TITLE 6. CRIMINAL JUSTICE AND CORRECTIONS
CRIMINAL JUSTICE SERVICES BOARD
Proposed Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 6VAC20-172. Regulations
Relating to Private Security Services Businesses (amending 6VAC20-172-10, 6VAC20-172-40,
6VAC20-172-50, 6VAC20-172-80).
6VAC20-174. Regulations Relating to Private Security
Services Registered Personnel (amending 6VAC20-174-10, 6VAC20-174-150).
Statutory Authority: § 9.1-141 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: April 21, 2017.
Agency Contact: Barbara Peterson-Wilson, Law Enforcement
Program Coordinator, Department of Criminal Justice Services, 1100 Bank Street,
Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 225-4503, FAX (804) 786-0410, or email
barbara.peterson-wilson@dcjs.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section § 9.1-102 of the Code of Virginia
authorizes the Department of Criminal Justice Services (DCJS) and the Criminal
Justice Services Board (CJSB) to adopt regulations for administration of
Chapter 1 (§ 9.1-100 et seq.) of Title 9.1 of the Code of Virginia, and § 9.1-141
of the Code of Virginia authorizes the board to adopt regulations establishing
compulsory minimum, entry-level, in-service, and advanced training standards
for persons employed by private security services businesses in classifications
defined in § 9.1-138 of the Code of Virginia. In addition, § 9.1-144 of the
Code of Virginia requires bond or insurance for private security services,
personal protection specialists, and private investigators.
Purpose: Chapter 202 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly
permits a licensed private security services business to hire as an independent
contractor a personal protection specialist or private investigator. The
legislation requires every personal protection specialist and private
investigator hired as an independent contractor by a licensed private security
services business to maintain comprehensive liability insurance in an amount to
be determined by DCJS.
Although 6VAC20-172 and 6VAC20-174 do not address the
requirements for insurance for independent contractors, 6VAC20-172 currently
requires individuals obtaining a business license to provide documentation
verifying that a bond has been secured in the amount of $100,000 or a
certificate of insurance for comprehensive general liability insurance with a
minimum coverage of $100,000 per individual occurrence and $300,000 general
aggregate. The bond and insurance amounts identified in 6VAC20-172 have not
been reviewed since these regulations were first promulgated 15 years ago, and
the amounts do not reflect current industry standards or needs of private
security businesses and do not adequately protect the public.
Requiring personal protection specialists and private
investigators serving as independent contractors to maintain comprehensive
liability insurance protects the health, safety, and welfare of all parties
involved. Comprehensive liability insurance protects the public against
personal injury and property damage on the part of the personal protection
specialist or private investigator. Additionally the insurance protects the
personal protection specialist's and private investigator's personal assets up
to the covered amount.
During the December 1, 2015, meeting of the Private Security
Services Advisory Board (PSSAB), DCJS requested the PSSAB to recommend an
amount of comprehensive liability insurance that it felt was appropriate for
independent contractors and for private security businesses. The PSSAB informed
DCJS staff that they did not have enough information to determine an
appropriate figure. DCJS was asked to provide additional information regarding
the current amount of insurance held by private security businesses and agreed
to use staff from the research unit to conduct a random sample of the private
security businesses.
At the March 3, 2016, meeting, the PSSAB was presented with the
following results of the research:
Random sample. The DCJS Research Center selected a random
sample of private security businesses from all but two of the seven private
security businesses regulated by DJCS. The number of armored car and security
canine handling services businesses registered with DCJS is small therefore all
armored car and security canine handling services businesses were included. A
total for 400 businesses made up the final sample.
• Security officer (sample size N=78)
• Private investigation (N=82)
• Armored car (N=15)
• Security canine handling (N=15)
• Personal protection (N=52)
• Electronic security (N=86)
• Locksmith (N=72)
Current requirement. Private security business insurance
requirements per current regulation are (i) a surety bond in the amount of
$100,000 or comprehensive general liability insurance with a minimum coverage
of $100,000 per individual occurrence and (ii) $300,000 general aggregate.
Terminology:
Surety bonds are a financial guarantee of performance of a
specific action. A surety bond is not liability insurance.
Commercial general liability insurance protects a business from
financial loss resulting from claims of injury or damage caused to others by
the business. A comprehensive policy typically covers:
• Bodily injury – physical damage to a person other than an
employee of the business and injuries caused by the business at a client's home
or work place.
• Personal injury – libel, slander, copyright infringement,
invasion of property or privacy, wrongful eviction, false arrest, and similar
acts that cause damage to a person's reputation or rights.
• Property damage – damage done to another person's property
by the business in the course of conducting business.
• Advertising injury – losses caused by the business's
advertising.
• Legal defense and judgments – costs to defend against real
and frivolous suits and judgments up to the limit of coverage. This generally
does not include punitive damages for negligence or willful misconduct.
A general aggregate insurance limit is the maximum amount of
money the insurer will pay out during a policy term. Once the general aggregate
limit has been exhausted, the insurer is under no obligation to cover further
losses in any of the categories covered under the general liability policy.
Current general liability insurance carried by private security
businesses:
• 99% (N=395) of businesses have a general liability insurance
limit that exceeds the $100,000 minimum.
• One business has a $100,000 surety bond in lieu of general
liability insurance.
• 93% (N=371) have a general liability limit of $1 million or
more (range $1 million to $10 million).
• Average general liability insurance limit: $1,160,250.
Current general aggregate insurance carried by private security
businesses:
• One business has a surety bond in lieu of aggregate liability
insurance
• 97% (N=389) of businesses have a general aggregate liability
limit that exceeds the $300,000 minimum.
• 93% (N=337) have an aggregate liability insurance limit of
$1 million or more (range $1 million to $10 million)
• Average general aggregate liability limit: $2,344,361.
At the conclusion of the presentation on March 3, 2016, the
PSSAB voted to approve the following recommendations:
1. Private security businesses shall be required to maintain
comprehensive liability insurance in the amount of $1 million in general
aggregate liability insurance.
2. Independent contractors working for private security
businesses shall be required to maintain comprehensive liability insurance in
an amount equal to the insurance requirements for private security businesses.
The PSSAB made these recommendations to the CJSB, as did DCJS.
March 24, 2016, the CJSB voted to approve the recommendations of the PSSAB.
Substance: The proposed amendments allow private
security services businesses licensed by DCJS to independently contract with
private investigators and personal protection specialists registered with DCJS.
Additionally, the language will require that every registered personal
protection specialist and private investigator hired as an independent
contractor maintain $1 million in general aggregate liability insurance and
provide evidence of such insurance to the private security services business
with which they are contracting. Private security businesses will be required
to secure a surety bond in the amount of $1 million or maintain $1 million in
general aggregate liability insurance.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public is ensuring
an increased opportunity for civil recourse in the event that an individual is
harmed as a result of interacting with private security businesses or private
investigators and personal protection specialist that are independent
contractors.
There are no significant advantages or disadvantages to the
majority of private security businesses in Virginia. The research conducted by
DCJS indicated that 93% of the private security businesses already carry
general aggregate liability insurance in an amount greater than $1 million, the
amount identified in the proposed regulatory action.
The primary advantage to private security businesses not
currently carrying $1 million or more in general aggregate liability insurance
and future private investigators and personal protection specialists who are
independent contractors is increased liability protection against financial
loss resulting from claims of injury or damage caused to the public. The
primary disadvantage to a small percentage of private security businesses will
be an increase in the cost of insurance.
The primary advantage to individuals wishing to work as
independent contractors will be the ability to work in this capacity once the
insurance requirements are addressed in the regulations using the standard
three-stage regulatory process. The disadvantage is that completing the
standard three-stage process to amend a regulation is a slow process that can
take one to two years. Individuals are not able to work as independent
contractors until the regulation is finalized and becomes effective.
There are no disadvantages to the general public, agency, or
the Commonwealth.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Criminal
Justice Services Board (Board) proposes to amend its regulations that govern
private security businesses and their registered personnel to a) allow such
businesses to hire registered personal protection specialists and private
investigators as private contractors, b) set the amount of general liability
insurance that private investigators and personal security specialists who are
acting as private contractors are required to have and maintain at $1,000,000
and c) require that private security businesses maintain a minimum general
liability insurance, or surety bond, limit of $1,000,000. The first two of
these changes emanate from Chapter 202 of the 2015 Acts of the Assembly.1
Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for one
proposed change. There is insufficient information to ascertain whether
benefits will outweigh costs for other proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. In 2015, the General Assembly passed
a bill which allows private security services firms to hire private
investigators and personal protection specialists who are registered with the
Department of Criminal Justice Services (DCJS) as private contractors. This
legislation also stipulates that such private contractors maintain general
liability insurance in an amount to be set by DCJS and that they present proof
of insurance to the businesses with whom they contract. In response to this
legislation, the Board now proposes to amend these regulations so to allow
private security services businesses to privately contract with registered
private investigators and personal security specialists so long as these
individuals have at least $1,000,000 in general liability insurance and the
private security businesses contracting with them document that such insurance
has been obtained. Currently, registered private investigators and personal
security specialists would only have insurance if they were also licensed by
DCJS as private security services businesses.
The insurance limits for such businesses are currently set at
$100,000 per incident and $300,000 aggregate (lifetime). Alternately, these
businesses can choose to have a surety bond in the amount of $100,000. Private
investigators and personal protection specialists who are currently licensed as
private security services businesses and who choose to have a surety bond would
not be able to increase the amount of that surety bond to $1,000,000 and use it
to meet the insurance requirement to be a private contractor. As mandated by
the General Assembly, they would have to instead obtain general liability
insurance in the amount required by DCJS. Private investigators and personal
protection specialists who are licensed as businesses with DCJS and have
insurance would incur costs to raise their insurance limits to one million
dollars (if they do not already have insurance that meets or exceeds that
limit).
Private investigators and personal protection specialists who
are not licensed as private security services businesses would newly be subject
to an insurance requirement2 and so would have to obtain $1,000,000
in aggregate general liability insurance. Board staff reports that the required
insurance in the amount of $1,000,000 costs approximately $500 to $695 per
year. Private investigators and personal protection specialist who would have
to pay for this insurance would likely only choose to contract with private
security services businesses if they expected the revenues from doing so to
exceed their costs including insurance. Therefore, benefits will likely outweigh
costs for allowing private security services businesses to hire private
investigators and personal security specialists as private contractors.
As stated above, private security services businesses are
currently required to have either a surety bond in the amount of $100,000 or
general liability insurance with limits of $100,000 per incident and $300,000
aggregate. DCJS's research division sampled 400 of the 1,804 private security
businesses they license and found that 99% of the businesses sampled had more
than $100,000 worth of insurance and 93% had insurance limits at or greater
than $1,000,000. The Board now proposes to increase the amount of insurance or
surety bonding that licensed private security services businesses must have to
at least $1,000,000. Board staff reports that this change is being proposed
because most firms already have insurance in at least this amount. Board staff
further reports that there have not been any incidences reported that would
indicate that currently required insurance limits are inadequate.
Board staff estimates that the costs for $1,000,000 of general
liability insurance would likely range between $500 and $695 per year. Assuming
that DCJS's survey is representative of the entire population of private
security services firms, about seven percent of firms licensed (about 126
firms) would incur additional costs for insurance equal to the cost for
$1,000,000 of insurance minus their current insurance costs. One licensee who
currently holds a surety bond estimates that increasing his bond from $100,000
to $1,000,000 will increase his costs for bonding from $323 per year to $1,200
per year.3 There is no information to measure the possible benefits
of requiring greater insurance limits, so there is insufficient information to
ascertain whether those benefits would outweigh the estimated costs.
Businesses and Entities Affected. These proposed regulatory
changes will affect all private security services businesses, including private
investigators and personal protection specialists who are licensed as private
security services businesses. Board staff reports that there are 1,804 private
security businesses licensed by the DCJS. Board staff further reports that
there are currently 1,805 private investigators and 522 personal protection
specialists registered with the DCJS.
Localities Particularly Affected. No localities will be
particularly affected by these proposed regulatory changes.
Projected Impact on Employment. These proposed regulatory
changes may lead to private investigators and personal protection specialists
being hired by private security services businesses as private contractors.
This may not affect total employment as private contracting will likely serve
as a substitute for other types of employment in these businesses. Higher
insurance costs may affect whether marginally profitable private security
services businesses choose to remain licensed.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These
proposed regulatory changes are unlikely to affect the use or value of private
property in the Commonwealth.
Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect real estate development costs in the
Commonwealth.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. Small business private security
services firms, including private investigators and personal protection
specialists, who do not already maintain liability insurance of at least
$1,000,000 will incur costs for increasing their insurance limits to that level.
Board staff estimates, from a sample of 400 businesses, that 93% of private
security services firms already have insurance that exceeds the proposed limit.
Assuming that sample is representative, seven percent of the 1,804 private
security firms licensed by the DCJS (about 126 firms) will incur additional
costs for insurance. The additional costs incurred will equal the cost of the
new, higher, limit for insurance minus the cost of these businesses' current
insurance of less than $1,000,000.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. Since raising
the insurance limits for private security services firms is a discretionary
change based on information about what insurance these firms on average have,
rather than what limits are minimally necessary to protect health and safety in
the Commonwealth, the Board might further minimize additional costs by lowering
the proposed insurance limits or leaving required insurance at current levels.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. Private security services firms, including private
investigators and personal protection specialists, that do not already maintain
liability insurance of at least $1,000,000 will incur costs for increasing
their insurance limits to that level. Board staff estimates, from a sample of
400 businesses, that 93% of private security services firms already have
insurance that exceeds the proposed limit. Assuming that sample is
representative, seven percent of the 1,804 private security firms licensed by
the DCJS (about 126 firms) will incur additional costs for insurance. The
additional costs incurred will equal the cost of the new, higher, limit for
insurance minus the cost of these businesses' current insurance of less than
$1,000,000.
Localities. Localities in the Commonwealth are unlikely to see
any adverse impacts on account of these proposed regulatory changes.
Other Entities. No other entities are likely to be adversely
affected by these proposed changes.
___________________________
1 http://leg1.state.va.us/cgi-bin/legp504.exe?151+ful+CHAP0202
2 Chapter 202 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly requires that
these individuals have general liability insurance "in a reasonable amount
to be fixed by the Department." The amount of insurance that is proposed
by DCJS is $1,000,000.
3 From Board research findings, it appears that very few
licensees (likely less than five statewide) choose to carry a surety bond
rather than insurance. While the cost increases for increasing surety bonds is
likely much higher, it would affect far fewer businesses.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
Department of Criminal Justice Services respectfully disagrees with several
statements and conclusions contained within the economic impact analysis (EIA)
drafted by the Department of Planning and Budget (DPB).
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation.
Chapter 202 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly authorizes private
investigators and personal protection specialists to work as independent
contractors provided they maintain a general liability insurance policy, in an
amount determined by DCJS.1
Independent of this new statutory change, the Code of Virginia
authorizes private security service businesses to be licensed provided they
maintain a general liability policy or surety or cash bond, in an amount to be
determined by the Board.
Result of Analysis.
The EIA concludes that allowing private security businesses to
hire registered personal protection specialists and private investigators as
independent contractors will likely result in benefits outweighing potential
costs. DCJS agrees with this conclusion as it is reasonable to expect that
parties will only engage in independent contracts when it is profitable.
The EIA also concludes that insufficient information exists to
ascertain whether the benefits outweigh the costs for (i) requiring registered
personal protection specialists and private investigators who want to work as
independent contractors to maintain a general liability insurance policy in the
amount of $1,000,000 and for (ii) requiring private security businesses to
maintain a minimum general liability insurance policy or bond in the amount of
$1,000,000. DCJS disagrees with these two conclusions.
The benefits of requiring $1,000,000 insurance for registered
personal protection specialists and private investigators and for private
security businesses: The General Assembly determined as early as 1976 that
insurance is a necessary component for private security businesses. In 1998,
the General Assembly enacted legislation requiring private security businesses
to obtain a bond or liability insurance at the initial point of being licensed
by DCJS. The General Assembly also added language specifically requiring the
business to maintain the bonds or liability insurance for the duration of their
licenses. By its very nature, insurance protects businesses from unforeseen
events and accidents. Private security businesses that have insurance are
shielded from potentially expensive claims and litigation costs. Insurance also
provides the public a resource to obtain compensation for losses caused by
businesses. The General Assembly also made the Criminal Justice Services Board
(CJSB) responsible for determining the appropriate amount and type of insurance
for private security businesses. The CJSB initially set the amount of insurance
at $100,000 more than 20 years ago. This amount had not been reviewed or
revised until 2015.
In addition to requiring private security businesses to have
insurance or bond, the General Assembly has also determined that a benefit and
need exists for certain professionals to have insurance in order to be licensed
by the state. The very nature of engaging in certain professions, such as
doctors, lawyers, and law enforcement, includes exposure to risk and liability.
The private security industry is no exception to risk exposure; in fact, the
type of work conducted by private security businesses presents increased risks
for their employees who are engaged in potentially dangerous activity and
situations while securing and protecting property. Many of these professionals
are licensed by DCJS to carry firearms in the performance of their duties. The
General Assembly relied on the same reasoning as it did for other professionals
when it authorized two types of private security professionals to act as
independent contractors in 2015, provided they have the appropriate insurance
coverage as determined by DCJS.
Given the General Assembly's directive to determine the amount
of insurance necessary for private investigators and personal protection
specialists to act as independent contractors, DCJS consulted with private
security and insurance professionals, engaged the Private Security Services
Advisory Board, and conducted evidence based research. DCJS staff spent a
significant amount of time with DPB staff explaining the process the agency
used to arrive at its decision.
DCJS utilized its Research Center to arrive at an informed,
educated conclusion regarding the appropriate amount of insurance necessary for
independent contractors and private security businesses. The Research Center is
managed by a professional with a PhD, and the data was developed and analyzed
using scientifically sound methods. Furthermore, the combined years of research
experience of the two staff who participated in this project is approximately
45 years.
The DCJS Research Center selected a random sample of 400
private security businesses regulated by DJCS. The sample size of 400 was
determined using a standard statistical formula to generate a sample size with
a 95% confidence interval. In other words, by using a sample size of 400
businesses, the sample is 95% accurate in representing the entire private
security business population. This standard statistical formula is widely used
in the scientific research field.
Security Officer (sample size N=78)
Private Investigation (N=82)
Armored Car (N=15)
Security Canine Handling (N=15)
Personal Protection (N=52)
Electronic Security (N=86)
Locksmith (N=72)
The statistical research demonstrates that 99% of the private
security businesses licensed by DCJS already have insurance policies that
exceed the current requirement of $100,000. In fact, 93% of these businesses
have a general liability policy of $1,000,000 or more. The average liability
amount for private security businesses is $1,160,250. This evidence suggests
that the private security business industry has already determined that
$100,000 is inadequate to meet their business needs and that $1,000,000
minimally meets that need. During this research process, it became clear to
DCJS that a $100,000 general liability insurance policy is woefully inadequate
to meet and protect the needs of private security businesses and the public at
large. It is insufficient for covering bodily injury, personal injury, property
damage, advertising injury, and legal defense and judgments.
After discussions with staff from DPB who suggested that DCJS
determine whether any claims have been filed against private security actors or
remained unpaid due to current insurance requirements, DCJS looked into the
matter. DCJS is not in a position to know whether any of its licensees have
been sued or whether insurance claims have been filed and paid because these
businesses are not required to report this type of data to DCJS. However, DCJS
is aware of a 2014 case (Pompey v. Palla) in which a jury returned an $8
million judgment against a security officer arising out of his excessive force
and wrongful arrest of a citizen of the Commonwealth. This case demonstrates
that lawsuits against private security actors can result in judgments exceeding
$1,000,000 and that $100,000 is not sufficient insurance coverage.
DCJS strongly disagrees with the following statement in the
EIA: "Board staff reports that this change is being proposed because most
firms already have insurance in at least this amount." This statement does
not accurately reflect the numerous and lengthy conversations that board staff
had with DPB. There is a statutory requirement to determine the amount of
general liability insurance for private investigators and personal protection
specialists. In the process of researching this issue, DCJS determined that the
original amount of insurance required for private security businesses had not
been reviewed or analyzed for approximately 20 years. DCJS would have been
remiss in its duties as the regulatory agency for private security businesses
had it not brought this issue before the board. DCJS regulates all private
security businesses and determining the insurance requirements for two specific
types without comprehensively researching this issue would have been
inappropriate and possibly viewed in the eyes of the law as negligent
supervision of regulatory duties. It would not be appropriate to set a general
amount of the liability insurance requirement for two types of professionals
that grossly exceeds the private security businesses' general liability
insurance requirements.
Furthermore, DCJS has determined that the cost to purchase a
general liability insurance policy that satisfies the current requirements
($100,000/$300,000 aggregate) is the same as the cost to purchase $1,000,000 in
coverage. DCJS's initial research indicates that it costs approximately $500 to
$695 per year for $1,000,000 of general liability insurance. Based on the
issuance of the amended EIA, DCJS worked with staff from the Virginia
Department of Treasury to determine the cost to purchase a $100,000/$300,000
aggregate general insurance policy, which ranges from $500 a year for low-risk
activity to $1,000 to $5,000 a year for higher risk activity. These estimates
have also been validated by professionals serving on the Private Security
Services Advisory Board who have previously communicated with the DCJS that it
cost the same to purchase $100,000 of coverage as it does $1,000,000. It is
important to note that the Private Security Services Advisory Board approved
the $1,000,000 insurance policy requirement for both independent contractors
and private security businesses. It is for these reasons that DCJS believes
that this regulatory action will have little to no fiscal impact on private
security businesses or individuals who want to work as independent contractors.
DPB staff suggested that DCJS provide data demonstrating the
number of legal judgments against private security businesses that were not
paid as a result of insufficient or no insurance. DCJS appreciates the value of
such data and will explore the possibility that private security businesses
should be required to report unpaid judgments to DCJS as a new regulatory
requirement.
Businesses and Entities Affected.
DCJS disagrees with DPB's conclusion that "all"
private security businesses are affected by the regulatory package. As
explained above, the research shows that 93% of security businesses already
carry $1,000,000 or more in general liability insurance. In other words, 93% of
the private security businesses will not be impacted. Furthermore, the impact
to the remaining businesses is minimal given the similarity in cost to purchase
insurance coverage of $100,000 or $1,000,000. Not all private investigators and
personal protection specialists will choose to engage in independent
contracting; not all private security businesses will choose to hire
independent contractors. These businesses, by virtue of their statutory definition,
already employ either or both private investigators or personal protection
specialists as part of their corporate structure.
Further, there is no requirement that registered personal
protection specialists and private investigators must engage in independent
contracting in order to find gainful employment. Acting as an independent
contractor is entirely discretionary on the part of an individual licensee and
not mandatory. All registered personal protection specialists and private
investigators must work for a licensed private security business in order to
engage in the activity providing those services. This new law will only impact
those professionals who wish to operate more like freelance employees, and
presumably those professionals will consider all the pros and cons, to include
financial costs and tax and other legal implications (independent contractors
are typically viewed as self-employed under federal tax laws; respondeat
superior relationship is not necessarily established when businesses contract
with independent contractors). DCJS does not know how many of the currently
registered personal protection specialists and private investigators wish to
engage in independent contracting, nor will it know this data once the
regulations become effective as there is no reporting requirement.
Costs and Other Effects.
DCJS also disagrees with the notion described in the EIA that
existing private investigators and personal protection specialists who
currently have business licenses and cash or surety bonds would be prohibited
from working as independent contractors unless they obtain general liability
insurance. Obtaining a private security business license entitles businesses to
engage in contractual agreements. In other words, private security businesses
already meet the statutory requirements regarding insurance, regardless of
whether they are operated by one person or 100 people, and can still conduct
business without having to switch from a bond to insurance.
Chapter 202 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly allows licensed
private security businesses to contract with individuals who are registered as
private investigators or personal protection specialists who are not licensed
as businesses. The law does not impact or prevent a private security business that
has general liability insurance from contracting with another private security
business that has a surety or cash bond.
DCJS staff takes issue with the figures reported by DPB staff
regarding the cost to obtain a surety bond. The EIA provides figures from one
licensee who currently maintains a surety bond. DPB has included this figure
referenced as an estimate but provides no information regarding the basis of
the estimate. The cost of a surety bond is calculated not only based on the
total amount of the bond but also the risk of the particular business and the
risk of the individual applicant attempting to obtain the bond. The EIA does
not state if the licensee consulted anyone to obtain the estimate nor does it
specify if this individual has any additional risk factors influencing the cost
of the bond. Additionally, board staff is concerned that the footnote included
by DPB is misleading as it references board research findings but is attached
to a statement that does not identify or reflect any research conducted by the
DCJS Research Center. At best, the surety cost estimate cited in the EIA is
spurious.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property.
DCJS believes that these regulatory changes will have
absolutely no impact on the use or value of private property in the
Commonwealth.
Alternative Methods that Minimizes Adverse Impact.
As stated, the cost to purchase a general liability insurance
policy is the same regardless of whether the policy provides $100,000 or
$1,000,000 in coverage.
The research conducted by the DCJS Research Center, the
information gathered by DCJS staff to compile the agency background document,
and the information in this response to the EIA supports the Governor's
initiative to use evidence-based decision making in determining public policy
that impacts public safety and citizens of the Commonwealth.
_______________________
1 For clarification, the statutory language uses the term
"independent contractor" not private contractor, which is cited in
the EIA. The term independent contractor has certain legal and tax
implications, to include recognition by the Internal Revenue Service as
self-employed.
Summary:
The proposed amendments (i) allow private security services
businesses licensed by the Department of Criminal Justice Services (DCJS) to
independently contract with private investigators and personal protection
specialists registered with DCJS, (ii) require that every registered personal
protection specialist and private investigator hired as an independent
contractor maintain $1 million in general aggregate liability insurance and
provide evidence of such insurance to the private security services business
with which they contract, and (iii) require that all private security
businesses secure a surety bond in the amount of $1 million or maintain $1
million in general aggregate liability insurance.
Part I
Definitions
6VAC20-172-10. Definitions.
In addition to the words and terms defined in § 9.1-138 of
the Code of Virginia, the following words and terms when used in this chapter
shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates
otherwise:
"Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40 (§
2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
"Board" means the Criminal Justice Services Board
or any successor board or agency.
"Date of hire" means the date any employee of a
private security services business or training school performs services
regulated or required to be regulated by the department.
"Department" or "DCJS" means the
Department of Criminal Justice Services or any successor agency.
"Director" means the chief administrative officer
of the department.
"Electronic images" means an acceptable method of
maintaining required documentation through the scanning, storage, and
maintenance of verifiable electronic copies of original documentation.
"Employee" means a natural person employed by a
licensee to perform private security services that are regulated by the
department.
"Firearms endorsement" means a method of regulation
that identifies an individual registered as a private security registrant and
has successfully completed the annual firearms training and has met the
requirements as set forth in 6VAC20-174.
"Firm" means a business entity, regardless of
method of organization, applying for an initial or renewal private security
services business license or private security services training school
certification.
"Incident" means an event that exceeds the normal
extent of one's duties.
"Independent contractor" means a self-employed
personal protection specialist or a private investigator who (i) maintains
comprehensive liability insurance in an amount fixed by the department, (ii)
has been issued a registration by the department, and (iii) enters into a
contract to perform work for a private security business licensed to provide
services within the Commonwealth.
"Intermediate weapon" means a tool not
fundamentally designed to cause deadly force with conventional use. This would
exclude all metal ammunition firearms or edged weapons. These weapons include
but are not limited to baton/collapsible baton, chemical irritants, electronic
restraining devices, projectiles, and other less lethal weapons as defined by
the department.
"Licensed firm" means a business entity, regardless
of method of organization, that holds a valid private security services
business license issued by the department.
"Licensee" means a licensed private security
services business.
"Official documentation" means personnel records;
Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty (DD214); copies of
business licenses indicating ownership; law-enforcement transcripts;
certificates of training completion; a signed letter provided directly by a
current or previous employer detailing dates of employment and job duties;
college transcripts; letters of commendation; private security services
registrations, certifications or licenses from other states; and other
employment, training, or experience verification documents. A resume is not
considered official documentation.
"On duty" means the time during which private
security services business personnel receive or are entitled to receive
compensation for employment for which a registration or certification is
required.
"Performance of his duties" means on duty in the
context of this chapter.
"Person" means any individual, group of
individuals, firm, company, corporation, partnership, business, trust,
association, or other legal entity.
"Physical address" means the location of the
building that houses a private security services business or training school or
the location where the individual principals of a business reside. A post
office box is not a physical address.
"Principal" means any sole proprietor, individual
listed as an officer or director with the Virginia State Corporation
Commission, board member of the association, or partner of a licensed firm or
applicant for licensure.
"Private security services business personnel"
means each employee of a private security services business who is employed as
an unarmed security officer, armed security officer/courier, armored car
personnel, security canine handler, detector canine handler, private
investigator, personal protection specialist, alarm respondent, a locksmith,
central station dispatcher, electronic security employee, an electronic
security sales representative, electronic security technician, or electronic
security technician's assistant.
"Reciprocity" means the relation existing between
Virginia and any other state, commonwealth, or province as established by
agreements approved by the board.
"Recognition" means the relation of accepting
various application requirements between Virginia and any other state,
commonwealth, or province as established by agreements approved by the board.
"Related field" means any field with training
requirements, job duties, and experience similar to those of the private
security services field in which the applicant wishes to be licensed,
certified, or registered. This term includes law enforcement and certain
categories of the military.
"This chapter" means the Regulations Relating to
Private Security Services Businesses (6VAC20-172).
Part IV
Business License Application Procedures; Administrative Requirements; Standards
of Conduct
6VAC20-172-40. Initial business license application.
A. Prior to the issuance of a private security services
business license, the applicant shall meet or exceed the requirements of
licensing and application submittal to the department as set forth in this
section.
B. Each person seeking a license shall file a completed
application provided by the department including:
1. For each principal and supervisor of the applying business
and for each electronic security employee of an electronic security services
business, his fingerprints pursuant to this chapter;
2. Documentation verifying that the applicant has secured a
surety bond in the amount of $100,000 $1 million executed by a
surety company authorized to do business in Virginia, or a certificate
of insurance reflecting the department as a certificate holder, and
showing a policy of comprehensive general liability insurance with a in
the minimum coverage amount of $100,000 per individual occurrence
and $300,000 $1 million of general aggregate liability insurance issued
by an insurance company authorized to do business in Virginia.
a. Every personal protection specialist and private
investigator who has been issued a registration by the department and is hired
as an independent contractor by a licensed private security services business
shall maintain comprehensive general liability insurance in the minimum
coverage amount of $1 million of general aggregate liability insurance; and
b. Documentation verifying the personal protection
specialist or private investigator has obtained the required insurance shall be
provided to the private security services business prior to the hiring of such
independent contractor;
3. For each nonresident applicant for a license, on a form
provided by the department, a completed irrevocable consent for the department
to serve as service agent for all actions filed in any court in this
Commonwealth;
4. For each applicant for a license except sole proprietor or
partnership, the identification number issued by the Virginia State Corporation
Commission for verification that the entity is authorized to conduct business
in the Commonwealth;
5. A physical address in Virginia where records required to be
maintained by the Code of Virginia and this chapter are kept and available for
inspection by the department. A post office box is not a physical address;
6. On the license application, designation of at least one
individual as compliance agent who is certified or eligible for certification;
7. The applicable, nonrefundable license application fee; and
8. Designation on the license application of the type of
private security business license the applicant is seeking. The initial
business license fee includes one category. A separate fee will be charged for
each additional category. The separate categories are identified as follows:
(i) security officers/couriers (armed and unarmed), (ii) private investigators,
(iii) electronic security personnel, (iv) armored car personnel, (v) personal
protection specialists, (vi) locksmiths, and (vii) detector canine handlers and
security canine handlers. Alarm respondents crossover into both the security
officer and electronic security category; therefore, if an applicant is
licensed in either of these categories, he can provide these services without
an additional category fee.
C. Upon completion of the initial license application
requirements, the department may issue an initial license for a period not to
exceed 24 months.
D. The department may issue a letter of temporary licensure
to businesses seeking licensure under § 9.1-139 of the Code of Virginia
for not more than 120 days while awaiting the results of the state and national
fingerprint search conducted on the principals and compliance agent of the
business, provided the applicant has met the necessary conditions and
requirements.
E. A new license is required whenever there is any change in
the ownership or type of organization of the licensed entity that results in
the creation of a new legal entity. Such changes include but are not limited
to:
1. Death of a sole proprietor;
2. Death or withdrawal of a general partner in a general
partnership or the managing partner in a limited partnership; and
3. Formation or dissolution of a corporation, a limited
liability company, or an association or any other business entity recognized
under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
F. Each license shall be issued to the legal business entity
named on the application, whether it is a sole proprietorship,
partnership, corporation, or other legal entity, and shall be valid only for
the legal entity named on the license. No license shall be assigned or
otherwise transferred to another legal entity.
G. Each licensee shall comply with all applicable
administrative requirements and standards of conduct and shall not engage in any
acts prohibited by applicable sections of the Code of Virginia and this
chapter.
H. Each licensee shall be a United States citizen or legal
resident alien of the United States.
6VAC20-172-50. Renewal business license application.
A. Applications for license renewal should be received by the
department at least 30 days prior to expiration. The department will provide a
renewal notification to the last known mailing address of the licensee.
However, if a renewal notification is not received by the licensee, it is the
responsibility of the licensee to ensure renewal requirements are filed with
the department. License renewal applications must be received by the department
and all license requirements must be completed prior to the expiration date or
shall be subject to all applicable, nonrefundable renewal fees plus
reinstatement fees. Outstanding fees or monetary penalties owed to DCJS must be
paid prior to issuance of said renewal.
B. Licenses will be renewed for a period not to exceed 24
months.
C. The department may renew a license when the following are
received by the department:
1. A properly completed renewal application;
2. Documentation verifying that the applicant has secured and
maintained a surety bond in the amount of $100,000 $1 million executed
by a surety company authorized to do business in Virginia, or a
certificate of insurance reflecting the department as a certificate holder,
and showing a policy of comprehensive general liability insurance with
a in the minimum coverage amount of $100,000 per
individual occurrence and $300,000 $1 million general aggregate
issued by an insurance company authorized to do business in Virginia.
a. Every personal protection specialist and private
investigator who has been issued a registration by the department and is hired
as an independent contractor by a licensed private security services business
shall maintain comprehensive general liability insurance in the minimum
coverage amount of $1 million of general aggregate liability insurance; and
b. Documentation verifying the personal protection
specialist or private investigator has obtained the required insurance shall be
provided to the private security services business prior to the hiring of such
independent contractor;
3. Fingerprint records for any new or additional principals
submitted to the department within 30 days of their hire date provided,
however, that any change in the ownership or type of organization of the
licensed entity has not resulted in the creation of a new legal entity;
4. On the application, designation of at least one compliance
agent who has satisfactorily completed all applicable training requirements;
5. The applicable, nonrefundable license renewal fee and
applicable category of service fees; and
6. On the first day of employment, each new and additional
supervisor's fingerprints submitted to the department pursuant to § 9.1-139 I
of the Code of Virginia.
D. Each business applying for a license renewal shall be in
good standing in every jurisdiction where licensed, registered, or certified in
a private security services or related field. This subsection shall not apply
to any probationary periods during which the individual is eligible to operate
under the license, registration, or certification.
E. Any renewal application received after the expiration date
of a license shall be subject to the requirements set forth by the
reinstatement provisions of this chapter.
F. On the renewal application the licensee must designate the
type of private security business license he wishes to renew. The fee will be
based upon the category or categories selected on the renewal application.
6VAC20-172-80. Business standards of conduct.
A licensee shall:
1. Conform to all requirements pursuant to the Code of
Virginia and this chapter.
2. Ensure that all employees regulated or required to be
regulated by the board conform to all application requirements, administrative
requirements, and standards of conduct pursuant to the Code of Virginia,
6VAC20-174, and this chapter.
3. Not direct any employee regulated or required to be
regulated by the board to engage in any acts prohibited by the Code of
Virginia, 6VAC20-174, and this chapter.
4. Employ individuals regulated or required to be regulated as
follows:
a. A licensee shall employ or otherwise utilize individuals
possessing a valid registration issued by the department showing the
registration categories required to perform duties requiring registration
pursuant to the Code of Virginia;
b. A licensee shall not allow individuals requiring
registration as armored car personnel, armed security officers/couriers, armed
alarm respondents with firearm endorsement, private investigators, personal
protection specialists, detector canine handlers, or security canine handlers
to perform private security services until such time as the individual has been
issued a registration by the department;
c. A licensee may employ individuals requiring registration as
an unarmed alarm respondent, a locksmith, a central station dispatcher, an
electronic security sales representative, an electronic security technician, an
unarmed armored car driver, an unarmed security officer, or an electronic
security technician's assistant for a period not to exceed 90 consecutive days
in any registered category listed in this subdivision 4 c while completing the
compulsory minimum training standards as set forth in 6VAC20-174 provided:
(1) The individual's fingerprint card has been submitted;
(2) The individual is not employed in excess of 120 days
without having been issued a registration from the department; and
(3) The individual did not fail to timely complete the
required training with a previous employer;
d. A licensee shall not employ any individual carrying or
having access to a firearm in the performance of his duties who has not
obtained a valid registration and firearms endorsement from the department; and
e. A licensee shall maintain appropriate documentation to
verify compliance with these requirements. A licensee shall maintain these
documents after employment is terminated for a period of not less than three
years.
5. Not contract or subcontract any private security services
in the Commonwealth of Virginia to a person not licensed by the department.
Verification of a contractor's or subcontractor's license issued by the
department shall be maintained for a period of not less than three years.
6. Enter into contracts with self-employed personal
protection specialists and private investigators to work as independent
contractors in accordance with § 9.1-144 of the Code of Virginia and require
documentation verifying the personal protection specialist or private
investigator has obtained the required insurance in accordance with
6VAC20-172-40 and 6VAC20-172-50 prior to the hiring of such independent
contractor.
6. 7. Ensure that the compliance agent conforms
to all applicable application requirements, administrative requirements, and
standards of conduct pursuant to the Code of Virginia and this chapter.
7. 8. Permit the department during regular
business hours to inspect, review, or copy those documents, electronic images,
business records, or training records that are required to be maintained by the
Code of Virginia and this chapter.
8. 9. Not violate or aid and abet others in
violating the provisions of Article 4 (§ 9.1-138 et seq.) of Chapter 1 of Title
9.1 of the Code of Virginia, 6VAC20-173, 6VAC20-174, or this chapter.
9. 10. Not commit any act or omission that
results in a private security license or registration being suspended, revoked,
or not renewed, or the licensee or registrant otherwise being disciplined in
any jurisdiction.
10. 11. Not have been convicted or found guilty
in any jurisdiction of the United States of any felony or a misdemeanor
involving moral turpitude, assault and battery, damage to real or personal
property, controlled substances or imitation controlled substances as defined
in Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 of the Code of
Virginia, prohibited sexual behavior as described in Article 7 (§ 18.2-61 et
seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2 of the Code of Virginia, or firearms. Any plea
of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purpose of this
chapter. The record of conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to
be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted
shall be prima facie evidence of such guilt.
11. 12. Not obtain or aid and abet others to
obtain a license, license renewal, registration, registration renewal,
certification, certification renewal, or firearms endorsement through any fraud
or misrepresentation.
12. 13. Include the business license number
issued by the department on all business advertising materials pursuant to the
Code of Virginia. Business advertising materials containing information regarding
more than one licensee must contain the business license numbers of each
licensee identified.
13. 14. Not conduct a private security services
business in such a manner as to endanger the public health, safety, and
welfare.
14. 15. Not falsify or aid and abet others in
falsifying training records for the purpose of obtaining a license,
registration, or certification.
15. 16. Not represent as one's own a license
issued to another private security services business.
16. 17. When providing central station
monitoring services, attempt to verify the legitimacy of a burglar alarm
activation by calling the site of the alarm. If unable to make contact, call
one additional number provided by the alarm user who has the authority to
cancel the dispatch. This shall not apply if the alarm user has provided
written authorization requesting immediate or one-call dispatch to both his
local police department and his dealer of record. This shall not apply to
duress or hold-up alarms.
17. 18. Not perform any unlawful or negligent
act resulting in loss, injury, or death to any person.
18. 19. Utilize vehicles for private security
services using or displaying an amber flashing light only as specifically
authorized by § 46.2-1025 A 9 of the Code of Virginia.
19. 20. Not use or display the state seal of
Virginia or the seal of the Department of Criminal Justice Services, or any
portion thereof, or the seal of any political subdivision of the Commonwealth,
or any portion thereof, as a part of any logo, stationery, letter, training
document, business card, badge, patch, insignia, or other form of
identification or advertisement.
20. 21. Not provide information obtained by the
firm or its employees to any person other than the client who secured the
services of the licensee without the client's prior written consent. Provision
of information in response to official requests from law-enforcement agencies,
the courts, or the department shall not constitute a violation of this chapter.
Provision of information to law-enforcement agencies pertinent to criminal
activity or to planned criminal activity shall not constitute a violation of
this chapter.
21. 22. Not engage in acts of unprofessional
conduct in the practice of private security services.
22. 23. Not engage in acts of negligent or
incompetent private security services.
23. 24. Not make any misrepresentation or false
promise to a private security services business client or potential private
security services business client.
24. 25. Not violate any state or local
ordinance.
25. 26. Satisfy all judgments to include binding
arbitrations related to private security services not provided.
26. 27. Not publish or cause to be published any
material relating to private security services that contains an assertion,
representation, or statement of fact that is false, deceptive, or misleading.
27. 28. Not conduct private security business
under a fictitious or assumed name unless the name is on file with the
Department of Criminal Justice Services. This does not apply to a private
investigator conducting a "pretext," provided that the private
investigator does not state that he is representing a private security business
that does not exist or otherwise prohibited under federal law.
28. 29. Not act as or be an ostensible licensee
for undisclosed persons who do or will control directly or indirectly the
operations of the licensee's business.
29. 30. Not provide false or misleading
information to representatives of the department.
30. 31. Not provide materially incorrect,
misleading, incomplete, or untrue information on any email, application, or
other document filed with the department.
Part I
Definitions
6VAC20-174-10. Definitions.
In addition to the words and terms defined in § 9.1-138 of
the Code of Virginia, the following words and terms when used in this chapter
shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates
otherwise:
"Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40 (§
2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
"Board" means the Criminal Justice Services Board
or any successor board or agency.
"Business advertising material" means display
advertisements in telephone directories, on letterhead, on business cards, in
local newspaper advertising, and in contracts.
"Certified training school" means a training school
that is certified by the department for the specific purpose of training
private security services business personnel in at least one category of the
compulsory minimum training standards as set forth by the board.
"Class" means a block of instruction no less than
50 minutes in length on a particular subject.
"Classroom training" means instruction conducted in
person by an instructor to students in an organized manner utilizing a lesson
plan.
"Date of hire" means the date any employee of a
private security services business or training school performs services
regulated or required to be regulated by the department.
"Department" or "DCJS" means the
Department of Criminal Justice Services or any successor agency.
"Director" means the chief administrative officer
of the department.
"Electronic images" means an acceptable method of
maintaining required documentation through the scanning, storage, and
maintenance of verifiable electronic copies of original documentation.
"Employee" means a natural person employed by a
licensee to perform private security services that are regulated by the
department.
"End user" means any person who purchases or leases
electronic security equipment for use in that person's home or business.
"Entry-level training" means the compulsory initial
training for regulated categories and basic or intermediate firearms training standards
adopted by the board for private security services business personnel who are
either new registrants or failed to timely complete in-service training or
firearms retraining within the prescribed time period.
"Firearms endorsement" means a method of regulation
that identifies an individual registered as a private security registrant and
has successfully completed the annual firearms training and has met the
requirements as set forth in this chapter.
"Independent contractor" means a self-employed personal
protection specialist or a private investigator who (i) maintains comprehensive
liability insurance in an amount fixed by the department, (ii) has been issued
a registration by the department, and (iii) enters into a contract to perform
work for a private security business licensed to provide services within the
Commonwealth.
"In-service training requirement" means the
compulsory in-service training standards adopted by the Criminal Justice
Services Board for private security services business personnel.
"Intermediate weapon" means a tool not
fundamentally designed to cause deadly force with conventional use. This would
exclude all metal ammunition firearms or edged weapons. These weapons include
but are not limited to baton/collapsible baton, chemical irritants, electronic
restraining devices, projectiles, and other less lethal weapons as defined by
the department.
"Job-related training" means training specifically
related to the daily job functions of a given category of registration or
certification as defined in this chapter.
"Official documentation" means personnel records;
Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty (DD214); copies of
business licenses indicating ownership; law-enforcement transcripts;
certificates of training completion; a signed letter provided directly by a
current or previous employer detailing dates of employment and job duties;
college transcripts; letters of commendation; private security services
registrations, certifications, or licenses from other states; and other
employment, training, or experience verification documents. A resume is not
considered official documentation.
"On duty" means the time during which private
security services business personnel receive or are entitled to receive
compensation for employment for which a registration or certification is
required.
"Online training" means training approved by the
department and offered via the Internet or an Intranet for the purpose of
remote access on-demand or distance training that meets all requirements for
compulsory minimum training standards.
"Performance of his duties" means on duty in the
context of this chapter.
"Person" means any individual, group of
individuals, firm, company, corporation, partnership, business, trust,
association, or other legal entity.
"Private security services business personnel"
means each employee of a private security services business who is employed as
an unarmed security officer, armed security officer/courier, armored car
personnel, security canine handler, detector canine handler, private
investigator, personal protection specialist, alarm respondent, locksmith,
central station dispatcher, electronic security employee, electronic security
sales representative, electronic security technician, or electronic security
technician's assistant.
"Reciprocity" means the relation existing between
Virginia and any other state, commonwealth, or province as established by
agreements approved by the board.
"Recognition" means the relation of accepting
various application requirements between Virginia and any other state,
commonwealth, or province as established by agreements approved by the board.
"Related field" means any field with training
requirements, job duties, and experience similar to those of the private
security services field in which the applicant wishes to be licensed,
certified, or registered. This term includes law enforcement and certain
categories of the military.
"Session" means a group of classes comprising the
total hours of mandated compulsory minimum training standards in any of the
categories of licensure, registration, or certification in accordance with this
part and in accordance with §§ 9.1-150.2, 9.1-185.2 and 9.1-186.2 of the
Code of Virginia.
"This chapter" means the Regulations Relating to
Private Security Services Registered Personnel (6VAC20-174).
"Training certification" means verification of the
successful completion of any training requirement established in this chapter.
"Training requirement" means any entry-level,
in-service, or firearms training or retraining standard established in this
chapter.
"Training school director" means a natural person
designated by a principal of a certified private security services training
school to assure the compliance of the private security services training
school with all applicable requirements as provided in the Code of Virginia and
this chapter.
"Uniform" means any clothing with a badge, patch,
or lettering that clearly identifies persons to any observer as private
security services business personnel, not law-enforcement officers.
6VAC20-174-150. Standards of conduct.
A registrant shall:
1. Conform to all requirements pursuant to the Code of
Virginia and this chapter.
2. Not violate or aid and abet others in violating the
provisions of Article 4 (§ 9.1-138 et seq.) of Chapter 1 of Title 9.1 of the
Code of Virginia or this chapter.
3. Not commit any act or omission that results in a private
security license, registration, or certification being suspended, revoked, or
not renewed or the licensee, registrant, or certificate holder otherwise being
disciplined in any jurisdiction.
4. Not have been convicted or found guilty in any jurisdiction
of the United States of any felony or a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude,
assault and battery, damage to real or personal property, controlled substances
or imitation controlled substances as defined in Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et
seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 of the Code of Virginia, prohibited sexual
behavior as described in Article 7 (§ 18.2-61 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title
18.2 of the Code of Virginia, or firearms. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be
considered a conviction for the purpose of this chapter. The record of
conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in
evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be prima
facie evidence of such guilt.
5. Not obtain a license, license renewal, registration,
registration renewal, certification, or certification renewal through any fraud
or misrepresentation.
6. Not solicit or contract to provide any private security
services without first having obtained a private security services business
license with the department.
7. Maintain comprehensive general liability insurance in
the minimum amount of $1 million in general aggregate liability insurance when
the registrant:
a. Is self employed;
b. Is a personal protection specialist or private
investigator; and
c. Has entered into a contract with a licensed private
security business to work as an independent contractor.
7. 8. Carry a valid registration card or valid
temporary registration letter at all times while on duty. Individuals requiring
registration as an unarmed security officer, an alarm respondent, a locksmith,
a central station dispatcher, an electronic security sales representative, or
an electronic security technician may be employed for not more than 90
consecutive days in any category listed in this subdivision while completing
the compulsory minimum training standards and may not be employed in excess of
120 days without having been issued a registration or an exception from the department
and must carry a photo identification and authorization from their employer on
a form provided by the department at all times while on duty.
8. 9. Carry the private security state-issued
registration card at all times while on duty once the authorization has been
approved from the department, except those individuals operating outside the
Commonwealth of Virginia who shall obtain the state-issued registration card
prior to providing services when physically located in the Commonwealth.
9. 10. Perform those duties authorized by his
registration only while employed by a licensed private security services
business and only for the clients of the licensee. This shall not be construed
to prohibit an individual who is registered as an armed security officer from
being employed by a nonlicensee as provided for in § 9.1-140 of the Code of
Virginia.
10. 11. Possess a valid firearms training
endorsement if he carries or has access to firearms while on duty and then only
those firearms by type of action and caliber to which he has been trained on
and is qualified to carry. Carry or have access to a patrol rifle while on duty
only with the expressed written authorization of the licensed private security
services business employing the registrant.
11. 12. Carry a firearm concealed while on duty
only with the expressed written authorization of the licensed private security
services business employing the registrant and only in compliance with Article
6.1 (§ 18.2-307.1 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 of the Code of Virginia.
12. 13. Transport, carry, and utilize firearms
while on duty only in a manner that does not endanger the public health,
safety, and welfare.
13. 14. If authorized to make arrests, make
arrests in full compliance with the law and using only the minimum force
necessary to effect an arrest.
14. 15. Engage in no conduct that shall mislead
or misrepresent through word, deed, or appearance that a registrant is a
law-enforcement officer or other government official.
15. 16. Display one's registration or temporary
registration along with a photo identification while on duty in response to the
request of a law-enforcement officer, department personnel, or client.
Individuals providing private security services as authorized pursuant to
subdivision 7 8 of this section who have not received their
registration must display a state-issued photo identification and authorization
while on duty in response to the request of a law-enforcement officer,
department personnel, or a client.
16. 17. Not perform any unlawful or negligent
act resulting in a loss, injury, or death to any person.
17. 18. If a uniform is required, wear the
uniform required by his employer. If wearing a uniform while employed as an
armed security officer, unarmed security officer, alarm respondent, or armored
car personnel, that uniform must:
a. Include at least one insignia clearly identifying the name
of the licensed firm employing the individual and, except armored car
personnel, a nameplate or tape bearing, at a minimum, the individual's last
name attached on the outermost garment, except rainwear worn only to protect from
inclement weather; and
b. Include no patch or other writing (i) containing the word
"police" or any other word suggesting a law-enforcement officer; (ii)
containing the word "officer" unless used in conjunction with the
word "security"; or (iii) resembling any uniform patch or insignia of
any duly constituted law-enforcement agency of this Commonwealth, its political
subdivisions, or the federal government.
18. 19. When providing central station
monitoring services, attempt to verify the legitimacy of a burglar alarm
activation by calling the site of the alarm. If unable to make contact, call
one additional number provided by the alarm user who has the authority to
cancel the dispatch. This shall not apply if the alarm user has provided
written authorization requesting immediate dispatch or one-call dispatch to
both his local police department and his dealer of record. This shall not apply
to duress or hold-up alarms.
19. 20. Act only in such a manner that does not
endanger the public health, safety, and welfare.
20. 21. Not represent as one's own a
registration issued to another individual.
21. 22. Not falsify, or aid and abet others in
falsifying, training records for the purpose of obtaining a license,
registration, certification, or certification as a compliance agent, training
school, school director, or instructor.
22. 23. Not provide information obtained by the
registrant or his employing firm to any person other than the client who
secured the services of the licensee without the client's prior written
consent. Provision of information in response to official requests from
law-enforcement agencies, the courts, or the department shall not constitute a
violation of this chapter. Provision of information to law-enforcement agencies
pertinent to criminal activity or to planned criminal activity shall not
constitute a violation of this chapter.
23. 24. Not engage in acts of unprofessional
conduct in the practice of private security services.
24. 25. Not engage in acts of negligent or
incompetent private security services.
25. 26. Not make any misrepresentation or make a
false promise to a private security services business client or potential
private security services business client.
26. 27. Satisfy all judgments to include binding
arbitrations related to private security services not provided.
27. 28. Not provide false or misleading
information to representatives of the department.
28. 29. Not provide materially incorrect,
misleading, incomplete, or untrue information on a registration application,
renewal application, or any other document filed with the department.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4548; Filed January 19, 2017, 2:23 p.m.
TITLE 6. CRIMINAL JUSTICE AND CORRECTIONS
CRIMINAL JUSTICE SERVICES BOARD
Proposed Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 6VAC20-172. Regulations
Relating to Private Security Services Businesses (amending 6VAC20-172-10, 6VAC20-172-40,
6VAC20-172-50, 6VAC20-172-80).
