psychotrophic pathogens; or
5. Sous vide packaging, in which raw or partially cooked food
is placed in a hermetically sealed, vacuum packaged in an
impermeable bag, cooked in the bag, rapidly chilled, and refrigerated at
temperatures that inhibit the growth of psychotrophic pathogens.
"Refuse" means solid waste not carried by water
through the sewage system.
"Regulatory authority" means local, state, or
federal enforcement body or their authorized representative having jurisdiction
over the food establishment.
"Reminder" means a written statement concerning the
health risk of consuming animal foods raw, undercooked, or without otherwise
being processed to eliminate pathogens.
"Reservice" means the transfer of food that is
unused and returned by a consumer after being served or sold and in the
possession of the consumer, to another person.
"Restrict" means to limit the activities of a food
employee so that there is no risk of transmitting a disease that is
transmissible through food and the food employee does not work with exposed
food, clean equipment, utensils, linens, and or unwrapped
single-service or single-use articles.
"Restricted egg" means any check, dirty egg,
incubator reject, inedible, leaker, or loss as defined in 9 CFR Part 590.
"Restricted use pesticide" means a pesticide
product that contains the active ingredients specified in 40 CFR 152.175 (pesticides
classified for restricted use) and that is limited to use by or under the
direct supervision of a certified applicator.
"Risk" means the likelihood that an adverse health
effect will occur within a population as a result of a hazard in a food.
"Safe material" means an article manufactured from
or composed of materials that may not reasonably be expected to result,
directly or indirectly, in their becoming a component or otherwise affecting
the characteristics of any food; an additive that is used as specified in § 409
or 706 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 USC §§ 348 and
376) (21 USC § 348); or other materials that are not additives and
that are used in conformity with applicable regulations of the Food and Drug
Administration.
"Sanitization" means the application of cumulative
heat or chemicals on cleaned food contact food-contact surfaces
that, when evaluated for efficacy, is sufficient to yield a 5-log
reduction of five logs, which is equal to a 99.999% reduction, of
representative disease microorganisms of public health importance.
"Sealed" means free of cracks or other openings
that permit allow the entry or passage of moisture.
"Service animal" means an animal such as a guide
dog, signal dog, or other animal individually trained to provide assistance to
an individual with a disability.
"Servicing area" means an operating base location
to which a mobile food establishment or transportation vehicle returns
regularly for such things as vehicle and equipment cleaning, discharging liquid
or solid wastes, refilling water tanks and ice bins, and boarding food.
"Sewage" means liquid waste containing animal or
vegetable matter in suspension or solution and may include liquids containing
chemicals in solution.
"Shellfish control authority" means a state,
federal, foreign, tribal, or other government entity legally responsible for
administering a program that includes certification of molluscan shellfish
harvesters and dealers for interstate commerce.
"Shellstock" means raw, in-shell molluscan
shellfish.
"Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli" (STEC)
or "STEC" means any E. coli capable of producing Shiga toxins
(also called verocytotoxins or "Shiga-like" toxins) verocytotoxins).
STEC infections can be asymptomatic or may result in a spectrum of illness
ranging from mild nonbloody diarrhea to hemorrhagic colitis (i.e., bloody
diarrhea) to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), which is a type of kidney
failure. Examples of serotypes of STEC include both O157 and non-O157 E.coli.
Also see Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli.: E. coli O157:H7, E.
coli O157:NM, E. coli O26:H11, E. coli O145:NM, E. coli O103:H2, and E. coli
O111:NM. STEC are sometimes referred to as VTEC (verocytotoxigenic E. coli) or
as EHEC (enterohemorrhagic E. coli). EHEC are a subset of STEC that can cause
hemorrhagic colitis or HUS.
"Shucked shellfish" means molluscan shellfish that
have one or both shells removed.
"Single-service articles" means tableware,
carry-out utensils, and other items such as bags, containers, placemats,
stirrers, straws, toothpicks, and wrappers that are designed and constructed
for one time, one person use after which they are intended for discard.
"Single-use articles" means utensils and bulk food
containers designed and constructed to be used once and discarded. Single-use
articles includes items such as wax paper, butcher paper, plastic wrap, formed
aluminum food containers, jars, plastic tubs or buckets, bread wrappers, pickle
barrels, ketchup bottles, and number 10 cans that do not meet the materials,
durability, strength, and cleanability specifications under
2VAC5-585-960, 2VAC5-585-1080, and 2VAC5-585-1100 for multiuse utensils.
"Slacking" means the process of moderating the
temperature of a food such as allowing a food to gradually increase from a
temperature of -10°F (-23°C) to 25°F (-4°C) in preparation for deep-fat frying
or to facilitate even heat penetration during the cooking of previously
block-frozen food such as spinach shrimp.
"Smooth" means a food-contact surface having a
surface free of pits and inclusions with a cleanability equal to or exceeding
that of (100 grit) number three stainless steel; a nonfood-contact surface of
equipment having a surface equal to that of commercial grade hot-rolled steel
free of visible scale; and a floor, wall, or ceiling having an even or level
surface with no roughness or projections that render it difficult to clean.
"Tableware" means eating, drinking, and serving
utensils for table use such as flatware including forks, knives, and spoons;
hollowware including bowls, cups, serving dishes, and tumblers; and plates.
"Temperature measuring device" means a thermometer,
thermocouple, thermistor, or other device that indicates the temperature of
food, air, or water.
"Temporary food establishment" means a food
establishment that operates for a period of no more than 14 consecutive days in
conjunction with a single event or celebration.
"Time/temperature control for safety food" or
"TCS" (formerly "potentially hazardous food") means a food
that requires time/temperature control for safety to limit pathogenic
microorganism growth or toxin formation:
1. Time/temperature control for safety food includes an
animal food that is raw or heat treated; a plant food that is heat treated or
consists of raw seed sprouts, cut melons, cut leafy greens, cut tomatoes or
mixtures of cut tomatoes that are not modified in a way so that they are unable
to support pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation, or garlic-in-oil
mixtures that are not modified in a way so that they are unable to support
pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation; and except as specified in
subdivision 2 d of this definition, a food that because of the interaction of
its Aw and pH values is designated as product assessment required
(PA) in Table A or B of this definition:
Table A. Interaction of pH and Aw for control
of spores in food heat treated to destroy vegetative cells and subsequently
packaged.
|
Aw values
|
pH values
|
4.6 or less
|
>4.6-5.6
|
>5.6
|
=0.92
|
non-TCS food*
|
non-TCS food
|
non-TCS food
|
>0.92-0.95
|
non-TCS food
|
non-TCS food
|
PA**
|
>0.95
|
non-TCS food
|
PA
|
PA
|
*TCS means time/temperature control for safety food
**PA means product assessment required
|
Table B. Interaction of pH and Aw for control
of vegetative cells and spores in food not heat treated or heat treated but
not packaged.
|
Aw values
|
pH values
|
< 4.2
|
4.2 - 4.6
|
> 4.6 - 5.0
|
> 5.0
|
<0.88
|
non-TCS food*
|
non-TCS food
|
non-TCS food
|
non-TCS food
|
0.88-0.90
|
non-TCS food
|
non-TCS food
|
non-TCS food
|
PA**
|
>0.90-0.92
|
non-TCS food
|
non-TCS food
|
PA
|
PA
|
>0.92
|
non-TCS food
|
PA
|
PA
|
PA
|
*TCS means time/temperature control for safety food
**PA means product assessment required
|
2. Time/temperature control for safety food does not
include:
a. An air-cooled hard-boiled egg with shell intact, or an
egg with shell intact that is not hard boiled, but has been pasteurized to
destroy all viable salmonellae;
b. A food in an unopened hermetically sealed container that
is commercially processed to achieve and maintain commercial sterility under
conditions of nonrefrigerated storage and distribution;
c. A food that because of its pH or Aw value, or
interaction of Aw and pH values, is designated as a non-TCS food in
Table A or B of this definition;
d. A food that is designated as PA in Table A or B of this
definition and has undergone a product assessment showing that the growth or
toxin formation of pathogenic microorganisms that are reasonably likely to
occur in that food is precluded due to:
(1) Intrinsic factors including added or natural
characteristics of the food such as preservatives, antimicrobials, humectants,
acidulants, or nutrients;
(2) Extrinsic factors including environmental or
operational factors that affect the food such as packaging, modified atmosphere
such as reduced oxygen packaging, shelf-life and use, or temperature range of
storage and use; or
(3) A combination of intrinsic and extrinsic factors; or
e. A food that does not support the growth or toxin
formation of pathogenic microorganisms in accordance with one of the
subdivisions 2 a through 2 d of this definition even though the food may
contain a pathogenic microorganism or chemical or physical contaminant at a
level sufficient to cause illness or injury.
"USDA" means the U.S. Department of Agriculture.
"Utensil" means a food-contact implement or
container used in the storage, preparation, transportation, dispensing, sale,
or service of food, such as kitchenware or tableware that is multiuse, single
service, or single use; gloves used in contact with food; temperature sensing
probes of food temperature measuring devices; and probe-type price or
identification tags used in contact with food.
"Variance" means a written document issued by the
department that authorizes a modification or waiver of one or more requirements
of this chapter if, in the opinion of the department, a health hazard or
nuisance will not result from the modification or waiver.
"Vending machine" means a self-service device that,
upon insertion of a coin, paper currency, token, card, or key, or by optional
manual operation, dispenses unit servings of food in bulk or in packages
without the necessity of replenishing the device between each vending
operation.
"Vending machine location" means the room,
enclosure, space, or area where one or more vending machines are installed and
operated and includes the storage and servicing areas on the premises that
are used in conjunction with the vending machines areas and areas on the
premises that are used to service and maintain the vending machines.
"Warewashing" means the cleaning and sanitizing of utensils
and food-contact surfaces of equipment and utensils.
[ "Waterworks" means a system that serves
piped water for human consumption to at least 15 service connections or 25 or
more individuals for at least 60 days out of the year. Waterworks
includes all structures, equipment, and appurtenances used in the storage,
collection, purification, treatment, and distribution of potable water except
the piping and fixtures inside the building where such water is delivered. ]
"Whole-muscle, intact beef" means whole muscle beef
that is not injected, mechanically tenderized, reconstructed, or scored and
marinated, from which beef steaks may be cut.
Part II
Management and Personnel
Article 1
Supervision
2VAC5-585-50. Assignment of responsibility.*
The A. Except as specified in subsection B of this
section, the operator shall be the person in charge or shall designate a
person in charge and shall ensure that a person in charge is present at the
food establishment during all hours of operation.Pf
B. In a food establishment with two or more separately
inspected departments that are the legal responsibility of the same operator
and that are located on the same premises, the operator may, during specific
time periods when food is not being prepared, packaged, or served, designate a
single person in charge who is present on the premises during all hours of
operation, and who is responsible for each separately inspected food
establishment on the premises.Pf
[ 2VAC5-585-55. Certified food protection manager.
A. At least one employee who has supervisory and
management responsibility and the authority to direct and control food
preparation and service shall be a certified food protection manager who has
shown proficiency of required information through passing a test that is part
of an accredited program.
B. This section does not apply to certain types of food
establishments deemed by the regulatory authority to pose minimal
risk of causing, or contributing to, foodborne illness based on the nature of
the operation and extent of food preparation.
C. For purposes of enforcing this section, this
requirement will take effect insert date 18 months after the effective date of
this chapter.
2VAC5-585-57. Food protection manager certification.
A. A person in charge who demonstrates knowledge by
being a food protection manager and is certified by a food protection manager
certification program that is evaluated and listed by a Conference for Food
Protection-recognized accrediting agency as conforming to the Standards for
Accreditation of Food Protection Manager Certification Programs, April 2012,
(Conference for Food Protection) is deemed to comply with subdivision 2 of
2VAC5-585-60.
B. A food establishment that has an employee who is
certified by a food protection manager certification program that is evaluated
and listed by a Conference for Food Protection-recognized accrediting agency as
conforming to the Standards for Accreditation of Food Protection Manager
Certification Programs, April 2012, (Conference for Food Protection) is deemed
to comply with 2VAC5-585-55. ]
2VAC5-585-60. Demonstration.*
Based on the risks of foodborne illness inherent to
the food operation, during inspections and upon request the person in charge
shall demonstrate to the department knowledge of foodborne disease prevention,
application of the Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point principles, and the
requirements of this regulation chapter. The person in charge
shall demonstrate this knowledge by:
1. Complying with this regulation chapter by
having no violations of priority items during the current inspection;Pf
2. Being a certified food protection manager who has shown
proficiency of required information through passing a test that is part of an
accredited program;Pf or
3. Responding correctly to the inspector's questions as they
relate to the specific food operation. The areas of knowledge include:
a. Describing the relationship between the prevention of
foodborne disease and the personal hygiene of a food employee;Pf
b. Explaining the responsibility of the person in charge for
preventing the transmission of foodborne disease by a food employee who has a
disease or medical condition that may cause foodborne disease;Pf
c. Describing the symptoms associated with the diseases that
are transmissible through food;Pf
d. Explaining the significance of the relationship between
maintaining the time and temperature of potentially hazardous food
(time/temperature time/temperature control for safety food) food
and the prevention of foodborne illness;Pf
e. Explaining the hazards involved in the consumption of raw
or undercooked meat, poultry, eggs, and fish;Pf
f. Stating the required food temperatures and times for safe
cooking of potentially hazardous food (time/temperature time/temperature
control for safety food) food including meat, poultry, eggs, and
fish;Pf
g. Stating the required temperatures and times for the safe
refrigerated storage, hot holding, cooling, and reheating of potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature time/temperature control for safety
food) food;Pf
h. Describing the relationship between the prevention of
foodborne illness and the management and control of the following:
(1) Cross contamination;Pf
(2) Hand contact with ready-to-eat foods;Pf
(3) Handwashing;Pf and
(4) Maintaining the food establishment in a clean condition
and in good repair;Pf
i. Describing the foods identified as major food
allergens and the symptoms that a major food allergen could cause in a
sensitive individual who has an allergic reaction;Pf
j. Explaining the relationship between food safety and
providing equipment that is:
(1) Sufficient in number and capacity;Pf and
(2) Properly designed, constructed, located, installed,
operated, maintained, and cleaned;Pf
k. Explaining correct procedures for cleaning and sanitizing
utensils and food-contact surfaces of equipment;Pf
l. Identifying the source of water used and measures taken to
ensure that it remains protected from contamination such as providing
protection from backflow and precluding the creation of cross connections;Pf
m. Identifying poisonous or toxic materials in the food
establishment and the procedures necessary to ensure that they are safely
stored, dispensed, used, and disposed of according to law;Pf
n. Identifying critical control points in the operation from
purchasing through sale or service that when not controlled may contribute to
the transmission of foodborne illness and explaining steps taken to ensure that
the points are controlled in accordance with the requirements of this regulation
chapter;Pf
o. Explaining the details of how the person in charge and food
employees comply with the HACCP plan if a plan is required by the law, this regulation
chapter, or an agreement between the department and the food
establishment;Pf
p. Explaining the responsibilities, rights, and authorities
assigned by this regulation chapter to the:
(1) Food employee;Pf
(2) Conditional employee;Pf
(3) Person in charge;Pf and
(3) (4) Department;Pf and
q. Explaining how the person in charge, food employees, and
conditional employees comply with reporting responsibilities and the exclusion
or restriction of food employees.Pf
[ 2VAC5-585-65. Certified food protection
manager.
A. At least one employee who has supervisory and
management responsibility and the authority to direct and control food
preparation and service shall be a certified food protection manager who has
shown proficiency of required information through passing a test that is part
of an accredited program.
B. This section does not apply to certain types of food
establishments deemed by the regulatory authority to pose minimal risk of
causing, or contributing to, foodborne illness based on the nature of the
operation and extent of food preparation.
C. For purposes of enforcing this section, this
requirement will take effect July 1, 2018.
2VAC5-585-67. Food protection manager certification.
A. A person in charge who demonstrates knowledge by being
a food protection manager and is certified by a food protection manager
certification program that is evaluated and listed by a Conference for Food
Protection-recognized accrediting agency as conforming to the Standards for
Accreditation of Food Protection Manager Certification Programs, April 2012,
(Conference for Food Protection) is deemed to comply with subdivision 2 of
2VAC5-585-60.
B. A food establishment that has an employee who is
certified by a food protection manager certification program that is evaluated
and listed by a Conference for Food Protection-recognized accrediting agency as
conforming to the Standards for Accreditation of Food Protection Manager
Certification Programs, April 2012, (Conference for Food Protection) is deemed
to comply with 2VAC5-585-65. ]
2VAC5-585-70. Duties of person in charge.
The person in charge shall ensure that:
1. Food establishment operations are not conducted in a
private home or in a room used as living or sleeping quarters as specified
under 2VAC5-585-2990;Pf
2. Persons unnecessary to the food establishment operation are
not allowed in the food preparation, food storage, or warewashing areas, except
that brief visits and tours may be authorized by the person in charge if steps
are taken to ensure that exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens;
and unwrapped single-service and single-use articles are protected from
contamination;Pf
3. Employees and other persons such as delivery and
maintenance persons and pesticide applicators entering the food preparation,
food storage, and warewashing areas comply with this regulation chapter;Pf
4. Employees are effectively cleaning their hands, by
routinely monitoring the employees' handwashing;Pf
5. Employees are visibly observing foods as they are received
to determine that they are from approved sources, delivered at the required
temperatures, protected from contamination, unadulterated, and accurately
presented, by routinely monitoring the employees' observations and periodically
evaluating foods upon their receipt;Pf
6. Employees are verifying that foods delivered to the food
establishment during nonoperating hours are from approved sources and are
placed into appropriate storage locations such that they are maintained at the
required temperatures, protected from contamination, unadulterated, and
accurately presented;Pf
7. Employees are properly cooking potentially
hazardous food time/temperature control for safety food, being
particularly careful in cooking those foods known to cause severe foodborne
illness and death, such as eggs and comminuted meats, through daily oversight
of the employees' routine monitoring of the cooking temperatures using
appropriate temperature measuring devices properly scaled and calibrated as
specified under 2VAC5-585-1180 and 2VAC5-585-1730 B;Pf
7. 8. Employees are using proper methods to
rapidly cool potentially hazardous foods time/temperature control for
safety foods that are not held hot or are not for consumption within four
hours, through daily oversight of the employees' routine monitoring of food
temperatures during cooling;Pf
8. 9. [ Employees are properly
maintaining the temperatures of time/temperature control for safety food during
hot and cold holding through daily oversight of the employees' routine
monitoring of food temperatures;Pf
10. ] Consumers who order raw or partially cooked
ready-to-eat foods of animal origin are informed as specified under
2VAC5-585-930 that the food is not cooked sufficiently to ensure its safety;Pf
9. [ 10. 11. ] Employees
are properly sanitizing cleaned multiuse equipment and utensils before they are
reused, through routine monitoring of solution temperature and exposure time
for hot water sanitizing, and chemical concentration, pH, temperature, and
exposure time for chemical sanitizing;Pf
10. [ 11. 12. ]
Consumers are notified that clean tableware is to be used when they return to
self-service areas such as salad bars and buffets as specified under
2VAC5-585-590;Pf
11. [ 12. 13. ] Except
when otherwise approved approval is obtained from the department
as specified in 2VAC5-585-450 B E, employees are preventing
cross-contamination of ready-to-eat food with bare hands by properly using
suitable utensils such as deli tissue, spatulas, tongs, single-use gloves, or
dispensing equipment;Pf
12. [ 13. 14. ]
Employees are properly trained in food safety, including food allergy
awareness, as it relates to their assigned duties; andPf
13. [ 14. 15. ] Food
employees and conditional employees are informed in a verifiable manner
of their responsibility to report in accordance with law, to the person in
charge, information about their health and activities as they relate to
diseases that are transmissible through food, as specified under 2VAC5-585-80.
A;Pf and
[ 15. 16. ] Written
procedures and plans where specified by this chapter and as developed by the
food establishment are maintained and implemented as required.Pf
Article 2
Employee Health
2VAC5-585-80. Responsibility of the operator,
person in charge, and conditional employees.*
A. The person in charge operator shall require
food employees and conditional employees to report to the person in charge
information about their health and activities as they relate to diseases that are
transmissible through food. A food employee or conditional employee shall
report the information in a manner that allows the person in charge to reduce
the risk of foodborne disease transmission, including providing necessary
additional information, such as the date of onset of symptoms and an illness,
or of a diagnosis without symptoms, if the food employee or conditional
employee:
1. Has any of the following symptoms:
a. Vomiting;P
b. Diarrhea;P
c. Jaundice;P
d. Sore throat with fever;P or
e. A lesion containing pus such as a boil or infected wound
that is open or draining and is:
(1) On the hands or wrists, unless an impermeable cover such
as a finger cot or stall protects the lesion and a single-use glove is worn
over the impermeable cover;P
(2) On exposed portions of the arms, unless the lesion is
protected by an impermeable cover;P or
(3) On other parts of the body, unless the lesion is covered
by a dry, durable, tight-fitting bandage;P
2. Has an illness diagnosed by a health practitioner due to:
a. Norovirus;P
b. Hepatitis A virus;P
c. Shigella spp.;P
d. Enterohemorrhagic or Shiga-toxin producing Shiga
toxin-producing Escherichia coli; orP
e. [ Salmonella Typhi Typhoid fever (caused by
Salmonella typhi) ];P or
f. [ Nontyphoidal Salmonella
Salmonella (nontyphoidal) ];P
3. Had [ a previous illness typhoid fever ],
diagnosed by a health practitioner, within the past three months due to
Salmonella [ Typhi typhi ], without having received
antibiotic therapy, as determined by a health practitioner;P
4. Has been exposed to, or is the suspected source of, a
confirmed disease outbreak, because the food employee or conditional employee
consumed or prepared food implicated in the outbreak, or consumed food at an
event prepared by a person who is infected or ill with:
a. Norovirus within the past 48 hours of the last exposure;P
b. Enterohemorrhagic or Shiga-toxin producing Shiga
toxin-producing Escherichia coli, or Shigella spp. within the past three
days of the last exposure;P
c. [ Salmonella Typhi Typhoid fever ]
within the past 14 days of the last exposure;P or
d. Hepatitis A virus within the past 30 days of the last
exposure;P or
5. Has been exposed by attending or working in a setting where
there is a confirmed disease outbreak, or living in the same household as, and
has knowledge about an individual who works or attends a setting where there is
a confirmed disease outbreak, or living in the same household as, and has
knowledge about, an individual diagnosed with an illness caused by:
a. Norovirus within the past 48 hours of the last
exposure;P
b. Enterohemorragic or Shiga-toxin producing Shiga
toxin-producing Escherichia coli, or Shigella spp. within the past
three days of the last exposure;P
c. [ Salmonella Typhi Typhoid fever (caused by
Salmonella typhi) ] within the past 14 days of the last exposure;P
or
d. Hepatitis A virus within the past 30 days of the last
exposure.P
B. The person in charge shall notify the regulatory
authority department when a food employee is:
1. Jaundiced;Pf or
2. Diagnosed with an illness due to a pathogen as specified
under subdivisions A 2 a through e f of this section.Pf
C. The person in charge shall ensure that a conditional
employee:
1. Who exhibits or reports a symptom, or who reports a
diagnosed illness as specified under subdivisions A 2 a through e A 1
through 3 of this section, is prohibited from becoming a food employee
until the conditional employee meets the criteria for the specific symptoms or
diagnosed illness as specified under 2VAC5-585-100;P and
2. Who will work as a food employee in a food establishment
that serves a highly susceptible population and reports a history of exposure
as specified under subdivisions A 4 and 5 of this section, is prohibited from
becoming a food employee until the conditional employee meets the criteria
specified under subdivision 9 10 of 2VAC5-585-100.P
D. The person in charge shall ensure that a food employee who
exhibits or reports a symptom, or who reports a diagnosed illness or a
history of exposure as specified under subdivision subsection A 1
through 5 of this section is:
1. Excluded as specified under subdivisions 1 through 3 and 4
a, 5 a, 6 a, or 7, or 8 a of 2VAC5-585-90 and in compliance with
the provisions specified under subdivisions 1 through 7 8 of
2VAC5-585-100;P or
2. Restricted as specified under subdivisions subdivision
4 b, 5 b, 6 b, 7 b, 8 b, or 9, or 10 of
2VAC5-585-90 and in compliance with the provisions specified under subdivisions
4 through 9 10 of 2VAC5-585-100.P
E. A food employee or conditional employee shall report to
the person in charge the information as specified under subsection A of this
section.Pf
F. A food employee shall:
1. Comply with an exclusion as specified under subdivisions 1
through 3 and 4 a, 5 a, 6 a, or 7, or 8 a of 2VAC5-585-90, and with
the provisions specified under subdivisions 1 through 7 8 of
2VAC5-585-100;P or
2. Comply with a restriction as specified under subdivisons
subdivision 4 b, 5 b, 6 b, 7 b, or 8, or 9 b
of 2VAC5-585-90 or under subdivision 8, 9, or 10 of 2VAC5-585-90 and
comply with the provisions specified under subdivisons subdivisions
4 through 9 10 of 2VAC5-585-100.P
2VAC5-585-90. Exclusions and restrictions.*
The person in charge shall exclude or restrict a food
employee from a food establishment in accordance with the following:
1. Except when the symptom is from a noninfectious condition,
exclude a food employee if the food employee is:
a. Symptomatic with vomiting or diarrhea;P
or
b. Symptomatic with vomiting or diarrhea and diagnosed with an
infection from Norovirus, Shigella spp., or Enterohemorrhagic [ nontyphoidal ]
Salmonella [ (nontyphoidal) ], or Shiga-toxin
producing Escherichia Shiga toxin-producing E. coli.P
2. Exclude a food employee who is:
a. Jaundiced and the onset of jaundice occurred within the last
seven calendar days, unless the food employee provides to the person in charge
written medical documentation from a health practitioner specifying that the
jaundice is not caused by Hepatitis A virus or other fecal-orally transmitted
infection;P
b. Diagnosed with an infection from Hepatitis A virus within
14 calendar days from the onset of any illness symptoms, or within seven
calendar days of the onset of jaundice;P or
c. Diagnosed with an infection from Hepatitis A virus without
developing symptoms.P
3. Exclude a food employee who is diagnosed with [ an
infection from Salmonella Typhi typhoid fever ], or reports
[ a previous infection with Salmonella Typhi having had typhoid
fever ] within the past three months as specified in 2VAC5-585-80 A 3.P
4. If a food employee is diagnosed with an infection from
Norovirus and is asymptomatic:
a. Exclude the food employee who works in a food establishment
serving a highly susceptible population;P or
b. Restrict the food employee who works in a food
establishment not serving a highly susceptible population.P
5. If a food employee is diagnosed with an infection from
Shigella spp. and is asymptomatic:
a. Exclude the food employee who works in a food establishment
serving a highly susceptible population;P or
b. Restrict the food employee who works in a food
establishment not serving a highly susceptible population.P
6. If a food employee is diagnosed with an infection from Enterohemorrhagic
or Shiga-toxin producing Shiga toxin-producing E. coli, and is
asymptomatic:
a. Exclude the food employee who works in a food establishment
serving a highly susceptible population;P or
b. Restrict the food employee who works in a food
establishment not serving a highly susceptible population.P
7. If a food employee is diagnosed with an infection from
[ nontyphoidal ] Salmonella [ (nontyphoidal) ]
and is asymptomatic, restrict the food employee who works in a food
establishment serving a highly susceptible population or in a food
establishment not serving a highly susceptible population.P
7. 8. If a food employee is ill with symptoms of
acute onset of sore throat with fever:
a. Exclude the food employee who works in a food establishment
serving a highly susceptible population;P or
b. Restrict the food employee who works in a food establishment
not serving a highly susceptible population.P
8. 9. If a food employee is infected with a skin
lesion containing pus such as a boil or infected wound that is open or draining
and not properly covered as specified under 2VAC5-585-80 A 1 e, restrict the
food employee.P
9. 10. If a food employee is exposed to a
foodborne pathogen as specified under 2VAC5-585-80 A 4 or 5, restrict the food
employee who works in a food establishment serving a highly susceptible
population.P
2VAC5-585-100. Removal of exclusions and restrictions.
The person in charge shall adhere to the following conditions
when removing, adjusting, or retaining the exclusion or restriction of a food
employee:
1. Except when a food employee is diagnosed with [ typhoid
fever or ] an infection from Hepatitis A virus [ or Salmonella
Typhi ]:
a. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded as specified
under subdivision 1 a of 2VAC5-585-90 if the food employee:
(1) Is asymptomatic for at least 24 hours;P
or
(2) Provides to the person in charge written medical
documentation from a health practitioner that states the symptom is from a
noninfectious condition.P
b. If a food employee was diagnosed with an infection from
Norovirus and excluded as specified under subdivision 1 b of
2VAC5-585-90 1 b:
(1) Restrict the food employee, who is asymptomatic for at
least 24 hours and works in a food establishment not serving a highly
susceptible population until the conditions for reinstatement as specified in
subdivision 4 a or b of this section are met;P or
(2) Retain the exclusion for the food employee, who is asymptomatic
for at least 24 hours and works in a food establishment that serves a highly
susceptible population, until the conditions for reinstatement as specified in
subdivision 4 a or b of this section are met.P
c. If a food employee was diagnosed with an infection from
Shigella spp. and excluded as specified under subdivision 1 b of 2VAC5-585-90:
(1) Restrict the food employee, who is asymptomatic, for at
least 24 hours and works in a food establishment not serving a highly
susceptible population, until the conditions for reinstatement as specified in
subdivision 5 a or b of this section are met;P or
(2) Retain the exclusion for the food employee, who is
asymptomatic for at least 24 hours and works in a food establishment that
serves a highly susceptible population, until the conditions for reinstatement
as specified in (i) subdivision 5 a or 5 b of this section,
or 5 a and c (1) (ii) subdivisions 1 c (1) and 5 a of this
section are met.P
d. If a food employee was diagnosed with an infection from Enterohemorrhagic
or Shiga-toxin producing Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli and
excluded as specified under subdivision 1 b of 2VAC5-585-90:
(1) Restrict the food employee, who is asymptomatic for at
least 24 hours and works in a food establishment not serving a highly
susceptible population, until the conditions for reinstatement as specified in
subdivision 6 a or b of this section are met;P or
(2) Retain the exclusion for the food employee, who is
asymptomatic for at least 24 hours and works in a food establishment that
serves a highly susceptible population, until the conditions for reinstatement
as specified in subdivision 6 a or b are met.P
e. If a food employee was diagnosed with an infection from
[ nontyphoidal ] Salmonella [ (nontyphoidal) ]
and excluded as specified in subdivision 1 b of 2VAC5-585-90:
(1) Restrict the food employee, who is asymptomatic, for at
least 30 days until conditions for reinstatement as specified in subdivision 7
a or b of this section are met;P or
(2) Retain the exclusion for the food employee, who is
symptomatic, until conditions for reinstatement as specified in subdivision 7 a
or b of this section are met.P
2. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded as specified
under subdivision 2 of 2VAC5-585-90 if the person in charge obtains approval
from the regulatory authority department and one of the following
conditions is met:
a. The food employee has been jaundiced for more than seven
calendar days;P
b. The anicteric food employee has been symptomatic with
symptoms other than jaundice for more than 14 calendar days;P
or
c. The food employee provides to the person in charge written
medical documentation from a health practitioner stating that the food employee
is free of a Hepatitis A virus infection.P
3. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded as specified
under subdivision 3 of 2VAC5-585-90 if:
a. The person in charge obtains approval from the regulatory
authority department;P and
b. The food employee provides to the person in charge written
medical documentation from a health practitioner that states the food
employee is free from S. [ Salmonella Typhi infection
typhoid fever ].P
4. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded as specified
under subdivision 1 b or 4 a of 2VAC5-585-90, who was restricted under
subdivision 4 b of 2VAC5-585-90 if the person in charge obtains approval from
the regulatory authority department and one of the following
conditions is met:
a. The excluded or restricted food employee provides to the
person in charge written medical documentation from a health practitioner
stating that the food employee is free of a Norovirus infection;P
b. The food employee was excluded or restricted after symptoms
of vomiting or diarrhea resolved, and more than 48 hours have passed since the
food employee became symptomatic asymptomatic;P
or
c. The food employee was excluded or restricted and did not
develop symptoms and more than 48 hours have passed since the food employee was
diagnosed.P
5. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded as specified
under subdivision 1 b or 5 a of 2VAC5-585-90 or who was restricted under
subdivision 5 b of 2VAC5-585-90 if the person in charge obtains approval from
the regulatory authority department and one of the following
conditions is met:
a. The excluded or restricted food employee provides to the
person in charge written medical documentation from a health practitioner
stating that the food employee is free of a Shigella spp. infection based on
test results showing two consecutive negative stool specimen cultures that are
taken:
(1) Not earlier than 48 hours after discontinuance of
antibiotics;P and
(2) At least 24 hours apart;P
b. The food employee was excluded or restricted after symptoms
of vomiting or diarrhea resolved, and more than seven calendar days have passed
since the food employee became asymptomatic;P or
c. The food employee was excluded or restricted and did not
develop symptoms and more than seven calendar days have passed since the food
employee was diagnosed.P
6. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded or restricted as
specified under subdivision 1 b or 6 a of 2VAC5-585-90 or who was restricted
under subdivision 6 b of 2VAC5-585-90 if the person in charge obtains approval
from the regulatory authority department and one of the following
conditions is met:
a. The excluded or restricted food employee provides to the
person in charge written medical documentation from a health practitioner
stating that the food employee is free of an infection from Enterohemorrhagic
or Shiga-toxin producing Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli
based on test results that show two consecutive negative stool specimen
cultures that are taken:
(1) Not earlier than 48 hours after the discontinuance of
antibiotics;P and
(2) At least 24 hours apart;P
b. The food employee was excluded or restricted after symptoms
of vomiting or diarrhea resolved and more than seven calendar days have passed
since the food employee became asymptomatic;P or
c. The food employee was excluded or restricted and did not
develop symptoms and more than seven days have passed since the food
employee was diagnosed.P
7. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded as specified
under subdivision 1 b of 2VAC5-585-90 or who was restricted under subdivision 7
of 2VAC5-585-90 if the person in charge obtains approval from the departmentP
and one of the following conditions is met:
a. The excluded or restricted food employee provides to the
person in charge written medical documentation from a health practitioner
stating that the food employee is free of a [ nontyphoidal ]
Salmonella [ (nontyphoidal) ] infection based on
test results showing two consecutive negative stool specimen cultures that are
taken:
(1) Not earlier than 48 hours after discontinuance of
antibiotics,P and
(2) At least 24 hours apart;P
b. The food employee was restricted after symptoms of
vomiting or diarrhea resolved, and more than 30 days have passed since the food
employee became asymptomatic;P or
c. The food employee was excluded or restricted and did not
develop symptoms and more than 30 days have passed since the food employee was
diagnosed.P
7. 8. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded
or restricted as specified under subdivision 7 8 a or b of
2VAC5-585-90 if the food employee provides to the person in charge written
medical documentation from a health practitioner stating that the food employee
meets one of the following conditions:
a. Has received antibiotic therapy for Streptococcus pyogenes
infection for more than 24 hours;P
b. Has at least one negative throat specimen culture for
Streptococcus pyogenes infection;P or
c. Is otherwise determined by a health practitioner to be free
of Streptococcus pyogenes infection.P
8. 9. Reinstate a food employee who was
restricted as specified under subdivision 8 9 of 2VAC5-585-90 if
the skin, infected wound, cut, or pustular boil is properly covered with one of
the following:
a. An impermeable cover such as a finger cot or stall and a
single-use glove over the impermeable cover if the infected wound or pustular
boil is on the hand, finger, or wrist;P
b. An impermeable cover on the arm if the infected wound or
pustular boil is on the arm;P or
c. A dry, durable, tight-fitting bandage if the infected wound
or pustular boil is on another part of the body.P
9. 10. Reinstate a food employee who was
restricted as specified under subdivision 9 10 of 2VAC5-585-90
and was exposed to one of the following pathogens as specified under
2VAC5-585-80 A 4 or 5:
a. Norovirus and one of the following conditions is met:
(1) More than 48 hours have passed since the last day the food
employee was potentially exposed;P or
(2) More than 48 hours have passed since the food employee's
household contact became asymptomatic.P
b. Shigella spp. or Enterohemorrhagic or Shiga-toxin
producing Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli and one of the
following conditions is met:
(1) More than three calendar days have passed since the last
day the food employee was potentially exposed;P or
(2) More than three calendar days have passed since the food
employee's household contact became asymptomatic.P
c. S. [ Salmonella Typhi typhoid
fever (caused by Salmonella typhi) ] and one of the following
conditions is met:
(1) More than 14 calendar days have passed since the last day
the food employee was potentially exposed;P or
(2) More than 14 calendar days have passed since the food
employee's household contact became asymptomatic.P
d. Hepatitis A virus and one of the following conditions is
met:
(1) The food employee is immune to Hepatitis A virus infection
because of prior illness from Hepatitis A;P
(2) The food employee is immune to Hepatitis A virus infection
because of vaccination against Hepatitis A;P
(3) The food employee is immune to Hepatitis A virus infection
because of IgG administration;P
(4) More than 30 calendar days have passed since the last day
the food employee was potentially exposed;P
(5) More than 30 calendar days have passed since the food
employee's household contact became jaundiced;P or
(6) The food employee does not use an alternative procedure
that allows bare hand contact with ready-to-eat food until at least 30 days
after the potential exposure, as specified in subdivision 9 10 d
(4) and (5) of this section, and the food employee receives additional training
about:
(a) Hepatitis A symptoms and preventing the transmission of
infection;P
(b) Proper handwashing procedures;P and
(c) Protecting ready-to-eat food from contamination introduced
by bare hand contact.P
[ 2VAC5-585-125. Clean-up of vomiting and
diarrheal events.
A food establishment shall have procedures for
employees to follow when responding to vomiting or diarrheal events that
involve the discharge of vomitus or fecal matter onto surfaces in the food
establishment.
The procedures shall address the specific actions employees
must take to minimize the spread of contamination and the exposure of
employees, consumers, food, and surfaces to vomitus or fecal matter.Pf ]
Article 3
Personal Cleanliness
2VAC5-585-130. Clean condition of hands and arms.*
Food employees shall keep their hands and exposed portions of
their arms clean.P
2VAC5-585-140. Cleaning procedure of hands and arms.*
A. Except as specified in subsection D of this section, food
employees shall clean their hands and exposed portions of their arms (or,
including surrogate prosthetic devices for hands or arms) arms
for at least 20 seconds, using a cleaning compound in a lavatory handwashing
sink that is equipped as specified under 2VAC5-585-2190 and
2VAC5-585-3020 through 2VAC5-585-3045.P
B. Food employees shall use the following cleaning procedure
in the order stated to clean their hands and exposed portions of their arms,
including surrogate prosthetic devices for hands and arms:
1. Rinse under clean, running warm water;P
2. Apply an amount of cleaning compound recommended by the
cleaning compound manufacturer;P
3. Rub together vigorously for at least 10 to 15 seconds
while:
a. Paying particular attention to removing soil from
underneath the fingernails during the cleaning procedure;P
and
b. Creating friction on the surfaces of the hands and arms or
surrogate prosthetic devices for hands and arms, finger tips, and areas between
the fingers;P
4. Thoroughly rinsing under clean, running warm water;P
and
5. Immediately follow the cleaning procedure with thorough
drying using a method as specified under 2VAC5-585-3030.P
C. To avoid recontaminating their hands or surrogate
prosthetic devices, food employees may use disposable paper towels or similar
clean barriers when touching surfaces such as manually operated faucet handles
on a handwashing sink or the handle of a restroom door.
D. If approved and capable of removing the types of soils
encountered in the food operations involved, an automatic handwashing facility
may be used by food employees to clean their hands or surrogate prosthetic
devices.
2VAC5-585-160. When to wash.*
Food employees shall clean their hands and exposed portions
of their arms as specified under 2VAC5-585-140 immediately before engaging in
food preparation including working with exposed food, clean equipment and
utensils, and unwrapped single-service and single-use articlesP
and:
1. After touching bare human body parts or hair other
than clean hands and clean, exposed portions of arms;P
2. After using the toilet room;P
3. After caring for or handling support service
animals or aquatic animals as allowed under 2VAC5-585-250 B;P
4. Except as specified in 2VAC5-585-220 B, after coughing,
sneezing, using a handkerchief or disposable tissue, using tobacco, eating, or
drinking;P
5. After handling soiled equipment or utensils;P
6. During food preparation, as often as necessary to remove
soil and contamination and to prevent cross contamination when changing tasks;P
7. When switching between working with raw foods food
and working with ready-to-eat foods food;P
8. Before donning gloves for to initiate a task that
involves working with food;P and
9. Prior to donning single-use gloves if gloves are used;
and
10. After engaging in other activities that contaminate
the hands.P
2VAC5-585-170. Where to wash.
Food employees shall clean their hands in a hand washing
lavatory handwashing sink or approved automatic hand washing handwashing
facility and may not clean their hands in a sink used for food preparation or
warewashing, or in a service sink or a curbed cleaning facility used for the
disposal of mop water and similar liquid waste.Pf
2VAC5-585-180. Hand antiseptics.
A. A hand antiseptic used as a topical application, a hand
antiseptic solution used as a hand dip, or a hand antiseptic soap shall:
1. Comply with one of the following:
a. Be an approved drug that is listed in the FDA
publication "Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic
Equivalence Evaluations, 34th Edition," 2014, (U.S. Food and Drug
Administration) as an approved drug based on safety and effectiveness;Pf
or
b. Have active antimicrobial ingredients that are listed in
the FDA tentative final monograph for over the counter (OTC) Health-Care
Antiseptic Drug Products, 59 FR 31402-31452 (June 17, 1994) as an antiseptic
handwash;Pf and
2. Comply Consist only of components that the
intended use of each complies with one of the following:
a. Have components that are exempted from the requirement
of being listed in the federal Food Additive regulations as specified in A
threshold of regulation exemption under 21 CFR 170.39 Threshold of
regulation for substances used in food-contact articles; orPf
b. Comply with and be listed in:
(1) 21 CFR Part 178, Indirect Food Additives: Adjuvants,
Production Aids, and Sanitizers as regulated for use as a food additive with
conditions of safe use; or
(2) 21 CFR Part 182, Substances Generally Recognized as
Safe; 21 CFR Part 184, Direct Food Substances Affirmed as Generally Recognized
as Safe; or 21 CFR Part 186, Indirect Food Substances Affirmed as Generally
Recognized as Safe for use in contact with food; and
b. 21 CFR Part 178, as regulated for use as a food additive
with conditions of safe use;Pf
c. A determination of generally recognized as safe (GRAS).
Partial listings of substances with food uses that are GRAS may be found in 21
CFR Part 182, 21 CFR Part 184, or 21 CFR Part 186; and in FDA's Inventory of
GRAS Notices;Pf
d. A prior sanction listed under 21 CFR Part 181;Pf
or
e. A food contact notification that is effective;Pf
and
3. Be applied only to hands that are cleaned as specified
under 2VAC5-585-140.Pf
B. If a hand antiseptic or a hand antiseptic solution used as
a hand dip does not meet the criteria specified under subdivision A 2 of this
section, use shall be:
1. Followed by thorough hand rinsing in clean water before
hand contact with food or by the use of gloves;Pf or
2. Limited to situations that involve no direct contact with
food by the bare hands.Pf
C. A hand antiseptic solution used as a hand dip shall be
maintained clean and at a strength equivalent to at least 100 ppm
(mg/l) mg/l (ppm) chlorine or above.Pf
2VAC5-585-190. Maintenance of fingernails.
A. Food employees shall keep their fingernails
trimmed, filed, and maintained so the edges and surfaces are cleanable and not
rough.Pf
B. Unless wearing intact gloves in good repair, a food
employee may not wear fingernail polish or artificial nails when working with
exposed food.Pf
2VAC5-585-200. Prohibition of jewelry.
While preparing food, food employees may not wear jewelry
including medical information jewelry on their arms and hands. This section
does not apply to a plain ring such as a wedding band. Except for a
plain ring such as a wedding band, while preparing food, food employees may not
wear jewelry, including medical information jewelry, on their arms and hands.
Article 4
Hygienic Practices
2VAC5-585-220. Eating, drinking, or using tobacco.*
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, an
employee shall eat, drink, or use any form of tobacco only in designated areas
where the contamination of exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens;
unwrapped single-service and single-use articles; or other items needing
protection cannot result.
B. A food employee may drink from a closed beverage container
with a straw if the container is handled to prevent contamination of:
1. The employee's hands;
2. The container; and
3. Exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; and
unwrapped single-service and single-use articles.
2VAC5-585-230. Discharges from the eyes, nose, and mouth.*
Food employees experiencing persistent sneezing, coughing, or
a runny nose that causes discharges from the eyes, nose, or mouth may not work
with exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; or unwrapped
single-service or single-use articles.
2VAC5-585-250. Handling of animals prohibited.*
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, food
employees may not care for or handle animals that may be present such as patrol
dogs, support service animals, or pets that are allowed in
as specified in subdivisions B 2 through B [ 5 6 ]
of 2VAC5-585-3310.Pf
B. Food employees with support service animals
may handle or care for their support service animals and food
employees may handle or care for fish in aquariums or molluscan shellfish or
crustacea in display tanks if they wash their hands as specified under
2VAC5-585-140 and subdivision 3 of 2VAC5-585-160.
[ 2VAC5-585-255. Clean-up of vomiting and
diarrheal events.
A. A food establishment shall have procedures for
employees to follow when responding to vomiting or diarrheal events that
involve the discharge of vomitus or fecal matter onto surfaces in the food
establishment.Pf
B. The procedures shall address the specific actions
employees must take to minimize the spread of contamination and the exposure of
employees, consumers, food, and surfaces to vomitus or fecal matter.Pf ]
Part III
Food
Article 1
Characteristics
2VAC5-585-260. Safe, unadulterated, and honestly presented.*
Food shall be safe, unadulterated, and, as specified under
2VAC5-585-890, honestly presented.P
Article 2
Sources, Specifications, and Original Containers and Records
2VAC5-585-270. Compliance with food law.*
A. Food shall be obtained from sources that comply with law.P
B. Food prepared in a private home may not be used or offered
for human consumption in a food establishment unless the home kitchen is
inspected by the responsible and regulated by the food regulatory
authority that has jurisdiction over the private home.P
C. Packaged food shall be labeled as specified in law,
including 21 CFR Part 101, Food Labeling; 9 CFR Part 317, Labeling,
Marking Devices, and Containers; and 9 CFR Part 381, Subpart N, Labeling
and Containers; and as specified under 2VAC5-585-400 and 2VAC5-585-410.Pf
D. Fish, other than molluscan shellfish, that are intended
for consumption in their raw form and allowed as specified in 2VAC5-585-700 D 1
may be offered for sale or service if they are obtained from a supplier that
freezes the fish as specified under 2VAC5-585-730, or frozen on the premises as
specified under 2VAC5-585-730, and records are retained as specified under
2VAC5-585-740.
D. Fish, other than those specified in 2VAC5-585-730 B,
that are intended for consumption in raw or undercooked form and allowed as
specified in 2VAC5-585-700 D, may be offered for sale or service if they are
obtained from a supplier that freezes fish as specified under 2VAC5-585-730 A,
or if they are frozen on the premises as specified under 2VAC5-585-730 A and
records are retained as specified under 2VAC5-585-740.
E. Whole-muscle, intact beef steaks that are intended for
consumption in an undercooked form without a consumer advisory as specified in
2VAC5-585-700 C shall be:
1. Obtained from a food processing plant that, upon request by
the purchaser, packages the steaks and labels them to indicate that they
the steaks meet the definition of whole-muscle, intact beef;Pf
or
2. Deemed acceptable by the department based on other
evidence, such as written buyer specifications or invoices, that indicates that
the steaks meet the definition of whole-muscle, intact beef;Pf
and
3. If individually cut in a food establishment:
a. Cut from whole-muscle, intact beef that is labeled by a
food processing plant as specified in subdivision 1 of this subsection
or identified as specified in subdivision 2 of this subsection;Pf
b. Prepared so they remain intact;Pf and
c. If packaged for undercooking in a food establishment,
labeled to indicate that they meet the definition of whole-muscle, intact
beef as specified in subdivision 1 of this subsection or identified as
specified in subdivision 2 of this subsection.Pf
F. Meat and poultry that are not a ready-to-eat food
foods and are in a packaged form when offered for sale or otherwise
offered for consumption shall be labeled to include safe handling instructions
as specified in law, including 9 CFR 317.2(l) and 9 CFR 381.125(b).
G. Shell eggs Eggs that have not been
specifically treated to destroy all viable Salmonellae shall be labeled to
include safe handling instructions as specified in law, including 21 CFR
101.17(h).
2VAC5-585-280. Food in a hermetically sealed container.*
Food in a hermetically sealed container shall be obtained from
a food processing plant that is regulated by the food regulatory agency that
has jurisdiction over the plant.P
2VAC5-585-290. Fluid milk and milk products.*
Fluid milk and milk products shall be obtained from sources
that comply with Grade A standards as specified in law.P
2VAC5-585-295. Juice treated.
Pre-packaged Prepackaged juice shall:
1. Be obtained from a processor with a HACCP system as
specified in 21 CFR Part 120;Pf and
2. Be obtained pasteurized or otherwise treated to attain a
5-log reduction of the most resistant microorganism of public health
significance as specified in 21 CFR 120.24; or.P
3. Bear a warning label as specified in 21 CFR 101.17(g).
2VAC5-585-300. Fish.*
A. Fish that are received for sale or service shall be:
1. Commercially and legally caught or harvested;P
or
2. Approved for sale or service by a regulatory authority.P
B. Molluscan shellfish that are recreationally caught may not
be received for sale or service.P
2VAC5-585-310. Molluscan shellfish.*
A. Molluscan shellfish shall be obtained from sources
according to law and the requirements specified in the U.S. Department of
Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, Food and Drug Administration,
National Shellfish Sanitation Program Manual of Operations, Part II, Sanitation
of the Harvesting, Processing and Distribution of Shellfish, 1995 Revision (NSSP)
Guide for the Control of Molluscan Shellfish, [ 2011
2013 ] Revision, (U.S. Food and Drug Administration).P
B. Molluscan shellfish [ received in interstate
commerce ] shall be from sources that are listed in the "Interstate
Certified Shellfish Shippers List," updated monthly (U.S. Food and Drug
Administration).P
2VAC5-585-320. Wild mushrooms.*
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section,
mushroom species picked in the wild shall be obtained from sources where
each mushroom is individually inspected and found to be safe by an approved
mushroom identification expert not be offered for sale or service by a
food establishment unless the food establishment has been approved to do so.P
B. This section does not apply to:
1. Cultivated wild mushroom species that are grown, harvested,
and processed in an operation that is regulated by the food regulatory agency
that has jurisdiction over the operation; or
2. Wild mushroom species if they are in packaged form and are
the product of a food processing plant that is regulated by the food regulatory
agency that has jurisdiction over the plant.
2VAC5-585-330. Game animals.*
A. If game animals are received for sale or service they
shall be:
1. Commercially raised for food and: a. Raised raised,
slaughtered, and processed under a voluntary inspection program that is
conducted by the state agency that has animal health jurisdiction;
or
b. Under a routine inspection program conducted by a
regulatory agency other than the agency that has animal health jurisdiction;
and
c. Raised, slaughtered, and processed according to:
(1) Laws governing meat and poultry as determined by the
agency; and
(2) Requirements that are developed by the agency that has
animal health jurisdiction and the agency that conducts the inspection program
with consideration of factors such as the need for antemortem and postmortem
examination by an approved veterinarian or veterinarian's designee;
2. Under under a voluntary inspection program
administered by the USDA for game animals such as exotic animals including
animals (i.e., reindeer, elk, deer, antelope, water buffalo, or
bison) that are "inspected and approved" in accordance with 9 CFR
Part 352, Exotic Animals; Voluntary Inspection, or rabbits that are
"inspected and certified" in accordance with 9 CFR Part 354,
Voluntary Inspection of Rabbits and Edible Products Thereof;P
3. 2. As allowed by law, for wild game animals
that are live-caught:
a. Under a routine inspection program conducted by a
regulatory agency such as the agency that has animal health jurisdiction;P
b. Slaughtered and processed according to:
(1) Laws governing meat and poultry as determined by the
agency that has animal health jurisdiction and the agency that conducts the
inspection program;P and
(2) Requirements that are developed by the agency that has
animal health jurisdiction and the agency that conducts the inspection program
with consideration of factors such as the need for antemortem and postmortem
examination by an approved veterinarian or veterinarian's designee;P
or
4. 3. As allowed by law for field-dressed wild
game animals under a routine inspection program that ensures the animals:
a. Receive a postmortem examination by an approved
veterinarian or veterinarian's designee, or are field-dressed and
transported according to requirements specified by the agency that has animal
health jurisdiction and the agency that conducts the inspection program; andP
b. Are field-dressed and transported according to
requirements specified by the agency that has animal health jurisdiction and
the agency that conducts the inspection program;P and
c. Are processed according to laws governing meat and
poultry as determined by the agency that has animal health jurisdiction and the
agency that conducts the inspection program.P
B. A game animal may not be received for sale or service if
it is a species of wildlife that is listed in 50 CFR Part 17, Endangered and
Threatened Wildlife and Plants.
2VAC5-585-340. Temperature.*
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section,
refrigerated, potentially hazardous time/temperature control for
safety food shall be at a temperature of 41°F (5°C) or below when received.P
B. If a temperature other than 41°F (5°C) for a potentially
hazardous time/temperature control for safety food is specified in
law governing its distribution, such as laws governing milk, and
molluscan shellfish, and shell eggs, the food may be received at the
specified temperature.
C. Raw shell eggs shall be received in refrigerated
equipment that maintains an ambient air temperature of 45°F (7°C) or less.P
D. Potentially hazardous Time/temperature control
for safety food that is cooked to a temperature and for a time specified
under 2VAC5-585-700 through 2VAC5-585-720 and received hot shall be at a
temperature of 135°F (57°C) or above.P
E. A food that is labeled frozen and shipped frozen by a food
processing plant shall be received frozen.Pf
F. Upon receipt, potentially hazardous time/temperature
control for safety food shall be free of evidence of previous temperature
abuse.Pf
2VAC5-585-350. Additives.*
Food may not contain unapproved food additives or additives
that exceed amounts allowed specified in 21 CFR Parts
170-180 relating to food additives; generally recognized as safe or prior
sanctioned substances that exceed amounts allowed specified in 21
CFR Parts 181-186; substances that exceed amounts specified in 9 CFR,
Subpart C, 424.21(b), Approval of Substances for Use in the Preparation
of Products; or pesticide residues that exceed provisions specified in 40
CFR Part 185, Tolerances for Pesticides in Food. 180.P
2VAC5-585-360. Shell eggs Eggs.*
Shell eggs Eggs shall be received clean and
sound and [ may shall ] not exceed the restricted egg tolerances
for U.S. Consumer Grade B as specified in United States Standards, Grades, and
Weight Classes for Shell Eggs, AMS 56, effective July 20, 2000, AMS
56.200 et seq., administered by the (Agricultural Marketing Service
of USDA).P [ Eggs sold pursuant to
§ 3.2-5305 of the Code of Virginia are exempt from the restricted egg
tolerances for U.S. Consumer Grade B as specified in the United States
Standards, Grades, and Weight Classes for Shell Eggs, AMS 56, effective July
20, 2000, (Agricultural Marketing Service of USDA). ]
2VAC5-585-370. Eggs and milk products, pasteurized.*
A. Egg products shall be obtained pasteurized.P
B. Fluid and dry milk and milk products shall:
1. Be obtained pasteurized;P and
2. Comply with Grade A standards as specified in law.P
C. Frozen milk products, such as ice cream, shall be obtained
pasteurized in accordance with as specified in 21 CFR Part
135, Frozen Desserts.P
D. Cheese shall be obtained pasteurized unless alternative
procedures to pasteurization are provided for in the Code of Federal
Regulations, specified in the CFR, such as 21 CFR Part 133,
Cheeses and Related Cheese Products, for curing certain cheese varieties.P
2VAC5-585-380. Package integrity.*
Food packages shall be in good condition and protect the
integrity of the contents so that the food is not exposed to adulteration or
potential contaminants.Pf
2VAC5-585-390. Ice.*
Ice for use as a food or a cooling medium shall be made from
drinking water.P
2VAC5-585-400. Shucked shellfish, packaging and identification.
A. Raw shucked shellfish shall be obtained in nonreturnable
packages that bear a legible label that identifies the:Pf
1. Name, address, and certification number of the shucker,
packer, or repacker of the molluscan shellfish;Pf and
2. The "sell by" or "best if used by" date
for packages with a capacity of less than one-half gallon (1.87 L) (1.89
L) or the date shucked for packages with a capacity of one-half gallon (1.87
L) (1.89 L) or more.Pf
B. A package of raw shucked shellfish that does not bear a
label or which that bears a label that does not contain all the
information as specified under subsection A of this section shall be subject to
a hold order, as allowed by law, or seizure and destruction in accordance with
21 CFR 1240.60(d), Subpart D, Specific Administrative Decisions Regarding
Interstate Shipments.
2VAC5-585-410. Shellstock identification.*
A. Shellstock shall be obtained in containers bearing legible
source identification tags or labels that are affixed by the harvester and
each dealer that depurates, ships, or reships the shellstock, as specified
in the National Shellfish Sanitation Program (NSSP) Guide for the
Control of Molluscan Shellfish (2007), [ 2011
2013 ] Revision, (U.S. Food and Drug Administration) and that
list: on each dealer's tag or label the following information in the
following order:Pf
1. Except as specified under subsection C of this section,
on the harvester's tag or label, the following information in the following
order:
a. The harvester's identification number that is assigned
by the shellfish control authority;
b. The date of harvesting;
c. The most precise identification of the harvest location
or aquaculture site that is practicable based on the system of harvest area
designations that is in use by the shellfish control authority and including
the abbreviation of the name of the state or country in which the shellfish are
harvested;
d. The type and quantity of shellfish; and
e. The following statement in bold, capitalized type:
"This tag is required to be attached until container is empty or retagged
and thereafter kept on file for 90 days"; and
2. Except as specified under subsection D of this section,
on each dealer's tag or label, the following information in the following
order:
a. 1. The dealer's name and address, and the
certification number assigned by the shellfish control authority;Pf
b. 2. The original shipper's certification
number [ including the abbreviation of the name of the state or country
in which the shellfish are harvested ];Pf
c. The same information as specified for a harvester's tag
under subdivisions 1 b through d of this subsection; and 3. The harvest
date, or if depurated, the date of depuration processing, or if wet stored, the
original harvest date and the final harvest date [ , which is
the date removed from wet storage ];Pf
4. If wet stored or depurated, the wet storage or
depuration cycle or lot number. The wet storage lot number shall begin with the
letter "w";Pf
5. The harvest area including the initials of the state of
harvest;Pf
6. The type and quantity of shellstock;Pf
d. 7. The following statement in bold,
capitalized type: " "THIS TAG IS REQUIRED TO BE ATTACHED UNTIL
CONTAINER IS EMPTY AND THEREAFTER KEPT ON FILE FOR 90 DAYS";Pf
and
8. A consumer advisory as specified in 2VAC5-585-930.
B. A container of shellstock that does not bear a tag or
label or that bears a tag or label that does not contain all the information as
specified under subsection A of this section shall be subject to a hold order,
as allowed by law, or seizure and destruction in accordance with 21 CFR
1240.60(d), Subpart D, Specific Administrative Decisions Regarding
Interstate Shipments and § 28.2-801 of the Code of Virginia.
C. If a place is provided on the harvester's tag or label
for a dealer's name, address, and certification number, the dealer's
information shall be listed first.
D. If the harvester's tag or label is designed to
accommodate each dealer's identification as specified under subdivisions A 2 a
and b of this section, individual dealer tags or labels need not be provided.
2VAC5-585-430. Molluscan shellfish; original container.
A. Except as specified in subsections B and C through
D of this section, molluscan shellfish may not be removed from the
container in which they were are received other than immediately
before sale or preparation for service.
B. For display purposes, shellstock may be removed from the
container in which they are received, displayed on drained ice, or held in a
display container, and a quantity specified by a consumer may be removed from
the display or display container and provided to the consumer if:
1. The source of the shellstock on display is identified as
specified under 2VAC5-585-410 and recorded as specified under 2VAC5-585-440;
and
2. The shellstock are protected from contamination.
C. Shucked shellfish may be removed from the container in
which they were received and held in a display container from which individual
servings are dispensed upon a consumer's request if:
1. The labeling information for the shellfish on display as
specified under 2VAC5-585-400 is retained and correlated to the date when, or
dates during which, the shellfish are sold or served; and
2. The shellfish are protected from contamination.
D. Shucked shellfish may be removed from the container in
which they were received and repacked in consumer self-service containers where
allowed by law if:
1. The labeling information for the shellfish is on each
consumer self-service container as specified under 2VAC5-585-400 and
2VAC5-585-900 A and B 1 through 5;
2. The labeling information as specified under 2VAC5-585-400
is retained and correlated with the date when, or dates during which, the
shellfish are sold or served;
3. The labeling information and dates specified under
subdivision 2 of this subsection are maintained for 90 days; and
4. The shellfish are protected from contamination.
2VAC5-585-440. Shellstock; maintaining identification.*
A. Except as specified under subdivision C 2 of this section,
shellstock tags or labels shall remain attached to the container in which the
shellstock are received until the container is empty.Pf
B. The date when the last shellstock from the container is
sold or served shall be recorded on the tag or label.Pf
C. The identity of the source of shellfish shellstock
that are sold or served shall be maintained by retaining shellstock tags or
labels for 90 calendar days from the date that is recorded on the tag or label
as specified in subsection B of this section by:Pf
1. Using an approved recordkeeping system that keeps the tags
or labels in chronological order correlated to the date that is recorded on the
tag or label, as specified under subsection B of this section;Pf
and
2. If shellstock are removed from its tagged or labeled
container:
a. Preserving source identification by using a recordkeeping
system as specified under subdivision 1 of this subsection;Pf
and
b. Ensuring that shellstock from one tagged or labeled
container are not commingled with shellstock from another container with different
certification numbers; different harvest dates; or different growing areas as
identified on the tag or label before being ordered by the consumer.Pf
Article 3
Protection from Contamination after Receiving
2VAC5-585-450. Preventing contamination from hands.*
A. Food employees shall wash their hands as specified under
2VAC5-585-140.
B. Except when washing fruits and vegetables as specified
under 2VAC5-585-510 or as specified in subsection C subsections D and
E of this section, food employees may not contact exposed, ready-to-eat
food with their bare hands and shall use suitable utensils such as deli tissue,
spatulas, tongs, single-use gloves, or dispensing equipment.P
C. Food employees shall minimize bare hand and arm contact
with exposed food that is not in a ready-to-eat form.S Pf
D. Subsection B of this section does not apply to a food
employee who contacts exposed, ready-to-eat food with bare hands at the time
the ready-to-eat food is being added as an ingredient to food that:
1. Contains a raw animal food and is to be cooked in the
food establishment to heat all parts of the food to the minimum temperatures
specified in 2VAC5-585-700 A and B or 2VAC5-585-710; or
2. Does not contain a raw animal food but is to be cooked
in the food establishment to heat all parts of the food to a temperature of at
least 145°F (63°C).
E. Food employees not serving a highly susceptible
population may contact exposed, ready-to-eat food with their bare hands if:
1. The operator obtains prior approval from the regulatory
authority department;
2. Written procedures are maintained in the food establishment
and made available to the regulatory authority department upon
request that include:
a. For each bare hand contact procedure, a listing of the
specific ready-to-eat foods that are touched by bare hands; and
b. Diagrams and other information showing that handwashing
facilities, installed, located, equipped, and maintained as specified under
2VAC5-585-2230, 2VAC5-585-2280, 2VAC5-585-2310, 2VAC5-585-3020, 2VAC5-585-3030,
and 2VAC5-585-3045, are in an easily accessible location and in close proximity
to the work station where the bare hand contact procedure is conducted;
3. A written employee health policy that details how the food
establishment complies with 2VAC5-585-80, 2VAC5-585-90, and 2VAC5-585-100
including:
a. Documentation that the food employees and conditional
employees acknowledge that they are informed to report information about their
health and activities as they relate to gastrointestinal symptoms and diseases
that are transmittable through food as specified under 2VAC5-585-80 A;
b. Documentation that food employees and conditional employees
acknowledge their responsibilities as specified under 2VAC5-585-80 E and F; and
c. Documentation that the person in charge acknowledges the
responsibilities as specified under 2VAC5-585-80 B, C, and D, 2VAC5-585-90, and
2VAC5-585-100;
4. Documentation that the food employees acknowledge that they
have received training in:
a. The risks of contacting the specific ready-to-eat foods with
their bare hands,
b. Proper handwashing as specified under 2VAC5-585-140,
c. When to wash their hands as specified under 2VAC5-585-160,
d. Where to wash their hands as specified under 2VAC5-585-170,
e. Proper fingernail maintenance as specified under 2VAC5-585-190,
f. Prohibition of jewelry as specified under 2VAC5-585-200,
and
g. Good hygienic practices as specified under 2VAC5-585-220
and 2VAC5-585-230;
5. Documentation that hands are washed before food preparation
and as necessary to prevent cross-contamination by food employees as specified
under 2VAC5-585-130, 2VAC5-585-140, 2VAC5-585-160, and 2VAC5-585-170 during all
hours of operation when the specific ready-to-eat foods are prepared;
6. Documentation that food employees contacting ready-to-eat food
with bare hands use two or more of the following control measures to provide
additional safeguards to hazards associated with bare hand contact:
a. Double handwashing,
b. Nail brushes,
c. A hand antiseptic after handwashing as specified under
2VAC5-585-180,
d. Incentive programs such as paid sick leave that assist or
encourage food employees not to work when they are ill, or
e. Other control measures approved by the regulatory
authority department; and
7. Documentation that corrective action is taken when
subdivisions 1 through 6 of this subsection are not followed.
2VAC5-585-460. Preventing contamination when tasting.*
A food employee may not use a utensil more than once to taste
food that is to be sold or served.P
2VAC5-585-470. Packaged and unpackaged food - separation,
packaging, and segregation.*
A. Food shall be protected from cross contamination by:
1. Separating Except as specified in subdivision 1 c
of this subsection, separating raw animal foods during storage,
preparation, holding, and display from:
a. Raw ready-to-eat food including other raw animal food such
as fish for sushi or molluscan shellfish, or other raw ready-to-eat food such
as fruits and vegetables; andP
b. Cooked ready-to-eat food;P and
c. Frozen, commercially processed and packaged raw animal
food may be stored or displayed with or above frozen, commercially processed
and packaged, ready-to-eat food;
2. Except when combined as ingredients, separating types of
raw animal foods from each other such as beef, fish, lamb, pork, and poultry
during storage, preparation, holding, and display by:
a. Using separate equipment for each type or arranging each
type of food in equipment so that cross contamination of one type with another
is prevented; and P
b. Arranging each type of food in equipment so that cross
contamination of one type with another is prevented;P and
c. Preparing each type of food at different times or in
separate areas;P
3. Cleaning equipment and utensils as specified under
2VAC5-585-1780 A and sanitizing as specified under 2VAC5-585-1900;
4. Except as specified in subdivision B 2 of 2VAC5-585-810
and subsection B of this section, storing the food in packages, covered
containers, or wrappings;
5. Cleaning hermetically sealed containers of food of visible
soil before opening;
6. Protecting food containers that are received packaged
together in a case or overwrap from cuts when the case or overwrap is opened;
7. Storing damaged, spoiled, or recalled food being held in
the food establishment as specified under 2VAC5-585-3150; and
8. Separating fruits and vegetables before they are washed as
specified under 2VAC5-585-510 from ready-to-eat food.
B. Subdivision A 4 of this section does not apply to:
1. Whole, uncut, raw fruits and vegetables and nuts in the
shell, that require peeling or hulling before consumption;
2. Primal cuts, quarters, or sides of raw meat or slab bacon
that are hung on clean, sanitized hooks or placed on clean, sanitized racks;
3. Whole, uncut, processed meats such as country hams, and
smoked or cured sausages that are placed on clean, sanitized racks;
4. Food being cooled as specified under 2VAC5-585-810 B 2; or
5. Shellstock.
2VAC5-585-480. Food storage containers; identified with common
name of food.
Working containers holding food or food ingredients that
are removed from their original packages for use in the food establishment,
such as cooking oils, flour, herbs, potato flakes, salt, spices, and sugar,
shall be identified with the common name of the food (in English and the common
language of the food workers) except that containers holding food that can be
readily and unmistakably recognized such as dry pasta need not be identified.
Except for containers holding food that can be readily and unmistakably
recognized, such as dry pasta, working containers holding food or food
ingredients that are removed from their original packages for use in the food
establishment, such as cooking oils, flour, herbs, potato flakes, salt, spices,
and sugar, shall be identified with the common name of the food.
2VAC5-585-490. Pasteurized eggs; substitute for raw shell
eggs for certain recipes and populations.*
Pasteurized eggs or egg products shall be substituted for raw
shell eggs in the preparation of foods such as Caesar salad, hollandaise
or béarnaise sauce, mayonnaise, meringue, eggnog, ice cream, and
egg-fortified beverages that are not:P
1. Cooked as specified under subdivisions subdivision
A 1 or 2 of 2VAC5-585-700;P or
2. Included in 2VAC5-585-700 D.P
2VAC5-585-500. Protection from unapproved additives.*
A. Food shall be protected from contamination that may result
from the addition of, as specified in 2VAC5-585-350:
1. Unsafe or unapproved food or color additives;P
and
2. Unsafe or unapproved levels of approved food and color
additives.P
B. A food employee may not:
1. Apply sulfiting agents to fresh fruits and vegetables
intended for raw consumption or to a food considered to be a good source of
vitamin B1 B1;P or
2. Except for grapes, serve or sell food specified in
subdivision 1 of this subsection that is treated with sulfiting agents before
receipt by the food establishment.P
2VAC5-585-510. Washing fruits and vegetables.
A. Raw fruits and vegetables shall be thoroughly washed in
water to remove soil and other contaminants before being cut, combined with
other ingredients, cooked, served, or offered for human consumption in
ready-to-eat form except as specified in subsection B of this section and
except that whole, raw fruits and vegetables that are intended for washing by
the consumer before consumption need not be washed before they are sold. Except
as specified in subsection B of this section and except for whole, raw fruits
and vegetables that are intended for washing by the consumer before
consumption, raw fruits and vegetables shall be thoroughly washed in water to
remove soil and other contaminants before being cut, combined with other
ingredients, cooked, served, or offered for human consumption in ready-to-eat
form.
B. Fruits and vegetables may be washed by using chemicals as
specified under 2VAC5-585-3390.
C. Devices used for onsite generation of chemicals meeting
the requirements specified in 21 CFR 173.315 for the washing of raw, whole
fruits and vegetables shall be used in accordance with the manufacturer's
instructions.Pf
2VAC5-585-520. Ice used as exterior coolant prohibited as
ingredient.
After use as a medium for cooling the exterior surfaces of
food such as melons or fish, packaged foods such as canned beverages, or
cooling coils and tubes of equipment, ice may not be used as food.P
2VAC5-585-530. Storage or display of food in contact with water
or ice.
A. Packaged food may not be stored in direct contact with ice
or water if the food is subject to the entry of water because of the nature of
its packaging, wrapping, or container or its positioning in the ice or water.
B. Except as specified in subsections C and D of this
section, unpackaged food may not be stored in direct contact with undrained
ice.
C. Whole, raw fruits or vegetables; cut, raw vegetables such
as celery or carrot sticks or cut potatoes; and tofu may be immersed in ice or
water.
D. Raw chicken poultry and raw fish that are
received immersed in ice in shipping containers may remain in that condition
while in storage awaiting preparation, display, service, or sale.
2VAC5-585-540. Food contact with equipment and utensils.*
Food shall only contact surfaces of:
1. Equipment and utensils that are cleaned as specified under
2VAC5-585-1770 through 2VAC5-595-1870 2VAC5-585-1860 and
sanitized as specified under 2VAC5-585-1890 2VAC5-585-1885
through 2VAC5-585-1900; orP
2. Single-service and single-use articles; or P
3. Linens, such as cloth napkins, as specified under
2VAC5-585-560, that are laundered as specified under 2VAC5-585-1910 through
2VAC5-585-1950.P
2VAC5-585-550. In-use utensils, between-use storage.
During pauses in food preparation or dispensing, food
preparation and dispensing utensils shall be stored:
1. Except as specified under subdivision 2 of this section, in
the food with their handles above the top of the food and the container;
2. In food that is not potentially hazardous time/temperature
control for safety food with their handles above the top of the food within
containers or equipment that can be closed, such as bins of sugar, flour, or
cinnamon;
3. On a clean portion of the food preparation table or cooking
equipment only if the in-use utensil and the food-contact surface of the food
preparation table or cooking equipment are cleaned and sanitized at a frequency
specified under 2VAC5-585-1780 and 2VAC5-585-1890;
4. In running water of sufficient velocity to flush
particulates to the drain, if used with moist food such as ice cream or mashed
potatoes;
5. In a clean, protected location if the utensils, such as ice
scoops, are used only with a food that is not potentially hazardous time/temperature
control for safety food; or
6. In a container of water if the water is maintained at a
temperature of at least 135°F (57°C) and the container is cleaned at a
frequency specified under 2VAC5-585-1780 D 7.
2VAC5-585-560. Linens and napkins, use limitation.
Linens and napkins, such as cloth napkins, may
not be used in contact with food unless they are used to line a container for
the service of foods and the linens and napkins are replaced each time
the container is refilled for a new customer consumer.
2VAC5-585-570. Wiping cloths, use limitation.
A. Cloths in use for wiping food spills from tableware and
carry-out containers that occur as food is being served shall be:
1. Maintained dry; and
2. Used for no other purpose.
B. Cloths in use for wiping counters and other equipment
surfaces shall be:
1. Held between uses in a chemical sanitizer solution at a
concentration specified in 2VAC5-585-3380 2VAC5-585-1700; and
2. Laundered daily as specified under 2VAC5-585-1920 D.
C. Cloths in use for wiping surfaces in contact with raw
animal foods shall be kept separate from other cloths used for other purposes.
D. Dry wiping cloths and the chemical sanitizing solutions
specified in subdivision B 1 of this section in which wet wiping cloths are
held between uses shall be free of food debris and visible soil.
E. Containers of chemical sanitizing solutions specified in
subdivision B 1 of this section in which wet wiping cloths are held between
uses shall be stored off the floor and used in a manner that prevents
contamination of food, equipment, utensils, linens, single-service, or
single-use articles.
F. Single-use disposable sanitizer wipes shall be used in
accordance with EPA-approved manufacturer's label use instructions.
2VAC5-585-580. Gloves, use limitation.
A. If used, single-use gloves shall be used for only one task
such as working with ready-to-eat food or with raw animal food, used for no other
purpose, and discarded when damaged or soiled, or when interruptions occur in
the operation.P
B. Except as specified in subsection C of this section,
slash-resistant gloves that are used to protect the hands during operations
requiring cutting shall be used in direct contact only with food that is
subsequently cooked as specified under 2VAC5-585-700 through 2VAC5-585-765 such
as frozen food or a primal cut of meat.
C. Slash-resistant gloves may be used with ready-to-eat food
that will not be subsequently cooked if the slash-resistant gloves have a
smooth, durable, and nonabsorbent outer surface; or if the slash-resistant
gloves are covered with a smooth, durable, nonabsorbent glove, or a single-use
glove.
D. Cloth gloves may not be used in direct contact with food
unless the food is subsequently cooked as required under 2VAC5-585-700 through
2VAC5-585-765 such as frozen food or a primal cut of meat.
2VAC5-585-590. Using clean tableware for second portions and
refills.
A. Except for refilling a consumer's drinking cup or
container without contact between the pouring utensil and the lip contact area
of the drinking cup or container, food employees may not use tableware,
including single-service articles, soiled by the consumer to provide second
portions or refills.
B. Except as specified in subsection C of this section,
self-service consumers may not be allowed to use soiled tableware, including
single-service articles, to obtain additional food from the display and serving
equipment.
C. Cups and glasses Drinking cups and containers
may be reused by self-service consumers or food employees if refilling
is a contamination-free process as specified under subdivisions 1, 2,
and 4 of 2VAC5-585-1230.
2VAC5-585-600. Refilling returnables.
A. A take-home food container Except as specified
in subsections B through E of this section, empty containers returned to a
food establishment may not be refilled at a food establishment with a
potentially hazardous food for cleaning and refilling with food shall be
cleaned and refilled in a regulated food processing plant.P
B. Except as specified in subsection C of this section, a
A take-home food container refilled with food that is not potentially
hazardous shall be cleaned as specified under 2VAC5-585-1870 B. returned
to a food establishment may be refilled at a food establishment with food if
the food container is:
1. Designed and constructed for reuse and in accordance
with the requirements specified under 2VAC5-585-960 through 2VAC5-585-1435;P
2. One that was initially provided by the food
establishment to the consumer, either empty or filled with food by the food
establishment, for the purpose of being returned for reuse;
3. Returned to the food establishment by the consumer after
use;
4. Subject to the following steps before being refilled
with food:
a. Cleaned as specified under 2VAC5-585-1770 through
2VAC5-585-1860;
b. Sanitized as specified under 2VAC5-585-1885 through
2VAC5-585-1900;P and
c. Visually inspected by a food employee to verify that the
container, as returned, meets the requirements specified under 2VAC5-585-960
through 2VAC5-585-1435P.
C. Personal take-out beverage containers, such as
thermally insulated bottles, nonspill coffee cups and promotional beverage
glasses, may be refilled by employees or the consumer if refilling is a
contamination-free process as specified under subdivisions 1, 2 and 4 of
2VAC5-585-1230. A take-home food container returned to a food
establishment may be refilled at a food establishment with beverage if:
1. The beverage is not a time/temperature control for
safety food;
2. The design of the container and of the rinsing equipment
and the nature of the beverage, when considered together, allow effective
cleaning at home or in the food establishment;
3. Facilities for rinsing before refilling returned
containers with fresh, hot water that is under pressure and not recirculated
are provided as part of the dispensing system;
4. The consumer-owned container returned to the food
establishment for refilling is refilled for sale or service only to the same
consumer; and
5. The container is refilled by:
a. An employee of the food establishment; or
b. The owner of the container if the beverage system
includes a contamination-free transfer process as specified under subdivisions
1, 2, and 4 of 2VAC5-585-1230 that cannot be bypassed by the container owner.
D. Consumer-owned, personal take-out beverage containers,
such as thermally insulated bottles, nonspill coffee cups, and promotional
beverage glasses, may be refilled by employees or the consumer if refilling is
a contamination-free process as specified under subdivisions 1, 2, and 4 of
2VAC5-585-1230.
E. Consumer-owned containers that are not food specific
may be filled at a water vending machine or system.
2VAC5-585-620. Food storage; prohibited areas.
Food may not be stored:
1. In locker rooms;
2. In toilet rooms or their vestibules;
3. In dressing rooms;
4. In garbage rooms;
5. In mechanical rooms;
6. Under sewer lines that are not shielded to intercept
potential drips;
7. Under leaking water lines, including leaking automatic fire
sprinkler heads, or under lines on which water has condensed;
8. Under open stairwells; or
9. Under other sources of contamination.
2VAC5-585-630. Vended potentially hazardous time/temperature
control for safety food; original container.
Potentially hazardous Time/temperature control for
safety food dispensed through a vending machine shall be in the package in
which it was placed at the food establishment or food processing plant at which
it was prepared.
2VAC5-585-650. Food display.
Except for nuts in the shell and whole, raw fruits and
vegetables that are intended for hulling, peeling, or washing by the consumer
before consumption, food on display shall be protected from contamination by
the use of packaging; counter, service line, or salad bar food guards; display
cases; or other effective means.P
2VAC5-585-660. Condiments; protection.
A. Condiments shall be protected from contamination by being
kept in dispensers that are designed to provide protection, protected food
displays provided with the proper utensils, original containers designed for
dispensing, or individual packages or portions.
B. Condiments at a vending machine location shall be in
individual packages or provided in dispensers that are filled at a an
approved location that is approved by the department, such as the
food establishment that provides food to the vending machine location, a food
processing plant that is regulated by the agency that has jurisdiction over the
operation, or a properly equipped facility that is located on the site of the
vending machine location.
2VAC5-585-670. Consumer self-service operations.*
A. Raw, unpackaged animal food, such as beef, lamb, pork,
poultry, and fish may not be offered for consumer self-service.P
This subsection does not apply to:
1. Consumer self-service of ready-to-eat foods at buffets or
salad bars that serve foods such as sushi or raw shellfish;
2. Ready-to-cook individual portions for immediate cooking and
consumption on the premises such as consumer-cooked meats or consumer-selected
ingredients for Mongolian barbecue; or
3. Raw, frozen, shell-on shrimp or lobster.
B. Consumer self-service operations for ready-to-eat foods
shall be provided with suitable utensils or effective dispensing methods that protect
the food from contamination.Pf
C. Consumer self-service operations such as buffets and salad
bars shall be monitored by food employees trained in safe operating procedures.N
Pf
2VAC5-585-680. Returned food and reservice of food.*
A. Except as specified under subsection B of this section,
after being served or sold and in the possession of a consumer, food that is
unused or returned by the consumer may not be offered as food for human
consumption.P
B. Except as specified in subdivision 8 7 of
2VAC5-585-950, a container of food that is not potentially hazardous
(time/temperature time/temperature control for safety food) food
may be re-served from one consumer to another if:
1. The food is dispensed so that it is protected from
contamination and the container is closed between uses such as a narrow-neck
bottle containing catsup, steak sauce, or wine; or
2. The food, such as crackers, salt, or pepper, is in
an unopened original package and is maintained in sound condition.
Article 4
Destruction of Organisms of Public Health Concern
2VAC5-585-700. Raw animal foods.*
A. Except as specified in subsections B, C, and D of this
section, raw animal foods such as eggs, fish, meat, poultry, and foods
containing these raw animal foods shall be cooked to heat all parts of the food
to a temperature and for a time that complies with one of the following methods
based on the food that is being cooked:
1. 145°F (63°C) or above for 15 seconds for:P
a. Raw shell eggs that are broken and prepared in
response to a consumer's order and for immediate service;P
and
b. Except as specified under subdivisions A 2 and 3 and
subsections B and C of this section, fish and meat including game animals
commercially raised for food and under a voluntary inspection program as
specified under 2VAC5-585-330 A 1 and game animals under a voluntary
inspection program as specified under 2VAC5-585-330 A 2;P
2. 155°F (68°C) for 15 seconds or the temperature specified in
the following chart that corresponds to the holding time for ratites,
mechanically tenderized, and injected meats; the following if they are
comminuted: fish, meat, game animals commercially raised for food and under
a voluntary inspection program as specified under 2VAC5-585-330 A 1, and
game animals under a voluntary inspection program as specified under
2VAC5-585-330 A 2; and raw eggs that are not prepared as specified under
subdivision A 1 a of this section:P
Minimum
|
Temperature °F (°C)
|
Time
|
145 (63)
|
3 minutes
|
150 (66)
|
1 minute
|
158 (70)
|
<1 second (instantaneous)
|
3. 165°F (74°C) or above for 15 seconds for poultry, baluts,
wild game animals as specified under 2VAC5-585-330 A 2 and 3, stuffed
fish, stuffed meat, stuffed pasta, stuffed poultry, stuffed ratites, or
stuffing containing fish, meat, or poultry, or ratites.P
B. Whole meat roasts including beef, corned beef, lamb, pork,
and cured pork roasts such as ham shall be cooked:
1. In an oven that is preheated to the temperature specified
for the roast's weight in the following chart and that is held at that
temperature;Pf and
Oven Type
|
Oven Temperature Based on
Roast Weight
|
Less than 10 lbs (4.5 kg)
|
10 lbs (4.5 kg) or more
|
Still Dry
|
350°F (177°C) or more
|
250°F (121°C) or more
|
Convection
|
325°F (163°C) or more
|
250°F (121°C) or more
|
High Humidity1
|
250°F (121°C) or less
|
250°F (121°C) or less
|
1Relative humidity greater than 90% for at least
one hour as measured in the cooking chamber or exit of the oven; or in a
moisture-impermeable bag that provides 100% humidity
|
2. As specified in the following chart, to heat all parts of
the food to a temperature and for the holding time that corresponds to that
temperature.P
Temperature
°F (°C)
|
Time1 in Minutes
|
Temperature
°F (°C)
|
Time1 in Seconds
|
130 (54.4)
|
112
|
147 (63.9)
|
134
|
131 (55.0)
|
89
|
149 (65.0)
|
85
|
133 (56.1)
|
56
|
151 (66.1)
|
54
|
135 (57.2)
|
36
|
153 (67.2)
|
34
|
136 (57.8)
|
28
|
155 (68.3)
|
22
|
138 (58.9)
|
18
|
157 (69.4)
|
14
|
140 (60.0)
|
12
|
158 (70.0)
|
0
|
142 (61.1)
|
8
|
|
|
144 (62.2)
|
5
|
|
|
145 (62.8)
|
4
|
|
|
1Holding time may include postoven heat rise.
|
C. A raw or undercooked whole-muscle, intact beef steak may
be served or offered for sale in a ready-to-eat form if:
1. The food establishment serves a population that is not a
highly susceptible population;
2. The steak is labeled, as specified under 2VAC5-585-270 E,
to indicate that it meets the definition of "whole-muscle, intact
beef"; and
3. The steak is cooked on both the top and bottom to a surface
temperature of 145°F (63°C) or above and a cooked color change is achieved on
all external surfaces.
D. A raw animal food such as raw egg, raw fish, raw-marinated
fish, raw molluscan shellfish, or steak tartare, or a partially cooked
food such as lightly cooked fish, soft cooked eggs, or rare meat other than
whole-muscle, intact beef steaks as specified in subsection C of this section,
may be served or offered for sale upon consumer request or selection in
a ready-to-eat form if:
1. As specified under subdivisions 3 a and 3 b of
2VAC5-585-950, the food establishment serves a population that is not a highly
susceptible population; and
2. The food, if served or offered for service by consumer
selection from a children's menu, does not contain comminuted meat;Pf
and
2. 3. The consumer is informed as specified
under 2VAC5-585-930 that to ensure its safety, the food should be cooked as
specified under subsection A or B of this section; or
3. 4. The department grants a variance from
subsection A or B of this section as specified in 2VAC5-585-3540 based on a
HACCP plan that:
a. Is submitted by the operator and approved as specified
under 2VAC5-585-3541;
b. Documents scientific data or other information that
shows showing that a lesser time and temperature regimen results in
a safe food; and
c. Verifies that equipment and procedures for food preparation
and training of food employees at the food establishment meet the conditions of
the variance.
2VAC5-585-710. Microwave cooking.*
Raw animal foods cooked in a microwave oven shall be:
1. Rotated or stirred throughout or midway during cooking to
compensate for uneven distribution of heat;
2. Covered to retain surface moisture;
3. Heated to a temperature of at least 165°F (74°C) in all
parts of the food;P and
4. Allowed to stand covered for two minutes after cooking to
obtain temperature equilibrium.
2VAC5-585-720. Plant food cooking for hot holding.
Fruits and vegetables that are cooked for hot holding shall
be cooked to a temperature of 135°F (57°C).Pf
2VAC5-585-725. Noncontinuous cooking of raw animal foods.
Raw animal foods that are cooked using a noncontinuous
cooking process shall be:
1. Subject to an initial heating process that is no longer
than 60 minutes in duration;P
2. Immediately after initial heating, cooled according to
the time and temperature parameters specified for cooked time/temperature
control for safety food under 2VAC5-585-800 A;P
3. After cooling, held frozen or cold as specified for
time/temperature control for safety food under 2VAC5-585-820 A 2;P
4. Prior to sale or service, cooked using a process that
heats all parts of the food to a temperature and for a time as designated in
2VAC5-585-700 A through C;P
5. Cooled according to the time and temperature parameters
specified for cooked time/temperature control for safety food under
2VAC5-585-800 A if not either hot held as specified under 2VAC5-585-820 A 1,
served immediately, or held using time as a public health control as specified
under 2VAC5-585-850 after complete cooking;P and
6. Prepared and stored according to written procedures
that:
a. Have obtained prior approval from the department;Pf
b. Are maintained in the food establishment and are
available to the department upon request;Pf
c. Describe how the requirements specified under
subdivisions 1 through 5 of this section are to be monitored and documented by
the operator and the corrective actions to be taken if the requirements are not
met;Pf
d. Describe how the foods, after initial heating but prior
to complete cooking, are to be marked or otherwise identified as foods that
must be cooked as specified under subdivision 4 of this section prior to being
offered for sale or service;Pf and
e. Describe how the foods, after initial heating but prior
to cooking as specified in subdivision 4 of this section, are to be separated
from ready-to-eat foods as specified under 2VAC5-585-470 A.Pf
2VAC5-585-730. Parasite destruction.*
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, before
service or sale in ready-to-eat form, raw, raw-marinated, partially cooked, or
marinated-partially cooked fish shall be:
1. Frozen and stored at a temperature of -4°F (-20°C) or below
for a minimum of 168 hours (seven days) in a freezer;P
2. Frozen at -31°F (-35°C) or below until solid and stored at
-31°F (-35°C) or below for a minimum of 15 hours;P or
3. Frozen at -31°F (-35°C) or below until solid and stored at
-4°F (-20°C) or below for a minimum of 24 hours.P
B. Subsection A of this section does not apply to:
1. Molluscan shellfish,;
2. A scallop product consisting only of the shucked
abductor muscle;
3. Tuna of the species Thunnus alalunga, Thunnus
albacares (Yellowfin tuna), Thunnus atlanticus, Thunnus maccoyii (Bluefin tuna,
Southern), Thunnus obesus (Bigeye tuna), or Thunnus thynnus (Bluefin,
Northern); or
3. 4. Aquacultured fish, such as salmon, that:
a. If raised in open water, are raised in net pens, or
b. Are raised in land-based operations such as ponds or tanks,
and
c. Are fed formulated feed, such as pellets, that contains no
live parasites infective to the aquacultured fish. or
5. Fish eggs that have been removed from the skein and
rinsed.
2VAC5-585-740. Records; creation and retention.
A. Except as specified in 2VAC5-585-730 B and subsection B of
this section, if raw, marinated, raw-marinated, partially cooked, or
marinated-partially cooked fish are served or sold in ready-to-eat form, the
person in charge shall record the freezing temperature and time to which the
fish are subjected and shall retain the records at the food establishment for
90 calendar days beyond the time of service or sale of the fish.Pf
B. If the fish are frozen by a supplier, a written agreement
or statement from the supplier stipulating that the fish supplied are frozen to
a temperature and for a time specified under 2VAC5-585-730 may substitute for
the records specified under subsection A of this section.
C. If raw, raw-marinated, partially cooked, or
marinated-partially cooked fish are served or sold in ready-to-eat form, and
the fish are raised and fed as specified in 2VAC5-585-730 B 3 4,
a written agreement or statement from the supplier or aquaculturist stipulating
that the fish were raised and fed as specified in 2VAC5-585-730 B 3 4
shall be obtained by the person in charge and retained in the records of the
food establishment for 90 calendar days beyond the time of service or sale of
the fish.Pf
2VAC5-585-755. Preparation for immediate service.
Cooked and refrigerated food that is prepared for
immediate service in response to an individual consumer order, such as a roast
beef sandwich au jus, may be served at any temperature.
2VAC5-585-760. Reheating for hot holding.*
A. Except as specified under subsections B, C and E of this
section, potentially hazardous food (time/temperature time/temperature
control for safety food) food that is cooked, cooled, and
reheated for hot holding shall be reheated so that all parts of the food reach
at least 165°F (74°C) for 15 seconds.P
B. Except as specified under subsection C of this section, potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature time/temperature control for safety
food) food reheated in a microwave oven for hot holding shall be
reheated so that all parts of the food reach a temperature of at least 165°F
(74°C) and the food is rotated or stirred, covered, and allowed to stand
covered for two minutes after reheating.P
C. Ready-to-eat time/temperature control for safety
food taken from a that has been commercially processed,
hermetically sealed container, or from an intact package from and
packaged in a food processing plant that is inspected by the food
regulatory authority that has jurisdiction over the plant, shall be heated to a
temperature of at least 135°F (57°C) when being reheated for hot holding.P
D. Reheating for hot holding as specified under
subsections A, B, and C of this section shall be done rapidly and the time
the food is between the temperature specified under 2VAC5-585-820 A 2 41°F
(5°C) and the temperatures specified under subsections A through,
B and C of this section may not exceed two hours.P
E. Remaining unsliced portions of meat roasts that are cooked
as specified under 2VAC5-585-700 B may be reheated for hot holding using the
oven parameters and minimum time and temperature conditions specified under
2VAC5-585-700 B.
2VAC5-585-765. Treating juice.
Juice packaged in a food establishment shall be:
1. Treated under a HACCP plan as specified in [ subdivisions
2 through 5 of 2VAC5-585-3610 2VAC5-585-3630 ] to attain a
5-log reduction, which is equal to a 99.999% reduction, of the most resistant
microorganism of public health significance;P or
2. Labeled, if not treated to yield a 5-log reduction of the
most resistant microorganism of public health significance:Pf
a. As specified under 2VAC5-585-900;Pf and
b. As specified in 21 CFR 101.17(g), with the phrase,
following: "WARNING: This product has not been pasteurized and,
therefore, may contain harmful bacteria that can cause serious illness in
children, the elderly, and persons with weakened immune systems."Pf
2VAC5-585-780. Potentially hazardous Time/temperature
control for safety food, slacking.
Frozen potentially hazardous food (time/temperature time/temperature
control for safety food) food that is slacked to moderate the
temperature shall be held:
1. Under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at
41°F (5°C) or less, or at 45°F (7°C) or less as specified under
2VAC5-585-820 A 2 b; or
2. At any temperature if the food remains frozen.
2VAC5-585-790. Thawing.
A. Except as specified in subdivision 4 of this section
subsection, potentially hazardous food (time/temperature time/temperature
control for safety food) food shall be thawed:
1. Under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at
41°F (5°C) or less, or at 45°F (7°C) or less as specified under
2VAC5-585-820 A 2 b; or
2. Completely submerged under running water:
a. At a water temperature of 70°F (21°C) or below;
b. With sufficient water velocity to agitate and float off
loose particles in an overflow; and
c. For a period of time that does not allow thawed portions of
ready-to-eat food to rise above 41°F (5°C), or 45°F (7°C) as specified under
2VAC5-585-820 A 2 b; or
d. For a period of time that does not allow thawed portions of
a raw animal food requiring cooking as specified under 2VAC5-585-700 A or B to
be above 41°F (5°C), or 45°F (7°C) as specified under 2VAC5-585-820 A 2 b,
for more than four hours including:
(1) The time the food is exposed to the running water and the
time needed for preparation for cooking; or
(2) The time it takes under refrigeration to lower the food
temperature to 41°F (5°C), or 45°F (7°C) as specified under 2VAC5-585-820 A
2 b;
3. As part of a cooking process if the food that is frozen is:
a. Cooked as specified under 2VAC5-585-700 A or B or
2VAC5-585-710; or
b. Thawed in a microwave oven and immediately transferred to
conventional cooking equipment, with no interruption in the process; or
4. Using any procedure if a portion of frozen ready-to-eat
food is thawed and prepared for immediate service in response to an individual
consumer's order.
B. Reduced oxygen packaged fish that bears a label
indicating that it is to be kept frozen until time of use shall be removed from
the reduced oxygen environment:
1. Prior to its thawing under refrigeration as specified in
subdivision A 1 of this section; or
2. Prior to, or immediately upon completion of, its thawing
using procedures specified in subdivision A 2 of this section.
2VAC5-585-800. Cooling.*
A. Cooked potentially hazardous food (time/temperature
time/temperature control for safety food) food shall be
cooled:
1. Within two hours, from 135°F (57°C) to 70°F (21°C);P
and
2. Within a total of six hours, from 135°F (57°C) to 41°F
(5°C) or less, or to 45°F (7°C) or less as specified under 2VAC5-585-820 A 2
b.P
B. Potentially hazardous food (time/temperature Time/temperature
control for safety food) food shall be cooled within four hours
to 41°F (5°C) or less, or to 45°F (7°C) or less as specified under
2VAC5-585-820 A 2 b if prepared from ingredients at ambient temperature,
such as reconstituted foods and canned tuna.P
C. Except as specified in subsection D of this section, a potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature time/temperature control for safety
food) food received in compliance with laws allowing a
temperature above 41°F (5°C) during shipment from the supplier as specified in
2VAC5-585-340 B, shall be cooled within four hours to 41°F (5°C) or less, or
45°F (7°C) or less as specified under of 2VAC5-585-820 A 2 b.P
D. Raw shell eggs shall be received as specified under
2VAC5-585-340 C and immediately placed in refrigerated equipment that maintains
an ambient air temperature of 45°F (7°C) or less.P
2VAC5-585-810. Cooling methods.
A. Cooling shall be accomplished in accordance with the time
and temperature criteria specified under 2VAC5-585-800 by using one or more of
the following methods based on the type of food being cooled:
1. Placing the food in shallow pans;Pf
2. Separating the food into smaller or thinner portions;Pf
3. Using rapid cooling equipment;Pf
4. Stirring the food in a container placed in an ice water
bath;Pf
5. Using containers that facilitate heat transfer;Pf
6. Adding ice as an ingredient;Pf or
7. Other effective methods.Pf
B. When placed in cooling or cold holding equipment, food
containers in which food is being cooled shall be:
1. Arranged in the equipment to provide maximum heat transfer
through the container walls; and
2. Loosely covered, or uncovered if protected from overhead
contamination as specified under 2VAC5-585-610 A 2, during the cooling period
to facilitate heat transfer from the surface of the food.
2VAC5-585-820. Potentially hazardous Time/temperature
control for safety food; hot and cold holding.*
A. Except during preparation, cooking, or cooling, or when
time is used as the public health control as specified under 2VAC5-585-850, potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature and except as specified under
subsections B and C of this section, time/temperature control for safety food)
food shall be maintained:
1. At 135°F (57°C) or above, except that roasts cooked to a
temperature and for a time specified in 2VAC5-585-700 B or reheated as
specified in 2VAC5-585-760 E may be held at a temperature of 130°F (54°C) or
above;P or
2. At a temperature specified in the following:
a. 41°F (5°C) or less; or
b. 45°F (7°C) or between 45°F (7°C) and 41°F (5°C) in
existing refrigeration equipment that is not capable of maintaining the food at
41°F (5°C) or less if:
(1) The equipment is in place and in use in the food
establishment; and
(2) Before January 1, 2012, the equipment is upgraded or
replaced to maintain food at a temperature of At 41°F (5°C) or less.
B. Shell eggs Eggs that have not been treated
to destroy all viable Salmonellae shall be stored in refrigerated equipment
that maintains an ambient air temperature of 45°F (7°C) or less.P
C. Potentially hazardous food (time/temperature Time/temperature
control for safety food) food in a homogenous liquid form may be
maintained outside of the temperature control requirements, as specified
in subsection A of this section, while contained within specially designed
equipment that complies with the design and construction requirements as
specified under subdivision 5 of 2VAC5-585-1230.
2VAC5-585-830. Ready to eat Ready-to-eat, potentially
hazardous time/temperature control for safety food; date marking.*
A. Except when packaging food using a reduced oxygen
packaging method as specified under 2VAC5-585-870 and except as specified in
subsections D and E and F of this section, refrigerated,
ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous food (time/temperature time/temperature
control for safety food) food prepared and held in a food
establishment for more than 24 hours shall be clearly marked to indicate the
date or day by which the food shall be consumed on the premises, sold, or
discarded based on the temperature and time combinations specified below.
The day of preparation shall be counted as Day 1.
1. 41°F (5°C) or less for a maximum of seven days; or
2. 45°F (7°C) or between 41°F (5°C) and 45°F (7°C) for a
maximum of four days in existing refrigeration equipment that is not capable of
maintaining the food at 41°F (5°C) or less if:
a. The equipment is in place and in use in the food establishment;
and
b. Before January 1, 2012, the equipment is upgraded or
replaced to maintain food at a temperature of 41°F (5°C) or less. when
held at a temperature of 41°F (5°C) or less for a maximum of seven days. The
day of preparation shall be counted as day one.Pf
B. Except as specified in subsections D through E,
F, and G of this section, refrigerated, ready-to-eat, potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature time/temperature control for safety
food) food prepared and packaged by a food processing plant shall
be clearly marked, at the time the original container is opened in a food
establishment and if the food is held for more than 24 hours, to indicate the
date or day by which the food shall be consumed on the premises, sold, or
discarded, based on the temperature and time combinations specified in
subsection A of this section and:Pf
1. The day the original container is opened in the food
establishment shall be counted as Day 1 day one;Pf
and
2. The day or date marked by the food establishment may not exceed
a manufacturer's use-by date if the manufacturer determined the use-by date
based on food safety.Pf
C. A refrigerated, ready-to-eat potentially hazardous food
(time/temperature, time/temperature control for safety food) food
ingredient or a portion of a refrigerated, ready-to-eat, potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature time/temperature control for safety
food) food that is subsequently combined with additional
ingredients or portions of food shall retain the date marking of the
earliest-prepared or first-prepared ingredient.Pf
D. A date marking system that meets the criteria specified
stated in subsections A and B of this section may include:
1. Using a method approved by the regulatory authority department
for refrigerated, ready-to-eat potentially hazardous food (time/temperature,
time/temperature control for safety food) food that is
frequently rewrapped, such as lunchmeat or a roast, or for which date marking
is impractical, such as soft-serve mix or milk in a dispensing machine;
2. Marking the date or day of preparation, with a procedure to
discard the food on or before the last date or day by which the food must be
consumed on the premises, sold, or discarded as specified in subsection A of
this section;
3. Marking the date or day the original container is opened in
a food establishment, with a procedure to discard the food on or before the
last date of or day by which the food must be consumed on the
premises, sold, or discarded as specified under subsection B of this section;
or
4. Using calendar dates, days of the week, color-coded marks,
or other effective marking methods, provided that the marking system is
disclosed to the regulatory authority department upon request.
E. Subsections A and B of this section do not apply to
individual meal portions served or repackaged for sale from a bulk container
upon a consumer's request.
F. Subsections A and B of this section do not apply to
shellstock.
G. Subsection B of this section does not apply to the
following foods prepared and packaged by a food processing plant inspected by a
regulatory authority:
1. Deli salads, such as ham salad, seafood salad, chicken
salad, egg salad, pasta salad, potato salad, and macaroni salad, manufactured
in accordance with 21 CFR Part 110, Current good manufacturing practice in
manufacturing, packing, or holding human food;
2. Hard cheeses containing not more than 39% moisture as
defined in 21 CFR Part 133, Cheeses and related cheese products, such as
cheddar, gruyere, parmesan and reggiano, and romano;
3. Semi-soft cheese containing more than 39% moisture, but not
more than 50% moisture, as defined in 21 CFR Part 133, Cheeses and related
cheese products, such as blue, edam, gorgonzola, gouda, and Monterey jack
Jack;
4. Cultured dairy products as defined in 21 CFR Part 131,
Milk and cream, such as yogurt, sour cream, and buttermilk;
5. Preserved fish products, such as pickled herring and dried
or salted cod, and other acidified fish products as defined in 21 CFR Part 114,
Acidified foods;
6. Shelf stable, dry fermented sausages, such as pepperoni and
Genoa salami that are not labeled "Keep Refrigerated" as specified
in 9 CFR Part 317, Labeling, marking devices, and containers, and which retain
the original casing on the product; and
7. Shelf stable salt-cured products such as prosciutto and
Parma (ham) that are not labeled "Keep Refrigerated" as specified
in 9 CFR Part 317, Labeling, marking devices, and containers.
2VAC5-585-840. Ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous time/temperature
control for safety food; disposition.*
A. A food specified in 2VAC5-585-830 A or B shall be
discarded if it:
1. Exceeds either of the temperature and time combinations
combination specified in 2VAC5-585-830 A, except time that the product
is frozen;P
2. Is in a container or package that does not bear a date or
day;P or
3. Is [ appropriately inappropriately ]
marked with a date or day that exceeds a temperature and time combination as
specified in 2VAC5-585-830 A.P
B. Refrigerated, ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous time/temperature
control for safety food prepared in a food establishment and dispensed
through a vending machine with an automatic shutoff control shall be discarded
if it exceeds a temperature and time combination as specified in 2VAC5-585-830
A.P
2VAC5-585-850. Time as a public health control.*
A. Except as specified under subsection D of this section, if
time without temperature control is used as the public health control for a
working supply of potentially hazardous food (time/temperature time/temperature
control for safety food) food before cooking, or for ready-to-eat
potentially hazardous food (time/temperature, time/temperature
control for safety food) food that is displayed or held for sale
or service:
1. Written procedures shall be prepared in advance, maintained
in the food establishment, and made available to the regulatory authority
department upon request that specify:Pf
a. Methods of compliance with subdivision subdivisions
B 1 through 4, 2, and 3 or subsection C 1 through 5
of this section;Pf and
b. Methods of compliance with 2VAC5-585-800 for food that is
prepared, cooked, and refrigerated before time is used as a public health
control.Pf
B. If time without temperature control is used as the public
health control up to a maximum of 4 hours:
1. The food shall have an initial temperature of 41°F (5°C) or
less when removed from cold holding temperature control, or 135°F (57°C) or
greater when removed from hot-holding temperature control;P
2. The food shall be marked or otherwise identified to
indicate the time that is four hours past the point in time when the food is
removed from temperature control;Pf
3. The food shall be cooked and served, served at any
temperature if ready-to-eat, or discarded, within four hours from the point in
time when the food is removed from temperature control;P and
4. The food in unmarked containers or packages or marked to
exceed a four-hour limit shall be discarded.P
C. If time without temperature control is used as the public
health control up to a maximum of six hours:
1. The food shall have an initial temperature of 41°F (5°C) or
less when removed from temperature control and the food temperature may not
exceed 70°F (21°C) within a maximum time period of six hours;P
2. The food shall be monitored to ensure the warmest portion
of the food does not exceed 70°F (21°C) during the six-hour period, unless an
ambient air temperature is maintained that ensures the food does not exceed
70°F (21°C) during the six-hour holding period;Pf
3. The food shall be marked or otherwise identified to
indicate:Pf
a. The time when the food is removed from 41°F (5°C) or less
cold holding temperature control;Pf and
b. The time that is six hours past the point in time when the
food is removed from 41°F (5°C) or less cold holding temperature control;Pf
4. The food shall be:
a. Discarded if the temperature of the foods exceeds 70°F
(21°C);P or
b. Cooked and served, served at any temperature if
ready-to-eat, or discarded within a maximum of six hours from the point in time
when the food is removed from 41°F (5°C) or less cold holding temperature
control;P and
5. The food in unmarked containers or packages, or marked with
a time that exceeds the six-hour limit shall be discarded.P
D. A food establishment that serves a highly susceptible
population may not use time as specified under subsections subsection
A, B, or C of this section as the public health control for raw eggs.
2VAC5-585-860. Variance requirement.*
A food establishment shall obtain a variance from the
department as specified in 2VAC5-585-3540 and 2VAC5-585-3541 before:Pf
1. Smoking food as a method of food preservation rather than
as a method of flavor enhancement;Pf
2. Curing food;Pf
3. Using food additives or adding components such as vinegar:Pf
a. As a method of food preservation rather than as a method of
flavor enhancement;Pf or
b. To render a food so that it is not potentially hazardous
time/temperature control for safety food;Pf
4. Packaging time/temperature control for safety food
using a reduced oxygen packaging method except as specified under
2VAC5-585-870 where a barrier to where the growth of and toxin formation
by Clostridium botulinum in addition to refrigeration exists and
the growth of Listeria monocytogenes are controlled as specified under
2VAC5-585-870;Pf
5. Operating a molluscan shellfish life-support system display
tank used to store and or display shellfish that are offered for
human consumption;Pf
6. Custom processing animals that are for personal use as food
and not for sale or service in a food establishment;Pf
7. Sprouting seeds or beans;Pf or
8. Preparing food by another method that is determined by the regulatory
authority department to require a variance.Pf
2VAC5-585-870. Reduced oxygen packaging without a variance;
criteria.*
A. Except for a food establishment that obtains a variance as
specified under 2VAC5-585-860 and except as specified under subsections C
and E of this section, a food establishment that packages potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature time/temperature control for safety
food) food using a reduced oxygen packaging method shall ensure
that there are at least two barriers in place to control the growth and
toxin formation of Clostridium botulinum and the growth of Listeria
monocytogenes.P
B. A Except as specified in subsection F of this
section, a food establishment that packages potentially hazardous food
(time/temperature time/temperature control for safety food) food
using a reduced oxygen packaging method shall have implement
a HACCP plan that contains the following information specified under subdivision
subdivisions [ 2 3 ] and 4 of
2VAC5-585-3630 and that:Pf
1. Identifies food to be packaged;Pf
2. Except as specified in subsections C and, D, and
E and as specified in subsection D of this section, requires that the
packaged food shall be maintained at 41°F (5°C) or less and meet at least one
of the following criteria:Pf
a. Has an Aw of 0.91 or less,Pf
b. Has a pH of 4.6 or less,Pf
c. Is a meat or poultry product cured at a food processing
plant regulated by the USDA using substances specified in 9 CFR 424.21, Use
of food ingredients and sources of radiation, and is received in an intact
package,Pf or
d. Is a food with a high level of competing organisms such as
raw meat, or raw poultry, or raw vegetables;Pf
3. Describes how the package shall be prominently and
conspicuously labeled on the principal display panel in bold type on a
contrasting background, with instructions to:Pf
a. Maintain the food at 41°F (5°C) or below,Pf
and
b. Discard the food within 14 30 calendar days
of its packaging if it is not served for on-premises consumption, or consumed
if served or sold for off-premises consumption;Pf
4. Limits the refrigerated shelf life to no more than 14
30 calendar days from packaging to consumption, except the time the
product is maintained frozen, or the original manufacturer's "sell
by" or "use by" date, whichever occurs first;P
5. Includes operational procedures that:
a. Prohibit contacting ready-to-eat food with bare
hands as specified under 2VAC5-585-450 B;Pf
b. Identify a designated work area and the method by which:Pf
(1) Physical barriers or methods of separation of raw foods
and ready-to-eat foods minimize cross contamination,Pf and
(2) Access to the processing equipment is limited to
responsible trained personnel familiar with the potential hazards of the
operation;Pf and
c. Delineate cleaning and sanitization procedures for food
contact food-contact surfaces; andPf
6. Describes the training program that ensures that the
individual responsible for the reduced oxygen packaging operation understands
the:Pf
a. Concepts required for safe operation;Pf
b. Equipment and facilities;Pf and
c. Procedures specified under subdivision 5 of this subsection
and 2VAC5-585-3630 D. subdivisions [ 2 3 ]
and 4 of 2VAC5-585-3630;Pf and
7. Is provided to the department prior to implementation as
specified under subsection B of 2VAC5-585-3620.
C. Except for fish that is frozen before, during, and after
packaging, a food establishment may not package fish using a reduced oxygen
packaging method.P
D. Except as specified in subsection subsections
C and F of this section, a food establishment may package that
packages time/temperature control for safety food using a cook-chill or sous-vide
sous vide process without obtaining a variance if shall:
1. The food establishment implements Provide to the
department prior to implementation, a HACCP plan that contains the
information as specified under 2VAC5-585-3630 D subdivisions
[ 2 3 ] and 4 of 2VAC5-585-3630;Pf
2. The Ensure the food is:
a. Prepared and consumed on the premises, or prepared and
consumed off the premises but within the same business entity with no
distribution or sale of the bagged packaged product to another
business entity or the consumer;Pf
b. Cooked to heat all parts of the food to a temperature and
for a time as specified under 2VAC5-585-700 A, B, and C;P
c. Protected from contamination before and after
cooking as specified in 2VAC5-585-450 through 2VAC5-585-690 2VAC5-585-765;P
d. Placed in a package or bag with an oxygen barrier
and sealed before cooking, or placed in a package or bag and sealed
immediately after cooking, and before reaching a temperature below 135°F
(57°C);P
e. Cooled to 41°F (5°C) in the sealed package or bag as
specified under 2VAC5-585-800, and subsequently;P
(1) Cooled to 34°F (1°C) within 48 hours of reaching 41°F
(5°C) and held at that temperature until consumed or discarded within 30 days
after the date of preparation packaging;P
(2) Cooled to 34°F (1°C) within 48 hours of reaching 41°F
(5°C), removed from refrigeration equipment that maintains a 34°F (1°C) food
temperature and then held Held at 41°F (5°C) or less for no more
than 72 hours seven days, at which time the food must be consumed
or discarded;P or
(3) Cooled to 38°F (3°C) or less within 24 hours of
reaching 41°F (5°C) and held there for no more than 72 hours from packaging, at
which time the food must be consumed or discarded; or
(4) (3) Held frozen with no shelf-life
restriction while frozen until consumed or used;P
f. Held in a refrigeration unit that is equipped with an
electronic system that continuously monitors time and temperature and is
visually examined for proper operation twice daily;Pf
g. If transported off-site to a satellite location of the same
business entity, equipped with verifiable electronic monitoring devices to
ensure that times and temperatures are monitored during transportation;Pf
and
h. Labeled with the product name and the date packaged;Pf
and
3. The Maintain the records required to confirm
that cooling and cold holding refrigeration time/temperature parameters are
required as part of the HACCP plan, are maintained and are:
a. Made Make such records available to the regulatory
authority department upon request;Pf and
b. Held Hold such records for at least
six months;Pf and
4. Written Implement written operational
procedures as specified under subdivision B 5 of this section and a training
program as specified under subdivision B 6 of this section are implemented.Pf
E. A Except as specified under subsection F of this
section, a food establishment may package that packages
cheese using a reduced oxygen packaging method without obtaining a variance
shall:
1. If it limits Limit the cheeses packaged to those
that are commercially manufactured in a food processing plant with no
ingredients added in the food establishment and that meet the Standards of
Identity as specified in 21 CFR 133.150, Hard Cheeses, 21 CFR 133.169, Pasteurized
process cheese, or 21 CFR 133.187, Semi-soft cheeses;P
2. If it has Have a HACCP plan that contains the
information specified in 2VAC5-585-3630 D subdivisions [ 2
3 ] and 4 of 2VAC5-585-3630 and as specified in subdivisions B 1, B
3 a, B 5, and B 6 of this section;Pf
3. Except as specified under subdivisions B 2, B 3 b, and B
4, complies with subsection B of this section;
4. If it labels 3. [ Labels
Label ] the package on the principal display panel with a "use
by" date that does not exceed 30 days from its packaging or the
original manufacturer's "sell by" or "use by" date,
whichever comes occurs first;Pf and
5. If it discards 4. [ Discards
Discard ] the reduced oxygen packaged cheese if it is not sold for
off-premises consumption or consumed within 30 calendar days of its packaging.Pf
F. A HACCP plan is not required when a food establishment
uses a reduced oxygen packaging method to package time/temperature control for
safety food that is always:
1. Labeled with the production time and date;
2. Held at 41°F (5°C) or less during refrigerated storage;
and
3. Removed from its packaging in the food establishment
within 48 hours after packaging.
2VAC5-585-900. Food labels.
A. Food packaged in a food establishment shall be labeled as
specified in law, including 21 CFR Part 101, Food Labeling, and
9 CFR Part 317, Labeling, Marking Devices, and Containers.
B. Label information shall
include:
1. The common name of the food, or absent a common name, an
adequately descriptive identity statement;
2. If made from two or more ingredients, a list of ingredients
and subingredients in descending order of predominance by weight,
including a declaration of artificial color or flavor colors,
artificial flavors, and chemical preservatives, if contained in the food;
3. An accurate declaration of the net quantity of
contents;
4. The name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer,
or distributor;
5. The name of the food source for each major food allergen
contained in the food unless the food source is already part of the common or
usual name of the respective ingredient;Pf
6. Except as exempted in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic
Act 21 USC § 343(q) (3) through (5) 21 USC § 403(g)(3)
through (5), nutrition labeling as specified in 21 CFR Part 101, Food
Labeling, and 9 CFR Part 317, Subpart B, Nutrition Labeling; and
7. For any salmonid fish containing canthaxanthin or
astaxanthin as a color additive, the labeling of the bulk fish container,
including a list of ingredients, displayed on the retail container or by other
written means, such as a counter card, that discloses the use of canthaxanthin or
astaxanthin.
C. Bulk food that is available for consumer self-dispensing
shall be prominently labeled with the following information in plain view of
the consumer:
1. The manufacturer's or processor's label that was provided
with the food; or
2. A card, sign, or other method of notification that includes
the information specified under subdivisions B 1, 2, and 5 6
of this section.
D. Bulk, unpackaged foods such as bakery products and
unpackaged foods that are portioned to consumer specification need not be
labeled if:
1. A health, nutrient content, or other claim is not made;
2. There are no state or local laws requiring labeling; and
3. The food is manufactured or prepared on the premises of the
food establishment or at another food establishment or a food processing plant
that is owned by the same person and is regulated by the food regulatory agency
that has jurisdiction.
2VAC5-585-930. Consumer advisory; consumption of animal foods
that are raw, undercooked, or not otherwise processed to eliminate pathogens.*
A. Except as specified in 2VAC5-585-700 C and 2VAC5-585-700 D
3 4 and under subdivision 3 of 2VAC5-585-950, if an animal food
such as beef, eggs, fish, lamb, milk, pork, poultry, or shellfish is served or
sold raw, undercooked, or without otherwise being processed to eliminate
pathogens, either in ready-to-eat form or as an ingredient in another
ready-to-eat food, the person in charge operator shall
inform consumers of the significantly increased risk of consuming such foods by
way of a disclosure and reminder, as specified in subsections B and C of this
section, using brochures, deli case or menu advisories, label statements, table
tents, placards, or other effective written means.Pf
B. Disclosure shall include:
1. A description of the animal-derived foods, such as
"oysters on the half shell (raw oysters)," "raw-egg Caesar
salad," and "hamburgers (can be cooked to order)";Pf
or
2. Identification of the animal-derived foods by asterisking
them to a footnote that states that the items are served raw or undercooked, or
contain (or may contain) raw or undercooked ingredients.Pf
C. Reminder shall include asterisking the animal-derived
foods requiring disclosure to a footnote that states:
1. Regarding the safety of these items, written information is
available upon request:;Pf
2. Consuming raw or undercooked meats, poultry, seafood,
shellfish, or eggs may increase your risk of foodborne illness;Pf
or
3. Consuming raw or undercooked meats, poultry, seafood,
shellfish, or eggs may increase your risk of foodborne illness, especially if
you have certain medical conditions.Pf
Article 7
Contaminated Food
2VAC5-585-940. Discarding or reconditioning unsafe,
adulterated, or contaminated food.*
A. A food that is unsafe, adulterated, or not honestly
presented as specified under 2VAC5-585-260 shall be discarded or
reconditioned according to an approved procedure or discarded.P
B. Food that is not from an approved source as specified
under 2VAC5-585-270 through 2VAC5-585-330 shall be discarded.P
C. Ready-to-eat food that may have been contaminated by an
employee who has been restricted or excluded as specified under 2VAC5-585-90
shall be discarded.P
D. Food that is contaminated by food employees, consumers, or
other persons through contact with their hands, bodily discharges, such as
nasal or oral discharges, or other means shall be discarded.P
Article 8
Special Requirements for Highly Susceptible Populations
2VAC5-585-950. Pasteurized foods, prohibited reservice,
and prohibited food.*
In a food establishment that serves a highly susceptible
population:
1. The following criteria apply to juice:
a. For the purposes of subdivision 1 of this section only,
children who are age 9 nine years or less younger
and receive food in a school, day care setting, or similar facility that
provides custodial care are included as highly susceptible populations;
b. Prepackaged juice or a prepackaged beverage containing
juice, that bears a warning label as specified in 21 CFR 101.17(g), Food
Labeling, or a packaged juice or beverage containing juice,
that bears a warning label as specified under subdivision 2 of 2VAC5-585-765
may not be served or offered for sale;P and
c. Unpackaged juice that is prepared on the premises for
service or sale in a ready-to-eat form shall be processed under a HACCP plan
that contains the information specified in subdivisions [ 2 3 ]
through 5 of 2VAC5-585-3630 and as specified under in 21 CFR Part
120, Hazard Analysis And Critical Control Point (HACCP) Systems, Subpart B,
Pathogen Reduction, 120.24, Process Controls.P
2. Pasteurized shell eggs or egg products shall be
substituted for raw shell eggs in the preparation of:P
a. Foods such as Caesar salad, hollandaise or béarnaise sauce,
mayonnaise, meringue, eggnog, ice cream, and egg-fortified beverages;P
and
b. Except as specified in subdivision 6 of this section,
recipes in which more than one egg is broken and the eggs are combined.P
3. The following foods may not be served or offered for sale
in a ready-to-eat form:P
a. Raw animal foods such as raw fish, raw-marinated fish, raw
molluscan shellfish, and steak tartare;P
b. A partially cooked animal food such as lightly cooked fish,
rare meat, soft-cooked eggs that are made from raw shell eggs, and
meringue;P and
c. Raw seed sprouts.P
4. Food employees may not contact ready-to-eat food as
specified in 2VAC5-585-450 B and E.P
5. Time only, as the public health control as specified under
2VAC5-585-850 D, may not be used for raw eggs.P
6. Subdivision 2 b of this section does not apply if:
a. The raw eggs are combined immediately before cooking for
one consumer's serving at a single meal, cooked as specified under
2VAC5-585-700 A 1, and served immediately, such as an omelet, soufflé, or
scrambled eggs;
b. The raw eggs are combined as an ingredient immediately
before baking and the eggs are thoroughly cooked to a ready-to-eat form, such
as a cake, muffin, or bread; or
c. The preparation of the food is conducted under a HACCP plan
that:
(1) Identifies the food to be prepared;
(2) Prohibits contacting ready-to-eat food with bare hands;
(3) Includes specifications and practices that ensure:
(a) Salmonella enteritidis Enteritidis growth is
controlled before and after cooking; and
(b) Salmonella enteritidis Enteritidis is destroyed
by cooking the eggs according to the temperature and time specified in
2VAC5-585-700 A 2;
d. Contains the information specified under subdivision 4 of
2VAC5-585-3630 including procedures that:
(1) Control cross contamination of ready-to-eat food with raw
eggs; and
(2) Delineate cleaning and sanitization procedures for
food-contact surfaces; and
e. Describes the training program that ensures that the food
employee responsible for the preparation of the food understands the procedures
to be used.
7. Except as specified in subdivision 8 of this section, food
may be re-served as specified under 2VAC5-585-680 B 1 and 2.
8. Foods may not be re-served under the following conditions:
[ 1. a. ] Any food served to patients
or clients who are under contact precautions in medical isolation or
quarantine, or protective environment isolation may not be re-served to others
outside.
[ 2. b. ] Packages of food from any
patients, clients, or other consumers should not be re-served to persons in
protective environment isolation.
Part IV
Equipment, Utensils, and Linens
Article 1
Materials for Construction and Repair
2VAC5-585-960. Multiuse, characteristics.*
Materials that are used in the construction of utensils and
food-contact surfaces of equipment may not allow the migration of deleterious
substances or impart colors, odors, or tastes to food and under normal use
conditions shall be:P
1. Safe;P
2. Durable, corrosion-resistant, and nonabsorbent;N
3. Sufficient in weight and thickness to withstand repeated
warewashing;N
4. Finished to have a smooth, easily cleanable surface;N
and
5. Resistant to pitting, chipping, crazing, scratching,
scoring, distortion, and decomposition.N
2VAC5-585-980. Lead use limitation.
A. Ceramic, china, and crystal utensils, and
decorative utensils such as hand-painted ceramic or china that are used in
contact with food shall be lead-free or contain levels of lead not exceeding
the limits of the following utensil categories:P
Utensil Category
|
Ceramic Article Description
|
Maximum Lead (mg/L)
|
Beverage Mugs, Cups, Pitchers
|
Coffee Mugs
|
0.5
|
Large Hollowware (excluding pitchers)
|
Bowls >=1.1 Liter (1.16 Quart)
|
1.0
|
Small Hollowware (excluding cups and mugs)
|
Bowls <1.1 Liter (1.16 Quart)
|
2.0
|
Flat Tableware
|
Plates, Saucers
|
3.0
|
B. Pewter alloys containing lead in excess of 0.05% may not
be used as a food contact food-contact surface.P
C. Solder and flux containing lead in excess of 0.2% may not
be used as a food contact food-contact surface.
2VAC5-585-990. Copper, use limitation.*
A. Except as specified in subsections B and C of this
section, copper and copper alloys such as brass may not be used in contact with
a food that has a pH below 6 6.0 such as vinegar, fruit juice, or
wine or for a fitting or tubing installed between a backflow prevention device
and a carbonator.P
B. Copper and copper alloys may be used in contact with beer
brewing ingredients that have a pH below 6 6.0 in the
prefermentation and fermentation steps of a beer brewing operation such as a
brewpub or microbrewery.
C. Copper and copper alloys may be used in contact with apple
butter and molasses that have a pH below 6 6.0 during the typical
processing times (i.e., mixing, cooking, and cooling) for these
products, as long as laboratory analysis does not reveal excessive levels of
copper or other heavy metals in the finished product. Apple butter and molasses
may not be held or stored in copper or copper alloys for time periods any
longer than the typical processing times for these products.
2VAC5-585-1000. Galvanized metal, use limitation.*
Galvanized metal may not be used for utensils or food-contact
surfaces of equipment that are used in contact with acidic food.P
2VAC5-585-1070. Single-service and single-use, characteristics.*
Materials that are used to make single-service and single-use
articles:
1. May not:
a. Allow the migration of deleterious substances;P
or
b. Impart colors, odors, or tastes to food.N
2. Shall be:
a. Safe;P and
b. Clean.N
2VAC5-585-1090. Food temperature measuring devices.*
Food temperature measuring devices may not have sensors or
stems constructed of glass, except that thermometers with glass sensors or
stems that are encased in a shatterproof coating such as candy thermometers may
be used.P
2VAC5-585-1100. Food-contact surfaces; cleanability.*
A. Multiuse food-contact surfaces shall be:
1. Smooth;Pf
2. Free of breaks, open seams, cracks, chips, inclusions,
pits, and similar imperfections;Pf
3. Free of sharp internal angles, corners, and crevices;Pf
4. Finished to have smooth welds and joints;Pf
and
5. Accessible Except as specified in subsection B of
this section, accessible for cleaning and inspection by one of the
following methods:
a. Without being disassembled;Pf
b. By disassembling without the use of tools;Pf
or
c. By easy disassembling with the use of handheld tools
commonly available to maintenance and cleaning personnel such as screwdrivers,
pliers, open-end wrenches, and Allen wrenches.Pf
B. Subdivision A 5 of this section does not apply to cooking
oil storage tanks, distribution lines for cooking oils, or beverage
syrup lines or tubes.
2VAC5-585-1110. CIP equipment.
A. CIP equipment shall meet the characteristics specified
under 2VAC5-585-1100 and shall be designed and constructed so that:
1. Cleaning and sanitizing solutions circulate throughout a
fixed system and contact all interior food-contact surfaces;Pf
and
2. The system is self-draining or capable of being completely
drained of cleaning and sanitizing solutions.
B. CIP equipment that is not designed to be disassembled for
cleaning shall be designed with inspection access points to ensure that all
interior food-contact surfaces throughout the fixed system are being
effectively cleaned.
2VAC5-585-1120. "V" threads, use limitation.
Except for hot oil cooking or filtering equipment,
"V" type threads may not be used on food-contact surfaces. This
section does not apply to hot oil cooking or filtering equipment.
2VAC5-585-1180. Temperature measuring devices; food.
A. Food temperature measuring devices that are scaled only in
Fahrenheit or dually scaled in Fahrenheit and Celsius shall be scaled in 2°F
increments and accurate to ±2°F in the intended range of use.Pf
B. Food temperature measuring devices that are scaled only in
Celsius shall be scaled in 1°C increments accurate to ±1°C in the intended
range of use.Pf
2VAC5-585-1190. Temperature measuring devices; ambient air and
water.
A. Ambient air and water temperature measuring devices that
are scaled in Fahrenheit or dually scaled in Fahrenheit and Celsius and shall
be designed to be easily readable and scaled in 3°F increments and accurate to
±3°F in the intended range of use.Pf
B. Ambient air and water temperature measuring devices that
are scaled only in Celsius shall be scaled in 1.5°C increments and accurate to
±1.5°C in the intended range of use.Pf
2VAC5-585-1230. Dispensing equipment, protection of equipment
and food.
In equipment that dispenses or vends liquid food or ice in
unpackaged form:
1. The delivery tube, chute, orifice, and splash surfaces
directly above the container receiving the food shall be designed in a manner,
such as with barriers, baffles, or drip aprons, so that drips from condensation
and splash are diverted from the opening of the container receiving the food.
2. The delivery tube, chute, and orifice shall be protected
from manual contact such as by being recessed.