6VAC20-174. Regulations Relating to Private Security
Services Registered Personnel (amending 6VAC20-174-10, 6VAC20-174-150).
Statutory Authority: § 9.1-141 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: April 21, 2017.
Agency Contact: Barbara Peterson-Wilson, Law Enforcement
Program Coordinator, Department of Criminal Justice Services, 1100 Bank Street,
Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 225-4503, FAX (804) 786-0410, or email
barbara.peterson-wilson@dcjs.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section § 9.1-102 of the Code of Virginia
authorizes the Department of Criminal Justice Services (DCJS) and the Criminal
Justice Services Board (CJSB) to adopt regulations for administration of
Chapter 1 (§ 9.1-100 et seq.) of Title 9.1 of the Code of Virginia, and § 9.1-141
of the Code of Virginia authorizes the board to adopt regulations establishing
compulsory minimum, entry-level, in-service, and advanced training standards
for persons employed by private security services businesses in classifications
defined in § 9.1-138 of the Code of Virginia. In addition, § 9.1-144 of the
Code of Virginia requires bond or insurance for private security services,
personal protection specialists, and private investigators.
Purpose: Chapter 202 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly
permits a licensed private security services business to hire as an independent
contractor a personal protection specialist or private investigator. The
legislation requires every personal protection specialist and private
investigator hired as an independent contractor by a licensed private security
services business to maintain comprehensive liability insurance in an amount to
be determined by DCJS.
Although 6VAC20-172 and 6VAC20-174 do not address the
requirements for insurance for independent contractors, 6VAC20-172 currently
requires individuals obtaining a business license to provide documentation
verifying that a bond has been secured in the amount of $100,000 or a
certificate of insurance for comprehensive general liability insurance with a
minimum coverage of $100,000 per individual occurrence and $300,000 general
aggregate. The bond and insurance amounts identified in 6VAC20-172 have not
been reviewed since these regulations were first promulgated 15 years ago, and
the amounts do not reflect current industry standards or needs of private
security businesses and do not adequately protect the public.
Requiring personal protection specialists and private
investigators serving as independent contractors to maintain comprehensive
liability insurance protects the health, safety, and welfare of all parties
involved. Comprehensive liability insurance protects the public against
personal injury and property damage on the part of the personal protection
specialist or private investigator. Additionally the insurance protects the
personal protection specialist's and private investigator's personal assets up
to the covered amount.
During the December 1, 2015, meeting of the Private Security
Services Advisory Board (PSSAB), DCJS requested the PSSAB to recommend an
amount of comprehensive liability insurance that it felt was appropriate for
independent contractors and for private security businesses. The PSSAB informed
DCJS staff that they did not have enough information to determine an
appropriate figure. DCJS was asked to provide additional information regarding
the current amount of insurance held by private security businesses and agreed
to use staff from the research unit to conduct a random sample of the private
security businesses.
At the March 3, 2016, meeting, the PSSAB was presented with the
following results of the research:
Random sample. The DCJS Research Center selected a random
sample of private security businesses from all but two of the seven private
security businesses regulated by DJCS. The number of armored car and security
canine handling services businesses registered with DCJS is small therefore all
armored car and security canine handling services businesses were included. A
total for 400 businesses made up the final sample.
• Security officer (sample size N=78)
• Private investigation (N=82)
• Armored car (N=15)
• Security canine handling (N=15)
• Personal protection (N=52)
• Electronic security (N=86)
• Locksmith (N=72)
Current requirement. Private security business insurance
requirements per current regulation are (i) a surety bond in the amount of
$100,000 or comprehensive general liability insurance with a minimum coverage
of $100,000 per individual occurrence and (ii) $300,000 general aggregate.
Terminology:
Surety bonds are a financial guarantee of performance of a
specific action. A surety bond is not liability insurance.
Commercial general liability insurance protects a business from
financial loss resulting from claims of injury or damage caused to others by
the business. A comprehensive policy typically covers:
• Bodily injury – physical damage to a person other than an
employee of the business and injuries caused by the business at a client's home
or work place.
• Personal injury – libel, slander, copyright infringement,
invasion of property or privacy, wrongful eviction, false arrest, and similar
acts that cause damage to a person's reputation or rights.
• Property damage – damage done to another person's property
by the business in the course of conducting business.
• Advertising injury – losses caused by the business's
advertising.
• Legal defense and judgments – costs to defend against real
and frivolous suits and judgments up to the limit of coverage. This generally
does not include punitive damages for negligence or willful misconduct.
A general aggregate insurance limit is the maximum amount of
money the insurer will pay out during a policy term. Once the general aggregate
limit has been exhausted, the insurer is under no obligation to cover further
losses in any of the categories covered under the general liability policy.
Current general liability insurance carried by private security
businesses:
• 99% (N=395) of businesses have a general liability insurance
limit that exceeds the $100,000 minimum.
• One business has a $100,000 surety bond in lieu of general
liability insurance.
• 93% (N=371) have a general liability limit of $1 million or
more (range $1 million to $10 million).
• Average general liability insurance limit: $1,160,250.
Current general aggregate insurance carried by private security
businesses:
• One business has a surety bond in lieu of aggregate liability
insurance
• 97% (N=389) of businesses have a general aggregate liability
limit that exceeds the $300,000 minimum.
• 93% (N=337) have an aggregate liability insurance limit of
$1 million or more (range $1 million to $10 million)
• Average general aggregate liability limit: $2,344,361.
At the conclusion of the presentation on March 3, 2016, the
PSSAB voted to approve the following recommendations:
1. Private security businesses shall be required to maintain
comprehensive liability insurance in the amount of $1 million in general
aggregate liability insurance.
2. Independent contractors working for private security
businesses shall be required to maintain comprehensive liability insurance in
an amount equal to the insurance requirements for private security businesses.
The PSSAB made these recommendations to the CJSB, as did DCJS.
March 24, 2016, the CJSB voted to approve the recommendations of the PSSAB.
Substance: The proposed amendments allow private
security services businesses licensed by DCJS to independently contract with
private investigators and personal protection specialists registered with DCJS.
Additionally, the language will require that every registered personal
protection specialist and private investigator hired as an independent
contractor maintain $1 million in general aggregate liability insurance and
provide evidence of such insurance to the private security services business
with which they are contracting. Private security businesses will be required
to secure a surety bond in the amount of $1 million or maintain $1 million in
general aggregate liability insurance.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public is ensuring
an increased opportunity for civil recourse in the event that an individual is
harmed as a result of interacting with private security businesses or private
investigators and personal protection specialist that are independent
contractors.
There are no significant advantages or disadvantages to the
majority of private security businesses in Virginia. The research conducted by
DCJS indicated that 93% of the private security businesses already carry
general aggregate liability insurance in an amount greater than $1 million, the
amount identified in the proposed regulatory action.
The primary advantage to private security businesses not
currently carrying $1 million or more in general aggregate liability insurance
and future private investigators and personal protection specialists who are
independent contractors is increased liability protection against financial
loss resulting from claims of injury or damage caused to the public. The
primary disadvantage to a small percentage of private security businesses will
be an increase in the cost of insurance.
The primary advantage to individuals wishing to work as
independent contractors will be the ability to work in this capacity once the
insurance requirements are addressed in the regulations using the standard
three-stage regulatory process. The disadvantage is that completing the
standard three-stage process to amend a regulation is a slow process that can
take one to two years. Individuals are not able to work as independent
contractors until the regulation is finalized and becomes effective.
There are no disadvantages to the general public, agency, or
the Commonwealth.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Criminal
Justice Services Board (Board) proposes to amend its regulations that govern
private security businesses and their registered personnel to a) allow such
businesses to hire registered personal protection specialists and private
investigators as private contractors, b) set the amount of general liability
insurance that private investigators and personal security specialists who are
acting as private contractors are required to have and maintain at $1,000,000
and c) require that private security businesses maintain a minimum general
liability insurance, or surety bond, limit of $1,000,000. The first two of
these changes emanate from Chapter 202 of the 2015 Acts of the Assembly.1
Result of Analysis. Benefits likely outweigh costs for one
proposed change. There is insufficient information to ascertain whether
benefits will outweigh costs for other proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. In 2015, the General Assembly passed
a bill which allows private security services firms to hire private
investigators and personal protection specialists who are registered with the
Department of Criminal Justice Services (DCJS) as private contractors. This
legislation also stipulates that such private contractors maintain general
liability insurance in an amount to be set by DCJS and that they present proof
of insurance to the businesses with whom they contract. In response to this
legislation, the Board now proposes to amend these regulations so to allow
private security services businesses to privately contract with registered
private investigators and personal security specialists so long as these
individuals have at least $1,000,000 in general liability insurance and the
private security businesses contracting with them document that such insurance
has been obtained. Currently, registered private investigators and personal
security specialists would only have insurance if they were also licensed by
DCJS as private security services businesses.
The insurance limits for such businesses are currently set at
$100,000 per incident and $300,000 aggregate (lifetime). Alternately, these
businesses can choose to have a surety bond in the amount of $100,000. Private
investigators and personal protection specialists who are currently licensed as
private security services businesses and who choose to have a surety bond would
not be able to increase the amount of that surety bond to $1,000,000 and use it
to meet the insurance requirement to be a private contractor. As mandated by
the General Assembly, they would have to instead obtain general liability
insurance in the amount required by DCJS. Private investigators and personal
protection specialists who are licensed as businesses with DCJS and have
insurance would incur costs to raise their insurance limits to one million
dollars (if they do not already have insurance that meets or exceeds that
limit).
Private investigators and personal protection specialists who
are not licensed as private security services businesses would newly be subject
to an insurance requirement2 and so would have to obtain $1,000,000
in aggregate general liability insurance. Board staff reports that the required
insurance in the amount of $1,000,000 costs approximately $500 to $695 per
year. Private investigators and personal protection specialist who would have
to pay for this insurance would likely only choose to contract with private
security services businesses if they expected the revenues from doing so to
exceed their costs including insurance. Therefore, benefits will likely outweigh
costs for allowing private security services businesses to hire private
investigators and personal security specialists as private contractors.
As stated above, private security services businesses are
currently required to have either a surety bond in the amount of $100,000 or
general liability insurance with limits of $100,000 per incident and $300,000
aggregate. DCJS's research division sampled 400 of the 1,804 private security
businesses they license and found that 99% of the businesses sampled had more
than $100,000 worth of insurance and 93% had insurance limits at or greater
than $1,000,000. The Board now proposes to increase the amount of insurance or
surety bonding that licensed private security services businesses must have to
at least $1,000,000. Board staff reports that this change is being proposed
because most firms already have insurance in at least this amount. Board staff
further reports that there have not been any incidences reported that would
indicate that currently required insurance limits are inadequate.
Board staff estimates that the costs for $1,000,000 of general
liability insurance would likely range between $500 and $695 per year. Assuming
that DCJS's survey is representative of the entire population of private
security services firms, about seven percent of firms licensed (about 126
firms) would incur additional costs for insurance equal to the cost for
$1,000,000 of insurance minus their current insurance costs. One licensee who
currently holds a surety bond estimates that increasing his bond from $100,000
to $1,000,000 will increase his costs for bonding from $323 per year to $1,200
per year.3 There is no information to measure the possible benefits
of requiring greater insurance limits, so there is insufficient information to
ascertain whether those benefits would outweigh the estimated costs.
Businesses and Entities Affected. These proposed regulatory
changes will affect all private security services businesses, including private
investigators and personal protection specialists who are licensed as private
security services businesses. Board staff reports that there are 1,804 private
security businesses licensed by the DCJS. Board staff further reports that
there are currently 1,805 private investigators and 522 personal protection
specialists registered with the DCJS.
Localities Particularly Affected. No localities will be
particularly affected by these proposed regulatory changes.
Projected Impact on Employment. These proposed regulatory
changes may lead to private investigators and personal protection specialists
being hired by private security services businesses as private contractors.
This may not affect total employment as private contracting will likely serve
as a substitute for other types of employment in these businesses. Higher
insurance costs may affect whether marginally profitable private security
services businesses choose to remain licensed.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. These
proposed regulatory changes are unlikely to affect the use or value of private
property in the Commonwealth.
Real Estate Development Costs. These proposed regulatory
changes are unlikely to affect real estate development costs in the
Commonwealth.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. Small business private security
services firms, including private investigators and personal protection
specialists, who do not already maintain liability insurance of at least
$1,000,000 will incur costs for increasing their insurance limits to that level.
Board staff estimates, from a sample of 400 businesses, that 93% of private
security services firms already have insurance that exceeds the proposed limit.
Assuming that sample is representative, seven percent of the 1,804 private
security firms licensed by the DCJS (about 126 firms) will incur additional
costs for insurance. The additional costs incurred will equal the cost of the
new, higher, limit for insurance minus the cost of these businesses' current
insurance of less than $1,000,000.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. Since raising
the insurance limits for private security services firms is a discretionary
change based on information about what insurance these firms on average have,
rather than what limits are minimally necessary to protect health and safety in
the Commonwealth, the Board might further minimize additional costs by lowering
the proposed insurance limits or leaving required insurance at current levels.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. Private security services firms, including private
investigators and personal protection specialists, that do not already maintain
liability insurance of at least $1,000,000 will incur costs for increasing
their insurance limits to that level. Board staff estimates, from a sample of
400 businesses, that 93% of private security services firms already have
insurance that exceeds the proposed limit. Assuming that sample is
representative, seven percent of the 1,804 private security firms licensed by
the DCJS (about 126 firms) will incur additional costs for insurance. The
additional costs incurred will equal the cost of the new, higher, limit for
insurance minus the cost of these businesses' current insurance of less than
$1,000,000.
Localities. Localities in the Commonwealth are unlikely to see
any adverse impacts on account of these proposed regulatory changes.
Other Entities. No other entities are likely to be adversely
affected by these proposed changes.
___________________________
1 http://leg1.state.va.us/cgi-bin/legp504.exe?151+ful+CHAP0202
2 Chapter 202 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly requires that
these individuals have general liability insurance "in a reasonable amount
to be fixed by the Department." The amount of insurance that is proposed
by DCJS is $1,000,000.
3 From Board research findings, it appears that very few
licensees (likely less than five statewide) choose to carry a surety bond
rather than insurance. While the cost increases for increasing surety bonds is
likely much higher, it would affect far fewer businesses.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
Department of Criminal Justice Services respectfully disagrees with several
statements and conclusions contained within the economic impact analysis (EIA)
drafted by the Department of Planning and Budget (DPB).
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation.
Chapter 202 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly authorizes private
investigators and personal protection specialists to work as independent
contractors provided they maintain a general liability insurance policy, in an
amount determined by DCJS.1
Independent of this new statutory change, the Code of Virginia
authorizes private security service businesses to be licensed provided they
maintain a general liability policy or surety or cash bond, in an amount to be
determined by the Board.
Result of Analysis.
The EIA concludes that allowing private security businesses to
hire registered personal protection specialists and private investigators as
independent contractors will likely result in benefits outweighing potential
costs. DCJS agrees with this conclusion as it is reasonable to expect that
parties will only engage in independent contracts when it is profitable.
The EIA also concludes that insufficient information exists to
ascertain whether the benefits outweigh the costs for (i) requiring registered
personal protection specialists and private investigators who want to work as
independent contractors to maintain a general liability insurance policy in the
amount of $1,000,000 and for (ii) requiring private security businesses to
maintain a minimum general liability insurance policy or bond in the amount of
$1,000,000. DCJS disagrees with these two conclusions.
The benefits of requiring $1,000,000 insurance for registered
personal protection specialists and private investigators and for private
security businesses: The General Assembly determined as early as 1976 that
insurance is a necessary component for private security businesses. In 1998,
the General Assembly enacted legislation requiring private security businesses
to obtain a bond or liability insurance at the initial point of being licensed
by DCJS. The General Assembly also added language specifically requiring the
business to maintain the bonds or liability insurance for the duration of their
licenses. By its very nature, insurance protects businesses from unforeseen
events and accidents. Private security businesses that have insurance are
shielded from potentially expensive claims and litigation costs. Insurance also
provides the public a resource to obtain compensation for losses caused by
businesses. The General Assembly also made the Criminal Justice Services Board
(CJSB) responsible for determining the appropriate amount and type of insurance
for private security businesses. The CJSB initially set the amount of insurance
at $100,000 more than 20 years ago. This amount had not been reviewed or
revised until 2015.
In addition to requiring private security businesses to have
insurance or bond, the General Assembly has also determined that a benefit and
need exists for certain professionals to have insurance in order to be licensed
by the state. The very nature of engaging in certain professions, such as
doctors, lawyers, and law enforcement, includes exposure to risk and liability.
The private security industry is no exception to risk exposure; in fact, the
type of work conducted by private security businesses presents increased risks
for their employees who are engaged in potentially dangerous activity and
situations while securing and protecting property. Many of these professionals
are licensed by DCJS to carry firearms in the performance of their duties. The
General Assembly relied on the same reasoning as it did for other professionals
when it authorized two types of private security professionals to act as
independent contractors in 2015, provided they have the appropriate insurance
coverage as determined by DCJS.
Given the General Assembly's directive to determine the amount
of insurance necessary for private investigators and personal protection
specialists to act as independent contractors, DCJS consulted with private
security and insurance professionals, engaged the Private Security Services
Advisory Board, and conducted evidence based research. DCJS staff spent a
significant amount of time with DPB staff explaining the process the agency
used to arrive at its decision.
DCJS utilized its Research Center to arrive at an informed,
educated conclusion regarding the appropriate amount of insurance necessary for
independent contractors and private security businesses. The Research Center is
managed by a professional with a PhD, and the data was developed and analyzed
using scientifically sound methods. Furthermore, the combined years of research
experience of the two staff who participated in this project is approximately
45 years.
The DCJS Research Center selected a random sample of 400
private security businesses regulated by DJCS. The sample size of 400 was
determined using a standard statistical formula to generate a sample size with
a 95% confidence interval. In other words, by using a sample size of 400
businesses, the sample is 95% accurate in representing the entire private
security business population. This standard statistical formula is widely used
in the scientific research field.
Security Officer (sample size N=78)
Private Investigation (N=82)
Armored Car (N=15)
Security Canine Handling (N=15)
Personal Protection (N=52)
Electronic Security (N=86)
Locksmith (N=72)
The statistical research demonstrates that 99% of the private
security businesses licensed by DCJS already have insurance policies that
exceed the current requirement of $100,000. In fact, 93% of these businesses
have a general liability policy of $1,000,000 or more. The average liability
amount for private security businesses is $1,160,250. This evidence suggests
that the private security business industry has already determined that
$100,000 is inadequate to meet their business needs and that $1,000,000
minimally meets that need. During this research process, it became clear to
DCJS that a $100,000 general liability insurance policy is woefully inadequate
to meet and protect the needs of private security businesses and the public at
large. It is insufficient for covering bodily injury, personal injury, property
damage, advertising injury, and legal defense and judgments.
After discussions with staff from DPB who suggested that DCJS
determine whether any claims have been filed against private security actors or
remained unpaid due to current insurance requirements, DCJS looked into the
matter. DCJS is not in a position to know whether any of its licensees have
been sued or whether insurance claims have been filed and paid because these
businesses are not required to report this type of data to DCJS. However, DCJS
is aware of a 2014 case (Pompey v. Palla) in which a jury returned an $8
million judgment against a security officer arising out of his excessive force
and wrongful arrest of a citizen of the Commonwealth. This case demonstrates
that lawsuits against private security actors can result in judgments exceeding
$1,000,000 and that $100,000 is not sufficient insurance coverage.
DCJS strongly disagrees with the following statement in the
EIA: "Board staff reports that this change is being proposed because most
firms already have insurance in at least this amount." This statement does
not accurately reflect the numerous and lengthy conversations that board staff
had with DPB. There is a statutory requirement to determine the amount of
general liability insurance for private investigators and personal protection
specialists. In the process of researching this issue, DCJS determined that the
original amount of insurance required for private security businesses had not
been reviewed or analyzed for approximately 20 years. DCJS would have been
remiss in its duties as the regulatory agency for private security businesses
had it not brought this issue before the board. DCJS regulates all private
security businesses and determining the insurance requirements for two specific
types without comprehensively researching this issue would have been
inappropriate and possibly viewed in the eyes of the law as negligent
supervision of regulatory duties. It would not be appropriate to set a general
amount of the liability insurance requirement for two types of professionals
that grossly exceeds the private security businesses' general liability
insurance requirements.
Furthermore, DCJS has determined that the cost to purchase a
general liability insurance policy that satisfies the current requirements
($100,000/$300,000 aggregate) is the same as the cost to purchase $1,000,000 in
coverage. DCJS's initial research indicates that it costs approximately $500 to
$695 per year for $1,000,000 of general liability insurance. Based on the
issuance of the amended EIA, DCJS worked with staff from the Virginia
Department of Treasury to determine the cost to purchase a $100,000/$300,000
aggregate general insurance policy, which ranges from $500 a year for low-risk
activity to $1,000 to $5,000 a year for higher risk activity. These estimates
have also been validated by professionals serving on the Private Security
Services Advisory Board who have previously communicated with the DCJS that it
cost the same to purchase $100,000 of coverage as it does $1,000,000. It is
important to note that the Private Security Services Advisory Board approved
the $1,000,000 insurance policy requirement for both independent contractors
and private security businesses. It is for these reasons that DCJS believes
that this regulatory action will have little to no fiscal impact on private
security businesses or individuals who want to work as independent contractors.
DPB staff suggested that DCJS provide data demonstrating the
number of legal judgments against private security businesses that were not
paid as a result of insufficient or no insurance. DCJS appreciates the value of
such data and will explore the possibility that private security businesses
should be required to report unpaid judgments to DCJS as a new regulatory
requirement.
Businesses and Entities Affected.
DCJS disagrees with DPB's conclusion that "all"
private security businesses are affected by the regulatory package. As
explained above, the research shows that 93% of security businesses already
carry $1,000,000 or more in general liability insurance. In other words, 93% of
the private security businesses will not be impacted. Furthermore, the impact
to the remaining businesses is minimal given the similarity in cost to purchase
insurance coverage of $100,000 or $1,000,000. Not all private investigators and
personal protection specialists will choose to engage in independent
contracting; not all private security businesses will choose to hire
independent contractors. These businesses, by virtue of their statutory definition,
already employ either or both private investigators or personal protection
specialists as part of their corporate structure.
Further, there is no requirement that registered personal
protection specialists and private investigators must engage in independent
contracting in order to find gainful employment. Acting as an independent
contractor is entirely discretionary on the part of an individual licensee and
not mandatory. All registered personal protection specialists and private
investigators must work for a licensed private security business in order to
engage in the activity providing those services. This new law will only impact
those professionals who wish to operate more like freelance employees, and
presumably those professionals will consider all the pros and cons, to include
financial costs and tax and other legal implications (independent contractors
are typically viewed as self-employed under federal tax laws; respondeat
superior relationship is not necessarily established when businesses contract
with independent contractors). DCJS does not know how many of the currently
registered personal protection specialists and private investigators wish to
engage in independent contracting, nor will it know this data once the
regulations become effective as there is no reporting requirement.
Costs and Other Effects.
DCJS also disagrees with the notion described in the EIA that
existing private investigators and personal protection specialists who
currently have business licenses and cash or surety bonds would be prohibited
from working as independent contractors unless they obtain general liability
insurance. Obtaining a private security business license entitles businesses to
engage in contractual agreements. In other words, private security businesses
already meet the statutory requirements regarding insurance, regardless of
whether they are operated by one person or 100 people, and can still conduct
business without having to switch from a bond to insurance.
Chapter 202 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly allows licensed
private security businesses to contract with individuals who are registered as
private investigators or personal protection specialists who are not licensed
as businesses. The law does not impact or prevent a private security business that
has general liability insurance from contracting with another private security
business that has a surety or cash bond.
DCJS staff takes issue with the figures reported by DPB staff
regarding the cost to obtain a surety bond. The EIA provides figures from one
licensee who currently maintains a surety bond. DPB has included this figure
referenced as an estimate but provides no information regarding the basis of
the estimate. The cost of a surety bond is calculated not only based on the
total amount of the bond but also the risk of the particular business and the
risk of the individual applicant attempting to obtain the bond. The EIA does
not state if the licensee consulted anyone to obtain the estimate nor does it
specify if this individual has any additional risk factors influencing the cost
of the bond. Additionally, board staff is concerned that the footnote included
by DPB is misleading as it references board research findings but is attached
to a statement that does not identify or reflect any research conducted by the
DCJS Research Center. At best, the surety cost estimate cited in the EIA is
spurious.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property.
DCJS believes that these regulatory changes will have
absolutely no impact on the use or value of private property in the
Commonwealth.
Alternative Methods that Minimizes Adverse Impact.
As stated, the cost to purchase a general liability insurance
policy is the same regardless of whether the policy provides $100,000 or
$1,000,000 in coverage.
The research conducted by the DCJS Research Center, the
information gathered by DCJS staff to compile the agency background document,
and the information in this response to the EIA supports the Governor's
initiative to use evidence-based decision making in determining public policy
that impacts public safety and citizens of the Commonwealth.
_______________________
1 For clarification, the statutory language uses the term
"independent contractor" not private contractor, which is cited in
the EIA. The term independent contractor has certain legal and tax
implications, to include recognition by the Internal Revenue Service as
self-employed.
Summary:
The proposed amendments (i) allow private security services
businesses licensed by the Department of Criminal Justice Services (DCJS) to
independently contract with private investigators and personal protection
specialists registered with DCJS, (ii) require that every registered personal
protection specialist and private investigator hired as an independent
contractor maintain $1 million in general aggregate liability insurance and
provide evidence of such insurance to the private security services business
with which they contract, and (iii) require that all private security
businesses secure a surety bond in the amount of $1 million or maintain $1
million in general aggregate liability insurance.
Part I
Definitions
6VAC20-172-10. Definitions.
In addition to the words and terms defined in § 9.1-138 of
the Code of Virginia, the following words and terms when used in this chapter
shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates
otherwise:
"Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40 (§
2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
"Board" means the Criminal Justice Services Board
or any successor board or agency.
"Date of hire" means the date any employee of a
private security services business or training school performs services
regulated or required to be regulated by the department.
"Department" or "DCJS" means the
Department of Criminal Justice Services or any successor agency.
"Director" means the chief administrative officer
of the department.
"Electronic images" means an acceptable method of
maintaining required documentation through the scanning, storage, and
maintenance of verifiable electronic copies of original documentation.
"Employee" means a natural person employed by a
licensee to perform private security services that are regulated by the
department.
"Firearms endorsement" means a method of regulation
that identifies an individual registered as a private security registrant and
has successfully completed the annual firearms training and has met the
requirements as set forth in 6VAC20-174.
"Firm" means a business entity, regardless of
method of organization, applying for an initial or renewal private security
services business license or private security services training school
certification.
"Incident" means an event that exceeds the normal
extent of one's duties.
"Independent contractor" means a self-employed
personal protection specialist or a private investigator who (i) maintains
comprehensive liability insurance in an amount fixed by the department, (ii)
has been issued a registration by the department, and (iii) enters into a
contract to perform work for a private security business licensed to provide
services within the Commonwealth.
"Intermediate weapon" means a tool not
fundamentally designed to cause deadly force with conventional use. This would
exclude all metal ammunition firearms or edged weapons. These weapons include
but are not limited to baton/collapsible baton, chemical irritants, electronic
restraining devices, projectiles, and other less lethal weapons as defined by
the department.
"Licensed firm" means a business entity, regardless
of method of organization, that holds a valid private security services
business license issued by the department.
"Licensee" means a licensed private security
services business.
"Official documentation" means personnel records;
Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty (DD214); copies of
business licenses indicating ownership; law-enforcement transcripts;
certificates of training completion; a signed letter provided directly by a
current or previous employer detailing dates of employment and job duties;
college transcripts; letters of commendation; private security services
registrations, certifications or licenses from other states; and other
employment, training, or experience verification documents. A resume is not
considered official documentation.
"On duty" means the time during which private
security services business personnel receive or are entitled to receive
compensation for employment for which a registration or certification is
required.
"Performance of his duties" means on duty in the
context of this chapter.
"Person" means any individual, group of
individuals, firm, company, corporation, partnership, business, trust,
association, or other legal entity.
"Physical address" means the location of the
building that houses a private security services business or training school or
the location where the individual principals of a business reside. A post
office box is not a physical address.
"Principal" means any sole proprietor, individual
listed as an officer or director with the Virginia State Corporation
Commission, board member of the association, or partner of a licensed firm or
applicant for licensure.
"Private security services business personnel"
means each employee of a private security services business who is employed as
an unarmed security officer, armed security officer/courier, armored car
personnel, security canine handler, detector canine handler, private
investigator, personal protection specialist, alarm respondent, a locksmith,
central station dispatcher, electronic security employee, an electronic
security sales representative, electronic security technician, or electronic
security technician's assistant.
"Reciprocity" means the relation existing between
Virginia and any other state, commonwealth, or province as established by
agreements approved by the board.
"Recognition" means the relation of accepting
various application requirements between Virginia and any other state,
commonwealth, or province as established by agreements approved by the board.
"Related field" means any field with training
requirements, job duties, and experience similar to those of the private
security services field in which the applicant wishes to be licensed,
certified, or registered. This term includes law enforcement and certain
categories of the military.
"This chapter" means the Regulations Relating to
Private Security Services Businesses (6VAC20-172).
Part IV
Business License Application Procedures; Administrative Requirements; Standards
of Conduct
6VAC20-172-40. Initial business license application.
A. Prior to the issuance of a private security services
business license, the applicant shall meet or exceed the requirements of
licensing and application submittal to the department as set forth in this
section.
B. Each person seeking a license shall file a completed
application provided by the department including:
1. For each principal and supervisor of the applying business
and for each electronic security employee of an electronic security services
business, his fingerprints pursuant to this chapter;
2. Documentation verifying that the applicant has secured a
surety bond in the amount of $100,000 $1 million executed by a
surety company authorized to do business in Virginia, or a certificate
of insurance reflecting the department as a certificate holder, and
showing a policy of comprehensive general liability insurance with a in
the minimum coverage amount of $100,000 per individual occurrence
and $300,000 $1 million of general aggregate liability insurance issued
by an insurance company authorized to do business in Virginia.
a. Every personal protection specialist and private
investigator who has been issued a registration by the department and is hired
as an independent contractor by a licensed private security services business
shall maintain comprehensive general liability insurance in the minimum
coverage amount of $1 million of general aggregate liability insurance; and
b. Documentation verifying the personal protection
specialist or private investigator has obtained the required insurance shall be
provided to the private security services business prior to the hiring of such
independent contractor;
3. For each nonresident applicant for a license, on a form
provided by the department, a completed irrevocable consent for the department
to serve as service agent for all actions filed in any court in this
Commonwealth;
4. For each applicant for a license except sole proprietor or
partnership, the identification number issued by the Virginia State Corporation
Commission for verification that the entity is authorized to conduct business
in the Commonwealth;
5. A physical address in Virginia where records required to be
maintained by the Code of Virginia and this chapter are kept and available for
inspection by the department. A post office box is not a physical address;
6. On the license application, designation of at least one
individual as compliance agent who is certified or eligible for certification;
7. The applicable, nonrefundable license application fee; and
8. Designation on the license application of the type of
private security business license the applicant is seeking. The initial
business license fee includes one category. A separate fee will be charged for
each additional category. The separate categories are identified as follows:
(i) security officers/couriers (armed and unarmed), (ii) private investigators,
(iii) electronic security personnel, (iv) armored car personnel, (v) personal
protection specialists, (vi) locksmiths, and (vii) detector canine handlers and
security canine handlers. Alarm respondents crossover into both the security
officer and electronic security category; therefore, if an applicant is
licensed in either of these categories, he can provide these services without
an additional category fee.
C. Upon completion of the initial license application
requirements, the department may issue an initial license for a period not to
exceed 24 months.
D. The department may issue a letter of temporary licensure
to businesses seeking licensure under § 9.1-139 of the Code of Virginia
for not more than 120 days while awaiting the results of the state and national
fingerprint search conducted on the principals and compliance agent of the
business, provided the applicant has met the necessary conditions and
requirements.
E. A new license is required whenever there is any change in
the ownership or type of organization of the licensed entity that results in
the creation of a new legal entity. Such changes include but are not limited
to:
1. Death of a sole proprietor;
2. Death or withdrawal of a general partner in a general
partnership or the managing partner in a limited partnership; and
3. Formation or dissolution of a corporation, a limited
liability company, or an association or any other business entity recognized
under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
F. Each license shall be issued to the legal business entity
named on the application, whether it is a sole proprietorship,
partnership, corporation, or other legal entity, and shall be valid only for
the legal entity named on the license. No license shall be assigned or
otherwise transferred to another legal entity.
G. Each licensee shall comply with all applicable
administrative requirements and standards of conduct and shall not engage in any
acts prohibited by applicable sections of the Code of Virginia and this
chapter.
H. Each licensee shall be a United States citizen or legal
resident alien of the United States.
6VAC20-172-50. Renewal business license application.
A. Applications for license renewal should be received by the
department at least 30 days prior to expiration. The department will provide a
renewal notification to the last known mailing address of the licensee.
However, if a renewal notification is not received by the licensee, it is the
responsibility of the licensee to ensure renewal requirements are filed with
the department. License renewal applications must be received by the department
and all license requirements must be completed prior to the expiration date or
shall be subject to all applicable, nonrefundable renewal fees plus
reinstatement fees. Outstanding fees or monetary penalties owed to DCJS must be
paid prior to issuance of said renewal.
B. Licenses will be renewed for a period not to exceed 24
months.
C. The department may renew a license when the following are
received by the department:
1. A properly completed renewal application;
2. Documentation verifying that the applicant has secured and
maintained a surety bond in the amount of $100,000 $1 million executed
by a surety company authorized to do business in Virginia, or a
certificate of insurance reflecting the department as a certificate holder,
and showing a policy of comprehensive general liability insurance with
a in the minimum coverage amount of $100,000 per
individual occurrence and $300,000 $1 million general aggregate
issued by an insurance company authorized to do business in Virginia.
a. Every personal protection specialist and private
investigator who has been issued a registration by the department and is hired
as an independent contractor by a licensed private security services business
shall maintain comprehensive general liability insurance in the minimum
coverage amount of $1 million of general aggregate liability insurance; and
b. Documentation verifying the personal protection
specialist or private investigator has obtained the required insurance shall be
provided to the private security services business prior to the hiring of such
independent contractor;
3. Fingerprint records for any new or additional principals
submitted to the department within 30 days of their hire date provided,
however, that any change in the ownership or type of organization of the
licensed entity has not resulted in the creation of a new legal entity;
4. On the application, designation of at least one compliance
agent who has satisfactorily completed all applicable training requirements;
5. The applicable, nonrefundable license renewal fee and
applicable category of service fees; and
6. On the first day of employment, each new and additional
supervisor's fingerprints submitted to the department pursuant to § 9.1-139 I
of the Code of Virginia.
D. Each business applying for a license renewal shall be in
good standing in every jurisdiction where licensed, registered, or certified in
a private security services or related field. This subsection shall not apply
to any probationary periods during which the individual is eligible to operate
under the license, registration, or certification.
E. Any renewal application received after the expiration date
of a license shall be subject to the requirements set forth by the
reinstatement provisions of this chapter.
F. On the renewal application the licensee must designate the
type of private security business license he wishes to renew. The fee will be
based upon the category or categories selected on the renewal application.
6VAC20-172-80. Business standards of conduct.
A licensee shall:
1. Conform to all requirements pursuant to the Code of
Virginia and this chapter.
2. Ensure that all employees regulated or required to be
regulated by the board conform to all application requirements, administrative
requirements, and standards of conduct pursuant to the Code of Virginia,
6VAC20-174, and this chapter.
3. Not direct any employee regulated or required to be
regulated by the board to engage in any acts prohibited by the Code of
Virginia, 6VAC20-174, and this chapter.
4. Employ individuals regulated or required to be regulated as
follows:
a. A licensee shall employ or otherwise utilize individuals
possessing a valid registration issued by the department showing the
registration categories required to perform duties requiring registration
pursuant to the Code of Virginia;
b. A licensee shall not allow individuals requiring
registration as armored car personnel, armed security officers/couriers, armed
alarm respondents with firearm endorsement, private investigators, personal
protection specialists, detector canine handlers, or security canine handlers
to perform private security services until such time as the individual has been
issued a registration by the department;
c. A licensee may employ individuals requiring registration as
an unarmed alarm respondent, a locksmith, a central station dispatcher, an
electronic security sales representative, an electronic security technician, an
unarmed armored car driver, an unarmed security officer, or an electronic
security technician's assistant for a period not to exceed 90 consecutive days
in any registered category listed in this subdivision 4 c while completing the
compulsory minimum training standards as set forth in 6VAC20-174 provided:
(1) The individual's fingerprint card has been submitted;
(2) The individual is not employed in excess of 120 days
without having been issued a registration from the department; and
(3) The individual did not fail to timely complete the
required training with a previous employer;
d. A licensee shall not employ any individual carrying or
having access to a firearm in the performance of his duties who has not
obtained a valid registration and firearms endorsement from the department; and
e. A licensee shall maintain appropriate documentation to
verify compliance with these requirements. A licensee shall maintain these
documents after employment is terminated for a period of not less than three
years.
5. Not contract or subcontract any private security services
in the Commonwealth of Virginia to a person not licensed by the department.
Verification of a contractor's or subcontractor's license issued by the
department shall be maintained for a period of not less than three years.
6. Enter into contracts with self-employed personal
protection specialists and private investigators to work as independent
contractors in accordance with § 9.1-144 of the Code of Virginia and require
documentation verifying the personal protection specialist or private
investigator has obtained the required insurance in accordance with
6VAC20-172-40 and 6VAC20-172-50 prior to the hiring of such independent
contractor.
6. 7. Ensure that the compliance agent conforms
to all applicable application requirements, administrative requirements, and
standards of conduct pursuant to the Code of Virginia and this chapter.
7. 8. Permit the department during regular
business hours to inspect, review, or copy those documents, electronic images,
business records, or training records that are required to be maintained by the
Code of Virginia and this chapter.
8. 9. Not violate or aid and abet others in
violating the provisions of Article 4 (§ 9.1-138 et seq.) of Chapter 1 of Title
9.1 of the Code of Virginia, 6VAC20-173, 6VAC20-174, or this chapter.
9. 10. Not commit any act or omission that
results in a private security license or registration being suspended, revoked,
or not renewed, or the licensee or registrant otherwise being disciplined in
any jurisdiction.
10. 11. Not have been convicted or found guilty
in any jurisdiction of the United States of any felony or a misdemeanor
involving moral turpitude, assault and battery, damage to real or personal
property, controlled substances or imitation controlled substances as defined
in Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 of the Code of
Virginia, prohibited sexual behavior as described in Article 7 (§ 18.2-61 et
seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 18.2 of the Code of Virginia, or firearms. Any plea
of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purpose of this
chapter. The record of conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to
be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted
shall be prima facie evidence of such guilt.
11. 12. Not obtain or aid and abet others to
obtain a license, license renewal, registration, registration renewal,
certification, certification renewal, or firearms endorsement through any fraud
or misrepresentation.
12. 13. Include the business license number
issued by the department on all business advertising materials pursuant to the
Code of Virginia. Business advertising materials containing information regarding
more than one licensee must contain the business license numbers of each
licensee identified.
13. 14. Not conduct a private security services
business in such a manner as to endanger the public health, safety, and
welfare.
14. 15. Not falsify or aid and abet others in
falsifying training records for the purpose of obtaining a license,
registration, or certification.
15. 16. Not represent as one's own a license
issued to another private security services business.
16. 17. When providing central station
monitoring services, attempt to verify the legitimacy of a burglar alarm
activation by calling the site of the alarm. If unable to make contact, call
one additional number provided by the alarm user who has the authority to
cancel the dispatch. This shall not apply if the alarm user has provided
written authorization requesting immediate or one-call dispatch to both his
local police department and his dealer of record. This shall not apply to
duress or hold-up alarms.
17. 18. Not perform any unlawful or negligent
act resulting in loss, injury, or death to any person.
18. 19. Utilize vehicles for private security
services using or displaying an amber flashing light only as specifically
authorized by § 46.2-1025 A 9 of the Code of Virginia.
19. 20. Not use or display the state seal of
Virginia or the seal of the Department of Criminal Justice Services, or any
portion thereof, or the seal of any political subdivision of the Commonwealth,
or any portion thereof, as a part of any logo, stationery, letter, training
document, business card, badge, patch, insignia, or other form of
identification or advertisement.
20. 21. Not provide information obtained by the
firm or its employees to any person other than the client who secured the
services of the licensee without the client's prior written consent. Provision
of information in response to official requests from law-enforcement agencies,
the courts, or the department shall not constitute a violation of this chapter.
Provision of information to law-enforcement agencies pertinent to criminal
activity or to planned criminal activity shall not constitute a violation of
this chapter.
21. 22. Not engage in acts of unprofessional
conduct in the practice of private security services.
22. 23. Not engage in acts of negligent or
incompetent private security services.
23. 24. Not make any misrepresentation or false
promise to a private security services business client or potential private
security services business client.
24. 25. Not violate any state or local
ordinance.
25. 26. Satisfy all judgments to include binding
arbitrations related to private security services not provided.
26. 27. Not publish or cause to be published any
material relating to private security services that contains an assertion,
representation, or statement of fact that is false, deceptive, or misleading.
27. 28. Not conduct private security business
under a fictitious or assumed name unless the name is on file with the
Department of Criminal Justice Services. This does not apply to a private
investigator conducting a "pretext," provided that the private
investigator does not state that he is representing a private security business
that does not exist or otherwise prohibited under federal law.
28. 29. Not act as or be an ostensible licensee
for undisclosed persons who do or will control directly or indirectly the
operations of the licensee's business.
29. 30. Not provide false or misleading
information to representatives of the department.
30. 31. Not provide materially incorrect,
misleading, incomplete, or untrue information on any email, application, or
other document filed with the department.
Part I
Definitions
6VAC20-174-10. Definitions.
In addition to the words and terms defined in § 9.1-138 of
the Code of Virginia, the following words and terms when used in this chapter
shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates
otherwise:
"Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40 (§
2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
"Board" means the Criminal Justice Services Board
or any successor board or agency.
"Business advertising material" means display
advertisements in telephone directories, on letterhead, on business cards, in
local newspaper advertising, and in contracts.
"Certified training school" means a training school
that is certified by the department for the specific purpose of training
private security services business personnel in at least one category of the
compulsory minimum training standards as set forth by the board.
"Class" means a block of instruction no less than
50 minutes in length on a particular subject.
"Classroom training" means instruction conducted in
person by an instructor to students in an organized manner utilizing a lesson
plan.
"Date of hire" means the date any employee of a
private security services business or training school performs services
regulated or required to be regulated by the department.
"Department" or "DCJS" means the
Department of Criminal Justice Services or any successor agency.
"Director" means the chief administrative officer
of the department.
"Electronic images" means an acceptable method of
maintaining required documentation through the scanning, storage, and
maintenance of verifiable electronic copies of original documentation.
"Employee" means a natural person employed by a
licensee to perform private security services that are regulated by the
department.
"End user" means any person who purchases or leases
electronic security equipment for use in that person's home or business.
"Entry-level training" means the compulsory initial
training for regulated categories and basic or intermediate firearms training standards
adopted by the board for private security services business personnel who are
either new registrants or failed to timely complete in-service training or
firearms retraining within the prescribed time period.
"Firearms endorsement" means a method of regulation
that identifies an individual registered as a private security registrant and
has successfully completed the annual firearms training and has met the
requirements as set forth in this chapter.
"Independent contractor" means a self-employed personal
protection specialist or a private investigator who (i) maintains comprehensive
liability insurance in an amount fixed by the department, (ii) has been issued
a registration by the department, and (iii) enters into a contract to perform
work for a private security business licensed to provide services within the
Commonwealth.
"In-service training requirement" means the
compulsory in-service training standards adopted by the Criminal Justice
Services Board for private security services business personnel.
"Intermediate weapon" means a tool not
fundamentally designed to cause deadly force with conventional use. This would
exclude all metal ammunition firearms or edged weapons. These weapons include
but are not limited to baton/collapsible baton, chemical irritants, electronic
restraining devices, projectiles, and other less lethal weapons as defined by
the department.
"Job-related training" means training specifically
related to the daily job functions of a given category of registration or
certification as defined in this chapter.
"Official documentation" means personnel records;
Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty (DD214); copies of
business licenses indicating ownership; law-enforcement transcripts;
certificates of training completion; a signed letter provided directly by a
current or previous employer detailing dates of employment and job duties;
college transcripts; letters of commendation; private security services
registrations, certifications, or licenses from other states; and other
employment, training, or experience verification documents. A resume is not
considered official documentation.
"On duty" means the time during which private
security services business personnel receive or are entitled to receive
compensation for employment for which a registration or certification is
required.
"Online training" means training approved by the
department and offered via the Internet or an Intranet for the purpose of
remote access on-demand or distance training that meets all requirements for
compulsory minimum training standards.
"Performance of his duties" means on duty in the
context of this chapter.
"Person" means any individual, group of
individuals, firm, company, corporation, partnership, business, trust,
association, or other legal entity.
"Private security services business personnel"
means each employee of a private security services business who is employed as
an unarmed security officer, armed security officer/courier, armored car
personnel, security canine handler, detector canine handler, private
investigator, personal protection specialist, alarm respondent, locksmith,
central station dispatcher, electronic security employee, electronic security
sales representative, electronic security technician, or electronic security
technician's assistant.
"Reciprocity" means the relation existing between
Virginia and any other state, commonwealth, or province as established by
agreements approved by the board.
"Recognition" means the relation of accepting
various application requirements between Virginia and any other state,
commonwealth, or province as established by agreements approved by the board.
"Related field" means any field with training
requirements, job duties, and experience similar to those of the private
security services field in which the applicant wishes to be licensed,
certified, or registered. This term includes law enforcement and certain
categories of the military.
"Session" means a group of classes comprising the
total hours of mandated compulsory minimum training standards in any of the
categories of licensure, registration, or certification in accordance with this
part and in accordance with §§ 9.1-150.2, 9.1-185.2 and 9.1-186.2 of the
Code of Virginia.
"This chapter" means the Regulations Relating to
Private Security Services Registered Personnel (6VAC20-174).
"Training certification" means verification of the
successful completion of any training requirement established in this chapter.
"Training requirement" means any entry-level,
in-service, or firearms training or retraining standard established in this
chapter.
"Training school director" means a natural person
designated by a principal of a certified private security services training
school to assure the compliance of the private security services training
school with all applicable requirements as provided in the Code of Virginia and
this chapter.
"Uniform" means any clothing with a badge, patch,
or lettering that clearly identifies persons to any observer as private
security services business personnel, not law-enforcement officers.
6VAC20-174-150. Standards of conduct.
A registrant shall:
1. Conform to all requirements pursuant to the Code of
Virginia and this chapter.
2. Not violate or aid and abet others in violating the
provisions of Article 4 (§ 9.1-138 et seq.) of Chapter 1 of Title 9.1 of the
Code of Virginia or this chapter.
3. Not commit any act or omission that results in a private
security license, registration, or certification being suspended, revoked, or
not renewed or the licensee, registrant, or certificate holder otherwise being
disciplined in any jurisdiction.
4. Not have been convicted or found guilty in any jurisdiction
of the United States of any felony or a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude,
assault and battery, damage to real or personal property, controlled substances
or imitation controlled substances as defined in Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et
seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 of the Code of Virginia, prohibited sexual
behavior as described in Article 7 (§ 18.2-61 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title
18.2 of the Code of Virginia, or firearms. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be
considered a conviction for the purpose of this chapter. The record of
conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in
evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be prima
facie evidence of such guilt.
5. Not obtain a license, license renewal, registration,
registration renewal, certification, or certification renewal through any fraud
or misrepresentation.
6. Not solicit or contract to provide any private security
services without first having obtained a private security services business
license with the department.
7. Maintain comprehensive general liability insurance in
the minimum amount of $1 million in general aggregate liability insurance when
the registrant:
a. Is self employed;
b. Is a personal protection specialist or private
investigator; and
c. Has entered into a contract with a licensed private
security business to work as an independent contractor.
7. 8. Carry a valid registration card or valid
temporary registration letter at all times while on duty. Individuals requiring
registration as an unarmed security officer, an alarm respondent, a locksmith,
a central station dispatcher, an electronic security sales representative, or
an electronic security technician may be employed for not more than 90
consecutive days in any category listed in this subdivision while completing
the compulsory minimum training standards and may not be employed in excess of
120 days without having been issued a registration or an exception from the department
and must carry a photo identification and authorization from their employer on
a form provided by the department at all times while on duty.
8. 9. Carry the private security state-issued
registration card at all times while on duty once the authorization has been
approved from the department, except those individuals operating outside the
Commonwealth of Virginia who shall obtain the state-issued registration card
prior to providing services when physically located in the Commonwealth.
9. 10. Perform those duties authorized by his
registration only while employed by a licensed private security services
business and only for the clients of the licensee. This shall not be construed
to prohibit an individual who is registered as an armed security officer from
being employed by a nonlicensee as provided for in § 9.1-140 of the Code of
Virginia.
10. 11. Possess a valid firearms training
endorsement if he carries or has access to firearms while on duty and then only
those firearms by type of action and caliber to which he has been trained on
and is qualified to carry. Carry or have access to a patrol rifle while on duty
only with the expressed written authorization of the licensed private security
services business employing the registrant.
11. 12. Carry a firearm concealed while on duty
only with the expressed written authorization of the licensed private security
services business employing the registrant and only in compliance with Article
6.1 (§ 18.2-307.1 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 of the Code of Virginia.
12. 13. Transport, carry, and utilize firearms
while on duty only in a manner that does not endanger the public health,
safety, and welfare.
13. 14. If authorized to make arrests, make
arrests in full compliance with the law and using only the minimum force
necessary to effect an arrest.
14. 15. Engage in no conduct that shall mislead
or misrepresent through word, deed, or appearance that a registrant is a
law-enforcement officer or other government official.
15. 16. Display one's registration or temporary
registration along with a photo identification while on duty in response to the
request of a law-enforcement officer, department personnel, or client.
Individuals providing private security services as authorized pursuant to
subdivision 7 8 of this section who have not received their
registration must display a state-issued photo identification and authorization
while on duty in response to the request of a law-enforcement officer,
department personnel, or a client.
16. 17. Not perform any unlawful or negligent
act resulting in a loss, injury, or death to any person.
17. 18. If a uniform is required, wear the
uniform required by his employer. If wearing a uniform while employed as an
armed security officer, unarmed security officer, alarm respondent, or armored
car personnel, that uniform must:
a. Include at least one insignia clearly identifying the name
of the licensed firm employing the individual and, except armored car
personnel, a nameplate or tape bearing, at a minimum, the individual's last
name attached on the outermost garment, except rainwear worn only to protect from
inclement weather; and
b. Include no patch or other writing (i) containing the word
"police" or any other word suggesting a law-enforcement officer; (ii)
containing the word "officer" unless used in conjunction with the
word "security"; or (iii) resembling any uniform patch or insignia of
any duly constituted law-enforcement agency of this Commonwealth, its political
subdivisions, or the federal government.
18. 19. When providing central station
monitoring services, attempt to verify the legitimacy of a burglar alarm
activation by calling the site of the alarm. If unable to make contact, call
one additional number provided by the alarm user who has the authority to
cancel the dispatch. This shall not apply if the alarm user has provided
written authorization requesting immediate dispatch or one-call dispatch to
both his local police department and his dealer of record. This shall not apply
to duress or hold-up alarms.
19. 20. Act only in such a manner that does not
endanger the public health, safety, and welfare.
20. 21. Not represent as one's own a
registration issued to another individual.
21. 22. Not falsify, or aid and abet others in
falsifying, training records for the purpose of obtaining a license,
registration, certification, or certification as a compliance agent, training
school, school director, or instructor.
22. 23. Not provide information obtained by the
registrant or his employing firm to any person other than the client who
secured the services of the licensee without the client's prior written
consent. Provision of information in response to official requests from
law-enforcement agencies, the courts, or the department shall not constitute a
violation of this chapter. Provision of information to law-enforcement agencies
pertinent to criminal activity or to planned criminal activity shall not
constitute a violation of this chapter.
23. 24. Not engage in acts of unprofessional
conduct in the practice of private security services.
24. 25. Not engage in acts of negligent or
incompetent private security services.
25. 26. Not make any misrepresentation or make a
false promise to a private security services business client or potential
private security services business client.
26. 27. Satisfy all judgments to include binding
arbitrations related to private security services not provided.
27. 28. Not provide false or misleading
information to representatives of the department.
28. 29. Not provide materially incorrect,
misleading, incomplete, or untrue information on a registration application,
renewal application, or any other document filed with the department.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4548; Filed January 19, 2017, 2:23 p.m.
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE COUNCIL OF HIGHER EDUCATION FOR VIRGINIA
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
State Council of Higher Education for Virginia is claiming an exemption from
Article 2 of the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006
A 4 a of the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations that are necessary to
conform to changes in Virginia statutory law where no agency discretion is
involved. The State Council of Higher Education for Virginia will receive,
consider, and respond to petitions by any interested person at any time with
respect to reconsideration or revision.
Title of Regulation: 8VAC40-20. Regulations for the
Senior Citizen Higher Education Program (amending 8VAC40-20-10, 8VAC40-20-60).