3. The delivery tube or chute and orifice of equipment used to
vend liquid food or ice in unpackaged form to self-service consumers shall be
designed so that the delivery tube or chute and orifice are protected from
dust, insects, rodents, and other contamination by a self-closing door if the
equipment is:
a. Located in an outside area that does not otherwise afford
the protection of an enclosure against the rain, windblown debris, insects,
rodents, and other contaminants that are present in the environment; or
b. Available for self-service during hours when it is not
under the full-time supervision of a food employee.
4. The dispensing equipment actuating lever or mechanism and
filling device of consumer self-service beverage dispensing equipment shall be
designed to prevent contact with the lip-contact surface of glasses or cups
that are refilled.
5. Dispensing equipment in which potentially hazardous food
(time/temperature time/temperature control for safety food) food
in homogenous liquid form is maintained outside of the temperature control
requirements as specified in 2VAC5-585-820 C A shall:
a. Be specifically designed and equipped to maintain the
commercial sterility of aseptically packaged food in a homogenous liquid form
for a specified duration from the time of opening the packaging within the
equipment;P and
b. Conform to the requirements for this equipment as specified
in NSF/ANSI 18-2006 18-2012 Manual Food and Beverage Dispensing
Equipment, 2012, (NSF International).P
2VAC5-585-1240. Vending machine, vending stage closure.
The dispensing compartment of a vending machine including a
machine that is designed to vend prepackaged snack food that is not potentially
hazardous time/temperature control for safety food such as chips,
party mixes, and pretzels shall be equipped with a self-closing door or cover
if the machine is:
1. Located in an outside area that does not otherwise afford
the protection of an enclosure against the rain, windblown debris, insects,
rodents, and other contaminants that are present in the environment; or
2. Available for self-service during hours when it is not
under the full-time supervision of a food employee.
2VAC5-585-1300. Molluscan shellfish tanks.
A. Except as specified under subsection B of this section,
molluscan shellfish life support system display tanks may not be used to
display shellfish that are offered for human consumption and shall be
conspicuously marked so that it is obvious to consumers that the shellfish are
for display only.P
B. Molluscan shellfish life-support system display tanks that
are used to store and or display shellfish that are offered for
human consumption shall be operated and maintained in accordance with a
variance granted by the department as specified in 2VAC5-585-3540 and a HACCP
plan that:Pf
1. Is submitted by the person in charge operator
and approved as specified under 2VAC5-585-3541;Pf and
2. Ensures that:
a. Water used with fish other than molluscan shellfish does
not flow into the molluscan tank;Pf
b. The safety and quality of the shellfish as they were
received are not compromised by the use of the tank;Pf and
c. The identity of the source of the shellstock is retained as
specified under 2VAC5-585-440.Pf
2VAC5-585-1310. Vending machines, automatic shutoff.*
A. A machine vending potentially hazardous food
(time/temperature time/temperature control for safety food) food
shall have an automatic control that prevents the machine from vending food:
1. If there is a power failure, mechanical failure, or other
condition that results in an internal machine temperature that cannot maintain
food temperatures as specified under Part III (2VAC5-585-260 et seq.) of this
chapter;P and
2. If a condition specified under subdivision 1 of this
subsection occurs, until the machine is serviced and restocked with food that
has been maintained at temperatures specified under Part III.P
B. When the automatic shutoff within a machine vending potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature time/temperature control for safety
food) food is activated:
1. In a refrigerated vending machine, the ambient temperature
may not exceed 41°F (5°C) or 45°F (7°C) as specified under 2VAC5-585-820 A 2
for more than 30 minutes immediately after the machine is filled, serviced, or
restocked;P or
2. In a hot holding vending machine, the ambient temperature
may not be less than 135°F (57°C) for more than 120 minutes immediately after
the machine is filled, serviced, or restocked.P
2VAC5-585-1320. Temperature measuring devices.
A. In a mechanically refrigerated or hot food storage unit,
the sensor of a temperature measuring device shall be located to measure the
air temperature or a simulated product temperature in the warmest part of a
mechanically refrigerated unit and in the coolest part of a hot food storage
unit.
B. Except as specified in subsection C of this section, cold
or hot holding equipment used for potentially hazardous time/temperature
control for safety food shall be designed to include and shall be equipped
with at least one integral or affixed temperature measuring device that is
located to allow easy viewing of the device's temperature display.
C. Subsection B of this section does not apply to equipment
for which the placement of a temperature measuring device is not a practical
means for measuring the ambient air surrounding the food because of the design,
type, and use of the equipment, such as calrod units, heat lamps, cold plates,
bainmaries, steam tables, insulated food transport containers, and salad bars.
D. Temperature measuring devices shall be designed to be
easily readable.
E. Food temperature measuring devices and water temperature
measuring devices on warewashing machines shall have a numerical scale, printed
record, or digital readout in increments no greater than 2°F or 1°C in the
intended range of use.Pf
2VAC5-585-1330. Warewashing machine, data plate operating
specifications.
A warewashing machine shall be provided with an easily
accessible and readable data plate affixed to the machine by the manufacturer
that indicates the machine's design and operating operation
specifications including the:
1. Temperatures required for washing, rinsing, and sanitizing;
2. Pressure required for the fresh water sanitizing rinse
unless the machine is designed to use only a pumped sanitizing rinse; and
3. Conveyor speed for conveyor machines or cycle time for
stationary rack machines.
2VAC5-585-1350. Warewashing machines, temperature measuring
devices.
A warewashing machine shall be equipped with a temperature
measuring device that indicates the temperature of the water:
1. In each wash and rinse tank;Pf and
2. As the water enters the hot water sanitizing final rinse
manifold or in the chemical sanitizing solution tank.Pf
2VAC5-585-1360. Manual warewashing equipment, heaters and
baskets.
If hot water is used for sanitization in manual warewashing
operations, the sanitizing compartment of the sink shall be:
1. Designed with an integral heating device that is capable of
maintaining water at a temperature not less than 171°F (77°C);Pf
and
2. Provided with a rack or basket to allow complete immersion
of equipment and utensils into the hot water.Pf
2VAC5-585-1370. Warewashing machines, automatic dispensing of
detergents and sanitizers.
A. A warewashing machine that is installed after
the adoption of this regulation by the board shall be equipped to:
1. Automatically dispense detergents and sanitizers;Pf
and
2. Incorporate a visual means to verify that detergents and
sanitizers are delivered or a visual or audible alarm to signal if the
detergents and sanitizers are not delivered to the respective washing and
sanitizing cycles.Pf
B. Before January 1, 2012, existing warewashing equipment
shall be upgraded or replaced to meet the requirements of subsection A of this
section.
2VAC5-585-1435. Food equipment, certification and
classification.
Food equipment that is certified or classified for
sanitation by an American National Standards Institute accredited certification
program is deemed to comply with the requirements of Articles 1 (2VAC5-585-960
et seq.) and 2 (2VAC5-585-1080 et seq.) of this part.
Article 3
Numbers and Capacities
2VAC5-585-1450. Cooling, heating, and holding capacities.
Equipment for cooling and heating food, and holding cold and
hot food, shall be sufficient in number and capacity and capable of
providing to provide food temperatures as specified under Part III
(2VAC5-585-260 et seq.) of this chapter.Pf
2VAC5-585-1460. Manual warewashing, sink compartment
requirements.
A. Except as specified in subsection C of this section, a
sink with at least three compartments shall be provided for manually washing,
rinsing, and sanitizing equipment and utensils.Pf
B. Sink compartments shall be large enough to accommodate
immersion of the largest equipment and utensils. If equipment or utensils are
too large for the warewashing sink, a warewashing machine or alternative
equipment as specified in subsection C of this section shall be used.Pf
C. Alternative manual warewashing equipment may be used when
there are special cleaning needs or constraints and its use is approved.
Alternative manual warewashing equipment may include:
1. High-pressure detergent sprayers;
2. Low-pressure or line-pressure spray detergent
foamers;
3. Other task-specific cleaning equipment;
4. Brushes or other implements;
5. Two-compartment sinks as specified under subsections D and
E of this section; or
6. Receptacles that substitute for the compartments of a
multicompartment sink.
D. Before a two-compartment sink is used:
1. The operator shall have its use approved; and
2. The person in charge operator shall limit the
number of kitchenware items cleaned and sanitized in the two-compartment sink, and
shall limit warewashing to batch operations for cleaning kitchenware such as
between cutting one type of raw meat and another or cleanup at the end of a
shift, and shall:
a. Make up the cleaning and sanitizing solutions immediately
before use and drain them immediately after use; and
b. Use a detergent-sanitizer to sanitize and apply the
detergent-sanitizer in accordance with the manufacturer's label instructions
and as specified under 2VAC5-585-1710; or
c. Use a hot water sanitization immersion step as specified
under subdivision 3 of 2VAC5-585-1860.
E. A two-compartment sink may not be used for warewashing
operations where cleaning and sanitizing solutions are used for a continuous or
intermittent flow of kitchenware or tableware in an ongoing warewashing
process.
2VAC5-585-1500. Utensils, consumer self-service.
A food dispensing utensil shall be available for each
container displayed at a consumer self-service unit such as a buffet or salad
bar.Pf
2VAC5-585-1510. Food temperature measuring devices.
A. Food temperature measuring devices shall be provided and
readily accessible for use in ensuring attainment and maintenance of food
temperatures as specified under Part III (2VAC5-585-260 et seq.) of this
chapter.Pf
B. A temperature measuring device with a suitable
small-diameter probe that is designed to measure the temperature of thin masses
shall be provided and readily accessible to accurately measure the temperature
in thin foods such as meat patties and fish fillets.Pf
2VAC5-585-1520. Temperature measuring devices, manual and
mechanical warewashing.
A. In manual warewashing operations, a temperature
measuring device shall be provided and readily accessible for frequently
measuring the washing and sanitizing temperatures.Pf
B. In hot water mechanical warewashing operations, an
irreversible registering temperature indicator shall be provided and readily
accessible for measuring the utensil surface temperature.Pf
2VAC5-585-1530. Sanitizing solutions, testing devices.
A test kit or other device that accurately measures the
concentration in mg/L (ppm) of sanitizing solutions shall be provided and
readily accessible for use.Pf
[ 2VAC5-585-1535. Cleaning agents and sanitizers;
availability.
A. Cleaning agents that are used to clean equipment and
utensils as specified under Article 6 (2VAC5-585-1770 et seq.) of this part
shall be provided and available for use during all hours of operation.
B. Except for chemical sanitizers that are generated on
site at the time of use, chemical sanitizers that are used to sanitize
equipment and utensils as specified under Article 7 (2VAC5-585-1885 et seq.) of
this part shall be provided and available for use during all hours of
operation. ]
Article 4
Location and Installation
2VAC5-585-1540. Equipment, clothes washers and dryers, and
storage cabinets, contamination prevention.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section,
equipment, cabinets a cabinet used for the storage of food, or cabinets
a cabinet used to store cleaned and sanitized equipment, utensils,
laundered linens, and single-service and single-use articles may not be
located:
1. In locker rooms;
2. In toilet rooms or vestibules;
3. In garbage rooms;
4. In mechanical rooms;
5. Under sewer lines that are not shielded to intercept
potential drips;
6. Under leaking water lines including leaking automatic fire
sprinkler heads or under lines on which water has condensed;
7. Under open stairwells; or
8. Under other sources of contamination.
B. A storage cabinet used for linens or single-service or
single-use articles may be stored in a locker room.
C. If a mechanical clothes washer or dryer is provided, it
shall be located only where there is no exposed food; clean equipment,
utensils, and linens; unwrapped single-service and single-use articles; and
(i) so that the washer or dryer is protected from contamination and
(ii) only where there is no exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and
linens; or unwrapped single-service and single-use articles.
2VAC5-585-1550. Fixed equipment, spacing or sealing.
A. Equipment that is fixed because it is not easily movable
shall be installed so that it is:
1. Spaced to allow access for cleaning along the sides,
behind, and above the equipment;
2. Spaced from adjoining equipment, walls, and ceilings a
distance of not more than 1/32 inch or one millimeter; or
3. Sealed to adjoining equipment or walls, if the equipment is
exposed to spillage or seepage.
B. Counter-mounted equipment that is not easily movable shall
be installed to allow cleaning of the equipment and areas underneath and around
the equipment by being:
1. Sealed to the table; or
2. Elevated on legs as specified under 2VAC5-585-1560 D.
2VAC5-585-1560. Fixed equipment, elevation or sealing.
A. Except as specified in subsections B and C of this
section, floor-mounted equipment that is not easily movable shall be sealed to
the floor or elevated on legs that provide at least a six-inch
[ (15-centimeter) (15 centimeter) ] clearance
between the floor and the equipment.
B. If no part of the floor under the floor-mounted equipment
is more than six inches (15 centimeters) from the point of cleaning access, the
clearance space may be only four inches (10 centimeters).
C. This section does not apply to display shelving units,
display refrigeration units, and display freezer units located in the consumer
shopping areas of a retail food store, if the floor under the units is
maintained clean.
D. Except as specified in subsection E of this section,
counter-mounted equipment that is not easily movable shall be elevated on legs
that provide at least a four-inch [ (10-centimeter) (10 centimeter) ]
clearance between the table and the equipment.
E. The clearance space between the table and counter-mounted
equipment may be:
1. Three inches (7.5 centimeters) if the horizontal distance
of the table top under the equipment is no more than 20 inches (50 centimeters)
from the point of access for cleaning; or
2. Two inches (5 centimeters) if the horizontal distance of
the table top under the equipment is no more than three inches (7.5
centimeters) from the point of access for cleaning.
Article 5
Maintenance and Operation
2VAC5-585-1570. Good repair and proper adjustment.
A. Equipment shall be maintained in a state of repair and
condition that meets the requirements specified under Articles 1 (2VAC5-585-960
et seq.) and 2 (2VAC5-585-1080 et seq.) of this part. Unused or
nonfunctioning equipment shall be removed from the premises.
B. Equipment components such as doors, seals, hinges,
fasteners, and kick plates shall be kept intact, tight, and adjusted in
accordance with manufacturer's specifications.
C. Cutting or piercing parts of can openers shall be kept
sharp to minimize the creation of metal fragments that can contaminate food
when the container is opened.
2VAC5-585-1630. Warewashing equipment, cleaning agents.
When used for warewashing, the wash compartment of a sink,
mechanical warewasher, or wash receptacle of alternative manual warewashing
equipment as specified in 2VAC5-585-1460 C, shall contain a wash solution of
soap, detergent, acid cleaner, alkaline cleaner, degreaser, abrasive cleaner,
or other cleaning agent according to the cleaning agent manufacturer's label
instructions.Pf
2VAC5-585-1650. Manual warewashing equipment, wash solution
temperature.
The temperature of the wash solution in manual warewashing
equipment shall be maintained at not less than 110°F (43°C) or the temperature
specified on the cleaning agent manufacturer's label instructions.Pf
2VAC5-585-1660. Mechanical warewashing equipment, wash solution
temperature.
A. The temperature of the wash solution in spray type
warewashers that use hot water to sanitize may not be less than:
1. For a stationary rack, single temperature machine, 165°F
(74°C);Pf
2. For a stationary rack, dual temperature machine, 150°F
(66°C);Pf
3. For a single tank, conveyor, dual temperature machine,
160°F (71°C);Pf or
4. For a multitank, conveyor, multitemperature machine, 150°F
(66°C).Pf
B. The temperature of the wash solution in spray-type
warewashers that use chemicals to sanitize may not be less than 120°F (49°C).Pf
2VAC5-585-1670. Manual warewashing equipment, hot water
sanitization temperatures.*
If immersion in hot water is used for sanitizing in a manual
operation, the temperature of the water shall be maintained at 171°F (77°C) or
above.P
2VAC5-585-1680. Mechanical warewashing equipment, hot water
sanitization temperatures.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, in a
mechanical operation, the temperature of the fresh hot water sanitizing rinse
as it enters the manifold may not be more than 194°F (90°C), or less than:Pf
1. For a stationary rack, single temperature machine, 165°F
(74°C);Pf or
2. For all other machines, 180°F (82°C).Pf
B. The maximum temperature specified under subsection A of
this section does not apply to the high pressure and temperature systems with
wand-type, hand-held, spraying devices used for the in-place cleaning and
sanitizing of equipment such as meat saws.
2VAC5-585-1700. Manual and mechanical warewashing equipment,
chemical sanitization - temperature, pH, concentration, and hardness.*
A chemical sanitizer used in a
sanitizing solution for a manual or mechanical operation at exposure contact
times specified under subdivision 3 of 2VAC5-585-1900 shall be listed in 40
CFR 180.940, Tolerance Exemptions for Active and Inert Ingredients for Use in
Antimicrobial Formulations (Food-Contact Surface Sanitizing Solutions), shall
be used in accordance with the EPA-approved manufacturer's label use
instructions, meet the criteria specified under 2VAC5-585-3380, shall be
used in accordance with the EPA-registered label use instructions,P
and shall be used as follows:
1. A chlorine solution shall have a minimum temperature based
on the concentration and pH of the solution as listed in the following chart;P
Minimum Concentration
|
Minimum Temperature
|
mg/L (ppm)
|
pH 10 or less
°F (°C)
|
pH 8 8.0 or less
°F (°C)
|
25-49
|
120 (49)
|
120 (49)
|
50-99
|
100 (38)
|
75 (24)
|
100
|
55 (13)
|
55 (13)
|
2. An iodine solution shall have a:
a. Minimum temperature of 75°F (24°C) 68°F (20°C);P
b. pH of 5.0 or less or a pH no higher than the level for
which the manufacturer specifies the solution is effective;P
and
c. Concentration between 12.5 mg/L(ppm) and 25 mg/L (ppm);P
3. A quaternary ammonium compound solution shall:
a. Have a minimum temperature of 75°F (24°C);P
b. Have a concentration as specified under 2VAC5-585-3380 and
as indicated by the manufacturer's use directions included in the labeling;P
and
c. Be used only in water with 500 mg/L hardness or less or in
water having a hardness no greater than specified by the manufacturer's
label EPA-registered label use instructions;P
4. If another solution of a chemical specified under
subdivisions 1 through 3 of this section is used, the person in charge operator
shall demonstrate to the department that the solution achieves sanitization and
the use of the solution shall be approved;P or
5. If a chemical sanitizer other than chlorine, iodine, or a
quaternary ammonium compound is used, it shall be applied in accordance with
the manufacturer's use directions included in the labeling. EPA-registered
label use instructions;P and
6. If a chemical sanitizer is generated by a device located
on site at the food establishment, it shall be used as specified in
subdivisions 1 through 4 of this section and shall be produced by a device
that:
a. Complies with regulation as specified in §§ 2(q)(1) and
12 of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (7 USC §
136(q)(1) and 7 USC § 136j);P
b. Complies with 40 CFR 152.500 and 40 CFR 156.10;P
c. Displays the EPA device manufacturing facility
registration number on the device;Pf and
d. Is operated and maintained in accordance with
manufacturer's instructions.Pf
2VAC5-585-1720. Warewashing equipment, determining chemical
sanitizer concentration.
Concentration of the sanitizing solution shall be accurately
determined by using a test kit or other device.Pf
2VAC5-585-1730. Good repair and calibration.
A. Utensils shall be maintained in a state of repair or
condition that complies with the requirements specified under Articles 1
(2VAC5-585-960 et seq.) and 2 (2VAC5-585-1080 et seq.) of this part or shall be
discarded.
B. Food temperature measuring devices shall be calibrated in
accordance with manufacturer's specifications as necessary to ensure their
accuracy.Pf
C. Ambient air temperature, water pressure, and water
temperature measuring devices shall be maintained in good repair and be
accurate within the intended range of use.
2VAC5-585-1740. Single-service and single-use articles,
required use.*
A food establishment without facilities specified under
Articles 6 (2VAC5-585-1770 et seq.) and 7 (2VAC5-585-1880 (2VAC5-585-1885
et seq.) of this part for cleaning and sanitizing kitchenware and tableware
shall provide only single-use kitchenware, single-service articles, and
single-use articles for use by food employees and single-service articles for
use by consumers.P
Article 6
Cleaning of Equipment and Utensils
2VAC5-585-1770. Equipment, food-contact surfaces,
nonfood-contact surfaces, and utensils.*
A. Equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils shall be
clean to sight and touch.Pf
B. The food-contact surfaces of cooking equipment and pans
shall be kept free of encrusted grease deposits and other soil accumulations.N
C. Nonfood-contact surfaces of equipment shall be kept free
of an accumulation of dust, dirt, food residue, and other debris.N
2VAC5-585-1780. Equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils.*
A. Equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils shall be
cleaned:
1. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, before
each use with a different type of raw animal food such as beef, fish, lamb, pork,
or poultry;P
2. Each time there is a change from working with raw foods to
working with ready-to-eat foods;P
3. Between uses with raw fruits and vegetables and with potentially
hazardous time/temperature control for safety food;P
4. Before using or storing a food temperature measuring
device;P and
5. At any time during the operation when contamination may
have occurred.P
B. Subdivision A 1 of this section does not apply if the food
contact food-contact surface or utensil is in contact with a
succession of different raw animal foods types of raw meat and
poultry each requiring a higher cooking temperature as specified under
2VAC5-585-700 than the previous food, such as preparing raw fish followed by
cutting raw poultry on the same cutting board type.
C. Except as specified in subsection D of this section, if
used with potentially hazardous time/temperature control for safety
food, equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils shall be cleaned throughout
the day at least every four hours.P
D. Surfaces of utensils and equipment contacting potentially
hazardous time/temperature control for safety food may be cleaned
less frequently than every four hours if:
1. In storage, containers of potentially hazardous time/temperature
control for safety food and their contents are maintained at temperatures
specified under Part III (2VAC5-585-260 et seq.) of this chapter and the
containers are cleaned when they are empty;
2. Utensils and equipment are used to prepare food in a
refrigerated room or area that is maintained at one of the temperatures in the
following chart and:
a. The utensils and equipment are cleaned at the frequency in
the following chart that corresponds to the temperature; and
Temperature
|
Cleaning Frequency
|
41°F (5.0°C) or less
|
24 hours
|
>41°F - 45°F
(>5.0°C - 7.2°C)
|
20 hours
|
>45°F - 50°F
(>7.2°C - 10.0°C)
|
16 hours
|
>50°F - 55°F
(>10.0°C - 12.8°C)
|
10 hours
|
b. The cleaning frequency based on the ambient temperature of
the refrigerated room or area is documented in the food establishment.
3. Containers in serving situations such as salad bars, delis,
and cafeteria lines hold ready-to-eat potentially hazardous time/temperature
control for safety food that is maintained at the temperatures specified
under Part III, are intermittently combined with additional supplies of the
same food that is at the required temperature, and the containers are cleaned
at least every 24 hours;
4. Temperature measuring devices are maintained in contact
with food, such as when left in a container of deli food or in a roast, held at
temperatures specified under Part III;
5. Equipment is used for storage of packaged or unpackaged
food such as a reach-in refrigerator and the equipment is cleaned at a
frequency necessary to preclude accumulation of soil residues; or
6. The cleaning schedule is approved based on consideration
of:
a. Characteristics of the equipment and its use;
b. The type of food involved;
c. The amount of food residue accumulation; and
d. The temperature at which the food is maintained during the
operation and the potential for the rapid and progressive multiplication of
pathogenic or toxigenic microorganisms that are capable of causing foodborne
disease; or
7. In-use utensils are intermittently stored in a container of
water in which the water is maintained at 135°F (57°C) or more and the utensils
and container are cleaned at least every 24 hours or at a frequency necessary
to preclude accumulation of soil residues.
E. Except when dry cleaning methods are used as specified
under 2VAC5-585-1810, surfaces of utensils and equipment contacting food that
is not potentially hazardous time/temperature control for safety food
shall be cleaned:N
1. At any time when contamination may have occurred;
2. At least every 24 hours for iced tea dispensers and
consumer self-service utensils such as tongs, scoops, or ladles;
3. Before restocking consumer self-service equipment and
utensils such as condiment dispensers and display containers; and
4. Equipment In equipment such as ice bins and
beverage dispensing nozzles and enclosed components of equipment such as ice
makers, cooking oil storage tanks and distribution lines, beverage and
syrup dispensing lines or tubes, coffee bean grinders, and water vending
equipment:
a. At a frequency specified by the manufacturer; or
b. Absent manufacturer specifications, at a frequency necessary
to preclude accumulation of soil or mold.
2VAC5-585-1790. Cooking and baking equipment.
A. The food-contact surfaces of in-use cooking and
baking equipment shall be cleaned at least every 24 hours. This section does
not apply to hot oil cooking and filtering equipment if it is cleaned as
specified in 2VAC5-585-1780 D 6.
B. The cavities and door seals of microwave ovens shall be
cleaned at least every 24 hours by using the manufacturer's recommended
cleaning procedure.
2VAC5-585-1810. Dry cleaning.
A. If used, dry cleaning methods such as brushing, scraping,
and vacuuming shall contact only surfaces that are soiled with dry food
residues that are not potentially hazardous time/temperature control
for safety food.
B. Cleaning equipment used in dry cleaning food-contact
surfaces may not be used for any other purpose.
2VAC5-585-1870. Returnables, cleaning for refilling.* (Repealed.)
A. Except as specified in subsections B and C of this
section, returned empty containers intended for cleaning and refilling with
food shall be cleaned and refilled in a regulated food processing plant.
B. A food-specific container for beverages may be refilled
at a food establishment if:
1. Only a beverage that is not a potentially hazardous food
is used as specified under 2VAC5-585-600 A;
2. The design of the container and of the rinsing equipment
and the nature of the beverage, when considered together, allow effective
cleaning at home or in the food establishment;
3. Facilities for rinsing before refilling returned
containers with fresh, hot water that is under pressure and not recirculated
are provided as part of the dispensing system;
4. The consumer-owned container returned to the food
establishment for refilling is refilled for sale or service only to the same
consumer; and
5. The container is refilled by:
a. An employee of the food establishment; or
b. The owner of the container if the beverage system
includes a contamination-free transfer process that cannot be bypassed by the
container owner.
C. Consumer-owned containers that are not food-specific
may be filled at a water vending machine or system.
Article 7
Sanitization of Equipment and Utensils
2VAC5-585-1885. Food-contact surfaces and utensils.
Equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils shall be
sanitized.
2VAC5-585-1890. Before use after cleaning.*
Utensils and food-contact surfaces of equipment shall be
sanitized before use after cleaning.P
2VAC5-585-1900. Hot water and chemical.*
After being cleaned, equipment food-contact surfaces and
utensils shall be sanitized in:
1. Hot water manual operations by immersion for at least 30
seconds as specified under 2VAC5-585-1670;P
2. Hot water mechanical operations by being cycled through
equipment that is set up as specified under 2VAC5-585-1610, 2VAC5-585-1680, and
2VAC5-585-1690 and achieving a utensil surface temperature of 160°F (71°C) as
measured by an irreversible registering temperature indicator;P
or
3. Chemical manual or mechanical operations, including the
application of sanitizing chemicals by immersion, manual swabbing, brushing, or
pressure spraying methods, using a solution as specified under 2VAC5-585-1700.
Contact times shall be consistent with those on EPA-registered label use
instructions by providing:
a. Except as specified under subdivision 3 b of this section, an
exposure a contact time of at least 10 seconds for a chlorine
solution specified under subdivision 1 of 2VAC5-585-1700;P
b. An exposure A contact time of at least 7
seven seconds for a chlorine solution of 50 mg/L that has a pH of 10 or
less and a temperature of at least 100°F (38°C) or a pH of 8 8.0
or less and a temperature of at least 75°F (24°C);P
c. An exposure A contact time of at least 30
seconds for other chemical sanitizing solutions;P or
d. An exposure A contact time used in
relationship with a combination of temperature, concentration, and pH that,
when evaluated for efficacy, yields sanitization as defined in 2VAC5-585-40.P
2VAC5-585-1920. Specifications.
A. Linens that do not come in direct contact with food shall
be laundered between operations if they become wet, sticky, or visibly soiled.
B. Cloth gloves used as specified in 2VAC5-585-580 D shall be
laundered before being used with a different type of raw animal food such as
beef, lamb, pork, and fish, or poultry.
C. Linens and napkins that are used as specified under
2VAC5-585-560 and cloth napkins shall be laundered between each use.
D. Wet wiping cloths shall be laundered daily.
E. Dry wiping cloths shall be laundered as necessary to
prevent contamination of food and clean serving utensils.
Article 9
Protection of Clean Items
2VAC5-585-1960. Equipment and utensils, air-drying required.
After cleaning and sanitizing, equipment and utensils:
1. Shall be air dried or used after adequate draining as
specified in 40 CFR 180.9401 the first paragraph of 40 CFR
180.940 before contact with food; and
2. May not be cloth dried except that utensils that have been
air-dried may be polished with cloths that are maintained clean and dry.
2VAC5-585-2000. Equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service
and single-use articles.
A. Except as specified in subsection D of this section,
cleaned equipment and utensils, laundered linens, and single-service and
single-use articles shall be stored:
1. In a clean, dry location;
2. Where they are not exposed to splash, dust, or other
contamination; and
3. At least six inches (15 cm) centimeters)
above the floor.
B. Clean equipment and utensils shall be stored as specified
under subsection A of this section and shall be stored:
1. In a self-draining position that allows air drying; and
2. Covered or inverted.
C. Single-service and single-use articles shall be stored as
specified under subsection A of this section and shall be kept in the original
protective package or stored by using other means that afford protection from
contamination until used.
D. Items that are kept in closed packages may be stored less
than six inches (15 cm) centimeters) above the floor on dollies,
pallets, racks, and skids that are designed as provided under 2VAC5-585-1420.
2VAC5-585-2010. Prohibitions.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section,
cleaned and sanitized equipment, utensils, laundered linens, and single-service
and single-use articles may not be stored:
1. In locker rooms;
2. In toilet rooms or vestibules;
3. In garbage rooms;
4. In mechanical rooms;
5. Under sewer lines that are not shielded to intercept
potential drips;
6. Under leaking water lines including leaking automatic fire
sprinkler heads or under lines on which water has condensed;
7. Under open stairwells; or
8. Under other sources of contamination.
B. Laundered linens and single-service and single-use
articles that are packaged or in a facility such as a cabinet may be stored in
a locker room.
2VAC5-585-2040. Preset tableware.
A. Tableware Except as specified in subsection B of
this section, tableware that is preset shall be protected from
contamination by being wrapped, covered, or inverted.
B. When tableware is preset, exposed, unused settings
shall be:
1. Removed when a consumer is seated; or
2. Cleaned and sanitized before further use if the settings
are not removed when a consumer is seated.
B. Preset tableware may be exposed if:
1. Unused settings are removed when a consumer is seated;
or
2. Settings not removed when a consumer is seated are
cleaned and sanitized before further use.
2VAC5-585-2045. Rinsing equipment and utensils after
cleaning.
After being cleaned and sanitized, equipment and utensils
shall not be rinsed before air drying or use unless:
1. The rinse is applied directly from a potable water
supply by a warewashing machine that is maintained and operated as specified
under 2VAC5-585-1210 through 2VAC5-585-1430 and 2VAC5-585-1570 through
2VAC5-585-1720; and
2. The rinse is applied only after the equipment and utensils
have been sanitized by the application of hot water or by the application of a
chemical sanitizer solution whose EPA-registered label use instructions call
for rinsing off the sanitizer after it is applied in a commercial warewashing
machine.
Part V
Water, Plumbing, and Waste
Article 1
Water
2VAC5-585-2050. Approved system.*
[ Drinking Pure ] water shall be
obtained from an approved [ source that is water system defined
as ]:
1. A [ public water system waterworks
constructed, maintained, and operated in compliance with 12VAC5-590 ];P
or
2. A [ nonpublic water system that is constructed,
maintained, and operated according to law private well constructed,
maintained, and operated in compliance with 12VAC5-630 ].P
2VAC5-585-2060. System flushing and disinfection.*
[ A drinking water An approved water ]
system shall be flushed and disinfected [ before being placed in
service ] after construction, repair, or modification and after an
emergency situation, such as a flood, that may introduce contaminants to the
system. [ A sample shall be collected from the water system and the
results of the analysis shall be total coliform negative prior to placing the
water system into service. ]P
2VAC5-585-2070. Bottled drinking water.*
Bottled drinking water used or sold in a food establishment
shall be obtained from approved sources in accordance with 21 CFR Part 129,
Processing and Bottling of Bottled Drinking Water.P
2VAC5-585-2080. [ Quality Pure water ]
standards.*
Except as specified under 2VAC5-585-2090:
1. Water from a [ public water system waterworks ]
shall meet [ the applicable water quality and quantity ]
standards [ found in 40 CFR Part 141 and the Virginia Waterworks
Regulations (12VAC5-590) in accordance with 12VAC5-590 ].P
2. Water from a [ nonpublic water system private
well ] shall meet state drinking water quality standards
[ the bacteriological standards found in the Virginia Waterworks
Regulations (12VAC5-590) water quality and quantity standards in
accordance with 12VAC5-630-370 ].P
2VAC5-585-2090. [ Nondrinking Nonpotable ]
water.*
A. A [ nondrinking nonpotable ] water
supply shall be used only if its use is approved.P
B. [ Nondrinking Nonpotable ] water
shall be used only for nonculinary purposes such as air conditioning, nonfood
equipment cooling, and fire protection, and irrigation.P
2VAC5-585-2100. Sampling.
[ Except when used as specified under 2VAC5-585-2090,
water A. Water ] from a [ nonpublic water system private
well ] shall be sampled and tested at least annually [ and as
required by state water quality regulations for nitrate and total
coliform ]. [ Pf ]
[ B. If nitrate, which is reported as "N"
on the test results, exceeds 10 mg/L, the operator shall notify the department
by the end of the day the operator is notified of the test result. Additional
sampling may be required.Pf
C. If a sample is total coliform positive, the positive
culture medium shall be further analyzed to determine if E. coli is
present. The operator shall notify the department within two days from
when the operator is notified of the coliform-positive test result. Pf
D. If E. coli is present, the operator shall notify the
department by the end of the day the operator is notified of the test result.Pf ]
[ 2VAC5-585-2110. Sample report.
The most recent All sample report reports
for the nonpublic water system private well shall be
retained on file in the food establishment or the report shall be
maintained as specified by state water quality regulations for a minimum
of five years and be made available to the department upon request. ]
2VAC5-585-2120. Capacity.*
A. The water source and system shall be of sufficient
capacity to meet the [ peak maximum daily ]
water demands [ and the peak hourly water demands ] of the
food establishment.Pf
B. Hot water generation and distribution systems shall be
sufficient to meet the peak hot water demands throughout the food
establishment.Pf
2VAC5-585-2130. Pressure.
Water under pressure shall be provided to all fixtures,
equipment, and nonfood equipment that are required to use water except that
water supplied as specified under subdivisions 1 and 2 of 2VAC5-585-2160 to a
temporary food establishment or in response to a temporary interruption of a
water supply need not be under pressure.Pf
2VAC5-585-2150. Distribution, delivery, and retention system.
Water shall be received from the source through the use of:
1. An approved public water main;Pf or
2. One or more of the following that shall be constructed,
maintained, and operated according to law:Pf
a. Nonpublic water main, water pumps, pipes, hoses,
connections, and other appurtenances;Pf
b. Water transport vehicles; andPf or
c. Water containers.Pf
2VAC5-585-2160. Alternative water supply.
Water meeting the requirements specified under 2VAC5-585-2050
through 2VAC5-585-2130 shall be made available for a mobile facility, for a
temporary food establishment without a permanent water supply, and for a food
establishment with a temporary interruption of its water supply through:
1. A supply of containers of commercially bottled drinking
water;Pf
2. One or more closed portable water containers;Pf
3. An enclosed vehicular water tank;Pf
4. An on-premises water storage tank;Pf or
5. Piping, tubing, or hoses connected to an adjacent approved
source.Pf
Article 2
Plumbing System
2VAC5-585-2170. Approved materials.*
A. A plumbing system and hoses conveying water shall be
constructed and repaired with approved materials according to law.P
B. A water filter shall be made of safe materials.P
2VAC5-585-2180. Approved system and cleanable fixtures.*
A. A plumbing system shall be designed, constructed, and
installed according to law.P
B. A plumbing fixture such as a handwashing lavatory sink,
toilet, or urinal shall be easily cleanable.N
2VAC5-585-2190. Handwashing sink, water temperature, and flow.
A. A handwashing sink shall be equipped to provide water at a
temperature of at least 100°F (38°C) through a mixing valve or combination
faucet.Pf
B. A steam mixing valve may not be used at a handwashing
sink.
C. A self-closing, slow-closing, or metering faucet shall
provide a flow of water for at least 15 seconds without the need to reactivate
the faucet.
D. If an automatic handwashing facility is installed, it
shall be installed in accordance with manufacturer's instructions.
2VAC5-585-2200. Backflow prevention, air gap.*
An air gap between the water supply inlet and the flood level
rim of the plumbing fixture, equipment, or nonfood equipment shall be at least
twice the diameter of the water supply inlet and may not be less than one inch
(25 mm).P
2VAC5-585-2210. Backflow prevention device, design standard.
A backflow or backsiphonage prevention device installed on a
water supply system shall comply with the Virginia Uniform Statewide
Building Code (13VAC5-63) for construction, installation, maintenance,
inspection, and testing for that specific application and type of device.P
2VAC5-585-2230. Handwashing sinks, numbers and capacities.*
A. Except as specified in subsections B and C of this
section, at least one handwashing sink, or the number of handwashing sinks
necessary for their convenient use by employees in areas specified under
2VAC5-585-2280, and not fewer than the number of handwashing sinks required by
law shall be provided.Pf
B. If approved and capable of removing the types of soils
encountered in the food operations involved, automatic handwashing facilities
may be substituted for handwashing sinks in a food establishment that has at
least one handwashing sink.
C. If approved, when food exposure is limited and handwashing
sinks are not conveniently available, such as in some mobile or temporary food
establishments or at some vending machine locations, employees may use
chemically-treated towelettes for handwashing.
2VAC5-585-2240. Toilets and urinals.*
At least one toilet and not fewer than the toilets required
by law shall be provided. If authorized by law and urinals are substituted for
toilets, the substitution shall be done as specified in law.
2VAC5-585-2250. Service sink.
A. At least one service sink or one curbed cleaning
facility equipped with a floor drain shall be provided and conveniently located
for the cleaning of mops or similar wet floor cleaning tools and for the
disposal of mop water and similar liquid waste.
B. Toilets and urinals may not be used as a service sink
for the disposal of mop water and similar liquid waste.
2VAC5-585-2260. Backflow prevention device, when required.*
A plumbing system shall be installed to preclude backflow of
a solid, liquid, or gas contaminant into the water supply system at each point
of use at the food establishment, including on a hose bibb (threaded faucet)
if a hose is attached or on a hose bibb if a hose is not attached and backflow
prevention is required by law by:
1. Providing an air gap as specified under 2VAC5-585-2200;P
or
2. Installing an approved backflow prevention device as
specified under 2VAC5-585-2210.P
2VAC5-585-2270. Backflow prevention device, carbonator.*
A. If not provided with an air gap as specified under
2VAC5-585-2200, a double check valve with an intermediate vent preceded by a
screen of not less than 100 mesh to one inch (100 mesh to 25.4mm) shall be
installed upstream from a carbonating device and downstream from any copper in
the water supply line.P
B. A single or double dual check valve attached
to the carbonator need not be of the vented type if an air gap or vented
backflow prevention device has been otherwise provided as specified under
subsection A of this section.
2VAC5-585-2280. Handwashing sinks, locations.*
A handwashing sink shall be located:
1. To be readily accessible for allow convenient
use by employees in food preparation, food dispensing, and warewashing areas;Pf
and
2. In, or immediately adjacent to, toilet rooms.Pf
2VAC5-585-2310. Using a handwashing sink.
A. A handwashing sink shall be maintained so that it is
accessible at all times for employee use.Pf
B. A handwashing sink may not be used for purposes other than
handwashing.Pf
C. An automatic handwashing sink shall be used in accordance
with manufacturer's instructions.Pf
2VAC5-585-2320. Prohibiting a cross connection.*
A. Except as specified in 9 CFR 308.3(d) for firefighting,
a A person may not create a cross connection by connecting a pipe or
conduit between the drinking water system and a nondrinking water system or a
water system of unknown quality.P
B. The piping of a nondrinking water system shall be durably
identified so that it is readily distinguishable from piping that carries
drinking water.N Pf
2VAC5-585-2330. Scheduling inspection and service for a water
system device.
A device such as a water treatment device or backflow
preventer shall be scheduled for inspection and service, in accordance with
manufacturer's instructions and as necessary to prevent device failure based on
local water conditions, and records demonstrating inspection and service shall
be maintained by the person in charge.Pf
2VAC5-585-2340. Water reservoir of fogging devices, cleaning.*
A. A reservoir that is used to supply water to a device such
as a produce fogger shall be:
1. Maintained in accordance with manufacturer's
specifications;P and
2. Cleaned in accordance with manufacturer's specifications or
according to the procedures specified under subsection B of this section,
whichever is more stringent.P
B. Cleaning procedures shall include at least the following
steps and shall be conducted at least once a week:
1. Draining and complete disassembly of the water and aerosol
contact parts;P
2. Brush-cleaning the reservoir, aerosol tubing, and discharge
nozzles with a suitable detergent solution;P
3. Flushing the complete system with water to remove the
detergent solution and particulate accumulation;P and
4. Rinsing by immersing, spraying, or swabbing the reservoir,
aerosol tubing, and discharge nozzles with at least 50 mg/L (ppm) hypochlorite
solution.P
2VAC5-585-2350. System maintained in good repair.*
A plumbing system shall be:
1. Repaired according to law;P and
2. Maintained in good repair.S
Article 3
Mobile Water Tank and Mobile Food Establishment Water Tank
2VAC5-585-2360. Approved materials.
Materials that are used in the construction of a mobile water
tank, mobile food establishment water tank, and appurtenances shall be:
1. Safe;P
2. Durable, corrosion resistant, and nonabsorbent; and
3. Finished to have a smooth, easily cleanable surface.
2VAC5-585-2420. Hose, construction and identification.
A hose used for conveying [ drinking potable ]
water from a water tank shall be:
1. Safe;P
2. Durable, corrosion resistant, and nonabsorbent;
3. Resistant to pitting, chipping, crazing, scratching,
scoring, distortion, and decomposition;
4. Finished with a smooth interior surface; and
5. Clearly and durably identified as to its use if not
permanently attached.
2VAC5-585-2430. Filter, compressed air.
A filter that does not pass oil or oil vapors shall be
installed in the air supply line between the compressor and [ drinking
potable ] water system when compressed air is used to pressurize
the water tank system.P
2VAC5-585-2460. System flushing and disinfection.*
A water tank, pump, and hoses shall be flushed and sanitized
before being placed in service after construction, repair, modification, and
periods of nonuse.P
2VAC5-585-2490. Tank, pump, and hoses, dedication.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, a
water tank, pump, and hoses used for conveying drinking water shall be used for
no other purpose.P
B. Water tanks, pumps, and hoses approved for liquid foods
may be used for conveying drinking water if they are cleaned and sanitized
before they are used to convey water.
2VAC5-585-2505. Establishment drainage system.
Food establishment drainage systems, including grease
traps, that convey sewage shall be designed and installed as specified under
2VAC5-585-2180 A.
2VAC5-585-2520. Backflow prevention.*
A. Except as specified in subsections B, C, and D of this
section, a direct connection may not exist between the sewage system and a
drain originating from equipment in which food, portable equipment, or utensils
are placed.P
B. Subsection A of this section does not apply to floor
drains that originate in refrigerated spaces that are constructed as an
integral part of the building.
C. If allowed by law, a warewashing machine may have a direct
connection between its waste outlet and a floor drain when the machine is
located within five feet (1.5 meters) of a trapped floor drain and the machine
outlet is connected to the inlet side of a properly vented floor drain trap.
D. If allowed by law, a warewashing or culinary sink may have
a direct connection.
2VAC5-585-2540. Conveying sewage.*
Sewage shall be conveyed to the point of disposal through an
approved sanitary sewage system or other system, including use of sewage
transport vehicles, waste retention tanks, pumps, pipes, hoses, and connections
that are constructed, maintained, and operated according to law.P
2VAC5-585-2550. Removing mobile food establishment wastes.
Sewage and other liquid wastes shall be removed from a mobile
food establishment at an approved waste servicing area or by a sewage transport
vehicle in such a way that a public health hazard or nuisance is not created.Pf
2VAC5-585-2570. Approved sewage disposal system.*
Sewage shall be disposed through an approved facility that
is:
1. A public sewage treatment plant;P or
2. An individual sewage disposal system that is sized,
constructed, maintained, and operated according to law in accordance
with the regulations promulgated pursuant to Chapter 6 (§ 32.1-163 et
seq.) of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia.P
2VAC5-585-2595. Indoor storage area.
If located within the food establishment, a storage area
for refuse, recyclables, and returnables shall meet the requirements specified
under 2VAC5-585-2790, 2VAC5-585-2810 through 2VAC5-585-2880, 2VAC5-585-2930,
and 2VAC5-585-2940.
2VAC5-585-2840. Floor carpeting, restrictions and installation.
A. A floor covering such as carpeting or similar material may
not be installed as a floor covering in food preparation areas, walk-in
refrigerators, warewashing areas, toilet room areas where handwashing lavatories
sinks, toilets, and urinals are located, refuse storage rooms, or other
areas where the floor is subject to moisture, flushing, or spray cleaning
methods.
B. If carpeting is installed as a floor covering in areas
other than those specified under subsection A of this section, it shall be:
1. Securely attached to the floor with a durable mastic, by
using a stretch and tack method, or by another method; and
2. Installed tightly against the wall under the coving or
installed away from the wall with a space between the carpet and the wall and
with the edges of the carpet secured by metal stripping or some other means.
2VAC5-585-2930. Outer openings, protected.
A. Except as specified in subsections B through E of this
section, outer openings of a food establishment shall be protected against the
entry of insects and rodents by:
1. Filling or closing holes and other gaps along floors, walls
and ceilings;
2. Closed, tight-fitting windows; and
3. Solid self-closing, tight-fitting doors.
B. Subsection A of this section does not apply if a food
establishment opens into a larger structure, such as a mall, airport, or office
building, or into an attached structure, such as a porch, and the outer
openings from the larger or attached structure are protected against the entry
of insects and rodents.
C. Exterior doors used as exits need not be self-closing if
they are:
1. Solid and tight-fitting;
2. Designated for use only when an emergency exists, by the
fire protection authority that has jurisdiction over the food establishment;
and
3. Restricted Limited-use so they are not used
for entrance or exit from the building for purposes other than the designated
emergency exit use.
D. Except as specified in subsections B and E of this
section, if the windows or doors of a food establishment, or of a larger
structure within which a food establishment is located, are kept open for
ventilation or other purposes, or a temporary food establishment is not
provided with windows and doors as specified in subsection A of this section,
the openings shall be protected against the entry of insects and rodents by:
1. 16 mesh to one-inch (16 mesh to 25.4-mm) screens;
2. Properly designed and installed air curtains to control
flying insects; or
3. Other effective means.
E. Subsection D of this section does not apply if flying
insects and other pests are absent due to the location of the establishment,
the weather, or other limiting condition.
2VAC5-585-2990. Private homes and living or sleeping quarters,
use prohibition.
A private home, a room used as living or
sleeping quarters, or an area directly opening into a room used as living or
sleeping quarters may not be used for conducting food establishment
operations.P
2VAC5-585-3000. Living or sleeping quarters, separation.
Sleeping Living or sleeping quarters located on
the premises of a food establishment such as those provided for lodging
registration clerks or resident managers shall be separated from rooms and
areas used for food establishment operations by complete partitioning and solid
self-closing doors.
2VAC5-585-3020. Handwashing cleanser, availability.
Each handwashing sink or group of two adjacent handwashing
sinks shall be provided with a supply of hand cleaning liquid, powder, or bar
soap.Pf
2VAC5-585-3030. Hand drying provision.
Each handwashing sink or group of adjacent handwashing sinks
shall be provided with:
1. Individual, disposable towels;Pf
2. A continuous towel system that supplies the user with a
clean towel; or Pf
3. A heated-air hand drying device;Pf or
4. A hand-drying device that employs an air-knife system
that delivers high velocity, pressurized air at ambient temperatures.Pf
2VAC5-585-3040. Handwashing aids and devices, use restrictions.
A sink used for food preparation or utensil washing or a
service sink or curbed cleaning facility used for the disposal of mop water or
similar wastes may not be provided with the handwashing aids and devices
required for a handwashing sink as specified under 2VAC5-585-2650 C,
2VAC5-585-3020, and 2VAC5-585-3030 and 2VAC5-585-2650 C.
2VAC5-585-3047. Disposable towels, waste receptacle.
A handwashing sink or group of adjacent handwashing sinks
that is provided with disposable towels shall be provided with a waste
receptacle as specified under 2VAC5-585-2650 C.
2VAC5-585-3070. Toilet tissue, availability.
A supply of toilet tissue shall be available at each toilet.Pf
2VAC5-585-3130. Toilet rooms, convenience and accessibility.
Toilet rooms shall be conveniently located and accessible to
employees during all hours of operation. Toilet rooms intended for use by
customers shall not necessitate travel through food preparation or handling
areas.
2VAC5-585-3150. Distressed merchandise, segregation and
location.
Products that are held by the person in charge operator
for credit, redemption, or return to the distributor, such as damaged, spoiled,
or recalled products, shall be segregated and held in designated areas that are
separated from food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and
single-use articles.Pf
2VAC5-585-3210. Cleaning maintenance tools, preventing
contamination.*
Food preparation sinks, handwashing lavatories sinks,
and warewashing equipment may not be used for the cleaning of maintenance
tools, the preparation or holding of maintenance materials, or the disposal of
mop water and similar liquid wastes.Pf
2VAC5-585-3240. Cleaning of plumbing fixtures.
Plumbing fixtures such as handwashing sinks, toilets, and
urinals shall be cleaned as often as necessary to keep them clean and
maintained and used as specified under 2VAC5-585-2310.
2VAC5-585-3250. Closing toilet room doors.
Toilet room doors as specified under 2VAC5-585-2920 shall
be kept closed except during cleaning and maintenance operations unless
otherwise required by other regulations or law. Except during cleaning
and maintenance operations, toilet room doors as specified under 2VAC5-585-2920
shall be kept closed.
2VAC5-585-3270. Controlling pests.*
The presence premises shall be maintained free
of insects, rodents, and other pests. The presence of insects, rodents, and
other pests shall be controlled to minimize eliminate their
presence on the premises by:
1. Routinely inspecting incoming shipments of food and
supplies;N
2. Routinely inspecting the premises for evidence of pests;N
3. Using methods, if pests are found, such as trapping devices
or other means of pest control as specified under 2VAC5-585-3360,
2VAC5-585-3440, and 2VAC5-585-3450;Pf and
4. Eliminating harborage conditions.N
2VAC5-585-3310. Prohibiting animals.*
A. Except as specified in subsections B and C of this
section, live animals may not be allowed on the premises of a food
establishment.Pf
B. Live animals may be allowed in the following situations if
the contamination of food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; and unwrapped
single-service and single-use articles cannot result:
1. Edible fish or decorative fish in aquariums, shellfish or
crustacea on ice or under refrigeration, and shellfish and crustacea in display
tank systems;
2. Patrol dogs accompanying police or security officers in offices
and dining, sales, and storage areas, and sentry dogs running loose in outside
fenced areas;
3. In areas that are not used for food preparation and that
are usually open for customers, such as dining and sales areas, service animals
that are controlled by the disabled employee or person, if a health or safety
hazard will not result from the presence or activities of the service animal;
4. Pets in the common dining areas of institutional care
facilities such as nursing homes, assisted living facilities, group homes, or
residential care facilities at times other than during meals if:
a. Effective partitioning and self-closing doors separate the
common dining areas from food storage or food preparation areas;
b. Condiments, equipment, and utensils are stored in enclosed
cabinets or removed from the common dining areas when pets are present; and
c. Dining areas including tables, countertops, and similar
surfaces are effectively cleaned before the next meal service; [ and ]
5. In areas that are not used for food preparation, storage,
sales, display, or dining, in which there are caged animals or animals that are
similarly restricted confined, such as in a variety store that
sells pets or a tourist park that displays animals [ ; and
6. Dogs in outdoor dining areas if:
a. The outdoor dining area is not fully enclosed with floor
to ceiling walls and is not considered a part of the interior physical
facility.
b. The outdoor dining area is equipped with an entrance
that is separate from the main entrance to the food establishment, and the
separate entrance serves as the sole means of entry for patrons accompanied by
dogs.
c. A sign stating that dogs are allowed in the outdoor
dining area is posted at each entrance to the outdoor dining area in such a
manner as to be clearly observable by the public.
d. A sign within the outdoor dining area stating the
requirements as specified in subdivisions 6 e, f, and g of this subsection is
provided in such a manner as to be clearly observable by the public.
e. Food and water provided to dogs is served using
equipment that is not used for the service of food to a person or is served in
single-use articles.
f. Dogs are not allowed on chairs, seats, benches, or
tables.
g. Dogs are kept on a leash or within a pet carrier and
under the control of an adult at all times.
h. The establishment provides effective means for cleaning
up dog vomitus and fecal matter ].
C. Live or dead fish bait may be stored if contamination of
food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; and unwrapped single-service and
single-use articles cannot result.
Part VII
Poisonous or Toxic Materials
Article 1
Labeling and Identification
2VAC5-585-3320. Original containers - identifying information,
prominence.*
Containers of poisonous or toxic materials and personal care
items shall bear a legible manufacturer's label.Pf
2VAC5-585-3330. Working containers - common name.*
Working containers used for storing poisonous or toxic
materials such as cleaners and sanitizers taken from bulk supplies shall be
clearly and individually identified with the common name of the material.Pf
Article 2
Operational Supplies and Applications
2VAC5-585-3340. Storage, separation.*
Poisonous or toxic materials shall be stored so they cannot
contaminate food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and
single-use articles by:
1. Separating the poisonous or toxic materials by spacing or
partitioning;S P and
2. Locating the poisonous or toxic materials in an area that
is not above food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service or
single-use articles. This subsection does not apply to equipment and utensil
cleaners and sanitizers that are stored in warewashing areas for availability
and convenience if the materials are stored to prevent contamination of food,
equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles; and.P
3. Detergents, sanitizers, related cleaning or drying
agents and caustics, acids, polishes and other chemicals shall be stored
separately from insecticides and rodenticides.
2VAC5-585-3350. Presence and use restriction.*
A. Only those poisonous or toxic materials that are required
for the operation and maintenance of a food establishment, such as for the
cleaning and sanitizing of equipment and utensils and the control of insects
and rodents, shall be allowed in a food establishment.S Pf
B. Subsection A of this section does not apply to packaged
poisonous or toxic materials that are for retail sale.
2VAC5-585-3360. Conditions of use.*
A. Poisonous or toxic materials shall be:
1. Used according to:
a. Law and this chapter;
b. Manufacturer's use directions included in labeling, and,
for a pesticide, manufacturer's label instructions that state that use is
allowed in a food establishment;P
c. The conditions of certification, if certification is required,
for use of the pest control materials;P and
d. Additional conditions that may be established by the
department; and
2. Applied so that:
a. A hazard to employees or other persons is not constituted;P
and
b. Contamination including toxic residues due to drip, drain,
fog, splash or spray on food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service
and single-use articles is prevented, and for a restricted-use pesticide, this
is achieved by:P
(1) Removing the items;P
(2) Covering the items with impermeable covers;P
or
(3) Taking other appropriate preventive actions;P
and
(4) Cleaning and sanitizing equipment and utensils after the
application.P
B. A restricted use pesticide shall be applied only by an
applicator certified as defined in 7 USC § 136(e); §§ 3.2-3929,
3.2-3930, and 3.2-3931 of the Code of Virginia (Virginia Pesticide Control
Act); or a person under the direct supervision of a certified applicator.Pf
2VAC5-585-3370. Poisonous or toxic material containers.*
A container previously used to store poisonous or toxic
materials may not be used to store, transport, or dispense food.P
2VAC5-585-3380. Sanitizers, criteria.*
Chemical sanitizers, including chemical sanitizing
solutions generated on site, and other chemical antimicrobials applied to
food-contact surfaces shall meet the requirements specified in 40 CRF
180.940.:
1. Meet the requirements specified in 40 CFR 180.940;P
or
2. Meet the requirements as specified in 40 CFR
180.2020.P
2VAC5-585-3390. Chemicals for washing fruits and vegetables,
criteria.*
A. Chemicals, including those generated on site,
used to wash or peel raw, whole fruits and vegetables shall meet the
requirements specified in 21 CFR 173.315 40 CFR Part 156 and shall:P
1. Be an approved food additive listed for this intended
use in 21 CFR Part 173;P
2. Be generally recognized as safe for this intended use;P
or
3. Be the subject of an effective food contact notification
for this intended use (only effective for the manufacturer or supplier
identified in the notification).P
B. Ozone as an antimicrobial agent used in the treatment,
storage, and processing of fruits and vegetables in a food establishment shall
meet the requirements specified in 21 CFR 173.368.P
2VAC5-585-3400. Boiler water additives, criteria.*
Chemicals used as boiler water additives shall meet the
requirements specified in 21 CFR 173.310.P
2VAC5-585-3410. Drying agents, criteria.*
Drying agents used in conjunction with sanitization shall:
1. Contain only components that are listed as one of the
following:
a. Generally recognized as safe for use in food as specified
in 21 CFR Part 182, Substances Generally Recognized as Safe, or 21 CFR
Part 184, Direct Food Substances Affirmed as Generally Recognized as Safe;P
b. Generally recognized as safe for the intended use as specified
in 21 CFR Part 186, Indirect Food Substances Affirmed as Generally
Recognized as Safe;P
c. Generally recognized as safe for the intended use as
determined by experts qualified in scientific training and experience to
evaluate the safety of substances added, directly or indirectly, to food
as described in 21 CFR 170.30;P
d. Subject of an effective food contact notification as
described in § 409(h) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 USC §
348(h));P
e. Approved for use as a drying agent under a prior
sanction specified in 21 CFR Part 181, Prior-Sanctioned Food Ingredients
as described in § 201(s)(4) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 USC
§ 321(s)(4));P
d. f. Specifically regulated as an indirect food
additive for use as a drying agent as specified in 21 CFR Parts 175-178
174-178;P or
e. g. Approved for use as a drying agent under
the threshold of regulation process established by 21 CFR 170.39,
Threshold of Regulation for Substances Used in Food-Contact Articles;P
and
2. When sanitization is with chemicals, the approval required
under subdivisions 1 c or subdivision 1 e or 1 g of this
section or the regulation chapter as an indirect food additive
required under subdivision 1 d f of this section, shall be
specifically for use with chemical sanitizing solutions.P
2VAC5-585-3420. Lubricants - incidental food contact, criteria.*
Lubricants shall meet the requirements specified in 21 CFR
178.3570 if they are used on food-contact surfaces, on bearings and gears
located on or within food-contact surfaces, or on bearings and gears that
are located so that lubricants may leak, drip, or be forced into food or onto
food-contact surfaces.P
2VAC5-585-3430. Restricted use pesticides, criteria.*
Restricted use pesticides specified under subsection B of
2VAC5-585-3360 shall meet the requirements specified in 40 CFR Part 152,
Subpart I, Classification of Pesticides.P
2VAC5-585-3440. Rodent bait stations.*
Rodent bait shall be contained in a covered, tamper-resistant
bait station.P
2VAC5-585-3450. Tracking powders, pest control and monitoring.*
A. A Except as specified in subsection B of this
section, a tracking powder pesticide may not be used in a food
establishment.P
B. If used, a nontoxic tracking powder such as talcum or
flour may not contaminate food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service
and single-use articles.N
2VAC5-585-3460. Medicines - restriction and storage.*
A. Except for medicines that are stored or displayed for
retail sale, only those medicines that are necessary for the health of
employees shall be allowed in a food establishment.Pf
B. Medicines that are in a food establishment for the
employees' use shall be labeled as specified under 2VAC5-585-3320 and located
to prevent the contamination of food, equipment, utensils, linens, and
single-service and single-use articles.P
2VAC5-585-3470. Refrigerated medicines, storage.*
Medicines belonging to employees or to children in a day care
center that require refrigeration and are stored in a food refrigerator shall
be:
1. Stored in a package or container and kept inside a covered,
leakproof container that is identified as a container for the storage of
medicines;P and
2. Located so they are inaccessible to children.P
2VAC5-585-3480. First aid supplies, storage.*
First aid supplies that are in a food establishment for the
employees' use shall be:
1. Labeled as specified under 2VAC5-585-3320;S
Pf and
2. Stored in a kit or a container that is located to prevent
the contamination of food, equipment, utensils, and linens, and single-service
and single-use articles.S P
Article 3
Stock and Retail Sale
2VAC5-585-3500. Storage and display, separation.*
Poisonous or toxic materials shall be stored and displayed
for retail sale so they cannot contaminate food, equipment, utensils, linens,
and single-service and single-use articles by:
1. Separating the poisonous or toxic materials by spacing or
partitioning;S P and
2. Locating the poisonous or toxic materials in an area that
is not above food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service or
single-use articles.P
Part VIII
Compliance and Enforcement
Article 1
Applicability of Chapter
2VAC5-585-3510. Public health protection.
A. The department shall apply this regulation chapter
to promote its underlying purpose, as specified in 2VAC5-585-20, of
safeguarding public health and ensuring that food is safe and,
unadulterated, and honestly presented when offered to the consumer.
B. In enforcing the provisions of this regulation chapter,
the department shall assess existing facilities or equipment that were in use
before the effective date of this regulation chapter based on the
following considerations:
1. Whether the facilities or equipment are in good repair and
capable of being maintained in a sanitary condition;
2. Whether food-contact surfaces comply with 2VAC5-585-960
through 2VAC5-585-1060;
3. Whether the capacities of cooling, heating, and holding
equipment are sufficient to comply with 2VAC5-585-1450; and
4. The existence of a documented agreement with the
establishment operator that the facilities or equipment will be replaced or
upgraded as specified in the following: subdivision 6 of
2VAC5-585-3660.
a. Except as specified under subdivision B 4 b of this
section, replace existing facilities and equipment specified in this section
with facilities and equipment that comply with this regulation if:
(1) The department directs the replacement because the
facilities and equipment constitute a public health hazard or nuisance or no longer
comply with the criteria upon which the facilities and equipment were accepted;
(2) The department directs the replacement of the
facilities and equipment because of a change of ownership; or
(3) The facilities and equipment are replaced in the normal
course of operation;
b. Upgrade or replace refrigeration equipment as specified
under 2VAC5-585-820 A 2 b, if the circumstances specified under subdivision B 4
a of this section do not occur first.
2VAC5-585-3541. Documentation of proposed variance and justification.
Before a variance from a requirement of this regulation
chapter is approved, the information that shall be provided by the
person requesting the variance and retained in the department's file on the
food establishment includes:
1. A statement of the proposed variance of the regulation
requirement citing relevant regulation section numbers;Pf
2. An analysis of the rationale for how the potential public
health hazards and nuisances addressed by the relevant regulation sections will
be alternatively addressed by the proposal;Pf and
3. A HACCP plan if required as specified under 2VAC5-585-3620
A that includes the information specified under 2VAC5-585-3630 as it is
relevant to the variance requested.Pf
2VAC5-585-3542. Conformance with approved procedures.*
If the department grants a variance as specified in
2VAC5-585-3540, or a HACCP plan is otherwise required as specified under
2VAC5-585-3620, the operator shall:
1. Comply with the HACCP plans and procedures that are
submitted as specified under 2VAC5-585-3630 and approved as a basis for the
modification or waiver;P and
2. Maintain and provide to the department, upon request,
records specified under subdivisions 4 and 5 [ c ] of
2VAC5-585-3630 that demonstrate that the following are routinely employed:
a. Procedures for monitoring critical control points;Pf
b. Monitoring of the critical control points;Pf
c. Verification of the effectiveness of an operation or
process;Pf and
d. Necessary corrective actions if there is failure at a
critical control point.Pf
Article 2
Plan Submission and Approval
2VAC5-585-3600. Facility and operating plans - when plans are
required.
An operator shall submit to the department properly prepared
plans and specifications for review and approval when appropriate or when
requested by the department. Such instances shall include before:
1. The construction of a food establishment;Pf
2. The conversion of an existing structure for use as a food
establishment;Pf or
3. The remodeling of a food establishment or a change of type
of food establishment or food operation if the department determines that plans
and specifications are necessary to ensure compliance with this regulation
chapter.Pf
2VAC5-585-3620. When a HACCP plan is required.
A. Before engaging in an activity that requires a HACCP plan,
an operator shall submit to the department for approval a properly prepared
HACCP plan as specified under 2VAC5-585-3630 and the relevant provisions of
this chapter if:
1. Submission of a HACCP plan is required according to law;
2. A variance is required as specified under 2VAC5-585-700
D 4, 2VAC5-585-860, or 2VAC5-585-1300 B, or subdivision
2VAC5-585-700 D 3; or
3. The department determines that a food preparation or
processing method requires a variance based on a plan submittal specified under
2VAC5-585-3610, an inspectional finding, or a variance request.
B. An operator shall have a properly prepared HACCP plan
Before engaging in reduced oxygen packaging without a variance as
specified under 2VAC5-585-870, an operator shall submit a properly prepared
HACCP plan to the department.
2VAC5-585-3630. Contents of a HACCP plan.
For a food establishment that is required under
2VAC5-585-3620 to have a HACCP plan, the [ plan and specifications
shall indicate operator shall submit to the department a properly
prepared HACCP plan that includes ]:
1. [ General information such as the name of the
operator, the food establishment address, and contact information;
2. ] A categorization of the types of potentially
hazardous time/temperature control for safety foods that are [ specified
in the menu such as soups and sauces, salads, and bulk, solid foods such as
meat roasts, or of other foods that are specified by the department to
be controlled under the HACCP plan ];Pf
[ 2. 3. ] A flow diagram [ by
specific food or category type identifying critical control points and
providing information on the following or chart for each specific food
or category type that identifies ]:
a. [ Ingredients, materials, and equipment used in the
preparation of that food Each step in the process ];Pf
[ and ]
b. [ Formulations or recipes that delineate methods
and procedural control measures that address the food safety concerns involved
The hazards and controls for each step in the flow diagram or chart ];Pf
[ c. The steps that are critical control points;Pf
d. The ingredients, materials, and equipment used in the
preparation of that food;Pf and
e. The formulations or recipe that delineates methods and
procedural control measures that address the food safety concerns involved;Pf ]
[ 3. Food employee and supervisory training plan
that addresses the food safety issues of concern;Pf ]
4. [ A statement of standard operating procedures for
the plan under consideration including clearly identifying A critical
control points summary for each specific food category type that clearly
identifies ]:
a. Each critical control point;Pf
b. The critical limits for each critical control point;Pf
c. The method and frequency for monitoring and controlling
each critical control point by the [ designated ] food
employee [ designated by or ] the person in charge;Pf
d. The method and frequency for the person in charge to
routinely verify that the food employee is following standard operating
procedures and monitoring critical control points;Pf
e. Action to be taken by the [ designated food
employee or ] person in charge if the critical limits for each
critical control point are not met;Pf and
f. Records to be maintained by the person in charge to
demonstrate that the HACCP plan is properly operated and managed;Pf
[ and ]
5. [ Additional scientific data or other information,
as required by the department, supporting the determination that food safety is
not compromised by the proposal.Pf Supporting
documents such as:
a. Food employee and supervisory training plan that
addresses the food safety issues of concern;Pf
b. Copies of blank record forms that are necessary to
implement the HACCP plan;Pf
c. Additional scientific data or other information, as
required by the department, supporting the determination that food safety is
not compromised by the proposal;Pfand
6. Any other information required by the department. ]
2VAC5-585-3655. Responsibilities of the department.
A. At the time of the initial inspection, the department
shall provide to the operator a copy of this chapter so that the operator is
notified of the compliance requirements and the conditions of retention, as
specified under 2VAC5-585-3660, that are applicable to the food establishment.
B. Failure to provide the information specified in
subsection A of this section does not prevent the department from taking
authorized action or seeking remedies if the operator fails to comply with this
chapter or an order, warning, or directive of the department.
2VAC5-585-3660. Responsibilities of the operator.
The operator shall:
1. Comply with the provisions of this chapter including the
conditions of a granted variance as specified under 2VAC5-585-3542 and approved
plans as specified under 2VAC5-585-3610;
2. If a food establishment is required under 2VAC5-585-3620
to operate under a HACCP plan, comply with the plan as specified under
2VAC5-585-3542;
3. Immediately contact the department to report an illness
of a food employee or conditional employee as specified under 2VAC5-585-80 B;
4. Immediately discontinue operations and notify the
department if an imminent health hazard may exist as specified under
2VAC5-585-3910;
5. Allow authorized representatives of the commissioner
access to the food establishment as specified under 2VAC5-585-3820;
6. Replace existing facilities and equipment specified in
2VAC5-585-3510 with facilities and equipment that comply with this chapter if:
a. The department directs the replacement because the
facilities and equipment constitute a public health hazard or nuisance or no
longer comply with the criteria upon which the facilities and equipment were
accepted;
b. The department directs the replacement of the facilities
and equipment because of a change of ownership; or
c. The facilities and equipment are replaced in the normal
course of operation;
7. Comply with directives of the department including
timeframes for corrective actions specified in inspection reports, notices,
orders, warnings, and other directives issued by the department in regard to
the operator's food establishment or in response to community emergencies;
8. Accept notices issued and served by the department
according to law;
9. Be subject to the administrative, civil, injunctive, and
criminal remedies authorized in law for failure to comply with this chapter or
a directive of the department, including time frames for corrective actions
specified in inspection reports, notices, orders, warnings, and other
directives; and
10. Notify customers that a copy of the most recent
establishment inspection report is available upon request by posting a sign or
placard in a location in the food establishment that is conspicuous to
customers or by another method acceptable to the department.
Article 4
Inspection and Correction of Violations
2VAC5-585-3800. Frequency, establishing inspection interval.
Food establishments shall be inspected by the designee of
the commissioner. Inspections of food establishments shall be performed as
often as necessary for the enforcement of this part in accordance with the following:
1. A. Except as specified in subdivisions 2
and 3 subsections B and C of this section, the department shall
inspect a food establishment at least once every six months.
2. B. The department may increase the interval
between inspections beyond six months if:
a. 1. The food establishment is fully operating
under an approved and validated HACCP plan as specified under 2VAC5-585-3630
and subdivisions 1 and 2 of 2VAC5-585-3542 and 2VAC5-585-3630.
b. 2. The food establishment is assigned a less
frequent inspection frequency based on a written risk-based inspection schedule
that is being uniformly applied throughout the jurisdiction.
c. 3. The establishment's operation involves
only coffee service and other unpackaged or prepackaged food that is not potentially
hazardous time/temperature control for safety food such as
carbonated beverages and snack food such as chips, nuts, popcorn, and pretzels.
3. C. The department shall periodically inspect
a temporary food establishment that prepares, sells, or serves unpackaged potentially
hazardous time/temperature control for safety food and that:
a. 1. Has improvised rather than permanent
facilities or equipment for accomplishing functions such as handwashing, food
preparation and protection, food temperature control, warewashing, providing
drinking water, waste retention and disposal, and insect and rodent control; or
b. 2. Has inexperienced food employees.
2VAC5-585-3810. Performance-based and risk-based
inspections.
Within the parameters specified in 2VAC5-585-3800, the
department shall prioritize, and conduct more frequent inspections based upon
its assessment of a food establishment's history of compliance with this
chapter and the establishment's potential as a vector of foodborne illness by
evaluating:
1. Past performance for nonconformance with this chapter or
HACCP plan requirements that are critical priority items or priority
foundation items;
2. Past performance for numerous or repeat violations of this
chapter or HACCP plan requirements that are noncritical core items;
3. Past performance for complaints investigated and found to
be valid;
4. The hazards associated with the particular foods that are
prepared, stored, or served;
5. The type of operation including the methods and extent of
food storage, preparation, and service;
6. The number of people served; and
7. Whether the population served is a highly susceptible
population.
[ 2VAC5-585-3815. Competency of personnel inspectors.
A. An authorized representative of the commissioner
who inspects a food establishment or conducts plan review for compliance with
this regulation shall have the knowledge, skills, and ability to adequately
perform the required duties.
B. The department shall ensure that authorized
representatives who inspect a food establishment or conduct plan review for
compliance with this chapter have access to training and continuing education
as needed to properly identify violations and apply the chapter. ]
2VAC5-585-3820. Access allowed at reasonable times.
After the authorized representative of the commissioner
presents official credentials and identifies provides notice of
the purpose of, and an intent to conduct, an inspection, the person in charge
shall allow the authorized representative to determine if the food
establishment is in compliance with this chapter by allowing access to the
establishment, allowing inspection, and providing information and records
specified in this chapter and to which the department is entitled according to
law, during the food establishment's hours of operation and other reasonable
times.
2VAC5-585-3830. Refusal, notification of right to access, and
final request for access.
If a person denies access to the authorized representative of
the commissioner, the authorized representative shall:
1. Inform the person that:
a. The person is required to allow access to the authorized
representative as specified under 2VAC5-585-3820;
b. If access is denied, the The department will
refer the matter to the Commonwealth's Attorney for handling in accordance with
applicable sections of the Code of Virginia; and
2. Make a final request for access.
2VAC5-585-3840. Refusal, reporting.
If after the authorized representative of the commissioner
presents credentials and identifies the purpose of and the intent to conduct
an inspection provides notice as specified under 2VAC5-585-3820,
explains the authority upon which access is requested, and makes a final
request for access as specified in 2VAC5-585-3830, the person in charge
continues to refuse access, the authorized representative shall provide details
of the denial of access on an inspection report form.
2VAC5-585-3860. Documenting information and observations.
The authorized representative of the commissioner shall
document on an inspection report form:
1. Administrative information about the food establishment's
legal identity, street and mailing addresses, type of establishment and
operation, inspection date, and other information such as type of water supply
and sewage disposal, and personnel certificates that may be required; and
2. Specific factual observations of violative conditions or
other deviations from this chapter that require correction by the establishment
operator including:
a. Failure of the person in charge to demonstrate the
knowledge of foodborne illness prevention, application of HACCP principles, and
the requirements of this chapter specified under 2VAC5-585-60;
b. Failure of food employees, conditional employees,
and the person in charge to demonstrate their knowledge of their
responsibility to report a disease or medical condition as specified under
2VAC5-585-80 B and D;
c. Nonconformance with critical items priority items
and priority foundation items of this chapter;
d. Failure of the appropriate food employees to demonstrate
their knowledge of, and ability to perform in accordance with, the procedural,
monitoring, verification, and corrective action practices required by the
department as specified under 2VAC5-585-60 2VAC5-585-3542;
e. Failure of the person in charge to provide records required
by the department for determining conformance with a HACCP plan as specified
under subdivision 4 f of 2VAC5-585-3630; and
f. Nonconformance with critical limits of a HACCP plan.
2VAC5-585-3910. Imminent health hazard, ceasing operations and
reporting.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, an
operator shall immediately discontinue operations and notify the department if
an imminent health hazard may exist because of an emergency such as a fire,
flood, extended interruption of electrical or water service, sewage backup,
misuse of poisonous or toxic materials, onset of an apparent foodborne illness
outbreak, gross insanitary occurrence or condition, or other circumstance that
may endanger public health.P
B. An operator need not discontinue operations in an area of
an establishment that is unaffected by the imminent health hazard.
2VAC5-585-3930. Critical violation Priority or
priority foundation item, timely correction.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, an
operator or person in charge shall at the time of inspection correct a critical
violation of a priority item or priority foundation item of this chapter
and implement corrective actions for a HACCP plan provision that is not in
compliance with its critical limit.Pf
B. Considering the nature of the potential hazard involved
and the complexity of the corrective action needed, the department may agree to
or specify a longer time frame, not to exceed 10 calendar days after the
inspection, for the operator or person in charge to correct critical violations
or HACCP plan deviations.:
1. 72 hours after the inspection, for the operator to
correct violations of a priority item; or
2. 10 calendar days after the inspection, for the operator
to correct violations of a priority foundation item or HACCP plan deviations.
2VAC5-585-3940. Verification and documentation of correction.
A. After observing at the time of inspection a correction of
a critical violation or of a priority item or priority
foundation item or a HACCP plan deviation, the authorized representative of
the commissioner shall enter the violation and information about the corrective
action on the inspection report.
B. As specified under 2VAC5-585-3930 B, after receiving
notification that the operator has corrected a violation of a priority item or
priority foundation item or HACCP plan deviation, or at the end of the
specified period of time, the authorized representative shall verify
correction of the critical violation or deviation during the next
scheduled inspection of the establishment and shall document the information on
an inspection report, and enter the report in the department's records.
2VAC5-585-3950. Noncritical violation Core items,
time frame for timely correction.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, the
operator or person in charge shall correct noncritical violations core
items by a date and time agreed to or specified by the department but no
later than 90 calendar days after the inspection.
B. The department may approve a compliance schedule that
extends beyond the time limits specified under subsection A of this section if
a written schedule of compliance is submitted by the operator and no health
hazard exists or will result from allowing an extended schedule for compliance.
Article 5
Prevention of Foodborne Disease Transmission by Employees
2VAC5-585-4040. Investigation and control, obtaining
information: personal history of illness, medical examination, and specimen
analysis.
The department shall act when it has reasonable cause to
believe that a food employee or conditional employee has possibly transmitted
disease; may be infected with a disease in a communicable form that is
transmissible through food; may be a carrier of infectious agents that cause a
disease that is transmissible through food; or is affected with a boil, an
infected wound, or acute respiratory infection, by:
1. Securing a confidential medical history of the food
employee or conditional employee suspected of transmitting disease or
making other investigations as deemed appropriate; and
2. Requiring appropriate medical examinations, including
collection of specimens for laboratory analysis, of a suspected food
employee and other employees or conditional employee.
2VAC5-585-4050. Restriction or exclusion of food employee.
Based on the findings of an investigation related to a food
employee or conditional employee who is suspected of being infected or
diseased, the department may request that issue an order to the
suspected food employee, or conditional employee, or operator institute
instituting one or more of the following control measures:
1. Restricting the food employee or conditional employee; or
2. Excluding the food employee or conditional employee; or
3. Closing the food establishment in accordance with law.
2VAC5-585-4060. Restriction or exclusion request: information
required.
Based on the findings of the investigation as specified in
2VAC5-585-4040 and to control disease transmission, the department may make
a request issue an order of restriction or exclusion to the
suspected food employee or the operator regarding restriction or exclusion
if the request without prior warning, notice of hearing, or a hearing if
the order:
1. States the reasons for the restriction or exclusion that is
requested ordered;
2. States the evidence that the food employee or operator
shall provide in order to demonstrate that the reasons for the restriction or
exclusion are eliminated;
3. States that the suspected food employee or the operator
may request an appeal hearing by submitting a timely request as provided in
law; and
4. Provides the name and address of the authorized
representative of the commissioner to whom a request for appeal hearing be made.
NOTICE: The following
forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms
are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed
at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd
Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (2VAC5-585)
Food Safety and Security Program, Inspection Report
Food Safety and Security Program, Record of Complaint
Food Safety and Security Program, Record of Complaint, FBI
Food Safety and Security Program, Sample Collection Report
Food
Safety and Security Program, Retail Inspection Report, ODF-FSSP-10001 (rev.
9/14)
Food
Safety and Security Program, Complaint Report, ODF-FSSP-10004 (rev. 12/13)
Food
Safety and Security Program, Foodborne Illness Complaint Report, ODF-FSSP-10003
(rev. 12/13)
Food
Safety and Security Program, Sample Collection Report, ODF-FSSP-10002 (rev.
12/13)
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (2VAC5-585)
Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence
Evaluations (updated daily), 25th Edition, available from the U.S. Department
of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration, Center for Drug
Evaluation and Research, Office of Pharmaceutical Science, Office of Generic
Drugs at http://www.fda.gov/cder/ob/default.htm.
Grade "A" Pasteurized Milk Ordinance, 2003
Revision, published by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Public
Health Service, Food and Drug Administration, Milk Safety Branch (HFS-626),
5100 Paint Branch Parkway, College Park, MD 20740-3835.
Grade "A" Condensed and Dry Milk Ordinance, 1995
Revision, published by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Public
Health Service, Food and Drug Administration, Milk Safety Branch (HFS-626),
5100 Paint Branch Parkway, College Park, MD 20740-3835
Approved
Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations, 34th Edition, 2014,
U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration,
Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Office of Pharmaceutical Science,
Office of Generic Drugs at http://www.fda.gov/cder/ob/default.htm
Grade
"A" Pasteurized Milk Ordinance, 2013 Revision, U.S. Department of
Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, Food and Drug Administration,
Milk Safety Branch (HFS-626), 5100 Paint Branch Parkway, College Park, MD
20740-3835
Interstate Certified Shellfish Shippers List (updated
monthly), published by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Public
Health Service, Food and Drug Administration, Office of Seafood (HFS-417), 5100
Paint Branch Parkway, College Park, MD 20740-3835.
National Shellfish Sanitation Program Guide for the
Control of Molluscan Shellfish (2007), published by the U.S. Department of
Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, Food and Drug Administration,
Office of Seafood (HFS-417), 5100 Paint Branch Parkway, College Park, MD
20740-3835.
NSF/ANSI 18-2006 Manual Food and Beverage Dispensing
Equipment, American National Standard, published by NSF International, 789
North Dixboro Road, P.O. Box 130140, Ann Arbor, Michigan 48113-0140.
National
Shellfish Sanitation Program (NSSP) Guide for the Control of Molluscan
Shellfish, [ 2011 2013 ] Revision, U.S. Department of Health
and Human Services, Public Health Service, Food and Drug Administration, Office
of Seafood (HFS-417), 5100 Paint Branch Parkway, College Park, MD 20740-3835
NSF/ANSI
18-2012 Manual Food and Beverage Dispensing Equipment, 2012, NSF International,
789 North Dixboro Road, P.O. Box 130140, Ann Arbor, MI 48113-0140, www.nsf.org
Standards
for Accreditation of Food Protection Manager Certification Programs, April
2012, Conference for Food Protection, 30 Elliott Court, Martinsville, IN
46151-1331
United States Standards, Grades, and Weight
Classes for Shell Eggs, AMS-56, effective July 20, 2000, U.S. Department of
Agriculture, Agricultural Marketing Service, Poultry Programs, STOP 0259, Room
3944-South, 1400 Independence Avenue, SW, Washington, DC 20250-0259
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4032; Filed June 7, 2016, 4:58 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
State Board of Health is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process
Act in accordance with § 2.2-4002 A 22 of the Code of Virginia, which
excludes the board in promulgating regulations pursuant to
§ 35.1-14 C of the Code of Virginia that incorporate the federal Food
and Drug Administration's Food Code pertaining to restaurants or food service.
In addition, § 35.1-14 E provides that the provisions of the
Administrative Process Act shall not apply to the adoption of any regulation pursuant
to § 35.1-14 C if the Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services adopts
the same edition of the Food Code, or the same portions thereof, pursuant to
§ 3.2-5121 B of the Code of Virginia and the regulations adopted by the
State Board of Health and the Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services have
the same effective date.
Title of Regulation: 12VAC5-421. Food Regulations (amending 12VAC5-421-10, 12VAC5-421-50
through 12VAC5-421-210, 12VAC5-421-220, 12VAC5-421-250 through 12VAC5-421-410,
12VAC5-421-430 through 12VAC5-421-520, 12VAC5-421-540 through 12VAC5-421-580,
12VAC5-421-600, 12VAC5-421-630, 12VAC5-421-650, 12VAC5-421-670, 12VAC5-421-680,
12VAC5-421-700 through 12VAC5-421-765, 12VAC5-421-780 through 12VAC5-421-880,
12VAC5-421-900, 12VAC5-421-930 through 12VAC5-421-960, 12VAC5-421-980,
12VAC5-421-990, 12VAC5-421-1000, 12VAC5-421-1070, 12VAC5-421-1090,
12VAC5-421-1100, 12VAC5-421-1110, 12VAC5-421-1180, 12VAC5-421-1190,
12VAC5-421-1230, 12VAC5-421-1240, 12VAC5-421-1300, 12VAC5-421-1310,
12VAC5-421-1320, 12VAC5-421-1350, 12VAC5-421-1360, 12VAC5-421-1370,
12VAC5-421-1450, 12VAC5-421-1460, 12VAC5-421-1500 through 12VAC5-421-1530,
12VAC5-421-1630, 12VAC5-421-1650 through 12VAC5-421-1680, 12VAC5-421-1700,
12VAC5-421-1720, 12VAC5-421-1730, 12VAC5-421-1740, 12VAC5-421-1770,
12VAC5-421-1780, 12VAC5-421-1810, 12VAC5-421-1890, 12VAC5-421-1900,
12VAC5-421-1920, 12VAC5-421-2040, 12VAC5-421-2050 through 12VAC5-421-2130,
12VAC5-421-2160 through 12VAC5-421-2210, 12VAC5-421-2230, 12VAC5-421-2250
through 12VAC5-421-2280, 12VAC5-421-2310 through 12VAC5-421-2360,
12VAC5-421-2420, 12VAC5-421-2430, 12VAC5-421-2460, 12VAC5-421-2490,
12VAC5-421-2520, 12VAC5-421-2540, 12VAC5-421-2550, 12VAC5-421-2570,
12VAC5-421-2990, 12VAC5-421-3020, 12VAC5-421-3030, 12VAC5-421-3070,
12VAC5-421-3150, 12VAC5-421-3210, 12VAC5-421-3270, 12VAC5-421-3310 through
12VAC5-421-3500, 12VAC5-421-3590, 12VAC5-421-3600, 12VAC5-421-3620,
12VAC5-421-3630, 12VAC5-421-3670, 12VAC5-421-3700, 12VAC5-421-3770, 12VAC5-421-3780,
12VAC5-421-3800, 12VAC5-421-3810, 12VAC5-421-3815, 12VAC5-421-3860,
12VAC5-421-3910, 12VAC5-421-3930 through 12VAC5-421-3980, 12VAC5-421-4000;
adding 12VAC5-421-55, 12VAC5-421-65, 12VAC5-421-255, 12VAC5-421-725, 12VAC5-421-750,
12VAC5-421-755, 12VAC5-421-1435, 12VAC5-421-1535, 12VAC5-421-1885,
12VAC5-421-2045; repealing 12VAC5-421-1870, 12VAC5-421-2150, 12VAC5-421-3990).
Statutory Authority: §§ 35.1-11 and 35.1-14 of the Code
of Virginia.
Effective Date: July 12, 2016.
Agency Contact: Julie Henderson, Director of Food and
General Environmental Services, Department of Health, 109 Governor Street,
Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 864-7455, FAX (804) 864-7475, TTY (800)
828-1120, or email julie.henderson@vdh.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The Food Regulations (12VAC5-421) establish minimum
sanitary standards for operating a food establishment. Those standards include
the safe and sanitary maintenance, storage, operation, and use of equipment;
the safe preparation, handling, protection, and preservation of food, including
necessary refrigeration and heating methods, and procedures for vector and pest
control; requirements for toilet and cleansing facilities for employees and
customers; requirements for appropriate lighting and ventilation; requirements
for an approved water supply and sewage disposal system; personal hygiene
standards for employees, particularly those engaged in food handling; and the
appropriate use of precautions to prevent the transmission of communicable
diseases. The regulations also inform a potential food establishment owner or
operator how to obtain a permit from the Virginia Department of Health (VDH) to
operate a food establishment.
The current regulation is based on the U.S. Food and Drug
Administration (FDA) 2005 Food Code and the 2005 Food Code Supplement. The
existing regulation is being amended to be consistent with the current 2013 FDA
Food Code and the Supplement to the 2013 FDA Food Code. Many of the proposed
changes simply refine and provide further clarity to existing regulations.
The amendments include (i) food establishments must
refrigerate cut leafy greens to ensure that the product is safe to consume;
(ii) food establishments must have employees who are fully informed regarding
food allergens and their dangers; (iii) food establishment employees must be
aware of their responsibility to inform management of any health or illness
issue that might affect the safety of food products; (iv) the establishment
must have procedures in place for addressing vomitus or fecal matter discharge
on surfaces in the food establishment; (v) wild mushrooms cannot be sold unless
the establishment has been approved to do so by the regulatory authority; (vi)
bare hand contact with ready-to-eat food ingredients is allowed in certain
instances; (vii) game animals that are sold must be raised, slaughtered, and
processed under a voluntary inspection program that is conducted by the U.S.
Department of Agriculture or the state agency that has animal health
jurisdiction; (viii) the food establishment must discontinue operations and
notify VDH if an imminent health hazard exists at the establishment; (ix) the
establishment must immediately contact VDH to report a food employee illness
due to nontyphoidal Salmonella if it is determined that the illness is of a
nature that can be transmitted through food; (x) the establishment must correct
all priority item violations within 72 hours and all priority foundation item
violations within 10 days; (xi) the food establishment must have at least one
supervisor who is a certified food protection manager, with some exceptions;
(xii) changes in the requirements for water supplies; and (xiii) changes
regarding the presence of dogs in food establishments under certain conditions,
which were modified at the final stage.
Other changes made at the final stage were in the 2013 FDA
Food Code Supplement and include (i) requiring food allergy awareness as a
component of employee training; (ii) clarifying that certain cooked and
refrigerated foods prepared for immediate service may be served for immediate
service and do not need to be heated to a specific temperature; (iii) requiring
food labels to include sub-ingredients and astaxanthin as an additional color
additive in salmonid fish; (iv) clarifying the requirements for
processing apple butter and molasses in copper and copper alloy containers; (v)
requiring a permit applicant or holder to submit a properly prepared hazard
analysis critical control point plan to the regulatory authority before
engaging in reduced oxygen packaging without a variance; and (vi) clarifying
that chemicals may be used to wash or assist in the peeling process of fruits
and vegetables if done so in accordance with federal regulation and the
manufacturer's instructions.
The amendments are adopted concurrently with the Virginia
Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services action adopting certain changes
based on the 2013 FDA Food Code and Supplement, also published in this issue of
the Virginia Register of Regulations.
Part I
Definitions, Purpose and Administration
12VAC5-421-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Accredited program" means a food protection
manager certification program that has been evaluated and listed by an
accrediting agency as conforming to national standards that certify
individuals. "Accredited program" refers to the certification process
and is a designation based upon an independent evaluation of factors such as
the sponsor's mission; organizational structure; staff resources; revenue
sources; policies; public information regarding program scope, eligibility
requirements, recertification, discipline and grievance procedures; and test
development and administration. "Accredited program" does not refer
to training functions or educational programs.
"Additive" means either a (i) "food
additive" having the meaning stated in the Federal Food, Drug, and
Cosmetic Act, § 201(s) and 21 CFR Part 170 170.3(e)(1) or
(ii) "color additive" having the meaning stated in the Federal Food,
Drug, and Cosmetic Act, § 201(t) and 21 CFR Part 70 70.3(f).
"Adulterated" has the meaning stated in the Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, § 402.
"Agent" means a legally authorized representative
of the owner.
"Agent of the commissioner" means the district or
local health director, unless otherwise stipulated.
"Approved" means acceptable to the department based
on a determination of conformity with principles, practices, and generally
recognized standards that protect public health.
"Approved water supply" system"
means a permitted waterworks constructed, maintained, and operated
pursuant to 12VAC5-590; or a private well constructed, maintained, and operated
pursuant to 12VAC5-630. which has a valid waterworks operation permit
from the department or a nonpublic water supply which is evaluated, tested and
if found in reasonable compliance with the construction standards of the
Private Well Regulations (12VAC5-630) and the bacteriological water quality
standards of the Virginia Waterworks Regulations (12VAC5-590), accepted and
approved by the director or the director's designee.
"Asymptomatic" means without obvious symptoms; not
showing or producing indication indications of a disease or other
medical condition, such as an individual infected with a pathogen but not
exhibiting or producing any signs or symptoms of vomiting, diarrhea, or
jaundice. Asymptomatic includes not showing symptoms because symptoms have
resolved or subsided, or because symptoms never manifested.
"aw" means water activity which that
is a measure of the free moisture in a food, is the quotient of the water vapor
pressure of the substance divided by the vapor pressure of pure water at the
same temperature, and is indicated by the symbol aw.
"Balut" means an embryo inside a fertile egg that
has been incubated for a period sufficient for the embryo to reach a specific
stage of development after which it is removed from incubation before hatching.
"Bed and breakfast" means a tourist home that
serves meals.
"Beverage" means a liquid for drinking, including
water.
"Board" means the State Board of Health.
"Bottled drinking water" means water that is sealed
in bottles, packages, or other containers and offered for sale for human
consumption [ , including bottled mineral water ].
"Building official" means a representative of the
Department of Housing and Community Development.
"Casing" means a tubular container for sausage
products made of either natural or artificial (synthetic) material.
"Catering operation" means a person who
contracts with a client to prepare a specific menu and amount of food in an
approved and permitted food establishment for service to the client's guests or
customers at a service location different from the permitted food
establishment. Catering may also include cooking or performing final
preparation of food at the service location.
"Catering operation" does not include:
1. A private chef or cook who, as the employee of a
consumer, prepares food solely in the consumer's home.
2. Delivery service of food by an approved and permitted
food establishment to an end consumer.
"Certification number" means a unique combination
of letters and numbers assigned by a shellfish control authority to a molluscan
shellfish dealer according to the provisions of the National Shellfish
Sanitation Program.
"CFR" means Code of Federal Regulations.
Citations in this chapter to the CFR refer sequentially to the title, part, and
section number, such as 40 CFR 180.194 refers to Title 40, Part 180, Section
194.
"CIP" means cleaned in place by the circulation or
flowing by mechanical means through a piping system of a detergent solution,
water rinse, and sanitizing solution onto or over equipment surfaces that require
cleaning, such as the method used, in part, to clean and sanitize a frozen
dessert machine. CIP does not include the cleaning of equipment such as band
saws, slicers or mixers that are subjected to in-place manual cleaning without
the use of a CIP system.
"CFR" means Code of Federal Regulations.
Citations in these regulations to the CFR refer sequentially to the title,
part, and section numbers, such as 21 CFR 178.1010 refers to Title 21, Part
178, Section 1010.
"Code of Federal Regulations" means the compilation
of the general and permanent rules published in the Federal Register by the
executive departments and agencies of the federal government which:
1. Is published annually by the U.S. Government Printing
Office; and
2. Contains FDA rules in 21 CFR, USDA rules in 7 CFR and 9
CFR, EPA rules in 40 CFR, and Wildlife and Fisheries Rules in 50 CFR.
"Commingle" means:
1. To combine shellstock harvested on different days or from
different growing areas as identified on the tag or label; or
2. To combine shucked shellfish from containers with different
container codes or different shucking dates.
"Comminuted" means reduced in size by methods
including chopping, flaking, grinding, or mincing. "Comminuted"
includes (i) fish or meat products that are reduced in size and
restructured or reformulated such as gefilte fish, gyros, ground beef, and
sausage; and (ii) a mixture of two or more types of meat that
have been reduced in size and combined, such as sausages made from two or more
meats.
"Commissary" means a catering establishment, restaurant
food establishment, or any other place in which food, food containers,
or supplies are kept, handled, prepared, packaged, or stored for
distribution to satellite operations.
"Commissioner" means the State Health Commissioner,
his duly designated officer, or his agent.
"Conditional employee" means a potential food
employee to whom a job offer is made, conditional on with employment
dependent upon responses to subsequent medical questions or examinations
designed to identify potential food employees who may be suffering from a
disease that can be transmitted through food and done in compliance with Title
1 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990.
"Confirmed disease outbreak" means a foodborne
disease outbreak in which laboratory analysis of appropriate specimens
identifies a causative organism or chemical and epidemiological analysis
implicates the food as the source of the illness.
"Consumer" means a person who is a member of the
public, takes possession of food, is not functioning in the capacity of an
operator of a food establishment or food processing plant, and does not offer
the food for resale.
"Core item" means a provision in this chapter
that is not designated as a priority item or a priority foundation item. Core
item includes an item that usually relates to general sanitation, operational
controls, sanitation standard operating procedures (SSOPs), facilities or
structures, equipment design, or general maintenance.
"Corrosion-resistant materials" means a material that
maintains acceptable surface cleanability characteristics under prolonged
influence of the food to be contacted, the normal use of cleaning compounds and
sanitizing solutions, and other conditions of the use environment.
"Counter-mounted equipment" means equipment that is
not [ easily movable portable ] and is designed to be
mounted off the floor on a table, counter, or shelf.
"Critical control point" means a point or procedure
in a specific food system where loss of control may result in an unacceptable
health risk.
"Critical item" means a provision of these
regulations that, if in noncompliance, is more likely than other violations to
contribute to food contamination, illness, or environmental degradation.
"Critical limit" means the maximum or minimum value
to which a physical, biological, or chemical parameter must be controlled at a
critical control point to minimize the risk that the identified food safety
hazard may occur.
"Cut leafy greens" means fresh leafy greens
whose leaves have been cut, shredded, sliced, chopped, or torn. The term
"leafy greens" includes iceberg lettuce, romaine lettuce, leaf
lettuce, butter lettuce, baby leaf lettuce (i.e., immature lettuce or leafy
greens), escarole, endive, spring mix, spinach, cabbage, kale, arugula, and chard.
The term "leafy greens" does not include herbs such as cilantro or
parsley.
"Dealer" means a person who is authorized by a
shellfish control authority for the activities of a shellstock shipper,
shucker-packer, repacker, reshipper, or depuration processor of molluscan
shellfish according to the provisions of the National Shellfish Sanitation
Program and is listed in the U.S. Food and Drug Administration's Interstate
Certified Shellfish Shippers List, updated monthly (U.S. Food and Drug
Administration).
"Delicatessen" means a store where ready to eat
products such as cooked meats, prepared salads, etc. are sold for off-premises
consumption.
"Department" means the State Health Virginia
Department of Health.
"Director" means the district or local health
director.
"Disclosure" means a written statement that clearly
identifies the animal [ derived ] foods that are, or can be
ordered, raw, undercooked, or without otherwise being processed to eliminate
pathogens in their entirety, or items that contain an ingredient that is raw,
undercooked, or without otherwise being processed to eliminate
pathogens.
"Drinking water" means water that meets the
water quality standards for bacteria of the Virginia Waterworks Regulations
(12VAC5-590). Drinking water is traditionally known as "potable
water." Drinking water includes the term water except where the term used
connotes that the water is not potable, such as "boiler water,"
"mop water," "rainwater," "wastewater," and
"nondrinking" water.
"Dry storage area" means a room or area designated
for the storage of packaged or containerized bulk food that is not potentially
hazardous time/temperature control for safety food and dry goods
such as single-service items.
"Easily cleanable" means a characteristic of a
surface that:
1. Allows effective removal of soil by normal cleaning
methods;
2. Is dependent on the material, design, construction, and
installation of the surface; and
3. Varies with the likelihood of the surface's role in
introducing pathogenic or toxigenic agents or other contaminants into food
based on the surface's approved placement, purpose, and use.
"Easily cleanable" includes a tiered application of
the criteria that qualify the surface as easily cleanable as specified above to
different situations in which varying degrees of cleanability are required such
as:
1. The appropriateness of stainless steel for a food
preparation surface as opposed to the lack of need for stainless steel to be
used for floors or for tables used for consumer dining; or
2. The need for a different degree of cleanability for a
utilitarian attachment or accessory in the kitchen as opposed to a decorative
attachment or accessory in the consumer dining area.
"Easily movable" means:
1. Portable [ (weighing 30 pounds or less) ];
mounted on casters, gliders, or rollers; or provided with a mechanical means to
safely tilt a unit of equipment for cleaning; and
2. Having no utility connection, a utility connection that
disconnects quickly, or a flexible utility connection line of sufficient length
to allow the equipment to be moved for cleaning of the equipment and adjacent
area.
"Egg" means the shell egg of avian species such as
chicken, duck, goose, guinea, quail, ratites ratite, or turkey.
Egg does not include a balut; egg of the reptile species such as alligator; or
an egg product.
"Egg product" means all, or a portion of, the
contents found inside eggs separated from the shell and pasteurized in a food
processing plant, with or without added ingredients, intended for human
consumption, such as dried, frozen, or liquid eggs. Egg product does not
include food that contains eggs only in a relatively small proportion such as
cake mixes.
"Employee" means the permit holder, person in
charge, food employee, person having supervisory or management duties, person
on the payroll, family member, volunteer, person performing work under
contractual agreement, or other person working in a food establishment.
"Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
(EHEC)" means E.coli that cause hemorrhagic colitis, meaning
bleeding enterically or bleeding from the intestine. The term is typically used
in association with E.coli that have the capacity to produce Shiga
toxins and to cause attaching and effacing lesion in the intestine. EHEC is a
subset of STEC, whose members produce additional virulence factors. Infections
with EHEC may be asymptomatic but are classically associated with bloody
diarrhea (hemorrhagic colitis) and hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) or
thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Examples of serotypes of EHEC
include: E.coli O157:H7; E.coli O157:NM; E.coli O26:H11; E.coli
O145:NM; E.coli O103:H2; or E.coli O111:NM. Also see Shiga
toxin-producing E.coli.
"EPA" means the U.S. Environmental Protection
Agency.
"Equipment" means an article that is used in the
operation of a food establishment. "Equipment" includes, but is not
limited to, items such as a freezer, grinder, hood, ice maker, meat block,
mixer, oven, reach-in refrigerator, scale, sink, slicer, stove, table,
temperature measuring device for ambient air, vending machine, or warewashing
machine. Equipment does not include apparatuses used for handling or storing
large quantities of packaged foods that are received from a supplier in a cased
or overwrapped lot, such as hand trucks, forklifts, dollies, pallets, racks,
and skids.
"Exclude" means to prevent a person from working as
[ a food an ] employee in a food establishment or
entering a food establishment as an employee.
"°F" means degrees Fahrenheit.
"FDA" means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
"Fish" means: fresh or saltwater finfish,
crustaceans, and other forms of aquatic life (including alligator, frog,
aquatic turtle, jellyfish, sea cucumber, and sea urchin and the roe of such
animals) other than birds or mammals; and all mollusks, if such
animal life is intended for human consumption; and, includes any
edible human food product derived in whole or in part from fish, including fish
that has been processed in any manner.
"Food" means (i) a raw, cooked, or processed
edible substance, ice, beverage, or ingredient used or intended for use or for
sale in whole or in part for human consumption or (ii) chewing gum.
"Foodborne disease outbreak" means the occurrence
of two or more cases of a similar illness resulting from the ingestion of a
common food.
"Food-contact surface" means a surface of equipment
or a utensil with which food normally comes into contact, or a surface of
equipment or a utensil from which food may drain, drip, or splash into a food,
or onto a surface normally in contact with food.
"Food employee" means an individual working with
unpackaged food, food equipment or utensils, or food-contact surfaces.
"Food establishment" means an operation that (i)
stores, prepares, packages, serves, or vends food directly to the
consumer or otherwise provides food to the public for human
consumption (i), such as a restaurant;, satellite
or catered feeding location;, catering operation if the operation
provides food directly to a consumer or to a conveyance used to transport
people;, market;, vending location;,
conveyance used to transport people;, institution;,
or food bank;, and (ii) that relinquishes possession of
food to a consumer directly; or indirectly through a delivery service,
such as home delivery of grocery orders or restaurant takeout orders, or
delivery service that is provided by common carriers.
"Food establishment" includes (a) (i)
an element of the operation such as a transportation vehicle or a central
preparation facility that supplies a vending location or satellite feeding
location; (b) (ii) an operation that is conducted in a mobile,
stationary, temporary, or permanent facility or location; where
consumption is on or off the premises; and regardless of whether there
is a charge for the food; and (c) (iii) a facility that does not
meet the exemption criteria identified in subdivision 6 of this definition or a
facility that meets the exemption requirements but chooses to be regulated
under these regulations this chapter.
For the purpose of implementing this chapter, the
following places are also included in the definition of a "food
establishment" as defined in subdivision 9 of § 35.1-1 of the Code of
Virginia:
1. Any place where food is prepared for service to the public
on or off the premises, or any place where food is served. Examples of such
places include but are not limited to lunchrooms, short order places,
cafeterias, coffee shops, cafes, taverns, delicatessens, dining accommodations
of public or private clubs, kitchen facilities of hospitals and nursing homes,
dining accommodations of public and private schools and colleges, and kitchen
areas of local correctional facilities subject to standards adopted under § 53.1-68
of the Code of Virginia.
2. Any place or operation that prepares or stores food for
distribution to persons of the same business operation or of a related business
operation for service to the public. Examples of such places or operations
include but are not limited to operations preparing or storing food for
catering services, push cart operations, hotdog stands, and other mobile points
of service. Such mobile points of service are also deemed to be restaurants
unless the point of service and of consumption is in a private residence.
"Food establishment" does not include:
1. An establishment that offers only prepackaged foods that
are not potentially hazardous food that is not time/temperature control
for safety food;
2. A produce stand that only offers whole, uncut fresh fruits
and vegetables;
3. A food processing plant;, including those
that are located on the premises of a food establishment;
4. A kitchen in a private home if only food that is not potentially
hazardous time/temperature control for safety food is prepared for
sale or service at a function such as a religious or charitable organization's
bake sale if allowed by law and if the consumer is informed by a clearly
visible placard at the sales or service location that the food is prepared in a
kitchen that is not subject to regulation and inspection by the regulatory
authority;
5. An area where food that is prepared as specified in
subdivision 4 above of this definition is sold or offered for
human consumption;
6. A kitchen in a private home, such as, but not limited to, a
family day-care provider or a home for adults, serving 12 or fewer recipients;
or a bed-and-breakfast operation that prepares and offers food only to guests
if the premises of the home is owner or owner-agent occupied, the
number of available guest bedrooms does not exceed six, breakfast is the
only meal offered, the number of guests served does not exceed 18, and the
consumer is informed by statements contained in published advertisements,
mailed brochures, and placards posted at the registration area that the food is
prepared in a kitchen that is, by these regulations this chapter,
exempt from this chapter; or
7. A private home that receives catered or home-delivered food.;
or
8. Places manufacturing packaged or canned foods that are
distributed to grocery stores or other similar food retailers for sale to the
public.
For the purpose of implementing this chapter, the following
are also exempt from the definition of a "food establishment" in this
chapter, as defined in §§ 35.1-25 and 35.1-26 of the Code of Virginia:
1. Boarding houses that do not accommodate transients;
2. Cafeterias operated by industrial plants for employees
only;
3. Churches, fraternal, school and social organizations and
volunteer fire departments and rescue squads that hold dinners and bazaars not
more than one time per week and not in excess of two days duration at which
food prepared in homes of members or in the kitchen of the church or
organization and is offered for sale to the public;
4. Grocery stores, including the delicatessen that is a part
of a grocery store, selling exclusively for off-premises consumption and places
manufacturing or selling packaged or canned goods;
5. Churches that serve meals for their members as a regular
part of their religious observance; and
6. Convenience stores or gas stations that are subject to the
State Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services' Retail Food Establishment
Regulations (2VAC5-585) or any regulations subsequently adopted and that (i)
have 15 or fewer seats at which food is served to the public on the premises of
the convenience store or gas station and (ii) are not associated with a
national or regional restaurant chain. Notwithstanding this exemption, such
convenience stores or gas stations shall remain responsible for collecting any
applicable local meals tax.
"Food processing plant" means a commercial
operation that manufactures, packages, labels, or stores food for human
consumption and provides food for sale or distribution to other business
entities such as food processing plants or food establishments. Food processing
plant does not include a food establishment.
"Game animal" means an animal, the products of
which are food, that is not classified as: cattle, sheep, swine, goat,
horse, mule, or other equine in 9 CFR Part 301 Definitions, as poultry in 9 CFR
Part 381 Poultry Products Inspection Regulations, or as Fish as defined in this
section (i) livestock, sheep, swine, goat, horse, mule, or other equine
in 9 CFR 301.2; (ii) poultry; or (iii) fish.
"Game animal" includes mammals such as reindeer, elk,
deer, antelope, water buffalo, bison, rabbit, squirrel, opossum, raccoon,
nutria, or muskrat and nonaquatic reptiles such as land snakes.
"Game animal" does not include ratites such as
ostrich, emu, and rhea.
"General use pesticide" means a pesticide that is
not classified by EPA for restricted use as specified in 40 CFR 152.175.
"Grade A standards" means the requirements of the USPHS/FDA
"Grade [ A ] Grade "A" Pasteurized
Milk Ordinance" and "Grade A Condensed and Dry Milk
Ordinance", 2013 Revision, (U.S. Food and Drug Administration),
with which certain fluid and dry milk and milk products comply.
"HACCP Plan" means a written document that
delineates the formal procedures for following the Hazard Analysis Critical
Control Point principles developed by The National Advisory Committee on
Microbiological Criteria for Foods.
"Handwashing sink" means a lavatory, a basin or
vessel for washing, a wash basin, or a plumbing fixture especially placed for
use in personal hygiene and designed for the washing of hands. Handwashing sink
includes an automatic handwashing facility.
"Hazard" means a biological, chemical, or physical
property that may cause an unacceptable consumer health risk.
"Health practitioner" means a physician licensed to
practice medicine, or if allowed by law, a nurse practitioner, physician
assistant, or similar medical [ profession professional ].
"Hermetically sealed container" means a container
that is designed and intended to be secure against the entry of microorganisms
and, in the case of low acid canned foods, to maintain the commercial sterility
of its contents after processing.
"Highly susceptible population" means persons who
are more likely than other people in the general population to experience
foodborne disease because they are:
1. Immunocompromised, preschool age children, or older adults;
and
2. Obtaining food at a facility that provides services such as
custodial care, health care, or assisted living, such as a child or adult day
care center, kidney dialysis center, hospital or nursing home, or nutritional
or socialization services such as a senior center.
"Hot water" means water at a temperature of
100°F or higher unless otherwise stated.
"Imminent health hazard" means a significant threat
or danger to health that is considered to exist when there is evidence
sufficient to show that a product, practice, circumstance, or event creates a
situation that requires immediate correction or cessation of operation to
prevent injury based on the number of potential injuries, and the nature,
severity, and duration of the anticipated injury.
"Injected" means tenderizing a meat with deep
penetration or injecting the meat such as with juices which may be referred to
as "injecting," "pinning," or "stitch pumping."
During injection infectious or toxigenic microorganisms may be introduced from
its surface to its interior. manipulating meat to which a solution has
been introduced into its interior by processes such as "injecting,"
"pump marinating," or "stitch pumping."
"Juice" means the aqueous liquid expressed or
extracted from one or more fruits or vegetables, purées of the edible portions
of one or more fruits or vegetables, or any concentrate of such liquid or
purée. Juice does not include, for purposes of HACCP, liquids, purées, or
concentrates that are not used as beverages or ingredients of beverages.
"Kitchenware" means food preparation and storage
utensils.
"Law" means applicable local, state, and federal
statutes, regulations, and ordinances.
"Linens" means fabric items such as cloth hampers,
cloth napkins, table cloths, wiping cloths, and work garments including cloth
gloves.
"Major food allergen" means milk, egg, fish (such
as bass, flounder, cod, and including crustacean shellfish such as crab,
lobster, or shrimp), tree nuts (such as almonds, pecans, or walnuts), wheat,
peanuts, and soybeans; or a food ingredient that contains protein derived from
one of these foods. Major food allergen does not include any highly refined oil
derived from a major food allergen in this definition and any ingredient
derived from such highly refined oil; or any ingredient that is exempt
under the petition or notification process specified in the Food Allergen
Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004 [ (P. (Pub. ]
L. 108-282).
"Meat" means the flesh of animals used as food
including the dressed flesh of cattle, swine, sheep, or goats and other edible
animals, except fish, poultry, and wild game animals as specified under
12VAC5-421-330 [ A 2 and ] A 3 [ and 4 ].
"Mechanically tenderized" means manipulating meat
with deep penetration by processes which may be referred to as "blade
tenderizing," "jaccarding," "pinning,"
"needling," or using blades, pins, needles, or any mechanical device.
"Mechanically tenderized" does not include processes by which
solutions are injected into meat.
"mg/L" means milligrams per liter, which is the
metric equivalent of parts per million (ppm).
"Mobile food unit" means a food establishment that
is mounted on wheels that is (excluding boats in the water)
readily moveable from place to place at all times during operation and
shall include, but not be limited to, pushcarts, trailers, trucks, or
vans. There is no size limit to mobile food units but they must be mobile at
all times during operation and must be on wheels (excluding boats in the water)
at all times. The unit, all operations, and all equipment must be integral
to and be within or attached to the unit.
"Molluscan shellfish" means any edible species of
fresh or frozen oysters, clams, mussels, and scallops or edible portions
thereof, except when the scallop product consists only of the shucked adductor
muscle.
"Noncontinuous cooking" means the cooking of
food in a food establishment using a process in which the initial heating of
the food is intentionally halted so that it may be cooled and held for complete
cooking at a later time prior to sale or service. "Noncontinuous
cooking" does not include cooking procedures that only involve temporarily
interrupting or slowing an otherwise continuous cooking process.
"Occasional" means not more than one time per week,
and not in excess of two days duration.
"Organization" means any one of the following:
1. A volunteer fire department or rescue squad or auxiliary
unit thereof which has been recognized in accordance with § 15.2-955 of the
Code of Virginia by an ordinance or resolution of the political subdivision
where the volunteer fire department or rescue squad is located as being a part
of the safety program of such political subdivision;
2. An organization operated exclusively for religious,
charitable, community or educational purposes;
3. An association of war veterans or auxiliary units
thereof organized in the United States;
4. A fraternal association or corporation operating under
the lodge system;
5. A local chamber of commerce; or
6. A nonprofit organization that raises funds by conducting
raffles which generate annual gross receipts of less than $75,000, provided
such gross receipts from the raffle, less expenses and prizes, are used
exclusively for charitable, educational, religious or community purposes.
"Packaged" means bottled, canned, cartoned, [ securely ]
bagged, or [ securely ] wrapped, whether packaged in a food
establishment or a food processing plant. Packaged does not include wrapped
or placed in a carry-out container to protect the food during service or
delivery to the consumer, by a food employee, upon consumer request.
"Permit" means a license issued by the regulatory
authority that authorizes a person to operate a food establishment.
"Permit holder" means the entity that is legally
responsible for the operation of the food establishment such as the owner, the
owner's agent, or other person, and possesses a valid permit to operate a food
establishment.
"Person" means an association, a corporation,
individual, partnership, other legal entity, government, or governmental
subdivision or agency.
"Person in charge" means the individual present at
a food establishment who is responsible for the operation at the time of
inspection.
"Personal care items" means items or substances
that may be poisonous, toxic, or a source of contamination and are used to
maintain or enhance a person's health, hygiene, or appearance. Personal care
items include items such as medicines; first aid supplies; and other items such
as cosmetics, and toiletries such as toothpaste and mouthwash.
"pH" means the symbol for the negative logarithm of
the hydrogen ion concentration, which is a measure of the degree of acidity or
alkalinity of a solution. Values between 0 and 7.0 indicate acidity and
values between 7.0 and 14 indicate alkalinity. The value for pure distilled
water is 7.0, which is considered neutral.
"Physical facilities" means the structure and
interior surfaces of a food establishment including accessories such as soap
and towel dispensers and attachments such as light fixtures and heating or air
conditioning system vents.
"Plumbing fixture" means a receptacle or device
that is permanently or temporarily connected to the water distribution system
of the premises and demands a supply of water from the system or discharges
used water, waste materials, or sewage directly or indirectly to the drainage
system of the premises.
"Plumbing system" means the water supply and
distribution pipes; plumbing fixtures and traps; soil, waste, and vent pipes;
sanitary and storm sewers and building drains, including their respective
connections, devices, and appurtenances within the premises; and water-treating
equipment.
"Poisonous or toxic materials" means substances
that are not intended for ingestion and are included in four categories:
1. Cleaners and sanitizers, which that include
cleaning and sanitizing agents and agents such as caustics, acids, drying
agents, polishes, and other chemicals;
2. Pesticides which, except sanitizers, that
include substances such as insecticides and rodenticides;
3. Substances necessary for the operation and maintenance of
the establishment such as nonfood grade lubricants, paints, and personal care
items that may be deleterious to health; and
4. Substances that are not necessary for the operation and
maintenance of the establishment and are on the premises for retail sale, such
as petroleum products and paints.
"Potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control
for safety food)" means a food that requires time/temperature control for
safety (TCS) to limit pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation:
1. Potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for
safety food) includes an animal food that is raw or heat-treated; a plant food
that is heat-treated or consists of raw seed sprouts, cut melons, cut tomatoes,
or mixtures of cut tomatoes that are not modified in a way so that they are
unable to support pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation, or
garlic-in-oil mixtures that are not modified in a way that results in mixtures
that do not support pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation; and
except as specified in subdivision 2 of this definition, a food that because of
the interaction of its Aw and pH values is designated as Product
Assessment Required (PA) in Table A or B of this definition:
Table A. Interaction of pH and Aw for control of spores in
food heat-treated to destroy vegetative cells and subsequently packaged.
|
Aw values
|
pH values
|
4.6 or less
|
>4.6-5.6
|
>5.6
|
<0.92
|
non-PHF*/non-TCS food**
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
> 0.92-0.95
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
PA***
|
>0.95
|
non-PHF/non-TCS food
|
PA
|
PA
|
*PHF means Potentially Hazardous Food
**TCS means Time/Temperature Control for Safety Food
***PA means Product Assessment required
|
Table B. Interaction of pH
and Aw for control of vegetative cells and spores in food not heat-treated or
heat-treated but not packaged.
|
Aw values
|
pH values
|
< 4.2
|
4.2 - 4.6
|
> 4.6 - 5.0
|
> 5.0
|
<0.88
|
non-PHF*/
non-TCS food**
|
non-PHF/
non-TCS food
|
non-PHF/
non-TCS food
|
non-PHF/
non-TCS food
|
0.88-0.90
|
non-PHF/
non-TCS food
|
non-PHF/
non-TCS food
|
non-PHF/
non-TCS food
|
PA***
|
>0.90-0.92
|
non-PHF/
non-TCS food
|
non-PHF/
non-TCS food
|
PA
|
PA
|
>0.92
|
non-PHF/
non-TCS food
|
PA
|
PA
|
PA
|
*PHF means Potentially Hazardous Food
**TCS means Time/Temperature Control for Safety Food
***PA means Product Assessment required
|
2. Potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for
safety food) does not include:
a. An air-cooled hard-boiled egg with shell intact, or an
egg with shell intact that is not hard-boiled, but has been pasteurized to
destroy all viable Salmonellae;
b. A food in an unopened hermetically sealed container that
is commercially processed to achieve and maintain commercial sterility under
conditions of nonrefrigerated storage and distribution;
c. A food that because of its pH or Aw value, or
interaction of Aw and pH values, is designated as a non-PHF/non-TCS
food in Table A or B of this definition;
d. A food that is designated as Product Assessment required
(PA) in Table A or B of this definition and has undergone a Product Assessment
showing that the growth or toxin formation of pathogenic microorganisms that
are reasonably likely to occur in that food is precluded due to:
(1) Intrinsic factors including added or natural
characteristics of the food such as preservatives, antimicrobials, humectants,
acidulants, or nutrients,
(2) Extrinsic factors including environmental or
operational factors that affect the food such as packaging, modified atmosphere
such as reduced oxygen packaging, shelf-life and use, or temperature range of
storage and use, or
(3) A combination of intrinsic and extrinsic factors; or
e. A food that does not support the growth or toxin
formation of pathogenic microorganisms in accordance with one of the
subdivisions 2 a through 2 d of this definition even though the food may
contain a pathogenic microorganism or chemical or physical contaminant at a
level sufficient to cause illness or injury.
"Potable water" means water fit for human
consumption that is obtained from an approved water supply and that is (i)
sanitary and normally free of minerals, organic substances, and toxic agents in
excess of reasonable amounts and (ii) adequate in quantity and quality for the
minimum health requirements of the persons served (see Article 2 (§ 32.1-167 et
seq.) of Chapter 6 of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia). Potable water is
traditionally known as drinking water and excludes such nonpotable forms as
"boiler water, "mop water," "rainwater,"
"wastewater," and "nondrinking" water.
"Poultry" means any domesticated bird (chickens,
turkeys, ducks, geese, or guineas) guineas, ratites, or squabs),
whether live or dead, as defined in 9 CFR Part 381 9 CFR 381.1, Poultry
Products Inspection Regulations, and any migratory waterfowl, game bird, or
squab such as pheasant, partridge, quail, grouse, guineas, or pigeon
or squab whether live or dead, as defined in 9 CFR Part 362,
Voluntary Poultry Inspection Regulations 9 CFR 362.1. "Poultry"
does not include ratites.
"Premises" means the physical facility, its
contents, and the contiguous land or property under the control of the permit
holder; or the physical facility, its contents, and the land or property which
are under the control of the permit holder and may impact food establishment
personnel, facilities, or operations, if a food establishment is only one
component of a larger operation such as a health care facility, hotel, motel,
school, recreational camp, or prison.
"Primal cut" means a basic major cut into which
carcasses and sides of meat are separated, such as a beef round, pork loin,
lamb flank or veal breast.
"Priority foundation item" means a provision in
this chapter whose application supports, facilitates, or enables one or more
priority items. "Priority foundation item" includes an item that
requires the purposeful incorporation of specific actions, equipment, or
procedures by industry management to attain control of risk factors that
contribute to foodborne illness or injury such as personnel training,
infrastructure or necessary equipment, HACCP plans, documentation or record
keeping, and labeling and is denoted in this regulation with a superscript PfPf.
"Priority item" means a provision in this
chapter whose application contributes directly to the elimination, prevention
or reduction to an acceptable level of hazards associated with foodborne
illness or injury and there is no other provision that more directly controls
the hazard. "Priority item" includes items with a quantifiable
measure to show control of hazards such as cooking, reheating, cooling, and
handwashing and is denoted in this chapter with a superscript Pp.
"Private well" means any water well constructed
for a person on land that is owned or leased by that person and is usually
intended for household, groundwater source heat pump, agricultural use,
industrial use, or other nonpublic water well.
"Public water system" has the meaning stated in
40 CFR Part 141, National Primary Drinking Water Regulations.
"Pure water" means potable water fit for human
consumption that is (i) sanitary and normally free of minerals, organic
substances, and toxic agents in excess of reasonable amounts and (ii) adequate
in quantity and quality for the minimum health requirements of the persons
served (see § 32.1-176.1 and 32.1-167 of the Code of Virginia and
12VAC5-590 and 12VAC5-630-370. Potable water is traditionally known as drinking
water, and excludes such nonpotable forms as "boiler water,"
"mop water," "rainwater," "wastewater," and
"nondrinking water."
"Pushcart" means any wheeled vehicle or device
other than a motor vehicle or trailer that may be moved with or without the
assistance of a motor and that does not require registration by the department
of motor vehicles. A pushcart is limited to the sale and/or service of hot
dogs and frankfurter-like foods.
"Ratite" means a flightless bird such as an emu,
ostrich, or rhea.
"Ready-to-eat food" means food that:
1. Is in a form that is edible without additional preparation
to achieve food safety, as specified under 12VAC5-421-700 A through,
B, and C, 12VAC5-421-710 [ , ] or 12VAC5-421-730;
2. Is a raw or partially cooked animal food and the consumer
is advised as specified under 12VAC5-421- 700 D 1 and 2 3; or
3. Is prepared in accordance with a variance that is granted
as specified under 12VAC5-421-700 D 1 and 2 4.
Ready-to-eat food may receive additional preparation for
palatability or aesthetic, epicurean, gastronomic, or culinary purposes.
"Ready-to-eat food" includes:
1. Raw animal food that is cooked as specified under
12VAC5-421-700, or 12VAC5-421-710 or frozen as specified under
12VAC5-421-730;
2. Raw fruits and vegetables that are washed as specified
under 12VAC5-421-510;
3. Fruits and vegetables that are cooked for hot holding as
specified under 12VAC5-421-720;
4. All potentially hazardous food time/temperature
control for safety food that is cooked to the temperature and time required
for the specific food under 12VAC5-421-700 and cooled as specified in
12VAC5-421-800;
5. Plant food for which further washing, cooking, or other
processing is not required for food safety, and from which rinds, peels, husks,
or shells, if naturally present, are removed;
6. Substances derived from plants such as spices, seasonings,
and sugar;
7. A bakery item such as bread, cakes, pies, fillings, or
icing for which further cooking is not required for food safety;
8. The following products that are produced in accordance with
USDA guidelines and that have received a lethality treatment for [ pathogen
pathogens ]: dry, fermented sausages, such as dry salami or
pepperoni; salt-cured meat and poultry products, such as prosciutto ham,
country cured ham, and Parma ham; and dried meat and poultry products, such as
jerky or beef sticks; and
9. Food manufactured according to 21 CFR Part 113,
Thermally Processed Low-Acid Foods Packaged in Hermetically Sealed Containers.
"Reduced oxygen packaging" means the reduction of
the amount of oxygen in a package by removing oxygen; displacing oxygen and
replacing it with another gas or combination of gases; or otherwise controlling
the oxygen content to a level below that normally found in the atmosphere
(approximately 21% at sea level); and a process as specified in this definition
that involves a food for which the hazards Clostridium botulinum or Listeria
monocytogenes require control in the final packaged form. Reduced oxygen
packaging includes:
1. Vacuum packaging, in which air is removed from a package of
food and the package is hermetically sealed so that a vacuum remains inside the
package;
2. Modified atmosphere packaging, in which the atmosphere of a
package of food is modified so that its composition is different from air but
the atmosphere may change over time due to the permeability of the packaging
material or the respiration of the food. Modified atmosphere packaging includes
reduction in the proportion of oxygen, total replacement of oxygen, or an
increase in the proportion of other gases such as carbon dioxide or nitrogen;
3. Controlled atmosphere packaging, in which the atmosphere of
a package of food is modified so that until the package is opened, its
composition is different from air, and continuous control of that atmosphere is
maintained, such as by using oxygen scavengers or a combination of total
replacement oxygen, nonrespiring food, and impermeable packaging material;
4. Cook chill packaging, in which cooked food is hot filled
into impermeable bags that have the air expelled and are then sealed or crimped
closed. The bagged food is rapidly chilled and refrigerated at temperatures
that inhibit the growth of psychrotrophic pathogens; or
5. Sous vide packaging, in which raw or partially cooked food
is [ placed in a hermetically sealed, vacuum packaged in an ]
impermeable bag, cooked in the bag, rapidly chilled, and refrigerated at
temperatures that inhibit the growth of psychrotrophic pathogens.
"Refuse" means solid waste not carried by water
through the sewage system.
"Regulatory authority" means the Virginia
Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, the Virginia Department of
Health or their authorized representative having jurisdiction over the food
establishment.
"Reminder" means a written statement concerning the
health risk of consuming animal foods raw, undercooked, or without otherwise
being processed to eliminate pathogens.
"Reservice" means the transfer of food that is
unused and returned by a consumer after being served or sold and in the
possession of the consumer, to another person.
"Restrict" means to limit the activities of a food
employee so that there is no risk of transmitting a disease that is
transmissible through food and the food employee does not work with exposed
food, clean equipment, utensils, linens, and unwrapped single-service or
single-use articles.
"Restricted egg" means any check, dirty egg,
incubator reject, inedible, leaker, or loss as defined in 9 CFR Part 590.
"Restricted use pesticide" means a pesticide
product that contains the active ingredients specified in 40 CFR 152.175 (pesticides
classified for restricted use) and that is limited to use by or under the
direct supervision of a certified applicator.
"Risk" means the likelihood that an adverse health
effect will occur within a population as a result of a hazard in a food.
"Safe material" means an article manufactured from
or composed of materials that shall not reasonably be expected to result,
directly or indirectly, in their becoming a component or otherwise affecting
the characteristics of any food; an additive that is used as specified in § 409
or 706 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 USC § 348);
or other materials that are not additives and that are used in conformity with
applicable regulations of the Food and Drug Administration.
"Sanitization" means the application of cumulative
heat or chemicals on cleaned food contact food-contact surfaces
that, when evaluated for efficacy, yield a reduction of five logs, which is
equal to a 99.999% reduction, of representative disease microorganisms of
public health importance.
"Sealed" means free of cracks or other openings
that permit the entry or passage of moisture.
"Service animal" means an animal such as a guide
dog, signal dog, or other animal individually trained to provide assistance to
an individual with a disability.
"Servicing area" means an operating base location
to which a mobile food establishment or transportation vehicle returns
regularly for such things as vehicle and equipment cleaning, discharging liquid
or solid wastes, refilling water tanks and ice bins, and boarding food.
"Sewage" means liquid waste containing animal or
vegetable matter in suspension or solution and may include liquids containing
chemicals in solution. Sewage includes water-carried and non-water-carried
human excrement or kitchen, laundry, shower, bath, or lavatory waste separately
or together with such underground surface, storm, or other water and liquid
industrial wastes as may be present from residences, buildings, vehicles,
industrial establishments, or other places.
"Shellfish control authority" means a state,
federal, foreign, tribal or other government entity legally responsible
for administering a program that includes certification of molluscan shellfish
harvesters and dealers for interstate commerce such as the Virginia Department
of Health Division of Shellfish Sanitation.
"Shellstock" means raw, in-shell molluscan
shellfish.
"Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli" (STEC)
or "STEC" means any E. coli capable of producing Shiga toxins
(also called verocytotoxins or "Shiga-like" toxins) verocytotoxins).