Statutory Authority: §§ 23.1-203 and 23.1-640 of the
Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: February 20, 2017.
Agency Contact: Melissa Wyatt, Senior Associate for
Financial Aid, State Council of Higher Education for Virginia, 101 North 14th
Street, 9th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 225-4113, FAX (804)
225-2604, or email melissacollumwyatt@schev.edu.
Summary:
The amendments update citations to reflect the
recodification of Title 23 to Title 23.1 of the Code of Virginia and conform an
introductory clause to Virginia Administrative Code style.
8VAC40-20-10. Definitions.
Section 23-38.55 of the Senior Citizens Higher Education
Act defines several words and terms. Unless otherwise noted, they shall have
the following meanings ascribed to them: The following words and terms
when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context
clearly indicates otherwise:
"Course" means any course of study offered in any
state institution of higher education including the regular curriculum of any
department, or school, or subdivision of any such institution or any special
course given for any purpose, including but not limited to, adult education.
"Full-time equivalent student (FTES)" means the
statistic used for budgetary purposes by the Commonwealth. It is derived by
calculating total credit hours generated by students at a particular level and
dividing that number by the number of credit hours generally considered a
full-time load at that level.
"Senior citizen" means any person who, before the
beginning of any term, semester or quarter in which such person claims
entitlement to the benefits of this chapter, (i) has reached 60 years of age,
and (ii) has had his legal domicile in this Commonwealth for one year.
"Senior Citizens Higher Education Act" is set forth
in Chapter 4.5 (§ 23-38.54 et seq.) of Title 23 Article 7 (§ 23.1-639
et seq.) of Chapter 6 of Title 23.1 of the Code of Virginia.
8VAC40-20-60. Notification to senior citizens.
As required in § 23-38.59 § 23.1-641 of the
Code of Virginia, each state-supported institution shall prominently include in
its catalogue a statement of the benefits available to senior citizens under
this program.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4846; Filed January 30, 2017, 10:03 a.m.
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE COUNCIL OF HIGHER EDUCATION FOR VIRGINIA
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
State Council of Higher Education for Virginia is claiming an exemption from
Article 2 of the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006 A
4 a of the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations that are necessary to
conform to changes in Virginia statutory law where no agency discretion is
involved. The State Council of Higher Education for Virginia will receive,
consider, and respond to petitions by any interested person at any time with
respect to reconsideration or revision.
Title of Regulation: 8VAC40-71. Virginia Tuition
Assistance Grant Program Regulations (amending 8VAC40-71-10, 8VAC40-71-40,
8VAC40-71-50).
Statutory Authority: § 23.1-629 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: February 20, 2017.
Agency Contact: Lee Ann Rung, Manager, Executive and
Council Affairs, State Council of Higher Education for Virginia, James Monroe
Building, 101 North 14th Street, 9th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804)
225-2602, FAX (804) 371-7911, or email leeannrung@schev.edu.
Summary:
The amendments update citations to reflect the
recodification of Title 23 to Title 23.1 of the Code of Virginia.
8VAC40-71-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Academic year" means the enrollment period that
normally extends from late August to May or early June and that is normally
comprised of two semesters 15 to 16 weeks in length or three quarters 10 to 11
weeks in length.
"Accredited" means approved to confer degrees
pursuant to the provisions of Chapter 21.1 (§ 23-276.1 et seq.) of Title 23
Article 3 (§ 23.1-213 et seq.) of Chapter 2 of Title 23.1 of the Code of
Virginia and requirements of the annual appropriation act, as the same are now
constituted or hereafter amended. Unless otherwise provided by law, an
institution must be accredited by a nationally recognized regional accrediting
agency prior to participation in the program.
"Award" means a grant of Virginia Tuition
Assistance Grant Program funds given during fall and spring terms at semester institutions
and fall, winter, and spring terms at quarter institutions.
"Census date" means the time during a term when a
count of enrolled students is made for reporting purposes. For all standard
terms, the census date shall be the end of the program add/drop period. For
nonstandard terms, the census date shall be determined by council on a program
by program basis.
"Cost of attendance" means the sum of tuition,
fees, room, board, books, supplies, and other education-related expenses, as
determined by an eligible institution for purposes of calculating a student's
financial need and awarding federal student aid funds.
"Council" means the State Council of Higher
Education for Virginia or its designated staff.
"Domiciliary resident" means a student who is
determined by the enrolling institution to be a domiciliary resident of
Virginia or deemed as domiciled as specified by § 23-7.4 § 23.1-502
of the Code of Virginia and the council's guidelines for domiciliary status
determinations. In cases where there are disputes between students and the
enrolling institutions, the council shall make the final determinations (see
8VAC40-71-40 E).
"Eligible institution" means private nonprofit
institutions of collegiate education in the Commonwealth whose primary purpose
is to provide collegiate, graduate, or professional education and not to
provide religious training or theological education. Eligible institutions not
admitted to this program before January 1, 2011, shall also:
1. Be formed, chartered, established, or incorporated within
the Commonwealth;
2. Have their principal place of business within the
Commonwealth;
3. Conduct their primary educational activity within the
Commonwealth;
4. Be accredited by a nationally recognized regional
accrediting agency; and
5. Comply with applicable reporting requirements as:
a. Found in the Code of Virginia or supporting administrative
code for institutions operating in Virginia or participating in state financial
aid programs; or
b. Identified by the council as necessary for the
administration of the program.
"Eligible program" means a curriculum of courses at
the undergraduate, graduate, or first professional level for those institutions
eligible under the definition of eligible institution. For those institutions
chartered under an act of Congress and admitted to this program prior to
January 1, 2011, only a curriculum of courses offered at a campus located in
the Commonwealth are eligible programs.
1. Undergraduate programs are those programs that lead to an
associate's or baccalaureate degree and that require at least two academic
years (minimum 60 semester hours or its equivalent in quarter hours) to
complete or an undergraduate teacher certification program.
2. Graduate programs are those programs leading to a degree
higher in level than the baccalaureate degree and that require at least one
academic year (minimum 30 semester hours or its equivalent in quarter hours) to
complete. Only graduate programs in a health-related professional program
classified in the National Center for Education Statistics' Classification of
Instructional Programs (CIP) Code 51-series programs are eligible graduate
programs.
3. First-professional programs are those post-undergraduate
programs leading to a degree in dentistry, medicine, veterinary medicine, or
pharmacy. Only professional programs in a health-related professional program
classified as CIP Code 51-series programs are eligible first-professional
programs.
4. Programs that provide religious training or theological
education, classified as CIP Code 39-series programs, are not eligible
programs.
5. Students enrolled in a declared double-major that includes
an ineligible degree program may receive an award only for those terms in which
the student's enrollment includes an equal or greater number of courses
required for an eligible major or concentration than the number of courses
enrolled for an ineligible major or concentration (excludes general education
or elective courses). Exceptions may be made by council based on circumstances
beyond the control of the student.
"First-professional student" means a student
enrolled and program placed in any of the following post-undergraduate
programs: dentistry, medicine, veterinary medicine, or pharmacy.
"Fiscal year" means the period extending from July
1 to June 30.
"Formed, chartered, established, or incorporated within
the Commonwealth" means the institution is, and continues to be,
recognized as a domestic or in-state institution under the council's
certification to operate in Virginia and under state law.
"Full-time student" means a student who is enrolled
for at least 12 credit hours per semester or its equivalent in quarter hours at
the undergraduate level or nine credit hours per semester or its equivalent in
quarter hours at the graduate or first-professional level. The total hours
counted do not include courses taken for audit, but may include required
developmental, remedial, or prerequisite courses and other elective for-credit
courses that normally are not counted toward a degree at the institution. For
students enrolled in:
1. Nonstandard terms: the full-time enrollment requirement, as
approved by council, will be proportionate based on the length of the terms,
the number of contact hours, or other measures of comparability with the
institution's normal academic year.
2. Concurrent undergraduate, graduate, or first-professional
courses: the full-time enrollment requirement may be met by a combination of
the total credit hours, providing that the combination totals at least the
minimum credit hours for full-time status, as described above, for the
student's institutionally recognized student level.
3. Programs leading to a doctoral degree: the full-time
enrollment requirement may be met by enrollment in nine credit hours per
semester or its equivalent in quarter hours or the minimum full-time enrollment
as defined by the institution, whichever is less.
"Graduate student" means a student enrolled and
program-placed in a master's or doctoral program.
"Nonprofit institution" means an educational
institution operated by one or more nonprofit corporations, and said
institution's earnings are applied solely to the support of said institution
and its educational programs and activities.
"Nonstandard degree program" means a degree program
where the terms of the program do not conform to the standard terms of the
institution's academic year. Nonstandard programs must be approved by council
before students enrolled in the programs can receive awards.
"Participating eligible institution" means an
eligible institution that has been approved to participate in the program by
council.
"Principle place of business" means the single
state in which the natural persons who establish policy for the direction, control,
and coordination of the operations of the institution as a whole primarily
exercise that function considering the following factors:
1. The state in which the primary executive and administrative
offices of the institution are located. The primary executive and
administrative offices are those most often physically used in the performance
of the executive and administrative functions of the institution;
2. The state in which the principal office of the chief
executive officer of the institution is located. The principal office of the
chief executive officer is the location that is most often physically occupied
by the chief executive officer when in performance of official institution
duties;
3. The state in which the board of trustees or similar
governing person or persons of the institution conducts a majority of its
meetings; and
4. The state from which the overall operations of the
institution are directed in that the institution is not subject to control or
directives from an office, agency, or board located within another state.
"Program" means the Virginia Tuition Assistance
Grant Program.
"Term" means the fall semester or quarter, winter
quarter, or the spring semester or quarter.
"Undergraduate student" means a student in a
program leading to an associate's or baccalaureate degree or a student enrolled
in an undergraduate teacher certification program.
8VAC40-71-40. Student eligibility.
A. Receipt of application.
1. Applications submitted in person, by facsimile, or by other
electronic means, or postmarked by carrier mail by the applicable deadline
(July 31, September 14, and December 1) of the academic year may be deemed as
meeting the deadline.
2. If the deadline occurs on a weekend or nonbusiness day as
recognized by the institution or carrier, the application will be deemed as
meeting the respective deadline if the application is received by the
institution by the first business day following the deadline or postmarked by
carrier mail by the carrier's first business day following the deadline.
3. Students who submit an application to one institution but
enroll into another may still be considered to have met the respective deadline
if the initial institution can verify receipt of the application by the
deadline.
B. Priority for award. Because funds may not be sufficient to
award all eligible students, students are prioritized based on prior
eligibility (returning students) and date of application (new students). Below
are descriptions of the students in priority order for receiving an award.
Priority students will receive a full award before students in a subsequent
priority order.
1. Category 1 and 2 students receive priority for an award.
a. Category 1 students: returning students who received an
award in the previous fiscal year, including:
(1) Students returning to their original institution;
(2) Students transferring from another participating eligible
institution; and
(3) Students moving from one degree level to another within an
institution or from another participating eligible institution.
b. Category 2 students: students submitting a completed
program application by July 31 of the fiscal year who were:
(1) New and readmitted students who were not enrolled in the
previous fiscal year; or
(2) Returning students who met the domicile requirements in
the previous fiscal year but did not receive an award due to insufficient
funding (Category 3 and 4 students) or because they were not enrolled full time
or otherwise did not meet other award criteria.
2. Category 3 students will be considered for an award if
funds are available after Category 1 and 2 students are fully funded. Category
3 students are those who submit a completed application after July 31 but no
later than September 14, including:
a. New and readmitted students who were not enrolled in the
previous fiscal year; or
b. Students enrolled but who did not apply for an award in the
previous fiscal year.
3. Category 4 students will be considered for an award if
funds are available after Category 1, 2, and 3 students are fully funded.
a. Category 4 students are those who submit a completed
program application after September 14 but no later than December 1 of the
fiscal year and include new and readmitted students who were not enrolled in
the previous fiscal year.
b. Category 4 students receive spring term only awards.
4. Exceptions are made for students who break enrollment for
military purposes. Students reentering their degree program within one year of
completion of military responsibilities shall be granted priority, along with
Category 1 students. This exception is for priority purposes only as the
student still must meet all eligibility criteria.
C. Eligibility criteria. In
order to be eligible to receive an award, the student must:
1. Be a domiciliary resident of Virginia, as defined by § 23-7.4
§ 23.1-502 of the Code of Virginia, for at least one year prior to the
date of entitlement (first day of classes for the program in which the student
is enrolled) or eligible under § 23-7.4 E § 23.1-505 of the
Code of Virginia.
2. Enroll in the academic year for which the award is to be
received as a full-time student in an eligible program at a participating
eligible institution.
a. A student's enrollment status shall be determined at the
census date. If a student falls below full time by dropping or withdrawing from
individual courses or withdraws from the institution after the census date, he
shall receive a prorated award based on the tuition refund policy in effect at
the institution.
b. A graduating student enrolled less than full time for a
term in his final academic year may be eligible to receive an award if:
(1) The student was enrolled full time and accepted for or
received an award in the immediate preceding academic year;
(2) The course credits available in the current term needed to
complete degree requirements total less than a full-time course load; and
(3) The maximum number of years of eligibility has not been
exceeded.
c. Exceptions to the full-time requirement due to a documented
disability or other medical reasons, as applicable under the federal American's
with Disabilities Act, will be considered on a case-by-case basis.
3. Have complied with federal selective service registration
requirements unless the following apply:
a. The requirement to register has terminated or become
inapplicable to the person; and
b. The person shows by preponderance of the evidence that
failure to register was not a knowing and willful failure to register.
4. Complete and submit an application for an award by the
published deadline.
5. Not participate in the Virginia Women's Institute for
Leadership at Mary Baldwin College.
D. Limitations on awards. For administrative purposes, each
academic year shall be comprised of six units of program eligibility;
accordingly, a semester is equivalent to three units and a quarter is
equivalent to two units.
1. If a student receives a partial payment for a semester or
quarter, the student's total eligibility shall be reduced by one semester
(three units) or quarter (two units).
2. Undergraduate students:
a. Students pursuing an associate's degree shall be limited to
a maximum of two academic years (12 units), or its equivalent, of support.
b. Students pursuing degrees at the undergraduate level shall
be limited to a combined life-time maximum of four academic years (24 units),
or its equivalent, of support, inclusive of enrollment in any combination of
associate's or baccalaureate degrees.
c. Students enrolled in teacher certification programs at the
undergraduate level may receive awards if the student is enrolled full time and
has not exhausted eligibility.
3. Post-undergraduate students:
a. Students pursuing degrees at the graduate level shall be
limited to a combined life-time maximum of three academic years (18 units), or
its equivalent, of support.
b. Students pursuing degrees at the first-professional level
shall be limited to a life-time maximum of three academic years (18 units), or
its equivalent, of support, except for students pursuing medical or pharmacy
degrees who are limited to four academic years (24 units), or its equivalent,
of support.
c. In no case should any combination of post-undergraduate
programs exceed four years of support.
4. A student enrolled at multiple institutions may receive an
award if:
a. The home institution is an eligible institution;
b. A formal consortium agreement is in place; and
c. The student's combined enrollment is full time.
If the consortium agreement includes a Virginia public
institution, the award will be prorated based on the courses for the term not
attempted at the Virginia public institution as a percentage of minimum
full-time enrollment.
5. A student may receive an award under a study abroad program
if:
a. The student is enrolled full time;
b. The student remains on record as an enrolled student in an
otherwise eligible program at a participating eligible institution for the term
in which the award is received;
c. The program funds are disbursed to the participating
eligible institution; and
d. The overseas program is a formal agreement arranged by the
participating eligible institution.
E. Appeals process.
1. The participating institution makes the student's initial
eligibility determination. If the institution determines that the student does
not meet the domicile requirements, the institution must notify the student in
writing of the outcome and the availability of the appeals process.
2. Council shall make final decisions on domicile eligibility
disputes between students and the enrolling institutions. The appeal process
for resolving eligibility disputes shall consist of a review of the
institution's initial determination by a council staff member. Further student
appeals are subject to a final review by a committee comprised of three council
staff members. No person who serves at one level of the appeals process shall
be eligible to serve at any other level of review. Timing for completion of the
review is heavily dependent upon the response time to staff information
requests for both the student and the institution, but typically council staff
will respond within two weeks.
3. Student appeals must be filed in writing with the council
within 30 days of the institution's written notification. If the outcome of the
appeal upholds the institution's initial determination, the student may file a
final appeal within 30 days of the council's written notification.
4. The appeals process is contained in this subsection and
available to the institutions and students online or in print upon request.
8VAC40-71-50. Award amount.
A. Maximum annual award.
1. Section 23-38.14 23.1-630 of the Code of
Virginia specifies that no annual award shall exceed the annual average appropriation
per full-time equivalent student for the previous year from the general fund
for operating costs at two-year and four-year public institutions of collegiate
education in Virginia.
2. Council determines the amount of the annual award based on
the number of eligible students and available funds. In no event shall the
actual annual award amount exceed the maximum limit set forth in the annual
appropriation act or in § 23-38.14 § 23.1-630 of the Code of
Virginia.
B. An award received by a student under the program shall not
be reduced by the institution unless:
1. Council authorizes a uniform reduction of the award for all
students because it is determined that the number of priority students
multiplied by the projected annual award amount exceeds available funds.
2. The award, when combined with all other financial
assistance from any source, including, but not limited to, a scholarship,
grant, tuition waiver, veteran benefits, or employer reimbursement, exceeds the
estimated cost of attendance at the institution the student attends.
3. The student is enrolled less than the minimum credit hours
as defined under "full-time student" but falls under one of the
following exceptions:
a. The individual student falls under the enrollment
provisions listed under 8VAC40-71-40 C 2; or
b. The student is a doctoral student taking less than 9 credit
hours but declared full-time via institutional policy.
4. In such cases as described in this subsection, the student
would receive an award prorated on a percentage basis based on the student's
actual tuition charges as compared to the tuition typically charged by the
institution to a full-time student.
C. When a reduced award is appropriate, all awards should be
rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
D. For purposes of calculating federal Chapter 33 (Post-9/11
GI Bill) veteran's benefits, this award is not considered to be solely for the
purpose of defraying tuition and fees.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4847; Filed January 30, 2017, 10:04 a.m.
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE COUNCIL OF HIGHER EDUCATION FOR VIRGINIA
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
State Council of Higher Education for Virginia is claiming an exemption from
Article 2 of the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006
A 4 a of the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations that are necessary to
conform to changes in Virginia statutory law where no agency discretion is
involved. The State Council of Higher Education for Virginia will receive,
consider, and respond to petitions by any interested person at any time with
respect to reconsideration or revision.
Title of Regulation: 8VAC40-131. Virginia Student
Financial Assistance Program Regulations (amending 8VAC40-131-10, 8VAC40-131-30,
8VAC40-131-50, 8VAC40-131-80, 8VAC40-131-110, 8VAC40-131-120, 8VAC40-131-230).
Statutory Authority: § 23.1-636 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: February 20, 2017.
Agency Contact: Lee Ann Rung, Manager, Executive and
Council Affairs, State Council of Higher Education for Virginia, James Monroe
Building, 101 North 14th Street, 9th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804)
225-2602, FAX (804) 371-7911, or email leeannrung@schev.edu.
Summary:
The amendments update citations to reflect the
recodification of Title 23 to Title 23.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Part I
Definitions
8VAC40-131-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Academic period" or "semester" means a
division of an academic year approximately 15 to 16 weeks in length from the
first day of classes through the last day of exams for the fall or spring
enrollment periods.
"Academic year" or "regular session"
means a division of an award year that normally extends from late August to mid
May, consists of the institution's fall and spring semesters, and is exclusive
of the institution's summer session.
"Approved program" means a curriculum of courses in
a certificate of undergraduate study, diploma, or degree program at the
undergraduate, graduate, or first professional level.
"Award" means a grant from state funds appropriated
within the item for student financial assistance in the annual Appropriation
Act under Virginia Guaranteed Assistance Program or Commonwealth grant
eligibility criteria.
"Award schedule" means the table or formula used by
institutions to award program funds to full-time students for the academic
year; awards for less than full-time students for the academic year shall be
reviewed and adjusted according to the institution's awarding policies.
"Award year" means the 12-month enrollment period
during which an institution holds classes, comprised of the regular session and
the summer session.
"Book allowance" means the cost of attendance
allowance for education-related book and supply expenses as determined by an
institution.
"Census date" means the point at which a student's
credit hour enrollment is locked for financial aid purposes. At this point in
the term, credit hours are locked and financial aid for the term is adjusted to
reflect the official number of enrolled credit hours.
"Commonwealth Award" means a grant from state funds
appropriated within the item for student financial assistance in the annual
Appropriation Act under Commonwealth grant eligibility criteria.
"Cost of attendance" means the sum of tuition,
required fees, room, board, books, supplies, and other education related
expenses, as determined by an institution for purposes of calculating a
student's financial need and awarding federal student aid funds.
"Council" means the State Council of Higher
Education for Virginia or its designated staff.
"Domicile Guidelines" means the Domicile Guidelines
of the State Council of Higher Education, dated October 15, 2009, and including
Addendum A, dated January 12, 2010, and Addendum B, dated October 15, 2009.
"Domiciliary resident of Virginia" means a student
who is determined by an institution to meet the eligibility requirements
specified by § 23-7.4 § 23.1-502 of the Code of Virginia and
augmented by the Domicile Guidelines.
"Expected family contribution" or "EFC"
means the amount a student and the student's family is expected to contribute
toward the cost of attendance. A student's EFC will be determined by the
federal aid need analysis method used for Title IV programs. The institution
may exercise professional judgment to adjust the student's EFC, as permitted
under federal law, based on factors that affect the family's ability to pay.
For students eligible for an award but ineligible to receive federal financial
aid, the institution shall calculate the student's EFC using the appropriate
federal EFC worksheet in cases where the federal processor has not calculated
the student's EFC.
"Financial need" means any positive difference between
a student's cost of attendance and the student's expected family contribution
(see definition of "remaining need").
"Full-time study" means enrollment for at least 12
credit hours per term or its equivalent at the undergraduate level and
enrollment for at least nine credit hours per term or its equivalent at the
graduate or first professional level. The total hours counted will not include
courses taken for audit, but may include required developmental or remedial
courses and other elective courses that normally are not counted toward a
degree at the institution. For students enrolled in a dual or concurrent
undergraduate and graduate program, full-time study may be met through a
combination of total credit hours, providing that the combination totals at
least the minimum credit hours for full-time status for the student's
institutionally recognized student level.
"Gift assistance" means financial aid in the form
of scholarships, grants, and other sources that do not require work or
repayment.
"Graduate student" means a student enrolled in an
approved master's, doctoral, or first professional degree program.
"Half-time study" means enrollment for at least six
credit hours per term or its equivalent at the undergraduate level. The total
hours counted will not include courses taken for audit, but may include
required developmental or remedial courses and other elective courses that
normally are not counted toward a certificate, diploma, or degree at the
institution. For undergraduate students enrolled in a dual or concurrent
undergraduate and graduate program, half-time study may be met through a
combination of total credit hours, providing that the combination totals at
least the minimum credit hours for half-time status for the student's
institutionally recognized student level.
"Institution" or "home institution" means
any public institution of higher education in Virginia participating in the
Virginia Student Financial Assistance Program.
"Program" or "VSFAP" means the Virginia
Student Financial Assistance Program, a financial aid program authorized within
the item for student financial assistance in the annual Appropriation Act.
"Remaining need" means any positive difference
between a student's financial need and the sum of federal, state, and institutionally-controlled
gift assistance known at the time of awarding.
"Satisfactory academic
progress" means:
1. Acceptable progress towards completion of an approved
program, as defined by the institution for the purposes of eligibility for
federal student financial aid under the Code of Federal Regulations (Subpart
C, 34 CFR Part 668 - Student Assistance General Provisions); and
2. For a student receiving a Virginia Guaranteed Assistance
Program award, acceptable progress towards completion of an approved program in
which a student earns not less than 24 credit hours, which is the minimum
number required for full-time standing in each award year and maintains a
cumulative minimum grade point average of 2.0.
"Summer session" means a division of an award year
that normally extends from late May to mid August and consists of one or more
summer enrollment periods, exclusive of the institution's fall and spring
semesters.
"Term" means an academic period or summer session.
"Undergraduate student" means a student enrolled in
an approved program leading to a certificate of undergraduate study, diploma,
associate's degree, or bachelor's degree.
"VGAP" means a grant from state funds appropriated
for the Virginia Guaranteed Assistance Program, as authorized by the laws of
the Commonwealth of Virginia including §§ 23-38.53:4, 23-38.53:5, and
23-38.53:6 §§ 23.1-636, 23.1-637, and 23.1-638 of the Code of
Virginia.
8VAC40-131-30. Types of assistance.
A. Funds allocated to institutions within the item for
student financial assistance in the annual Appropriation Act may be used for:
1. Awards to undergraduate students enrolled for at least
half-time study;
2. Awards to graduate students enrolled for full-time study.
No more than 50% of the institution's graduate grants shall be awarded to
students not classified as a domiciliary resident of Virginia;
3. Awards to students enrolled for full-time study in a dual
or concurrent undergraduate and graduate program;
4. Assistantships to graduate students, funds for which must
be transferred to the education and general account;
5. Providing the required matching contribution to federal or
private student grant aid programs, except for programs requiring work; and
6. Supporting institutional work-study programs, funds for
which must be transferred to the education and general account.
B. A student may receive either a VGAP award, an
undergraduate Commonwealth Award, or a graduate Commonwealth Award during any
one term (i.e., a student may not receive two or more different types of awards
during the same term).
C. The provisions of this
chapter shall not apply to:
1. Soil scientist scholarships authorized by § 23-38.3
§ 23.1-615 of the Code of Virginia;
2. Foster children grants authorized by § 23-7.4:5 § 23.1-601
of the Code of Virginia;
3. Nongeneral funds allocated to institutions within the item
for student financial assistance in the annual Appropriation Act, except for
the satisfactory academic progress requirement; or
4. General funds allocated to institutions within the item for
student financial assistance in the annual Appropriation Act that are used to
support a work-study program, except for the financial need requirement.
8VAC40-131-50. Award schedule and award amount restrictions.
A. Institutions shall construct award schedules to determine
priority for and amount of awards, ensuring that the schedule conforms to the
conditions and restrictions listed in this subsection.
1. The institution:
a. Must define its neediest students;
b. Must use the same award schedule for all students whose
awards are packaged at the same time;
c. Must ensure that students eligible for Commonwealth Awards
and students eligible for VGAP awards are packaged at the same time using the
same award schedule;
d. Shall not include the assessed tuition and fee surcharge
when calculating the remaining need and financial need of students exceeding
125% of their program length, pursuant to subsection F of § 23-7.4 §
23.1-509 of the Code of Virginia;
e. For students enrolled at multiple institutions or in study
abroad programs, shall include as the tuition and required fee component of the
cost of attendance the lesser of the amount that would be charged by the home
institution for the student's combined enrollment level and the sum of actual
tuition and required fees assessed by each institution;
f. May include minimum award amounts for VGAP and Commonwealth
Awards; and
g. May construct a new award schedule based on the time of
packaging and available funds; however, for students whose awards are packaged
at the same time, the same schedule shall be used.
2. Award amounts must be:
a. Based on remaining need; and
b. Proportional to remaining need (i.e., students with greater
remaining need receive larger award amounts than students with lesser remaining
need).
3. VGAP-eligible students:
a. Must receive award amounts greater than Commonwealth
Award-eligible students with equivalent remaining need;
b. Who fall into the neediest category must receive an award
amount of at least the tuition charged to the individual student; and
c. Who fall into the neediest category may receive an award
amount of up to tuition, required fees, and book allowance.
4. Commonwealth Award-eligible students who fall into the
neediest category may receive an award amount of up to tuition and required
fees.
5. Two-year colleges electing to modify their award schedules
must:
a. Define "remaining need" as (i) any positive
difference between a student's cost of attendance and the student's expected
family contribution or (ii) the financial need determined by the U.S.
Department of Education and reflected in its payment schedule of EFC ranges for
the Federal Pell Grant program;
b. Construct an award schedule that is based on remaining need
and the combination of federal and state grant aid; and
c. Include a minimum award amount for the neediest
VGAP-eligible student.
B. The following award amount restrictions apply to awards:
1. An award under the program, when combined with other gift
assistance applied to the student's institutional account, shall not exceed the
student's financial need. For purposes of the over financial need calculation,
only the tuition and fee portion of veterans education benefits and national
service education awards or post-service benefits (e.g., AmeriCorps) shall be
included.
2. An undergraduate Commonwealth Award, when combined with
tuition-only assistance such as a tuition waiver, tuition scholarship or grant,
or employer tuition reimbursement, shall not exceed the student's actual
charges for tuition and required fees; a VGAP award, when combined with
tuition-only assistance such as a tuition waiver, tuition scholarship or grant,
or employer tuition reimbursement, shall not exceed the student's actual
charges for tuition, required fees, and standard book allowance.
Article 2
Commonwealth Awards
8VAC40-131-80. Undergraduate eligibility criteria for an
initial award.
In order to participate, an undergraduate student shall:
1. Be enrolled for at least half-time study as of the term's
census date;
2. Be a domiciliary resident of Virginia;
3. Be a United States citizen or eligible noncitizen as
described in § 23-7.4 § 23.1-502 of the Code of Virginia and
augmented by the Domicile Guidelines;
4. Demonstrate financial need for federal Title IV financial
aid purposes; and
5. Have complied with federal selective service registration
requirements, unless the following apply:
a. The requirement to register has terminated or become
inapplicable to the student; and
b. The student shows by preponderance of the evidence that
failure to register was not a knowing and willful failure to register.
Article 3
Virginia Guaranteed Assistance Program Awards
8VAC40-131-110. VGAP eligibility criteria for an initial award.
In order to participate, an undergraduate student shall:
1. Be enrolled for full-time study as of the term's census
date. Exceptions to the full-time study requirement due to documented
disability or other documented medical reasons, as applicable under the federal
Americans with Disabilities Act, 42 USC § 12101 et seq., will be
considered on a case-by-case basis by the institution; supporting documentation
must include a physician's note specifying the full-time equivalent for the
student. Such students shall receive an adjusted award amount determined
according to the institution's awarding policies;
2. Be a domiciliary resident of Virginia;
3. Be a United States citizen or eligible noncitizen as
described in § 23-7.4 § 23.1-502 of the Code of Virginia and
augmented by the Domicile Guidelines;
4. Demonstrate financial need for federal Title IV financial
aid purposes;
5. Be a graduate from a Virginia high school; students
obtaining a General Educational Development (GED) certificate are not eligible.
Exceptions are granted for students who:
a. Are dependent children of active-duty military personnel
residing outside the Commonwealth of Virginia pursuant to military orders and
claiming Virginia on their State of Legal Residence Certificate and satisfying
the domicile requirements for such active duty military personnel pursuant to subsection
B of § 23-7.4 § 23.1-502 of the Code of Virginia;
b. Have completed a program of home school instruction in
accordance with § 22.1-254.1 of the Code of Virginia; or
c. Have been excused from school attendance pursuant to
subsection B of § 22.1-254 of the Code of Virginia.
6. For a high school graduate, have at least a cumulative 2.5
grade point average (GPA) on a 4.0 scale, or its equivalent, at the time of
admission to the institution or according to the latest available high school
transcript. In the absence of a high school transcript indicating the grade
point average, the institution must have on file a letter from the student's
high school certifying the student's high school GPA;
7. For a student meeting the high school graduate exception in
subdivision 5 b or 5 c of this subsection, have earned SAT math and verbal
combined scores of 900 or above or have earned ACT composite scores of 19 or
above;
8. Be classified as a dependent student for federal financial
aid purposes; and
9. Have complied with federal selective service registration
requirements, unless the following apply:
a. The requirement to register has terminated or become
inapplicable to the student; and
b. The student shows by preponderance of the evidence that
failure to register was not a knowing and willful failure to register.
8VAC40-131-120. Renewability of awards.
A. Awards for students attending two-year colleges may be
renewed for one award year while awards for students attending four-year
colleges may be renewed for three award years. Students shall be limited to a
cumulative total of four award years of eligibility.
Awards may be renewed annually provided that the undergraduate
student:
1. Continues to be enrolled for full-time study as of the
term's census date;
2. Maintains domiciliary residency in Virginia;
3. Continues to be a United States citizen or eligible
noncitizen as described in § 23-7.4 § 23.1-502 of the Code of
Virginia and augmented by the Domicile Guidelines;
4. Demonstrates continued financial need for federal Title IV
financial aid purposes;
5. Maintains at least a 2.0 grade point average on a 4.0
scale, or its equivalent;
6. Maintains satisfactory academic progress;
7. Maintains continuous enrollment from the time of receipt of
the initial award unless granted an exception for cause by the council.
a. Continuous enrollment shall be recognized as enrollment for
full-time study in each academic period; lack of enrollment in the summer
session or other special sessions offered by the institution does not
disqualify the student.
b. A student participating in a cooperative education program
or internship that is part of his academic program and a student whose college
education is interrupted by a call to military service shall be deemed to have
maintained continuous enrollment if he reenrolls no later than the following
fall semester after completion of such employment or military service; and
8. Has complied with federal selective service registration
requirements, unless the following apply:
a. The requirement to register has terminated or become
inapplicable to the student; and
b. The student shows by preponderance of the evidence that
failure to register was not a knowing and willful failure to register.
B. VGAP renewal awards are subject to the following special
considerations:
1. Students who transfer to an institution shall be considered
renewal students if they received or were eligible for an award during the
prior academic period provided they meet renewal criteria.
2. Students who do not initially receive a VGAP award may be
considered for renewal awards provided that they meet initial eligibility
criteria and continue to meet renewal criteria. Once a student loses his
classification as VGAP-eligible, the student cannot reestablish such
eligibility. However, the student may qualify for a Commonwealth Award the
following term.
8VAC40-131-230. Discontinuing student loan programs.
A. If any federal student loan program for which the
institutional contribution was appropriated by the General Assembly is
discontinued, the institutional share of the discontinued loan program shall be
repaid to the fund from which the institutional share was derived unless other
arrangements are recommended by the council and approved by the Department of
Planning and Budget. Should the institution be permitted to retain the federal
contributions to the program, the funds shall be used according to arrangements
authorized by the council and approved by the Department of Planning and
Budget.
B. An institution may discontinue its student loan program
established pursuant to Chapter 4.01 (§ 23-38.10:2 et seq.) of Title 23
§§ 23.1-618 through 23.1-621 of the Code of Virginia. The full
amount of cash in the discontinued loan fund shall be paid into the state
treasury into a nonrevertible nongeneral fund account. Prior to such payment,
the State Comptroller shall verify its accuracy, including the fact that the
cash held by the institution in the loan fund will be fully depleted by such
payment. The loan fund shall not be reestablished for that institution.
C. The cash paid into the state treasury shall be used only
for awards to undergraduate students in the Virginia Student Financial
Assistance Program according to arrangements authorized by the council and
approved by the Department of Planning and Budget. Payments of any promissory
notes held by the discontinued loan fund shall continue to be received by the
institution and deposited to the nonrevertible nongeneral fund account and to
be used for the VGAP awards and undergraduate Commonwealth Awards.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4848; Filed January 30, 2017, 10:04 a.m.
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE COUNCIL OF HIGHER EDUCATION FOR VIRGINIA
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
State Council of Higher Education for Virginia is claiming an exemption from
Article 2 of the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006
A 4 a of the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations that are necessary to
conform to changes in Virginia statutory law where no agency discretion is
involved. The State Council of Higher Education for Virginia will receive,
consider, and respond to petitions by any interested person at any time with
respect to reconsideration or revision.
Title of Regulation: 8VAC40-140. Virginia Vocational
Incentive Scholarship Program for Shipyard Workers Regulations (amending 8VAC40-140-20, 8VAC40-140-40).
Statutory Authority: § 23.1-2912 of the Code of
Virginia.
Effective Date: February 20, 2017.
Agency Contact: Lee Ann Rung, Manager, Executive and
Council Affairs, State Council of Higher Education for Virginia, James Monroe
Building 101 North 14th Street, 9th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804)
225-2602, FAX (804) 371-7911, or email leeannrung@schev.edu.
Summary:
The amendments update citations to reflect the
recodification of Title 23 to Title 23.1 of the Code of Virginia.
8VAC40-140-20. Use of funds.
A. The college shall establish and maintain financial records
that accurately reflect all program transactions as they occur. The college
shall establish and maintain general ledger control accounts and related
subsidiary accounts that identify each program transaction and separate those
transactions from all other institutional financial activity.
B. Funds may be paid to the college on behalf of shipyard
workers who have been awarded scholarships pursuant to § 23-220.01 §
23.1-2912 of the Code of Virginia and this chapter. Funds also may be used
by the college for the implementation and administration of the program. Funds
used by the college to implement and administer the program shall not exceed in
any given year 5.0% of that year's allocation for the program.
8VAC40-140-40. Eligibility criteria for an initial scholarship.
In order to receive a scholarship, the student must be:
1. A domiciliary resident of Virginia as defined in §
23-7.4 § 23.1-502 of the Code of Virginia and determined by the
college,
2. Employed full time as a shipyard worker, and
3. Enrolled full time or part time in an eligible
course of study.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4849; Filed January 30, 2017, 10:04 a.m.
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE COUNCIL OF HIGHER EDUCATION FOR VIRGINIA
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
State Council of Higher Education for Virginia is claiming an exemption from
Article 2 of the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4006
A 4 a of the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations that are necessary to
conform to changes in Virginia statutory law where no agency discretion is
involved. The State Council of Higher Education for Virginia will receive,
consider, and respond to petitions by any interested person at any time with
respect to reconsideration or revision.
Title of Regulation: 8VAC40-150. Virginia Two-Year
College Transfer Grant Program Regulations (amending 8VAC40-150-10, 8VAC40-150-70).
Statutory Authority: § 23.1-623 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: February 20, 2017.
Agency Contact: Lee Ann Rung, Manager, Executive and
Council Affairs, State Council of Higher Education for Virginia, James Monroe
Building, 101 North 14th Street, 9th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804)
225-2602, FAX (804) 371-7911, or email leeannrung@schev.edu.
Summary:
The amendments update citations and remove the 70 attempted
credit hours limitation for students renewing grant program awards to reflect
changes made by the recodification of Title 23 to Title 23.1 of the Code of
Virginia.
8VAC40-150-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Academic year" means the enrollment period that
normally extends from late August to May or early June and that is normally
comprised of two semesters (fall and spring) or three quarters (fall, winter,
and spring).
"Accredited institution" means any institution
approved to confer degrees pursuant to Chapter 21.1 (§ 23-276.1 et
seq.) of Title 23 Article 3 (§ 23.1-213 et seq.) of Chapter 2 of Title
23.1 of the Code of Virginia.
"Approved course of study" means a curriculum of
courses at the undergraduate level leading to a first bachelor's degree.
Programs in the 39.xxxx series, as classified in the National Center for
Education Statistics' Classification of Instructional Programs (CIP), provide
religious training or theological education and are not approved courses of
study.
"Award" means a grant from state funds appropriated
for the Virginia Two-Year College Transfer Grant Program (CTG).
"Award year" means the 12-month enrollment period
during which a college or university holds classes, normally comprised of (i)
one fall semester, one spring semester, and a summer session or (ii) one fall
quarter, one winter quarter, one spring quarter, and a summer session. For
purposes of awarding funds for this program, the summer will be treated as a
trailing term.
"Cost of attendance" means the sum of tuition,
required fees, room, board, books and supplies, and other education-related
expenses as determined by an institution for purposes of awarding federal Title
IV student financial assistance.
"Council" means the State Council of Higher
Education for Virginia or its designated staff.
"Domiciliary resident of Virginia" means a student
who is determined by a participating institution to meet the eligibility
requirements specified by § 23-7.4 § 23.1-502 of the Code of
Virginia.
"Expected family contribution" or "EFC"
means the amount a student and the student's family is expected to contribute
toward the cost of college attendance. The EFC is calculated using information
provided on the Free Application for Federal Student Aid. The institution may
exercise professional judgment to adjust the student's EFC, as permitted under
federal law, based on factors that affect the family's ability to pay.
"Financial need" means a maximum expected family
contribution of $8,000 based on a standard nine-month academic year. Beginning
with students who are entering a participating institution as a two-year
transfer student for the first time in the fall 2012 academic year, and who
otherwise meet the eligibility criteria of § 23-38.10:10 §
23.1-624 of the Code of Virginia, the maximum EFC is raised to $9,000.
Beginning with students who are entering a participating institution as a
two-year transfer student for the first time in the fall 2013 academic year,
and who otherwise meet the eligibility criteria of § 23-38.10:10 §
23.1-624 of the Code of Virginia, the maximum EFC is raised to $12,000.
"First-time entering freshman" means a student
attending any institution for the first time at the undergraduate level.
Includes students enrolled in the fall term who attended college for the first
time in the immediate prior summer term. Also includes students who entered
with advanced standing (college credits earned before high school graduation).
"Free Application for Federal Student Aid" or
"FAFSA" means the needs analysis form provided by the United States
Department of Education, which is completed annually by students applying for
federal Title IV student financial assistance and need-based financial aid
programs sponsored by the Commonwealth of Virginia and that results in the
calculation of the expected family contribution.
"Full-time study" means enrollment for at least 12
credit hours per semester or its equivalent in quarter hours at the undergraduate
level. The total hours counted will not include courses taken for audit, but
may include required developmental or remedial courses and other elective
courses that normally are not counted toward a degree at the participating
institution.
"Participating institution of higher education" or
"participating institution" means a four-year public or private
nonprofit accredited institution within the Commonwealth of Virginia whose
primary purpose is to provide undergraduate collegiate education and not to
provide religious training or theological education.
"Program" means the Virginia Two-Year College
Transfer Grant.
"Quarter" means a division of an academic year
approximately 10 to 11 weeks in length from the first day of classes through
the last day of exams for the fall, winter, and spring enrollment periods.
"Satisfactory academic progress" means acceptable
progress towards completion of an approved course of study as defined by the
institution for the purposes of eligibility under § 668 of the Federal
Compilation of Student Financial Aid Regulations.
"Semester" means a division of an academic year
approximately 15 to 16 weeks in length from the first day of classes through
the last day of exams for the fall and spring enrollment periods.
"Student" means an undergraduate student who is
entitled to in-state tuition charges pursuant to § 23-7.4 §
23.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
"Summer session" means a division of an award year
consisting of one or more summer sessions normally extending from late May to
August, exclusive of the participating institution's fall, winter, and spring
terms.
"Term" means the fall semester or quarter, winter
quarter, spring semester or quarter, or summer session.
8VAC40-150-70. Renewability of awards.
Awards may be renewed for a maximum of two award years.
Students shall be limited to a total period of no more than three award years or
70 attempted credit hours. Awards may be renewed provided that the student
continues to be enrolled full-time in an approved course of study, maintains
domicile in Virginia per § 23-7.4 § 23.1-502 of the Code of
Virginia, and annually:
1. Applies for financial aid by completing the FAFSA by the
institution's published deadline;
2. Demonstrates continued financial need;
3. Maintains a grade point average of at least 3.0 on a 4.0
scale; and
4. Maintains satisfactory academic progress.
Students transferring from one participating institution to
another shall be considered renewal students if they received an award during
the prior year provided they met renewal criteria.
Students who do not initially receive an award may be
considered for renewal awards provided that they meet initial eligibility
criteria and continue to meet renewal criteria.
Once a student loses his classification as CTG-eligible, the
student cannot reestablish such eligibility.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4850; Filed January 30, 2017, 10:05 a.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 12VAC5-412. Regulations for
Licensure of Abortion Facilities (amending 12VAC5-412-10, 12VAC5-412-80,
12VAC5-412-100, 12VAC5-412-130, 12VAC5-412-180, 12VAC5-412-190, 12VAC5-412-200,
12VAC5-412-220, 12VAC5-412-230, 12VAC5-412-240, 12VAC5-412-250, 12VAC5-412-280,
12VAC5-412-290, 12VAC5-412-300, 12VAC5-412-320, 12VAC5-412-330, 12VAC5-412-350,
12VAC5-412-370; repealing 12VAC5-412-30, 12VAC5-412-360).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-127 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: March 22, 2017.
Agency Contact: Erik Bodin, Director, Office of
Licensure and Certification, Department of Health, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite
401, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-2109, FAX (804) 527-4502, or email
erik.bodin@vdh.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) modify defined terms; (ii) add best
practices for medical testing, laboratory services, and anesthesia services;
(iii) align the emergency services requirements more specifically with medical
best practices; (iv) modify the facility design and construction requirements;
(v) make minor technical amendments; (vi) modify onsite inspection provisions;
(vii) remove the reference to the Joint Commission Standards of Ambulatory Care
for patient rights and responsibility protocols; (viii) remove the reference to
certain federal guidelines for infection prevention plans; (ix) remove
maintenance and firefighting equipment and systems requirements that are
already addressed by existing legal requirements; (x) specify that all
construction of new buildings and additions or major renovations to existing
buildings for occupancy as an abortion facility shall conform to state and
local codes and ordinances; (xi) conform allowable variance provisions to the
hospital licensure regulations; (xii) prohibit removal of copies of personnel
records from the facility unless redacted; (xiii) remove the requirement that a
physician remain on the premises until the last patient is discharged and the
requirement that the physician give a discharge order; (xiv) amend the
definition of first trimester of pregnancy; (xv) require facilities to offer
screening for sexually transmitted diseases or at a minimum refer patients to
clinics that provide such testing as well as requiring that facilities have
policies and procedures for patient reevaluation in the event that tissue
examination is insufficient to confirm termination of the pregnancy; (xvi)
remove specific conditions for which emergency drugs must be available; (xvii)
require health information records to include certain information if medically
indicated; (xviii) remove the requirement to report incidents that are reported
to malpractice insurance carriers or reported in compliance with the federal
Safe Medical Devices Act; and (xix) remove the requirement that facilities have
policies and procedures related to facility security and the dissemination of
safety information.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
of Regulations.
Part I
Definitions and Requirements for Licensure
12VAC5-412-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this regulation
shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates
otherwise:
"Abortion" means the use of an instrument,
medicine, drug, or other substance or device with the intent to terminate the
pregnancy of a woman, known to be pregnant, for reasons other than a live birth
or to remove a dead fetus. Spontaneous miscarriage is excluded
from this definition.
"Abortion facility" means a facility in which five
or more first trimester abortions per month are performed.
"Administrator" means the person appointed by the
governing body as having responsibility for the overall management of the
abortion facility. Job titles may include director, executive director, office
manager, or business manager.
"Commissioner" means the State Health Commissioner.
"Department" means the Virginia Department of
Health.
[ "First trimester" means the first 12
weeks from conception ] based on an appropriate clinical estimate
by a licensed physician [ as determined in
compliance with § 18.2-76 of the Code of Virginia. ]
"Informed written consent" means the knowing and
voluntary written consent to abortion by a pregnant woman of any age in
accordance with § 18.2-76 of the Code of Virginia.
"Licensee" means the person, partnership,
corporation, association, organization, or professional entity who owns or on
whom rests the ultimate responsibility and authority for the conduct of the abortion facility.
[ "Medication induced abortion" means
any abortion caused solely by the administration of any medication or
medications given to a woman in the first trimester of pregnancy with the
intent to produce abortion. ]
"Minor" means a patient under the age of 18.
"Patient" means any person seeking or obtaining
services at an abortion facility.
"Physician" means a person licensed to practice
medicine in Virginia.
"Spontaneous miscarriage" means the expulsion or
extraction of a product of human conception resulting in other than a live
birth and which is not an abortion.
[ "Surgical abortion" means any abortion
caused by any means other than solely by the administration of any medication
or medications given to a woman in the first trimester of pregnancy with the
intent to produce abortion. ]
"Trimester" means a 12-week period of pregnancy.
12VAC5-412-30. Classification. (Repealed.)
Abortion facilities shall be classified as a category of
hospital.
[ 12VAC5-412-80. Allowable variances.
A. The commissioner may authorize a temporary variance
only to a specific provision of this chapter. In no event shall a temporary
variance exceed the term of the license. An abortion facility may request a
temporary variance to a particular standard or requirement contained in a
particular provision of this chapter when the standard or requirement poses an
impractical hardship unique to the abortion facility and when a temporary
variance to it would not endanger the safety or well-being of patients. The request
for a temporary variance shall describe how compliance with the current
standard or requirement constitutes an impractical hardship unique to the
abortion facility. The request should include proposed alternatives, if any, to
meet the purpose of the standard or requirement that will ensure the protection
and well-being of patients. At no time shall a temporary variance be extended
to general applicability. The abortion facility may withdraw a request for a
temporary variance at any time.
B. The commissioner may rescind or modify a temporary
variance if: (i) conditions change; (ii) additional information becomes known
that alters the basis for the original decision; (iii) the abortion facility
fails to meet any conditions attached to the temporary variance; or (iv)
results of the temporary variance jeopardize the safety or well-being of
patients.
C. Consideration of a temporary variance is initiated when
a written request is submitted to the commissioner. The commissioner shall
notify the abortion facility in writing of the receipt of the request for a
temporary variance. The licensee shall be notified in writing of the
commissioner's decision on the temporary variance request. If granted, the
commissioner may attach conditions to a temporary variance to protect the
safety and well-being of patients.
D. If a temporary variance is denied, expires, or is
rescinded, routine enforcement of the standard or requirement to which the
temporary variance was granted shall be resumed.
A. Upon the finding that the enforcement of one or more of
these regulations would be clearly impractical, the commissioner shall have the
authority to waive, either temporarily or permanently, the enforcement of one
or more of these regulations, provided safety and patient care and services are
not adversely affected.
B. Modification of any individual standard herein for any
purpose shall require advance written approval from the OLC.
12VAC5-412-100. On-site inspection.
A. An OLC representative shall make periodic unannounced
on-site inspections of each abortion facility as necessary, but not less often
than biennially. If the department finds, after inspection, noncompliance with
any provision of this chapter, the abortion facility shall receive a written
licensing report of such findings. The abortion facility shall submit a written
plan of correction in accordance with provisions of 12VAC5-412-110.
B. The abortion facility shall make available to the OLC's
representative any requested records and shall allow access to interview the agents,
employees, contractors, and any person under the abortion facility's control,
direction, or supervision. If copies of records are removed from the premises,
patient names and addresses contained in such records shall be redacted by the
abortion facility before removal.
C. If the OLC's representative arrives on the premises to
conduct a survey and the administrator, the nursing director, or a person
authorized to give access to patient records is not available on the premises,
such person or the designated alternate shall be available on the premises
within one hour of the surveyor's arrival. A list of patients receiving
services on the day of the survey as well as a list of all of the abortion
facility's patients for the previous 12 months shall be provided to the
surveyor within two hours of arrival if requested. Failure to be available or
to respond shall be grounds for penalties in accordance with § 32.1-27 of
the Code of Virginia and denial, suspension, or revocation of the facility's
license in accordance with 12VAC5-412-130. ]
12VAC5-412-130. Violation of this chapter or applicable law;
denial, revocation, or suspension of license.
A. When the department determines that an abortion facility
is (i) in violation of any provision of Article 1 (§ 32.1-123 et seq.)
of Chapter 5 of Title 32.1 § 32.1-125.01, 32.1-125.4, [ 32.1-132,
or ] 32.1-135.2 [ , or 32.1-137.01 ] of the
Code of Virginia or of any applicable regulation, or (ii) is permitting,
aiding, or abetting the commission of any illegal act in the abortion facility,
the department may deny, suspend, or revoke the license to operate an abortion
facility in accordance with § 32.1-135 of the Code of Virginia.
B. If a license or certification is revoked as herein
provided, a new license or certification may be issued by the commissioner
after satisfactory evidence is submitted to him that the conditions upon which
revocation was based have been corrected and after proper inspection has been
made and compliance with all provisions of Article 1 of Chapter 5 of Title
32.1 §§ 32.1-125.01, 32.1-125.4, [ 32.1-132,
and ] 32.1-135.2 [ , or 32.1-137.01 ] of the
Code of Virginia and applicable state and federal law and regulations hereunder
has been obtained.
C. Suspension of a license shall in all cases be for an
indefinite time. The commissioner may restore a suspended license when he
determines that the conditions upon which suspension was based have been
corrected and that the interests of the public will not be jeopardized by
resumption of operation. No additional fee shall be required for restoring such
license.
D. The abortion facility has the right to contest the denial,
revocation, or suspension of a license in accordance with the provisions of the
Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
[ 12VAC5-412-180. Personnel.
A. Each abortion facility shall have a staff that is
adequately trained and capable of providing appropriate service and supervision
to patients. The abortion facility shall develop, implement, and maintain policies
and procedures to ensure and document appropriate staffing by licensed
clinicians based on the level, intensity, and scope of services provided.
B. The abortion facility shall obtain written applications
for employment from all staff. The abortion facility shall obtain and verify
information on the application as to education, training, experience, and
appropriate professional licensure, if applicable.
C. Each abortion facility shall obtain a criminal history
record check pursuant to § 32.1-126.02 of the Code of Virginia on any
compensated employee not licensed by the Board of Pharmacy, whose job duties
provide access to controlled substances within the abortion facility.
D. The abortion facility shall develop, implement, and
maintain policies and procedures to document that its staff participate in
initial and ongoing training and education that is directly related to staff
duties and appropriate to the level, intensity, and scope of services provided.
This shall include documentation of annual participation in fire safety and
infection prevention in-service training.