STEC infections can be asymptomatic or may result in a spectrum of illness
ranging from mild nonbloody diarrhea, to hemorrhagic colitis (i.e., bloody
diarrhea) to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), which is a type of kidney
failure). Examples of serotypes of STEC include both O157 and non-O157
E.coli. Also see Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli. E. coli 0157:H7, E.
coli 0157:NM, E. coli 026:H11; E. coli 0145NM, E. coli 0103:H2, and E. coli
0111:NM. STEC are sometimes referred to as VTEC (verocytotoxigenic E. coli) or
as EHEC (Enterohemorrhagic E. coli). EHEC are a subset of STEC that can cause
hemorrhagic colitis or HUS.
"Shucked shellfish" means molluscan shellfish that
have one or both shells removed.
"Single-service articles" means tableware,
carry-out utensils, and other items such as bags, containers, placemats,
stirrers, straws, toothpicks, and wrappers that are designed and constructed
for one time, one person use after which they are intended for discard.
"Single-use articles" means utensils and bulk food
containers designed and constructed to be used once and discarded. Single-use
articles includes items such as wax paper, butcher paper, plastic wrap, formed
aluminum food containers, jars, plastic tubs or buckets, bread wrappers, pickle
barrels, ketchup bottles, and number 10 cans which do not meet the materials,
durability, strength and cleanability specifications contained in
12VAC5-421-960, 12VAC5-421-1080, and 12VAC5-421-1100 for multiuse utensils.
"Slacking" means the process of moderating the
temperature of a food such as allowing a food to gradually increase from a
temperature of -10°F (-23°C) to 25°F (-4°C) in preparation for deep-fat frying
or to facilitate even heat penetration during the cooking of previously
block-frozen food such as spinach shrimp.
"Smooth" means a food-contact surface having a
surface free of pits and inclusions with a cleanability equal to or exceeding
that of (100 grit) number three stainless steel; a nonfood-contact non-food-contact
surface of equipment having a surface equal to that of commercial grade
hot-rolled steel free of visible scale; and a floor, wall, or ceiling having an
even or level surface with no roughness or projections that render it difficult
to clean.
"Substantial compliance" shall mean that details
of means equipment or structure design or construction and/or;
food preparation, handling, storage, transportation and/or; or
cleaning procedures that will not substantially affect health
consideration or performance of the facility or its the
employees.
"Tableware" means eating, drinking, and serving
utensils for table use such as flatware including forks, knives, and spoons;
hollowware including bowls, cups, serving dishes, tumblers; and plates.
"Temperature measuring device" means a thermometer,
thermocouple, thermistor, or other device that indicates the temperature of
food, air, or water.
"Temporary food establishment" means a food
establishment that operates for a period of no more than 14 consecutive days in
conjunction with a single event or celebration.
"Time/temperature control for safety food" or
"TCS food" means a food that requires time/temperature control for
safety to limit pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation:
1. TCS food includes an animal food that is raw or heat
treated; a plant food that is heat treated or consists of raw seed sprouts, cut
melons, cut leafy greens, cut tomatoes, or mixtures of cut tomatoes that are
not modified in a way so that they are unable to support pathogenic microorganism
growth or toxin formation, or garlic-in-oil mixtures that are not modified in a
way so that they are unable to support pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin
formation; and except as specified in subdivision 2 d of this definition, a
food that because of the interaction of its Aw and pH values is
designated as product assessment required (PA) in Table A or B of this
definition:
Table A. Interaction of pH
and Aw for control of spores in food heat treated to destroy
vegetative cells and subsequently packaged.
|
Aw values
|
pH values
|
4.6 or less
|
>4.6-5.6
|
>5.6
|
=0.92
|
non-TCS food*
|
non-TCS food
|
non-TCS food
|
>0.92-0.95
|
non-TCS food
|
non-TCS food
|
PA**
|
>0.95
|
non-TCS food
|
PA
|
PA
|
*TCS food means time/temperature control for safety food
**PA means product assessment required
|
Table B. Interaction of pH and Aw for control
of vegetative cells and spores in food not heat treated or heat treated but
not packaged.
|
Aw values
|
pH values
|
< 4.2
|
4.2 - 4.6
|
> 4.6 - 5.0
|
> 5.0
|
<0.88
|
non-TCS food*
|
non-TCS food
|
non-TCS food
|
non-TCS food
|
0.88-0.90
|
non-TCS food
|
non-TCS food
|
non-TCS food
|
PA**
|
>0.90-0.92
|
non-TCS food
|
non-TCS food
|
PA
|
PA
|
>0.92
|
non-TCS food
|
PA
|
PA
|
PA
|
*TCS food means time/temperature control for safety food
**PA means product assessment required
|
2. TCS food does not include:
a. An air-cooled hard-boiled egg with shell intact, or an
egg with shell intact that is not hard-boiled, but has been pasteurized to
destroy all viable salmonellae;
b. A food in an unopened hermetically sealed container that
is commercially processed to achieve and maintain commercial sterility under
conditions of nonrefrigerated storage and distribution;
c. A food that because of its pH or Aw value, or
interaction of Aw and pH values, is designated as a non-TCS food in
Table A or B of this definition;
d. A food that is designated as PA in Table A or B of this
definition and has undergone a product assessment showing that the growth or
toxin formation of pathogenic microorganisms that are reasonably likely to
occur in that food is precluded due to:
(1) Intrinsic factors including added or natural
characteristics of the food such as preservatives, antimicrobials, humectants,
acidulants, or nutrients;
(2) Extrinsic factors including environmental or
operational factors that affect the food such as packaging, modified atmosphere
such as reduced oxygen packaging, shelf-life and use, or temperature range of
storage and use; or
(3) A combination of intrinsic and extrinsic factors; or
e. A food that does not support the growth or toxin
formation of pathogenic microorganisms in accordance with one of the
subdivisions 2 a through 2 d of this definition even though the food may
contain a pathogenic microorganism or chemical or physical contaminant at a
level sufficient to cause illness or injury.
"USDA" means the U.S. Department of Agriculture.
"Utensil" means a food-contact implement or
container used in the storage, preparation, transportation, dispensing, sale,
or service of food, such as kitchenware or tableware that is multiuse, single
service, or single use; gloves used in contact with food; temperature sensing
probes of food temperature measuring devices and probe-type price or
identification tags used in contact with food.
"Variance" means a written document issued by the
regulatory authority that authorizes a modification or waiver of one or more
requirements of this chapter if, in the opinion of the regulatory authority, a
health hazard or nuisance will not result from the modification or waiver.
"Vending machine" means a self-service device that,
upon insertion of a coin, paper currency, token, card, or key, or by optional
manual operation, dispenses unit servings of food in bulk or in packages
without the necessity of replenishing the device between each vending
operation.
"Vending machine location" means the room,
enclosure, space, or area where one or more vending machines are installed and
operated and includes the storage and servicing areas on the premises that
are used in conjunction with the vending machines areas and areas on the
premises that are used to service and maintain the vending machines.
"Warewashing" means the cleaning and sanitizing of
[ utensils and ] food-contact surfaces of equipment [ and
utensils ].
"Waterworks" means a system that serves piped
water for human consumption to at least 15 service connections or 25 or more
individuals for at least 60 days out of the year. "Waterworks"
includes all structures, equipment and appurtenances used in the storage,
collection, purification, treatment, and distribution of potable water except
the piping and fixtures inside the building where such water is delivered (see
Article 2 (§ 32.1-167 et seq.) of Chapter 6 of Title 32.1 of the Code of
Virginia).
"Whole-muscle, intact beef" means whole muscle beef
that is not injected, mechanically tenderized, reconstructed, or scored and
marinated, from which beef steaks may be cut.
Part II
Management and Personnel
Article 1
Supervision
12VAC5-421-50. Assignment of responsibility.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, the
permit holder shall be the person in charge or shall designate a person in
charge and shall ensure that a person in charge is present at the food
establishment during all hours of operation.Pf
B. In a food establishment with two or more separately
permitted departments that are the legal responsibility of the same permit
holder and that are located on the same premises, the permit holder may, during
specific time periods when food is not being prepared, packaged, or served,
designate a single person in charge who is present on the premises during all
hours of operation, and who is responsible for each separately permitted food
establishment on the premises.Pf
12VAC5-421-55. Certified food protection manager.
A. At least one employee with supervisory and management
responsibility and the authority to direct and control food preparation and
service shall be a certified food protection manager, demonstrating proficiency
of required knowledge and information through passing a test that is part of an
accredited program.
B. This section does not apply to food establishments that
serve only non-temperature control for safety food and food establishments
where food handling does not exceed reheating, cold holding, and hot holding of
commercially processed and packaged ready-to-eat foods.
C. For purposes of enforcement, this section will take
effect on July 1, 2018.
12VAC5-421-60. Demonstration of knowledge.
Based on the risks of foodborne illness inherent to the food
operation, during inspections and upon request the person in charge shall
demonstrate to the regulatory authority knowledge of foodborne disease
prevention, and the requirements of these regulations this chapter.
The person in charge shall demonstrate this knowledge by:
1. Complying with the Food Regulations this chapter
by having no violations of critical priority items during the
current inspection;Pf
2. Being a certified food protection manager who has shown
proficiency of required information through passing a test that is part of an
accredited program;Pf or
3. Responding correctly to the environmental health
specialist's questions as they relate to the specific food operation. The areas
of operation may include:
a. Describing the relationship between the prevention of
foodborne disease and the personal hygiene of a food employee;Pf
b. Explaining the responsibility of the person in charge for
preventing the transmission of foodborne disease by a food employee who has a
disease or medical condition that may cause foodborne disease;Pf
c. Describing the symptoms associated with the diseases that
are transmissible through food;Pf
d. Explaining the significance of the relationship between
maintaining the time and temperature of potentially hazardous food
(time/temperature control for safety food) time/temperature control for
safety food and the prevention of foodborne illness;Pf
e. Explaining the hazards involved in the consumption of raw
or undercooked meat, poultry, eggs, and fish;Pf
f. Stating the required food temperatures and times for safe
cooking of potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety
food) time/temperature control for safety food including meat,
poultry, eggs, and fish;Pf
g. Stating the required temperatures and times for the safe
refrigerated storage, hot holding, cooling, and reheating of potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) time/temperature
control for safety food;Pf
h. Describing the relationship between the prevention of
foodborne illness and the management and control of the following:
(1) Cross contamination,Pf
(2) Hand contact with ready-to-eat foods,Pf
(3) Handwashing,Pf and
(4) Maintaining the food establishment in a clean condition
and in good repair;Pf
i. Describing the foods identified as major food allergens and
the symptoms that a major food allergen could cause in a sensitive individual
who has an allergic reaction;Pf
j. Explaining the relationship between food safety and
providing equipment that is:
(1) Sufficient in number and capacity,Pf
and
(2) Properly designed, constructed, located, installed,
operated, maintained, and cleaned;Pf
k. Explaining correct procedures for cleaning and sanitizing
utensils and food-contact surfaces of equipment;Pf
l. Identifying the source of water used and measures taken to
ensure that it the water supply remains protected from
contamination such as providing protection from backflow and precluding the
creation of cross connections;Pf
m. Identifying poisonous or toxic materials in the food
establishment and the procedures necessary to ensure that they are safely
stored, dispensed, used, and disposed of according to law;Pf
n. Identifying critical control points in the operation
from purchasing through sale or service that [ when not controlled ]
may contribute to the transmission of foodborne illness and explaining steps
taken to ensure that the points are controlled in accordance with the
requirements of this chapter;Pf
o. Explaining the details of how the person in charge and food
employees comply with a HACCP plan if such a plan is required by the law,
this chapter, or a voluntary agreement between the regulatory authority and
the food establishment; andPf
p. Explaining the responsibilities, rights, and authorities
assigned by this chapter to the:
(1) Food employee,Pf
(2) Conditional employee,Pf
(2) (3) Person in charge,Pf
and
(3) (4) Regulatory authority;Pf
and
q. Explaining how the person in charge, food employees, and
conditional employees comply with reporting responsibilities and the exclusion
or restriction of food employees.Pf
12VAC5-421-65. Food protection manager certification.
A. A person in charge who demonstrates knowledge by being
a food protection manager who is certified by a food protection manager
certification program that is evaluated by a Conference for Food
Protection-recognized accrediting agency as conforming to the Conference for
Food Protection Standards for Accreditation of Food Protection Manager
Certification Programs, April 2012, (Conference for Food Protection) is deemed
to comply with subdivision 2 of 12VAC5-421-60.
B. A food establishment that has an employee who is
certified by a food protection certification program that is evaluated and
listed by a Conference for Food Protection-recognized accrediting agency as
conforming to the Conference for Food Protection Standards for Accreditation of
Food Protection Manager Certification Programs, April 2012, (Conference for
Food Protection) is deemed to comply with 12VAC5-421-55.
12VAC5-421-70. Duties of person in
charge.
The person in charge shall
ensure that:
1. Food establishment operations are not conducted in a
private home or in a room used as living or sleeping quarters as specified
under 12VAC5-421-2990;Pf
2. Persons unnecessary to the food establishment operation are
not allowed in the food preparation, food storage, or warewashing areas, except
that brief visits and tours may be authorized by the person in charge if steps
are taken to ensure that exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens;
and unwrapped single-service and single-use articles are protected from
contamination;Pf
3. Employees and other persons such as delivery and
maintenance persons and pesticide applicators entering the food preparation,
food storage, and warewashing areas comply with these regulations this
chapter;Pf
4. Employees are effectively cleaning their hands, by
routinely monitoring the employees' handwashing;Pf
5. Employees are visibly observing foods as they are received
to determine that they are from approved sources, delivered at the required
temperatures, protected from contamination, unadulterated, and accurately
presented, by routinely monitoring the employees' observations and periodically
evaluating foods upon their receipt;Pf
6. Employees are verifying that foods delivered to the food
establishment during non-operating hours are from approved sources and are
placed into appropriate storage locations such that they are maintained at the
required temperatures, protected from contamination, unadulterated, and
accurately presented [ .; ]Pf
6. 7. Employees are properly cooking potentially
hazardous food [ TCS time/temperature control for
safety ] food, being particularly careful in cooking those
foods known to cause severe foodborne illness and death, such as eggs and
comminuted meats, through daily oversight of the employees' routine monitoring
of the cooking temperatures using appropriate temperature measuring devices
properly scaled and calibrated as specified under 12VAC5-421-1180 and
12VAC5-421-1730 B;Pf
7. 8. Employees are using proper methods to
rapidly cool potentially hazardous foods time/temperature control for
safety food that are is not held hot or are is
not for consumption within four hours, through daily oversight of the
employees' routine monitoring of food temperatures during cooling;Pf
9. Employees are properly maintaining the temperatures of
time/temperature control for safety food during hot and cold holding through
daily oversight of the employees routine monitoring of food temperatures
[ .; ]Pf
8. 10. Consumers who order raw or partially
cooked ready-to-eat foods of animal origin are informed as specified under
12VAC5-421-930 that the food is not cooked sufficiently to ensure its safety;Pf
9. 11. Employees are properly sanitizing cleaned
multiuse equipment and utensils before they are reused, through routine
monitoring of solution temperature and exposure time for hot water sanitizing,
and chemical concentration, pH, temperature, and exposure time for chemical
sanitizing;Pf
10. 12. Consumers are notified that clean
tableware is to be used when they return to self-service areas such as salad
bars and buffets;Pf
11. 13. Except when approval is obtained from
the regulatory authority as specified in 12VAC5-421-450 B E,
employees are preventing cross-contamination of ready-to-eat food with bare
hands by properly using suitable utensils such as deli tissue, spatulas, tongs,
single-use gloves, or dispensing equipment; Pf
12. 14. Employees are properly trained in food
safety [ , including food allergy awareness, ] as it relates
to their assigned duties;Pf and
13. 15. Food employees and conditional employees
are informed in a verifiable manner of their responsibility to report in
accordance with law, to the person in charge, information about their health
and activities as they relate to diseases that are transmissible through food,
as specified under 12VAC5-421-80. Pf; and
16. Written procedures and plans, where specified by this
chapter and as developed by the food establishment, are maintained and
implemented as required.Pf
Article 2
Employee Health
12VAC5-421-80. Responsibility of permit holder, person in
charge, and conditional employees.
A. The permit holder shall require food employees and
conditional employees to report to the person in charge information about their
health and activities as they relate to diseases that are transmissible through
food. A food employee or conditional employee shall report the information in a
manner that allows the person in charge to reduce the risk of foodborne disease
transmission, including providing necessary additional information, such as the
date of onset of symptoms and an illness, or of a diagnosis without symptoms,
if the food employee or conditional employee:
1. Has any of the following symptoms:
a. Vomiting;P
b. Diarrhea;P
c. Jaundice;P
d. Sore throat with fever;P or
e. A lesion containing pus such as a boil or infected wound
that is open or draining and is:
(1) On the hands or wrists, unless an impermeable cover such
as a finger cot or stall protects the lesion and a single-use glove is worn
over the impermeable cover;P
(2) On exposed portions of the arms, unless the lesion is
protected by an impermeable cover;P or
(3) On other parts of the body, unless the lesion is covered
by a dry, durable, tight-fitting bandage;P
2. Has an illness diagnosed by a health practitioner due to:
a. Norovirus;P
b. Hepatitis A virus;P
c. Shigella spp.;P
d. [ Enterohemorrhagic or ] Shiga-toxin
producing Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli; or
P
e. Typhoid fever (caused by Salmonella [ Typhi)
typhi) ];P or
f. Salmonella (nontyphoidal) [ .; ]P
3. Had a previous illness [ Typhoid
typhoid ] fever, diagnosed by a health practitioner, within the
past three months due to Salmonella Typhi, without having received
antibiotic therapy, as determined by a health practitioner;P
4. Has been exposed to, or is the suspected source of, a
confirmed disease outbreak, because the food employee or conditional employee
consumed or prepared food implicated in the outbreak, or consumed food at an
event prepared by a person who is infected or ill with:
a. Norovirus within the past 48 hours of the last exposure; P
b. Enterohemorrhagic or Shiga-toxin producing Shiga
toxin-producing Escherichia coli, or Shigella spp. within the past three
days of the last exposure;P
c. Typhoid fever (caused by Salmonella [ Typhi
typhi ]) within the past 14 days of the last exposure;P
or
d. Hepatitis A virus within the past 30 days of the last
exposure;P or
5. Has been exposed by attending or working in a setting where
there is a confirmed disease outbreak, or living in the same household as, and
has knowledge about an individual who works or attends a setting where there is
a confirmed disease outbreak, or living in the same household as, and has
knowledge about, and individual diagnosed with an illness caused by:
a. Norovirus within the past 48 hours of exposure;P
b. Enterohemorragic or Shiga-toxin producing Shiga
toxin-producing Escherichia coli or Shigella spp. within the past three
days of the last exposure;P
c. Typhoid fever (caused by Salmonella [ Typhi
typhi ]) within the past 14 days of the last exposure;P
or
d. Hepatitis A virus within the past 30 days of the last
exposure.P
B. The person in charge shall notify the regulatory authority
when a food employee is:
1. Jaundiced;Pf or
2. Diagnosed with an illness due to a pathogen as specified
under [ subdivision subdivisions ] A 2 a through e
f of this section.Pf
C. The person in charge shall ensure that a conditional
employee:
1. Who exhibits or reports a symptom, or who reports a
diagnosed illness as specified under subdivision A 2 a through e subdivisions
A 1, 2, and 3 of this section, is prohibited from becoming a food employee
until the conditional employee meets the criteria for the specific symptoms or
diagnosed illness as specified under 12VAC5-421-100;P and
2. Who will work as a food employee in a food establishment
that serves a highly susceptible population and reports a history of exposure
as specified under subdivision subdivisions A 4 through and
5 of this section, is prohibited from becoming a food employee until the
conditional employee meets the criteria specified under subdivision 9 10
of 12VAC5-421-100.P
D. The person in charge shall ensure that a food employee who
exhibits or reports a symptom, or who reports a diagnosed illness or history of
exposure as specified under subdivision subdivisions A 1 through
5 of this section is:
1. Excluded as specified under subdivisions 1 through,
2, and 3 of 12VAC5-421-90, and subdivisions D 1, E 1, F 1, or G 1 4
a, 5 a, 6 a, 7, or 8 a of 12VAC5-421-90 and in compliance with the
provisions specified under subdivision subdivisions 1 through 7
8 of 12VAC5-421-100;P or
2. Restricted as specified under subdivisions subdivision
4 b, 5 b, 6 b, or 7 8 b of 12VAC5-421-90, or subdivisions 8 or
subdivision 9 or 10 of 12VAC5-421-90 and in compliance with the
provisions specified under subdivisions 4 through 9 10 of
12VAC5-421-100.P
E. A food employee or conditional employee shall report to
the person in charge the information as specified under subsection A of this
section.Pf
F. A food employee shall:
1. Comply with an exclusion as specified under subdivisions 1 through,
2, and 3 of 12VAC5-421-90 and subdivisions subdivision 4 a, 5
a, 6 a, or 7, or 8 a of 12VAC5-421-90 and with the
provisions specified under subdivisions 1 through 7 8 of
12VAC5-421-100;P or
2. Comply with a restriction as specified under subdivisions 4
b, 5 b, 6 b, or 7, or 8 b of 12VAC5-421-90, or subdivisions
subdivision 8, 9, or 9 10 of 12VAC5-421-90 and
comply with the provisions specified under subdivisions 4 through 9 10
of 12VAC5-421-100.P
12VAC5-421-90. Exclusions and restrictions.
The person in charge shall exclude or restrict a food
employee from a food establishment in accordance with the following:
1. Except when the symptom is from a noninfectious condition,
exclude a food employee if the food employee is:
a. Symptomatic with vomiting or diarrhea;P
or
b. Symptomatic with vomiting or diarrhea and diagnosed with an
infection from Norovirus, Shigella spp., Salmonella (nontyphoidal), or Enterohemorrhagic
or Shiga-toxin producing Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli.P
2. Exclude a food employee who is:
a. Jaundiced and the onset of jaundice occurred within the
last seven calendar days, unless the food employee provides to the person in
charge written medical documentation from a health practitioner specifying that
the jaundice is not caused by Hepatitis A virus or other fecal-orally
transmitted infection;P
b. Diagnosed with an infection from Hepatitis A virus within
14 calendar days from the onset of any illness symptoms, or within seven
calendar days of the onset of jaundice;P or
c. Diagnosed with an infection from Hepatitis A virus without
developing symptoms.P
3. Exclude a food employee who is diagnosed with an
infection from Salmonella Typhi [ Typhoid typhoid ]
fever, or reports a previous infection with Salmonella Typhi having
had [ Typhoid typhoid ] fever within
the past three months as specified in 12VAC5-421-80 A 3.P
4. If a food employee is diagnosed with an infection from
Norovirus and is asymptomatic:
a. Exclude the food employee who works in a food establishment
serving a highly susceptible population;P or
b. Restrict the food employee who works in a food
establishment not serving a highly susceptible population.P
5. If a food employee is diagnosed with an infection from
Shigella spp. and is asymptomatic:
a. Exclude the food employee who works in a food establishment
serving a highly susceptible population;P or
b. Restrict the food employee who works in a food
establishment not serving a highly susceptible population.P
6. If a food employee is diagnosed with an infection from Enterohemorrhagic
or Shiga-toxin producing E.coli Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli,
and is asymptomatic:
a. Exclude the food employee who works in a food establishment
serving a highly susceptible population;P or
b. Restrict the food employee who works in a food
establishment not serving a highly susceptible population.P
7. If a food employee is diagnosed with an infection from
Salmonella (nontyphoidal) and is asymptomatic, restrict the food
employee who works in a food establishment:
a. Serving a highly susceptible population,P or
b. Not serving a highly susceptible population.P
7. 8. If a food employee is ill with symptoms of
acute onset of sore throat with fever:
a. Exclude the food employee who works in a food establishment
serving a highly susceptible population;P or
b. Restrict the food employee who works in a food
establishment not serving a highly susceptible population.P
8. 9. If a food employee is infected with a skin
lesion containing pus such as a boil or infected wound that is open or draining
and not properly covered as specified under 12VAC5-421-80 A 1 e, restrict the
food employee.P
9. 10. If a food employee is exposed to a
foodborne pathogen as specified under 12VAC5-421-80 A 4 or 5, restrict the food
employee who works in a food establishment serving a highly susceptible
population.P
12VAC5-421-100. Removal, adjustment, or retention of exclusions
and restrictions.
The person in charge shall adhere to the following conditions
when removing, adjusting, or retaining the exclusion or restriction of a food
employee:
1. Except when a food employee is diagnosed with [ Typhoid
typhoid ] fever or an infection from Hepatitis A virus or
Salmonella Typhi:
a. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded as specified
under subdivision 1 a of 12VAC5-421-90 if the food employee:
(1) Is asymptomatic for at least 24 hours;P
or
(2) Provides to the person in charge written medical
documentation from a health practitioner that states the symptom is from a
noninfectious condition.P
b. If a food employee was diagnosed with an infection from
Norovirus and excluded as specified under subdivision 1 b of 12VAC5-421-90:
(1) Restrict the food employee, who is asymptomatic for at
least 24 hours and works in a food establishment not serving a highly
susceptible population until the conditions for reinstatement as specified in
subdivision 4 a or b of this section are met;P or
(2) Retain the exclusion for the food employee, who is
asymptomatic for at least 24 hours and works in a food establishment that
serves a highly susceptible population, until the conditions for reinstatement
as specified in subdivision 4 a or b of this section are met.P
c. If a food employee was diagnosed with an infection from
Shigella spp. and excluded as specified under subdivision 1 b of 12VAC5-421-90:
(1) Restrict the food employee, who is asymptomatic, for at
least 24 hours and works in a food establishment not serving a highly susceptible
population, until the conditions for reinstatement as specified in subdivision
5 a or b of this section are met;P or
(2) Retain the exclusion for the food employee, who is
asymptomatic for at least 24 hours and works in a food establishment that serves
a highly susceptible population, until the conditions for reinstatement as
specified in subdivision 5 a or b, or 5 a and 1 c (1) of this section are met.P
d. If a food employee was diagnosed with an infection from Enterohemorrhagic
or Shiga-toxin producing Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli and
excluded as specified under subdivision 1 b of 12VAC5-421-90:
(1) Restrict the food employee, who is asymptomatic for at
least 24 hours and works in a food establishment not serving a highly
susceptible population, until the conditions for reinstatement as specified in
subdivision 6 a or b of this section are met;P or
(2) Retain the exclusion for the food employee, who is
asymptomatic for at least 24 hours and works in a food establishment that
serves a highly susceptible population, until the conditions for reinstatement
as specified in subdivision 6 a or b are met.P
e. If a food employee was diagnosed with an infection from
Salmonella (nontyphoidal) and excluded as specified under subdivision 1
b of 12VAC5-421-90:
(1) Restrict the food employee who is asymptomatic for at
least 30 days until conditions for reinstatement as specified under subdivision
7 a or 7 b of this section are met;P or
(2) Retain the exclusion for the food employee who is
symptomatic, until conditions for reinstatement as specified under subdivision
7 a or 7 b of this section are met.
2. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded as specified
under subdivision 2 of 12VAC5-421-90 if the person in charge obtains approval
from the regulatory authority and one of the following conditions is met:
a. The food employee has been jaundiced for more than seven
calendar days;P
b. The anicteric food employee has been symptomatic with
symptoms other than jaundice for more than 14 calendar days;P
or
c. The food employee provides to the person in charge written
medical documentation from a health practitioner stating that the food employee
is free of a Hepatitis A virus infection.P
3. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded as specified
under subdivision 3 of 12VAC5-421-90 if:
a. The person in charge obtains approval from the regulatory
authority;P and
b. The food employee provides to the person in charge written
medical documentation from a health practitioner that states the employee is
free from S. Typhi infection [ Typhoid typhoid ]
fever.P
4. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded as specified
under subdivision 1 b or 4 a of 12VAC5-421-90, who was restricted under
subdivision 4 b of 12VAC5-421-90 if the person in charge obtains approval from
the regulatory authority and one of the following conditions is met:
a. The excluded or restricted food employee provides to the
person in charge written medical documentation from a health practitioner
stating that the food employee is free of a Norovirus infection;P
b. The food employee was excluded or restricted after symptoms
of vomiting or diarrhea resolved, and more than 48 hours have passed since the
food employee became symptomatic;P or
c. The food employee was excluded or restricted and did not
develop symptoms and more than 48 hours have passed since the food employee was
diagnosed.P
5. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded as specified
under subdivision 1 b or 5 a of 12VAC5-421-90 or who was restricted under
subdivision 5 b of 12VAC5-421-90 if the person in charge obtains approval from
the regulatory authority and one of the following conditions is met:
a. The excluded or restricted food employee provides to the
person in charge written medical documentation from a health practitioner
stating that the food employee is free of a Shigella spp. infection based on
test results showing two consecutive negative stool specimen cultures that are
taken:
(1) Not earlier than 48 hours after discontinuance of
antibiotics,P and
(2) At least 24 hours apart;P
b. The food employee was excluded or restricted after symptoms
of vomiting or diarrhea resolved, and more than seven calendar days have passed
since the food employee became asymptomatic;P or
c. The food employee was excluded or restricted and did not
develop symptoms and more than seven calendar days have passed since the food
employee was diagnosed.P
6. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded or restricted as
specified under subdivision 1 b or 6 a of 12VAC5-421-90 or who was restricted
under subdivision 6 b of 12VAC5-421-90 if the person in charge obtains approval
from the regulatory authority and one of the following conditions is met:
a. The excluded or restricted food employee provides to the
person in charge written medical documentation from a health practitioner
stating that the food employee is free of an infection from Enterohemorrhagic
or Shiga-toxin producing Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli
based on test results that show two consecutive negative stool specimen
cultures that are taken:
(1) Not earlier than 48 hours after the discontinuance of
antibiotics;P and
(2) At least 24 hours apart;P
b. The food employee was excluded or restricted after symptoms
of vomiting or diarrhea resolved and more than seven calendar days have passed
since the employee became asymptomatic;P or
c. The food employee was excluded or restricted and did not
develop symptoms and more than seven days have passed since the employee was
diagnosed.P
7. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded as specified
under subsection 1 a of 12VAC5-421-90 or who was restricted as specified under
subsection 7 of 12VAC5-421-90 if the person in charge obtains approval from the
regulatory authorityP and one of the following conditions is met:
a. The excluded or restricted food employee provides to the
person in charge written medical documentation from a health practitioner
stating that the food employee is free of a [ nontyphoida ]
Salmonella [ (nontyphoidal) ] infection based on
test results showing two consecutive negative stool specimen cultures that are
taken;
(1) Not earlier than 48 hours after discontinuance of
antibiotics;P and
(2) At least 24 hours apart;P
b. The food employee was restricted after symptoms of
vomiting or diarrhea resolved, and more than 30 days have passed since the food
employee became asymptomatic;P or
c. The food employee was excluded or restricted and did not
develop symptoms and more than 30 days have passed since the food employee was
diagnosed.P
7. 8. Reinstate a food employee who was excluded
or restricted as specified under subdivision 7 8 a or b of
12VAC5-421-90 if the food employee provides to the person in charge written
medical documentation from a health practitioner stating that the food employee
meets one of the following conditions:
a. Has received antibiotic therapy for Streptococcus pyogenes
infection for more than 24 hours;P
b. Has at least one negative throat specimen culture for
Streptococcus pyogenes infection;P or
c. Is otherwise determined by a health practitioner to be free
of Streptococcus pyogenes infection.P
8. 9. Reinstate a food employee who was
restricted as specified under subdivision 8 9 of 12VAC5-421-90 if
the skin, infected wound, cut, or pustular boil is properly covered with one of
the following:
a. An impermeable cover such as a finger cot or stall and a
single-use glove over the impermeable cover if the infected wound or pustular
boil is on the hand, finger, or wrist;P
b. An impermeable cover on the arm if the infected wound or
pustular boil is on the arm;P or
c. A dry, durable, tight-fitting bandage if the infected wound
or pustular boil is on another part of the body.P
9. 10. Reinstate a food employee who was
restricted as specified under subdivision 9 10 of 12VAC5-421-90
and was exposed to one of the following pathogens as specified under
12VAC5-421-80 A 4 or 5:
a. Norovirus and one of the following conditions is met:
(1) More than 48 hours have passed since the last day the food
employee was potentially exposed;P or
(2) More than 48 hours have passed since the food employee's
household contact became asymptomatic.P
b. Shigella spp. or [ Enterohemorrhagic or ] Shiga-toxin
producing Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli and one of the
following conditions is met:
(1) More than three calendar days have passed since the last
day the food employee was potentially exposed;P or
(2) More than three calendar days have passed since the food
employee's household contact became asymptomatic.P
c. S. Typhi Typhoid fever (caused by Salmonella
[ Typhi) typhi) ] and one of the following
conditions is met:
(1) More than 14 calendar days have passed since the last day
the food employee was potentially exposed;P or
(2) More than 14 calendar days have passed since the food
employee's household contact became asymptomatic.P
d. Hepatitis A virus and one of the following conditions is
met:
(1) The food employee is immune to Hepatitis A virus infection
because of prior illness from Hepatitis A;P
(2) The food employee is immune to Hepatitis A virus infection
because of vaccination against Hepatitis A;P
(3) The food employee is immune to Hepatitis A virus infection
because of IgG administration;P
(4) More than 30 calendar days have passed since the last the
food employee was potentially exposed;P
(5) More than 30 calendar days have passed since the food
employee's household contact became jaundiced;P or
(6) The food employee does not use an alternative procedure
that allows bare hand contact with ready-to-eat food until at least 30 days
after the potential exposure, as specified in subdivisions 9 10 d
(4) and (5) of this section, and the food employee receives additional training
about:
(a) Hepatitis A symptoms and preventing the transmission of
infection;P
(b) Proper handwashing procedures;P and
(c) Protecting ready-to-eat food from contamination introduced
by bare hand contact.P
Article 3
Personal Cleanliness
12VAC5-421-130. Clean condition of hands and arms.
Food employees shall keep their hands and exposed portions of
their arms clean.P
12VAC5-421-140. Cleaning procedure of hands and arms.
A. Except as specified in subsection D of this section, food
employees shall clean their hands and exposed portions of their arms (or
surrogate prosthetic devices for hands or arms) for at least 20 seconds or
surrogate prosthetic devices for hands or arms for at least 20 seconds,
using a cleaning compound in a lavatory that is equipped as specified under
12VAC5-421-2190 A.P
B. Food employees shall use the following cleaning procedure
in the order stated to clean their hands and exposed portions of their arms, including
surrogate prosthetic devices for hands and arms:
1. Rinse under clean, running warm water;P
2. Apply an amount of cleaning compound recommended by the
cleaning compound manufacturer;P
3. Rub together vigorously for at least 10 to 15 seconds while:
a. Paying particular attention to removing soil from
underneath the fingernails during the cleaning procedure;P
and
b. Creating friction on the surfaces of the hands and arms or
surrogate prosthetic devices for hands and arms, finger tips, and areas between
the fingers;P
4. Thoroughly rinsing under clean, running warm water;P
and
5. Immediately follow the cleaning procedure with thorough
drying using a method as specified under 12VAC5-421-3030.P
C. To avoid recontaminating their hands or surrogate prosthetic
devices, food employees may use disposable paper towels or similar clean
barriers when touching surfaces such as manually operated faucet handles on a
handwashing sink or the handle of a restroom door.
D. If approved and capable of removing the types of soils
encountered in the food operations involved, an automatic handwashing facility
may be used by food employees to clean their hands or surrogate prosthetic
devices.
12VAC5-421-160. When to wash.
Food employees shall clean their hands and exposed portions
of their arms as specified under 12VAC5-421-140 immediately before engaging in
food preparation including working with exposed food, clean equipment and
utensils, and unwrapped single-service and single-use articlesP
and:
1. After touching bare human body parts or hair other than
clean hands and clean, exposed portions of arms;P
2. After using the toilet room;P
3. After caring for or handling support service
animals or aquatic animals as allowed under 12VAC5-421-250 B;P
4. Except as specified in 12VAC5-421-220 B, after coughing,
sneezing, using a handkerchief or disposable tissue, using tobacco, eating, or
drinking;P
5. After handling soiled equipment or utensils;P
6. During food preparation, as often as necessary to remove
soil and contamination and to prevent cross contamination when changing tasks;P
7. When switching between working with raw foods and working
with ready-to-eat foods;P
8. Before donning gloves [ for to initiate a
task that involves ] working with foods;P and
9. After engaging in other activities that contaminate the
hands.P
12VAC5-421-170. Where to wash.
Food employees shall clean their hands in a handwashing lavatory
sink or approved automatic handwashing facility and shall not clean
their hands (i) in a sink used for food preparation or utensil washing or
(ii) in a service sink or a curbed cleaning facility used for the disposal of
mop water and similar liquid waste.Pf
12VAC5-421-180. Hand antiseptics.
A. A hand antiseptic used as a topical application, a hand
antiseptic solution used as a hand dip, or a hand antiseptic soap shall:
1. Comply with one of the following:
a. Be an approved drug that is listed in the FDA publication "Approved
Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations," 34th Edition,
2014, (U.S. Food and Drug Administration) as an approved drug based on
safety and effectiveness;Pf or
b. Have active antimicrobial ingredients that are listed in
the FDA monograph for OTC (over the counter) Health-Care Antiseptic Drug
Products as an antiseptic handwash;Pf and
2. [ Comply Consist only of components which
the intended use of each complies ] with one of the following:
a. [ Have components that are exempted from the
requirement of being listed in the federal Food Additive regulations as
specified in 21 CFR 170.39 ] - Threshold of regulation for
substances used in food-contact articles [ A threshold of
regulation exemption under 21 CFR 170.39 ];Pf
[ or ]
b. [ Comply with and be listed in (i) ] 21
CFR Part 178 - Indirect Food Additives: Adjuvants, Production Aids,
and Sanitizers, as regulated for use as a food additive with
conditions of safe use;Pf [ or ]
[ (ii) c. A determination of generally
recognized as safe (GRAS). Partial listings of substances with food uses that
are GRAS may be found in ] 21 CFR Part 182 - Substances
Generally Recognized as Safe, 21 CFR 184 - Direct Food Substances
Affirmed as Generally Recognized as Safe, or 21 CFR Part 186 -
Indirect Food Substances Affirmed as Generally Recognized as Safe for use
in contact with food [ and in FDA's Inventory of GRAS Notices;Pf
[ and
d. A prior sanction listed under 21 CFR 181;Pf or
e. A Food Contact Notification that is effective;Pf and ]
3. Be applied only to hands that are cleaned as specified
under 12VAC5-421-140.Pf
B. If a hand antiseptic or a hand antiseptic solution used as
a hand dip does not meet the criteria specified in subdivision A 2 of this
section, use shall be:
1. Followed by thorough hand rinsing in clean water before
hand contact with food or by the use of gloves;Pf or
2. Limited to situations that involve no direct contact with
food by the bare hands.Pf
C. A hand antiseptic solution used as a hand dip shall be
maintained clean and at a strength equivalent to 100 ppm (mg/l) chlorine or
above.Pf
12VAC5-421-190. Maintenance of fingernails.
Food employees shall keep their fingernails trimmed, filed,
and maintained so the edges and surfaces are cleanable and not rough.Pf
Unless wearing intact gloves in good repair, a food employee shall not wear
fingernail polish or artificial nails when working with exposed food.Pf
12VAC5-421-200. Prohibition of jewelry.
While preparing food, food employees shall not wear
jewelry on their arms and hands. This section does not apply to a plain ring
such as a wedding band. Except for a plain ring such as a wedding band,
while preparing food, food employees shall not wear jewelry, including medical
information jewelry on their arms and hands.
12VAC5-421-210. Clean condition of outer clothing.
Food employees shall wear clean outer clothing to prevent
contamination of food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service
and single-use articles.
[ Article 4
Hygienic Practices
12VAC5-421-220. Eating, drinking, or using tobacco.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, an
employee shall eat, drink, or use any form of tobacco only in designated areas
where the contamination of exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens;
unwrapped single-service and single-use articles; or other items needing
protection cannot result.
B. A food employee may drink from a closed beverage container
with a straw if the container is handled to prevent contamination of:
1. The employee's hands;
2. The container; and
3. Exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; and
unwrapped single-service and single-use articles. ]
12VAC5-421-250. Handling of animals prohibited.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, food
employees shall not care for or handle animals that may be present such as
patrol dogs, support service animals, or pets that are allowed
under 12VAC5-421-3310 B 2 through, 3, and 4.Pf
B. Food employees with support service animals
may handle or care for their support service animals and food
employees may handle or care for fish in aquariums or molluscan shellfish or
crustacea in display tanks if they wash their hands as specified under
12VAC5-421-140 and subdivision 3 of 12VAC5-421-160.
12VAC5-421-255. Clean-up of vomiting and diarrheal events.
A food establishment shall have procedures for employees
to follow when responding to vomiting or diarrheal events that involve the
discharge of vomitus or fecal matter onto surfaces in the food establishment.
The procedures shall address the specific actions employees must take to
minimize the spread of contamination and the exposure of employees, consumers,
food, and surfaces to vomitus or fecal matter.Pf
Part III
Food
Article 1
Characteristics
12VAC5-421-260. Safe and unadulterated.
Food shall be safe and unadulterated.Pf
Article 2
Sources, Specifications, and Original Containers and Records
12VAC5-421-270. Compliance with food law.
A. Food shall be obtained from sources that comply with law.P
B. Food prepared in a private home shall not be used or
offered for human consumption in a food establishment unless the home kitchen
is inspected and [ approved regulated ] by the Virginia
Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services.P
C. Packaged food shall be labeled as specified in law,
including 21 CFR Part 101, Food Labeling;, 9 CFR Part 317,
Labeling, Marking Devices, and Containers;, and Subpart N of
9 CFR Part 381, Subpart N-Labeling and Containers;, and as
specified under 12VAC5-421-400 and 12VAC5-421-410.Pf
D. Fish, other than molluscan shellfish, that are intended
for consumption in their raw form and allowed as specified under 12VAC5-421-700
D 1 may be offered for sale or service if they are obtained from a supplier
that freezes the fish as specified under 12VAC5-421-730, or frozen on the
premises as specified under 12VAC5-421-730, and records are retained as
specified under 12VAC5-421-740.
D. Fish, other than those specified in 12VAC5-421-730 B,
that are intended for consumption in raw or undercooked form and allowed as
specified in 12VAC5-421-700 D, may be offered for sale or service if they are
obtained from a supplier that freezes fish as specified under 12VAC5-421-730 A;
or if they are frozen on premises as specified under 12VAC5-421-730 A and
records are retained as specified under 12VAC5-421-740.
E. Whole-muscle, intact beef steaks that are intended for
consumption in an undercooked form without a consumer advisory as specified in
12VAC5-421-700 C shall be:
1. Obtained from a food processing plant that, upon request by
the purchaser, packages the steaks and labels them to indicate that they meet
the definition of whole-muscle, intact beef;Pf or
2. Deemed acceptable by the regulatory authority based on
other evidence, such as written buyer specifications or invoices, that
indicates that the steaks meet the definition of whole-muscle, intact beef;Pf
and
3. If individually cut in a food establishment:
a. Cut from whole-muscle intact beef that is labeled by a food
processing plant as specified in subdivision 1 of this subsection or identified
as specified in subdivision 2 of this subsection;Pf
b. Prepared so they remain intact;Pf and
c. If packaged for undercooking in a food establishment,
labeled to indicate that they meet the definition of whole-muscle, intact
beef. as specified in subdivision 1 of this subsection or identified as
specified in subdivision 2 of this subsection.Pf
F. Meat and poultry that are not a ready-to-eat food and are
in a packaged form when offered for sale or otherwise offered for consumption
shall be labeled to include safe handling instructions as specified in law,
including 9 CFR 317.2(l) and 9 CFR 381.125(b).
G. Shell eggs that have not been specifically treated to
destroy all viable Salmonellae shall be labeled to include safe handling
instructions as specified in law, including 21 CFR 101.17(h).
12VAC5-421-280. Food in a hermetically sealed container.
Food in a hermetically sealed container shall be obtained
from a food processing plant that is regulated by the food regulatory agency
that has jurisdiction over the plant.P
12VAC5-421-290. Fluid milk and milk products.
Fluid milk and milk products shall be obtained from sources
that comply with Grade A standards as specified in law.P
12VAC5-421-295. Juice treated.
Prepackaged juice shall:
1. Be obtained from a processor with a HACCP system as
specified in 21 CFR Part 120;Pf
2. Be obtained pasteurized or otherwise treated to attain a
five-log reduction of the most resistant microorganism of public health
significance as specified in 21 CFR 120.24; or.P
3. Bear a warning label as specified in 12VAC5-421-765 and
21 CFR 101.17(g).
12VAC5-421-300. Fish.
A. Fish that are received for sale or service shall be:
1. Commercially and legally caught or harvested;P
or
2. Approved for sale or service by a regulatory authority
agency of competent jurisdiction.P
B. Molluscan shellfish that are recreationally caught shall
not be received for sale or service.P
12VAC5-421-310. Molluscan shellfish.
A. Molluscan shellfish shall be obtained from sources
according to law and the requirements specified in the U.S. Department of
Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, Food and Drug Administration,
National Shellfish Sanitation Program Manual of Operations, Part II,
Sanitation of the Harvesting, Processing and Distribution of Shellfish, 1995
Revision (NSSP) Guide for the Control of Molluscan Shellfish, 2013
Revision, (U.S. Food and Drug Administration).P
B. Molluscan shellfish received in interstate commerce
shall be from sources that are listed in the "Interstate Certified
Shellfish Shippers List," updated monthly (U.S. Food and Drug
Administration).P
12VAC5-421-320. Wild mushrooms.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section,
mushroom species picked in the wild shall be obtained from sources where
each mushroom is individually inspected and found to be safe by an approved
mushroom identification expert not be offered for sale or service by a
food establishment unless the food establishment has been approved to do so.P
B. This section does not apply to:
1. Cultivated wild mushroom species that are grown, harvested,
and processed in an operation that is regulated by the food regulatory agency
that has jurisdiction over the operation; or
2. Wild mushroom species if they are in packaged form and are
the product of a food processing plant that is regulated by the food regulatory
agency that has jurisdiction over the plant.
12VAC5-421-330. Game animals.
A. If game animals are received for sale or service they
shall be:
1. Commercially raised for food and: a. Raised raised,
slaughtered, and processed under a voluntary inspection program that is conducted
by the state agency that has animal health jurisdiction; or
b. Under a routine inspection program conducted by a
regulatory agency other than the agency that has animal health jurisdiction;
and
c. Raised, slaughtered, and processed according to:
(1) Laws governing meat and poultry as determined by the
agency; and
(2) Requirements that are developed by the agency that has
animal health jurisdiction and the agency that conducts the inspection program
with consideration of factors such as the need for antemortem and postmortem
examination by an approved veterinarian or veterinarian's designee;
2. Under under a voluntary inspection program
administered by the USDA for game animals such as exotic animals including
animals (reindeer, elk, deer, antelope, water buffalo, or bison) that are
"inspected and approved" in accordance with 9 CFR Part 352, Exotic
Animals; Voluntary Inspection, or rabbits that are "inspected and
certified" in accordance with 9 CFR Part 354, Voluntary Inspection of
Rabbits and Edible Products Thereof;
3. 2. As allowed by law, wild game animals that
are live-caught [ are ]:
a. Under a routine inspection program conducted by a
regulatory agency such as the agency that has animal health jurisdiction;P
b. Slaughtered and processed according to:
(1) Laws governing meat and poultry as determined by the
agency that has animal health jurisdiction and the agency that conducts the
inspection program;P and
(2) Requirements that are developed by the agency that has
animal health jurisdiction and the agency that conducts the inspection program
with consideration of factors such as the need for antemortem and postmortem
examination by an approved veterinarian or veterinarian's designee;P
or
4. 3. As allowed by law for field-dressed wild
game animals under a routine inspection program that ensures the animals:
a. Receive a postmortem examination by an approved
veterinarian or veterinarian's designee, or are
b. Are field-dressed and transported according to
requirements specified by the agency that has animal health jurisdiction and
the agency that conducts the inspection programP and
b. c. Are processed according to laws governing
meat and poultry as determined by the agency that has animal health
jurisdiction and the agency that conducts the inspection program.P
B. A game animal shall not be received for sale or service if
it is a species of wildlife that is listed in 50 CFR Part 17, Endangered and
Threatened Wildlife and Plants.
12VAC5-421-340. Temperature.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section,
refrigerated, potentially hazardous food time/temperature control for
safety food shall be at a temperature of 41°F (5°C) or below when received.P
B. If a temperature other than 41°F (5°C) for a potentially
hazardous food time/temperature control for safety food is specified
in law governing its distribution, such as laws governing milk, and
molluscan shellfish, and shell eggs, the food may be received at the
specified temperature.
C. Raw shell eggs shall be received in refrigerated equipment
that maintains an ambient air temperature of 45°F (7°C) or less.P
D. Potentially hazardous food [ time/temperature
Time/temperature ] control for safety food that is cooked to a
temperature and for a time specified under 12VAC5-421-700 through, 12VAC5-421-710,
and 12VAC5-421-720 and received hot shall be at a temperature of 135°
(57°C) or above.P
E. A food that is labeled frozen and shipped frozen by a food
processing plant shall be received frozen.Pf
F. Upon receipt, potentially hazardous food time/temperature
control for safety food shall be free of evidence of previous temperature
abuse.Pf
12VAC5-421-350. Additives.
Food shall not contain unapproved food additives or additives
that exceed amounts allowed in 21 CFR Parts 170-180 relating to food
additives; generally recognized as safe (GRAS) or prior sanctioned
substances that exceed amounts allowed in 21 CFR Parts 181-186; substances
that exceed amounts specified in 9 CFR 424.21(b), Subpart C, Approval
of Substances for Use in the Preparation of Products; or pesticide residues
that exceed provisions specified in 40 CFR Part 185 [ , ] Tolerances
for Pesticides in Food [ , ] and exceptions.P
12VAC5-421-360. Shell eggs Eggs.
Shell eggs Eggs shall be received clean and
sound and shall not exceed the restricted egg tolerances for U.S. Consumer
Grade B as specified in United States Standards, Grades, and Weight Classes for
Shell Eggs, AMS 56.200 et seq., administered by the Agricultural Marketing
Service of USDA. Eggs sold pursuant to § 3.2-5305 of the Code of Virginia
are exempt from the restricted egg tolerances for U.S. Consumer Grade B as
specified in United States Standards, Grades, and Weight Classes for Shell
Eggs, AMS 56, effective July 20, 2000, (Agricultural Marketing Service of
USDA).P
12VAC5-421-370. Eggs and milk products, pasteurized.
A. Egg products shall be obtained pasteurized.P
B. Fluid and dry milk and milk products shall:
1. Be obtained pasteurized;P and
2. Comply with Grade A standards as specified in law.
C. Frozen milk products, such as ice cream, shall be obtained
pasteurized in accordance with 21 CFR Part 135, Frozen Desserts.P
D. Cheese shall be obtained pasteurized unless alternative
procedures to pasteurization are provided for specified in the Code
of Federal Regulations CFR, such as 21 CFR Part 133,
Cheeses and Related Cheese Products, for curing certain cheese varieties.P
12VAC5-421-380. Package integrity.
Food packages shall be in good condition and protect the
integrity of the contents so that the food is not exposed to adulteration or
potential contaminants.Pf
12VAC5-421-390. Ice.
Ice for use as a food or a cooling medium shall be made from
[ drinking pure ] water.P
12VAC5-421-400. Shucked shellfish, packaging, and
identification.
A. Raw shucked shellfish shall be obtained in nonreturnable
packages that bear a legible label that identifies the:Pf
1. Name, address, and certification number of the shucker,
packer, or repacker of the molluscan shellfish;Pf and
2. The "sell by" or "best if used by" date
for packages with a capacity of less than one-half gallon (1.87 (1.89
L) or the date shucked for packages with a capacity of one-half gallon (1.87
(1.89 L) or more.Pf
B. A package of raw shucked shellfish that does not bear a
label or which that bears a label which does not contain all the
information as specified under subsection A of this section shall be subject to
a hold order, as allowed by law, or seizure and destruction in accordance with
21 CFR 1240.60(d), Subpart D, Specific Administrative Decisions Regarding
Interstate Shipments.
12VAC5-421-410. Shellstock identification.
A. Shellstock shall be obtained in containers bearing legible
source identification tags or labels that are affixed by the harvester and
each a dealer that depurates, ships, or reships the shellstock, as
specified in the National Shellfish Sanitation Program (NSSP) Guide for
the Control of Molluscan Shellfish, 2013 Revision, (U.S. Food and Drug
Administration) and that list include the following information:Pf
1. Except as specified under subsection C of this section,
on the harvester's tag or label, the following information in the following
order:
a. The harvester's identification number that is assigned
by the shellfish control authority,
b. The date of harvesting,
c. The most precise identification of the harvest location
or aquaculture site that is practicable based on the system of harvest area
designations that is in use by the shellfish control authority and including
the abbreviation of the name of the state or country in which the shellfish are
harvested,
d. The type and quantity of shellfish, and
e. The following statement in bold, capitalized type:
"This tag is required to be attached until container is empty or retagged
and thereafter kept on file for 90 days"; and
2. Except as specified under subsection D of this section,
on each dealer's tag or label, the following information in
the following order:
a. 1. The dealer's name and address, and the
certification number assigned by the shellfish control authority,.Pf
b. 2. The original shipper's certification
number including the abbreviation of the name of the state or country in
which the shellfish are harvested, assigned by the shellfish control
authority.Pf
c. The same information as specified for a harvester's tag
under subdivisions 1 b through d of this subsection, and 3. The harvest
date, or if depurated, the date of depuration processing, or if wet stored, the
original harvest date and the final harvest date.Pf
4. If wet stored or depurated, the wet storage or
depuration cycle or lot number. The wet storage lot number shall begin with the
letter "w."Pf
5. The harvest area, including the initials of the state of
harvest.Pf
6. The type and quantity of shellstock.Pf
d. 7. The following statement in bold,
capitalized type: "THIS TAG IS REQUIRED TO BE ATTACHED UNTIL CONTAINER IS
EMPTY AND THEREAFTER KEPT ON FILE FOR 90 DAYS."Pf
8. All shellstock intended for raw consumption shall
include a consumer advisory using the statement from 12VAC5-421-930 C, or an equivalent
statement.
B. A container of shellstock that does not bear a tag or
label or that bears a tag or label that does not contain all the information as
specified under subsection A of this section shall be subject to a hold order,
as allowed by law, or seizure and destruction in accordance with 21 CFR
1240.60(d), Subpart D, Specific Administrative Decisions Regarding
Interstate Shipments.
C. If a place is provided on the harvester's tag or label
for a dealer's name, address, and certification number, the dealer's
information shall be listed first.
D. If the harvester's tag or label is designed to
accommodate each dealer's identification as specified under subdivisions A 2 a
and b of this section, individual dealer tags or labels need not be provided.
12VAC5-421-430. Molluscan shellfish; original container.
A. Except as specified in subsections B and, C,
and D of this section, molluscan shellfish shall not be removed from the
container in which they were received other than immediately before sale or
preparation for service.
B. For display purposes, shellstock may be removed from the
container in which they are received, displayed on drained ice, or held in a
display container, and a quantity specified by a consumer may be removed from
the display or display container and provided to the consumer if:
1. The source of the shellstock on display is identified as
specified under 12VAC5-421-410 and recorded as specified under 12VAC5-421-440;
and
2. The shellstock are protected from contamination.
C. Shucked shellfish may be removed from the container in which
they were received and held in a display container from which individual
servings are dispensed upon a consumer's request if:
1. The labeling information for the shellfish on display as
specified under 12VAC5-421-400 is retained and correlated to the date when, or
dates during which, the shellfish are sold or served; and
2. The shellfish are protected from contamination.
D. Shucked shellfish may be removed from the container in
which they were received and repacked in consumer self-service containers where
allowed by law if:
1. The labeling information for the shellfish is on each
consumer self-service container as specified under 12VAC5-421-400 and
12VAC5-421-900 A and B 1 through 5;
2. The labeling information as specified under 12VAC5-421-400
is retained and correlated with the date when, or dates during which, the
shellfish are sold or served;
3. The labeling information and dates specified under
subdivision D 2 of this section are maintained for 90 days; and
4. The shellfish are protected from contamination.
12VAC5-421-440. Shellstock; maintaining identification.
A. Except as specified under subdivision C 2 of this section,
shellstock tags or labels shall remain attached to the container in which the
shellstock are received until the container is empty.Pf
B. The date when the last shellstock from the container is
sold or served shall be recorded on the tag or label.Pf
C. The identity of the source of shellfish shellstock
that are sold or served shall be maintained by retaining shellstock tags or
labels for 90 calendar days from the date that is recorded on the tag or label
as specified in subsection B of this section, by:Pf
1. Using an approved recordkeeping system that keeps the tags
or labels in chronological order correlated to the date that is recorded on the
tag or label, as specified under subsection B of this section;Pf
and
2. If shellstock are removed from its tagged or labeled
container:
a. Preserving source identification by using a recordkeeping
system as specified under subdivision C 1 of this section,Pf
and
b. Ensuring that shellstock from one tagged or labeled
container are not commingled with shellstock from another container with different
certification numbers, different harvest dates, or different growing areas as
identified on the tag or label before being ordered by the consumer.Pf
Article 3
Protection from Contamination after Receiving
12VAC5-421-450. Preventing contamination.
A. Food employees shall wash their hands as specified under
12VAC5-421-140.
B. Except when washing fruits and vegetables as specified
under 12VAC5-421-510 or as specified in subsection subsections D and
E of this section, food employees shall not contact exposed, ready-to-eat
food with their bare hands and shall use suitable utensils such as deli tissue,
spatulas, tongs, single-use gloves, or dispensing equipment.P
C. Food employees shall minimize bare hand and arm contact
with exposed food that is not in a ready-to-eat form.Pf
D. Subsection B of this section does not apply to a food
employee who contacts exposed, ready-to-eat food with bare hands at the time
the ready-to-eat food is being added as an ingredient to food that:
1. Contains a raw animal food and is to be cooked in the
food establishment to heat all parts of the food to the minimum temperatures
specified in [ subsection A or B of ] 12VAC5-421-700 or
[ in ] 12VAC5-421-710; or
2. Does not contain a raw animal food but is to be cooked
in the food establishment to heat all parts of the food to a temperature of at
least 145°F (63°C).
D. E. Food employees not serving a highly
susceptible population may contact exposed, ready-to-eat food with their bare
hands if:
1. The permit holder obtains prior approval from the
regulatory authority;
2. Written procedures are maintained in the food establishment
and made available to the regulatory authority upon request that include:
a. For each bare hand contact procedure, a listing of the
specific ready-to-eat foods that are touched by bare hands.;
b. Diagrams and other information showing that handwashing
facilities, installed, located, equipped, and maintained as specified under
12VAC5-421-2230, 12VAC5-421-2280, 12VAC5-421-2310, 12VAC5-421-3020,
12VAC5-421-3030, and 12VAC5-421-3045 are in an easily accessible location and
in close proximity to the work station where the bare hand contact procedure is
conducted;
3. A written employee health policy that details how the food
establishment complies with 12VAC5-421-80, 12VAC5-421-90, and 12VAC5-421-100
including:
a. Documentation that the food employees and conditional employees
acknowledge that they are informed to report information about their health and
activities as they relate to gastrointestinal symptoms and diseases that are
transmittable through food as specified under 12VAC5-421-80 A.;
b. Documentation that food employees and conditional employees
acknowledge their responsibilities as specified under 12VAC5-421-80 E and F,;
and
c. Documentation that the person in charge acknowledges the
responsibilities as specified under 12VAC5-421-80 B, C, and D, and 12VAC5-421-90
and 12VAC5-421-100;
4. Documentation that the food employees acknowledge that they
have received training in:
a. The risks of contacting the specific ready-to-eat foods
with their bare hands,;
b. Proper handwashing as specified under 12VAC5-421-140,;
c. When to wash their hands as specified under 12VAC5-421-160,;
d. Where to wash their hands as specified under 12VAC5-421-170,;
e. Proper fingernail maintenance as specified under
12VAC5-421-190,;
f. Prohibition of jewelry as specified under 12VAC5-421-200,;
and
g. Good hygienic practices as specified under 12VAC5-421-220
and 12VAC5-421-230;
5. Documentation that hands are washed before food preparation
and as necessary to prevent cross-contamination by food employees as specified
under 12VAC5-421-130, 12VAC5-421-140, 12VAC5-421-160, and through
12VAC5-421-170 during all hours of operation when the specific ready-to-eat
foods are prepared;
6. Documentation that food employees contacting ready-to-eat
food with bare hands use two or more of the following control measures to
provide additional safeguards to hazards associated with bare hand contact:
a. Double handwashing,;
b. Nail brushes,;
c. A hand antiseptic after handwashing as specified under
12VAC5-421-180,;
d. Incentive programs such as paid sick leave that assist or
encourage food employees not to work when they are ill,; or
e. Other control measures approved by the regulatory
authority; and
7. Documentation that corrective action is taken when subdivision
D subdivisions 1 through 6 of this section subsection
are not followed.
12VAC5-421-460. Preventing contamination when tasting.
A food employee shall not use a utensil more than once to
taste food that is to be sold or served.P
12VAC5-421-470. Packaged and unpackaged food - separation,
packaging, and segregation.
A. Food shall be protected from cross contamination by:
1. Separating Except as specified in subdivision 1 c
of this subsection, separating raw animal foods during storage,
preparation, holding, and display from:
a. Raw ready-to-eat food including other raw animal food such
as fish for sushi or molluscan shellfish, or other raw ready-to-eat food such
as [ fruits and ] vegetables,P and
b. Cooked ready-to-eat food;.P
c. Frozen, commercially processed, and packaged raw animal
food may be stored or displayed with or above frozen, commercially processed
and packaged, ready-to-eat food.
2. Except when combined as ingredients, separating types of
raw animal foods from each other such as beef, fish, lamb, pork, and poultry
during storage, preparation, holding, and display by:
a. Using separate equipment for each type,P
or arranging
b. Arranging each type of food in equipment so that
cross contamination of one type with another is prevented,P
and
b. c. Preparing each type of food at different
times or in separate areas;P
3. Cleaning equipment and utensils as specified under
12VAC5-421-1780 A and sanitizing as specified under 12VAC5-421-1900;
4. Except as specified in subsection B of this section and
12VAC5-421-810 B 2, storing the food in packages, covered containers, or
wrappings;
5. Cleaning hermetically sealed containers of food of visible
soil before opening;
6. Protecting food containers that are received packaged
together in a case or overwrap from cuts when the case or overwrap is opened;
7. Storing damaged, spoiled, or recalled food being held in
the food establishment as specified under 12VAC5-421-3150; and
8. Separating fruits and vegetables, before they are washed as
specified under 12VAC5-421-510 from ready-to-eat food.
B. Subdivision A 4 of this section does not apply to:
1. Whole, uncut, raw fruits and vegetables and nuts in the
shell, that require peeling or hulling before consumption;
2. Primal cuts, quarters, or sides of raw meat or slab bacon
that are hung on clean, sanitized hooks or placed on clean, sanitized racks;
3. Whole, uncut, processed meats such as country hams, and
smoked or cured sausages that are placed on clean, sanitized racks;
4. Food being cooled as specified under 12VAC5-421-810 B 2; or
5. Shellstock.
12VAC5-421-480. Food storage containers; identified with common
name of food.
Working containers holding food or food ingredients that
are removed from their original packages for use in the food establishment, such
as cooking oils, flour, herbs, potato flakes, salt, spices, and sugar, shall be
identified with the common name of the food (in English and the common language
of the food workers) except that containers holding food that can be readily
and unmistakably recognized such as dry pasta need not be identified. Except
for containers holding food that can be readily and unmistakably recognized
such as dry pasta, working containers holding food or food ingredients that are
removed from their original packages for use in the food establishment, such as
cooking oils, flour, herbs, potato flakes, salt, spices, and sugar shall be
identified with the common name of the food.
12VAC5-421-490. Pasteurized eggs; substitute for shell raw
eggs for certain recipes and populations.
Pasteurized eggs or egg products shall be substituted for raw
shell eggs in the preparation of foods such as Caesar salad, hollandaise
or [ bearnaise béarnaise ] sauce, mayonnaise, meringue,
[ eggnog, ice cream, ] and egg-fortified beverages that are
not:P
1. Cooked as specified in 12VAC5-421-700 A 1 or 2;P
or
2. Included in 12VAC5-421-700 D.P
12VAC5-421-500. Protection from unapproved additives.
A. Food, as specified in 12VAC5-421-350, shall be protected
from contamination that may result from the addition of:
1. Unsafe or unapproved food or color additives;P
and
2. Unsafe or unapproved levels of approved food and color
additives.P
B. A food employee shall not:
1. Apply sulfiting agents to fresh fruits and vegetables
intended for raw consumption or to a food considered to be a good source of
vitamin B1;P or
2. Except for grapes, serve or sell food specified under
subdivision B 1 of this section that is treated with sulfiting agents before
receipt by the food establishment.P
12VAC5-421-510. Washing fruits and vegetables.
A. Raw fruits and vegetables shall be thoroughly washed in
water to remove soil and other contaminants before being cut, combined with
other ingredients, cooked, served, or offered for human consumption in ready-to-eat
form except as specified in subsection B of this section and except that whole,
raw fruits and vegetables that are intended for washing by the consumer before
consumption need not be washed before they are sold. Except as specified
in subsection B of this section and except for whole, raw fruits and vegetables
that are intended for washing by the consumer before consumption, raw fruits
and vegetables shall be thoroughly washed in water to remove soil and other
contaminants before being cut, combined with other ingredients, cooked, served,
or offered for human consumption in ready-to-eat form.
B. Fruits and vegetables may be washed by using chemicals as
specified under 12VAC5-421-3390.
C. Devices used for onsite generation of chemicals meeting
the requirements specified in 21 CFR 173.315 shall be used in accordance with
the manufacturer's instructions.Pf
12VAC5-421-520. Ice used as exterior coolant, prohibited as
ingredient.
After use as a medium for cooling the exterior surfaces of
food such as melons or fish, packaged foods such as canned beverages, or
cooling coils and tubes of equipment, ice shall not be used as food.P
12VAC5-421-540. Food contact with equipment and utensils.
Food shall only contact surfaces of:
1. Equipment and utensils that are cleaned as specified under
12VAC5-421-1770 through 12VAC5-421-1870 [ , ] and sanitized as
specified under 12VAC5-421-1880 through [ 12VAC5-421-1885, ]
12VAC5-421-1890 and 12VAC5-421-1900;P or
2. Single-service and single-use articles.;P
or
3. Linens, such as cloth napkins, as specified under
12VAC5-421-560 that are laundered as specified under 12VAC5-421-1920 C.P
12VAC5-421-550. In-use utensils, between-use storage.
During pauses in food preparation or dispensing, food
preparation and dispensing utensils shall be stored:
1. Except as specified under subdivision 2 of this section, in
the food with their handles above the top of the food and the container;
2. In food that is not potentially hazardous time/temperature
control for safety food with their handles above the top of the food within
containers or equipment that can be closed, such as bins of sugar, flour, or
cinnamon;
3. On a clean portion of the food preparation table or cooking
equipment only if the in-use utensil and the food-contact surface of the food
preparation table or cooking equipment are cleaned and sanitized at a frequency
specified under 12VAC5-421-1780 and 12VAC5-421-1890;
4. In running water of sufficient velocity to flush
particulates to the drain, if used with moist food such as ice cream or mashed
potatoes;
5. In a clean, protected location if the utensils, such as ice
scoops, are used only with a food that is not potentially hazardous time/temperature
control for safety food; or
6. In a container of water if the water is maintained at a
temperature of at least 135°F (57°C) and the container is cleaned at a
frequency specified under 12VAC5-421-1780 D 7.
[ 12VAC5-421-560. Linens and napkins, use limitation.
Linens and, such as cloth napkins, shall not be
used in contact with food unless they are used to line a container for the
service of foods and the linens and napkins are replaced each time the
container is refilled for a new customer. ]
12VAC5-421-570. Wiping cloths; used for one purpose use
limitation.
A. Cloths in-use for wiping food spills from tableware and
carry-out containers that occur as food is being served shall be:
1. Maintained dry; and
2. Used for no other purpose.
B. Cloths in-use for wiping counters and other equipment
surfaces shall be:
1. Held between uses in a chemical sanitizer solution at a
concentration specified in 12VAC5-421-3380; and
2. Laundered daily as specified under 12VAC5-421-1920 D.
C. Cloths in-use for wiping surfaces in contact with raw
animal foods shall be kept separate from other cloths used for other purposes.
D. Dry wiping cloths and the chemical sanitizing solutions
specified in subdivision B 1 of this section in which wet wiping cloths are
held between uses shall be free of food debris and visible soil.
E. Containers of chemical sanitizing solutions specified in
subdivision B 1 of this section in which wet wiping cloths are held between
uses shall be stored off the floor and used in a manner that prevents
contamination of food, equipment, utensils, linens, single-service, or single-use
articles.
F. Single-use disposable sanitizer wipes shall be used in
accordance with EPA-approved manufacturer's label use instructions.
12VAC5-421-580. Gloves; use limitation.
A. If used, single-use gloves shall be used for only one task
such as working with ready-to-eat food or with raw animal food, used for no
other purpose, and discarded when damaged or soiled, or when interruptions
occur in the operation.P
B. Except as specified in subsection C of this section,
slash-resistant gloves that are used to protect the hands during operations
requiring cutting shall be used in direct contact only with food that is
subsequently cooked as specified under 12VAC5-421-700 through 12VAC5-421-760
such as frozen food or a primal cut of meat.
C. Slash-resistant gloves may be used with ready-to-eat food
that will not be subsequently cooked if the slash-resistant gloves have a
smooth, durable, and nonabsorbent outer surface; or if the slash-resistant
gloves are covered with a smooth, durable, nonabsorbent glove, or a single-use
glove.
D. Cloth gloves shall not be used in direct contact with food
unless the food is subsequently cooked as required under 12VAC5-421-700 through
12VAC5-421-760 such as frozen food or a primal cut of meat.
12VAC5-421-600. Refilling returnables.
[ A. Except as specified in subsections B through E
of this section, empty containers returned to a food establishment for cleaning
and refilling with food shall be cleaned and refilled in a regulated food
processing plant.P
A. B. ] A take-home food container
returned to a food establishment [ shall not may ] be
refilled at a food establishment with a potentially hazardous [ time/temperature
control for safety ] food [ . if the food
container is:
1. Designed and constructed for reuse and in accordance with
the requirements specified in 12VAC5-421-960 through 12VAC5-421-1435;P
2. One that was initially provided by the food
establishment to the consumer, either empty or filled with food by the
establishment, for the purpose of being returned for reuse;
3. Returned to the food establishment by the consumer after
use;
4. Subject to the following steps before being refilled
with food;
a. Cleaned as specified in 12VAC5-421-1770 through
12VAC5-421-1860,
b. Sanitized as specified in 12VAC5-421-1885, 12VAC5-421-1890,
and 12VAC5-421-1900;P and
c. Visually inspected by a food employee to verify that the
container, as returned, meets the requirements specified in 12VAC5-421-960
through 12VAC5-421-1435;P and
C. A take-home food container returned to a food establishment
may be refilled at a food establishment with beverage if:
1. The beverage is not a time/temperature control for
safety food;
2. The design of the container, the rinsing equipment, and
the nature of the beverage, when considered together, allow effective cleaning
at home or in the food establishment;
3. Facilities before rinsing or refilling returned
containers with fresh, hot water that is under pressure and not recirculated
are provided as part of the dispensing system;
4. The consumer-owned container returned to the food
establishment for refilling is refilled for sale or service only to the same
consumer; and
5. The container is refilled by:
a. An employee of the food establishment; or
b. The owner of the container if the beverage system includes
a contamination-free transfer process as specified in subdivisions 1, 2, and 4
of 12VAC5-421-1230. ]
[ B. Except as specified in subsection C of this
section, a take-home food container refilled with food that is not ] potentially
hazardous [ time/temperature control for safety food shall
be cleaned as specified under 12VAC5-421-1870.
C. Personal D. Consumer-owned, personal ]
take-out beverage containers, such as thermally insulated bottles, nonspill
coffee cups, and promotional beverage glasses, may be refilled by
employees or the consumer if refilling is a contamination-free process as
specified under subdivisions 1, 2, and 4 of 12VAC5-421-1230.
[ E. Consumer-owned containers that are not
food-specific may be filled at a water vending machine or system. ]
12VAC5-421-630. Vended potentially hazardous time/temperature
control for safety food; original container.
Potentially hazardous Time/temperature control for
safety food dispensed through a vending machine shall be in the package in
which it was placed at the food establishment or food processing plant at which
it was prepared.
12VAC5-421-650. Food display.
Except for nuts in the shell and whole, raw fruits and
vegetables that are intended for hulling, peeling, or washing by the consumer before
consumption, food on display shall be protected from contamination by the use
of packaging; counter, service line, or salad bar food guards; display cases;
or other effective means.P
12VAC5-421-670. Consumer self-service operations.
A. Raw, unpackaged animal food, such as beef, lamb, pork,
poultry, and fish shall not be offered for consumer self-service.P
This subsection does not apply to:
1. Consumer self-service of ready-to-eat foods at buffets or
salad bars that serve foods such as sushi or raw shellfish;
2. Ready-to-cook individual portions for immediate cooking and
consumption on the premises such as consumer-cooked meats or consumer-selected
ingredients for Mongolian barbecue; or
3. Raw, frozen, shell-on shrimp or lobster.
B. Consumer self-service operations for ready-to-eat foods
shall be provided with suitable utensils or effective dispensing methods that
protect the food from contamination.Pf
C. Consumer self-service operations such as buffets and salad
bars shall be monitored by food employees trained in safe operating procedures.Pf
12VAC5-421-680. Returned food and reservice of food.
A. Except as specified under subsection B of this section,
after being served or sold and in the possession of a consumer, food that is
unused or returned by the consumer shall not be offered as food for human
consumption.P
B. Except as specified in subdivision 8 of 12VAC5-421-950, a
container of food that is not potentially hazardous (time/temperature
control for safety food) time/temperature control for safety food
may be re-served from one consumer to another if:
1. The food is dispensed so that it is protected from
contamination and the container is closed between uses such as a narrow-neck
bottle containing catsup, steak sauce, or wine; or
2. The food, such as crackers, salt, or pepper, is in
an unopened original package and maintained in sound condition.
Article 4
Destruction of Organisms of Public Health Concern
12VAC5-421-700. Raw animal foods.
A. Except as specified in subsections B, C, and D of this
section, raw animal foods such as eggs, fish, meat, poultry, and foods
containing these raw animal foods shall be cooked to heat all parts of the food
to a temperature and for a time that complies with one of the following methods
based on the food that is being cooked:
1. 145°F (63°C) or above for 15 seconds for:P
a. Raw shell eggs that are broken and prepared in
response to a consumer's order and for immediate service;P
and
b. Except as specified under subdivisions A 2 and 3 and subsection
subsections B and C of this section, fish and meat, including game
animals commercially raised for food as specified under 12VAC5-421-330 A 1
and game animals under a voluntary inspection program as specified under
12VAC5-421-330 A 2 1;P
2. 155°F (68°C) for 15 seconds or the temperature specified in
the following chart that corresponds to the holding time for ratites and injected
meats, mechanically tenderized meats, and injected meats; the
following if they are comminuted: fish, meat, game animals commercially raised
for food as specified under 12VAC5-421-330 A 1, and game animals under a
voluntary inspection program as specified under 12VAC5-421-330 A 2 1;
and raw eggs that are not prepared as specified under subdivision 1 a of this
subsection:P
Minimum
|
Temperature
°F (°C)
|
Time
|
145 (63)
|
3 minutes
|
150 (66)
|
1 minute
|
158 (70)
|
<1 second (instantaneous)
|
3. 165°F (74°C) or above for 15 seconds for poultry, [ baluts, ]
wild game animals as specified under 12VAC5-421-330 A 3 2,
stuffed fish, stuffed meat, stuffed pasta, stuffed poultry, stuffed ratites, or
stuffing containing fish, meat, or poultry, or ratites.P
B. Whole meat roasts including beef, corned beef, lamb, pork,
and cured pork roasts such as ham shall be cooked:
1. In an oven that is preheated to the temperature specified
for the roast's weight in the following chart and that is held at that
temperature;Pf and
Oven Type
|
Oven Temperature Based on Roast Weight
|
|
Less than 10 lbs (4.5 kg)
|
10 lbs (4.5 kg) or more
|
Still Dry
|
350°F (177°C) or more
|
250°F (121°C) or more
|
Convection
|
325°F (163°C) or more
|
250°F (121°C) or more
|
High Humidity1
|
250°F (121°C) or less
|
250°F (121°C) or less
|
1Relative humidity greater than 90% for at least 1
one hour as measured in the cooking chamber or exit of the oven; or in
a moisture-impermeable bag that provides 100% humidity.
|
2. As specified in the following chart, to heat all parts of
the food to a temperature and for the holding time that corresponds to that
temperature.P
Temperature
°F (°C)
|
Time1 in Minutes
|
Temperature
°F (°C)
|
Time1 in Seconds
|
130 (54.4)
|
112
|
147 (63.9)
|
134
|
131 (55.0)
|
89
|
149 (65.0)
|
85
|
133 (56.1)
|
56
|
151 (66.1)
|
54
|
135 (57.2)
|
36
|
153 (67.2)
|
34
|
136 (57.8)
|
28
|
155 (68.3)
|
22
|
138 (58.9)
|
18
|
157 (69.4)
|
14
|
140 (60.0)
|
12
|
158 (70.0)
|
0
|
142 (61.1)
|
8
|
|
|
144 (62.2)
|
5
|
|
|
145 (62.8)
|
4
|
|
|
1Holding time may include postoven heat rise.
|
C. A raw or undercooked whole-muscle, intact beef steak may
be served or offered for sale in a ready-to-eat form if:
1. The food establishment serves a population that is not a
highly susceptible population;
2. The steak is labeled, as specified under 12VAC5-421-270 E,
to indicate that it meets the definition of "whole-muscle, intact
beef"; and
3. The steak is cooked on both the top and bottom to a surface
temperature of 145°F (63°C) or above and a cooked color change is achieved on
all external surfaces.
D. A raw animal food such as raw egg, raw fish, raw-marinated
fish, raw molluscan shellfish, or steak tartare, or a partially cooked food
such as lightly cooked fish, soft cooked eggs, or rare meat other than
whole-muscle, intact beef steaks as specified in subsection C of this section,
may be served or offered for sale [ upon request or consumer selection ]
in a ready-to-eat form if:
1. (i) As specified under subdivisions 3 a and b of
12VAC5-421-950 the food establishment serves a population that is not a highly
susceptible population and (ii) the;
2. The food, if served or offered for service by consumer
selection from a children's menu, does not contain comminuted meat;Pf
and
3. The consumer is informed as specified under
12VAC5-421-930 that to ensure its safety, the food should be cooked as
specified under subsections subsection A or B of this section; or
2. 4. The regulatory authority grants a variance
from subsection A or B of this section as specified in 12VAC5-421-3570 based on
a HACCP plan that:
a. Is submitted by the permit holder and approved as specified
under 12VAC5-421-3570;
b. Documents scientific data or other information that shows
that a lesser time and temperature regimen results in a safe food; and
c. Verifies that equipment and procedures for food preparation
and training of food employees at the food establishment meet the conditions
[ of the variance ].
12VAC5-421-710. Microwave cooking.
Raw animal foods cooked in a microwave oven shall be:
1. Rotated or stirred throughout or midway during cooking to
compensate for uneven distribution of heat;
2. Covered to retain surface moisture;
3. Heated to a temperature of at least 165°F (74°C) in all
parts of the food;P and
4. Allowed to stand covered for two minutes after cooking to
obtain temperature equilibrium.
12VAC5-421-720. Plant food cooking for hot holding.
Fruits and vegetables that are cooked for hot holding shall
be cooked to a temperature of 135°F (57°C).Pf
12VAC5-421-725. Noncontinuous cooking.
Raw animal foods that are cooked using a noncontinuous
cooking process shall be:
1. Subject to an initial heating process that is no longer
than 60 minutes in duration;P
2. Immediately after initial heating, cooled according to
the time and temperature requirements specified for cooked time/temperature
control for safety food under 12VAC5-421-800 A;P
3. After cooling, held frozen or cold, as specified for
time/temperature control for safety food under 12VAC5-421-820 A 2;P
4. Prior to sale or service, cooked using a process that
heats all parts of the food to a temperature [ and for a time ]
as designated in 12VAC5-421-700 A, B, and C;P
5. Cooled according to the time and temperature parameters
specified for cooked time/temperature control for safety food under
12VAC5-421-800 A if not [ either ] hot held as
specified under 12VAC5-421-820 A 1, served immediately, or held using time as a
public health control as specified under 12VAC5-421-850 after complete
[ cooking cooling ];P and
6. Prepared and stored according to written procedures
that:
a. Have obtained prior approval from the regulatory
authority;Pf
b. Are maintained in the food establishment and are made
available to the regulatory authority upon request;Pf
c. Describe how the requirements specified under
subdivisions 1 through 5 of this section are to be monitored and documented by
the permit holder and the corrective actions to be taken if the requirements
are not met;Pf
d. Describe how the foods, after initial heating, but prior
to complete [ cooling cooking ], are to
be marked or otherwise identified as foods that must be cooked as specified
under subdivision 4 of this section prior to being offered for sale or service;Pf
and
e. Describe how the foods, after initial heating but prior
to cooking as specified in subdivision 4 of this section, are to be separated
from ready-to-eat foods as specified under 12VAC5-421-470 A.Pf
12VAC5-421-730. Parasite destruction.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section,
before service or sale in ready-to-eat form, raw, raw-marinated, partially
cooked or marinated-partially cooked fish shall be:
1. Frozen and stored at a temperature of -4°F (-20°C) or below
for a minimum of 168 hours (seven days) in a freezer;P
2. Frozen at -31°F (-35°C) or below until solid and stored at
-31°F (-35°C) or below for a minimum of 15 hours;P or
3. Frozen at -31°F (-35°C) or below until solid and stored at
-4°F (-20°C) or below for a minimum of 24 hours.P
B. Subsection A of this section does not apply to:
1. Molluscan shellfish, including the shucked adductor
muscle of scallops;
2. Tuna of the species Thunnus alalunga, Thunnus albacares
(Yellowfin tuna), Thunnus atlanticus, Thunnus maccoyii (Bluefin tuna,
Southern), Thunnus obesus (Bigeye tuna), or Thunnus thynnus (Bluefin,
Northern); or
3. Aquacultured fish, such as salmon, that:
a. If raised in open water, are raised in net-pens; or
b. Are raised in land-based operations such as ponds or tanks;
and
c. Are fed formulated feed, such as pellets, that contains no
live parasites infective to the aquacultured fish., or
4. Fish eggs that have been removed from the skein and
rinsed.
12VAC5-421-740. Records, creation and retention.
A. Except as specified in 12VAC5-421-730 B and subsection B
of this section, if raw, marinated, raw-marinated, partially cooked, or
marinated-partially cooked fish are served or sold in ready-to-eat form, the
person in charge shall record the freezing temperature and time to which the
fish are subjected and shall retain the records at the food establishment for
90 calendar days beyond the time of service or sale of the fish.Pf
B. If the fish are frozen by a supplier, a written agreement
or statement from the supplier stipulating that the fish supplied are frozen to
a temperature and for a time specified under 12VAC5-421-730 may substitute for
the records specified under subsection A of this section.
C. If raw, raw-marinated, partially cooked, or
marinated-partially cooked fish are served or sold in ready-to-eat form, and
the fish are raised and fed as specified in 12VAC5-421-730 B 3, a written
agreement or statement from the supplier or aquaculturist stipulating that the
fish were raised and fed as specified in 12VAC5-421-730 B 3 shall be obtained
by the person in charge and retained in the records of the food establishment
for 90 calendar days beyond the time of service or sale of the fish.Pf
[ 12VAC5-421-755. Preparation for immediate
service.
Cooked and refrigerated food that is prepared for
immediate service in response to an individual consumer order, such as a roast
beef sandwich au jus, may be served at any temperature. ]
12VAC5-421-760. Reheating for hot holding.
A. Except as specified under subsections B, C, and E
of this section, potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for
safety food) time/temperature control for safety food that is
cooked, cooled, and reheated for hot holding shall be reheated so that all
parts of the food reach at least 165°F (74°C) for 15 seconds.P
B. Except as specified under subsection C of this section, potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) time/temperature
control for safety food reheated in a microwave oven for hot holding shall
be reheated so that all parts of the food reach a temperature of at least 165°F
(74°C) and the food is rotated or stirred, covered, and allowed to stand
covered two minutes after reheating.P
C. Ready-to-eat [ time/temperature control for safety ]
food [ taken from a that has been ] commercially
processed [ , hermetically sealed container, or from an intact package
from and packaged in ] a food processing plant that is
inspected by the [ food ] regulatory authority that has
jurisdiction over the plant [ , ] shall be heated to a
temperature of at least 135°F (57°C) [ when being reheated ]
for hot holding.P
D. Reheating for hot holding as specified under subsections A
through, B, and C of this section shall be done rapidly and the
time the food is between 41°F (5°C) and the temperatures specified under
subsections A through, B, and C of this section may not exceed
two hours.P
E. Remaining unsliced portions of meat roasts that are cooked
as specified under 12VAC5-421-700 B may be reheated for hot holding using the
oven parameters and minimum time and temperature conditions specified under
12VAC5-421-700 B.
Article 5
Limitation of Growth of Organisms of Public Health Concern
12VAC5-421-765. Treating juice.
Juice packaged in a food establishment shall be:
1. Treated under a HACCP plan as specified in subdivisions
2 through 5 of 12VAC5-421-3630 to attain a five-log reduction, which is
equal to a 99.999% reduction, of the most resistant microorganism of public
health significance;P or
2. Labeled, if not treated to yield a five-log reduction of
the most resistant microorganism of public health significance:Pf
a. As specified under 12VAC5-421-900;Pf and
b. As specified in 21 CFR 101.17(g) with the [ phrase
following ], "WARNING: This product has not been pasteurized
and, therefore, may contain harmful bacteria that can cause serious illness in
children, the elderly, and persons with weakened immune systems."Pf
12VAC5-421-780. Potentially hazardous Time/temperature
control for safety food, slacking.
Frozen potentially hazardous food (time/temperature
control for safety food) time/temperature control for safety food
that is slacked to moderate the temperature shall be held:
1. Under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at
41°F (5°C) or less; or
2. At any temperature if the food remains frozen.
12VAC5-421-790. Thawing.
A. Except as specified in subdivision 4 of this section
subsection, potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for
safety food) time/temperature control for safety food shall be
thawed:
1. Under refrigeration that maintains the food temperature at
41°F (5°C) or less; or
2. Completely submerged under running water:
a. At a water temperature of 70°F (21°C) or below;
b. With sufficient water velocity to agitate and float off
loose particles in an overflow; and
c. For a period of time that does not allow thawed portions of
ready-to-eat food to rise above 41°F (5°C); or
d. For a period of time that does not allow thawed portions of
a raw animal food requiring cooking as specified under 12VAC5-421-700 A or B to
be above 41°F (5°C) for more than four hours including:
(1) The time the food is exposed to the running water and the
time needed for preparation for cooking; or
(2) The time it takes under refrigeration to lower the food
temperature to 41°F (5°C);
3. As part of a cooking process if the food that is frozen is:
a. Cooked as specified under 12VAC5-421-700 A or B or
12VAC5-421-710; or
b. Thawed in a microwave oven and immediately transferred to
conventional cooking equipment, with no interruption in the process; or
4. Using any procedure if a portion of frozen ready-to-eat
food is thawed and prepared for immediate service in response to an individual
consumer's order.
B. Reduced oxygen packaged fish that bears a label
indicating that it is to be kept frozen until time of use shall be removed from
the reduced oxygen environment:
1. Prior to its thawing under refrigeration as specified
[ under in ] subdivision A 1 of this section.
2. Prior to, or immediately upon completion of, its thawing
using procedures specified in subdivision A 2 of this section.
12VAC5-421-800. Cooling.
A. Cooked potentially hazardous food (time/temperature
controlled for safety food) time/temperature control for safety food
shall be cooled:
1. Within two hours, from 135°F (57°C) to 70°F (21°C);P
and
2. Within a total of six hours from 135°F (57°C) to 41°F (5°C)
or less.P
B. Potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control
for safety food) Time/temperature control for safety food shall be
cooled within four hours to 41°F (5°C) or less if prepared from ingredients at
ambient temperature, such as reconstituted foods and canned tuna.P
C. Except as specified in subsection D of this section, a potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) time/temperature
control for safety food received in compliance with laws allowing a
temperature above 41°F (5°C) during shipment from the supplier as specified in
12VAC5-421-340 B, shall be cooled within four hours to 41°F (5°C) or less.P
D. Raw shell eggs shall be received as specified under
12VAC5-421-340 C and immediately placed in refrigerated equipment that
maintains an ambient air temperature of 45°F (7°C) or less.P
12VAC5-421-810. Cooling methods.
A. Cooling shall be accomplished in accordance with the time
and temperature criteria specified under 12VAC5-421-800 by using one or more of
the following methods based on the type of food being cooled:
1. Placing the food in shallow pans;Pf
2. Separating the food into smaller or thinner portions;Pf
3. Using rapid cooling equipment;Pf
4. Stirring the food in a container placed in an ice water
bath;Pf
5. Using containers that facilitate heat transfer;Pf
6. Adding ice as an ingredient;Pf or
7. Other effective methods.Pf
B. When placed in cooling or cold holding equipment, food
containers in which food is being cooled shall be:
1. Arranged in the equipment to provide maximum heat transfer
through the container walls; and
2. Loosely covered, or uncovered if protected from overhead
contamination as specified under 12VAC5-421-610 A 2, during the cooling period
to facilitate heat transfer from the surface of the food.
12VAC5-421-820. Potentially hazardous Time/temperature
control for safety food; hot and cold holding.
A. Except during preparation, cooking, or cooling, or when
time is used as the public health control as specified under 12VAC5-421-850 [and
except as specified in subsections B and C of this section], potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) time/temperature
control for safety food shall be maintained:
1. At 135°F (57°C) or above, except that roasts cooked to a
temperature and for a time specified under 12VAC5-421-700 B or reheated as
specified in 12VAC5-421-760 E may be held at a temperature of 130°F (54°C) or
above;P or
2. At 41°F (5°C) or less.P
B. Shell eggs Eggs that have not been treated
to destroy all viable Salmonellae shall be stored in refrigerated equipment
that maintains an ambient air temperature of 45°F (7°C) or less.P
C. Potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control
for safety food) Time/temperature control for safety food in a
homogenous liquid form may be maintained outside the temperature control
requirements, as specified in subsection A of this section, while contained
within specially designed equipment that complies with the design and construction
requirements as specified under subdivision 5 of 12VAC5-421-1230.P
12VAC5-421-830. Ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous food
time/temperature control for safety food; date marking.
A. Except when packaging food using a reduced oxygen
packaging method as specified under 12VAC5-421-870, and except as specified in
subsections D and E of this section, refrigerated ready-to-eat potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) time/temperature
control for safety food prepared and held in a food establishment for more
than 24 hours shall be clearly marked to indicate the date or day by which the
food shall be consumed on the premises, sold, or discarded when held at a
temperature of 41°F (5°C) or less for a maximum of seven days. The day of
preparation shall be counted as day 1.Pf
B. Except as specified in subsections D through, E,
and F of this section, refrigerated ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous
food (time/temperature control for safety food) time/temperature control
for safety food prepared and packaged by a food processing plant shall be
clearly marked at the time the original container is opened in a food
establishment and if the food is held for more than 24 hours, to indicate the
date or day by which the food shall be consumed on the premises, sold, or
discarded, based on the temperature and time combinations specified in
subsection A of this section and:Pf
1. The day the original container is opened in the food
establishment shall be counted as day 1;Pf and
2. The day or date marked by the food establishment shall not
exceed a manufacturer's use-by "use by" date if the
manufacturer determined the use-by "use by" date based
on food safety.Pf
C. A refrigerated, ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous
food (time/temperature control for safety food) time/temperature control
for safety food ingredient or a portion of a refrigerated, ready-to-eat, potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) time/temperature
control for safety food that is subsequently combined with additional
ingredients or portions of food shall retain the date marking of the
earliest-prepared or first-prepared ingredient.Pf
D. A date marking system that meets the criteria specified in
subsections A and B of this section may include:
1. Using a method approved by the regulatory authority for
refrigerated, ready-to-eat potentially hazardous food (time/temperature
control for safety food) time/temperature control for safety food
that is frequently rewrapped, such as lunchmeat or a roast, or for which date
marking is impractical, such as soft-serve mix or milk in a dispensing machine;
2. Marking the date or day of preparation, with a procedure to
discard the food on or before the last date or day by which the food must be
consumed on the premises, sold, or discarded as specified in subsection A of
this section;
3. Marking the date or day the original container is opened in
a food establishment, with a procedure to discard the food on or before the
last date of or day by which the food must be consumed on the
premises, sold, or discarded as specified under subsection B of this section;
or
4. Using calendar dates, days of the week, color-coded marks,
or other effective marking methods, provided that the marking system is
disclosed to the regulatory authority upon request.
E. Subsections A and B of this section do not apply to
individual meal portions served or repackaged for sale from a bulk container
upon a consumer's request.
F. Subsections A and B of this section do not apply to
shellstock.
F. G. Subsection B of this section does not
apply to the following foods prepared and packaged by a food processing plant
inspected by a regulatory authority:
1. Deli salads, such as ham salad, seafood salad, chicken
salad, egg salad, pasta salad, potato salad, and macaroni salad, manufactured
in accordance with 21 CFR Part 110 Current good manufacturing practice in
manufacturing, packing or holding food;
2. Hard cheeses containing not more than 39% moisture as
defined in 21 CFR Part 133 Cheeses and related cheese products, such as
cheddar, gruyere, parmesan and reggiano, and romano;
3. Semi-soft cheese containing more than 39% moisture, but not
more than 50% moisture, as defined in 21 CFR Part 133 Cheeses and cheese
related products, such as blue, edam, gorgonzola, gouda, and monterey jack;
4. Cultured dairy products as defined in 21 CFR Part 131 Milk
and cream, such as yogurt, sour cream, and buttermilk;
5. Preserved fish products, such as pickled herring and dried
or salted cod, and other acidified fish products as defined in 21 CFR Part 114 Acidified
foods;
6. Shelf stable, dry fermented sausages, such as pepperoni and
Genoa salami that are not labeled "Keep Refrigerated" as specified
in 9 CFR Part 317 Labeling, marking devices, and containers, and that retain
the original casing on the product; and
7. Shelf stable salt-cured products such as prosciutto and
Parma (ham) that are not labeled "Keep Refrigerated" as specified
in 9 CFR Part 317 Labeling, marking devices, and containers.
12VAC5-421-840. Ready-to-eat, potentially hazardous time/temperature
control for safety food; disposition.
A. A food specified under 12VAC5-421-830 A or B shall be
discarded if it:
1. Exceeds either of the temperature and time [ combinations
combination ] specified in 12VAC5-421-830 A, except time that the
product is frozen;P
2. Is in a container or package that does not bear a date or
day;P or
3. Is [ appropriately inappropriately ]
marked with a date or day that exceeds a temperature and time combination as
specified in 12VAC5-421-830 A.P
[ B. Refrigerated, ready-to-eat,
time/temperature control for safety food prepared in a food establishment and
dispensed through a vending machine with an automatic shutoff control shall be
disgarded if it exceeds a temperature and time combination as specified in
12VAC5-421-830 A.P ]
12VAC5-421-850. Time as a public health control.
A. Except as specified under subsection D of this section, if
time without temperature control is used as the public health control for a
working supply of potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for
safety food) time/temperature control for safety food before cooking
or for ready-to-eat potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for
safety food) time/temperature control for safety food that is
displayed or held for sale or service, written procedures shall be prepared in
advance, maintained in the food establishment, and made available to the regulatory
authority upon request that specify:Pf
1. Methods of compliance with subdivisions B 1 through,
2, and 3 or C 1 through 5 of this section;Pf and
2. Methods of compliance with 12VAC5-421-800 for food that is
prepared, cooked, and refrigerated before time is used as a public health
control.Pf
B. If time without temperature control is used as the public
health control up to a maximum of four hours:
[ 1. The food shall have an initial temperature of
41°F (5°C) or less when removed from cold holding temperature control or 135°F
(57°C) or greater when removed from hot holding temperature control;P
1. 2. ] The food shall be marked or
otherwise identified to indicate the time that is four hours past the point in
time when the food is removed from temperature control;P
[ 2. 3. ] The food shall be cooked and
served, served at any temperature if ready-to-eat, or discarded, within four
hours from the point in time when the food is removed from temperature control;P
and
[ 3. 4. ] The food in unmarked
containers or packages, or marked to exceed a four-hour limit shall be
discarded.P
C. If time without temperature control is used as the public
health control up to a maximum of six hours:
1. The food shall have an initial temperature of 41ºF (5ºC) or
less when removed from temperature control and the food temperature may not
exceed 70ºF (21ºC) within a maximum time period of six hours;P
2. The food shall be monitored to ensure the warmest portion
of the food does not exceed 70ºF (21ºC) during the six-hour period, unless an
ambient air temperature is maintained that ensures the food does not exceed
70ºF (21ºC) during the six-hour holding period;P
3. The food shall be marked or otherwise identified to
indicate:Pf
a. The time when the food is removed from 41ºF (5ºC) or less cold-holding
temperature control,Pf and
b. The time that is six hours past the point in time when the
food is removed from 41ºF (5ºC) or less cold-holding temperature control;Pf
4. The food shall be:
a. Discarded if the temperature of the foods exceeds 70ºF
(21ºC);P or
b. Cooked and served, served at any temperature if
ready-to-eat, or discarded within a maximum of six hours from the point in time
when the food is removed from 41ºF (5ºC) or less cold-holding temperature
control;P and
5. The food in unmarked containers or packages, or marked with
a time that exceeds the six-hour limit shall be discarded.P
D. A food establishment that serves a highly susceptible
population may not use time as specified under subsections subsection
A, B, or C of this section as the public health control for raw eggs.
12VAC5-421-860. Variance requirement.
A food establishment shall obtain a variance from the
regulatory authority as specified in 12VAC5-421-3570 and 12VAC5-421-3580
before:Pf
1. Smoking food as a method of food preservation rather than
as a method of flavor enhancement; Pf
2. Curing food;Pf
3. Using food additives or adding components such as vinegar:Pf
a. As a method of food preservation rather than as a method of
flavor enhancement;Pf or
b. To render a food so that it is not potentially hazardous
a time/temperature control for safety food; Pf
4. Packaging time/temperature control for safety food
using a reduced oxygen packaging method except as specified under
12VAC5-421-870 where a barrier to Clostridium botulinum in addition to
refrigeration exists where the growth of and toxin formation by
Clostridium botulinum and the growth of Listeria monocytogenes are controlled
as specified under 12VAC5-421-870;Pf
5. Operating a molluscan shellfish life-support system display
tank used to store [ and or ] display shellfish that
are offered for human consumption;Pf
6. Custom processing animals that are for personal use as food
and not for sale or service in a food establishment;Pf
7. Sprouting seeds or beans;Pf or
8. Preparing food by another method that is determined by the
regulatory authority to require a variance.Pf
12VAC5-421-870. Reduced oxygen packaging; without a
variance, criteria.
A. Except for a food establishment that obtains a variance as
specified under 12VAC5-421-860 [ and except as specified under
subsections C and E of this section ], a food establishment that
packages potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety
food) time/temperature control for safety food using a reduced
oxygen packaging method shall [ ensure that there are at least two
barriers in place to ] control the growth and toxin formation of
Clostridium botulinum and the growth of Listeria monocytogenes.P
B. A Except as specified under subsection F of this
section, a food establishment that packages potentially hazardous food
(time/temperature control for safety food) time/temperature control for
safety food using a reduced oxygen method shall have a HACCP plan that
contains the following information specified under subdivisions 3 and 4 of
12VAC5-421-3630 D:Pf
1. Identifies food to be packaged;Pf
2. Except as specified in subsections C and E and as specified
in subsection D of this section, requires that the packaged food shall be
maintained at 41°F (5°C) or less and meet at least one of the following
criteria:Pf
a. Has an Aw of 0.91 or less,Pf
b. Has a pH of 4.6 or less,Pf
c. Is a meat or poultry product cured as at a
food processing plant regulated by the USDA using substances specified in 9 CFR
424.21, Use of food ingredients and sources of radiation, and is
received in an intact package,Pf or
d. Is a food with a high level of competing organisms such as
raw meat or, raw poultry;, or raw vegetables
[ .; ]Pf
3. Describes how the package shall be prominently and
conspicuously labeled on the principal display panel in bold type on a
contrasting background, with instructions to:Pf
a. Maintain food at 41°F (5°C) or below,Pf
and
b. Discard the food if within 14 30
calendar days of its packaging [ if ] it [ is ]
not served for on-premises consumption, or consumed if served or sold for
off-premises consumption;Pf
4. Limits the refrigerated shelf life to no more than 14
30 calendar days from packaging to consumption, except the time the
product is maintained frozen, or the original manufacturer's "sell
by" or "use by" date, whichever occurs first;P
5. Includes operational
procedures that:
a. Prohibit contacting [ ready-to-eat ] food
with bare hands [ as specified in 12VAC5-421-450 B ],Pf
b. Identify a designated work area and the method by which:Pf
(1) Physical barriers or methods of separation of raw foods
and ready-to-eat foods minimize cross contamination,Pf and
(2) Access to the processing equipment is limited to
responsible trained personnel familiar with the potential hazards of the
operation,Pf and
c. Delineate cleaning and sanitization procedures for food
contact surfaces; andPf
6. Describes the training program that ensures that the
individual responsible for the reduced oxygen packaging operation understands
the:Pf
a. Concepts required for safe operation,Pf
b. Equipment and facilities,Pf and
c. Procedures specified under subdivision B 5 of this section
and subdivisions 3 and 4 of 12VAC5-421-3630 D.; andPf
7. Is provided to the regulatory authority prior to
implementation as specified under 12VAC5-421-3620 [ B ].
C. Except for fish that is frozen before, during, and after
packaging, a food establishment may not package fish using a reduced oxygen
packaging method.P
D. Except as specified in subsection subsections
C and F of this section, a food establishment may package that
packages [ time/temperature control for safety ] food
using a cook-chill or sous-vide process without obtaining a variance if shall:
1. The food establishment implements Provide to the
regulatory authority prior to implementation a HACCP plan that contains the
information as specified under subdivisions 3 and 4 of 12VAC5-421-3630 D:;Pf
2. The Ensure the food is:
a. Prepared and consumed on the premises, or prepared and
consumed off the premises but within the same business entity with no
distribution or sale of the bagged product to another business entity or the
consumer,;Pf
b. Cooked to heat all parts of the food to a temperature and
for a time as specified under [ subsections A, B, and C of ]
12VAC5-421-700, [ subsections A, B, and C of this section];P
c. Protected from contamination [ before and ]
after cooking as specified in 12VAC5-421-450 through [ 12VAC5-421-690
12VAC5-421-765 ],;P
d. Placed in a package [ or bag ] with an
oxygen barrier and sealed before cooking, or placed in a package [ or
bag ] and sealed immediately after cooking, and before reaching a
temperature below 135°F (57°C),;P
e. Cooled to 41°F (5°C) in the sealed package [ or bag ]
as specified under 12VAC5-421-800, and subsequently:P
(1) Cooled to 34°F (1°C) within 48 hours of reaching 41°F
(5°C) and held at that temperature until consumed or discarded within 30 days
after the date of preparation, packaging;P
(2) Cooled to 34°F (1°C) within 48 hours of reaching 41°F
(5°C), removed from refrigeration equipment that maintains a 34°F (1°C) food
temperature and then held Held at 41°F (5°C) or less for no more
than 72 hours seven days, at which time the food must be consumed
or discarded;P or
(3) Cooled to 38°F (3°C) or less within 24 hours of
reaching 41°F (5°C) and held there for no more than 72 hours from packaging, at
which time the food must be consumed or discarded;P or
(4) (3) Held frozen with no shelf-life
restriction while frozen until consumed or used [ .; ]P
f. Held in a refrigeration unit that is equipped with an
electronic system that continuously monitors time and temperature and is
visually examined for proper operation twice daily,;Pf
g. If transported off-site off site to a
satellite location of the same business entity, equipped with verifiable
electronic monitoring devices to ensure that times and temperatures are
monitored during transportation,;Pf and
h. Labeled with the product name and the date packaged;Pf
and
3. The Maintain the records required to confirm
that cooling and cold holding refrigeration time/temperature parameters are
required as part of the HACCP plan, are maintained and are:
a. Made available to the regulatory authority upon request,Pf
and
b. Held for six months;Pf and
4. Written Implement written operational
procedures as specified under subdivision B 5 of this section and a training
program as specified under subdivision B 6 of this section [ are
implemented ].Pf
E. A Except as specified under subsection F of this
section, a food establishment may package that packages
cheese using a reduced oxygen packaging method without obtaining a variance
if it shall:
1. Limits Limit the cheeses packaged to those
that are commercially manufactured in a food processing plant with no
ingredients added in the food establishment and that meet the Standards of
Identity as specified in 21 CFR 133.150 Hard Cheeses, 21 CFR 133.169 Pasteurized
process cheese, or 21 CFR 133.187 Semi-soft cheeses;P
2. Has Have a HACCP plan that contains the
information specified in subdivisions 3 and 4 of 12VAC5-421-3630 D
and as specified under subdivisions B 1, B 3 a, B 5, and B 6 of this
section;Pf
3. Except as specified under subdivision B 2, B 3 b, and B
4, complies with subsection B of this section;
4. Labels 3. Label the package on the principal
display panel with a "use by" date that does not exceed 30 days
[ from its packaging ] or the original manufacturer's
"sell by" or "use by" date, whichever [ comes occurs ]
first;Pf and
5. Discards 4. Discard the reduced oxygen
packaged cheese if it is not sold for off-premises consumption or consumed
within 30 calendar days of its packaging.Pf
F. A HACCP plan is not required when a food establishment
uses a reduced oxygen packaging method to package [ TCS
time/temperature control for safety ] food that is always:
1. Labeled with the production time and date.
2. Held at 41°F [ (5°C) ] or less
during refrigerated storage [ .; and ]
3. Removed from its [ package
packaging ] in the food establishment within 48 hours after
packaging.
Article 6
Food Identity, Presentation, and On-Premises Labeling
12VAC5-421-880. Standards of identity.
Packaged food shall comply with standard of identity
requirements in 21 CFR Parts 131-169 and 9 CFR Part 319 - Definitions
and Standards of Identity or Composition, and the general requirements in
21 CFR Part 130 - Food Standards: General and 9 CFR Part 319,
Subpart A - General.
12VAC5-421-900. Food labels.
A. Food packaged in a food establishment, shall be labeled as
specified in accordance with all applicable laws and regulations, including 21
CFR Part 101 - Food Labeling, and 9 CFR Part 317 - Labeling, Marking
Devices, and Containers.
B. Label information shall include:
1. The common name of the food, or absent a common name, an
adequately descriptive identity statement;
2. If made from two or more ingredients, a list of ingredients
[ and sub-ingredients ] in descending order of predominance by
weight, including a declaration of artificial [ color or flavor colors,
artificial flavors, ] and chemical preservatives, if contained in the
food;
3. An accurate declaration of the [ net ]
quantity of contents;
4. The name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer,
or distributor;
5. The name of the food source for each major food allergen
contained in the food unless the food source is already part of the common or
usual name of the respective ingredient;Pf
6. Except as exempted in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic
Act § 403(Q)(3) - through (5), nutrition labeling as specified in
21 CFR Part 101 - Food Labeling, and 9 CFR Part 317, Subpart
B - Nutrition Labeling; and
7. For any salmonid fish containing canthaxanthin [ or
astaxanthin ] as a color additive, the labeling of the bulk fish
container, including a list of ingredients, displayed on the retail container
or by other written means, such as a counter card, that discloses the use of
canthaxanthin [ or astaxanthin ].
C. Bulk food that is available for consumer self-dispensing
shall be prominently labeled with the following information in plain view of
the consumer:
1. The manufacturer's or processor's label that was provided
with the food; or
2. A card, sign, or other method of notification that includes
the information specified under subdivisions B 1, 2 and 5 of this section.
D. Bulk, unpackaged foods such as bakery products and
unpackaged foods that are portioned to consumer specification need not be
labeled if:
1. A health, nutrient content, or other claim is not made;
2. There are no state or local laws requiring labeling; and
3. The food is manufactured or prepared on the premises of the
food establishment or at another food establishment or a food processing plant
that is owned by the same person and is regulated by the food regulatory agency
that has jurisdiction.
12VAC5-421-930. [ Consumption Consumer advisory:
consumption ] of animal [ products foods ]
that are raw, undercooked, or not otherwise processed to eliminate pathogens.
A. Except as specified in 12VAC5-421-700 C and D 4 and
under 12VAC5-421-950 C, if an animal food such as beef, eggs, fish,
lamb, pork, poultry, or shellfish is served or sold raw, undercooked, or
without otherwise being processed to eliminate pathogens, either in
ready-to-eat form or as an ingredient in another ready-to-eat food, the permit
holder shall inform consumers of the significantly increased risk of consuming
such foods by way of a disclosure and reminder, as specified in subsections B
and C of this section, using brochures, deli case or menu advisories, label
statements, table tents, placards, or other effective written means.Pf
B. Disclosure shall include:
1. A description of the animal-derived foods, such as
"oysters on the half shell (raw oysters)," "raw-egg Caesar
salad," and "hamburgers (can be cooked to order)";Pf
or
2. Identification of the animal-derived foods by asterisking
them to a footnote that states that the items are served raw or undercooked, or
contain (or may contain) raw or undercooked ingredients.Pf
C. Reminder shall include
asterisking the animal-derived foods requiring disclosure to a footnote that
states:
1. "Regarding the safety of these items, written
information is available upon request";Pf
2. "Consuming raw or undercooked meats, poultry, seafood,
shellfish, or eggs may increase your risk of foodborne illness";Pf
or
3. "Consuming raw or undercooked meats, poultry, seafood,
shellfish, or eggs may increase your risk of foodborne illness, especially if
you have certain medical conditions."Pf
Article 7
Contaminated Food
12VAC5-421-940. Discarding unsafe, adulterated, or contaminated
food.
A. A food that is unsafe, adulterated, or not from an
approved source as specified under 12VAC5-421-270 through 12VAC5-421-330 shall
be rendered unusable and discarded.P
B. Ready-to-eat food that may have been contaminated by an
employee who has been restricted or excluded as specified under 12VAC5-421-90
shall be rendered unusable and discarded.P
C. Food that is contaminated by food employees, consumers, or
other persons through contact with their hands, bodily discharges, such as
nasal or oral discharges, or other means shall be rendered unusable and
discarded.P
Article 8
Special Requirements for Highly Susceptible Populations
12VAC5-421-950. Pasteurized foods, prohibited reservice, and
prohibited food.
In a food establishment that serves a highly susceptible
population:
1. The following criteria apply to juice:
a. For the purposes of this paragraph only, children who are
age nine or less and receive food in a school, day care setting, or similar
facility that provides custodial care are included as highly susceptible
populations;
b. Prepackaged juice or a prepackaged beverage containing
juice, that bears a warning label as specified in 21 CFR 101.17(g) Food
Labeling, (Juices that have not been specifically processed to prevent,
reduce or eliminate the presence of pathogens) or a packaged juice
or beverage containing juice, that bears a warning label as specified
under subdivision 2 of 12VAC5-421-765 shall may not be served or
offered for sale;P and
c. Unpackaged juice that is prepared on the premises for
service or sale in a ready-to-eat form shall be processed under a HACCP plan
that contains the information specified in subdivisions 2 through 5 of
12VAC5-421-3630 and as specified under [ in ] 21 CFR
120.24, Process controls.P
2. Pasteurized shell eggs or egg products shall be
substituted for raw shell eggs in the preparation of:P
a. Foods such as Caesar salad, hollandaise or biarnaise
Bearnaise sauce, mayonnaise, meringue, eggnog, ice cream, and
egg-fortified beverages;P and
b. Except as specified in subdivision 6 of this section,
recipes in which more than one egg is broken and the eggs are combined.P
3. The following foods shall not be served or offered for sale
in a ready-to-eat form:
a. Raw animal foods such as raw fish, raw-marinated fish, raw
molluscan shellfish, and steak tartare;P
b. A partially cooked animal food such as lightly cooked fish,
rare meat, soft-cooked eggs that are made from raw shell eggs, and
meringue;P and
c. Raw seed sprouts.P
4. Food employees shall not contact ready-to-eat food as
specified in 12VAC5-421-450 B and E.P
5. Time only, as the public health control as specified under
12VAC5-421-850 D, may not be used for raw eggs.P
6. Subdivision 2 b of this section does not apply if:
a. The raw eggs are combined immediately before cooking for
one consumer's serving at a single meal, cooked as specified under
12VAC5-421-700 A 1, and served immediately, such as an omelet, soufflé, or
scrambled eggs;
b. The raw eggs are combined as an ingredient immediately
before baking and the eggs are thoroughly cooked to a ready-to-eat form, such
as a cake, muffin, or bread; or
c. The preparation of the food is conducted under a HACCP plan
that:
(1) Identifies the food to be prepared;
(2) Prohibits contacting ready-to-eat food with bare hands;
(3) Includes specifications and practices that ensure:
(a) Salmonella Enteritidis growth is controlled before and
after cooking; and
(b) Salmonella Enteritidis is destroyed by cooking the eggs
according to the temperature and time specified in 12VAC5-421-700 A 2;
d. Contains the information specified under subdivision 4 of
12VAC5-421-3630 including procedures that:
(1) Control cross contamination of ready-to-eat food with raw
eggs; and
(2) Delineate cleaning and sanitization procedures for
food-contact surfaces; and
e. Describes the training program that ensures that the food employee
responsible for the preparation of the food understands the procedures to be
used.
7. Except as specified in subdivision 8 of this section, food
may be re-served as specified under 12VAC5-421-680 B 1 and 2.
8. Foods may not be re-served under the following conditions:
[ 1. a. ] Any food served to patients
or clients who are under contact precautions in medical isolation or
quarantine, or protective environment isolation may not be re-served to others
outside.
[ 2. b. ] Packages of food from any
patients, clients, or other consumers should not be re-served to persons in
protective environment isolation
Part IV
Equipment, Utensils, and Linens
Article 1
Materials for Construction and Repair
12VAC5-421-960. Multiuse, characteristics.
Materials that are used in the construction of utensils and
food-contact surfaces of equipment shall not allow the migration of deleterious
substances or impart colors, odors, or tastes to food and under normal use
conditions shall be:P
1. Safe;P
2. Durable, corrosion-resistant, and nonabsorbent;
3. Sufficient in weight and thickness to withstand repeated
warewashing;
4. Finished to have a smooth, easily cleanable surface; and
5. Resistant to pitting, chipping, crazing, scratching,
scoring, distortion, and decomposition.
12VAC5-421-980. Lead, use limitation.
A. Ceramic, china, crystal utensils, and decorative utensils
such as hand-painted ceramic or china that are used in contact with food shall
be lead-free or contain levels of lead not exceeding the limits of the following
utensil categories:P
Utensil Category
|
Ceramic Article Description
|
Maximum Lead
mg/L
|
Beverage Mugs, Cups, Pitchers
|
Coffee Mugs
|
0.5
|
Large Hollowware
(excluding pitchers)
|
Bowls > 1.1 Liter
(1.16 Quart)
|
1.0
|
Small Hollowware
(excluding cups and mugs
|
Bowls <1.1 Liter
(1.16 Quart)
|
2.0
|
Flat tableware
|
Plates, Saucers
|
3.0
|
B. Pewter alloys containing lead in excess of 0.05% may not
be used as a food contact surface.P
C. Solder and flux containing lead in excess of 0.2% may not
be used as a food contact surface.
12VAC5-421-990. Copper, use limitation.
A. Except as specified in subsections B and C of this
section, copper and copper alloys such as brass shall not be used in contact
with a food that has a pH below 6 such as vinegar, fruit juice, or wine or for
a fitting or tubing installed between a backflow prevention device and a
carbonator.P
B. Copper and copper alloys may be used in contact with beer
brewing ingredients that have a pH below 6 in the prefermentation and
fermentation steps of a beer brewing operation such as a brewpub or
microbrewery.
C. Copper and copper alloys may be used in contact with apple
butter and molasses [ ingredients ] that have a pH below 6
[ in the preparation of these items provided the contact time is less
than 24 hours. during the typical processing times (i.e., mixing,
cooking, and cooling) for these products, as long as laboratory analysis does
not reveal excessive levels of copper or other heavy metals in the finished
product. Apple butter and molasses may not be held or stored in copper or
copper alloys for time periods any longer than the typical processing times for
these products ].
12VAC5-421-1000. Galvanized metal, use limitation.
Galvanized metal shall not be used for utensils or
food-contact surfaces of equipment that are used in contact with acidic food.P
12VAC5-421-1070. Single-service and single-use,
characteristics.
A. Materials that are used to make single-service and
single-use articles shall not:
1. Allow the migration of deleterious substances;P
or
2. Impart colors, odors, or tastes to food.
B. Materials that are used to make single-service and
single-use articles shall be safe and clean.:
1. Safe,P and
2. Clean.
12VAC5-421-1090. Food temperature measuring devices.
Food temperature measuring devices shall not have sensors or
stems constructed of glass, except that thermometers with glass sensors or
stems that are encased in a shatterproof coating such as candy thermometers may
be used.P
12VAC5-421-1100. Food-contact surfaces; cleanability.
[ A. ] Multiuse food-contact surfaces shall
be:
1. Smooth;Pf
2. Free of breaks, open seams, cracks, chips, [ inclusions, ]
pits, and similar imperfections;Pf
3. Free of sharp internal angles, corners, and crevices;Pf
4. Finished to have smooth welds and joints;Pf
and
5. [ Accessible Except as specified in
subsection B of this section, accessible ] for cleaning and inspection
by one of the following methods:
a. Without being disassembled,;Pf
b. By disassembling without the use of tools,;Pf
or
c. By easy disassembling with the use of handheld tools
commonly available to maintenance and cleaning personnel such as screwdrivers,
pliers, open-end wrenches, and Allen wrenches.Pf
[ B. Subdivision A 5 of this section does not apply
to cooking oil storage tanks, distribution lines for cooking oils, or beverage
syrup lines or tubes. ]
12VAC5-421-1110. CIP equipment.
A. CIP equipment shall meet the characteristics specified
under 12VAC5-421-1100 and shall be designed and constructed so that:
1. Cleaning and sanitizing solutions circulate throughout a
fixed system and contact all interior food-contact surfaces,Pf
and
2. The system is self-draining or capable of being completely
drained of cleaning and sanitizing solutions.
B. CIP equipment that is not designed to be disassembled for
cleaning shall be designed with inspection access points to ensure that all
interior food-contact surfaces throughout the fixed system are being
effectively cleaned.
12VAC5-421-1180. Temperature measuring devices; food.
A. Food temperature measuring devices that are scaled only in
Fahrenheit or dually scaled in Fahrenheit and Celsius shall be scaled in 2°F
increments and accurate to ±2°F in the intended range of use.Pf
B. Food temperature measuring devices that are scaled only in
Celsius shall be scaled in 1°C increments accurate to ±1°C in the intended
range of use.Pf
12VAC5-421-1190. Temperature measuring devices; ambient air and
water.
A. Ambient air and water temperature measuring devices that
are scaled in Fahrenheit or dually scaled in Fahrenheit and Celsius and
shall be designed to be easily readable and scaled in 3°F increments and
accurate to ±3°F in the intended range of use.Pf
B. Ambient air and water temperature measuring devices that
are scaled only in Celsius shall be scaled in 1.5°C increments and accurate to
±1.5°C in the intended range of use.Pf
12VAC5-421-1230. Dispensing equipment, protection of equipment
and food.
In equipment that dispenses or vends liquid food or ice in
unpackaged form:
1. The delivery tube, chute, orifice, and splash surfaces
directly above the container receiving the food shall be designed in a manner,
such as with barriers, baffles, or drip aprons, so that drips from condensation
and splash are diverted from the opening of the container receiving the food;
2. The delivery tube, chute, and orifice shall be protected
from manual contact such as by being recessed;
3. The delivery tube or chute and orifice of equipment used to
vend liquid food or ice in unpackaged form to self-service consumers shall be
designed so that the delivery tube or chute and orifice are protected from
dust, insects, rodents, and other contamination by a self-closing door if the
equipment is:
a. Located in an outside area that does not otherwise afford
the protection of an enclosure against the rain, windblown debris, insects,
rodents, and other contaminants that are present in the environment, or
b. Available for self-service during hours when it is not
under the full-time supervision of a food employee; and
4. The dispensing equipment actuating lever or mechanism and
filling device of consumer self-service beverage dispensing equipment shall be
designed to prevent contact with the lip-contact surface of glasses or cups
that are refilled.
5. Dispensing equipment in which potentially hazardous food
(time/temperature control for safety food) time/temperature control for
safety food in homogenous liquid form is maintained outside of the
temperature control requirements as specified in 12VAC5-421-820 C shall:
a. Be specifically designed and equipped to maintain the
commercial sterility of aseptically packaged food in a homogenous liquid form
for a specified duration from the time of opening the packaging within the
equipment;P and
b. Conform to the requirements for this equipment as specified
in NSF/ANSI 18-2006 Manual Food and Beverage Dispensing Equipment, 2012,
(NSF International).P
12VAC5-421-1240. Vending machine, vending stage closure.
The dispensing compartment of a vending machine including a
machine that is designed to vend prepackaged snack food that is not potentially
hazardous time/temperature control for safety food such as chips,
party mixes, and pretzels shall be equipped with a self-closing door or cover
if the machine is:
1. Located in an outside area that does not otherwise afford
the protection of an enclosure against the rain, windblown debris, insects,
rodents, and other contaminants that are present in the environment; or
2. Available for self-service during hours when it is not
under the full-time supervision of a food employee.
12VAC5-421-1300. Molluscan shellfish tanks.
A. Except as specified under subsection B of this section,
molluscan shellfish life support system display tanks shall not be used to
display shellfish that are offered for human consumption and shall be
conspicuously marked so that it is obvious to consumers that the shellfish are
for display only.P
B. Molluscan shellfish life-support system display tanks that
are used to store and display shellfish that are offered for human consumption
shall be operated and maintained in accordance with a variance granted by the
regulatory authority as specified in 12VAC5-421-3570 and a HACCP plan that:Pf
1. Is submitted by the permit holder and approved as specified
under 12VAC5-421-3580;Pf and
2. Ensures that:
a. Water used with fish other than molluscan shellfish does
not flow into the molluscan tank;Pf
b. The safety and quality of the shellfish as they were
received are not compromised by the use of the tank;Pf and
c. The identity of the source of the shellstock is retained as
specified under 12VAC5-421-440.Pf
12VAC5-421-1310. Vending machines, automatic shutoff.
A. A machine vending potentially hazardous food
(time/temperature control for safety food) time/temperature control for
safety food shall have an automatic control that prevents the machine from
vending food:
1. If there is a power failure, mechanical failure, or other
condition that results in an internal machine temperature that can not cannot
maintain food temperatures as specified under Part III (12VAC5-421-260 et seq.)
of this chapter;P and
2. If a condition specified under subdivision 1 of this
subsection occurs, until the machine is serviced and restocked with food that
has been maintained at temperatures specified under Part III.P
B. When the automatic shutoff within a machine vending potentially
hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) time/temperature
control for safety food is activated:
1. In a refrigerated vending machine, the ambient temperature
shall not exceed 41°F (5°C) for more than 30 minutes immediately after the
machine is filled, serviced, or restocked;P or
2. In a hot holding vending machine, the ambient temperature
shall not be less than 135°F (57°C) for more than 120 minutes immediately after
the machine is filled, serviced, or restocked.P
12VAC5-421-1320. Temperature measuring devices.
A. In a mechanically refrigerated or hot food storage unit,
the sensor of a temperature measuring device shall be located to measure the
air temperature or a simulated product temperature in the warmest part of a
mechanically refrigerated unit and in the coolest part of a hot food storage
unit.
B. Except as specified in subsection C of this section, cold
or hot holding equipment used for potentially hazardous food time/temperature
control for safety food shall be designed to include and shall be equipped
with at least one integral or affixed temperature measuring device that is
located to allow easy viewing of the device's temperature display.
C. Subsection B of this section does not apply to equipment
for which the placement of a temperature measuring device is not a practical
means for measuring the ambient air surrounding the food because of the design,
type, and use of the equipment, such as calrod units, heat lamps, cold plates, bainmaries
bains-marie, steam tables, insulated food transport containers, and
salad bars.
D. Temperature measuring devices shall be designed to be
easily readable.
E. Food temperature measuring devices and water temperature
measuring devices on warewashing machines shall have a numerical scale, printed
record, or digital readout in increments no greater than 2°F or 1°C in the
intended range of use.Pf
12VAC5-421-1350. Warewashing machines, temperature measuring
devices.
A warewashing machine shall be equipped with a temperature
measuring device that indicates the temperature of the water:
1. In each wash and rinse tank;Pf and
2. As the water enters the hot water sanitizing final rinse
manifold or in the chemical sanitizing solution tank.Pf
12VAC5-421-1360. Manual warewashing equipment, heaters and
baskets.
If hot water is used for sanitization in manual warewashing
operations, the sanitizing compartment of the sink shall be:
1. Designed with an integral heating device that is capable of
maintaining water at a temperature not less than 171°F (77°C);Pf
and
2. Provided with a rack or basket to allow complete immersion
of equipment and utensils into the hot water.Pf
12VAC5-421-1370. Warewashing machines, sanitizer level
indicator automatic dispensing of detergents and sanitizers.
A. A warewashing machine installed after March 1, 2002, shall
be equipped to:
1. Automatically dispense detergents and sanitizers;Pf
and
2. Incorporate a visual means to verify that detergents and
sanitizers are delivered or a visual or audible alarm to signal if the
detergents and sanitizers are not delivered to the respective washing and
sanitizing cycles.Pf
B. Existing warewashing equipment shall be upgraded or
replaced to meet the requirements of subsection A of this section.Pf
12VAC5-421-1435. Food equipment, certification and
classification.
Food equipment that is certified or classified for
sanitation by an American National Standards Institute (ANSI)-accredited
certification program is deemed to comply with the requirements of Articles 1
(12VAC5-421-960 et seq.) and 2 (12VAC5-421-1080 et seq.) of this part.
Article 3
Numbers and Capacities
12VAC5-421-1450. Cooling, heating, and holding capacities.
Equipment for cooling and heating food, and holding cold and
hot food, shall be sufficient in number and capacity and capable of
providing to provide food temperatures as specified under Part III (12VAC5-421-260
et seq.) of this chapter.Pf
12VAC5-421-1460. Manual warewashing, sink compartment
requirements.
A. Except as specified in subsection C of this section, a
sink with at least three compartments shall be provided for manually washing,
rinsing, and sanitizing equipment and utensils.Pf
B. Sink compartments shall be large enough to accommodate
immersion of the largest equipment and utensils. If equipment or utensils are
too large for the warewashing sink, a warewashing machine or alternative
equipment as specified in subsection C of this section shall be used.Pf
C. Alternative manual warewashing equipment may be used when
there are special cleaning needs or constraints and its use is approved.
Alternative manual warewashing equipment may include:
1. High-pressure detergent sprayers;
2. Low-pressure or line-pressure spray detergent
foamers;
3. Other task-specific cleaning equipment;
4. Brushes or other implements;
5. [ 2-compartment Two-compartment ]
sinks as specified under subsections D and E of this section; or
6. Receptacles that substitute for the compartments of a
multicompartment sink.
D. Before a [ 2-compartment two-compartment ]
sink is used:
1. The permit holder shall have its use approved; and
2. The permit holder shall limit the number of kitchenware
items cleaned and sanitized in the two-compartment sink and shall limit
warewashing to batch operations for cleaning kitchenware such as between
cutting one type of raw meat and another or cleanup at the end of a shift, and
shall:
a. (i) Make up the cleaning and sanitizing solutions
immediately before use and drain them immediately after use, and (ii) use a detergent-sanitizer
to sanitize and apply the detergent-sanitizer in accordance with the
manufacturer's label instructions and as specified under 12VAC5-421-1710; or
b. A hot water sanitization immersion step shall be used as
specified under subdivision 3 of 12VAC5-421-1860.
E. A [ 2-compartment two-compartment ]
sink shall not be used for warewashing operations where cleaning and sanitizing
solutions are used for a continuous or intermittent flow of kitchenware or
tableware in an ongoing warewashing process.
12VAC5-421-1500. Utensils, consumer self-service.
A food dispensing utensil shall be available for each
container displayed at a consumer self-service unit such as a buffet or salad
bar.Pf
12VAC5-421-1510. Food temperature measuring devices.
A. Food temperature measuring devices shall be provided and
readily accessible for use in ensuring attainment and maintenance of food
temperatures as specified under Part III (12VAC5-421-260 et seq.) of this
chapter.Pf
B. A temperature measuring device with a suitable
small-diameter probe that is designed to measure the temperature of thin masses
shall be provided and readily accessible to accurately measure the temperature
in thin foods such as meat patties and fish fillets.Pf
12VAC5-421-1520. Temperature measuring devices, manual and
mechanical warewashing.
A. In manual warewashing operations, a temperature
measuring device shall be provided and readily accessible for frequently
measuring the washing and sanitizing temperatures.
B. In hot water mechanical warewashing operations, an
irreversible registering temperature indicator shall be provided and readily
accessible for measuring the utensil surface temperature.
12VAC5-421-1530. Sanitizing solutions, testing devices.
A test kit or other device that accurately measures the
concentration in mg/L (ppm) of sanitizing solutions shall be provided and
readily accessible for use.Pf
12VAC5-421-1535. Cleaning agents and sanitizers,
availability.
A. Cleaning agents that are used to clean equipment and
utensils as specified under Article 6 (12VAC5-421-1770 et seq.) of this part
shall be provided and available for use during all hours of operation.
B. Except for chemical sanitizers that are generated on
site at the time of use, chemical sanitizers that are used to sanitize equipment
and utensils as specified under Article 6 shall be provided and available for
use during all hours of operation.
12VAC5-421-1630. Warewashing equipment, cleaning agents.
When used for warewashing, the wash compartment of a sink,
mechanical warewasher, or wash receptacle of alternative manual warewashing
equipment as specified in 12VAC5-421-1460 C, shall contain a wash solution of
soap, detergent, acid cleaner, alkaline cleaner, degreaser, abrasive cleaner,
or other cleaning agent according to the cleaning agent manufacturer's label
instructions.Pf
12VAC5-421-1650. Manual warewashing equipment, wash solution
temperature.
The temperature of the wash solution in manual warewashing
equipment shall be maintained at not less than 110°F (43°C) or the temperature
specified on the cleaning agent manufacturer's label instructions.Pf
12VAC5-421-1660. Mechanical warewashing equipment, wash
solution temperature.
A. The temperature of the wash solution in spray type
warewashers that use hot water to sanitize shall not be less than:
1. For a stationary rack, single temperature machine, 165°F
(74°C);Pf
2. For a stationary rack, dual temperature machine, 150°F
(66°C);Pf
3. For a single tank, conveyor, dual temperature machine,
160°F (71°C);Pf or
4. For a multitank, conveyor, multitemperature machine, 150°F
(66°C).Pf
B. The temperature of the wash solution in spray-type
warewashers that use chemicals to sanitize shall not be less than 120°F (49°C).Pf
12VAC5-421-1670. Manual warewashing equipment, hot water
sanitization temperatures.
If immersion in hot water is used for sanitizing in a manual
operation, the temperature of the water shall be maintained at 171°F (77°C) or
above.P
12VAC5-421-1680. Mechanical warewashing equipment, hot water
sanitization temperatures.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, in a
mechanical operation, the temperature of the fresh hot water sanitizing rinse
as it enters the manifold shall not be more than 194°F (90°C), or less than:
Pf
1. For a stationary rack, single temperature machine, 165°F
(74°C);Pf or
2. For all other machines, 180°F (82°C).Pf
B. The maximum temperature specified under subsection A of
this section does not apply to the high pressure and temperature systems with
wand-type, hand-held, spraying devices used for the in-place cleaning and
sanitizing of equipment such as meat saws.
12VAC5-421-1700. Manual and mechanical warewashing equipment,
chemical sanitization - temperature, pH, concentration, and hardness.
A chemical sanitizer used in a sanitizing solution for a
manual or mechanical operation at exposure contact times
specified under subdivision 3 of 12VAC5-421-1900 A 3 shall be
listed in 40 CFR 180.940 [ Sanitizing solutions ], shall be
used in accordance with the [ EPA-approved manufacturer's EPA-registered ]
label use instructions,P and shall be used as follows:
1. A chlorine solution shall have a minimum temperature based
on the concentration and pH of the solution as listed in the following chart;P
Minimum
Concentration
|
Minimum
Temperature
|
mg/L (ppm)
|
pH 10 or less
°F (°C)
|
pH 8 or less
°F (°C)
|
25-49
|
120 (49)
|
120 (49)
|
50-99
|
100 (38)
|
75 (24)
|
100
|
55 (13)
|
55 (13)
|
2. An iodine solution shall have a:
a. Minimum temperature of 75°F (24°C) 68°F (20°C);P
b. pH of 5.0 or less or a pH no higher than the level for
which the manufacturer specifies the solution is effective;P
and
c. Concentration between 12.5 mg/L (ppm) and 25 mg/L (ppm);P
3. A quaternary ammonium compound solution shall:
a. Have a minimum temperature of 75°F (24°C);P
b. Have a concentration as specified under 40 CFR 180.940 and
as indicated by the manufacturer's use directions included in the labeling;P
and
c. Be used only in water with 500 mg/L hardness or less or in
water having a hardness no greater than specified by the manufacturer's label;P
4. If another solution of a chemical specified under
subdivisions 1, 2 and 3 of this section is used, the permit holder shall
demonstrate to the regulatory authority that the solution achieves sanitization
and the use of the solution shall be approved;P or
5. If a chemical sanitizer other than chlorine, iodine, or a
quaternary ammonium compound is used, it shall be applied in accordance with
the manufacturer's use directions included in the labeling EPA-registered
label use instructions;P and
6. If a chemical sanitizer is generated by a device located
on site at the food establishment it shall be used as specified in subdivisions
1 through 4 of this section and shall be produced by a device that:
a. Complies with regulation as specified in §§ 2(q)(1) and
12 of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA),P
b. Complies with 40 CFR 152.500 and 40 CFR 156.10,P
c. Displays the EPA device manufacturing facility
registration number on the device,Pf and
d. Is operated and maintained in accordance with
manufacturer's instructions.Pf
12VAC5-421-1720. Warewashing equipment, determining chemical
sanitizer concentration.
Concentration of the sanitizing solution shall be accurately
determined by using a test kit or other device.Pf
12VAC5-421-1730. Good repair and calibration.
A. Utensils shall be maintained in a state of repair or
condition that complies with the requirements specified under Articles 1
(12VAC5-421-960 et seq.) and 2 (12VAC5-421-1080 et seq.) of this part or shall
be discarded.
B. Food temperature measuring devices shall be calibrated in
accordance with manufacturer's specifications as necessary to ensure their
accuracy.Pf
C. Ambient air temperature, water pressure, and water
temperature measuring devices shall be maintained in good repair and be
accurate within the intended range of use.
12VAC5-421-1740. Single-service and single-use articles,
required use.
A food establishment without facilities specified under
Articles 6 (12VAC5-421-1770 et seq.) and 7 (12VAC5-421-1880 [ (12VAC5-421-1890
(12VAC5-421-1885 ] et seq.) of this part for cleaning and
sanitizing kitchenware and tableware shall provide only single-use kitchenware,
single-service articles, and single-use articles for use by food employees and
single-service articles for use by consumers.P
Article 6
Cleaning of Equipment and Utensils
12VAC5-421-1770. Equipment, food-contact surfaces, nonfood-contact
non-food-contact surfaces, and utensils.
A. Equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils shall be
clean to sight and touch.Pf
B. The food-contact surfaces of cooking equipment and pans
shall be kept free of encrusted grease deposits and other soil accumulations.
C. Nonfood-contact Non-food-contact surfaces of
equipment shall be kept free of an accumulation of dust, dirt, food residue,
and other debris.
12VAC5-421-1780. Equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils.
A. Equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils shall be
cleaned:
1. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, before
each use with a different type of raw animal food such as beef, fish, lamb,
pork, or poultry;P
2. Each time there is a change from working with raw foods to
working with ready-to-eat foods;P
3. Between uses with raw fruits and vegetables and with potentially
hazardous food time/temperature control for safety food;P
4. Before using or storing a food temperature measuring
device;P and
5. At any time during the operation when contamination may
have occurred.P
B. Subdivision A 1 of this
section does not apply if the food contact surface or utensil is in contact
with a succession of different [ raw animal foods types of raw
meat and poultry ] each requiring a higher cooking temperature as
specified under 12VAC5-421-700 than the previous [ food, such as
preparing raw fish followed by cutting raw poultry on the same cutting board
type ].
C. Except as specified in
subsection D of this section, if used with potentially hazardous food time/temperature
control for safety food, equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils shall
be cleaned throughout the day at least every four hours.P
D. Surfaces of utensils and
equipment contacting potentially hazardous food time/temperature
control for safety food may be cleaned less frequently than every four
hours if:
1. In storage, containers of potentially hazardous food
time/temperature control for safety food and their contents are
maintained at temperatures specified under Part III (12VAC5-421-260 et seq.) of
this chapter and the containers are cleaned when they are empty;
2. Utensils and equipment are
used to prepare food in a refrigerated room or area that is maintained at one
of the temperatures in the following chart and (i) the utensils and equipment
are cleaned at the frequency in the following chart that corresponds to the
temperature; and (ii) the cleaning frequency based on the ambient temperature
of the refrigerated room or area is documented in the food establishment:
Temperature
|
Cleaning Frequency
|
41°F (5.0°C) or less
|
24 hours
|
>41°F - 45°F
(>5.0°C - 7.2°C)
|
20 hours
|
>45°F - 50°F
(>7.2°C - 10.0°C)
|
16 hours
|
>50°F - 55°F
(>10.0°C - 12.8°C)
|
10 hours
|
3. Containers in serving situations such as salad bars, delis,
and cafeteria lines hold ready-to-eat potentially hazardous food time/temperature
control for safety food that is maintained at the temperatures specified
under Part III, are intermittently combined with additional supplies of the
same food that is at the required temperature, and the containers are cleaned
at least every 24 hours;
4. Temperature measuring devices are maintained in contact
with food, such as when left in a container of deli food or in a roast, held at
temperatures specified under Part III;
5. Equipment is used for storage of packaged or unpackaged food
such as a reach-in refrigerator and the equipment is cleaned at a frequency
necessary to preclude accumulation of soil residues;
6. The cleaning schedule is approved based on consideration
of:
a. Characteristics of the equipment and its use;
b. The type of food involved;
c. The amount of food residue accumulation; and
d. The temperature at which the food is maintained during the
operation and the potential for the rapid and progressive multiplication of
pathogenic or toxigenic microorganisms that are capable of causing foodborne
disease; or
7. In-use utensils are intermittently stored in a container of
water in which the water is maintained at 135°F (57°C) or more and the utensils
and container are cleaned at least every 24 hours or at a frequency necessary
to preclude accumulation of soil residues.
E. Except when dry cleaning methods are used as specified
under 12VAC5-421-1810, surfaces of utensils and equipment contacting food that
is not potentially hazardous time/temperature control for safety food
shall be cleaned:
1. At any time when contamination may have occurred;
2. At least every 24 hours for iced tea dispensers and
consumer self-service utensils such as tongs, scoops, or ladles;
3. Before restocking consumer self-service equipment and
utensils such as condiment dispensers and display containers;
4. [ Equipment At a frequency specified by the
manufacturer or absent manufacturer specifications, at a frequency necessary to
preclude accumulation of soil or mold. To include equipment ] such as
ice bins and beverage dispensing nozzles and enclosed components of equipment
such as ice makers, [ cooking oil storage tanks and distribution lines, ]
beverage and syrup dispensing lines or tubes, coffee bean grinders, and
water vending equipment [ :
a. At a frequency specified by the manufacturer; or
b. Absent manufacturer specifications, at a frequency
necessary to preclude accumulation of soil or mold ].
12VAC5-421-1810. Dry cleaning.
A. If used, dry cleaning methods such as brushing, scraping,
and vacuuming shall contact only surfaces that are soiled with dry food
residues that are not potentially hazardous time/temperature control
for safety food.
B. Cleaning equipment used in dry cleaning food-contact
surfaces shall not be used for any other purpose.
12VAC5-421-1870. Returnables, cleaning for refilling. (Repealed.)
A. Except as specified in subsections B and C of this
section, returned empty containers intended for cleaning and refilling with
food shall be cleaned and refilled in a regulated food processing plant.
B. A food-specific container for beverages may be refilled
at a food establishment if:
1. Only a beverage that is not a potentially hazardous food
is used as specified under 12VAC5-421-600 A;
2. The design of the container and of the rinsing equipment
and the nature of the beverage, when considered together, allow effective
cleaning at home or in the food establishment;
3. Facilities for rinsing before refilling returned
containers with fresh, hot water that is under pressure and not recirculated
are provided as part of the dispensing system;
4. The consumer-owned container returned to the food
establishment for refilling is refilled for sale or service only to the same
consumer; and
5. The container is refilled by: an employee of the food
establishment, or the owner of the container if the beverage system includes a
contamination-free transfer process that can not be bypassed by the container
owner.
C. Consumer-owned containers that are not food-specific
may be filled at a water vending machine or system.
[ Article 7
Sanitization of Equipment and Utensils
12VAC5-421-1885. Food-contact surfaces and utensils.
Equipment food-contact surfaces and utensils shall be
sanitized. ]
[ Article 7
Sanitization of Equipment and Utensils ]
12VAC5-421-1890. Before use after cleaning.
Utensils and food-contact surfaces of equipment shall be
sanitized before use after cleaning.P
12VAC5-421-1900. Hot water and chemical.
After being cleaned, equipment food-contact surfaces and
utensils shall be sanitized in:
1. Hot water manual operations by immersion for at least 30
seconds as specified under 12VAC5-421-1670;P
2. Hot water mechanical operations by being cycled through
equipment that is set up as specified under 12VAC5-421-1610, 12VAC5-421-1680,
and 12VAC5-421-1690 and achieving a utensil surface temperature of 160°F (71°C)
as measured by an irreversible registering temperature indicator;P
or
3. Chemical manual or mechanical operations, including the
application of sanitizing chemicals by immersion, manual swabbing, brushing, or
pressure spraying methods, using a solution as specified under 12VAC5-421-1700.
Contact times shall be consistent with those on EPA-registered label use
instructions by providing:
a. Except as specified under subdivision 3 b of this section, an
exposure a contact time of at least 10 seconds for a chlorine
solution specified under subdivision 1 of 12VAC5-421-1700 A;P
b. An exposure A contact time of at least 7
seconds for a chlorine solution of 50 mg/L that has a pH of 10 or less and a
temperature of at least 100°F (38°C) or a pH of 8 or less and a temperature of
at least 75°F (24°C);P
c. An exposure A contact time of at least 30
seconds for other chemical sanitizing solutions;P or
d. An exposure A contact time used in
relationship with a combination of temperature, concentration, and pH that,
when evaluated for efficacy, yields sanitization as defined in 12VAC5-421-10.P
12VAC5-421-1920. Specifications Laundering frequency
for linens, cloth gloves, napkins, and wiping cloths.
A. Linens that do not come in direct contact with food shall
be laundered between operations if they become wet, sticky, or visibly soiled.
B. Cloth gloves used as specified in 12VAC5-421-580 D shall
be laundered before being used with a different type of raw animal food such as
beef, lamb, pork, and fish.
C. Linens and napkins that are used as specified under
12VAC5-421-560 and cloth napkins shall be laundered between each use.
D. Wet wiping cloths shall be laundered daily.
E. Dry wiping cloths shall be laundered as necessary to
prevent contamination of food and clean serving utensils.
12VAC5-421-2040. Preset tableware.
A. Tableware Except as specified in subsection B of
this section, tableware that is preset shall be protected from
contamination by being wrapped, covered, or inverted.
B. When Preset tableware is preset, may
be exposed, unused settings shall be if:
1. Removed Unused settings are removed when a
consumer is seated; or
2. Cleaned and sanitized before further use if the settings
are Settings not removed when a consumer is seated are cleaned
and sanitized before further use.
12VAC5-421-2045. Rinsing equipment and utensils after
cleaning and sanitizing.
After being cleaned and sanitized, equipment and utensils
shall not be rinsed before air drying or used unless:
1. The rinse is applied directly from a potable water
supply by a warewashing machine that is maintained and operated as specified
under Articles 2 (12VAC5-421-1080 et seq.) and 5 (12VAC5-421-1570) of this
part; and
2. The rinse is applied only after the equipment and
utensils have been sanitized by the application of hot water or by the
application of a chemical sanitizer solution whose EPA-registered label use
instructions call for rinsing off the sanitizer after it is applied in a
commercial warewashing machine.
Part V
Water, Plumbing, and Waste
Article 1
Water
12VAC5-421-2050. Approved system.
Drinking Pure water shall be obtained from an
approved source that is water system defined as:
1. A public water system waterworks constructed,
maintained, and operated in compliance with 12VAC5-590;P
or
2. A nonpublic water system that is private well
constructed, maintained, and operated according to law in compliance
with 12VAC5-630.P
12VAC5-421-2060. System flushing and disinfection.
A drinking An approved water system shall be
flushed and disinfected before being placed in service after
construction, repair, or modification and after an emergency situation, such as
a flood, that may introduce contaminants to the system. A sample shall be
collected from the water system and the results of the analysis shall be total
coliform negative prior to placing the water system into service.P
12VAC5-421-2070. Bottled drinking water.
Bottled drinking water used or sold in a food establishment
shall be obtained from approved sources in accordance with 21 CFR Part 129 -Processing
and Bottling of Bottled drinking water.P
12VAC5-421-2080. Quality Pure water standards.
Except as specified under 12VAC5-421-2090:
1. Water from a public water system waterworks
shall meet the applicable water quality and quantity standards found
in the Virginia Waterworks Regulations (12VAC5-590) accordance with
12VAC5-590;P and
2. Water from a nonpublic water system private well
shall meet the bacteriological water quality standards found
in the Virginia Waterworks Regulations (12VAC5-590) accordance with
12VAC5-630-370 [ and not exceed 10 mg/L of nitrate (as N) ].P
12VAC5-421-2090. Nondrinking Nonpotable water.
A. A nondrinking nonpotable water supply shall
be used only if its use is approved by the regulatory authority.P
B. Nondrinking Nonpotable water shall be used
only for nonculinary purposes such as air conditioning, nonfood equipment
cooling, fire protection, and irrigation.P
12VAC5-421-2100. Sampling.
Except when used as specified under 12VAC5-421-2090, water
Water from a nonpublic water system private well shall be
sampled and tested at least annually and as required by state water quality
regulations for nitrate and total coliform.
1. If nitrate [ (as N), which is
reported as "N" on the test results, ] exceeds 10 mg/L,
the owner shall notify the regulatory authority.Pf
2. If a sample is total coliform positive, the positive
culture medium shall be further analyzed to determine if E. coli is present.
The owner shall notify the regulatory authority within two days from when the
owner is notified of the coliform positive test result.Pf
3. If E. coli is present, the owner shall notify the
regulatory authority.Pf
12VAC5-421-2110. Sample report.
The most recent All sample report reports
for the nonpublic water system private well shall be retained on
file in the food establishment or the report shall be maintained as
specified by state water quality regulations for a minimum of five years
and be made available to the regulatory authority upon request.
12VAC5-421-2120. Capacity.
A. The approved water source and system capacity
shall be of sufficient capacity to meet the maximum daily water demands and
the peak hourly water demands of the food establishment.Pf
B. Hot water generation and distribution systems shall be
sufficient to meet the peak hot water demands throughout the food
establishment.Pf
12VAC5-421-2130. Pressure.
Water under pressure shall be provided to all fixtures,
equipment, and nonfood equipment that are required to use water except that
water supplied as specified under subdivisions 1 and 2 of 12VAC5-421-2160 to a
temporary food establishment or in response to a temporary interruption of a
water supply need not be under pressure.Pf
12VAC5-421-2150. Distribution, delivery, and retention
system. (Repealed.)
Water shall be received from the source through the use
of:
1. An approved public water main; or
2. One or more of the following that shall be constructed,
maintained, and operated according to law:
a. Nonpublic water main, water pumps, pipes, hoses,
connections, and other appurtenances,
b. Water transport vehicles, and
c. Water containers.
12VAC5-421-2160. Alternative water supply.
Water meeting the requirements specified under
12VAC5-421-2050 through 12VAC5-421-2130 shall be made available for a mobile
facility, for a temporary food establishment without a permanent water supply,
and for a food establishment with a temporary interruption of its water supply
through:
1. A supply of containers of commercially bottled drinking
water;Pf
2. One or more closed portable water containers;Pf
3. An enclosed vehicular water tank;Pf
4. An on-premises water storage tank;Pf or
5. Piping, tubing, or hoses connected to an adjacent
approved source system in a manner approved by the department.Pf
Article 2
Plumbing System
12VAC5-421-2170. Approved materials.
A. A plumbing system and hoses conveying water shall be
constructed and repaired with approved materials according to law.P
B. A water filter shall be made of safe materials.P
12VAC5-421-2180. Approved system and cleanable fixtures.
A. A plumbing system shall be designed, constructed, and
installed according to law.P
B. A plumbing fixture such as a handwashing lavatory, toilet,
or urinal shall be easily cleanable.
12VAC5-421-2190. Handwashing sink, water temperature, and flow.
A. A handwashing sink shall be equipped to provide water at a
temperature of at least 100°F (38°C) through a mixing valve or combination
faucet.Pf
B. A steam mixing valve shall not be used at a handwashing
sink.
C. A self-closing, slow-closing, or metering faucet shall
provide a flow of water for at least 15 seconds without the need to reactivate
the faucet.
D. An automatic handwashing facility shall be installed in
accordance with manufacturer's instructions.
12VAC5-421-2200. Backflow prevention, air gap.
An air gap between the water supply inlet and the flood level
rim of the plumbing fixture, equipment, or nonfood equipment shall be at least
twice the diameter of the water supply inlet and shall not be less than 1
one inch (25 mm).P
12VAC5-421-2210. Backflow prevention device, design standard.
A backflow or backsiphonage prevention device installed on a
water supply system shall comply with the Virginia Uniform Statewide
Building Code (13VAC5-63) for construction, installation, maintenance,
inspection, and testing for that specific application and type of device.P
12VAC5-421-2230. Handwashing sinks, numbers, and capacities.
A. Except as specified in subsection B [ and C ]
of this section, at least one handwashing sink, or the number of handwashing
sinks necessary for their convenient use by employees in areas specified under
12VAC5-421-2280, and not fewer than the number of handwashing sinks required by
law shall be provided.Pf
B. If approved and capable of removing the [ multiple ]
types of soils encountered in the food operations [ involved ],
automatic handwashing facilities may be substituted for handwashing sinks in a
food establishment [ with that has ] at
least one handwashing sink.
B. C. If approved, when food exposure is
limited and handwashing sinks are not conveniently available, such as in some
mobile or temporary food establishments or at some vending machine locations,
employees may use chemically treated towelettes for handwashing.
12VAC5-421-2250. Service sink.
A. At least one service sink or one curbed cleaning
facility equipped with a floor drain shall be provided and conveniently located
for the cleaning of mops or similar wet floor cleaning tools and for the
disposal of mop water and similar liquid waste.
B. Toilets and urinals shall not be used as a service sink
for the disposal of mop water and similar liquid waste.
12VAC5-421-2260. Backflow prevention device, when required.
A plumbing system shall be installed to preclude backflow of
a solid, liquid, or gas contaminant into the water supply system at each point
of use at the food establishment, including on a hose bibb (threaded faucet) if
a hose is attached or on a hose bibb if a hose is not attached and backflow
prevention is required by law by:
1. Providing an air gap as specified under 12VAC5-421-2200;P
or
2. Installing an approved backflow prevention device as
specified under 12VAC5-421-2210.P
12VAC5-421-2270. Backflow prevention device, carbonator.
A. If not provided with an air gap as specified under
12VAC5-421-2200, a double check valve with an intermediate vent preceded by a
screen of not less than 100 mesh to 1 inch (100 mesh to 25.4mm) shall be
installed upstream from a carbonating device and downstream from any copper in
the water supply line.P
B. A single or double dual check valve attached
to the carbonator need not be of the vented type if an air gap or vented
backflow prevention device has been otherwise provided approved
as specified under subsection A of this section.
12VAC5-421-2280. Handwashing sinks, location.
A handwashing sink shall be located:
1. To be readily accessible for allow convenient
use by employees in food preparation, food dispensing, and warewashing areas;Pf
and
2. In, or immediately adjacent to, toilet rooms.Pf
12VAC5-421-2310. Using a handwashing sink.
A. A handwashing sink shall be maintained so that it is
accessible at all times for employee use.Pf
B. A handwashing sink shall not be used for purposes other
than handwashing.Pf
C. An automatic handwashing facility shall be used in
accordance with manufacturer's instructions.Pf
12VAC5-421-2320. Prohibiting a cross connection.
A. Except as specified in 9 CFR 308.3(d) for firefighting,
a A person shall not create a cross connection by connecting a pipe
or conduit between the drinking water system and a nondrinking water system or
a water system of unknown quality.P
B. The piping of a nondrinking water system shall be durably
identified so that it is readily distinguishable from piping that carries
drinking water.Pf
12VAC5-421-2330. Scheduling inspection and service for a water
system device.
A device such as a water treatment device or backflow
preventer shall be scheduled for inspection and service, in accordance with
manufacturer's instructions and as necessary to prevent device failure based on
local water conditions, and records demonstrating inspection and service shall
be maintained by the person in charge.Pf
12VAC5-421-2340. Water reservoir of fogging devices, cleaning.
A. A reservoir that is used to supply water to a device such
as a produce fogger shall be:
1. Maintained in accordance with manufacturer's
specifications;P and
2. Cleaned in accordance with manufacturer's specifications or
according to the procedures specified under subsection B of this section,
whichever is more stringent.P
B. Cleaning procedures shall include at least the following
steps and shall be conducted at least once a week:
1. Draining and complete disassembly of the water and aerosol
contact parts;P
2. Brush-cleaning the reservoir, aerosol tubing, and discharge
nozzles with a suitable detergent solution;P
3. Flushing the complete system with water to remove the
detergent solution and particulate accumulation;P and
4. Rinsing by immersing, spraying, or swabbing the reservoir,
aerosol tubing, and discharge nozzles with at least 50 mg/L (ppm) hypochlorite
solution.P
12VAC5-421-2350. System maintained in good repair.
A plumbing system shall be (i) repaired according to lawP
and (ii) maintained in good repair.
Article 3
Mobile Water Tank and Mobile Food Establishment Water Tank
12VAC5-421-2360. Approved Mobile water tank
[ approved ] materials.
Materials that are used in the construction of a mobile water
tank, mobile food establishment water tank, and appurtenances shall be:
1. Safe;P
2. Durable, corrosion resistant, and nonabsorbent; and
3. Finished to have a smooth, easily cleanable surface.
12VAC5-421-2420. Hose, construction and identification.
A hose used for conveying drinking potable
water from a water tank shall be:
1. Safe;P
2. Durable, corrosion resistant, and nonabsorbent;
3. Resistant to pitting, chipping, crazing, scratching,
scoring, distortion, and decomposition;
4. Finished with a smooth interior surface; and
5. Clearly and durably identified as to its use if not
permanently attached.
12VAC5-421-2430. Filter, compressed air.
A filter that does not pass oil or oil vapors shall be
installed in the air supply line between the compressor and drinking potable
water system when compressed air is used to pressurize the water tank system.P
12VAC5-421-2460. System flushing and disinfection.
A water tank, pump, and hoses shall be flushed and sanitized
before being placed in service after construction, repair, modification, and
periods of nonuse.P
12VAC5-421-2490. Tank, pump, and hoses, dedication.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, a
water tank, pump, and hoses used for conveying drinking water shall be used for
no other purpose.P
B. Water tanks, pumps, and hoses approved for liquid foods
may be used for conveying drinking water if they are cleaned and sanitized
before they are used to convey water.
12VAC5-421-2520. Backflow prevention.
A. Except as specified in subsections B, C, and D of this
section, a direct connection may not exist between the sewage system and a
drain originating from equipment in which food, portable equipment, or utensils
are placed.P
B. Subsection A of this section does not apply to floor
drains that originate in refrigerated spaces that are constructed as an
integral part of the building.
C. If allowed by law, a warewashing machine may have a direct
connection between its waste outlet and a floor drain when the machine is
located within five feet (1.5 meters) of a trapped floor drain and the machine
outlet is connected to the inlet side of a properly vented floor drain trap.
D. If allowed by law, a warewashing or culinary sink may have
a direct connection.
12VAC5-421-2540. Conveying sewage.
Sewage shall be conveyed to the point of disposal through an
approved sanitary sewage system or other system, including use of sewage
transport vehicles, waste retention tanks, pumps, pipes, hoses, and connections
that are constructed, maintained, and operated according to law.P
12VAC5-421-2550. Removing mobile food establishment wastes.
Sewage No public health hazard or nuisance shall
result when sewage and other liquid wastes shall be are
removed from a mobile food establishment at an approved waste servicing area or
by a permitted sewage transport vehicle in such a way that a public
health hazard or nuisance is not created.Pf
12VAC5-421-2570. Approved sewage disposal system.
Sewage shall be disposed through an approved facility that
is:
1. A public sewage treatment plant;P or
2. An individual sewage disposal system that is sized,
constructed, maintained, and operated according to law the State
Board of Health's regulations promulgated pursuant to Chapter 6
(§ 32.1-163 et seq.) of Title 32 of the Code of Virginia, including
12VAC5-610, 12VAC5-613, and 12VAC5-640.P
12VAC5-421-2990. Private homes and living or sleeping quarters,
use prohibition.
A private home, a room used as living or sleeping quarters,
or an area directly opening into a room used as living or sleeping quarters
shall not be used for conducting food establishment operations.P
Article 3
Numbers and Capacities
12VAC5-421-3020. Handwashing cleanser, availability.
Each handwashing sink or group of two adjacent handwashing
sinks shall be provided with a supply of hand cleaning liquid, powder, or bar
soap.Pf
12VAC5-421-3030. Hand drying provision.
Each handwashing sink or group of adjacent handwashing sinks
shall be provided with:
1. Individual, disposable towels;Pf
2. A continuous towel system that supplies the user with a
clean towel; orPf
3. A heated-air hand drying device.;Pf or
4. A hand drying device that employs an air-knife system
that delivers high-velocity, pressurized air at ambient temperatures.Pf
12VAC5-421-3070. Toilet tissue, availability.
A supply of toilet tissue shall be available at each toilet.Pf
12VAC5-421-3150. Distressed merchandise, segregation and
location.
Products that are held by the permit holder for credit,
redemption, or return to the distributor, such as damaged, spoiled, or recalled
products, shall be segregated and held in designated areas that are separated
from food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use
articles.Pf
12VAC5-421-3210. Cleaning maintenance tools, preventing
contamination.
Food preparation sinks, handwashing lavatories, and
warewashing equipment shall not be used for the cleaning of maintenance tools,
the preparation or holding of maintenance materials, or the disposal of mop
water and similar liquid wastes.Pf
12VAC5-421-3270. Controlling pests.
The presence of insects, rodents, and other pests shall be
controlled to minimize their presence on the premises by:
1. Routinely inspecting incoming shipments of food and
supplies;
2. Routinely inspecting the premises for evidence of pests;
3. Using methods, if pests are found, such as trapping devices
or other means of pest control as specified under 12VAC5-421-3360,
12VAC5-421-3440, and 12VAC5-421-3450;Pf and
4. Eliminating harborage conditions.
12VAC5-421-3310. Prohibiting animals.
A. Except as specified in subsections B and C of this
section, live animals shall not be allowed on the premises of a food establishment.Pf
B. Live animals may be allowed in the following situations if
the contamination of food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; and unwrapped
single-service and single-use articles cannot result:
1. Edible fish or decorative fish in aquariums, shellfish or
crustacea on ice or under refrigeration, and shellfish and crustacea in display
tank systems;
2. Patrol dogs accompanying police or security officers in
offices and dining, sales, and storage areas, and sentry dogs running loose in
outside fenced areas;
3. In areas that are not used for food preparation and that
are usually open for customers, such as dining and sales areas, service animals
that are controlled by the disabled employee or person, if a health or
safety hazard will not result from the presence or activities of the service
animal;
4. Pets in the common dining areas of institutional care
facilities such as nursing homes, assisted living facilities, group homes, or
residential care facilities, and food establishment bed and breakfast facilities
at times other than during meals if:
a. Effective partitioning and self-closing doors separate the
common dining areas from food storage or food preparation areas;
b. Condiments, equipment, and utensils are stored in enclosed
cabinets or removed from the common dining areas when pets are present; and
c. Dining areas including tables, countertops, and similar
surfaces are effectively cleaned before the next meal service; [ and ]
5. In areas that are not used for food preparation, storage,
sales, display, or dining, in which there are caged animals or animals that are
similarly restricted, such as in a variety store that sells pets or a tourist
park that displays animals [ .; and ]
6. Dogs in outdoor dining areas if:
a. The outdoor dining area is not fully enclosed with floor
to ceiling walls and is not considered a part of the interior physical
facility.
b. The outdoor dining area is equipped with an entrance
that is separate from the main entrance to the food establishment and the
separate entrance serves as the sole means of entry for patrons accompanied by
dogs.
c. A sign stating that dogs are allowed in the outdoor
dining area is posted at each entrance to the outdoor dining area in such a
manner as to be clearly observable by the public.
[ d. A sign within the outdoor dining area
stating the requirements as specified in subdivisions 6 e, 6 f, and 6 g of this
subsection is provided in such a manner as to be clearly observable by the
public.
d. e. ] Food and water provided
to dogs is served using equipment that is not used for service of food to
persons or is served in single-use articles.
[ e. f. ] Dogs are not
allowed on chairs, seats, benches, or tables.
[ f. g. ] Dogs are
kept on a leash or within a pet carrier and under the control of an adult at
all times.
[ g. h. ] Establishment
provides effective means for cleaning up dog vomitus and fecal matter.
[ h. A sign within the outdoor dining area stating
the requirements as specified in subdivisions 6 d, e, and f of this subsection
is provided in such a manner as to be clearly observable by the public. ]
C. Live or dead fish bait may be stored if contamination of
food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; and unwrapped single-service and
single-use articles can not cannot result.
D. In bed and breakfast facilities serving 18 or fewer
customers, live animals shall be allowed in the facility but shall not be fed
using the same equipment or utensils that are used to feed humans.
Part VII
Poisonous or Toxic Materials
Article 1
Labeling and Identification
12VAC5-421-3320. Original containers - identifying information,
prominence.
Containers of poisonous or toxic materials and personal care
items shall bear a legible manufacturer's label.Pf
12VAC5-421-3330. Working containers - common name.
Working containers used for storing poisonous or toxic
materials such as cleaners and sanitizers taken from bulk supplies shall be
clearly and individually identified with the common name of the material.Pf
Article 2
Operational Supplies and Applications
12VAC5-421-3340. Storage, separation.
Poisonous or toxic materials shall be stored so they can
not cannot contaminate food, equipment, utensils, linens, and
single-service and single-use articles by:
1. Separating the poisonous or toxic materials by spacing or
partitioning; [ andP P and ]
2. Locating the poisonous or toxic materials in an area that
is not above food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service or
single-use articles. This subsection does not apply to equipment and utensil
cleaners and sanitizers that are stored in warewashing areas for availability
and convenience if the materials are stored to prevent contamination of food,
equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles;
and,.P
3. Detergents, sanitizers, related cleaning or drying
agents and caustics, acids, polishes and other chemicals shall be stored
separately from insecticides and rodenticides.
12VAC5-421-3350. Presence and use restriction.
A. Only those poisonous or toxic materials that are required
for the operation and maintenance of a food establishment, such as for the
cleaning and sanitizing of equipment and utensils and the control of insects
and rodents, shall be allowed in a food establishment.Pf
B. Subsection A of this section does not apply to packaged
poisonous or toxic materials that are for retail sale.
12VAC5-421-3360. Conditions of use.
Poisonous or toxic materials shall be:
1. Used according to:
a. Law and this chapter,;
b. Manufacturer's use directions included in labeling, and,
for a pesticide, manufacturer's label instructions that state that use is
allowed in a food establishment,;P
c. The conditions of certification, if certification is
required, for use of the pest control materials,;P and
d. Additional conditions that may be established by the
regulatory authority; and.P
2. Applied so that:
a. A hazard to employees or other persons is not constituted,;P
and
b. Contamination including toxic residues due to drip, drain,
fog, splash, or spray on food, equipment, utensils, linens, and
single-service and single-use articles is prevented, and for a restricted-use
pesticide, this is achieved by:P
(1) Removing the items, covering the items with impermeable
covers, or taking other appropriate preventive actions,;P
and
(2) Cleaning and sanitizing equipment and utensils after the
application.P
3. A restricted use pesticide shall be applied only by an
applicator certified as defined in 7 USC § 136(e) (Federal Insecticide,
Fungicide and Rodenticide Act), or a person under the direct supervision of a
certified applicator.Pf
12VAC5-421-3370. Poisonous or toxic material containers.
A container previously used to store poisonous or toxic
materials shall not be used to store, transport, or dispense food.P
12VAC5-421-3380. Sanitizers, criteria.
Chemical sanitizers, including chemical sanitizing
solutions generated on site, and other chemical antimicrobials applied to
food-contact surfaces shall meet:
1. Meet the requirements specified in 40 CFR 180.940,P
or
2. Meet the requirements as specified in 40 CFR
180.2020.P
12VAC5-421-3390. Chemicals for washing fruits and vegetables,
criteria.
A. Chemicals, including those generated on site,
used to wash or peel raw, whole fruits and vegetables shall meet the
requirements specified in 21 CFR 173.315:
1. Be an approved food additive listed for this intended
use in 21 CFR 173,P or
2. Be generally recognized as safe (GRAS) for this intended
use,P or
3. Be the subject of an effective food contact notification
for this intended use (only effective for the manufacturer or supplier
identified in the notification),P and
4. Meet the requirements in the 40 CFR Part 156.P
B. Ozone as an antimicrobial agent used in the treatment,
storage, and processing of fruits and vegetables in a food establishment shall
meet the requirements specified in 21 CFR 173.368.P
12VAC5-421-3400. Boiler water additives, criteria.
Chemicals used as boiler water additives shall meet the
requirements specified in 21 CFR 173.310.P
12VAC5-421-3410. Drying agents, criteria.
Drying agents used in conjunction with sanitization shall:
1. Contain only components that are listed as one of the
following:
a. Generally recognized as safe for use in food as specified
in 21 CFR Part 182 - Substances Generally Recognized as Safe, or 21 CFR
Part 184 - Direct Food Substances Affirmed as Generally Recognized as Safe,P
b. Generally recognized as safe for the intended use as
specified in 21 CFR Part 186 - Indirect Food Substances Affirmed as
Generally Recognized as Safe,P
c. Generally recognized as safe for the intended use as
determined by experts qualified in scientific training and experience to
evaluate the safety of substances added, directly or indirectly, to food as
described in 21 CFR 170.30, P
d. Subject of an effective Food Contact Notification as
described in the Federal Food Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) § 409(h),P
c. e. Approved for use as a drying agent under a
prior sanction specified in 21 CFR Part 181 - Prior-Sanctioned Food
Ingredients, as specified in the Federal Food Drug and Cosmetic Act
(FFDCA) § 201(s)(4),P
d. f. Specifically regulated as an indirect food
additive for use as a drying agent as specified in 21 CFR Parts 175- through
178,P or
e. g. Approved for use as a drying agent under
the threshold of regulation process established by 21 CFR 170.39 -
Threshold of Regulation for Substances Used in Food-contact Articles;P
and
2. When sanitization is with chemicals, the approval required
under subdivisions subdivision 1 c e or e g
of this section or the regulation as an indirect food additive required under
subdivision 1 d f of this section, shall be specifically for use
with chemical sanitizing solutions.P
12VAC5-421-3420. Lubricants - incidental food contact,
criteria.
Lubricants shall meet the requirements specified in 21 CFR
178.3570 if they are used on food-contact surfaces, on bearings and gears
located on or within food-contact surfaces, or on bearings and gears that are
located so that lubricants may leak, drip, or be forced into food or onto
food-contact surfaces.P
12VAC5-421-3430. Restricted use pesticides, criteria.
Restricted use pesticides specified under subdivision 3 of
12VAC5-421-3360 C shall meet the requirements specified in 40 CFR
[ Part ] 152, Subpart I - Classification of Pesticides.P
12VAC5-421-3440. Rodent bait stations.
Rodent bait shall be contained in a covered, tamper-resistant
bait station.P
12VAC5-421-3450. Tracking powders, pest control, and
monitoring.
A. [ A Except as specified in subsection B of
this section, a ] tracking powder pesticide shall not be used in a
food establishment.P
B. If used, a nontoxic tracking powder such as talcum or
flour shall not contaminate food, equipment, utensils, linens, and
single-service and single-use articles.
12VAC5-421-3460. Medicines - restriction and storage.
A. Except for medicines that are stored or displayed for
retail sale, only those medicines that are necessary for the health of
employees shall be allowed in a food establishment.Pf
B. Medicines that are in a food establishment for the
employees' use shall be labeled as specified under 12VAC5-421-3320 and located
to prevent the contamination of food, equipment, utensils, linens, and
single-service and single-use articles.P
12VAC5-421-3470. Refrigerated medicines, storage.
Medicines belonging to employees or to children in a day care
center that require refrigeration and are stored in a food refrigerator shall
be:
1. Stored in a package or container and kept inside a covered,
leakproof container that is identified as a container for the storage of
medicines;P and
2. Located so they are inaccessible to children.P
12VAC5-421-3480. First aid supplies, storage.
First aid supplies that are in a food establishment for the
employees' use shall be:
1. Labeled as specified under 12VAC5-421-3320;Pf
and
2. Stored in a kit or a container that is located to prevent
the contamination of food, equipment, utensils, and linens, and single-service
and single-use articles.P
Article 3
Stock and Retail Sale
12VAC5-421-3500. Storage and display, separation.
Poisonous or toxic materials shall be stored and displayed
for retail sale so they can not cannot contaminate food,
equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service and single-use articles by:
1. Separating the poisonous or toxic materials by spacing or
partitioning;P and
2. Locating the poisonous or toxic materials in an area that
is not above food, equipment, utensils, linens, and single-service or
single-use articles.P
12VAC5-421-3590. Disposition of a variance request.
A. The commissioner may grant the variance request and if
If the commissioner proposes to deny the variance he shall provide the
owner an opportunity to an informal hearing fact-finding conference
as provided in § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia. Following this opportunity
for an informal hearing fact-finding conference the commissioner
may reject any application for a variance by sending a rejection notice to the
applicant. The rejection notice shall be in writing and shall state the reasons
for the rejection. A rejection notice constitutes a case decision.
B. If the commissioner proposes to grant a variance request
submitted pursuant to this part, the applicant shall be notified in writing of
this decision. Such notice shall identify the variance, the food establishment
involved, and shall specify the period of time for which the variance will be
effective. Such notice shall provide that the variance will be terminated when
the food establishment comes into compliance with the applicable regulation and
may be terminated upon a finding by the commissioner that the food
establishment has failed to comply with any requirements or schedules issued in
conjunction with the variance. The effective date of the variance shall be as
noted in the variance letter.
C. All variances granted to any food establishment may not
be transferable unless otherwise stated. Each variance shall be attached to the
permit to which it is granted. Each variance is revoked when the permit to
which it is attached is revoked operate and posted prominently in a
conspicuous place for public view.
D. No owner or permit holder may challenge the terms or
conditions of a variance after 30 calendar days have elapsed from the receipt
of the variance.
E. Each variance shall be posted prominently in a
conspicuous place for public view and in close proximity to the permit to which
it relates. Each variance is revoked when the permit to which it operate
is attached is revoked, suspended, or if the permit is not
revalidated or renewed expired.
Article 2
Plan Submission and Approval
12VAC5-421-3600. Facility and operating plans - when plans
are required.
A permit applicant or permit holder shall submit to the
regulatory authority properly prepared plans and specifications for review and
approval before:
1. The construction of a food establishment;Pf
2. The conversion of an existing structure for use as a food
establishment;Pf or
3. The remodeling of a food establishment or a change of type
of food establishment or food operation as specified under [ 12VAC5-421-3710 ]
C [ subdivision 3 of 12VAC-421-3700 ] if the regulatory
authority determines that plans and specifications are necessary to ensure
compliance with this regulation this chapter.Pf
[ 12VAC5-421-3620. When a HACCP plan is required.
A. Before engaging in an activity that requires a HACCP plan,
a permit applicant or permit holder shall submit to the regulatory authority
for approval a properly prepared HACCP plan as specified under 12VAC5-421-3630
and the relevant provisions of this chapter if:
1. Submission of a HACCP plan is required according to law;
2. A variance is required as specified under 12VAC5-421-860,
12VAC5-421-1300 B, or 12VAC5-421-700 D 2 4; or
3. The regulatory authority determines that a food preparation
or processing method requires a variance based on a plan submittal specified
under 12VAC5-421-3610, an inspectional finding, or a variance request.
B. A permit applicant or permit holder shall have a
properly prepared HACCP plan Before engaging in reduced oxygen packaging
without a variance as specified under 12VAC5-421-870, a permit applicant
or permit holder shall submit a properly prepared HACCP plan to the regulatory
authority. ]
12VAC5-421-3630. Contents of a HACCP plan.
For a food establishment that is required under
12VAC5-421-3620 to have a HACCP plan, the plan and specifications shall
indicate the permit applicant or permit holder shall submit to the
regulatory authority a properly prepared HACCP plan that includes:
1. General information such as the name of the permit
applicant or permit holder, the food establishment address, and contact
information;Pf
1. 2. A categorization of the types of potentially
hazardous foods time/temperature control for safety food that are
specified in the menu such as soups and sauces, salads, and bulk, solid foods
such as meat roasts, or of other foods that are specified by the regulatory
authority is to be controlled under the HACCP plan;Pf
2. 3. A flow diagram by specific food or
category type identifying critical control points and providing information on
the following or chart for each specific food or category type that
identifies:Pf
a. Each step in the process,Pf
b. The hazards and controls for each step in the flow
diagram or chart,Pf
c. The steps that are critical control points,Pf
a. Ingredients d. The ingredients, materials,
and equipment used in the preparation of that food,Pf and
b. e. Formulations or recipes that delineate
methods and procedural control measures that address the food safety concerns
involved;Pf
3. Food employee and supervisory training plan that
addresses the food safety issues of concern.
4. A statement of standard operating procedures for the
plan under consideration including clearly identifying A critical
control point summary for each specific food or category type that clearly
identifies:
a. Each critical control point,;Pf
b. The critical limits for each critical control point,;Pf
c. The method and frequency for monitoring and controlling
each critical control point by the food employee designated by the person in
charge,;Pf
d. The method and frequency for the person in charge to
routinely verify that the food employee is following standard operating
procedures and monitoring critical control points,;Pf
e. Action to be taken by the person in charge if the critical
limits for each critical control point are not met,;Pf
and
f. Records to be maintained by the person in charge to
demonstrate that the HACCP plan is properly operated and managed;Pf and
5. Supporting documents such as;
a. Food employee and supervisory training plan addressing
food safety issues;Pf
b. Copies of blank records forms that are necessary to
implement a HACCP plan;Pf
c. Additional scientific data or other information, as
required by the regulatory authority supporting the determination that food
safety is not compromised by the proposal.Pf
5. Additional scientific data or other information, as
required by the regulatory authority, supporting the determination that food
safety is not compromised by the proposal.
6. Any other information required by the regulatory
authority.
12VAC5-421-3670. Application procedure, submission 30
calendar days before proposed opening.
An applicant seeking to operate a nontemporary food
establishment shall submit an application for a permit at least 30 calendar
days before the date planned for opening a food establishment or at least 30
calendar days before the expiration date of the current permit for an
existing facility. An applicant seeking to operate a temporary food establishment
shall submit an application for a permit at least 10 calendar days before the
date planned for opening the temporary food establishment.
12VAC5-421-3700. Contents of the application.
The application shall include:
1. The name, mailing address, telephone number, and signature
of the person applying for the permit and the name, mailing address, and
location of the food establishment;
2. Information specifying whether the food establishment is
owned by an association, corporation, individual, partnership, or other legal
entity;
3. A statement specifying whether the food establishment:
a. Is mobile or stationary and temporary or permanent; and
b. Is an operation that includes one or more of the following:
(1) Prepares, offers for sale, or serves potentially
hazardous food time/temperature control for safety food:
(a) Only to order upon a consumer's request;
(b) In advance in quantities based on projected consumer
demand and discards food that is not sold or served at an approved frequency;
or
(c) Using time as the public health control as specified under
12VAC5-421-850;
(2) Prepares potentially hazardous food time/temperature
control for safety food in advance using a food preparation method that
involves two or more steps which may include combining potentially hazardous
time/temperature control for safety food ingredients; cooking; cooling;
reheating; hot or cold holding; freezing; or thawing;
(3) Prepares food as specified under subdivision 3 b (2) of
this section for delivery to and consumption at a location off the premises of
the food establishment where it is prepared;
(4) Prepares food as specified under subdivision 3 b (2) of
this section for service to a highly susceptible population;
(5) Prepares only food that is not [ potentially
hazardous time/temperature control for safety food ]; or
(6) Does not prepare, but offers for sale only prepackaged
food that is not potentially hazardous time/temperature control for
safety food;
4. The name, title, address, and telephone number of the
person directly responsible for the food establishment;
5. The name, title, address, and telephone number of the
person who functions as the immediate supervisor of the person specified under
subdivision 4 of this section such as the zone, district, or regional
supervisor;
6. The names, titles, and addresses of:
a. The persons comprising the legal ownership as specified
under subdivision 2 of this section including the owners and officers; and
b. The local resident agent if one is required based on the
type of legal ownership;
7. A statement signed by the applicant that:
a. Attests to the accuracy of the information provided in the
application; and
b. Affirms that the applicant will:
(1) Comply with this chapter; and
(2) Allow the regulatory authority access to the establishment
as specified under 12VAC5-421-3820 and to the records specified under
12VAC5-421-440 and 12VAC5-421-2330 and subdivision 4 of 12VAC5-421-3630; and
8. Other information required by the regulatory authority.
12VAC5-421-3770. Suspension Summary suspension of
a permit.
The director may summarily suspend without a
hearing a permit to operate a restaurant if the director finds the
continued operation constitutes a substantial and imminent threat to the public
health, except the director may summarily suspend the permit of a
temporary restaurant as addressed under 12VAC5-421-3870. Upon receipt of such
notice that a permit is suspended, the permit holder shall cease food
operations immediately and begin corrective action.
Whenever a permit is suspended, the holder of the permit or
the person in charge shall be notified in writing by certified mail or by hand
delivery. Upon service of notice that the permit is immediately suspended, the
former permit holder shall be given an opportunity for a hearing an
informal fact-finding conference in accordance with § 2.2-4019 of the Code
of Virginia. The request for a hearing an informal fact-finding
conference shall be in writing. The written request shall be filed with the
local department by the former holder of the permit. If written request for a
hearing an informal fact-finding conference is not filed within 10
working days, the suspension is sustained. Each holder of a suspended permit
shall be afforded an opportunity for an informal hearing fact-finding
conference, within three working days of receipt of a request for the hearing
informal fact-finding conference. The director may end the suspension at
any time if the reasons for the suspension no longer exist.
12VAC5-421-3780. Revocation of a permit.
The director may, after providing an opportunity for a
hearing an informal fact-finding conference in accordance with
§ 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia, revoke a permit for flagrant or
continuing violation of any of the requirements of this part.
Prior to revocation, the director shall notify in writing
the holder of the permit, or the person in charge, of the specific reason for
which the permit is to be revoked. The permit shall be revoked at the end of
the 15 days following service of such notice unless a written request for a
hearing is filed before then with the director from which the permit was
obtained. If no request for a hearing is filed within the 15 day period, the
revocation of the permit shall be final.
Article 4
Inspection and Correction of Violations
12VAC5-421-3800. Periodic inspection.
Food establishments shall be inspected by the designee of the
director. Inspections of the food establishments shall be performed as often as
necessary for the enforcement of this part in accordance with the following:
1. Except as specified in subdivisions 2 and 3 of this
section, the regulatory authority shall inspect a food establishment at least
once every six months.
2. The regulatory authority may increase the interval between
inspections beyond six months if:
a. The food establishment is fully operating under an approved
and validated HACCP plan as specified under 12VAC5-421-3630;
b. The food establishment is assigned a less frequent
inspection frequency based on a written an established risk-based
inspection schedule that is being uniformly applied throughout the jurisdiction
Commonwealth and at least once every six months the establishment is
contacted by telephone or other means by the regulatory authority to ensure
that the establishment manager and the nature of the food operation are not
changed updated annually upon reissuance of the annual permit; or
c. The establishment's operation involves only coffee service
and other unpackaged or prepackaged food that is not potentially hazardous
time/temperature control for safety food, such as carbonated beverages
and snack food such as chips, nuts, popcorn, and pretzels.
3. The regulatory authority shall periodically inspect throughout
its permit period a temporary food establishment that prepares, sells,
or serves unpackaged potentially hazardous food and that during its
permit period, unless the Virginia Department of Health develops a written
risk-based plan for adjusting the frequency of inspections of temporary food
establishments that is uniformly applied throughout the Commonwealth.
a. Has improvised rather than permanent facilities or
equipment for accomplishing functions such as handwashing, food preparation and
protection, food temperature control, warewashing, providing drinking water,
waste retention and disposal, and insect and rodent control; or
b. Has inexperienced food employees.
12VAC5-421-3810. Performance-based and [ priority-based
risk-based ] inspections.
Within the parameters specified in 12VAC5-421-3800, the
regulatory authority shall prioritize, and conduct more frequent inspections
based upon its assessment of a food establishment's history of compliance with
this chapter and the establishment's potential as a vector of foodborne illness
by evaluating:
1. Past performance for nonconformance with this chapter or
HACCP plan requirements that are critical priority items or priority
foundation items;
2. Past performance for numerous or repeat violations of this
chapter or HACCP plan requirements that are noncritical core items;
3. Past performance for complaints investigated and found to
be valid;
4. The hazards associated with the particular foods that are
prepared, stored, or served;
5. The type of operation including the methods and extent of
food storage, preparation, and service;
6. The number of people served; and
7. Whether the population served is a highly susceptible
population.
12VAC5-421-3815. Competency of environmental health
specialists.
A. An authorized representative of the commissioner
who inspects a food establishment or conducts plan review for compliance with
this chapter shall have the knowledge, skills, and ability to adequately
perform the required duties. For the purposes of this section, competency
shall be demonstrated when an environmental health specialist meets the
training and standardization requirements specified in the Virginia Department
of Health Procedures for Certification and Standardization of Retail Food
Protection Staff, 2014, (VDH, Division of Food and Environmental Services).
B. The regulatory authority shall ensure that authorized
representatives who inspect a food establishment or conduct plan review for
compliance with this chapter have access to training and continuing education
as needed to properly identify violations and apply this chapter.
12VAC5-421-3860. Documenting information and observations.
The regulatory authority shall document on an inspection
report form:
1. Administrative information about the food establishment's
legal identity, street and mailing addresses, type of establishment and
operation as specified under 12VAC5-421-3700, inspection date, and other
information such as type of water supply and sewage disposal, status of the
permit, and personnel certificates that may be required; and
2. Specific factual observations of violative conditions or
other deviations from this chapter that require correction by the permit holder
including:
a. Failure of the person in charge to demonstrate the
knowledge of foodborne illness prevention, application of HACCP principles, and
the requirements of this chapter specified under 12VAC5-421-60;
b. Failure of food employees, conditional employees,
and the person in charge to demonstrate their knowledge of their
responsibility to report a disease or medical condition as specified under
12VAC5-421-80 B and D;
c. Nonconformance with [ critical priority ]
items [ or priority foundation items ] of this chapter;
d. Failure of the appropriate food employees to demonstrate
their knowledge of, and ability to perform in accordance with, the procedural,
monitoring, verification, and corrective action practices required by the
regulatory authority as specified under 12VAC5-421-60;
e. Failure of the person in charge to provide records required
by the regulatory authority for determining conformance with a HACCP plan as
specified under subdivision 4 f of 12VAC5-421-3630; and
f. Nonconformance with critical limits of a HACCP plan.
12VAC5-421-3910. Imminent health hazard, ceasing operations and
reporting.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, a
permit holder shall immediately discontinue operations and notify the
regulatory authority if an imminent health hazard may exist because of an
emergency such as a fire, flood, extended interruption of electrical or water
service, sewage backup, misuse of poisonous or toxic materials, onset of an
apparent foodborne illness outbreak, gross insanitary occurrence or condition,
or other circumstance that may endanger public health.P
B. A permit holder need not discontinue operations in an area
of an establishment that is unaffected by the imminent health hazard.
12VAC5-421-3930. Critical violation, timely Timely
correction.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, a
permit holder shall at the time of inspection correct a critical violation
of priority item or priority foundation item in this chapter and
implement corrective actions for a HACCP plan provision that is not in
compliance with its critical limit. Pf
B. Considering the nature of the potential hazard involved
and the complexity of the corrective action needed, the regulatory authority
may agree to or specify a longer time frame timeframe, not to
exceed 10 calendar days:
1. 72 hours after the inspection, for the permit
holder to correct critical violations priority items; or
2. 10 calendar days after the inspection for the permit
holder to correct priority foundation items or HACCP plan deviations.
12VAC5-421-3940. Verification and documentation of correction.
A. After observing at the time of inspection a correction of
a critical violation or deviation priority item or priority
foundation item, the regulatory authority shall enter the violation observation
and information about the corrective action on the inspection report.
B. As specified under 12VAC5-421-3930 B, after receiving
notification that the permit holder has corrected a critical violation priority
item or priority foundation item or a HACCP plan deviation, or at
the end of the specified period of time, the regulatory authority shall verify
correction of the violation, document the information on an inspection
report, and enter the report in the regulatory authority's records.
12VAC5-421-3950. Noncritical violation Core item,
time frame timeframe for correction.
A. Except as specified in subsection B of this section, the
permit holder shall correct noncritical violations core items by
a date and time agreed to or specified by the regulatory authority but no later
than 90 calendar days after the inspection.
B. The regulatory authority may approve a compliance schedule
that extends beyond the time limits specified under subsection A of this
section if a written schedule of compliance is submitted by the permit holder
and no health hazard exists or will result from allowing an extended schedule
for compliance.
12VAC5-421-3960. Examination for condemnation of food.
Food may be examined or sampled by the department as often as
necessary for enforcement of this chapter. Also, the department may, upon
written notice to the owner or permit holder or person in charge impound any
food which it believes is in violation of Part III (12VAC5-421-260 et seq.)
or any other section of this chapter. The department shall tag, label, or
otherwise identify any food subject to impoundment. No food under conditions
specified in the impoundment shall be used, served or moved from the
establishment. The department shall permit storage of the food under conditions
specified in the impoundment unless storage is not possible without risk to the
public health in which case immediate destruction shall be ordered and
accomplished by the owner or permit holder or person in charge. The
impoundment shall state that a request for a hearing an informal
fact-finding conference may be filed within 10 days and that if no hearing
conference is requested, the food shall be destroyed by the owner or
permit holder or person in charge. A hearing shall be held The
department shall hold an informal fact-finding conference if so requested,
and on the basis of evidence produced at the hearing, the impoundment may be
vacated, or the owner or permit holder or person in charge of the food may be
directed by written order in writing by the director to denature
or destroy such food or to bring it into compliance with the provisions of this
chapter.
12VAC5-421-3970. Enforcement of regulation.
A. This chapter shall be enforced by the State Board of
Health and the State Health Commissioner, as executive officer of the board.
B. The directors are appointed by the board and commissioner
as duly designated officers and are responsible for the implementation and
enforcement of this chapter.
C. All food establishments shall operate in compliance with
the requirements set forth in this chapter and shall not operate without a
valid permit.
D. The commissioner shall be vested with all the authority of
the board when it is not in session, subject to such rules and regulations as
may be prescribed by the board.
E. Pursuant to the authority granted in §§ 32.1-26 and 35.1-6
of the Code of Virginia, the commissioner may issue orders to require any owner
or permit holder or other person to comply with the provisions of these
regulations this chapter. The order may require the following:
1. The immediate cessation and correction of the violation;
2. Appropriate remedial action to ensure that the violation
does not continue or recur;
3. The submission of a plan to prevent future violations;
4. The submission of an application for a variance; and
5. Any other corrective action deemed necessary for proper
compliance with the regulations.
F. Before the issuance of an order, the commissioner must
comply with the requirements of § 35.1-6 of the Code of Virginia.
G. All orders issued pursuant to 12VAC5-421-3970 C shall
become effective not less than 15 days after mailing a copy thereof by
certified mail to the last known address of the owner or permit holder or
person violating these regulations. Violation of an order is a Class 3
misdemeanor. See § 35.1-7 of the Code of Virginia.
H. F. The commissioner may act as the agent of
the board to enforce all effective orders and these regulations this
chapter. Should any owner or permit holder fail to comply with any
effective order or these regulations this chapter, the
commissioner may:
1. Institute a proceeding to revoke the owner's or permit
holder's permit in accordance with 12VAC5-421-3780;
2. Request the attorney for the Commonwealth to bring a
criminal action;
3. Request the Attorney General to bring an action for civil
penalty, injunction, or other appropriate remedy; or
4. Do any combination of the above.
I. G. Not exclusive means of enforcement.
Nothing contained in 12VAC5-421-3970 this section shall be
interpreted to require the commissioner to issue an order prior to seeking
enforcement of any regulations or statute through an injunction, mandamus or
criminal prosecution.
J. H. Hearings Proceedings before
the commissioner or his designee shall include any of the following forms
depending on the nature of the controversy and the interests of the parties
involved.
1. Informal hearings fact-finding conferences.
An informal hearing fact-finding conference is a meeting with a
district or local health department with the district or local health director
presiding and held in conformance with § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia.
2. Adjudicatory hearing. The adjudicatory hearing is a formal,
public adjudicatory proceeding before the commissioner, or his designated
hearing officer a hearing officer as defined by § 2.2-4001 of the
Code of Virginia, and held in conformance with § 2.2-4020 of the Code of
Virginia.
12VAC5-421-3980. Request for hearing informal fact-finding
conference.
A request for an informal hearing fact-finding
conference shall be made by sending the request in writing to the district
or local health department in the locality where the food establishment is
located. Requests for hearings an informal fact-finding conference
shall cite the reason(s) reason or reasons for the hearing
request and shall cite the section(s) section or sections of these
regulations this chapter involved and must be received within 30
days of the decision by the department that lead to the hearing request.
12VAC5-421-3990. Hearing as a matter of right. (Repealed.)
Any owner or permit holder or named party whose rights,
duties, or privileges have been, or may be affected by any case decision of the
board or its subordinates in the administration of these regulations shall have
a right to both informal and adjudicatory hearings. The commissioner may
require participation in an informal hearing before granting the request for a
full adjudicatory hearing. Exception: No person other than an owner shall have
the right to an adjudicatory hearing to challenge the issuance of a permit to
operate unless the person can demonstrate at an informal hearing that the
minimum standards contained in these regulations have not been applied and that
he will be injured in some manner by the issuance of the permit.
12VAC5-421-4000. Appeals.
A. Any appeal from a denial of a permit to operate a
food establishment must be made in writing and received by the department
within 30 days after service of the final order in the case decision denial.
In the event that service of a case decision upon a party is accomplished by
mail, three days shall be added to the 30-day period. Notice shall be
consistent with Part 2A of the Rules of the Supreme Court of Virginia.
1. Any request for hearing on the denial of an application
for a variance pursuant to 12VAC5-421-3590 A must be made in writing and
received within sixty days of receipt of the denial notice.
2. Any request for a variance must be made in writing and
received by the department prior to the denial of the food establishment
permit, or within 60 days after such denial.
3. In the event a person applies for a variance within the
60-day period provided by subdivision 2 of this section, the date for appealing
the denial of the permit, pursuant to subdivision 1 of this section, shall
commence from the date on which the department acts on the request for a
variance.
4. B. Pursuant to the Administrative Process
Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) an aggrieved owner or permit
holder may appeal a final case decision of the commissioner to an appropriate
circuit court.
NOTICE: The following
forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms
are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be
viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly
Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (12VAC5-421)
Foodservice Establishment Inspection Report, EHS-152 (rev.
9/95).
Foodservice Critical Procedures Report, EHS-153 (rev.
9/95).
Food
Establishment Inspection Report Form - Cover Page (eff. 2016)
Food
Establishment Inspection Report Form - Narrative Page with Temperatures (eff.
2016)
Food
Establishment Inspection Report Form - Narrative Page (eff. 2016)
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC5-421)
National Shellfish Sanitation Program Manual of
Operations, Part II, Sanitation of the Harvesting, Processing and Distribution
of Shellfish, 1995 Revision, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services,
Public Health Service, Food and Drug Administration
Approved
Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations, 34th Edition, 2014,
U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Food and Drug Administration,
Center for Drug Evaluation and Research, Office of Pharmaceutical Science,
Office of Generic Drugs at http://www.fda.gov/cder/ob/default.htm
Grade
"A" Pasteurized Milk Ordinance, 2013 Revision, U.S. Department of
Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, Food and Drug Administration,
Milk Safety Branch (HFS-626), 5100 Paint Branch Parkway, College Park, MD
20740-3835
Interstate
Certified Shellfish Shippers List (updated monthly), published by the U.S.
Department of Health and Human Services, Public Health Service, Food and Drug
Administration, Office of Seafood (HFS-417), 5100 Paint Branch Parkway, College
Park, MD 20740-3835
National
Shellfish Sanitation Program (NSSP) Guide for the Control of Molluscan Shellfish,
2013 Revision, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Public Health
Service, Food and Drug Administration, Office of Seafood (HFS-417), 5100 Paint
Branch Parkway, College Park, MD 20740-3835
NSF/ANSI
18-2012 Manual Food and Beverage Dispensing Equipment, 2012, NSF
International, 789 North Dixboro Road, P.O. Box 130140, Ann Arbor, MI
48113-0140, www.nsf.org
Standards
for Accreditation of Food Protection Manager Certification Programs, April
2012, Conference for Food Protection, 30 Elliott Court, Martinsville, IN
46151-1331
United
States Standards, Grades, and Weight Classes for Shell Eggs, AMS-56, effective
July 20, 2000, U.S. Department of Agriculture, Agricultural Marketing Service,
Poultry Programs, STOP 0259, Room 3944-South, 1400 Independence Avenue, SW,
Washington, DC 20250-0259
VDH
Procedures for Certification and Standardization of Retail Food Protection
Staff Workbook, 2014, Virginia Department of Health, Division of Food and
Environmental Services, 109 Governor Street, 5th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-2701; Filed June 2, 2016, 5:27 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Proposed Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-30. Groups Covered and
Agencies Responsible for Eligibility Determination (amending 12VAC30-30-20).
12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration, and Scope of Medical and
Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-130).
12VAC30-135. Demonstration Waiver Services (repealing 12VAC30-135-10 through 12VAC30-135-90).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia;
42 USC § 1396 et seq.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: August 26, 2016.
Agency Contact: Victoria Simmons, Regulatory
Coordinator, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad Street,
Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-6043, FAX (804) 786-1680,
or email victoria.simmons@dmas.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia grants
to the Board of Medical Assistance Services the authority to administer the
Plan for Medical Assistance. Section 32.1-324 of the Code of Virginia
authorizes the Director of the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS)
to administer and amend the Plan for Medical Assistance when the board is not in
session, subject to such rules and regulations as may be prescribed by the
board. The Medicaid authority was established by § 1902(a) of the Social
Security Act (42 USC § 1396a), which provides the governing authority for
DMAS to administer the state's Medicaid system.
The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law
111-148) (PPACA), as amended by the Health Care and Education Recovery Act of
2010 (Public Law 111-152), contains § 2303 State Eligibility Option for Family
Planning Services, which established a new Medicaid eligibility group and the
option for states to begin providing family planning services and supplies to
individuals (both men and women) found to be eligible under this new group.
Coverage of both of these services was previously only available under a
demonstration project waiver for men and women not eligible for full Medicaid
benefits.
Item 301 UU of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly
provides the following: "The Department of Medical Assistance Services
shall seek federal authority to move the family planning eligibility group from
a demonstration waiver to the State Plan for Medical Assistance. The department
shall seek approval of coverage under this new state plan option for
individuals with income up to 200% of the federal poverty level (FPL).
For the purposes of this section, family planning services shall not cover
payment for abortion services and no funds shall be used to perform, assist,
encourage or make direct referrals for abortions. The department shall have
authority to implement necessary changes upon federal approval and prior to the
completion of any regulatory process undertaken in order to effect such
change."
Purpose: The Plan First program was initially covered by
the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) as a demonstration waiver
program and covered general family planning services for persons who could not
qualify for full Medicaid eligibility. The covered services included (i)
examinations for both men and women for sexually transmitted diseases, (ii)
birth control, (iii) cancer screenings for men and women, and (iv) family
planning education and counseling. Demonstration projects, regardless of their
subject, create significant administrative costs and reporting requirements for
Medicaid programs. In order to approve a demonstration grant for a state, CMS
requires significant data reporting, formal evaluations, and periodic grant
renewals. Converting this family planning service to the State Plan, as now
permitted by PPACA, relieves DMAS of these administrative costs and duties.
The purpose of this action is to move the waiver regulations
into the state plan regulations, which has no effect on the health, safety, or
welfare of citizens. The increase of the income eligibility level will permit
more individuals to receive services under this program. The advantage to the
individuals who qualify for this service is the coverage of family planning
services and examinations for sexually transmitted diseases.
There are no disadvantages to the public or the Commonwealth
associated with the proposed regulatory action.
Substance: The planned regulatory action makes three
types of changes: (i) substantive changes required by CMS as a condition of the
state plan amendment approval, (ii) substantive changes to the income level
approved by CMS, and (iii) nonsubstantive editorial changes. In addition to
moving this program out of demonstration waiver regulations and into state plan
regulations, this action also increases the income level for eligibility, authorizes
use of the DMAS Central Processing Unit or other contractor for determining
eligibility (should DMAS determine that this is the most practicable approach),
and clarifies that those individuals eligible for full-benefit coverage under
Medicaid or FAMIS are not eligible under this program. The proposed regulatory
action also authorizes coverage for additional (beyond initial) testing for
sexually transmitted infections (STI) and newer methods of cervical cancer
screening. The changes are designed to facilitate administration and update the
services provided. In addition, this regulatory action includes nonsubstantive
changes to selected language.
Current regulations treat individuals eligible for coverage
under the Medicaid family planning option as a demonstration waiver versus the
state plan option as approved by CMS. Under the demonstration waiver, the
Commonwealth was allowed to waive certain limits for eligibility, including
disallowing eligibility based on age, gender, or having had a sterilization
procedure or hysterectomy. The demonstration waiver also disallowed retroactive
eligibility. These limitations were required by CMS as a condition of waiver
approval. The current regulations also limit the income level for eligibility
to 133% FPL.
Current regulations limit eligibility determination to local
departments of social services and are unclear with regard to enrollment for
persons eligible for Medicaid or FAMIS under a full-benefits category. Current
regulations limit testing for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) to the
initial visit and restrict cervical cancer screening to the Pap test.
By meeting CMS requirements for continuation of the Family
Planning program as a state plan service, the proposed regulatory action brings
the regulations into compliance with the state plan amendment currently
approved by CMS. This action assures that the eligibility rules for the state
plan family planning option are consistent with those for full benefit Medicaid
program. Raising the income level for eligibility makes the program consistent
with the FAMIS MOMS program for pregnant women, and offers more men and women
access to family planning services. Updating the clinical services available
(STI testing and cervical cancer screening options) conforms to the present
standard of care.
The family planning program is a benefit to qualified
low-income families by providing them with the means for obtaining medical
family planning services to avoid unintended pregnancies and increase the
spacing between births to help promote healthier mothers and infants.
The primary advantage of the family planning program to the
Commonwealth is a cost savings to Medicaid for prenatal care, delivery, and
infant care by preventing unintended pregnancies. According to the Virginia
Department of Health's Pregnancy Risk Assessment Monitoring System (2010),
unintended pregnancy continues to occur at a high rate in Virginia, where 42%
of all pregnancies are unintended across the Commonwealth. Of these unintended
pregnancies, 31% were mistimed (women who reported they wanted to be pregnant
later) and 11% were unwanted (women who reported they did not want the
pregnancy then or in the future).
Family planning services do not cover abortion services or
referrals for abortions. This regulatory action would not affect individuals
younger than 19 years of age unless they are in the FAMIS income range but are
not eligible for FAMIS because of having other creditable health insurance. The
majority of individuals younger than 19 years of age would be eligible for full
Medicaid or FAMIS benefits.
The intent of this action is to align Virginia policy with that
afforded by federal law, and in doing so expand family planning options for
individuals who would not otherwise qualify for Medicaid or FAMIS coverage.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public is that more
low-income women and men will have access to family planning services. This
increased access will support these individuals' efforts to better plan for
pregnancy and will also allow greater access to testing for STI and screening
for cervical cancer.
The primary disadvantage to these individuals is that, by
definition, this is a limited benefit program. Some individuals may not
understand those limits as they apply for full Medicaid benefits or seek
services that are not encompassed by this family planning program, requiring
remedial education and redirection to more appropriate resources. A
disadvantage of this program for providers is that they also may not understand
this program's limits and, after failing to determine that their patient has
limited available benefits, provide a full range of services only to have their
claims denied.
There are no identified disadvantages to the Commonwealth.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The proposed
regulation makes permanent the provision of family planning services under the
new eligibility group authorized by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Services (CMS).
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. These regulations contain rules for
Medicaid family planning services. Family planning services are services
necessary to prevent or delay a pregnancy and do not include abortion services.
The services include education and counseling, physician office visits, annual
gynecological exams, sexually transmitted disease screens, Pap tests,
contraceptives, and sterilizations for family planning purposes. Prior to 2011,
coverage of these services had been provided in Virginia under a demonstration
project waiver which required a new demonstration and federal approval every
three years. In 2010, the federal Affordable Care Act established a new
Medicaid eligibility group and the option for states to begin providing family
planning services and supplies to individuals found to be eligible under this
new group. Consequently, Chapter 890 of the 2011 Acts of Assembly, Item 297
DDDDD required the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS) to seek
federal approval to provide family planning services under the new eligibility
group. As a result, DMAS obtained federal authority in 2011 and has been
providing these services under that authority since then.1 The proposed
changes have been implemented for some time and no significant economic impact
upon promulgation of the proposed changes is expected. However, a general
discussion is provided below to highlight the effects that have already likely
occurred and will likely continue to be realized in the future.
As a result of the new eligibility rules in 2011, the income
limit has increased from 133 percent of the federal poverty limit to 200
percent. The increase in the income level permitted more low-income women and men
to have access to family planning services. In support of the waiver renewal
application, DMAS estimated the cost effectiveness of family planning services
in 2011. The study shows that the primary advantage of this change is costs
savings to Medicaid for prenatal care, delivery, and infant care by preventing
unintended pregnancies.
The study estimated that an additional 1,246 recipients would
receive family planning services in fiscal year (FY) 2013. The cost of family
planning services was estimated to be $323.53 per recipient for FY2013 and
$403,123 in total to cover 1,246 additional recipients.2 On the
other hand, the cost of pregnancy care, delivery, and first year of life care
was estimated to be $19,629.88 per recipient for FY2013, making family planning
services very cost effective. For example, assuming family planning services
reduce the Medicaid population's pregnancy rate by 7.15 percent, approximately
89 unintended pregnancies in FY2013 could be assumed to have been averted. As a
result, assuming all unintended pregnancies would have ended in births,
approximately $1.7 million in FY2013 could be estimated to have been averted in
costs for prenatal care, delivery, and first year of life care.3 4
In reality, some of the unintended pregnancies would not end in
births. Thus, there is likely to be some financial savings to women who
unintentionally get pregnant and who would otherwise terminate their
pregnancies. Family planning services do not pay for abortion services unless
the life or health of the mother is endangered if the fetus is carried to term.
Thus, any abortion costs must be paid privately. Since the proposed change
likely reduced the number of terminated pregnancies among unintended
pregnancies, these women and/or their families probably realized some financial
savings in abortion costs that would have otherwise occurred.
In addition, the non-financial effects of family planning are
significant. The family planning services are expected to benefit the health
and welfare of these women in their childbearing years, to reduce maternal
mortality and morbidity, and to improve the health of children, by allowing
women to plan their pregnancies, by decreasing their risk of experiencing poor
birth outcomes, and by averting the unintended births.5, 6
Adolescent women, women with several children, and women with existing health
problems are particularly susceptible to health risks because their bodies may
not be mature enough to handle a pregnancy and experience obstetrical
complications, may not have gained sufficient strength following a previous
pregnancy, or may face complications due to other health conditions,
respectively. Closely spaced births (usually within 2 years) are more likely to
be premature and low birth-weight. By practicing family planning, women can
avoid high-risk births and reduce their chances of having a baby who will die
in infancy. Poor birth outcomes may also result in expensive long lasting
health care services for developmentally delayed children.
Some other additional benefits of expanding family planning
services may stem from the use of contraceptives. Condoms offer protection
against infection with HIV and STDs. Spermicides and diaphragm may help prevent
STDs. Hormonal contraceptive methods may provide protection against iron
deficiency, anemia, menstrual problems, and provide other similar benefits.
Screening and testing may help detect some potential life threatening
conditions such as cervical or breast cancer early on and improve recipient
women's health.
The proposed change is beneficial also in terms of lower
administrative costs. In order to approve a demonstration grant for a state,
CMS requires significant data reporting, formal evaluations, and periodic grant
renewals. Provision of services under the state plan eliminates these
administrative costs. However, likely savings in administrative costs were
probably offset to some extent by the increase in the caseloads.
Businesses and Entities Affected. The increase in the
eligibility income level was estimated to allow an additional 1,246 recipients
to receive Medicaid funded family planning services in FY2013. It is not known
how many physician practices provide services to individuals in the family
planning program.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed changes apply
statewide.
Projected Impact on Employment. The increase in population
receiving family planning services likely increased the demand for such
services and likely had a positive impact on employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. Increased
demand for family planning services likely increased provider revenues and had
positive impact on their asset values.
Real Estate Development Costs. No impact on real estate
development costs is expected.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The affected providers are generally
assumed to be small businesses. The proposed regulation does not impose costs
on them, but likely resulted in an increase in demand for their services.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. No adverse
impact on small businesses is expected.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. The proposed regulation does not adversely affect
non-small businesses.
Localities. The proposed regulation does not adversely affect
localities.
Other Entities. The proposed regulation does not adversely
affect other entities.
________________________________________
1 However since the waiver regulation has not moved into
the state plan regulations, similar language has been included in budget bills
after 2011. For example, see Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly, Item 301
UU.
2 This estimate is probably slightly lower than actual
cost for two reasons. First, transportation was not a covered service prior to
2011 which would add approximately $1.12 per member per month to the overall
cost. Second, testing for sexually transmitted diseases was limited to the
initial visit, and cervical cancer screening was limited to the Pap test both
of which would also add to the overall cost.
3 The literature strongly supports that every dollar
spent on family planning services produces $3.00 to $5.63 savings in Medicaid
expenditures for pregnancy and infant care due to averted pregnancies. For
example, see "Contraceptive Needs and Services, 2010," Guttmacher
Institute, July 2013 and Forrest and Samara, 1996, "Impact of Publicly
Funded Contraceptive Services on Unintended Pregnancies and Implications for
Medicaid Expenditures," Family Planning Perspectives, 28(5).
4 Exact amount of the Commonwealth's share of estimated
total savings depends on the federal match rate which is 90% for family
planning services and 50% for pregnancy and infant care services. For
simplicity, only total savings are stated.
5 Trussell, James, et al., 1995, "The Economic
Value of Contraception: A comparison of 15 Methods," American Journal of
Public Health, v. 85 No. 4, pp. 494-503.
6 Trussell, James et al., 1997, "Medical Care Costs
Savings from Adolescent Contraceptive Use," Family Planning Perspectives,
v. 29, No. 6.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
agency has reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of
Planning and Budget regarding the regulations concerning Plan First Family
Planning Services (Optional Group). The agency concurs with this analysis.
Summary:
Pursuant to Item 301 UU of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of
Assembly, the proposed amendments move the family planning program from
demonstration waiver regulations to state plan regulations. The proposed
amendments (i) increase the income level for eligibility for the program; (ii)
authorize use of the Department of Medical Assistance Services Central Processing
Unit or other contractor for determining eligibility, provided that DMAS
determines that this is the most practicable approach; (iii) clarify that
individuals eligible for full-benefit coverage under Medicaid or FAMIS are not
eligible under this program; and (iv) authorize coverage for additional
testing, beyond the initial testing, for sexually transmitted infections and
newer methods of cervical cancer screening.
12VAC30-30-20. Optional groups other than the medically needy.
The Title IV A agency determines eligibility for Title XIX
services.
1. Caretakers and pregnant women who meet the income and
resource requirements of AFDC but who do not receive cash assistance.
2. Individuals who would be eligible for AFDC, SSI or an
optional state supplement as specified in 42 CFR 435.230, if they were not in a
medical institution.
3. A group or groups of individuals who would be eligible for
Medicaid under the plan if they were in a NF or an ICF/MR, who but for the
provision of home and community-based services under a waiver granted under 42 CFR
Part 441, Subpart G would require institutionalization, and who will receive
home and community-based services under the waiver. The group or groups covered
are listed in the waiver request. This option is effective on the effective
date of the state's § 1915(c) waiver under which this group(s) group
is covered. In the event an existing § 1915(c) waiver is amended to cover
this group(s) group, this option is effective on the effective
date of the amendment.
4. Individuals who would be eligible for Medicaid under the
plan if they were in a medical institution, who are terminally ill, and who
receive hospice care in accordance with a voluntary election described in §
1905(o) of the Act.
5. The state does not cover all individuals who are not
described in § 1902(a)(10)(A)(i) of the Act, who meet the income and
resource requirements of the AFDC state plan and who are under the age of 21.
The state does cover reasonable classifications of these individuals as
follows:
a. Individuals for whom public agencies are assuming full or
partial financial responsibility and who are:
(1) In foster homes (and are under the age of 21).
(2) In private institutions (and are under the age of 21).
(3) In addition to the group under subdivisions 5 a (1) and
(2) of this section, individuals placed in foster homes or private institutions
by private nonprofit agencies (and are under the age of 21).
b. Individuals in adoptions subsidized in full or part by a
public agency (who are under the age of 21).
c. Individuals in NFs (who are under the age of 21). NF
services are provided under this plan.
d. In addition to the group under subdivision 5 c of this
section, individuals in ICFs/MR (who are under the age of 21).
6. A child for whom there is in effect a state adoption
assistance agreement (other than under Title IV-E of the Act), who, as
determined by the state adoption agency, cannot be placed for adoption without
medical assistance because the child has special care needs for medical or
rehabilitative care, and who before execution of the agreement:
a. Was eligible for Medicaid under the state's approved
Medicaid plan; or
b. Would have been eligible for Medicaid if the standards and
methodologies of the Title IV-E foster care program were applied rather than
the AFDC standards and methodologies.
The state covers individuals under the age of 21.
7. Section 1902(f) states and SSI criteria states without
agreements under §§ 1616 and 1634 of the Act.
The following groups of individuals who receive a state
supplementary payment under an approved optional state supplementary payment
program that meets the following conditions. The supplement is:
a. Based on need and paid in cash on a regular basis.
b. Equal to the difference between the individual's countable
income and the income standard used to determine eligibility for the
supplement.
c. Available to all individuals in each classification and
available on a statewide basis.
d. Paid to one or more of the following classifications of
individuals:
(1) Aged individuals in domiciliary facilities or other group
living arrangements as defined under SSI.
(2) Blind individuals in domiciliary facilities or other group
living arrangements as defined under SSI.
(3) Disabled individuals in domiciliary facilities or other
group living arrangements as defined under SSI.
(4) Individuals receiving a state administered optional state
supplement that meets the conditions specified in 42 CFR 435.230.
The supplement varies in income standard by political
subdivisions according to cost-of-living differences.
The standards for optional state supplementary payments are
listed in 12VAC30-40-250.
8. Individuals who are in institutions for at least 30
consecutive days and who are eligible under a special income level. Eligibility
begins on the first day of the 30-day period. These individuals meet the income
standards specified in 12VAC30-40-220.
The state covers all individuals as described above.
9. Individuals who are 65 years of age or older or who are
disabled as determined under § 1614(a)(3) of the Act, whose income does
not exceed the income level specified in 12VAC30-40-220 for a family of the
same size, and whose resources do not exceed the maximum amount allowed under
SSI.
10. Individuals required to enroll in cost-effective
employer-based group health plans remain eligible for a minimum enrollment
period of one month.
11. Women who have been screened for breast or cervical cancer
under the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Breast and Cervical Cancer
Early Detection Program established under Title XV of the Public Health Service
Act in accordance with § 1504 of the Act and need treatment for breast or
cervical cancer, including a pre-cancerous condition of the breast or cervix.
These women are not otherwise covered under creditable coverage, as defined in
§ 2701(c) of the Public Health Services Act, are not eligible for Medicaid
under any mandatory categorically needy eligibility group, and have not
attained age 65.
12. Individuals who may qualify for the Medicaid Buy-In
program under § 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XV) of the Social Security Act (Ticket
to Work Act) if they meet the requirements for the 80% eligibility group
described in 12VAC30-40-220, as well as the requirements described in
12VAC30-40-105 and 12VAC30-110-1500.
13. Individuals under the State Eligibility Option of P.L.
111-148 § 2303 who are not pregnant and whose income does not exceed the
state established income standard for pregnant women in the Virginia Medicaid
and CHIP State Plan and related waivers, which is 200% of the federal poverty
level, shall be eligible for the family planning program. Services are limited
to family planning services as described in 12VAC30-50-130 D.
12VAC30-50-130. Skilled nursing facility services, EPSDT,
school health services and family planning.
A. Skilled nursing facility services (other than services in
an institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older.
Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
performed within the scope of a license of the practitioner of the healing
arts.
B. Early and periodic screening and diagnosis of individuals
under 21 years of age, and treatment of conditions found.
1. Payment of medical assistance services shall be made on
behalf of individuals under 21 years of age, who are Medicaid eligible, for
medically necessary stays in acute care facilities, and the accompanying
attendant physician care, in excess of 21 days per admission when such services
are rendered for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of health conditions
identified through a physical examination.
2. Routine physicals and immunizations (except as provided
through EPSDT) are not covered except that well-child examinations in a private
physician's office are covered for foster children of the local social services
departments on specific referral from those departments.
3. Orthoptics services shall only be reimbursed if medically
necessary to correct a visual defect identified by an EPSDT examination or
evaluation. The department shall place appropriate utilization controls upon
this service.
4. Consistent with the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of
1989 § 6403, early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment services
means the following services: screening services, vision services, dental
services, hearing services, and such other necessary health care, diagnostic
services, treatment, and other measures described in Social Security Act §
1905(a) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and mental illnesses and
conditions discovered by the screening services and which are medically
necessary, whether or not such services are covered under the State Plan and
notwithstanding the limitations, applicable to recipients ages 21 and over,
provided for by the Act § 1905(a).
5. Community mental health services. These services in order
to be covered (i) shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses
made by LMHPs who are practicing within the scope of their licenses and (ii)
are reflected in provider records and on providers' claims for services by
recognized diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the requested
professional services.
a. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
this section shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly
indicates otherwise:
"Activities of daily living" means personal care
activities and includes bathing, dressing, transferring, toileting, feeding,
and eating.
"Adolescent or child" means the individual receiving
the services described in this section. For the purpose of the use of these
terms, adolescent means an individual 12-20 years of age; a child means an
individual from birth up to 12 years of age.
"Behavioral health services administrator" or
"BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
benefits program under contract with DMAS.
"Care coordination" means collaboration and sharing
of information among health care providers, who are involved with an
individual's health care, to improve the care.
"Certified prescreener" means an employee of the
local community services board or behavioral health authority, or its designee,
who is skilled in the assessment and treatment of mental illness and has
completed a certification program approved by the Department of Behavioral
Health and Developmental Services.
"Clinical experience" means providing direct
behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
in-home services, (ii) day treatment for children and adolescents, (iii)
community-based residential services for children and adolescents who are
younger than 21 years of age (Level A), or (iv) therapeutic behavioral services
(Level B). Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be as
established by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
and Developmental Services.
"DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
Services and its contractor or contractors.
"Human services field" means the same as the term is
defined by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
the same as the term is defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
"Licensed mental health professional" or "LMHP"
means a licensed physician, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed
professional counselor, licensed clinical social worker, licensed substance
abuse treatment practitioner, licensed marriage and family therapist, or
certified psychiatric clinical nurse specialist.
"LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the same
as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a "resident"
until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a specific site has been
preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Counseling. For purposes of
Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for services provided by such
residents, they shall use the title "Resident" in connection with the
applicable profession after their signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-resident in psychology" or "LMHP-RP"
means the same as an individual in a residency, as that term is defined in
18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An LMHP-resident in
psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the regulatory requirements
for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65 and shall not perform the
functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a "resident" until the
supervision for specific clinical duties at a specific site has been
preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Psychology. For purposes of
Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services provided by such residents,
they shall use the title "Resident in Psychology" after their
signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
"LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
"supervisee" as defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be
considered a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical
duties at a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Social Work. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title
"Supervisee in Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such
status.
"Progress notes" means individual-specific
documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
the notes. Individualized and member-specific progress notes are part of the
minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's status,
staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress, or lack of
progress, toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes shall also
include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the
service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered the
service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time
or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each progress
note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be documented
for each service that is billed.
"Psychoeducation" means (i) a specific form of
education aimed at helping individuals who have mental illness and their family
members or caregivers to access clear and concise information about mental
illness and (ii) a way of accessing and learning strategies to deal with mental
illness and its effects in order to design effective treatment plans and
strategies.
"Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving and increasing coping
skills.
"Qualified mental health professional-child" or
"QMHP-C" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
"QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20 and
consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-590.
"Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
"QPPMH" means the same as the term is defined in
12VAC35-105-20 and consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
"Service-specific provider intake" means the face-to-face
interaction in which the provider obtains information from the child or
adolescent, and parent or other family member or members, as appropriate, about
the child's or adolescent's mental health status. It includes documented
history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental health care problems
and issues and shall contain all of the following elements: (i) the presenting
issue/reason for referral, (ii) mental health history/hospitalizations, (iii)
previous interventions by providers and timeframes and response to treatment,
(iv) medical profile, (v) developmental history including history of abuse, if
appropriate, (vi) educational/vocational status, (vii) current living situation
and family history and relationships, (viii) legal status, (ix) drug and
alcohol profile, (x) resources and strengths, (xi) mental status exam and
profile, (xii) diagnosis, (xiii) professional summary and clinical formulation,
(xiv) recommended care and treatment goals, and (xv) the dated signature of the
LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
b. Intensive in-home services (IIH) to children and
adolescents under age 21 shall be time-limited interventions provided in the
individual's residence and when clinically necessary in community settings. All
interventions and the settings of the intervention shall be defined in the
Individual Service Plan. All IIH services shall be designed to specifically
improve family dynamics, provide modeling, and the clinically necessary
interventions that increase functional and therapeutic interpersonal relations
between family members in the home. IIH services are designed to promote
psychoeducational benefits in the home setting of an individual who is at risk
of being moved into an out-of-home placement or who is being transitioned to
home from an out-of-home placement due to a documented medical need of the
individual. These services provide crisis treatment; individual and family
counseling; communication skills (e.g., counseling to assist the individual and
his parents or guardians, as appropriate, to understand and practice
appropriate problem solving, anger management, and interpersonal interaction,
etc.); care coordination with other required services; and 24-hour emergency
response.
(1) These services shall be limited annually to 26 weeks.
Service authorization shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement prior to the
onset of services. Services rendered before the date of authorization shall not
be reimbursed.
(2) Service authorization shall be required for services to
continue beyond the initial 26 weeks.
(3) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are set out in this section.
(4) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or a QMHP-E.
c. Therapeutic day treatment (TDT) shall be provided two or
more hours per day in order to provide therapeutic interventions. Day treatment
programs, limited annually to 780 units, provide evaluation; medication
education and management; opportunities to learn and use daily living skills
and to enhance social and interpersonal skills (e.g., problem solving, anger
management, community responsibility, increased impulse control, and
appropriate peer relations, etc.); and individual, group and family counseling.
(1) Service authorization shall be required for Medicaid
reimbursement.
(2) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are set out in this section.
(3) These services may be rendered only by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or a QMHP-E.
d. Community-based services for children and adolescents under
21 years of age (Level A).
(1) Such services shall be a combination of therapeutic
services rendered in a residential setting. The residential services will
provide structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic
supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric treatment to ensure the
attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the individual
service plan (plan of care). Individuals qualifying for this service must
demonstrate medical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to
mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant functional
impairments in major life activities in the home, school, at work, or in the
community. The service must reasonably be expected to improve the child's
condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed.
The application of a national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in
use in the industry, such as McKesson InterQual® Criteria or an
equivalent standard authorized in advance by DMAS, shall be required for this
service.
(2) In addition to the residential services, the child must
receive, at least weekly, individual psychotherapy that is provided by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
(3) Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
other less intensive services may achieve stabilization.
(4) Authorization shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement.
Services that were rendered before the date of service authorization shall not
be reimbursed.
(5) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed. DMAS shall
reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no more
than 16 beds.
(6) These residential providers must be licensed by the
Department of Social Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of
Behavioral Health and Developmental Services under the Standards for Licensed
Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC40-151), Standards for Interim
Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (6VAC35-51), or Regulations for
Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
(7) Daily progress notes shall document a minimum of seven
psychoeducational activities per week. Psychoeducational programming must
include, but is not limited to, development or maintenance of daily living
skills, anger management, social skills, family living skills, communication
skills, stress management, and any care coordination activities.
(8) The facility/group home must coordinate services with
other providers. Such care coordination shall be documented in the individual's
medical record. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
(9) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-60-61.
(10) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
e. Therapeutic behavioral services (Level B).
(1) Such services must be therapeutic services rendered in a
residential setting that provides structure for daily activities,
psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric
treatment to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as
identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). Individuals
qualifying for this service must demonstrate medical necessity for the service
arising from a condition due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results
in significant functional impairments in major life activities in the home,
school, at work, or in the community. The service must reasonably be expected
to improve the child's condition or prevent regression so that the services
will no longer be needed. The application of a national standardized set of
medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson InterQual®
Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance by DMAS shall be
required for this service.
(2) Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
Services that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not
be reimbursed.
(3) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed. Facilities
that only provide independent living services are not reimbursed. DMAS shall
reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no more
than 16 beds.
(4) These residential providers must be licensed by the
Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) under the
Regulations for Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
(5) Daily progress notes shall document that a minimum of
seven psychoeducational activities per week occurs. Psychoeducational
programming must include, but is not limited to, development or maintenance of
daily living skills, anger management, social skills, family living skills,
communication skills, and stress management. This service may be provided in a
program setting or a community-based group home.
(6) The individual must receive, at least weekly, individual
psychotherapy and, at least weekly, group psychotherapy that is provided as
part of the program.
(7) Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
other less intensive services may achieve stabilization.
(8) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services that are based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated
service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement.
Requirements for intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-60-61.
(9) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
(10) The facility/group home shall coordinate necessary
services with other providers. Documentation of this care coordination shall be
maintained by the facility/group home in the individual's record. The
documentation shall include who was contacted, when the contact occurred, and
what information was transmitted.
6. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be covered for
individuals younger than age 21 for medically necessary stays for the purpose
of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders identified
under EPSDT when such services are rendered by:
a. A psychiatric hospital or an inpatient psychiatric program
in a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
Organizations; or a psychiatric facility that is accredited by the Joint
Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission on
Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Accreditation of
Services for Families and Children or the Council on Quality and Leadership.
b. Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general acute
care hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be subject to
the requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and 12VAC30-60-25.
Inpatient psychiatric admissions to residential treatment facilities shall also
be subject to the requirements of Part XIV (12VAC30-130-850 et seq.) of Amount,
Duration and Scope of Selected Services.
c. Inpatient psychiatric services are reimbursable only when
the treatment program is fully in compliance with 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, as
contained in 42 CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 441.152 through 441.156. Each
admission must be preauthorized and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements
for clinical necessity.
7. Hearing aids shall be reimbursed for individuals younger
than 21 years of age according to medical necessity when provided by
practitioners licensed to engage in the practice of fitting or dealing in
hearing aids under the Code of Virginia.
C. School health services.
1. School health assistant services are repealed effective
July 1, 2006.
2. School divisions may provide routine well-child screening
services under the State Plan. Diagnostic and treatment services that are
otherwise covered under early and periodic screening, diagnosis and treatment
services, shall not be covered for school divisions. School divisions to
receive reimbursement for the screenings shall be enrolled with DMAS as clinic
providers.
a. Children enrolled in managed care organizations shall
receive screenings from those organizations. School divisions shall not receive
reimbursement for screenings from DMAS for these children.
b. School-based services are listed in a recipient's
individualized education program (IEP) and covered under one or more of the
service categories described in § 1905(a) of the Social Security Act. These
services are necessary to correct or ameliorate defects of physical or mental
illnesses or conditions.
3. Service providers shall be licensed under the applicable
state practice act or comparable licensing criteria by the Virginia Department
of Education, and shall meet applicable qualifications under 42 CFR Part
440. Identification of defects, illnesses or conditions and services necessary
to correct or ameliorate them shall be performed by practitioners qualified to
make those determinations within their licensed scope of practice, either as a
member of the IEP team or by a qualified practitioner outside the IEP team.
a. Service providers shall be employed by the school division
or under contract to the school division.
b. Supervision of services by providers recognized in subdivision
4 of this subsection shall occur as allowed under federal regulations and
consistent with Virginia law, regulations, and DMAS provider manuals.
c. The services described in subdivision 4 of this subsection
shall be delivered by school providers, but may also be available in the
community from other providers.
d. Services in this subsection are subject to utilization
control as provided under 42 CFR Parts 455 and 456.
e. The IEP shall determine whether or not the services
described in subdivision 4 of this subsection are medically necessary and that
the treatment prescribed is in accordance with standards of medical practice.
Medical necessity is defined as services ordered by IEP providers. The IEP
providers are qualified Medicaid providers to make the medical necessity
determination in accordance with their scope of practice. The services must be
described as to the amount, duration and scope.
4. Covered services include:
a. Physical therapy, occupational therapy and services for
individuals with speech, hearing, and language disorders, performed by, or
under the direction of, providers who meet the qualifications set forth at 42
CFR 440.110. This coverage includes audiology services.
b. Skilled nursing services are covered under 42 CFR
440.60. These services are to be rendered in accordance to the licensing
standards and criteria of the Virginia Board of Nursing. Nursing services are
to be provided by licensed registered nurses or licensed practical nurses but
may be delegated by licensed registered nurses in accordance with the
regulations of the Virginia Board of Nursing, especially the section on
delegation of nursing tasks and procedures. The licensed practical nurse is
under the supervision of a registered nurse.
(1) The coverage of skilled nursing services shall be of a
level of complexity and sophistication (based on assessment, planning,
implementation and evaluation) that is consistent with skilled nursing services
when performed by a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse.
These skilled nursing services shall include, but not necessarily be limited to
dressing changes, maintaining patent airways, medication
administration/monitoring and urinary catheterizations.
(2) Skilled nursing services shall be directly and specifically
related to an active, written plan of care developed by a registered nurse that
is based on a written order from a physician, physician assistant or nurse
practitioner for skilled nursing services. This order shall be recertified on
an annual basis.
c. Psychiatric and psychological services performed by
licensed practitioners within the scope of practice are defined under state law
or regulations and covered as physicians' services under 42 CFR 440.50 or
medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR 440.60. These outpatient
services include individual medical psychotherapy, group medical psychotherapy
coverage, and family medical psychotherapy. Psychological and
neuropsychological testing are allowed when done for purposes other than
educational diagnosis, school admission, evaluation of an individual with
intellectual disability prior to admission to a nursing facility, or any
placement issue. These services are covered in the nonschool settings also.
School providers who may render these services when licensed by the state
include psychiatrists, licensed clinical psychologists, school psychologists,
licensed clinical social workers, professional counselors, psychiatric clinical
nurse specialist, marriage and family therapists, and school social workers.
d. Personal care services are covered under 42 CFR
440.167 and performed by persons qualified under this subsection. The personal
care assistant is supervised by a DMAS recognized school-based health
professional who is acting within the scope of licensure. This practitioner
develops a written plan for meeting the needs of the child, which is
implemented by the assistant. The assistant must have qualifications comparable
to those for other personal care aides recognized by the Virginia Department of
Medical Assistance Services. The assistant performs services such as assisting
with toileting, ambulation, and eating. The assistant may serve as an aide on a
specially adapted school vehicle that enables transportation to or from the
school or school contracted provider on days when the student is receiving a
Medicaid-covered service under the IEP. Children requiring an aide during
transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the
IEP.
e. Medical evaluation services are covered as physicians'
services under 42 CFR 440.50 or as medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR
440.60. Persons performing these services shall be licensed physicians,
physician assistants, or nurse practitioners. These practitioners shall
identify the nature or extent of a child's medical or other health related
condition.
f. Transportation is covered as allowed under 42 CFR
431.53 and described at State Plan Attachment 3.1-D. Transportation shall be
rendered only by school division personnel or contractors. Transportation is
covered for a child who requires transportation on a specially adapted school
vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or school contracted
provider on days when the student is receiving a Medicaid-covered service under
the IEP. Transportation shall be listed in the child's IEP. Children requiring
an aide during transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this
stated in the IEP.
g. Assessments are covered as necessary to assess or reassess
the need for medical services in a child's IEP and shall be performed by any of
the above licensed practitioners within the scope of practice. Assessments and
reassessments not tied to medical needs of the child shall not be covered.
5. DMAS will ensure through quality management review that
duplication of services will be monitored. School divisions have a
responsibility to ensure that if a child is receiving additional therapy
outside of the school, that there will be coordination of services to avoid
duplication of service.
D. Family planning services and supplies for individuals of
child-bearing age.
1. Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
performed within the scope of the license of a practitioner of the healing
arts.
2. Family planning services shall be defined as those services
that delay or prevent pregnancy. Coverage of such services shall not include
services to treat infertility nor or services to promote
fertility. Family planning services shall not cover payment for abortion
services and no funds shall be used to perform, assist, encourage, or make
direct referrals for abortions.
3. Family planning services as established by
§ 1905(a)(4)(C) of the Social Security Act include annual family planning
exams; cervical cancer screening for women; sexually transmitted infection
(STI) testing; lab services for family planning and STI testing; family
planning education, counseling, and preconception health; sterilization
procedures; nonemergency transportation to a family planning service; and U.S.
Food and Drug Administration approved prescription and over-the-counter
contraceptives, subject to limits in 12VAC30-50-210.
Part I
Family Planning Waiver (Repealed)
12VAC30-135-10. Definitions. (Repealed.)
The following words and terms when used in this part shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Creditable health coverage" means
"creditable coverage" as defined under § 2701(c) of the Public Health
Service Act (42 USC § 300gg(c)) and includes coverage that meets the requirements
of § 2103 provided to a targeted low-income child under Title XXI of the Social
Security Act or under a waiver approved under § 2105(c)(2)(B) (relating to a
direct service waiver).
"Family planning" means those services necessary
to prevent or delay a pregnancy. It shall not include services to promote
pregnancy such as infertility treatments. Family planning does not include
counseling about, recommendations for or performance of abortions, or
hysterectomies or procedures performed for medical reasons such as removal of
intrauterine devices due to infections.
"FAMIS" means the Family Access to Medical
Insurance Security Plan described in 12VAC30-141.
"Over-the-counter" means drugs and
contraceptives that are available for purchase without requiring a physician's
prescription.
"Third party" means any individual entity or
program that is or may be liable to pay all or part of the expenditures for
medical assistance furnished under the State Plan for Medical Assistance.
12VAC30-135-20. Administration and eligibility
determination. (Repealed.)
A. The Department of Medical Assistance Services shall
administer the family planning demonstration waiver services program under the
authority of § 1115(a) of the Social Security Act and 42 USC § 1315.
B. Local departments of social services or a department
contractor shall be responsible for determining eligibility of and for
enrolling eligible individuals in the family planning waiver. Local departments
of social services or a department contractor shall conduct periodic reviews
and redeterminations of eligibility at least every 12 months while recipients
are enrolled in the family planning waiver.
12VAC30-135-30. Eligibility. (Repealed.)
A. To be eligible under the family planning waiver, an
individual must meet the eligibility conditions and requirements found in
12VAC30-40-10, have family income less than or equal to 133% of the federal
poverty level, not have creditable health coverage, and not be eligible for
enrollment in a Medicaid full benefit coverage group or FAMIS.
B. Individuals who have received a sterilization procedure
or hysterectomy are ineligible under the waiver.
C. Individuals enrolled in the family planning waiver will
not be retroactively eligible.
D. A recipient's enrollment in the family planning waiver
shall be terminated if the individual receives a sterilization procedure or
hysterectomy or is found to be ineligible as the result of a reported change or
annual redetermination. The recipient's enrollment in the family planning
waiver also shall be terminated if a reported change or annual redetermination
results in eligibility for Virginia Medicaid in a full benefit coverage group
or eligibility for FAMIS. A 10-day advance notice must be provided prior to
cancellation of coverage under the family planning waiver unless the individual
becomes eligible for a full benefit Medicaid covered group or FAMIS.
12VAC30-135-40. Covered services. (Repealed.)
A. Services provided under the family planning waiver are
limited to:
1. Family planning office visits including annual
gynecological or physical exams (one per 12 months), sexually transmitted
diseases (STD) testing, cervical cancer screening tests (limited to one every
six months);
2. Laboratory services for family planning and STD testing;
3. Family planning education and counseling;
4. Contraceptives approved by the Food and Drug
Administration, including diaphragms, contraceptive injectables, and
contraceptive implants;
5. Over-the-counter contraceptives; and
6. Sterilizations, not to include hysterectomies.
B. Services not covered under the family planning waiver
include, but are not limited to:
1. Performance of, counseling for, or recommendations of
abortions;
2. Infertility treatments;
3. Procedures performed for medical reasons;
4. Performance of a hysterectomy; and
5. Transportation to a family planning service.
12VAC30-135-50. Provider qualifications. (Repealed.)
Services provided under this waiver must be ordered or
prescribed and directed or performed within the scope of the licensed
practitioner. Any appropriately licensed Medicaid enrolled physician, nurse
practitioner, or medical clinic may provide services under this waiver.
12VAC30-135-60. Quality assurance. (Repealed.)
The Department of Medical Assistance Services shall
provide for continuing review and evaluation of the care and services paid by
Medicaid under this waiver. To ensure a thorough review, trained professionals
shall review cases either through desk audit or through on-site reviews of
medical records. Providers shall be required to refund payments made by
Medicaid if they are found to have billed Medicaid for services not covered
under this waiver, if records or documentation supporting claims are not
maintained, or if bills are submitted for medically unnecessary services.
12VAC30-135-70. Reimbursement. (Repealed.)
A. Providers will be reimbursed on a fee-for-service
basis.
B. All reasonable measures including those measures
specified under 42 USC § 1396 (a) (25) will be taken to ascertain the legal
liability of third parties to pay for authorized care and services provided to
eligible recipients.
C. A completed sterilization consent form, in accordance
with the requirements of 42 CFR Part 441, Subpart F, must be submitted with all
claims for payment for sterilization procedures.
12VAC30-135-80. Recipients' rights and right to appeal. (Repealed.)
Individuals found eligible for and enrolled in the family
planning waiver shall have freedom of choice of providers. Individuals will be
free from coercion or mental pressure and shall be free to choose their
preferred methods of family planning. The client appeals process at 12VAC30-110
shall be applicable to applicants for and recipients of family planning
services under this waiver.
12VAC30-135-90. Sunset provision. (Repealed.)
Consistent with federal requirements applicable to this §
1115 demonstration waiver, these regulations shall expire effective with the
termination of the federally approved waiver.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-2866; Filed June 3, 2016, 2:55 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration,
and Scope of Medical and Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-226).
12VAC30-60. Standards Established and Methods Used to Assure
High Quality Care (amending 12VAC30-60-143).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia;
42 USC § 1396 et seq.
Effective Date: July 27, 2016.
Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,
Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad Street, Richmond, VA
23219, telephone (803) 371-4300, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) change the service's name from
"mental health support services" to "mental health
skill-building services"; (ii) increase the annual limits; (iii) prohibit
overlap with similar services; (iv) reduce the number of hours of services that
may be provided in an assisted living facility and Level A or Level B group
home; and (v) require that providers communicate important information to other
health care professionals who are providing care to the same individuals; and
(vii) require service authorization for crisis intervention and crisis
stabilization services.
Changes made to the final regulation after publication of
the proposed include (i) removing the reference to service authorization for
crisis services; (ii) clarifying the timeliness requirements in the crisis
intervention and crisis stabilization registration process; (ii) changing the
provider requirements for developing the individualized service plan; (iii)
adjusting the mental health skill-building services (MHSS) annual maximum
number of units allowed to match the new daily and weekly service limits and to
conform to the unit values defined in 12VAC30-60-143; (iv) replacing the
15-minute unit values and respective maximum allowances with maximum
limitations that match the MHSS unit values defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
of Regulations.
12VAC30-50-226. Community mental health services.
A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
this section shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly
indicates otherwise:
"Activities of daily living" or "ADLs"
means personal care tasks such as bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring,
and eating or feeding. An individual's degree of independence in performing
these activities is a part of determining appropriate level of care and service
needs.
"Affiliated" means any entity or property in
which a provider or facility has a direct or indirect ownership interest of
5.0% or more, or any management, partnership, or control of an entity.
"Behavioral health services administrator" or
"BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
benefits program under contract with DMAS. DMAS' designated BHSA shall be
authorized to constitute, oversee, enroll, and train a provider network; perform
service authorization; adjudicate claims; process claims; gather and maintain
data; reimburse providers; perform quality assessment and improvement; conduct
member outreach and education; resolve member and provider issues; and perform
utilization management including care coordination for the provision of
Medicaid-covered behavioral health services. Such authority shall include
entering into or terminating contracts with providers in accordance with DMAS
authority pursuant to 42 CFR Part 1002 and § 32.1-325 D and E of the Code
of Virginia. DMAS shall retain authority for and oversight of the BHSA entity
or entities.
"Certified prescreener" means an employee of either
the local community services board/behavioral health authority or its designee
who is skilled in the assessment and treatment of mental illness and who has
completed a certification program approved by DBHDS.
"Clinical experience" means practical experience
in providing direct services on a full-time basis (or the equivalent part-time
experience as determined by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and
Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12,2013, revised May
3, 2013) to individuals with medically-documented diagnoses of mental illness
or intellectual/developmental disability or the provision of direct geriatric
services or full-time (or the equivalent part-time experience) special
education services, for the purpose of rendering (i) mental health day
treatment/partial hospitalization, (ii) intensive community treatment, (iii) psychosocial
rehabilitation, (iv) mental health support skill building, (v)
crisis stabilization, or (vi) crisis intervention services, practical
experience in providing direct services to individuals with diagnoses of mental
illness or intellectual disability or the provision of direct geriatric
services or special education services. Experience shall include supervised
internships, supervised practicums, or supervised field experience. Experience
shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised practicums, and
unsupervised field experience. This required clinical experience shall be
calculated as set forth in DBHDS document entitled Human Services and Related
Fields Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
The equivalency of part-time hours to full-time hours for the purpose of
this requirement shall be established by DBHDS in the document titled Human
Services and Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013,
revised May 3, 2013.
"Code" means the Code of Virginia.
"DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
and Developmental Services consistent with Chapter 3 (§ 37.2-300 et seq.)
of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia.
"DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
Services and its contractor or contractors consistent with Chapter 10 (§
32.1-323 et seq.) of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia.
[ "DSM-IV-TR" means the Diagnostic
and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition, Text Revision,
copyright 2000, American Psychiatric Association. ]
"DSM-5" means the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, copyright 2013, American Psychiatric
Association.
"Human services field" means the same as the
term is defined by DBHDS in the guidance document entitled Human
Services and Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013,
revised May 3, 2013.
[ "Instrumental activities of daily
living skills" or "IADLS" means tasks such as meal preparation,
shopping, housekeeping, and laundry. An individual's degree of independence in
performing these activities is a part of determining appropriate level of care
and service needs. ]
"Individual" means the patient, client,
or recipient of services described in this section.
"Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
a comprehensive and regularly updated treatment plan specific to the
individual's unique treatment needs as identified in the clinical assessment
service-specific provider intake. The ISP contains his, but is
not limited to, the individual's treatment or training needs, his the
individual's goals and measurable objectives to meet the identified needs,
services to be provided with the recommended frequency to accomplish the
measurable goals and objectives, the estimated timetable for achieving the
goals and objectives, and an individualized discharge plan that describes
transition to other appropriate services. The individual shall be included in
the development of the ISP and the ISP shall be signed by the individual. If
the individual is a minor child, the ISP shall also be signed by the
individual's parent/legal guardian. Documentation shall be provided if the
individual, who is a minor child or an adult who lacks legal capacity,
is unable or unwilling to sign the ISP.
"Individualized training" means [ training
instruction and practice ] in functional skills and appropriate
behavior related to the individual's health and safety, instrumental activities
of daily living skills, and use of community resources; assistance with medical
management; and monitoring health, nutrition, and physical condition. The
training shall be [ rehabilitative and ] based on a
variety of [ incremental (or cumulative) ] approaches
or tools to organize and guide the individual's life planning and shall
[ be rooted in reflect ] what is important to
the individual [ while taking into account in
addition to ] all other factors that affect his [ life
functioning ], including effects of the disability and issues of
health and safety.
"Licensed mental health professional" or
"LMHP" means a licensed physician, licensed clinical psychologist,
licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical social worker, licensed
substance abuse treatment practitioner, licensed marriage and family therapist,
or certified psychiatric clinical nurse specialist the same as defined
in 12VAC35-105-20.
"LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the
same as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a
"resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Counseling. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by such residents, they shall use the title
"Resident" in connection with the applicable profession after their
signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-resident in psychology" or
"LMHP-RP" means the same as an individual in a residency, as that
term is defined in 18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An
LMHP-resident in psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the
regulatory requirements for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65
and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a
"resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Psychology. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services
provided by such residents, they shall use the title "Resident in
Psychology" after their signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
"LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
"supervisee" is defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be
considered a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical
duties at a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Social Work. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title
"Supervisee in Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such
status.
"Qualified mental health professional-adult" or
"QMHP-A" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Qualified mental health professional-child" or
"QMHP-C" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
"QMHP-E" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
"QPPMH" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Register" or "registration" means
notifying DMAS or its contractor that an individual will be receiving services
that do not require service authorization.
"Review of ISP" means that the provider
evaluates and updates the individual's progress toward meeting the
individualized service plan objectives and documents the outcome of this
review. For DMAS to determine that these reviews are satisfactory and complete,
the reviews shall (i) update the goals, objectives, and strategies of the ISP
to reflect any change in the individual's progress and treatment needs as well
as any newly identified problems; (ii) be conducted in a manner that enables
the individual to participate in the process; and (iii) be documented in the
individual's medical record no later than 15 calendar days from the date of the
review.
"Service authorization" means the process to
approve specific services for an enrolled Medicaid, FAMIS Plus, or FAMIS
individual by a DMAS service authorization contractor prior to service delivery
and reimbursement in order to validate that the service requested is medically
necessary and meets DMAS and DMAS contractor criteria for reimbursement.
Service authorization does not guarantee payment for the service.
"Service-specific provider intake" means the
same as defined in 12VAC30-50-130 and also includes individuals who are older
than 21 years of age.
B. Mental health services. The following services, with their
definitions, shall be covered: day treatment/partial hospitalization,
psychosocial rehabilitation, crisis services, intensive community treatment
(ICT), and mental health supports skill building. Staff travel
time shall not be included in billable time for reimbursement. [ 1. ]
These services, in order to be covered, shall meet medical necessity criteria
based upon diagnoses made by LMHPs who are practicing within the scope of their
licenses and are reflected in provider records and on providers' claims for
services by recognized diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the
requested professional services. [ 2. ] These services are
intended to be delivered in a person-centered manner. The individuals who are
receiving these services shall be included in all service planning activities.
All services which do not require service authorization require registration.
This registration shall transmit [ service-specific information ]
to DMAS or its contractor [ (i) the individual's name and Medicaid
identification number; (ii) the specific service to be provided, the relevant
procedure code and begin date of the service; and (iii) the provider's name and
NPI, a provider contact name and phone number, and email address in
accordance with service authorization requirements ].
[ 3. 1. ] Day treatment/partial
hospitalization services shall be provided in sessions of two or more
consecutive hours per day, which may be scheduled multiple times per week, to
groups of individuals in a nonresidential setting. These services, limited
annually to 780 units, include the major diagnostic, medical, psychiatric,
psychosocial, and psychoeducational treatment modalities designed for
individuals who require coordinated, intensive, comprehensive, and
multidisciplinary treatment but who do not require inpatient treatment. One
unit of service shall be defined as a minimum of two but less than four hours
on a given day. Two units of service shall be defined as at least four but less
than seven hours in a given day. Three units of service shall be defined as
seven or more hours in a given day. Authorization is required for Medicaid
reimbursement.
a. Day treatment/partial hospitalization services shall be
time limited interventions that are more intensive than outpatient services and
are required to stabilize an individual's psychiatric condition. The services
are delivered when the individual is at risk of psychiatric hospitalization or
is transitioning from a psychiatric hospitalization to the community.
[ The service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130,
shall document the individual's behavior and describe how the individual is at
risk of psychiatric hospitalization or is transitioning from a psychiatric
hospitalization to the community. ]
b. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral, or
emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments in major
life activities. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
on a continuing or intermittent basis:
(1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
hospitalization or homelessness or isolation from social supports;
(2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
jeopardized;
(3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that the individual
requires repeated interventions or monitoring by the mental health, social
services, or judicial system that have been documented; or
(4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
social behavior.
c. Individuals shall be discharged from this service when they
are no longer in an acute psychiatric state and other less intensive services
may achieve psychiatric stabilization.
d. Admission and services for time periods longer than 90
calendar days must be authorized based upon a face-to-face evaluation by a
physician, psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed professional
counselor, licensed clinical social worker, or psychiatric clinical nurse
specialist.
e. These services may only be rendered by [ either ]
an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or a
QPPMH.
[ 4. 2. ] Psychosocial rehabilitation
shall be provided at least two or more hours per day to groups of individuals
in a nonresidential setting. These services, limited annually to 936 units,
include assessment, education to teach the patient about the diagnosed mental
illness and appropriate medications to avoid complication and relapse,
opportunities to learn and use independent living skills and to enhance social
and interpersonal skills within a supportive and normalizing program structure
and environment. One unit of service is defined as a minimum of two but less
than four hours on a given day. Two units are defined as at least four but less
than seven hours in a given day. Three units of service shall be defined as
seven or more hours in a given day. Authorization is required for Medicaid
reimbursement. The service-specific provider intake, as defined at
12VAC30-50-130, shall document the individual's behavior and describe how the
individual meets criteria for this service.
a. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral, or
emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments in major
life activities. Services are provided to individuals: (i) who without these
services would be unable to remain in the community or (ii) who meet at least
two of the following criteria on a continuing or intermittent basis:
(1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social supports;
(2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
jeopardized;
(3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that repeated
interventions documented by the mental health, social services, or judicial
system are or have been necessary; or
(4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
unable to recognize personal danger or significantly inappropriate social
behavior.
b. These services may only be rendered by [ either ]
an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E,
or a QPPMH.
[ 5. 3. ] Crisis intervention shall
provide immediate mental health care, available 24 hours a day, seven days per
week, to assist individuals who are experiencing acute psychiatric dysfunction
requiring immediate clinical attention. This service's objectives shall be to
prevent exacerbation of a condition, to prevent injury to the client or others,
and to provide treatment in the context of the least restrictive setting.
Crisis intervention activities shall include assessing the crisis situation,
providing short-term counseling designed to stabilize the individual, providing
access to further immediate assessment and follow-up, and linking the
individual and family with ongoing care to prevent future crises. Crisis
intervention services may include office visits, home visits, preadmission
screenings, telephone contacts, and other client-related activities for the
prevention of institutionalization. The service-specific provider intake, as
defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document the individual's behavior and
describe how the individual meets criteria for this service. The provision of
this service to an individual shall be registered with either DMAS [ ,
DMAS contractors, ] or the BHSA within one business day or the
completion of the service-specific provider intake to avoid duplication of
services and to ensure informed care coordination. [ Authorization
shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement. ]
a. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from an acute crisis of a
psychiatric nature that puts the individual at risk of psychiatric
hospitalization. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
at the time of admission to the service:
(1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social supports;
(2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
jeopardized;
(3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that immediate
interventions documented by mental health, social services, or the judicial
system are or have been necessary; or
(4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
unable to recognize personal danger or significantly inappropriate social
behavior.
b. The annual limit for crisis intervention is 720 units per
year. A unit shall equal 15 minutes.
c. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP, an
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, or a certified prescreener.
[ 6. 4. ] Intensive community
treatment (ICT), initially covered for a maximum of 26 weeks based on an
initial service-specific provider intake and may be reauthorized for up to an
additional 26 weeks annually based on written intake and certification of need
by a licensed mental health provider (LMHP), shall be defined by 12VAC35-105-20
or LMHP-S, LMHP-R, and LMHP-RP and shall include medical psychotherapy,
psychiatric assessment, medication management, and care coordination activities
offered to outpatients outside the clinic, hospital, or office setting for
individuals who are best served in the community. Authorization is required for
Medicaid reimbursement.
a. To qualify for ICT, the individual must meet at least one
of the following criteria:
(1) The individual must be at high risk for psychiatric
hospitalization or becoming or remaining homeless due to mental illness or
require intervention by the mental health or criminal justice system due to
inappropriate social behavior.
(2) The individual has a history (three months or more) of a
need for intensive mental health treatment or treatment for co-occurring
serious mental illness and substance use disorder and demonstrates a resistance
to seek out and utilize appropriate treatment options.
b. A written, service-specific provider intake, as defined at
12VAC30-50-130, that documents the individual's eligibility and the need for
this service must be completed prior to the initiation of services. This intake
must be maintained in the individual's records.
c. An individual service plan shall be initiated at the time
of admission and must be fully developed, as defined in this section, within 30
days of the initiation of services.
d. The annual unit limit shall be 130 units with a unit
equaling one hour.
e. These services may only be rendered by a team that meets
the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
[ 7. 5. ] Crisis stabilization
services for nonhospitalized individuals shall provide direct mental health
care to individuals experiencing an acute psychiatric crisis which may
jeopardize their current community living situation. [ Authorization
shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement. ] Services may be
[ authorized provided ] for up to a 15-day period per
crisis episode following a face-to-face service-specific provider intake by an
LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP. Only one unit of service
shall be reimbursed for this intake. The provision of this service to an
individual shall be registered with either DMAS [ , DMAS contractors, ]
or the BHSA within one [ calendar business ] day of the
completion of the service-specific provider intake to avoid duplication of
services and to ensure informed care coordination. [ See 12VAC30-50-226
B for registration requirements. ]
a. The goals of crisis stabilization programs shall be to
avert hospitalization or rehospitalization, provide normative environments with
a high assurance of safety and security for crisis intervention, stabilize
individuals in psychiatric crisis, and mobilize the resources of the community
support system and family members and others for on-going maintenance and
rehabilitation. The services must be documented in the individual's records as
having been provided consistent with the ISP in order to receive Medicaid
reimbursement.
b. The crisis stabilization program shall provide to
individuals, as appropriate, psychiatric assessment including medication
evaluation, treatment planning, symptom and behavior management, and individual
and group counseling.
c. This service may be provided in any of the following
settings, but shall not be limited to: (i) the home of an individual who lives
with family or other primary caregiver; (ii) the home of an individual who
lives independently; or (iii) community-based programs licensed by DBHDS to provide
residential services but which are not institutions for mental disease (IMDs).
d. This service shall not be reimbursed for (i) individuals
with medical conditions that require hospital care; (ii) individuals with
primary diagnosis of substance abuse; or (iii) individuals with psychiatric
conditions that cannot be managed in the community (i.e., individuals who are
of imminent danger to themselves or others).
e. The maximum limit on this service is 60 days annually.
f. Services must be documented through daily progress notes
and a daily log of times spent in the delivery of services. The
service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
this service. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from an acute crisis of a
psychiatric nature that puts the individual at risk of psychiatric
hospitalization. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
at the time of admission to the service:
(1) Experience difficulty in establishing and maintaining
normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that the individual is at
risk of psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social
supports;
(2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
jeopardized;
(3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that immediate
interventions documented by the mental health, social services, or judicial
system are or have been necessary; or
(4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that the
individual is unable to recognize personal danger or significantly
inappropriate social behavior.
g. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E or a certified
prescreener.
[ 8. 6. ] Mental health support
skill-building services (MHSS) shall be defined as goal-directed
training and supports to enable individuals to achieve and maintain
community stability and independence in the most appropriate, least restrictive
environment. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement. Services
that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not be
reimbursed. These services may be authorized up to six consecutive months as
long as the individual meets the coverage criteria for this service. The
service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
this service. This program These services shall provide goal-directed
training in the following services areas in order to be
reimbursed by Medicaid or the BHSA: training in or reinforcement of
(i) functional skills and appropriate behavior related to the
individual's health and safety, instrumental activities of daily living,
and use of community resources; (ii) assistance with medication
management; and (iii) monitoring of health, nutrition, and
physical condition with goals towards self-monitoring and self-regulation of
all of these activities. Providers shall be reimbursed only for training
activities defined in the ISP and only where services meet the service
definition, eligibility, and service provision criteria and this section.
[ Service specific provider intakes A review of MHSS
services by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S ] shall be repeated
for all individuals who have received at least six months of MHSS to determine
the continued need for this service.
a. Individuals qualifying for this service must shall
demonstrate a clinical necessity for the service arising from a condition due
to mental, behavioral, or emotional illness that results in significant
functional impairments in major life activities. Services are provided to
individuals who without these services would be unable to remain in the
community. The individual must meet at least two of the following criteria on a
continuing or intermittent basis: Services are provided to individuals
who require individualized goal-directed training in order to achieve or
maintain stability and independence in the community.
(1) Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
interpersonal relationships to such a degree that the individual is at risk of
psychiatric hospitalization or homelessness or isolation from social supports;
(2) Require help in basic living skills such as maintaining
personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate nutrition or managing
finances to such a degree that health or safety is jeopardized;
(3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that repeated
interventions documented by the mental health, social services, or judicial
system are or have been necessary; or
(4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they
are unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly
inappropriate social behavior.
b. The individual must demonstrate functional impairments in
major life activities. This may include individuals with a dual diagnosis of
either mental illness and intellectual disability, or mental illness and
substance abuse disorder. Individuals ages 21 and older shall meet all
of the following criteria in order to be eligible to receive mental health
skill-building services:
(1) The individual shall have one of the following as a
primary mental health diagnosis:
(a) Schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder as set out in
the [ DSM-IV-TR or ] DSM-5;
(b) Major depressive disorder;
(c) Recurrent Bipolar I or Bipolar II; or
(d) Any other serious mental health disorder that a
physician has documented specific to the identified individual within the past
year and that includes all of the following: (i) is a serious mental illness;
(ii) results in severe and recurrent disability; (iii) produces functional
limitations in the individual's major life activities that are documented in
the individual's medical record; and (iv) requires individualized training for
the individual in order to achieve or maintain independent living in the
community.
(2) The individual shall require individualized
goal-directed training in order to acquire or maintain self-regulation of basic
living skills, such as symptom management; adherence to psychiatric and
physical health medication treatment plans; appropriate use of social skills
and personal support systems; skills to manage personal hygiene, food
preparation, and the maintenance of personal adequate nutrition; money
management; and use of community resources.
(3) The individual shall have a prior history of any of the
following: (i) psychiatric hospitalization; (ii) either residential or
nonresidential crisis stabilization; (iii) intensive community treatment (ICT)
or program of assertive community treatment (PACT) services; (iv) placement in
a psychiatric residential treatment facility (RTC-Level C) as a result of
decompensation related to the individual's serious mental illness; or (v) a
temporary detention order (TDO) evaluation, pursuant to § 37.2-809 B of the
Code of Virginia. This criterion shall be met in order to be initially admitted
to services and not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge
summaries from prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment
provided, (ii) the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the
name of the treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement.