E. Job descriptions.
1. Written job descriptions that adequately describe the
duties of every position shall be maintained.
2. Each job description shall include position title, authority,
specific responsibilities, and minimum qualifications.
3. Job descriptions shall be reviewed at least annually, kept
current, and given to each employee and volunteer when assigned to the position
and when revised.
F. A personnel file shall be maintained for each staff
member. The records shall be completely and accurately documented, readily
available, including by electronic means and systematically organized to
facilitate the compilation and retrieval of information. The file shall contain
a current job description that reflects the individual's responsibilities and
work assignments, and documentation of the person's in-service education, and
professional licensure, if applicable.
G. Personnel policies and procedures shall include, but not
be limited to:
1. Written job descriptions that specify authority,
responsibility, and qualifications for each job classification;
2. Process for verifying current professional licensing or
certification and training of employees or independent contractors;
3. Process for annually evaluating employee performance and
competency;
4. Process for verifying that contractors and their employees
meet the personnel qualifications of the abortion facility; and
5. Process for reporting licensed and certified health care practitioners
for violations of their licensing or certification standards to the appropriate
board within the Department of Health Professions.
H. A personnel file shall be maintained for each staff
member. Personnel record information shall be safeguarded against loss and
unauthorized use. Employee health related information shall be maintained
separately within the employee's personnel file. Unless redacted, copies of
personnel files shall not be removed from the premises.
12VAC5-412-190. Clinical staff.
A. Physicians and nonphysician health care practitioners
shall constitute the clinical staff. Clinical privileges of physician and
nonphysician health care practitioners shall be clearly defined.
B. Abortions shall be performed by physicians who are licensed
to practice medicine in Virginia and who are qualified by training and
experience to perform abortions. The abortion facility shall develop,
implement, and maintain policies and procedures to ensure and document that
abortions that occur in the abortion facility are only performed by physicians
who are qualified by training and experience.
C. A physician shall remain on the premises until all
patients are medically stable, sign the discharge order, and be readily
available and accessible until the last patient is discharged. Licensed
health care practitioners trained in post-procedure assessment shall remain on
the premises until the last patient has been discharged. The physician shall
give a discharge order after assessing a patient or receiving a report from
such trained health care practitioner indicating that a patient is safe for
discharge. The abortion facility shall develop, implement, and maintain
policies and procedures that ensure there is an appropriate evaluation of
medical stability prior to discharge of the patient and that adequate adequately
trained health care practitioners remain with the patient until she is
discharged from the abortion facility.
D. Licensed practical nurses, working under direct
supervision and direction of a physician or a registered nurse, may be employed
as components of the clinical staff.
12VAC5-412-200. Patients' rights.
A. Each abortion facility shall establish a protocol relating
to the rights and responsibilities of patients consistent with the current
edition of the Joint Commission Standards of Ambulatory Care. The protocol
shall include a process reasonably designed to inform patients of their rights
and responsibilities, in a language or manner they understand. Patients shall
be given a copy of their rights and responsibilities upon admission.
B. The abortion facility shall establish and maintain
complaint handling procedures which specify the:
1. System for logging receipt, investigation, and resolution
of complaints; and
2. Format of the written record of the findings of each
complaint investigated.
C. The abortion facility shall designate staff responsible
for complaint resolution, including:
1. Complaint intake, including acknowledgment of complaints;
2. Investigation of the complaint;
3. Review of the investigation findings and resolution for the
complaint; and
4. Notification to the complainant of the proposed resolution
within 30 days from the date of receipt of the complaint.
D. Any patient seeking an abortion shall be given a copy of
the complaint procedures, in a language or manner she understands, at the time
of admission to service.
E. The abortion facility shall provide each patient or her
designee with the name, mailing address, and telephone number of the:
1. Abortion facility contact person; and
2. OLC Complaint Unit, including the toll-free complaint
hotline number. Patients may submit complaints anonymously to the OLC. The
abortion facility shall display a copy of this information in a conspicuous
place.
F. The abortion facility shall maintain documentation of all
complaints received and the status of each complaint from date of receipt
through its final resolution. Records shall be maintained for no less than
three years.
12VAC5-412-220. Infection prevention.
A. The abortion facility shall have an infection prevention
plan that encompasses the entire abortion facility and all services provided,
and which is consistent with the provisions of the current edition of
"Guide to Infection Prevention in Outpatient Settings: Minimum
Expectations for Safe Care," published by the U.S. Centers for Disease
Control and Prevention. An individual with training and expertise in
infection prevention shall participate in the development of infection
prevention policies and procedures and shall review them to assure they comply
with applicable regulations and standards.
1. The process for development, implementation, and
maintenance of infection prevention policies and procedures and the regulations
or guidance documents on which they are based shall be documented.
2. All infection prevention policies and procedures shall be
reviewed at least annually by the administrator and appropriate members of the
clinical staff. The annual review process and recommendations for
changes/updates shall be documented in writing.
3. A designated person in the abortion facility shall have
received training in basic infection prevention, and shall also be involved in
the annual review.
B. Written infection prevention policies and procedures shall
include, but not be limited to:
1. Procedures for screening incoming patients and visitors for
acute infectious illnesses and applying appropriate measures to prevent
transmission of community-acquired infection within the abortion facility;
2. Training of all personnel in proper infection prevention
techniques;
3. Correct hand-washing technique, including indications for
use of soap and water and use of alcohol-based hand rubs;
4. Use of standard precautions;
5. Compliance with bloodborne pathogen requirements of the
U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration;
6. Use of personal protective equipment;
7. Use of safe injection practices;
8. Plans for annual retraining of all personnel in infection
prevention methods;
9. Procedures for monitoring staff adherence to recommended infection
prevention practices; and
10. Procedures for documenting annual retraining of all staff
in recommended infection prevention practices.
C. Written policies and procedures for the management of the
abortion facility, equipment, and supplies shall address the following:
1. Access to hand-washing equipment and adequate supplies
(e.g., soap, alcohol-based hand rubs, disposable towels or hot air driers);
2. Availability of utility sinks, cleaning supplies, and other
materials for cleaning, disposal, storage, and transport of equipment and
supplies;
3. Appropriate storage for cleaning agents (e.g., locked
cabinets or rooms for chemicals used for cleaning) and product-specific
instructions for use of cleaning agents (e.g., dilution, contact time, management
of accidental exposures);
4. Procedures for handling, storing, and transporting clean
linens, clean/sterile supplies, and equipment;
5. Procedures for handling/temporary storage/transport of
soiled linens;
6. Procedures for handling, storing, processing, and
transporting regulated medical waste in accordance with applicable regulations;
7. Procedures for the processing of each type of reusable
medical equipment between uses on different patients. The procedure shall
address: (i) the level of cleaning/disinfection/sterilization to be used for
each type of equipment; (ii) the process (e.g., cleaning, chemical
disinfection, heat sterilization); and (iii) the method for verifying that the
recommended level of disinfection/sterilization has been achieved. The
procedure shall reference the manufacturer's recommendations and any applicable
state or national infection control guidelines;
8. Procedures for appropriate disposal of nonreusable
equipment;
9. Policies and procedures for maintenance/repair of equipment
in accordance with manufacturer recommendations;
10. Procedures for cleaning of environmental surfaces with
appropriate cleaning products;
11. An effective pest control program, managed in accordance
with local health and environmental regulations; and
12. Other infection prevention procedures necessary to
prevent/control transmission of an infectious agent in the abortion facility as
recommended or required by the department.
D. The abortion facility shall
have an employee health program that includes:
1. Access to recommended vaccines;
2. Procedures for assuring that employees with communicable
diseases are identified and prevented from work activities that could result in
transmission to other personnel or patients;
3. An exposure control plan for bloodborne pathogens;
4. Documentation of screening and immunizations
offered/received by employees in accordance with statute, regulation, or
recommendations of public health authorities, including documentation of
screening for tuberculosis and access to hepatitis B vaccine; and
5. Compliance with requirements of the U.S. Occupational
Safety and Health Administration for reporting of workplace-associated injuries
or exposure to infection.
E. The abortion facility shall develop, implement, and
maintain policies and procedures for the following patient education, follow
up, and reporting activities:
1. A procedure for surveillance, documentation, and tracking
of reported infections; and
2. Policies and procedures for reporting conditions to the
local health department in accordance with the Regulations for Disease
Reporting and Control (12VAC5-90), including outbreaks of disease. ]
Part IV
Patient Care Management
12VAC5-412-230. Patient services; patient counseling.
A. Abortions performed in abortion facilities shall be
performed only on patients who are within the first trimester of pregnancy based
on an appropriate clinical estimate by a licensed physician [ as
determined in compliance with § 18.2-76 of the Code of Virginia
meaning 13 weeks and 6 days after last menstrual period or based on an
appropriate clinical estimate by a licensed health care provider ].
B. No person may perform an abortion upon an unemancipated
minor unless informed written consent is obtained from the minor and the
minor's parent, guardian, or other authorized person. [ The informed
written consent shall be notarized as required by § 16.1-241 of the Code
of Virginia. ] If the unemancipated minor elects not to seek the
informed written consent of an authorized person, a copy of the court order
authorizing the abortion entered pursuant to § 16.1-241 of the Code of
Virginia shall be obtained prior to the performance of the abortion.
C. A physician shall not perform an abortion without first
obtaining the informed written consent of the patient pursuant to the
provisions of § 18.2-76 of the Code of Virginia.
D. When abortions are being performed, a staff member
currently certified to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation shall be available
on site for emergency care.
E. The abortion facility shall offer each patient seeking an
abortion, in a language or manner she understands, appropriate counseling and
instruction in the abortion procedure and shall develop, implement, and
maintain policies and procedures for the provision of or referral for
family planning and post-abortion counseling services to its
patients.
F. There shall be an organized discharge planning process
that includes an evaluation of the patient's capacity for self-care and an
assessment of a patient's safety for discharge and discharge instructions
for patients to include instructions to call or return if signs of infection
develop.
12VAC5-412-240. Medical testing and laboratory services.
A. Prior to the initiation of any abortion, a medical history
and physical examination, including a confirmation of pregnancy, and completion
of all the requirements of informed written consent pursuant to § 18.2-76 of
the Code of Virginia, shall be completed for each patient.
1. Use of any additional medical testing shall be based on
an assessment of patient risk. The clinical criteria for such additional
testing and the actions to be taken if abnormal results are found shall be
documented. Medical testing shall include a recognized method to confirm
pregnancy and determination or documentation of Rh factor.
2. Medical testing shall include a recognized method to
confirm pregnancy and determination or documentation of Rh factor. Use
of any additional medical testing shall be based on an assessment of patient
risk.
[ 3. The abortion facility shall develop, implement, and
maintain policies and procedures for offering screening of sexually
transmitted diseases consistent with current guidelines issued by the U.S.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention or at a minimum referring
patients to clinics that provide such testing. ] The policies and
procedures shall address appropriate responses to a positive screening test.
[ 4. 3. ] A written report of each
laboratory test and examination shall be a part of the patient's record.
B. Laboratory services shall be provided on site or through
arrangement with a laboratory certified to provide the required procedures
under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA-88) (42 CFR
Part 493).
1. Facilities for collecting specimens shall be available on
site.
2. If laboratory services are provided on site they shall be
directed by a person who qualifies as a director under CLIA-88 and shall be
performed in compliance with CLIA-88 standards.
3. All laboratory supplies shall be monitored for expiration
dates, if applicable, and disposed of properly.
C. [ All tissues removed resulting from the abortion
procedure shall be examined to verify that villi or fetal parts are present ]
if; [ . If villi or fetal parts cannot be identified with
certainty, the patient shall be notified that pregnancy tissue was not
identified and the possibility of ectopic pregnancy shall be explained to the
patient. In such cases, the patient shall be offered a pathologic examination
of the tissue including a disclosure of the cost and should the patient desire,
the tissue specimen shall be sent for further pathologic examination ]
and the patient alerted to the possibility of an ectopic pregnancy, and
referred appropriately. [ The abortion facility shall have policies
and procedures for evaluation of all tissues removed during the abortion and
for reevaluation of the patient in the event the evaluation of tissue is
insufficient to confirm termination of the pregnancy. ] The
facility shall track and log any specimens sent for further pathologic
examination.
D. All tissues removed resulting from the abortion
procedure shall be managed in accordance with requirements for medical waste
pursuant to the Regulated Medical Waste Management Regulations (9VAC20-120).
12VAC5-412-250. Anesthesia service.
A. The anesthesia service shall comply with the office-based
anesthesia provisions of the Regulations Governing the Practice of Medicine,
Osteopathic Medicine, Podiatry, and Chiropractic (18VAC85-20-310 et seq.).
B. The anesthesia service shall be directed by and under the
supervision of a physician licensed in Virginia [ who is certified in
advanced resuscitative techniques and has met the continuing education
requirements ].
C. When moderate sedation or conscious sedation is
administered, the licensed health care practitioner who administers the
anesthesia shall routinely monitor the patient according to procedures
consistent with such administration. The administration of sedation and
monitoring of the patient shall be documented in the patient's medical record.
D. An abortion facility administering moderate
sedation/conscious sedation shall maintain the following equipment, supplies,
and pharmacological agents as required by 18VAC85-20-360 B:
1. Appropriate equipment to manage airways;
2. Drugs and equipment to treat shock and anaphylactic
reactions;
3. Precordial stethoscope;
4. Pulse oximeter with appropriate alarms or an equivalent
method of measuring oxygen saturation;
5. Continuous electrocardiograph;
6. Devices for measuring blood pressure, heart rate, and
respiratory rate;
7. Defibrillator; and
8. Accepted method of identifying and preventing the
interchangeability of gases.
E. Elective general anesthesia shall not be used.
F. If deep sedation or a major conductive block is
administered or if general anesthesia is administered in an emergent situation,
the licensed health care practitioner who administers the anesthesia service
shall remain present and available in the facility to monitor the patient until
the patient meets the discharge criteria.
G. In addition to the requirements of subsection D of this
section, an abortion facility administering deep sedation or a major conductive
block, or administering general anesthesia in an emergent situation, shall
maintain the following equipment, supplies, and pharmacological agents as
required by 18VAC85-20-360 C:
1. Drugs to treat malignant hyperthermia, when triggering
agents are used;
2. Peripheral nerve stimulator, if a muscle relaxant is used;
and
3. If using an anesthesia machine, the following shall be
included:
a. End-tidal carbon dioxide monitor (capnograph);
b. In-circuit oxygen analyzer designed to monitor oxygen
concentration within breathing circuit by displaying oxygen percent of the
total respiratory mixture;
c. Oxygen failure-protection devices (fail-safe system) that
have the capacity to announce a reduction in oxygen pressure and, at lower
levels of oxygen pressure, to discontinue other gases when the pressure of the
supply of oxygen is reduced;
d. Vaporizer exclusion (interlock) system, which ensures that
only one vaporizer, and therefore only a single anesthetic agent can be
actualized on any anesthesia machine at one time;
e. Pressure-compensated anesthesia vaporizers, designed to
administer a constant nonpulsatile output, which shall not be placed in the
circuit downstream of the oxygen flush valve;
f. Flow meters and controllers, which can accurately gauge
concentration of oxygen relative to the anesthetic agent being administered and
prevent oxygen mixtures of less than 21% from being administered;
g. Alarm systems for high (disconnect), low (subatmospheric),
and minimum ventilatory pressures in the breathing circuit for each patient
under general anesthesia; and
h. A gas evacuation system.
H. The abortion facility shall develop, implement, and
maintain policies and procedures outlining criteria for discharge from
anesthesia care. Such criteria shall include stable vital signs, responsiveness
and orientation, ability to move voluntarily, controlled pain, and minimal
nausea and vomiting. Discharge from anesthesia care is the responsibility of
the health care practitioner providing the anesthesia care and shall occur only
when the patient has met specific physician-defined criteria, and those
criteria have been documented within the patient's medical record.
[ 12VAC5-412-280. Emergency equipment and supplies.
An abortion facility shall maintain medical equipment,
supplies, and drugs appropriate and adequate to manage potential emergencies
based on the level, scope, and intensity of services provided. Such medical
equipment, supplies, and drugs shall be determined by the physician and shall
be consistent with the current edition of the American Heart Association's
Guidelines for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation and Emergency Cardiovascular Care.
Drugs shall include, at a minimum, those to treat the following conditions:
1. Cardiopulmonary arrest;
2. Seizure;
3. Respiratory distress;
4. Allergic reaction;
5. Narcotic toxicity;
6. Hypovolemic shock; and
7. Vasovagal shock. ]
12VAC5-412-290. Emergency services.
A. An abortion facility shall provide ongoing urgent or
emergent care and maintain on the premises adequate monitoring equipment,
suction apparatus, oxygen, and related items for resuscitation and control of
hemorrhage and other complications.
B. An abortion facility that performs abortions using
intravenous sedation shall provide equipment and services to render emergency
resuscitative and life-support procedures pending transfer of the patient to a
hospital. Such medical equipment and services shall be consistent with the
current edition of the American Heart Association's Guidelines for Advanced
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation and Emergency Cardiovascular Life
Support Care.
C. A written agreement shall be executed with a licensed
general hospital to ensure that any patient of the abortion facility shall
receive needed emergency treatment. The agreement shall be with a licensed
general hospital capable of providing full surgical, anesthesia, clinical
laboratory, and diagnostic radiology service on 30 minutes notice and which has
a physician in the hospital and available for emergency service at all times.
When emergency transfer is necessary, the responsible physician at the abortion
facility must provide direct communication to the emergency department staff
appropriate receiving facility staff regarding the status of the
patient, the procedure details, and the suspected complication. All patients
must be provided with contact information for a representative of the abortion
facility, so that an emergency department physician or treating provider may
make contact with a provider of the facility if late complications arise.
[ Part V
Support Services - Health Information Records and Reports
12VAC5-412-300. Health information records.
An accurate and complete clinical record or chart shall be
maintained on each patient. The record or chart shall contain sufficient
information to satisfy the diagnosis or need for the medical or surgical
service. It If medically indicated, it shall include, but
not be limited to the following:
1. Patient identification;
2. Admitting information, including patient history and
physical examination;
3. Signed consent;
4. Confirmation of pregnancy;
5. Procedure report to include:
a. Physician orders;
b. Laboratory tests, pathologist's report of tissue, and
radiologist's report of x-rays;
c. Anesthesia record;
d. Operative record;
e. Surgical medication and medical treatments;
f. Recovery room notes;
g. Physicians' and nurses' progress notes;
h. Condition at time of discharge;
i. Patient instructions (preoperative and postoperative); and
j. Names of referral physicians or agencies; and
6. Any other information required by law to be maintained in
the health information record.
12VAC5-412-320. Required reporting.
A. Abortion facilities shall comply with the fetal death and
induced termination of pregnancy reporting provisions in the Board of Health
Regulations Governing Vital Records (12VAC5-550-120).
B. The abortion facility shall report the following events to
OLC:
1. Any patient, staff, or visitor death;
2. Any serious injury to a patient;
3. Medication errors that necessitate a clinical intervention
other than monitoring; and
4. A death or significant injury of a patient or staff member
resulting from a physical assault that occurs within or on the abortion
facility grounds; and
5. Any other incident reported to the malpractice insurance
carrier or in compliance with the federal Safe Medical Devices Act of 1990 (21
USC § 301 et seq. - Pub. L. No. 101-629).
C. Notification of the events listed in subsection B of this
section shall be required within 24 hours of occurrence. Each notice shall
contain the:
1. Abortion facility name;
2. Type and circumstance of the event being reported;
3. Date of the event; and
4. Actions taken by the abortion facility to protect patient
and staff safety and to prevent recurrence.
D. Compliance with this section does not relieve the abortion
facility from complying with any other applicable reporting or notification requirements,
such as those relating to law-enforcement or professional regulatory agencies.
E. Records that are confidential under federal or state law
shall be maintained as confidential by the OLC and shall not be further
disclosed by the OLC, except as required or permitted by law.
F. Abortion facilities shall ensure that employees mandated
to report suspected child abuse or neglect under § 63.2-1509 of the Code
of Virginia comply with the reporting requirements of § 63.2-1509 of the
Code of Virginia.
Part VI
Functional Safety and Maintenance
12VAC5-412-330. Abortion facility security and safety.
The abortion facility shall develop, implement, and maintain
policies and procedures to ensure safety within the abortion facility and on
its grounds and to minimize hazards to all occupants. The policies and
procedures shall include, but not be limited to:
1. Abortion facility security;
2. Safety safety rules and practices
pertaining to personnel, equipment, gases, liquids, drugs, supplies, and
services; and
3. Provisions for disseminating safety-related information
to employees and users of the abortion facility.
12VAC5-412-350. Maintenance.
A. The abortion facility's structure, its component parts,
and all equipment such as elevators, heating, cooling, ventilation, and
emergency lighting, shall be kept in good repair and operating condition. Areas
used by patients shall be maintained in good repair and kept free of hazards.
All wooden surfaces shall be sealed with nonlead-based paint, lacquer, varnish,
or shellac that will allow sanitization.
B. When patient monitoring equipment is utilized, a
written preventive maintenance program shall be developed and implemented. This
equipment shall be checked and/or tested in accordance with manufacturer's
specifications at periodic intervals, not less than annually, to ensure proper
operation and a state of good repair. After repairs and/or alterations are made
to any equipment, the equipment shall be thoroughly tested for proper operation
before it is returned to service. Records shall be maintained on each piece of
equipment to indicate its history of testing and maintenance.
12VAC5-412-360. Firefighting equipment and systems. (Repealed.)
A. Each abortion facility shall establish a monitoring
program for the internal enforcement of all applicable fire and safety laws and
regulations and shall designate a responsible employee for the monitoring
program.
B. All fire protection and alarm systems and other
firefighting equipment shall be inspected and tested in accordance with the
current edition of the Virginia Statewide Fire Prevention Code (§ 27-94 et seq.
of the Code of Virginia) to maintain them in serviceable condition.
C. All corridors and other means of egress or exit from
the building shall be maintained clear and free of obstructions in accordance
with the current edition of the Virginia Statewide Fire Prevention Code (§
27-94 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). ]
Part VII
Design and Construction
12VAC5-412-370. Local and state codes and standards.
Abortion facilities [ A. ] All
construction of new buildings and additions or major renovations to existing
buildings for occupancy as an abortion facility shall [ comply with conform
to all applicable ] state and local codes, and
[ zoning ], and building ordinances [ and the
Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63) ]. In
addition, abortion facilities [ All construction of new
buildings and additions or major renovations to existing buildings for
occupancy as an abortion facility that perform only surgical abortions or a
combination of surgical and medication induced abortions shall ] comply
[ be designed and constructed consistent with Part 1 and ]
sections 3.1-1 through 3.1-8 and section 3.7 [ section 3.8
of Part 3 of the ] 2010 [ Guidelines for Design and
Construction of ] Health Care [ Hospitals and
Outpatient Facilities ] of the [ , 2014 edition,
The Facilities Guidelines Institute (2014 guidelines), ] which
shall take precedence over the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code
[ pursuant to § 32.1-127.001 of the Code of Virginia. Abortion
facilities that perform only medication induced abortions shall be designed and
constructed consistent with sections 1.1, 1.3, and 1.4 of Part 1 of the 2014
guidelines. ]
Entities operating as of the effective date of this
chapter as identified by the department through submission of Reports of
Induced Termination of Pregnancy pursuant to 12VAC5-550-120 or other means and
that are now subject to licensure may be licensed in their current buildings if
such entities submit a plan with the application for licensure that will bring
them into full compliance with this provision within two years from the date of
licensure.
[ Abortion procedures may take place in a
procedure room, as detailed in section 3.8-3.1 of Part 3 of the 2014
guidelines, except that minimum square footage requirements for procedure rooms
used for the provision of surgical abortion do not need to be greater than 120
square feet, with a minimum room dimension of 10 feet and a minimum clear
dimension of three feet at each side and at the foot of the bed. Rooms designed
in accordance with section 3.8-3.2 of Part 3 of the 2014 guidelines are
not required for abortion facilities. Section 3.7-3.6.13.1(2) of Part 3 of the
2014 guidelines shall not apply to facilities that do not have a room designed
in accordance with section 3.8-3.2.
Architectural drawings and specifications for all new
construction or for additions, alterations, or renovations to any existing
building shall be dated, stamped with professional seal, and signed by the
architect. The architect shall certify that the drawings and specifications
were prepared to conform to the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code
(13VAC5-63) and be consistent with the applicable sections of the 2014 guidelines.
The certification shall be forwarded to the Office of Licensure and
Certification of the Virginia Department of Health.
B. In order to determine whether the abortion ]
facility [ facility's design and construction is ]
in compliance [ consistent with ] this
provision [ the applicable sections of the 2014 guidelines,
the commissioner may obtain additional information from the facility or its
architect ] concerning the design and construction of the facility
[ . ]
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC5-412)
[ Guidelines for Design and Construction of ]
Health Care [ Hospitals and Outpatient Facilities, ]
2010 Edition [ 2014 edition, ] Part 1 and
Sections 3.1- through 3.1-8 and 3.7 of Part 3, [ The
Facilities Guidelines Institute ] (formerly of the American
Institute of Architects) [ , Washington, D.C. (http://www.fgiguidelines.org) ]
Guidelines for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation and Emergency
Cardiovascular Care [ . Circulation. November 2, 2010, Volume 122,
Issue 18 Suppl 3, 2015, ] American Heart Association, 7272
Greenville Avenue, Dallas, TX 75231-4596 [ (http://circ.ahajournals.org/content/vol122/18_suppl_3/).
(https://eccguidelines.heart.org/index.php/circulation/cpr-ecc-guidelines-2/) ]
Sexually Transmitted Diseases Treatment Guidelines, 2010,
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, U.S. Department of Health and Human
Services
[ Sexually
Transmitted Diseases Treatment Guidelines, 2015, Centers for Disease
Control and Prevention, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (http://www.cdc.gov/std/tg2015/default.htm) ]
Guide to Infection Prevention for Outpatient Settings:
Minimum Expectations for Safe Care, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention,
U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (http://www.cdc.gov/HAI/prevent/prevent_pubs.html).
[ Guide to Infection Prevention for Outpatient
Settings: Minimum Expectations for Safe Care, version 2.2, November 2015,
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, U.S. Department of Health and Human
Services (http://www.cdc.gov/HAI/settings/outpatient/outpatient-care-guidelines.html) ]
Standards for Ambulatory Care, Rights and Responsibilities
of the Individual, 2011, [ 2015 Standards for Ambulatory Care,
The Joint Commission, 1515 W. 22nd Street, Suite 1300W, Oak Brook, IL 60523,
telephone ] 1-877-223-2866 [ 1-770-238-0454,
email jcrcustomerservice@pbd.com. ]
Bloodborne Pathogens - OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens
Standard, OSHA Fact Sheet and Quick Reference Guide, 2011 U.S. Occupational
Safety and Health Administration
VA.R. Doc. No. R15-4258; Filed January 25, 2017, 8:41 a.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Emergency Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-10. State Plan under
Title XIX of the Social Security Act Medical Assistance Program; General Provisions (amending 12VAC30-10-540).
12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration, and Scope of Medical and
Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-130).
12VAC30-60. Standards Established and Methods Used to Assure
High Quality Care (amending 12VAC30-60-5, 12VAC30-60-50,
12VAC30-60-61).
12VAC30-130. Amount, Duration and Scope of Selected Services (amending 12VAC30-130-3000; repealing
12VAC30-130-850, 12VAC30-130-860, 12VAC30-130-870, 12VAC30-130-880,
12VAC30-130-890, 12VAC30-130-3020).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of
Virginia; 42 USC § 1396 et seq.
Effective Dates: July 1, 2017, through December 31,
2018.
Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,
Policy Division, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad
Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX (804)
786-1680, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
Preamble:
The psychiatric residential treatment service was
implemented in 2001. The existing regulations are not adequate to ensure
successful treatment outcomes are attained for the individuals who receive high
cost high intensity residential treatment services. Since moving behavioral
health services to Magellan (the DMAS behavioral health service administrator
or BHSA) there has been enhanced supervision of these services. The enhanced
supervision has led to an increased awareness of some safety challenges and
administrative challenges in this high level of care. The proposed revisions
will serve to better clarify policy interpretations that revise program
standards to allow for more evidence-based service delivery, allow DMAS to
implement more effective utilization management in collaboration with the BHSA,
enhance individualized coordination of care, implement standardized
coordination of individualized aftercare resources by ensuring access to
medical and behavioral health service providers in the individual's home
community, and support DMAS audit practices. The changes will move toward a
service model that will reduce lengths of stay for and facilitate an
evidence-based treatment approach to better support the individual's discharge
into his home environment.
The emergency action, pursuant to § 2.2-4011 of the Code of
Virginia, includes changes to the following areas: (i) provider qualifications
including acceptable licensing standards, (ii) preadmission assessment requirements,
(iii) program requirements, (iv) new discharge planning and care coordination
requirements, and (iv) language enhancements for utilization review
requirements to clarify program requirements and help providers avoid payment
retractions. These changes are part of a review of the services to ensure that
they are effectively delivered and utilized for individuals who meet the
medical necessity criteria. For each individual seeking residential treatment
their treatment needs will be assessed with enhanced requirements by the
current independent certification teams who must coordinate clinical assessment
information and assess local resources for each person requesting residential
care to determine an appropriate level of care. The certification teams will
also be more able to coordinate referrals for care to determine, in accordance
with Department of Justice requirements, whether or not the individual seeking
services can be safely served using community-based services in the least
restrictive setting. Independent team certifications will be conducted prior to
the onset of specified services, as required by Centers for Medicare and
Medicaid Services guidelines, by the DMAS behavioral health services
administrator.
The proposal includes changes to program requirements that
ensure that effective levels of care coordination and discharge planning occurs
for each individual during his residential stay by enhancing program rules and
utilization management principles that facilitate effective discharge planning
and establish community-based services prior to the individual's discharge from
residential care. The proposal requires enhanced care coordination to provide
the necessary, objective evaluations of treatment progress and to facilitate
evidence-based practices during the treatment to reduce the length of stay by
ensuring that medical necessity indicates the correct level of care and that
appropriate and effective care is delivered in a person-centered manner. The
proposal requires that service providers and local systems will use
standardized preadmission and discharge processes to ensure effective services
are delivered.
This emergency action is in compliance with provisions of
Item 301 OO and Item 301 PP of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly, as follows:
Item 301 OO c 7, 8, 9, 14, 15, 16, 17, and 18 directed that
DMAS shall develop a blueprint for a care coordination model for individuals in
need of behavioral health services that includes the following principles:
"7. Develops direct linkages between medical and
behavioral services in order to make it easier for consumers to obtain timely
access to care and services, which could include up to full integration.
8. Builds upon current best practices in the delivery of
behavioral health services.
9. Accounts for local services and reflects familiarity
with the community where services are provided.
…
14. Achieves cost savings through decreasing avoidable
episodes of care and hospitalizations, strengthening the discharge planning
process, improving adherence to medication regimens, and utilizing community
alternatives to hospitalizations and institutionalization.
15. Simplifies the administration of acute psychiatric,
community and mental health rehabilitation, and medical health services for the
coordinating entity, providers, and consumers.
16. Requires standardized data collection, outcome
measures, customer satisfaction surveys, and reports to track costs,
utilization of services, and outcomes. Performance data should be explicit,
benchmarked, standardized, publicly available, and validated.
17. Provides actionable data and feedback to providers.
18. In accordance with federal and state regulations,
includes provisions for effective and timely grievances and appeals for
consumers."
Item 301 OO d states:
"The department may seek the necessary waiver(s) or
State Plan authorization under Titles XIX and XXI of the Social Security Act to
develop and implement a care coordination model … This model may be applied to
individuals on a mandatory basis. The department shall have authority to
promulgate emergency regulations to implement this amendment within 280 days or
less from the enactment date of this act."
Item 301 PP states:
"The Department of Medical Assistance Services shall
make programmatic changes in the provision of Residential Treatment Facility
(Level C) and Levels A and B residential services (group homes) for children
with serious emotional disturbances in order [to] ensure appropriate
utilization and cost efficiency. The department shall consider all available
options including, but not limited to, prior authorization, utilization review
and provider qualifications. The department shall have authority to promulgate
regulations to implement these changes within 280 days or less from the enactment
date of this act."
In response to Item 301 OO c 14, DMAS is proposing new
requirements to ensure that comprehensive discharge planning begins at
admission to a therapeutic group home or residential treatment facility so that
the individual can return to the community setting with appropriate supports at
the soonest possible time.
DMAS is responding to the legislative mandates in Item 301
OO c 7 through 9, 14, and 15 by sunsetting the Virginia Independent Assessment
Program (VICAP) regulation at 12VAC30-130-3020. The VICAP program is no longer
needed, as the BHSA is now conducting thorough reviews of medical necessity for
each requested service, and the funds allocated to the VICAP program can be
more effectively used elsewhere.
DMAS is responding to the legislative mandates in Item 301
OO c 16 through 18 by creating a single point of contact at the BHSA for
families and caregivers who will increase timely access to residential
behavioral health services, promote effective service delivery, and decrease
wait times for medical necessity and placement decisions that previously have
been managed by local family assessment and planning teams (FAPT). The FAPTs
are not DMAS-enrolled service providers, and the individuals who must use the
FAPT process to gain access to Medicaid covered residential treatment are not
subject to the established Medicaid grievance process and choice options as
mandated by CMS. The enhanced interaction of the families and the BHSA will
enable more thorough data collection to ensure freedom of choice in service
providers, and to measure locality trends, service provider trends, and
population trends to facilitate evidence-based decisions in both the clinical
service delivery and administration of the program. The enhanced family interaction
will enable the BHSA to complete individual family surveys and monitor care
more effectively after discharge from services to assess the family and
individual perspective on service delivery and enable DMAS to more effectively
manage evidence-based residential treatment services.
Since 2001, when residential treatment services were
implemented by DMAS, individuals have not had access to standardized methods of
effective care coordination upon entry into residential treatment due to
locality influence and DMAS reimbursement limitations. This has resulted in a
fragmented coordination approach for these individuals who are at risk for high
levels of care and remain at risk of repeated placements at this level of care.
The residential treatment prior authorization and utilization management
structures require an enhanced care coordination model to support the
individuals who receive this level of service to ensure an effective return to
the family or caregiver home environment with follow-up services to facilitate
ongoing treatment progress in the least restrictive environment. The added
coordination is required to navigate a very complex service environment for the
individual as the individual returns to a community setting to establish an
effective aftercare environment that involves service providers who may be
contracted with a variety of entities such as DMAS contracted managed care
organizations (MCOs), BHSA enrolled providers, the local FAPT, local school
divisions, and the local community services board (CSB). This regulation will
allow DMAS to implement a contracted care coordination team that will focus on
attaining specific clinical outcomes for all residential care episodes and
provide a new single liaison who will ensure coordination of care in a complex
service environment for individuals upon discharge from residential treatment
and prior to the time when they will enroll in an MCO. During this transition
period the individual is very vulnerable to repeated admissions to residential
or inpatient care and must also be supported in the fee for service (FFS)
environment with resources from the local CSB and BHSA enrolled services
providers and requires ongoing support and coordination with the local FAPT to
provide aftercare services consisting of post-discharge follow-up and
transition services provided by the BHSA coordination team.
The care coordination team will (i) provide increased
standardization of preadmission assessment activity, (ii) provide facilitation
of an effective independent certification team process, (iii) ensure that MCO
and medical home resources are used to provide accurate psychosocial assessment
and clinical/medical history to the certification team and BHSA, (iv)
facilitate accurate authorization decisions and consider community-based
service options prior to any out-of-home placement, (v) facilitate high levels
of family involvement, (vi) provide aggressive discharge planning that ensures
smooth transition into community-based services and MCO-funded health services,
and (vii) provide meaningful, coordinated post-discharge follow-up for up to 90
days after discharge with the youth and family.
The residential care coordination team will ensure
meaningful communication across all parts of the Comprehensive Services Act,
Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, MCO, and FFS
service systems to maximize efficiency of activities, eliminate duplicative or
conflicting efforts, and ensure established timelines are met (e.g., regular
assessment of progress).
These enclosed proposed utilization control requirements
are recommended consistent with the federal requirements at 42 CFR Part 456
Utilization Control. Specifically, 42 CFR 456.3, "Statewide surveillance
and utilization control program" provides: "The Medicaid agency must
implement a statewide surveillance and utilization control program that—
(a) Safeguards against unnecessary or inappropriate use of
Medicaid services and against excess payments;
(b) Assesses the quality of those services;
(c) Provides for the control of the utilization of all
services provided under the plan in accordance with subpart B of this part, and
(d) Provides for the control of the utilization of
inpatient services in accordance with subparts C through I of this part."
The Code of Federal Regulations also provides, at 42 CFR
430.10, "...The State plan contains all information necessary for CMS to
determine whether the plan can be approved to serve as a basis for Federal
financial participation (FFP) in the State program." FFP is the federal
matching funds that DMAS receives from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Services. Not performing utilization control of the services affected by these
proposed regulations, as well as all Medicaid covered services, could subject
DMAS' federal matching funds to a CMS recovery action.
Purpose. This regulatory action is essential to protect the
health, safety, or welfare of individuals with Medicaid who require behavioral
health services. In addition, these proposed changes are intended to promote improved
quality of Medicaid-covered behavioral health services provided to individuals.
This regulatory action is also essential to ensure that
Medicaid individuals and their families are well informed about their
behavioral health condition and service options prior to receiving these
services. This ensures the services are medically necessary for the individual
and are rendered by providers who use evidence-based treatment approaches.
While residential treatment is not a service that should be
approved with great frequency for a large number of individuals, it is a
service that should be accessible to the families and individuals who require
that level of care. The current service model has significant operational
layers that must be navigated to access residential services. The current
program processes involve coordination of care by local FAPT teams who have,
over time, demonstrated some influence on determining an individual's
eligibility for FAPT funded services. The local influence on the program's administration
causes limitations on individualized freedom of provider choice and
inconsistent authorization of funding for persons deemed to need psychiatric
care out of the home setting. This local administration of the primary referral
source for residential treatment lies outside the purview of DMAS and this
situation produces outcomes that are inadequate to meet CMS requirements on
ensuring the individual freedom of choice of providers. In addition, local FAPT
administrators do not enforce the Department of Justice settlement requirements
in a uniform manner.
DMAS has added content to program requirements and covered
services portions of the regulations to better clarify the benefit coverage and
utilization criteria. The emergency regulations allow the use of additional
information collection to better assess ways to reduce the average length of
stay for individuals in residential care, and to better coordinate educational
funding for those who require medically necessary services in a psychiatric
treatment setting by using enhanced Medicaid supports.
The goal is that individuals receive the correct level of
service at the correct time for the treatment (service) needs related to the
individual's medical/psychiatric condition. Residential treatment services
consist of behavioral health interventions and are intended to provide high
intensity clinical treatment that should be provided for a short duration.
Stakeholder feedback supported DMAS observations of lengthy durations of stay
for many individuals. Residential treatment services will benefit from
clarification of the service definition and eligibility requirements to ensure
that residential treatment does not evolve into a long-term level of support
instead of the high intensity psychiatric treatment modality that defines this
level of care.
Substance. The sections of the State Plan for Medical
Assistance that are affected by this action are 12VAC30-10-540 (Inspection of
care in intermediate care facilities); 12VAC30-50-130 (Skilled nursing facility
services, EPSDT, school health services, and family planning); 12VAC30-60-5
(Applicability of utilization review requirements); 12VAC30-60-50 (Utilization
control: Intermediate Care Facilities for the Mentally Retarded (ICF/MR) and
Institutions for Mental Disease (IMD); 12VAC30-60-61 (Services related to the
Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment Program (EPSDT);
community mental health services for children). The state-only regulations that
are affected by this action are 12VAC30-130-850 through 12VAC30-130-890 (Part
XIV - Residential Psychiatric Treatment for Children and Adolescents).
12VAC30-10-540. Inspection of care in intermediate care
facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
developmental disabilities, facilities providing inpatient psychiatric
services for individuals under 21, and mental hospitals.
All applicable requirements of 42 CFR 456, Subpart I, are met
with respect to periodic inspections of care and services.*
Inpatient psychiatric services for individuals under age
21 are not provided under this plan.
*Inspection of Care care (IOC) in Intermediate
Care Facilities intermediate care facilities for the Mentally
Retarded and Institutions for Mental Diseases are persons with
intellectual and developmental disabilities is completed through
contractual arrangements with the Virginia Department of Health.
12VAC30-50-130. Skilled nursing facility services, EPSDT,
school health services, and family planning.
A. Skilled nursing facility services (other than services in
an institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older.
Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
performed within the scope of a license of the practitioner of the healing
arts.
B. Early and periodic screening and, diagnosis,
and treatment (EPSDT) of individuals under 21 years of age, and treatment
of conditions found - general provisions.
1. Payment of medical assistance services shall be made on
behalf of individuals under 21 years of age, who are Medicaid eligible, for
medically necessary stays in acute care facilities, and the accompanying
attendant physician care, in excess of 21 days per admission when such services
are rendered for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of health conditions
identified through a physical examination.
2. Routine physicals and immunizations (except as provided
through EPSDT) are not covered except that well-child examinations in a private
physician's office are covered for foster children of the local social services
departments on specific referral from those departments.
3. Orthoptics services shall only be reimbursed if medically
necessary to correct a visual defect identified by an EPSDT examination or
evaluation. The department shall place appropriate utilization controls upon
this service.
4. Consistent with the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of
1989 § 6403, early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment services
means the following services: screening services, vision services, dental
services, hearing services, and such other necessary health care, diagnostic
services, treatment, and other measures described in Social Security Act §
1905(a) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and mental illnesses and
conditions discovered by the screening services and which are medically
necessary, whether or not such services are covered under the State Plan and
notwithstanding the limitations, applicable to recipients ages 21 and over,
provided for by the Act § 1905(a).
5. Community C. Early and periodic screening
diagnosis and treatment (EPSDT) of individuals younger than 21 years of age -
community mental health services. These services in order to be covered (i)
shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses made by LMHPs who
are practicing within the scope of their licenses and (ii) are reflected in
provider records and on providers' provider claims for services
by recognized diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the
requested professional services.
a. 1. Definitions. The following words and terms
when used in this section shall have the following meanings unless the context
clearly indicates otherwise:
"Activities of daily living" means personal care
activities and includes bathing, dressing, transferring, toileting, feeding,
and eating.
"Adolescent or child" means the individual
receiving the services described in this section. For the purpose of the use of
these terms this term, adolescent means an individual 12-20 years
of age; a child means an individual from birth up to 12 years of age.
"Behavioral health services administrator" or
"BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
benefits program under contract with DMAS.
"Care coordination" means collaboration and sharing
of information among health care providers, who are involved with an
individual's health care, to improve the care.
"Certified prescreener" means an employee of the
local community services board or behavioral health authority, or its designee,
who is skilled in the assessment and treatment of mental illness and has
completed a certification program approved by the Department of Behavioral
Health and Developmental Services.
"Clinical experience" means providing direct
behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
in-home services, (ii) day treatment for children and adolescents, (iii)
community-based residential services for children and adolescents who are
younger than 21 years of age (Level A), or (iv) therapeutic behavioral services
(Level B). Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be as
established by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Child" means the individual receiving the
services described in this section; an individual from birth up to 12 years of
age.
"DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
and Developmental Services.
"DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
Services and its contractor or contractors.
"Human services field" means the same as the term
is defined by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
the same as the term is defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
"Licensed mental health professional" or
"LMHP" means a licensed physician, licensed clinical psychologist,
licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical social worker, licensed
substance abuse treatment practitioner, licensed marriage and family therapist,
or certified psychiatric clinical nurse specialist the same as defined
in 12VAC35-105-20.
"LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the same
as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a
"resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Counseling. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by such residents, they shall use the title
"Resident" in connection with the applicable profession after their
signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-resident in psychology" or "LMHP-RP"
means the same as an individual in a residency, as that term is defined in
18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An LMHP-resident in
psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the regulatory requirements
for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65 and shall not perform the
functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a "resident" until the
supervision for specific clinical duties at a specific site has been
preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Psychology. For purposes of
Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services provided by such residents,
they shall use the title "Resident in Psychology" after their
signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
"LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
"supervisee" as defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be
considered a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical
duties at a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Social Work. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title "Supervisee
in Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such status.
"Progress notes" means individual-specific
documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
the notes. Individualized and member-specific progress notes are part of the
minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's status,
staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress, or lack of
progress, toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes shall also
include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the
service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered the
service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time
or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each progress
note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be
documented for each service that is billed.
"Psychoeducation" means (i) a specific form of
education aimed at helping individuals who have mental illness and their family
members or caregivers to access clear and concise information about mental
illness and (ii) a way of accessing and learning strategies to deal with mental
illness and its effects in order to design effective treatment plans and
strategies.
"Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving and increasing coping
skills.
"Qualified mental health professional-child" or
"QMHP-C" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
"QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20 and
consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-590.
"Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
"QPPMH" means the same as the term is defined in
12VAC35-105-20 and consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
"Service-specific provider intake" means the
face-to-face interaction in which the provider obtains information from the
child or adolescent, and parent or other family member or members, as
appropriate, about the child's or adolescent's mental health status. It
includes documented history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental
health care problems and issues and shall contain all of the following
elements: (i) the presenting issue/reason for referral, (ii) mental health
history/hospitalizations, (iii) previous interventions by providers and
timeframes and response to treatment, (iv) medical profile, (v) developmental
history including history of abuse, if appropriate, (vi) educational/vocational
status, (vii) current living situation and family history and relationships,
(viii) legal status, (ix) drug and alcohol profile, (x) resources and
strengths, (xi) mental status exam and profile, (xii) diagnosis, (xiii)
professional summary and clinical formulation, (xiv) recommended care and
treatment goals, and (xv) the dated signature of the LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
b. 2. Intensive in-home services (IIH) to
children and adolescents under age 21 shall be time-limited interventions
provided in the individual's residence and when clinically necessary in
community settings. All interventions and the settings of the intervention
shall be defined in the Individual Service Plan. All IIH services shall be
designed to specifically improve family dynamics, provide modeling, and the
clinically necessary interventions that increase functional and therapeutic
interpersonal relations between family members in the home. IIH services are
designed to promote psychoeducational benefits in the home setting of an
individual who is at risk of being moved into an out-of-home placement or who
is being transitioned to home from an out-of-home placement due to a documented
medical need of the individual. These services provide crisis treatment;
individual and family counseling; communication skills (e.g., counseling to
assist the individual and his parents or guardians, as appropriate, to
understand and practice appropriate problem solving, anger management, and
interpersonal interaction, etc.); care coordination with other required
services; and 24-hour emergency response.
(1) These services shall be limited annually to 26 weeks.
a. Service authorization shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement
prior to the onset of services. Services rendered before the date of
authorization shall not be reimbursed.
(2) b. Service authorization shall be required
for services to continue beyond the initial 26 weeks.
(3) c. Service-specific provider intakes shall
be required at the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the
entire duration of services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or
outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement.
Requirements for service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are set out in this
section.
(4) d. These services may shall
only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C,
or a QMHP-E.
c. 3. Therapeutic day treatment (TDT) shall be
provided two or more hours per day in order to provide therapeutic
interventions. Day treatment programs, limited annually to 780 units, (a
unit is defined in 12VAC30-60-61 D 11) provide evaluation; medication education
and management; opportunities to learn and use daily living skills and to
enhance social and interpersonal skills (e.g., problem solving, anger
management, community responsibility, increased impulse control, and
appropriate peer relations, etc.); and individual, group and family counseling.
(1) a. Service authorization shall be required
for Medicaid reimbursement.
(2) b. Service-specific provider intakes shall
be required at the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the
entire duration of services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or
outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied
reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are
set out in this section.
(3) c. These services may shall be
rendered only by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or
a QMHP-E.
d. Community-based services for children and adolescents
under 21 years of age (Level A).
(1) Such services shall be a combination of therapeutic
services rendered in a residential setting. The residential services will
provide structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic
supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric treatment to ensure the
attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the individual
service plan (plan of care). Individuals qualifying for this service must
demonstrate medical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to
mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments
in major life activities in the home, school, at work, or in the community. The
service must reasonably be expected to improve the child's condition or prevent
regression so that the services will no longer be needed. The application of a
national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry,
such as McKesson InterQual® Criteria or an equivalent standard
authorized in advance by DMAS, shall be required for this service.
(2) In addition to the residential services, the child must
receive, at least weekly, individual psychotherapy that is provided by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
(3) Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
other less intensive services may achieve stabilization.
(4) Authorization shall be required for Medicaid
reimbursement. Services that were rendered before the date of service
authorization shall not be reimbursed.
(5) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed. DMAS
shall reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no
more than 16 beds.
(6) These residential providers must be licensed by the
Department of Social Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of
Behavioral Health and Developmental Services under the Standards for Licensed
Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC40-151), Standards for Interim
Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (6VAC35-51), or Regulations for
Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
(7) Daily progress notes shall document a minimum of seven
psychoeducational activities per week. Psychoeducational programming must
include, but is not limited to, development or maintenance of daily living
skills, anger management, social skills, family living skills, communication
skills, stress management, and any care coordination activities.
(8) The facility/group home must coordinate services with
other providers. Such care coordination shall be documented in the individual's
medical record. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
(9) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-60-61.
(10) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
D. Early and periodic screening diagnosis and treatment
(EPSDT) of individuals younger than 21 years of age - therapeutic group home
services and residential treatment services.
1. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
this subsection shall have the following meanings:
"Active treatment" means implementation of an
initial plan of care (IPOC) and comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC)
that shall be developed, supervised, and approved by the family or legally
authorized representative, treating physician, psychiatrist, or LMHP
responsible for the overall supervision of the CIPOC. Each plan of care shall
be designed to improve the individual's condition and to achieve the
individual's safe discharge from residential care at the earliest possible
time.
"Assessment" means a service conducted within
seven calendar days of admission by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S
utilizing a tool or series of tools to provide a comprehensive evaluation and
review of an individual's current mental health status in order to make
recommendations; provide diagnosis; identify strengths, needs, and risk level;
and describe the severity of symptoms.
"Behavioral health services administrator" or
"BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
benefits program under contract with DMAS.
"Certificate of need" or "CON" means a
written statement by an independent certification team that services in a
residential treatment facility are or were needed.
"Combined treatment services" means a structured,
therapeutic milieu and planned interventions that promote (i) the development
or restoration of adaptive functioning, self-care, and social skills; (ii)
community integrated activities and community living skills that each
individual requires to live in less restrictive environments; (iii) behavioral
consultation; (iv) individual and group therapy; (v) recreation therapy, (vi)
family education and family therapy; and (vii) individualized treatment
planning.
"Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
"CIPOC" means a person-centered plan of care that meets all of the
requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
information gathered during the referral process.
"Crisis" means a deteriorating or unstable
situation, often developing suddenly that produces an acute, heightened
emotional, mental, physical, medical, or behavioral event.
"Crisis management" means immediately provided
activities and interventions designed to rapidly manage a crisis.
"Daily supervision" means the supervision
provided in a residential treatment facility through a resident-to-staff ratio
approved by the Office of Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and
Developmental Services with documented supervision checks every 15 minutes
throughout the 24-hour period.
"Discharge planning" means family and
locality-based care coordination that begins upon admission to a residential
treatment facility or therapeutic group home with the goal of transitioning the
individual out of the residential treatment facility or therapeutic group home
to a less restrictive care setting with continued, clinically-appropriate, and
possibly intensive, services as soon as possible upon discharge. Discharge
plans shall be recommended by the treating physician, psychiatrist, or treating
LMHP responsible for the overall supervision of the CIPOC and shall be approved
by the BHSA.
"DSM-5" means the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, copyright 2013, American Psychiatric
Association.
"Emergency admissions" means those admissions
that are made when, pending a review for the certificate of need, it appears
that the individual is in need of an immediate admission to group home or
residential treatment and likely does not meet the medical necessity criteria
to receive crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, or acute psychiatric
inpatient services.
"Emergency services" means unscheduled and
sometimes scheduled crisis intervention, stabilization, acute psychiatric
inpatient services, and referral assistance provided over the telephone or
face-to-face if indicated, and available 24 hours a day, seven days per week.
"Family engagement" means a family-centered and strengths-based
approach to partnering with families in making decisions, setting goals,
achieving desired outcomes, and promoting safety, permanency, and well-being
for children, youth, and families. Family engagement requires ongoing
opportunities for an individual to build and maintain meaningful relationships
with family members, for example, frequent, unscheduled, and noncontingent
phone calls and visits between an individual and family members. Family
engagement may also include enhancing or facilitating the development of the
individual's relationship with other family members and supportive adults
responsible for the individual's care and well-being upon discharge.
"Family engagement activity" means an
intervention consisting of family psychoeducational training or coaching,
transition planning with the family, family and independent living skills, and
training on accessing community supports as identified in the IPOC and CIPOC.
Family engagement activity does not include and is not the same as family
therapy.
"Independent certification team" means a team
that has competence in diagnosis and treatment of mental illness, preferably in
child psychiatry; has knowledge of the individual's situation; and is composed
of at least one physician and one LMHP. The independent certification team
shall be a DMAS-authorized contractor with contractual or employment
relationships with the required team members.
"Individual" means the child or adolescent
younger than 21 years of age who is receiving therapeutic group home or
residential treatment facility services.