Family member statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
(4) The individual shall have had a prescription for
antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications within the 12
months prior to the service-specific provider intake date. If a physician or
other practitioner who is authorized by his license to prescribe medications indicates
that antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications are
medically contraindicated for the individual, the provider shall obtain medical
records signed by the physician or other licensed prescriber detailing the
contraindication. This documentation shall be maintained in the individual's
mental health skill-building services record, and the provider shall document
and describe how the individual will be able to actively participate in and
benefit from services without the assistance of medication. This criterion
shall be met upon admission to services and shall not be required for
subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries from prior providers
that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided, (ii) the dates of the
treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the treatment provider
shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member statements shall
not suffice to meet this requirement.
c. Individuals [ younger than
aged 18 to ] 21 years [ of age ] shall
meet all of the following criteria in order to be eligible to receive mental
health skill-building services:
(1) The individual [ , aged 16 years up to
21 years, ] shall not be living in a supervised setting
[ (such as a foster home, group home, or other paid placement) and
is providing for his own financial support or such an individual shall be
actively transitioning into an independent living situation that is not a
supervised setting (such as a foster home, group home, or other paid placement)
and is providing for his own financial support as described in §
63.2-905.1 of the Code of Virginia ]. If the individual is
transitioning into an independent living situation, MHSS shall only be
authorized for up to six months prior to the date of transition;
(2) The individual shall have at least one of the following
as a primary mental health diagnosis [ :. ]
(a) Schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder as set out in
the [ DSM - IV-TR or ] DSM-5;
(b) Major depressive disorder;
(c) Recurrent Bipolar-I or Bipolar II; or
(d) Any other serious mental health disorder that a
physician has documented specific to the identified individual within the past
year and that includes all of the following: (i) is a serious mental illness or
serious emotional disturbance; (ii) results in severe and recurrent disability;
(iii) produces functional limitations in the individual's major life activities
that are documented in the individual's medical record; and (iv) requires
individualized training for the individual in order to achieve or maintain
independent living in the community [ ;. ]
(3) The individual shall require individualized
goal-directed training in order to acquire or maintain self-regulation of basic
living skills such as symptom management; adherence to psychiatric and physical
health medication treatment plans; appropriate use of social skills and
personal support systems; skills to manage personal hygiene, food preparation,
and the maintenance of personal adequate nutrition; money management; and use
of community resources.
(4) The individual shall have a prior history of any of the
following: (i) psychiatric hospitalization; (ii) either residential or
nonresidential crisis stabilization; (iii) intensive community treatment (ICT)
or program of assertive community treatment (PACT) services; (iv) placement in
a psychiatric residential treatment facility (RTC-Level C) as a result of
decompensation related to the individual's serious mental illness; or (v)
temporary detention order (TDO) evaluation pursuant to § 37.2-809 B of the Code
of Virginia. This criterion shall be met in order to be initially admitted to
services and not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries
from prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided,
(ii) the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the
treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member
statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
(5) The individual shall have had a prescription for
antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications, within the 12
months prior to the assessment date. If a physician or other practitioner who
is authorized by his license to prescribe medications indicates that
antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications are medically
contraindicated for the individual, the provider shall obtain medical records
signed by the physician or other licensed prescriber detailing the
contraindication. This documentation of medication management shall be
maintained in the individual's mental health skill-building services record.
For individuals not prescribed antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or
antidepressant medications, the provider shall have documentation from the
medication management physician describing how the individual will be able to
actively participate in and benefit from services without the assistance of
medication. This criterion shall be met in order to be initially admitted to
services and not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries
from prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided,
(ii) the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the
treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member
statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
(6) An independent clinical assessment, established in
12VAC30-130-3020, shall be completed for the individual.
c. d. Service-specific provider intakes shall be
required at the onset of services and individual service plans (ISPs) shall be
required during the entire duration of services. Services based upon
incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs
shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for provider-specific service-specific
provider intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-50-130.
d. e. The yearly limit for mental health support
skill-building services is [ 372 520 ] units. Only
direct face-to-face contacts and services to the individual shall be reimbursable.
One unit is [ at least one hour but less than three hours 1
to 2.99 hours per day, two units is 3 to 4.99 hours per day ].
e. f. These services may only be rendered by an
LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S ],
QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or QPPMH.
g. The provider shall clearly document details of the
services provided during the entire amount of time billed.
h. The ISP shall not include activities that contradict or
duplicate those in the treatment plan established by the group home or assisted
living facility. The provider shall [ attempt to ] coordinate
mental health skill-building services with the treatment plan established by
the group home or assisted living facility and shall document all coordination
activities in the medical record.
i. Limits and exclusions.
(1) Group home (Level A or B) and assisted living facility
providers shall not serve as the mental health skill-building services provider
for individuals residing in the provider's respective facility. Individuals
residing in facilities may, however, receive MHSS from another MHSS agency not
affiliated with the owner of the facility in which they reside.
(2) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
reimbursed for individuals who are receiving in-home residential services or
congregate residential services through the Intellectual Disability Waiver or
Individual and Family Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver.
(3) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
reimbursed for individuals who are also receiving services under the Department
of Social Services independent living program (22VAC40-151), independent living
services (22VAC40-151 and 22VAC40-131), or independent living arrangement
(22VAC40-131) or any Comprehensive Services Act-funded independent living
skills programs.
(4) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available to individuals who are receiving treatment foster care
(12VAC30-130-900 et seq.).
(5) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available to individuals who reside in intermediate care facilities for
individuals with intellectual disabilities or hospitals.
(6) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available to individuals who reside in nursing facilities, except for up to 60
days prior to discharge. If the individual has not been discharged from the
nursing facility during the 60-day period of services, mental health
skill-building services shall be terminated and no further service
authorizations shall be available to the individual unless a provider can
demonstrate and document that mental health skill-building services are
necessary. Such documentation shall include facts demonstrating a change in the
individual's circumstances and a new plan for discharge requiring up to 60 days
of mental health skill-building services.
(7) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available for residents of residential treatment centers (Level C facilities)
except for the intake code H0032 (modifier U8) in the seven days immediately prior
to discharge.
(8) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
reimbursed if personal care services or attendant care services are being
received simultaneously, unless justification is provided why this is necessary
in the individual's mental health skill-building services record. Medical
record documentation shall fully substantiate the need for services when
personal care or attendant care services are being provided. This applies to
individuals who are receiving additional services through the Intellectual
Disability Waiver (12VAC30-120-1000 et seq.), Individual and Family
Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver (12VAC30-120-700 et seq.), the
Elderly or Disabled with Consumer Direction Waiver (12VAC30-120-900 et seq.),
and EPSDT services (12VAC30-50-130).
(9) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
duplicative of other services. Providers shall be required to ensure that if an
individual is receiving additional therapeutic services that there will be
coordination of services by either the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, LMHP-resident in psychology LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S ],
QMHP-A, QMHP-C, [ or ] QMHP-E [ , or
QPPMH ] to avoid duplication of services.
(10) Individuals who have organic disorders, such as
delirium, dementia, or other cognitive disorders not elsewhere classified, will
be prohibited from receiving mental health skill-building services unless their
physicians issue signed and dated statements indicating that the individuals
can benefit from this service.
(11) Individuals who are not diagnosed with a serious
mental health disorder but who have personality disorders or other mental
health disorders, or both, that may lead to chronic disability shall not be
excluded from the mental health skill-building services eligibility criteria
provided that the individual has a primary mental health diagnosis from the
list included in subdivision B [ 8 6 ] b
(1) or B [ 8 6 ] c (2) of this section
and that the provider can document and describe how the individual is expected
to actively participate in and benefit from mental health skill-building
services.
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-50)
[ Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
Disorders, Fourth Edition DSM-IV-TR, copyright 2000, American Psychiatric
Association ]
Diagnostic
and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, DSM-5, 2013,
American Psychiatric Association
Length of Stay by Diagnosis and Operation, Southern Region,
1996, HCIA, Inc.
Guidelines for Perinatal Care, 4th Edition, August 1997,
American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and
Gynecologists
Virginia Supplemental Drug Rebate Agreement Contract and
Addenda
Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children), prepared by
DMAS' Dental Benefits Administrator, copyright 2005
(www.dmas.virginia.gov/downloads/pdfs/dental-office_reference_manual_06-09-05.pdf)
Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
Substance-Related Disorders ASAM PPC-2R, Second Edition, copyright 2001,
American Society of Addiction Medicine
[ Virginia Medicaid Durable Medical Equipment and
Supplies Provider Manual, Appendix B (rev. 1/11), Department of Medical
Assistance Services ]
Human Services and Related Fields Approved
Degrees/Experience, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services
(rev. 5/13)
12VAC30-60-143. Mental health services utilization criteria;
definitions.
A. This section sets out the utilization criteria and
standards relative to the community mental health services set out in
12VAC30-50-226. Definitions. The following words and terms when used
in this section shall have the following meanings unless the context indicates
otherwise:
[ "Child or adolescent" means the same as
"adolescent or child" defined in 12VAC30-50-130. ]
"Licensed mental health professional" or
"LMHP" means the same as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
"LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the
same as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
"LMHP-resident in psychology" or
"LMHP-RP" means the same as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
"LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
"LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as defined in
12VAC30-50-130.
"Qualified mental health professional-adult" or
"QMHP-A" means the same as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
"Qualified mental health professional-child" or
"QMHP-C" means the same as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
"Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
"QMHP-E" means the same as defined in [ 12VAC30-50-130 12VAC35-105-20 ].
B. Utilization reviews shall include determinations that
providers meet the following requirements:
1. The provider shall meet the federal and state requirements
for administrative and financial management capacity. The provider shall
obtain, prior to the delivery of services, and shall maintain and update
periodically as the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS) or its
contractor requires, a current provider enrollment agreement for each Medicaid
service that the provider offers. DMAS shall not reimburse providers who do not
enter into a provider enrollment agreement for a service prior to offering that
service.
2. The provider shall document and maintain individual case
records in accordance with state and federal requirements.
3. The provider shall ensure eligible individuals have free
choice of providers of mental health services and other medical care under the
Individual Service Plan.
4. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements as
set out in 12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines have violated these
marketing requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
12VAC30-130-2000 E. Providers whose contracts are terminated shall be afforded
the right of appeal pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000
et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
5. If an individual receiving community mental health
rehabilitative services is also receiving case management services pursuant to
12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430, the provider shall collaborate with the case
manager by notifying the case manager of the provision of community mental
health rehabilitative services and sending monthly updates on the individual's
treatment status. A discharge summary shall be sent to the care
coordinator/case manager within 30 calendar days of the discontinuation of
services. Service providers and case managers who are using the same
electronic health record for the individual shall meet requirements for
delivery of the notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry
of this documentation into the electronic health record.
6. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
is and inform him of the individual's receipt of community mental health
rehabilitative services. The documentation shall include who was contacted,
when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
7. The provider shall include the individual and the
family/caregiver, as may be appropriate, in the development of the ISP. To the
extent that the individual's condition requires assistance for participation,
assistance shall be provided. The ISP shall be updated annually or as the needs
and progress of the individual changes. An ISP that is not updated either
annually or as the treatment interventions based on the needs and progress of
the individual change shall be considered outdated. An ISP that does not
include all required elements specified in 12VAC30-50-226 shall be considered
incomplete. All ISPs shall be completed, signed, and contemporaneously dated by
the LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
[ LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E preparing the ISP within
a maximum of 30 days of the date of the completed intake unless otherwise
specified. The child's or adolescent's ISP shall also be signed by the
parent/legal guardian and the adult individual shall sign his own. If the individual,
whether a child, adolescent, or an adult, is unwilling to sign the ISP, then
the service provider shall document the clinical or other reasons why the
individual was not able or willing to sign the ISP. Signatures shall be
obtained unless there is a clinical reason that renders the individual unable
to sign the ISP.
[ (a) Every three months, the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
LMHP-S, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E shall review the ISP, modify the ISP as
appropriate, and update the ISP, and all of these activities shall occur with
the individual in a manner in which the individual may participate in the
process. The ISP shall be rewritten at least annually.
(b) The goals, objectives, and strategies of the ISP shall
be updated to reflect any change or changes in the individual's progress and
treatment needs as well as any newly-identified problems.
(c) Documentation of ISP review shall be added to the
individual's medical record no later than 15 days from the calendar date of the
review as evidenced by the dated signatures of the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
LMHP-S, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E, and the individual. ]
C. Day treatment/partial hospitalization services shall be
provided following [ a service-specific provider intake and be authorized
by the LMHP, ] LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or [ LMHP-R,
LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S. An ISP, as defined in 12VAC30-50-226, shall be fully
completed, signed, and dated by either the LMHP, ] LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, [ LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, the QMHP-A,
QMHP-E, or QMHP-C and reviewed/approved by the LMHP, ] LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or [ LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S within 30
days of service initiation a diagnostic assessment and be authorized by
the physician, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed professional counselor,
licensed clinical social worker, or licensed clinical nurse
specialist-psychiatric. An ISP shall be fully completed by either the LMHP or
the QMHP-A or QMHP-C as defined in 12VAC35-105-20 within 30 days of service
initiation ].
1. The enrolled provider of day treatment/partial
hospitalization shall be licensed by DBHDS as providers of day treatment
services.
2. Services shall only be provided by an LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP, [ LMHP-S, ]
QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or a qualified paraprofessional under the supervision
of a QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or an LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP, [ or LMHP-S ]
as defined at 12VAC35-105-20, except for [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMSP-resident, and LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP, [ and
LMHP-S, ] which are defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
3. The program shall operate a minimum of two continuous hours
in a 24-hour period.
4. Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
other less intensive services may achieve or maintain psychiatric
stabilization.
D. Psychosocial rehabilitation services shall be provided to
those individuals who have experienced long-term or repeated psychiatric
hospitalization, or who experience difficulty in activities of daily living and
interpersonal skills, or whose support system is limited or nonexistent, or who
are unable to function in the community without intensive intervention or when
long-term services are needed to maintain the individual in the community.
1. Psychosocial rehabilitation services shall be provided
following a service-specific provider intake that clearly documents the need
for services. This intake that shall be completed by either an LMHP,
[ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP
[ , or LMHP-S ]. An ISP shall be completed by either the LMHP,
[ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ]
LMHP-RP, [ LMHP-S, ] or the QMHP-A, QMHP-E, or QMHP-C and be
reviewed/approved by either an LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident,
or LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP [ , or LMHP-S ] within 30
calendar days of service initiation. At least every three months, the LMHP,
[ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP,
[ LMHP-S, ] the QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E must review, modify
as appropriate, and update the ISP.
2. Psychosocial rehabilitation services of any individual that
continue more than six months shall be reviewed by an LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP [ , or LMHP-S ]
who shall document the continued need for the service. The ISP shall be
rewritten at least annually.
3. The enrolled provider of psychosocial rehabilitation
services shall be licensed by DBHDS as a provider of psychosocial
rehabilitation or clubhouse services.
4. Psychosocial rehabilitation services may be provided by an
LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ]
LMHP-RP, [ LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or a qualified
paraprofessional under the supervision of a QMHP-A, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or an
LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ]
LMHP-RP [ , or LMHP-S ].
5. The program shall operate a minimum of two continuous hours
in a 24-hour period.
6. Time allocated for field trips may be used to calculate
time and units if the goal is to provide training in an integrated setting, and
to increase the individual's understanding or ability to access community
resources.
E. Crisis [ Admission to
Initiation of ] crisis intervention services shall be indicated
following a [ service-specific provider intake that documents a ]
marked reduction in the individual's psychiatric, adaptive or behavioral
functioning or an extreme increase in personal distress. [ In order to
receive reimbursement, providers shall register this service with DMAS, DMAS
contractors, or the BHSA within one business day of the completion of the
service-specific provider intake to avoid duplication of services and to ensure
informed care coordination. ]
1. The crisis intervention services provider shall be licensed
as a provider of emergency services by DBHDS pursuant to 12VAC35-105-30.
2. Client-related activities provided in association with a
face-to-face contact are reimbursable.
3. An individual service plan (ISP) shall not be required for
newly admitted individuals to receive this service. Inclusion of crisis
intervention as a service on the ISP shall not be required for the service to
be provided on an emergency basis.
4. For individuals receiving scheduled, short-term counseling
as part of the crisis intervention service, an ISP shall be developed or
revised by the fourth face-to-face contact to reflect the short-term
counseling goals by the fourth face-to-face contact.
5. Reimbursement shall be provided for short-term crisis
counseling contacts occurring within a 30-day period from the time of the first
face-to-face crisis contact. Other than the annual service limits, there are no
restrictions (regarding number of contacts or a given time period to be
covered) for reimbursement for unscheduled crisis contacts.
6. Crisis intervention services may be provided to eligible
individuals outside of the clinic and [ billed reimbursed ],
provided the provision of out-of-clinic services is clinically/programmatically
appropriate. Travel by staff to provide out-of-clinic services shall not be
reimbursable. Crisis intervention may involve contacts with the family or
significant others. If other clinic services are billed at the same time as
crisis intervention, documentation must clearly support the separation of the
services with distinct treatment goals.
7. An LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ]
LMHP-RP, [ LMHP-S, ] or a certified prescreener, as defined
in 12VAC30-50-226, shall conduct a face-to-face service-specific provider
intake. The [ assessment intake ] shall
document the need for and the anticipated duration of the crisis service.
[ Crisis intervention will be provided by an LMHP or a certified
prescreener. ]
8. Crisis intervention shall be provided by either an LMHP,
[ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP,
[ LMHP-S, ] or a certified prescreener.
9. For an admission to a freestanding inpatient psychiatric
facility for individuals younger than age 21, federal regulations (42 CFR
441.152) require certification of the admission by an independent team. The
independent team must include mental health professionals, including a
physician. These preadmission screenings cannot be billed unless the
requirement for an independent team certification, with a physician's
signature, is met.
10. Services shall be documented through daily notes and a
daily log of time spent in the delivery of services.
F. Case management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420
(seriously mentally ill adults and emotionally disturbed children) or
12VAC30-50-430 (youth at risk of serious emotional disturbance).
1. Reimbursement shall be provided only for "active"
case management clients, as defined. An active client for case management shall
mean an individual for whom there is an ISP in effect that requires regular
direct or client-related contacts or activity or communication with the
individuals or families, significant others, service providers, and others
including a minimum of one face-to-face individual contact within a 90-day
period. Billing can be submitted only for months in which direct or
client-related contacts, activity or communications occur.
2. The Medicaid eligible individual shall meet the DBHDS
criteria of serious mental illness, serious emotional disturbance in children
and adolescents, or youth at risk of serious emotional disturbance.
3. There shall be no maximum service limits for case
management services. Case management shall not be billed for persons in
institutions for mental disease.
4. The ISP shall document the need for case management and be
fully completed within 30 calendar days of initiation of the service. The case
manager shall review the ISP at least every three months. The review will be
due by the last day of the third month following the month in which the last
review was completed. A grace period will be granted up to the last day of the
fourth month following the month of the last review. When the review was
completed in a grace period, the next subsequent review shall be scheduled
three months from the month the review was due and not the date of actual
review.
5. The ISP shall also be updated at least annually.
6. The provider of case management services shall be licensed
by DBHDS as a provider of case management services.
G. Intensive community treatment (ICT).
1. A service-specific provider intake that documents
eligibility and the need for this service shall be completed by either the
LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ]
LMHP-RP [ , or LMHP-S ] prior to the initiation of services.
This intake documentation shall be maintained in the individual's
records. Proper completion of the service-specific provider intake shall
comport with the requirements of 12VAC30-50-130.
2. An individual service plan, based on the needs as
determined by the service-specific provider intake, must be initiated at the
time of admission and must be fully developed by either the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP, [ LMHP-S, ]
QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E and approved by the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP [ , or LMHP-S ]
within 30 days of the initiation of services.
3. ICT may be billed if the individual is brought to the
facility by ICT staff to see the psychiatrist. Documentation must be present in
the individual's record to support this intervention.
4. The enrolled ICT provider shall be licensed by the DBHDS as
a provider of intensive community services or as a program of assertive
community treatment, and must provide and make available emergency services
24-hours per day, seven days per week, 365 days per year, either directly or on
call.
5. ICT services must be documented through a daily log of time
spent in the delivery of services and a description of the activities/services
provided. There must also be at least a weekly note documenting progress or
lack of progress toward goals and objectives as outlined on the ISP.
H. Crisis stabilization services.
1. This service shall be [ authorized initiated ]
following a face-to-face service-specific provider intake by either an LMHP,
[ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP,
[ LMHP-S, ] or a certified prescreener, as defined in
12VAC30-50-226.
[ 2. In order to receive reimbursement,
providers shall register this service with DMAS, DMAS contractors, or the BHSA
within one business day of the completion of the service-specific provider
intake to avoid duplication of services and to ensure informed care
coordination.
2. 3. ] The service-specific provider
intake must document the need for crisis stabilization services.
[ 3. 4. ] The Individual Service Plan
(ISP) must be developed or revised within three calendar days of admission to
this service. The LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ]
LMHP-RP, [ LMHP-S, ] certified prescreener, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or
QMHP-E shall develop the ISP.
[ 4. 5. ] Room and board,
custodial care, and general supervision are not components of this service.
[ 5. 6. ] Clinic option services
are not billable at the same time crisis stabilization services are provided
with the exception of clinic visits for medication management. Medication
management visits may be billed at the same time that crisis stabilization services
are provided but documentation must clearly support the separation of the
services with distinct treatment goals.
[ 6. 7. ] Individuals qualifying
for this service must demonstrate a clinical necessity for the service arising
from a condition due to an acute crisis of a psychiatric nature which puts the
individual at risk of psychiatric hospitalization.
[ 7. 8. ] Providers of residential
crisis stabilization shall be licensed by DBHDS as providers of mental
health residential or nonresidential crisis stabilization services.
Providers of community-based crisis stabilization shall be licensed by DBHDS as
providers of mental health nonresidential crisis stabilization.
I. Mental health support skill-building
services as defined in 12VAC30-50-226 B [ 8 6 ].
Refer to 12VAC30-50-226 for criteria, service authorization requirements,
and service-specific provider intakes that shall apply for individuals in order
to qualify for this service.
1. Prior to At admission, an appropriate
face-to-face service-specific provider intake must be completed, conducted,
documented, signed, and dated, and documented by the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ] or LMHP-RP indicating that service
needs can best be met through mental health support services. Providers
shall be reimbursed one unit for each intake utilizing the appropriate billing
code. Service-specific provider intakes shall be repeated [ when
the individual receives six months of continual care and ] upon
any lapse in services of more than 30 calendar days. [ Services of
any individual that continue more than six months shall be reviewed by the
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S who shall document the continued need for the
service in the individual's medical record. ]
2. The ISP, as defined in 12VAC30-50-226, shall be
completed, signed, and dated by either a LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident,
LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E within 30 calendar days of service
initiation, and shall indicate the specific supports and services to be
provided and the goals and objectives to be accomplished. The LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP or QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E shall
supervise the care if delivered by the qualified paraprofessional. If the care
is supervised by the QMHP-A, QMHP-E, or QMHP-C, then the LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP shall review and approve the supervision of the care
delivered by the qualified paraprofessional.
3. Every three months, the LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E shall review, modify as
appropriate, and update the ISP showing a new signature and date of each
revision. If the ISP review is conducted by the QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E, then
it shall be reviewed/approved/signed/dated by the LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident,
or LMHP-RP. The ISP shall be rewritten, signed, and dated by either a QMHP-A,
QMHP-C, QMHP-E, an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP at least
annually.
4. Only direct face-to-face contacts and services to
individuals shall be reimbursable.
5. Any services provided to the individual that are
strictly academic in nature shall not be billable. These include, but are not
limited to, such basic educational programs as instruction in reading, science,
mathematics, or the individual's work towards obtaining a GED.
6. Any services provided to individuals that are strictly
vocational in nature shall not be billable. However, support activities and
activities directly related to assisting an individual to cope with a mental
illness to the degree necessary to develop appropriate behaviors for operating
in an overall work environment shall be billable.
7. Room and board, custodial care, and general supervision
are not components of this service.
8. This service is not billable for individuals who reside
in facilities where staff are expected to provide such services under facility
licensure requirements.
9. Provider qualifications. The enrolled provider of mental
health support services shall be licensed by DBHDS as a provider of supportive
in-home services, intensive community treatment, or as a program of assertive
community treatment. Individuals employed or contracted by the provider to
provide mental health support services shall have training in the
characteristics of mental illness and appropriate interventions, training
strategies, and support methods for persons with mental illness and functional
limitations.
10. Mental health support services, which continue for six
consecutive months, shall be reviewed and renewed at the end of the six-month
period of authorization by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP
who shall document the continued need for the services.
11. Mental health support services shall be documented
through a daily log of time involved in the delivery of services and a minimum
of a weekly summary note of services provided.
2. The primary psychiatric diagnosis shall be documented as
part of the intake. The LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, or
LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S ] performing
the intake shall document the primary mental health diagnosis on the intake
form.
3. The LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, or
LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E ]
shall complete, sign, and date the ISP within 30 days of the admission to
this service. The ISP shall include documentation of how many days per week and
how many hours per week are required to carry out the goals in the ISP. The
total time billed for the week shall not exceed the frequency established in
the individual's ISP. The ISP shall indicate the dated signature of the LMHP,
[ LMHP-supervisee, or LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
LMHP-S, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E ] and the individual. The ISP
shall indicate the specific training and services to be provided, the goals and
objectives to be accomplished, and criteria for discharge as part of a
discharge plan that includes the projected length of service. If the individual
refuses to sign the ISP, this shall be noted in the individual's medical record
documentation.
4. Every three months, the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
or LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A,
QMHP-C, or QMHP-E shall review with the individual in a manner in which he may
participate with the process, modify as appropriate, and update the ISP. The
ISP must be rewritten at least annually.
a. The goals, objectives, and strategies of the ISP shall
be updated to reflect any change or changes in the individual's progress and
treatment needs as well as any newly identified problem.
b. Documentation of this review shall be added to the
individual's medical record no later than [ the last day of the
month in which this 15 calendar days from the date of the ]
review [ is conducted ], as evidenced by the
dated signatures of the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident
LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E and the
individual.
5. The ISP shall include discharge goals that will enable
the individual to achieve and maintain community stability and independence.
The ISP shall fully support the need for interventions over the length of the
period of service requested from the service authorization contractor.
6. Reauthorizations for service shall only be granted if
the provider demonstrates to either DMAS or the service authorization
contractor that the individual is benefitting from the service as evidenced by
updates and modifications to the ISP that demonstrate progress toward ISP goals
and objectives.
7. If the provider knows or has reason to know of the
individual's nonadherence to a regimen of prescribed medication, medication
adherence shall be a goal in the individual's ISP. If the care is delivered by
the qualified paraprofessional, the supervising LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, or
QMHP-C shall be informed of any [ nonadherence to the prescribed ]
medication regimen [ nonadherence ]. The
LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident LMHP-R,
LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, or QMHP-C shall coordinate care with the
prescribing physician regarding any [ concerns about ] medication
[ regimen ] nonadherence [ concerns
(provided that the individual has consented to such sharing of information) ].
The provider shall document the following minimum elements of the contact
between the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident
LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, or QMHP-C and the prescribing
physician:
a. Name and title of caller;
b. Name and title of professional who was called;
c. Name of organization that the prescribing professional
works for;
d. Date and time of call;
e. Reason for the care coordination call;
f. Description of medication regimen issue or issues to be
discussed; and
g. Whether or not there was a resolution of medication
regimen issue or issues.
8. Discharge summaries shall be prepared by providers for
all of the individuals in their care. Documentation of prior psychiatric
services history shall be maintained in the individual's mental health
skill-building services medical record.
9. Documentation of prior psychiatric services history
shall be maintained in the individual's mental health skill-building services
medical record. The provider shall document evidence of the individual's prior
psychiatric services history, as required by 12VAC30-50-226 B [ 8
6 ] b (3) and 12VAC30-50-226 B [ 8 6 ]
c (4), by contacting the prior provider or providers of such health care
services after obtaining written consent from the individual. Documentation of
telephone contacts with the prior provider shall include the following minimum
elements:
a. Name and title of caller;
b. Name and title of professional who was called;
c. Name of organization that the professional works for;
d. Date and time of call;
e. Specific placement provided;
f. Type of treatment previously provided;
g. Name of treatment provider; and
h. Dates of previous treatment.
[ Discharge summaries from prior providers that
clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided, (ii) the dates of the
treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the treatment provider
shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member statements shall
not suffice to meet this requirement. ]
10. The provider shall document evidence of the psychiatric
medication history, as required by 12VAC30-50-226 B [ 8
6 ] b (4) and 12VAC30-50-226 B [ 8 6 ]
c (5), by maintaining a photocopy of prescription information from a
prescription bottle or by contacting [ a prior the
current or previous prescribing ] provider of health care services
or pharmacy after obtaining written consent from the individual. Prescription
lists or medical records [ , including discharge summaries, ]
obtained from the pharmacy or [ current or previous prescribing ]
provider of health care services that contain (i) the name of the
prescribing physician, (ii) the name of the medication with dosage and
frequency, and (iii) the date of the prescription shall be sufficient to meet
these criteria. [ Family member statements shall not suffice to
meet this requirement. ]
11. In the absence of such documentation, the current
provider shall document all contacts (i.e., telephone, [ faxes)
faxes, electronic communication) ] with the pharmacy or provider of
health care services with the following minimum elements: (i) name and title of
caller, (ii) name and title of prior professional who was called, (iii) name of
organization that the professional works for, (iv) date and time of call, (v)
specific prescription confirmed, (vi) name of prescribing physician, (vii) name
of medication, and (viii) date of prescription.
12. Only direct face-to-face contacts and services to an
individual shall be reimbursable.
13. Any services provided to the individual that are
strictly academic in nature shall not be billable. These include, but are not
limited to, such basic educational programs as instruction or tutoring in
reading, science, mathematics, or GED.
14. Any services provided to individuals that are strictly
vocational in nature shall not be billable. However, support activities and
activities directly related to assisting an individual to cope with a mental
illness to the degree necessary to develop appropriate behaviors for operating
in an overall work environment shall be billable.
15. Room and board, custodial care, and general supervision
are not components of this service.
16. Provider qualifications. The enrolled provider of
mental health skill-building services must be licensed by DBHDS as a provider
of mental health community support [ (defined in 12VAC35-105-20) ].
Individuals employed or contracted by the provider to provide mental health
skill-building services must have training in the characteristics of mental
illness and appropriate interventions, training strategies, and support methods
for persons with mental illness and functional limitations. Mental health
skill-building services shall be provided by either an LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, QMHP-C,
QMHP-E, or [ QMHPP QPPMH ]. The LMHP,
[ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ]
QMHP-A, or QMHP-C will supervise the care weekly if delivered by the QMHP-E
or [ QMHPP QPPMH ]. Documentation of
supervision shall be maintained in the mental health skill-building services
record.
[ 17. Mental health skill-building services,
which may continue for up to six consecutive months, must be reviewed and
renewed at the end of the period of authorization by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident who must document the continued need for the services.
18. 17. ] Mental health
skill-building services [ must shall ] be
documented through a daily log of time involved in the delivery of services and
a minimum of a weekly summary note of services provided. The provider shall
clearly document services provided to detail what occurred during the entire
amount of the time billed.
[ 19. 18. ] If mental
health skill-building services are provided in a group home (Level A or B) or
assisted living facility, effective July 1, 2014, there shall be a yearly limit
of up to 4160 units per fiscal year and a weekly limit of up to 80 units per
week, with at least half of each week's services provided outside of the group
home or assisted living facility. There shall be a daily limit of a maximum of
20 units. Prior to July 1, 2014, the previous limits shall apply. The ISP shall
not include activities that contradict or duplicate those in the treatment plan
established by the group home or assisted living facility. The provider shall
attempt to coordinate mental health skill-building services with the treatment
plan established by the group home or assisted living facility and shall
document all coordination activities in the medical record.
[ 20. 19. ] Limits and
exclusions.
a. Group home (Level A or B) and assisted living facility
providers shall not serve as the mental health skill-building services provider
for individuals residing in the provider's respective facility. Individuals
residing in facilities may, however, receive MHSS from another MHSS agency not
affiliated with the owner of the facility in which they reside.
b. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
reimbursed for individuals who are receiving in-home residential services or
congregate residential services through the Intellectual Disability Waiver or Individual
and Family Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver.
c. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
reimbursed for individuals who are also receiving independent living skills
services, the Department of Social Services independent living program
(22VAC40-151), independent living services (22VAC40-151 and 22VAC40-131), or
independent living arrangement (22VAC40-131) or any Comprehensive Services
Act-funded independent living skills programs.
d. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available to individuals who are receiving treatment foster care
(12VAC30-130-900 et seq.).
e. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available to individuals who reside in intermediate care facilities for
individuals with intellectual disabilities or hospitals.
f. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available to individuals who reside in nursing facilities, except for up to 60
days prior to discharge. If the individual has not been discharged from the
nursing facility during the 60-day period of services, mental health
skill-building services shall be terminated and no further service
authorizations shall be available to the individual unless a provider can
demonstrate and document that mental health skill-building services are
necessary. Such documentation shall include facts demonstrating a change in the
individual's circumstances and a new plan for discharge requiring up to 60 days
of mental health skill-building services.
g. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available for residents of residential treatment centers (Level C facilities)
except for the intake code H0032 (modifier U8) in the seven days immediately
prior to discharge.
h. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
reimbursed if personal care services or attendant care services are being
received simultaneously, unless justification is provided why this is necessary
in the individual's mental health skill-building services record. Medical
record documentation shall fully substantiate the need for services when
personal care or attendant care services are being provided. This applies to
individuals who are receiving additional services through the Intellectual
Disability Waiver (12VAC30-120-1000 et seq.), Individual and Family Developmental
Disabilities Support Waiver (12VAC30-120-700 et seq.), the Elderly or Disabled
with Consumer Direction Waiver (12VAC30-120-900 et seq.), and EPSDT services
(12VAC30-50-130).
i. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
duplicative of other services. Providers have a responsibility to ensure that
if an individual is receiving additional therapeutic services that there will
be coordination of services by either the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, QMHP-C,
or QMHP-E to avoid duplication of services.
j. Individuals who have organic disorders, such as
delirium, dementia, or other cognitive disorders not elsewhere classified, will
be prohibited from receiving mental health skill-building services unless their
physicians issue a signed and dated statement indicating that the individuals
can benefit from this service.
k. Individuals who are not diagnosed with a serious mental
health disorder but who have personality disorders or other mental health
disorders, or both, that may lead to chronic disability, will not be excluded
from the mental health skill-building services eligibility criteria provided
that the individual has a primary mental health diagnosis from the list
included in 12VAC30-50-226 B [ 8 6 ] b
(1) or 12VAC30-50-226 B [ 8 6 ] c (2) and
that the provider can document and describe how the individual is expected to
actively participate in and benefit from mental health support services.
J. Except as noted in subdivision I [ 20
18 ] of this section and in 12VAC30-50-226 B 6 [ d
e ], the limits described in this regulation and all others
identified in 12VAC30-50-226 shall apply to all service authorization requests
submitted to either DMAS or the BHSA as of [ the effective date
of this regulation July 27, 2016 ]. As of [ the
effective date of this regulation July 27, 2016 ], all
annual limits, weekly limits, daily limits, and reimbursement for services
shall apply to all services described in 12VAC30-50-226 regardless of the date
upon which service authorization was obtained.
VA.R. Doc. No. R14-3451; Filed June 3, 2016, 2:52 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Proposed Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-30. Groups Covered and
Agencies Responsible for Eligibility Determination (amending 12VAC30-30-20).
12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration, and Scope of Medical and
Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-130).
12VAC30-135. Demonstration Waiver Services (repealing 12VAC30-135-10 through 12VAC30-135-90).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia;
42 USC § 1396 et seq.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: August 26, 2016.
Agency Contact: Victoria Simmons, Regulatory
Coordinator, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad Street,
Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-6043, FAX (804) 786-1680,
or email victoria.simmons@dmas.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia grants
to the Board of Medical Assistance Services the authority to administer the
Plan for Medical Assistance. Section 32.1-324 of the Code of Virginia
authorizes the Director of the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS)
to administer and amend the Plan for Medical Assistance when the board is not in
session, subject to such rules and regulations as may be prescribed by the
board. The Medicaid authority was established by § 1902(a) of the Social
Security Act (42 USC § 1396a), which provides the governing authority for
DMAS to administer the state's Medicaid system.
The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law
111-148) (PPACA), as amended by the Health Care and Education Recovery Act of
2010 (Public Law 111-152), contains § 2303 State Eligibility Option for Family
Planning Services, which established a new Medicaid eligibility group and the
option for states to begin providing family planning services and supplies to
individuals (both men and women) found to be eligible under this new group.
Coverage of both of these services was previously only available under a
demonstration project waiver for men and women not eligible for full Medicaid
benefits.
Item 301 UU of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly
provides the following: "The Department of Medical Assistance Services
shall seek federal authority to move the family planning eligibility group from
a demonstration waiver to the State Plan for Medical Assistance. The department
shall seek approval of coverage under this new state plan option for
individuals with income up to 200% of the federal poverty level (FPL).
For the purposes of this section, family planning services shall not cover
payment for abortion services and no funds shall be used to perform, assist,
encourage or make direct referrals for abortions. The department shall have
authority to implement necessary changes upon federal approval and prior to the
completion of any regulatory process undertaken in order to effect such
change."
Purpose: The Plan First program was initially covered by
the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) as a demonstration waiver
program and covered general family planning services for persons who could not
qualify for full Medicaid eligibility. The covered services included (i)
examinations for both men and women for sexually transmitted diseases, (ii)
birth control, (iii) cancer screenings for men and women, and (iv) family
planning education and counseling. Demonstration projects, regardless of their
subject, create significant administrative costs and reporting requirements for
Medicaid programs. In order to approve a demonstration grant for a state, CMS
requires significant data reporting, formal evaluations, and periodic grant
renewals. Converting this family planning service to the State Plan, as now
permitted by PPACA, relieves DMAS of these administrative costs and duties.
The purpose of this action is to move the waiver regulations
into the state plan regulations, which has no effect on the health, safety, or
welfare of citizens. The increase of the income eligibility level will permit
more individuals to receive services under this program. The advantage to the
individuals who qualify for this service is the coverage of family planning
services and examinations for sexually transmitted diseases.
There are no disadvantages to the public or the Commonwealth
associated with the proposed regulatory action.
Substance: The planned regulatory action makes three
types of changes: (i) substantive changes required by CMS as a condition of the
state plan amendment approval, (ii) substantive changes to the income level
approved by CMS, and (iii) nonsubstantive editorial changes. In addition to
moving this program out of demonstration waiver regulations and into state plan
regulations, this action also increases the income level for eligibility, authorizes
use of the DMAS Central Processing Unit or other contractor for determining
eligibility (should DMAS determine that this is the most practicable approach),
and clarifies that those individuals eligible for full-benefit coverage under
Medicaid or FAMIS are not eligible under this program. The proposed regulatory
action also authorizes coverage for additional (beyond initial) testing for
sexually transmitted infections (STI) and newer methods of cervical cancer
screening. The changes are designed to facilitate administration and update the
services provided. In addition, this regulatory action includes nonsubstantive
changes to selected language.
Current regulations treat individuals eligible for coverage
under the Medicaid family planning option as a demonstration waiver versus the
state plan option as approved by CMS. Under the demonstration waiver, the
Commonwealth was allowed to waive certain limits for eligibility, including
disallowing eligibility based on age, gender, or having had a sterilization
procedure or hysterectomy. The demonstration waiver also disallowed retroactive
eligibility. These limitations were required by CMS as a condition of waiver
approval. The current regulations also limit the income level for eligibility
to 133% FPL.
Current regulations limit eligibility determination to local
departments of social services and are unclear with regard to enrollment for
persons eligible for Medicaid or FAMIS under a full-benefits category. Current
regulations limit testing for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) to the
initial visit and restrict cervical cancer screening to the Pap test.
By meeting CMS requirements for continuation of the Family
Planning program as a state plan service, the proposed regulatory action brings
the regulations into compliance with the state plan amendment currently
approved by CMS. This action assures that the eligibility rules for the state
plan family planning option are consistent with those for full benefit Medicaid
program. Raising the income level for eligibility makes the program consistent
with the FAMIS MOMS program for pregnant women, and offers more men and women
access to family planning services. Updating the clinical services available
(STI testing and cervical cancer screening options) conforms to the present
standard of care.
The family planning program is a benefit to qualified
low-income families by providing them with the means for obtaining medical
family planning services to avoid unintended pregnancies and increase the
spacing between births to help promote healthier mothers and infants.
The primary advantage of the family planning program to the
Commonwealth is a cost savings to Medicaid for prenatal care, delivery, and
infant care by preventing unintended pregnancies. According to the Virginia
Department of Health's Pregnancy Risk Assessment Monitoring System (2010),
unintended pregnancy continues to occur at a high rate in Virginia, where 42%
of all pregnancies are unintended across the Commonwealth. Of these unintended
pregnancies, 31% were mistimed (women who reported they wanted to be pregnant
later) and 11% were unwanted (women who reported they did not want the
pregnancy then or in the future).
Family planning services do not cover abortion services or
referrals for abortions. This regulatory action would not affect individuals
younger than 19 years of age unless they are in the FAMIS income range but are
not eligible for FAMIS because of having other creditable health insurance. The
majority of individuals younger than 19 years of age would be eligible for full
Medicaid or FAMIS benefits.
The intent of this action is to align Virginia policy with that
afforded by federal law, and in doing so expand family planning options for
individuals who would not otherwise qualify for Medicaid or FAMIS coverage.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public is that more
low-income women and men will have access to family planning services. This
increased access will support these individuals' efforts to better plan for
pregnancy and will also allow greater access to testing for STI and screening
for cervical cancer.
The primary disadvantage to these individuals is that, by
definition, this is a limited benefit program. Some individuals may not
understand those limits as they apply for full Medicaid benefits or seek
services that are not encompassed by this family planning program, requiring
remedial education and redirection to more appropriate resources. A
disadvantage of this program for providers is that they also may not understand
this program's limits and, after failing to determine that their patient has
limited available benefits, provide a full range of services only to have their
claims denied.
There are no identified disadvantages to the Commonwealth.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The proposed
regulation makes permanent the provision of family planning services under the
new eligibility group authorized by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Services (CMS).
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. These regulations contain rules for
Medicaid family planning services. Family planning services are services
necessary to prevent or delay a pregnancy and do not include abortion services.
The services include education and counseling, physician office visits, annual
gynecological exams, sexually transmitted disease screens, Pap tests,
contraceptives, and sterilizations for family planning purposes. Prior to 2011,
coverage of these services had been provided in Virginia under a demonstration
project waiver which required a new demonstration and federal approval every
three years. In 2010, the federal Affordable Care Act established a new
Medicaid eligibility group and the option for states to begin providing family
planning services and supplies to individuals found to be eligible under this
new group. Consequently, Chapter 890 of the 2011 Acts of Assembly, Item 297
DDDDD required the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS) to seek
federal approval to provide family planning services under the new eligibility
group. As a result, DMAS obtained federal authority in 2011 and has been
providing these services under that authority since then.1 The proposed
changes have been implemented for some time and no significant economic impact
upon promulgation of the proposed changes is expected. However, a general
discussion is provided below to highlight the effects that have already likely
occurred and will likely continue to be realized in the future.
As a result of the new eligibility rules in 2011, the income
limit has increased from 133 percent of the federal poverty limit to 200
percent. The increase in the income level permitted more low-income women and men
to have access to family planning services. In support of the waiver renewal
application, DMAS estimated the cost effectiveness of family planning services
in 2011. The study shows that the primary advantage of this change is costs
savings to Medicaid for prenatal care, delivery, and infant care by preventing
unintended pregnancies.
The study estimated that an additional 1,246 recipients would
receive family planning services in fiscal year (FY) 2013. The cost of family
planning services was estimated to be $323.53 per recipient for FY2013 and
$403,123 in total to cover 1,246 additional recipients.2 On the
other hand, the cost of pregnancy care, delivery, and first year of life care
was estimated to be $19,629.88 per recipient for FY2013, making family planning
services very cost effective. For example, assuming family planning services
reduce the Medicaid population's pregnancy rate by 7.15 percent, approximately
89 unintended pregnancies in FY2013 could be assumed to have been averted. As a
result, assuming all unintended pregnancies would have ended in births,
approximately $1.7 million in FY2013 could be estimated to have been averted in
costs for prenatal care, delivery, and first year of life care.3 4
In reality, some of the unintended pregnancies would not end in
births. Thus, there is likely to be some financial savings to women who
unintentionally get pregnant and who would otherwise terminate their
pregnancies. Family planning services do not pay for abortion services unless
the life or health of the mother is endangered if the fetus is carried to term.
Thus, any abortion costs must be paid privately. Since the proposed change
likely reduced the number of terminated pregnancies among unintended
pregnancies, these women and/or their families probably realized some financial
savings in abortion costs that would have otherwise occurred.
In addition, the non-financial effects of family planning are
significant. The family planning services are expected to benefit the health
and welfare of these women in their childbearing years, to reduce maternal
mortality and morbidity, and to improve the health of children, by allowing
women to plan their pregnancies, by decreasing their risk of experiencing poor
birth outcomes, and by averting the unintended births.5, 6
Adolescent women, women with several children, and women with existing health
problems are particularly susceptible to health risks because their bodies may
not be mature enough to handle a pregnancy and experience obstetrical
complications, may not have gained sufficient strength following a previous
pregnancy, or may face complications due to other health conditions,
respectively. Closely spaced births (usually within 2 years) are more likely to
be premature and low birth-weight. By practicing family planning, women can
avoid high-risk births and reduce their chances of having a baby who will die
in infancy. Poor birth outcomes may also result in expensive long lasting
health care services for developmentally delayed children.
Some other additional benefits of expanding family planning
services may stem from the use of contraceptives. Condoms offer protection
against infection with HIV and STDs. Spermicides and diaphragm may help prevent
STDs. Hormonal contraceptive methods may provide protection against iron
deficiency, anemia, menstrual problems, and provide other similar benefits.
Screening and testing may help detect some potential life threatening
conditions such as cervical or breast cancer early on and improve recipient
women's health.
The proposed change is beneficial also in terms of lower
administrative costs. In order to approve a demonstration grant for a state,
CMS requires significant data reporting, formal evaluations, and periodic grant
renewals. Provision of services under the state plan eliminates these
administrative costs. However, likely savings in administrative costs were
probably offset to some extent by the increase in the caseloads.
Businesses and Entities Affected. The increase in the
eligibility income level was estimated to allow an additional 1,246 recipients
to receive Medicaid funded family planning services in FY2013. It is not known
how many physician practices provide services to individuals in the family
planning program.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed changes apply
statewide.
Projected Impact on Employment. The increase in population
receiving family planning services likely increased the demand for such
services and likely had a positive impact on employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. Increased
demand for family planning services likely increased provider revenues and had
positive impact on their asset values.
Real Estate Development Costs. No impact on real estate
development costs is expected.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The affected providers are generally
assumed to be small businesses. The proposed regulation does not impose costs
on them, but likely resulted in an increase in demand for their services.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. No adverse
impact on small businesses is expected.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. The proposed regulation does not adversely affect
non-small businesses.
Localities. The proposed regulation does not adversely affect
localities.
Other Entities. The proposed regulation does not adversely
affect other entities.
________________________________________
1 However since the waiver regulation has not moved into
the state plan regulations, similar language has been included in budget bills
after 2011. For example, see Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly, Item 301
UU.
2 This estimate is probably slightly lower than actual
cost for two reasons. First, transportation was not a covered service prior to
2011 which would add approximately $1.12 per member per month to the overall
cost. Second, testing for sexually transmitted diseases was limited to the
initial visit, and cervical cancer screening was limited to the Pap test both
of which would also add to the overall cost.
3 The literature strongly supports that every dollar
spent on family planning services produces $3.00 to $5.63 savings in Medicaid
expenditures for pregnancy and infant care due to averted pregnancies. For
example, see "Contraceptive Needs and Services, 2010," Guttmacher
Institute, July 2013 and Forrest and Samara, 1996, "Impact of Publicly
Funded Contraceptive Services on Unintended Pregnancies and Implications for
Medicaid Expenditures," Family Planning Perspectives, 28(5).
4 Exact amount of the Commonwealth's share of estimated
total savings depends on the federal match rate which is 90% for family
planning services and 50% for pregnancy and infant care services. For
simplicity, only total savings are stated.
5 Trussell, James, et al., 1995, "The Economic
Value of Contraception: A comparison of 15 Methods," American Journal of
Public Health, v. 85 No. 4, pp. 494-503.
6 Trussell, James et al., 1997, "Medical Care Costs
Savings from Adolescent Contraceptive Use," Family Planning Perspectives,
v. 29, No. 6.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
agency has reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of
Planning and Budget regarding the regulations concerning Plan First Family
Planning Services (Optional Group). The agency concurs with this analysis.
Summary:
Pursuant to Item 301 UU of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of
Assembly, the proposed amendments move the family planning program from
demonstration waiver regulations to state plan regulations. The proposed
amendments (i) increase the income level for eligibility for the program; (ii)
authorize use of the Department of Medical Assistance Services Central Processing
Unit or other contractor for determining eligibility, provided that DMAS
determines that this is the most practicable approach; (iii) clarify that
individuals eligible for full-benefit coverage under Medicaid or FAMIS are not
eligible under this program; and (iv) authorize coverage for additional
testing, beyond the initial testing, for sexually transmitted infections and
newer methods of cervical cancer screening.
12VAC30-30-20. Optional groups other than the medically needy.
The Title IV A agency determines eligibility for Title XIX
services.
1. Caretakers and pregnant women who meet the income and
resource requirements of AFDC but who do not receive cash assistance.
2. Individuals who would be eligible for AFDC, SSI or an
optional state supplement as specified in 42 CFR 435.230, if they were not in a
medical institution.
3. A group or groups of individuals who would be eligible for
Medicaid under the plan if they were in a NF or an ICF/MR, who but for the
provision of home and community-based services under a waiver granted under 42 CFR
Part 441, Subpart G would require institutionalization, and who will receive
home and community-based services under the waiver. The group or groups covered
are listed in the waiver request. This option is effective on the effective
date of the state's § 1915(c) waiver under which this group(s) group
is covered. In the event an existing § 1915(c) waiver is amended to cover
this group(s) group, this option is effective on the effective
date of the amendment.
4. Individuals who would be eligible for Medicaid under the
plan if they were in a medical institution, who are terminally ill, and who
receive hospice care in accordance with a voluntary election described in §
1905(o) of the Act.
5. The state does not cover all individuals who are not
described in § 1902(a)(10)(A)(i) of the Act, who meet the income and
resource requirements of the AFDC state plan and who are under the age of 21.
The state does cover reasonable classifications of these individuals as
follows:
a. Individuals for whom public agencies are assuming full or
partial financial responsibility and who are:
(1) In foster homes (and are under the age of 21).
(2) In private institutions (and are under the age of 21).
(3) In addition to the group under subdivisions 5 a (1) and
(2) of this section, individuals placed in foster homes or private institutions
by private nonprofit agencies (and are under the age of 21).
b. Individuals in adoptions subsidized in full or part by a
public agency (who are under the age of 21).
c. Individuals in NFs (who are under the age of 21). NF
services are provided under this plan.
d. In addition to the group under subdivision 5 c of this
section, individuals in ICFs/MR (who are under the age of 21).
6. A child for whom there is in effect a state adoption
assistance agreement (other than under Title IV-E of the Act), who, as
determined by the state adoption agency, cannot be placed for adoption without
medical assistance because the child has special care needs for medical or
rehabilitative care, and who before execution of the agreement:
a. Was eligible for Medicaid under the state's approved
Medicaid plan; or
b. Would have been eligible for Medicaid if the standards and
methodologies of the Title IV-E foster care program were applied rather than
the AFDC standards and methodologies.
The state covers individuals under the age of 21.
7. Section 1902(f) states and SSI criteria states without
agreements under §§ 1616 and 1634 of the Act.
The following groups of individuals who receive a state
supplementary payment under an approved optional state supplementary payment
program that meets the following conditions. The supplement is:
a. Based on need and paid in cash on a regular basis.
b. Equal to the difference between the individual's countable
income and the income standard used to determine eligibility for the
supplement.
c. Available to all individuals in each classification and
available on a statewide basis.
d. Paid to one or more of the following classifications of
individuals:
(1) Aged individuals in domiciliary facilities or other group
living arrangements as defined under SSI.
(2) Blind individuals in domiciliary facilities or other group
living arrangements as defined under SSI.
(3) Disabled individuals in domiciliary facilities or other
group living arrangements as defined under SSI.
(4) Individuals receiving a state administered optional state
supplement that meets the conditions specified in 42 CFR 435.230.
The supplement varies in income standard by political
subdivisions according to cost-of-living differences.
The standards for optional state supplementary payments are
listed in 12VAC30-40-250.
8. Individuals who are in institutions for at least 30
consecutive days and who are eligible under a special income level. Eligibility
begins on the first day of the 30-day period. These individuals meet the income
standards specified in 12VAC30-40-220.
The state covers all individuals as described above.
9. Individuals who are 65 years of age or older or who are
disabled as determined under § 1614(a)(3) of the Act, whose income does
not exceed the income level specified in 12VAC30-40-220 for a family of the
same size, and whose resources do not exceed the maximum amount allowed under
SSI.
10. Individuals required to enroll in cost-effective
employer-based group health plans remain eligible for a minimum enrollment
period of one month.
11. Women who have been screened for breast or cervical cancer
under the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Breast and Cervical Cancer
Early Detection Program established under Title XV of the Public Health Service
Act in accordance with § 1504 of the Act and need treatment for breast or
cervical cancer, including a pre-cancerous condition of the breast or cervix.
These women are not otherwise covered under creditable coverage, as defined in
§ 2701(c) of the Public Health Services Act, are not eligible for Medicaid
under any mandatory categorically needy eligibility group, and have not
attained age 65.
12. Individuals who may qualify for the Medicaid Buy-In
program under § 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XV) of the Social Security Act (Ticket
to Work Act) if they meet the requirements for the 80% eligibility group
described in 12VAC30-40-220, as well as the requirements described in
12VAC30-40-105 and 12VAC30-110-1500.
13. Individuals under the State Eligibility Option of P.L.
111-148 § 2303 who are not pregnant and whose income does not exceed the
state established income standard for pregnant women in the Virginia Medicaid
and CHIP State Plan and related waivers, which is 200% of the federal poverty
level, shall be eligible for the family planning program. Services are limited
to family planning services as described in 12VAC30-50-130 D.
12VAC30-50-130. Skilled nursing facility services, EPSDT,
school health services and family planning.
A. Skilled nursing facility services (other than services in
an institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older.
Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
performed within the scope of a license of the practitioner of the healing
arts.
B. Early and periodic screening and diagnosis of individuals
under 21 years of age, and treatment of conditions found.
1. Payment of medical assistance services shall be made on
behalf of individuals under 21 years of age, who are Medicaid eligible, for
medically necessary stays in acute care facilities, and the accompanying
attendant physician care, in excess of 21 days per admission when such services
are rendered for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of health conditions
identified through a physical examination.
2. Routine physicals and immunizations (except as provided
through EPSDT) are not covered except that well-child examinations in a private
physician's office are covered for foster children of the local social services
departments on specific referral from those departments.
3. Orthoptics services shall only be reimbursed if medically
necessary to correct a visual defect identified by an EPSDT examination or
evaluation. The department shall place appropriate utilization controls upon
this service.
4. Consistent with the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of
1989 § 6403, early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment services
means the following services: screening services, vision services, dental
services, hearing services, and such other necessary health care, diagnostic
services, treatment, and other measures described in Social Security Act §
1905(a) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and mental illnesses and
conditions discovered by the screening services and which are medically
necessary, whether or not such services are covered under the State Plan and
notwithstanding the limitations, applicable to recipients ages 21 and over,
provided for by the Act § 1905(a).
5. Community mental health services. These services in order
to be covered (i) shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses
made by LMHPs who are practicing within the scope of their licenses and (ii)
are reflected in provider records and on providers' claims for services by
recognized diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the requested
professional services.
a. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
this section shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly
indicates otherwise:
"Activities of daily living" means personal care
activities and includes bathing, dressing, transferring, toileting, feeding,
and eating.
"Adolescent or child" means the individual receiving
the services described in this section. For the purpose of the use of these
terms, adolescent means an individual 12-20 years of age; a child means an
individual from birth up to 12 years of age.
"Behavioral health services administrator" or
"BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
benefits program under contract with DMAS.
"Care coordination" means collaboration and sharing
of information among health care providers, who are involved with an
individual's health care, to improve the care.
"Certified prescreener" means an employee of the
local community services board or behavioral health authority, or its designee,
who is skilled in the assessment and treatment of mental illness and has
completed a certification program approved by the Department of Behavioral
Health and Developmental Services.
"Clinical experience" means providing direct
behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
in-home services, (ii) day treatment for children and adolescents, (iii)
community-based residential services for children and adolescents who are
younger than 21 years of age (Level A), or (iv) therapeutic behavioral services
(Level B). Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be as
established by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
and Developmental Services.
"DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
Services and its contractor or contractors.
"Human services field" means the same as the term is
defined by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
the same as the term is defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
"Licensed mental health professional" or "LMHP"
means a licensed physician, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed
professional counselor, licensed clinical social worker, licensed substance
abuse treatment practitioner, licensed marriage and family therapist, or
certified psychiatric clinical nurse specialist.
"LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the same
as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a "resident"
until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a specific site has been
preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Counseling. For purposes of
Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for services provided by such
residents, they shall use the title "Resident" in connection with the
applicable profession after their signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-resident in psychology" or "LMHP-RP"
means the same as an individual in a residency, as that term is defined in
18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An LMHP-resident in
psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the regulatory requirements
for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65 and shall not perform the
functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a "resident" until the
supervision for specific clinical duties at a specific site has been
preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Psychology. For purposes of
Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services provided by such residents,
they shall use the title "Resident in Psychology" after their
signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
"LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
"supervisee" as defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be
considered a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical
duties at a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Social Work. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title
"Supervisee in Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such
status.
"Progress notes" means individual-specific
documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
the notes. Individualized and member-specific progress notes are part of the
minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's status,
staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress, or lack of
progress, toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes shall also
include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the
service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered the
service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time
or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each progress
note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be documented
for each service that is billed.
"Psychoeducation" means (i) a specific form of
education aimed at helping individuals who have mental illness and their family
members or caregivers to access clear and concise information about mental
illness and (ii) a way of accessing and learning strategies to deal with mental
illness and its effects in order to design effective treatment plans and
strategies.
"Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving and increasing coping
skills.
"Qualified mental health professional-child" or
"QMHP-C" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
"QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20 and
consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-590.
"Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
"QPPMH" means the same as the term is defined in
12VAC35-105-20 and consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
"Service-specific provider intake" means the face-to-face
interaction in which the provider obtains information from the child or
adolescent, and parent or other family member or members, as appropriate, about
the child's or adolescent's mental health status. It includes documented
history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental health care problems
and issues and shall contain all of the following elements: (i) the presenting
issue/reason for referral, (ii) mental health history/hospitalizations, (iii)
previous interventions by providers and timeframes and response to treatment,
(iv) medical profile, (v) developmental history including history of abuse, if
appropriate, (vi) educational/vocational status, (vii) current living situation
and family history and relationships, (viii) legal status, (ix) drug and
alcohol profile, (x) resources and strengths, (xi) mental status exam and
profile, (xii) diagnosis, (xiii) professional summary and clinical formulation,
(xiv) recommended care and treatment goals, and (xv) the dated signature of the
LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
b. Intensive in-home services (IIH) to children and
adolescents under age 21 shall be time-limited interventions provided in the
individual's residence and when clinically necessary in community settings. All
interventions and the settings of the intervention shall be defined in the
Individual Service Plan. All IIH services shall be designed to specifically
improve family dynamics, provide modeling, and the clinically necessary
interventions that increase functional and therapeutic interpersonal relations
between family members in the home. IIH services are designed to promote
psychoeducational benefits in the home setting of an individual who is at risk
of being moved into an out-of-home placement or who is being transitioned to
home from an out-of-home placement due to a documented medical need of the
individual. These services provide crisis treatment; individual and family
counseling; communication skills (e.g., counseling to assist the individual and
his parents or guardians, as appropriate, to understand and practice
appropriate problem solving, anger management, and interpersonal interaction,
etc.); care coordination with other required services; and 24-hour emergency
response.
(1) These services shall be limited annually to 26 weeks.
Service authorization shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement prior to the
onset of services. Services rendered before the date of authorization shall not
be reimbursed.
(2) Service authorization shall be required for services to
continue beyond the initial 26 weeks.
(3) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are set out in this section.
(4) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or a QMHP-E.
c. Therapeutic day treatment (TDT) shall be provided two or
more hours per day in order to provide therapeutic interventions. Day treatment
programs, limited annually to 780 units, provide evaluation; medication
education and management; opportunities to learn and use daily living skills
and to enhance social and interpersonal skills (e.g., problem solving, anger
management, community responsibility, increased impulse control, and
appropriate peer relations, etc.); and individual, group and family counseling.
(1) Service authorization shall be required for Medicaid
reimbursement.
(2) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are set out in this section.
(3) These services may be rendered only by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or a QMHP-E.
d. Community-based services for children and adolescents under
21 years of age (Level A).
(1) Such services shall be a combination of therapeutic
services rendered in a residential setting. The residential services will
provide structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic
supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric treatment to ensure the
attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the individual
service plan (plan of care). Individuals qualifying for this service must
demonstrate medical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to
mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant functional
impairments in major life activities in the home, school, at work, or in the
community. The service must reasonably be expected to improve the child's
condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed.
The application of a national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in
use in the industry, such as McKesson InterQual® Criteria or an
equivalent standard authorized in advance by DMAS, shall be required for this
service.
(2) In addition to the residential services, the child must
receive, at least weekly, individual psychotherapy that is provided by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
(3) Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
other less intensive services may achieve stabilization.
(4) Authorization shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement.
Services that were rendered before the date of service authorization shall not
be reimbursed.
(5) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed. DMAS shall
reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no more
than 16 beds.
(6) These residential providers must be licensed by the
Department of Social Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of
Behavioral Health and Developmental Services under the Standards for Licensed
Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC40-151), Standards for Interim
Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (6VAC35-51), or Regulations for
Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
(7) Daily progress notes shall document a minimum of seven
psychoeducational activities per week. Psychoeducational programming must
include, but is not limited to, development or maintenance of daily living
skills, anger management, social skills, family living skills, communication
skills, stress management, and any care coordination activities.
(8) The facility/group home must coordinate services with
other providers. Such care coordination shall be documented in the individual's
medical record. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
(9) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-60-61.
(10) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
e. Therapeutic behavioral services (Level B).
(1) Such services must be therapeutic services rendered in a
residential setting that provides structure for daily activities,
psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric
treatment to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as
identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). Individuals
qualifying for this service must demonstrate medical necessity for the service
arising from a condition due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results
in significant functional impairments in major life activities in the home,
school, at work, or in the community. The service must reasonably be expected
to improve the child's condition or prevent regression so that the services
will no longer be needed. The application of a national standardized set of
medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson InterQual®
Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance by DMAS shall be
required for this service.
(2) Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
Services that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not
be reimbursed.
(3) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed. Facilities
that only provide independent living services are not reimbursed. DMAS shall
reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no more
than 16 beds.
(4) These residential providers must be licensed by the
Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) under the
Regulations for Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
(5) Daily progress notes shall document that a minimum of
seven psychoeducational activities per week occurs. Psychoeducational
programming must include, but is not limited to, development or maintenance of
daily living skills, anger management, social skills, family living skills,
communication skills, and stress management. This service may be provided in a
program setting or a community-based group home.
(6) The individual must receive, at least weekly, individual
psychotherapy and, at least weekly, group psychotherapy that is provided as
part of the program.
(7) Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
other less intensive services may achieve stabilization.
(8) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services that are based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated
service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement.
Requirements for intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-60-61.
(9) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
(10) The facility/group home shall coordinate necessary
services with other providers. Documentation of this care coordination shall be
maintained by the facility/group home in the individual's record. The
documentation shall include who was contacted, when the contact occurred, and
what information was transmitted.
6. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be covered for
individuals younger than age 21 for medically necessary stays for the purpose
of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders identified
under EPSDT when such services are rendered by:
a. A psychiatric hospital or an inpatient psychiatric program
in a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
Organizations; or a psychiatric facility that is accredited by the Joint
Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission on
Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Accreditation of
Services for Families and Children or the Council on Quality and Leadership.
b. Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general acute
care hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be subject to
the requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and 12VAC30-60-25.
Inpatient psychiatric admissions to residential treatment facilities shall also
be subject to the requirements of Part XIV (12VAC30-130-850 et seq.) of Amount,
Duration and Scope of Selected Services.
c. Inpatient psychiatric services are reimbursable only when
the treatment program is fully in compliance with 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, as
contained in 42 CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 441.152 through 441.156. Each
admission must be preauthorized and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements
for clinical necessity.
7. Hearing aids shall be reimbursed for individuals younger
than 21 years of age according to medical necessity when provided by
practitioners licensed to engage in the practice of fitting or dealing in
hearing aids under the Code of Virginia.
C. School health services.
1. School health assistant services are repealed effective
July 1, 2006.
2. School divisions may provide routine well-child screening
services under the State Plan. Diagnostic and treatment services that are
otherwise covered under early and periodic screening, diagnosis and treatment
services, shall not be covered for school divisions. School divisions to
receive reimbursement for the screenings shall be enrolled with DMAS as clinic
providers.
a. Children enrolled in managed care organizations shall
receive screenings from those organizations. School divisions shall not receive
reimbursement for screenings from DMAS for these children.
b. School-based services are listed in a recipient's
individualized education program (IEP) and covered under one or more of the
service categories described in § 1905(a) of the Social Security Act. These
services are necessary to correct or ameliorate defects of physical or mental
illnesses or conditions.
3. Service providers shall be licensed under the applicable
state practice act or comparable licensing criteria by the Virginia Department
of Education, and shall meet applicable qualifications under 42 CFR Part
440. Identification of defects, illnesses or conditions and services necessary
to correct or ameliorate them shall be performed by practitioners qualified to
make those determinations within their licensed scope of practice, either as a
member of the IEP team or by a qualified practitioner outside the IEP team.
a. Service providers shall be employed by the school division
or under contract to the school division.
b. Supervision of services by providers recognized in subdivision
4 of this subsection shall occur as allowed under federal regulations and
consistent with Virginia law, regulations, and DMAS provider manuals.
c. The services described in subdivision 4 of this subsection
shall be delivered by school providers, but may also be available in the
community from other providers.
d. Services in this subsection are subject to utilization
control as provided under 42 CFR Parts 455 and 456.
e. The IEP shall determine whether or not the services
described in subdivision 4 of this subsection are medically necessary and that
the treatment prescribed is in accordance with standards of medical practice.
Medical necessity is defined as services ordered by IEP providers. The IEP
providers are qualified Medicaid providers to make the medical necessity
determination in accordance with their scope of practice. The services must be
described as to the amount, duration and scope.
4. Covered services include:
a. Physical therapy, occupational therapy and services for
individuals with speech, hearing, and language disorders, performed by, or
under the direction of, providers who meet the qualifications set forth at 42
CFR 440.110. This coverage includes audiology services.
b. Skilled nursing services are covered under 42 CFR
440.60. These services are to be rendered in accordance to the licensing
standards and criteria of the Virginia Board of Nursing. Nursing services are
to be provided by licensed registered nurses or licensed practical nurses but
may be delegated by licensed registered nurses in accordance with the
regulations of the Virginia Board of Nursing, especially the section on
delegation of nursing tasks and procedures. The licensed practical nurse is
under the supervision of a registered nurse.
(1) The coverage of skilled nursing services shall be of a
level of complexity and sophistication (based on assessment, planning,
implementation and evaluation) that is consistent with skilled nursing services
when performed by a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse.
These skilled nursing services shall include, but not necessarily be limited to
dressing changes, maintaining patent airways, medication
administration/monitoring and urinary catheterizations.
(2) Skilled nursing services shall be directly and specifically
related to an active, written plan of care developed by a registered nurse that
is based on a written order from a physician, physician assistant or nurse
practitioner for skilled nursing services. This order shall be recertified on
an annual basis.
c. Psychiatric and psychological services performed by
licensed practitioners within the scope of practice are defined under state law
or regulations and covered as physicians' services under 42 CFR 440.50 or
medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR 440.60. These outpatient
services include individual medical psychotherapy, group medical psychotherapy
coverage, and family medical psychotherapy. Psychological and
neuropsychological testing are allowed when done for purposes other than
educational diagnosis, school admission, evaluation of an individual with
intellectual disability prior to admission to a nursing facility, or any
placement issue. These services are covered in the nonschool settings also.
School providers who may render these services when licensed by the state
include psychiatrists, licensed clinical psychologists, school psychologists,
licensed clinical social workers, professional counselors, psychiatric clinical
nurse specialist, marriage and family therapists, and school social workers.
d. Personal care services are covered under 42 CFR
440.167 and performed by persons qualified under this subsection. The personal
care assistant is supervised by a DMAS recognized school-based health
professional who is acting within the scope of licensure. This practitioner
develops a written plan for meeting the needs of the child, which is
implemented by the assistant. The assistant must have qualifications comparable
to those for other personal care aides recognized by the Virginia Department of
Medical Assistance Services. The assistant performs services such as assisting
with toileting, ambulation, and eating. The assistant may serve as an aide on a
specially adapted school vehicle that enables transportation to or from the
school or school contracted provider on days when the student is receiving a
Medicaid-covered service under the IEP. Children requiring an aide during
transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the
IEP.
e. Medical evaluation services are covered as physicians'
services under 42 CFR 440.50 or as medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR
440.60. Persons performing these services shall be licensed physicians,
physician assistants, or nurse practitioners. These practitioners shall
identify the nature or extent of a child's medical or other health related
condition.
f. Transportation is covered as allowed under 42 CFR
431.53 and described at State Plan Attachment 3.1-D. Transportation shall be
rendered only by school division personnel or contractors. Transportation is
covered for a child who requires transportation on a specially adapted school
vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or school contracted
provider on days when the student is receiving a Medicaid-covered service under
the IEP. Transportation shall be listed in the child's IEP. Children requiring
an aide during transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this
stated in the IEP.
g. Assessments are covered as necessary to assess or reassess
the need for medical services in a child's IEP and shall be performed by any of
the above licensed practitioners within the scope of practice. Assessments and
reassessments not tied to medical needs of the child shall not be covered.
5. DMAS will ensure through quality management review that
duplication of services will be monitored. School divisions have a
responsibility to ensure that if a child is receiving additional therapy
outside of the school, that there will be coordination of services to avoid
duplication of service.
D. Family planning services and supplies for individuals of
child-bearing age.
1. Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
performed within the scope of the license of a practitioner of the healing
arts.
2. Family planning services shall be defined as those services
that delay or prevent pregnancy. Coverage of such services shall not include
services to treat infertility nor or services to promote
fertility. Family planning services shall not cover payment for abortion
services and no funds shall be used to perform, assist, encourage, or make
direct referrals for abortions.
3. Family planning services as established by
§ 1905(a)(4)(C) of the Social Security Act include annual family planning
exams; cervical cancer screening for women; sexually transmitted infection
(STI) testing; lab services for family planning and STI testing; family
planning education, counseling, and preconception health; sterilization
procedures; nonemergency transportation to a family planning service; and U.S.
Food and Drug Administration approved prescription and over-the-counter
contraceptives, subject to limits in 12VAC30-50-210.
Part I
Family Planning Waiver (Repealed)
12VAC30-135-10. Definitions. (Repealed.)
The following words and terms when used in this part shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Creditable health coverage" means
"creditable coverage" as defined under § 2701(c) of the Public Health
Service Act (42 USC § 300gg(c)) and includes coverage that meets the requirements
of § 2103 provided to a targeted low-income child under Title XXI of the Social
Security Act or under a waiver approved under § 2105(c)(2)(B) (relating to a
direct service waiver).
"Family planning" means those services necessary
to prevent or delay a pregnancy. It shall not include services to promote
pregnancy such as infertility treatments. Family planning does not include
counseling about, recommendations for or performance of abortions, or
hysterectomies or procedures performed for medical reasons such as removal of
intrauterine devices due to infections.
"FAMIS" means the Family Access to Medical
Insurance Security Plan described in 12VAC30-141.
"Over-the-counter" means drugs and
contraceptives that are available for purchase without requiring a physician's
prescription.
"Third party" means any individual entity or
program that is or may be liable to pay all or part of the expenditures for
medical assistance furnished under the State Plan for Medical Assistance.
12VAC30-135-20. Administration and eligibility
determination. (Repealed.)
A. The Department of Medical Assistance Services shall
administer the family planning demonstration waiver services program under the
authority of § 1115(a) of the Social Security Act and 42 USC § 1315.
B. Local departments of social services or a department
contractor shall be responsible for determining eligibility of and for
enrolling eligible individuals in the family planning waiver. Local departments
of social services or a department contractor shall conduct periodic reviews
and redeterminations of eligibility at least every 12 months while recipients
are enrolled in the family planning waiver.
12VAC30-135-30. Eligibility. (Repealed.)
A. To be eligible under the family planning waiver, an
individual must meet the eligibility conditions and requirements found in
12VAC30-40-10, have family income less than or equal to 133% of the federal
poverty level, not have creditable health coverage, and not be eligible for
enrollment in a Medicaid full benefit coverage group or FAMIS.
B. Individuals who have received a sterilization procedure
or hysterectomy are ineligible under the waiver.
C. Individuals enrolled in the family planning waiver will
not be retroactively eligible.
D. A recipient's enrollment in the family planning waiver
shall be terminated if the individual receives a sterilization procedure or
hysterectomy or is found to be ineligible as the result of a reported change or
annual redetermination. The recipient's enrollment in the family planning
waiver also shall be terminated if a reported change or annual redetermination
results in eligibility for Virginia Medicaid in a full benefit coverage group
or eligibility for FAMIS. A 10-day advance notice must be provided prior to
cancellation of coverage under the family planning waiver unless the individual
becomes eligible for a full benefit Medicaid covered group or FAMIS.
12VAC30-135-40. Covered services. (Repealed.)
A. Services provided under the family planning waiver are
limited to:
1. Family planning office visits including annual
gynecological or physical exams (one per 12 months), sexually transmitted
diseases (STD) testing, cervical cancer screening tests (limited to one every
six months);
2. Laboratory services for family planning and STD testing;
3. Family planning education and counseling;
4. Contraceptives approved by the Food and Drug
Administration, including diaphragms, contraceptive injectables, and
contraceptive implants;
5. Over-the-counter contraceptives; and
6. Sterilizations, not to include hysterectomies.
B. Services not covered under the family planning waiver
include, but are not limited to:
1. Performance of, counseling for, or recommendations of
abortions;
2. Infertility treatments;
3. Procedures performed for medical reasons;
4. Performance of a hysterectomy; and
5. Transportation to a family planning service.
12VAC30-135-50. Provider qualifications. (Repealed.)
Services provided under this waiver must be ordered or
prescribed and directed or performed within the scope of the licensed
practitioner. Any appropriately licensed Medicaid enrolled physician, nurse
practitioner, or medical clinic may provide services under this waiver.
12VAC30-135-60. Quality assurance. (Repealed.)
The Department of Medical Assistance Services shall
provide for continuing review and evaluation of the care and services paid by
Medicaid under this waiver. To ensure a thorough review, trained professionals
shall review cases either through desk audit or through on-site reviews of
medical records. Providers shall be required to refund payments made by
Medicaid if they are found to have billed Medicaid for services not covered
under this waiver, if records or documentation supporting claims are not
maintained, or if bills are submitted for medically unnecessary services.
12VAC30-135-70. Reimbursement. (Repealed.)
A. Providers will be reimbursed on a fee-for-service
basis.
B. All reasonable measures including those measures
specified under 42 USC § 1396 (a) (25) will be taken to ascertain the legal
liability of third parties to pay for authorized care and services provided to
eligible recipients.
C. A completed sterilization consent form, in accordance
with the requirements of 42 CFR Part 441, Subpart F, must be submitted with all
claims for payment for sterilization procedures.
12VAC30-135-80. Recipients' rights and right to appeal. (Repealed.)
Individuals found eligible for and enrolled in the family
planning waiver shall have freedom of choice of providers. Individuals will be
free from coercion or mental pressure and shall be free to choose their
preferred methods of family planning. The client appeals process at 12VAC30-110
shall be applicable to applicants for and recipients of family planning
services under this waiver.
12VAC30-135-90. Sunset provision. (Repealed.)
Consistent with federal requirements applicable to this §
1115 demonstration waiver, these regulations shall expire effective with the
termination of the federally approved waiver.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-2866; Filed June 3, 2016, 2:55 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration,
and Scope of Medical and Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-190).
12VAC30-141. Family Access to Medical Insurance Security
Plan (amending 12VAC30-141-820).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia;
42 USC § 1396 et seq.
Effective Date: July 27, 2016.
Agency Contact: Victoria Simmons, Regulatory
Coordinator, Department of Medical Assistance Services, Policy Division, 600
East Broad Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-6043,
FAX (804) 786-1680, TTY (800) 343-0634, or email
victoria.simmons@dmas.virginia.gov.
Summary:
Pursuant to Item 301 LLLL 2 of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts
of Assembly, the amendments add adult pregnant women to the individuals
eligible to receive full dental services, excluding orthodontia, through
Medicaid and FAMIS MOMS.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be obtained
from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar of
Regulations.
12VAC30-50-190. Dental services.
A. Dental services are limited to recipients under shall
be covered for individuals younger than 21 years of age in fulfillment of the
treatment requirements under the Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis, and
Treatment (EPSDT) Program and defined as routine diagnostic, preventive, or
restorative procedures necessary for oral health provided by or under the
direct supervision of a dentist in accordance with the State Dental Practice
Act.
1. The state agency will provide any medically necessary
dental service to individuals younger than 21 years of age.
B. 2. Certain dental services, as
described in the agency's Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children, copyright
2005) March 13, 2014), prepared by DMAS' dental benefits
administrator, require preauthorization or prepayment review by the state
agency or its designee.
3. Dental services for individuals younger than the age of
21 years that do not require preauthorization or prepayment review are initial,
periodic, and emergency examinations; required radiography necessary to develop
a treatment plan; patient education; dental prophylaxis; fluoride treatments;
routine amalgam and composite restorations; stainless steel crowns,
prefabricated steel post and temporary (polycarbonate crowns) and stainless
steel bands; crown recementation; pulpotomies; emergency endodontics for
temporary relief of pain; pulp capping; sedative fillings; therapeutic apical
closure; topical palliative treatment for dental pain; removal of foreign body;
simple extractions; root recovery; incision and drainage of abscess; surgical
exposure of the tooth to aid eruption; sequestrectomy for osteomyelitis; and
oral antral fistula closure.
C. B. Dental services determined by the
dental provider to be medically appropriate for an adult woman during the term
of her pregnancy and through the end of the month following the 60th day
postpartum shall be provided to a Medicaid-enrolled pregnant woman. The dental
services that shall be covered are (i) diagnostic x-rays and exams; (ii)
preventive cleanings; (iii) restorative fillings; (iv) endodontics (root
canals); (v) periodontics (gum-related treatments); (vi) prosthodontics, both
removable and fixed (crowns, bridges, partial plates, and dentures); (vii) oral
surgery (tooth extractions and other oral surgeries); and (viii) adjunctive
general services (all covered services that do not fall into specific
professional categories). These services require prepayment review by the state
agency or its designee.
C. The For the dental services covered for
Medicaid-enrolled adult pregnant women, the state agency may place
appropriate limits on a service based on medical necessity, for utilization
control, or both. Examples of service limitations are: examinations,
prophylaxis, fluoride treatment (once/six months); space maintenance
appliances; bitewing x-ray—two films (once/12 months); routine amalgam and
composite restorations (once/three years); dentures (once/five years);
extractions, orthodontics, tooth guidance appliances, permanent crowns
and bridges, endodontics, patient education and sealants (once).
D. Limited oral surgery procedures, as defined and covered
under Title XVIII (Medicare), are covered for all recipients, and require
preauthorization or prepayment review by the state agency or its designee as
described in the agency's Office Reference Manual located on the DMAS website
at: (http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/downloads/pdfs/dental-office_reference_manual_06-09-05.pdf)
http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/Content_atchs/dnt/VA_SFC_ORM_140313.pdf.
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-50)
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth
Edition DSM-IV-TR, copyright 2000, American Psychiatric Association
Length of Stay by Diagnosis and Operation, Southern Region,
1996, HCIA, Inc.
Guidelines for Perinatal Care, 4th Edition, August 1997,
American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and
Gynecologists
Virginia Supplemental Drug Rebate Agreement Contract and
Addenda
Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children), prepared by
DMAS' Dental Benefits Administrator, copyright 2005
(www.dmas.virginia.gov/downloads/pdfs/dental-office_reference_manual_06-09-05.pdf).
Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children), prepared by
DMAS' Dental Benefits Administrator, copyright 2010, dated March 13, 2014 (http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/Content_atchs/dnt/VA_SFC_ORM_140313.pdf)
Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
Substance-Related Disorders ASAM PPC-2R, Second Edition, copyright 2001,
American Society of Addiction Medicine
Virginia Medicaid Durable Medical Equipment and
Supplies Provider Manual, Appendix B (rev. 1/11), Department of Medical
Assistance Services
Human Services and Related Fields Approved
Degrees/Experience, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services
(rev. 5/13)
12VAC30-141-820. Benefit packages.
Pregnant women covered through FAMIS MOMS may receive the
same medical and dental services and are subject to the same limitations
on services as pregnant women (see 12VAC30-50-190) covered by the
Medicaid program as defined in 12VAC30-10-140 and 12VAC30-50-10.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4215; Filed June 3, 2016, 3:01 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Notice of Extension of Emergency Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration,
and Scope of Medical and Remedial Care Services (adding 12VAC30-50-600).
12VAC30-121. Medicare-Medicaid Demonstration Waiver (adding 12VAC30-121-10 through 12VAC30-121-250).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of
Virginia.
Expiration Date Extended Through: December 8, 2016.
The Governor has approved the Department of Medical Assistance
Services' request to extend the expiration date of the above-referenced
emergency regulations for six months as provided for in § 2.2-4011 D of
the Code of Virginia. Therefore, the emergency regulations will continue in
effect through December 8, 2016. The emergency regulations relate to the
implementation of (i) Item 307 RR of Chapter 806 of the 2013 Acts of Assembly,
the 2013 Appropriation Act, which directed the Department of Medical Assistance
Services (DMAS) to implement a care coordination program for a
Medicare-Medicaid dual eligible enrollee; (ii) Item 307 AAAA of the Act, which
directed DMAS to implement a process for administrative appeals of
Medicaid/Medicare dual eligible recipients in accordance with the terms of the
Memorandum of Understanding between DMAS and the Centers for Medicare and
Medicaid Services for the Virginia Medicare-Medicaid Financial Alignment
Demonstration Model; and (iii) Item 307 RRRR of the Act, which provides for
achieving cost savings and standardization of administrative and other
processes for providers. The emergency regulations were published in 31:9 VA.R. 613-633 December 29, 2014.
Agency Contact: Matthew Behrens, Project Manager,
Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad Street, Suite 1300,
Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 625-3673, FAX (804) 786-1680, or email
matthew.behrens@dmas.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-3786; Filed June 3, 2016, 2:46 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration,
and Scope of Medical and Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-226).
12VAC30-60. Standards Established and Methods Used to Assure
High Quality Care (amending 12VAC30-60-143).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia;
42 USC § 1396 et seq.
Effective Date: July 27, 2016.
Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,
Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad Street, Richmond, VA
23219, telephone (803) 371-4300, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) change the service's name from
"mental health support services" to "mental health
skill-building services"; (ii) increase the annual limits; (iii) prohibit
overlap with similar services; (iv) reduce the number of hours of services that
may be provided in an assisted living facility and Level A or Level B group
home; and (v) require that providers communicate important information to other
health care professionals who are providing care to the same individuals; and
(vii) require service authorization for crisis intervention and crisis
stabilization services.
Changes made to the final regulation after publication of
the proposed include (i) removing the reference to service authorization for
crisis services; (ii) clarifying the timeliness requirements in the crisis
intervention and crisis stabilization registration process; (ii) changing the
provider requirements for developing the individualized service plan; (iii)
adjusting the mental health skill-building services (MHSS) annual maximum
number of units allowed to match the new daily and weekly service limits and to
conform to the unit values defined in 12VAC30-60-143; (iv) replacing the
15-minute unit values and respective maximum allowances with maximum
limitations that match the MHSS unit values defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
of Regulations.
12VAC30-50-226. Community mental health services.
A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
this section shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly
indicates otherwise:
"Activities of daily living" or "ADLs"
means personal care tasks such as bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring,
and eating or feeding. An individual's degree of independence in performing
these activities is a part of determining appropriate level of care and service
needs.
"Affiliated" means any entity or property in
which a provider or facility has a direct or indirect ownership interest of
5.0% or more, or any management, partnership, or control of an entity.
"Behavioral health services administrator" or
"BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
benefits program under contract with DMAS. DMAS' designated BHSA shall be
authorized to constitute, oversee, enroll, and train a provider network; perform
service authorization; adjudicate claims; process claims; gather and maintain
data; reimburse providers; perform quality assessment and improvement; conduct
member outreach and education; resolve member and provider issues; and perform
utilization management including care coordination for the provision of
Medicaid-covered behavioral health services. Such authority shall include
entering into or terminating contracts with providers in accordance with DMAS
authority pursuant to 42 CFR Part 1002 and § 32.1-325 D and E of the Code
of Virginia. DMAS shall retain authority for and oversight of the BHSA entity
or entities.
"Certified prescreener" means an employee of either
the local community services board/behavioral health authority or its designee
who is skilled in the assessment and treatment of mental illness and who has
completed a certification program approved by DBHDS.
"Clinical experience" means practical experience
in providing direct services on a full-time basis (or the equivalent part-time
experience as determined by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and
Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12,2013, revised May
3, 2013) to individuals with medically-documented diagnoses of mental illness
or intellectual/developmental disability or the provision of direct geriatric
services or full-time (or the equivalent part-time experience) special
education services, for the purpose of rendering (i) mental health day
treatment/partial hospitalization, (ii) intensive community treatment, (iii) psychosocial
rehabilitation, (iv) mental health support skill building, (v)
crisis stabilization, or (vi) crisis intervention services, practical
experience in providing direct services to individuals with diagnoses of mental
illness or intellectual disability or the provision of direct geriatric
services or special education services. Experience shall include supervised
internships, supervised practicums, or supervised field experience. Experience
shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised practicums, and
unsupervised field experience. This required clinical experience shall be
calculated as set forth in DBHDS document entitled Human Services and Related
Fields Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
The equivalency of part-time hours to full-time hours for the purpose of
this requirement shall be established by DBHDS in the document titled Human
Services and Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013,
revised May 3, 2013.
"Code" means the Code of Virginia.
"DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
and Developmental Services consistent with Chapter 3 (§ 37.2-300 et seq.)
of Title 37.2 of the Code of Virginia.
"DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
Services and its contractor or contractors consistent with Chapter 10 (§
32.1-323 et seq.) of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia.
[ "DSM-IV-TR" means the Diagnostic
and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition, Text Revision,
copyright 2000, American Psychiatric Association. ]
"DSM-5" means the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, copyright 2013, American Psychiatric
Association.
"Human services field" means the same as the
term is defined by DBHDS in the guidance document entitled Human
Services and Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013,
revised May 3, 2013.
[ "Instrumental activities of daily
living skills" or "IADLS" means tasks such as meal preparation,
shopping, housekeeping, and laundry. An individual's degree of independence in
performing these activities is a part of determining appropriate level of care
and service needs. ]
"Individual" means the patient, client,
or recipient of services described in this section.
"Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
a comprehensive and regularly updated treatment plan specific to the
individual's unique treatment needs as identified in the clinical assessment
service-specific provider intake. The ISP contains his, but is
not limited to, the individual's treatment or training needs, his the
individual's goals and measurable objectives to meet the identified needs,
services to be provided with the recommended frequency to accomplish the
measurable goals and objectives, the estimated timetable for achieving the
goals and objectives, and an individualized discharge plan that describes
transition to other appropriate services. The individual shall be included in
the development of the ISP and the ISP shall be signed by the individual. If
the individual is a minor child, the ISP shall also be signed by the
individual's parent/legal guardian. Documentation shall be provided if the
individual, who is a minor child or an adult who lacks legal capacity,
is unable or unwilling to sign the ISP.
"Individualized training" means [ training
instruction and practice ] in functional skills and appropriate
behavior related to the individual's health and safety, instrumental activities
of daily living skills, and use of community resources; assistance with medical
management; and monitoring health, nutrition, and physical condition. The
training shall be [ rehabilitative and ] based on a
variety of [ incremental (or cumulative) ] approaches
or tools to organize and guide the individual's life planning and shall
[ be rooted in reflect ] what is important to
the individual [ while taking into account in
addition to ] all other factors that affect his [ life
functioning ], including effects of the disability and issues of
health and safety.
"Licensed mental health professional" or
"LMHP" means a licensed physician, licensed clinical psychologist,
licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical social worker, licensed
substance abuse treatment practitioner, licensed marriage and family therapist,
or certified psychiatric clinical nurse specialist the same as defined
in 12VAC35-105-20.
"LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the
same as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a
"resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Counseling. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by such residents, they shall use the title
"Resident" in connection with the applicable profession after their
signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-resident in psychology" or
"LMHP-RP" means the same as an individual in a residency, as that
term is defined in 18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An
LMHP-resident in psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the
regulatory requirements for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65
and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a
"resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Psychology. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services
provided by such residents, they shall use the title "Resident in
Psychology" after their signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
"LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
"supervisee" is defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be
considered a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical
duties at a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Social Work. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title
"Supervisee in Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such
status.
"Qualified mental health professional-adult" or
"QMHP-A" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Qualified mental health professional-child" or
"QMHP-C" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
"QMHP-E" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
"QPPMH" means the same as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Register" or "registration" means
notifying DMAS or its contractor that an individual will be receiving services
that do not require service authorization.
"Review of ISP" means that the provider
evaluates and updates the individual's progress toward meeting the
individualized service plan objectives and documents the outcome of this
review. For DMAS to determine that these reviews are satisfactory and complete,
the reviews shall (i) update the goals, objectives, and strategies of the ISP
to reflect any change in the individual's progress and treatment needs as well
as any newly identified problems; (ii) be conducted in a manner that enables
the individual to participate in the process; and (iii) be documented in the
individual's medical record no later than 15 calendar days from the date of the
review.
"Service authorization" means the process to
approve specific services for an enrolled Medicaid, FAMIS Plus, or FAMIS
individual by a DMAS service authorization contractor prior to service delivery
and reimbursement in order to validate that the service requested is medically
necessary and meets DMAS and DMAS contractor criteria for reimbursement.
Service authorization does not guarantee payment for the service.
"Service-specific provider intake" means the
same as defined in 12VAC30-50-130 and also includes individuals who are older
than 21 years of age.
B. Mental health services. The following services, with their
definitions, shall be covered: day treatment/partial hospitalization,
psychosocial rehabilitation, crisis services, intensive community treatment
(ICT), and mental health supports skill building. Staff travel
time shall not be included in billable time for reimbursement. [ 1. ]
These services, in order to be covered, shall meet medical necessity criteria
based upon diagnoses made by LMHPs who are practicing within the scope of their
licenses and are reflected in provider records and on providers' claims for
services by recognized diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the
requested professional services. [ 2. ] These services are
intended to be delivered in a person-centered manner. The individuals who are
receiving these services shall be included in all service planning activities.
All services which do not require service authorization require registration.
This registration shall transmit [ service-specific information ]
to DMAS or its contractor [ (i) the individual's name and Medicaid
identification number; (ii) the specific service to be provided, the relevant
procedure code and begin date of the service; and (iii) the provider's name and
NPI, a provider contact name and phone number, and email address in
accordance with service authorization requirements ].
[ 3. 1. ] Day treatment/partial
hospitalization services shall be provided in sessions of two or more
consecutive hours per day, which may be scheduled multiple times per week, to
groups of individuals in a nonresidential setting. These services, limited
annually to 780 units, include the major diagnostic, medical, psychiatric,
psychosocial, and psychoeducational treatment modalities designed for
individuals who require coordinated, intensive, comprehensive, and
multidisciplinary treatment but who do not require inpatient treatment. One
unit of service shall be defined as a minimum of two but less than four hours
on a given day. Two units of service shall be defined as at least four but less
than seven hours in a given day. Three units of service shall be defined as
seven or more hours in a given day. Authorization is required for Medicaid
reimbursement.
a. Day treatment/partial hospitalization services shall be
time limited interventions that are more intensive than outpatient services and
are required to stabilize an individual's psychiatric condition. The services
are delivered when the individual is at risk of psychiatric hospitalization or
is transitioning from a psychiatric hospitalization to the community.
[ The service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130,
shall document the individual's behavior and describe how the individual is at
risk of psychiatric hospitalization or is transitioning from a psychiatric
hospitalization to the community. ]
b. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral, or
emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments in major
life activities. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
on a continuing or intermittent basis:
(1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
hospitalization or homelessness or isolation from social supports;
(2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
jeopardized;
(3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that the individual
requires repeated interventions or monitoring by the mental health, social
services, or judicial system that have been documented; or
(4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
social behavior.
c. Individuals shall be discharged from this service when they
are no longer in an acute psychiatric state and other less intensive services
may achieve psychiatric stabilization.
d. Admission and services for time periods longer than 90
calendar days must be authorized based upon a face-to-face evaluation by a
physician, psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed professional
counselor, licensed clinical social worker, or psychiatric clinical nurse
specialist.
e. These services may only be rendered by [ either ]
an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or a
QPPMH.
[ 4. 2. ] Psychosocial rehabilitation
shall be provided at least two or more hours per day to groups of individuals
in a nonresidential setting. These services, limited annually to 936 units,
include assessment, education to teach the patient about the diagnosed mental
illness and appropriate medications to avoid complication and relapse,
opportunities to learn and use independent living skills and to enhance social
and interpersonal skills within a supportive and normalizing program structure
and environment. One unit of service is defined as a minimum of two but less
than four hours on a given day. Two units are defined as at least four but less
than seven hours in a given day. Three units of service shall be defined as
seven or more hours in a given day. Authorization is required for Medicaid
reimbursement. The service-specific provider intake, as defined at
12VAC30-50-130, shall document the individual's behavior and describe how the
individual meets criteria for this service.
a. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral, or
emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments in major
life activities. Services are provided to individuals: (i) who without these
services would be unable to remain in the community or (ii) who meet at least
two of the following criteria on a continuing or intermittent basis:
(1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social supports;
(2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
jeopardized;
(3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that repeated
interventions documented by the mental health, social services, or judicial
system are or have been necessary; or
(4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
unable to recognize personal danger or significantly inappropriate social
behavior.
b. These services may only be rendered by [ either ]
an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E,
or a QPPMH.
[ 5. 3. ] Crisis intervention shall
provide immediate mental health care, available 24 hours a day, seven days per
week, to assist individuals who are experiencing acute psychiatric dysfunction
requiring immediate clinical attention. This service's objectives shall be to
prevent exacerbation of a condition, to prevent injury to the client or others,
and to provide treatment in the context of the least restrictive setting.
Crisis intervention activities shall include assessing the crisis situation,
providing short-term counseling designed to stabilize the individual, providing
access to further immediate assessment and follow-up, and linking the
individual and family with ongoing care to prevent future crises. Crisis
intervention services may include office visits, home visits, preadmission
screenings, telephone contacts, and other client-related activities for the
prevention of institutionalization. The service-specific provider intake, as
defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document the individual's behavior and
describe how the individual meets criteria for this service. The provision of
this service to an individual shall be registered with either DMAS [ ,
DMAS contractors, ] or the BHSA within one business day or the
completion of the service-specific provider intake to avoid duplication of
services and to ensure informed care coordination. [ Authorization
shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement. ]
a. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from an acute crisis of a
psychiatric nature that puts the individual at risk of psychiatric
hospitalization. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
at the time of admission to the service:
(1) Experience difficulty in establishing or maintaining
normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social supports;
(2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
jeopardized;
(3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that immediate
interventions documented by mental health, social services, or the judicial
system are or have been necessary; or
(4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
unable to recognize personal danger or significantly inappropriate social
behavior.
b. The annual limit for crisis intervention is 720 units per
year. A unit shall equal 15 minutes.
c. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP, an
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, or a certified prescreener.
[ 6. 4. ] Intensive community
treatment (ICT), initially covered for a maximum of 26 weeks based on an
initial service-specific provider intake and may be reauthorized for up to an
additional 26 weeks annually based on written intake and certification of need
by a licensed mental health provider (LMHP), shall be defined by 12VAC35-105-20
or LMHP-S, LMHP-R, and LMHP-RP and shall include medical psychotherapy,
psychiatric assessment, medication management, and care coordination activities
offered to outpatients outside the clinic, hospital, or office setting for
individuals who are best served in the community. Authorization is required for
Medicaid reimbursement.
a. To qualify for ICT, the individual must meet at least one
of the following criteria:
(1) The individual must be at high risk for psychiatric
hospitalization or becoming or remaining homeless due to mental illness or
require intervention by the mental health or criminal justice system due to
inappropriate social behavior.
(2) The individual has a history (three months or more) of a
need for intensive mental health treatment or treatment for co-occurring
serious mental illness and substance use disorder and demonstrates a resistance
to seek out and utilize appropriate treatment options.
b. A written, service-specific provider intake, as defined at
12VAC30-50-130, that documents the individual's eligibility and the need for
this service must be completed prior to the initiation of services. This intake
must be maintained in the individual's records.
c. An individual service plan shall be initiated at the time
of admission and must be fully developed, as defined in this section, within 30
days of the initiation of services.
d. The annual unit limit shall be 130 units with a unit
equaling one hour.
e. These services may only be rendered by a team that meets
the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
[ 7. 5. ] Crisis stabilization
services for nonhospitalized individuals shall provide direct mental health
care to individuals experiencing an acute psychiatric crisis which may
jeopardize their current community living situation. [ Authorization
shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement. ] Services may be
[ authorized provided ] for up to a 15-day period per
crisis episode following a face-to-face service-specific provider intake by an
LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP. Only one unit of service
shall be reimbursed for this intake. The provision of this service to an
individual shall be registered with either DMAS [ , DMAS contractors, ]
or the BHSA within one [ calendar business ] day of the
completion of the service-specific provider intake to avoid duplication of
services and to ensure informed care coordination. [ See 12VAC30-50-226
B for registration requirements. ]
a. The goals of crisis stabilization programs shall be to
avert hospitalization or rehospitalization, provide normative environments with
a high assurance of safety and security for crisis intervention, stabilize
individuals in psychiatric crisis, and mobilize the resources of the community
support system and family members and others for on-going maintenance and
rehabilitation. The services must be documented in the individual's records as
having been provided consistent with the ISP in order to receive Medicaid
reimbursement.
b. The crisis stabilization program shall provide to
individuals, as appropriate, psychiatric assessment including medication
evaluation, treatment planning, symptom and behavior management, and individual
and group counseling.
c. This service may be provided in any of the following
settings, but shall not be limited to: (i) the home of an individual who lives
with family or other primary caregiver; (ii) the home of an individual who
lives independently; or (iii) community-based programs licensed by DBHDS to provide
residential services but which are not institutions for mental disease (IMDs).
d. This service shall not be reimbursed for (i) individuals
with medical conditions that require hospital care; (ii) individuals with
primary diagnosis of substance abuse; or (iii) individuals with psychiatric
conditions that cannot be managed in the community (i.e., individuals who are
of imminent danger to themselves or others).
e. The maximum limit on this service is 60 days annually.
f. Services must be documented through daily progress notes
and a daily log of times spent in the delivery of services. The
service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
this service. Individuals qualifying for this service must demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from an acute crisis of a
psychiatric nature that puts the individual at risk of psychiatric
hospitalization. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria
at the time of admission to the service:
(1) Experience difficulty in establishing and maintaining
normal interpersonal relationships to such a degree that the individual is at
risk of psychiatric hospitalization, homelessness, or isolation from social
supports;
(2) Experience difficulty in activities of daily living such
as maintaining personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate
nutrition, or managing finances to such a degree that health or safety is
jeopardized;
(3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that immediate
interventions documented by the mental health, social services, or judicial
system are or have been necessary; or
(4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that the
individual is unable to recognize personal danger or significantly
inappropriate social behavior.
g. These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E or a certified
prescreener.
[ 8. 6. ] Mental health support
skill-building services (MHSS) shall be defined as goal-directed
training and supports to enable individuals to achieve and maintain
community stability and independence in the most appropriate, least restrictive
environment. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement. Services
that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not be
reimbursed. These services may be authorized up to six consecutive months as
long as the individual meets the coverage criteria for this service. The
service-specific provider intake, as defined at 12VAC30-50-130, shall document
the individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets criteria for
this service. This program These services shall provide goal-directed
training in the following services areas in order to be
reimbursed by Medicaid or the BHSA: training in or reinforcement of
(i) functional skills and appropriate behavior related to the
individual's health and safety, instrumental activities of daily living,
and use of community resources; (ii) assistance with medication
management; and (iii) monitoring of health, nutrition, and
physical condition with goals towards self-monitoring and self-regulation of
all of these activities. Providers shall be reimbursed only for training
activities defined in the ISP and only where services meet the service
definition, eligibility, and service provision criteria and this section.
[ Service specific provider intakes A review of MHSS
services by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S ] shall be repeated
for all individuals who have received at least six months of MHSS to determine
the continued need for this service.
a. Individuals qualifying for this service must shall
demonstrate a clinical necessity for the service arising from a condition due
to mental, behavioral, or emotional illness that results in significant
functional impairments in major life activities. Services are provided to
individuals who without these services would be unable to remain in the
community. The individual must meet at least two of the following criteria on a
continuing or intermittent basis: Services are provided to individuals
who require individualized goal-directed training in order to achieve or
maintain stability and independence in the community.
(1) Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
interpersonal relationships to such a degree that the individual is at risk of
psychiatric hospitalization or homelessness or isolation from social supports;
(2) Require help in basic living skills such as maintaining
personal hygiene, preparing food and maintaining adequate nutrition or managing
finances to such a degree that health or safety is jeopardized;
(3) Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that repeated
interventions documented by the mental health, social services, or judicial
system are or have been necessary; or
(4) Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they
are unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly
inappropriate social behavior.
b. The individual must demonstrate functional impairments in
major life activities. This may include individuals with a dual diagnosis of
either mental illness and intellectual disability, or mental illness and
substance abuse disorder. Individuals ages 21 and older shall meet all
of the following criteria in order to be eligible to receive mental health
skill-building services:
(1) The individual shall have one of the following as a
primary mental health diagnosis:
(a) Schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder as set out in
the [ DSM-IV-TR or ] DSM-5;
(b) Major depressive disorder;
(c) Recurrent Bipolar I or Bipolar II; or
(d) Any other serious mental health disorder that a
physician has documented specific to the identified individual within the past
year and that includes all of the following: (i) is a serious mental illness;
(ii) results in severe and recurrent disability; (iii) produces functional
limitations in the individual's major life activities that are documented in
the individual's medical record; and (iv) requires individualized training for
the individual in order to achieve or maintain independent living in the
community.
(2) The individual shall require individualized
goal-directed training in order to acquire or maintain self-regulation of basic
living skills, such as symptom management; adherence to psychiatric and
physical health medication treatment plans; appropriate use of social skills
and personal support systems; skills to manage personal hygiene, food
preparation, and the maintenance of personal adequate nutrition; money
management; and use of community resources.
(3) The individual shall have a prior history of any of the
following: (i) psychiatric hospitalization; (ii) either residential or
nonresidential crisis stabilization; (iii) intensive community treatment (ICT)
or program of assertive community treatment (PACT) services; (iv) placement in
a psychiatric residential treatment facility (RTC-Level C) as a result of
decompensation related to the individual's serious mental illness; or (v) a
temporary detention order (TDO) evaluation, pursuant to § 37.2-809 B of the
Code of Virginia. This criterion shall be met in order to be initially admitted
to services and not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge
summaries from prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment
provided, (ii) the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the
name of the treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement.
Family member statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
(4) The individual shall have had a prescription for
antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications within the 12
months prior to the service-specific provider intake date. If a physician or
other practitioner who is authorized by his license to prescribe medications indicates
that antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications are
medically contraindicated for the individual, the provider shall obtain medical
records signed by the physician or other licensed prescriber detailing the
contraindication. This documentation shall be maintained in the individual's
mental health skill-building services record, and the provider shall document
and describe how the individual will be able to actively participate in and
benefit from services without the assistance of medication. This criterion
shall be met upon admission to services and shall not be required for
subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries from prior providers
that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided, (ii) the dates of the
treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the treatment provider
shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member statements shall
not suffice to meet this requirement.
c. Individuals [ younger than
aged 18 to ] 21 years [ of age ] shall
meet all of the following criteria in order to be eligible to receive mental
health skill-building services:
(1) The individual [ , aged 16 years up to
21 years, ] shall not be living in a supervised setting
[ (such as a foster home, group home, or other paid placement) and
is providing for his own financial support or such an individual shall be
actively transitioning into an independent living situation that is not a
supervised setting (such as a foster home, group home, or other paid placement)
and is providing for his own financial support as described in §
63.2-905.1 of the Code of Virginia ]. If the individual is
transitioning into an independent living situation, MHSS shall only be
authorized for up to six months prior to the date of transition;
(2) The individual shall have at least one of the following
as a primary mental health diagnosis [ :. ]
(a) Schizophrenia or other psychotic disorder as set out in
the [ DSM - IV-TR or ] DSM-5;
(b) Major depressive disorder;
(c) Recurrent Bipolar-I or Bipolar II; or
(d) Any other serious mental health disorder that a
physician has documented specific to the identified individual within the past
year and that includes all of the following: (i) is a serious mental illness or
serious emotional disturbance; (ii) results in severe and recurrent disability;
(iii) produces functional limitations in the individual's major life activities
that are documented in the individual's medical record; and (iv) requires
individualized training for the individual in order to achieve or maintain
independent living in the community [ ;. ]
(3) The individual shall require individualized
goal-directed training in order to acquire or maintain self-regulation of basic
living skills such as symptom management; adherence to psychiatric and physical
health medication treatment plans; appropriate use of social skills and
personal support systems; skills to manage personal hygiene, food preparation,
and the maintenance of personal adequate nutrition; money management; and use
of community resources.
(4) The individual shall have a prior history of any of the
following: (i) psychiatric hospitalization; (ii) either residential or
nonresidential crisis stabilization; (iii) intensive community treatment (ICT)
or program of assertive community treatment (PACT) services; (iv) placement in
a psychiatric residential treatment facility (RTC-Level C) as a result of
decompensation related to the individual's serious mental illness; or (v)
temporary detention order (TDO) evaluation pursuant to § 37.2-809 B of the Code
of Virginia. This criterion shall be met in order to be initially admitted to
services and not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries
from prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided,
(ii) the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the
treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member
statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
(5) The individual shall have had a prescription for
antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications, within the 12
months prior to the assessment date. If a physician or other practitioner who
is authorized by his license to prescribe medications indicates that
antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or antidepressant medications are medically
contraindicated for the individual, the provider shall obtain medical records
signed by the physician or other licensed prescriber detailing the
contraindication. This documentation of medication management shall be
maintained in the individual's mental health skill-building services record.
For individuals not prescribed antipsychotic, mood stabilizing, or
antidepressant medications, the provider shall have documentation from the
medication management physician describing how the individual will be able to
actively participate in and benefit from services without the assistance of
medication. This criterion shall be met in order to be initially admitted to
services and not for subsequent authorizations of service. Discharge summaries
from prior providers that clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided,
(ii) the dates of the treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the
treatment provider shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member
statements shall not suffice to meet this requirement.
(6) An independent clinical assessment, established in
12VAC30-130-3020, shall be completed for the individual.
c. d. Service-specific provider intakes shall be
required at the onset of services and individual service plans (ISPs) shall be
required during the entire duration of services. Services based upon
incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs
shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for provider-specific service-specific
provider intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-50-130.
d. e. The yearly limit for mental health support
skill-building services is [ 372 520 ] units. Only
direct face-to-face contacts and services to the individual shall be reimbursable.
One unit is [ at least one hour but less than three hours 1
to 2.99 hours per day, two units is 3 to 4.99 hours per day ].
e. f. These services may only be rendered by an
LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S ],
QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or QPPMH.
g. The provider shall clearly document details of the
services provided during the entire amount of time billed.
h. The ISP shall not include activities that contradict or
duplicate those in the treatment plan established by the group home or assisted
living facility. The provider shall [ attempt to ] coordinate
mental health skill-building services with the treatment plan established by
the group home or assisted living facility and shall document all coordination
activities in the medical record.
i. Limits and exclusions.
(1) Group home (Level A or B) and assisted living facility
providers shall not serve as the mental health skill-building services provider
for individuals residing in the provider's respective facility. Individuals
residing in facilities may, however, receive MHSS from another MHSS agency not
affiliated with the owner of the facility in which they reside.
(2) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
reimbursed for individuals who are receiving in-home residential services or
congregate residential services through the Intellectual Disability Waiver or
Individual and Family Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver.
(3) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
reimbursed for individuals who are also receiving services under the Department
of Social Services independent living program (22VAC40-151), independent living
services (22VAC40-151 and 22VAC40-131), or independent living arrangement
(22VAC40-131) or any Comprehensive Services Act-funded independent living
skills programs.
(4) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available to individuals who are receiving treatment foster care
(12VAC30-130-900 et seq.).
(5) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available to individuals who reside in intermediate care facilities for
individuals with intellectual disabilities or hospitals.
(6) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available to individuals who reside in nursing facilities, except for up to 60
days prior to discharge. If the individual has not been discharged from the
nursing facility during the 60-day period of services, mental health
skill-building services shall be terminated and no further service
authorizations shall be available to the individual unless a provider can
demonstrate and document that mental health skill-building services are
necessary. Such documentation shall include facts demonstrating a change in the
individual's circumstances and a new plan for discharge requiring up to 60 days
of mental health skill-building services.
(7) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available for residents of residential treatment centers (Level C facilities)
except for the intake code H0032 (modifier U8) in the seven days immediately prior
to discharge.
(8) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
reimbursed if personal care services or attendant care services are being
received simultaneously, unless justification is provided why this is necessary
in the individual's mental health skill-building services record. Medical
record documentation shall fully substantiate the need for services when
personal care or attendant care services are being provided. This applies to
individuals who are receiving additional services through the Intellectual
Disability Waiver (12VAC30-120-1000 et seq.), Individual and Family
Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver (12VAC30-120-700 et seq.), the
Elderly or Disabled with Consumer Direction Waiver (12VAC30-120-900 et seq.),
and EPSDT services (12VAC30-50-130).
(9) Mental health skill-building services shall not be
duplicative of other services. Providers shall be required to ensure that if an
individual is receiving additional therapeutic services that there will be
coordination of services by either the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, LMHP-resident in psychology LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S ],
QMHP-A, QMHP-C, [ or ] QMHP-E [ , or
QPPMH ] to avoid duplication of services.
(10) Individuals who have organic disorders, such as
delirium, dementia, or other cognitive disorders not elsewhere classified, will
be prohibited from receiving mental health skill-building services unless their
physicians issue signed and dated statements indicating that the individuals
can benefit from this service.
(11) Individuals who are not diagnosed with a serious
mental health disorder but who have personality disorders or other mental
health disorders, or both, that may lead to chronic disability shall not be
excluded from the mental health skill-building services eligibility criteria
provided that the individual has a primary mental health diagnosis from the
list included in subdivision B [ 8 6 ] b
(1) or B [ 8 6 ] c (2) of this section
and that the provider can document and describe how the individual is expected
to actively participate in and benefit from mental health skill-building
services.
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-50)
[ Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
Disorders, Fourth Edition DSM-IV-TR, copyright 2000, American Psychiatric
Association ]
Diagnostic
and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, DSM-5, 2013,
American Psychiatric Association
Length of Stay by Diagnosis and Operation, Southern Region,
1996, HCIA, Inc.
Guidelines for Perinatal Care, 4th Edition, August 1997,
American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and
Gynecologists
Virginia Supplemental Drug Rebate Agreement Contract and
Addenda
Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children), prepared by
DMAS' Dental Benefits Administrator, copyright 2005
(www.dmas.virginia.gov/downloads/pdfs/dental-office_reference_manual_06-09-05.pdf)
Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
Substance-Related Disorders ASAM PPC-2R, Second Edition, copyright 2001,
American Society of Addiction Medicine
[ Virginia Medicaid Durable Medical Equipment and
Supplies Provider Manual, Appendix B (rev. 1/11), Department of Medical
Assistance Services ]
Human Services and Related Fields Approved
Degrees/Experience, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services
(rev. 5/13)
12VAC30-60-143. Mental health services utilization criteria;
definitions.
A. This section sets out the utilization criteria and
standards relative to the community mental health services set out in
12VAC30-50-226. Definitions. The following words and terms when used
in this section shall have the following meanings unless the context indicates
otherwise:
[ "Child or adolescent" means the same as
"adolescent or child" defined in 12VAC30-50-130. ]
"Licensed mental health professional" or
"LMHP" means the same as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
"LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the
same as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
"LMHP-resident in psychology" or
"LMHP-RP" means the same as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
"LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
"LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as defined in
12VAC30-50-130.
"Qualified mental health professional-adult" or
"QMHP-A" means the same as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
"Qualified mental health professional-child" or
"QMHP-C" means the same as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
"Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
"QMHP-E" means the same as defined in [ 12VAC30-50-130 12VAC35-105-20 ].
B. Utilization reviews shall include determinations that
providers meet the following requirements:
1. The provider shall meet the federal and state requirements
for administrative and financial management capacity. The provider shall
obtain, prior to the delivery of services, and shall maintain and update
periodically as the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS) or its
contractor requires, a current provider enrollment agreement for each Medicaid
service that the provider offers. DMAS shall not reimburse providers who do not
enter into a provider enrollment agreement for a service prior to offering that
service.
2. The provider shall document and maintain individual case
records in accordance with state and federal requirements.
3. The provider shall ensure eligible individuals have free
choice of providers of mental health services and other medical care under the
Individual Service Plan.
4. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements as
set out in 12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines have violated these
marketing requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
12VAC30-130-2000 E. Providers whose contracts are terminated shall be afforded
the right of appeal pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000
et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
5. If an individual receiving community mental health
rehabilitative services is also receiving case management services pursuant to
12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430, the provider shall collaborate with the case
manager by notifying the case manager of the provision of community mental
health rehabilitative services and sending monthly updates on the individual's
treatment status. A discharge summary shall be sent to the care
coordinator/case manager within 30 calendar days of the discontinuation of
services. Service providers and case managers who are using the same
electronic health record for the individual shall meet requirements for
delivery of the notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry
of this documentation into the electronic health record.
6. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
is and inform him of the individual's receipt of community mental health
rehabilitative services. The documentation shall include who was contacted,
when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
7. The provider shall include the individual and the
family/caregiver, as may be appropriate, in the development of the ISP. To the
extent that the individual's condition requires assistance for participation,
assistance shall be provided. The ISP shall be updated annually or as the needs
and progress of the individual changes. An ISP that is not updated either
annually or as the treatment interventions based on the needs and progress of
the individual change shall be considered outdated. An ISP that does not
include all required elements specified in 12VAC30-50-226 shall be considered
incomplete. All ISPs shall be completed, signed, and contemporaneously dated by
the LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
[ LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E preparing the ISP within
a maximum of 30 days of the date of the completed intake unless otherwise
specified. The child's or adolescent's ISP shall also be signed by the
parent/legal guardian and the adult individual shall sign his own. If the individual,
whether a child, adolescent, or an adult, is unwilling to sign the ISP, then
the service provider shall document the clinical or other reasons why the
individual was not able or willing to sign the ISP. Signatures shall be
obtained unless there is a clinical reason that renders the individual unable
to sign the ISP.
[ (a) Every three months, the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
LMHP-S, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E shall review the ISP, modify the ISP as
appropriate, and update the ISP, and all of these activities shall occur with
the individual in a manner in which the individual may participate in the
process. The ISP shall be rewritten at least annually.
(b) The goals, objectives, and strategies of the ISP shall
be updated to reflect any change or changes in the individual's progress and
treatment needs as well as any newly-identified problems.
(c) Documentation of ISP review shall be added to the
individual's medical record no later than 15 days from the calendar date of the
review as evidenced by the dated signatures of the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
LMHP-S, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E, and the individual. ]
C. Day treatment/partial hospitalization services shall be
provided following [ a service-specific provider intake and be authorized
by the LMHP, ] LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or [ LMHP-R,
LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S. An ISP, as defined in 12VAC30-50-226, shall be fully
completed, signed, and dated by either the LMHP, ] LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, [ LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, the QMHP-A,
QMHP-E, or QMHP-C and reviewed/approved by the LMHP, ] LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or [ LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S within 30
days of service initiation a diagnostic assessment and be authorized by
the physician, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed professional counselor,
licensed clinical social worker, or licensed clinical nurse
specialist-psychiatric. An ISP shall be fully completed by either the LMHP or
the QMHP-A or QMHP-C as defined in 12VAC35-105-20 within 30 days of service
initiation ].
1. The enrolled provider of day treatment/partial
hospitalization shall be licensed by DBHDS as providers of day treatment
services.
2. Services shall only be provided by an LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP, [ LMHP-S, ]
QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or a qualified paraprofessional under the supervision
of a QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or an LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP, [ or LMHP-S ]
as defined at 12VAC35-105-20, except for [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMSP-resident, and LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP, [ and
LMHP-S, ] which are defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
3. The program shall operate a minimum of two continuous hours
in a 24-hour period.
4. Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
other less intensive services may achieve or maintain psychiatric
stabilization.
D. Psychosocial rehabilitation services shall be provided to
those individuals who have experienced long-term or repeated psychiatric
hospitalization, or who experience difficulty in activities of daily living and
interpersonal skills, or whose support system is limited or nonexistent, or who
are unable to function in the community without intensive intervention or when
long-term services are needed to maintain the individual in the community.
1. Psychosocial rehabilitation services shall be provided
following a service-specific provider intake that clearly documents the need
for services. This intake that shall be completed by either an LMHP,
[ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP
[ , or LMHP-S ]. An ISP shall be completed by either the LMHP,
[ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ]
LMHP-RP, [ LMHP-S, ] or the QMHP-A, QMHP-E, or QMHP-C and be
reviewed/approved by either an LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident,
or LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP [ , or LMHP-S ] within 30
calendar days of service initiation. At least every three months, the LMHP,
[ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP,
[ LMHP-S, ] the QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E must review, modify
as appropriate, and update the ISP.
2. Psychosocial rehabilitation services of any individual that
continue more than six months shall be reviewed by an LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP [ , or LMHP-S ]
who shall document the continued need for the service. The ISP shall be
rewritten at least annually.
3. The enrolled provider of psychosocial rehabilitation
services shall be licensed by DBHDS as a provider of psychosocial
rehabilitation or clubhouse services.
4. Psychosocial rehabilitation services may be provided by an
LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ]
LMHP-RP, [ LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, QMHP-C, QMHP-E, or a qualified
paraprofessional under the supervision of a QMHP-A, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or an
LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ]
LMHP-RP [ , or LMHP-S ].
5. The program shall operate a minimum of two continuous hours
in a 24-hour period.
6. Time allocated for field trips may be used to calculate
time and units if the goal is to provide training in an integrated setting, and
to increase the individual's understanding or ability to access community
resources.
E. Crisis [ Admission to
Initiation of ] crisis intervention services shall be indicated
following a [ service-specific provider intake that documents a ]
marked reduction in the individual's psychiatric, adaptive or behavioral
functioning or an extreme increase in personal distress. [ In order to
receive reimbursement, providers shall register this service with DMAS, DMAS
contractors, or the BHSA within one business day of the completion of the
service-specific provider intake to avoid duplication of services and to ensure
informed care coordination. ]
1. The crisis intervention services provider shall be licensed
as a provider of emergency services by DBHDS pursuant to 12VAC35-105-30.
2. Client-related activities provided in association with a
face-to-face contact are reimbursable.
3. An individual service plan (ISP) shall not be required for
newly admitted individuals to receive this service. Inclusion of crisis
intervention as a service on the ISP shall not be required for the service to
be provided on an emergency basis.
4. For individuals receiving scheduled, short-term counseling
as part of the crisis intervention service, an ISP shall be developed or
revised by the fourth face-to-face contact to reflect the short-term
counseling goals by the fourth face-to-face contact.
5. Reimbursement shall be provided for short-term crisis
counseling contacts occurring within a 30-day period from the time of the first
face-to-face crisis contact. Other than the annual service limits, there are no
restrictions (regarding number of contacts or a given time period to be
covered) for reimbursement for unscheduled crisis contacts.
6. Crisis intervention services may be provided to eligible
individuals outside of the clinic and [ billed reimbursed ],
provided the provision of out-of-clinic services is clinically/programmatically
appropriate. Travel by staff to provide out-of-clinic services shall not be
reimbursable. Crisis intervention may involve contacts with the family or
significant others. If other clinic services are billed at the same time as
crisis intervention, documentation must clearly support the separation of the
services with distinct treatment goals.
7. An LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ]
LMHP-RP, [ LMHP-S, ] or a certified prescreener, as defined
in 12VAC30-50-226, shall conduct a face-to-face service-specific provider
intake. The [ assessment intake ] shall
document the need for and the anticipated duration of the crisis service.
[ Crisis intervention will be provided by an LMHP or a certified
prescreener. ]
8. Crisis intervention shall be provided by either an LMHP,
[ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP,
[ LMHP-S, ] or a certified prescreener.
9. For an admission to a freestanding inpatient psychiatric
facility for individuals younger than age 21, federal regulations (42 CFR
441.152) require certification of the admission by an independent team. The
independent team must include mental health professionals, including a
physician. These preadmission screenings cannot be billed unless the
requirement for an independent team certification, with a physician's
signature, is met.
10. Services shall be documented through daily notes and a
daily log of time spent in the delivery of services.
F. Case management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420
(seriously mentally ill adults and emotionally disturbed children) or
12VAC30-50-430 (youth at risk of serious emotional disturbance).
1. Reimbursement shall be provided only for "active"
case management clients, as defined. An active client for case management shall
mean an individual for whom there is an ISP in effect that requires regular
direct or client-related contacts or activity or communication with the
individuals or families, significant others, service providers, and others
including a minimum of one face-to-face individual contact within a 90-day
period. Billing can be submitted only for months in which direct or
client-related contacts, activity or communications occur.
2. The Medicaid eligible individual shall meet the DBHDS
criteria of serious mental illness, serious emotional disturbance in children
and adolescents, or youth at risk of serious emotional disturbance.
3. There shall be no maximum service limits for case
management services. Case management shall not be billed for persons in
institutions for mental disease.
4. The ISP shall document the need for case management and be
fully completed within 30 calendar days of initiation of the service. The case
manager shall review the ISP at least every three months. The review will be
due by the last day of the third month following the month in which the last
review was completed. A grace period will be granted up to the last day of the
fourth month following the month of the last review. When the review was
completed in a grace period, the next subsequent review shall be scheduled
three months from the month the review was due and not the date of actual
review.
5. The ISP shall also be updated at least annually.
6. The provider of case management services shall be licensed
by DBHDS as a provider of case management services.
G. Intensive community treatment (ICT).
1. A service-specific provider intake that documents
eligibility and the need for this service shall be completed by either the
LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ]
LMHP-RP [ , or LMHP-S ] prior to the initiation of services.
This intake documentation shall be maintained in the individual's
records. Proper completion of the service-specific provider intake shall
comport with the requirements of 12VAC30-50-130.
2. An individual service plan, based on the needs as
determined by the service-specific provider intake, must be initiated at the
time of admission and must be fully developed by either the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP, [ LMHP-S, ]
QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E and approved by the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP [ , or LMHP-S ]
within 30 days of the initiation of services.
3. ICT may be billed if the individual is brought to the
facility by ICT staff to see the psychiatrist. Documentation must be present in
the individual's record to support this intervention.
4. The enrolled ICT provider shall be licensed by the DBHDS as
a provider of intensive community services or as a program of assertive
community treatment, and must provide and make available emergency services
24-hours per day, seven days per week, 365 days per year, either directly or on
call.
5. ICT services must be documented through a daily log of time
spent in the delivery of services and a description of the activities/services
provided. There must also be at least a weekly note documenting progress or
lack of progress toward goals and objectives as outlined on the ISP.
H. Crisis stabilization services.
1. This service shall be [ authorized initiated ]
following a face-to-face service-specific provider intake by either an LMHP,
[ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ] LMHP-RP,
[ LMHP-S, ] or a certified prescreener, as defined in
12VAC30-50-226.
[ 2. In order to receive reimbursement,
providers shall register this service with DMAS, DMAS contractors, or the BHSA
within one business day of the completion of the service-specific provider
intake to avoid duplication of services and to ensure informed care
coordination.
2. 3. ] The service-specific provider
intake must document the need for crisis stabilization services.
[ 3. 4. ] The Individual Service Plan
(ISP) must be developed or revised within three calendar days of admission to
this service. The LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ]
LMHP-RP, [ LMHP-S, ] certified prescreener, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or
QMHP-E shall develop the ISP.
[ 4. 5. ] Room and board,
custodial care, and general supervision are not components of this service.
[ 5. 6. ] Clinic option services
are not billable at the same time crisis stabilization services are provided
with the exception of clinic visits for medication management. Medication
management visits may be billed at the same time that crisis stabilization services
are provided but documentation must clearly support the separation of the
services with distinct treatment goals.
[ 6. 7. ] Individuals qualifying
for this service must demonstrate a clinical necessity for the service arising
from a condition due to an acute crisis of a psychiatric nature which puts the
individual at risk of psychiatric hospitalization.
[ 7. 8. ] Providers of residential
crisis stabilization shall be licensed by DBHDS as providers of mental
health residential or nonresidential crisis stabilization services.
Providers of community-based crisis stabilization shall be licensed by DBHDS as
providers of mental health nonresidential crisis stabilization.
I. Mental health support skill-building
services as defined in 12VAC30-50-226 B [ 8 6 ].
Refer to 12VAC30-50-226 for criteria, service authorization requirements,
and service-specific provider intakes that shall apply for individuals in order
to qualify for this service.
1. Prior to At admission, an appropriate
face-to-face service-specific provider intake must be completed, conducted,
documented, signed, and dated, and documented by the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, LMHP-R, ] or LMHP-RP indicating that service
needs can best be met through mental health support services. Providers
shall be reimbursed one unit for each intake utilizing the appropriate billing
code. Service-specific provider intakes shall be repeated [ when
the individual receives six months of continual care and ] upon
any lapse in services of more than 30 calendar days. [ Services of
any individual that continue more than six months shall be reviewed by the
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S who shall document the continued need for the
service in the individual's medical record. ]
2. The ISP, as defined in 12VAC30-50-226, shall be
completed, signed, and dated by either a LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident,
LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E within 30 calendar days of service
initiation, and shall indicate the specific supports and services to be
provided and the goals and objectives to be accomplished. The LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP or QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E shall
supervise the care if delivered by the qualified paraprofessional. If the care
is supervised by the QMHP-A, QMHP-E, or QMHP-C, then the LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP shall review and approve the supervision of the care
delivered by the qualified paraprofessional.
3. Every three months, the LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E shall review, modify as
appropriate, and update the ISP showing a new signature and date of each
revision. If the ISP review is conducted by the QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E, then
it shall be reviewed/approved/signed/dated by the LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident,
or LMHP-RP. The ISP shall be rewritten, signed, and dated by either a QMHP-A,
QMHP-C, QMHP-E, an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP at least
annually.
4. Only direct face-to-face contacts and services to
individuals shall be reimbursable.
5. Any services provided to the individual that are
strictly academic in nature shall not be billable. These include, but are not
limited to, such basic educational programs as instruction in reading, science,
mathematics, or the individual's work towards obtaining a GED.
6. Any services provided to individuals that are strictly
vocational in nature shall not be billable. However, support activities and
activities directly related to assisting an individual to cope with a mental
illness to the degree necessary to develop appropriate behaviors for operating
in an overall work environment shall be billable.
7. Room and board, custodial care, and general supervision
are not components of this service.
8. This service is not billable for individuals who reside
in facilities where staff are expected to provide such services under facility
licensure requirements.
9. Provider qualifications. The enrolled provider of mental
health support services shall be licensed by DBHDS as a provider of supportive
in-home services, intensive community treatment, or as a program of assertive
community treatment. Individuals employed or contracted by the provider to
provide mental health support services shall have training in the
characteristics of mental illness and appropriate interventions, training
strategies, and support methods for persons with mental illness and functional
limitations.
10. Mental health support services, which continue for six
consecutive months, shall be reviewed and renewed at the end of the six-month
period of authorization by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP
who shall document the continued need for the services.
11. Mental health support services shall be documented
through a daily log of time involved in the delivery of services and a minimum
of a weekly summary note of services provided.
2. The primary psychiatric diagnosis shall be documented as
part of the intake. The LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, or
LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S ] performing
the intake shall document the primary mental health diagnosis on the intake
form.
3. The LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, or
LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E ]
shall complete, sign, and date the ISP within 30 days of the admission to
this service. The ISP shall include documentation of how many days per week and
how many hours per week are required to carry out the goals in the ISP. The
total time billed for the week shall not exceed the frequency established in
the individual's ISP. The ISP shall indicate the dated signature of the LMHP,
[ LMHP-supervisee, or LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP,
LMHP-S, QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E ] and the individual. The ISP
shall indicate the specific training and services to be provided, the goals and
objectives to be accomplished, and criteria for discharge as part of a
discharge plan that includes the projected length of service. If the individual
refuses to sign the ISP, this shall be noted in the individual's medical record
documentation.
4. Every three months, the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
or LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A,
QMHP-C, or QMHP-E shall review with the individual in a manner in which he may
participate with the process, modify as appropriate, and update the ISP. The
ISP must be rewritten at least annually.
a. The goals, objectives, and strategies of the ISP shall
be updated to reflect any change or changes in the individual's progress and
treatment needs as well as any newly identified problem.
b. Documentation of this review shall be added to the
individual's medical record no later than [ the last day of the
month in which this 15 calendar days from the date of the ]
review [ is conducted ], as evidenced by the
dated signatures of the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident
LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E and the
individual.
5. The ISP shall include discharge goals that will enable
the individual to achieve and maintain community stability and independence.
The ISP shall fully support the need for interventions over the length of the
period of service requested from the service authorization contractor.
6. Reauthorizations for service shall only be granted if
the provider demonstrates to either DMAS or the service authorization
contractor that the individual is benefitting from the service as evidenced by
updates and modifications to the ISP that demonstrate progress toward ISP goals
and objectives.
7. If the provider knows or has reason to know of the
individual's nonadherence to a regimen of prescribed medication, medication
adherence shall be a goal in the individual's ISP. If the care is delivered by
the qualified paraprofessional, the supervising LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, or
QMHP-C shall be informed of any [ nonadherence to the prescribed ]
medication regimen [ nonadherence ]. The
LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident LMHP-R,
LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, or QMHP-C shall coordinate care with the
prescribing physician regarding any [ concerns about ] medication
[ regimen ] nonadherence [ concerns
(provided that the individual has consented to such sharing of information) ].
The provider shall document the following minimum elements of the contact
between the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident
LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, or QMHP-C and the prescribing
physician:
a. Name and title of caller;
b. Name and title of professional who was called;
c. Name of organization that the prescribing professional
works for;
d. Date and time of call;
e. Reason for the care coordination call;
f. Description of medication regimen issue or issues to be
discussed; and
g. Whether or not there was a resolution of medication
regimen issue or issues.
8. Discharge summaries shall be prepared by providers for
all of the individuals in their care. Documentation of prior psychiatric
services history shall be maintained in the individual's mental health
skill-building services medical record.
9. Documentation of prior psychiatric services history
shall be maintained in the individual's mental health skill-building services
medical record. The provider shall document evidence of the individual's prior
psychiatric services history, as required by 12VAC30-50-226 B [ 8
6 ] b (3) and 12VAC30-50-226 B [ 8 6 ]
c (4), by contacting the prior provider or providers of such health care
services after obtaining written consent from the individual. Documentation of
telephone contacts with the prior provider shall include the following minimum
elements:
a. Name and title of caller;
b. Name and title of professional who was called;
c. Name of organization that the professional works for;
d. Date and time of call;
e. Specific placement provided;
f. Type of treatment previously provided;
g. Name of treatment provider; and
h. Dates of previous treatment.
[ Discharge summaries from prior providers that
clearly indicate (i) the type of treatment provided, (ii) the dates of the
treatment previously provided, and (iii) the name of the treatment provider
shall be sufficient to meet this requirement. Family member statements shall
not suffice to meet this requirement. ]
10. The provider shall document evidence of the psychiatric
medication history, as required by 12VAC30-50-226 B [ 8
6 ] b (4) and 12VAC30-50-226 B [ 8 6 ]
c (5), by maintaining a photocopy of prescription information from a
prescription bottle or by contacting [ a prior the
current or previous prescribing ] provider of health care services
or pharmacy after obtaining written consent from the individual. Prescription
lists or medical records [ , including discharge summaries, ]
obtained from the pharmacy or [ current or previous prescribing ]
provider of health care services that contain (i) the name of the
prescribing physician, (ii) the name of the medication with dosage and
frequency, and (iii) the date of the prescription shall be sufficient to meet
these criteria. [ Family member statements shall not suffice to
meet this requirement. ]
11. In the absence of such documentation, the current
provider shall document all contacts (i.e., telephone, [ faxes)
faxes, electronic communication) ] with the pharmacy or provider of
health care services with the following minimum elements: (i) name and title of
caller, (ii) name and title of prior professional who was called, (iii) name of
organization that the professional works for, (iv) date and time of call, (v)
specific prescription confirmed, (vi) name of prescribing physician, (vii) name
of medication, and (viii) date of prescription.
12. Only direct face-to-face contacts and services to an
individual shall be reimbursable.
13. Any services provided to the individual that are
strictly academic in nature shall not be billable. These include, but are not
limited to, such basic educational programs as instruction or tutoring in
reading, science, mathematics, or GED.
14. Any services provided to individuals that are strictly
vocational in nature shall not be billable. However, support activities and
activities directly related to assisting an individual to cope with a mental
illness to the degree necessary to develop appropriate behaviors for operating
in an overall work environment shall be billable.
15. Room and board, custodial care, and general supervision
are not components of this service.
16. Provider qualifications. The enrolled provider of
mental health skill-building services must be licensed by DBHDS as a provider
of mental health community support [ (defined in 12VAC35-105-20) ].
Individuals employed or contracted by the provider to provide mental health
skill-building services must have training in the characteristics of mental
illness and appropriate interventions, training strategies, and support methods
for persons with mental illness and functional limitations. Mental health
skill-building services shall be provided by either an LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, QMHP-C,
QMHP-E, or [ QMHPP QPPMH ]. The LMHP,
[ LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ]
QMHP-A, or QMHP-C will supervise the care weekly if delivered by the QMHP-E
or [ QMHPP QPPMH ]. Documentation of
supervision shall be maintained in the mental health skill-building services
record.
[ 17. Mental health skill-building services,
which may continue for up to six consecutive months, must be reviewed and
renewed at the end of the period of authorization by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident who must document the continued need for the services.
18. 17. ] Mental health
skill-building services [ must shall ] be
documented through a daily log of time involved in the delivery of services and
a minimum of a weekly summary note of services provided. The provider shall
clearly document services provided to detail what occurred during the entire
amount of the time billed.
[ 19. 18. ] If mental
health skill-building services are provided in a group home (Level A or B) or
assisted living facility, effective July 1, 2014, there shall be a yearly limit
of up to 4160 units per fiscal year and a weekly limit of up to 80 units per
week, with at least half of each week's services provided outside of the group
home or assisted living facility. There shall be a daily limit of a maximum of
20 units. Prior to July 1, 2014, the previous limits shall apply. The ISP shall
not include activities that contradict or duplicate those in the treatment plan
established by the group home or assisted living facility. The provider shall
attempt to coordinate mental health skill-building services with the treatment
plan established by the group home or assisted living facility and shall
document all coordination activities in the medical record.
[ 20. 19. ] Limits and
exclusions.
a. Group home (Level A or B) and assisted living facility
providers shall not serve as the mental health skill-building services provider
for individuals residing in the provider's respective facility. Individuals
residing in facilities may, however, receive MHSS from another MHSS agency not
affiliated with the owner of the facility in which they reside.
b. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
reimbursed for individuals who are receiving in-home residential services or
congregate residential services through the Intellectual Disability Waiver or Individual
and Family Developmental Disabilities Support Waiver.
c. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
reimbursed for individuals who are also receiving independent living skills
services, the Department of Social Services independent living program
(22VAC40-151), independent living services (22VAC40-151 and 22VAC40-131), or
independent living arrangement (22VAC40-131) or any Comprehensive Services
Act-funded independent living skills programs.
d. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available to individuals who are receiving treatment foster care
(12VAC30-130-900 et seq.).
e. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available to individuals who reside in intermediate care facilities for
individuals with intellectual disabilities or hospitals.
f. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available to individuals who reside in nursing facilities, except for up to 60
days prior to discharge. If the individual has not been discharged from the
nursing facility during the 60-day period of services, mental health
skill-building services shall be terminated and no further service
authorizations shall be available to the individual unless a provider can
demonstrate and document that mental health skill-building services are
necessary. Such documentation shall include facts demonstrating a change in the
individual's circumstances and a new plan for discharge requiring up to 60 days
of mental health skill-building services.
g. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
available for residents of residential treatment centers (Level C facilities)
except for the intake code H0032 (modifier U8) in the seven days immediately
prior to discharge.
h. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
reimbursed if personal care services or attendant care services are being
received simultaneously, unless justification is provided why this is necessary
in the individual's mental health skill-building services record. Medical
record documentation shall fully substantiate the need for services when
personal care or attendant care services are being provided. This applies to
individuals who are receiving additional services through the Intellectual
Disability Waiver (12VAC30-120-1000 et seq.), Individual and Family Developmental
Disabilities Support Waiver (12VAC30-120-700 et seq.), the Elderly or Disabled
with Consumer Direction Waiver (12VAC30-120-900 et seq.), and EPSDT services
(12VAC30-50-130).
i. Mental health skill-building services shall not be
duplicative of other services. Providers have a responsibility to ensure that
if an individual is receiving additional therapeutic services that there will
be coordination of services by either the LMHP, [ LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, LMHP-S, ] QMHP-A, QMHP-C,
or QMHP-E to avoid duplication of services.
j. Individuals who have organic disorders, such as
delirium, dementia, or other cognitive disorders not elsewhere classified, will
be prohibited from receiving mental health skill-building services unless their
physicians issue a signed and dated statement indicating that the individuals
can benefit from this service.
k. Individuals who are not diagnosed with a serious mental
health disorder but who have personality disorders or other mental health
disorders, or both, that may lead to chronic disability, will not be excluded
from the mental health skill-building services eligibility criteria provided
that the individual has a primary mental health diagnosis from the list
included in 12VAC30-50-226 B [ 8 6 ] b
(1) or 12VAC30-50-226 B [ 8 6 ] c (2) and
that the provider can document and describe how the individual is expected to
actively participate in and benefit from mental health support services.
J. Except as noted in subdivision I [ 20
18 ] of this section and in 12VAC30-50-226 B 6 [ d
e ], the limits described in this regulation and all others
identified in 12VAC30-50-226 shall apply to all service authorization requests
submitted to either DMAS or the BHSA as of [ the effective date
of this regulation July 27, 2016 ]. As of [ the
effective date of this regulation July 27, 2016 ], all
annual limits, weekly limits, daily limits, and reimbursement for services
shall apply to all services described in 12VAC30-50-226 regardless of the date
upon which service authorization was obtained.
VA.R. Doc. No. R14-3451; Filed June 3, 2016, 2:52 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 12VAC30-120. Waivered Services (amending 12VAC30-120-360 through
12VAC30-120-420).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia;
42 USC § 1396 et seq.
Effective Date: July 27, 2016.
Agency Contact: Victoria Simmons, Regulatory
Coordinator, Division of Policy and Research, Department of Medical Assistance
Services, 600 East Broad Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone
(804) 371-6043, FAX (804) 786-1680, or email victoria.simmons@dmas.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) require individuals who are enrolled in
the Elderly or Disabled with Consumer Direction Waiver and who are excluded
from participating in mandatory managed care to be enrolled in Medicaid
contracted managed care organizations and to receive all acute care services
through the mandatory managed care delivery system and (ii) provide for
expedited enrollment for Medicaid individuals into Medicaid contracted managed
care organizations, especially for pregnant women.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No
public comments were received by the promulgating agency.
Part VI
Medallion II Mandatory Managed Care
12VAC30-120-360. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this part shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Action" means the denial or limited authorization
of a requested service, including the type or level of service; the reduction,
suspension, or termination of a previously authorized service; the denial, in
whole or in part, of payment for a service; the failure to provide services in
a timely manner, as defined by the state; or the failure of an MCO to act
within the timeframes provided in 42 CFR 438.408(b).
"Appeal" means a request for review of an action,
as "action" is defined in this section.
"Area of residence" means the individual's member's
address in the Medicaid eligibility file.
"Capitation payment" means a payment the
department makes periodically to a contractor on behalf of each individual
enrolled under a contract for the provision of medical services under the State
Plan, regardless of whether the particular individual receives services during
the period covered by the payment.
"Covered services" means Medicaid services as
defined in the State Plan for Medical Assistance.
"Disenrollment" means the process of changing
enrollment from one Medallion II Managed Care Organization (MCO) plan to
another MCO, if applicable.
"DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
Services.
"Enrollee" or "enrollees" means people
having current Medicaid eligibility who shall be in the process of being
authorized by DMAS to be enrolled in Medallion II.
"Early Intervention" means EPSDT Early Intervention
services provided pursuant to Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities
Education Act (IDEA) of 2004 as set forth in 12VAC30-50-131.
"Eligible person" means any person eligible for
Virginia Medicaid in accordance with the State Plan for Medical Assistance
under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.
"Emergency medical condition" means a medical
condition manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity
(including severe pain) that a prudent layperson, who possesses an average
knowledge of health and medicine, could reasonably expect the absence of
immediate medical attention to result in the following:
1. Placing the health of the individual (or, with respect to a
pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her unborn child) in serious
jeopardy,
2. Serious impairment to bodily functions, or
3. Serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.
"Emergency services" means covered inpatient and
outpatient services that are furnished by a provider that is qualified to
furnish these services and that are needed to evaluate or stabilize an emergency
medical condition.
"Enrollment broker" means an independent contractor
that enrolls individuals in the contractor's plan and is responsible for the
operation and documentation of a toll-free individual service helpline. The
responsibilities of the enrollment broker include, but shall not be limited to,
individual education and MCO enrollment, assistance with and tracking of
individuals' complaints resolutions, and may include individual marketing and
outreach.
"Exclusion from Medallion II" "Exclude"
means the removal of an enrollee a member from the Medallion
II mandatory managed care program on a temporary or permanent basis.
"External quality review organization" or
"EQRO" means an organization that meets the competence and
independence requirements set forth in 42 CFR 438.354 and performs external
quality reviews, other external quality review related activities as set forth
in 42 CFR 438.358, or both.
"Grievance" means an expression of dissatisfaction
about any matter other than an action, as "action" is defined in this
section.
"Health care plan" means any arrangement in
which any managed care organization undertakes to provide, arrange for, pay
for, or reimburse any part of the cost of any health care services.
"Health care professional" means a provider as
defined in 42 CFR 438.2.
"Individual" or "individuals" means people
a person or persons who are eligible for Medicaid but, who
are not yet undergoing enrollment nor for mandatory managed care, and
who are not enrolled in a mandatory managed care organization.
"Managed care organization" or "MCO"
means an entity that meets the participation and solvency criteria defined in
42 CFR Part 438 and has an executed contractual agreement with DMAS to
provide services covered under the Medallion II mandatory managed
care program. Covered services for Medallion II mandatory managed
care program individuals must shall be as accessible (in
terms of timeliness, amount, duration, and scope) as compared to other Medicaid
individuals served within the geographic area.
"Member" or "members" means people who
have current Medicaid eligibility who are also enrolled in Medallion II mandatory
managed care.
"Network" means doctors, hospitals or other health
care providers who participate or contract with an MCO contractor and,
as a result, agree to accept a mutually-agreed mutually agreed
upon sum or fee schedule as payment in full for covered services that are
rendered to eligible participants.
"Newborn enrollment period" means the period from
the child's date of birth plus the next two calendar months.
"Nonparticipating provider" means a health care
entity or health care professional not in the contractor's participating
provider network.
"Participant" or "participants" means
an individual or individuals having current Medicaid eligibility who shall be
authorized by DMAS to be a member or members of Medallion II.
"PCP of record" means a primary care physician of
record with whom the recipient has an established history and such history is
documented in the individual's records.
"Post-stabilization care services" means covered
services related to an emergency medical condition that are provided after an
enrollee is stabilized in order to maintain the stabilized condition or to
improve or resolve the enrollee's condition.
"Potential enrollee" means a Medicaid individual
who is subject to mandatory enrollment or may voluntarily elect to enroll in a
given managed care program, but is not yet an enrollee of a specific MCO.
"Retractions" means the departure of an enrolled
managed care organization from any one or more localities as provided for in
12VAC30-120-370.
"Rural exception" means a rural area designated in
the § 1915(b) managed care waiver, pursuant to § 1932(a)(3)(B) of the
Social Security Act and 42 CFR § 438.52(b) and recognized by the Centers
for Medicare and Medicaid Services, wherein qualifying Medallion II mandatory
managed care members are mandated to enroll in the one available contracted
MCO.
"School health services" means those physical
therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, nursing, psychiatric and
psychological services rendered to children who qualify for these services
under the federal Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (20 USC § 1471 et
seq.) by (i) employees of the school divisions or (ii) providers that
subcontract with school divisions, as described in 12VAC30-50-130.
"Spend-down" means the process of reducing countable
income by deducting incurred medical expenses for medically needy individuals,
as determined in the State Plan for Medical Assistance.
12VAC30-120-370. Medallion II enrollees Mandatory
managed care members.
A. DMAS shall determine enrollment in Medallion II mandatory
managed care. Medicaid eligible persons not meeting the exclusion criteria
set out in this section must shall participate in the Medallion
II mandatory managed care program. Enrollment in Medallion II is
mandatory managed care shall not be a guarantee of continuing
eligibility for services and benefits under the Virginia Medical Assistance
Services Program.
1. DMAS reserves the right to exclude from
participation in the Medallion II mandatory managed care program
any member who has been consistently noncompliant with the policies and
procedures of managed care or who is threatening to providers, MCOs, or DMAS.
There must be sufficient documentation from various providers, the MCO, and
DMAS of these noncompliance issues and any attempts at resolution. Members
excluded from Medallion II mandatory managed care through this
provision may appeal the decision to DMAS.
2. Qualifying individuals enrolled in the Elderly or
Disabled with Consumer Direction (EDCD) Waiver pursuant to Part IX (12VAC30-120-900
et seq.) of this chapter who do not meet any exclusions in subsection B of this
section shall be required to enroll in managed care and shall receive all acute
care services through the mandatory managed care delivery system. For these
individuals, services provided under 12VAC30-120-380 A 2 shall continue to be
provided through the DMAS fee-for-service system.
B. The following individuals shall be excluded (as defined in
12VAC30-120-360) from participating in Medallion II mandatory managed
care as defined in the § 1915(b) managed care waiver. Individuals
excluded from Medallion II mandatory managed care shall include
the following:
1. Individuals who are inpatients in state mental hospitals;
2. Individuals who are approved by DMAS as inpatients in
long-stay hospitals, nursing facilities, or intermediate care facilities for
individuals with intellectual disabilities;
3. Individuals who are placed on spend-down;
4. Individuals who are participating in the family planning
waiver, or in federal waiver programs for home-based and community-based
Medicaid coverage prior to managed care enrollment (except eligible EDCD
members);
5. Individuals under age 21 who are approved for DMAS
residential facility Level C programs as defined in 12VAC30-130-860;
6. Newly eligible individuals who are in the third trimester
of pregnancy and who request exclusion within a department-specified timeframe
of the effective date of their MCO enrollment. Exclusion may be granted only if
the member's obstetrical provider (e.g. (i.e., physician,
hospital, or midwife) does not participate with the enrollee's member's
assigned MCO. Exclusion requests made during the third trimester may be made by
the member, MCO, or provider. DMAS shall determine if the request meets the
criteria for exclusion. Following the end of the pregnancy, these individuals
shall be required to enroll to the extent they remain eligible for Medicaid;
7. Individuals, other than students, who permanently live
outside their area of residence for greater than 60 consecutive days except
those individuals placed there for medically necessary services funded by the
MCO;
8. Individuals who receive hospice services in accordance with
DMAS criteria;
9. Individuals with other comprehensive group or individual
health insurance coverage, including Medicare, insurance provided to military
dependents, and any other insurance purchased through the Health Insurance
Premium Payment Program (HIPP);
10. Individuals requesting exclusion who are inpatients in
hospitals, other than those listed in subdivisions 1 and 2 of this subsection,
at the scheduled time of MCO enrollment or who are scheduled for inpatient
hospital stay or surgery within 30 calendar days of the MCO enrollment
effective date. The exclusion shall remain effective until the first day of the
month following discharge. This exclusion reason shall not apply to members
admitted to the hospital while already enrolled in a department-contracted MCO;
11. Individuals who request exclusion during preassignment
assignment to an MCO or within a time set by DMAS from the effective
date of their MCO enrollment, who have been diagnosed with a terminal condition
and who have a life expectancy of six months or less. The client's individual's
physician must certify the life expectancy;
12. Certain individuals between birth and age three certified
by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services as eligible
for services pursuant to Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education
Act (20 USC § 1471 et seq.) who are granted an exception by DMAS to the
mandatory Medallion II managed care enrollment;
13. Individuals who have an eligibility period that is less
than three months;
14. Individuals who are enrolled in the Commonwealth's Title
XXI SCHIP program;
15. Individuals who have an eligibility period that is only
retroactive; and
16. Children enrolled in the Virginia Birth-Related
Neurological Injury Compensation Program established pursuant to Chapter 50
(§ 38.2-5000 et seq.) of Title 38.2 of the Code of Virginia.
C. Members enrolled with a MCO who subsequently meet one or
more of the criteria of subsections A and subsection B of this
section during MCO enrollment shall be excluded from MCO participation as
determined by DMAS, with the exception of those who subsequently become
participants in the federal long-term care waiver programs, as otherwise
defined elsewhere in this chapter, for home-based and community-based Medicaid
coverage (AIDS, (IFDDS, MR/ID ID, EDCD, Day
Support, or Alzheimer's, or as may be amended from time to time). These individuals
members shall receive acute and primary medical services via the MCO and
shall receive waiver services and related transportation to waiver services via
the fee-for-service program.
Individuals excluded from mandatory managed care enrollment
shall receive Medicaid services under the current fee-for-service system. When
individuals no longer meet the criteria for exclusion, they shall be required
to enroll in the appropriate managed care program.
D. Individuals who are enrolled in localities that qualify
for the rural exception may meet exclusion criteria if their PCP of record, as
defined in 12VAC30-120-360, cannot or will not participate with the one MCO in
the locality. Individual requests to be excluded from MCO participation in
localities meeting the qualification for the rural exception must be made to
DMAS for consideration on a case-by-case basis. Recipients Members
enrolled in MCO rural exception areas shall not have open enrollment periods
and shall not be afforded the 90-day window after initial enrollment during
which they may make a health plan or program change.
Individuals excluded from mandatory managed care enrollment
shall receive Medicaid services under the current fee-for-service system. When
individuals no longer meet the criteria for exclusion, they shall be required
to enroll in the appropriate managed care program.
E. Medallion II Mandatory managed care plans
shall be offered to individuals, and individuals shall be enrolled in those
plans, exclusively through an independent enrollment broker under contract to
DMAS.
F. Clients Members shall be enrolled as
follows:
1. All eligible individuals, except those meeting one of the
exclusions of subsection B of this section, shall be enrolled in Medallion
II mandatory managed care.
2. Individuals shall receive a Medicaid card from DMAS,
and shall be provided authorized medical care in accordance with DMAS'
procedures after Medicaid eligibility has been determined to exist.
3. Once individuals are enrolled in Medicaid, they will
receive a letter indicating that they may select one of the contracted MCOs.
These letters shall indicate a preassigned an assigned MCO,
determined as provided in subsection F of this section, in which the individual
member will be enrolled if he does not make a selection within a period
specified by DMAS of not less than 30 days. Members who are enrolled in one
mandatory MCO program who immediately become eligible for another mandatory MCO
program are able to maintain consistent enrollment with their currently
assigned MCO, if available. These members will receive a notification letter
including information regarding their ability to change health plans under the
new program.
4. Any newborn whose mother is enrolled with an MCO at the time
of birth shall be considered a member of that same MCO for the newborn
enrollment period.
a. This requirement does not preclude the member, once
he is assigned a Medicaid identification number, from disenrolling from one MCO
to enrolling with another in accordance with subdivision H 1 of this
section.
b. The newborn's continued enrollment with the MCO is
not contingent upon the mother's enrollment. Additionally, if the MCO's
contract is terminated in whole or in part, the MCO shall continue newborn
coverage if the child is born while the contract is active, until the newborn
receives a Medicaid number or for the newborn enrollment period, whichever
timeframe is earlier. Children who do not receive a Medicaid identification
number prior to the end of the newborn enrollment period will be disenrolled.
Newborns who remain eligible for participation in Medallion II mandatory
managed care will be reenrolled in an MCO through the preassignment assignment
process upon receiving a Medicaid identification number.
c. Any newborn whose mother is enrolled in an MCO at the
time of birth shall receive a Medicaid identification number prior to the end
of the newborn enrollment period in order to maintain the newborn's enrollment
in an MCO.
5. Individuals who lose then regain eligibility for Medallion
II mandatory managed care within 60 days will be reenrolled into
their previous MCO without going through preassignment assignment
and selection.
G. Individuals who do not select an MCO as described in
subdivision F 3 of this section shall be assigned to an MCO as follows:
1. Individuals are assigned through a system algorithm based
upon the client's member's history with a contracted MCO.
2. Individuals not assigned pursuant to subdivision 1 of this
subsection shall be assigned to the MCO of another family member, if
applicable.
3. Individuals who live in rural exception areas as defined in
12VAC30-120-360 must shall enroll with the one available MCO.
These persons individuals shall receive a preassignment an
assignment notification for enrollment into the MCO. Individuals in rural
exception areas who are assigned to the one MCO may request exclusion from MCO
participation if their PCP of record, as defined in 12VAC30-120-360, cannot or
will not participate with the one MCO in the locality. Individual requests to
be excluded from MCO participation in rural exception localities must be made
to DMAS for consideration on a case-by-case basis.
4. All other individuals shall be assigned to an MCO on a
basis of approximately equal number by MCO in each locality.
5. All eligible members are automatically assigned to a
contracted MCO in their localities. Members are allowed 90 days after the
effective date of new or initial enrollment to change to another MCO that
participates in the geographic area where the member lives. Recipients Members
residing in localities qualifying for a rural exception shall not be
afforded the 90-day window after initial enrollment during which they may make
a health plan or program change.
6. DMAS shall have the discretion to utilize an alternate
strategy for enrollment or transition of enrollment from the method described
in this section for expansions, retractions, or changes to client member
populations, geographical areas, procurements, or any or all of these; such
alternate strategy shall comply with federal waiver requirements.
H. Following their initial enrollment into an MCO, members
shall be restricted to the MCO until the next open enrollment period, unless
appropriately disenrolled or excluded by the department (as defined in
12VAC30-120-360).
1. During the first 90 calendar days of enrollment in a new or
initial MCO, a member may disenroll from that MCO to enroll into another MCO
for any reason. Such disenrollment shall be effective no later than the first
day of the second month after the month in which the member requests
disenrollment.
2. During the remainder of the enrollment period, the member
may only disenroll from one MCO into another MCO upon determination by DMAS
that good cause exists as determined under subsection I J of this
section.
I. The department shall conduct an annual open enrollment for
all Medallion II mandatory managed care members with the
exception of those clients members who live in a designated rural
exception area. The open enrollment period shall be the 60 calendar days before
the end of the enrollment period. Prior to the open enrollment period, DMAS
will inform the member of the opportunity to remain with the current MCO or
change to another MCO, without cause, for the following year. Enrollment
selections will be effective on the first day of the next month following the
open enrollment period. Members who do not make a choice during the open
enrollment period will remain with their current MCO selection.
J. Disenrollment for cause may be requested at any time.
1. After the first 90 days of enrollment in an MCO, members must
may request disenrollment from DMAS based on cause. The request may be
made orally or in writing to DMAS and must shall cite the reason
or reasons why the member wishes to disenroll. Cause for disenrollment
shall include the following:
a. A member's desire to seek services from a federally
qualified health center that is not under contract with the member's current
MCO, and the member requests a change to another MCO that subcontracts with the
desired federally qualified health center;
b. Performance or nonperformance of service to the member by
an MCO or one or more of its providers that is deemed by the department's
external quality review organizations to be below the generally accepted
community practice of health care. This may include poor quality care;
c. Lack of access to a PCP or necessary specialty services
covered under the State Plan or lack of access to providers experienced in
dealing with the member's health care needs;
d. A member has a combination of complex medical factors that,
in the sole discretion of DMAS, would be better served under another contracted
MCO;
e. The member moves out of the MCO's service area;
f. The MCO does not, because of moral or religious objections,
cover the service the member seeks;
g. The member needs related services to be performed at the
same time; not all related services are available within the network, and the
member's primary care provider or another provider determines that receiving
the services separately would subject the member to unnecessary risk; or
h. Other reasons as determined by DMAS through written policy
directives.
2. DMAS shall determine whether cause exists for
disenrollment. Written responses shall be provided within a timeframe set by
department policy; however, the effective date of an approved disenrollment
shall be no later than the first day of the second month following the month in
which the member files the request, in compliance with 42 CFR 438.56.
3. Cause for disenrollment shall be deemed to exist and the
disenrollment shall be granted if DMAS fails to take final action on a valid
request prior to the first day of the second month after the request.
4. The DMAS determination concerning cause for disenrollment
may be appealed by the member in accordance with the department's client
appeals process at 12VAC30-110-10 through 12VAC30-110-380 12VAC30-110-370.
5. The current MCO shall provide, within two working days of a
request from DMAS, information necessary to determine cause.
6. Members enrolled with a MCO who subsequently meet one or
more of the exclusions in subsection B of this section during MCO enrollment
shall be excluded as appropriate by DMAS, with the exception of those who
subsequently become individuals participating in the IFDDS, ID,
[ EDCD ], Day Support, or Alzheimer's federal waiver programs for
home-based and community-based Medicaid coverage. These members shall receive
acute and primary medical services via the MCO and shall receive waiver
services and related transportation to waiver services via the fee-for-service
program.
12VAC30-120-380. Medallion II MCO responsibilities.
A. The MCO shall provide, at a minimum, all medically
necessary covered services provided under the State Plan for Medical Assistance
and further defined by written DMAS regulations, policies and instructions,
except as otherwise modified or excluded in this part.
1. Nonemergency services provided by hospital emergency
departments shall be covered by MCOs in accordance with rates negotiated
between the MCOs and the hospital emergency departments.
2. Services that shall be provided outside the MCO network
shall include, but are not limited to, those services identified and defined by
the contract between DMAS and the MCO. Services reimbursed by DMAS include, but
shall not be limited to, dental and orthodontic services for children up to age
21; for all others, dental services (as described in 12VAC30-50-190),
school health services (as defined in 12VAC30-120-360), community mental
health services (rehabilitative, targeted case management and the following
substance abuse treatment services: emergency services (crisis); intensive
outpatient services; day treatment services; substance abuse case management
services; and opioid treatment services), as defined in 12VAC30-50-228
and 12VAC30-50-491, EPSDT Early Intervention services provided pursuant
to Part C of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) of 2004 (as
defined in 12VAC30-50-131 and 12VAC30-50-415), and long-term care
services provided under the § 1915(c) home-based and community-based
waivers including related transportation to such authorized waiver services.
3. The MCOs shall pay for emergency services and family planning
services and supplies whether they such services are provided
inside or outside the MCO network.
B. EPSDT services shall be covered by the MCO and defined by
the contract between DMAS and the MCO. The MCO shall have the authority to
determine the provider of service for EPSDT screenings.
C. The MCOs shall report data to DMAS under the contract
requirements, which may include data reports, report cards for clients members,
and ad hoc quality studies performed by the MCO or third parties.
D. Documentation requirements.
1. The MCO shall maintain records as required by federal and
state law and regulation and by DMAS policy. The MCO shall furnish such
required information to DMAS, the Attorney General of Virginia or his
authorized representatives, or the State Medicaid Fraud Control Unit on request
and in the form requested.
2. Each MCO shall have written policies regarding enrollee
member rights and shall comply with any applicable federal and state
laws that pertain to enrollee member rights and shall ensure that
its staff and affiliated providers take those rights into account when
furnishing services to enrollees members in accordance with 42
CFR 438.100.
E. The MCO shall ensure that the health care provided to its clients
members meets all applicable federal and state mandates, community
standards for quality, and standards developed pursuant to the DMAS managed
care quality program.
F. The MCOs shall promptly provide or arrange for the
provision of all required services as specified in the contract between the state
Commonwealth and the contractor MCO. Medical evaluations
shall be available within 48 hours for urgent care and within 30 calendar days
for routine care. On-call clinicians shall be available 24 hours per day, seven
days per week.
G. The MCOs must shall meet standards specified
by DMAS for sufficiency of provider networks as specified in the contract
between the state Commonwealth and the contractor MCO.
H. Each MCO and its subcontractors shall have in place, and
follow, written policies and procedures for processing requests for initial and
continuing authorizations of service. Each MCO and its subcontractors shall
ensure that any decision to deny a service authorization request or to
authorize a service in an amount, duration, or scope that is less than
requested, be made by a health care professional who has appropriate clinical
expertise in treating the enrollee's member's condition or
disease. Each MCO and its subcontractors shall have in effect mechanisms to
ensure consistent application of review criteria for authorization decisions
and shall consult with the requesting provider when appropriate.
I. In accordance with 42 CFR 447.50 through 42 CFR
447.60, MCOs shall not impose any cost sharing obligations on enrollees members
except as set forth in 12VAC30-20-150 and 12VAC30-20-160.
J. An MCO may not prohibit, or otherwise restrict, a health
care professional acting within the lawful scope of practice, from advising or
advocating on behalf of an enrollee a member who is his patient
in accordance with 42 CFR 438.102.
K. An MCO that would otherwise be required to reimburse for
or provide coverage of a counseling or referral service is not required to do
so if the MCO objects to the service on moral or religious grounds and
furnishes information about the service it does not cover in accordance with 42 CFR
438.102.
12VAC30-120-390. Payment rate for Medallion II MCOs.
The payment rate to MCOs that participate in the mandatory
managed care program shall be set by negotiated contracts and in accordance
with 42 CFR 438.6 and other pertinent federal regulations.
12VAC30-120-395. Payment rate for preauthorized or emergency
care provided by out-of-network providers.
The MCOs shall pay for preauthorized or emergency services
when provided outside the MCO network. Preauthorized or emergency services
provided to a Medallion II client managed care member by a
provider or facility not participating in the MCO's network will be reimbursed
according to the current Medicaid fee schedule. This reimbursement shall be
considered payment in full to the provider or facility of emergency services.
12VAC30-120-400. Quality control and utilization review.
A. DMAS shall rigorously monitor the quality of care provided
by the MCOs. DMAS may contract with one or more external quality review
organizations to perform focused studies on the quality of care provided by the
MCOs. The external organizations may utilize data or other tools to ensure
contract compliance and quality improvement activities. Specifically, DMAS
shall monitor to determine if the MCO:
1. Fails substantially to provide the medically necessary
items and services required under law or under the contract to be provided to
an enrolled recipient and the failure has adversely affected (or has substantial
likelihood of adversely affecting) the individual.
2. Engages in any practice that discriminates against
individuals on the basis of their health status or requirements for health care
services, including expulsion or refusal to reenroll an individual, or any
practice that could reasonably be expected to have the effect of denying or
discouraging enrollment (except as permitted by § 1903(m) of the Social
Security Act (42 USC § 1396b(m))) by eligible individuals whose medical
conditions or histories indicate a need for substantial future medical
services.
3. Misrepresents or falsifies information that it furnishes,
under § 1903(m) of the Social Security Act (42 USC § 1396b(m)) to
CMS, DMAS, an individual, or any other entity.
4. Fails to comply with the requirements of 42 CFR
417.479(d) through (g) relating to physician incentive plans, or fails to
submit to DMAS its physician incentive plans as required or requested in 42 CFR
434.70.
5. Imposes on enrollees members premiums or
charges that are in excess of the premiums or charges permitted under the
Medicaid program.
B. DMAS shall ensure that data on performance and patient
results are collected.
C. DMAS shall ensure that quality outcomes information is
provided to MCOs. DMAS shall ensure that changes which are determined to be
needed as a result of quality control or utilization review are made.
12VAC30-120-410. Sanctions.
A. If DMAS determines that an MCO is not in compliance with
applicable state or federal laws, regulations (including but not limited to the
requirements of or pursuant to 12VAC30-120-380 E, or 42 CFR 438, Subpart
I), or their Medallion II the MCO contract, DMAS may impose
sanctions on the MCO. The sanctions may include, but are not limited to:
1. Limiting enrollments in the MCO by freezing voluntary recipient
member enrollments;
2. Freezing DMAS assignment of recipients members
to the MCO;
3. Limiting MCO enrollment to specific areas;
4. Denying, withholding, or retracting payments to the MCO;
5. Terminating the MCO's Medallion II contract;
6. Intermediate sanctions including, but not limited to, the
maximum civil money penalties specified in 42 CFR Part 438, Subpart I, for the
violations set forth therein, or in accordance therewith; and
7. Civil monetary penalties as specified in 42 CFR
438.704.
B. In the case of an MCO that has repeatedly failed to meet
the requirements of §§ 1903(m) and 1932 of the Social Security Act, DMAS shall,
regardless of what other sanctions are imposed, impose the following sanctions:
1. Appoint a temporary manager to:
a. Oversee the operation of the Medicaid managed care
organization upon a finding by DMAS that there is continued egregious behavior
by the organization or there is a substantial risk to the health of enrollees
members; or
b. Assure the health of the organization's enrollees members
if there is a need for temporary management while (i) there is an orderly
termination or reorganization of the organization or (ii) improvements are made
to remedy the violations found under subsection A of this section. Temporary
management under this subdivision may not be terminated until DMAS has
determined that the MCO has the capability to ensure that the violations shall
not recur.
2. Permit individuals members who are enrolled
with the MCO to disenroll without cause. If this sanction is imposed, DMAS
shall be responsible for notifying such individuals members of
the right to disenroll.
C. Prior to terminating a contract as permitted under
subdivision A 5 of this section, DMAS shall provide the MCO with a hearing.
DMAS may shall not provide an MCO with a pretermination hearing
before the appointment of a temporary manager under subdivision B 1 of this
section.
D. Prior to imposing any sanction other than termination of
the MCO's contract, DMAS shall provide the MCO with notice, develop procedures
with which the MCO must comply to eliminate specific sanctions, and provide
such other due process protections as the Commonwealth may provide.
E. In accordance with the terms of the contract, MCOs shall
have the right to appeal any adverse action taken by DMAS. For appeal
procedures not addressed by the contract, the MCO shall proceed in accordance
with the appeals provisions of the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300
et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Pursuant to §§ 2.2-4364 and 2.2-4365 of the
Code of Virginia, DMAS shall establish an administrative appeals procedure
through which the MCO may elect to appeal decisions on disputes arising during
the performance of its contract. Pursuant to § 2.2-4365 of the Code of
Virginia, such appeal shall be heard by a hearing officer; however, in no event
shall the hearing officer be an employee of DMAS. In conducting the administrative
appeal, the hearing officer shall follow the hearing procedure used in §
2.2-4020 of the Code of Virginia.
F. When DMAS determines that an MCO committed one of the
violations specified in 12VAC30-120-400 A, DMAS shall implement the provisions
of 42 CFR 434.67.
1. Any sanction imposed pursuant to this subsection shall be
binding upon the MCO.
2. The MCO shall have the appeals rights for any sanction
imposed pursuant to this subsection as specified in 42 CFR 434.67.
12VAC30-120-420. Client Member grievances and
appeals.
A. The MCOs shall, whenever an enrolled client's a
member's request for covered services is reduced, denied or terminated, or
payment for services is denied, provide a written notice in accordance with the
notice provisions specified in 42 CFR 438.404 and 42 CFR 438.210(c), as defined
by the contract between DMAS and the MCO, and any other statutory or regulatory
requirements.
B. MCOs shall, at the initiation of either new client member
enrollment or new provider/subcontractor contracts, or at the request of the enrollee
member, provide to every enrollee member the information
described in 42 CFR 438.10(g) concerning grievance/appeal rights and
procedures.
C. Disputes between the MCO and the client member
concerning any aspect of service delivery, including medical necessity and
specialist referral, shall be resolved through a verbal or written
grievance/appeals process operated by the MCO or through the DMAS appeals
process. A provider who has the enrollee's member's written consent
may act on behalf of an enrollee a member in the MCO
grievance/appeals or the DMAS appeals process.
1. The enrollee member, provider, or
representative acting on behalf of the enrollee member with the enrollee's
member's written consent may file an oral or written grievance or appeal
with the MCO. The MCO must accept grievances or appeals submitted within 30
days from the date of the notice of adverse action. Oral requests for appeals
must be followed up in writing within 10 business days by the enrollee member,
provider, or the representative acting on behalf of the enrollee member
with the enrollee's member's consent, unless the request is for
an expedited appeal. The enrollee member may also file a written
request for a standard or expedited appeal with the DMAS Appeals Division
within 30 days of the client's member's receipt of the notice of
adverse action, in accordance with 42 CFR 431, Subpart E,;
42 CFR Part 438, Subpart F,; and 12VAC30-110 12VAC30-110-10
through 12VAC30-110-370.
2. As specified in 12VAC30-110-100, pending the resolution of
a grievance or appeal filed by a client member or his
representative (including a provider acting on behalf of the client) member),
coverage shall not be terminated or reduced for the client member
for any reason which is the subject of the grievance or appeal.
3. The MCO shall ensure that the individuals employees
or agents who make decisions on MCO grievances and appeals were not
involved in any previous level of review or decision making, and where the
reason for the grievance or appeal involves clinical issues, relates to a
denial or a request for an expedited appeal, or where the appeal is based on a
lack of medical necessity, shall ensure that the decision makers are health
care professionals with the appropriate clinical expertise in treating the enrollee's
member's condition or disease.
D. The MCO shall develop written materials describing the
grievance/appeals system and its procedures and operation.
E. The MCO shall maintain a recordkeeping and tracking system
for complaints, grievances, and appeals that includes a copy of the original
complaint, grievance, or appeal; the decision; and the nature of the decision.
This system shall distinguish Medicaid from commercial enrollees members,
if the MCO does not have a separate system for Medicaid enrollees members.
F. At the time of enrollment and at the time of any adverse
actions, the MCO shall notify the client member, in writing,
that:
1. Medical necessity, specialist referral or other service
delivery issues may be resolved through a system of grievances and appeals,
within the MCO or through the DMAS client appeals process;
2. Clients Members have the right to appeal
directly to DMAS; and
3. The MCO shall promptly provide grievance or appeal forms,
reasonable assistance and written procedures to clients members
who wish to register written grievances or appeals.
G. The MCO shall issue grievance/appeal decisions as defined
by the contract between DMAS and the MCO. Oral grievance decisions are not
required to be in writing.
H. The MCO shall issue standard appeal decisions within 30
days from the date of initial receipt of the appeal in accordance with 42 CFR
438.408 and as defined by the contract between DMAS and the MCO. The appeal
decision shall be in writing and shall include, but shall not be limited to,
the following:
1. The decision reached, the results and the date of the
decision reached by the MCO;
2. The reasons for the decision;
3. The policies or procedures that provide the basis for the
decision;
4. A clear explanation of further appeal rights and a
timeframe for filing an appeal; and
5. For appeals that involve the termination, suspension, or
reduction of a previously authorized course of treatment, the right to continue
to receive benefits in accordance with 42 CFR 438.420 pending a hearing,
and how to request continuation of benefits.
I. An expedited appeal decision shall be issued as
expeditiously as the enrollee's member's condition requires and
within three business days in cases of medical emergencies in which delay could
result in death or serious injury to a client member. Extensions
to these timeframes shall be allowed in accordance with 42 CFR 438.408 and as defined
by the contract between DMAS and the MCO. Written confirmation of the decision
shall promptly follow the verbal notice of the expedited decision.
J. Any appeal decision issued by the MCO may be appealed by
the client member to DMAS in accordance with the department's
Client Appeals regulations at 12VAC30-110-10 through 12VAC30-110-380 12VAC30-110-370.
DMAS shall conduct an evidentiary hearing in accordance with the Client Appeals
regulations at 12VAC30-110-10 through 12VAC30-110-380 12VAC30-110-370
and shall not base any appealed decision on the record established by any
appeal decision of the MCO. The MCO shall comply with the DMAS appeal decision.
The DMAS decision in these matters shall be final and shall not be subject to
appeal by the MCO.
K. The MCO shall provide information necessary for any DMAS
appeal within timeframes established by DMAS.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4135; Filed June 3, 2016, 2:58 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Notice of Extension of Emergency Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration,
and Scope of Medical and Remedial Care Services (adding 12VAC30-50-600).
12VAC30-121. Medicare-Medicaid Demonstration Waiver (adding 12VAC30-121-10 through 12VAC30-121-250).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of
Virginia.
Expiration Date Extended Through: December 8, 2016.
The Governor has approved the Department of Medical Assistance
Services' request to extend the expiration date of the above-referenced
emergency regulations for six months as provided for in § 2.2-4011 D of
the Code of Virginia. Therefore, the emergency regulations will continue in
effect through December 8, 2016. The emergency regulations relate to the
implementation of (i) Item 307 RR of Chapter 806 of the 2013 Acts of Assembly,
the 2013 Appropriation Act, which directed the Department of Medical Assistance
Services (DMAS) to implement a care coordination program for a
Medicare-Medicaid dual eligible enrollee; (ii) Item 307 AAAA of the Act, which
directed DMAS to implement a process for administrative appeals of
Medicaid/Medicare dual eligible recipients in accordance with the terms of the
Memorandum of Understanding between DMAS and the Centers for Medicare and
Medicaid Services for the Virginia Medicare-Medicaid Financial Alignment
Demonstration Model; and (iii) Item 307 RRRR of the Act, which provides for
achieving cost savings and standardization of administrative and other
processes for providers. The emergency regulations were published in 31:9 VA.R. 613-633 December 29, 2014.
Agency Contact: Matthew Behrens, Project Manager,
Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad Street, Suite 1300,
Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 625-3673, FAX (804) 786-1680, or email
matthew.behrens@dmas.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-3786; Filed June 3, 2016, 2:46 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Proposed Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-30. Groups Covered and
Agencies Responsible for Eligibility Determination (amending 12VAC30-30-20).
12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration, and Scope of Medical and
Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-130).
12VAC30-135. Demonstration Waiver Services (repealing 12VAC30-135-10 through 12VAC30-135-90).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia;
42 USC § 1396 et seq.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: August 26, 2016.
Agency Contact: Victoria Simmons, Regulatory
Coordinator, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad Street,
Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-6043, FAX (804) 786-1680,
or email victoria.simmons@dmas.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia grants
to the Board of Medical Assistance Services the authority to administer the
Plan for Medical Assistance. Section 32.1-324 of the Code of Virginia
authorizes the Director of the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS)
to administer and amend the Plan for Medical Assistance when the board is not in
session, subject to such rules and regulations as may be prescribed by the
board. The Medicaid authority was established by § 1902(a) of the Social
Security Act (42 USC § 1396a), which provides the governing authority for
DMAS to administer the state's Medicaid system.
The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law
111-148) (PPACA), as amended by the Health Care and Education Recovery Act of
2010 (Public Law 111-152), contains § 2303 State Eligibility Option for Family
Planning Services, which established a new Medicaid eligibility group and the
option for states to begin providing family planning services and supplies to
individuals (both men and women) found to be eligible under this new group.
Coverage of both of these services was previously only available under a
demonstration project waiver for men and women not eligible for full Medicaid
benefits.
Item 301 UU of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly
provides the following: "The Department of Medical Assistance Services
shall seek federal authority to move the family planning eligibility group from
a demonstration waiver to the State Plan for Medical Assistance. The department
shall seek approval of coverage under this new state plan option for
individuals with income up to 200% of the federal poverty level (FPL).
For the purposes of this section, family planning services shall not cover
payment for abortion services and no funds shall be used to perform, assist,
encourage or make direct referrals for abortions. The department shall have
authority to implement necessary changes upon federal approval and prior to the
completion of any regulatory process undertaken in order to effect such
change."
Purpose: The Plan First program was initially covered by
the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) as a demonstration waiver
program and covered general family planning services for persons who could not
qualify for full Medicaid eligibility. The covered services included (i)
examinations for both men and women for sexually transmitted diseases, (ii)
birth control, (iii) cancer screenings for men and women, and (iv) family
planning education and counseling. Demonstration projects, regardless of their
subject, create significant administrative costs and reporting requirements for
Medicaid programs. In order to approve a demonstration grant for a state, CMS
requires significant data reporting, formal evaluations, and periodic grant
renewals. Converting this family planning service to the State Plan, as now
permitted by PPACA, relieves DMAS of these administrative costs and duties.
The purpose of this action is to move the waiver regulations
into the state plan regulations, which has no effect on the health, safety, or
welfare of citizens. The increase of the income eligibility level will permit
more individuals to receive services under this program. The advantage to the
individuals who qualify for this service is the coverage of family planning
services and examinations for sexually transmitted diseases.
There are no disadvantages to the public or the Commonwealth
associated with the proposed regulatory action.
Substance: The planned regulatory action makes three
types of changes: (i) substantive changes required by CMS as a condition of the
state plan amendment approval, (ii) substantive changes to the income level
approved by CMS, and (iii) nonsubstantive editorial changes. In addition to
moving this program out of demonstration waiver regulations and into state plan
regulations, this action also increases the income level for eligibility, authorizes
use of the DMAS Central Processing Unit or other contractor for determining
eligibility (should DMAS determine that this is the most practicable approach),
and clarifies that those individuals eligible for full-benefit coverage under
Medicaid or FAMIS are not eligible under this program. The proposed regulatory
action also authorizes coverage for additional (beyond initial) testing for
sexually transmitted infections (STI) and newer methods of cervical cancer
screening. The changes are designed to facilitate administration and update the
services provided. In addition, this regulatory action includes nonsubstantive
changes to selected language.
Current regulations treat individuals eligible for coverage
under the Medicaid family planning option as a demonstration waiver versus the
state plan option as approved by CMS. Under the demonstration waiver, the
Commonwealth was allowed to waive certain limits for eligibility, including
disallowing eligibility based on age, gender, or having had a sterilization
procedure or hysterectomy. The demonstration waiver also disallowed retroactive
eligibility. These limitations were required by CMS as a condition of waiver
approval. The current regulations also limit the income level for eligibility
to 133% FPL.
Current regulations limit eligibility determination to local
departments of social services and are unclear with regard to enrollment for
persons eligible for Medicaid or FAMIS under a full-benefits category. Current
regulations limit testing for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) to the
initial visit and restrict cervical cancer screening to the Pap test.
By meeting CMS requirements for continuation of the Family
Planning program as a state plan service, the proposed regulatory action brings
the regulations into compliance with the state plan amendment currently
approved by CMS. This action assures that the eligibility rules for the state
plan family planning option are consistent with those for full benefit Medicaid
program. Raising the income level for eligibility makes the program consistent
with the FAMIS MOMS program for pregnant women, and offers more men and women
access to family planning services. Updating the clinical services available
(STI testing and cervical cancer screening options) conforms to the present
standard of care.
The family planning program is a benefit to qualified
low-income families by providing them with the means for obtaining medical
family planning services to avoid unintended pregnancies and increase the
spacing between births to help promote healthier mothers and infants.
The primary advantage of the family planning program to the
Commonwealth is a cost savings to Medicaid for prenatal care, delivery, and
infant care by preventing unintended pregnancies. According to the Virginia
Department of Health's Pregnancy Risk Assessment Monitoring System (2010),
unintended pregnancy continues to occur at a high rate in Virginia, where 42%
of all pregnancies are unintended across the Commonwealth. Of these unintended
pregnancies, 31% were mistimed (women who reported they wanted to be pregnant
later) and 11% were unwanted (women who reported they did not want the
pregnancy then or in the future).
Family planning services do not cover abortion services or
referrals for abortions. This regulatory action would not affect individuals
younger than 19 years of age unless they are in the FAMIS income range but are
not eligible for FAMIS because of having other creditable health insurance. The
majority of individuals younger than 19 years of age would be eligible for full
Medicaid or FAMIS benefits.
The intent of this action is to align Virginia policy with that
afforded by federal law, and in doing so expand family planning options for
individuals who would not otherwise qualify for Medicaid or FAMIS coverage.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public is that more
low-income women and men will have access to family planning services. This
increased access will support these individuals' efforts to better plan for
pregnancy and will also allow greater access to testing for STI and screening
for cervical cancer.
The primary disadvantage to these individuals is that, by
definition, this is a limited benefit program. Some individuals may not
understand those limits as they apply for full Medicaid benefits or seek
services that are not encompassed by this family planning program, requiring
remedial education and redirection to more appropriate resources. A
disadvantage of this program for providers is that they also may not understand
this program's limits and, after failing to determine that their patient has
limited available benefits, provide a full range of services only to have their
claims denied.
There are no identified disadvantages to the Commonwealth.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The proposed
regulation makes permanent the provision of family planning services under the
new eligibility group authorized by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Services (CMS).
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. These regulations contain rules for
Medicaid family planning services. Family planning services are services
necessary to prevent or delay a pregnancy and do not include abortion services.
The services include education and counseling, physician office visits, annual
gynecological exams, sexually transmitted disease screens, Pap tests,
contraceptives, and sterilizations for family planning purposes. Prior to 2011,
coverage of these services had been provided in Virginia under a demonstration
project waiver which required a new demonstration and federal approval every
three years. In 2010, the federal Affordable Care Act established a new
Medicaid eligibility group and the option for states to begin providing family
planning services and supplies to individuals found to be eligible under this
new group. Consequently, Chapter 890 of the 2011 Acts of Assembly, Item 297
DDDDD required the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS) to seek
federal approval to provide family planning services under the new eligibility
group. As a result, DMAS obtained federal authority in 2011 and has been
providing these services under that authority since then.1 The proposed
changes have been implemented for some time and no significant economic impact
upon promulgation of the proposed changes is expected. However, a general
discussion is provided below to highlight the effects that have already likely
occurred and will likely continue to be realized in the future.
As a result of the new eligibility rules in 2011, the income
limit has increased from 133 percent of the federal poverty limit to 200
percent. The increase in the income level permitted more low-income women and men
to have access to family planning services. In support of the waiver renewal
application, DMAS estimated the cost effectiveness of family planning services
in 2011. The study shows that the primary advantage of this change is costs
savings to Medicaid for prenatal care, delivery, and infant care by preventing
unintended pregnancies.
The study estimated that an additional 1,246 recipients would
receive family planning services in fiscal year (FY) 2013. The cost of family
planning services was estimated to be $323.53 per recipient for FY2013 and
$403,123 in total to cover 1,246 additional recipients.2 On the
other hand, the cost of pregnancy care, delivery, and first year of life care
was estimated to be $19,629.88 per recipient for FY2013, making family planning
services very cost effective. For example, assuming family planning services
reduce the Medicaid population's pregnancy rate by 7.15 percent, approximately
89 unintended pregnancies in FY2013 could be assumed to have been averted. As a
result, assuming all unintended pregnancies would have ended in births,
approximately $1.7 million in FY2013 could be estimated to have been averted in
costs for prenatal care, delivery, and first year of life care.3 4
In reality, some of the unintended pregnancies would not end in
births. Thus, there is likely to be some financial savings to women who
unintentionally get pregnant and who would otherwise terminate their
pregnancies. Family planning services do not pay for abortion services unless
the life or health of the mother is endangered if the fetus is carried to term.
Thus, any abortion costs must be paid privately. Since the proposed change
likely reduced the number of terminated pregnancies among unintended
pregnancies, these women and/or their families probably realized some financial
savings in abortion costs that would have otherwise occurred.
In addition, the non-financial effects of family planning are
significant. The family planning services are expected to benefit the health
and welfare of these women in their childbearing years, to reduce maternal
mortality and morbidity, and to improve the health of children, by allowing
women to plan their pregnancies, by decreasing their risk of experiencing poor
birth outcomes, and by averting the unintended births.5, 6
Adolescent women, women with several children, and women with existing health
problems are particularly susceptible to health risks because their bodies may
not be mature enough to handle a pregnancy and experience obstetrical
complications, may not have gained sufficient strength following a previous
pregnancy, or may face complications due to other health conditions,
respectively. Closely spaced births (usually within 2 years) are more likely to
be premature and low birth-weight. By practicing family planning, women can
avoid high-risk births and reduce their chances of having a baby who will die
in infancy. Poor birth outcomes may also result in expensive long lasting
health care services for developmentally delayed children.
Some other additional benefits of expanding family planning
services may stem from the use of contraceptives. Condoms offer protection
against infection with HIV and STDs. Spermicides and diaphragm may help prevent
STDs. Hormonal contraceptive methods may provide protection against iron
deficiency, anemia, menstrual problems, and provide other similar benefits.
Screening and testing may help detect some potential life threatening
conditions such as cervical or breast cancer early on and improve recipient
women's health.
The proposed change is beneficial also in terms of lower
administrative costs. In order to approve a demonstration grant for a state,
CMS requires significant data reporting, formal evaluations, and periodic grant
renewals. Provision of services under the state plan eliminates these
administrative costs. However, likely savings in administrative costs were
probably offset to some extent by the increase in the caseloads.
Businesses and Entities Affected. The increase in the
eligibility income level was estimated to allow an additional 1,246 recipients
to receive Medicaid funded family planning services in FY2013. It is not known
how many physician practices provide services to individuals in the family
planning program.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed changes apply
statewide.
Projected Impact on Employment. The increase in population
receiving family planning services likely increased the demand for such
services and likely had a positive impact on employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. Increased
demand for family planning services likely increased provider revenues and had
positive impact on their asset values.
Real Estate Development Costs. No impact on real estate
development costs is expected.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The affected providers are generally
assumed to be small businesses. The proposed regulation does not impose costs
on them, but likely resulted in an increase in demand for their services.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. No adverse
impact on small businesses is expected.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. The proposed regulation does not adversely affect
non-small businesses.
Localities. The proposed regulation does not adversely affect
localities.
Other Entities. The proposed regulation does not adversely
affect other entities.
________________________________________
1 However since the waiver regulation has not moved into
the state plan regulations, similar language has been included in budget bills
after 2011. For example, see Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly, Item 301
UU.
2 This estimate is probably slightly lower than actual
cost for two reasons. First, transportation was not a covered service prior to
2011 which would add approximately $1.12 per member per month to the overall
cost. Second, testing for sexually transmitted diseases was limited to the
initial visit, and cervical cancer screening was limited to the Pap test both
of which would also add to the overall cost.
3 The literature strongly supports that every dollar
spent on family planning services produces $3.00 to $5.63 savings in Medicaid
expenditures for pregnancy and infant care due to averted pregnancies. For
example, see "Contraceptive Needs and Services, 2010," Guttmacher
Institute, July 2013 and Forrest and Samara, 1996, "Impact of Publicly
Funded Contraceptive Services on Unintended Pregnancies and Implications for
Medicaid Expenditures," Family Planning Perspectives, 28(5).
4 Exact amount of the Commonwealth's share of estimated
total savings depends on the federal match rate which is 90% for family
planning services and 50% for pregnancy and infant care services. For
simplicity, only total savings are stated.
5 Trussell, James, et al., 1995, "The Economic
Value of Contraception: A comparison of 15 Methods," American Journal of
Public Health, v. 85 No. 4, pp. 494-503.
6 Trussell, James et al., 1997, "Medical Care Costs
Savings from Adolescent Contraceptive Use," Family Planning Perspectives,
v. 29, No. 6.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
agency has reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of
Planning and Budget regarding the regulations concerning Plan First Family
Planning Services (Optional Group). The agency concurs with this analysis.
Summary:
Pursuant to Item 301 UU of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of
Assembly, the proposed amendments move the family planning program from
demonstration waiver regulations to state plan regulations. The proposed
amendments (i) increase the income level for eligibility for the program; (ii)
authorize use of the Department of Medical Assistance Services Central Processing
Unit or other contractor for determining eligibility, provided that DMAS
determines that this is the most practicable approach; (iii) clarify that
individuals eligible for full-benefit coverage under Medicaid or FAMIS are not
eligible under this program; and (iv) authorize coverage for additional
testing, beyond the initial testing, for sexually transmitted infections and
newer methods of cervical cancer screening.
12VAC30-30-20. Optional groups other than the medically needy.
The Title IV A agency determines eligibility for Title XIX
services.
1. Caretakers and pregnant women who meet the income and
resource requirements of AFDC but who do not receive cash assistance.
2. Individuals who would be eligible for AFDC, SSI or an
optional state supplement as specified in 42 CFR 435.230, if they were not in a
medical institution.
3. A group or groups of individuals who would be eligible for
Medicaid under the plan if they were in a NF or an ICF/MR, who but for the
provision of home and community-based services under a waiver granted under 42 CFR
Part 441, Subpart G would require institutionalization, and who will receive
home and community-based services under the waiver. The group or groups covered
are listed in the waiver request. This option is effective on the effective
date of the state's § 1915(c) waiver under which this group(s) group
is covered. In the event an existing § 1915(c) waiver is amended to cover
this group(s) group, this option is effective on the effective
date of the amendment.
4. Individuals who would be eligible for Medicaid under the
plan if they were in a medical institution, who are terminally ill, and who
receive hospice care in accordance with a voluntary election described in §
1905(o) of the Act.
5. The state does not cover all individuals who are not
described in § 1902(a)(10)(A)(i) of the Act, who meet the income and
resource requirements of the AFDC state plan and who are under the age of 21.
The state does cover reasonable classifications of these individuals as
follows:
a. Individuals for whom public agencies are assuming full or
partial financial responsibility and who are:
(1) In foster homes (and are under the age of 21).
(2) In private institutions (and are under the age of 21).
(3) In addition to the group under subdivisions 5 a (1) and
(2) of this section, individuals placed in foster homes or private institutions
by private nonprofit agencies (and are under the age of 21).
b. Individuals in adoptions subsidized in full or part by a
public agency (who are under the age of 21).
c. Individuals in NFs (who are under the age of 21). NF
services are provided under this plan.
d. In addition to the group under subdivision 5 c of this
section, individuals in ICFs/MR (who are under the age of 21).
6. A child for whom there is in effect a state adoption
assistance agreement (other than under Title IV-E of the Act), who, as
determined by the state adoption agency, cannot be placed for adoption without
medical assistance because the child has special care needs for medical or
rehabilitative care, and who before execution of the agreement:
a. Was eligible for Medicaid under the state's approved
Medicaid plan; or
b. Would have been eligible for Medicaid if the standards and
methodologies of the Title IV-E foster care program were applied rather than
the AFDC standards and methodologies.
The state covers individuals under the age of 21.
7. Section 1902(f) states and SSI criteria states without
agreements under §§ 1616 and 1634 of the Act.
The following groups of individuals who receive a state
supplementary payment under an approved optional state supplementary payment
program that meets the following conditions. The supplement is:
a. Based on need and paid in cash on a regular basis.
b. Equal to the difference between the individual's countable
income and the income standard used to determine eligibility for the
supplement.
c. Available to all individuals in each classification and
available on a statewide basis.
d. Paid to one or more of the following classifications of
individuals:
(1) Aged individuals in domiciliary facilities or other group
living arrangements as defined under SSI.
(2) Blind individuals in domiciliary facilities or other group
living arrangements as defined under SSI.
(3) Disabled individuals in domiciliary facilities or other
group living arrangements as defined under SSI.
(4) Individuals receiving a state administered optional state
supplement that meets the conditions specified in 42 CFR 435.230.
The supplement varies in income standard by political
subdivisions according to cost-of-living differences.
The standards for optional state supplementary payments are
listed in 12VAC30-40-250.
8. Individuals who are in institutions for at least 30
consecutive days and who are eligible under a special income level. Eligibility
begins on the first day of the 30-day period. These individuals meet the income
standards specified in 12VAC30-40-220.
The state covers all individuals as described above.
9. Individuals who are 65 years of age or older or who are
disabled as determined under § 1614(a)(3) of the Act, whose income does
not exceed the income level specified in 12VAC30-40-220 for a family of the
same size, and whose resources do not exceed the maximum amount allowed under
SSI.
10. Individuals required to enroll in cost-effective
employer-based group health plans remain eligible for a minimum enrollment
period of one month.
11. Women who have been screened for breast or cervical cancer
under the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Breast and Cervical Cancer
Early Detection Program established under Title XV of the Public Health Service
Act in accordance with § 1504 of the Act and need treatment for breast or
cervical cancer, including a pre-cancerous condition of the breast or cervix.
These women are not otherwise covered under creditable coverage, as defined in
§ 2701(c) of the Public Health Services Act, are not eligible for Medicaid
under any mandatory categorically needy eligibility group, and have not
attained age 65.
12. Individuals who may qualify for the Medicaid Buy-In
program under § 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XV) of the Social Security Act (Ticket
to Work Act) if they meet the requirements for the 80% eligibility group
described in 12VAC30-40-220, as well as the requirements described in
12VAC30-40-105 and 12VAC30-110-1500.
13. Individuals under the State Eligibility Option of P.L.
111-148 § 2303 who are not pregnant and whose income does not exceed the
state established income standard for pregnant women in the Virginia Medicaid
and CHIP State Plan and related waivers, which is 200% of the federal poverty
level, shall be eligible for the family planning program. Services are limited
to family planning services as described in 12VAC30-50-130 D.
12VAC30-50-130. Skilled nursing facility services, EPSDT,
school health services and family planning.
A. Skilled nursing facility services (other than services in
an institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older.
Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
performed within the scope of a license of the practitioner of the healing
arts.
B. Early and periodic screening and diagnosis of individuals
under 21 years of age, and treatment of conditions found.
1. Payment of medical assistance services shall be made on
behalf of individuals under 21 years of age, who are Medicaid eligible, for
medically necessary stays in acute care facilities, and the accompanying
attendant physician care, in excess of 21 days per admission when such services
are rendered for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of health conditions
identified through a physical examination.
2. Routine physicals and immunizations (except as provided
through EPSDT) are not covered except that well-child examinations in a private
physician's office are covered for foster children of the local social services
departments on specific referral from those departments.
3. Orthoptics services shall only be reimbursed if medically
necessary to correct a visual defect identified by an EPSDT examination or
evaluation. The department shall place appropriate utilization controls upon
this service.
4. Consistent with the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of
1989 § 6403, early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment services
means the following services: screening services, vision services, dental
services, hearing services, and such other necessary health care, diagnostic
services, treatment, and other measures described in Social Security Act §
1905(a) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and mental illnesses and
conditions discovered by the screening services and which are medically
necessary, whether or not such services are covered under the State Plan and
notwithstanding the limitations, applicable to recipients ages 21 and over,
provided for by the Act § 1905(a).
5. Community mental health services. These services in order
to be covered (i) shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses
made by LMHPs who are practicing within the scope of their licenses and (ii)
are reflected in provider records and on providers' claims for services by
recognized diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the requested
professional services.
a. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
this section shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly
indicates otherwise:
"Activities of daily living" means personal care
activities and includes bathing, dressing, transferring, toileting, feeding,
and eating.
"Adolescent or child" means the individual receiving
the services described in this section. For the purpose of the use of these
terms, adolescent means an individual 12-20 years of age; a child means an
individual from birth up to 12 years of age.
"Behavioral health services administrator" or
"BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
benefits program under contract with DMAS.
"Care coordination" means collaboration and sharing
of information among health care providers, who are involved with an
individual's health care, to improve the care.
"Certified prescreener" means an employee of the
local community services board or behavioral health authority, or its designee,
who is skilled in the assessment and treatment of mental illness and has
completed a certification program approved by the Department of Behavioral
Health and Developmental Services.
"Clinical experience" means providing direct
behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
in-home services, (ii) day treatment for children and adolescents, (iii)
community-based residential services for children and adolescents who are
younger than 21 years of age (Level A), or (iv) therapeutic behavioral services
(Level B). Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be as
established by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
and Developmental Services.
"DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
Services and its contractor or contractors.
"Human services field" means the same as the term is
defined by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
the same as the term is defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
"Licensed mental health professional" or "LMHP"
means a licensed physician, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed
professional counselor, licensed clinical social worker, licensed substance
abuse treatment practitioner, licensed marriage and family therapist, or
certified psychiatric clinical nurse specialist.
"LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the same
as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a "resident"
until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a specific site has been
preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Counseling. For purposes of
Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for services provided by such
residents, they shall use the title "Resident" in connection with the
applicable profession after their signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-resident in psychology" or "LMHP-RP"
means the same as an individual in a residency, as that term is defined in
18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An LMHP-resident in
psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the regulatory requirements
for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65 and shall not perform the
functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a "resident" until the
supervision for specific clinical duties at a specific site has been
preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Psychology. For purposes of
Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services provided by such residents,
they shall use the title "Resident in Psychology" after their
signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
"LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
"supervisee" as defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be
considered a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical
duties at a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Social Work. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title
"Supervisee in Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such
status.
"Progress notes" means individual-specific
documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
the notes. Individualized and member-specific progress notes are part of the
minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's status,
staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress, or lack of
progress, toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes shall also
include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the
service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered the
service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time
or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each progress
note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be documented
for each service that is billed.
"Psychoeducation" means (i) a specific form of
education aimed at helping individuals who have mental illness and their family
members or caregivers to access clear and concise information about mental
illness and (ii) a way of accessing and learning strategies to deal with mental
illness and its effects in order to design effective treatment plans and
strategies.
"Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving and increasing coping
skills.
"Qualified mental health professional-child" or
"QMHP-C" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
"QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20 and
consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-590.
"Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
"QPPMH" means the same as the term is defined in
12VAC35-105-20 and consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
"Service-specific provider intake" means the face-to-face
interaction in which the provider obtains information from the child or
adolescent, and parent or other family member or members, as appropriate, about
the child's or adolescent's mental health status. It includes documented
history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental health care problems
and issues and shall contain all of the following elements: (i) the presenting
issue/reason for referral, (ii) mental health history/hospitalizations, (iii)
previous interventions by providers and timeframes and response to treatment,
(iv) medical profile, (v) developmental history including history of abuse, if
appropriate, (vi) educational/vocational status, (vii) current living situation
and family history and relationships, (viii) legal status, (ix) drug and
alcohol profile, (x) resources and strengths, (xi) mental status exam and
profile, (xii) diagnosis, (xiii) professional summary and clinical formulation,
(xiv) recommended care and treatment goals, and (xv) the dated signature of the
LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
b. Intensive in-home services (IIH) to children and
adolescents under age 21 shall be time-limited interventions provided in the
individual's residence and when clinically necessary in community settings. All
interventions and the settings of the intervention shall be defined in the
Individual Service Plan. All IIH services shall be designed to specifically
improve family dynamics, provide modeling, and the clinically necessary
interventions that increase functional and therapeutic interpersonal relations
between family members in the home. IIH services are designed to promote
psychoeducational benefits in the home setting of an individual who is at risk
of being moved into an out-of-home placement or who is being transitioned to
home from an out-of-home placement due to a documented medical need of the
individual. These services provide crisis treatment; individual and family
counseling; communication skills (e.g., counseling to assist the individual and
his parents or guardians, as appropriate, to understand and practice
appropriate problem solving, anger management, and interpersonal interaction,
etc.); care coordination with other required services; and 24-hour emergency
response.
(1) These services shall be limited annually to 26 weeks.
Service authorization shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement prior to the
onset of services. Services rendered before the date of authorization shall not
be reimbursed.
(2) Service authorization shall be required for services to
continue beyond the initial 26 weeks.
(3) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are set out in this section.
(4) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or a QMHP-E.
c. Therapeutic day treatment (TDT) shall be provided two or
more hours per day in order to provide therapeutic interventions. Day treatment
programs, limited annually to 780 units, provide evaluation; medication
education and management; opportunities to learn and use daily living skills
and to enhance social and interpersonal skills (e.g., problem solving, anger
management, community responsibility, increased impulse control, and
appropriate peer relations, etc.); and individual, group and family counseling.
(1) Service authorization shall be required for Medicaid
reimbursement.
(2) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are set out in this section.
(3) These services may be rendered only by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or a QMHP-E.
d. Community-based services for children and adolescents under
21 years of age (Level A).
(1) Such services shall be a combination of therapeutic
services rendered in a residential setting. The residential services will
provide structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic
supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric treatment to ensure the
attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the individual
service plan (plan of care). Individuals qualifying for this service must
demonstrate medical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to
mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant functional
impairments in major life activities in the home, school, at work, or in the
community. The service must reasonably be expected to improve the child's
condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed.
The application of a national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in
use in the industry, such as McKesson InterQual® Criteria or an
equivalent standard authorized in advance by DMAS, shall be required for this
service.
(2) In addition to the residential services, the child must
receive, at least weekly, individual psychotherapy that is provided by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
(3) Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
other less intensive services may achieve stabilization.
(4) Authorization shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement.
Services that were rendered before the date of service authorization shall not
be reimbursed.
(5) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed. DMAS shall
reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no more
than 16 beds.
(6) These residential providers must be licensed by the
Department of Social Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of
Behavioral Health and Developmental Services under the Standards for Licensed
Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC40-151), Standards for Interim
Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (6VAC35-51), or Regulations for
Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
(7) Daily progress notes shall document a minimum of seven
psychoeducational activities per week. Psychoeducational programming must
include, but is not limited to, development or maintenance of daily living
skills, anger management, social skills, family living skills, communication
skills, stress management, and any care coordination activities.
(8) The facility/group home must coordinate services with
other providers. Such care coordination shall be documented in the individual's
medical record. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
(9) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-60-61.
(10) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
e. Therapeutic behavioral services (Level B).
(1) Such services must be therapeutic services rendered in a
residential setting that provides structure for daily activities,
psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric
treatment to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as
identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). Individuals
qualifying for this service must demonstrate medical necessity for the service
arising from a condition due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results
in significant functional impairments in major life activities in the home,
school, at work, or in the community. The service must reasonably be expected
to improve the child's condition or prevent regression so that the services
will no longer be needed. The application of a national standardized set of
medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson InterQual®
Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance by DMAS shall be
required for this service.
(2) Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
Services that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not
be reimbursed.
(3) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed. Facilities
that only provide independent living services are not reimbursed. DMAS shall
reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no more
than 16 beds.
(4) These residential providers must be licensed by the
Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) under the
Regulations for Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
(5) Daily progress notes shall document that a minimum of
seven psychoeducational activities per week occurs. Psychoeducational
programming must include, but is not limited to, development or maintenance of
daily living skills, anger management, social skills, family living skills,
communication skills, and stress management. This service may be provided in a
program setting or a community-based group home.
(6) The individual must receive, at least weekly, individual
psychotherapy and, at least weekly, group psychotherapy that is provided as
part of the program.
(7) Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
other less intensive services may achieve stabilization.
(8) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at the
onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services that are based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated
service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement.
Requirements for intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-60-61.
(9) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
(10) The facility/group home shall coordinate necessary
services with other providers. Documentation of this care coordination shall be
maintained by the facility/group home in the individual's record. The
documentation shall include who was contacted, when the contact occurred, and
what information was transmitted.
6. Inpatient psychiatric services shall be covered for
individuals younger than age 21 for medically necessary stays for the purpose
of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders identified
under EPSDT when such services are rendered by:
a. A psychiatric hospital or an inpatient psychiatric program
in a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
Organizations; or a psychiatric facility that is accredited by the Joint
Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission on
Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Accreditation of
Services for Families and Children or the Council on Quality and Leadership.
b. Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general acute
care hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be subject to
the requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and 12VAC30-60-25.
Inpatient psychiatric admissions to residential treatment facilities shall also
be subject to the requirements of Part XIV (12VAC30-130-850 et seq.) of Amount,
Duration and Scope of Selected Services.
c. Inpatient psychiatric services are reimbursable only when
the treatment program is fully in compliance with 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, as
contained in 42 CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 441.152 through 441.156. Each
admission must be preauthorized and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements
for clinical necessity.
7. Hearing aids shall be reimbursed for individuals younger
than 21 years of age according to medical necessity when provided by
practitioners licensed to engage in the practice of fitting or dealing in
hearing aids under the Code of Virginia.
C. School health services.
1. School health assistant services are repealed effective
July 1, 2006.
2. School divisions may provide routine well-child screening
services under the State Plan. Diagnostic and treatment services that are
otherwise covered under early and periodic screening, diagnosis and treatment
services, shall not be covered for school divisions. School divisions to
receive reimbursement for the screenings shall be enrolled with DMAS as clinic
providers.
a. Children enrolled in managed care organizations shall
receive screenings from those organizations. School divisions shall not receive
reimbursement for screenings from DMAS for these children.
b. School-based services are listed in a recipient's
individualized education program (IEP) and covered under one or more of the
service categories described in § 1905(a) of the Social Security Act. These
services are necessary to correct or ameliorate defects of physical or mental
illnesses or conditions.
3. Service providers shall be licensed under the applicable
state practice act or comparable licensing criteria by the Virginia Department
of Education, and shall meet applicable qualifications under 42 CFR Part
440. Identification of defects, illnesses or conditions and services necessary
to correct or ameliorate them shall be performed by practitioners qualified to
make those determinations within their licensed scope of practice, either as a
member of the IEP team or by a qualified practitioner outside the IEP team.
a. Service providers shall be employed by the school division
or under contract to the school division.
b. Supervision of services by providers recognized in subdivision
4 of this subsection shall occur as allowed under federal regulations and
consistent with Virginia law, regulations, and DMAS provider manuals.
c. The services described in subdivision 4 of this subsection
shall be delivered by school providers, but may also be available in the
community from other providers.
d. Services in this subsection are subject to utilization
control as provided under 42 CFR Parts 455 and 456.
e. The IEP shall determine whether or not the services
described in subdivision 4 of this subsection are medically necessary and that
the treatment prescribed is in accordance with standards of medical practice.
Medical necessity is defined as services ordered by IEP providers. The IEP
providers are qualified Medicaid providers to make the medical necessity
determination in accordance with their scope of practice. The services must be
described as to the amount, duration and scope.
4. Covered services include:
a. Physical therapy, occupational therapy and services for
individuals with speech, hearing, and language disorders, performed by, or
under the direction of, providers who meet the qualifications set forth at 42
CFR 440.110. This coverage includes audiology services.
b. Skilled nursing services are covered under 42 CFR
440.60. These services are to be rendered in accordance to the licensing
standards and criteria of the Virginia Board of Nursing. Nursing services are
to be provided by licensed registered nurses or licensed practical nurses but
may be delegated by licensed registered nurses in accordance with the
regulations of the Virginia Board of Nursing, especially the section on
delegation of nursing tasks and procedures. The licensed practical nurse is
under the supervision of a registered nurse.
(1) The coverage of skilled nursing services shall be of a
level of complexity and sophistication (based on assessment, planning,
implementation and evaluation) that is consistent with skilled nursing services
when performed by a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse.
These skilled nursing services shall include, but not necessarily be limited to
dressing changes, maintaining patent airways, medication
administration/monitoring and urinary catheterizations.
(2) Skilled nursing services shall be directly and specifically
related to an active, written plan of care developed by a registered nurse that
is based on a written order from a physician, physician assistant or nurse
practitioner for skilled nursing services. This order shall be recertified on
an annual basis.
c. Psychiatric and psychological services performed by
licensed practitioners within the scope of practice are defined under state law
or regulations and covered as physicians' services under 42 CFR 440.50 or
medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR 440.60. These outpatient
services include individual medical psychotherapy, group medical psychotherapy
coverage, and family medical psychotherapy. Psychological and
neuropsychological testing are allowed when done for purposes other than
educational diagnosis, school admission, evaluation of an individual with
intellectual disability prior to admission to a nursing facility, or any
placement issue. These services are covered in the nonschool settings also.
School providers who may render these services when licensed by the state
include psychiatrists, licensed clinical psychologists, school psychologists,
licensed clinical social workers, professional counselors, psychiatric clinical
nurse specialist, marriage and family therapists, and school social workers.
d. Personal care services are covered under 42 CFR
440.167 and performed by persons qualified under this subsection. The personal
care assistant is supervised by a DMAS recognized school-based health
professional who is acting within the scope of licensure. This practitioner
develops a written plan for meeting the needs of the child, which is
implemented by the assistant. The assistant must have qualifications comparable
to those for other personal care aides recognized by the Virginia Department of
Medical Assistance Services. The assistant performs services such as assisting
with toileting, ambulation, and eating. The assistant may serve as an aide on a
specially adapted school vehicle that enables transportation to or from the
school or school contracted provider on days when the student is receiving a
Medicaid-covered service under the IEP. Children requiring an aide during
transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the
IEP.
e. Medical evaluation services are covered as physicians'
services under 42 CFR 440.50 or as medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR
440.60. Persons performing these services shall be licensed physicians,
physician assistants, or nurse practitioners. These practitioners shall
identify the nature or extent of a child's medical or other health related
condition.
f. Transportation is covered as allowed under 42 CFR
431.53 and described at State Plan Attachment 3.1-D. Transportation shall be
rendered only by school division personnel or contractors. Transportation is
covered for a child who requires transportation on a specially adapted school
vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or school contracted
provider on days when the student is receiving a Medicaid-covered service under
the IEP. Transportation shall be listed in the child's IEP. Children requiring
an aide during transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this
stated in the IEP.
g. Assessments are covered as necessary to assess or reassess
the need for medical services in a child's IEP and shall be performed by any of
the above licensed practitioners within the scope of practice. Assessments and
reassessments not tied to medical needs of the child shall not be covered.
5. DMAS will ensure through quality management review that
duplication of services will be monitored. School divisions have a
responsibility to ensure that if a child is receiving additional therapy
outside of the school, that there will be coordination of services to avoid
duplication of service.
D. Family planning services and supplies for individuals of
child-bearing age.
1. Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
performed within the scope of the license of a practitioner of the healing
arts.
2. Family planning services shall be defined as those services
that delay or prevent pregnancy. Coverage of such services shall not include
services to treat infertility nor or services to promote
fertility. Family planning services shall not cover payment for abortion
services and no funds shall be used to perform, assist, encourage, or make
direct referrals for abortions.
3. Family planning services as established by
§ 1905(a)(4)(C) of the Social Security Act include annual family planning
exams; cervical cancer screening for women; sexually transmitted infection
(STI) testing; lab services for family planning and STI testing; family
planning education, counseling, and preconception health; sterilization
procedures; nonemergency transportation to a family planning service; and U.S.
Food and Drug Administration approved prescription and over-the-counter
contraceptives, subject to limits in 12VAC30-50-210.
Part I
Family Planning Waiver (Repealed)
12VAC30-135-10. Definitions. (Repealed.)
The following words and terms when used in this part shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Creditable health coverage" means
"creditable coverage" as defined under § 2701(c) of the Public Health
Service Act (42 USC § 300gg(c)) and includes coverage that meets the requirements
of § 2103 provided to a targeted low-income child under Title XXI of the Social
Security Act or under a waiver approved under § 2105(c)(2)(B) (relating to a
direct service waiver).
"Family planning" means those services necessary
to prevent or delay a pregnancy. It shall not include services to promote
pregnancy such as infertility treatments. Family planning does not include
counseling about, recommendations for or performance of abortions, or
hysterectomies or procedures performed for medical reasons such as removal of
intrauterine devices due to infections.
"FAMIS" means the Family Access to Medical
Insurance Security Plan described in 12VAC30-141.
"Over-the-counter" means drugs and
contraceptives that are available for purchase without requiring a physician's
prescription.
"Third party" means any individual entity or
program that is or may be liable to pay all or part of the expenditures for
medical assistance furnished under the State Plan for Medical Assistance.
12VAC30-135-20. Administration and eligibility
determination. (Repealed.)
A. The Department of Medical Assistance Services shall
administer the family planning demonstration waiver services program under the
authority of § 1115(a) of the Social Security Act and 42 USC § 1315.
B. Local departments of social services or a department
contractor shall be responsible for determining eligibility of and for
enrolling eligible individuals in the family planning waiver. Local departments
of social services or a department contractor shall conduct periodic reviews
and redeterminations of eligibility at least every 12 months while recipients
are enrolled in the family planning waiver.
12VAC30-135-30. Eligibility. (Repealed.)
A. To be eligible under the family planning waiver, an
individual must meet the eligibility conditions and requirements found in
12VAC30-40-10, have family income less than or equal to 133% of the federal
poverty level, not have creditable health coverage, and not be eligible for
enrollment in a Medicaid full benefit coverage group or FAMIS.
B. Individuals who have received a sterilization procedure
or hysterectomy are ineligible under the waiver.
C. Individuals enrolled in the family planning waiver will
not be retroactively eligible.
D. A recipient's enrollment in the family planning waiver
shall be terminated if the individual receives a sterilization procedure or
hysterectomy or is found to be ineligible as the result of a reported change or
annual redetermination. The recipient's enrollment in the family planning
waiver also shall be terminated if a reported change or annual redetermination
results in eligibility for Virginia Medicaid in a full benefit coverage group
or eligibility for FAMIS. A 10-day advance notice must be provided prior to
cancellation of coverage under the family planning waiver unless the individual
becomes eligible for a full benefit Medicaid covered group or FAMIS.
12VAC30-135-40. Covered services. (Repealed.)
A. Services provided under the family planning waiver are
limited to:
1. Family planning office visits including annual
gynecological or physical exams (one per 12 months), sexually transmitted
diseases (STD) testing, cervical cancer screening tests (limited to one every
six months);
2. Laboratory services for family planning and STD testing;
3. Family planning education and counseling;
4. Contraceptives approved by the Food and Drug
Administration, including diaphragms, contraceptive injectables, and
contraceptive implants;
5. Over-the-counter contraceptives; and
6. Sterilizations, not to include hysterectomies.
B. Services not covered under the family planning waiver
include, but are not limited to:
1. Performance of, counseling for, or recommendations of
abortions;
2. Infertility treatments;
3. Procedures performed for medical reasons;
4. Performance of a hysterectomy; and
5. Transportation to a family planning service.
12VAC30-135-50. Provider qualifications. (Repealed.)
Services provided under this waiver must be ordered or
prescribed and directed or performed within the scope of the licensed
practitioner. Any appropriately licensed Medicaid enrolled physician, nurse
practitioner, or medical clinic may provide services under this waiver.
12VAC30-135-60. Quality assurance. (Repealed.)
The Department of Medical Assistance Services shall
provide for continuing review and evaluation of the care and services paid by
Medicaid under this waiver. To ensure a thorough review, trained professionals
shall review cases either through desk audit or through on-site reviews of
medical records. Providers shall be required to refund payments made by
Medicaid if they are found to have billed Medicaid for services not covered
under this waiver, if records or documentation supporting claims are not
maintained, or if bills are submitted for medically unnecessary services.
12VAC30-135-70. Reimbursement. (Repealed.)
A. Providers will be reimbursed on a fee-for-service
basis.
B. All reasonable measures including those measures
specified under 42 USC § 1396 (a) (25) will be taken to ascertain the legal
liability of third parties to pay for authorized care and services provided to
eligible recipients.
C. A completed sterilization consent form, in accordance
with the requirements of 42 CFR Part 441, Subpart F, must be submitted with all
claims for payment for sterilization procedures.
12VAC30-135-80. Recipients' rights and right to appeal. (Repealed.)
Individuals found eligible for and enrolled in the family
planning waiver shall have freedom of choice of providers. Individuals will be
free from coercion or mental pressure and shall be free to choose their
preferred methods of family planning. The client appeals process at 12VAC30-110
shall be applicable to applicants for and recipients of family planning
services under this waiver.
12VAC30-135-90. Sunset provision. (Repealed.)
Consistent with federal requirements applicable to this §
1115 demonstration waiver, these regulations shall expire effective with the
termination of the federally approved waiver.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-2866; Filed June 3, 2016, 2:55 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration,
and Scope of Medical and Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-190).
12VAC30-141. Family Access to Medical Insurance Security
Plan (amending 12VAC30-141-820).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of Virginia;
42 USC § 1396 et seq.
Effective Date: July 27, 2016.
Agency Contact: Victoria Simmons, Regulatory
Coordinator, Department of Medical Assistance Services, Policy Division, 600
East Broad Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-6043,
FAX (804) 786-1680, TTY (800) 343-0634, or email
victoria.simmons@dmas.virginia.gov.
Summary:
Pursuant to Item 301 LLLL 2 of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts
of Assembly, the amendments add adult pregnant women to the individuals
eligible to receive full dental services, excluding orthodontia, through
Medicaid and FAMIS MOMS.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be obtained
from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar of
Regulations.
12VAC30-50-190. Dental services.
A. Dental services are limited to recipients under shall
be covered for individuals younger than 21 years of age in fulfillment of the
treatment requirements under the Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis, and
Treatment (EPSDT) Program and defined as routine diagnostic, preventive, or
restorative procedures necessary for oral health provided by or under the
direct supervision of a dentist in accordance with the State Dental Practice
Act.
1. The state agency will provide any medically necessary
dental service to individuals younger than 21 years of age.
B. 2. Certain dental services, as
described in the agency's Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children, copyright
2005) March 13, 2014), prepared by DMAS' dental benefits
administrator, require preauthorization or prepayment review by the state
agency or its designee.
3. Dental services for individuals younger than the age of
21 years that do not require preauthorization or prepayment review are initial,
periodic, and emergency examinations; required radiography necessary to develop
a treatment plan; patient education; dental prophylaxis; fluoride treatments;
routine amalgam and composite restorations; stainless steel crowns,
prefabricated steel post and temporary (polycarbonate crowns) and stainless
steel bands; crown recementation; pulpotomies; emergency endodontics for
temporary relief of pain; pulp capping; sedative fillings; therapeutic apical
closure; topical palliative treatment for dental pain; removal of foreign body;
simple extractions; root recovery; incision and drainage of abscess; surgical
exposure of the tooth to aid eruption; sequestrectomy for osteomyelitis; and
oral antral fistula closure.
C. B. Dental services determined by the
dental provider to be medically appropriate for an adult woman during the term
of her pregnancy and through the end of the month following the 60th day
postpartum shall be provided to a Medicaid-enrolled pregnant woman. The dental
services that shall be covered are (i) diagnostic x-rays and exams; (ii)
preventive cleanings; (iii) restorative fillings; (iv) endodontics (root
canals); (v) periodontics (gum-related treatments); (vi) prosthodontics, both
removable and fixed (crowns, bridges, partial plates, and dentures); (vii) oral
surgery (tooth extractions and other oral surgeries); and (viii) adjunctive
general services (all covered services that do not fall into specific
professional categories). These services require prepayment review by the state
agency or its designee.
C. The For the dental services covered for
Medicaid-enrolled adult pregnant women, the state agency may place
appropriate limits on a service based on medical necessity, for utilization
control, or both. Examples of service limitations are: examinations,
prophylaxis, fluoride treatment (once/six months); space maintenance
appliances; bitewing x-ray—two films (once/12 months); routine amalgam and
composite restorations (once/three years); dentures (once/five years);
extractions, orthodontics, tooth guidance appliances, permanent crowns
and bridges, endodontics, patient education and sealants (once).
D. Limited oral surgery procedures, as defined and covered
under Title XVIII (Medicare), are covered for all recipients, and require
preauthorization or prepayment review by the state agency or its designee as
described in the agency's Office Reference Manual located on the DMAS website
at: (http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/downloads/pdfs/dental-office_reference_manual_06-09-05.pdf)
http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/Content_atchs/dnt/VA_SFC_ORM_140313.pdf.
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-50)
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth
Edition DSM-IV-TR, copyright 2000, American Psychiatric Association
Length of Stay by Diagnosis and Operation, Southern Region,
1996, HCIA, Inc.
Guidelines for Perinatal Care, 4th Edition, August 1997,
American Academy of Pediatrics and the American College of Obstetricians and
Gynecologists
Virginia Supplemental Drug Rebate Agreement Contract and
Addenda
Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children), prepared by
DMAS' Dental Benefits Administrator, copyright 2005
(www.dmas.virginia.gov/downloads/pdfs/dental-office_reference_manual_06-09-05.pdf).
Office Reference Manual (Smiles for Children), prepared by
DMAS' Dental Benefits Administrator, copyright 2010, dated March 13, 2014 (http://www.dmas.virginia.gov/Content_atchs/dnt/VA_SFC_ORM_140313.pdf)
Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
Substance-Related Disorders ASAM PPC-2R, Second Edition, copyright 2001,
American Society of Addiction Medicine
Virginia Medicaid Durable Medical Equipment and
Supplies Provider Manual, Appendix B (rev. 1/11), Department of Medical
Assistance Services
Human Services and Related Fields Approved
Degrees/Experience, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services
(rev. 5/13)
12VAC30-141-820. Benefit packages.
Pregnant women covered through FAMIS MOMS may receive the
same medical and dental services and are subject to the same limitations
on services as pregnant women (see 12VAC30-50-190) covered by the
Medicaid program as defined in 12VAC30-10-140 and 12VAC30-50-10.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4215; Filed June 3, 2016, 3:01 p.m.
TITLE 14. INSURANCE
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
State Corporation Commission is claiming an exemption from the Administrative
Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4002 A 2 of the Code of Virginia,
which exempts courts, any agency of the Supreme Court, and any agency that by
the Constitution is expressly granted any of the powers of a court of record.
Title of Regulation: 14VAC5-395. Rules Governing
Settlement Agents (amending 14VAC5-395-10, 14VAC5-395-20,
14VAC5-395-30 through 14VAC5-395-80; adding 14VAC5-395-75, 14VAC5-395-100;
repealing 14VAC5-395-25).
Statutory Authority: §§ 12.1-13 and 55-525.28 of the
Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: July 1, 2016.
Agency Contact: Chuck F. Myers, Supervisor RESA
Investigations Unit, Bureau of Insurance, State Corporation Commission, P.O.
Box 1157, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9619, FAX (804) 371-5661, or
email chuck.myers@scc.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) define various terms, including
"'agent' or 'insurance agent,'" "business entity,"
"designated licensed producer," "employee," "escrow,
closing, or settlement services," and "settlement agent"; (ii)
add reporting, registration, and escheatment requirements for settlement
agents; (iii) address the use of title insurance agents who are independent
contractors; and (iv) make various other technical and clarifying amendments.
Changes in the regulations from the initial proposal include exempting title insurance
companies from many registration, insurance and bonding, audit, and reporting
requirements; narrowing the reporting requirements from allegations to final
dispositions; and clarifying that settlement agents that utilize a title
insurance agent who is an independent contractor will be held liable for any
violations of Chapter 27.3 (§ 55-525.16 et seq.) of Title 55 of the Code
of Virginia or the Rules Governing Settlement Agents (14VAC5-395) committed by
the independent contractor.
AT RICHMOND, JUNE 7, 2016
COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA, ex rel.
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
CASE NO. INS-2015-00170
Ex Parte: In re: Rules Governing Settlement Agents
ORDER ADOPTING REGULATIONS
On November 9, 2015, the State Corporation Commission
("Commission") entered an Order to Take Notice of a proposal by the
Bureau of Insurance ("Bureau") to amend the Commission's regulations
governing settlement agents, which are set forth in Chapter 395 of
Title 14 of the Virginia Administrative Code, 14 VAC 5-395-10 et seq.1
The Order to Take Notice and proposed regulations were published in the
Virginia Register of Regulations on November 30, 2015, posted on the
Commission's website, and sent to all licensed title insurance agents,
agencies, and companies who are registered settlement agents, and other
interested parties. Registrants and other interested parties were
afforded the opportunity to file written comments or request a hearing on or
before February 16, 2016.
Comments addressing nearly all aspects of the proposed
regulations were filed by Virginia's largest title insurance trade association,
the Virginia Land Title Association, as well as three title insurance
companies, ten title insurance agencies or agents, four attorneys, and one
consultant. Comments were also submitted by the Deputy Secretary of the
Commonwealth and 176 Notaries Public.
The Bureau's proposed amendments added several definitions to
the regulations, as well as numerous consumer protection provisions relating
to, among other things, insurance and bonding requirements, escheatment of
funds, audits, reporting requirements, and the use of independent contractors.
The addition of the definition of "settlement agent" prompted the
Deputy Secretary of the Commonwealth and Notaries Public to file comments expressing
concerns that the proposed regulations would require a Notary Public who
conducts settlement conferences without handling funds to become licensed and
registered. General concerns were raised, as well as requests for
clarification, with respect to other of the proposed amendments. The Commission
did not receive any requests for a hearing.
The Bureau considered the comments filed and responded to
them in its Statements of Position, which the Bureau filed with the Clerk of
the Commission on April 29, 2016. The Bureau made changes to several of the
definitions and consumer protection provisions in response to the comments. The
Bureau also clarified that a Notary Public acting on behalf of a settlement
agent may obtain signatures on closing documents without being licensed or
registered provided that the Notary Public does not receive or handle money,
and/or does not sell, solicit, or negotiate a contract of title insurance. The
Bureau recommended that the Commission adopt the proposed regulations as
modified.
NOW THE COMMISSION, having considered the proposed
regulations, the comments filed, the Bureau's Statements of Position, the
record herein, and applicable law, concludes that the proposed regulations
should be modified to incorporate certain suggestions that were made by
commenters and the Bureau. The Commission further concludes that the proposed
regulations, as modified, should be adopted with an effective date of July 1,
2016.
Accordingly, IT IS ORDERED THAT:
(1) The proposed regulations, as modified herein and
attached hereto, are adopted effective July 1, 2016.
(2) This Order and the attached regulations shall be
posted on the Commission's website at: http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.
(3) The Commission's Division of Information Resources
shall provide a copy of this Order, including a copy of the attached
regulations, to the Virginia Registrar of Regulations for publication in the
Virginia Register of Regulations.
(4) This case is dismissed, and the papers filed herein shall
be placed in the Commission's file for ended causes.
AN ATTESTED COPY hereof, together with a copy of the attached
regulations, shall be sent by the Clerk of the Commission to the Commission's
Office of General Counsel and the Commissioner of Insurance, who shall
forthwith send by e-mail or U.S. mail a copy of this Order, together with a
copy of the attached regulations, to all licensed and registered title
insurance agents, title insurance agencies and title insurance companies
providing escrow, closing or settlement services involving real property
located in Virginia, and such other interested parties as she may designate.
___________________________________
1 The amendments to the regulations were proposed in
response to the legislative changes to §§ 38.2-1820, 55-525.16, 55-525.24,
55-525.25, and 55-525.26 of the Code of Virginia that will be effective
July 1, 2016; to clarify the scope of the regulations; and to enhance
consumer protections.
14VAC5-395-10. Purpose Applicability.
A. The purpose of this This chapter is to
implement implements Chapter 27.3 (§ 55-525.16 et seq.) of Title 55
of the Code of Virginia B. This chapter and applies to all title
insurance agents, title insurance agencies, and title insurance
companies providing escrow, closing, or settlement services involving
the purchase of or lending on the security of any real estate
containing not more than four residential dwelling units property in
the Commonwealth of Virginia.
C. The Bureau of Insurance shall issue the necessary forms
to carry out the provisions of Chapter 27.3 (§ 55-525.16 et seq.) of Title 55
of the Code of Virginia and this chapter.
14VAC5-395-20. Definitions.
Unless otherwise defined herein, all The following
words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the meaning
as set forth in Chapter 27.3 (§ 55-525.16 et seq.) of Title 55 of the Code of
Virginia following meanings unless the context clearly indicates
otherwise:
"Agent" or "insurance agent" shall
have the same meaning as set forth in § 38.2-1800 of the Code of Virginia means
an individual or business entity that sells, solicits, or negotiates contracts
of [ title ] insurance [ or annuity ]
in the Commonwealth.
"Bureau" means the State Corporation Commission
Bureau of Insurance.
"Business entity" means a partnership, limited partnership,
limited liability company, corporation, or other legal entity other than a sole
proprietorship [ , professional corporation, or professional
limited liability company ].
[ "Chapter 27.3" means Chapter 27.3
(§ 55-525.16 et seq.) of Title 55 of the Code of Virginia. ]
"Designated licensed producer" means an
individual who (i) possesses a valid [ Virginia title ]
license to sell, solicit, or negotiate contracts of [ title ]
insurance [ or annuity ] in the Commonwealth;
(ii) is appointed; (iii) is an [ officer, director, or ] employee
of the business entity; and (iv) is responsible for the business [ entity
entity's ] compliance with the insurance laws, rules, and
regulations of this Commonwealth.
"Employee" means an individual (i) whose manner
and means of performance of work are subject to the right of control of, or are
controlled by, a [ business entity person ] and
(ii) whose compensation for federal income tax purposes is reported, or
required to be reported, on a W-2 form issued by the controlling [ business
entity person ].
"Escrow, closing, or settlement services" means
the administrative and clerical services required to carry out the terms of
contracts affecting real estate. These services include (i) placing orders
for title insurance; (ii) receiving and issuing receipts for money received
from the parties; (iii) ordering loan checks and payoffs; (iv) ordering surveys
and inspections; (v) preparing settlement statements or Closing Disclosure
forms; (vi) determining that all closing documents conform to the parties'
contract requirements; (vii) setting the closing appointment; (viii) following
up with the parties to ensure that the transaction progresses to closing; (ix)
ascertaining that the lenders' instructions have been satisfied; (x) conducting
a closing conference at which the documents are executed; (xi) receiving and
disbursing funds; (xii) completing form documents and instruments selected by
and in accordance with instructions of the parties to the transaction; (xiii)
handling or arranging for the recording of documents; (xiv) sending recorded
documents to the lender; (xv) sending the recorded deed and the title policy to
the buyer; and (xvi) reporting federal income tax information for the real
estate sale to the Internal Revenue Service.
"Lay real estate settlement agent" means a person
who (i) is not licensed as an attorney under Chapter 39 (§ 54.1-3900 et seq.)
of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, (ii) is not a party to the real estate
transaction, (iii) provides escrow, closing or settlement services in
connection with a transaction related to any real estate in this Commonwealth,
and (iv) is listed as the settlement agent on the settlement statement or
Closing Disclosure for such the transaction.
"Settlement agent" shall have the same meaning
as set forth in § 55-525.16 of the Code of Virginia means [ any
title insurance agent, title insurance agency, title insurance company, or
a ] person, other than a party to the real estate transaction, who
provides escrow, closing, or settlement services in connection with a
transaction related to real estate in the Commonwealth and who is listed as the
settlement agent on the settlement statement or Closing Disclosure for the
transaction. Any person, other than a party to the transaction, who conducts
the settlement conference and receives or handles money shall be deemed a
"settlement agent" subject to the applicable requirements of Chapter
27.3 [ (§ 55-525.16 et seq.) of the Code of Virginia ]
and this chapter.
"Title insurance agency" means a business entity
licensed in this Commonwealth as a title insurance agent.
"Title insurance agent" shall have the same
meaning as set forth in § 38.2-1800 of the Code of Virginia.
"Title insurance agency" or "title
insurance agent" means any individual or business entity licensed in the
Commonwealth, pursuant to Chapter 18 (§ 38.2-1800 et seq.) of Title 38.2 of the
Code of Virginia, as a title insurance agent and appointed by a title insurance
company licensed in the Commonwealth who shall perform all of the following
services (for which liability arises) relevant to the issuance of title
insurance policies, subject to the underwriting directives and guidelines of
the agent's title insurance company. These services shall include (i) the
evaluation of the title search to determine the insurability of the title; (ii)
a determination of whether or not underwriting objections have been cleared;
(iii) the actual issuance of a title commitment or binder and endorsements; and
(iv) the actual issuance of the policy or policies and endorsements on behalf
of the title insurance company. A title insurance agent holding funds in escrow
shall promptly deposit the funds in a trust account in a financial institution
authorized to do business in this Commonwealth. This trust account shall be
separate from all other accounts held by the agent.
"Title insurance company" means any company
licensed to transact, or transacting, title insurance in this Commonwealth.
14VAC5-395-25. Lay real estate settlement agents. (Repealed.)
Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the
contrary, and pursuant to § 55-525.18 of the Code of Virginia, a lay real
estate settlement agent shall be required to comply with the provisions of this
chapter, except as specifically set forth in 14VAC5-395-60.
14VAC5-395-30. Registration.
A. Every title insurance agent, title insurance
agency and title insurance company that acts as a settlement agent shall be
required to be registered register with the bureau in accordance
with the provisions of § 55-525.30 of the Code of Virginia.
B. At the time of application for registration, a
settlement agent [ other than a title insurance company ] shall
provide to the bureau (i) its certificate of authorization or charter of a
domestic limited liability company or corporation, or certificate of
registration or certificate of authority of a foreign limited liability company
or corporation, as applicable; (ii) an original surety bond; and (iii)
[ a the name of the ] designated licensed
producer.
C. Within 30 days of registration a settlement agent shall
furnish to the bureau:
1. Legal name;
2. Any fictitious [ or assumed ] names;
3. Principal place of business address;
4. Addresses of all other business locations;
5. Telephone numbers;
6. Escrow account numbers and financial institution
addresses;
7. Employee and independent contractor list;
8. Website or websites;
9. Affiliated entities; and
10. Such other information as the bureau may require.
14VAC5-395-40. Insurance and bonding requirements.
A. At the time of registration, every title insurance
agent and title insurance agency acting as a settlement agent [ other
than a title insurance company ] shall file a certification on a form
prescribed by the bureau, that the settlement agent has, and thereafter shall
keep in force for as long as they are acting as a settlement agent, the
following:
1. An errors and omissions insurance policy providing limits
of at least $250,000 per occurrence or per claim and issued by an insurer
authorized to do business in the Commonwealth of Virginia. A deductible is
permitted but shall not hinder or delay the payment of a claim.
2. A blanket fidelity bond or employee dishonesty insurance
policy covering persons employed by the settlement agent providing
limits of at least $100,000 per occurrence or per claim and issued by an
insurer authorized to do business in the Commonwealth of Virginia. Settlement
agents that have no employees except the owners, partners, shareholders, or
members may request apply for a waiver of this requirement on
their certification form.
B. Every title insurance agent and title insurance agency
that acts as a settlement agent [ in the Commonwealth of Virginia
other than a title insurance company ] shall file an original
surety bond in an amount not less than $200,000 on a form prescribed by the
bureau at the time of application for registration and, if such bond is
canceled, at the time a replacement bond is issued.
14VAC5-395-50. Audits.
A. Every title insurance agent and title insurance agency
that acts as a settlement agent [ in the Commonwealth of Virginia
other than a title insurance company ] shall, at its expense, have
an audit of its escrow accounts conducted by an independent certified public
accountant at least once each consecutive 12-month period. The audit month
shall be prescribed by the bureau. Such audit shall conform with the
standards established by the American Institute of Certified Public
Accountants, Statement on Auditing AICPA Professional Standards, Volume
1, as of June 1, 2015, Special Reports Considerations - Audits of
Single Financial Statements and Specific Elements, Accounts, or Items of a
Financial Statement, and shall be filed by the settlement agent with the
bureau no later than 60 days after the date on which the audit is completed. A
title insurance company shall be subject to the requirements of this subsection
unless such company's financial statements are audited annually by an
independent certified public accountant.
B. Every title insurance agent or title insurance agency
acting as a settlement agent [ other than a title insurance company
] shall file a copy of its audit report with each title insurance company it
represents.
C. In lieu of an audit conducted by a certified public
accountant, a title insurance agent or title insurance agency acting as
a settlement agent [ other than a title insurance company ] shall allow
each title insurance company for which it has an appointment to conduct an
analysis of its escrow accounts at least once each consecutive 12-month period.
The form of such the analysis and the analysis month shall
be prescribed by the bureau. The title insurance company shall submit a copy of
its analysis to the bureau no later than 60 days after the date on which the
analysis is completed. With the consent of the title insurance agent or agency,
a title insurance company may share the results of its analysis with other
title insurance companies that will accept the same in lieu of conducting a
separate analysis.
D. Every settlement agent shall [ (i) ]
make a good faith effort to disburse funds in its possession and return the
funds to the rightful owner [ ; (ii), and ] escheat
[ unclaimed funds yearly annually ] to the
Virginia Department of the Treasury [ ; and (iii) comply with
The Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act (§ 55-210.1 et seq.) of Title
55 of the Code of Virginia those funds for which the owner is
unlocatable ].
E. A settlement agent [ other than a title
insurance company ] shall complete and file a close-out audit with
the bureau in conformance with this chapter and the bureau's instructions
within 180 days from the date the settlement agent ceases conducting
settlements.
14VAC5-395-60. Separate fiduciary trust account.
A. Every title insurance agent, title insurance agency
and title insurance company that acts as a settlement agent in the
Commonwealth of Virginia shall maintain a separate fiduciary trust account
for the purpose of handling funds received in connection with escrow, closing,
or settlement services involving real estate located only in this Commonwealth.
No other funds may be included in this escrow account except funds deposited to
guarantee the adequacy of the account. Such trust account shall be with a
financial institution authorized to do business in the Commonwealth of
Virginia.
B. If the agent, agency, or company acting as a lay
real estate settlement agent provides escrow, closing, or settlement
services in transactions involving multiple parcels or tracts of real estate
and any one of those tracts or parcels is located wholly or partially outside
of this Commonwealth, that the settlement agent, agency, or
company shall maintain another separate fiduciary trust account for the
purpose of handling funds received in connection with such transactions.
C. A settlement agent may utilize a general escrow account
for the purpose of receiving funds in connection with an escrow, closing, or
settlement involving real estate located in the Commonwealth, provided that the
settlement agent (i) handles the funds in a fiduciary capacity and (ii)
deposits the funds in a separate fiduciary trust account in compliance with
subsection A of this section no later than the close of the second business day
after receipt of the funds.
14VAC5-395-70. Access to records Reporting
requirements.
A. Every title insurance agent, title insurance
agency and title insurance company that acts as a settlement agent in
the Commonwealth of Virginia shall make all escrow, closing, or settlement
records available promptly upon request for examination by the bureau without
notice during normal business hours.
B. A settlement agent shall maintain documentation that
supports all entries on the settlement statement or Closing Disclosure.
C. A settlement agent shall promptly respond to a bureau request
for books, records, documentation, or other information in connection with the
bureau's investigation, enforcement, or examination of the settlement agent's
compliance with applicable laws and regulations. If no time period is specified
by the bureau, a written response as well as any requested books, records,
documentation, or information shall be delivered by the settlement agent to the
bureau not later than 30 days from the date of such request.
D. Within 30 days following the occurrence of any of the
following events, a settlement agent [ other than a title insurance
company ] shall report to the bureau if:
1. Any bankruptcy, reorganization, or receivership
proceedings are filed by or against the settlement agent.
2. Any [ local, state, or federal ]
governmental authority [ institutes revocation, suspension,
or other formal administrative, enters a final disposition in a ]
regulatory, [ administrative, ] or enforcement
[ proceedings action ] against the settlement
agent.
3. Any [ local, state, or federal ]
governmental authority [ (i) ] revokes or
suspends the settlement agent's registration, license, or other license for a
similar business [ ; (ii) takes formal administrative,
regulatory, or enforcement action against the settlement agent relating to its
business; or (iii) takes any other action against the settlement agent relating
to its business where the total amount of restitution or other payment from the
settlement agent exceeds $2,500 ].
4. Based on allegations by any [ local, state,
or federal ] governmental authority that the settlement agent
violated any law or regulation applicable to the conduct of its licensed
business, the settlement agent enters into, or otherwise agrees to the entry
of, a settlement or consent order, decree, or agreement with or by such
governmental authority.
5. The settlement agent surrenders its license in another
state [ in lieu of threatened or pending license revocation;
license suspension; or other administrative, regulatory, or enforcement action ].
6. The settlement agent is denied a license in another
state.
7. The settlement agent or any of its members, partners,
directors, officers, principals, employees, or independent contractors is
[ indicted or ] convicted of a felony.
8. Any funds held by the settlement agent are (i) seized by
or on behalf of any court or governmental instrumentality or (ii) forfeited to
or on behalf of any court or governmental instrumentality. [ The
term "forfeited" shall not include the escheatment of funds in
accordance with The Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property Act
(§ 55-210.1 et seq. of Title 55 of the Code of Virginia) or the
interpleading of funds to a court of competent jurisdiction. ]
E. A settlement agent shall immediately notify the bureau
following the loss of (i) a designated licensed producer, (ii) required
insurance coverage, or (iii) required bond coverage.
F. A settlement agent or former settlement agent
[ other than a title insurance company ] shall provide the
following information to the bureau within 10 days after such person's
[ title insurance ] license is surrendered, terminated,
suspended, or revoked or has lapsed by operation of law, or the licensed and
registered business is otherwise closed: (i) the names, addresses, telephone
numbers, fax numbers, and email addresses of a designated contact person; (ii)
the location of the settlement agent's or former settlement agent's records;
and (iii) any additional information that the bureau may reasonably require. A
settlement agent or former settlement agent [ other than a title
insurance company ] shall maintain current information with the
bureau until all escrow funds are disbursed and all title policies are issued.
G. Sixty days prior to ceasing business, a settlement
agent shall provide notice to the bureau of its intent to cease conducting
settlements and the anticipated date of business termination.
H. The reports required by this section shall be in the
format and contain such additional information as the bureau may reasonably
require. The bureau may also require additional reports that it deems
necessary.
14VAC5-395-75. Operating requirements.
A settlement agent shall comply with the following
requirements:
1. A settlement agent shall continuously maintain the
requirements and standards for licensure and registration.
2. A settlement agent shall reconcile its escrow accounts
monthly.
3. A settlement agent shall not provide any information to
the bureau or a consumer that is false, misleading, or deceptive.
4. A settlement agent shall not charge duplicative or
[ inflated padded ] fees for escrow, closing,
or settlement services.
5. A settlement agent shall not engage in any activity that
directly or indirectly results in an evasion of the provisions of Chapter 27.3
[ (§ 55-525.16 et seq.) of the Code of Virginia ] or
this chapter.
6. Any person, other than a party to the transaction, who
conducts the settlement conference and receives or handles money, including
possessing wire transfer authority, shall be [ properly licensed
and shall be ] deemed a "settlement agent" subject to
the applicable requirements of Chapter 27.3 and this chapter.
7. A designated licensed producer shall be appointed by the
same title insurance company as its employer settlement agent.
8. A settlement agent [ may shall ]
not use or accept the services of a title insurance agent [ who
is an ] independent contractor unless the title insurance agent
[ (i) holds a title insurance license, (ii) is appointed, (iii) is
registered, and (iv) maintains the insurance or bond coverages is
licensed and appointed. A settlement agent that permits an independent
contractor to conduct one or more settlement conferences on behalf of the
settlement agent shall ensure that the independent contractor is properly
insured and bonded as ] required by Chapter 27.3 and this chapter.
9. A settlement agent that uses the services of a title
insurance agent [ who is an ] independent contractor
shall be [ (i) considered ] the legal
principal of the [ title insurance agent ] independent
contractor and [ (ii) shall be ] liable
for [ all actions of the title insurance agent any
violations of Chapter 27.3 or this chapter committed by the ] independent
contractor, including unintentional conduct [ , that occurs
during the period services are utilized, within the scope of
engagement ].
10. A former settlement agent shall remain subject to the
provisions of Chapter 27.3 and this chapter in connection with all settlements
that the settlement agent performed while licensed and registered,
notwithstanding the occurrence of any of the following events:
a. The settlement agent's license is surrendered,
terminated, suspended, or revoked or has lapsed by operation of law; or
b. The settlement agent ceases conducting settlements.
11. If a settlement agent or former settlement agent
disposes of records containing a consumer's personal financial information or
copies of a consumer's identification documents, such records and copies shall
be disposed of in a secure manner.
14VAC5-395-80. Violations Enforcement.
Any violation of Failure to comply with any
provision of Chapter 27.3 [ (§ 55-525.16 et seq. of the Code of
Virginia) ] or this chapter shall be punished as
provided for in Chapter 27.3 (§ 55-525.16 et seq.) of Title 55 of the Code of
Virginia may result in penalties, license revocation or suspension, the
entry of a cease and desist order, restitution, or other enforcement action.
14VAC5-395-100. Commission authority.
The commission may, at its discretion, waive or grant
exceptions to any provision of this chapter for good cause shown.
NOTICE: The following
forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms
are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be
viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly
Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (14VAC5-395)
Settlement
Agent Official Registration Form for a Title Agent (eff. 3/2012)
Settlement
Agent Official Registration Form for Licensed Title Insurance Company or Agency
(eff. 3/2012)
Title
Settlement Agency/Agency Financial Responsibility Certification (undated, filed
11/2015)
Waiver
of Blanket Fidelity Bond or Employee Dishonesty Insurance Policy for Title
Insurance Settlement Agents (undated, filed 11/2015)
Bond
for Title Insurance Settlement Agent (undated, filed 11/2015)
Standard
Report of Escrow Accounts Maintained by Title Insurance Agents (eff. 10/2010)
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (14VAC5-395)
Statement on Auditing Standards, Special Reports, July 1,
1989, American Institute of Certified Public Accountants.
AICPA Professional Standards, Volume 1, as of June 1,
2015, American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, New York, New York
10036-8775, http://www.aicpa.org
AICPA Professional Standards, Volume 2, as of June 1,
2015, American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, New York, New York
10036-8775, http://www.aicpa.org
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4541; Filed June 7, 2016, 4:12 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF AUDIOLOGY AND SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC30-20. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology (amending 18VAC30-20-10; adding
18VAC30-20-241).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Effective Date: July 27, 2016.
Agency Contact: Leslie L. Knachel, Executive Director,
Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite
300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4630, FAX (804) 527-4413, or
email leslie.knachel@dhp.virginia.gov.
Summary:
Pursuant to Chapter 327 of the 2014 Acts of Assembly, the
amendments provide a framework for safe practice of limited cerumen management
by an audiologist including (i) a definition of "limited cerumen
management," (ii) the education and specific training necessary to perform
limited cerumen management on patients, (iii) the contraindications for
performance by an audiologist of limited cerumen management on patients, and
(iv) the conditions that require referral to a medical doctor.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
of Regulations.
Part I
General Provisions
18VAC30-20-10. Definitions.
A. The words and terms "audiologist,"
"board," "practice of audiology," "practice of
speech-language pathology," "speech-language disorders," and
"speech-language pathologist" when used in this chapter shall have
the meanings ascribed to them in § 54.1-2600 of the Code of Virginia.
B. The following words when used in this chapter shall have
the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Contact hour" means 60 minutes of time spent in
continuing learning activities.
"Limited cerumen management" means the
identification and removal of cerumen from the cartilaginous outer one-third
portion of the external auditory canal in accordance with minimum standards and
procedures set forth in this chapter.
"School speech-language pathologist" means a person
licensed pursuant to § 54.1-2603 of the Code of Virginia to provide
speech-language pathology services solely in public school divisions.
"Supervision" means that the audiologist or
speech-language pathologist is responsible for the entire service being rendered
or activity being performed, is available for consultation, and is providing
regular monitoring and documentation of clinical activities and competencies of
the person being supervised.
"Type 1" means continuing learning activities that
must be offered by an accredited sponsor or organization as specified in
18VAC30-20-300.
"Type 2" means continuing learning activities that
may or may not be approved by an accredited sponsor or organization but shall
be activities considered by the learner to be beneficial to practice or to
continuing learning. In Type 2 activities, licensees document their own
participation on the Continued Competency Activity and Assessment Form and are
considered self-learning activities.
18VAC30-20-241. Limited cerumen management.
A. In order for an audiologist to perform limited cerumen
management, he shall:
1. Be a graduate of a doctoral program in audiology that is
accredited by the Council on Academic Accreditation of the American
Speech-Language-Hearing Association or other accrediting body recognized by the
board and that included didactic education and supervised clinical experience
in cerumen management as specified in subsection B of this section; or
2. Complete a course or workshop in cerumen management that
provides training as specified in subsection B of this section and that is
approved by the American Speech-Language Hearing Association or the American
Academy of Audiology.
B. An audiologist shall maintain documentation evidencing
satisfactory completion of training in cerumen management to include the
following:
1. Recognizing the presence of preexisting
contraindications that necessitate referral to a physician;
2. Recognizing patient distress and appropriate action to
take if complications are encountered;
3. Use of infection control precautions;
4. Procedures for removal of cerumen, including cerumen
loop, gentle water irrigation, suction, and the use of material for softening;
5. Observation of each type of cerumen management procedure
performed by a qualified audiologist or physician; and
6. Successful performance, under direct supervision by an
audiologist qualified to perform cerumen management or a physician, of each
type of cerumen management procedure.
C. An audiologist shall not perform cerumen management on
a patient who has any of the following preexisting contraindications:
1. A perforated tympanic membrane;
2. Inflammation, tenderness, drainage, or open wounds or
traces of blood in the external ear canal;
3. History of ear surgery that results in distortion of the
external ear canal;
4. HIV infection or bleeding disorders;
5. Actual or suspected foreign body in the ear, excluding
hearing aid components that are located in the lateral one-third portion of the
ear canal;
6. Stenosis or bony exostosis of the ear canal; or
7. Cerumen impaction that totally occludes the
visualization of the tympanic membrane.
D. An audiologist
performing cerumen management shall:
1. Obtain informed [ written ] consent
of the patient or legally responsible adult and [ maintain
documentation of document ] such consent and the
procedure performed in the patient record.
2. Refer patients to a physician if they exhibit
contraindications or experience any complication, such as dizziness, during the
procedure.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4115; Filed June 3, 2016, 2:57 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF AUDIOLOGY AND SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC30-20. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology (amending 18VAC30-20-240).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Effective Date: July 27, 2016.
Agency Contact: Leslie L. Knachel, Executive Director,
Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite
300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4630, FAX (804) 527-4413, or
email leslie.knachel@dhp.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments establish provisions for the supervision of
unlicensed assistants, including the (i) responsibility of the licensed
speech-language pathologist for the training and assignment of duties of an
assistant, (ii) qualifications of an assistant, (iii) duties that may be
performed by an assistant, (iv) scope of practice of a speech-language pathologist
that may not be delegated to an assistant, (v) level and limitation on
supervision of assistants, and (vi) obligation of the licensee to provide the
necessary level of supervision to ensure quality of care, including onsite
observation of at least two client sessions for each assistant every 30 days
and direct delivery of service to each client at least every 30 days. The
amendments are made pursuant to Chapter 661 of the 2014 Acts of Assembly.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
of Regulations.
18VAC30-20-240. Supervisory responsibilities; supervision of
unlicensed assistants.
A. Responsibility of a licensee.
1. A licensed audiologist and speech-language
pathologist shall provide documented supervision to who supervises
unlicensed assistants shall document such supervision, shall be held
fully responsible for their performance and activities, and shall ensure that
they perform only those activities which that do not constitute
the practice of audiology or speech-language pathology and which that
are commensurate with their level of training.
2. A licensed speech-language pathologist who supervises
unlicensed assistants shall document such supervision, shall be held fully
responsible for their performance and activities, and shall ensure that they
perform only those activities that do not constitute the practice of
speech-language pathology and that are commensurate with their level of
training.
a. A speech-language pathologist shall not supervise an
assistant without the speech-language pathologist's knowledge and consent by
the assistant and the licensee documented prior to assumption of supervisory
responsibilities.
b. The frequency in which the speech-language pathologist
personally delivers treatment or services to a client who is receiving some
services from an assistant shall be up to the professional judgment of the
speech-language pathologist and shall be determined by the treatment needs of
the client, the type of services being provided, and the setting in which the
client is being served, but shall occur at least every 30 days.
B. 3. The identity of the unlicensed assistant
shall be disclosed to the client prior to treatment and shall be made a part of
the client's file.
B. Qualifications of a speech-language pathologist
assistant.
1. A person acting as a speech-language pathologist
assistant shall have:
a. A bachelor's degree or associate's degree and documented
training by a licensed speech-language pathologist in topics related to the
client population to be served; or
b. Employment as a speech-language pathologist assistant in
a United States jurisdiction within the last five years preceding [ (the
effective date of the regulations) July 27, 2016 ].
2. A speech-language pathologist supervising an assistant
shall be responsible for determining that the knowledge, skills, and clinical
experience of the assistant are sufficient to ensure competency to perform all
tasks to which the assistant is assigned. The speech-language pathologist shall
document competency after training and direct observation of the assistant's
performance of such tasks, and a record of skills and competencies shall be
maintained.
C. Scope of practice of a speech-language pathologist
assistant. After demonstration and documentation of competency for the duties
to be assigned, an assistant shall only engage in those duties planned,
designed, and supervised by a licensed speech-language pathologist, to include
the following:
1. Assist with speech, language, and hearing screenings
without clinical interpretation of results.
2. Assist during assessment of a client exclusive of
administration or interpretation.
3. Perform activities for each session that are routine and
do not require professional judgment, in accordance with a plan developed and
directed by the speech-language pathologist who retains the professional
responsibility for the client.
4. Document a client's performance and report information
to the supervising speech-language pathologist.
5. Assist with programming augmentative and alternative
communication devices and assist the client in repetitive use of such devices.
6. Sign or initial informal treatment notes and, upon
request, co-sign formal documents with the supervising speech-language
pathologist.
7. Engage in the following activities:
a. Preparing materials;
b. Scheduling appointments and activities;
c. Preparing charts, records, or graphs and performing
other clerical duties;
d. Performing checks and maintenance of equipment; and
e. Assisting a client with transitioning to and from
therapy sessions.
8. Perform duties not otherwise restricted to the practice
of speech-language pathology.
D. A speech-language pathologist assistant shall not
engage in the practice of speech-language pathology, including the following:
1. Represent himself as a speech-language pathologist.
2. Perform standardized or nonstandardized diagnostic tests
or formal or informal evaluations.
3. Perform procedures that require a professional level of
clinical acumen and technical skill.
4. Tabulate or interpret results and observations of
feeding and swallowing evaluations or screenings performed by a speech-language
pathologist.
5. Participate in formal conferences or meetings without
the presence of the supervising speech-language pathologist.
6. Provide interpretative information to the client, the
family of the client, or others regarding the client's status or service.
7. Write, develop, or modify a client's treatment plan.
8. Assist in or provide services as specified in subsection
C of this section unless directed by the supervising speech-language pathologist.
9. Sign any formal documents in lieu of the supervising
speech-language pathologist.
10. Select a client for service or discharge a client from
service.
11. Make a decision on the need for additional services or
make referrals for service.
12. Disclose clinical or confidential information either
orally or in writing to anyone other than the supervising speech-language
pathologist, unless mandated by law or authorized by the supervising
speech-language pathologist.
13. Develop or determine the swallowing or feeding
strategies or precautions for a client or provide feeding or swallowing
treatment.
E. Supervision of an assistant in speech-language
pathology.
1. The practice of an assistant shall only be supervised by
a speech-language pathologist who retains full legal and ethical responsibility
for the client. A speech-language pathologist shall only supervise the
equivalent of two full-time assistants.
2. The speech-language pathologist shall provide the level
of supervision to the speech-language pathologist assistant necessary to ensure
quality of care to include on-site supervision of at least two client sessions
for each assistant being supervised every 30 days to directly observe and
evaluate the performance of the assistant. The speech-language pathologist
shall document such on-site observation and evaluation in the client record for
each session.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4179; Filed June 3, 2016, 2:58 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF AUDIOLOGY AND SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY
Notice of Extension of Emergency Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC30-20. Regulations Governing
the Practice of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology (amending 18VAC30-20-10; adding 18VAC30-20-241).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Expiration Date Extended Through: December 27, 2016.
The Governor has approved the Board of Audiology and
Speech-Language Pathology request to extend the expiration date of the above-referenced
emergency regulation for six months as provided for in § 2.2-4011 D of the
Code of Virginia. Therefore, the emergency regulation will continue in effect
through December 27, 2016. The emergency regulation was adopted pursuant to
Chapter 327 of the 2014 Acts of Assembly and relates to the expansion of the
practice of audiology to include limited cerumen management. The original
emergency was published in 31:11 VA.R. 958-960 January 26, 2015,
and an amended emergency regulation was published in 32:6 VA.R. 1100-1102 November 16, 2015.
Contact Information: Leslie L. Knachel, Executive
Director, Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology, 9960 Mayland Drive,
Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4630, FAX (804)
527-4413, or email leslie.knachel@dhp.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4115; Filed June 3, 2016, 2:52 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR CONTRACTORS
Proposed Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC50-22. Board for
Contractors Regulations (amending 18VAC50-22-10, 18VAC50-22-40,
18VAC50-22-50, 18VAC50-22-60, 18VAC50-22-220, 18VAC50-22-230, 18VAC50-22-310).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-201 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information:
July 11, 2016 - 10 a.m. - Commonwealth of Virginia
Conference Center, Perimeter Center, 9960 Mayland Drive, Board Room 3,
Richmond, VA 23233
Public Comment Deadline: August 26, 2016.
Agency Contact: Eric L. Olson, Executive Director, Board
for Contractors, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone
(804) 367-2785, FAX (866) 430-1033, or email contractors@dpor.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 54.1-1102 of the Code of Virginia
provides the authority for the Board for Contractors to promulgate regulations
for the licensure of contractors in the Commonwealth. The content of the
regulations is pursuant to the board's discretion, but shall not be in conflict
with the purposes of the statutory authority.
Purpose: During the past 18 months, several instances
involving the submission of false documentation, forged verification forms, and
questionable identity have been brought to the attention of the Board for
Contractors. The majority of these instances have resulted in disciplinary
action being taken against the licensee, usually in the form of the revocation
of the license and a monetary sanction. To date nearly 100 such cases have been
adjudicated by the board or are scheduled to be heard by the board, and more
than 100 currently are in the investigative stages.
A review of these cases has found that the board's current
documentation requirements are insufficient to ensure that the information
being provided by the applicant is valid. This includes, but is not limited to,
verification of identification, experience documentation, determination of
fiscal responsibility, and verification of employment status. The application
process has been modified somewhat, in those areas that do not require an
amendment of the regulations, but the board has identified other requirements
that should be implemented to reduce the instances of application fraud.