"Initial plan of care" or "IPOC" means
a person-centered plan of care established at admission that meets all of the
requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
information gathered during the referral process.
"Intervention" means scheduled therapeutic
treatment such as individual or group psychoeducation; psychoeducational
activities with specific topics focused to address individualized needs;
structured behavior support and training activities; recreation, art, and music
therapies; community integration activities that promote or assist in the
youth's ability to acquire coping and functional or self-regulating behavior
skills; day and overnight passes; and family engagement activities.
Interventions shall not include individual, group, and family therapy,
medical, or dental appointments, physician services, medication evaluation or
management provided by a licensed clinician or physician and shall not include
school attendance. Interventions shall be provided in the therapeutic group
home or residential treatment facility and, when clinically necessary, in a
community setting or as part of a therapeutic leave activity. All interventions
and settings of the intervention shall be established in the CIPOC.
"Physician" means an individual licensed to
practice medicine or osteopathic medicine in Virginia, as defined in §
54.1-2900 of the Code of Virginia.
"Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving, and increasing coping
skills.
"Recertification" means a certification for each
applicant or recipient for whom residential treatment facility services are
needed.
"Residential case management" means providing
care coordination, maintaining records, making calls, sending emails, compiling
monthly reports, scheduling meetings, and performing other administrative tasks
related to the individual. Residential case management is a component of the
combined treatment services provided in a group home setting or residential
treatment facility.
"Residential medical supervision" means
around-the-clock nursing and medical care through onsite nurses and onsite or
on-call physicians, as well as nurse and physician attendance at each treatment
planning meeting. Residential medical supervision is a component of the
combined treatment services provided in a congregate residential care facility
and is included in the reimbursement for residential services.
"Residential supplemental therapies" means a
specified minimum of daily interventions and other professional therapies.
Residential supplemental therapies are a component of the combined treatment
services provided in a congregate residential care facility and are included in
the reimbursement for residential services. Residential providers shall not
bill other payment sources in addition to DMAS for these covered services as
part of a residential stay.
"Residential treatment facility" means the same
as defined in 42 CFR 483.352 and is a 24-hour, supervised, clinically and
medically necessary, out-of-home active treatment program designed to provide
necessary support and address mental health, behavioral, substance abuse,
cognitive, and training needs of an individual younger than 21 years of age in
order to prevent or minimize the need for more intensive inpatient treatment.
"Room and board" means a component of the total
daily cost for placement in a licensed residential treatment facility. Residential
room and board costs are maintenance costs associated with placement in a
licensed residential treatment facility and include a semi-private room, three
meals and two snacks per day, and personal care items. Room and board costs are
reimbursed only for residential treatment settings.
"Therapeutic group home" means a congregate
residential service providing 24-hour supervision in a community-based home
having eight or fewer residents.
"Therapeutic leave" and "therapeutic
passes" mean time at home or time with family consisting of partial
or entire days of time away from the group home or treatment facility with
identified goals as approved by the treating physician, psychiatrist, or LMHP
responsible for the overall supervision of the CIPOC and documented in the
CIPOC that facilitate or measure treatment progress, facilitate aftercare
designed to promote family/community engagement, connection and permanency, and
provide for goal-directed family engagement.
e. 2. Therapeutic behavioral group
home services (Level B).
(1) Such services must be therapeutic services rendered in
a residential setting that provides structure for daily activities,
psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric
treatment to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as
identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). Individuals
qualifying for this service must demonstrate medical necessity for the service
arising from a condition due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that
results in significant functional impairments in major life activities in the
home, school, at work, or in the community. The service must reasonably be
expected to improve the child's condition or prevent regression so that the
services will no longer be needed. The application of a national standardized
set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson
InterQual® Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance
by DMAS shall be required for this service.
a. Therapeutic group home services for children and
adolescents younger than the age of 21 years are combined treatment services.
The combination of therapeutic services rendered in a residential setting
provides a therapeutic structure of daily psychoeducational activities,
therapeutic supervision, behavioral modification, and mental health care to
ensure the attainment of therapeutic goals. The therapeutic group home shall
provide therapeutic services to restore, develop, or maintain appropriate
skills necessary to promote prosocial behavior and healthy living to include
the development of coping skills, family living and health awareness,
interpersonal skills, communication skills, and stress management skills.
Treatment for substance use disorders shall be addressed as clinically
indicated. The program shall include individualized activities provided in
accordance with the IPOC and CIPOC including a minimum of one intervention per
24-hour period in addition to individual, group, and family therapies. Daily
interventions are not required when there is documentation to justify clinical
or medical reasons for the individual's deviations from the service plan.
Interventions shall be documented on a progress note and shall be outlined in
and aligned with the treatment goals and objectives in the IPOC and CIPOC. Any
deviation from the IPOC or CIPOC shall be documented along with a clinical or
medical justification for the deviation.
b. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a
therapeutic group home. The following requirements for severity of need and
intensity and quality of service shall be met to satisfy the medical necessity
criteria for admission.
(1) Admission - severity of need. The following criteria
shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
(a) The individual's behavioral health condition can only
be safely and effectively treated in a 24-hour therapeutic milieu with onsite
behavioral health therapy due to significant impairments in home, school, and
community functioning caused by current mental health symptoms consistent with
a DSM-5 diagnosis.
(b) The certificate of need must demonstrate all of the
following: (i) ambulatory care resources (all available modalities of treatment
less restrictive than inpatient treatment) available in the community do not
meet the treatment needs of the individual; (ii) proper treatment of the
individual's psychiatric condition requires services on an inpatient basis
under the direction of a physician; and (iii) the services can reasonably be
expected to improve the individual's condition or prevent further regression so
that the services will no longer be needed.
(c) An assessment that demonstrates at least two areas of
moderate impairment in major life activities. A moderate impairment is defined
as a major or persistent disruption in major life activities. The state uniform
assessment tool must be completed. A moderate impairment is evidenced by, but
not limited to (i) frequent conflict in the family setting such as credible
threats of physical harm. "Frequent" is defined as more than expected
for the individual's age and developmental level; (ii) frequent inability to
accept age-appropriate direction and supervision from caretakers, from family
members, at school, or in the home or community; (iii) severely limited
involvement in social support, which means significant avoidance of appropriate
social interaction, deterioration of existing relationships, or refusal to
participate in therapeutic interventions; (iv) impaired ability to form a
trusting relationship with at least one caretaker in the home, school, or
community; (v) limited ability to consider the effect of one's inappropriate
conduct on others; and (vi) interactions consistently involving conflict, which
may include impulsive or abusive behaviors.
(d) Less restrictive community-based services have been
given a fully adequate trial and were unsuccessful or, if not attempted, have
been considered, but in either situation were determined to be to be unable to
meet the individual's treatment needs and the reasons for that are discussed in
the application.
(e) The individual's symptoms, or the need for treatment in
a 24 hours a day, seven days a week level of care (LOC), are not primarily due
to any of the following: (i) intellectual disability, developmental disability,
or autistic spectrum disorder; (ii) organic mental disorders, traumatic brain
injury, or other medical condition; or (iii) the individual does not require a
more intensive level of care.
(f) The individual does not require primary medical or
surgical treatment.
(2) Admission - intensity and quality of service. All of
the following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for intensity and
quality of service.
(a) The therapeutic group home service has been prescribed
by a psychiatrist, psychologist, or other LMHP who has documented that a
residential setting is the least restrictive clinically appropriate service
that can meet the specifically identified treatment needs of the individual
(b) Therapeutic group home is not being used for clinically
inappropriate reasons, including: (i) an alternative to incarceration, and/or
preventative detention; (ii) an alternative to parents', guardian's or agency's
capacity to provide a place of residence for the individual; or, (iii) a
treatment intervention, when other less restrictive alternatives are available.
(c) The individual's treatment goals are included in the
service specific provider intake and include behaviorally defined objectives
that require, and can reasonably be achieved within, a therapeutic group home
setting.
(d) The therapeutic group home is required to coordinate
with the individual's community resources, including schools, with the goal of
transitioning the individual out of the program to a less restrictive care
setting for continued, sometimes intensive, services as soon as possible and
appropriate.
(e) The therapeutic group home program must incorporate
nationally established, evidence-based, trauma informed services and supports
that promote recovery and resiliency.
(f) Discharge planning begins upon admission, with concrete
plans for the individual to transition back into the community beginning within
the first week of admission, with clear action steps and target dates outlined
in the treatment plan.
(3) Continued stay criteria. The following criteria shall
be met in order to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
(a) All of the admission guidelines continue to be met and
this is supported by the written clinical documentation.
(b) The individual shall meet one of the following: (i) the
desired outcome or level of functioning has not been restored or improved in
the timeframe outlined in the individual's CIPOC or the individual continues to
be at risk for relapse based on history or (ii) the tenuous nature of the
functional gains and use of less intensive services will not achieve
stabilization.
(c) The individual shall meet one of the following: (i) the
individual has achieved initial CIPOC goals but additional goals are indicated
that cannot be met at a lower level of care; (ii) the individual is making
satisfactory progress toward meeting goals but has not attained CIPOC goals,
and the goals cannot be addressed at a lower level of care; (iii) the
individual is not making progress, and the CIPOC has been modified to identify
more effective interventions; or (iv) there are current indications that the
individual requires this level of treatment to maintain level of functioning as
evidenced by failure to achieve goals identified for therapeutic visits or
stays in a nontreatment residential setting or in a lower level of residential
treatment.
(d) There is a written, up-to-date discharge plan that (i)
identifies the custodial parent or custodial caregiver at discharge; (ii)
identifies the school the individual will attend at discharge; (iii) includes
individualized education program (IEP) recommendations, if necessary; (iv)
outlines the aftercare treatment plan (discharge to another residential LOC is
not an acceptable discharge goal); and (v) lists barriers to community
reintegration and progress made on resolving these barriers since last review.
(e) The active treatment plan includes structure for daily
activities, psychoeducation, and therapeutic supervision and activities to
ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the
treatment plan. In addition to the daily therapeutic residential services, the
child/adolescent must also receive psychotherapy services, care coordination,
family-based discharge planning, and locality-based transition activities.
Intensive family interventions, with a recommended frequency of one family
therapy session per week, although twice per month is minimally acceptable.
Family involvement begins immediately upon admission to therapeutic group home.
If the minimum requirement cannot be met, the reasons must be reported, and
continued efforts to involve family members must also be documented. Under
certain circumstances an alternate plan, aimed at enhancing the individual's
connections with other family members and/or supportive adults may be an
appropriate substitute.
(f) Less restrictive treatment options have been
considered, but cannot yet meet the individual's treatment needs. There is
sufficient current clinical documentation/evidence to show that therapeutic
group home LOC continues to be the least restrictive level of care that can
meet the individual's mental health treatment needs.
(4) Discharge criteria are as follows:
(a) Medicaid reimbursement is not available when other less
intensive services may achieve stabilization.
(b) Reimbursement shall not be made for this level of care
if any of the following applies: (i) the level of functioning has improved with
respect to the goals outlined in the CIPOC and the individual can reasonably be
expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment or (ii) the
individual no longer benefits from service as evidenced by absence of progress
toward CIPOC goals for a period of 60 days.
c. The following clinical interventions shall be required
for each therapeutic group home resident:
(1) Preadmission service-specific provider intake shall be
performed by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S.
(2) A face-to-face behavioral health assessment shall be
performed by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S within 30 days prior to
admission and shall document a DSM-5/ICD-10 diagnosis.
(3) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
independent certification team according to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-130
D 4. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 days by a LMHP, LMHP-R,
LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S acting within their scope of practice.
(4) An initial plan of care shall be completed on the day
of admission by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be signed by the
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual and a family member or
legally authorized representative. The initial plan of care shall include all
of the following:
(a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
strategies and treatment alliance;
(b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
(c) A description of the functional level of the
individual;
(d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
(e) Orders for medications, psychiatric, medical, dental,
and any special health care needs whether or not provided in the facilities,
treatments, restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies,
social services, community integration, diet, and special procedures
recommended for the health and safety of the individual;
(f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care; and
(g) Plans for discharge.
(5) The CIPOC shall be completed no later than 14 calendar
days after admission and shall meet all of the following criteria:
(a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the individual's situation and shall reflect the need
for therapeutic group home care;
(b) Be based on input from school, home, other health care
providers, the individual, and the family or legal guardian;
(c) Shall state treatment objectives that include
measurable short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
achievement;
(d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
to the diagnosis; and
(e) Include a comprehensive discharge plan with necessary,
clinically appropriate community services to ensure continuity of care upon
discharge with the child's family, school, and community.
(6) The CIPOC shall be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30
calendar days by the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a
family member or primary caregiver. Updates shall be signed and dated by the
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a family member or
legally authorized representative. The review shall include all of the
following:
(a) The individual's response to the services provided;
(b) Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
individual's overall response to the CIPOC interventions; and
(c) Determinations regarding whether the services being
provided continue to be required.
(7) Crisis management, clinical assessment, and
individualized therapy shall be provided as indicated in the IPOC and CIPOC to
address intermittent crises and challenges within the group home setting or
community settings as defined in the plan of care and to avoid a higher level
of care.
(8) Care coordination shall be provided with medical,
educational, and other behavioral health providers and other entities involved
in the care and discharge planning for the individual as included in the IPOC
and CIPOC.
(9) Weekly individual therapy shall be provided in the
therapeutic group home, or other settings as appropriate for the individual's
needs, by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which shall be documented in
progress notes in accordance with the requirements in 12VAC30-60-61.
(10) Weekly (or more frequently if clinically indicated)
group therapy shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which
shall be documented in progress notes in accordance with the requirements in
12VAC30-60-61 and as planned and documented in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(11) Family treatment shall be provided as clinically
indicated, provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which shall be
documented in progress notes in accordance with the requirements in
12VAC30-60-61 and as planned and documented in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(12) Family engagement activities shall be provided in
addition to family therapy/counseling. Family engagement activities shall be
provided at least weekly as outlined in the IPOC and CIPOC, and daily
communication with the family or legally authorized representative shall be
part of the family engagement strategies in the IPOC or CIPOC. For each
service authorization period when family engagement is not possible, the
therapeutic group home shall identify and document the specific barriers to the
individual's engagement with his family or legally authorized representatives.
The therapeutic group home shall document on a weekly basis the reasons why
family engagement is not occurring as required. The therapeutic group home
shall document alternative family engagement strategies to be used as part of
the interventions in the IPOC or CIPOC and request approval of the revised IPOC
or CIPOC by DMAS or its contractor. When family engagement is not possible, the
therapeutic group home shall collaborate with DMAS or its contractor on a
weekly basis to develop individualized family engagement strategies and
document the revised strategies in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(13) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
indicated and as paired with facility-based and community-based interventions
and combined treatment services to promote discharge planning, community
integration, and family engagement activities. Twenty-four therapeutic passes
shall be permitted per individual, per admission, without authorization as
approved by the treating LMHP and documented in the CIPOC. Additional
therapeutic leave passes shall require service authorization. Any unauthorized
therapeutic leave passes shall result in retraction for those days of service.
(14) Discharge planning. Beginning at admission and
continuing throughout the individual's stay at the therapeutic group home, the
family or guardian, the community services board (CSB), the family assessment
and planning team (FAPT) case manager, and either the managed care organization
(MCO) or BHSA care manager shall be involved in treatment planning and shall
identify the anticipated needs of the individual and family upon discharge and
available services in the community. Prior to discharge, the therapeutic group
home shall submit an active and viable discharge plan to the BHSA for review.
Once the BHSA approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin actively
collaborating with the family or legally authorized representative and the
treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The therapeutic
group home shall request permission from the parent or legally authorized
representative to share treatment information with these providers and shall
share information pursuant to a valid release. The therapeutic group home shall
request information from post-discharge providers to establish that the
planning of pending services and transition planning activities have begun,
shall establish that active transition planning has begun, shall establish that
the individual has been enrolled in school, and shall provide IEP recommendations
to the school if necessary. The therapeutic group home shall inform the BHSA of
all scheduled appointments within 30 days of discharge and shall notify the
BHSA within one business day of the individual's discharge date from the
therapeutic group home.
(2) Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
Services that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not
be reimbursed.
(3) (15) Room and board costs shall not be
reimbursed. Facilities that only provide independent living services or
nonclinical services that do not meet the requirements of this subsection
are not reimbursed eligible for reimbursement. DMAS shall
reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no more
than 16 beds.
(4) These residential (16) Therapeutic group home
services providers must shall be licensed by the Department
of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) under the Regulations
for Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
(5) Daily progress notes shall document that a minimum of
seven psychoeducational activities per week occurs. Psychoeducational
programming must include, but is not limited to, development or maintenance of
daily living skills, anger management, social skills, family living skills,
communication skills, and stress management. This service may be provided in a
program setting or a community-based group home.
(6) The individual must receive, at least weekly,
individual psychotherapy and, at least weekly, group psychotherapy that is
provided as part of the program.
(7) (17) Individuals shall be discharged from
this service when treatment goals are met or other less intensive
services may achieve stabilization.
(8) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. (18) Services that are based upon incomplete, missing, or
outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs CIPOCs shall
be denied reimbursement. Requirements for intakes and ISPs are set out in
12VAC30-60-61.
(9)These (19) Therapeutic group home services
may only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a
QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH qualified paraprofessional in mental
health.
(10) (20) The facility / or group
home shall coordinate necessary services and discharge planning with
other providers as medically and clinically necessary. Documentation of
this care coordination shall be maintained by the facility / or
group home in the individual's record. The documentation shall include who was
contacted, when the contact occurred, and what information was
transmitted, and recommended next steps.
(21) Failure to perform any of the items described in this
subsection shall result in a retraction of the per diem for each day of
noncompliance.
6. Inpatient psychiatric 3. Residential
treatment facility services shall are a 24-hour, supervised,
clinically and medically necessary out-of-home program designed to provide
necessary support and address mental health, behavioral, substance use,
cognitive, or other treatment needs of an individual younger than the age of 21
years in order to prevent or minimize the need for more intensive inpatient
treatment. Active treatment and comprehensive discharge planning shall begin
prior to admission. In order to be covered for individuals younger
than age 21 for medically necessary stays for the purpose of diagnosis and
treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders identified under EPSDT when
such services are rendered by: these services shall (i) meet
DMAS-approved psychiatric medical necessity criteria or be approved as an EPSDT
service based upon a diagnosis made by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S who
is practicing within the scope of his license and (ii) be reflected in provider
records and on the provider's claims for services by recognized diagnosis codes
that support and are consistent with the requested professional services.
a. A psychiatric hospital or an inpatient psychiatric
program in a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
Healthcare Organizations; or a psychiatric facility that is accredited by the
Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission
on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Accreditation of
Services for Families and Children or the Council on Quality and Leadership.
b. Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general
acute care hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be
subject to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and
12VAC30-60-25. Inpatient psychiatric admissions to residential treatment
facilities shall also be subject to the requirements of Part XIV
(12VAC30-130-850 et seq.) of Amount, Duration and Scope of Selected Services.
c. Inpatient psychiatric services are reimbursable only
when the treatment program is fully in compliance with 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart
D, as contained in 42 CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 441.152 through 441.156. Each
admission must be preauthorized and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements
for clinical necessity.
a. Residential treatment facility services shall be covered
for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral
disorders when such services are rendered by:
(1) A psychiatric hospital or an inpatient psychiatric
program in a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission; or a psychiatric
facility that is accredited by the Joint Commission, the Commission on
Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Accreditation of
Services for Families and Children, or the Council on Quality and Leadership.
Providers of residential treatment facility services shall be licensed by
DBHDS.
(2) Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general
acute care hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be
subject to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and
12VAC30-60-25. Inpatient psychiatric admissions to residential treatment
facilities shall also be subject to the requirements of 12VAC30-130 (Amount,
Duration and Scope of Selected Services).
(3) Residential treatment facility services are
reimbursable only when the treatment program is fully in compliance with (i)
the Code of Federal Regulations at 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, specifically 42
CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42 CFR 441.156 and (ii) the
Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 483 Subpart G. Each admission must
be preauthorized and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements for clinical
necessity.
b. Residential treatment facility services shall
include assessment and re-assessment; room and board; daily supervision;
combined treatment services; individual, family, and group therapy; residential
care coordination; interventions; general or special education; medical
treatment (including medication, coordination of necessary medical services,
and 24-hour onsite nursing); specialty services; and discharge planning that
meets the medical and clinical needs of the individual.
c. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a
psychiatric residential treatment facility. The following requirements for
severity of need and intensity and quality of service shall be met to satisfy
the medical necessity criteria for admission:
(1) Admission - severity of need. The following criteria
shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
(a) There is clinical evidence that the patient has a DSM-5
disorder that is amenable to active psychiatric treatment.
(b) There is a high degree of potential of the condition
leading to acute psychiatric hospitalization in the absence of residential
treatment.
(c) Either (i) there is clinical evidence that the
individual would be a risk to self or others if he were not in a residential
treatment program or (ii) as a result of the individual's mental disorder, there
is an inability to adequately care for one's physical needs, and
caretakers/guardians/family members are unable to safely fulfill these needs,
representing potential serious harm to self.
(d) The individual requires supervision seven days per
week, 24 hours per day to develop skills necessary for daily living; to assist
with planning and arranging access to a range of educational, therapeutic, and
aftercare services; and to develop the adaptive and functional behavior that
will allow him to live outside of a residential setting.
(e) The individual's current living environment does not
provide the support and access to therapeutic services needed.
(f) The individual is medically stable and does not require
the 24-hour medical or nursing monitoring or procedures provided in a hospital
level of care.
(2) Admission - intensity and quality of service. The
following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for intensity and
quality of service:
(a) The evaluation and assignment of a DSM-5 diagnosis must
result from a face-to-face psychiatric evaluation.
(b) The program provides supervision seven days per week,
24 hours per day to assist with the development of skills necessary for daily
living; to assist with planning and arranging access to a range of educational,
therapeutic, and aftercare services; and to assist with the development of the
adaptive and functional behavior that will allow the patient to live outside of
a residential setting.
(c) An individualized plan of active psychiatric treatment
and residential living support is provided in a timely manner. This treatment
must be medically monitored, with 24-hour medical availability and 24-hour
nursing services availability. This plan includes (i) at least once-a-week
psychiatric reassessments; (ii) intensive family and/or support system
involvement occurring at least once per week, or identifies valid reasons why
such a plan is not clinically appropriate or feasible; (iii) psychotropic
medications, when used, are to be used with specific target symptoms
identified; (iv) evaluation for current medical problems; (v) evaluation for
concomitant substance use issues; (vi) linkage and/or coordination with the
patient's community resources with the goal of returning the patient to his
regular social environment as soon as possible, unless contraindicated. School
contact should address an individualized educational plan as appropriate.
(d) A urine drug screen is considered at the time of
admission, when progress is not occurring, when substance misuse is suspected,
or when substance use and medications may have a potential adverse interaction.
After a positive screen, additional random screens are considered and referral
to a substance use disorder provider is considered.
(3) Criteria for continued stay. The following criteria
shall be met to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
(a) Despite reasonable therapeutic efforts, clinical
evidence indicates at least one of the following: (i) the persistence of
problems that caused the admission to a degree that continues to meet the
admission criteria (both severity of need and intensity of service needs); (ii)
the emergence of additional problems that meet the admission criteria (both
severity of need and intensity of service needs); (iii) that disposition planning
and/or attempts at therapeutic re-entry into the community have resulted in or
would result in exacerbation of the psychiatric illness to the degree that
would necessitate continued residential treatment. Subjective opinions without
objective clinical information or evidence are not sufficient to meet severity
of need based on justifying the expectation that there would be a
decompensation.
(b) There is evidence of objective, measurable, and
time-limited therapeutic clinical goals that must be met before the patient can
return to a new or previous living situation. There is evidence that attempts
are being made to secure timely access to treatment resources and housing in
anticipation of discharge, with alternative housing contingency plans also
being addressed.
(c) There is evidence that the treatment plan is focused on
the alleviation of psychiatric symptoms and precipitating psychosocial
stressors that are interfering with the patient's ability to return to a
less-intensive level of care.
(d) The current or revised treatment plan can be reasonably
expected to bring about significant improvement in the problems meeting the
criteria in subdivision 3 c (3) (a) of this subsection, and this is documented
in weekly progress notes written and signed by the provider.
(e) There is evidence of intensive family and/or support
system involvement occurring at least once per week, unless there is an
identified, valid reason why it is not clinically appropriate or feasible.
(f) A discharge plan is formulated that is directly linked
to the behaviors and/or symptoms that resulted in admission, and begins to
identify appropriate post-residential treatment resources.
(g) All applicable elements in admission-intensity and
quality of service criteria are applied as related to assessment and treatment
if clinically relevant and appropriate.
d. The following clinical activities shall be required
for each residential treatment facility resident:
(1) A face-to-face assessment shall be performed by an
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RS, or LMHP-S within 30 days prior to admission and weekly
thereafter and shall document a DSM-5/ICD-10 diagnosis.
(2) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
independent certification team according to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-130
D 4. Recertification shall occur at least every 30 days by a physician acting
within his scope of practice.
(3) The initial plan of care (IPOC) shall be completed
within 24 hours of admission by the treatment team. The initial plan of care
shall include:
(a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
strategies and treatment alliance;
(b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
(c) A description of the functional level of the
individual;
(d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
(e) Any orders for medications, psychiatric, medical,
dental, and any special health care needs, whether or not provided in the
facility, education or special education, treatments, interventions,
restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social
services, diet, and special procedures recommended for the health and safety of
the individual;
(f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care;
(g) Plans for discharge; and
(h) Signature and date by the individual, parent, or
legally authorized representative, a physician, and treatment team members.
(4) The CIPOC shall be completed no later than 14 calendar
days after admission by the treatment team. The residential treatment facility
shall request authorizations from families to release confidential information
to collect information from medical and behavioral health treatment providers,
schools, social services, court services, and other relevant parties. This
information shall be used when considering changes and updating the CIPOC. The
CIPOC shall meet all of the following criteria:
(a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
for residential treatment facility care;
(b) Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
and other personnel specified in this subdivision 3 d of this subsection who
are employed by or provide services to the individual in the facility in
consultation with the individual, family member, or legally authorized
representative, or appropriate others into whose care the individual will be
released after discharge;
(c) Shall state treatment objectives that shall include
measurable, evidence-based, short-term and long-term goals and objectives;
family engagement activities; and the design of community-based aftercare with target
dates for achievement;
(d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
interventions, activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment
objectives related to the individual and family treatment needs; and
(e) Describe comprehensive transition plans and
coordination of current care and post-discharge plans with related community
services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the recipient's
family, school, and community.
(5) The CIPOC shall be reviewed every 30 calendar days by the
team specified in this subdivision 3 d of this subsection to determine that
services being provided are or were required from a residential treatment
facility and to recommend changes in the plan as indicated by the individual's
overall adjustment during the time away from home. The CIPOC shall include the
signature and date from the individual, parent, or legally authorized
representative, a physician, and treatment team members.
(6) Individual therapy shall be provided three times
per week (or more frequently based upon the individual's needs) provided by an
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the IPOC, CIPOC,
and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this subsection.
(7) Group therapy shall be provided as clinically indicated
by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the IPOC,
CIPOC, and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this
subsection.
(8) Family therapy shall be provided as clinically
indicated by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the
IPOC, CIPOC, and progress notes in accordance with the individual and family or
legally authorized representative's goals and the requirements in this
subsection.
(9) Family engagement shall be provided in addition to
family therapy/counseling. Family engagement shall be provided at least weekly
as outlined in the IPOC and CIPOC, and daily communication with the family or
legally authorized representative shall be part of the family engagement
strategies in the IPOC and CIPOC. For each service authorization period
when family engagement is not possible, the psychiatric residential treatment
facility shall identify and document the specific barriers to the individual's
engagement with his family or legally authorized representatives. The
psychiatric residential treatment facility shall document on a weekly basis,
the reasons that family engagement is not occurring as required. The
psychiatric residential treatment facility shall document alternate family
engagement strategies to be used as part of the interventions in the IPOC or
CIPOC and request approval of the revised IPOC or CIPOC by DMAS or its
contractor. When family engagement is not possible, the psychiatric residential
treatment facility shall collaborate with DMAS or its contractor on a weekly
basis to develop individualized family engagement strategies and document the
revised strategies in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(10) Three interventions shall be provided per 24-hour
period including nights and weekends. Family engagement activities are
considered to be an intervention and shall occur based on the treatment and
visitation goals and scheduling needs of the family or legally authorized
representative. Interventions shall be documented on a progress note and shall
be outlined in and aligned with the treatment goals and objectives in the IPOC
and CIPOC. Any deviation from the IPOC or CIPOC shall be documented along with
a clinical or medical justification for the deviation based on the needs of the
individual.
(11) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
indicated and as paired with community and facility-based interventions and
combined treatment services to promote discharge planning, community
integration, and family engagement. Twenty-four therapeutic passes shall be
permitted per individual, per admission, without authorization as approved by
the treating physician and documented in the CIPOC. Additional therapeutic
leave passes shall require service authorization. Any unauthorized therapeutic
leave passes shall result in retraction for those days of service.
(12) Discharge planning. Beginning at admission and
continuing throughout the individual's placement at the residential treatment
facility, the parent or legally authorized representative, the community
services board (CSB), the family assessment planning team (FAPT) case manager,
if appropriate, and either the managed care organization (MCO) or BHSA care
manager shall be involved in treatment planning and shall identify the
anticipated needs of the individual and family upon discharge and identify the
available services in the community. Prior to discharge, the residential
treatment facility shall submit an active discharge plan to the BHSA for
review. Once the BHSA approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin
collaborating with the parent or legally authorized representative and the
treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The residential
treatment facility shall request written permission from the parent or legally
authorized representative to share treatment information with these providers
and shall share information pursuant to a valid release. The residential
treatment facility shall request information from post-discharge providers to
establish that the planning of services and activities has begun, shall
establish that the individual has been enrolled in school, and shall provide
individualized education program (IEP) recommendations to the school if
necessary. The residential treatment facility shall inform the BHSA of all
scheduled appointments within 30 calendar days of discharge and shall notify
the BHSA within one business day of the individual's discharge date from the
residential treatment facility.
(13) Failure to perform any of the items as described in
subdivisions 3 d (1) through 3 d (12) of this subsection up until the discharge
of the individual shall result in a retraction of the per diem and all other
contracted and coordinated service payments for each day of noncompliance.
e. The team developing the CIPOC shall meet the following
requirements:
(1) At least one member of the team must have expertise in
pediatric behavioral health. Based on education and experience, preferably
including competence in child/adolescent psychiatry, the team must be capable
of all of the following: assessing the individual's immediate and long-range
therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths and
liabilities; assessing the potential resources of the individual's family or
legally authorized representative; setting treatment objectives; and
prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the plan's objectives.
(2) The team shall include either:
(a) A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist;
(b) A licensed clinical psychologist and a physician
licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or
(c) A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
mental diseases and a licensed clinical psychologist.
(3) The team shall also include one of the
following: an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
4. Requirements applicable to both therapeutic group homes
and residential treatment facilities: independent certification teams.
a. The independent certification team shall certify the
need for residential treatment or therapeutic group home services and issue a
certificate of need document within the process and timeliness standards as approved
by DMAS under contractual agreement with the BHSA.
b. The independent certification team shall be approved by
DMAS through a memorandum of understanding with a locality or be approved under
contractual agreement with the BHSA. The team shall initiate and coordinate
referral to the family assessment and planning team (FAPT) as defined in §§
2.2-5207 and 2.2-5208 of the Code of Virginia to facilitate care coordination
and for consideration of educational coverage and other supports not covered by
DMAS.
c. The independent certification team shall assess the
individual's and family's strengths and needs in addition to diagnoses,
behaviors, and symptoms that indicate the need for behavioral health treatment
and also consider whether local resources and community-based care are
sufficient to meet the individual's treatment needs, as presented within the
previous 30 calendar days, within the least restrictive environment.
d. The LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP, as
part of the independent certification team, shall meet with an individual and
his parent or legally authorized representative within two business days from a
request to assess the individual's needs and begin the process to certify the
need for an out-of-home placement.
e. The independent certification team shall meet with an
individual and his parent or legally authorized representative within 10
business days from a request to certify the need for an out-of-home placement.
f. The independent certification team shall assess the treatment
needs of the individual to issue a certificate of need (CON) for the most
appropriate medically-necessary services. The certification shall include the
dated signature and credentials for each of the team members who rendered the
certification. Referring or treatment providers shall not actively participate
during the certification process but may provide supporting clinical
documentation to the certification team.
g. The CON shall be effective for 30 calendar days prior to
admission.
h. The independent certification team shall provide the
completed CON to the facility within one calendar day of completing the CON.
i. The individual and his parent or legally authorized
representative shall have the right to freedom of choice of service providers.
j. If the individual or his parent or legally authorized
representative disagrees with the independent certification team's
recommendation, the parent or legally authorized representative may appeal the
recommendation in accordance with 12VAC30-110-10.
k. If the LMHP, as part of the independent certification
team, determines that the individual is in immediate need of treatment, the
LMHP shall refer the individual to an appropriate Medicaid-enrolled emergency
services provider in accordance with 12VAC30-50-226 or shall refer the
individual for emergency admission to a residential treatment facility or
therapeutic group home under subdivision 4 m of this subsection, and shall also
alert the individual's managed care organization.
l. For individuals who are already eligible for Medicaid at
the time of admission, the independent certification team shall be a
DMAS-authorized contractor with competence in the diagnosis and treatment of
mental illness, preferably in child psychiatry, and have knowledge of the individual's
situation and service availability in the individual's local service area. The
team shall be composed of at least one physician and one LMHP, including
LMHP-S, LMHP-R, and LMHP-RP. An individual's parent or legally authorized
representative shall be included in the certification process.
m. For emergency admissions, an assessment must be made by
the team responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
Reimbursement shall only occur when a certificate of need is issued by the team
responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care within 14 days after
admission. The certification shall cover any period of time after admission and
before for which claims are made for reimbursement by Medicaid. After
processing an emergency admission the residential treatment facility or
institution for mental diseases (IMD) shall notify the BHSA of the individual's
status as being under the care of the facility within five days.
n. For all individuals who apply and become eligible for
Medicaid while an inpatient in a facility or program, the certification team
shall refer the case to the DMAS-contracted BHSA for referral to the local FAPT
to facilitate care coordination and consideration of educational coverage and
other supports not covered by DMAS.
o. For individuals who apply and become eligible for
Medicaid while an inpatient in the facility or program, the certification shall
be made by the team responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care
and shall cover any period of time before the application for Medicaid
eligibility for which claims are made for reimbursement by Medicaid. Upon the
individual's enrollment into the Medicaid program, the residential treatment
facility or IMD shall notify the BHSA of the individual's status as being under
the care of the facility within five days of the individual becoming eligible
for Medicaid benefits.
5. Requirements applicable to both therapeutic group homes
and residential treatment facilities - service authorization.
a. Authorization shall be required and shall be conducted
by DMAS, its behavioral health services administrator, or its utilization
management contractor using medical necessity criteria specified in this
subsection.
b. An individual shall have a valid psychiatric diagnosis
and meet the medical necessity criteria as defined in this subsection to
satisfy the criteria for admission. The diagnosis shall be current, as
documented within the past 12 months. If a current diagnosis is not available,
the individual will require a mental health evaluation by an LMHP employed or
contracted with the independent certification team to establish a diagnosis,
and recommend and coordinate referral to the available treatment options.
c. At authorization, an initial length of stay shall be agreed
upon by the individual and parent or legally authorized representative with the
treating provider, and the treating provider shall be responsible for
evaluating and documenting evidence of treatment progress, assessing the need
for ongoing out-of-home placement, and obtaining authorization for continued
stay.
d. Information that is required to obtain authorization for
these services shall include:
(1) A completed state-designated uniform assessment
instrument approved by DMAS;
(2) A certificate of need completed by an independent
certification team specifying all of the following:
(a) The ambulatory care and Medicaid or FAPT-funded
services available in the community do not meet the specific treatment needs of
the individual;
(b) Alternative community-based care was not successful;
(c) Proper treatment of the individual's psychiatric
condition requires services in a 24-hour supervised setting under the direction
of a physician; and
(d) The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
individual's condition or prevent further regression so that a more intensive
level of care will not be needed;
(3) Diagnosis as defined in the DSM-5 and based on (i) an
evaluation by a psychiatrist or LMHP that has been completed within 30 days of
admission or (ii) a diagnosis confirmed in writing by an LMHP after review of a
previous evaluation completed within one year of admission;
(4) A description of the individual's behavior during the
seven days immediately prior to admission;
(5) A description of alternate placements and community
mental health and rehabilitation services and traditional behavioral health
services pursued and attempted and the outcomes of each service.
(6) The individual's level of functioning and clinical
stability.
(7) The level of family involvement and supports available.
(8) The initial plan of care (IPOC).
6. Requirements applicable to both therapeutic group homes
and residential treatment facilities - continued stay criteria. For a continued
stay authorization or a reauthorization to occur, the individual shall meet the
medical necessity criteria as defined in this subsection to satisfy the
criteria for continuing care. The length of the authorized stay shall be
determined by DMAS, the behavioral health services administrator, or the utilization
management contractor. A current CIPOC and a current (within 30 days) summary
of progress related to the goals and objectives of the CIPOC shall be submitted
to DMAS, the behavioral health services administrator, or the utilization
management contractor for continuation of the service. The service provider
shall also submit:
a. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
than 30 business days prior to the date of submission;
b. Documentation that the required services have been provided
as defined in the CIPOC;
c. Current (within the last 14 days) information on
progress related to the achievement of all treatment and discharge-related
goals; and
d. A description of the individual's continued impairment
and treatment needs, problem behaviors, family engagement activities,
community-based discharge planning and care coordination, and need for a
residential level of care.
7. Requirements applicable to therapeutic group homes and
residential treatment facilities - EPSDT services. EPSDT services may involve
service modalities not available to other individuals, such as applied
behavioral analysis and neuro-rehabilitative services. Individualized services
to address specific clinical needs identified in an EPSDT screening shall
require authorization by DMAS, a DMAS contractor, or the BHSA. In unique EPSDT
cases, DMAS, the DMAS contractor, or the BHSA may authorize specialized
services beyond the standard therapeutic group home or residential treatment
medical necessity criteria and program requirements, as medically and
clinically indicated to ensure the most appropriate treatment is available to
each individual. Treating service providers authorized to deliver medically
necessary EPSDT services in inpatient settings, therapeutic group homes, and
residential treatment facilities on behalf of a Medicaid-enrolled individual
shall adhere to the individualized interventions and evidence-based progress
measurement criteria described in the CIPOC and approved for reimbursement by
DMAS, the DMAS contractor, or the BHSA. All documentation, independent
certification team, family engagement activity, therapeutic pass, and discharge
planning requirements shall apply to cases approved as EPSDT inpatient,
residential treatment, or therapeutic group home service.
7. 8. Hearing aids shall be reimbursed for
individuals younger than 21 years of age according to medical necessity when
provided by practitioners licensed to engage in the practice of fitting or
dealing in hearing aids under the Code of Virginia.
C. E. School health services.
1. School health assistant services are repealed effective
July 1, 2006.
2. School divisions may provide routine well-child screening
services under the State Plan. Diagnostic and treatment services that are
otherwise covered under early and periodic screening, diagnosis and treatment
services, shall not be covered for school divisions. School divisions to
receive reimbursement for the screenings shall be enrolled with DMAS as clinic
providers.
a. Children enrolled in managed care organizations shall
receive screenings from those organizations. School divisions shall not receive
reimbursement for screenings from DMAS for these children.
b. School-based services are listed in a recipient's
individualized education program (IEP) and covered under one or more of the
service categories described in § 1905(a) of the Social Security Act. These
services are necessary to correct or ameliorate defects of physical or mental
illnesses or conditions.
3. Service providers shall be licensed under the applicable
state practice act or comparable licensing criteria by the Virginia Department
of Education, and shall meet applicable qualifications under 42 CFR Part 440.
Identification of defects, illnesses or conditions and services necessary to
correct or ameliorate them shall be performed by practitioners qualified to
make those determinations within their licensed scope of practice, either as a
member of the IEP team or by a qualified practitioner outside the IEP team.
a. Service providers shall be employed by the school division
or under contract to the school division.
b. Supervision of services by providers recognized in
subdivision 4 of this subsection shall occur as allowed under federal
regulations and consistent with Virginia law, regulations, and DMAS provider
manuals.
c. The services described in subdivision 4 of this subsection
shall be delivered by school providers, but may also be available in the community
from other providers.
d. Services in this subsection are subject to utilization
control as provided under 42 CFR Parts 455 and 456.
e. The IEP shall determine whether or not the services
described in subdivision 4 of this subsection are medically necessary and that
the treatment prescribed is in accordance with standards of medical practice.
Medical necessity is defined as services ordered by IEP providers. The IEP
providers are qualified Medicaid providers to make the medical necessity
determination in accordance with their scope of practice. The services must be
described as to the amount, duration and scope.
4. Covered services include:
a. Physical therapy, occupational therapy and services for
individuals with speech, hearing, and language disorders, performed by, or
under the direction of, providers who meet the qualifications set forth at 42
CFR 440.110. This coverage includes audiology services.
b. Skilled nursing services are covered under 42 CFR 440.60.
These services are to be rendered in accordance to the licensing standards and
criteria of the Virginia Board of Nursing. Nursing services are to be provided
by licensed registered nurses or licensed practical nurses but may be delegated
by licensed registered nurses in accordance with the regulations of the
Virginia Board of Nursing, especially the section on delegation of nursing
tasks and procedures. The licensed practical nurse is under the supervision of
a registered nurse.
(1) The coverage of skilled nursing services shall be of a
level of complexity and sophistication (based on assessment, planning,
implementation and evaluation) that is consistent with skilled nursing services
when performed by a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse.
These skilled nursing services shall include, but not necessarily be limited to
dressing changes, maintaining patent airways, medication
administration/monitoring and urinary catheterizations.
(2) Skilled nursing services shall be directly and
specifically related to an active, written plan of care developed by a
registered nurse that is based on a written order from a physician, physician
assistant or nurse practitioner for skilled nursing services. This order shall
be recertified on an annual basis.
c. Psychiatric and psychological services performed by
licensed practitioners within the scope of practice are defined under state law
or regulations and covered as physicians' services under 42 CFR 440.50 or
medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR 440.60. These outpatient services
include individual medical psychotherapy, group medical psychotherapy coverage,
and family medical psychotherapy. Psychological and neuropsychological testing
are allowed when done for purposes other than educational diagnosis, school
admission, evaluation of an individual with intellectual or developmental
disability prior to admission to a nursing facility, or any placement issue.
These services are covered in the nonschool settings also. School providers who
may render these services when licensed by the state include psychiatrists,
licensed clinical psychologists, school psychologists, licensed clinical social
workers, professional counselors, psychiatric clinical nurse specialist,
marriage and family therapists, and school social workers.
d. Personal care services are covered under 42 CFR
440.167 and performed by persons qualified under this subsection. The personal
care assistant is supervised by a DMAS recognized school-based health
professional who is acting within the scope of licensure. This practitioner develops
a written plan for meeting the needs of the child, which is implemented by the
assistant. The assistant must have qualifications comparable to those for other
personal care aides recognized by the Virginia Department of Medical Assistance
Services. The assistant performs services such as assisting with toileting,
ambulation, and eating. The assistant may serve as an aide on a specially
adapted school vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or
school contracted provider on days when the student is receiving a
Medicaid-covered service under the IEP. Children requiring an aide during
transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the
IEP.
e. Medical evaluation services are covered as physicians'
services under 42 CFR 440.50 or as medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR
440.60. Persons performing these services shall be licensed physicians,
physician assistants, or nurse practitioners. These practitioners shall
identify the nature or extent of a child's medical or other health related
condition.
f. Transportation is covered as allowed under 42 CFR
431.53 and described at State Plan Attachment 3.1-D. Transportation shall be
rendered only by school division personnel or contractors. Transportation is
covered for a child who requires transportation on a specially adapted school
vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or school contracted
provider on days when the student is receiving a Medicaid-covered service under
the IEP. Transportation shall be listed in the child's IEP. Children requiring
an aide during transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this
stated in the IEP.
g. Assessments are covered as necessary to assess or reassess
the need for medical services in a child's IEP and shall be performed by any of
the above licensed practitioners within the scope of practice. Assessments and
reassessments not tied to medical needs of the child shall not be covered.
5. DMAS will ensure through quality management review that
duplication of services will be monitored. School divisions have a
responsibility to ensure that if a child is receiving additional therapy
outside of the school, that there will be coordination of services to avoid
duplication of service.
D. F. Family planning services and supplies for
individuals of child-bearing age.
1. Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
performed within the scope of the license of a practitioner of the healing
arts.
2. Family planning services shall be defined as those services
that delay or prevent pregnancy. Coverage of such services shall not include
services to treat infertility nor services to promote fertility.
12VAC30-60-5. Applicability of utilization review requirements.
A. These utilization requirements shall apply to all Medicaid
covered services unless otherwise specified.
B. Some Medicaid covered services require an approved service
authorization prior to service delivery in order for reimbursement to occur.
1. To obtain service authorization, all providers' information
supplied to the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS), service
authorization contractor, or the behavioral health service authorization
contractor shall be fully substantiated throughout individuals' medical
records.
2. Providers shall be required to maintain documentation
detailing all relevant information about the Medicaid individuals who are in
providers' care. Such documentation shall fully disclose the extent of services
provided in order to support providers' claims for reimbursement for services
rendered. This documentation shall be written, signed, and dated at the time
the services are rendered unless specified otherwise.
C. DMAS, or its designee, shall perform reviews of the
utilization of all Medicaid covered services pursuant to 42 CFR 440.260
and 42 CFR Part 456.
D. DMAS shall recover expenditures made for covered services
when providers' documentation does not comport with standards specified in all
applicable regulations.
E. Providers who are determined not to be in compliance with
DMAS requirements shall be subject to 12VAC30-80-130 for the repayment of those
overpayments to DMAS.
F. Utilization review requirements specific to community
mental health services, as set out in 12VAC30-50-130 and 12VAC30-50-226, shall be
as follows:
1. To apply to be reimbursed as a Medicaid provider, the
required Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS)
license shall be either a full, annual, triennial, or conditional license.
Providers must be enrolled with DMAS or the BHSA behavioral health
services administrator (BHSA) to be reimbursed. Once a health care entity
has been enrolled as a provider, it shall maintain, and update periodically as
DMAS requires, a current Provider Enrollment Agreement for each Medicaid
service that the provider offers.
2. Health care entities with provisional licenses shall not be
reimbursed as Medicaid providers of community mental health services.
3. Payments shall not be permitted to health care entities
that either hold provisional licenses or fail to enter into a Medicaid Provider
Enrollment Agreement including a BHSA contract for a service prior to
rendering that service.
4. The DMAS-contracted behavioral health service
authorization contractor services administrator shall apply a
national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry,
such as McKesson InterQual Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized
in advance by DMAS. Services that fail to meet medical necessity criteria shall
be denied service authorization.
5. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement for services
provided by staff in residency, the following terms shall be used after their
signatures to indicate such status:
a. LMHP-Rs shall use the term "Resident" after
their signatures.
b. LMHP-RPs shall use the term "Resident in
Psychology" after their signatures.
c. LMHP-Ss shall use the term "Supervisee in Social
Work" after their signatures.
12VAC30-60-50. Utilization control: Intermediate Care
Facilities care facilities for the Mentally Retarded (ICF/MR)
persons with intellectual and developmental disabilities and Institutions
institutions for Mental Disease mental disease (IMD).
A. "Institution for mental disease" or
"IMD" means the same as that term is defined in the Social Security
Act, § 1905(i).
A. B. With respect to each Medicaid-eligible
resident in an ICF/MR intermediate care facility for persons with
intellectual and developmental disabilities (ICF/ID) or IMD in Virginia, a
written plan of care must be developed prior to admission to or authorization
of benefits in such facility, and a regular program of independent professional
review (including a medical evaluation) shall be completed periodically for
such services. The purpose of the review is to determine: the adequacy of the services
available to meet his current health needs and promote his maximum physical
well being; the necessity and desirability of his continued placement in the
facility; and the feasibility of meeting his health care needs through
alternative institutional or noninstitutional services. Long-term care of
residents in such facilities will be provided in accordance with federal law
that is based on the resident's medical and social needs and requirements.
B. C. With respect to each ICF/MR ICF/ID
or IMD, periodic on-site onsite inspections of the care being
provided to each person receiving medical assistance, by one or more
independent professional review teams (composed of a physician or registered
nurse and other appropriate health and social service personnel), shall be
conducted. The review shall include, with respect to each recipient, a
determination of the adequacy of the services available to meet his current
health needs and promote his maximum physical well-being, the necessity and
desirability of continued placement in the facility, and the feasibility of
meeting his health care needs through alternative institutional or
noninstitutional services. Full reports shall be made to the state agency by
the review team of the findings of each inspection, together with any
recommendations.
C. D. In order for reimbursement to be made to
a facility for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
developmental disabilities, the resident must meet criteria for placement
in such facility as described in 12VAC30-60-360 and the facility must provide
active treatment for mental retardation intellectual or developmental
disabilities.
D. E. In each case for which payment for
nursing facility services for the mentally retarded persons with
intellectual or developmental disabilities or institution for mental
disease services is made under the State Plan:
1. A physician must certify for each applicant or recipient
that inpatient care is needed in a facility for the mentally retarded or an
institution for mental disease. A certificate of need shall be completed
by an independent certification team according to the requirements of
12VAC30-50-130 D 5. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 days by a
physician, or by a physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within
their scope of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a
physician. The certification must be made at the time of admission or, if
an individual applies for assistance while in the facility, before the Medicaid
agency authorizes payment; and
2. A physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner
acting within the scope of the practice as defined by state law and under the
supervision of a physician, must recertify for each applicant at least every 365
60 days that services are needed in a facility for the mentally
retarded persons with intellectual disability or institution for
mental disease.
E. F. When a resident no longer meets criteria
for facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual or
developmental disabilities, or an institution for mental disease or no
longer requires active treatment in a facility for the mentally retarded
persons with intellectual or developmental disabilities, then the
resident must shall be discharged.
F. G. All services provided in an IMD and in
an ICF/MR ICF/ID shall be provided in accordance with guidelines
found in the Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual.
H. All services provided in an IMD shall be provided with
the applicable provider agreement and all documents referenced therein.
I. Psychiatric services in IMDs shall only be covered for
eligible individuals younger than 21 years of age.
J. IMD services provided without service authorization
shall not be covered.
K. Absence of any of the required IMD documentation shall
result in denial or retraction of reimbursement.
L. In each case for which payment for IMD services is made
under the State Plan:
1. A physician shall certify at the time of admission, or
at the time the IMD is notified of an individuals' retroactive eligibility
status, that the individual requires or required inpatient services in an IMD
consistent with 42 CFR 456.160.
2. The physician or physician assistant or nurse
practitioner acting within the scope of practice as defined by state law and
under the supervision of a physician, shall recertify at least every 60 days
that the individual continues to require inpatient services in an IMD.
3. Before admission to an IMD or before authorization
for payment, the attending physician or staff physician shall perform a medical
evaluation of the individual, and appropriate personnel shall complete a
psychiatric and social evaluation as described in 42 CFR 456.170.
4. Before admission to a residential treatment facility or
before authorization for payment, the attending physician or staff physician
shall establish a written plan of care for each individual as described in 42
CFR 441.155 and 42 CFR 456.180.
M. It shall be documented that the individual requiring
admission to an IMD is younger than 21 years of age, that treatment is
medically necessary, and that the necessity was identified as a result of an
independent certification of need team review. Required documentation shall
include the following:
1. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition 2013, American Psychiatric
Association, and based on an evaluation by a psychiatrist completed within 30
days of admission or if the diagnosis is confirmed, in writing, by a previous
evaluation completed within one year within admission.
2. A certification of the need for services as defined in
42 CFR 441.152 by an interdisciplinary team meeting the requirements of 42
CFR 441.153 or 42 CFR 441.156 and the Psychiatric Treatment of Minors Act (§
16.1-335 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
N. The use of seclusion and restraint in an IMD shall be
in accordance with 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376. Each use of a
seclusion or restraint, as defined in 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376,
shall be reported by the service provider to DMAS or the BHSA within one
calendar day of the incident.
12VAC30-60-61. Services related to the Early and Periodic
Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment Program (EPSDT); community mental health
services for children.
A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
this section shall have the following meanings unless the context indicates
otherwise:
"At risk" means one or more of the following: (i)
within the two weeks before the intake, the individual shall be screened by an
LMHP for escalating behaviors that have put either the individual or others at
immediate risk of physical injury; (ii) the parent/guardian is unable to manage
the individual's mental, behavioral, or emotional problems in the home and is
actively, within the past two to four weeks, seeking an out-of-home placement;
(iii) a representative of either a juvenile justice agency, a department of
social services (either the state agency or local agency), a community services
board/behavioral health authority, the Department of Education, or an LMHP, as
defined in 12VAC35-105-20, and who is neither an employee of nor consultant to
the intensive in-home (IIH) services or therapeutic day treatment (TDT)
provider, has recommended an out-of-home placement absent an immediate change
of behaviors and when unsuccessful mental health services are evident; (iv) the
individual has a history of unsuccessful services (either crisis intervention,
crisis stabilization, outpatient psychotherapy, outpatient substance abuse
services, or mental health support) within the past 30 days; (v) the treatment
team or family assessment planning team (FAPT) recommends IIH services or TDT
for an individual currently who is either: (a) transitioning out of residential
treatment facility Level C services, (b) transitioning out of a therapeutic
group home Level A or B services, (c) transitioning out of acute
psychiatric hospitalization, or (d) transitioning between foster homes, mental
health case management, crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, outpatient
psychotherapy, or outpatient substance abuse services.