The board is tasked with ensuring that contractors meet minimum
competency standards as well as minimum financial standards to ensure that the
public is protected from unqualified or incompetent contractors as well as to
ensure that contractors have the fiscal health to enter into contracts that can
be for hundreds of thousands of dollars. In order to ensure that these minimum
standards are met, it is critical that the documentation reviewed by the board
to determine license eligibility is accurate and trustworthy.
Substance: 18VAC50-22-10: Amendments add two definitions
to the existing list of definitions.
18VAC50-22-40, 18VAC50-22-50, and 18VAC50-22-60: Provisions for
submission of identification, experience verification, employment verification,
credit checks, and verification of fiscal standing (as applicable) are amended
as deemed necessary by the board to meet the statutory and regulatory
requirements.
18VAC50-22-220 and 18VAC50-22-230: Documentation that must be
submitted in order to ensure that a licensee meets the eligibility requirements
to make changes to its license is amended.
18VAC50-22-310: Amendments are made to the requirements for
pre-license education providers to attend training provided by the board.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public is that
these regulations will help to ensure that the license holders actually meet
the minimum competency requirements to get a license, and the public can feel
more confident that the license was not acquired fraudulently. The only
disadvantage to applicants applying for licenses is that they will need to
provide licensing staff with more supporting paperwork.
The primary advantage to the agency is there will be fewer
investigations on license holders for acquiring the license fraudulently. The
disadvantage to the agency is that the licensing staff will need to do more
research before issuing a license.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. In order to
increase the integrity of information provided as a part of contractor licensure,
the Board of Contractors (Board) proposes several new verification requirements
for its licensees.
Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for these
proposed regulatory changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. Board staff reports that the Board
is dealing with an increasing problem, over the last 18 months or so, involving
the submission of false documentation, forged verification forms and
questionable identity representations. Board staff reports that, to date,
nearly 100 cases have been heard or are scheduled to be heard by the Board and
that more than 100 additional cases are currently in some investigative stage.
To address these problems, the Board is proposing several new
documentation requirements. The Board proposes that applicants for licensure
that are subject to experience requirements must have that experience verified
by a building official, building inspector, registered design professional, a
licensee of this Board or another regulatory agency or by any other
individual/organization approved by the Board. The Board also proposes to
require firms that must supply information on past due debts, outstanding tax
obligations and defaults, judgements and bankruptcies also supply a copy of
their credit report to verify the information that they supply. Similarly,
where the Board now requires firms to report and have a certain level of
assets, the Board proposes to require verification that the reported assets are
actually owned by, or titled to, the firm reporting them. The Board proposes to
remove qualified individuals from the list of entities that must supply
information on debts as any qualified individuals who are not also members of
responsible management are just employees of the firm and their financial
stability has no effect on the stability of the firm. People named by firms as
qualified individuals (who are not also members of responsible management)
will, however, have to provide proof that they are employed full time by the
firm that has named them as qualifying individuals with submission of copies of
I-9s, W-4s, insurance documents, or other documentation approved by the Board.
The Board also proposes that firms be required to submit copies of a government
issued photo ID for each member of responsible management and for each
qualified individual for the firm. Members of responsible management and each
qualified individual will also be required to sign the firm's application for
licensure. If firms change members of responsible management or qualified
individuals, the Board proposes to require the new individuals to provide the
same information and documentation as required by members of responsible
management and qualified individuals at the time of application for licensure.
Lastly, the Board proposes to require all providers of pre-licensure education
to send at least one representative every two years to attend a Board of
Contractors remedial education course. These courses are held monthly.
Licensed firms would incur only minimal copying and postage
costs for meeting most of the Board's proposed requirements. They may or may
not incur slightly more than minimal costs to provide a credit report. Credit
reports are available free at some websites but may cost as much as $12.
Pre-licensure education providers will incur costs to send a representative to
Board training once every two years roughly equal to the prorated salary of the
individual sent plus travel expenses (gas, tolls if applicable and vehicle wear
and tear allowances). These costs are likely outweighed by the benefits that
will accrue from the Board taking steps to curb fraud and forgery amongst their
applicants for licensure.
Businesses and Entities Affected. Board staff reports that the
Board received approximately 5,000 applications for licensure per year over the
last five years; approximately 4,000 of the 5,000 applications each year are
from firms that qualify as small businesses.
Localities Particularly Affected. No locality will be
particularly affected by this regulatory change.
Projected Impact on Employment. These proposed changes are
unlikely to impact employment in any firm except those that are unable to
legitimately provide the documentation that the Board proposes to require.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These
proposed regulatory changes are unlikely to affect the use or value of private
property in the Commonwealth.
Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect real estate development costs in the
Commonwealth.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. Small businesses may incur minimal
costs to meet the Board's new documentation requirements and pre-licensure
education providers will likely incur moderate costs once every two years to
send a representative to a Board remedial education course.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. There are
likely no alternative methods that would both meet the Board's goal of curbing
fraud amongst their applicants and further minimize adverse impacts.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. Small businesses may incur minimal costs to meet
the Board's new documentation requirements and pre-licensure education
providers will likely incur moderate costs once every two years to send a
representative to a Board remedial education course.
Localities. Localities in the Commonwealth are unlikely to see
any adverse impacts on account of this proposed regulatory change.
Other Entities. Other entities in the Commonwealth are unlikely
to suffer any adverse impacts on account of this regulatory action.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board
for Contractors concurs with the economic impact analysis prepared by the
Department of Planning and Budget.
Summary:
The proposed amendments modify the documentation submitted
as part of the application to verify requirements for experience level, net
worth, examination, and employment, including submission of identification of
the individuals listed on the application, third party verification of
experience, verification of financial standing, and other criteria. The
amendments also require all prelicense education providers to attend a board
remedial education course once every two years.
Part I
Definitions
18VAC50-22-10. General definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter,
unless a different meaning is provided or is plainly required by the context,
shall have the following meanings:
"Address of record" means the mailing address
designated by the licensee to receive notices and correspondence from the
board.
"Affidavit" means a written statement of facts,
made voluntarily, and confirmed by the oath or affirmation of the party making
it, taken before a notary or other person having the authority to administer
such oath or affirmation.
"Business entity" means a sole proprietorship,
partnership, corporation, limited liability company, limited liability
partnership, or any other form of organization permitted by law.
"Change order" means any modification to the
original contract including, but not limited to, the time to complete the work,
change in materials, change in cost, and change in the scope of work.
"Controlling financial interest" means the direct
or indirect ownership or control of more than 50% ownership of a firm.
"Credit report" means documentation from a
nationally recognized credit agency that reflects the financial responsibility
of the applicant; provides a current consumer credit score derived from the
Fair Isaac Corporation's (FICO) scoring method; and includes information
including payment history, credit rating, public filings in county, state, and
federal courts, bankruptcies, business history, suits, liens, and judgments.
"Firm" means any business entity recognized under
the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
"Formal vocational training" means courses in the
trade administered at an accredited educational facility; or formal training,
approved by the department, conducted by trade associations, businesses,
military, correspondence schools or other similar training organizations.
"Full-time employee" means an employee who spends a
minimum of 30 hours a week carrying out the work of the licensed contracting
business.
"Helper" or "laborer" means a person who
assists a licensed tradesman and who is not an apprentice as defined in
18VAC50-30-10.
"Licensee" means a firm holding a license issued by
the Board for Contractors to act as a contractor, as defined in § 54.1-1100
of the Code of Virginia.
"Nationally recognized credit agency" means an
organization that obtains credit information on a nationwide basis; validates,
updates, and maintains the accuracy of the credit information obtained; and
obtains credit reports from at least two credit bureaus.
"Net worth" means assets minus liabilities. For purposes
of this chapter, assets shall not include any property owned as tenants by the
entirety.
"Prime contractor" means a licensed contractor that
performs, supervises, or manages the construction, removal, repair, or
improvement of real property pursuant to the terms of a primary contract with
the property owner/lessee. The prime contractor may use its own employees to
perform the work or use the services of other properly licensed contractors.
"Principal place of business" means the location
where the licensee principally conducts business with the public.
"Reciprocity" means an arrangement by which the
licensees of two states are allowed to practice within each other's boundaries
by mutual agreement.
"Reinstatement" means having a license restored to
effectiveness after the expiration date has passed.
"Renewal" means continuing the effectiveness of a
license for another period of time.
"Residential building energy analyst firm" means
any business entity wherein a residential building energy analysis, as defined
in § 54.1-1144 of the Code of Virginia, is offered or practiced.
"Responsible management" means the following
individuals:
1. The sole proprietor of a sole proprietorship;
2. The partners of a general partnership;
3. The managing partners of a limited partnership;
4. The officers of a corporation;
5. The managers of a limited liability company;
6. The officers or directors of an association or both; and
7. Individuals in other business entities recognized under the
laws of the Commonwealth as having a fiduciary responsibility to the firm.
"Sole proprietor" means any individual, not a
corporation, who is trading under his own name, or under an assumed or
fictitious name pursuant to the provisions of §§ 59.1-69 through 59.1-76
of the Code of Virginia.
"Supervision" means providing guidance or direction
of a delegated task or procedure by a tradesman licensed in accordance with
Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, being
accessible to the helper or laborer, and periodically observing and evaluating
the performance of the task or procedure.
"Supervisor" means the licensed master or
journeyman tradesman who has the responsibility to ensure that the installation
is in accordance with the applicable provisions of the Virginia Uniform
Statewide Building Code and provides supervision to helpers and laborers as
defined in this chapter.
"Temporary license" means a license issued by the
board pursuant to § 54.1-201.1 of the Code of Virginia that authorizes a
person to engage in the practice of contracting until such time as the license
is issued or 45 days from the date of issuance of the temporary license,
whichever occurs first.
"Tenants by the entirety" means a tenancy which is
created between a husband and wife and by which together they hold title to the
whole with right of survivorship so that, upon death of either, the other takes
whole to exclusion of the deceased's remaining heirs.
"Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code" or
"USBC" means building regulations comprised of those promulgated by
the Virginia Board of Housing and Community Development in accordance with §
36-98 of the Code of Virginia, including any model codes and standards that are
incorporated by reference and that regulate construction, reconstruction,
alteration, conversion, repair, maintenance or use of structures, and building
and installation of equipment therein.
Part II
Entry
18VAC50-22-40. Requirements for a Class C license.
A. A firm applying for a Class C license must meet the
requirements of this section.
B. For every classification or specialty in which the firm
seeks to be licensed, the firm shall name a qualified individual who meets the
following requirements:
1. Is at least 18 years old;
2. Has a minimum of two years experience in the classification
or specialty for which he is the qualifier, verified by a building
official, building inspector, registered design professional, licensee of the
Board for Contractors, licensee of another regulatory agency, or other
individual or organization approved by the board;
3. Is a full-time employee of the firm as defined in this
chapter or is a member of the responsible management of the firm or is a
full-time employee of the firm as verified by the submission of copies of an
I-9, a W-4, insurance documents, or other documentation acceptable to the board;
and
4. a. Has obtained the appropriate certification for the
following specialties:
Blast/explosive contracting (Department of Fire Programs
explosive use certification)
Fire alarm (NICET level III or higher certification in fire
protection: fire alarm systems or completion of a board-approved examination)
Fire sprinkler (NICET Sprinkler III certification) (NICET
level III or higher certification in fire protection: water based systems
layout or completion of a board-approved examination)
Manufactured home contracting (completion of a U.S.
Department of Housing and Urban Development or Department of Housing and
Community Development approved installers course)
Radon mitigation (EPA or DEQ (Virginia Department of
Health accepted radon certification).
b. Has obtained, pursuant to the Individual Licensing and
Certification Regulations (18VAC50-30), a master license for Plumbing
plumbing, HVAC, Electrical electrical, Gas Fitting gas
fitting, Natural Gas Fitting Provider natural gas fitting
provider, and Liquefied Petroleum Gas Contracting liquefied
petroleum gas contracting.
c. Has obtained, pursuant to the Individual Licensing and
Certification Regulations, certification as an accessibility mechanic for
accessibility services contracting, accessibility mechanic (LULA) for
accessibility services contracting-LULA, Elevator Mechanic elevator
mechanic for Elevator Escalator Contracting elevator escalator
contracting and certification as a Water Well Systems Provider water
well systems provider for Water Well/Pump Contracting water
well/pump contracting.
d. Has obtained a lead supervisor license from the Virginia
Board for Asbestos, Lead, and Home Inspectors for the lead abatement
contracting specialty; an asbestos supervisor license from the Virginia Board
for Asbestos, Lead, and Home Inspectors for the asbestos contracting specialty;
and an onsite sewage systems professional installers license from the Board for
Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System
Professionals for the sewage disposal systems contracting specialty.
e. Has completed a board-approved examination for all
other classifications and specialties that do not require other certification
or licensure.
C. The firm shall provide information for the past five
years prior to application on any outstanding, past-due debts and judgments;
outstanding tax obligations; defaults on bonds; or pending or past
bankruptcies. The firm and all members of the responsible management of the
firm shall submit information on any past-due debts and judgments or defaults
on bonds directly related to the practice of contracting as defined in Chapter
11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia. Each
firm shall provide a credit report from a nationally recognized credit agency.
The members of responsible management of the firm shall disclose information
for the five years prior to the application on any outstanding past due debts
or judgments, outstanding tax obligations, defaults on bonds related to the
practice of contracting as defined in Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of Title
54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or pending or past bankruptcies.
D. The firm and all members of the responsible management of
the firm shall disclose at the time of application any current or previous
contractor licenses held in Virginia or in other jurisdictions and any
disciplinary actions taken on these licenses. This includes but is not limited
to any monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a
license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a
license in Virginia or in any other jurisdiction.
E. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, all
applicants shall disclose the following information about the firm, all members
of the responsible management, and the qualified individual or individuals for
the firm:
1. All misdemeanor convictions within three years of the date
of application; and
2. All felony convictions during their lifetimes.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction
for purposes of this subsection. The record of a conviction received from a
court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of
guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in
accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
F. A member of responsible management shall have successfully
completed a board-approved basic business course.
G. The firm shall provide a copy of a government-issued
photo identification for each member of responsible management and for each of
the qualified individuals.
H. All members of responsible management and each
qualified individual must sign the application.
18VAC50-22-50. Requirements for a Class B license.
A. A firm applying for a Class B license must meet the
requirements of this section.
B. A firm shall name a designated employee who meets the
following requirements:
1. Is at least 18 years old;
2. Is a full-time employee of the firm as defined in this
chapter, or is a member of responsible management as defined in this chapter
member of responsible management of the firm or is a full-time employee of
the firm as verified by the submission of copies of an I-9, a W-4, insurance
documents, or other documentation acceptable to the board;
3. Has passed a board-approved examination as required by § 54.1-1108
of the Code of Virginia or has been exempted from the exam requirement in
accordance with § 54.1-1108.1 of the Code of Virginia; and
4. Has followed all rules established by the board or by the
testing service acting on behalf of the board with regard to conduct at the
examination. Such rules shall include any written instructions communicated
prior to the examination date and any oral or written instructions given at the
site on the date of the exam.
C. For every classification or specialty in which the firm
seeks to be licensed, the firm shall name a qualified individual who meets the
following requirements:
1. Is at least 18 years old;
2. Has a minimum of three years experience in the
classification or specialty for which he is the qualifier verified by a
building official, building inspector, registered design professional, licensee
of the Board for Contractors, licensee of another regulatory agency, or other
individual or organization approved by the board;
3. Is a full-time employee of the firm as defined in this
chapter or is a member of the responsible management of the firm member
of the responsible management of the firm or is a full-time employee of the
firm as verified by the submission of copies of an I-9, a W-4, insurance
documents, or other documentation acceptable to the board; and
4. a. Has obtained the appropriate certification for the
following specialties:
Blast/explosive contracting (Department of Fire Programs
explosive use certification)
Fire alarm (NICET level III or higher certification in fire
protection: fire alarm systems or completion of a board-approved examination)
Fire sprinkler (NICET Sprinkler III certification) (NICET
level III or higher certification in fire protection: water based systems
layout or completion of a board-approved examination)
Manufactured home contracting (completion of a U.S.
Department of Housing and Urban Development or Department of Housing and
Community Development approved installers course)
Radon mitigation (EPA or DEQ (Virginia Department of
Health accepted radon certification).
b. Has obtained, pursuant to the Individual Licensing and
Certification Regulations (18VAC50-30), a master license for Plumbing
plumbing, HVAC, Electrical electrical, Gas Fitting gas
fitting, Natural Gas Fitting Provider natural gas fitting
provider, and Liquefied Petroleum Gas Contracting liquefied
petroleum gas contracting.
c. Has obtained, pursuant to the Individual Licensing and
Certification Regulations, certification as an accessibility mechanic for
accessibility services contracting, accessibility mechanic (LULA) for
accessibility services contracting-LULA, Elevator Mechanic elevator
mechanic for Elevator Escalator Contracting elevator escalator
contracting and certification as a Water Well Systems Provider water
well systems provider for Water Well/Pump Contracting water
well/pump contracting.
d. Has obtained a lead supervisor license from the Virginia
Board for Asbestos, Lead, and Home Inspectors for the lead abatement
contracting specialty; an asbestos supervisor license from the Virginia Board
for Asbestos, Lead, and Home Inspectors for the asbestos contracting specialty;
and an onsite sewage systems professional installers license from the Board for
Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System
Professionals for the sewage disposal systems contracting specialty.
e. Has completed a board-approved examination for all
other classifications and specialties that do not require other certification
or licensure.
D. Each firm shall submit on a form provided by the board
information on its financial position. Excluding any property owned as
tenants by the entirety, the firm shall state a net worth or equity of $15,000
or more. Assets listed on this form must be verified as being titled or
owned by the firm, and documentation must be less than 60 days old for liquid
assets and less than one year old for fixed assets. Property owned or titled as
tenants by the entirety shall not be included as an asset or liability. In lieu
of this form, the firm may submit a review or an audit conducted by a certified
public accountant in accordance with the provisions of the American Institute of
Certified Public Accountants guidelines that was completed within one year of
the date of application or the most recently filed U.S. Securities and Exchange
Commission form 10-K. In order to qualify for a Class B license, the firm must
have a net worth or equity of $15,000 or more.
E. Each firm shall provide information for the five years
prior to application on any outstanding, past-due debts and judgments;
outstanding tax obligations; defaults on bonds; or pending or past
bankruptcies. The firm, its designated employee, and all members of the
responsible management of the firm shall submit information on any past-due
debts and judgments or a credit report from a nationally recognized
credit agency. The members of responsible management of the firm shall disclose
at the time of application information for the five years prior to the
application on any outstanding, past due debts or judgments, outstanding tax
obligations, defaults on bonds directly related to the practice of
contracting as defined in Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the
Code of Virginia, or pending or past bankruptcies.
F. The firm, the designated employee, and all members of the
responsible management of the firm shall disclose at the time of application
any current or previous substantial identities of interest with any contractor
licenses issued in Virginia or in other jurisdictions and any disciplinary
actions taken on these licenses. This includes but is not limited to any
monetary penalties, fines, suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license in
connection with a disciplinary action. The board, in its discretion, may deny
licensure to any applicant when any of the parties listed above have had a
substantial identity of interest (as deemed in § 54.1-1110 of the Code of
Virginia) with any firm that has had a license suspended, revoked, voluntarily
terminated or surrendered in connection with a disciplinary action in Virginia
or any other jurisdiction.
G. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, all
applicants shall disclose the following information about the firm, designated
employee, all members of the responsible management, and the qualified
individual or individuals for the firm:
1. All misdemeanor convictions within three years of the date
of application; and
2. All felony convictions during their lifetimes.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction
for purposes of this subsection. The record of a conviction received from a
court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of
guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in
accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
H. The designated employee or a member of responsible
management shall have successfully completed a board-approved basic business
course.
I. The firm shall provide a copy of a government-issued
photo identification for each member of responsible management, for the
designated employee, and for each of the qualified individuals.
J. All members of responsible management, the designated
employee, and each qualified individual must sign the application.
18VAC50-22-60. Requirements for a Class A license.
A. A firm applying for a Class A license shall meet all of
the requirements of this section.
B. A firm shall name a designated employee who meets the
following requirements:
1. Is at least 18 years old;
2. Is a full-time employee of the firm as defined in this
chapter or is a member of the responsible management of the firm as
defined in this chapter; or is a full-time employee of the firm as
verified by the submission of copies of an I-9, a W-4, insurance documents, or
other documentation acceptable to the board;
3. Has passed a board-approved examination as required by §
54.1-1106 of the Code of Virginia or has been exempted from the exam
requirement in accordance with § 54.1-1108.1 of the Code of Virginia; and
4. Has followed all rules established by the board or by the
testing service acting on behalf of the board with regard to conduct at the
examination. Such rules shall include any written instructions communicated
prior to the examination date and any oral or written instructions given at the
site on the day of the exam.
C. For every classification or specialty in which the firm
seeks to be licensed, the firm shall name a qualified individual who meets the
following requirements:
1. Is at least 18 years old;
2. Has a minimum of five years of experience in the
classification or specialty for which he is the qualifier verified by a
building official, building inspector, registered design professional, licensee
of the Board for Contractors, licensee of another regulatory agency, or other
individual or organization approved by the board;
3. Is a member of responsible management of the firm or
full-time employee of the firm as defined in this chapter or is a member of
the firm as defined in this chapter or is a member of the responsible
management of the firm; verified by the submission of copies of an I-9,
a W-4, insurance documents, or other documentation acceptable to the board; and
4. a. Has obtained the appropriate certification for the
following specialties:
Blast/explosive contracting (DHCD (Department of
Fire Programs explosive use certification)
Fire alarm (NICET level III or higher certification in fire
protection: fire alarm systems or completion of a board-approved examination)
Fire sprinkler (NICET Sprinkler III certification) (NICET
level III or higher certification in fire protection: water based systems
layout or completion of a board-approved examination)
Manufactured home contracting (completion of a U.S.
Department of Housing and Urban Development or Department of Housing and
Community Development approved installers course)
Radon mitigation (EPA or DEQ (Virginia Department of
Health accepted radon certification).
b. Has obtained, pursuant to the Individual Licensing and
Certification Regulations (18VAC50-30), a master license for Plumbing
plumbing, HVAC, Electrical, Gas Fitting electrical, gas
fitting, Natural Gas Fitting Provider natural gas fitting
provider, and Liquefied Petroleum Gas Contracting liquefied
petroleum gas contracting.
c. Has obtained, pursuant to the Individual Licensing and
Certification Regulations, certification as an accessibility mechanic for
accessibility services contracting accessibility mechanic (LULA) for
accessibility services contracting-LULA, Elevator Mechanic elevator
mechanic for Elevator Escalator Contracting elevator escalator
contracting and certification as a Water Well Systems Provider water
well systems provider for Water Well/Pump Contracting water
well/pump contracting.
d. Has obtained a lead supervisor license from the Virginia
Board for Asbestos, Lead, and Home Inspectors for the lead abatement
contracting specialty; an asbestos supervisor license from the Virginia Board
for Asbestos, Lead, and Home Inspectors for the asbestos contracting specialty;
and an onsite sewage systems professional installers license from the Board for
Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System
Professionals for the sewage disposal systems contracting specialty.
e. Has completed a board-approved examination for all
other classifications and specialties that do not require other certification
or licensure.
D. Each firm shall submit on a form provided by the board
information on its financial position. Excluding any property owned as
tenants by the entirety, the firm shall state a net worth or equity of $45,000.
Assets listed on this form must be verified as being titled or owned by the
firm, and documentation must be less than 60 days old for liquid assets and
less than one year old for fixed assets. Property owned or titled as tenants by
the entirety shall not be included as an asset or liability. In lieu of this
form, the firm may submit a review or an audit conducted by a certified public
accountant in accordance with the provisions of the American Institute of
Certified Public Accountants guidelines that was completed within one year of
the date of application or the most recently filed U.S. Securities and Exchange
Commission form 10-K. In order to qualify for a Class A license the firm must
have a net worth or equity of $45,000 or more.
E. The firm shall provide information for the five years
prior to application on any outstanding, past-due debts and judgments;
outstanding tax obligations; defaults on bonds; or pending or past
bankruptcies. The firm, its designated employee, and all members of the
responsible management of the firm shall submit information on any past-due
debts and judgments or a credit report from a nationally recognized
credit agency. The members of responsible management of the firm shall
disclose, at the time of application, information for the five years prior to
the application on any outstanding, past due debts or judgments, outstanding
tax obligations, defaults on bonds directly related to the practice of
contracting as defined in Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the
Code of Virginia, or pending or past bankruptcies.
F. The firm, the designated employee, and all members of the
responsible management of the firm shall disclose at the time of application
any current or previous substantial identities of interest with any contractor
licenses issued in Virginia or in other jurisdictions and any disciplinary
actions taken on these licenses. This includes but is not limited to,
any monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, or surrender of a
license in connection with a disciplinary action. The board, in its discretion,
may deny licensure to any applicant when any of the parties listed above have
had a substantial identity of interest (as deemed in § 54.1-1110 of the Code of
Virginia) with any firm that has had a license suspended, revoked, voluntarily
terminated, or surrendered in connection with a disciplinary action in Virginia
or in any other jurisdiction.
G. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, all
applicants shall disclose the following information about the firm, all members
of the responsible management, the designated employee and the qualified
individual or individuals for the firm:
1. All misdemeanor convictions within three years of the date
of application; and
2. All felony convictions during their lifetimes.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction
for purposes of this subsection. The record of a conviction received from a
court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of
guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in
accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
H. The designated employee or a member of responsible
management shall have successfully completed a board-approved basic business
course.
I. The firm shall provide a copy of a government-issued
photo identification for each member of responsible management, for the
designated employee, and for each of the qualified individuals.
J. All members of responsible management, the designated
employee, and each qualified individual must sign the application.
18VAC50-22-220. Change of responsible management, designated
employee, or qualified individual.
A. Any change in the officers of a corporation, managers of a
limited liability company, or officers or directors of an association shall be
reported to the board in writing on a form provided by the board
within 90 days of the change. The new member of responsible management
must provide the following:
1. A copy of a government-issued photo identification.
2. Information for the five years prior to the application
on any outstanding past due debts or judgments, outstanding tax obligations,
defaults on bonds related to the practice of contracting as defined in Chapter
11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or pending or
past bankruptcies.
3. At the time of application, information regarding any
current or previous contractor licenses held in Virginia or in other
jurisdictions and any disciplinary actions taken on these licenses. This
includes any monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of
a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of
a license in Virginia or in any other jurisdiction.
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia,
documentation of all misdemeanor convictions within three years of the date of
the application and all felony convictions during his lifetime.
B. Any change of designated employee shall be reported on a
form provided by the board within 90 days of the change. The new designated
employee for a Class B licensee shall meet the requirements of 18VAC50-22-50 B.
The new designated employee for a Class A licensee shall meet the requirements
of 18VAC50-22-60 B.
C. Any change of qualified individual shall be reported on a
form provided by the board within 45 days of the change. The new qualified
individual for a Class C licensee shall meet the requirements of 18VAC50-22-40
B. The new qualified individual for a Class B licensee shall meet the
requirements of 18VAC50-22-50 C. The new qualified individual for a Class A
licensee shall meet the requirements of 18VAC50-22-60 C.
18VAC50-22-230. Change of name or address.
A. A licensee must operate under the name in which the
license is issued. Any name change shall be reported in writing to the board
on a form provided by the board within 30 days of the change. The board
shall not be responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices or
correspondence due to the licensee's not having reported a change of name.
B. Any change of the address of record or principal place of
business shall be reported in writing to the board on a form provided
by the board within 30 days of the change. The board shall not be
responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices or correspondence due
to the licensee's not having reported a change of address.
18VAC50-22-310. Requirements for prelicense education
providers.
A. Each provider of a prelicense education course shall
submit an application for course approval on a form provided by the board. The
application shall include but is not limited to:
1. The name of the provider;
2. Provider contact person, address and telephone number;
3. Course contact hours;
4. Schedule of courses, if established, including dates, time
and locations;
5. Instructor information, including name, license number(s)
number or numbers if applicable, and a list of other appropriate trade
designations;
6. Course and material fees; and
7. Course syllabus.
B. All providers must establish and maintain a record for
each student. The record shall include: the student's name and address; social
security number or DMV control number; the course name and clock hours
attended; the course syllabus or outline; the name or names of the instructor;
the date of successful completion; and the board's course code. Records shall
be available for inspection during normal business hours by authorized
representatives of the board. Providers must maintain class records for a
minimum of five years.
C. At least once every two calendar years, all providers
must have at least one representative attend a monthly Board for Contractors
remedial education course.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4414; Filed June 3, 2016, 9:55 a.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR CONTRACTORS
Proposed Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC50-30. Individual License
and Certification Regulations (amending 18VAC50-30-20, 18VAC50-30-30,
18VAC50-30-40).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-201 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information:
July 11, 2016 - 10 a.m. - Commonwealth of Virginia Conference
Center, Perimeter Center, 9960 Mayland Drive, Board Room 3, Richmond, VA 23233
Public Comment Deadline: August 26, 2016.
Agency Contact: Eric L. Olson, Executive Director, Board
for Contractors, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone
(804) 367-2785, FAX (866) 430-1033, or email contractors@dpor.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 54.1-1102 of the Code of Virginia
provides the authority for the Board for Contractors to promulgate regulations
for the licensure of contractors in the Commonwealth. The content of the
regulations is pursuant to the board's discretion, but shall not be in conflict
with the purposes of the statutory authority.
Purpose: During the past 18 months, several instances
involving the submission of false documentation, forged verification forms, and
questionable identity have been brought to the attention of the Board for
Contractors. The majority of these instances has resulted in disciplinary
action being taken against the licensee or certificate holder, usually in the
form of the revocation of the license or certificate, and a monetary sanction.
To date nearly 100 such cases have been adjudicated by the board or are scheduled
to be heard by the board, and there are more than 100 currently in the
investigative stages.
A review of these cases has found that the board's current
documentation requirements are insufficient to ensure that the information
being provided by the applicant is valid. This includes, but is not limited to,
verification of identification, experience documentation, determination of
fiscal responsibility, and verification of employment status. The application
process has been modified somewhat, in those areas that do not require an
amendment of the regulations, but the board has identified other requirements
that should be implemented to reduce the instances of application fraud.
The board is tasked with ensuring that individual licensees and
certificate holders meet minimum competency standards to ensure that the public
is protected from unqualified or incompetent individuals performing work that
if done improperly can have a direct effect on the safety of the public. In
order to ensure that these minimum standards are met it is critical that the
documentation reviewed by the board to determine license and certification
eligibility is accurate and trustworthy.
Substance: 18VAC50-30-20: The amendments clarify that
the board may approve the applicant to take the applicable exam or issue the
license or certificate.
18VAC50-30-30: The amendments add the requirement of submission
of identification and a 2" x 2" photo deemed necessary by the board
for proper identification of the applicant who is applying.
18VAC50-30-40: The amendments require submission of experience
verification deemed necessary by the board to meet the statutory and regulatory
requirements.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public is that the
amendments help ensure that the license holders actually meet the minimum
competency requirements to get a license, and the public can feel more
confident that the license was not acquired fraudulently. The disadvantage to
applicants applying for licenses is that they will need to provide licensing
staff with more supporting paperwork.
The primary advantage to the agency is fewer investigations on
license holders for acquiring the license fraudulently. The disadvantage to the
agency is that the licensing staff will need to do more research before issuing
a license.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. In order to
increase the integrity of information provided as a part of tradesmen
licensure/certification, the Board of Contractors (Board) proposes several new
verification requirements for its individual tradesmen licensees/certificate
holders.
Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for most
proposed regulatory changes. For one proposed regulatory change, the benefits
of the change could likely be ensured at a lower cost for regulated entities
than would likely accrue under the current proposed language.
Estimated Economic Impact. Board staff reports that the Board
is dealing with an increasing problem, over the last 18 months or so, involving
the submission of false documentation, forged verification forms and
questionable identity representations. Board staff reports that, to date,
nearly 100 cases have been heard or are scheduled to be heard by the Board and
that more than 100 additional cases are currently in some investigative stage.
To address these problems, the Board is proposing several new
documentation requirements. The Board proposes that applicants for licensure or
certification who are subject to experience requirements must have that
experience verified by a building official, building inspector, registered
design professional, a licensee of the Board or another regulatory agency or by
any other individual/organization approved by the Board. Board staff reports that
the Board is moving toward requiring that verification come from some licensed
entity under some Board's authority because then the verifying entity can be
disciplined if they falsely verify someone's experience. In most cases, this
verification will be new. Applicants for journeyman or master status who are
applying using 10 years of experience in a trade to qualify currently have to
have their experience verified. Current regulation allows verification to come
from the groups approved for verification in this proposed regulation plus
former or current clients or former or current employers. While the proposed
regulation allows the Board to approve additional entities (which may include
current or former clients or employers on a case by case basis), some
applicants may be worse off under the proposed regulation than they are under
current the regulation which always allows them to use employer/client
verification. All other applicants would likely incur only minimal copying and
postage costs for meeting most of the Board's proposed requirements.
The Board also proposes that applicants for individual
licensure be required to submit copies of a government issued ID and a 2 X 2
photograph that meets the requirements set forth by the U.S. Department of
State for passports. These requirements include that the picture be:
1) In color,
2) Printed on matte or glossy photo quality paper,
3) 2 X 2 inches in size,
4) Sized such that the head is between 1" and 1 and
3/8" from the chin to the top of the head,
5) Taken within the last six months,
6) Taken in front of a white or off-white background,
7) Taken in full-face view looking directly at the camera, and
8) Taken with a neutral expression or a natural smile with both
eyes open.
Board staff reports that the Board wants to require a
government issued ID to verify the identity of the individuals who are
submitting an application but that the Board also wants to require a photo that
meets passport standards to 1) have an electronic copy of a photo for
comparison with photos taken at exam sites during check-in and 2) because the
Board is exploring the possibility of issuing photo licenses/certificates and
requiring a passport compliant photo now will allow them to have photos to
facilitate issuing such credentials. Board staff further reports that the Board
will accept any photo that meets the State Department criteria. Assuming that
individuals choose to take their own photos, they will incur likely fairly
large time costs ensuring that their photo meets all criteria above and then
will either have to print that photo in a standard available size (4 X 6 or 3 X
5, both available at most photo kiosks for less than 50 cents), and hand crop
it while ensuring that head size in the photo matches requirements, or will
have to pay to have 2 X 2 copies printed. Information found via internet search
indicates that Walmart will print passport size photos from a customer's own
electronic photo file for $7.44 per two photos (photos such as this can only be
purchased in sets of two). Alternately, applicants can get a passport photo
taken at a number of places including Walmart and Walgreens. Again the photos
are sold in sets of two and cost between $12 and $13.
While requiring individuals to submit a picture and ID with
their application will likely decrease cases of applicants misrepresenting
their identity or sending another individual to take their Board exam, it may
not be the least costly way to affect that goal. Most people have a government
issued photo ID, even if they do not have a driver's license, because they need
a photo ID for many things (from proving identification when writing a check or
using a credit card to voting). Just requiring a government issued ID that
includes a photo would likely reduce the cost of complying with this proposed
requirement. Also worth noting, the Board has not implemented photo
license/certificates yet and it may be many months (or even years) before they
can get such credentialing into place. As State Department rules require that a
photo be taken within six months of its use, any delay in photo credentialing
past a few months may see some applicants having to pay for and submit an
additional photo when and if the Board changes licenses/certificates. While
there is a very worthwhile benefit in the Board's efforts to curtail fraud,
those benefits could likely be ensured at a lower cost for regulated entities
by only requiring a government issued photo ID.
Finally, the Board is currently required to license/certify as
a master any individual that successfully passed a Class A contractors trade
examination prior to January 1, 1991. The Board proposes to change this so that
they may issue a masters license or certificate only upon submission of
verification of an individual's continuous work in the trade since he passed
his exam. This change may mean fewer individuals in this category are able to
obtain masters licensure/certification. To the extent that the contractors
trade exam has undergone large changes in the information required to pass and
to the extent that continuous or recent practice ensures competency, the
benefits accrued by not licensing/certifying individuals who passed the exam
approximately 25 years ago and who may not be competent to practice likely
outweigh the costs for individuals who would have to meet current experience
requirements and take an exam to get their masters designation.
Businesses and Entities Affected. Board staff reports that the
Board received approximately 2,000 applications for licensure per year over the
last five years. Some of these individuals may be (or may plan to be once
licensed/certified) individual proprietor small businesses; some other of these
individuals may work for small businesses that pay for their licensure.
Localities Particularly Affected. No locality will be
particularly affected by this regulatory change.
Projected Impact on Employment. These proposed changes are
unlikely to impact employment for any applicant tradesmen except those that are
unable to legitimately provide the documentation that the Board proposes to
require.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These
proposed regulatory changes are unlikely to affect the use or value of private
property in the Commonwealth.
Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect real estate development costs in the
Commonwealth.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. Small businesses that pay their
applicant tradesmen's licensure/certification costs and fees, and individual
applicant tradesmen who intend to be single proprietor small businesses once
they are licensed or certified, will likely incur minimal costs to meet the
Board's new verification requirements. These entities will likely also incur
costs for meeting the proposed requirements for providing both a government
issued ID and a State Department compliant passport size photo.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. Costs for
applicants could likely be decreased without decreasing benefits by requiring a
copy of a government issued photo ID rather than requiring a government issued
ID and a 2 X 2 photo.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. Businesses that pay their applicant tradesmen's
Board costs and fees, and individual applicant tradesmen who intend to be
single proprietor small businesses once they are licensed or certified, will
likely incur minimal costs to meet the Board's new verification requirements.
These entities will likely also incur costs for meeting the proposed
requirements for providing both a government issued ID and a State Department
compliant passport size photo.
Localities. Localities in the Commonwealth are unlikely to see
any adverse impacts on account of this proposed regulatory change.
Other Entities. Other entities in the Commonwealth are unlikely
to suffer any adverse impacts on account of this regulatory action.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board
for Contractors does not agree that the requirement to have an applicant
provide a passport approved photograph would be overly burdensome or costly.
The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) indicates that the cost would be no
greater than $13 or about 6.0% of the total cost of the application and
examination ($130 and $85). The purpose of the passport photo is twofold: one
to have an original photograph, not a scanned copy of a government
identification (ID), for the purposes of ensuring exam site security; and
secondly, to be incorporated into photographic licenses, which the board has
indicated that it wishes to pursue. Scanned copies of government IDs would not
be acceptable for use to make photo licenses. While the statement that it may
be months before the licenses are in place is certainly reasonable given the
procurement process, the parenthetical that it may be years before they are
implemented is not likely. Once the photo license program is initiated it will
be much more economical to have a number of the photos already on file, where
the board does not have to go through the time and expense to collect them.
With the exception of the statement that the requirement of
passport photos may not be the most efficient way to achieve the benefits
sought by the board, the agency concurs with the remainder of the economic
impact analysis.
Summary:
The proposed amendments modify the documentation submitted
as part of the application to verify requirements for experience level,
education, and examination, including identification of the individual
submitting the application, third party verification of experience,
verification of education, and other requirements.
Part II
Entry
18VAC50-30-20. Requirements for licensure or certification.
Each applicant shall meet or exceed the requirements set
forth in this section prior to issuance of the license or certification card.
The applicant shall be required to take an examination to
determine his general knowledge of the regulated activity in which he desires
licensure or certification. If the applicant successfully completes the
examination, an application furnished by the department shall be completed. The
application shall contain the applicant's name, home address, place of
employment, and business address; information on the knowledge, skills,
abilities, and education or training of the applicant; and a statement
certifying that the information on the application is correct. If the
application is satisfactory to the board, the applicant will be approved to
take the applicable examination or a license or certification card shall be
issued.
18VAC50-30-30. General qualifications for licensure or
certification.
Every applicant to the Board for Contractors for licensure or
certification shall meet the requirements and have the qualifications provided
in this section.
1. The applicant shall be at least 18 years old.
2. Unless otherwise exempted, the applicant shall meet the
current educational requirements by passing all required courses prior to the
time the applicant sits for the examination and applies for licensure or
certification.
3. Unless exempted, the applicant shall have passed the
applicable examination provided by the board or by a testing organization
acting on behalf of the board.
4. The applicant shall meet the experience requirements as set
forth in 18VAC50-30-40.
5. In those instances where the applicant is required to take
the license or certification examination, the applicant shall follow all rules
established by the board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such rules
shall include any written instructions communicated prior to the examination
date and any instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on
the date of the examination. Failure to comply with all rules established by
the board and the testing organization with regard to conduct at the
examination shall be grounds for denial of application.
6. The Each applicant shall (i) provide a
copy of a government-issued identification, (ii) provide a 2 x 2-inch
photograph that meets the requirements set forth by the U.S. Department of
State for passports, and (iii) disclose his physical home address; a post
office box alone is not acceptable.
7. Each nonresident applicant for a license or certification
card shall file and maintain with the department an irrevocable consent for the
department to serve as service agent for all actions filed in any court in this
Commonwealth. In those instances where service is required, the director of the
department will mail the court document to the individual at the address of
record.
8. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a
statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands Article 3 (§
54.1-1128 et seq.) of Chapter 11 of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and this
chapter.
9. The board may make further inquiries and investigations
with respect to the qualifications of the applicant or require a personal
interview with the applicant.
10. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia,
each applicant shall disclose a conviction, in any jurisdiction, of any
misdemeanor or felony. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a
conviction for the purpose of this subdivision. The record of conviction
received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction
or finding of guilt. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure or
certification to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of
Virginia.
11. The applicant shall report any suspensions, revocations,
or surrendering of a certificate or license in connection with a disciplinary
action or which has been the subject of discipline in any jurisdiction prior to
applying for licensure or certification in Virginia. The board, at its
discretion, may deny licensure or certification to any applicant based on prior
suspensions, revocations, or surrender of certifications or licenses based on
disciplinary action by any jurisdiction.
18VAC50-30-40. Evidence of ability and proficiency.
A. Applicants for examination to be licensed as a journeyman
shall furnish evidence that one of the following experience and education
standards has been attained:
1. Four years of practical experience in the trade verified
by a building official, building inspector, registered design professional,
licensee of the Board for Contractors, licensee of another regulatory agency,
or other individual or organization approved by the board and 240 hours of
formal vocational training in the trade. Experience in excess of four years may
be substituted for formal vocational training at a ratio of one year of
experience for 80 hours of formal training, but not to exceed 200 hours;
2. Four years of practical experience verified by a
building official, building inspector, registered design professional, licensee
of the Board for Contractors, licensee of another regulatory agency, or other
individual or organization approved by the board and 80 hours of vocational
training for liquefied petroleum gas fitters and natural gas fitter providers
except that no substitute experience will be allowed for liquefied petroleum
gas and natural gas workers;
3. An associate degree or a certificate of completion from at
least a two-year program in a tradesman-related field from an accredited
community college or technical school as evidenced by a transcript from the
educational institution and two years of practical experience in the trade for
which licensure is desired verified by a building official, building
inspector, registered design professional, licensee of the Board for
Contractors, licensee of another regulatory agency, or other individual or
organization approved by the board;
4. A bachelor's degree received from an accredited college or
university in an engineering curriculum related to the trade and one year of
practical experience in the trade for which licensure is desired verified by
a building official, building inspector, registered design professional,
licensee of the Board for Contractors, licensee of another regulatory agency,
or other individual or organization approved by the board; or
5. An applicant with 10 years of practical experience in the
trade, as verified by reference letters of experience from any of the
following: building officials, building inspectors, current or former
employers, contractors, engineers, architects or current or past clients
attesting to the applicant's work in the trade, a building official,
building inspector, registered design professional, licensee of the Board for
Contractors, licensee of another regulatory agency, or other individual or
organization approved by the board, may be granted permission to sit for
the journeyman's level examination without having to meet the educational
requirements.
B. Applicants for examination to be licensed as a master
shall furnish evidence that one of the following experience standards has been
attained:
1. Evidence that they have one year of experience as a
licensed journeyman; or Licensure as a journeyman in the applicable
trade by the Board for Contractors for a period of a least one year; or
2. An applicant with 10 years of practical experience in the
trade, as verified by reference letters of experience from any of the
following: building officials, building inspectors, current or former
employers, contractors, engineers, architects or current or past clients,
attesting to the applicant's work in the trade, a building official,
building inspector, registered design professional, licensee of the Board for
Contractors, licensee of another regulatory agency, or other individual or
organization approved by the board, may be granted permission to sit for
the master's level examination without having to meet the educational
requirements.
C. Individuals who have successfully passed the Class A
contractors trade examination prior to January 1, 1991, administered by the Virginia
Board for Contractors in a certified trade shall may be deemed
qualified as a master in that trade in accordance with this chapter upon
submission of verification acceptable to the Board for Contractors or
continuous work in the trade since the successful completion of the Class A
contractors trade examination.
D. Applicants for examination to be certified as a backflow
prevention device worker shall furnish evidence that one of the following
experience and education standards has been attained:
1. Four years of practical experience in water distribution
systems verified by a building official, building inspector, registered
design professional, licensee of the Board for Contractors, licensee of another
regulatory agency, or other individual or organization approved by the board
and 40 hours of formal vocational training in a school approved by the board;
or
2. Applicants with seven or more years of experience, as
verified by a building official, building inspector, registered design
professional, licensee of the Board for Contractors, licensee of another
regulatory agency, or other individual or organization approved by the board,
may qualify with 16 hours of formal vocational training in a school approved by
the board.
The board accepts the American Society of Sanitary Engineers'
(ASSE) standards for testing procedures. Other programs could be approved after
board review. The board requires all backflow training to include instruction
in a wet lab.
E. An applicant for
certification as an elevator mechanic shall:
1. Have three years of practical experience in the
construction, maintenance and service/repair of elevators, escalators, or related
conveyances verified by a building official, building inspector, registered
design professional, licensee of the Board for Contractors, licensee of another
regulatory agency, or other individual or organization approved by the board;
144 hours of formal vocational training; and satisfactorily complete a written
examination administered by the board. Experience in excess of four years may
be substituted for formal vocational training at a ratio of one year of
experience for 40 hours of formal training, but not to exceed 120 hours;
2. Have three years of practical experience in the
construction, maintenance, and service/repair of elevators, escalators, or
related conveyances verified by a building official, building inspector,
registered design professional, licensee of the Board for Contractors, licensee
of another regulatory agency, or other individual or organization approved by
the board and a certificate of completion of the elevator mechanic
examination of a training program determined to be equivalent to the
requirements established by the board; or
3. Successfully complete an elevator mechanic apprenticeship
program that is approved by the Virginia Apprenticeship Council or registered
with the Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training, U.S. Department of Labor, as
evidenced by providing a certificate of completion or other official document,
and satisfactorily complete a written examination administered by the board.
F. Pursuant to § 54.1-1129.1 A of the Code of Virginia, an
applicant for examination as a certified water well systems provider shall
provide satisfactory proof to the board of at least:
1. One year of full-time practical experience in the drilling,
installation, maintenance, or repair of water wells or water well systems under
the supervision of a certified master water well systems provider or other
equivalent experience as approved by the board to qualify for examination as a
trainee water well systems provider;
2. Three years of practical experience in the drilling,
installation, maintenance, or repair of water wells or water well systems under
the supervision of a certified master water well systems provider or other
equivalent experience as approved by the board and 24 hours of formal
vocational training in the trade to qualify for examination as a journeyman
water well systems provider; or
3. Six years of practical experience in the drilling,
installation, maintenance, or repair of water wells or water well systems under
the supervision of a certified master water well systems provider or other
equivalent experience as approved by the board and 48 hours of formal
vocational training in the trade to qualify for examination as a master water
well systems provider.
G. An applicant for certification as an accessibility
mechanic shall:
1. Have three years of practical experience in the
construction, installation, maintenance, service, repair, and testing of
wheelchair lifts, incline chairlifts, dumbwaiters, residential elevators, or
related conveyances verified by a building official, building inspector,
registered design professional, licensee of the Board for Contractors, licensee
of another regulatory agency, or other individual or organization approved by
the board; 80 hours of formal vocational training; and satisfactorily
complete a written examination administered by the board. Experience in excess
of four years may be substituted for formal vocational training at a ratio of
one year of experience for 20 hours of formal training, but not to exceed 60
hours;
2. Have three years of practical experience in the
construction, installation, maintenance, service, repair, and testing of
wheelchair lifts, incline chairlifts, dumbwaiters, residential elevators, or
related conveyances verified by a building official, building inspector,
registered design professional, licensee of the Board for Contractors, licensee
of another regulatory agency, or other individual or organization approved by
the board and a certificate of completion of an accessibility mechanic
examination of a training program determined to be equivalent to the
requirements established by the board; or
3. Successfully complete an accessibility mechanic
apprenticeship program that is approved by the Virginia Apprenticeship Council
or registered with the Bureau of Apprenticeship and Training, U.S. Department
of Labor, as evidenced by providing a certificate of completion or other
official document, and satisfactorily complete a written examination
administered by the board.
H. An applicant for a limited use/limited application (LULA)
endorsement shall:
1. Hold a current certification as an accessibility mechanic
issued by the board.
2. Have (i) one year of practical experience in the
construction, installation, maintenance, service, repair, and testing of
limited use/limited application elevators and verified by a building
official, building inspector, registered design professional, licensee of the
Board for Contractors, licensee of another regulatory agency, or other
individual or organization approved by the board complete; (ii)
completed a vocational education program approved by the board; and (iii)
either satisfactorily complete completed a written
examination administered by the board; or complete completed a
limited use/limited application elevator training program determined to be
equivalent to the requirements established by the board.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4415; Filed June 3, 2016, 9:56 a.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF MEDICINE
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC85-20. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Medicine, Osteopathic Medicine, Podiatry, and
Chiropractic (amending 18VAC85-20-320, 18VAC85-20-340,
18VAC85-20-350, 18VAC85-20-370, 18VAC85-20-380).
Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-2912.1 of the
Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: July 27, 2016.
Agency Contact: William L. Harp, M.D., Executive
Director, Board of Medicine, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA
23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4621, FAX (804) 527-4429, or email
william.harp@dhp.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) define the administration of 300
milligrams or more of lidocaine as moderate sedation; (ii) address informed
consent by patients, including knowledge about whether the physician is board
certified or board eligible; (iii) require documentation of complications
during surgery or recovery; (iv) establish a time limit on procedures that may
be performed in an office setting; (v) address proximity to a hospital to which
a patient may be transferred; and (vi) specify that the anesthesia provider or
the doctor supervising the anesthesia must give the order for discharge.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
of Regulations.
18VAC85-20-320. General provisions.
A. Applicability of requirements for office-based anesthesia.
1. The administration of topical anesthesia, local anesthesia,
minor conductive blocks, or minimal sedation/anxiolysis, not involving a
drug-induced alteration of consciousness other than minimal preoperative
tranquilization, is not subject to the requirements for office-based anesthesia
in this part. A health care practitioner administering such agents shall
adhere to an accepted standard of care as appropriate to the level of
anesthesia or sedation, including evaluation, drug selection, administration,
and management of complications.
2. The administration of moderate sedation/conscious sedation,
deep sedation, general anesthesia, or regional anesthesia consisting of a major
conductive block [ are is ] subject to these
requirements for office-based anesthesia in this part. The administration
of 300 milligrams or more of lidocaine or equivalent doses of local anesthetics
shall be deemed to be subject to these requirements for office-based anesthesia
in this part.
3. Levels of anesthesia or sedation referred to in this
chapter shall relate to the level of anesthesia or sedation intended and
documented by the practitioner in the preoperative anesthesia plan.
B. A doctor of medicine, osteopathic medicine, or podiatry
administering office-based anesthesia or supervising such administration shall:
1. Perform a preanesthetic evaluation and examination or
ensure that it has been performed;
2. Develop the anesthesia plan or ensure that it has been
developed;
3. Ensure that the anesthesia plan has been discussed with
the patient or responsible party preoperatively and informed consent has
been obtained;
4. Ensure patient assessment and monitoring through the pre-,
peri- preprocedure, periprocedure, and post-procedure phases,
addressing not only physical and functional status, but also physiological and
cognitive status;
5. Ensure provision of indicated post-anesthesia care; and
6. Remain physically present or immediately available, as
appropriate, to manage complications and emergencies until discharge criteria
have been met; and
7. Document any complications occurring during surgery or
during recovery in the medical record.
C. All written policies, procedures, and protocols
required for office-based anesthesia shall be maintained and available for
inspection at the facility.
18VAC85-20-340. Procedure/anesthesia selection and patient
evaluation.
A. A written protocol shall be developed and followed for
procedure selection to include but not be limited to:
1. The doctor providing or supervising the anesthesia shall
ensure that the procedure to be undertaken is within the scope of practice of
the health care practitioners and the capabilities of the facility.
2. The procedure or combined procedures shall be of a
duration and degree of complexity that shall not exceed four hours and that
will permit the patient to recover and be discharged from the facility in less
than 24 hours. The procedure or combined procedures may be extended for up
to eight hours if the anesthesia is provided by an anesthesiologist or a
certified registered nurse [ anesthesist anesthetist ].
3. The level of anesthesia used shall be appropriate for the
patient, the surgical procedure, the clinical setting, the education and
training of the personnel, and the equipment available. The choice of specific
anesthesia agents and techniques shall focus on providing an anesthetic that
will be effective, and appropriate and will address the specific
needs of patients while also ensuring rapid recovery to normal function with
maximum efforts to control post-operative pain, nausea, or other side
effects.
B. A written protocol shall be developed for patient
evaluation to include but not be limited to:
1. The preoperative anesthesia evaluation of a patient shall
be performed by the health care practitioner administering the anesthesia or
supervising the administration of anesthesia. It shall consist of performing an
appropriate history and physical examination, determining the patient's
physical status classification, developing a plan of anesthesia care,
acquainting the patient or the responsible individual with the proposed plan,
and discussing the risks and benefits.
2. The condition of the patient, specific morbidities that
complicate anesthetic management, the specific intrinsic risks involved, and
the nature of the planned procedure shall be considered in evaluating a patient
for office-based anesthesia.
3. Patients who have pre-existing medical or other conditions
that may be of particular risk for complications shall be referred to a
facility appropriate for the procedure and administration of anesthesia.
Nothing relieves the licensed health care practitioner of the responsibility to
make a medical determination of the appropriate surgical facility or setting.
C. Office-based anesthesia shall only be provided for
patients in physical status classifications for Classes I, II and III. Patients
in Classes IV and V shall not be provided anesthesia in an office-based
setting.
18VAC85-20-350. Informed consent.
A. Prior to administration, the anesthesia plan shall
be discussed with the patient or responsible party by the health care
practitioner administering the anesthesia or supervising the administration of
anesthesia. Informed consent for the nature and objectives of the anesthesia
planned shall be in writing and obtained from the patient or responsible party
before the procedure is performed. Such consent shall include a discussion
of discharge planning and what care or assistance the patient is expected to
require after discharge. Informed consent shall only be obtained
after a discussion of the risks, benefits, and alternatives, contain the name
of the anesthesia provider, and be documented in the medical record.
B. The surgical consent forms shall be executed by the
patient or the responsible party and shall contain a statement that the doctor
performing the surgery is board certified or board eligible by one of the
American Board of Medical Specialties boards, the Bureau of Osteopathic
Specialists of the American Osteopathic Association, or the American Board of
Foot and Ankle Surgery. The forms shall either list which board or contain a
statement that doctor performing the surgery is not board certified or board
eligible.
C. The surgical consent forms shall indicate whether the
surgery is elective or medically necessary. If a consent is obtained in an
emergency, the surgical consent form shall indicate the nature of the emergency.
18VAC85-20-370. Emergency and transfer protocols.
A. There shall be written protocols for handling emergency
situations, including medical emergencies and internal and external disasters.
All personnel shall be appropriately trained in and regularly review the
protocols and the equipment and procedures for handing handling
emergencies.
B. There shall be written protocols for the timely and safe
transfer of patients to a prespecified hospital or hospitals within a
reasonable proximity. For purposes of this section, "reasonable
proximity" shall mean that a licensed general hospital capable of
providing necessary services is normally accessible within 30 minutes of the
office. There shall be a written or electronic transfer agreement
with such hospital or hospitals.
18VAC85-20-380. Discharge policies and procedures.
A. There shall be written policies and procedures outlining
discharge criteria. Such criteria shall include stable vital signs,
responsiveness and orientation, ability to move voluntarily, controlled pain,
and minimal nausea and vomiting.
B. Discharge from anesthesia care is the responsibility of
the health care practitioner providing or the doctor supervising the
anesthesia care and shall only occur when patients have:
1. The patient has met specific physician-defined
criteria; and
2. The health care practitioner providing or the doctor
supervising the anesthetic care has given the order for discharge.
C. Written instructions and an emergency phone number shall
be provided to the patient. Patients shall be discharged with a responsible
individual who has been instructed with regard to the patient's care.
D. At least one person trained in advanced resuscitative
techniques shall be immediately available until all patients are discharged.
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-01; Filed June 3, 2016, 2:59 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF PHARMACY
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC110-20. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Pharmacy (amending 18VAC110-20-540).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: July 27, 2016.
Effective Date: August 11, 2016.
Agency Contact: Caroline Juran, RPh, Executive Director,
Board of Pharmacy, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463,
telephone (804) 367-4416, FAX (804) 527-4472, or email caroline.juran@dhp.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia
provides the Board of Pharmacy the authority to promulgate regulations in
accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code
of Virginia) that are reasonable and necessary to administer effectively the
regulatory system.
Purpose: The purpose of the planned regulatory action is
to address an urgent problem. Omnicare, a CVS Health Company, provides
long-term care pharmacy services to a diverse population of skilled nursing
patients in Virginia to include subacute care for children. Specifically, the
children in these facilities suffer from complex physical and neurological
diseases and experience frequent seizures. As a result, nurses assigned to these
pediatric units need immediate access to diazepam rectal gel in their emergency
boxes. Limiting the access to this critical medication will most certainly
threaten a successful patient outcome up to and including the survival of the
patient. Unfortunately, current pharmacy regulation 18VAC110-20-550 does not
allow a CIV rectal gel to be included in the contents allowed in the emergency
box. The company requested the amendment to allow pharmacists to meet the needs
of this fragile population. The request for limited access to the drug was
approved to protect the health and safety of patients in a long-term care
facility. Because 18VAC110-20-590 authorizes correctional facilities that
employ one or more full-time physicians, nurses, or physician assistants to obtain
an emergency kit in accordance with 18VAC110-20-540, patients in correctional
facilities may also benefit from the inclusion of this drug in an emergency
kit.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: This
action will not be controversial as it is limited to making a small dosage of a
drug that can be lifesaving available in an emergency situation.
Substance: 18VAC110-20-540 is amended to allow a
provider pharmacist, in consultation with medical and nursing staff, to include
diazepam rectal gel in an emergency kit maintained in a long-term care
facility. The amendment will also allow inmates in correctional facilities to
potentially benefit from inclusion of this drug since 18VAC110-20-590 allows
for an emergency kit under certain circumstances, consistent with
18VAC110-20-540.
Issues: The advantage to the public is availability of a
drug that may be lifesaving to a small group of patients. There are no
disadvantages to the public. There are no advantages or disadvantages to the
agency.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of
Pharmacy (Board) proposes to amend this regulation to allow a provider
pharmacist, in consultation with medical and nursing staff, to include diazepam
rectal gel in an emergency kit maintained in a long-term care facility.
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. The Regulations Governing the
Practice of Pharmacy specify that pharmacists may prepare an emergency kit for
a long-term care facility in which access to the kit is restricted to a
licensed nurse, pharmacist, or prescriber under certain conditions.1
The current regulation limits the contents of the kit to "drugs for
administration by injection or inhalation only, except that Nitroglycerin SL
may be included." The Board proposes to additionally allow diazepam rectal
gel in the kit. Diazepam rectal gel is used in emergency situations to stop
cluster seizures (episodes of increased seizure activity) in people who are
taking other medications to treat epilepsy (seizures).2
Children and adults in long-term care facilities who suffer
from complex physical and neurological diseases and experience frequent
seizures would benefit from having immediate access to diazepam rectal gel in
the facilities' emergency boxes. Under the current regulation the gel can only
be obtained by prescription as needed. The proposed amendment will be
beneficial in that it will likely help improve patient outcomes for patients
having seizures by allowing for immediate access to the gel. Since the
regulation authorizes correctional facilities that employ one or more full-time
physicians, nurses, or physician assistants to obtain an emergency kit in accordance
with the regulation, patients in correctional facilities may also benefit from
the inclusion of this drug in an emergency kit. Since there is no apparent cost
to the proposed amendment, the proposed addition of diazepam rectal gel to the
allowable contents of emergency kits for long-term facilities creates a net
benefit.
Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendment
potentially affects 162 skilled nursing facilities in the Commonwealth,3
as well as correctional facilities.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendment does
not disproportionately affect particular localities.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendment does not
significantly affect employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
amendment does not have significant effect on the use and value of private
property.
Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendment does not
affect real estate development costs.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendment does not
significantly affect costs for small businesses.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed
amendment does not adversely affect small businesses.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. The proposed amendment does not adversely affect
businesses.
Localities. The proposed amendment does not adversely affect
localities.
Other Entities. The proposed amendment does not adversely
affect other entities.
_________________________________________________
1http://law.lis.virginia.gov/admincode/title18/agency110/chapter20
/section540/
2Source: U.S. National Library of Medicine
(https://www.nlm.nih.gov/medlineplus/druginfo/meds/a605033.html)
3The number of affected facilities was estimated by
Omnicare, a CVS Health Company, which supplies the facilities.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board
of Pharmacy concurs with the analysis of the Department of Planning and Budget
on proposed amended regulations for 18VAC110-20, Regulations Governing the Practice
of Pharmacy.
Summary:
The amendments allow a provider pharmacist, in consultation
with medical and nursing staff, to include diazepam rectal gel in an emergency
kit maintained in a long-term care facility.
18VAC110-20-540. Emergency drug kit.
The pharmacist providing services may prepare an emergency
kit for a long-term care facility in which access to the kit is restricted to a
licensed nurse, pharmacist, or prescriber and only these licensed individuals
may administer a drug taken from the kit and only under the following
conditions:
1. The contents of the emergency kit shall be of such a nature
that the absence of the drugs would threaten the survival of the patients.
2. The contents of the kit shall be determined by the provider
pharmacist in consultation with the medical and nursing staff of the
institutions and shall be limited to drugs for administration by injection or
inhalation only, except that Nitroglycerin SL and diazepam rectal gel
may be included.
3. The kit is sealed in such a manner that it will preclude
any possible loss of the drug.
a. The dispensing pharmacy must have a method of sealing such
kits so that once the seal is broken, it cannot be reasonably resealed without
the breach being detected.
b. If a seal is used, it shall have a unique numeric or
alphanumeric identifier to preclude replication and/or, resealing,
or both. The pharmacy shall maintain a record of the seal identifiers when
placed on a box or kit and maintain the record until such time as the seal is
replaced.
c. In lieu of seals, a kit with a built-in mechanism
preventing resealing or relocking once opened except by the provider pharmacy
is also acceptable.
4. The kit shall have a form to be filled out upon opening the
kit and removing contents to write the name of the person opening the kit, the
date, time and name and quantity of item(s) items removed. The
opened kit is maintained under secure conditions and returned to the pharmacy
within 72 hours for replenishing.
5. Any drug used from the kit shall be covered by a
prescription, signed by the prescriber, when legally required, within 72 hours.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4671; Filed June 3, 2016, 4:25 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF SOCIAL WORK
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC140-20. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Social Work (amending 18VAC140-20-40, 18VAC140-20-45,
18VAC140-20-50 through 18VAC140-20-70, 18VAC140-20-110, 18VAC140-20-150,
18VAC140-20-160).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: July 27, 2016.
Effective Date: August 12, 2016.
Agency Contact: Jaime Hoyle, Executive Director, Board
of Social Work, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463,
telephone (804) 367-4406, FAX (804) 527-4435, or email
jaime.hoyle@dhp.virginia.gov.
Basis: Regulations are promulgated under the general
authority of § 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia, which provides the Board of
Social Work the authority to promulgate regulations to administer the
regulatory system.
Purpose: The goals of the regulatory action are to
address issues and a lack of clarity with some of the licensure requirements.
More explicit but less restrictive application requirements may facilitate
licensure for some clinical social workers who can provide mental health
services in Virginia, but the requirement for a report from the national
practitioner databank will ensure that applicants with a history of
disciplinary action or malpractice will be carefully scrutinized before a
licensure decision is made. Likewise, clarification of the regulations for
supervised experience will ensure that supervisees are appropriately supervised
in the provision of clinical services and therefore offer more protection for
clients and the general public.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: The
amendments adopted are requested by the professional society, clarifying and
intended to resolve issues with regulations, or are less restrictive for
applicants and licensees. The amendments should not be controversial.
Substance: Licensure regulations are amended for (i)
clarification of application requirements and inclusion of a requirement for
submission of a current report from the national practitioner data bank about
the disciplinary and malpractice history of the applicant; (ii) a reduction in
the years of active practice required for endorsement or reinstatement; (iii)
less restrictive and confusing requirement for hours of face-to-face client
contact during supervision, for acceptance of supervision obtained in another
U.S. jurisdiction, and fewer years of post-licensure experience required to be
a supervisor; (iv) clarification about the requirement for registration of
supervision whenever there is a change that affects the experience approved by
the board; (v) more specificity about a request for extension of supervised
practice and about the responsibilities of the supervisor; and (vi)
clarification that the grounds for disciplinary action apply to registered
supervisees as well as licensees.
Issues: The primary advantages to the public are greater
clarity about the responsibilities of supervisees and supervisors so persons
receiving social work services, especially those that are clinical in nature,
have more assurance of appropriateness and competency. Additionally, a less
stringent practice requirement may enable a few clinical social workers to
qualify for licensure by endorsement or reinstatement; there are no
disadvantages to the public.
The primary advantage to the agency is more clarity in
regulation, which reduces questions and confusion; there are no disadvantages.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of
Social Work (Board) proposes to amend its regulation to: 1) require applicants
for licensure to submit a current malpractice and disciplinary history report
from the National Practitioner Data Bank, 2) decrease the number of months of
active practice required to qualify for licensure by endorsement, 3) make rules
for hours of face-to-face client contact during supervision, and for
supervision in general, less restrictive and complicated and 4) clarify that
disciplinary rules apply to registered supervisees as well as Board licensees.
Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for these
proposed regulatory changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. Current regulation requires
applicants for licensure to submit varying types of documents/information
depending on whether the applicant is seeking licensure by examination or
licensure by endorsement. The Board proposes to require applicants on both
licensure paths to additionally submit a current report from the U.S.
Department of Health and Human Services National Practitioner Data Bank that
will show their malpractice and disciplinary history (if any). This report will
cost applicants $5 and is not duplicative of other information that is already
required. Requiring this report will allow the Board to weed out potential
licensees that might do harm to their future clients if licensed in Virginia.
Given this, the benefits of requiring this report likely outweigh the costs of
doing so.
Current regulation requires, in two of its experience options,
that applicants for licensure by endorsement provide evidence of active
practice for 36 of the 60 months immediately preceding application for
licensure. The Board now proposes to lower this requirement so that applicants
meeting one of these options will only have to have actively practiced for 24
of the preceding 60 months. This change will still allow the Board assurance
that the applicant has practiced for a substantial period of time without
issues while allowing a greater number of social workers from other states to
qualify for licensure in Virginia. This will likely benefit those individuals
as well as providing more choices to Virginians seeking these licensed
services.
Currently, the Board requires individuals who are completing
the supervised practice necessary for licensure to, among other things, 1) get
pre-approval of supervision (so that supervision will count toward licensure
requirements), 2) complete 15 hours of face-to-face client contact per 40 hours
of work experience, 3) complete all supervised experience in the delivery of
clinical social work services and 4) complete all required supervised work
experience within four years unless the Board approves an extension for the
supervisee. The Board currently requires supervisors to have at least three
years of post-licensure work experience. In order to both simplify these rules
and make them less restrictive, the Board proposes to 1) allow an exception for
Board pre-approval of supervision for individuals who obtained their supervised
work experience in another U.S. state or territory and met the requirements of
that jurisdiction, 2) be less proscriptive about the ratio of face-to-face
contact hours to total supervised experience by only specifying that
face-to-face contact hours must be obtained throughout the hours of
supervision, 3) allow supervised experience in ancillary services that support
the delivery of clinical social work services to also count toward supervision
requirements and 4) specify that supervisees may obtain an extension of 12
months to complete supervised experience requirements. The Board also proposes
to only require licensees to have completed two (rather than three) years of
post-licensure work experience in order to qualify to provide supervision.
Taken together all of these changes will tend to make the rules of supervision
easier to understand and easier to meet. Both supervisors and supervisees will
benefit from these changes. In particular, decreasing the number of years of
post-licensure work experience required will allow more licensees to qualify as
supervisors which will, in turn, make it easier for individuals working to meet
licensure requirements to find a supervisor. Allowing supervision completed in
other U.S. jurisdictions to count toward licensure requirements will likely
allow more individuals moving into the state to qualify for licensure more
quickly (as they would not have to re-do supervised experience already obtained
in another state).
In addition to these substantive changes, the Board also
proposes to clarify that supervisees, as individuals regulated by the Board,
are also subject to Board discipline. Toward this end, the Board proposes to
add supervisees to the disciplinary rule that discourages licensees from
treating individuals with whom they have another pre-existing relationship so
that supervisees know that they are also expected to follow this rule. No
entity is likely to incur costs on account of this change. To the extent that
this change reinforces to supervisees that they should not engage in dual
relationships, this change will provide a benefit to those supervisees.
Businesses and Entities Affected. Board staff reports that the
Board currently licenses 5,933 clinical social workers and 581 social workers.
Additionally, the Board currently has 1,459 registered supervisees. All of
these entities, as well as any future licensees and supervisees, will be
affected by these regulatory changes. Based on survey data collected by the
Healthcare Workforce Data Center at the Department of Health Professions,
approximately 38% of clinical social workers (approximately 2,255 of the
currently licensed clinical social workers) are in solo or group private
practice and would likely qualify as small businesses.
Localities Particularly Affected. No locality will be
particularly affected by this regulatory change.
Projected Impact on Employment. Requiring fewer months of
active practice for licensure by endorsement may make a greater number of
social workers and clinical social workers who have practiced in other states
eligible for licensure in Virginia.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These
proposed regulatory changes are unlikely to affect the use or value of private
property in the Commonwealth.
Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect real estate development costs in the
Commonwealth.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. Small businesses are unlikely to incur
any costs on account of these proposed regulatory changes.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. Small
businesses are unlikely to incur any costs on account of these proposed
regulatory changes.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. Businesses are unlikely to incur any costs on
account of these proposed regulatory changes.
Localities. Localities in the Commonwealth are unlikely to see
any adverse impacts on account of this proposed regulatory change.
Other Entities. Individuals seeking licensure in the
Commonwealth as social workers and clinical social workers will incur an
additional $5 fee for obtaining a current malpractice and disciplinary history
report from the National Practitioner Data Bank.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis. The Board
of Social Work concurs with the economic impact analysis of the Department of
Planning and Budget.
Summary:
The amendments (i) clarify application requirements and
include a requirement for submission of a current report from the National
Practitioner Data Bank about the disciplinary and malpractice history of the
applicant; (ii) reduce the years of active practice required for endorsement or
reinstatement; (iii) clarify and reduce a requirement for hours of face-to-face
client contact during supervision, for acceptance of supervision obtained in
another U.S. jurisdiction, and for years of post-licensure experience required
to be a supervisor; (iv) clarify the requirement for registration of
supervision whenever there is a change that affects the experience approved by
the board; (v) specify requirements for a request for extension of supervised
practice and the responsibilities of the supervisor; and (vi) clarify that the
grounds for disciplinary action apply to registered supervisees as well as
licensees.
Part II
Requirements for Licensure
18VAC140-20-40. Requirements for licensure by examination as a
licensed clinical social worker.
Every applicant for examination for licensure as a licensed
clinical social worker shall:
1. Meet the education requirements prescribed in
18VAC140-20-49 and experience requirements prescribed in 18VAC140-20-50.
2. Submit a completed application to the board office to
include:
a. Documentation, on the appropriate forms, of the successful
completion of the supervised experience requirements of 18VAC140-20-50 along
with documentation of the supervisor's out-of-state license where applicable.
Applicants whose former supervisor is deceased, or whose whereabouts is
unknown, shall submit to the board a notarized affidavit from the present chief
executive officer of the agency, corporation or partnership in which the
applicant was supervised. The affidavit shall specify dates of employment, job
responsibilities, supervisor's name and last known address, and the total
number of hours spent by the applicant with the supervisor in face-to-face
supervision;
b. The application fee prescribed in 18VAC140-20-30;
c. Official transcript or documentation submitted from the
appropriate institutions of higher education that verifies successful
completion of educational requirements set forth in 18VAC140-20-49; and
d. Documentation of applicant's out-of-state any
other health or mental health licensure or certification where,
if applicable; and
e. A current report from the U.S. Department of Health and
Human Services National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB).
3. Provide evidence of passage of the examination prescribed
in 18VAC140-20-70. If the examination was not passed within five years
preceding application for licensure, the applicant may qualify by documentation
of providing clinical social work services in an exempt setting for at least
360 hours per year for two of the past five years.
18VAC140-20-45. Requirements for licensure by endorsement.
A. Every applicant for licensure by endorsement shall
submit in one package:
1. A completed application and the application fee prescribed
in 18VAC140-20-30.
2. Documentation of active social work licensure in
good standing obtained by standards required for licensure in another
jurisdiction as verified by the out-of-state licensing agency on a
board-approved form. Licensure in the other jurisdiction shall be of a
comparable type as the licensure that the applicant is seeking in Virginia.
3. Verification of a passing score on a board-approved
national exam at the level for which the applicant is seeking licensure in
Virginia.
4. Documentation of any other health or mental health
licensure or certification, if applicable.
5. A current report from the U.S. Department of Health and
Human Services National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB).
4. 6. Verification of active:
a. Active practice at the level for which the
applicant is seeking licensure in another United States jurisdiction
or practice for 24 out of the past 60 months;
b. Active practice in an exempt setting at the level
for which the applicant is seeking licensure for 36 24 out of the
past 60 months; or evidence
c. Evidence of supervised experience requirements
substantially equivalent to those outlined in 18VAC140-20-50 A 2 and A 3
and 18VAC140-20-60 C 2 and C 3.
5. 7. Certification that the applicant is not
the respondent in any pending or unresolved board action in another
jurisdiction or in a malpractice claim.
B. If an applicant for licensure by endorsement has not
passed a board-approved national examination at the level for which the
applicant is seeking licensure in Virginia, the board may approve the applicant
to sit for such examination.
18VAC140-20-50. Experience requirements for a licensed clinical
social worker.
A. Supervised experience. Supervised post-master's degree
experience in all settings obtained in Virginia without prior written
board approval will not be accepted toward licensure, except supervision
obtained in another United States jurisdiction may be accepted if it met the
requirements of that jurisdiction.
1. Registration. An individual who proposes to obtain
supervised post-master's degree experience in Virginia shall, prior to the
onset of such supervision:
a. Register on a form provided by the board and completed by
the supervisor and the supervised individual; and
b. Pay the registration of supervision fee set forth in
18VAC140-20-30.
2. Hours. The applicant shall have completed a minimum of
3,000 hours of supervised post-master's degree experience in the delivery of
clinical social work services and in ancillary services that support such
delivery. A minimum of one hour and a maximum of four hours of face-to-face
supervision shall be provided per 40 hours of work experience for a total of at
least 100 hours. No more than 50 of the 100 hours may be obtained in group
supervision, nor shall there be more than six persons being supervised in a
group unless approved in advance by the board. The board may consider
alternatives to face-to-face supervision if the applicant can demonstrate an
undue burden due to hardship, disability or geography.
a. Experience Supervised experience shall be
acquired in no less than two nor more than four consecutive years.
b. Supervisees shall average no less than 15 hours per 40
hours of work experience in face-to-face client contact for obtain
throughout their hours of supervision a minimum of 1,380 hours of
supervised experience in face-to-face client contact in the delivery of
clinical social work services. The remaining hours may be spent in
ancillary services supporting the delivery of clinical social work services.
3. An individual who does not complete the supervision requirement
after four consecutive years of supervised experience shall submit
evidence to the board showing why the training should be allowed to continue
may request an extension of up to 12 months. The request for an
extension shall include evidence that demonstrates extenuating circumstances
that prevented completion of the supervised experience within four consecutive
years.
B. Requirements for supervisors.
1. The supervisor shall hold an active, unrestricted license
as a licensed clinical social worker in the jurisdiction in which the clinical
services are being rendered with at least three two years of
post-licensure clinical social work experience. The board may consider
supervisors with commensurate qualifications if the applicant can demonstrate an
undue burden due to geography or disability or if supervision was obtained
in another United States jurisdiction.
2. The supervisor shall have received professional training in
supervision, consisting of a three credit-hour graduate course in supervision
or at least 14 hours of continuing education offered by a provider approved
under 18VAC140-20-105. The graduate course or hours of continuing education in
supervision shall be obtained by a supervisor within five years immediately
preceding registration of supervision.
3. The supervisor shall not provide supervision for a family
member of his immediate family or provide supervision for anyone with
whom he has a dual relationship.
4. The board may consider supervisors from jurisdictions
outside of Virginia who provided clinical social work supervision if they have
commensurate qualifications but were either (i) not licensed because their
jurisdiction did not require licensure or (ii) were not designated as clinical
social workers because the jurisdiction did not require such designation.
C. Responsibilities of supervisors. The supervisor shall:
1. Be responsible for the social work activities of the
supervisee as set forth in this subsection once the supervisory arrangement is
accepted;
2. Review and approve the diagnostic assessment and treatment
plan of a representative sample of the clients assigned to the applicant during
the course of supervision. The sample should be representative of the variables
of gender, age, diagnosis, length of treatment and treatment method within the
client population seen by the applicant. It is the applicant's responsibility
to assure the representativeness of the sample that is presented to the
supervisor;
3. Provide supervision only for those social work activities
for which the supervisor has determined the applicant is competent to provide
to clients;
4. Provide supervision only for those activities for which the
supervisor is qualified by education, training and experience;
5. Evaluate the supervisee's knowledge and document minimal
competencies in the areas of an identified theory base, application of a
differential diagnosis, establishing and monitoring a treatment plan,
development and appropriate use of the professional relationship, assessing the
client for risk of imminent danger, understanding the requirements of law
for reporting any harm or risk of harm to self or others, and implementing
a professional and ethical relationship with clients;
6. Be available to the applicant on a regularly scheduled
basis for supervision; and
7. Maintain documentation, for five years post-supervision, of
which clients were the subject of supervision; and
8. Ensure that the board is notified of any change in
supervision or if supervision has ended or been terminated by the supervisor.
D. Responsibilities of supervisees.
1. Supervisees may not directly bill for services
rendered or in any way represent themselves as independent, autonomous
practitioners, or licensed clinical social workers.
2. During the supervised experience, supervisees shall
use their names and the initials of their degree, and the title
"Supervisee in Social Work" in all written communications.
3. Clients shall be informed in writing of the
supervisee's status and the supervisor's name, professional address, and phone
number.
4. Supervisees shall not supervise the provision of
clinical social work services provided by another person.
18VAC140-20-51. Requirements for licensure by examination as a
licensed social worker.
A. In order to be approved to sit for the board-approved
examination for a licensed social worker, an applicant shall:
1. Meet the education requirements prescribed in
18VAC140-20-60 A.
2. Submit a completed application to the board office to
include:
a. The application fee prescribed in 18VAC140-20-30; and
b. Official transcript or transcripts submitted from the
appropriate institutions of higher education.
B. In order to be licensed by examination as a licensed
social worker, an applicant shall:
1. Meet the education and experience requirements prescribed
in 18VAC140-20-60; and
2. Submit, in addition to the application requirements of
subsection A of this section, the following:
a. Documentation, on the appropriate forms, of the successful
completion of the supervised experience requirements of 18VAC140-20-60 along
with documentation of the supervisor's out-of-state license where applicable.
An applicant whose former supervisor is deceased, or whose whereabouts is
unknown, shall submit to the board a notarized affidavit from the present chief
executive officer of the agency, corporation or partnership in which the
applicant was supervised. The affidavit shall specify dates of employment, job
responsibilities, supervisor's name and last known address, and the total
number of hours spent by the applicant with the supervisor in face-to-face
supervision;
b. Verification of a passing score on the board-approved
national examination; and
c. Documentation of applicant's out-of-state any
other health or mental health licensure or certification where,
if applicable; and
d. A current report from the U.S. Department of Health and
Human Services National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB).
3. Provide evidence of passage of the examination prescribed
in 18VAC140-20-70. If the examination was not passed within five years preceding
application for licensure, the applicant may qualify by documentation of
providing social work services in an exempt setting for at least 360 hours per
year for two of the past five years.
18VAC140-20-60. Education and experience requirements for a
licensed social worker.
A. Education. The applicant shall hold a bachelor's or a
master's degree from an accredited school of social work. Graduates of foreign
institutions must establish the equivalency of their education to this
requirement through the Foreign Equivalency Determination Service of the
Council on Social Work Education.
B. Master's degree applicant. An applicant who holds a
master's degree may apply for licensure as a licensed social worker without
documentation of supervised experience.
C. Bachelor's degree applicant Supervised
experience requirement. Supervised experience in all settings obtained
in Virginia without prior written board approval will not be accepted
toward licensure, except supervision obtained in another United States jurisdiction
may be accepted if it met the requirements of that jurisdiction.
1. Registration. Prior to the onset of supervision, an
individual who proposes to obtain supervised experience in Virginia shall:
a. Register on a form provided by the board and completed
by the supervisor and the supervised individual; and
b. Pay the registration of supervision fee set forth in
18VAC140-20-30.
1. 2. Hours. Bachelor's degree applicants shall
have completed a minimum of 3,000 hours of supervised post-bachelor's degree
experience in casework management and supportive services under supervision
satisfactory to the board. A minimum of one hour and a maximum of four hours of
face-to-face supervision shall be provided per 40 hours of work experience for
a total of at least 100 hours.
2. Experience 3. Supervised experience shall be
acquired in no less than two nor more than four consecutive years from
the beginning of the supervised experience. An individual who does not
complete the supervision requirement after four consecutive years of supervised
experience may request an extension of up to 12 months. The request for an
extension shall include evidence that demonstrates extenuating circumstances
that prevented completion of the supervised experience within four consecutive
years.
D. Requirements for supervisors.
1. The supervisor providing supervision shall hold an active,
unrestricted license as a licensed social worker with a master's degree, or a
licensed social worker with a bachelor's degree and at least three years of
post-licensure social work experience or a licensed clinical social worker in
the jurisdiction in which the social work services are being rendered. If this
requirement places an undue burden on the applicant due to geography or
disability, the board may consider individuals with comparable qualifications.
2. The supervisor shall:
a. Be responsible for the social work practice of the prospective
applicant once the supervisory arrangement is accepted by the board;
b. Review and approve the assessment and service plan of a
representative sample of cases assigned to the applicant during the course of
supervision. The sample should be representative of the variables of gender,
age, assessment, length of service and casework method within the client
population seen by the applicant. It is the applicant's responsibility to
assure the representativeness of the sample that is presented to the supervisor.
The supervisor shall be available to the applicant on a regularly scheduled
basis for supervision. The supervisor will maintain documentation, for five
years post supervision, of which clients were the subject of supervision;
c. Provide supervision only for those casework management and
support services activities for which the supervisor has determined the
applicant is competent to provide to clients;
d. Provide supervision only for those activities for which the
supervisor is qualified; and
e. Evaluate the supervisee in the areas of professional ethics
and professional competency; and
f. Ensure that the board is notified of any change in
supervision or if the supervision has ended or has been terminated by the
supervisor.
3. Supervision between members of the immediate family (to
include spouses, parents, and siblings) will not be approved The
supervisor shall not provide supervision for a family member or provide
supervision for anyone with whom the supervisor has a dual relationship.
Part III
Examinations
18VAC140-20-70. Examination requirement.
A. An applicant for licensure by the board as a social worker
or clinical social worker shall pass a written examination prescribed by the
board.
1. The examination prescribed for licensure as a clinical social
worker shall be the licensing examination of the Association of Social Work
Boards at the clinical level.
2. The examination prescribed for licensure as a social worker
shall minimally be the licensing examination of the Association of Social Work
Boards at the bachelor's level.
B. A candidate approved by the board to sit for an
examination shall take that examination within two years of the date of the
initial board approval. If the candidate has not passed the examination by the
end of the two-year period here prescribed, the applicant shall reapply
according to the requirements of the regulations in effect at that time. After
an applicant has failed the examination twice, he shall be required to register
for supervision and complete one additional year as a supervisee before
approval to re-take the examination is granted.
18VAC140-20-110. Late renewal; reinstatement; reactivation.
A. A social worker or clinical social worker whose license
has expired may renew that license within one year after its expiration date
by:
1. Providing evidence of having met all applicable continuing
education requirements.
2. Paying the penalty for late renewal and the renewal fee as
prescribed in 18VAC140-20-30.
B. A social worker or clinical social worker who fails to
renew the license after one year and who wishes to resume practice shall apply
for reinstatement and pay the reinstatement fee, which shall consist of the
application processing fee and the penalty fee for late renewal, as set forth
in 18VAC140-20-30. An applicant for reinstatement shall also provide
documentation of having completed all applicable continued competency hours
equal to the number of years the license has lapsed, not to exceed four years.
An applicant for reinstatement shall also provide evidence of competency to
practice by documenting:
1. Active practice in another U.S. United States
jurisdiction for at least three of the past five years 24 out of the
past 60 months immediately preceding application;
2. Active practice in an exempt setting for at least three
of the past five years 24 out of the past 60 months immediately
preceding application; or
3. Practice as a supervisee under supervision for at least 360
hours in the 12 months immediately preceding licensure in Virginia.
C. A social worker or clinical social worker wishing to
reactivate an inactive license shall submit the renewal fee for active
licensure minus any fee already paid for inactive licensure renewal, and
document completion of continued competency hours equal to the number of years
the license has been inactive, not to exceed four years. An applicant for
reactivation who has been inactive for four or more years shall also
provide evidence of competency to practice by documenting:
1. Active practice in another U.S. United States
jurisdiction for at least three of the past five years 24 out of the
past 60 months immediately preceding application;
2. Active practice in an exempt setting for at least three
of the past five years 24 out of the past 60 months immediately
preceding application; or
3. Practice as a supervisee under supervision for at least 360
hours in the 12 months immediately preceding licensure in Virginia.
Part V
Standards of Practice
18VAC140-20-150. Professional conduct.
A. The protection of the public health, safety, and welfare
and the best interest of the public shall be the primary guide in determining
the appropriate professional conduct of all persons whose activities are
regulated by the board. Regardless of the delivery method, whether in person,
by telephone or electronically, these standards shall apply to the practice of
social work.
B. Persons licensed as social workers and clinical social
workers shall:
1. Be able to justify all services rendered to or on behalf of
clients as necessary for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.
2. Provide for continuation of care when services must be
interrupted or terminated.
3. Practice only within the competency areas for which they
are qualified by education and experience.
4. Report to the board known or suspected violations of the
laws and regulations governing the practice of social work.
5. Neither accept nor give commissions, rebates, or other
forms of remuneration for referral of clients for professional services.
6. Ensure that clients are aware of fees and billing
arrangements before rendering services.
7. Inform clients of potential risks and benefits of services
and the limitations on confidentiality and ensure that clients have provided
informed written consent to treatment.
8. Keep confidential their therapeutic relationships with
clients and disclose client records to others only with written consent of the
client, with the following exceptions: (i) when the client is a danger to self
or others; or (ii) as required by law.
9. When advertising their services to the public, ensure that
such advertising is neither fraudulent nor misleading.
10. As treatment requires and with the written consent of the
client, collaborate with other health or mental health providers concurrently
providing services to the client.
11. Refrain from undertaking any activity in which one's
personal problems are likely to lead to inadequate or harmful services.
12. Recognize conflicts of interest and inform all parties of
the nature and directions of loyalties and responsibilities involved.
C. In regard to client records, persons licensed by the board
shall comply with provisions of § 32.1-127.1:03 of the Code of Virginia on
health records privacy and shall:
1. Maintain written or electronic clinical records for each
client to include identifying information and assessment that substantiates
diagnosis and treatment plans. Each record shall include a diagnosis and treatment
plan, progress notes for each case activity, information received from all
collaborative contacts and the treatment implications of that information, and
the termination process and summary.
2. Maintain client records securely, inform all employees of
the requirements of confidentiality, and provide for the destruction of records
that are no longer useful in a manner that ensures client confidentiality.
3. Disclose or release records to others only with clients'
expressed written consent or that of their legally authorized representative or
as mandated by law.
4. Ensure confidentiality in the usage of client records and
clinical materials by obtaining informed consent from clients or their legally
authorized representative before (i) videotaping, (ii) audio recording, (iii)
permitting third-party observation, or (iv) using identifiable client records
and clinical materials in teaching, writing or public presentations.
5. Maintain client records for a minimum of six years or as
otherwise required by law from the date of termination of the therapeutic
relationship with the following exceptions:
a. At minimum, records of a minor child shall be maintained
for six years after attaining the age of majority or 10 years following
termination, whichever comes later.
b. Records that are required by contractual obligation or
federal law to be maintained for a longer period of time.
c. Records that have been transferred to another mental health
professional or have been given to the client or his legally authorized representative.
D. In regard to dual relationships, persons licensed by the
board shall:
1. Not engage in a dual relationship with a client or a former
client supervisee that could impair professional judgment or
increase the risk of exploitation or harm to the client or supervisee.
(Examples of such a relationship include, but are not limited to, familial,
social, financial, business, bartering, or a close personal relationship with a
client or supervisee.) Social workers shall take appropriate
professional precautions when a dual relationship cannot be avoided, such as
informed consent, consultation, supervision, and documentation to ensure that
judgment is not impaired and no exploitation occurs.
2. Not have any type of romantic relationship or sexual
intimacies with a client or those included in collateral therapeutic services,
and not provide services to those persons with whom they have had a romantic
or sexual relationship. Social workers shall not engage in romantic
relationship or sexual intimacies with a former client within a minimum of
five years after terminating the professional relationship. Social workers who
engage in such a relationship after five years following termination shall have
the responsibility to examine and document thoroughly that such a relationship
did not have an exploitive nature, based on factors such as duration of
therapy, amount of time since therapy, termination circumstances, client's
personal history and mental status, adverse impact on the client. A client's
consent to, initiation of or participation in sexual behavior or involvement
with a social worker does not change the nature of the conduct nor lift the
regulatory prohibition.
3. Not engage in any romantic or sexual relationship or
establish a therapeutic relationship with a current supervisee or student.
Social workers shall avoid any nonsexual dual relationship with a supervisee or
student in which there is a risk of exploitation or potential harm to the
supervisee or student, or the potential for interference with the supervisor's
professional judgment.
4. Recognize conflicts of interest and inform all parties of
the nature and directions of loyalties and responsibilities involved.
5. Not engage in a personal relationship with a former client
in which there is a risk of exploitation or potential harm or if the former
client continues to relate to the social worker in his professional capacity.
E. Upon learning of evidence that indicates a reasonable
probability that another mental health provider is or may be guilty of a
violation of standards of conduct as defined in statute or regulation, persons
licensed by the board shall advise their clients of their right to report such
misconduct to the Department of Health Professions in accordance with §
54.1-2400.4 of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC140-20-160. Grounds for disciplinary action or denial of
issuance of a license or registration.
The board may refuse to admit an applicant to an examination;
refuse to issue a license or registration to an applicant; or reprimand,
impose a monetary penalty, place on probation, impose such terms as it may
designate, suspend for a stated period of time or indefinitely, or revoke a
license or registration for one or more of the following grounds:
1. Conviction of a felony or of a misdemeanor involving moral
turpitude;
2. Procurement of license by fraud or misrepresentation;
3. Conducting one's practice in such a manner so as to make
the practice a danger to the health and welfare of one's clients or to the
public. In the event a question arises concerning the continued competence of a
licensee, the board will consider evidence of continuing education.
4. Being unable to practice social work with reasonable skill
and safety to clients by reason of illness, excessive use of alcohol, drugs, narcotics,
chemicals or any other type of material or as a result of any mental or
physical condition;
5. Conducting one's practice in a manner contrary to the
standards of ethics of social work or in violation of 18VAC140-20-150,
standards of practice;
6. Performing functions outside the board-licensed area of
competency;
7. Failure to comply with the continued competency
requirements set forth in 18VAC140-20-105; and
8. Violating or aiding and abetting another to violate any
statute applicable to the practice of social work or any provision of this
chapter; and
9. Failure to provide supervision in accordance with the
provisions of 18VAC140-20-50 or 18VAC140-20-60.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4473; Filed June 3, 2016, 4:27 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF VETERINARY MEDICINE
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC150-20. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Veterinary Medicine (amending 18VAC150-20-130; adding
18VAC150-20-173).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Effective Date: July 27, 2016.
Agency Contact: Leslie L. Knachel, Executive Director,
Board of Veterinary Medicine, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA
23233, telephone (804) 367-4468, FAX (804) 527-4471, or email
leslie.knachel@dhp.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) remove the requirement that a veterinary
college student be in the final year of training to engage in a preceptorship
or externship; (ii) require that whenever a veterinary preceptee or extern is
performing surgery, the supervising veterinarian shall be in the operatory; and
(iii) require disclosure whenever a veterinary preceptee or extern is
practicing in the veterinary establishment.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
of Regulations.
18VAC150-20-130. Requirements for practical training in a
preceptorship or externship.
A. The practical training and employment of qualified
students of veterinary medicine or veterinary technology shall be governed and
controlled as follows:
1. A veterinary student who is duly enrolled and in good
standing in a veterinary college or school accredited or approved by the AVMA and
in the final year of his training or after completion of an equivalent number
of hours as approved by the board may be engaged in a preceptorship or
externship. A veterinary preceptee or extern may perform duties that constitute
the practice of veterinary medicine for which he has received adequate
instruction by the college or school and only under the on-premises supervision
of a licensed veterinarian.
2. A veterinary technician student who is duly enrolled and in
good standing in a veterinary technology program accredited or approved by the
AVMA may be engaged in a preceptorship or externship. A veterinary technician
preceptee or extern may perform duties that constitute the practice of
veterinary technology for which he has received adequate instruction by the
program and only under the on-premises supervision of a licensed veterinarian
or licensed veterinary technician.
B. Whenever a veterinary preceptee or extern is performing
surgery on a patient, either assisted or unassisted, the supervising
veterinarian shall be in the operatory during the procedure. Prior to
allowing a preceptee or extern in veterinary medicine to perform surgery on a
patient unassisted by a licensed veterinarian, a licensed veterinarian shall
receive written approval from the client owner.
C. When there is a preceptee or extern practicing in the
establishment, the supervising veterinarian shall disclose such practice to
owners. The disclosure shall be by signage clearly visible to the public or by
inclusion on an informed consent form.
D. A veterinarian or veterinary technician who supervises
a preceptee or extern remains responsible for the care and treatment of the
patient.
18VAC150-20-173. Informed consent for surgery.
A. Before surgery is performed, informed consent shall be
obtained from the owner and documented in the patient record. Veterinarians
shall inform an owner of the risks, benefits, and alternatives of the
recommended surgery that a reasonably prudent practitioner in similar practice
in Virginia would tell an owner.
B. An exception to the requirement for consent prior to
performance of surgery may be made in an emergency situation when a delay in
obtaining consent would likely result in imminent harm to the patient.
C. If a veterinary student is to perform the surgery, the
informed consent shall include that information.
VA.R. Doc. No. R14-14; Filed June 3, 2016, 3:02 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF VETERINARY MEDICINE
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC150-20. Regulations
Governing the Practice of Veterinary Medicine (amending 18VAC150-20-10, 18VAC150-20-140).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of
Virginia.
Effective Date: July 27, 2016.
Agency Contact: Leslie L. Knachel, Executive Director,
Board of Veterinary Medicine, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA
23233, telephone (804) 367-4468, FAX (804) 527-4471, or email
leslie.knachel@dhp.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) define a specialist as a veterinarian
who has been awarded and has maintained the status of diplomate of a specialty
organization recognized by the American Board of Veterinary Specialties of the
American Veterinary Medical Association, or any other organization approved by
the board, and (ii) provide that representing oneself as a specialist without
meeting that definition or representing a practice as a specialty practice
without having a specialist on staff is unprofessional conduct.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
of Regulations.
Part I
General Provisions
18VAC150-20-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Animal shelter" means a facility, other than a
private residential dwelling and its surrounding grounds, that is used to house
or contain animals and that is owned, operated, or maintained by a
nongovernmental entity including, but not limited to, a humane society, animal
welfare organization, society for the prevention of cruelty to animals, or any
other organization operating for the purpose of finding permanent adoptive
homes for animals.
"Automatic emergency lighting" is lighting that is
powered by battery, generator, or alternate power source other than electrical
power, is activated automatically by electrical power failure, and provides
sufficient light to complete surgery or to stabilize the animal until surgery
can be continued or the animal moved to another establishment.
"AVMA" means the American Veterinary Medical
Association.
"Board" means the Virginia Board of Veterinary
Medicine.
"Companion animal" means any dog, cat, horse,
nonhuman primate, guinea pig, hamster, rabbit not raised for human food or
fiber, exotic or native animal, reptile, exotic or native bird, or any feral
animal or animal under the care, custody or ownership of a person or any animal
that is bought, sold, traded, or bartered by any person. Agricultural animals,
game species, or any animals regulated under federal law as research animals
shall not be considered companion animals for the purposes of this chapter.
"CVMA" means the Canadian Veterinary Medical
Association.
"Full-service establishment" means a stationary or
ambulatory facility that provides surgery and encompasses all aspects of health
care for small or large animals, or both.
"Immediate and direct supervision" means that the
licensed veterinarian is immediately available to the licensed veterinary
technician or assistant, either electronically or in person, and provides a
specific order based on observation and diagnosis of the patient within the
last 36 hours.
"Owner" means any person who (i) has a right of
property in an animal; (ii) keeps or harbors an animal; (iii) has an animal in
his care; or (iv) acts as a custodian of an animal.
"Pound" means a facility operated by the state or a
locality for the purpose of impounding or harboring seized, stray, homeless,
abandoned, or unwanted animals; or a facility operated for the same purpose
under a contract with a locality or an incorporated society for the prevention
of cruelty to animals.
"Preceptorship or externship" means a formal
arrangement between an AVMA accredited college of veterinary medicine or an
AVMA accredited veterinary technology program and a veterinarian who is
licensed by the board and responsible for the practice of the preceptee. A
preceptorship or externship shall be overseen by faculty of the college or
program.
"Professional judgment" includes any decision or
conduct in the practice of veterinary medicine, as defined by § 54.1-3800 of
the Code of Virginia.
"Restricted service establishment" means a
stationary or ambulatory facility which does not meet the requirements of a
full-service establishment.
"Specialist" means a veterinarian who has
[ completed the requirements to become a been awarded and
has maintained the status of ] diplomate of a specialty
organization recognized by the American Board of Veterinary Specialties of the
American Veterinary Medical Association, or any other organization approved by
the board.
"Surgery" means treatment through revision, destruction,
incision or other structural alteration of animal tissue. Surgery does not
include dental extractions of single-rooted teeth or skin closures performed by
a licensed veterinary technician upon a diagnosis and pursuant to direct orders
from a veterinarian.
"Veterinarian in charge" means a veterinarian who
holds an active license in Virginia and who is responsible for maintaining a
veterinary establishment within the standards set by this chapter, for
complying with federal and state laws and regulations, and for notifying the
board of the establishment's closure.
"Veterinary establishment" means any fixed or
mobile practice, veterinary hospital, animal hospital or premises wherein or
out of which veterinary medicine is being conducted.
Part III
Unprofessional Conduct
18VAC150-20-140. Unprofessional conduct.
Unprofessional conduct as referenced in subdivision 5 of
§ 54.1-3807(5) of the Code of Virginia shall include the following:
1. Representing conflicting interests except by express
consent of all concerned given after a full disclosure of the facts. Acceptance
of a fee from both the buyer and the seller is prima facie evidence of a
conflict of interest.
2. Practicing veterinary medicine or equine dentistry where an
unlicensed person has the authority to control the professional judgment of the
licensed veterinarian or the equine dental technician.
3. Issuing a certificate of health unless he shall know of his
own knowledge by actual inspection and appropriate tests of the animals that
the animals meet the requirements for the issuance of such certificate on the
day issued.
4. Revealing confidences gained in the course of providing
veterinary services to a client, unless required by law or necessary to protect
the health, safety or welfare of other persons or animals.
5. Advertising in a manner which is false, deceptive, or
misleading or which makes subjective claims of superiority.
6. Violating any state law, federal law, or board regulation
pertaining to the practice of veterinary medicine, veterinary technology or
equine dentistry.
7. Practicing veterinary medicine or as an equine dental
technician in such a manner as to endanger the health and welfare of his
patients or the public, or being unable to practice veterinary medicine or as
an equine dental technician with reasonable skill and safety.
8. Performing surgery on animals in an unregistered veterinary
establishment or not in accordance with the establishment permit or with
accepted standards of practice.
9. Refusing the board or its agent the right to inspect an
establishment at reasonable hours.
10. Allowing unlicensed persons to perform acts restricted to
the practice of veterinary medicine, veterinary technology or an equine dental
technician including any invasive procedure on a patient or delegation of tasks
to persons who are not properly trained or authorized to perform such tasks.
11. Failing to provide immediate and direct supervision to a
licensed veterinary technician or an assistant in his employ.
12. Refusing to release a copy of a valid prescription upon
request from a client.
13. Misrepresenting or falsifying information on an
application or renewal form.
14. Failing to report suspected animal cruelty to the
appropriate authorities.
15. Failing to release patient records when requested by the
owner; a law-enforcement entity; or a federal, state, or local health
regulatory agency.
16. Committing an act constituting fraud, deceit, or
misrepresentation in dealing with the board or in the
veterinarian-client-patient relationship.
17. Representing oneself as a "specialist"
without meeting the definition set forth in 18VAC150-20-10 or using the words
"specialist" or "specialty" in the name of a veterinary
establishment unless there is a veterinarian on staff who meets the definition of
a "specialist."
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-16; Filed June 3, 2016, 3:02 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR WASTE MANAGEMENT FACILITY OPERATORS
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC155-20. Waste Management
Facility Operators Regulations (amending 18VAC155-20-10, 18VAC155-20-40,
18VAC155-20-110, 18VAC155-20-120, 18VAC155-20-130, 18VAC155-20-140,
18VAC155-20-160, 18VAC155-20-220, 18VAC155-20-230, 18VAC155-20-280; adding
18VAC155-20-235, 18VAC155-20-285; repealing 18VAC155-20-20, 18VAC155-20-30,
18VAC155-20-100, 18VAC155-20-150, 18VAC155-20-175).
Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-2211 of the
Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: August 1, 2016.
Agency Contact: Eric L. Olson, Executive Director, Board
for Waste Management Facility Operators, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400,
Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-8511, FAX (866) 430-1033, or email
wastemgt@dpor.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) eliminate language that is duplicative
of the Code of Virginia or board agreements, clarify existing sections, and
consolidate duplicative sections; (ii) require that applicants for licensure
follow the rules of facilities where they take their licensure exams; and (iii)
simplify eligibility requirements by eliminating the application fee for
training course approval, the requirement that applicants for licensure who
have failed the written examination twice recomplete all initial training, and
the requirement that applicants for initial licensure have successfully
completed high school or a college degree program or have received a
generalized equivalency diploma.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No
public comments were received by the promulgating agency.
Part I
General
18VAC155-20-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
*"Board" means the Board for Waste
Management Facility Operators.
[ "Board-approved training course" means a
course that has been approved by the board to provide appropriate training to
an applicant in accordance with this chapter. ]
"Class I license" means the authorization from the
board to act as a waste management facility operator of a transfer station, a
material recovery facility receiving mixed waste, an experimental facility, or
a composting facility receiving yard waste.
"Class II license" means the authorization from the
board to act as a waste management facility operator of a facility that
composts municipal solid waste, a sanitary landfill, an industrial landfill, a
construction landfill or a debris landfill.
"Class III license" means the authorization from
the board to act as a waste management facility operator of an infectious waste
incinerator or autoclave.
"Class IV license" means the authorization from the
board to act as a waste management facility operator of a municipal waste
combustor.
"Closed facility" means a solid waste management
facility that has been properly secured in accordance with an approved facility
closure plan.
"Closure" means an act of securing a solid waste
management facility pursuant to the requirements established by the Virginia
Department of Environmental Quality or appropriate regulatory authority.
"Contact hour" means 50 minutes of participation in
a group program or 60 minutes of completion time for a project.
"Continuing professional education/training
(CPE/T)" means an integral part of the lifelong learning process that
enables a licensed solid waste management facility operator to maintain and
increase the competence required to assure the public's protection, which shall
be pursued through an organized program or project in compliance with this
chapter.
"Department" means the Department of Professional
and Occupational Regulation.
"Full-time employment" means 1,760 hours per year
or 220 work days per year.
[ "In charge" means the designation of any
person by the owner to have duty and authority to operate or modify the
operation of a waste management facility. ]
"License" means an authorization issued by the
board to an individual to practice as a waste management facility operator who
meets the provisions of this chapter.
"Municipal solid waste (MSW)" means that
waste that is defined as "municipal solid waste" in [ 9VAC20-80-10
9VAC20-81-10 ].
"Municipal waste combustor" means a mass burn or a
refuse derived fuel incinerator or facility designed or modified for the
purpose of noninfectious solid waste combustion.
"Operation" means any waste management facility
that is under construction, treating, processing, storing or disposing of solid
waste, or in the act of securing a facility for closure [ as defined in
9VAC20-81-10 ].
"Organized program" means a formal learning process
designed to permit a participant to learn a given subject or subjects through
interaction with an instructor in a formal course, seminar or conference [ as
approved by the board ].
"Owner" means the person who owns a solid waste
management facility or part of a solid waste management facility.
*"Person" means an individual, corporation,
partnership, association, governmental body, municipal corporation or any other
legal entity.
[ "Project" means a learning process designed to
permit a participant to perform work assigned by the owner, operator or manager
of a waste management facility under the supervision of a knowledgeable person
that results in a specific, predetermined end result and that increases the
participant's competence to practice as a waste management facility operator.
"Site" means within the vicinity of all land and
structures, other appurtenances, and improvements thereon used for treating,
storing, and disposing of solid waste. This term includes adjacent land within
the property boundary used for the utility systems such as repair, storage,
shipping or processing areas, or other areas incident to the management of
solid waste. ]
"Solid waste" means any of those materials [ defined
identified ] as nonhazardous solid waste in [ regulations
promulgated by the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality 9VAC20-81-95 ].
[ "Storage" means housing a solid waste as
consistent with the regulations of the Virginia Waste Management Board.
"Substantial change" means a deviation from a
specific course that decreases the approved time of the course by more than 30
minutes or modifies the topics of the approved course to below the target
levels of knowledge, as stated in the course application. ]
*"Waste management facility" means a site used
for planned treatment, storage, or disposal of nonhazardous solid waste.
*"Waste management facility operator" means any
person, including an owner, who is in charge of the actual, on-site operation
of a waste management facility during any period of operation.
*As defined by Chapter 22.1 (§ 54.1-2209 et seq.) of Title
54.1 of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC155-20-20. License required. (Repealed.)
For the purposes of this chapter, the individual acting as
a waste management facility operator is an individual employed or contracted by
the facility owner whose responsibilities include supervision of on-site
activities and who, on and after January 1, 1993, has been licensed by the
Board for Waste Management Facility Operators or is under the direct
supervision of a waste management facility operator licensed by the Board for
Waste Management Facility Operators.
18VAC155-20-30. Disclosure. (Repealed.)
A. Any individual seeking licensure shall disclose on the
application any other operator or related license issued by any other state(s).
B. Any individual seeking licensure shall disclose on the
application any felony convictions or any final order actions issued by an
administrative body or court regarding environmental violations or crimes
resulting in the significant harm or the imminent and substantial threat of
significant harm to human health or the environment.
C. Each licensee shall notify the board in writing within
30 days of any felony convictions or final order actions issued by an
administrative body or court regarding environmental violations or crimes
resulting in the significant harm or the imminent and substantial threat of
significant harm to human health or the environment.
18VAC155-20-40. Fees.
A. All fees are nonrefundable and shall not be prorated.
B. An application shall not be deemed complete and shall not
be processed without the required fee.
1. The application fee for licensure shall be $75.
2. The fee for renewal of licensure shall be $50.
3. The fee for late renewal of licensure shall be $75.
4. The fee for reinstatement of licensure shall be $125.
5. The examination fee is charged to the applicant by an
outside vendor competitively negotiated and contracted for in compliance with
the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of
Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the applicant in accordance with
this contract.
6. The application fee for training course approval shall
be $125.
C. All checks shall be made payable to the Treasurer of
Virginia.
D. Receipt and deposit of fees submitted with applications do
not indicate licensure.
Part II
Licensure
18VAC155-20-100. Licensure required. (Repealed.)
Licensure is required for all individuals acting as waste
management facility operators after June 30, 1995.
18VAC155-20-110. License classification.
A. The applicant shall apply for at least one classification
of license as outlined [ below in this subsection ]:
1. An individual operating a facility that is defined [ by
the Department of Environmental Quality in 9VAC20-81-10 ] as a
transfer station, a [ material materials ] recovery
facility receiving mixed waste, an experimental facility, or a composting
facility receiving yard waste shall hold a Class I license. An individual who
has obtained a Class II, III or IV license may also operate a facility listed
under Class I [ , if the individual has completed the board-approved basic
training course ].
2. An individual operating a facility that composts municipal
solid waste, or is defined [ by the Department of Environmental Quality in
9VAC20-81-10 ] as a sanitary [ landfill ], industrial
[ waste landfill ], [ construction or debris constuction/demolition/debris
(CDD) ] landfill, shall hold a Class II license.
3. An individual operating a facility [ defined by the
Department of Environmental Quality as an infectious waste incinerator or an
autoclave regulated under 9VAC20-120, Regulated Medical Waste Management
Regulations, ] shall hold a Class III license.
4. An individual operating a facility defined [ by the
Department of Environmental Quality in 9VAC5-40-6560 ] as a
municipal waste [ combustor combustion unit ] shall hold a Class
IV license.
B. A licensee may not operate a facility outside of his
classification other than that defined by subdivision A 1 of this section.
C. An individual operating a solid waste management facility
that has been issued a permit by the Department of Environmental Quality but
for which the board has not established training and licensure requirements
shall hold a Class I license until the board establishes the training and
licensing requirements by regulation.
18VAC155-20-120. Qualifications for licensure.
A. The board shall issue a license only after an
individual has met, through a completed application and addendum, all training,
testing, and experience requirements for at least one specific class as set
forth in this chapter.
B. The applicant shall meet the following requirements for
licensure for all classes of licenses:
A. Every applicant to the Board for Waste Management
Facility Operators for licensure shall meet the requirements and have the
qualifications provided in this subsection.
1. The applicant shall be at least 18 years of age.
2. The applicant shall provide proof of high school or
college graduation, or of having a General Equivalency Diploma (GED).
3. An applicant who cannot fulfill the requirement outlined
in subdivision 2 of this subsection shall document at least five years of
verified experience with a waste management facility during the preceding seven
years, with at least three years of experience in at least one of the following
activities:
a. Supervision;
b. Research;
c. Construction;
d. Project development;
e. Site development;
f. Compliance and enforcement of a permit or regulations;
g. Operation; or
h. Review of materials for permitting purposes.
4. Except for applicants that qualify pursuant to
subdivision 3 of this subsection, each applicant shall document one year of
verified operational experience with a waste management facility.
5. All applicants shall successfully complete the basic
training course as defined in 18VAC155-20-220 B.
6. An applicant may use employment responsibilities in lieu
of facility specific training as defined in subsections D through F of this
section provided that:
a. The applicant has been a full-time employee at a waste
facility specific to the desired license classification for at least three of
the past seven years.
b. The employment responsibilities include at least one of
those activities enumerated in subdivision 3 of this subsection.
7. Experience requirements claimed on the application for
licensure shall be verified by the individual's supervisor(s) or personnel
officer. Individuals who are under contract with a facility owner may obtain a
letter from the facility owner to verify experience.
8. Education requirements claimed on the application for
licensure shall be verified by the attendee's educational institution or
authorizing jurisdiction on the provided form or in the form of an official
transcript or letter. Diplomas will not be accepted for verification of degree
or graduation.
9. The applicant holding a valid license from another state
or jurisdiction may qualify by reciprocity under the provisions of
18VAC155-20-150.
C. The specific requirements for Class I licensure are as
follows:
1. Complete a board-approved basic training course; and
2. Pass the board-approved examination for Class I.
D. The specific requirements for Class II licensure are as
follows:
1. Complete a board-approved basic training course and an
approved training course specific to Class II facilities; and
2. Pass the board-approved examination for Class II.
E. The specific requirements for Class III licensure are
as follows:
1. Complete a board-approved basic training course and an
approved training course specific to Class III facilities and pass the
board-approved examination for Class III; or
2. Complete the training and examination requirement of a
federal or state agency under the federal Clean Air Act, as amended, as of the
date applicable to an interpretation of a regulation or adjudication of a case
decision and complete the board-approved basic training course within one year
after licensure.
F. The specific requirements for Class IV licensure are as
follows:
1. Complete a board-approved basic training course and an
approved training course specific to Class IV facilities and pass the
board-approved examination for Class IV; or
2. Complete the training and examination requirement of a
federal or state agency under the federal Clean Air Act, as amended, as of the
date applicable to an interpretation of a regulation or adjudication of a case
decision and complete the board-approved basic training course within one year
after licensure.
2. Unless otherwise exempt, the applicant shall have
successfully completed a basic training course approved by the board.
[ Additonally Additionally ], an applicant
for a Class II, III, or IV license shall complete a training course approved by
the board specific to the license for which he applies.
3. Unless exempt, the applicant shall have passed the
applicable examination provided by the board or by a testing organization
acting on behalf of the board.
4. Each applicant shall document a minimum of one year of
verified operational experience with a waste management facility of the same
class for which he applies. Experience claimed on the application for licensure
shall be verified by the individual's supervisor or personnel officer.
Individuals who are under contract with a facility owner may obtain a letter
from the facility owner to verify experience.
5. Applicants certified or licensed as [ a ]
waste management facility [ operator operators ]
by governing bodies outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia shall be
considered to be in compliance with this chapter if the board or its designee
has determined the certifying system to be substantially equivalent to the
Virginia system.
6. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of
Virginia, each applicant shall disclose a conviction, in any jurisdiction, of
any misdemeanor or felony. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a
conviction for the purpose of this subdivision. The record of conviction
received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction
or finding of guilt. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any
applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
7. The applicant shall report suspensions, revocations, or
surrendering of a certificate or license in connection with a disciplinary
action [ or that have. The applicant shall report if
a license has ] been the subject of discipline in any jurisdiction
prior to applying for licensure in Virginia. The board, at its discretion, may
deny licensure to any applicant based on prior suspensions, revocations, or
surrender of certifications or licenses based on disciplinary action by any
jurisdiction.
B. The board may make further inquiries and investigations
with respect to the qualifications of the applicant.
18VAC155-20-130. Application procedures.
A. Application shall be made on forms supplied by the
department, and application forms shall be completed in accordance with the
instructions on the forms. Failure to provide a complete application and all
applicable addenda may result in a denial of approval. The failure to provide
complete information may be interpreted as misrepresentation and may result in
disciplinary action as [ defined by described in ]
18VAC155-20-280.
B. Those already licensed who desire to add another
classification or classifications to their license shall apply under the
provisions of 18VAC155-20-110.
18VAC155-20-140. Examinations.
A. Initial examination.
1. An individual may not take the board-approved
examination until all training requirements have been completed and are
verified to the board unless qualifying under 18VAC155-20-120 B 6.
2. All applicants approved for the examination by the board
will be notified in writing with a request for the examination fee defined in
18VAC155-20-40 B 5. The applicant will be scheduled for the next available
examination upon receipt of the examination fee.
3. The examination fee will be required at least 30 days
before the scheduled date of the examination.
4. All applicants shall achieve a passing score on the
examination as determined by the board.
5. An individual unable to take an examination at the time
scheduled shall notify the board prior to the date of the examination; such an
individual shall be rescheduled for the next examination. Failure to notify the
board may require the submittal of a new examination fee.
B. Reexamination.
1. An individual may retake the board-approved examination
as many times as necessary to pass except those who have been waived from
training requirements.
2. If the applicant has been waived from training under
18VAC155-20-120 B 6 and fails, the applicant may retake the examination once.
After failing twice, the applicant shall complete the required training before
retaking the examination.
3. Reexamination shall require the submission of the
reexamination fee as defined in 18VAC155-20-40 B 5.
A. Applicants will be approved to sit for the examination
for licensure once all [ education training ]
and experience requirements have been satisfied and documentation pertaining
to all other qualifications [ have has ] been
received by the board.
B. An applicant must follow all rules established by the
board or by the testing service acting on behalf of the board with regard to
the conduct at the examination site. Such rules shall include any written
instructions communicated prior to the examination date and any oral or written
instructions given at the site on the date of the exam.
18VAC155-20-150. Reciprocity. (Repealed.)
A. Any individual holding a valid license in another state
may apply for licensure based on reciprocity.
B. The board will certify an individual who submits a
completed application and the initial application fee and is in compliance with
18VAC155-20-280.
C. All applicants licensed through reciprocity shall
complete the basic training course within one year after being licensed in
Virginia.
D. If the licensee fails to complete the basic course and
fails to properly notify the board of such failure within one year after
licensure, the board may begin disciplinary action to suspend or revoke the
license.
Part III
Renewal of License
18VAC155-20-160. Procedures for renewal.
A. Licenses issued under this chapter shall expire two
years from the last day of the month in which they were issued as indicated on
the license. biennially. Licensees shall be notified by mail of the fee
and the procedures for license renewal. Each licensee desiring to renew his
license shall ensure that the department receives the renewal notice; evidence
of completion of continuing professional education/training; a statement that
the license renewal applicant is in compliance with all facility specific
operator training and examination requirements of federal and Virginia law and
regulations, and of the facility operating permit(s); and the appropriate fee
before the license expires.
B. Licenses shall be renewed for a period of 24 months
from the date of the expiring license. The board will mail a renewal
notice to the licensee at the address on file with the board outlining the fee
and procedures for license renewal. Failure to receive written notice from the
department does not relieve the licensee from the requirement to renew his
license. If the license holder fails to receive the renewal notice, a copy of
the license may be submitted with evidence of completion of the continuing
education requirements and the appropriate fee.
C. Failure to receive written notice from the department
does not relieve the regulant from the requirement to renew his license. If the
license holder fails to receive the renewal notice, a copy of the license may
be submitted with evidence of completion of the continuing education/training
and the appropriate fee.
D. C. The date the required fee is received by
the department or its agent will be used to determine whether a penalty fee or
the requirement for reinstatement of a license is applicable.
E. Revoked or suspended licenses are not renewable until
reinstated by the board.
D. As a condition of renewal or reinstatement all individuals
holding a license shall be required to satisfactorily complete eight hours of
continuing education from a provider approved by the board in accordance with
the provisions of this chapter [ , except that no continuing
education shall be required for the first renewal after the issuance of the
initial license to an individual ].
18VAC155-20-175. Continuing professional education/training.
(Repealed.)
A. Each applicant for license renewal shall provide
evidence of the completion of at least eight contact hours of continuing
professional education/training, as defined in 18VAC155-20-10 and in accordance
with this section, except that no continuing professional education/training
shall be required for the first renewal after the issuance of the initial
license to an individual.
B. All CPE/T contact hours must be specific to the
operation of a waste management facility.
C. Renewal applicants shall submit one or both of the
following to document completion of the hours of CPE/T required by subsection A
of this section:
1. For an organized program, a document with:
a. The name, address and telephone number of the sponsor;
b. The date(s) the applicant participated in the organized
program;
c. A copy of the syllabus or other descriptive material of
the information presented during the organized program; and
d. Verification of the number of contact hours completed
that were specific to the operation of a waste management facility.
2. For a project, a document with:
a. The name and address of the waste management facility
where the project was conducted;
b. The name of the owner, operator or manager of the
facility who assigned the project;
c. The name, address and telephone number of the
knowledgeable person assigned to supervise the license renewal applicant during
the project;
d. A brief description of how the project's specific
predetermined end result increased the license renewal applicant's competence;
and
e. A statement of the number of contact hours required for
the license renewal applicant to satisfactorily complete the project, which is
signed by the owner, operator or manager of the facility where the project was
conducted or by the knowledgeable person supervising the project.
D. The board shall advise the license renewal applicant of
the approval of his CPE/T by issuing the renewed license provided all of the
other renewal requirements of this chapter have been met. The board shall
advise the license renewal applicant in writing of the deficiencies it finds in
the CPE/T submitted and shall allow a reasonable amount of time for the renewal
applicant to correct the deficiencies and respond.
E. Each licensee shall maintain evidence of the
satisfactory completion of CPE/T for a period of three years. Such
documentation shall be in the form required by subsection C of this section and
shall be provided to the board or its duly authorized agents upon request.
F. CPE/T contact hours taken after the expiration of the
individual's license to meet the CPE/T requirement of the prior license term shall
not be reported for any future renewal.
Part IV
Training Requirements
18VAC155-20-220. Training course curriculum. Education
courses.
A. The board shall approve only training courses that
document that their instruction meets the minimum curriculum standards
contained in this section. All training and continuing education courses
must be completed through accredited colleges, universities, junior and
community colleges, Virginia Apprenticeship Council programs, proprietary
schools approved by the Virginia Department of Education, or other programs
approved by the board.
B. A board-approved basic training course shall at a
minimum include the following topics as they relate to nonhazardous solid waste
management facilities:
1. Definitions.
2. Authority for regulations.
3. Purpose of regulations.
4. Administration of regulations.
5. Applicability of regulations.
6. Prohibitions.
7. Open dumps.
8. Unpermitted facilities.
9. Enforcement and appeal.
10. Penalties and enforcement.
11. Public participation.
12. Relationship with other regulations promulgated by the
Virginia Waste Management Board, the State Water Control Board, and the
Virginia State Air Pollution Control Board.
13. Identification of solid waste.
a. Purpose and scope.
b. Definitions of solid waste.
c. Special wastes.
d. Exclusions.
e. Conditional exemptions.
14. Identification of unauthorized waste.
15. Overview of open dumps and unpermitted facilities.
16. Permitting of solid waste management facilities.
17. Review of Department of Environmental Quality
Inspection Form.
18. Overview of permitted solid waste management
facilities.
a. Transfer stations.
b. Material recovery facilities.
c. Experimental facilities.
d. Sanitary landfills.
e. Infectious waste incinerators.
f. Mass burn facilities.
g. Refuse derived fuel facilities.
h. Yard waste composting facilities.
i. Autoclaves.
19. Overview of general OSHA requirements.
20. Neighbor relations.
21. Recordkeeping and financial assurance.
C. A board-approved training course specific to Class II
facilities shall include at a minimum the following topics:
1. Definitions.
2. Special wastes.
a. General.
b. Asbestos wastes.
c. Wastes containing polychlorinated biphenyls.
d. Liquids.
e. Tires.
f. Drums.
g. White goods.
h. Soil contaminated with petroleum products.
i. Lead acid batteries.
j. Other prohibited wastes.
k. Hazardous wastes.
l. Screening for prohibited wastes.
m. Handling procedures for special or hazardous wastes.
n. Recordkeeping and notification requirements.
3. Sanitary landfills.
a. Design/construction.
b. Operation.
c. Groundwater monitoring.
d. Control of decomposition gases and landfill gas recovery
systems.
e. Leachate control system and monitoring.
f. Leachate control system appurtenances.
g. Large landfill air operating permits.
4. Construction/demolition debris standards.
5. Industrial waste disposal standards.
6. Other solid waste management facility standards.
a. Compost facilities.
b.. Surface impoundments and lagoons.
c. Waste piles.
d. Miscellaneous units.
7. Permitting of solid waste management facilities.
a. Solid waste.
b. Virginia Pollution Discharge Elimination System (VPDES)
permits and related water and wastewater permits.
c. Air.
8. Financial assurance documentation.
a. Closure regulations.
b. Post-closure regulations.
c. Corrective action.
9. Rulemaking petitions and procedures.
D. A board-approved training course specific to Class III
facilities shall include at a minimum the following topics:
1. Identification and listing of infectious waste.
a. General.
b. Exemption to regulations.
c. Exclusions.
d. Characteristics of infectious waste.
e. Controlled infectious waste.
2. General requirements.
a. Permits and permits by rule.
b. Packaging and labeling requirements.
c. Management of spills.
d. Methods of treatment and disposal.
e. Approved test method.
f. Recordkeeping requirements.
3. Requirements for storage facilities.
a. Sanitation.
b. Access.
c. Temperature control and storage period.
d. Drainage and ventilation.
4. Requirements for transportation.
a. Sanitation.
b. Access.
c. Temperature and storage period.
d. Drainage.
e. Packaging, labeling and placards.
f. Management of spills.
g. Loading and unloading.
h. Registration of transportation.
5. Requirements for incineration.
a. Performance standards.
b. Analysis and management of ash residue.
c. Unloading operation.
d. Facility air operating permits.
e. Compliance with other regulatory requirements.
6. Requirements for steam sterilization.
a. Performance standards.
b. Compliance with other regulatory requirements.
7. Medical waste combustor regulations.
8. Financial assurance documentation.
a. Closure regulations.
b. Corrective action.
E. A board-approved training course specific to Class IV
facilities shall include at a minimum the following topics:
1. Solid Waste Management Regulations.
a. Siting.
b. Design and construction.
c. Operation.
d. Waste characteristics.
2. Emissions formation and control.
a. Type of emissions.
b. Environmental effect.
c. Control techniques.
3. Emissions monitoring.
a. Parameters monitored.
b. Types of monitors.
c. Data acquisition.
d. Monitor calibration, certification and testing.
4. Combustion and gas reactions.
a. Combustion components.
b. Optimizing solid waste combustion.
c. Gas reactions related to combustor construction
materials.
5. Solid waste materials handling.
a. Front end processing equipment.
b. Combustion enhancement.
c. Back end processing.
d. Recycling benefits.
6. Waste combustion residue handling and disposal.
a. Types of residue.
b. Characteristics.
c. Regulations.
d. Monitoring.
e. Handling and transportation.
f. Disposal.
g. Alternative uses.
7. Safety.
a. Employer/employee obligations.
b. OSHA.
c. Hazard communication.
d. Equipment tagout.
e. Respiratory protection.
8. Recordkeeping.
a. Engineering log keeping.
b. Maintenance.
c. Solid waste.
9. Virginia pressure vessel regulation.
10. Air pollution control regulations for waste combustors.
11. Facility air operating permits.
12. Plant operations.
a. Thermal fluids theory.
b. Boiler plant operations.
13. Financial assurance documentation.
a. Closure regulations.
b. Corrective action.
B. [ All continuing education courses must
be specific to the operation of the class of waste management facility for
which the course is being offered and must be approved by the board.
All courses for which credit for pre-license education is sought shall be
related to the operation of the class of waste management facility for which
the course is being offered and shall be approved by the board.
C. All courses for which credit for continuing education
is sought shall be related to the operation of the class of waste management
facility for which the course is being offered and may be reviewed by the
board.
C. D. ] Each provider of a [
training pre-license education course ] or [ person
submitting a course for ] continuing education [ course
credit ] shall submit an application for approval on a form provided by
the board. The application shall include, but is not limited to:
1. The name of the provider;
2. Provider contact person, address, and telephone number;
3. Course contact hours;
4. Schedule of courses, if established, including dates,
times, and locations;
5. Course syllabus; [ and ]
6. Instructor information, including name, license number
if applicable, education and training background, and a list of other appropriate
trade designations or training certifications.
18VAC155-20-230. Approval of training course. Training
records.
A. Each applicant for training course approval shall meet
the requirements established by this chapter before being granted approval by
the board. Those desiring approval of a training course shall apply on a form
provided by the department. The form shall be completed in accordance with the
instructions supplied, and shall be accompanied by three copies of the
materials which document that the training course meets the requirements of
this chapter and by the fee required by 18VAC155-20-40 B 6. Receipt and deposit
of the required fee does not indicate board approval.
B. Training courses shall be approved by the board prior
to the training activity in accordance with the following:
1. Training providers.
a. Organizations. The board may approve training courses
offered by a sponsor who is an identifiable organization which can demonstrate
the capability to teach environmental or engineering material. The organization
shall have a mission statement outlining its functions, structure, process and
philosophy, and a staff of one or more persons that has the authority to
administer and coordinate the training program.
b. Schools. The board may approve training courses offered
by an accredited academic institution which can demonstrate the capability to
teach environmental or engineering material.
c. Businesses. The board may approve training courses
offered by a business entity which can demonstrate the capability to teach
environmental or engineering material.
2. Instructors. The training course provider shall ensure
training is only conducted by personnel who have demonstrated competence in the
subject being taught, an understanding of the learning objective, a knowledge
of the teaching process to be used, and a proven ability to communicate.
3. Objectives. The training course provider shall ensure
that the course has a series of stated objectives that are consistent with the
type of facility, operator job requirements, and state and federal regulation.