"Clinical experience" means providing direct
behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
in-home services, (ii) therapeutic day treatment for children and adolescents,
and (iii) therapeutic group homes. Experience shall not include unsupervised
internships, unsupervised practicums, or unsupervised field experience. The
equivalency of part-time hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this
requirement shall be as established by DBHDS in the document entitled
"Human Services and Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience"
issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Failed services" or "unsuccessful
services" means, as measured by ongoing behavioral, mental, or physical
distress, that the service or services did not treat or resolve the
individual's mental health or behavioral issues.
"Individual" means the Medicaid-eligible person
receiving these services and for the purpose of this section includes children
from birth up to 12 years of age or adolescents ages 12 through 20 years.
"New service" means a community mental health
rehabilitation service for which the individual does not have a current service
authorization in effect as of July 17, 2011.
"Out-of-home placement" means placement in one or
more of the following: (i) either a Level A or Level B therapeutic
group home; (ii) regular foster home if the individual is currently residing
with his biological family and, due to his behavior problems, is at risk of
being placed in the custody of the local department of social services; (iii)
treatment foster care if the individual is currently residing with his
biological family or a regular foster care family and, due to the individual's
behavioral problems, is at risk of removal to a higher level of care; (iv) Level
C residential treatment facility; (v) emergency shelter for the
individual only due either to his mental health or behavior or both; (vi)
psychiatric hospitalization; or (vii) juvenile justice system or incarceration.
"Progress notes" means individual-specific
documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
the notes. Individualized and individual-specific progress notes are part of
the minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's
status, staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress or
lack of progress toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes
shall also include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of
the service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered
the service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of
time or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each
progress note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be
documented for each service that is billed.
"Service-specific provider intake" means the
evaluation that is conducted according to the Department of Medical Assistance
Services (DMAS) intake definition set out in 12VAC30-50-130.
B. The services described in this section shall be rendered
consistent with the definitions, service limits, and requirements described in
this section and in 12VAC30-50-130.
C. Intensive in-home (IIH) services for children and
adolescents.
1. The service definition for intensive in-home (IIH) services
is contained in 12VAC30-50-130.
2. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral or emotional
illness which results in significant functional impairments in major life
activities. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria on a
continuing or intermittent basis to be authorized for these services:
a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
community.
b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
repeated interventions by the mental health, social services or judicial system
are or have been necessary.
c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
social behavior.
3. Prior to admission, an appropriate service-specific
provider intake, as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, shall be conducted by the
licensed mental health professional (LMHP), LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or
LMHP-RP, documenting the individual's diagnosis and describing how service
needs can best be met through intervention provided typically but not solely in
the individual's residence. The service-specific provider intake shall describe
how the individual's clinical needs put the individual at risk of out-of-home
placement and shall be conducted face-to-face in the individual's residence.
Claims for services that are based upon service-specific provider intakes that
are incomplete, outdated (more than 12 months old), or missing shall not be
reimbursed.
4. An individual service plan (ISP) shall be fully completed,
signed, and dated by either an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a
QMHP-C, or a QMHP-E and the individual and individual's parent/guardian within
30 days of initiation of services. The ISP shall meet all of the requirements
as defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
5. DMAS shall not reimburse for dates of services in which the
progress notes are not individualized and child-specific. Duplicated progress
notes shall not constitute the required child-specific individualized progress
notes. Each progress note shall demonstrate unique differences particular to
the individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress. Claim payments shall
be retracted for services that are supported by documentation that does not
demonstrate unique differences particular to the individual.
6. Services shall be directed toward the treatment of the
eligible individual and delivered primarily in the family's residence with the
individual present. As clinically indicated, the services may be rendered
in the community if there is documentation, on that date of service, of the
necessity of providing services in the community. The documentation shall
describe how the alternative community service location supports the identified
clinical needs of the individual and describe how it facilitates the
implementation of the ISP. For services provided outside of the home, there
shall be documentation reflecting therapeutic treatment as set forth in the ISP
provided for that date of service in the appropriately signed and dated
progress notes.
7. These services shall be provided when the clinical needs of
the individual put him at risk for out-of-home placement, as these terms are
defined in this section:
a. When services that are far more intensive than outpatient
clinic care are required to stabilize the individual in the family situation,
or
b. When the individual's residence as the setting for services
is more likely to be successful than a clinic.
The service-specific provider intake shall describe how the
individual meets either subdivision a or b of this subdivision.
8. Services shall not be provided if the individual is no
longer a resident of the home.
9. Services shall also be used to facilitate the transition to
home from an out-of-home placement when services more intensive than outpatient
clinic care are required for the transition to be successful. The individual
and responsible parent/guardian shall be available and in agreement to
participate in the transition.
10. At least one parent/legal guardian or responsible adult
with whom the individual is living must be willing to participate in the
intensive in-home services with the goal of keeping the individual with the
family. In the instance of this service, a responsible adult shall be an adult
who lives in the same household with the child and is responsible for engaging
in therapy and service-related activities to benefit the individual.
11. The enrolled service provider shall be licensed by the Department
of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) as a provider of
intensive in-home services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment
agreement with DMAS or its contractor in effect prior to the delivery of this
service that indicates that the provider will offer intensive in-home services.
12. Services must only be provided by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E. Reimbursement shall
not be provided for such services when they have been rendered by a QPPMH as
defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
13. The billing unit for intensive in-home service shall be
one hour. Although the pattern of service delivery may vary, intensive in-home
services is an intensive service provided to individuals for whom there is an ISP
in effect which demonstrates the need for a minimum of three hours a week of
intensive in-home service, and includes a plan for service provision of a
minimum of three hours of service delivery per individual/family per week in
the initial phase of treatment. It is expected that the pattern of service
provision may show more intensive services and more frequent contact with the
individual and family initially with a lessening or tapering off of intensity
toward the latter weeks of service. Service plans shall incorporate an
individualized discharge plan that describes transition from intensive in-home
to less intensive or nonhome based services.
14. The ISP, as defined in 12VAC30-50-226, shall be updated as
the individual's needs and progress changes and signed by either the parent or
legal guardian and the individual. Documentation shall be provided if the
individual, who is a minor child, is unable or unwilling to sign the ISP. If
there is a lapse in services that is greater than 31 consecutive calendar days
without any communications from family members/legal guardian or the individual
with the service provider, the provider shall discharge the individual. If the
individual continues to need services, then a new intake/admission shall be
documented and a new service authorization shall be required.
15. The provider shall ensure that the maximum
staff-to-caseload ratio fully meets the needs of the individual.
16. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430,
the service provider shall contact the case manager and provide
notification of the provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send
monthly updates to the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge
summary shall be sent to the case manager within 30 days of the service
discontinuation date. Service providers and case managers who are using the
same electronic health record for the individual shall meet requirements for
delivery of the notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry
of the information in the electronic health records.
17. Emergency assistance shall be available 24 hours per day,
seven days a week.
18. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements at
12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines violate these marketing
requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
12VAC30-130-2000 E.
19. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or guardian, shall
inform him of the individual's receipt of IIH services. The documentation shall
include who was contacted, when the contact occurred, and what information was
transmitted.
D. Therapeutic day treatment for children and adolescents.
1. The service definition for therapeutic day treatment (TDT)
for children and adolescents is contained in 12VAC30-50-130.
2. Therapeutic day treatment is appropriate for children and
adolescents who meet one of the following:
a. Children and adolescents who require year-round treatment
in order to sustain behavior or emotional gains.
b. Children and adolescents whose behavior and emotional
problems are so severe they cannot be handled in self-contained or resource
emotionally disturbed (ED) classrooms without:
(1) This programming during the school day; or
(2) This programming to supplement the school day or school
year.
c. Children and adolescents who would otherwise be placed on
homebound instruction because of severe emotional/behavior problems that
interfere with learning.
d. Children and adolescents who (i) have deficits in social
skills, peer relations or dealing with authority; (ii) are hyperactive; (iii)
have poor impulse control; (iv) are extremely depressed or marginally connected
with reality.
e. Children in preschool enrichment and early intervention
programs when the children's emotional/behavioral problems are so severe that
they cannot function in these programs without additional services.
3. The service-specific provider intake shall document the
individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets these specific
service criteria in subdivision 2 of this subsection.
4. Prior to admission to this service, a service-specific
provider intake shall be conducted by the LMHP as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
5. An ISP shall be fully completed, signed, and dated by an
LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or QMHP-E and by the
individual or the parent/guardian within 30 days of initiation of services and
shall meet all requirements of an ISP as defined in 12VAC30-50-226. Individual
progress notes shall be required for each contact with the individual and shall
meet all of the requirements as defined in 12VAC30-50-130 12VAC30-60-61.
6. Such services shall not duplicate those services provided
by the school.
7. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to mental,
behavioral or emotional illness which results in significant functional
impairments in major life activities. Individuals shall meet at least two of
the following criteria on a continuing or intermittent basis:
a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
community.
b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
repeated interventions by the mental health, social services, or judicial
system are or have been necessary.
c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
social behavior.
8. The enrolled provider of therapeutic day treatment for
child and adolescent services shall be licensed by DBHDS to provide day support
services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment agreement in
effect with DMAS prior to the delivery of this service that indicates that the
provider offers therapeutic day treatment services for children and
adolescents.
9. Services shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C or QMHP-E.
10. The minimum staff-to-individual ratio as defined by DBHDS
licensing requirements shall ensure that adequate staff is available to meet
the needs of the individual identified on the ISP.
11. The program shall operate a minimum of two hours per day
and may offer flexible program hours (i.e., before or after school or during
the summer). One unit of service shall be defined as a minimum of two hours but
less than three hours in a given day. Two units of service shall be defined as
a minimum of three but less than five hours in a given day. Three units of
service shall be defined as five or more hours of service in a given day.
12. Time required for academic instruction when no treatment
activity is going on shall not be included in the billing unit.
13. Services shall be provided following a service-specific
provider intake that is conducted by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident,
or LMHP-RP. An LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, or LMHP-resident shall make and document
the diagnosis. The service-specific provider intake shall include the elements
as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
14. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430, the provider
shall collaborate with the case manager and provide notification of the
provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates to
the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge summary shall be sent
to the case manager within 30 days of the service discontinuation date. Service
providers and case managers using the same electronic health record for the
individual shall meet requirements for delivery of the notification, monthly
updates, and discharge summary upon entry of this documentation into the
electronic health record.
15. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
guardian, shall inform him of the child's receipt of community mental health
rehabilitative services. The documentation shall include who was contacted,
when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. The
parent/legal guardian shall be required to give written consent that this
provider has permission to inform the primary care provider of the child's or adolescent's
receipt of community mental health rehabilitative services.
16. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements as
set out in 12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines have violated these
marketing requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
12VAC30-130-2000 E.
17. If there is a lapse in services greater than 31
consecutive calendar days, the provider shall discharge the individual. If the
individual continues to need services, a new intake/admission documentation
shall be prepared and a new service authorization shall be required.
E. Community-based services
for children and adolescents under 21 years of age (Level A).
1. The staff ratio must be at least 1 to 6 during the day
and at least 1 to 10 between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. The program director
supervising the program/group home must be, at minimum, a QMHP-C or QMHP-E (as
defined in 12VAC35-105-20). The program director must be employed full time.
2. In order for Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at least
50% of the provider's direct care staff at the group home must meet DBHDS
paraprofessional staff criteria, defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
3. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
All community-based services for children and adolescents under 21 (Level A)
require authorization prior to reimbursement for these services. Reimbursement
shall not be made for this service when other less intensive services may
achieve stabilization.
4. Services must be provided in accordance with an
individual service plan (ISP), which must be fully completed within 30 days of
authorization for Medicaid reimbursement.
5. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
shall be conducted according to DMAS specifications described in
12VAC30-50-130.
6. Such service-specific provider intakes shall be
performed by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
7. If an individual receiving community-based services for
children and adolescents under 21 (Level A) is also receiving case management
services, the provider shall collaborate with the case manager by notifying the
case manager of the provision of Level A services and shall send monthly
updates on the individual's progress. When the individual is discharged from
Level A services, a discharge summary shall be sent to the case manager within
30 days of the service discontinuation date. Service providers and case
managers who are using the same electronic health record for the individual
shall meet requirements for the delivery of the notification, monthly updates,
and discharge summary upon entry of this documentation into the electronic
health record.
F. E. Therapeutic behavioral services group
home for children and adolescents under 21 years of age (Level B).
1. The staff ratio must be at least 1 to 4 during the day
and at least 1 to 8 between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. approved by the
Office of Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
Services. The clinical director must shall be a licensed
mental health professional. The caseload of the clinical director must not
exceed 16 individuals including all sites for which the same clinical director
is responsible.
2. The program director must shall be full time
and be a QMHP-C or QMHP-E with a bachelor's degree and at least one year's
clinical experience.
3. For Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at least 50% of
the provider's direct care staff at the therapeutic group home shall
meet DBHDS paraprofessional staff qualified paraprofessional in
mental health (QPPMH) criteria, as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. The program/group
therapeutic group home must shall coordinate services with
other providers.
4. All therapeutic behavioral group home
services (Level B) shall be authorized prior to reimbursement for these
services. Services rendered without such prior authorization shall not be
covered.
5. Services must be provided in accordance with an ISP a
CIPOC, as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, which shall be fully completed within
30 days of authorization for Medicaid reimbursement.
6. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
shall be performed using all elements specified by DMAS in 12VAC30-50-130.
7. Such service-specific provider intakes shall be performed
by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
8. If an individual receiving therapeutic behavioral group
home services for children and adolescents under 21 (Level B) is
also receiving case management services, the therapeutic behavioral group
home services provider must collaborate with the care coordinator/case
manager by notifying him of the provision of Level B therapeutic
group home services and the Level B therapeutic group home
services provider shall send monthly updates on the individual's treatment
status. When the individual is discharged from Level B services, a discharge
summary shall be sent to the care coordinator/case manager within 30 days of
the discontinuation date.
9. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
guardian parent or legally authorized representative, shall inform
him of the individual's receipt of these Level B therapeutic group
home services. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. If these individuals
are children or adolescents, then the parent/legal guardian parent or
legally authorized representative shall be required to give written consent
that this provider has permission to inform the primary care provider of the
individual's receipt of community mental health rehabilitative services.
G. Utilization review. Utilization reviews for
community-based therapeutic group home services for children and adolescents
under 21 years of age (Level A) and therapeutic behavioral services for
children and adolescents under 21 years of age (Level B) shall include
determinations whether providers meet all DMAS requirements, including
compliance with DMAS marketing requirements. Providers that DMAS determines
have violated the DMAS marketing requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid
provider pursuant to 12VAC30-130-2000 E.
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-60)
Department of Medical Assistance Services Provider Manuals (https://www.virginiamedicaid.dmas.virginia.gov/wps/portal/ProviderManuals):
Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual
Virginia Medicaid Rehabilitation Manual
Virginia Medicaid Hospice Manual
Virginia Medicaid School Division Manual
Development of Special Criteria for the Purposes
of Pre-Admission Screening, Medicaid Memo, October 3, 2012, Department of
Medical Assistance Services
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth
Edition (DSM-IV-TR), copyright 2000, American Psychiatric Association
Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
Substance-Related Disorders (ASAM PPC-2R), Second Edition, copyright 2001,
American Society on Addiction Medicine, Inc.
Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: New Service
Authorization Requirement for an Independent Clinical Assessment for Medicaid
and FAMIS Children's Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services, dated
June 16, 2011, Department of Medical Assistance Services
Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
Children Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Children's Services,
July 1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of
Medical Assistance Services
Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Adult-Oriented Services, July
1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of Medical
Assistance Services
Human
Services and Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience, updated May 3, 2013,
Department of Behavioral Health and Human Services
Part XIV
Residential Psychiatric Treatment for Children and Adolescents (Repealed)
12VAC30-130-850. Definitions. (Repealed.)
The following words and terms when used in this part shall
have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Active treatment" means implementation of a
professionally developed and supervised individual plan of care that must be
designed to achieve the recipient's discharge from inpatient status at the
earliest possible time.
"Certification" means a statement signed by a
physician that inpatient services in a residential treatment facility are or
were needed. The certification must be made at the time of admission, or, if an
individual applies for assistance while in a mental hospital or residential
treatment facility, before the Medicaid agency authorizes payment.
"Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
"CIPOC" means a written plan developed for each recipient in
accordance with 12VAC30-130-890 to improve his condition to the extent that
inpatient care is no longer necessary.
"Initial plan of care" means a plan of care
established at admission, signed by the attending physician or staff physician,
that meets the requirements in 12VAC30-130-890.
"Recertification" means a certification for each
applicant or recipient that inpatient services in a residential treatment
facility are needed. Recertification must be made at least every 60 days by a
physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within the scope
of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a physician.
"Recipient" or "recipients" means the
child or adolescent younger than 21 years of age receiving this covered
service.
12VAC30-130-860. Service coverage; eligible individuals;
service certification. (Repealed.)
A. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall be
24-hour, supervised, medically necessary, out-of-home programs designed to
provide necessary support and address the special mental health and behavioral
needs of a child or adolescent in order to prevent or minimize the need for
more intensive inpatient treatment. Services must include, but shall not be
limited to, assessment and evaluation, medical treatment (including drugs),
individual and group counseling, and family therapy necessary to treat the child.
B. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall provide
a total, 24 hours per day, specialized form of highly organized, intensive and
planned therapeutic interventions that shall be utilized to treat some of the
most severe mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders. Residential treatment
is a definitive therapeutic modality designed to deliver specified results for
a defined group of problems for children or adolescents for whom outpatient day
treatment or other less intrusive levels of care are not appropriate, and for
whom a protected, structured milieu is medically necessary for an extended
period of time.
C. Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level B) and Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be therapeutic services rendered in a
residential type setting such as a group home or program that provides
structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision and
mental health care to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals
as identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). The child or
adolescent must have a medical need for the service arising from a condition
due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant
functional impairments in major life activities.
D. Active treatment shall be required. Residential
Treatment, Therapeutic Behavioral and Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under age 21 shall be designed to serve the mental health needs of
children. In order to be reimbursed for Residential Treatment (Level C),
Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
B), and Community-Based Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
A), the facility must provide active mental health treatment beginning at
admission and it must be related to the recipient's principle diagnosis and
admitting symptoms. To the extent that any recipient needs mental health
treatment and his needs meet the medical necessity criteria for the service, he
will be approved for these services. These services do not include
interventions and activities designed only to meet the supportive nonmental
health special needs, including but not limited to personal care, habilitation
or academic educational needs of the recipients.
E. An individual eligible for Residential Treatment
Services (Level C) is a recipient under the age of 21 years whose treatment
needs cannot be met by ambulatory care resources available in the community,
for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires services on an
inpatient basis under the direction of a physician.
An individual eligible for Therapeutic Behavioral Services
for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B) is a child, under the age of 21
years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
direction of a Licensed Mental Health Professional.
An individual eligible for Community-Based Services for
Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) is a child, under the age of 21
years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
direction of a qualified mental health professional. The services for all three
levels can reasonably be expected to improve the child's or adolescent's
condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed.
F. In order for Medicaid to reimburse for Residential
Treatment (Level C), Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A), the need for the service must be certified
according to the standards and requirements set forth in subdivisions 1 and 2
of this subsection. At least one member of the independent certifying team must
have pediatric mental health expertise.
1. For an individual who is already a Medicaid recipient
when he is admitted to a facility or program, certification must:
a. Be made by an independent certifying team that includes
a licensed physician who:
(1) Has competence in diagnosis and treatment of pediatric
mental illness; and
(2) Has knowledge of the recipient's mental health history
and current situation.
b. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team.
2. For a recipient who applies for Medicaid while an
inpatient in the facility or program, the certification must:
a. Be made by the team responsible for the plan of care;
b. Cover any period of time before the application for
Medicaid eligibility for which claims for reimbursement by Medicaid are made;
and
c. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team.
12VAC30-130-870. Preauthorization. (Repealed.)
A. Authorization for Residential Treatment (Level C) shall
be required within 24 hours of admission and shall be conducted by DMAS or its
utilization management contractor using medical necessity criteria specified by
DMAS. At preauthorization, an initial length of stay shall be assigned and the
residential treatment provider shall be responsible for obtaining authorization
for continued stay.
B. DMAS will not pay for admission to or continued stay in
residential facilities (Level C) that were not authorized by DMAS.
C. Information that is required in order to obtain
admission preauthorization for Medicaid payment shall include:
1. A completed state-designated uniform assessment
instrument approved by the department.
2. A certification of the need for this service by the team
described in 12VAC30-130-860 that:
a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
do not meet the specific treatment needs of the recipient;
b. Proper treatment of the recipient's psychiatric
condition requires services on an inpatient basis under the direction of a
physician; and
c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
recipient's condition or prevent further regression so that the services will
not be needed.
3. Additional required written documentation shall include
all of the following:
a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
Retardation, Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning);
b. A description of the child's behavior during the seven
days immediately prior to admission;
c. A description of alternative placements tried or
explored and the outcomes of each placement;
d. The child's functional level and clinical stability;
e. The level of family support available; and
f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
12VAC30-130-890.
D. Continued stay criteria for Residential Treatment
(Level C): information for continued stay authorization (Level C) for Medicaid
payment must include:
1. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
than 90 days prior to the date of submission;
2. Documentation that the required services are provided as
indicated;
3. Current (within the last 30 days) information on
progress related to the achievement of treatment goals. The treatment goals
must address the reasons for admission, including a description of any new
symptoms amenable to treatment;
4. Description of continued impairment, problem behaviors,
and need for Residential Treatment level of care.
E. Denial of service may be appealed by the recipient
consistent with 12VAC30-110-10 et seq.; denial of reimbursement may be appealed
by the provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et
seq. of the Code of Virginia).
F. DMAS will not pay for services for Therapeutic
Behavioral Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and
Community-Based Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) that
are not prior authorized by DMAS.
G. Authorization for Level A and Level B residential
treatment shall be required within three business days of admission.
Authorization for services shall be based upon the medical necessity criteria
described in 12VAC30-50-130. The authorized length of stay must not exceed six
months and may be reauthorized. The provider shall be responsible for
documenting the need for a continued stay and providing supporting
documentation.
H. Information that is required in order to obtain
admission authorization for Medicaid payment must include:
1. A current completed state-designated uniform assessment
instrument approved by the department. The state designated uniform assessment
instrument must indicate at least two areas of moderate impairment for Level B
and two areas of moderate impairment for Level A. A moderate impairment is
evidenced by, but not limited to:
a. Frequent conflict in the family setting, for example,
credible threats of physical harm.
b. Frequent inability to accept age appropriate direction
and supervision from caretakers, family members, at school, or in the home or
community.
c. Severely limited involvement in social support; which
means significant avoidance of appropriate social interaction, deterioration of
existing relationships, or refusal to participate in therapeutic interventions.
d. Impaired ability to form a trusting relationship with at
least one caretaker in the home, school or community.
e. Limited ability to consider the effect of one's
inappropriate conduct on others, interactions consistently involving conflict,
which may include impulsive or abusive behaviors.
2. A certification of the need for the service by the team
described in 12VAC30-130-860 that:
a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
do not meet the specific treatment needs of the child;
b. Proper treatment of the child's psychiatric condition requires
services in a community-based residential program; and
c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
child's condition or prevent regression so that the services will not be
needed.
3. Additional required written documentation must include
all of the following:
a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
Retardation), Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning);
b. A description of the child's behavior during the 30 days
immediately prior to admission;
c. A description of alternative placements tried or
explored and the outcomes of each placement;
d. The child's functional level and clinical stability;
e. The level of family support available; and
f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
12VAC30-130-890.
I. Denial of service may be appealed by the child
consistent with 12VAC30-110; denial of reimbursement may be appealed by the
provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of
the Code of Virginia).
J. Continued stay criteria for Levels A and B:
1. The length of the authorized stay shall be determined by
DMAS or its contractor.
2. A current Individual Service Plan (ISP) (plan of care)
and a current (within 30 days) summary of progress related to the goals and
objectives on the ISP (plan of care) must be submitted for continuation of the
service.
3. For reauthorization to occur, the desired outcome or
level of functioning has not been restored or improved, over the time frame
outlined in the child's ISP (plan of care) or the child continues to be at risk
for relapse based on history or the tenuous nature of the functional gains and
use of less intensive services will not achieve stabilization. Any one of the
following must apply:
a. The child has achieved initial service plan (plan of
care) goals but additional goals are indicated that cannot be met at a lower
level of care.
b. The child is making satisfactory progress toward meeting
goals but has not attained ISP goals, and the goals cannot be addressed at a
lower level of care.
c. The child is not making progress, and the service plan
(plan of care) has been modified to identify more effective interventions.
d. There are current indications that the child requires
this level of treatment to maintain level of functioning as evidenced by
failure to achieve goals identified for therapeutic visits or stays in a
nontreatment residential setting or in a lower level of residential treatment.
K. Discharge criteria for Levels A and B.
1. Reimbursement shall not be made for this level of care
if either of the following applies:
a. The level of functioning has improved with respect to
the goals outlined in the service plan (plan of care) and the child can
reasonably be expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment;
or
b. The child no longer benefits from service as evidenced
by absence of progress toward service plan goals for a period of 60 days.
12VAC30-130-880. Provider qualifications. (Repealed.)
A. Providers must provide all Residential Treatment
Services (Level C) as defined within this part and set forth in 42 CFR Part 441
Subpart D.
B. Providers of Residential Treatment Services (Level C)
must be:
1. A residential treatment program for children and
adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric hospital
accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
Organizations;
2. A residential treatment program for children and
adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric unit of an
acute general hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
Healthcare Organizations; or
3. A psychiatric facility that is (i) accredited by the
Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission
on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Quality and
Leadership in Supports for People with Disabilities, or the Council on
Accreditation of Services for Families and Children and (ii) licensed by
DMHMRSAS as a residential treatment program for children and adolescents.
C. Providers of Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be licensed by the Department of Social
Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of Education under the
Standards for Interdepartmental Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities
(22VAC42-10).
D. Providers of Therapeutic Behavioral Services (Level B)
must be licensed by the Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation, and
Substance Abuse Services (DMHMRSAS) under the Standards for Interdepartmental
Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC42-10).
12VAC30-130-890. Plans of care; review of plans of care.
(Repealed.)
A. For Residential Treatment Services (Level C), an initial
plan of care must be completed at admission and a Comprehensive Individual Plan
of Care (CIPOC) must be completed no later than 14 days after admission.
B. Initial plan of care (Level C) must include:
1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
2. A description of the functional level of the recipient;
3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the patient;
5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care;
6. Plans for discharge; and
7. Signature and date by the physician.
C. The CIPOC for Level C must meet all of the following
criteria:
1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the recipient's situation and must reflect the need
for inpatient psychiatric care;
2. Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
and other personnel specified under subsection F of this section, who are
employed by, or provide services to, patients in the facility in consultation
with the recipient and his parents, legal guardians, or appropriate others in
whose care he will be released after discharge;
3. State treatment objectives that must include measurable
short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
achievement;
4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
to the diagnosis; and
5. Describe comprehensive discharge plans and coordination
of inpatient services and post-discharge plans with related community services
to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the recipient's family,
school, and community.
D. Review of the CIPOC for Level C. The CIPOC must be
reviewed every 30 days by the team specified in subsection F of this section
to:
1. Determine that services being provided are or were
required on an inpatient basis; and
2. Recommend changes in the plan as indicated by the
recipient's overall adjustment as an inpatient.
E. The development and review of the plan of care for
Level C as specified in this section satisfies the facility's utilization
control requirements for recertification and establishment and periodic review
of the plan of care, as required in 42 CFR 456.160 and 456.180.
F. Team developing the CIPOC for Level C. The following
requirements must be met:
1. At least one member of the team must have expertise in
pediatric mental health. Based on education and experience, preferably
including competence in child psychiatry, the team must be capable of all of
the following:
a. Assessing the recipient's immediate and long-range
therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths and
liabilities;
b. Assessing the potential resources of the recipient's
family;
c. Setting treatment objectives; and
d. Prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the plan's
objectives.
2. The team must include, at a minimum, either:
a. A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist;
b. A clinical psychologist who has a doctoral degree and a
physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or
c. A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
mental diseases, and a psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
association.
3. The team must also include one of the following:
a. A psychiatric social worker;
b. A registered nurse with specialized training or one
year's experience in treating mentally ill individuals;
c. An occupational therapist who is licensed, if required
by the state, and who has specialized training or one year of experience in
treating mentally ill individuals; or
d. A psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
association.
G. All Medicaid services are subject to utilization
review. Absence of any of the required documentation may result in denial or
retraction of any reimbursement.
H. For Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level B), the initial plan of care must be completed at
admission by the licensed mental health professional (LMHP) and a CIPOC must be
completed by the LMHP no later than 30 days after admission. The assessment
must be signed and dated by the LMHP.
I. For Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A), the initial plan of care must be completed at
admission by the QMHP and a CIPOC must be completed by the QMHP no later than
30 days after admission. The individualized plan of care must be signed and
dated by the program director.
J. Initial plan of care for Levels A and B must include:
1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
2. A description of the functional level of the child;
3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the patient;
5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care; and
6. Plans for discharge.
K. The CIPOC for Levels A and B must meet all of the
following criteria:
1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the child's situation and must reflect the need for
residential psychiatric care;
2. The CIPOC for both levels must be based on input from
school, home, other healthcare providers, the child and family (or legal
guardian);
3. State treatment objectives that include measurable
short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
achievement;
4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
to the diagnosis; and
5. Describe comprehensive discharge plans with related
community services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the child's
family, school, and community.
L. Review of the CIPOC for Levels A and B. The CIPOC must
be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30 days by the QMHP for Level A and by the
LMHP for Level B. The review must include:
1. The response to services provided;
2. Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
child's overall response to the plan of care interventions; and
3. Determinations regarding whether the services being
provided continue to be required.
Updates must be signed and dated by the service provider.
M. All Medicaid services are subject to utilization
review. Absence of any of the required documentation may result in denial or
retraction of any reimbursement.
Part XVIII
Behavioral Health Services
12VAC30-130-3000. Behavioral health services.
A. Behavioral health services that shall be covered only for
individuals from birth through 21 years of age are set out in 12VAC30-50-130 B
5 and include: (i) intensive in-home services (IIH), (ii)
therapeutic day treatment (TDT), (iii) community based services for children
and adolescents (Level A) therapeutic group homes, and (iv) therapeutic
behavioral services (Level B) psychiatric residential treatment
facilities.
B. Behavioral health services that shall be covered for
individuals regardless of age are set out in 12VAC30-50-226 and include: (i)
day treatment/partial hospitalization, (ii) psychosocial rehabilitation, (iii)
crisis intervention, (iv) case management as set out in 12VAC30-50-420 and
12VAC30-50-430, (v) intensive community treatment (ICT), (vi) crisis
stabilization services, and (vii) mental health support services (MHSS).
12VAC30-130-3020. Independent clinical assessment requirements;
behavioral health level of care determinations and service eligibility. (Repealed.)
A. The independent clinical assessment (ICA), as set forth
in the Virginia Independent Assessment Program (VICAP-001) form, shall contain
the Medicaid individual-specific elements of information and data that shall be
required for an individual younger than the age of 21 to be approved for
intensive in-home (IIH) services, therapeutic day treatment (TDT), or mental
health support services (MHSS) or any combination thereof. Eligibility
requirements for IIH are in 12VAC30-50-130 B 5 b. Eligibility requirements for
TDT are in 12VAC30-50-130 B 5 c. Eligibility requirements for MHSS are in
12VAC30-50-226 B 8.
1. The required elements in the ICA shall be specified in
the VICAP form with either the BHSA or CSBs/BHAs and DMAS.
2. Service recommendations set out in the ICA shall not be
subject to appeal.
B. Independent clinical assessment requirements.
1. Effective July 18, 2011, an ICA shall be required as a
part of the service authorization process for Medicaid and Family Access to
Medical Insurance Security (FAMIS) intensive in-home (IIH) services,
therapeutic day treatment (TDT), or mental health support services (MHSS) for
individuals up to the age of 21. This ICA shall be performed prior to
the request for service authorization and initiation of treatment for
individuals who are not currently receiving or authorized for services. The ICA
shall be completed prior to the service provider conducting an intake or
providing treatment.
a. Each individual shall have at least one ICA prior to the
initiation of either IIH or TDT, or MHSS for individuals up to the age of 21.
b. For individuals who are already receiving IIH services
or TDT, or MHSS, as of July 18, 2011, the requirement for a completed ICA shall
be effective for service reauthorizations for dates of services on and after
September 1, 2011.
c. Individuals who are being discharged from residential
treatment (DMAS service Levels A, B, or C) or inpatient psychiatric
hospitalization do not need an ICA prior to receiving community IIH services or
TDT, or MHSS. They shall be required, however, to have an ICA as part of the
first subsequent service reauthorization for IIH services, TDT, MHSS, or any
combination thereof.
2. The ICA shall be completed and submitted to DMAS or its
service authorization contractor by the independent assessor prior to the
service provider submitting the service authorization or reauthorization
request to the DMAS service authorization contractor. Failure to meet these
requirements shall result in the provider's service authorization or
reauthorization request being returned to the provider.
3. A copy of the ICA shall be retained in the service
provider's individual's file.
4. If a service provider receives a request from parents or
legal guardians to provide IIH services, TDT, or MHSS for individuals who are
younger than 21 years of age, the service provider shall refer the parent or
legal guardian to the BHSA or the local CSB/BHA to obtain the ICA prior to
providing services.
a. In order to provide services, the service provider shall
be required to conduct a service-specific provider intake as defined in
12VAC30-50-130.
b. If the selected service provider concurs that the child
meets criteria for the service recommended by the independent assessor, the
selected service provider shall submit a service authorization request to DMAS
service authorization contractor. The service-specific provider's intake for
IIH services, TDT, or MHSS shall not occur prior to the completion of the ICA
by the BHSA or CSB/BHA, or its subcontractor.
c. If within 30 days after the ICA a service provider
identifies the need for services that were not recommended by the ICA, the
service provider shall contact the independent assessor and request a
modification. The request for a modification shall be based on a significant
change in the individual's life that occurred after the ICA was conducted.
Examples of a significant change may include, but shall not be limited to,
hospitalization; school suspension or expulsion; death of a significant other;
or hospitalization or incarceration of a parent or legal guardian.
d. If the independent assessment is greater than 30 days
old, a new ICA must be obtained prior to the initiation of IIH services, TDT,
or MHSS for individuals younger than 21 years of age.
e. If the parent or legal
guardian disagrees with the ICA recommendation, the parent or legal guardian
may appeal the recommendation in accordance with Part I (12VAC30-110-10 et
seq.) In the alternative, the parent or legal guardian may request that a
service provider perform his own evaluation. If after conducting a
service-specific provider intake the service provider identifies additional
documentation previously not submitted for the ICA that demonstrates the
service is medically necessary and clinically indicated, the service provider
may submit the supplemental information with a service authorization request to
the DMAS service authorization contractor. The DMAS service authorization
contractor will review the service authorization submission and the ICA and
make a determination. If the determination results in a service denial, the
individual, parent or legal guardian, and service provider will be notified of
the decision and their appeal rights pursuant to Part I (12VAC30-110-10 et
seq.).
5. If the individual is in immediate need of treatment, the
independent clinical assessor shall refer the individual to the appropriate
enrolled Medicaid emergency services providers in accordance with
12VAC30-50-226 and shall also alert the individual's managed care organization.
C. Requirements for behavioral health services
administrator and community services boards/behavioral health authorities.
1. When the BHSA, CSB, or BHA
has been contacted by the parent or legal guardian, the ICA appointment shall
be offered within five business days of a request for IIH services and within
10 business days for a request for TDT or MHSS, or both. The appointment may be
scheduled beyond the respective time frame at the documented request of the
parent or legal guardian.
2. The independent assessor
shall conduct the ICA with the individual and the parent or legal guardian
using the VICAP-001 form and make a recommendation for the most appropriate
medically necessary services, if indicated. Referring or treating providers
shall not be present during the assessment but may submit supporting clinical
documentation to the assessor.
3. The ICA shall be effective for a 30-day period.
4. The independent assessor
shall enter the findings of the ICA into the DMAS service authorization
contractor's web portal within one business day of conducting the assessment.
The independent clinical assessment form (VICAP-001) shall be completed by the
independent assessor within three business days of completing the ICA.
D. The individual or his parent or legal guardian shall
have the right to freedom of choice of service providers.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4495; Filed January 31, 2017, 4:07 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Emergency Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-10. State Plan under
Title XIX of the Social Security Act Medical Assistance Program; General Provisions (amending 12VAC30-10-540).
12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration, and Scope of Medical and
Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-130).
12VAC30-60. Standards Established and Methods Used to Assure
High Quality Care (amending 12VAC30-60-5, 12VAC30-60-50,
12VAC30-60-61).
12VAC30-130. Amount, Duration and Scope of Selected Services (amending 12VAC30-130-3000; repealing
12VAC30-130-850, 12VAC30-130-860, 12VAC30-130-870, 12VAC30-130-880,
12VAC30-130-890, 12VAC30-130-3020).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of
Virginia; 42 USC § 1396 et seq.
Effective Dates: July 1, 2017, through December 31,
2018.
Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,
Policy Division, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad
Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX (804)
786-1680, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
Preamble:
The psychiatric residential treatment service was
implemented in 2001. The existing regulations are not adequate to ensure
successful treatment outcomes are attained for the individuals who receive high
cost high intensity residential treatment services. Since moving behavioral
health services to Magellan (the DMAS behavioral health service administrator
or BHSA) there has been enhanced supervision of these services. The enhanced
supervision has led to an increased awareness of some safety challenges and
administrative challenges in this high level of care. The proposed revisions
will serve to better clarify policy interpretations that revise program
standards to allow for more evidence-based service delivery, allow DMAS to
implement more effective utilization management in collaboration with the BHSA,
enhance individualized coordination of care, implement standardized
coordination of individualized aftercare resources by ensuring access to
medical and behavioral health service providers in the individual's home
community, and support DMAS audit practices. The changes will move toward a
service model that will reduce lengths of stay for and facilitate an
evidence-based treatment approach to better support the individual's discharge
into his home environment.
The emergency action, pursuant to § 2.2-4011 of the Code of
Virginia, includes changes to the following areas: (i) provider qualifications
including acceptable licensing standards, (ii) preadmission assessment requirements,
(iii) program requirements, (iv) new discharge planning and care coordination
requirements, and (iv) language enhancements for utilization review
requirements to clarify program requirements and help providers avoid payment
retractions. These changes are part of a review of the services to ensure that
they are effectively delivered and utilized for individuals who meet the
medical necessity criteria. For each individual seeking residential treatment
their treatment needs will be assessed with enhanced requirements by the
current independent certification teams who must coordinate clinical assessment
information and assess local resources for each person requesting residential
care to determine an appropriate level of care. The certification teams will
also be more able to coordinate referrals for care to determine, in accordance
with Department of Justice requirements, whether or not the individual seeking
services can be safely served using community-based services in the least
restrictive setting. Independent team certifications will be conducted prior to
the onset of specified services, as required by Centers for Medicare and
Medicaid Services guidelines, by the DMAS behavioral health services
administrator.
The proposal includes changes to program requirements that
ensure that effective levels of care coordination and discharge planning occurs
for each individual during his residential stay by enhancing program rules and
utilization management principles that facilitate effective discharge planning
and establish community-based services prior to the individual's discharge from
residential care. The proposal requires enhanced care coordination to provide
the necessary, objective evaluations of treatment progress and to facilitate
evidence-based practices during the treatment to reduce the length of stay by
ensuring that medical necessity indicates the correct level of care and that
appropriate and effective care is delivered in a person-centered manner. The
proposal requires that service providers and local systems will use
standardized preadmission and discharge processes to ensure effective services
are delivered.
This emergency action is in compliance with provisions of
Item 301 OO and Item 301 PP of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly, as follows:
Item 301 OO c 7, 8, 9, 14, 15, 16, 17, and 18 directed that
DMAS shall develop a blueprint for a care coordination model for individuals in
need of behavioral health services that includes the following principles:
"7. Develops direct linkages between medical and
behavioral services in order to make it easier for consumers to obtain timely
access to care and services, which could include up to full integration.
8. Builds upon current best practices in the delivery of
behavioral health services.
9. Accounts for local services and reflects familiarity
with the community where services are provided.
…
14. Achieves cost savings through decreasing avoidable
episodes of care and hospitalizations, strengthening the discharge planning
process, improving adherence to medication regimens, and utilizing community
alternatives to hospitalizations and institutionalization.
15. Simplifies the administration of acute psychiatric,
community and mental health rehabilitation, and medical health services for the
coordinating entity, providers, and consumers.
16. Requires standardized data collection, outcome
measures, customer satisfaction surveys, and reports to track costs,
utilization of services, and outcomes. Performance data should be explicit,
benchmarked, standardized, publicly available, and validated.
17. Provides actionable data and feedback to providers.
18. In accordance with federal and state regulations,
includes provisions for effective and timely grievances and appeals for
consumers."
Item 301 OO d states:
"The department may seek the necessary waiver(s) or
State Plan authorization under Titles XIX and XXI of the Social Security Act to
develop and implement a care coordination model … This model may be applied to
individuals on a mandatory basis. The department shall have authority to
promulgate emergency regulations to implement this amendment within 280 days or
less from the enactment date of this act."
Item 301 PP states:
"The Department of Medical Assistance Services shall
make programmatic changes in the provision of Residential Treatment Facility
(Level C) and Levels A and B residential services (group homes) for children
with serious emotional disturbances in order [to] ensure appropriate
utilization and cost efficiency. The department shall consider all available
options including, but not limited to, prior authorization, utilization review
and provider qualifications. The department shall have authority to promulgate
regulations to implement these changes within 280 days or less from the enactment
date of this act."
In response to Item 301 OO c 14, DMAS is proposing new
requirements to ensure that comprehensive discharge planning begins at
admission to a therapeutic group home or residential treatment facility so that
the individual can return to the community setting with appropriate supports at
the soonest possible time.
DMAS is responding to the legislative mandates in Item 301
OO c 7 through 9, 14, and 15 by sunsetting the Virginia Independent Assessment
Program (VICAP) regulation at 12VAC30-130-3020. The VICAP program is no longer
needed, as the BHSA is now conducting thorough reviews of medical necessity for
each requested service, and the funds allocated to the VICAP program can be
more effectively used elsewhere.
DMAS is responding to the legislative mandates in Item 301
OO c 16 through 18 by creating a single point of contact at the BHSA for
families and caregivers who will increase timely access to residential
behavioral health services, promote effective service delivery, and decrease
wait times for medical necessity and placement decisions that previously have
been managed by local family assessment and planning teams (FAPT). The FAPTs
are not DMAS-enrolled service providers, and the individuals who must use the
FAPT process to gain access to Medicaid covered residential treatment are not
subject to the established Medicaid grievance process and choice options as
mandated by CMS. The enhanced interaction of the families and the BHSA will
enable more thorough data collection to ensure freedom of choice in service
providers, and to measure locality trends, service provider trends, and
population trends to facilitate evidence-based decisions in both the clinical
service delivery and administration of the program. The enhanced family interaction
will enable the BHSA to complete individual family surveys and monitor care
more effectively after discharge from services to assess the family and
individual perspective on service delivery and enable DMAS to more effectively
manage evidence-based residential treatment services.
Since 2001, when residential treatment services were
implemented by DMAS, individuals have not had access to standardized methods of
effective care coordination upon entry into residential treatment due to
locality influence and DMAS reimbursement limitations. This has resulted in a
fragmented coordination approach for these individuals who are at risk for high
levels of care and remain at risk of repeated placements at this level of care.
The residential treatment prior authorization and utilization management
structures require an enhanced care coordination model to support the
individuals who receive this level of service to ensure an effective return to
the family or caregiver home environment with follow-up services to facilitate
ongoing treatment progress in the least restrictive environment. The added
coordination is required to navigate a very complex service environment for the
individual as the individual returns to a community setting to establish an
effective aftercare environment that involves service providers who may be
contracted with a variety of entities such as DMAS contracted managed care
organizations (MCOs), BHSA enrolled providers, the local FAPT, local school
divisions, and the local community services board (CSB). This regulation will
allow DMAS to implement a contracted care coordination team that will focus on
attaining specific clinical outcomes for all residential care episodes and
provide a new single liaison who will ensure coordination of care in a complex
service environment for individuals upon discharge from residential treatment
and prior to the time when they will enroll in an MCO. During this transition
period the individual is very vulnerable to repeated admissions to residential
or inpatient care and must also be supported in the fee for service (FFS)
environment with resources from the local CSB and BHSA enrolled services
providers and requires ongoing support and coordination with the local FAPT to
provide aftercare services consisting of post-discharge follow-up and
transition services provided by the BHSA coordination team.
The care coordination team will (i) provide increased
standardization of preadmission assessment activity, (ii) provide facilitation
of an effective independent certification team process, (iii) ensure that MCO
and medical home resources are used to provide accurate psychosocial assessment
and clinical/medical history to the certification team and BHSA, (iv)
facilitate accurate authorization decisions and consider community-based
service options prior to any out-of-home placement, (v) facilitate high levels
of family involvement, (vi) provide aggressive discharge planning that ensures
smooth transition into community-based services and MCO-funded health services,
and (vii) provide meaningful, coordinated post-discharge follow-up for up to 90
days after discharge with the youth and family.
The residential care coordination team will ensure
meaningful communication across all parts of the Comprehensive Services Act,
Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, MCO, and FFS
service systems to maximize efficiency of activities, eliminate duplicative or
conflicting efforts, and ensure established timelines are met (e.g., regular
assessment of progress).
These enclosed proposed utilization control requirements
are recommended consistent with the federal requirements at 42 CFR Part 456
Utilization Control. Specifically, 42 CFR 456.3, "Statewide surveillance
and utilization control program" provides: "The Medicaid agency must
implement a statewide surveillance and utilization control program that—
(a) Safeguards against unnecessary or inappropriate use of
Medicaid services and against excess payments;
(b) Assesses the quality of those services;
(c) Provides for the control of the utilization of all
services provided under the plan in accordance with subpart B of this part, and
(d) Provides for the control of the utilization of
inpatient services in accordance with subparts C through I of this part."
The Code of Federal Regulations also provides, at 42 CFR
430.10, "...The State plan contains all information necessary for CMS to
determine whether the plan can be approved to serve as a basis for Federal
financial participation (FFP) in the State program." FFP is the federal
matching funds that DMAS receives from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Services. Not performing utilization control of the services affected by these
proposed regulations, as well as all Medicaid covered services, could subject
DMAS' federal matching funds to a CMS recovery action.
Purpose. This regulatory action is essential to protect the
health, safety, or welfare of individuals with Medicaid who require behavioral
health services. In addition, these proposed changes are intended to promote improved
quality of Medicaid-covered behavioral health services provided to individuals.
This regulatory action is also essential to ensure that
Medicaid individuals and their families are well informed about their
behavioral health condition and service options prior to receiving these
services. This ensures the services are medically necessary for the individual
and are rendered by providers who use evidence-based treatment approaches.
While residential treatment is not a service that should be
approved with great frequency for a large number of individuals, it is a
service that should be accessible to the families and individuals who require
that level of care. The current service model has significant operational
layers that must be navigated to access residential services. The current
program processes involve coordination of care by local FAPT teams who have,
over time, demonstrated some influence on determining an individual's
eligibility for FAPT funded services. The local influence on the program's administration
causes limitations on individualized freedom of provider choice and
inconsistent authorization of funding for persons deemed to need psychiatric
care out of the home setting. This local administration of the primary referral
source for residential treatment lies outside the purview of DMAS and this
situation produces outcomes that are inadequate to meet CMS requirements on
ensuring the individual freedom of choice of providers. In addition, local FAPT
administrators do not enforce the Department of Justice settlement requirements
in a uniform manner.
DMAS has added content to program requirements and covered
services portions of the regulations to better clarify the benefit coverage and
utilization criteria. The emergency regulations allow the use of additional
information collection to better assess ways to reduce the average length of
stay for individuals in residential care, and to better coordinate educational
funding for those who require medically necessary services in a psychiatric
treatment setting by using enhanced Medicaid supports.
The goal is that individuals receive the correct level of
service at the correct time for the treatment (service) needs related to the
individual's medical/psychiatric condition. Residential treatment services
consist of behavioral health interventions and are intended to provide high
intensity clinical treatment that should be provided for a short duration.
Stakeholder feedback supported DMAS observations of lengthy durations of stay
for many individuals. Residential treatment services will benefit from
clarification of the service definition and eligibility requirements to ensure
that residential treatment does not evolve into a long-term level of support
instead of the high intensity psychiatric treatment modality that defines this
level of care.
Substance. The sections of the State Plan for Medical
Assistance that are affected by this action are 12VAC30-10-540 (Inspection of
care in intermediate care facilities); 12VAC30-50-130 (Skilled nursing facility
services, EPSDT, school health services, and family planning); 12VAC30-60-5
(Applicability of utilization review requirements); 12VAC30-60-50 (Utilization
control: Intermediate Care Facilities for the Mentally Retarded (ICF/MR) and
Institutions for Mental Disease (IMD); 12VAC30-60-61 (Services related to the
Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment Program (EPSDT);
community mental health services for children). The state-only regulations that
are affected by this action are 12VAC30-130-850 through 12VAC30-130-890 (Part
XIV - Residential Psychiatric Treatment for Children and Adolescents).
12VAC30-10-540. Inspection of care in intermediate care
facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
developmental disabilities, facilities providing inpatient psychiatric
services for individuals under 21, and mental hospitals.
All applicable requirements of 42 CFR 456, Subpart I, are met
with respect to periodic inspections of care and services.*
Inpatient psychiatric services for individuals under age
21 are not provided under this plan.
*Inspection of Care care (IOC) in Intermediate
Care Facilities intermediate care facilities for the Mentally
Retarded and Institutions for Mental Diseases are persons with
intellectual and developmental disabilities is completed through
contractual arrangements with the Virginia Department of Health.
12VAC30-50-130. Skilled nursing facility services, EPSDT,
school health services, and family planning.
A. Skilled nursing facility services (other than services in
an institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older.
Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
performed within the scope of a license of the practitioner of the healing
arts.
B. Early and periodic screening and, diagnosis,
and treatment (EPSDT) of individuals under 21 years of age, and treatment
of conditions found - general provisions.
1. Payment of medical assistance services shall be made on
behalf of individuals under 21 years of age, who are Medicaid eligible, for
medically necessary stays in acute care facilities, and the accompanying
attendant physician care, in excess of 21 days per admission when such services
are rendered for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of health conditions
identified through a physical examination.
2. Routine physicals and immunizations (except as provided
through EPSDT) are not covered except that well-child examinations in a private
physician's office are covered for foster children of the local social services
departments on specific referral from those departments.
3. Orthoptics services shall only be reimbursed if medically
necessary to correct a visual defect identified by an EPSDT examination or
evaluation. The department shall place appropriate utilization controls upon
this service.
4. Consistent with the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of
1989 § 6403, early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment services
means the following services: screening services, vision services, dental
services, hearing services, and such other necessary health care, diagnostic
services, treatment, and other measures described in Social Security Act §
1905(a) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and mental illnesses and
conditions discovered by the screening services and which are medically
necessary, whether or not such services are covered under the State Plan and
notwithstanding the limitations, applicable to recipients ages 21 and over,
provided for by the Act § 1905(a).
5. Community C. Early and periodic screening
diagnosis and treatment (EPSDT) of individuals younger than 21 years of age -
community mental health services. These services in order to be covered (i)
shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses made by LMHPs who
are practicing within the scope of their licenses and (ii) are reflected in
provider records and on providers' provider claims for services
by recognized diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the
requested professional services.
a. 1. Definitions. The following words and terms
when used in this section shall have the following meanings unless the context
clearly indicates otherwise:
"Activities of daily living" means personal care
activities and includes bathing, dressing, transferring, toileting, feeding,
and eating.
"Adolescent or child" means the individual
receiving the services described in this section. For the purpose of the use of
these terms this term, adolescent means an individual 12-20 years
of age; a child means an individual from birth up to 12 years of age.
"Behavioral health services administrator" or
"BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
benefits program under contract with DMAS.
"Care coordination" means collaboration and sharing
of information among health care providers, who are involved with an
individual's health care, to improve the care.
"Certified prescreener" means an employee of the
local community services board or behavioral health authority, or its designee,
who is skilled in the assessment and treatment of mental illness and has
completed a certification program approved by the Department of Behavioral
Health and Developmental Services.
"Clinical experience" means providing direct
behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
in-home services, (ii) day treatment for children and adolescents, (iii)
community-based residential services for children and adolescents who are
younger than 21 years of age (Level A), or (iv) therapeutic behavioral services
(Level B). Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be as
established by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Child" means the individual receiving the
services described in this section; an individual from birth up to 12 years of
age.
"DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
and Developmental Services.
"DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
Services and its contractor or contractors.