The training course shall be consistent with training criteria outlined in
18VAC155-20-220.
4. The board shall only approve courses which provide the
participants a complete tour of a facility appropriate to the course
emphasizing operator responsibilities. The basic training course is exempt from
this requirement.
5. Course completion requirements. For successful
completion of a training program, participants must attend 90% or more of the
class contact time and the tour of the facility.
6. The training provider shall provide an effective means
for evaluation of the quality of the course and the instructor(s).
7. The training provider shall ensure the number of
participants and physical facilities are appropriate for the course content and
teaching method specified by the developer of the course.
8. The training provider shall ensure all course materials
are technically accurate, current and sufficient to meet the program's learning
objectives.
C. Training records.
1. An approved training provider shall retain records for
all participants for a period of 10 years and shall maintain a written policy
on the retention and release of records.
2. All records pertaining to the approved training and
participants shall be made available to the board immediately upon request.
D. The board shall consider the following information
before deciding to approve or disapprove an application for training provider
approval:
1. Course information.
a. Course title.
b. Planned audience.
c. Name of sponsor.
d. Name, address and telephone number of contact person.
e. Scheduled presentation dates.
f. Detailed course schedule on an hour-by-hour basis.
g. List of planned breaks.
h. Scheduled presentation locations.
i. Scheduled tour locations.
j. Instructor(s) resume.
2. Training materials.
a. Course objectives. A listing of the course objectives
stated in terms of the skills and knowledge the participant will be able to
demonstrate as a result of the training.
b. Course outline. A detailed outline showing the planned
activities that will occur during the training program, including major topics,
planned presentation sequence, tour activities, audio-visual presentations and
other major activities.
c. Course reference materials. A list of name, publisher,
and publication date of commercially available publications; for material
developed specifically for the course, a copy of the reference material.
d. Audio-visual support materials. A list of any
commercially available audio-visual support material that will be used in the
course; a brief description of any audio-visual material generated by the
sponsor or instructor.
e. Handouts. Identification of all commercially available
handout material including regulations; copies of other handouts generated by
the sponsor or instructor.
E. The board shall approve all substantial changes to the
course before the changes may be implemented.
F. The board reserves the right to withdraw approval if
the board determines the course is not adequately teaching participants, or the
sponsor or an instructor violates this chapter.
An approved training provider shall retain records for all
participants for a period of 10 years and shall maintain a written policy on
the retention and release of records. All records pertaining to the approved
training and participants shall be made available to the board immediately upon
request.
18VAC155-20-235. Denial or withdrawal of approval.
The board may deny or withdraw the approval of any
training or continuing education course for the following reasons:
1. Courses being offered no longer meet the standards
established by the board;
2. The course provider, through an agent or otherwise,
advertises its services in a fraudulent or deceptive way;
3. The course provider, instructor, or designee of the
provider falsifies any information relating to the application for approval,
course information, or student records or fails to produce records required by
the Board for Waste Management Facility Operators.
4. The course provider fails to maintain student course
completion records for a minimum of 10 years.
Part V
Disciplinary Action
18VAC155-20-280. Grounds for denial of application, denial of
renewal, or discipline.
A. The board shall have the authority to (i) deny an
application for and to deny renewal of a license or training course approval, and
to (ii) revoke or suspend the license or training course approval as
well as to, and (iii) discipline a licensee or an approved training
provider for the following reasons: who is found to be in violation
of the statutes or regulations governing the practice of licensed waste
management facility operators.
1. Violating or inducing another to violate any provisions
of Chapters 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), 3 (§ 54.1-300 et
seq.) or 22.1 (§ 54.1-2209 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or
any provision of this chapter.
2. Obtaining or renewing a license or training course
approval through fraudulent means or misrepresentation.
3. Having been found guilty by the board, an administrative
body or by a court of any material misrepresentation in the course of
performing his operating duties.
4. Subject to the provisions of § 54.1-204 of the Code of
Virginia, having been convicted or found guilty, regardless of jurisdiction, of
any felony, or of any violation that resulted in the significant harm or the
imminent and substantial threat of significant harm to human health or the
environment, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time of appeal
having elapsed. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for
the purposes of this chapter. A certified copy of the final order, decree or
case decision by a court or regulatory agency with lawful authority to issue
such order, decree or case decision shall be admissible as prima facie evidence
of such conviction.
5. Failing to inform the board in writing within 30 days of
pleading guilty or nolo contendere or being convicted or found guilty of any
felony, or of any violation that resulted in the significant harm or the
imminent and substantial threat of significant harm to human health or the
environment.
6. Gross negligence, or a continued pattern of
incompetence, in the practice as a waste management facility operator.
7. Violating the permit conditions for the facility, or
violating any federal, state or local laws or regulations which that resulted
in the significant harm or the imminent and substantial threat of significant
harm to human health or the environment.
B. Any individual whose license is revoked under this section
shall not be eligible to apply for licensure for a period of one year from the
effective date of the final order of revocation. After the one-year period, the
individual shall meet all education, examination, experience and training
requirements, complete the application and submit the required fee for
consideration as a new applicant.
C. The board shall conduct disciplinary procedures in
accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code
of Virginia).
18VAC155-20-285. Prohibited acts.
Any of the following are cause for disciplinary action:
1. Violating or inducing another to violate any provisions
of Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), 3
(§ 54.1-300 et seq.) or 22.1 (§ 54.1-2209 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of
the Code of Virginia, or any provision of this chapter.
2. Obtaining or renewing a license through fraudulent means
or misrepresentation.
3. Having been found guilty by the board, an administrative
body, or by a court of any material misrepresentation in the course of
performing his operating duties.
4. Subject to the provisions of § 54.1-204 of the Code
of Virginia, having been convicted or found guilty, regardless of jurisdiction,
of any felony or any violation that resulted in the significant harm or the
imminent and substantial threat of significant harm to human health or the
environment, there being no appeal pending therefrom, or the time of appeal
having elapsed. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction
for the purposes of this chapter. A certified copy of the final order, decree,
or case decision by a court or regulatory agency with lawful authority to issue
such order, decree, or case decision shall be admissible as prima facie
evidence of such conviction.
5. Failing to inform the board in writing within 30 days of
pleading guilty to, pleading nolo contendere to, being convicted of, or being
found guilty of (i) any felony or (ii) any violation that resulted in the
significant harm or the imminent and substantial threat of significant harm to
human health or the environment.
6. Gross negligence, or a continued pattern of
incompetence, in the practice of a waste management facility operator.
7. Violating the permit conditions for the facility, or
violating federal, state, or local laws or regulations, which resulted in the
significant harm or the imminent and substantial threat of significant harm to
human health or the environment.
8. Failure to comply with all rules established by the
board and the testing organization with regard to conduct at the examination.
NOTICE: The following
forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms
are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be
viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly
Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (18VAC155-20)
License Application, 46LICPKG (rev. 5/05)
Experience Verification Form, 46EXP (rev. 5/00)
Education Verification Form, 46ED (rev. 5/00)
Application for Training Course Approval, 46CRS (rev.
5/00)
[ License Application, A438-4605LIC-v8 (rev. 8/15)
Training Course Approval Application, A438-46CRS-v4
(rev. 8/15)
Experience
Verification Form, A438-46EXP-v5 (rev. 10/2013)
Examination
Site Conduct Agreement Form (rev. 2/2013)
Education
Verification Form, A438-46ED (rev. 7/2012)
License
Application, A438-4605LIC v10 (rev. 8/2016)
Training
Course Approval Application, A438-46CRS-v4 (rev. 8/2016) ]
VA.R. Doc. No. R13-3737; Filed June 1, 2016, 12:53 p.m.
TITLE 23. TAXATION
DEPARTMENT OF TAXATION
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 23VAC10-55. Virginia Corn Excise
Tax (amending 23VAC10-55-40; repealing
23VAC10-55-50).
Statutory Authority: § 58.1-203 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: August 26, 2016.
Effective Date: September 12, 2016.
Agency Contact: Joe Mayer, Lead Policy Analyst,
Department of Taxation, P.O. Box 27185, Richmond, VA 23261-7185, telephone
(804) 371-2299, FAX (804) 371-2355, or email joseph.mayer@tax.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 58.1-203 of the Code of Virginia
authorizes the Tax Commissioner to issue regulations relating to the
interpretation and enforcement of the laws governing taxes administered by the
Department of Taxation. Section 3.2-1412 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the
Tax Commissioner to administer the corn excise tax.
Purpose: The amendments are needed to update the corn
excise tax rate to the rate provided in statute (one cent per bushel) and
strike language that provides no guidance beyond the plain meaning of the
statutes as it is not necessary to protect the public health, safety, or
welfare. The regulatory action does not reflect any change in current tax
policy and will have no impact on the administration of the corn excise tax.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: The department
is using the fast-track rulemaking process because amending Virginia Corn
Excise Tax, 23VAC10-55, to update the tax rate and to repeal language that
provides no guidance beyond the plain meaning of the statute is expected to be
noncontroversial.
Substance: The amendments update the tax rate and repeal
language that provides no guidance beyond the plain meaning of the statute. The
corn excise tax is levied on corn produced in Virginia for sale. The tax is
remitted quarterly and the revenues deposited into The Corn Fund. The Corn
Board uses these funds to provide for programs of market development,
education, publicity, research, and the promotion of the sale and use of corn.
This regulatory action does not reflect any change in current tax policy and
will have no impact on the administration of the corn excise tax.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public, the
Department of Taxation, and the Commonwealth of this action is that it will
conform Virginia Corn Excise Tax, 23VAC10-55, to a rate change in the statutory
law and thereby assist taxpayers with voluntary compliance with the tax, ease
administration of the tax by the Department of Taxation, and help ensure the
steady flow of tax revenues to the Commonwealth. As the regulation will update
the tax rate to the rate provided in statute and repeal language that provides
no additional guidance to statutes that are clear and unambiguous, there are no
issues or disadvantages to the public or the Commonwealth associated with this
regulatory action.
Small Business Impact Review Report of Findings: This
regulatory action serves as the report of the findings of the regulatory review
pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The
Department of Taxation (Department) proposes to update the corn excise tax rate
in the regulation to reflect the rate that has been in effect since 1989. The
Department also proposes to amend other language for clarity.
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. The current regulation states that
the corn excise tax rate is one-quarter cent per bushel. The Code of Virginia
(§ 3.2-1405 and § 3.2-1406) establishes that the excise tax rate may be changed
or eliminated by virtue of referenda of corn producers. An October 1, 1989 tax
bulletin reported that "On September 7, 1989, Virginia corn producers
voted 136 to 51 in favor of increasing the corn assessment from one-quarter
cent to one cent per bushel of corn…" In practice, the tax has been
assessed at one cent per bushel ever since. The Department proposes to amend
this regulation to indicate that the tax is one cent per bushel. This amendment
will be beneficial in that the regulation will reflect the actual tax rate that
is assessed, significantly improving clarity.
Businesses and Entities Affected. The regulation affects corn
farmers, processors, dealers, shippers, country buyers, and exporters.
According to the Department, there were 63 corn excise tax payers in 2015.
Localities Particularly Affected. The regulation particularly
affects localities where corn is grown and processed for profit.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments do not
affect employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
amendments do not affect the use and value of private property.
Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments do not
affect real estate development costs.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendments do not affect
costs for small businesses.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed
amendments do not create adverse impact for small businesses.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. The proposed amendments will not adversely affect
businesses.
Localities. The proposed amendments will not adversely affect
localities.
Other Entities. The proposed amendments will not adversely
affect other entities.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
Department of Taxation agrees with the Department of Planning and Budget's
economic impact analysis.
Summary:
The amendments update the tax rate and repeal language that
provides no guidance beyond the plain meaning of the statute. This regulatory
action does not reflect any change in current tax policy and will have no
impact on the administration of the corn excise tax.
23VAC10-55-40. Handler to deduct assessment from payment to
farmer; report Report and payment by handler.
A. Definition. The following word or term when used in
this section shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly
indicates otherwise:
"Handler" means any person, firm, corporation or
any other business entity that is a processor, dealer, shipper, country buyer,
exporter that handles corn produced in Virginia, or farmer who sells his corn
out of state or to anyone other than a "handler."
B. Generally. The handler of corn is liable for
remitting the one-quarter cent $ .01 per bushel corn excise tax
to the Tax Commissioner as regulated herein. If the handler purchases,
from farmers, corn subject to the excise tax, the handler must deduct the
excise tax from any payment made to the farmer for the corn. All corn handlers
must register with the Tax Commissioner for receiving the quarterly corn excise
tax returns and reporting the corn excise tax. Application for registration
should be submitted to the Department of Taxation, Registration Unit, P.O. Box
1880, Richmond, VA 23282-1880.
B. Handler defined. The term "handler" means any
person, firm, corporation or any other business entity who is a processor,
dealer, shipper, country buyer, exporter who handles corn produced in Virginia
or a farmer who sells his corn out of state or to anyone other than a
"handler."
C. Examples.
Example 1: Farmer A grows corn in Virginia and sells the
harvested crop for processing to Processor B located in North Carolina. Farmer
A is the "handler" and responsible for remitting the Virginia Corn
Excise Tax to the Virginia Department of Taxation.
Example 2: Farmer E grows corn in Virginia and sells the
harvested corn for processing to Processor F located in Virginia. Processor F
is the "handler" and is responsible for collecting from the farmer
and remitting the Virginia Corn Excise Tax to the Virginia Department of Taxation.
Example 3: Farmer G grows corn in Virginia and sells the
harvested crop for seed to Farmer H. Farmer G is the "handler" and is
responsible for remitting the Virginia Corn Excise Tax to the Virginia
Department of Taxation.
C. Handler return. The corn excise tax returns must be
filed by the handler quarterly and are due on or before the last day of the
month following the end of the period. The quarters are January 1 through March
31, April 1 through June 30, July 1 through September 30 and October 1 through
December 31. Each return shall report the gross volume of corn which has been
handled by the handler during the quarter. Each handler must file the return
with the Department of Taxation, P.O. Box 1880, Richmond, VA 23282-1880.
D. Payment of tax by handler. Each handler must pay the
corn excise tax. The return, with applicable tax payment, is due by the last
day of the month following the end of each quarter. (Due dates are April 30,
July 31, October 31, and January 31). The tax receipts shall be deposited by
the Tax Commissioner into the State Treasury and credited to the Virginia Corn
Fund.
23VAC10-55-50. Records to be kept by handlers. (Repealed.)
A. Generally. Every handler of corn subject to the corn
excise tax must keep complete records on the corn handled by him. The handler
must keep and preserve the records for at least three years following the date
the tax is reported on such corn.
Note: While § 3.1-1045 of the Code of Virginia specifies
records must be preserved for a period not less than two years from the time
the corn was handled, the statute of limitations under § 58.1-1812 of the Code
of Virginia provides for a three year period for assessment of deficiencies. In
order to prevent any undue burden upon the taxpayer, in the event of audit, the
record retention period has been extended to the same limitation as the
assessment statute of limitations.
B. Examination by Commissioner. The Tax Commissioner, or
his duly authorized agents, may examine during the usual business hours of the
day records, books, papers, or other documents of the handler to verify the
truth and accuracy of any return, statement, or other relevant information.
NOTICE: The following
forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms
are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be
viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly
Building, 2nd Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (23VAC10-55)
Virginia Corn Assessment Return Instructions, Form CO-AR W
(rev. 5/06).
Business Registration Application, Form R-1 (rev. 3/08).
Form
CO-1, Virginia Corn Assessment Return and Instructions (CO-AR W) (rev. 5/2006)
Form
R-1, Business Registration Form (1501220) and Instructions (1501228) (rev.
3/2015)
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4608; Filed May 31, 2016, 3:26 p.m.
TITLE 23. TAXATION
DEPARTMENT OF TAXATION
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 23VAC10-210. Retail Sales and
Use Tax (amending 23VAC10-210-940).
Statutory Authority: § 58.1-203 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: August 26, 2016.
Effective Date: September 12, 2016.
Agency Contact: Kristen Peterson, Analyst, Department of
Taxation, 600 East Main Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-2340,
FAX (804) 371-2355, or email kristen.peterson@tax.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 58.1-203 of the Code of Virginia
authorizes the Tax Commissioner to issue regulations relating to the
interpretation and enforcement of the laws of the Commonwealth governing taxes
administered by the Department of Taxation. The authority for the current
regulatory action is discretionary.
Purpose: The current regulation does not reflect
numerous statutory changes that have been made regarding the retail sales and
use tax. Chapters 331 and 361 of the 2006 Acts of Assembly changed the
application of the retail sales and use tax for veterinarians purchasing
medicines and drugs. Prior to this legislative change, a veterinarian was
deemed the user and consumer of any medicine or drug used in his operation and
was required to pay his suppliers the sales and use tax when purchasing these
items. The 2006 Session of the General Assembly amended this statute by
exempting a veterinarian's purchase of medicines and drugs that are either used
by the veterinarian in treating agricultural production animals or sold to a
farmer for direct use in producing an agricultural product for market. The
current regulation does not reflect this statutory change, as it explicitly
excludes veterinarians from the "licensed physician" definition.
The General Assembly also enacted Chapter 217 of the 2006 Acts
of Assembly, which expanded the exemption to allow for-profit nursing homes,
clinics, and similar corporations to purchase medicines and drugs tax free.
This change is not reflected in the current regulation.
In 1999, the General Assembly expanded the sales and use tax
exemption available for eyeglasses and related items to include eyeglass cases,
contact lens storage containers, solutions or sterilization kits, and other
similar devices when distributed free of charge by optometrists,
ophthalmologists, and opticians. This legislative change is not reflected in
the current regulation.
In 1998, the department released a tax bulletin (VTB 98-4) to
explain a legislative change that exempted nonprescription drugs as well as
samples of nonprescription drugs distributed free of charge by the manufacturer
(Chapter 696 of the 1997 Acts of Assembly), from sales and use tax. The tax
bulletin identified categories of taxable items and provided a detailed list of
items falling under the exempt nonprescription drug classification. The
department updated this tax bulletin in 2013 (VTB 13-5) to provide
clarification to retailers and purchasers of nonprescription drugs. These
statutory and administrative changes are not reflected in the current
regulation.
In addition, the regulation clarifies the tax treatment of
various items not specifically identified in the statute or current regulation,
but frequently utilized in the provision of health care services, including,
for example, eyeglasses, durable medical equipment, or other medical devices.
Because the existing regulation does not reflect current law
and requires clarification regarding the tax treatment of certain items, it
does not provide the sufficient guidance needed to ensure that taxpayers comply
with Virginia's sales and use tax laws. This regulatory action is necessary to
ensure a predictable and adequate revenue stream for the government to provide
for the health, safety, and welfare of citizens.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: The
fast-track rulemaking process is intended for proposed regulations that are
expected to be noncontroversial. As the regulation will be amended to reflect
current law and will not make any changes to the department's current policy
regarding medicines and drugs, this action is not expected to be controversial.
The department has issued numerous published ruling letters, tax bulletins, and
other public documents (PD) that address the retail sales and use tax as it applies
to the purchase of medicines, drugs, medical devices, durable medical
equipment, and other medical-related items. These PDs and recent law changes
form the basis for the proposed changes to this regulation.
Substance: This regulatory action amends 23VAC10-210-940
to reflect changes made during the 1997 and 2006 Sessions of the General
Assembly and to incorporate policy set forth in numerous PDs. Substantive
changes or new provisions to the regulation are as follows:
1. Controlled drugs. While the current regulation provides an
exemption to licensed physicians for controlled drug purchases, this exemption
also extends to licensed optometrists, licensed nurse practitioners, and
licensed physician assistants. Moreover, the Code of Virginia defines controlled
drug, but this regulatory action expands that definition by explaining that the
manufacture, distribution, and dispensation are heavily regulated by the state
and federal government because of the drug's potential for abuse and physical
or psychological dependence. The regulation also describes the documentation
that may be used to demonstrate that the exemption requirements have been
satisfied.
2. Durable medical equipment. In addition to the exemption
available for durable medical equipment, items specifically designed for use
with durable medical equipment or devices are exempt from the retail sales and
use tax. General purpose supplies do not qualify for this exemption. Additional
items have been added to the current list of qualifying durable medical equipment.
Durable medical equipment and related items must be purchased by or on behalf
of an individual and may not be purchased in bulk and then dispensed to
individual patients. If the purchaser of these items has no blanket exemption
for his purchases and no certificate of exemption or other exemption notice
from the department applies, the taxpayer must obtain a signed statement from
the purchaser certifying that the durable medical equipment or related items
are purchased on behalf of a specific patient through a doctor's prescription
or hospital's work order and is for sole use by that patient. Taxpayers are
obligated to keep records documenting that the purchase was for a specific
patient, but they may redact identifying information regarding each patient in
order to comply with federal and state privacy laws.
3. Eyeglasses. Optometrists, ophthalmologists, and opticians
are engaged in the provision of professional services and must pay the tax to
their suppliers at the time they purchase tangible personal property used in
performing their professional services or remit the use tax directly to the
department. When these practitioners provide eyeglass cases, contact lens
storage containers, solutions or sterilization kits, or other similar devices
to their patients free of charge, they may purchase these specified items
exempt of the tax.
4. Hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis equipment. Hemodialysis
and peritoneal dialysis equipment, supplies, and drugs used in dialysis are not
subject to the retail sales and use tax, regardless of the nature of the
purchaser.
5. Licensed hospitals and nursing homes. Licensed hospitals and
nursing homes may purchase medicines and drugs for use and consumption exempt
from the retail sales and use tax.
6. Medical supplies purchased by Medicaid recipients. Medicaid
recipients may purchase otherwise taxable medical products and supplies exempt
from the retail sales and use tax provided the purchase is made through a
Department of Medical Assistance Services provider agreement.
7. Nonprescription drugs. Nonprescription medicines and drugs
and proprietary medicines and drugs purchased for the cure, mitigation,
treatment, or prevention of disease in human beings are exempt from retail
sales and use tax, regardless of the nature of the purchaser. In addition,
samples of nonprescription drugs distributed free of charge by the
manufacturer, as well as the packaging materials and constituent elements, are
also exempt. The exemption does not extend to cosmetics; toilet articles; food
products and supplements; vitamins and mineral concentrates sold as dietary
supplements or adjuncts; devices; certain products listing natural or herbal
ingredients; and items containing nonprescription drugs that serve a secondary
function to the intended use of the product. A list of exempt nonprescription
medicines and taxable items that do not qualify for the nonprescription drug
exemption is provided.
8. Prosthetic devices. Implants used for cosmetic purposes do
not qualify for exemption from the tax because their main function is not to
replace a missing body part, but rather, to promote beauty.
9. Samples of prescription drugs. Pharmaceutical manufacturers
are authorized to distribute samples of prescription drugs and medicines and
their packaging free of charge to certain medical care providers and are not
required to remit use tax for these items.
10. Veterinarians. Veterinarians have been added to the list of
medical providers on whose written prescription medicines and drugs may be
purchased exempt of the retail sales and use tax. A separate section has been
added to indicate that, while veterinarians are deemed the users or consumers
of medicines and drugs and must pay the retail sales and use tax on such
purchases, they may purchase medicines and drugs used in caring for
agricultural production animals exempt of the retail sales and use tax.
Issues: This regulatory action will ease voluntary
taxpayer compliance and the department's administration of the state tax laws
by amending a regulation that does not reflect current law. By clarifying the
retail sales and use tax treatment for medicines and drugs, the department
ensures uniform application of the tax laws to taxpayers, particularly
physicians, optometrists, ophthalmologists, veterinarians, audiologists, and
other medical service providers, as well as purchasers of these services. In
addition, business taxpayers will be better equipped to predict the tax
consequences of transactions and avoid unanticipated tax assessments as the
result of audits.
This regulatory action poses no disadvantages to the public or
the Commonwealth.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The
Department of Taxation (Department) proposes several amendments to reflect
statutory changes and long-standing policy concerning the tax treatment of
purchases of medicines and drugs by medical service providers and consumers.
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. The current regulation does not
reflect numerous statutory changes that have been made regarding the Retail
Sales and Use Tax. Legislation enacted by the 2006 General Assembly (2006 Acts
of Assembly, Chapters 331, 361) changed the application of the Retail Sales and
Use Tax for veterinarians purchasing medicines and drugs. Prior to this
legislative change, a veterinarian was deemed the user and consumer of any
medicine or drug used in his operation, and was required to pay his suppliers
the sales and use tax when purchasing these items. The 2006 General Assembly
amended this statute by exempting a veterinarian's purchase of medicines and
drugs that are either used by the veterinarian in treating agricultural
production animals or sold to a farmer for direct use in producing an
agricultural product for market. The current regulation does not reflect this
statutory change, as it explicitly excludes veterinarians from the
"licensed physician" definition.
The General Assembly also enacted law in 2006 (2006 Acts of
Assembly, Chapter 217) that expanded the exemption to allow for-profit nursing
homes, clinics, and similar corporations to purchase medicines and drugs
tax-free. This change is not reflected in the current regulation.
In 1999, the General Assembly expanded the sales and use tax
exemption available for eyeglasses and related items to include eyeglass cases,
contact lens storage containers, solutions or sterilization kits and other
similar devices, when distributed free of charge by optometrists,
ophthalmologists, and opticians. This legislative change is not reflected in
the current regulation.
In 1998, the Department released a Tax Bulletin (VTB 98-4) to
explain a legislative change that exempted nonprescription drugs, as well as
samples of nonprescription drugs distributed free of charge by the manufacturer
(1997 Acts of Assembly, Chapter 696), from sales and use tax. The Tax Bulletin
identified categories of taxable items and provided a detailed list of items
falling under the exempt nonprescription drug classification. The Department
updated this Tax Bulletin in 2013 (VTB 13-5) to provide clarification to
retailers and purchasers of nonprescription drugs. These statutory and
administrative changes are not reflected in the current regulation.
The Department proposes to update the regulation to reflect the
above statutory and administrative changes. The proposed changes will not
affect tax rules and policy, but will be beneficial by increasing clarity and
reducing potential confusion for readers of the regulation concerning the rules
in effect.
Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendments
pertain to the 40,146 physicians, 1,621 optometrists, 4,042 veterinarians, and
other health care providers currently licensed in the Commonwealth, as well as
their associated employers.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do
not disproportionately affect particular localities.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments do not
significantly affect employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
amendments do not significantly affect the use and value of private property.
Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments do not
affect real estate development costs.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendments do not
significantly affect costs for small businesses.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed
amendments do not create adverse impact for small businesses.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses: The proposed amendments will not adversely affect
businesses.
Localities: The proposed amendments will not adversely affect
localities.
Other Entities: The proposed amendments will not adversely
affect other entities.
Agency Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
Department of Taxation agrees with the Department of Planning and Budget's
economic impact analysis regarding its update to 23VAC10-210-940, regarding
medicines, drugs, eyeglasses, and related items.
Summary:
The amendments reflect statutory changes and long-standing
policy concerning the tax treatment of purchases of medicines and drugs by
medical service providers and consumers.
23VAC10-210-940. Medicines, drugs, eyeglasses, and
related items.
A. Generally. The tax does not apply to medicines, drugs,
hypodermic syringes, artificial eyes, contact lenses, eyeglasses and hearing
aids dispensed by or sold on prescriptions or work orders of licensed
physicians, dentists, optometrists, audiologists, hearing aid dealers and
fitters or ophthalmologists, and controlled drugs purchased by a licensed
physician for use in his professional practice.
The tax does not apply to wheelchairs and repair parts,
braces, crutches, prosthetic devices, orthopedic appliances, catheters, urinary
accessories, insulin and insulin syringes, and equipment, devices or chemical
reagents which may be used by a diabetic to test or monitor blood or urine and
other durable medical equipment and devices, related parts and supplies
specifically designed for such equipment when such items or parts are purchased
by or on behalf of an individual using these items. Purchases of these items by
a hospital or licensed nursing home conducted for profit or by a licensed physician
for use in his professional practice are subject to tax.
B. A. Definitions. As used in this
regulation, the The following words and phrases set forth below
terms when used in this section shall be given have the
following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
1. Prosthetic devices. "Prosthetic devices"
shall mean devices which replace a missing part or function of the body and
shall include any supplies physically connected to such devices.
2. Controlled drugs. "Controlled drugs" shall
mean those means medicines or drugs for which the manufacture,
distribution, and dispensation are strictly regulated by both state and federal
laws due to the potential for abuse and physical and psychological dependence.
Controlled drugs are separated into six schedules and itemized under §
54.1-3400 et seq. Article 5 (§ 54.1-3443 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of
the Code of Virginia but shall include only medicines and drugs and not
devices. For purposes of this definition, "controlled drugs"
does not include devices.
"Cosmetics" means articles applied to the body
for cleansing, beautifying, promoting attractiveness, or altering the
appearance including makeup, body lotions, cold creams, and hair restoration
products.
"Devices" means instruments, apparatuses, and
contrivances, including their components, parts, and accessories, intended for
use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in
human beings or to affect the structure or any function of the human body. A
partial list of devices that the federal Food and Drug Administration
recognizes is provided at 21 CFR Part 862.
"Drug" means (i) articles or substances
recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia National Formulary or
official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or any supplement to
any of them; (ii) articles or substances intended for use in the diagnosis,
cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (iii)
articles or substances, other than food, intended to affect the structure or
any function of the body of man or animals; (iv) articles or substances
intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (i), (ii),
or (iii) of this definition; or (v) a biological product. For purposes of this
definition, "drug" includes oxygen and other medical gases, but does
not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.
"Durable medical equipment" means medical
equipment that meets all of the following requirements: (i) can withstand
repeated use; (ii) is primarily and customarily used to serve a medical
purpose; (iii) generally is not useful to a person in the absence of illness or
injury; and (iv) is appropriate for use in the home.
"Glycolic acid products" means cosmetic items
used to smooth or lighten skin or to remove age spots and wrinkles for the
purpose of promoting attractiveness or altering the appearance.
"Hemodialysis" means a renal replacement therapy
method of removing waste products as well as free water from the blood when the
kidneys are incapable of removing these wastes.
"Homeopathic product" means a product derived
from the system of medical practice that treats a disease by the administration
of minute doses of a remedy that would, in larger amounts, produce in healthy
persons, symptoms similar to those of the disease.
3. Licensed physician. "Licensed physician" shall
include only those persons means a person licensed as a
medical doctors and shall doctor. For purposes of this
definition, a "licensed physician" does not include veterinarians
a veterinarian, chiropractors chiropractor, opticians
optician, optometrists and optometrist, or similar persons
person.
"Nonprescription drug" means a substance or
mixture of substances containing medicines or drugs for which no prescription
is required and that is generally sold for internal or topical use in the cure,
mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in human beings.
"Peritoneal dialysis" means a renal replacement
therapy method of removing waste from the blood, as well as excess fluid, when
the kidneys are incapable of removing these wastes, by instilling a specially
formulated dialysis fluid around the peritoneal membrane that surrounds the
intestine.
"Prescription" means an order for drugs or
medical supplies written or signed or transmitted by word of mouth, telephone,
telegraph, Internet, or other means of communication to a pharmacist by a duly
licensed physician, dentist, veterinarian, or other practitioner authorized by
law to prescribe and administer drugs or medical supplies.
"Proprietary medicine" means any nonprescription
drug that is sold to the general public under the brand name or trade name of
the manufacturer and that does not contain any controlled substance or
marijuana.
"Prosthetic device" means any device that
replaces a missing part or function of the body. For purposes of this section,
a prosthetic device includes any supplies physically connected to the device.
"Toilet articles" means articles advertised or
held out for sale for grooming purposes including toothpastes, hairsprays,
shaving products, colognes, and deodorants.
B. Generally. Purchases of the following items are exempt
from the retail sales and use tax:
1. Controlled drugs that a licensed physician, licensed
optometrist, licensed nurse practitioner, or licensed physician assistant
purchases for use in his professional practice;
2. Medicines, drugs, hypodermic syringes, artificial eyes,
contact lenses, eyeglasses, and hearing aids that a licensed physician,
dentist, optometrist, ophthalmologist, optician, audiologist, hearing aid
dealer or fitter, nurse practitioner, physician assistant, or veterinarian
dispenses or sells on prescriptions or work orders;
3. Medicines and drugs that a licensed hospital, nursing
home, clinic, or similar corporation purchases for its use and consumption;
4. Medicines and drugs that a retailer purchases in order
to fill a prescription, provided the purchase is made under a certificate of
exemption, Form ST-10;
5. Nonprescription medicines or drugs and proprietary
medicines or drugs regardless of the nature of the purchaser;
6. Samples of nonprescription drugs and proprietary
medicines that a manufacturer distributes free of charge;
7. Eyeglass cases, contact lens storage containers, all
solutions or sterilization kits, or other devices applicable to the wearing or
maintenance of contact lenses or eyeglasses, provided these items are purchased
by optometrists, ophthalmologists, and opticians and distributed free of charge
to their patients;
8. Eyeglasses that a consumer purchases on prescription of
a licensed physician, ophthalmologist, or optometrist;
9. Eyeglass frames sold in connection with the repair or
replacement of prescription eyeglasses;
10. Durable medical equipment, devices, and related parts
and supplies, provided the equipment, parts, and supplies are purchased by or
on behalf of an individual for use by that individual. Purchases of durable
medical equipment, parts, and supplies made by a licensed hospital or nursing
home conducted for profit or by a licensed physician for use in his
professional practice remain subject to tax;
11. Hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis equipment,
supplies, and drugs used in dialysis regardless of the nature of the purchaser;
12. Samples of prescription drugs that a pharmaceutical
manufacturer distributes to licensed physicians, hospitals, pharmacies, and
other health care facilities pursuant to a written request;
13. Medicines and drugs that a veterinarian purchases for
use in caring for, medicating, or treating agricultural production animals; and
14. Medical products and supplies that a Medicaid recipient
purchases through a Department of Medical Assistance Services provider
agreement.
C. Medicines and drugs, specifically.
1. Sales of Medicines and drugs sold on
prescriptions. Consumers may purchase medicines or drugs, including
oxygen, on written prescriptions of issued by licensed
physicians, or dentists are, optometrists,
ophthalmologists, opticians, audiologists, hearing aid dealers and fitters,
nurse practitioners, physician assistants, and veterinarians exempt from
the sales and use tax. Sales of medicines Medicines and
drugs on a physician's or dentist's telephone (oral) purchased
pursuant to an oral prescription made by any of these licensed
professionals are exempt from the tax, provided the prescription is
reduced to writing, signed by the pharmacist, and filed in the same manner as
an original written prescription. Medicines or drugs sold pursuant to the
refilling of a physician's or dentist's prescription by any of these
licensed professionals are also exempt from the tax. Vendors Sellers
making sales of medicines or drugs pursuant to physician's or dentist's these
prescriptions or in refilling the same refills must keep sales
records segregating the prescription sales. All original prescriptions must be
filed and kept available for inspection by the Department of Taxation
Taxation's inspection. When a sale is made to refill pharmacist
refills a prescription, the seller's records of the refill must carry the
number of the original prescription for reference.
2. Sales of controlled Controlled drugs sold
to a licensed physician certain health care providers. A
licensed physician, licensed optometrist, licensed nurse practitioner, or
licensed physician assistant may purchase controlled drugs for use in his
professional practice are exempt from the retail sales and use
tax. The Department of Taxation will look to the purchasers on the invoice
that supports the transaction to determine whether the controlled drug
exemption applies. When an invoice includes any of the licensed practitioners
as the purchaser, this is sufficient to demonstrate that the purchase was made
by the qualifying party for use in his professional practice. The use of a Drug
Enforcement Agency number is also sufficient.
3. Sales of medicines or drugs to users or consumers,
except when the sales are made pursuant to a prescription of a physician or
dentist or as a refill of a written prescription, as referred to in paragraph
(A) are subject to the tax. Sales of medicines Medicines and drugs sold
to licensed hospitals and nursing homes conducted for profit are
subject to the similar facilities. Licensed hospitals, nursing homes,
clinics, and similar facilities may purchase medicines and drugs for their use
and consumption exempt from the retail sales and use tax unless the
sales are made as a result of a written prescription of a licensed physician
for a particular patient under the care of the hospital or nursing home. Sales
to hospitals or licensed nursing homes conducted not for profit, however, are
not subject to the tax. For more information about concerning
hospitals and nursing homes, see 23VAC10-210-720.
4. Purchases of drugs by the dealer for filling
prescriptions are not subject to the tax and must be made under certificate of
exemption. Medicines and drugs purchased for resale. A retailer may
purchase drugs that will be used to fill or refill prescriptions exempt of the
retail sales and use tax, provided the retailer presents the supplier with a
certificate of exemption, Form ST-10, at the time of purchase.
D. Nonprescription drugs and proprietary drugs.
1. Nonprescription medicines or drugs and proprietary
medicines and drugs purchased for the cure, mitigation, treatment, or
prevention of disease in human beings may be purchased exempt of the retail
sales and use tax regardless of the nature of the purchaser. No certificate of
exemption is necessary to utilize the exemption.
2. In order to be deemed an exempt nonprescription drug,
the item at issue must (i) contain a nonprescription drug or proprietary
medicine; (ii) be sold for internal or topical use; (iii) be sold for the cure,
mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in human beings; and (iv) fall
outside of the excluded categories set forth in subdivision 3 of this
subsection. Products that require over-the-counter registration are deemed
exempt nonprescription drugs or medicines if they meet these requirements.
3. The exemption for nonprescription drugs and proprietary
medicines does not apply to the following categories of items:
a. Cosmetics;
b. Toilet articles;
c. Food products and supplements classified as such by the
federal Food and Drug Administration;
d. Vitamins and mineral concentrates sold as dietary
supplements or adjuncts, except when sold pursuant to a written prescription by
a licensed physician, nurse practitioner, or physician's assistant;
e. Devices, including contraceptive items, birth control preparations,
and testing kits. However, a separate exemption is available for diabetic
testing kits under subsection F of this section;
f. Products listing natural or herbal ingredients as the
active components unless the items contain a nonprescription drug or
proprietary medicine and treat, cure, or prevent disease in human beings.
g. Items containing nonprescription drugs or other
medicinal ingredients that serve a secondary function to the intended use of
the product, such as toothpaste with nonprescription drugs added to prevent
gingivitis.
4. Following is a list of nonprescription drugs and
proprietary medicines that qualify for exemption based on their status as
nonprescription drugs or proprietary medicines. This list is intended as a
guide and is not intended to be all inclusive.
Acne products
|
Headache relief aid products
|
Alcohol, rubbing
|
Hemorrhoidal treatments
|
Alcohol swabs
|
Hydrogen peroxide
|
Allergy relief products
|
Ibuprofen
|
Analgesics
|
Insect bite and sting preparations
|
Anesthetics
|
Iodine
|
Antacids
|
Itch and rash relievers
|
Antibiotic ointments
|
Laxatives
|
Antifungals
|
Lice products used to kill lice that infect humans
|
Antihistamines
|
Liniments
|
Antimalarials
|
Lip balms, ice and salves, medicated
|
Antinauseants
|
Lotions, medicated
|
Antiseptics
|
Menstrual cramp relievers
|
Aspirin
|
Mercurochrome
|
Asthma preparations
|
Milk of Magnesia
|
Baby powder, medicated
|
Mineral oil
|
Bandages, gauze, or swabs, provided these items contain
antiseptic or bacterial control products in the pad
|
Motion sickness remedies
|
Bee sting relievers
|
Mouthwashes containing antiseptic
|
Benzoin
|
Muscle ache relievers
|
Boric acid ointment
|
Nasal drops and sprays
|
Burn remedies
|
Nicotine supplements that treat nicotine withdrawal
symptoms
|
Calamine lotion
|
Oil of wintergreen
|
Camphor
|
Pain relievers, oral or topical
|
Castor oil
|
Parasiticides for humans
|
Cathartics
|
Peroxide, medicinal
|
Cold or canker sore preparations
|
Poison ivy and oak preparations
|
Cold capsules and remedies
|
Powder, medicated
|
Contact lens lubricating and wetting solutions for
insertion directly into the eye
|
Rectal preparations
|
Contraceptive creams containing nonprescription drugs and
intended to treat a disease
|
Shampoos, medicated
|
Cough and cold items, cough drops, cough syrups
|
Sinus relievers
|
Dandruff and seborrhea preparations
|
Sitz bath solutions
|
Decongestants
|
Skin irritation relievers
|
Diarrhea remedies
|
Sleep aids and sleep inducers
|
Digestive aids
|
Soap, including germicidal, surgical, therapeutic, or
other soaps used for medical treatment
|
Disinfectant for use on or about the human body
|
Styptic pencils
|
Diuretics
|
Sunburn lotions
|
Earache and earwax removal preparations
|
Sunscreen containing SPF protection
|
Eczema preparations
|
Suppositories, excluding contraceptives
|
Epsom salts
|
Teething preparations
|
Expectorants
|
Throat lozenges, medicated
|
Eye drops, lotions, ointments, and washes for healing,
treatment, or therapeutic use
|
Tooth desensitizers
|
Fever blister aids
|
Toothache relievers
|
First aid healing agents, cleaners
|
Upset stomach relievers
|
Fluoride rinses and antiseptic dental washes
|
Vaginal infection remedies
|
Foot care products for treatments of infections,
medicated callous or corn removers, ingrown toenail preparations, and
athlete's foot treatments
|
Wart removers
|
Fungicides for human use
|
Witch hazel
|
Glucose tablets
|
Worming treatments for human use humans
|
Glycerine products intended for medical use
|
Zinc oxide ointments
|
Hay fever aid products
|
|
5. Following is a list of items that do not qualify as
nonprescription drugs or proprietary medicines. These items may qualify for
another retail sales and use tax exemption. This list is intended as a guide
and is not intended to be all inclusive.
Adhesive bandages, dressings, and cotton
|
Household disinfectants and insecticides
|
Adhesive removers
|
Infant formula
|
Adhesive tape
|
Insect repellant
|
Ammonia
|
Mouthwashes, excluding antiseptic mouthwashes
|
Appetite suppressants
|
Nutraceutical products
|
Bath crystals, milks, oils and powder
|
Oral electrolyte mixtures for rehydration
|
Birth control preparations
|
Pet medical supplies
|
Breath fresheners and sweeteners
|
Pet medicines
|
Bubble bath
|
Petroleum jelly
|
Bunions or corn pads, unless medicated
|
Powders, nonmedicated
|
Cleaning creams and lotions
|
Prophylactics
|
Cod liver oil
|
Pumice powder
|
Contact lens cleaning solutions and disinfectants, unless
designed to be applied directly in the eye
|
Saline solution
|
Cosmetics, whether or not containing medicinal properties
or acne treatments
|
Sanitary napkins, tampons, and similar items
|
Cotton applicators, rolls, balls, and swabs
|
Shampoos, nonmedicated
|
Cuticle softener
|
Shaving products
|
Denture adhesives, cleaners, and preparations
|
Skin bleaches
|
Deodorants and antiperspirants
|
Soaps for general use
|
Depilatories
|
Stimulants
|
Dental floss and threaders
|
Suntan lotion without SPF protection
|
Diet aids
|
Talcum powder
|
Dietary foods, supplements, and substitutes
|
Testing kits
|
Distilled water
|
Thermometers
|
Exfoliants
|
Toothpastes, polishes, powders, and whiteners, including
products containing fluoride or peroxide
|
Glycolic acid products
|
Vitamins and mineral supplements
|
Hair restoration products
|
Wax
|
Hand sanitizers, sprays, foams, gels, soaps or wipes,
including antibacterial items
|
Weight control preparations
|
Herbal teas, drinks, pills, or powder supplements
|
Wrinkle removing and concealing preparations
|
6. If a homeopathic product is classified as a drug by the
federal Food and Drug Administration, is used internally or topically, and is
used for the cure, treatment, mitigation, or prevention of disease in human
beings, the product is exempt from the retail sales and use tax.
7. Nonprescription items packaged with items that would not
qualify for exemption as nonprescription drugs, such as items found in a
first-aid kit, are subject to the retail sales and use tax. The tax is computed
on the total sales price.
8. Items identified as "sensitive care products"
range from lotions and soap-free cleaners to medicated products that treat a
number of medical conditions. The taxability of these items must be determined
on a case-by-case basis, based on the ingredients the item contains and the
intended purpose of the product.
9. Retailers making sales of nonprescription drugs must
include exempt nonprescription drugs with all other exempt sales on the
retailer's regular sales tax return, Form ST-9. Retail dealers making sales of
such items must keep records segregating purchases and sales of exempt items.
D. E. Eyeglasses and other ophthalmic aids and
supplies.
1. Optometrists, ophthalmologists, and opticians are
engaged in the provision of professional services and must pay the tax to their
suppliers at the time they purchase instruments, supplies, equipment, and other
tangible personal property used in performing their professional services or
remit the use tax directly to the Department of Taxation on these items.
However, when optometrists, ophthalmologists, and opticians provide eyeglass
cases, contact lens storage containers, solutions, sterilization kits, or other
similar devices related to wearing or maintaining contact lenses or eyeglasses
to their patients free of charge, the practitioners may purchase these
specified items exempt of the tax.
1. Sales of eyeglasses 2. Eyeglasses ground on
prescription of physicians, ophthalmologists, or optometrists,
including as well as frames as an that are an integral
part of the glasses are not subject to the tax exempt from the
retail sales and use tax. Eyeglass frames sold in connection with the repair or
replacement of prescription eyeglasses are also exempt from the tax, provided
the prescription for the glasses is on file with the person replacing or
repairing the eyeglass frames.
2. Eyeglass frames sold in connection with the repair or
replacement of eyeglasses ground on prescription of physicians,
ophthalmologists or optometrists are not subject to the tax.
3. Sales of Dealers, including ophthalmologists and
optometrists, are not subject to the retail sales and use tax on purchases of
eyeglass frames, optical merchandise, and optical supplies by that
are purchased for resale and may present the optical supply houses to
dealers, including ophthalmologists and optometrists, for resale are not
subject to the tax until sold at retail by such purchasers at which time the
rules set forth in this section apply supplier with an exemption
certificate, Form ST-10, at the time of purchase.
4. Sales of ophthalmic instruments and supplies to
physicians, ophthalmologists, optometrists and other users are subject to the
tax.
5. All sales to users or consumers of eyeglass 4.
Eyeglass frames, nonprescription sunglasses not ground on
prescription, cases, solutions for cleaning eyeglasses, barometers,
telescopes, binoculars, opera glasses, and similar items are subject to
the tax when sold to users or consumers. All persons, including
opticians, optometrists and ophthalmologists making such sales of
these items, including opticians, optometrists, and ophthalmologists, are
required to register as dealers and collect and pay the tax due. However,
sales of eyeglass frames or repair parts for prescription eyeglasses are exempt
from the tax if the prescription for the glasses is on file with the person
replacing or repairing the eyeglass frames.
6. 5. The exemptions outlined in this regulation
subsection have no application whatever to the retail
sales of eyeglasses or other optical goods not prescribed by licensed
optometrists or ophthalmologists. All such of these sales are
subject to the tax.
E. Wheelchairs, braces, prosthetic devices, orthopedic
appliances, etc. F. Durable medical equipment, devices, and certain products
for diabetics.
1. Generally. The tax does not apply to wheelchairs and their
repair parts, braces, crutches, prosthetic devices, orthopedic appliances,
catheters, urinary accessories, other durable medical equipment and devices,
insulin and insulin syringes, and equipment devices and chemical reagents which
that may be used by a diabetic to test or monitor blood or urine,
when such these items are purchased by or on behalf of an
individual using these items for the individual's exclusive
use. For example, if individual A purchases a wheelchair for use by
individual B, no tax will apply to the transaction since the wheelchair is
purchased on behalf of individual B. However, purchases of these items by a
profit hospital, licensed nursing home, home for adults or by a licensed
physician for use in his professional practice are deemed to be purchases on
behalf of an individual only if purchased for a specific individual. Items
withdrawn from an inventory of items purchased in bulk are not deemed to be purchased
on behalf of an individual. (See subsection (G) below.) The fact that an
item is purchased from a medical equipment supplier or on a physician's
prescription is not dispositive of its exempt status.
In addition, parts or supplies that are specifically
designed for use with the items outlined in this subdivision are exempt from
retail sales and use tax. For example, because hearing aids qualify as durable
medical equipment, hearing aid batteries also are exempt durable medical
equipment because these items are a part or supply specifically designed for
use with hearing aids. General purpose medical supplies such as tape, gauze,
dressings, alcohol swabs, and sharps containers for disposal of used needles
and waste bags are not designed for use with durable medical equipment;
therefore, they do not qualify for the exemption.
2. Prosthetic devices.
Generally, implants satisfy the definition of prosthetic devices and may be
purchased exempt of the tax when purchased by or on behalf of specific
individuals. However, implants used for cosmetic purposes are not used to
replace missing body parts or functions and, as such, do not qualify for
exemption from the tax, regardless of whether they are purchased by or on
behalf of an individual. For dentures and other prosthetic devices relating to
the practice of dentistry, see 23VAC10-210-500.
3. Following is a list of the types of items that are
deemed durable medical equipment or other qualifying equipment or devices under
this subsection. This is a listing of general categories of products; specific
items must meet all of the requirements for durable medical equipment or other
qualifying items, as outlined in subdivision 1 of this subsection. The listing
is intended to be exemplary and not all inclusive.
Aerosol compressors, stationary and portable
|
Oxygen concentrators
|
Air oxygen mixers
|
Oxygen conserving devices
|
Alternating pressure pads
|
Oxygen cylinders
|
Alternating pressure pumps, if used with alternate
pressure pads
|
Oxygen equipment
|
Apnea monitors and accessories
|
Oxygen fittings and accessories
|
Aspirators
|
Oxygen humidifiers
|
Bed rails
|
Oxygen tubing
|
Bedside commodes
|
Oxygen
|
Bone fracture therapy devices
|
Paraffin baths
|
Catheter devices and supplies
|
Patient care equipment for physical and occupational therapy
|
Colostomy supplies and devices
|
Patient lifts
|
Communication aids for physically impaired
|
Patient lift slings
|
Continuous passive motion devices
|
Patient transport devices and boards
|
Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) and CPAP
accessories
|
Percussors and vibrators
|
Crawlers
|
Physical therapy items such as wrist and ankle weights,
shoulder braces, supports and braces when rehabilitative related
|
Crutches, crutch pads, and tips
|
Phototherapy lights, provided they are used to serve a
medical purpose and not for sun tanning purposes
|
Cylinder stands and support devices
|
Pneumatic compression units and accessories
|
Cylinder transport devices, sheaths and carts
|
Posture back supports, including back supports for
seating
|
Decubitus seating pads and bed pads
|
Raised toilet seats
|
Dressing aids, button loops, zipper aids, etc.
|
Reaching aids
|
Eating and drinking aids
|
Regulators and flowmeters
|
Emergency oxygen delivery units
|
Respiratory accessories, such as PFLEX or Peak Flow items
|
Enteral and parenteral feeding equipment and supplies,
including tubes, pumps, and containers
|
Respiratory therapy equipment
|
Face masks
|
Restraints
|
Fitted stroller
|
Room humidifiers with script
|
Foam seating pads
|
Shampoo trays
|
Foam wedges
|
Shower seating and bath benches
|
Gas oxygen refills and tanks
|
Shower grip bars
|
Geriatric chairs
|
Sitting and sleeping cushions
|
Glucose monitors and supplies, except batteries
|
Specialized seating, desks, and work stations
|
Grooming aids and dental aids
|
Specially designed hand utensils
|
Hand exercise equipment putty
|
Splints and holders
|
Heating pads
|
Stairglides and lifts in home
|
Hospital beds
|
Standing frames, devices, and accessories
|
Hospital bed mattresses and egg crates
|
Stethoscope
|
Household aids for the impaired
|
Tank wrench
|
Hydro-collators
|
Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit
and muscle stimulators
|
Hydro-therm heating pads
|
TENS accessories (electrodes, wiring specifically for use
with TENS units)
|
Ice bags
|
Toilet safety frames
|
Intermittent positive pressure breathing (IPPB) circuits,
devices and supplies
|
Tracheotomy and suction supplies
|
Intravenous (IV) stands
|
Traction stands, pulleys, etc.
|
IV supplies such as catheters and tubing
|
Trapeze bars and bar stands
|
Leg weights, related to
rehabilitation
|
Ultrasonic nebulizers
|
Lift recliners
|
Vaporizer
|
Liquid and gas oxygen systems, stationary and portable
|
Volume ventilators, respirators, and related device
supplies
|
Manual resuscitators
|
Walker accessories
|
Muscle stimulators
|
Walkers
|
Nasal cannulas
|
Walking canes, quad canes, accessories
|
Nebulizers and tubing
|
Wheelchairs
|
Overbed tables
|
Wheel walkers
|
Oximeters
|
Writing and speech aids for the impaired
|
4. Following are examples that demonstrate whether the
definition for durable medical equipment is met:
Example 1: A physician purchases a disposable capsule for a
specific patient that must be ingested to capture internal images of the body.
Because the capsule is disposable, it is not able to withstand repeated use.
Therefore, the capsule does not qualify as durable medical equipment.
Example 2: A physician offering gynecological services
purchases intrauterine copper contraceptive devices for a specific patient.
Because the contraceptive devices are not useful in the absence of illness or
injury, they are not durable medical equipment. Although there are instances of
pregnancy that may threaten the health of a patient, and in which the patient
may not be able to use other forms of contraceptive, the devices are designed
for contraceptive use. Therefore, they are not exempt durable medical
equipment.
5. The exemption in this subsection is available only for
items purchased by or on behalf of an individual for his use. In order to be
deemed a purchase on behalf of an individual, the item must be specifically purchased
for the individual. If items are purchased in bulk and then dispensed to
individual patients, the exemption does not apply, even if the items are
modified or fitted for a specific individual.
Example 1: A physician maintains an inventory of crutches
or ace bandages that are dispensed to individual patients as needed. The
physician must pay sales or use tax on these items because the original
purchase was not made on behalf of a specific patient.
Example 2: A physician determines that a patient needs a
brace and purchases a brace specifically designed for that patient. The
purchase is made on behalf of the individual and is exempt from the tax.
The Department of Taxation has not prescribed a certificate
of exemption to use when durable medical equipment and other exempt items under
subdivision 1 of this subsection are purchased on behalf of a specific person.
When the purchaser has no blanket exemption for its purchases and no
certificate of exemption or other exemption notice from the Department of Taxation
applies, the dealer must get a signed statement from the medical service
provider making the purchase, such as the hospital, nursing home, licensed
physician, or infusion service business, certifying that the durable medical
equipment is purchased on behalf of a specific patient through a doctor's
prescription or hospital's work order and is for sole use by that patient. The
purchaser is also responsible for retaining a copy of the doctor's prescription
or hospital work order as part of the record of the transaction for tax
auditing purposes. The fact that a purchaser can trace durable medical
equipment back to a specific patient after the fact is not sufficient to
establish that the durable medical equipment was purchased for a specific individual;
therefore, the purchaser's documentation must have included patient
identification information at the time of purchase in order for the purchase to
be deemed made on behalf of an individual. For purposes of proving that the
sale was for a specific individual in the event of a sales and use tax audit,
the purchaser may redact any identifying information in order to comply with
federal and state privacy laws.
2. Hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.
Hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis equipment, supplies and
drugs used in dialysis are not subject to the tax. This exemption is applicable
regardless of the nature of the purchaser. Therefore such dialysis equipment,
supplies and drugs may be purchased exempt by physicians, individuals, profit
and nonprofit hospitals, and other entities.
F. Durable medical equipment. The tax does not apply to
durable medical equipment purchased by or on behalf of an individual. Durable
medical equipment is that which (1) can withstand repeated use; (2) is
primarily and customarily used to serve a medical purpose; (3) generally is not
useful to a person in the absence of illness or injury; and (4) is appropriate
for use in the home. In order for an item to be exempt from the tax, it must
meet all of the above criteria. The fact that an item is purchased from a
medical equipment supplier is not dispositive of its exempt status; the item
must satisfy the definition of durable medical equipment.
Following is a list of those types of items which
constitute durable medical equipment. This is a listing of general categories
of products; specific items must still meet the definition set forth above. The
listing is intended to be exemplary and not all inclusive.
Oxygen equipment
Oxygen cylinders
Cylinder transport devices (sheaths, carts)
Cylinder stands, support devices
Regulators, flowmeters
Tank wrench
Oxygen concentrators
Liquid oxygen base dispenser
Liquid oxygen portable dispenser
Oxygen tubing
Nasal cannulas
Face masks
Oxygen humidifiers
Oxygen fittings, accessories
Respiratory therapy equipment
Room humidifiers (with script)
Aspirators
Aerosol compressors (stationary and portable)
Ultrasonic nebulizers
Volume ventilators, respirators and related device
supplies
Percussors, vibrators
IPPB, circuits, devices and supplies
Air oxygen mixers
Manual resuscitators
Nebulizers, tubing
Emergency oxygen delivery units
Patient care equipment, physical and occupational therapy
Hospital beds
Trapeze bars--bar stand
Bed rails
Geriatric chairs
Lift recliners
Bedside commodes
Overbed tables
Patient lifts
Patient lifts slings
Traction stands, pulleys, etc.
Shower seating
Shower grip bars
Raised toilet seats
Toilet safety frames
Walking canes, quad canes, accessories
Walkers
Wheel walkers
Walker accessories
I.V. stands
Crawlers
Posture back supports for seating
Posture back supports
Wheelchairs
Crutches, crutch pads, tips
Restraints
Standing frames, devices and accessories
Colostomy supplies and devices
Enteral and parenteral feeding equipment and supplies
(tubes, pumps, containers)
Catheter devices and supplies
Hand exercise equipment putty
Specially designed hand utensils
Leg weights (rehab. related)
Paraffin baths
Hydro-collators
Hydro-therm heating pads
Communication aids for physically impaired
Specialized seating, desks, work stations
Foam wedges
Writing and speech aids for the impaired
Dressing aids, button loops, zipper aids, etc.
Grooming aids, dental aids
Eating and drinking aids
Splints, holders
Household aids for the impaired
Shampoo trays
Reaching aids
Foam seating pads
Decubitis seating pads, bed pads
Fitted stroller
Alternating pressure pads
Stethoscope
Sitting and sleeping cushions
Patient transport devices, boards
Stairglides, lifts in home
Transcutaneous nerve stimulators
Muscle stimulators
Bone fracture therapy devices
G. Purchases on behalf of an individual. The exemption for
wheelchairs and repair parts, braces, crutches, prosthetic devices, orthopedic
appliances, catheters, urinary accessories, insulin and insulin syringes,
equipment, devices or chemical reagents used by a diabetic to test or monitor
blood or urine, and durable medical equipment and devices and related parts and
supplies specifically designed for such equipment extends to items purchased
"on behalf of" an individual for his use. In order to be deemed a
purchase on behalf of an individual, the item must be specifically bought for
the individual. If items are purchased in bulk and then dispensed to individual
patients, no exemption is applicable even if the item is modified or fitted for
a specific individual.
For example if a physician maintains an inventory of
crutches or ace bandages which are dispensed to individual patients as needed,
the purchase of these items is not exempt since the original purchase was not
made on behalf of a specific patient. Conversely, if a physician determines
that a patient needs a brace and purchases a brace specifically designed for
that patient, the purchase is made on behalf of the individual and will not be
subject to the tax.
For dentures and other prosthetic devices relating to the
practice of dentistry, see 23VAC10-210-500.
G. Hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis equipment,
supplies, and drugs. Hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis equipment, supplies,
and drugs used in dialysis are not subject to the tax. This exemption is
applicable regardless of the nature of the purchaser. Therefore, hemodialysis
and peritoneal dialysis equipment, supplies, and drugs may be purchased exempt
by physicians, individuals, for-profit and nonprofit hospitals, and other
entities.
H. Samples distributed to authorized recipients.
Pharmaceutical manufacturers are not subject to sales and use tax for samples
of prescription drugs and medicines or the packaging when distributed free of
charge to licensed physicians, hospitals, pharmacies, and other health care
facilities upon the written request of these medical providers in accordance
with the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 USC § 301 et seq.).
I. Purchases of medicines and drugs by veterinarians.
Veterinarians who dispense medicines or drugs on prescription are deemed the
users or consumers of all such medicines and drugs and must pay the retail
sales and use tax on these purchases; however, veterinarians may purchase
exempt of the sales and use tax all medicines and drugs that will be used in
caring for, medicating, or treating agricultural production animals. For
additional information on the taxability of drugs dispensed by veterinarians,
see 23VAC10-210-6050.
J. Purchases of medical products and supplies by certain
Medicaid recipients. Medicaid recipients are authorized to purchase medical
products and supplies that are otherwise taxable, such as bandages, gauze
dressings, incontinence products, and wound care products exempt from the
retail sales and use tax, provided the purchase is made through a Department of
Medical Assistance Services (DMAS) provider agreement. This exemption applies
to any type of medical product or supply, incontinence, or wound care product,
provided DMAS pays for the product or supply. Sellers must maintain sufficient
documentation to verify that the purchase transaction meets the criteria of the
exemption. The documentation must (i) identify the item sold; (ii) identify
that the purchaser is a Medicaid recipient; and (iii) verify that the
transaction is billed in accordance with a DMAS provider agreement.
NOTICE: The following
forms used in administering the regulation were filed by the agency. The forms
are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia
Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to
access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed
at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 2nd
Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (23VAC10-210)
Business Registration Application, Form R-1 (rev. 3/08).
5% Virginia Sales Tax Table (rev. 9/04).
2.5% Virginia Qualifying Food Sales Tax Table (rev. 4/05).
Certificate of Registration, Form ST-4 (rev. 2/08).
Virginia Direct Payment Permit Sales and Use Tax Return, Form
ST-6 (rev. 9/05).
Virginia Direct Payment Permit Sales and Use Tax Return
Worksheet (Instructions), Form ST-6A (rev. 9/05).
Virginia Schedule of Local Taxes, Form ST-6B (rev. 7/05).
Virginia Business Consumer's Use Tax Return, Form ST-7 (rev.
7/05).
Virginia Business Consumer's Use Tax Return Worksheet and
Instructions, Form ST-7A (rev. 6/05).
Virginia Out-of-State Dealer's Use Tax Return, Form ST-8
(rev. 9/05).
Virginia Out-of-State Dealer's Use Tax Return Worksheet and
Instructions, Form ST-8A (rev. 9/05).
Virginia Retail Sales and Use Tax Return, Form ST-9 (rev.
11/06).
Virginia Retail Sales and Use Tax Worksheet and
Instructions, Form ST-9A (rev. 9/05).
Schedule of Local Sales and Use Taxes, Form ST-9B (rev.
7/05).
Virginia
Retail Sales and Use Tax Return, Form ST-9 (6210051) (rev. 3/2013)
Virginia
Retail Sales and Use Tax Return for Consolidated Filers, Form ST-9 (6210051)
(rev. 3/2013); includes:
Virginia Schedule of Local Sales and Use Taxes, Form ST-9B
(6202053) (rev. 3/2013)
Virginia Retail Sales and Use Tax, ST-9A Worksheet
(6201052) (rev. 3/2013)
Virginia Schedule of Regional State Sales and Use Tax, Form
ST-9R (6201055) (rev. 2013)
Application for Sales and Use Tax Exemption for Nonprofit
Organizations, Form NPO Appl (rev. 1/08).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For dealers
who purchase tangible personal property for resale, lease or rental), Form
ST-10 (rev. 10/99).
Sales
and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption, Form ST-10 (6201056) (rev. 9/2015)
- For a Virginia dealer who purchases tangible personal property for resale, or
for lease or rental, or who purchases materials or containers to package
tangible personal property for sale
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For catalogs and
other printed materials distributed outside of Virginia; property delivered to
factor or agent for foreign export; advertising for placement in media;
advertising supplements), Form ST-10A (rev. 6/95).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (for use by
handicapped persons for purchase of special equipment for installation on a
motor vehicle), Form ST-10B (rev. 7/78).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For
manufacturing, processing, refining, converting, mining, basic research and
research and development in experimental or laboratory sense, or certified
pollution control equipment; equipment, materials or supplies used in the
production of a publication issued at least quarterly; high speed electrostatic
duplicators; materials, containers, etc. for future used for packaging tangible
personal property for shipment or sale), Form ST-11 (rev. 6/06).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use by
construction contractors and non-manufacturers when purchasing tangible
personal property for usage directly in manufacturing products for sale or
resale which are exempt from the tax; incorporation into real property in
another state or foreign country which could be purchased free from the tax in
such state or country; agricultural production, to be affixed to real property
owned or leased by a farmer engaged in agricultural production for market),
Form ST-11A (rev. 5/06).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use by a
semiconductor manufacturer), Form ST-11B (rev. 5/06).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use by the
Commonwealth of Virginia, a political subdivision of the Commonwealth of
Virginia, or the United States), Form ST-12 (rev. 10/06).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use by
certain medical related organizations), Form ST-13 (rev. 10/06).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use by
nonprofit churches), Form ST-13A (rev. 6/07).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use
exclusively by an out-of-state dealer who purchases tangible personal property
in VA for immediate transportation out of VA in his own vehicle for resale
outside VA), Form ST-14 (rev. 3/99).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use
exclusively by an out-of-state dealer who purchases livestock in VA for
immediate transportation out of VA for resale outside VA.) Form ST-14A (rev.
1/99).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use by
individuals purchasing heating oil, artificial or propane gas, firewood or coal
for domestic consumption), Form ST-15 (rev. 9/05).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use by
watermen who extract fish, bivalves, or crustaceans from waters for commercial
purposes.), Form ST-16 (rev. 9/05).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use by
harvesters of forest products.), Form ST-17 (rev. 7/99).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use by
farmers engaged in agricultural production), Form ST-18 (rev. 5/06).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use by
shipping lines engaged in interstate or foreign commerce, and by shipbuilding
companies engaged in building, converting or repairing ships or vessel), Form
ST-19 (rev. 6/05).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use by
certain public service corporations, commercial radio, and television companies,
cable television systems, taxicab operators and certain airlines.), Form ST-20
(rev. 9/04).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use by
production companies, program producers, radio, television and cable T.V.
companies, and other entities engaged in the production and creation of exempt
audiovisual works and the licensing, distribution and broadcasting of same),
Form ST-20A (rev. 9/05).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use when
purchasing or leasing railroad rolling stock from a manufacturer), Form ST-22
(rev. 4/07).
Sales and Use Tax Certificate of Exemption (For use by
individuals purchasing multi-fuel heating stoves for resident heating, Form
ST-23 (rev. 8/07).
Virginia Consumers Use Tax Return for Individuals, Form CU-7
(rev. 6/07).
Virginia Vending Machine Dealer's Sales Tax Return, Form VM-2
(rev. 8/05).
Virginia Vending Machines Dealer's Sales Tax Return
Worksheet, Form VM-2A (rev. 9/05).
Schedule of Local Vending Machine Sales Tax, Form VM-2B (rev.
7/05).
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-650; Filed May 31, 2016, 11:34 a.m.
TITLE 23. TAXATION
DEPARTMENT OF TAXATION
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 23VAC10-210. Retail Sales and
Use Tax (amending 23VAC10-210-160, 23VAC10-210-220,
23VAC10-210-250, 23VAC10-210-340, 23VAC10-210-450, 23VAC10-210-485,
23VAC10-210-630, 23VAC10-210-680, 23VAC10-210-2070, 23VAC10-210-3080,
23VAC10-210-6041, 23VAC10-210-6042, 23VAC10-210-6043).
Statutory Authority: § 58.1-203 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: August 26, 2016.
Effective Date: September 12, 2016.
Agency Contact: Andrea Muse, Department of Taxation, 600
East Main Street, Richmond, VA 23261-7185, telephone (804) 371-2336, FAX (804)
371-2355, or email andrea.muse@tax.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 58.1-203 of the Code of Virginia
authorizes the Tax Commissioner to issue regulations relating to the
interpretation and enforcement of the laws governing taxes administered by the
Department of Taxation. The retail sales and use tax is administered by the
Department of Taxation.
Purpose: Statutory rate change and legislative changes.
This regulatory action is needed to (i) update the retail sales and use tax
rate to the rate provided in statute, (ii) reflect the legislative change
allowing dealers to absorb the sales and use tax during the sales tax holiday
period, and (iii) reflect the legislative change in the dealer discount percentages.
Updating Retail Sales and Use Tax, 23VAC10-210, for the rate change and the
other legislative changes does not reflect any change in current tax policy and
will have no impact on the administration of the retail sales and use tax.
Sourcing rules. As the additional 0.7% state retail sales and
use tax is only imposed in certain localities, the retail sales and use tax
rate may be different depending upon in which locality the sale or use is
sourced. On June 13, 2013, the Department of Taxation published the
"Guidelines for the Retail Sales and Use Tax Changes Enacted in the 2013
General Assembly Session" after working with affected dealers, providers
of transient lodgings, and local governments. The guidelines set out rules
based on long-standing policy pursuant to §§ 58.1-605 and 58.1-606 of the Code
of Virginia regarding how to determine which Virginia locality is attributed
the sale or use of tangible personal property for the purposes of the retail
sales and use tax. The amendments are needed to set out these sourcing rules in
a regulation.
Fuels for domestic consumption. The amendments are needed to
update the list of cities and counties that the department is aware of having,
as of 2014, adopted ordinances exempting fuels for domestic consumption from
the local 1.0% sales and use tax. Updating the regulation does not reflect any
change in current tax policy and will have no impact on the administration of
the Retail Sales and Use Tax.
As the Commonwealth relies on tax revenues to fund core
government activities, enforcement of its tax laws is essential to protect the
health, safety, and welfare of citizens. Although administrative
interpretations of the tax laws that are in the form of published rulings, tax
bulletins, guidelines, and other published documents are accorded judicial
notice, even published "rulings and policies themselves are not entitled
to great weight, unless expressed in regulations" Chesapeake Hospital
Authority v. Commonwealth, 262 Va. 551 (2001). Therefore, to ensure enforcement,
it is necessary to promulgate regulations containing the Tax Commissioner's
interpretations of the tax laws. This action is necessary to conform the retail
sales and use tax regulation to statutory changes.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Process: Legislative
changes. Amending Retail Sales and Use Tax, 23VAC10-210, to update the tax rate
and reflect legislative changes regarding the absorption of the retail sales
and use tax and the dealer discount percentages is expected to be
noncontroversial and appropriate for the fast-track rulemaking process.
Sourcing rules. Amending 23VAC10-210-2070 to provide sourcing
rules is expected to be noncontroversial and appropriate for the fast-track
rulemaking process as it will set out rules based on long-standing policy that
were published in guidelines issued in 2013. These rules are set out for
purposes of the 1.0% local option sales and use tax in §§ 58.1-605 and
58.1-606 of the Code of Virginia. The department provided the draft guidelines
on April 8, 2013, to Commissioners of the Revenue in the Northern Virginia and
Hampton Roads Regions; industry organizations such as the Virginia Chamber of
Commerce, Virginia Retail Merchants Association, and the Virginia Petroleum,
Convenience, and Grocery Association; the Virginia Society of Certified Public
Accountants; the Virginia Bar; and several retailers. After allowing the
interested parties time to comment and review and receiving no opposition, the
department published the final "Guidelines for the Retail Sales and Use
Tax Changes Enacted in the 2013 General Assembly Session" on May 1, 2013.
The guidelines were subsequently revised and reissued on June 13, 2013,
pursuant to a legal decision regarding the localities that fall within the
Hampton Roads Region. The department is not aware of anyone disagreeing with
the revised guidelines.
Fuels for domestic consumption. Amending 23VAC10-210-630 to
update the list of cities and counties that the department is aware of having,
as of 2014, adopted ordinances exempting fuels for domestic consumption from
the local 1.0% sales and use tax is expected to be noncontroversial and
appropriate for the fast-track rulemaking process.
Substance: Legislative changes. This action amends
Retail Sales and Use Tax, 23VAC10-210, to (i) update the retail sales and use
tax rate to the rate provided in the statute, (ii) reflect the legislative
change allowing dealers to absorb the sales and use tax during the sales tax
holiday period, and (iii) reflect the legislative change in the dealer discount
percentages. Updating the retail sales and use tax regulation for the rate
change and the other legislative changes does not reflect any change in current
tax policy and will have no impact on the administration of the retail sales
and use tax.
Sourcing rules. This regulatory action amends 23VAC10-210-2070
to set out sourcing rules for the retail sales and use tax. Traditionally,
determining the situs of a sale subject to the Virginia retail sales and use
tax was necessary to determine which city or county received the 1.0% local
option sales and use tax. Effective July 1, 2013, determining the situs of a
sale became more important because an additional state retail sales and use tax
was imposed in Northern Virginia and Hampton Roads at the rate of 0.7% pursuant
to Chapter 766 of the 2013 Acts of Assembly. "Northern Virginia
Region" includes the Counties of Arlington, Fairfax, Loudoun, and Prince
William and the Cities of Alexandria, Fairfax, Falls Church, Manassas, and
Manassas Park. "Hampton Roads Region" includes the Counties of Isle
of Wight, James City, Southampton, and York and the Cities of Chesapeake,
Franklin, Hampton, Newport News, Norfolk, Poquoson, Portsmouth, Suffolk,
Virginia Beach, and Williamsburg.
On June 13, 2013, the Department of Taxation published the
"Guidelines for the Retail Sales and Use Tax Changes Enacted in the 2013
General Assembly Session" after working with affected dealers, providers
of transient lodgings, and local governments. The guidelines set out rules
based on long-standing policy regarding how to determine which Virginia
locality is attributed the sale or use of tangible personal property for the
purposes of the retail sales and use tax. These rules are set out for purposes
of the 1.0% local option sales and use tax in §§ 58.1-605 and 58.1-606 of the
Code of Virginia.
Generally, intrastate sales are sourced to the city or county
of the place of business of the dealer collecting the tax, without regard to
the city or county of possible use by the purchaser. The use tax is generally
sourced to the city or county where the goods are used or consumed by the
purchaser, or stored for use or consumption. Out-of-state dealers who hold
Certificates of Registration to collect the use tax from their customers must
source sales into Virginia according to the city or county of destination.
Fuels for domestic consumption. This action amends
23VAC10-210-630 to update the list of cities and counties that notified the
department prior to March 1983 that ordinances had been adopted exempting fuels
for domestic consumption from the local 1.0% sales and use tax. The amendment
will add to the list of cities and counties that the department is aware of
having, as of 2014, adopted an ordinance exempting fuels for domestic
consumption from the local 1.0% sales and use tax.
Issues: As the regulatory action will update Retail
Sales and Use Tax, 23VAC10-210, to reflect current law and set out rules based
on long-standing policy pursuant to §§ 58.1-605 and 58.1-606 of the Code of
Virginia, there are no issues or disadvantages to the public or the
Commonwealth associated with this regulatory action. The primary advantage to
the public, the Department of Taxation, and the Commonwealth of this action is
that it will conform the retail sales and use tax regulation to legislative
changes in the statutory law and thereby assist taxpayers with voluntary
compliance with the tax, ease administration of the tax by the Department of
Taxation, and help ensure the steady flow of tax revenues to the Commonwealth.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The
Department of Taxation (Department) proposes several amendments to reflect
statutory changes, in particular the increase in the state Retail Sales and Use
Tax rate from 4 percent to 4.3 percent, and the additional 0.7 percent state
Retail Sales and Use Tax in the Northern Virginia and Hampton Roads regions.
Also, the Department proposes to update the list of cities and counties that
have adopted an ordinance exempting fuels for domestic consumption from the
local 1% sales and use tax.
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. The current regulation does not
reflect numerous statutory changes that have been made regarding the Retail
Sales and Use Tax. Legislation enacted by the 2013 General Assembly (2013 Acts
of Assembly, Chapter 766) increased the state Retail Sales and Use Tax rate
from 4 percent to 4.3 percent and imposed an additional state Retail Sales and
Use Tax in the Northern Virginia1 and Hampton Roads2
regions at the rate of 0.7 percent, effective July 1, 2013. The Department
proposes several amendments to the regulation to reflect these changes.
As the additional 0.7% state Retail Sales and Use Tax is only
imposed in certain localities, the total Retail Sales and Use Tax rate may be
different depending on which locality the sale or use is sourced. On June 13,
2013, the Department published the "Guidelines for the Retail Sales and
Use Tax Changes Enacted in the 2013 General Assembly Session" after
working with affected dealers, providers of transient lodgings, and local
governments. The Guidelines set out rules based on long-standing policy pursuant
to Va. Code §§ 58.1-605 and 606 regarding how to determine which Virginia
locality is attributed the sale or use of tangible personal property for the
purposes of the Retail Sales and Use Tax. The Department proposes to include
these rules in the regulation.
The regulation grants compensation to dealers for accounting
for and paying the state tax in the form of discounts. The discount percentages
listed in the current regulation are out of date due to explicit changes in
several bills during the 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, and 2015 General
Assembly sessions.3 Legislation enacted in 2006 (2006 Acts of
Assembly, Chapter 593) allows dealers to absorb the sales and use tax during
the sales tax holiday period. The Department proposes to amend the regulation to
reflect the current statutory discount rates and the legislation on absorbing
the sales and use tax during the sales tax holiday period.
The regulation (both current and proposed) state that "The
local 1% sales and use tax will continue to apply to all purchases for domestic
consumption of artificial or propane gas, firewood, coal and home heating oil
unless the locality adopts an ordinance specifically exempting such
fuels." The current regulation lists localities that as of 1983 had
adopted such ordinances. The Department proposes to update the list of cities
and counties with an ordinance exempting fuels for domestic consumption from
the local 1% sales and use tax.
The proposed amendments will not affect the tax rates, rules
and policies in effect, but will be beneficial by increasing clarity and
reducing potential confusion for readers of the regulation.
Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendments
pertain to retailers, large and small, throughout the Commonwealth.
Localities Particularly Affected. Most of the proposed
provisions apply to all localities. The additional 0.7 percent state Retail
Sales and Use Tax applies to only the following: 1) the Counties of Arlington,
Fairfax, Isle of Wight, James City, Loudoun, Prince William, Southampton, and
York, and 2) the Cities of Alexandria, Chesapeake, Fairfax, Falls Church,
Franklin, Hampton, Manassas, Manassas Park, Newport News, Norfolk, Poquoson,
Portsmouth, Suffolk, Virginia Beach, and Williamsburg.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments do not
significantly affect employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
amendments do not significantly affect the use and value of private property.
Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments do not
affect real estate development costs.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendments do not
significantly affect costs for small businesses.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed
amendments do not create adverse impact for small businesses.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. The proposed amendments will not adversely affect
businesses.
Localities. The proposed amendments will not adversely affect
localities.
Other Entities. The proposed amendments will not adversely
affect other entities.
________________________________
1 The "Northern Virginia Region" is defined as
the Counties of Arlington, Fairfax, Loudoun, and Prince William and the Cities
of Alexandria, Fairfax, Falls Church, Manassas, and Manassas Park.
2 The "Hampton Roads Region" is defined as the
Counties of Isle of Wight, James City, Southampton, and York and the Cities of
Chesapeake, Franklin, Hampton, Newport News, Norfolk, Poquoson, Portsmouth,
Suffolk, Virginia Beach, and Williamsburg.
3 House Bill 29 and House Bill 30 (2010 Acts of
Assembly, Chapters 872 and 874); House Bill 1500 (2011 Acts of Assembly,
Chapter 890); House Bill 1300 and House Bill 1301 (2012 Special Session I Acts
of Assembly, Chapters 2 and 3); House Bill 1500 (2013 Acts of Assembly, Chapter
806); House Bill 5001, House Bill 5002, and House Bill 5010 (2014 Special
Session I Acts of Assembly, Chapters 1, 2, and 3); and House Bill 1400 (2015
Acts of Assembly, Chapter 665).
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
Department of Taxation agrees with the Department of Planning and Budget's
economic impact analysis.
Summary:
The amendments (i) reflect statutory increases in the state
retail sales and use tax rate from 4.0% to 4.3%, and an additional 0.7% state
retail sales and use tax in the Northern Virginia and Hampton Roads Regions,
and (ii) update the list of cities and counties that have adopted an ordinance
exempting fuels for domestic consumption from the local 1.0% sales and use tax.
The amendments do not reflect any change in current tax policy.
23VAC10-210-160. Bad debts.
A. Generally. Any dealer may obtain a credit for the amount
of any sales or use tax previously reported and paid on a return for accounts
found to be worthless. Such credit must be claimed on the return filed for the
period in which the account is determined to be worthless.
B. Limitations. No credit may exceed the amount of sales
price which is actually uncollectible. Prior payments made to the dealer on a
debt which is subsequently determined to be uncollectible must be allocated to
the sales price, sales tax and other nontaxable charges based on the percentage
that those charges represent to the total debt originally owed.
If any part of the sales price for which a credit was taken
is subsequently reported to the dealer, it must be included in such dealer's
next sales and use tax return.
The following example illustrates the operation of this
section.
Example: Dealer A repairs an item of property for a customer.
The total charge for such repair is $77 $77.65, representing $50
in repair parts, $25 in separately stated, nontaxable repair labor, and $2
$2.65 in tax. A reports the transaction and remits the tax thereon.
After collecting $30, A determines that the remainder of the debt is
uncollectible. A may claim a credit calculated as follows:
Allocation of Amount Previously Collected:
|
50 / 77 77.65 x $30
|
Amount to be Allocated to Repair Parts = $19.48 $19.32
|
Amount of Sales Price for
Computing Credit = $50.00 - $19.48 $19.32 = $30.52 $30.68
|
Amount of Credit which may be claimed = $1.22 (4% x
$30.52) $1.63 (5.3% x $30.68)
|
Since only the charge for the repair parts was previously
reported as a taxable sale, only the tax on that portion of the remaining
outstanding debt attributable to the charge for such parts may be taken as a
credit. If any portion of the $30.52 $30.68 remaining sales price
is subsequently collected, such amount must be reported on the dealer's return
for the period in which collected.
C. Hampton Roads Region and Northern Virginia Region. The
total rate of the state and local sales and use tax in localities that fall
within these regions is 6.0% (4.3% state, 0.7% regional, and 1.0% local). The
provisions of this section apply to transactions sourced to the Hampton Roads
Region and the Northern Virginia Region, mutatis mutandis. For definitions of
the "Hampton Roads Region" and the "Northern Virginia
Region" see 23VAC10-210-2070.
23VAC10-210-220. Brackets for collection of the tax.
A. The rate of the sales and use tax is 5.0% 5.3%,
which is comprised of a 4.0% 4.3% state tax and a 1.0% local tax
applicable throughout Virginia. (See 23VAC10-210-6040 through 23VAC10-210-6043
for special tax rate and provisions applicable to sales through vending
machines.) An additional state sales and use tax is imposed in the Northern
Virginia and Hampton Roads Regions at the rate of 0.7%. The total rate of the
state and local sales and use tax is 6.0% in localities that fall within these
regions (4.3% state, 0.7% regional, and 1.0% local). For definitions of the
"Hampton Roads Region" and the "Northern Virginia Region"
see 23VAC10-210-2070.
The bracket system is used to eliminate fractions of $.01 and
must be used to compute the tax on transactions of $5.00 or less. On
transactions over $5.00, the tax is computed at a straight 5.0% 5.3%
(6.0% in the Hampton Roads and Northern Virginia Regions), with one half
cent or more treated as $.01. Any dealer who collects the tax in accordance
with the bracket system set forth herein shall not be deemed to have over
collected the tax. For over collection of the tax generally, see
23VAC10-210-340 D.
B. The bracket system does not relieve the dealer from the
liability to pay an amount equal to 5.0% 5.3% (6.0% in the Hampton
Roads and Northern Virginia Regions) of his gross taxable sales. However,
if the dealer can prove to the department that more than 85% of the gross
taxable sales for the period were from individual sales of $.10 or less (and
that he was unable to adjust his prices in such manner as to prevent the
economic incidence of the sales tax from falling on him), the department will
determine the proper tax liability of the dealer based on the portion of gross
taxable sales that came from sales of $.11 or more. Any dealer who may claim
this exception must file with each return a separate statement explaining his
claim in detail for consideration by the department.
C. Below is the bracket system for the combined state and
local tax of 5.0% 5.3% on transactions of $5.00 or less:
Sales Price
|
Tax Due
|
0.01 to 0.09
|
0
|
0.10 to 0.29
|
0.01
|
0.30 to 0.49
|
0.02
|
0.50 to 0.69
|
0.03
|
0.70 to 0.89
|
0.04
|
0.90 to 1.09
|
0.05
|
1.10 to 1.29
|
0.06
|
1.30 to 1.49
|
0.07
|
1.50 to 1.69
|
0.08
|
1.70 to 1.89
|
0.09
|
1.90 to 2.09
|
0.1
|
2.10 to 2.29
|
0.11
|
2.30 to 2.49
|
0.12
|
2.50 to 2.69
|
0.13
|
2.70 to 2.89
|
0.14
|
2.90 to 3.09
|
0.15
|
3.10 to 3.29
|
0.16
|
3.30 to 3.49
|
0.17
|
3.50 to 3.69
|
0.18
|
3.70 to 3.89
|
0.19
|
3.90 to 4.09
|
0.2
|
4.10 to 4.29
|
0.21
|
4.30 to 4.49
|
0.22
|
4.50 to 4.69
|
0.23
|
4.70 to 4.89
|
0.24
|
4.90 to 5.00
|
0.25
|
Sales Price
|
Tax Due
|
0.01 to 0.09
|
0
|
0.10 to 0.28
|
0.01
|
0.29 to 0.47
|
0.02
|
0.48 to 0.66
|
0.03
|
0.67 to 0.84
|
0.04
|
0.85 to 1.03
|
0.05
|
1.04 to 1.22
|
0.06
|
1.23 to 1.41
|
0.07
|
1.42 to 1.60
|
0.08
|
1.61 to 1.79
|
0.09
|
1.80 to 1.98
|
0.10
|
1.99 to 2.16
|
0.11
|
2.17 to 2.35
|
0.12
|
2.36 to 2.54
|
0.13
|
2.55 to 2.73
|
0.14
|
2.74 to 2.92
|
0.15
|
2.93 to 3.11
|
0.16
|
3.12 to 3.30
|
0.17
|
3.31 to 3.49
|
0.18
|
3.50 to 3.67
|
0.19
|
3.68 to 3.86
|
0.20
|
3.87 to 4.05
|
0.21
|
4.06 to 4.24
|
0.22
|
4.25 to 4.43
|
0.23
|
4.44 to 4.62
|
0.24
|
4.63 to 4.81
|
0.25
|
4.82 to 4.99
|
0.26
|
5.00
|
0.27
|
For differential rate on fuels for domestic consumption, see
23VAC10-210-630.
D. This subsection contains the bracket system for the
combined state, regional, and local tax of 6.0% in the Hampton Roads and
Northern Virginia Regions on transactions of $5.00 or less:
Sales Price
|
Tax Due
|
0.00 to 0.08
|
0
|
0.09 to 0.24
|
0.01
|
0.25 to 0.41
|
0.02
|
0.42 to 0.58
|
0.03
|
0.59 to 0.74
|
0.04
|
0.75 to 0.91
|
0.05
|
0.92 to 1.08
|
0.06
|
1.09 to 1.24
|
0.07
|
1.25 to 1.41
|
0.08
|
1.42 to 1.58
|
0.09
|
1.59 to 1.74
|
0.10
|
1.75 to 1.91
|
0.11
|
1.92 to 2.08
|
0.12
|
2.09 to 2.24
|
0.13
|
2.25 to 2.41
|
0.14
|
2.42 to 2.58
|
0.15
|
2.59 to 2.74
|
0.16
|
2.75 to 2.91
|
0.17
|
2.92 to 3.08
|
0.18
|
3.09 to 3.24
|
0.19
|
3.25 to 3.41
|
0.20
|
3.42 to 3.58
|
0.21
|
3.59 to 3.74
|
0.22
|
3.75 to 3.91
|
0.23
|
3.92 to 4.08
|
0.24
|
4.09 to 4.24
|
0.25
|
4.25 to 4.41
|
0.26
|
4.42 to 4.58
|
0.27
|
4.59 to 4.74
|
0.28
|
4.75 to 4.91
|
0.29
|
4.92 to 5.00
|
0.30
|
23VAC10-210-250. Cash and trade discounts.
A. The following words and terms when used in this section
shall have the following meanings unless the content clearly indicates
otherwise:
"Cash or trade discount" includes a discount for
the early payment of the purchase price, a discount attributable to the value
of an item taken in trade, or a discount based upon the method of payment.
B. Cash and or trade discounts taken on sales
are not includible in the sales price for purposes of computing the tax. The
amount of such discounts may be deducted from gross sales provided the
discounts have been included in gross sales.
C. In computing the amount of a discount that may be
subtracted from gross sales, the discount must be allocated between sales price
and sales tax. The following examples illustrate the application of this
concept.
Example 1: Dealer A sells an item to a customer for $100 and
bills the customer $100 for the item and $5.00 $5.30 for the tax.
The terms of the sale provide for a 10% discount if the bill is paid within 30
days. The customer pays within 20 days and is therefore entitled to the
discount, which is computed as follows:
Amount Billed
|
$105.00 $105.30
|
Sales Price
|
$100.00
|
Tax
|
$5.00 $5.30
|
Less
|
$10.00 discount
|
Sales price discount
|
100.00 x l0% = 10.00
|
Tax discount
|
5.0 5.3 x 10% = $0.50 $0.53
|
Therefore, the customer remits $94.50 $94.77,
which includes $90 in sales price and $4.50 $4.77 in sales tax.
Dealer A may deduct $10.00 from gross sales, and will accordingly remit only $4.50
$4.77 in tax.
Example 2: Dealer B sells an item to a customer for $100 and
bills the customer $100 for the item and $5.00 $5.30 for the tax.
The terms of the sale provide for a $10 discount if the bill is paid within 30
days. The customer pays within 20 days and is therefore entitled to the
discount, which is computed as follows:
Amount Billed
|
$105.00 $105.30
|
Sales Price
|
$100.00
|
Tax
|
$5.00 $5.30
|
Less
|
$10.00 discount
|
|
$10.00 / $1.05 $1.053 = $9.52 $9.50
sales price discount
|
|
$0.48 $0.50 tax discount
|
Therefore, the customer remits $95.00 $95.30,
which includes $90.48 $90.50 in sales price and $4.52 $4.80
in sales tax. Dealer B may deduct $9.52 $9.50 from gross sales,
and will accordingly remit only $4.52 $4.50 in tax.
Example 3: Dealer B repairs a piece of equipment for a
customer and bills the customer $100 for parts, $50 for labor, and $5.00
$5.30 for tax. The terms of the sale provide for a $10 discount if the
bill is paid within 30 days. B pays within 20 days and earns the discount which
is computed as follows:
Amount Billed
|
$155.00 $155.30
|
Sales Price of Parts
|
$100.00
|
Separately Stated Repair
Labor (nontaxable)
|
$50.00
|
Sales tax
|
$5.00 $5.30
|
Less $10.00 discount attributed as follows:
|
Attributable to Parts: (100 / $150) x $10.00 = $6.67
$6.67 / 1.05 1.053 = $6.35
$6.33 sales price discount
$0.32 $0.34 sales tax reduction
$3.33 attributable to nontaxable labor
|
Therefore, the customer remits $145.00 $145.30,
which includes $93.65 $93.67 in sales price for the parts, $4.68
$4.96 in sales tax attributable to the parts, and $46.67 for nontaxable
labor. Dealer B may deduct $6.35 $6.33 from gross sales and will
accordingly remit only $4.68 $4.96 in tax.
Regardless of whether a cash or percentage discount is used,
the discount must be allocated between the sales price and the tax to avoid
overcollection of the tax.
D. Hampton Roads Region and Northern Virginia Region. The
total rate of the state and local sales and use tax in localities that fall
within these regions is 6.0% (4.3% state, 0.7% regional, and 1.0% local). The
provisions of this section apply to transactions sourced to the Hampton Roads
Region and the Northern Virginia Region, mutatis mutandis. For definitions of
the "Hampton Roads Region" and the "Northern Virginia
Region" see 23VAC10-210-2070.
23VAC10-210-340. Collection of tax by dealers.
A. Generally. The tax must be paid to the state by the
dealer, but the dealer must separately state the amount of the tax and add the
tax to the sales price or charge. Thereafter, the tax is a debt from the
purchaser, consumer or lessee to the dealer until paid and is recoverable at law
in the same manner as other debts.
Identification of the tax by a separate writing or symbol is
not required provided the amount of the tax is shown as a separate item on the
record of the transaction. For special rules relating to vending machines
sales, see 23VAC10-210-6040 through 23VAC10-210-6043.
B. Advertising absorption of tax by dealers is prohibited.
It is a misdemeanor for a dealer to advertise or hold out to the public in any
manner, directly or indirectly, that he will absorb all or any part of the
sales or use tax, or that he will relieve the purchaser, consumer or lessee of
the payment of all or any part of the tax, except as may be authorized under
the bracket system or the special provisions relating to vending machine sales.
This prohibition does not apply during the sales tax holiday provided under
§§ 58.1-609.1, 58.1-611.2, and 58.1-611.3 of the Code of Virginia, nor for the
14 days immediately preceding the commencement of the sales tax holiday. During
this 17-day period, dealers may advertise that they will absorb the tax on any
or all nonqualifying items. The dealer may not absorb the tax prior to or
following the sales tax holiday period and may not advertise that he will do
so.
C. Erroneous collection of tax on nontaxable transactions.
All sales and use tax collected by a dealer is held in trust for the state.
Therefore, any dealer collecting the sales or use tax on nontaxable
transactions must remit to the Department of Taxation such erroneously or
illegally collected tax unless he can show that the tax has been refunded to
the purchaser or credited to the purchaser's account.
D. Overcollection of the tax. Any dealer who collects tax in
excess of a 4% 5.3% (6.0% in the Hampton Roads and Northern Virginia
Regions) rate or who otherwise overcollects the tax, except as may be
authorized under the bracket system or the special provisions relating to
vending machine sales, must remit any amount overcollected to the state on a
timely basis. Failure to do so will result in a penalty of 25% of the amount of
the overcollection. For definitions of the "Hampton Roads Region"
and the "Northern Virginia Region" see 23VAC10-210-2070.
23VAC10-210-450. Credit for taxes paid to other states or their
political subdivisions.
A. Generally. Any person who purchases tangible personal
property in another state and who has paid a sales or use tax to such state or
its political subdivision or both on the property, is granted a credit against
the use tax imposed by Virginia on its use within this state for the amount of
tax paid in the state of purchase. This credit does not require that the state
of purchase grant a similar credit for tax paid to Virginia. This credit does
not apply to tax erroneously charged or incorrectly paid to another state. For
example, if a person purchases and takes delivery in Virginia of tangible
personal property purchased from an out-of-state dealer who incorrectly charges
out-of-state tax, no credit is available. The purchaser must apply to the
out-of-state seller for refund.
B. Amount of credit. The credit provided in this section is
equal to the tax paid to the state or political subdivision or both in which
the property was purchased, but cannot exceed the Virginia use tax imposed on
the property. For example, if property is purchased in a state which imposes a
6.0% sales and use tax, the credit is limited to the 4.5% 5.3% (6.0%
in the Hampton Roads and Northern Virginia Regions) use tax imposed by
Virginia. For definitions of the "Hampton Roads Region" and the
"Northern Virginia Region" see 23VAC10-210-2070.
C. Claiming the credit. To obtain a credit for tax paid to
another state or its political subdivision, a person must apply, by letter, to
the department and include a copy of the appropriate invoice stating the amount
of tax billed and the state or political subdivision or both to which it was
paid. A person requesting credit may be required by the department to furnish
an affidavit stating that the tax has been paid and has not been refunded.
23VAC10-210-485. Dealer's compensation or discount.
A. Generally. As compensation for accounting for and paying
the state tax, a dealer is allowed a discount of 2.0%, 3.0%, or 4.0% 0.8%,
1.2%, or 1.6%, depending on the volume of monthly taxable sales, of the
first 3.0% of the state tax due in the form of a deduction, provided the amount
due was not delinquent at the time of payment. No compensation is allowed on
the remainder of the state sales tax or on the local tax. Dealers must compute
the discount without regard to the number of certificates of registration that
they hold (see subsection C below) of this section).
To compute the dealer's discount, a dealer (other than a
vending machine dealer) would multiply the 4.0% 4.3% state tax
listed on his return by:
1. 3.0% (or .03) 0.01116 if monthly taxable
sales are less than $62,501; or
2. 2.25% (or .0225) 0.00837 if monthly sales are
at least $62,501 but are less than $208,001; or
3. 1.5% (or .015) 0.00558 if monthly taxable
sales equal or exceed $208,001.
Any dealer whose average monthly sales tax liability
exceeds $20,000 is not eligible for the discount. No dealer discount is allowed
on the 0.7% regional tax imposed in the Hampton Roads and Northern Virginia
Regions. For definitions of the "Hampton Roads Region" and the
"Northern Virginia Region" see 23VAC10-210-2070.
Examples:
Dealer A who makes taxable sales of $10,000 during the month
would report state and local tax of $500 ($400 $530 ($430 state
tax and $100 local tax), from which he would retain a dealer's discount of $12
$4.80, provided that his return is timely filed and the state and local
tax is timely paid. The $12 $4.80 discount is computed by
multiplying the 4.0% 4.3% state tax ($400) ($430)
by 3.0% 0.01116 since the dealer's monthly taxable sales volume
is less than $62,501.
Dealer B who makes taxable sales of $250,000 during the month
would report state and local tax of $12,500 ($10,000 $13,250 ($10,750
state tax and $2,500 local tax), from which he would retain a dealer's discount
of $150 $55.99 provided that his return is timely filed and the
state and local tax is timely paid. The $150 $55.99 discount is
computed by multiplying the 4.0% 4.3% state tax ($10,000) ($10,750)
by 1.5% 0.00558 since the dealer's monthly taxable sales volume
is greater than $208,001.
B. Vending machine sales. In the case of a vending machine
dealer who pays combined state and local tax at the rate of 6.0% 6.3%
on his wholesale purchases for resale, the dealer's discount would be computed
by multiplying the 5.0% 5.3% state tax listed on his return by:
1. 3.2% (or .032) 0.01208 if monthly taxable
sales are less than $62,501; or
2. 2.4% (or .024) 0.00906 if monthly taxable
sales are at least $62,501 but are less than $208,001; or
3. 1.6% (or .016) 0.00604 if monthly taxable
sales equal or exceed $208,001.
Examples:
Vending machine dealer A with $15,000 in wholesale purchases
for resale during the month would report state and local tax of $900 ($750
$945 ($795 state tax and $150 local tax), from which he would
retain a dealer's discount of $24 $9.60, provided that his return
is timely filed and the state and local tax is timely paid. The $24 $9.60
discount is computed by multiplying the 5.0% 5.3% state tax ($750)
($795) by 3.2% 0.01208 since the dealer's monthly taxable
sales volume is less than $62,501.
Vending machine dealer B with $200,000 in wholesale purchases
for resale during the month would report state and local tax of $12,000
($10,000 $12,600 ($10,600 state tax and $2,000 local tax), from
which he would retain a dealer's discount of $240 $96.04,
provided that his return is timely filed and the state and local tax is timely
paid. The $240 $96.04 discount is computed by multiplying the 5.0%
5.3% state tax ($10,000) by 2.4% 0.00906 since the
dealer's monthly taxable sales volume is at least $62,501 but is less than
$208,001.
C. Multiple registrations. Dealers holding two or more
certificates of registration must compute the dealer's discount based upon taxable
sales from all business locations. This requirement applies to dealers filing
consolidated returns and those filing separate returns for each business
location.
Example:
Dealer C holds separate certificates of registration for five
business locations. Each location has monthly taxable sales of less than
$62,501, but total taxable sales for all five locations are $300,000 for the
month. Because total taxable sales exceed $208,001, the dealer's discount is
computed using the 1.5% 0.00558 discount rate.
Dealers with multistate business locations must compute the
discount based upon taxable sales from all business locations in Virginia and
on Virginia taxable sales from out-of-state business locations.
Example:
Dealer A, with business locations in Virginia, also has
business locations in other states, all of which are registered for collection
and remittance of the tax. The out-of-state business locations sell goods to
Virginia customers located in Virginia. The total monthly taxable sales for all
Dealer A's Virginia business locations are $200,000, and the total Virginia
taxable sales from Dealer A's out-of-state business locations are $100,000.
Because total taxable sales exceed $208,001, the dealer's discount is computed
using the 1.5% 0.00558 discount rate.
The department will perform a reconciliation, on an annual
basis or more frequently, of dealers holding multiple certificates of
registration in order to ensure that the dealer's discount is computed properly
by those dealers.
D. Quarterly filers. Dealers filing quarterly returns may
determine the appropriate dealer's discount rate by dividing their quarterly
taxable sales by 3.
Example:
Dealer D has quarterly taxable sales of $100,000. His average
monthly taxable sales for the quarter ($100,000 ÷ 3) are $33,333.33. Because
his average monthly taxable sales are less than $62,501, Dealer D would compute
the dealer's discount using the 3.0% 0.01116 rate.
E. Refund requests. Any amount of tax refunded by the
department to a dealer will be reduced by any dealer's discount claimed on the
transaction to which the refund relates. For example, if a dealer sells an item
for $1,000, timely files a return reporting the $50 $53 tax on
the transaction and claims the discount, the amount refunded would be $48.80
($50 $52.52 ($53 less 3.0% 0.01116 of the $40 $43
state tax = $50 - 1.20 0.48 = $48.80) $52.52)
(assuming the dealer's taxable sales during the month of the sale were less
than $62,501).
For extensions, see 23VAC10-210-550; for penalties and
interest, see 23VAC10-210-2030 through 23VAC10-210-2034 23VAC10-210-2032.
23VAC10-210-630. Fuels for domestic consumption.
A. Generally. The state sales and use tax does not apply to
purchases of artificial or propane gas, firewood, coal or heating oil for
domestic consumption.
B. Domestic consumption defined. "Domestic
consumption" is the use of artificial or propane gas, firewood, coal, or
home heating oil by an individual for other than business, commercial, or
industrial purposes. The renting or leasing of residential units is considered
commercial usage.
Domestic consumption is restricted to fuels used by
individuals; purchases of fuel by groups or organizations will be subject to
the tax unless the fuel purchased is for domestic consumption by an individual.
For example, an organization may purchase firewood to be given away to indigent
persons for use in heating their own homes; this transaction would be deemed a
purchase for domestic consumption. Purchases by groups or organizations for use
in their own facilities are not purchases for domestic consumption.
Domestic consumption usage is not restricted to heating
purposes, but may also include cooking or heating water.
The term "domestic consumption" includes purchases
of fuel by: (1) (i) an owner or lessee for use in a single-family
dwelling in which he resides; (2) (ii) individual residents for
use in apartments, townhouses, trailer courts, condominiums or other
multi-family dwellings in which they reside; and (3) (iii) a
condominium or similar owner cooperative association provided such association
is comprised solely of the owners of the dwelling and more than 50% of the fuel
purchased is for use in owner-occupied units.
The term "domestic consumption" does not include
purchases by: (1) (i) nonprofit churches, civic or other
charitable groups, except as set forth above; (2) (ii) businesses
operated by nonprofit groups; (3) (iii) profit hospitals, nursing
homes or homes for adults; (4) (iv) profit schools or
institutions of learning; (5) (v) lessors of apartments, trailer
courts, condominiums, rooming houses or other multi-family dwellings;
fraternities or sororities; (6) (vi) hotels, motels, inns, cabins
or lodges; and (7) (vii) any commercial, business or industrial
operations.
Purchases of heating fuels for their own use or consumption
by persons or entities who are entitled to a general sales tax exemption (for
example: (1) (i) nonprofit schools and institutions of learning; (2)
(ii) licensed nonprofit hospitals, nursing homes, and homes for adults; (3)
(iii) nonprofit volunteer fire and rescue squads; and (4) (iv)
federal, state, or local governments) are not subject to sales and use tax
(state or local).
C. 1. Classifying purchases as domestic or
nondomestic. In determining when tax is to be collected by the dealer on a
purchase used for both domestic and nondomestic purposes, a principal usage
test shall apply. A purchase shall be classified as exempt if more than 50% of
the fuel purchased is for domestic consumption. However, if 50% or less of the
fuel purchased is for domestic consumption, the entire purchase shall be
taxable and the tax shall be collected by the dealer at the time of the sale.
The preceding paragraph 2. Subdivision 1 of this
subsection establishes when a fuel dealer must collect tax at the time of
sale, and it does not establish any rule of exemption for consumers. The
ultimate taxability of a fuel purchase depends on its actual usage. The
purchaser will be liable for payment to the department of use tax on any
portion of a domestic purchase (i.e., a purchase on which no sales tax was paid
to the dealer) subsequently used for nondomestic purposes. A purchaser who has
paid tax under the above rules in subdivision 1 of this subsection,
however, may apply to the department for a refund of tax paid on that portion
which is actually used for domestic consumption. Refund claims must be filed on
forms prescribed by the department between January 1 and April 15 of the year
following the year of purchase. Refund applications pursuant to this exemption
will be denied if post-marked after April 15 of the year following the year of
purchase.
D. Exemption certificates. Sales and Use Tax Certificate of
Exemption, Form ST-15, is available for use by dealers to substantiate sales of
heating fuel for domestic consumption. A purchaser need file only one such
certificate with a dealer to qualify for exemption. However, the certificate
will be valid only for purchases of fuel made by the person named on the
certificate and for use at his residence, the address of which is also listed
on the certificate. Any change of address of purchaser will require completion
of a new certificate of exemption.
A dealer is not required to obtain a certificate of exemption
for each transaction if the record of the sale is clearly identifiable as a
sale of fuel for domestic consumption. However, this should not be construed as
altering the fact that the burden of proof is on the dealer to demonstrate that
each untaxed transaction is legitimately exempt from the tax.
Dealers will not be required to obtain a certificate of
exemption on sales of small quantities of kerosene, firewood, or other fuels,
provided sales receipts or daily sales records are available which clearly
indicate the number of gallons (or other measure) of the specific type of fuel
sold and the number of purchasers.
E. Local sales and use tax. The local 1% 1.0%
sales and use tax will continue to apply to all purchases for domestic
consumption of artificial or propane gas, firewood, coal and home heating oil
unless the locality adopts an ordinance specifically exempting such fuels.
1. Sales tax. The local 1% 1.0% sales tax will
be allocated to the locality in which the place of business from which the sale
is made is located. Place of business is defined as an established business
location at which orders are regularly received. Therefore the situs of sale
shall be the business location that first takes the purchaser's order, either
in person, by purchase order, or by letter or telephone, regardless of the
location of the merchandise or the point of acceptance of the order or
shipment.
2. Use tax. The local use tax on sales made to Virginia
residents by out-of-state dealers and the local use tax remitted by consumers
on any portion of a domestic purchase used for nondomestic consumption will be
allocated to the locality in which the fuel is delivered. The following
examples will clarify this.
Example 1: A resident of a city or county which imposes the 1%
1.0% local sales and use tax on fuels for domestic consumption purchases
fuel from an out-of-state dealer who delivers it to the purchaser's residence
in Virginia. The 1% 1.0% local tax will apply to the transaction.
Example 2: A resident of a city/county city or
county which imposes the 1% 1.0% local tax purchases fuel for
domestic consumption from a dealer located in a city/county city or
county which does not impose the 1% 1.0% local tax. The
purchaser uses a portion of the fuel for nondomestic purposes and is therefore
liable for payment of the use tax on that portion. The purchaser will therefore
be required to remit the 4% 5.3% use tax (3% (4.3%
state; 1% 1.0% local) or 6.0% use tax in the Hampton Roads and
Northern Virginia Regions (4.3% state, 0.7% regional, and 1.0% local). For
definitions of the "Hampton Roads Region" and the "Northern
Virginia Region" see 23VAC10-210-2070.
Example 3: A resident purchases fuel for domestic consumption
from a dealer located in a locality which imposes the 1% 1.0%
local tax and therefore pays the 1% 1.0% on the purchase of the
fuel. The purchaser uses a portion of the fuel for nondomestic purposes and is
consequently liable for payment of the use tax on that portion. The purchaser
will be required to remit only 3% 4.3% (5.0% in the Hampton Roads and
Northern Virginia Regions) state tax; the 1% 1.0% local tax
was paid on the original fuel purchase. This applies regardless of whether the
purchaser's city or county of residence does or does not impose the 1% 1.0%
local tax on fuels.
3. Local exemption. Following is a list of those cities and
counties which, as of December 1, 1982, have notified the department that
ordinances have been As of 2014, the department is aware that the
following cities and counties have adopted ordinances exempting fuel
for domestic consumption from the local 1% 1.0% sales and use
tax. Additional localities may adopt ordinances at any time and localities having
exemption ordinances in effect may rescind such ordinances at any time.
Cities
|
Alexandria
|
Norfolk
|
Bedford
|
Norton
|
Chesapeake
|
Poquoson
|
Covington
|
Roanoke
|
Danville
|
Salem
|
Fairfax
|
Staunton
|
Fredericksburg
|
Virginia Beach
|
Lexington
|
Waynesboro
|
Manassas
|
Winchester
|
Martinsville
|
|
Counties
|
Alleghany
|
Lee
|
Arlington
|
Louisa
|
Augusta
|
Mathews
|
Bath
|
Middlesex
|
Bedford
|
Page
|
Caroline
|
Patrick
|
Clarke
|
Pittsylvania
|
Fairfax
|
Prince William
|
Fauquier
|
Pulaski
|
Floyd
|
Roanoke
|
Frederick
|
Shenandoah
|
Giles
|
Smyth
|
Goochland
|
Spotsylvania
|
Hanover
|
Stafford
|
Henry
|
Warren
|
James City
|
Washington
|
King William
|
|
NOTE: The following cities and counties have notified the
department since December 1, 1982 that ordinances have been adopted exempting
fuel for domestic consumption from the 1% local sales and use tax:
Cities
|
Hampton
|
Newport News
|
Counties
|
Franklin
|
Wise
|
Gloucester
|
|
Cities
|
Alexandria
|
Chesapeake
|
Covington
|
Danville
|
Fairfax
|
Fredericksburg
|
Hampton
|
Harrisonburg
|
Lexington
|
Manassas
|
Martinsville
|
Newport News
|
Norfolk
|
Norton
|
Poquoson
|
Portsmouth
|
Roanoke
|
Salem
|
Staunton
|
Virginia Beach
|
Waynesboro
|
Winchester
|
|
|
Counties
|
Alleghany
|
Arlington
|
Augusta
|
Bath
|
Bedford
|
Campbell
|
Caroline
|
Clarke
|
Fairfax
|
Fauquier
|
Floyd
|
Franklin
|
Frederick
|
Giles
|
Gloucester
|
Goochland
|
Hanover
|
Henry
|
James City
|
King William
|
Lee
|
Louisa
|
Madison
|
Mathews
|
Middlesex
|
Page
|
Patrick
|
Pittsylvania
|
Prince George
|
Prince William
|
Pulaski
|
Roanoke
|
Shenandoah
|
Smyth
|
Spotsylvania
|
Stafford
|
Warren
|
Washington
|
Wise
|
23VAC10-210-680. Gifts purchased in Virginia.
If a resident or nonresident buys a gift in Virginia and
requests the seller to ship or mail such gift to another person, the purchaser
is deemed to receive title to the gift at the time of purchase and the
transaction is therefore taxable in Virginia. The location of the recipient of
the gift has no bearing upon the taxability of the transaction; therefore, even
if the recipient is located outside Virginia the sale is not a sale in
interstate commerce. The following example illustrates this concept.
Example: A purchases a watch for $200 from a Virginia
merchant, M, and tells M to send the watch to B who lives in Maryland. A must
pay the sales tax of $8 $10.60 to M at the time of purchase.
The recipient of the gift ultimately receives title to the
gift from the purchaser and not the merchant and there is no relationship
between the merchant and the recipient.
The total rate of the state and local sales and use tax in
localities that fall within the Hampton Roads and Northern Virginia Regions is
6.0% (4.3% state, 0.7% regional, and 1.0% local). The provisions of this
section apply to transactions sourced to the Hampton Roads Region and the
Northern Virginia Region, mutatis mutandis. For definitions of the
"Hampton Roads Region" and the "Northern Virginia Region"
see 23VAC10-210-2070.
23VAC10-210-2070. Place of business in Virginia; situs Situs
of sale.
A. Generally. For determining the place of business in
Virginia from which a sale is made, "place of business" means the
business location in Virginia that first takes the purchaser's order, either in
person, by purchase order or by letter or telephone, regardless of the location
of the merchandise or the point of acceptance of the order or shipment. For
example, an order placed for merchandise in a store in County A, forwarded by
the store in County A to a sales office in City B and shipped to the purchaser
from a warehouse or branch store in County C is a sale made in County A.
B. Place of business defined. The term "place of
business in Virginia" includes, but is not limited to, a store, a sales or
other office or any warehouse.
C. Out-of-state dealers. An out-of-state dealer who has a
place of business in Virginia is required to register as a dealer at that
place. If the same dealer, at a place of business outside this state, receives
orders from Virginia customers directly and not through a place of business in
Virginia, he must also register as an out-of-state dealer.
A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
this section shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly
indicates otherwise:
"Hampton Roads Region" means the Counties of
Isle of Wight, James City, Southampton, and York and the Cities of Chesapeake,
Franklin, Hampton, Newport News, Norfolk, Poquoson, Portsmouth, Suffolk,
Virginia Beach, and Williamsburg.
"Local sales and use tax" means the local retail
sales and use tax imposed by ordinance in all Virginia cities and counties at
the rate of 1.0%.
"Northern Virginia Region" means the Counties of
Arlington, Fairfax, Loudoun, and Prince William and the Cities of Alexandria,
Fairfax, Falls Church, Manassas, and Manassas Park.
"Place of business" means the business location
in Virginia that first takes the purchaser's order, whether in person, by
purchase order, or by letter or telephone, regardless of the location of the
merchandise or the point of acceptance of the order or shipment. "Place of
business" includes a store, a sales or other office, or any warehouse.
"Regional sales and use tax" means the
additional state retail sales and use tax imposed in the Hampton Roads Region
and the Northern Virginia Region at the rate of 0.7%.
B. Sourcing.
1. Sales tax. Sales by dealers located in Virginia are
generally subject to the sales tax and sourced to the city or county of the
place of business of the dealer collecting the tax, without regard to the city
or county of possible use by the purchaser. The sale of tangible personal
property at the place of business of the seller is sourced to that place of
business, even if the goods are ultimately delivered to the purchaser at
another location. The remote sale (by telephone, Internet, or mail order) of
tangible personal property from an in-state dealer with a place of business in
Virginia is sourced to the location in which the order was first taken, even if
the goods are ultimately delivered to the purchaser at another location.
Accordingly, an order placed for merchandise in a store in County A, forwarded
by the store in County A to a sales office in City B and shipped to the purchaser
from a warehouse or branch store in County C is a sale made in County A.
Example 1: Dealer A makes a sale to a customer at his place
of business in the City of Fairfax in the Northern Virginia Region. Dealer A
has the goods delivered to the customer in Loudoun County in the Northern
Virginia Region. The sale is sourced to the City of Fairfax. Dealer A should
collect 6.0% (4.3% state, 0.7% Regional, and 1.0% local) sales tax on the
purchase. The 1.0% local tax should be sourced to the City of Fairfax.
Example 2: Dealer B makes a sale to a customer at his place
of business in Loudoun County in the Northern Virginia Region, but the goods
are delivered to the customer in Roanoke County, which is not in the Northern
Virginia or Hampton Roads Region. The sale is sourced to Loudoun County, in the
Northern Virginia Region. Dealer B should collect 6.0% sales tax on the
purchase. The 1.0% local tax should be sourced to Loudoun County.
Example 3: Customer C orders merchandise from Dealer D by
placing a call to Dealer D's store, located in the City of Newport News in the
Hampton Roads Region. The goods will be shipped to Customer C's residence that
is neither in the Hampton Roads nor the Northern Virginia Region. The sale is
sourced to the City of Newport News in the Hampton Roads Region. Dealer D
should collect 6.0% (4.3% state, 0.7% Regional, and 1.0% local) sales tax on
the purchase. The 1.0% local tax should be sourced to the City of Newport News.
Example 4: Customer E orders merchandise from Dealer F's
website, which has a place of business and warehouse in North Carolina. Dealer
F is registered to collect the Virginia retail sales and use tax. The invoice
indicates that the merchandise will be shipped to Customer E's residence in the
City of Richmond, which is outside the Northern Virginia and Hampton Roads
Regions. Because Dealer F's place of business and warehouse are located outside
of Virginia, the sale is sourced to the location in which the merchandise is
delivered, the City of Richmond, which is outside the Northern Virginia and
Hampton Roads Regions. Dealer F should collect 5.3% (4.3% state and 1.0% local)
sales tax on the purchase. The 1.0% local tax should be sourced to the City of
Richmond.
2. Use tax collected by dealers. The use tax is generally
sourced to the city or county where the goods are used or consumed by the
purchaser, or stored for use or consumption. An out-of-state dealer who has a
place of business in Virginia is required to register as a dealer at that
place. If the same dealer, at a place of business outside this state, receives
orders from Virginia customers directly and not through a place of business in
Virginia, he must also register as an out-of-state dealer. Out-of-state dealers
who hold Certificates of Registration to collect the use tax from their
customers must source sales into Virginia according to the city or county of
destination.
Example 1: Dealer A makes Internet sales from his place of
business in North Carolina. Dealer A holds a Certificate of Registration to
collect the use tax from Virginia customers. Dealer A makes a sale and ships
the goods to the City of Fairfax. Dealer A would collect 6.0% (4.3% state, 0.7%
Regional, and 1.0% local) use tax on the sale. The 1.0% local tax should be
sourced to the City of Fairfax.
3. Consumer use tax. Generally, Virginia residents and
others purchasing goods from a business that does not collect the Virginia
retail sales and use tax or purchasing goods tax-free while outside Virginia
and bringing them into Virginia are subject to the consumer use tax. The use
tax is sourced to the city or county where the goods are used or consumed by
the purchaser, or stored for use or consumption. For more information on use
tax, see 23VAC10-210-6030.
Any person purchasing tangible personal property in other
areas of the Commonwealth for use in either the Hampton Roads Region or the
Northern Virginia Region is not responsible for the regional consumer use tax
if the retail sales and use tax has been paid on the purchase.
Example 1: Customer A, who is located in the City of
Fairfax, makes an Internet purchase of tangible personal property from a West
Virginia dealer who does not hold a Virginia Certificate of Registration and
does not collect the use tax from Virginia customers. Customer A must remit
6.0% (4.3% state, 0.7% regional, and 1.0% local) use tax on the purchase.
Example 2: Customer B is located in the City of
Charlottesville. Customer B buys equipment in Charlottesville that is intended
for use performing a construction contract in Fairfax County and pays 5.3%
sales tax. Customer B subsequently moves the equipment into Fairfax County.
Customer B does not owe the 0.7% regional use tax on the equipment as the sales
tax has been paid.
23VAC10-210-3080. Returned goods.
A. Generally. A dealer may deduct from gross sales any
portion of the sales price of tangible personal property returned by a customer
provided that such amount has been refunded to or credited to the account of
the purchaser. Adequate records must be kept to disclose the essential facts.
B. Returns before tax paid by dealer. If a dealer refunds or
credits to a customer's account all or any portion of the sales price of
returned goods and has not yet paid the sales tax to the department, such
portion of the sales price may be deducted from gross sales by the dealer in
the appropriate place on his return for the period.
Example 1. Customer A purchases a sweater from Dealer B for $20.00
$20 and pays to B the appropriate $1.00 $1.06 sales tax. A
returns the sweater the same day and B refunds $21.00 $21.06. If
the sale was included in gross sales for the month, B may deduct the $20.00
$20 sales price of the sweater.
C. Returns after tax paid by dealer. If a dealer refunds or
credits to a customer's account all or any portion of the sales price of
returned goods after the dealer has paid the tax on the goods to the
department, such portion may be deducted from gross sales on the dealer's
return for the period in which the refund was made or credit given.
Example 2. 1. In December Customer C purchases
a bed from Dealer D for $700 and pays the $35 $37.10 tax. C
returns the bed to D in January and D credits C's account for $735 $737.10. In
reporting gross sales for January, D may deduct the $700 sales price of the bed
reported in a previous month.
D. Refund or credit for returned goods. If a dealer as
described in subsection C of this section has insufficient gross sales during
the period in which goods are returned or a refund/credit refund or
credit issued to absorb the amount of the sales price of the returned
goods, the dealer may carry the deduction forward as a credit against gross
sales until used. If any portion of such credit has not been used by the time a
dealer ceases business or if a dealer is no longer engaged in making retail
sales, he may request a refund for any portion of the unused credit for
returned goods. The amount of refund will be the net amount of tax remitted,
therefore, if a dealer deducted dealer's discount in filing his original
return, such discount shall similarly be deducted from the amount to be
refunded. The following example illustrates this concept.
Example 1. Customer E purchases equipment from Dealer
G in January for $10,000 and pays the $500 $530 sales tax. The
transaction is reported on G's January sales tax return which is filed timely.
E returns the equipment in April and G refunds to E $8,000 of the sales price
and the applicable tax of $400 $424. G's gross sales for April
are only $5,000, therefore, only $5,000 of the amount refunded may be used as a
credit. G goes out of business on April 30 and applies for refund of the tax
attributable to the remaining $3,000 of sales price which was refunded. G will
be issued a refund of $146.40 $155.40 computed as follows:
(Sales Price X 5.0% 5.3% tax) - dealer's
discount = Refund ($3,000 X 5.0% 5.3% tax) - (4.0% (1.6%
X $90) = $146.40 $157.56
E. Sales of returned goods. When any returned tangible
personal property is resold, the sale is subject to the sales tax.
F. Hampton Roads Region and Northern Virginia Region. The
total rate of the state and local sales and use tax in localities that fall
within these regions is 6.0% (4.3% state, 0.7% regional, and 1.0% local). The
provisions of this section apply to transactions sourced to the Hampton Roads
Region and the Northern Virginia Region, mutatis mutandis. For definitions of
the "Hampton Roads Region" and the "Northern Virginia
Region" see 23VAC10-210-2070.
23VAC10-210-6041. Vending machine sales; dealers engaged in the
business of placing vending machines.
A. Registration requirements. Except as otherwise authorized
by the Tax Commissioner, every person engaged in the business of placing
vending machines and selling tangible personal property through such machines
shall apply for a Certificate of Registration for each county and city in which
machines are placed. A separate registration is required for each place of
business from which nonvending machine sales are made. Dealers holding or
applying for multiple vending or nonvending registrations may request permission
at the time of application to file consolidated vending or nonvending returns.
B. Computation of tax. All items of tangible personal
property sold through vending machines by those vending machines dealers
engaged in placing vending machines and selling tangible personal property
through such machines are taxable at the rate of 6.0% (5.0% 6.3%
(5.3% state and 1.0% local) and 7.0% (5.3% state, 0.7% regional, and
1.0% local) in the Hampton Roads and Northern Virginia Regions. For
definitions of the "Hampton Roads Region" and the "Northern
Virginia Region" see 23VAC10-210-2070.
Any dealers, all of whose machines are under contract to
nonprofit organizations, should refer to 23VAC10-210-6042. Dealers acquiring
items from other suppliers and selling them in the same condition which they
were acquired shall compute the 6.0% 6.3% (7.0% in the Hampton Roads
and Northern Virginia Regions) tax on the cost price of the purchased
tangible personal property. Dealers who manufacture the tangible personal
property to be sold through vending machines shall compute the 6.0% tax
on the cost of the manufactured tangible personal property (cost of goods
manufactured). The cost of manufactured personal property includes raw material
cost plus labor and overhead attributable to the manufacture of the item being
sold.
Example:
Dealer A purchases (or manufactures) items, with a total cost
price of $1,000, during the month for sale through vending machines. Dealer A
would compute the tax as follows:
Total cost price ($1,000) X State tax rate (.05) (.053)
= State tax ($50) ($53)
Total cost price ($1,000) X Local tax rate (.01) = Local tax
($10)
TOTAL TAX = $60 $63
The method of accounting used for federal income tax purposes
shall be the accounting method used in determining the cost price of purchased
tangible personal property and the cost of manufactured tangible personal
property. For example, if the first-in, first-out method of accounting is used
for federal income tax purposes, this accounting method shall be used each
month for computing the cost price of purchased tangible personal property or
the cost of manufactured tangible personal property.
As an alternative method of computing the tax, any dealer
unable to maintain satisfactory records to determine the cost price of
purchased tangible personal property and the cost of manufactured tangible
personal property may request in writing to the Tax Commissioner authority to
remit an amount based on a percentage of gross receipts which takes into
account the inclusion of the 5.0% 5.3% (6.0% in the Hampton Roads and
Northern Virginia Regions) sales tax.
Example:
Dealer B, who has been authorized by the Tax Commissioner to
compute the tax based on gross receipts, had gross receipts from vending
machine sales during the month of $3,000. Dealer B would compute the tax as
follows:
Gross receipts ($3,000) X State tax rate (.04) (.043)
= State tax ($120) ($129)
Gross receipts ($3,000) X Local tax rate (.01) = Local tax
($30)
TOTAL TAX = $150 $159
Upon receiving such authorization from the Tax Commissioner,
a return shall be filed to report the 4 5.0% 5.3% (6.0% in the
Hampton Roads and Northern Virginia Regions) sales tax beginning with the
period set out in the authorization letter. All subsequent returns shall be
filed using this method unless the dealer applies in writing to the Tax
Commissioner and is given authorization in writing to change his filing status.
Authorization to compute the tax using this alternative method will not
eliminate the requirement to maintain records which show the location of each
vending machine, purchases and inventories of merchandise bought for sale
through vending machines, and total gross receipts for each vending machine.
C. Filing of returns. Except as otherwise authorized by the
Tax Commissioner, dealers engaging in the business of placing vending machines
and selling tangible personal property through such machines must file a return
to report the tax on the items sold through vending machines.
Returns are due by the 20th day of the month following the
period in which tangible personal property is sold through vending machines,
with the tax to be computed in the manner set out in subsection B above of
this section. A return is required to be filed for each locality where
vending machines are located unless a dealer has requested and been granted
authority to file a consolidated return.
D. Purchases. Tangible personal property purchased for resale
through vending machines may be purchased under Certificate of Exemption, Form
ST-10. All tangible property purchased for use or consumption by the dealer and
not for resale, including vending machines and repair parts for such machines,
and withdrawals of tangible personal property from a tax exempt manufacturing
or resale inventory for use or consumption by the dealer are subject to the tax
at the rate of 5.0% 5.3% (6.0% in the Hampton Roads and Northern
Virginia Regions) of the cost price of the property. If the supplier does
not charge the tax on purchases for use or consumption, the vending machine
dealer shall pay the tax directly to the Department of Taxation on the Retail
Sales and Use Tax Return (if he is registered for nonvending sales) or on the
Consumer's Use Tax Return. Dealers who manufacture or process tangible personal
property for sale may be entitled to the industrial exemption for tangible
personal property used directly in manufacturing or processing as set forth in subdivision
2 of § 58.1-609.3(2) of the Code of Virginia and 23VAC10-210-920.
E. Records. Records shall be kept for a period of three years
and shall show the location of each machine; purchases and inventories of
merchandise bought for sales through vending machines; and the cost price of
purchased tangible personal property or the cost of manufactured tangible personal
property for each machine.
23VAC10-210-6042. Vending machine sales; dealers under contract
with nonprofit organizations.
A. Registration requirements. A separate Certificate of
Registration is required for each county and city in which vending machines are
placed. Dealers holding multiple registrations may request permission to file a
consolidated return at the time of application.
B. Computation of tax. Dealers engaged in the business of
placing vending machines all of which are under contract to nonprofit
organizations may deduct sales of $.10 or less from gross receipts and divide
the remaining balance by 1.05 1.053 (1.06 in the Hampton Roads and
Northern Virginia Regions) to determine the amount of taxable sales upon
which the 5.0% tax is due and payable. To qualify for this method of
computing the tax, all machines of the vending machine dealer must be under
contract to nonprofit organizations. For definitions of the "Hampton
Roads Region" and the "Northern Virginia Region" see
23VAC10-210-2070.
C. Filing of returns. The Retail Sales and Use Tax Return, is
required to be filed for each locality in which vending machines are placed by
the 20th day of the month to report the 5.0% 5.3% (6.0% in the
Hampton Roads and Northern Virginia Regions) tax on (i) sales made in the
previous period and (ii) untaxed purchases for use or consumption by the dealer
or withdrawals from tax exempt inventory for use or consumption by the dealer.
D. Records. A contract shall be kept for each vending machine
under contract to nonprofit organizations. Additionally, records shall be kept
for a period of four years to show the location of each vending machine,
purchases and inventories of merchandise bought for sale, and total gross
receipts for each vending machine separating items sold for $.10 or less from
items sold for more than $.10.
23VAC10-210-6043. Vending machine sales; other dealers selling
tangible personal property through vending machines.
Dealers not engaged in the business of placing vending
machines but who use vending machines at their places of business to sell
merchandise, (e.g., service station operators,)
must report the tax at the rate of 5.0% 5.3% (6.0% in the Hampton
Roads and Northern Virginia Regions) of gross taxable sales on the same
return on which nonvending machine sales are reported. For definitions of
the "Hampton Roads Region" and the "Northern Virginia
Region" see 23VAC10-210-2070.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4601; Filed June 6, 2016, 1:34 p.m.