"Human services field" means the same as the term
is defined by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
the same as the term is defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
"Licensed mental health professional" or
"LMHP" means a licensed physician, licensed clinical psychologist,
licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical social worker, licensed
substance abuse treatment practitioner, licensed marriage and family therapist,
or certified psychiatric clinical nurse specialist the same as defined
in 12VAC35-105-20.
"LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the same
as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a
"resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Counseling. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by such residents, they shall use the title
"Resident" in connection with the applicable profession after their
signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-resident in psychology" or "LMHP-RP"
means the same as an individual in a residency, as that term is defined in
18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An LMHP-resident in
psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the regulatory requirements
for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65 and shall not perform the
functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a "resident" until the
supervision for specific clinical duties at a specific site has been
preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Psychology. For purposes of
Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services provided by such residents,
they shall use the title "Resident in Psychology" after their
signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
"LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
"supervisee" as defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be
considered a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical
duties at a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Social Work. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title "Supervisee
in Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such status.
"Progress notes" means individual-specific
documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
the notes. Individualized and member-specific progress notes are part of the
minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's status,
staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress, or lack of
progress, toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes shall also
include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the
service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered the
service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time
or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each progress
note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be
documented for each service that is billed.
"Psychoeducation" means (i) a specific form of
education aimed at helping individuals who have mental illness and their family
members or caregivers to access clear and concise information about mental
illness and (ii) a way of accessing and learning strategies to deal with mental
illness and its effects in order to design effective treatment plans and
strategies.
"Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving and increasing coping
skills.
"Qualified mental health professional-child" or
"QMHP-C" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
"QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20 and
consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-590.
"Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
"QPPMH" means the same as the term is defined in
12VAC35-105-20 and consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
"Service-specific provider intake" means the
face-to-face interaction in which the provider obtains information from the
child or adolescent, and parent or other family member or members, as
appropriate, about the child's or adolescent's mental health status. It
includes documented history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental
health care problems and issues and shall contain all of the following
elements: (i) the presenting issue/reason for referral, (ii) mental health
history/hospitalizations, (iii) previous interventions by providers and
timeframes and response to treatment, (iv) medical profile, (v) developmental
history including history of abuse, if appropriate, (vi) educational/vocational
status, (vii) current living situation and family history and relationships,
(viii) legal status, (ix) drug and alcohol profile, (x) resources and
strengths, (xi) mental status exam and profile, (xii) diagnosis, (xiii)
professional summary and clinical formulation, (xiv) recommended care and
treatment goals, and (xv) the dated signature of the LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
b. 2. Intensive in-home services (IIH) to
children and adolescents under age 21 shall be time-limited interventions
provided in the individual's residence and when clinically necessary in
community settings. All interventions and the settings of the intervention
shall be defined in the Individual Service Plan. All IIH services shall be
designed to specifically improve family dynamics, provide modeling, and the
clinically necessary interventions that increase functional and therapeutic
interpersonal relations between family members in the home. IIH services are
designed to promote psychoeducational benefits in the home setting of an
individual who is at risk of being moved into an out-of-home placement or who
is being transitioned to home from an out-of-home placement due to a documented
medical need of the individual. These services provide crisis treatment;
individual and family counseling; communication skills (e.g., counseling to
assist the individual and his parents or guardians, as appropriate, to
understand and practice appropriate problem solving, anger management, and
interpersonal interaction, etc.); care coordination with other required
services; and 24-hour emergency response.
(1) These services shall be limited annually to 26 weeks.
a. Service authorization shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement
prior to the onset of services. Services rendered before the date of
authorization shall not be reimbursed.
(2) b. Service authorization shall be required
for services to continue beyond the initial 26 weeks.
(3) c. Service-specific provider intakes shall
be required at the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the
entire duration of services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or
outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement.
Requirements for service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are set out in this
section.
(4) d. These services may shall
only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C,
or a QMHP-E.
c. 3. Therapeutic day treatment (TDT) shall be
provided two or more hours per day in order to provide therapeutic
interventions. Day treatment programs, limited annually to 780 units, (a
unit is defined in 12VAC30-60-61 D 11) provide evaluation; medication education
and management; opportunities to learn and use daily living skills and to
enhance social and interpersonal skills (e.g., problem solving, anger
management, community responsibility, increased impulse control, and
appropriate peer relations, etc.); and individual, group and family counseling.
(1) a. Service authorization shall be required
for Medicaid reimbursement.
(2) b. Service-specific provider intakes shall
be required at the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the
entire duration of services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or
outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied
reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are
set out in this section.
(3) c. These services may shall be
rendered only by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or
a QMHP-E.
d. Community-based services for children and adolescents
under 21 years of age (Level A).
(1) Such services shall be a combination of therapeutic
services rendered in a residential setting. The residential services will
provide structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic
supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric treatment to ensure the
attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the individual
service plan (plan of care). Individuals qualifying for this service must
demonstrate medical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to
mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments
in major life activities in the home, school, at work, or in the community. The
service must reasonably be expected to improve the child's condition or prevent
regression so that the services will no longer be needed. The application of a
national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry,
such as McKesson InterQual® Criteria or an equivalent standard
authorized in advance by DMAS, shall be required for this service.
(2) In addition to the residential services, the child must
receive, at least weekly, individual psychotherapy that is provided by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
(3) Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
other less intensive services may achieve stabilization.
(4) Authorization shall be required for Medicaid
reimbursement. Services that were rendered before the date of service
authorization shall not be reimbursed.
(5) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed. DMAS
shall reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no
more than 16 beds.
(6) These residential providers must be licensed by the
Department of Social Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of
Behavioral Health and Developmental Services under the Standards for Licensed
Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC40-151), Standards for Interim
Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (6VAC35-51), or Regulations for
Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
(7) Daily progress notes shall document a minimum of seven
psychoeducational activities per week. Psychoeducational programming must
include, but is not limited to, development or maintenance of daily living
skills, anger management, social skills, family living skills, communication
skills, stress management, and any care coordination activities.
(8) The facility/group home must coordinate services with
other providers. Such care coordination shall be documented in the individual's
medical record. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
(9) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-60-61.
(10) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
D. Early and periodic screening diagnosis and treatment
(EPSDT) of individuals younger than 21 years of age - therapeutic group home
services and residential treatment services.
1. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
this subsection shall have the following meanings:
"Active treatment" means implementation of an
initial plan of care (IPOC) and comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC)
that shall be developed, supervised, and approved by the family or legally
authorized representative, treating physician, psychiatrist, or LMHP
responsible for the overall supervision of the CIPOC. Each plan of care shall
be designed to improve the individual's condition and to achieve the
individual's safe discharge from residential care at the earliest possible
time.
"Assessment" means a service conducted within
seven calendar days of admission by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S
utilizing a tool or series of tools to provide a comprehensive evaluation and
review of an individual's current mental health status in order to make
recommendations; provide diagnosis; identify strengths, needs, and risk level;
and describe the severity of symptoms.
"Behavioral health services administrator" or
"BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
benefits program under contract with DMAS.
"Certificate of need" or "CON" means a
written statement by an independent certification team that services in a
residential treatment facility are or were needed.
"Combined treatment services" means a structured,
therapeutic milieu and planned interventions that promote (i) the development
or restoration of adaptive functioning, self-care, and social skills; (ii)
community integrated activities and community living skills that each
individual requires to live in less restrictive environments; (iii) behavioral
consultation; (iv) individual and group therapy; (v) recreation therapy, (vi)
family education and family therapy; and (vii) individualized treatment
planning.
"Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
"CIPOC" means a person-centered plan of care that meets all of the
requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
information gathered during the referral process.
"Crisis" means a deteriorating or unstable
situation, often developing suddenly that produces an acute, heightened
emotional, mental, physical, medical, or behavioral event.
"Crisis management" means immediately provided
activities and interventions designed to rapidly manage a crisis.
"Daily supervision" means the supervision
provided in a residential treatment facility through a resident-to-staff ratio
approved by the Office of Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and
Developmental Services with documented supervision checks every 15 minutes
throughout the 24-hour period.
"Discharge planning" means family and
locality-based care coordination that begins upon admission to a residential
treatment facility or therapeutic group home with the goal of transitioning the
individual out of the residential treatment facility or therapeutic group home
to a less restrictive care setting with continued, clinically-appropriate, and
possibly intensive, services as soon as possible upon discharge. Discharge
plans shall be recommended by the treating physician, psychiatrist, or treating
LMHP responsible for the overall supervision of the CIPOC and shall be approved
by the BHSA.
"DSM-5" means the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, copyright 2013, American Psychiatric
Association.
"Emergency admissions" means those admissions
that are made when, pending a review for the certificate of need, it appears
that the individual is in need of an immediate admission to group home or
residential treatment and likely does not meet the medical necessity criteria
to receive crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, or acute psychiatric
inpatient services.
"Emergency services" means unscheduled and
sometimes scheduled crisis intervention, stabilization, acute psychiatric
inpatient services, and referral assistance provided over the telephone or
face-to-face if indicated, and available 24 hours a day, seven days per week.
"Family engagement" means a family-centered and strengths-based
approach to partnering with families in making decisions, setting goals,
achieving desired outcomes, and promoting safety, permanency, and well-being
for children, youth, and families. Family engagement requires ongoing
opportunities for an individual to build and maintain meaningful relationships
with family members, for example, frequent, unscheduled, and noncontingent
phone calls and visits between an individual and family members. Family
engagement may also include enhancing or facilitating the development of the
individual's relationship with other family members and supportive adults
responsible for the individual's care and well-being upon discharge.
"Family engagement activity" means an
intervention consisting of family psychoeducational training or coaching,
transition planning with the family, family and independent living skills, and
training on accessing community supports as identified in the IPOC and CIPOC.
Family engagement activity does not include and is not the same as family
therapy.
"Independent certification team" means a team
that has competence in diagnosis and treatment of mental illness, preferably in
child psychiatry; has knowledge of the individual's situation; and is composed
of at least one physician and one LMHP. The independent certification team
shall be a DMAS-authorized contractor with contractual or employment
relationships with the required team members.
"Individual" means the child or adolescent
younger than 21 years of age who is receiving therapeutic group home or
residential treatment facility services.
"Initial plan of care" or "IPOC" means
a person-centered plan of care established at admission that meets all of the
requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
information gathered during the referral process.
"Intervention" means scheduled therapeutic
treatment such as individual or group psychoeducation; psychoeducational
activities with specific topics focused to address individualized needs;
structured behavior support and training activities; recreation, art, and music
therapies; community integration activities that promote or assist in the
youth's ability to acquire coping and functional or self-regulating behavior
skills; day and overnight passes; and family engagement activities.
Interventions shall not include individual, group, and family therapy,
medical, or dental appointments, physician services, medication evaluation or
management provided by a licensed clinician or physician and shall not include
school attendance. Interventions shall be provided in the therapeutic group
home or residential treatment facility and, when clinically necessary, in a
community setting or as part of a therapeutic leave activity. All interventions
and settings of the intervention shall be established in the CIPOC.
"Physician" means an individual licensed to
practice medicine or osteopathic medicine in Virginia, as defined in §
54.1-2900 of the Code of Virginia.
"Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving, and increasing coping
skills.
"Recertification" means a certification for each
applicant or recipient for whom residential treatment facility services are
needed.
"Residential case management" means providing
care coordination, maintaining records, making calls, sending emails, compiling
monthly reports, scheduling meetings, and performing other administrative tasks
related to the individual. Residential case management is a component of the
combined treatment services provided in a group home setting or residential
treatment facility.
"Residential medical supervision" means
around-the-clock nursing and medical care through onsite nurses and onsite or
on-call physicians, as well as nurse and physician attendance at each treatment
planning meeting. Residential medical supervision is a component of the
combined treatment services provided in a congregate residential care facility
and is included in the reimbursement for residential services.
"Residential supplemental therapies" means a
specified minimum of daily interventions and other professional therapies.
Residential supplemental therapies are a component of the combined treatment
services provided in a congregate residential care facility and are included in
the reimbursement for residential services. Residential providers shall not
bill other payment sources in addition to DMAS for these covered services as
part of a residential stay.
"Residential treatment facility" means the same
as defined in 42 CFR 483.352 and is a 24-hour, supervised, clinically and
medically necessary, out-of-home active treatment program designed to provide
necessary support and address mental health, behavioral, substance abuse,
cognitive, and training needs of an individual younger than 21 years of age in
order to prevent or minimize the need for more intensive inpatient treatment.
"Room and board" means a component of the total
daily cost for placement in a licensed residential treatment facility. Residential
room and board costs are maintenance costs associated with placement in a
licensed residential treatment facility and include a semi-private room, three
meals and two snacks per day, and personal care items. Room and board costs are
reimbursed only for residential treatment settings.
"Therapeutic group home" means a congregate
residential service providing 24-hour supervision in a community-based home
having eight or fewer residents.
"Therapeutic leave" and "therapeutic
passes" mean time at home or time with family consisting of partial
or entire days of time away from the group home or treatment facility with
identified goals as approved by the treating physician, psychiatrist, or LMHP
responsible for the overall supervision of the CIPOC and documented in the
CIPOC that facilitate or measure treatment progress, facilitate aftercare
designed to promote family/community engagement, connection and permanency, and
provide for goal-directed family engagement.
e. 2. Therapeutic behavioral group
home services (Level B).
(1) Such services must be therapeutic services rendered in
a residential setting that provides structure for daily activities,
psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric
treatment to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as
identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). Individuals
qualifying for this service must demonstrate medical necessity for the service
arising from a condition due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that
results in significant functional impairments in major life activities in the
home, school, at work, or in the community. The service must reasonably be
expected to improve the child's condition or prevent regression so that the
services will no longer be needed. The application of a national standardized
set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson
InterQual® Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance
by DMAS shall be required for this service.
a. Therapeutic group home services for children and
adolescents younger than the age of 21 years are combined treatment services.
The combination of therapeutic services rendered in a residential setting
provides a therapeutic structure of daily psychoeducational activities,
therapeutic supervision, behavioral modification, and mental health care to
ensure the attainment of therapeutic goals. The therapeutic group home shall
provide therapeutic services to restore, develop, or maintain appropriate
skills necessary to promote prosocial behavior and healthy living to include
the development of coping skills, family living and health awareness,
interpersonal skills, communication skills, and stress management skills.
Treatment for substance use disorders shall be addressed as clinically
indicated. The program shall include individualized activities provided in
accordance with the IPOC and CIPOC including a minimum of one intervention per
24-hour period in addition to individual, group, and family therapies. Daily
interventions are not required when there is documentation to justify clinical
or medical reasons for the individual's deviations from the service plan.
Interventions shall be documented on a progress note and shall be outlined in
and aligned with the treatment goals and objectives in the IPOC and CIPOC. Any
deviation from the IPOC or CIPOC shall be documented along with a clinical or
medical justification for the deviation.
b. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a
therapeutic group home. The following requirements for severity of need and
intensity and quality of service shall be met to satisfy the medical necessity
criteria for admission.
(1) Admission - severity of need. The following criteria
shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
(a) The individual's behavioral health condition can only
be safely and effectively treated in a 24-hour therapeutic milieu with onsite
behavioral health therapy due to significant impairments in home, school, and
community functioning caused by current mental health symptoms consistent with
a DSM-5 diagnosis.
(b) The certificate of need must demonstrate all of the
following: (i) ambulatory care resources (all available modalities of treatment
less restrictive than inpatient treatment) available in the community do not
meet the treatment needs of the individual; (ii) proper treatment of the
individual's psychiatric condition requires services on an inpatient basis
under the direction of a physician; and (iii) the services can reasonably be
expected to improve the individual's condition or prevent further regression so
that the services will no longer be needed.
(c) An assessment that demonstrates at least two areas of
moderate impairment in major life activities. A moderate impairment is defined
as a major or persistent disruption in major life activities. The state uniform
assessment tool must be completed. A moderate impairment is evidenced by, but
not limited to (i) frequent conflict in the family setting such as credible
threats of physical harm. "Frequent" is defined as more than expected
for the individual's age and developmental level; (ii) frequent inability to
accept age-appropriate direction and supervision from caretakers, from family
members, at school, or in the home or community; (iii) severely limited
involvement in social support, which means significant avoidance of appropriate
social interaction, deterioration of existing relationships, or refusal to
participate in therapeutic interventions; (iv) impaired ability to form a
trusting relationship with at least one caretaker in the home, school, or
community; (v) limited ability to consider the effect of one's inappropriate
conduct on others; and (vi) interactions consistently involving conflict, which
may include impulsive or abusive behaviors.
(d) Less restrictive community-based services have been
given a fully adequate trial and were unsuccessful or, if not attempted, have
been considered, but in either situation were determined to be to be unable to
meet the individual's treatment needs and the reasons for that are discussed in
the application.
(e) The individual's symptoms, or the need for treatment in
a 24 hours a day, seven days a week level of care (LOC), are not primarily due
to any of the following: (i) intellectual disability, developmental disability,
or autistic spectrum disorder; (ii) organic mental disorders, traumatic brain
injury, or other medical condition; or (iii) the individual does not require a
more intensive level of care.
(f) The individual does not require primary medical or
surgical treatment.
(2) Admission - intensity and quality of service. All of
the following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for intensity and
quality of service.
(a) The therapeutic group home service has been prescribed
by a psychiatrist, psychologist, or other LMHP who has documented that a
residential setting is the least restrictive clinically appropriate service
that can meet the specifically identified treatment needs of the individual
(b) Therapeutic group home is not being used for clinically
inappropriate reasons, including: (i) an alternative to incarceration, and/or
preventative detention; (ii) an alternative to parents', guardian's or agency's
capacity to provide a place of residence for the individual; or, (iii) a
treatment intervention, when other less restrictive alternatives are available.
(c) The individual's treatment goals are included in the
service specific provider intake and include behaviorally defined objectives
that require, and can reasonably be achieved within, a therapeutic group home
setting.
(d) The therapeutic group home is required to coordinate
with the individual's community resources, including schools, with the goal of
transitioning the individual out of the program to a less restrictive care
setting for continued, sometimes intensive, services as soon as possible and
appropriate.
(e) The therapeutic group home program must incorporate
nationally established, evidence-based, trauma informed services and supports
that promote recovery and resiliency.
(f) Discharge planning begins upon admission, with concrete
plans for the individual to transition back into the community beginning within
the first week of admission, with clear action steps and target dates outlined
in the treatment plan.
(3) Continued stay criteria. The following criteria shall
be met in order to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
(a) All of the admission guidelines continue to be met and
this is supported by the written clinical documentation.
(b) The individual shall meet one of the following: (i) the
desired outcome or level of functioning has not been restored or improved in
the timeframe outlined in the individual's CIPOC or the individual continues to
be at risk for relapse based on history or (ii) the tenuous nature of the
functional gains and use of less intensive services will not achieve
stabilization.
(c) The individual shall meet one of the following: (i) the
individual has achieved initial CIPOC goals but additional goals are indicated
that cannot be met at a lower level of care; (ii) the individual is making
satisfactory progress toward meeting goals but has not attained CIPOC goals,
and the goals cannot be addressed at a lower level of care; (iii) the
individual is not making progress, and the CIPOC has been modified to identify
more effective interventions; or (iv) there are current indications that the
individual requires this level of treatment to maintain level of functioning as
evidenced by failure to achieve goals identified for therapeutic visits or
stays in a nontreatment residential setting or in a lower level of residential
treatment.
(d) There is a written, up-to-date discharge plan that (i)
identifies the custodial parent or custodial caregiver at discharge; (ii)
identifies the school the individual will attend at discharge; (iii) includes
individualized education program (IEP) recommendations, if necessary; (iv)
outlines the aftercare treatment plan (discharge to another residential LOC is
not an acceptable discharge goal); and (v) lists barriers to community
reintegration and progress made on resolving these barriers since last review.
(e) The active treatment plan includes structure for daily
activities, psychoeducation, and therapeutic supervision and activities to
ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the
treatment plan. In addition to the daily therapeutic residential services, the
child/adolescent must also receive psychotherapy services, care coordination,
family-based discharge planning, and locality-based transition activities.
Intensive family interventions, with a recommended frequency of one family
therapy session per week, although twice per month is minimally acceptable.
Family involvement begins immediately upon admission to therapeutic group home.
If the minimum requirement cannot be met, the reasons must be reported, and
continued efforts to involve family members must also be documented. Under
certain circumstances an alternate plan, aimed at enhancing the individual's
connections with other family members and/or supportive adults may be an
appropriate substitute.
(f) Less restrictive treatment options have been
considered, but cannot yet meet the individual's treatment needs. There is
sufficient current clinical documentation/evidence to show that therapeutic
group home LOC continues to be the least restrictive level of care that can
meet the individual's mental health treatment needs.
(4) Discharge criteria are as follows:
(a) Medicaid reimbursement is not available when other less
intensive services may achieve stabilization.
(b) Reimbursement shall not be made for this level of care
if any of the following applies: (i) the level of functioning has improved with
respect to the goals outlined in the CIPOC and the individual can reasonably be
expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment or (ii) the
individual no longer benefits from service as evidenced by absence of progress
toward CIPOC goals for a period of 60 days.
c. The following clinical interventions shall be required
for each therapeutic group home resident:
(1) Preadmission service-specific provider intake shall be
performed by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S.
(2) A face-to-face behavioral health assessment shall be
performed by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S within 30 days prior to
admission and shall document a DSM-5/ICD-10 diagnosis.
(3) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
independent certification team according to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-130
D 4. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 days by a LMHP, LMHP-R,
LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S acting within their scope of practice.
(4) An initial plan of care shall be completed on the day
of admission by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be signed by the
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual and a family member or
legally authorized representative. The initial plan of care shall include all
of the following:
(a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
strategies and treatment alliance;
(b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
(c) A description of the functional level of the
individual;
(d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
(e) Orders for medications, psychiatric, medical, dental,
and any special health care needs whether or not provided in the facilities,
treatments, restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies,
social services, community integration, diet, and special procedures
recommended for the health and safety of the individual;
(f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care; and
(g) Plans for discharge.
(5) The CIPOC shall be completed no later than 14 calendar
days after admission and shall meet all of the following criteria:
(a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the individual's situation and shall reflect the need
for therapeutic group home care;
(b) Be based on input from school, home, other health care
providers, the individual, and the family or legal guardian;
(c) Shall state treatment objectives that include
measurable short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
achievement;
(d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
to the diagnosis; and
(e) Include a comprehensive discharge plan with necessary,
clinically appropriate community services to ensure continuity of care upon
discharge with the child's family, school, and community.
(6) The CIPOC shall be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30
calendar days by the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a
family member or primary caregiver. Updates shall be signed and dated by the
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a family member or
legally authorized representative. The review shall include all of the
following:
(a) The individual's response to the services provided;
(b) Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
individual's overall response to the CIPOC interventions; and
(c) Determinations regarding whether the services being
provided continue to be required.
(7) Crisis management, clinical assessment, and
individualized therapy shall be provided as indicated in the IPOC and CIPOC to
address intermittent crises and challenges within the group home setting or
community settings as defined in the plan of care and to avoid a higher level
of care.
(8) Care coordination shall be provided with medical,
educational, and other behavioral health providers and other entities involved
in the care and discharge planning for the individual as included in the IPOC
and CIPOC.
(9) Weekly individual therapy shall be provided in the
therapeutic group home, or other settings as appropriate for the individual's
needs, by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which shall be documented in
progress notes in accordance with the requirements in 12VAC30-60-61.
(10) Weekly (or more frequently if clinically indicated)
group therapy shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which
shall be documented in progress notes in accordance with the requirements in
12VAC30-60-61 and as planned and documented in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(11) Family treatment shall be provided as clinically
indicated, provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which shall be
documented in progress notes in accordance with the requirements in
12VAC30-60-61 and as planned and documented in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(12) Family engagement activities shall be provided in
addition to family therapy/counseling. Family engagement activities shall be
provided at least weekly as outlined in the IPOC and CIPOC, and daily
communication with the family or legally authorized representative shall be
part of the family engagement strategies in the IPOC or CIPOC. For each
service authorization period when family engagement is not possible, the
therapeutic group home shall identify and document the specific barriers to the
individual's engagement with his family or legally authorized representatives.
The therapeutic group home shall document on a weekly basis the reasons why
family engagement is not occurring as required. The therapeutic group home
shall document alternative family engagement strategies to be used as part of
the interventions in the IPOC or CIPOC and request approval of the revised IPOC
or CIPOC by DMAS or its contractor. When family engagement is not possible, the
therapeutic group home shall collaborate with DMAS or its contractor on a
weekly basis to develop individualized family engagement strategies and
document the revised strategies in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(13) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
indicated and as paired with facility-based and community-based interventions
and combined treatment services to promote discharge planning, community
integration, and family engagement activities. Twenty-four therapeutic passes
shall be permitted per individual, per admission, without authorization as
approved by the treating LMHP and documented in the CIPOC. Additional
therapeutic leave passes shall require service authorization. Any unauthorized
therapeutic leave passes shall result in retraction for those days of service.
(14) Discharge planning. Beginning at admission and
continuing throughout the individual's stay at the therapeutic group home, the
family or guardian, the community services board (CSB), the family assessment
and planning team (FAPT) case manager, and either the managed care organization
(MCO) or BHSA care manager shall be involved in treatment planning and shall
identify the anticipated needs of the individual and family upon discharge and
available services in the community. Prior to discharge, the therapeutic group
home shall submit an active and viable discharge plan to the BHSA for review.
Once the BHSA approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin actively
collaborating with the family or legally authorized representative and the
treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The therapeutic
group home shall request permission from the parent or legally authorized
representative to share treatment information with these providers and shall
share information pursuant to a valid release. The therapeutic group home shall
request information from post-discharge providers to establish that the
planning of pending services and transition planning activities have begun,
shall establish that active transition planning has begun, shall establish that
the individual has been enrolled in school, and shall provide IEP recommendations
to the school if necessary. The therapeutic group home shall inform the BHSA of
all scheduled appointments within 30 days of discharge and shall notify the
BHSA within one business day of the individual's discharge date from the
therapeutic group home.
(2) Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
Services that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not
be reimbursed.
(3) (15) Room and board costs shall not be
reimbursed. Facilities that only provide independent living services or
nonclinical services that do not meet the requirements of this subsection
are not reimbursed eligible for reimbursement. DMAS shall
reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no more
than 16 beds.
(4) These residential (16) Therapeutic group home
services providers must shall be licensed by the Department
of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) under the Regulations
for Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
(5) Daily progress notes shall document that a minimum of
seven psychoeducational activities per week occurs. Psychoeducational
programming must include, but is not limited to, development or maintenance of
daily living skills, anger management, social skills, family living skills,
communication skills, and stress management. This service may be provided in a
program setting or a community-based group home.
(6) The individual must receive, at least weekly,
individual psychotherapy and, at least weekly, group psychotherapy that is
provided as part of the program.
(7) (17) Individuals shall be discharged from
this service when treatment goals are met or other less intensive
services may achieve stabilization.
(8) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. (18) Services that are based upon incomplete, missing, or
outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs CIPOCs shall
be denied reimbursement. Requirements for intakes and ISPs are set out in
12VAC30-60-61.
(9)These (19) Therapeutic group home services
may only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a
QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH qualified paraprofessional in mental
health.
(10) (20) The facility / or group
home shall coordinate necessary services and discharge planning with
other providers as medically and clinically necessary. Documentation of
this care coordination shall be maintained by the facility / or
group home in the individual's record. The documentation shall include who was
contacted, when the contact occurred, and what information was
transmitted, and recommended next steps.
(21) Failure to perform any of the items described in this
subsection shall result in a retraction of the per diem for each day of
noncompliance.
6. Inpatient psychiatric 3. Residential
treatment facility services shall are a 24-hour, supervised,
clinically and medically necessary out-of-home program designed to provide
necessary support and address mental health, behavioral, substance use,
cognitive, or other treatment needs of an individual younger than the age of 21
years in order to prevent or minimize the need for more intensive inpatient
treatment. Active treatment and comprehensive discharge planning shall begin
prior to admission. In order to be covered for individuals younger
than age 21 for medically necessary stays for the purpose of diagnosis and
treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders identified under EPSDT when
such services are rendered by: these services shall (i) meet
DMAS-approved psychiatric medical necessity criteria or be approved as an EPSDT
service based upon a diagnosis made by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S who
is practicing within the scope of his license and (ii) be reflected in provider
records and on the provider's claims for services by recognized diagnosis codes
that support and are consistent with the requested professional services.
a. A psychiatric hospital or an inpatient psychiatric
program in a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
Healthcare Organizations; or a psychiatric facility that is accredited by the
Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission
on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Accreditation of
Services for Families and Children or the Council on Quality and Leadership.
b. Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general
acute care hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be
subject to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and
12VAC30-60-25. Inpatient psychiatric admissions to residential treatment
facilities shall also be subject to the requirements of Part XIV
(12VAC30-130-850 et seq.) of Amount, Duration and Scope of Selected Services.
c. Inpatient psychiatric services are reimbursable only
when the treatment program is fully in compliance with 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart
D, as contained in 42 CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 441.152 through 441.156. Each
admission must be preauthorized and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements
for clinical necessity.
a. Residential treatment facility services shall be covered
for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral
disorders when such services are rendered by:
(1) A psychiatric hospital or an inpatient psychiatric
program in a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission; or a psychiatric
facility that is accredited by the Joint Commission, the Commission on
Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Accreditation of
Services for Families and Children, or the Council on Quality and Leadership.
Providers of residential treatment facility services shall be licensed by
DBHDS.
(2) Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general
acute care hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be
subject to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and
12VAC30-60-25. Inpatient psychiatric admissions to residential treatment
facilities shall also be subject to the requirements of 12VAC30-130 (Amount,
Duration and Scope of Selected Services).
(3) Residential treatment facility services are
reimbursable only when the treatment program is fully in compliance with (i)
the Code of Federal Regulations at 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, specifically 42
CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42 CFR 441.156 and (ii) the
Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 483 Subpart G. Each admission must
be preauthorized and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements for clinical
necessity.
b. Residential treatment facility services shall
include assessment and re-assessment; room and board; daily supervision;
combined treatment services; individual, family, and group therapy; residential
care coordination; interventions; general or special education; medical
treatment (including medication, coordination of necessary medical services,
and 24-hour onsite nursing); specialty services; and discharge planning that
meets the medical and clinical needs of the individual.
c. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a
psychiatric residential treatment facility. The following requirements for
severity of need and intensity and quality of service shall be met to satisfy
the medical necessity criteria for admission:
(1) Admission - severity of need. The following criteria
shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
(a) There is clinical evidence that the patient has a DSM-5
disorder that is amenable to active psychiatric treatment.
(b) There is a high degree of potential of the condition
leading to acute psychiatric hospitalization in the absence of residential
treatment.
(c) Either (i) there is clinical evidence that the
individual would be a risk to self or others if he were not in a residential
treatment program or (ii) as a result of the individual's mental disorder, there
is an inability to adequately care for one's physical needs, and
caretakers/guardians/family members are unable to safely fulfill these needs,
representing potential serious harm to self.
(d) The individual requires supervision seven days per
week, 24 hours per day to develop skills necessary for daily living; to assist
with planning and arranging access to a range of educational, therapeutic, and
aftercare services; and to develop the adaptive and functional behavior that
will allow him to live outside of a residential setting.
(e) The individual's current living environment does not
provide the support and access to therapeutic services needed.
(f) The individual is medically stable and does not require
the 24-hour medical or nursing monitoring or procedures provided in a hospital
level of care.
(2) Admission - intensity and quality of service. The
following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for intensity and
quality of service:
(a) The evaluation and assignment of a DSM-5 diagnosis must
result from a face-to-face psychiatric evaluation.
(b) The program provides supervision seven days per week,
24 hours per day to assist with the development of skills necessary for daily
living; to assist with planning and arranging access to a range of educational,
therapeutic, and aftercare services; and to assist with the development of the
adaptive and functional behavior that will allow the patient to live outside of
a residential setting.
(c) An individualized plan of active psychiatric treatment
and residential living support is provided in a timely manner. This treatment
must be medically monitored, with 24-hour medical availability and 24-hour
nursing services availability. This plan includes (i) at least once-a-week
psychiatric reassessments; (ii) intensive family and/or support system
involvement occurring at least once per week, or identifies valid reasons why
such a plan is not clinically appropriate or feasible; (iii) psychotropic
medications, when used, are to be used with specific target symptoms
identified; (iv) evaluation for current medical problems; (v) evaluation for
concomitant substance use issues; (vi) linkage and/or coordination with the
patient's community resources with the goal of returning the patient to his
regular social environment as soon as possible, unless contraindicated. School
contact should address an individualized educational plan as appropriate.
(d) A urine drug screen is considered at the time of
admission, when progress is not occurring, when substance misuse is suspected,
or when substance use and medications may have a potential adverse interaction.
After a positive screen, additional random screens are considered and referral
to a substance use disorder provider is considered.
(3) Criteria for continued stay. The following criteria
shall be met to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
(a) Despite reasonable therapeutic efforts, clinical
evidence indicates at least one of the following: (i) the persistence of
problems that caused the admission to a degree that continues to meet the
admission criteria (both severity of need and intensity of service needs); (ii)
the emergence of additional problems that meet the admission criteria (both
severity of need and intensity of service needs); (iii) that disposition planning
and/or attempts at therapeutic re-entry into the community have resulted in or
would result in exacerbation of the psychiatric illness to the degree that
would necessitate continued residential treatment. Subjective opinions without
objective clinical information or evidence are not sufficient to meet severity
of need based on justifying the expectation that there would be a
decompensation.
(b) There is evidence of objective, measurable, and
time-limited therapeutic clinical goals that must be met before the patient can
return to a new or previous living situation. There is evidence that attempts
are being made to secure timely access to treatment resources and housing in
anticipation of discharge, with alternative housing contingency plans also
being addressed.
(c) There is evidence that the treatment plan is focused on
the alleviation of psychiatric symptoms and precipitating psychosocial
stressors that are interfering with the patient's ability to return to a
less-intensive level of care.
(d) The current or revised treatment plan can be reasonably
expected to bring about significant improvement in the problems meeting the
criteria in subdivision 3 c (3) (a) of this subsection, and this is documented
in weekly progress notes written and signed by the provider.
(e) There is evidence of intensive family and/or support
system involvement occurring at least once per week, unless there is an
identified, valid reason why it is not clinically appropriate or feasible.
(f) A discharge plan is formulated that is directly linked
to the behaviors and/or symptoms that resulted in admission, and begins to
identify appropriate post-residential treatment resources.
(g) All applicable elements in admission-intensity and
quality of service criteria are applied as related to assessment and treatment
if clinically relevant and appropriate.
d. The following clinical activities shall be required
for each residential treatment facility resident:
(1) A face-to-face assessment shall be performed by an
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RS, or LMHP-S within 30 days prior to admission and weekly
thereafter and shall document a DSM-5/ICD-10 diagnosis.
(2) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
independent certification team according to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-130
D 4. Recertification shall occur at least every 30 days by a physician acting
within his scope of practice.
(3) The initial plan of care (IPOC) shall be completed
within 24 hours of admission by the treatment team. The initial plan of care
shall include:
(a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
strategies and treatment alliance;
(b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
(c) A description of the functional level of the
individual;
(d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
(e) Any orders for medications, psychiatric, medical,
dental, and any special health care needs, whether or not provided in the
facility, education or special education, treatments, interventions,
restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social
services, diet, and special procedures recommended for the health and safety of
the individual;
(f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care;
(g) Plans for discharge; and
(h) Signature and date by the individual, parent, or
legally authorized representative, a physician, and treatment team members.
(4) The CIPOC shall be completed no later than 14 calendar
days after admission by the treatment team. The residential treatment facility
shall request authorizations from families to release confidential information
to collect information from medical and behavioral health treatment providers,
schools, social services, court services, and other relevant parties. This
information shall be used when considering changes and updating the CIPOC. The
CIPOC shall meet all of the following criteria:
(a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
for residential treatment facility care;
(b) Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
and other personnel specified in this subdivision 3 d of this subsection who
are employed by or provide services to the individual in the facility in
consultation with the individual, family member, or legally authorized
representative, or appropriate others into whose care the individual will be
released after discharge;
(c) Shall state treatment objectives that shall include
measurable, evidence-based, short-term and long-term goals and objectives;
family engagement activities; and the design of community-based aftercare with target
dates for achievement;
(d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
interventions, activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment
objectives related to the individual and family treatment needs; and
(e) Describe comprehensive transition plans and
coordination of current care and post-discharge plans with related community
services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the recipient's
family, school, and community.
(5) The CIPOC shall be reviewed every 30 calendar days by the
team specified in this subdivision 3 d of this subsection to determine that
services being provided are or were required from a residential treatment
facility and to recommend changes in the plan as indicated by the individual's
overall adjustment during the time away from home. The CIPOC shall include the
signature and date from the individual, parent, or legally authorized
representative, a physician, and treatment team members.
(6) Individual therapy shall be provided three times
per week (or more frequently based upon the individual's needs) provided by an
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the IPOC, CIPOC,
and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this subsection.
(7) Group therapy shall be provided as clinically indicated
by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the IPOC,
CIPOC, and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this
subsection.
(8) Family therapy shall be provided as clinically
indicated by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the
IPOC, CIPOC, and progress notes in accordance with the individual and family or
legally authorized representative's goals and the requirements in this
subsection.
(9) Family engagement shall be provided in addition to
family therapy/counseling. Family engagement shall be provided at least weekly
as outlined in the IPOC and CIPOC, and daily communication with the family or
legally authorized representative shall be part of the family engagement
strategies in the IPOC and CIPOC. For each service authorization period
when family engagement is not possible, the psychiatric residential treatment
facility shall identify and document the specific barriers to the individual's
engagement with his family or legally authorized representatives. The
psychiatric residential treatment facility shall document on a weekly basis,
the reasons that family engagement is not occurring as required. The
psychiatric residential treatment facility shall document alternate family
engagement strategies to be used as part of the interventions in the IPOC or
CIPOC and request approval of the revised IPOC or CIPOC by DMAS or its
contractor. When family engagement is not possible, the psychiatric residential
treatment facility shall collaborate with DMAS or its contractor on a weekly
basis to develop individualized family engagement strategies and document the
revised strategies in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(10) Three interventions shall be provided per 24-hour
period including nights and weekends. Family engagement activities are
considered to be an intervention and shall occur based on the treatment and
visitation goals and scheduling needs of the family or legally authorized
representative. Interventions shall be documented on a progress note and shall
be outlined in and aligned with the treatment goals and objectives in the IPOC
and CIPOC. Any deviation from the IPOC or CIPOC shall be documented along with
a clinical or medical justification for the deviation based on the needs of the
individual.
(11) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
indicated and as paired with community and facility-based interventions and
combined treatment services to promote discharge planning, community
integration, and family engagement. Twenty-four therapeutic passes shall be
permitted per individual, per admission, without authorization as approved by
the treating physician and documented in the CIPOC. Additional therapeutic
leave passes shall require service authorization. Any unauthorized therapeutic
leave passes shall result in retraction for those days of service.
(12) Discharge planning. Beginning at admission and
continuing throughout the individual's placement at the residential treatment
facility, the parent or legally authorized representative, the community
services board (CSB), the family assessment planning team (FAPT) case manager,
if appropriate, and either the managed care organization (MCO) or BHSA care
manager shall be involved in treatment planning and shall identify the
anticipated needs of the individual and family upon discharge and identify the
available services in the community. Prior to discharge, the residential
treatment facility shall submit an active discharge plan to the BHSA for
review. Once the BHSA approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin
collaborating with the parent or legally authorized representative and the
treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The residential
treatment facility shall request written permission from the parent or legally
authorized representative to share treatment information with these providers
and shall share information pursuant to a valid release. The residential
treatment facility shall request information from post-discharge providers to
establish that the planning of services and activities has begun, shall
establish that the individual has been enrolled in school, and shall provide
individualized education program (IEP) recommendations to the school if
necessary. The residential treatment facility shall inform the BHSA of all
scheduled appointments within 30 calendar days of discharge and shall notify
the BHSA within one business day of the individual's discharge date from the
residential treatment facility.
(13) Failure to perform any of the items as described in
subdivisions 3 d (1) through 3 d (12) of this subsection up until the discharge
of the individual shall result in a retraction of the per diem and all other
contracted and coordinated service payments for each day of noncompliance.
e. The team developing the CIPOC shall meet the following
requirements:
(1) At least one member of the team must have expertise in
pediatric behavioral health. Based on education and experience, preferably
including competence in child/adolescent psychiatry, the team must be capable
of all of the following: assessing the individual's immediate and long-range
therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths and
liabilities; assessing the potential resources of the individual's family or
legally authorized representative; setting treatment objectives; and
prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the plan's objectives.
(2) The team shall include either:
(a) A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist;
(b) A licensed clinical psychologist and a physician
licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or
(c) A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
mental diseases and a licensed clinical psychologist.
(3) The team shall also include one of the
following: an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
4. Requirements applicable to both therapeutic group homes
and residential treatment facilities: independent certification teams.
a. The independent certification team shall certify the
need for residential treatment or therapeutic group home services and issue a
certificate of need document within the process and timeliness standards as approved
by DMAS under contractual agreement with the BHSA.
b. The independent certification team shall be approved by
DMAS through a memorandum of understanding with a locality or be approved under
contractual agreement with the BHSA. The team shall initiate and coordinate
referral to the family assessment and planning team (FAPT) as defined in §§
2.2-5207 and 2.2-5208 of the Code of Virginia to facilitate care coordination
and for consideration of educational coverage and other supports not covered by
DMAS.
c. The independent certification team shall assess the
individual's and family's strengths and needs in addition to diagnoses,
behaviors, and symptoms that indicate the need for behavioral health treatment
and also consider whether local resources and community-based care are
sufficient to meet the individual's treatment needs, as presented within the
previous 30 calendar days, within the least restrictive environment.
d. The LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP, as
part of the independent certification team, shall meet with an individual and
his parent or legally authorized representative within two business days from a
request to assess the individual's needs and begin the process to certify the
need for an out-of-home placement.
e. The independent certification team shall meet with an
individual and his parent or legally authorized representative within 10
business days from a request to certify the need for an out-of-home placement.
f. The independent certification team shall assess the treatment
needs of the individual to issue a certificate of need (CON) for the most
appropriate medically-necessary services. The certification shall include the
dated signature and credentials for each of the team members who rendered the
certification. Referring or treatment providers shall not actively participate
during the certification process but may provide supporting clinical
documentation to the certification team.
g. The CON shall be effective for 30 calendar days prior to
admission.
h. The independent certification team shall provide the
completed CON to the facility within one calendar day of completing the CON.
i. The individual and his parent or legally authorized
representative shall have the right to freedom of choice of service providers.
j. If the individual or his parent or legally authorized
representative disagrees with the independent certification team's
recommendation, the parent or legally authorized representative may appeal the
recommendation in accordance with 12VAC30-110-10.
k. If the LMHP, as part of the independent certification
team, determines that the individual is in immediate need of treatment, the
LMHP shall refer the individual to an appropriate Medicaid-enrolled emergency
services provider in accordance with 12VAC30-50-226 or shall refer the
individual for emergency admission to a residential treatment facility or
therapeutic group home under subdivision 4 m of this subsection, and shall also
alert the individual's managed care organization.
l. For individuals who are already eligible for Medicaid at
the time of admission, the independent certification team shall be a
DMAS-authorized contractor with competence in the diagnosis and treatment of
mental illness, preferably in child psychiatry, and have knowledge of the individual's
situation and service availability in the individual's local service area. The
team shall be composed of at least one physician and one LMHP, including
LMHP-S, LMHP-R, and LMHP-RP. An individual's parent or legally authorized
representative shall be included in the certification process.
m. For emergency admissions, an assessment must be made by
the team responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
Reimbursement shall only occur when a certificate of need is issued by the team
responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care within 14 days after
admission. The certification shall cover any period of time after admission and
before for which claims are made for reimbursement by Medicaid. After
processing an emergency admission the residential treatment facility or
institution for mental diseases (IMD) shall notify the BHSA of the individual's
status as being under the care of the facility within five days.
n. For all individuals who apply and become eligible for
Medicaid while an inpatient in a facility or program, the certification team
shall refer the case to the DMAS-contracted BHSA for referral to the local FAPT
to facilitate care coordination and consideration of educational coverage and
other supports not covered by DMAS.
o. For individuals who apply and become eligible for
Medicaid while an inpatient in the facility or program, the certification shall
be made by the team responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care
and shall cover any period of time before the application for Medicaid
eligibility for which claims are made for reimbursement by Medicaid. Upon the
individual's enrollment into the Medicaid program, the residential treatment
facility or IMD shall notify the BHSA of the individual's status as being under
the care of the facility within five days of the individual becoming eligible
for Medicaid benefits.
5. Requirements applicable to both therapeutic group homes
and residential treatment facilities - service authorization.
a. Authorization shall be required and shall be conducted
by DMAS, its behavioral health services administrator, or its utilization
management contractor using medical necessity criteria specified in this
subsection.
b. An individual shall have a valid psychiatric diagnosis
and meet the medical necessity criteria as defined in this subsection to
satisfy the criteria for admission. The diagnosis shall be current, as
documented within the past 12 months. If a current diagnosis is not available,
the individual will require a mental health evaluation by an LMHP employed or
contracted with the independent certification team to establish a diagnosis,
and recommend and coordinate referral to the available treatment options.
c. At authorization, an initial length of stay shall be agreed
upon by the individual and parent or legally authorized representative with the
treating provider, and the treating provider shall be responsible for
evaluating and documenting evidence of treatment progress, assessing the need
for ongoing out-of-home placement, and obtaining authorization for continued
stay.
d. Information that is required to obtain authorization for
these services shall include:
(1) A completed state-designated uniform assessment
instrument approved by DMAS;
(2) A certificate of need completed by an independent
certification team specifying all of the following:
(a) The ambulatory care and Medicaid or FAPT-funded
services available in the community do not meet the specific treatment needs of
the individual;
(b) Alternative community-based care was not successful;
(c) Proper treatment of the individual's psychiatric
condition requires services in a 24-hour supervised setting under the direction
of a physician; and
(d) The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
individual's condition or prevent further regression so that a more intensive
level of care will not be needed;
(3) Diagnosis as defined in the DSM-5 and based on (i) an
evaluation by a psychiatrist or LMHP that has been completed within 30 days of
admission or (ii) a diagnosis confirmed in writing by an LMHP after review of a
previous evaluation completed within one year of admission;
(4) A description of the individual's behavior during the
seven days immediately prior to admission;
(5) A description of alternate placements and community
mental health and rehabilitation services and traditional behavioral health
services pursued and attempted and the outcomes of each service.
(6) The individual's level of functioning and clinical
stability.
(7) The level of family involvement and supports available.
(8) The initial plan of care (IPOC).
6. Requirements applicable to both therapeutic group homes
and residential treatment facilities - continued stay criteria. For a continued
stay authorization or a reauthorization to occur, the individual shall meet the
medical necessity criteria as defined in this subsection to satisfy the
criteria for continuing care. The length of the authorized stay shall be
determined by DMAS, the behavioral health services administrator, or the utilization
management contractor. A current CIPOC and a current (within 30 days) summary
of progress related to the goals and objectives of the CIPOC shall be submitted
to DMAS, the behavioral health services administrator, or the utilization
management contractor for continuation of the service. The service provider
shall also submit:
a. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
than 30 business days prior to the date of submission;
b. Documentation that the required services have been provided
as defined in the CIPOC;
c. Current (within the last 14 days) information on
progress related to the achievement of all treatment and discharge-related
goals; and
d. A description of the individual's continued impairment
and treatment needs, problem behaviors, family engagement activities,
community-based discharge planning and care coordination, and need for a
residential level of care.
7. Requirements applicable to therapeutic group homes and
residential treatment facilities - EPSDT services. EPSDT services may involve
service modalities not available to other individuals, such as applied
behavioral analysis and neuro-rehabilitative services. Individualized services
to address specific clinical needs identified in an EPSDT screening shall
require authorization by DMAS, a DMAS contractor, or the BHSA. In unique EPSDT
cases, DMAS, the DMAS contractor, or the BHSA may authorize specialized
services beyond the standard therapeutic group home or residential treatment
medical necessity criteria and program requirements, as medically and
clinically indicated to ensure the most appropriate treatment is available to
each individual. Treating service providers authorized to deliver medically
necessary EPSDT services in inpatient settings, therapeutic group homes, and
residential treatment facilities on behalf of a Medicaid-enrolled individual
shall adhere to the individualized interventions and evidence-based progress
measurement criteria described in the CIPOC and approved for reimbursement by
DMAS, the DMAS contractor, or the BHSA. All documentation, independent
certification team, family engagement activity, therapeutic pass, and discharge
planning requirements shall apply to cases approved as EPSDT inpatient,
residential treatment, or therapeutic group home service.
7. 8. Hearing aids shall be reimbursed for
individuals younger than 21 years of age according to medical necessity when
provided by practitioners licensed to engage in the practice of fitting or
dealing in hearing aids under the Code of Virginia.
C. E. School health services.
1. School health assistant services are repealed effective
July 1, 2006.
2. School divisions may provide routine well-child screening
services under the State Plan. Diagnostic and treatment services that are
otherwise covered under early and periodic screening, diagnosis and treatment
services, shall not be covered for school divisions. School divisions to
receive reimbursement for the screenings shall be enrolled with DMAS as clinic
providers.
a. Children enrolled in managed care organizations shall
receive screenings from those organizations. School divisions shall not receive
reimbursement for screenings from DMAS for these children.
b. School-based services are listed in a recipient's
individualized education program (IEP) and covered under one or more of the
service categories described in § 1905(a) of the Social Security Act. These
services are necessary to correct or ameliorate defects of physical or mental
illnesses or conditions.
3. Service providers shall be licensed under the applicable
state practice act or comparable licensing criteria by the Virginia Department
of Education, and shall meet applicable qualifications under 42 CFR Part 440.
Identification of defects, illnesses or conditions and services necessary to
correct or ameliorate them shall be performed by practitioners qualified to
make those determinations within their licensed scope of practice, either as a
member of the IEP team or by a qualified practitioner outside the IEP team.
a. Service providers shall be employed by the school division
or under contract to the school division.
b. Supervision of services by providers recognized in
subdivision 4 of this subsection shall occur as allowed under federal
regulations and consistent with Virginia law, regulations, and DMAS provider
manuals.
c. The services described in subdivision 4 of this subsection
shall be delivered by school providers, but may also be available in the community
from other providers.
d. Services in this subsection are subject to utilization
control as provided under 42 CFR Parts 455 and 456.
e. The IEP shall determine whether or not the services
described in subdivision 4 of this subsection are medically necessary and that
the treatment prescribed is in accordance with standards of medical practice.
Medical necessity is defined as services ordered by IEP providers. The IEP
providers are qualified Medicaid providers to make the medical necessity
determination in accordance with their scope of practice. The services must be
described as to the amount, duration and scope.
4. Covered services include:
a. Physical therapy, occupational therapy and services for
individuals with speech, hearing, and language disorders, performed by, or
under the direction of, providers who meet the qualifications set forth at 42
CFR 440.110. This coverage includes audiology services.
b. Skilled nursing services are covered under 42 CFR 440.60.
These services are to be rendered in accordance to the licensing standards and
criteria of the Virginia Board of Nursing. Nursing services are to be provided
by licensed registered nurses or licensed practical nurses but may be delegated
by licensed registered nurses in accordance with the regulations of the
Virginia Board of Nursing, especially the section on delegation of nursing
tasks and procedures. The licensed practical nurse is under the supervision of
a registered nurse.
(1) The coverage of skilled nursing services shall be of a
level of complexity and sophistication (based on assessment, planning,
implementation and evaluation) that is consistent with skilled nursing services
when performed by a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse.
These skilled nursing services shall include, but not necessarily be limited to
dressing changes, maintaining patent airways, medication
administration/monitoring and urinary catheterizations.
(2) Skilled nursing services shall be directly and
specifically related to an active, written plan of care developed by a
registered nurse that is based on a written order from a physician, physician
assistant or nurse practitioner for skilled nursing services. This order shall
be recertified on an annual basis.
c. Psychiatric and psychological services performed by
licensed practitioners within the scope of practice are defined under state law
or regulations and covered as physicians' services under 42 CFR 440.50 or
medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR 440.60. These outpatient services
include individual medical psychotherapy, group medical psychotherapy coverage,
and family medical psychotherapy. Psychological and neuropsychological testing
are allowed when done for purposes other than educational diagnosis, school
admission, evaluation of an individual with intellectual or developmental
disability prior to admission to a nursing facility, or any placement issue.
These services are covered in the nonschool settings also. School providers who
may render these services when licensed by the state include psychiatrists,
licensed clinical psychologists, school psychologists, licensed clinical social
workers, professional counselors, psychiatric clinical nurse specialist,
marriage and family therapists, and school social workers.
d. Personal care services are covered under 42 CFR
440.167 and performed by persons qualified under this subsection. The personal
care assistant is supervised by a DMAS recognized school-based health
professional who is acting within the scope of licensure. This practitioner develops
a written plan for meeting the needs of the child, which is implemented by the
assistant. The assistant must have qualifications comparable to those for other
personal care aides recognized by the Virginia Department of Medical Assistance
Services. The assistant performs services such as assisting with toileting,
ambulation, and eating. The assistant may serve as an aide on a specially
adapted school vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or
school contracted provider on days when the student is receiving a
Medicaid-covered service under the IEP. Children requiring an aide during
transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the
IEP.
e. Medical evaluation services are covered as physicians'
services under 42 CFR 440.50 or as medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR
440.60. Persons performing these services shall be licensed physicians,
physician assistants, or nurse practitioners. These practitioners shall
identify the nature or extent of a child's medical or other health related
condition.
f. Transportation is covered as allowed under 42 CFR
431.53 and described at State Plan Attachment 3.1-D. Transportation shall be
rendered only by school division personnel or contractors. Transportation is
covered for a child who requires transportation on a specially adapted school
vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or school contracted
provider on days when the student is receiving a Medicaid-covered service under
the IEP. Transportation shall be listed in the child's IEP. Children requiring
an aide during transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this
stated in the IEP.
g. Assessments are covered as necessary to assess or reassess
the need for medical services in a child's IEP and shall be performed by any of
the above licensed practitioners within the scope of practice. Assessments and
reassessments not tied to medical needs of the child shall not be covered.
5. DMAS will ensure through quality management review that
duplication of services will be monitored. School divisions have a
responsibility to ensure that if a child is receiving additional therapy
outside of the school, that there will be coordination of services to avoid
duplication of service.
D. F. Family planning services and supplies for
individuals of child-bearing age.
1. Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
performed within the scope of the license of a practitioner of the healing
arts.
2. Family planning services shall be defined as those services
that delay or prevent pregnancy. Coverage of such services shall not include
services to treat infertility nor services to promote fertility.
12VAC30-60-5. Applicability of utilization review requirements.
A. These utilization requirements shall apply to all Medicaid
covered services unless otherwise specified.
B. Some Medicaid covered services require an approved service
authorization prior to service delivery in order for reimbursement to occur.
1. To obtain service authorization, all providers' information
supplied to the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS), service
authorization contractor, or the behavioral health service authorization
contractor shall be fully substantiated throughout individuals' medical
records.
2. Providers shall be required to maintain documentation
detailing all relevant information about the Medicaid individuals who are in
providers' care. Such documentation shall fully disclose the extent of services
provided in order to support providers' claims for reimbursement for services
rendered. This documentation shall be written, signed, and dated at the time
the services are rendered unless specified otherwise.
C. DMAS, or its designee, shall perform reviews of the
utilization of all Medicaid covered services pursuant to 42 CFR 440.260
and 42 CFR Part 456.
D. DMAS shall recover expenditures made for covered services
when providers' documentation does not comport with standards specified in all
applicable regulations.
E. Providers who are determined not to be in compliance with
DMAS requirements shall be subject to 12VAC30-80-130 for the repayment of those
overpayments to DMAS.
F. Utilization review requirements specific to community
mental health services, as set out in 12VAC30-50-130 and 12VAC30-50-226, shall be
as follows:
1. To apply to be reimbursed as a Medicaid provider, the
required Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS)
license shall be either a full, annual, triennial, or conditional license.
Providers must be enrolled with DMAS or the BHSA behavioral health
services administrator (BHSA) to be reimbursed. Once a health care entity
has been enrolled as a provider, it shall maintain, and update periodically as
DMAS requires, a current Provider Enrollment Agreement for each Medicaid
service that the provider offers.
2. Health care entities with provisional licenses shall not be
reimbursed as Medicaid providers of community mental health services.
3. Payments shall not be permitted to health care entities
that either hold provisional licenses or fail to enter into a Medicaid Provider
Enrollment Agreement including a BHSA contract for a service prior to
rendering that service.
4. The DMAS-contracted behavioral health service
authorization contractor services administrator shall apply a
national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry,
such as McKesson InterQual Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized
in advance by DMAS. Services that fail to meet medical necessity criteria shall
be denied service authorization.
5. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement for services
provided by staff in residency, the following terms shall be used after their
signatures to indicate such status:
a. LMHP-Rs shall use the term "Resident" after
their signatures.
b. LMHP-RPs shall use the term "Resident in
Psychology" after their signatures.
c. LMHP-Ss shall use the term "Supervisee in Social
Work" after their signatures.
12VAC30-60-50. Utilization control: Intermediate Care
Facilities care facilities for the Mentally Retarded (ICF/MR)
persons with intellectual and developmental disabilities and Institutions
institutions for Mental Disease mental disease (IMD).
A. "Institution for mental disease" or
"IMD" means the same as that term is defined in the Social Security
Act, § 1905(i).
A. B. With respect to each Medicaid-eligible
resident in an ICF/MR intermediate care facility for persons with
intellectual and developmental disabilities (ICF/ID) or IMD in Virginia, a
written plan of care must be developed prior to admission to or authorization
of benefits in such facility, and a regular program of independent professional
review (including a medical evaluation) shall be completed periodically for
such services. The purpose of the review is to determine: the adequacy of the services
available to meet his current health needs and promote his maximum physical
well being; the necessity and desirability of his continued placement in the
facility; and the feasibility of meeting his health care needs through
alternative institutional or noninstitutional services. Long-term care of
residents in such facilities will be provided in accordance with federal law
that is based on the resident's medical and social needs and requirements.
B. C. With respect to each ICF/MR ICF/ID
or IMD, periodic on-site onsite inspections of the care being
provided to each person receiving medical assistance, by one or more
independent professional review teams (composed of a physician or registered
nurse and other appropriate health and social service personnel), shall be
conducted. The review shall include, with respect to each recipient, a
determination of the adequacy of the services available to meet his current
health needs and promote his maximum physical well-being, the necessity and
desirability of continued placement in the facility, and the feasibility of
meeting his health care needs through alternative institutional or
noninstitutional services. Full reports shall be made to the state agency by
the review team of the findings of each inspection, together with any
recommendations.
C. D. In order for reimbursement to be made to
a facility for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
developmental disabilities, the resident must meet criteria for placement
in such facility as described in 12VAC30-60-360 and the facility must provide
active treatment for mental retardation intellectual or developmental
disabilities.
D. E. In each case for which payment for
nursing facility services for the mentally retarded persons with
intellectual or developmental disabilities or institution for mental
disease services is made under the State Plan:
1. A physician must certify for each applicant or recipient
that inpatient care is needed in a facility for the mentally retarded or an
institution for mental disease. A certificate of need shall be completed
by an independent certification team according to the requirements of
12VAC30-50-130 D 5. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 days by a
physician, or by a physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within
their scope of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a
physician. The certification must be made at the time of admission or, if
an individual applies for assistance while in the facility, before the Medicaid
agency authorizes payment; and
2. A physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner
acting within the scope of the practice as defined by state law and under the
supervision of a physician, must recertify for each applicant at least every 365
60 days that services are needed in a facility for the mentally
retarded persons with intellectual disability or institution for
mental disease.
E. F. When a resident no longer meets criteria
for facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual or
developmental disabilities, or an institution for mental disease or no
longer requires active treatment in a facility for the mentally retarded
persons with intellectual or developmental disabilities, then the
resident must shall be discharged.
F. G. All services provided in an IMD and in
an ICF/MR ICF/ID shall be provided in accordance with guidelines
found in the Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual.
H. All services provided in an IMD shall be provided with
the applicable provider agreement and all documents referenced therein.
I. Psychiatric services in IMDs shall only be covered for
eligible individuals younger than 21 years of age.
J. IMD services provided without service authorization
shall not be covered.
K. Absence of any of the required IMD documentation shall
result in denial or retraction of reimbursement.
L. In each case for which payment for IMD services is made
under the State Plan:
1. A physician shall certify at the time of admission, or
at the time the IMD is notified of an individuals' retroactive eligibility
status, that the individual requires or required inpatient services in an IMD
consistent with 42 CFR 456.160.
2. The physician or physician assistant or nurse
practitioner acting within the scope of practice as defined by state law and
under the supervision of a physician, shall recertify at least every 60 days
that the individual continues to require inpatient services in an IMD.
3. Before admission to an IMD or before authorization
for payment, the attending physician or staff physician shall perform a medical
evaluation of the individual, and appropriate personnel shall complete a
psychiatric and social evaluation as described in 42 CFR 456.170.
4. Before admission to a residential treatment facility or
before authorization for payment, the attending physician or staff physician
shall establish a written plan of care for each individual as described in 42
CFR 441.155 and 42 CFR 456.180.
M. It shall be documented that the individual requiring
admission to an IMD is younger than 21 years of age, that treatment is
medically necessary, and that the necessity was identified as a result of an
independent certification of need team review. Required documentation shall
include the following:
1. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition 2013, American Psychiatric
Association, and based on an evaluation by a psychiatrist completed within 30
days of admission or if the diagnosis is confirmed, in writing, by a previous
evaluation completed within one year within admission.
2. A certification of the need for services as defined in
42 CFR 441.152 by an interdisciplinary team meeting the requirements of 42
CFR 441.153 or 42 CFR 441.156 and the Psychiatric Treatment of Minors Act (§
16.1-335 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
N. The use of seclusion and restraint in an IMD shall be
in accordance with 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376. Each use of a
seclusion or restraint, as defined in 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376,
shall be reported by the service provider to DMAS or the BHSA within one
calendar day of the incident.
12VAC30-60-61. Services related to the Early and Periodic
Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment Program (EPSDT); community mental health
services for children.
A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
this section shall have the following meanings unless the context indicates
otherwise:
"At risk" means one or more of the following: (i)
within the two weeks before the intake, the individual shall be screened by an
LMHP for escalating behaviors that have put either the individual or others at
immediate risk of physical injury; (ii) the parent/guardian is unable to manage
the individual's mental, behavioral, or emotional problems in the home and is
actively, within the past two to four weeks, seeking an out-of-home placement;
(iii) a representative of either a juvenile justice agency, a department of
social services (either the state agency or local agency), a community services
board/behavioral health authority, the Department of Education, or an LMHP, as
defined in 12VAC35-105-20, and who is neither an employee of nor consultant to
the intensive in-home (IIH) services or therapeutic day treatment (TDT)
provider, has recommended an out-of-home placement absent an immediate change
of behaviors and when unsuccessful mental health services are evident; (iv) the
individual has a history of unsuccessful services (either crisis intervention,
crisis stabilization, outpatient psychotherapy, outpatient substance abuse
services, or mental health support) within the past 30 days; (v) the treatment
team or family assessment planning team (FAPT) recommends IIH services or TDT
for an individual currently who is either: (a) transitioning out of residential
treatment facility Level C services, (b) transitioning out of a therapeutic
group home Level A or B services, (c) transitioning out of acute
psychiatric hospitalization, or (d) transitioning between foster homes, mental
health case management, crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, outpatient
psychotherapy, or outpatient substance abuse services.
"Clinical experience" means providing direct
behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
in-home services, (ii) therapeutic day treatment for children and adolescents,
and (iii) therapeutic group homes. Experience shall not include unsupervised
internships, unsupervised practicums, or unsupervised field experience. The
equivalency of part-time hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this
requirement shall be as established by DBHDS in the document entitled
"Human Services and Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience"
issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Failed services" or "unsuccessful
services" means, as measured by ongoing behavioral, mental, or physical
distress, that the service or services did not treat or resolve the
individual's mental health or behavioral issues.
"Individual" means the Medicaid-eligible person
receiving these services and for the purpose of this section includes children
from birth up to 12 years of age or adolescents ages 12 through 20 years.
"New service" means a community mental health
rehabilitation service for which the individual does not have a current service
authorization in effect as of July 17, 2011.
"Out-of-home placement" means placement in one or
more of the following: (i) either a Level A or Level B therapeutic
group home; (ii) regular foster home if the individual is currently residing
with his biological family and, due to his behavior problems, is at risk of
being placed in the custody of the local department of social services; (iii)
treatment foster care if the individual is currently residing with his
biological family or a regular foster care family and, due to the individual's
behavioral problems, is at risk of removal to a higher level of care; (iv) Level
C residential treatment facility; (v) emergency shelter for the
individual only due either to his mental health or behavior or both; (vi)
psychiatric hospitalization; or (vii) juvenile justice system or incarceration.
"Progress notes" means individual-specific
documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
the notes. Individualized and individual-specific progress notes are part of
the minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's
status, staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress or
lack of progress toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes
shall also include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of
the service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered
the service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of
time or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each
progress note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be
documented for each service that is billed.
"Service-specific provider intake" means the
evaluation that is conducted according to the Department of Medical Assistance
Services (DMAS) intake definition set out in 12VAC30-50-130.
B. The services described in this section shall be rendered
consistent with the definitions, service limits, and requirements described in
this section and in 12VAC30-50-130.
C. Intensive in-home (IIH) services for children and
adolescents.
1. The service definition for intensive in-home (IIH) services
is contained in 12VAC30-50-130.
2. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral or emotional
illness which results in significant functional impairments in major life
activities. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria on a
continuing or intermittent basis to be authorized for these services:
a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
community.
b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
repeated interventions by the mental health, social services or judicial system
are or have been necessary.
c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
social behavior.
3. Prior to admission, an appropriate service-specific
provider intake, as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, shall be conducted by the
licensed mental health professional (LMHP), LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or
LMHP-RP, documenting the individual's diagnosis and describing how service
needs can best be met through intervention provided typically but not solely in
the individual's residence. The service-specific provider intake shall describe
how the individual's clinical needs put the individual at risk of out-of-home
placement and shall be conducted face-to-face in the individual's residence.
Claims for services that are based upon service-specific provider intakes that
are incomplete, outdated (more than 12 months old), or missing shall not be
reimbursed.
4. An individual service plan (ISP) shall be fully completed,
signed, and dated by either an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a
QMHP-C, or a QMHP-E and the individual and individual's parent/guardian within
30 days of initiation of services. The ISP shall meet all of the requirements
as defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
5. DMAS shall not reimburse for dates of services in which the
progress notes are not individualized and child-specific. Duplicated progress
notes shall not constitute the required child-specific individualized progress
notes. Each progress note shall demonstrate unique differences particular to
the individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress. Claim payments shall
be retracted for services that are supported by documentation that does not
demonstrate unique differences particular to the individual.
6. Services shall be directed toward the treatment of the
eligible individual and delivered primarily in the family's residence with the
individual present. As clinically indicated, the services may be rendered
in the community if there is documentation, on that date of service, of the
necessity of providing services in the community. The documentation shall
describe how the alternative community service location supports the identified
clinical needs of the individual and describe how it facilitates the
implementation of the ISP. For services provided outside of the home, there
shall be documentation reflecting therapeutic treatment as set forth in the ISP
provided for that date of service in the appropriately signed and dated
progress notes.
7. These services shall be provided when the clinical needs of
the individual put him at risk for out-of-home placement, as these terms are
defined in this section:
a. When services that are far more intensive than outpatient
clinic care are required to stabilize the individual in the family situation,
or
b. When the individual's residence as the setting for services
is more likely to be successful than a clinic.
The service-specific provider intake shall describe how the
individual meets either subdivision a or b of this subdivision.
8. Services shall not be provided if the individual is no
longer a resident of the home.
9. Services shall also be used to facilitate the transition to
home from an out-of-home placement when services more intensive than outpatient
clinic care are required for the transition to be successful. The individual
and responsible parent/guardian shall be available and in agreement to
participate in the transition.
10. At least one parent/legal guardian or responsible adult
with whom the individual is living must be willing to participate in the
intensive in-home services with the goal of keeping the individual with the
family. In the instance of this service, a responsible adult shall be an adult
who lives in the same household with the child and is responsible for engaging
in therapy and service-related activities to benefit the individual.
11. The enrolled service provider shall be licensed by the Department
of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) as a provider of
intensive in-home services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment
agreement with DMAS or its contractor in effect prior to the delivery of this
service that indicates that the provider will offer intensive in-home services.
12. Services must only be provided by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E. Reimbursement shall
not be provided for such services when they have been rendered by a QPPMH as
defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
13. The billing unit for intensive in-home service shall be
one hour. Although the pattern of service delivery may vary, intensive in-home
services is an intensive service provided to individuals for whom there is an ISP
in effect which demonstrates the need for a minimum of three hours a week of
intensive in-home service, and includes a plan for service provision of a
minimum of three hours of service delivery per individual/family per week in
the initial phase of treatment. It is expected that the pattern of service
provision may show more intensive services and more frequent contact with the
individual and family initially with a lessening or tapering off of intensity
toward the latter weeks of service. Service plans shall incorporate an
individualized discharge plan that describes transition from intensive in-home
to less intensive or nonhome based services.
14. The ISP, as defined in 12VAC30-50-226, shall be updated as
the individual's needs and progress changes and signed by either the parent or
legal guardian and the individual. Documentation shall be provided if the
individual, who is a minor child, is unable or unwilling to sign the ISP. If
there is a lapse in services that is greater than 31 consecutive calendar days
without any communications from family members/legal guardian or the individual
with the service provider, the provider shall discharge the individual. If the
individual continues to need services, then a new intake/admission shall be
documented and a new service authorization shall be required.
15. The provider shall ensure that the maximum
staff-to-caseload ratio fully meets the needs of the individual.
16. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430,
the service provider shall contact the case manager and provide
notification of the provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send
monthly updates to the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge
summary shall be sent to the case manager within 30 days of the service
discontinuation date. Service providers and case managers who are using the
same electronic health record for the individual shall meet requirements for
delivery of the notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry
of the information in the electronic health records.
17. Emergency assistance shall be available 24 hours per day,
seven days a week.
18. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements at
12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines violate these marketing
requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
12VAC30-130-2000 E.
19. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or guardian, shall
inform him of the individual's receipt of IIH services. The documentation shall
include who was contacted, when the contact occurred, and what information was
transmitted.
D. Therapeutic day treatment for children and adolescents.
1. The service definition for therapeutic day treatment (TDT)
for children and adolescents is contained in 12VAC30-50-130.
2. Therapeutic day treatment is appropriate for children and
adolescents who meet one of the following:
a. Children and adolescents who require year-round treatment
in order to sustain behavior or emotional gains.
b. Children and adolescents whose behavior and emotional
problems are so severe they cannot be handled in self-contained or resource
emotionally disturbed (ED) classrooms without:
(1) This programming during the school day; or
(2) This programming to supplement the school day or school
year.
c. Children and adolescents who would otherwise be placed on
homebound instruction because of severe emotional/behavior problems that
interfere with learning.
d. Children and adolescents who (i) have deficits in social
skills, peer relations or dealing with authority; (ii) are hyperactive; (iii)
have poor impulse control; (iv) are extremely depressed or marginally connected
with reality.
e. Children in preschool enrichment and early intervention
programs when the children's emotional/behavioral problems are so severe that
they cannot function in these programs without additional services.
3. The service-specific provider intake shall document the
individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets these specific
service criteria in subdivision 2 of this subsection.
4. Prior to admission to this service, a service-specific
provider intake shall be conducted by the LMHP as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
5. An ISP shall be fully completed, signed, and dated by an
LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or QMHP-E and by the
individual or the parent/guardian within 30 days of initiation of services and
shall meet all requirements of an ISP as defined in 12VAC30-50-226. Individual
progress notes shall be required for each contact with the individual and shall
meet all of the requirements as defined in 12VAC30-50-130 12VAC30-60-61.
6. Such services shall not duplicate those services provided
by the school.
7. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to mental,
behavioral or emotional illness which results in significant functional
impairments in major life activities. Individuals shall meet at least two of
the following criteria on a continuing or intermittent basis:
a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
community.
b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
repeated interventions by the mental health, social services, or judicial
system are or have been necessary.
c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
social behavior.
8. The enrolled provider of therapeutic day treatment for
child and adolescent services shall be licensed by DBHDS to provide day support
services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment agreement in
effect with DMAS prior to the delivery of this service that indicates that the
provider offers therapeutic day treatment services for children and
adolescents.
9. Services shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C or QMHP-E.
10. The minimum staff-to-individual ratio as defined by DBHDS
licensing requirements shall ensure that adequate staff is available to meet
the needs of the individual identified on the ISP.
11. The program shall operate a minimum of two hours per day
and may offer flexible program hours (i.e., before or after school or during
the summer). One unit of service shall be defined as a minimum of two hours but
less than three hours in a given day. Two units of service shall be defined as
a minimum of three but less than five hours in a given day. Three units of
service shall be defined as five or more hours of service in a given day.
12. Time required for academic instruction when no treatment
activity is going on shall not be included in the billing unit.
13. Services shall be provided following a service-specific
provider intake that is conducted by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident,
or LMHP-RP. An LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, or LMHP-resident shall make and document
the diagnosis. The service-specific provider intake shall include the elements
as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
14. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430, the provider
shall collaborate with the case manager and provide notification of the
provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates to
the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge summary shall be sent
to the case manager within 30 days of the service discontinuation date. Service
providers and case managers using the same electronic health record for the
individual shall meet requirements for delivery of the notification, monthly
updates, and discharge summary upon entry of this documentation into the
electronic health record.
15. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
guardian, shall inform him of the child's receipt of community mental health
rehabilitative services. The documentation shall include who was contacted,
when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. The
parent/legal guardian shall be required to give written consent that this
provider has permission to inform the primary care provider of the child's or adolescent's
receipt of community mental health rehabilitative services.
16. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements as
set out in 12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines have violated these
marketing requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
12VAC30-130-2000 E.
17. If there is a lapse in services greater than 31
consecutive calendar days, the provider shall discharge the individual. If the
individual continues to need services, a new intake/admission documentation
shall be prepared and a new service authorization shall be required.
E. Community-based services
for children and adolescents under 21 years of age (Level A).
1. The staff ratio must be at least 1 to 6 during the day
and at least 1 to 10 between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. The program director
supervising the program/group home must be, at minimum, a QMHP-C or QMHP-E (as
defined in 12VAC35-105-20). The program director must be employed full time.
2. In order for Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at least
50% of the provider's direct care staff at the group home must meet DBHDS
paraprofessional staff criteria, defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
3. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
All community-based services for children and adolescents under 21 (Level A)
require authorization prior to reimbursement for these services. Reimbursement
shall not be made for this service when other less intensive services may
achieve stabilization.
4. Services must be provided in accordance with an
individual service plan (ISP), which must be fully completed within 30 days of
authorization for Medicaid reimbursement.
5. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
shall be conducted according to DMAS specifications described in
12VAC30-50-130.
6. Such service-specific provider intakes shall be
performed by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
7. If an individual receiving community-based services for
children and adolescents under 21 (Level A) is also receiving case management
services, the provider shall collaborate with the case manager by notifying the
case manager of the provision of Level A services and shall send monthly
updates on the individual's progress. When the individual is discharged from
Level A services, a discharge summary shall be sent to the case manager within
30 days of the service discontinuation date. Service providers and case
managers who are using the same electronic health record for the individual
shall meet requirements for the delivery of the notification, monthly updates,
and discharge summary upon entry of this documentation into the electronic
health record.
F. E. Therapeutic behavioral services group
home for children and adolescents under 21 years of age (Level B).
1. The staff ratio must be at least 1 to 4 during the day
and at least 1 to 8 between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. approved by the
Office of Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
Services. The clinical director must shall be a licensed
mental health professional. The caseload of the clinical director must not
exceed 16 individuals including all sites for which the same clinical director
is responsible.
2. The program director must shall be full time
and be a QMHP-C or QMHP-E with a bachelor's degree and at least one year's
clinical experience.
3. For Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at least 50% of
the provider's direct care staff at the therapeutic group home shall
meet DBHDS paraprofessional staff qualified paraprofessional in
mental health (QPPMH) criteria, as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. The program/group
therapeutic group home must shall coordinate services with
other providers.
4. All therapeutic behavioral group home
services (Level B) shall be authorized prior to reimbursement for these
services. Services rendered without such prior authorization shall not be
covered.
5. Services must be provided in accordance with an ISP a
CIPOC, as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, which shall be fully completed within
30 days of authorization for Medicaid reimbursement.
6. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
shall be performed using all elements specified by DMAS in 12VAC30-50-130.
7. Such service-specific provider intakes shall be performed
by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
8. If an individual receiving therapeutic behavioral group
home services for children and adolescents under 21 (Level B) is
also receiving case management services, the therapeutic behavioral group
home services provider must collaborate with the care coordinator/case
manager by notifying him of the provision of Level B therapeutic
group home services and the Level B therapeutic group home
services provider shall send monthly updates on the individual's treatment
status. When the individual is discharged from Level B services, a discharge
summary shall be sent to the care coordinator/case manager within 30 days of
the discontinuation date.
9. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
guardian parent or legally authorized representative, shall inform
him of the individual's receipt of these Level B therapeutic group
home services. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. If these individuals
are children or adolescents, then the parent/legal guardian parent or
legally authorized representative shall be required to give written consent
that this provider has permission to inform the primary care provider of the
individual's receipt of community mental health rehabilitative services.
G. Utilization review. Utilization reviews for
community-based therapeutic group home services for children and adolescents
under 21 years of age (Level A) and therapeutic behavioral services for
children and adolescents under 21 years of age (Level B) shall include
determinations whether providers meet all DMAS requirements, including
compliance with DMAS marketing requirements. Providers that DMAS determines
have violated the DMAS marketing requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid
provider pursuant to 12VAC30-130-2000 E.
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-60)
Department of Medical Assistance Services Provider Manuals (https://www.virginiamedicaid.dmas.virginia.gov/wps/portal/ProviderManuals):
Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual
Virginia Medicaid Rehabilitation Manual
Virginia Medicaid Hospice Manual
Virginia Medicaid School Division Manual
Development of Special Criteria for the Purposes
of Pre-Admission Screening, Medicaid Memo, October 3, 2012, Department of
Medical Assistance Services
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth
Edition (DSM-IV-TR), copyright 2000, American Psychiatric Association
Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
Substance-Related Disorders (ASAM PPC-2R), Second Edition, copyright 2001,
American Society on Addiction Medicine, Inc.
Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: New Service
Authorization Requirement for an Independent Clinical Assessment for Medicaid
and FAMIS Children's Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services, dated
June 16, 2011, Department of Medical Assistance Services
Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
Children Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Children's Services,
July 1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of
Medical Assistance Services
Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Adult-Oriented Services, July
1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of Medical
Assistance Services
Human
Services and Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience, updated May 3, 2013,
Department of Behavioral Health and Human Services
Part XIV
Residential Psychiatric Treatment for Children and Adolescents (Repealed)
12VAC30-130-850. Definitions. (Repealed.)
The following words and terms when used in this part shall
have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Active treatment" means implementation of a
professionally developed and supervised individual plan of care that must be
designed to achieve the recipient's discharge from inpatient status at the
earliest possible time.
"Certification" means a statement signed by a
physician that inpatient services in a residential treatment facility are or
were needed. The certification must be made at the time of admission, or, if an
individual applies for assistance while in a mental hospital or residential
treatment facility, before the Medicaid agency authorizes payment.
"Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
"CIPOC" means a written plan developed for each recipient in
accordance with 12VAC30-130-890 to improve his condition to the extent that
inpatient care is no longer necessary.
"Initial plan of care" means a plan of care
established at admission, signed by the attending physician or staff physician,
that meets the requirements in 12VAC30-130-890.
"Recertification" means a certification for each
applicant or recipient that inpatient services in a residential treatment
facility are needed. Recertification must be made at least every 60 days by a
physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within the scope
of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a physician.
"Recipient" or "recipients" means the
child or adolescent younger than 21 years of age receiving this covered
service.
12VAC30-130-860. Service coverage; eligible individuals;
service certification. (Repealed.)
A. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall be
24-hour, supervised, medically necessary, out-of-home programs designed to
provide necessary support and address the special mental health and behavioral
needs of a child or adolescent in order to prevent or minimize the need for
more intensive inpatient treatment. Services must include, but shall not be
limited to, assessment and evaluation, medical treatment (including drugs),
individual and group counseling, and family therapy necessary to treat the child.
B. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall provide
a total, 24 hours per day, specialized form of highly organized, intensive and
planned therapeutic interventions that shall be utilized to treat some of the
most severe mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders. Residential treatment
is a definitive therapeutic modality designed to deliver specified results for
a defined group of problems for children or adolescents for whom outpatient day
treatment or other less intrusive levels of care are not appropriate, and for
whom a protected, structured milieu is medically necessary for an extended
period of time.
C. Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level B) and Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be therapeutic services rendered in a
residential type setting such as a group home or program that provides
structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision and
mental health care to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals
as identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). The child or
adolescent must have a medical need for the service arising from a condition
due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant
functional impairments in major life activities.
D. Active treatment shall be required. Residential
Treatment, Therapeutic Behavioral and Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under age 21 shall be designed to serve the mental health needs of
children. In order to be reimbursed for Residential Treatment (Level C),
Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
B), and Community-Based Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
A), the facility must provide active mental health treatment beginning at
admission and it must be related to the recipient's principle diagnosis and
admitting symptoms. To the extent that any recipient needs mental health
treatment and his needs meet the medical necessity criteria for the service, he
will be approved for these services. These services do not include
interventions and activities designed only to meet the supportive nonmental
health special needs, including but not limited to personal care, habilitation
or academic educational needs of the recipients.
E. An individual eligible for Residential Treatment
Services (Level C) is a recipient under the age of 21 years whose treatment
needs cannot be met by ambulatory care resources available in the community,
for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires services on an
inpatient basis under the direction of a physician.
An individual eligible for Therapeutic Behavioral Services
for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B) is a child, under the age of 21
years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
direction of a Licensed Mental Health Professional.
An individual eligible for Community-Based Services for
Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) is a child, under the age of 21
years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
direction of a qualified mental health professional. The services for all three
levels can reasonably be expected to improve the child's or adolescent's
condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed.
F. In order for Medicaid to reimburse for Residential
Treatment (Level C), Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A), the need for the service must be certified
according to the standards and requirements set forth in subdivisions 1 and 2
of this subsection. At least one member of the independent certifying team must
have pediatric mental health expertise.
1. For an individual who is already a Medicaid recipient
when he is admitted to a facility or program, certification must:
a. Be made by an independent certifying team that includes
a licensed physician who:
(1) Has competence in diagnosis and treatment of pediatric
mental illness; and
(2) Has knowledge of the recipient's mental health history
and current situation.
b. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team.
2. For a recipient who applies for Medicaid while an
inpatient in the facility or program, the certification must:
a. Be made by the team responsible for the plan of care;
b. Cover any period of time before the application for
Medicaid eligibility for which claims for reimbursement by Medicaid are made;
and
c. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team.
12VAC30-130-870. Preauthorization. (Repealed.)
A. Authorization for Residential Treatment (Level C) shall
be required within 24 hours of admission and shall be conducted by DMAS or its
utilization management contractor using medical necessity criteria specified by
DMAS. At preauthorization, an initial length of stay shall be assigned and the
residential treatment provider shall be responsible for obtaining authorization
for continued stay.
B. DMAS will not pay for admission to or continued stay in
residential facilities (Level C) that were not authorized by DMAS.
C. Information that is required in order to obtain
admission preauthorization for Medicaid payment shall include:
1. A completed state-designated uniform assessment
instrument approved by the department.
2. A certification of the need for this service by the team
described in 12VAC30-130-860 that:
a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
do not meet the specific treatment needs of the recipient;
b. Proper treatment of the recipient's psychiatric
condition requires services on an inpatient basis under the direction of a
physician; and
c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
recipient's condition or prevent further regression so that the services will
not be needed.
3. Additional required written documentation shall include
all of the following:
a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
Retardation, Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning);
b. A description of the child's behavior during the seven
days immediately prior to admission;
c. A description of alternative placements tried or
explored and the outcomes of each placement;
d. The child's functional level and clinical stability;
e. The level of family support available; and
f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
12VAC30-130-890.
D. Continued stay criteria for Residential Treatment
(Level C): information for continued stay authorization (Level C) for Medicaid
payment must include:
1. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
than 90 days prior to the date of submission;
2. Documentation that the required services are provided as
indicated;
3. Current (within the last 30 days) information on
progress related to the achievement of treatment goals. The treatment goals
must address the reasons for admission, including a description of any new
symptoms amenable to treatment;
4. Description of continued impairment, problem behaviors,
and need for Residential Treatment level of care.
E. Denial of service may be appealed by the recipient
consistent with 12VAC30-110-10 et seq.; denial of reimbursement may be appealed
by the provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et
seq. of the Code of Virginia).
F. DMAS will not pay for services for Therapeutic
Behavioral Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and
Community-Based Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) that
are not prior authorized by DMAS.
G. Authorization for Level A and Level B residential
treatment shall be required within three business days of admission.
Authorization for services shall be based upon the medical necessity criteria
described in 12VAC30-50-130. The authorized length of stay must not exceed six
months and may be reauthorized. The provider shall be responsible for
documenting the need for a continued stay and providing supporting
documentation.
H. Information that is required in order to obtain
admission authorization for Medicaid payment must include:
1. A current completed state-designated uniform assessment
instrument approved by the department. The state designated uniform assessment
instrument must indicate at least two areas of moderate impairment for Level B
and two areas of moderate impairment for Level A. A moderate impairment is
evidenced by, but not limited to:
a. Frequent conflict in the family setting, for example,
credible threats of physical harm.
b. Frequent inability to accept age appropriate direction
and supervision from caretakers, family members, at school, or in the home or
community.
c. Severely limited involvement in social support; which
means significant avoidance of appropriate social interaction, deterioration of
existing relationships, or refusal to participate in therapeutic interventions.
d. Impaired ability to form a trusting relationship with at
least one caretaker in the home, school or community.
e. Limited ability to consider the effect of one's
inappropriate conduct on others, interactions consistently involving conflict,
which may include impulsive or abusive behaviors.
2. A certification of the need for the service by the team
described in 12VAC30-130-860 that:
a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
do not meet the specific treatment needs of the child;
b. Proper treatment of the child's psychiatric condition requires
services in a community-based residential program; and
c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
child's condition or prevent regression so that the services will not be
needed.
3. Additional required written documentation must include
all of the following:
a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
Retardation), Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning);
b. A description of the child's behavior during the 30 days
immediately prior to admission;
c. A description of alternative placements tried or
explored and the outcomes of each placement;
d. The child's functional level and clinical stability;
e. The level of family support available; and
f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
12VAC30-130-890.
I. Denial of service may be appealed by the child
consistent with 12VAC30-110; denial of reimbursement may be appealed by the
provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of
the Code of Virginia).
J. Continued stay criteria for Levels A and B:
1. The length of the authorized stay shall be determined by
DMAS or its contractor.
2. A current Individual Service Plan (ISP) (plan of care)
and a current (within 30 days) summary of progress related to the goals and
objectives on the ISP (plan of care) must be submitted for continuation of the
service.
3. For reauthorization to occur, the desired outcome or
level of functioning has not been restored or improved, over the time frame
outlined in the child's ISP (plan of care) or the child continues to be at risk
for relapse based on history or the tenuous nature of the functional gains and
use of less intensive services will not achieve stabilization. Any one of the
following must apply:
a. The child has achieved initial service plan (plan of
care) goals but additional goals are indicated that cannot be met at a lower
level of care.
b. The child is making satisfactory progress toward meeting
goals but has not attained ISP goals, and the goals cannot be addressed at a
lower level of care.
c. The child is not making progress, and the service plan
(plan of care) has been modified to identify more effective interventions.
d. There are current indications that the child requires
this level of treatment to maintain level of functioning as evidenced by
failure to achieve goals identified for therapeutic visits or stays in a
nontreatment residential setting or in a lower level of residential treatment.
K. Discharge criteria for Levels A and B.
1. Reimbursement shall not be made for this level of care
if either of the following applies:
a. The level of functioning has improved with respect to
the goals outlined in the service plan (plan of care) and the child can
reasonably be expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment;
or
b. The child no longer benefits from service as evidenced
by absence of progress toward service plan goals for a period of 60 days.
12VAC30-130-880. Provider qualifications. (Repealed.)
A. Providers must provide all Residential Treatment
Services (Level C) as defined within this part and set forth in 42 CFR Part 441
Subpart D.
B. Providers of Residential Treatment Services (Level C)
must be:
1. A residential treatment program for children and
adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric hospital
accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
Organizations;
2. A residential treatment program for children and
adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric unit of an
acute general hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
Healthcare Organizations; or
3. A psychiatric facility that is (i) accredited by the
Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission
on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Quality and
Leadership in Supports for People with Disabilities, or the Council on
Accreditation of Services for Families and Children and (ii) licensed by
DMHMRSAS as a residential treatment program for children and adolescents.
C. Providers of Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be licensed by the Department of Social
Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of Education under the
Standards for Interdepartmental Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities
(22VAC42-10).
D. Providers of Therapeutic Behavioral Services (Level B)
must be licensed by the Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation, and
Substance Abuse Services (DMHMRSAS) under the Standards for Interdepartmental
Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC42-10).
12VAC30-130-890. Plans of care; review of plans of care.
(Repealed.)
A. For Residential Treatment Services (Level C), an initial
plan of care must be completed at admission and a Comprehensive Individual Plan
of Care (CIPOC) must be completed no later than 14 days after admission.
B. Initial plan of care (Level C) must include:
1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
2. A description of the functional level of the recipient;
3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the patient;
5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care;
6. Plans for discharge; and
7. Signature and date by the physician.
C. The CIPOC for Level C must meet all of the following
criteria:
1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the recipient's situation and must reflect the need
for inpatient psychiatric care;
2. Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
and other personnel specified under subsection F of this section, who are
employed by, or provide services to, patients in the facility in consultation
with the recipient and his parents, legal guardians, or appropriate others in
whose care he will be released after discharge;
3. State treatment objectives that must include measurable
short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
achievement;
4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
to the diagnosis; and
5. Describe comprehensive discharge plans and coordination
of inpatient services and post-discharge plans with related community services
to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the recipient's family,
school, and community.
D. Review of the CIPOC for Level C. The CIPOC must be
reviewed every 30 days by the team specified in subsection F of this section
to:
1. Determine that services being provided are or were
required on an inpatient basis; and
2. Recommend changes in the plan as indicated by the
recipient's overall adjustment as an inpatient.
E. The development and review of the plan of care for
Level C as specified in this section satisfies the facility's utilization
control requirements for recertification and establishment and periodic review
of the plan of care, as required in 42 CFR 456.160 and 456.180.
F. Team developing the CIPOC for Level C. The following
requirements must be met:
1. At least one member of the team must have expertise in
pediatric mental health. Based on education and experience, preferably
including competence in child psychiatry, the team must be capable of all of
the following:
a. Assessing the recipient's immediate and long-range
therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths and
liabilities;
b. Assessing the potential resources of the recipient's
family;
c. Setting treatment objectives; and
d. Prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the plan's
objectives.
2. The team must include, at a minimum, either:
a. A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist;
b. A clinical psychologist who has a doctoral degree and a
physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or
c. A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
mental diseases, and a psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
association.
3. The team must also include one of the following:
a. A psychiatric social worker;
b. A registered nurse with specialized training or one
year's experience in treating mentally ill individuals;
c. An occupational therapist who is licensed, if required
by the state, and who has specialized training or one year of experience in
treating mentally ill individuals; or
d. A psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
association.
G. All Medicaid services are subject to utilization
review. Absence of any of the required documentation may result in denial or
retraction of any reimbursement.
H. For Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level B), the initial plan of care must be completed at
admission by the licensed mental health professional (LMHP) and a CIPOC must be
completed by the LMHP no later than 30 days after admission. The assessment
must be signed and dated by the LMHP.
I. For Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A), the initial plan of care must be completed at
admission by the QMHP and a CIPOC must be completed by the QMHP no later than
30 days after admission. The individualized plan of care must be signed and
dated by the program director.
J. Initial plan of care for Levels A and B must include:
1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
2. A description of the functional level of the child;
3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the patient;
5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care; and
6. Plans for discharge.
K. The CIPOC for Levels A and B must meet all of the
following criteria:
1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the child's situation and must reflect the need for
residential psychiatric care;
2. The CIPOC for both levels must be based on input from
school, home, other healthcare providers, the child and family (or legal
guardian);
3. State treatment objectives that include measurable
short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
achievement;
4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
to the diagnosis; and
5. Describe comprehensive discharge plans with related
community services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the child's
family, school, and community.
L. Review of the CIPOC for Levels A and B. The CIPOC must
be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30 days by the QMHP for Level A and by the
LMHP for Level B. The review must include:
1. The response to services provided;
2. Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
child's overall response to the plan of care interventions; and
3. Determinations regarding whether the services being
provided continue to be required.
Updates must be signed and dated by the service provider.
M. All Medicaid services are subject to utilization
review. Absence of any of the required documentation may result in denial or
retraction of any reimbursement.
Part XVIII
Behavioral Health Services
12VAC30-130-3000. Behavioral health services.
A. Behavioral health services that shall be covered only for
individuals from birth through 21 years of age are set out in 12VAC30-50-130 B
5 and include: (i) intensive in-home services (IIH), (ii)
therapeutic day treatment (TDT), (iii) community based services for children
and adolescents (Level A) therapeutic group homes, and (iv) therapeutic
behavioral services (Level B) psychiatric residential treatment
facilities.
B. Behavioral health services that shall be covered for
individuals regardless of age are set out in 12VAC30-50-226 and include: (i)
day treatment/partial hospitalization, (ii) psychosocial rehabilitation, (iii)
crisis intervention, (iv) case management as set out in 12VAC30-50-420 and
12VAC30-50-430, (v) intensive community treatment (ICT), (vi) crisis
stabilization services, and (vii) mental health support services (MHSS).
12VAC30-130-3020. Independent clinical assessment requirements;
behavioral health level of care determinations and service eligibility. (Repealed.)
A. The independent clinical assessment (ICA), as set forth
in the Virginia Independent Assessment Program (VICAP-001) form, shall contain
the Medicaid individual-specific elements of information and data that shall be
required for an individual younger than the age of 21 to be approved for
intensive in-home (IIH) services, therapeutic day treatment (TDT), or mental
health support services (MHSS) or any combination thereof. Eligibility
requirements for IIH are in 12VAC30-50-130 B 5 b. Eligibility requirements for
TDT are in 12VAC30-50-130 B 5 c. Eligibility requirements for MHSS are in
12VAC30-50-226 B 8.
1. The required elements in the ICA shall be specified in
the VICAP form with either the BHSA or CSBs/BHAs and DMAS.
2. Service recommendations set out in the ICA shall not be
subject to appeal.
B. Independent clinical assessment requirements.
1. Effective July 18, 2011, an ICA shall be required as a
part of the service authorization process for Medicaid and Family Access to
Medical Insurance Security (FAMIS) intensive in-home (IIH) services,
therapeutic day treatment (TDT), or mental health support services (MHSS) for
individuals up to the age of 21. This ICA shall be performed prior to
the request for service authorization and initiation of treatment for
individuals who are not currently receiving or authorized for services. The ICA
shall be completed prior to the service provider conducting an intake or
providing treatment.
a. Each individual shall have at least one ICA prior to the
initiation of either IIH or TDT, or MHSS for individuals up to the age of 21.
b. For individuals who are already receiving IIH services
or TDT, or MHSS, as of July 18, 2011, the requirement for a completed ICA shall
be effective for service reauthorizations for dates of services on and after
September 1, 2011.
c. Individuals who are being discharged from residential
treatment (DMAS service Levels A, B, or C) or inpatient psychiatric
hospitalization do not need an ICA prior to receiving community IIH services or
TDT, or MHSS. They shall be required, however, to have an ICA as part of the
first subsequent service reauthorization for IIH services, TDT, MHSS, or any
combination thereof.
2. The ICA shall be completed and submitted to DMAS or its
service authorization contractor by the independent assessor prior to the
service provider submitting the service authorization or reauthorization
request to the DMAS service authorization contractor. Failure to meet these
requirements shall result in the provider's service authorization or
reauthorization request being returned to the provider.
3. A copy of the ICA shall be retained in the service
provider's individual's file.
4. If a service provider receives a request from parents or
legal guardians to provide IIH services, TDT, or MHSS for individuals who are
younger than 21 years of age, the service provider shall refer the parent or
legal guardian to the BHSA or the local CSB/BHA to obtain the ICA prior to
providing services.
a. In order to provide services, the service provider shall
be required to conduct a service-specific provider intake as defined in
12VAC30-50-130.
b. If the selected service provider concurs that the child
meets criteria for the service recommended by the independent assessor, the
selected service provider shall submit a service authorization request to DMAS
service authorization contractor. The service-specific provider's intake for
IIH services, TDT, or MHSS shall not occur prior to the completion of the ICA
by the BHSA or CSB/BHA, or its subcontractor.
c. If within 30 days after the ICA a service provider
identifies the need for services that were not recommended by the ICA, the
service provider shall contact the independent assessor and request a
modification. The request for a modification shall be based on a significant
change in the individual's life that occurred after the ICA was conducted.
Examples of a significant change may include, but shall not be limited to,
hospitalization; school suspension or expulsion; death of a significant other;
or hospitalization or incarceration of a parent or legal guardian.
d. If the independent assessment is greater than 30 days
old, a new ICA must be obtained prior to the initiation of IIH services, TDT,
or MHSS for individuals younger than 21 years of age.
e. If the parent or legal
guardian disagrees with the ICA recommendation, the parent or legal guardian
may appeal the recommendation in accordance with Part I (12VAC30-110-10 et
seq.) In the alternative, the parent or legal guardian may request that a
service provider perform his own evaluation. If after conducting a
service-specific provider intake the service provider identifies additional
documentation previously not submitted for the ICA that demonstrates the
service is medically necessary and clinically indicated, the service provider
may submit the supplemental information with a service authorization request to
the DMAS service authorization contractor. The DMAS service authorization
contractor will review the service authorization submission and the ICA and
make a determination. If the determination results in a service denial, the
individual, parent or legal guardian, and service provider will be notified of
the decision and their appeal rights pursuant to Part I (12VAC30-110-10 et
seq.).
5. If the individual is in immediate need of treatment, the
independent clinical assessor shall refer the individual to the appropriate
enrolled Medicaid emergency services providers in accordance with
12VAC30-50-226 and shall also alert the individual's managed care organization.
C. Requirements for behavioral health services
administrator and community services boards/behavioral health authorities.
1. When the BHSA, CSB, or BHA
has been contacted by the parent or legal guardian, the ICA appointment shall
be offered within five business days of a request for IIH services and within
10 business days for a request for TDT or MHSS, or both. The appointment may be
scheduled beyond the respective time frame at the documented request of the
parent or legal guardian.
2. The independent assessor
shall conduct the ICA with the individual and the parent or legal guardian
using the VICAP-001 form and make a recommendation for the most appropriate
medically necessary services, if indicated. Referring or treating providers
shall not be present during the assessment but may submit supporting clinical
documentation to the assessor.
3. The ICA shall be effective for a 30-day period.
4. The independent assessor
shall enter the findings of the ICA into the DMAS service authorization
contractor's web portal within one business day of conducting the assessment.
The independent clinical assessment form (VICAP-001) shall be completed by the
independent assessor within three business days of completing the ICA.
D. The individual or his parent or legal guardian shall
have the right to freedom of choice of service providers.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4495; Filed January 31, 2017, 4:07 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Emergency Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-10. State Plan under
Title XIX of the Social Security Act Medical Assistance Program; General Provisions (amending 12VAC30-10-540).
12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration, and Scope of Medical and
Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-130).
12VAC30-60. Standards Established and Methods Used to Assure
High Quality Care (amending 12VAC30-60-5, 12VAC30-60-50,
12VAC30-60-61).
12VAC30-130. Amount, Duration and Scope of Selected Services (amending 12VAC30-130-3000; repealing
12VAC30-130-850, 12VAC30-130-860, 12VAC30-130-870, 12VAC30-130-880,
12VAC30-130-890, 12VAC30-130-3020).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of
Virginia; 42 USC § 1396 et seq.
Effective Dates: July 1, 2017, through December 31,
2018.
Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,
Policy Division, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad
Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX (804)
786-1680, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
Preamble:
The psychiatric residential treatment service was
implemented in 2001. The existing regulations are not adequate to ensure
successful treatment outcomes are attained for the individuals who receive high
cost high intensity residential treatment services. Since moving behavioral
health services to Magellan (the DMAS behavioral health service administrator
or BHSA) there has been enhanced supervision of these services. The enhanced
supervision has led to an increased awareness of some safety challenges and
administrative challenges in this high level of care. The proposed revisions
will serve to better clarify policy interpretations that revise program
standards to allow for more evidence-based service delivery, allow DMAS to
implement more effective utilization management in collaboration with the BHSA,
enhance individualized coordination of care, implement standardized
coordination of individualized aftercare resources by ensuring access to
medical and behavioral health service providers in the individual's home
community, and support DMAS audit practices. The changes will move toward a
service model that will reduce lengths of stay for and facilitate an
evidence-based treatment approach to better support the individual's discharge
into his home environment.
The emergency action, pursuant to § 2.2-4011 of the Code of
Virginia, includes changes to the following areas: (i) provider qualifications
including acceptable licensing standards, (ii) preadmission assessment requirements,
(iii) program requirements, (iv) new discharge planning and care coordination
requirements, and (iv) language enhancements for utilization review
requirements to clarify program requirements and help providers avoid payment
retractions. These changes are part of a review of the services to ensure that
they are effectively delivered and utilized for individuals who meet the
medical necessity criteria. For each individual seeking residential treatment
their treatment needs will be assessed with enhanced requirements by the
current independent certification teams who must coordinate clinical assessment
information and assess local resources for each person requesting residential
care to determine an appropriate level of care. The certification teams will
also be more able to coordinate referrals for care to determine, in accordance
with Department of Justice requirements, whether or not the individual seeking
services can be safely served using community-based services in the least
restrictive setting. Independent team certifications will be conducted prior to
the onset of specified services, as required by Centers for Medicare and
Medicaid Services guidelines, by the DMAS behavioral health services
administrator.
The proposal includes changes to program requirements that
ensure that effective levels of care coordination and discharge planning occurs
for each individual during his residential stay by enhancing program rules and
utilization management principles that facilitate effective discharge planning
and establish community-based services prior to the individual's discharge from
residential care. The proposal requires enhanced care coordination to provide
the necessary, objective evaluations of treatment progress and to facilitate
evidence-based practices during the treatment to reduce the length of stay by
ensuring that medical necessity indicates the correct level of care and that
appropriate and effective care is delivered in a person-centered manner. The
proposal requires that service providers and local systems will use
standardized preadmission and discharge processes to ensure effective services
are delivered.
This emergency action is in compliance with provisions of
Item 301 OO and Item 301 PP of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly, as follows:
Item 301 OO c 7, 8, 9, 14, 15, 16, 17, and 18 directed that
DMAS shall develop a blueprint for a care coordination model for individuals in
need of behavioral health services that includes the following principles:
"7. Develops direct linkages between medical and
behavioral services in order to make it easier for consumers to obtain timely
access to care and services, which could include up to full integration.
8. Builds upon current best practices in the delivery of
behavioral health services.
9. Accounts for local services and reflects familiarity
with the community where services are provided.
…
14. Achieves cost savings through decreasing avoidable
episodes of care and hospitalizations, strengthening the discharge planning
process, improving adherence to medication regimens, and utilizing community
alternatives to hospitalizations and institutionalization.
15. Simplifies the administration of acute psychiatric,
community and mental health rehabilitation, and medical health services for the
coordinating entity, providers, and consumers.
16. Requires standardized data collection, outcome
measures, customer satisfaction surveys, and reports to track costs,
utilization of services, and outcomes. Performance data should be explicit,
benchmarked, standardized, publicly available, and validated.
17. Provides actionable data and feedback to providers.
18. In accordance with federal and state regulations,
includes provisions for effective and timely grievances and appeals for
consumers."
Item 301 OO d states:
"The department may seek the necessary waiver(s) or
State Plan authorization under Titles XIX and XXI of the Social Security Act to
develop and implement a care coordination model … This model may be applied to
individuals on a mandatory basis. The department shall have authority to
promulgate emergency regulations to implement this amendment within 280 days or
less from the enactment date of this act."
Item 301 PP states:
"The Department of Medical Assistance Services shall
make programmatic changes in the provision of Residential Treatment Facility
(Level C) and Levels A and B residential services (group homes) for children
with serious emotional disturbances in order [to] ensure appropriate
utilization and cost efficiency. The department shall consider all available
options including, but not limited to, prior authorization, utilization review
and provider qualifications. The department shall have authority to promulgate
regulations to implement these changes within 280 days or less from the enactment
date of this act."
In response to Item 301 OO c 14, DMAS is proposing new
requirements to ensure that comprehensive discharge planning begins at
admission to a therapeutic group home or residential treatment facility so that
the individual can return to the community setting with appropriate supports at
the soonest possible time.
DMAS is responding to the legislative mandates in Item 301
OO c 7 through 9, 14, and 15 by sunsetting the Virginia Independent Assessment
Program (VICAP) regulation at 12VAC30-130-3020. The VICAP program is no longer
needed, as the BHSA is now conducting thorough reviews of medical necessity for
each requested service, and the funds allocated to the VICAP program can be
more effectively used elsewhere.
DMAS is responding to the legislative mandates in Item 301
OO c 16 through 18 by creating a single point of contact at the BHSA for
families and caregivers who will increase timely access to residential
behavioral health services, promote effective service delivery, and decrease
wait times for medical necessity and placement decisions that previously have
been managed by local family assessment and planning teams (FAPT). The FAPTs
are not DMAS-enrolled service providers, and the individuals who must use the
FAPT process to gain access to Medicaid covered residential treatment are not
subject to the established Medicaid grievance process and choice options as
mandated by CMS. The enhanced interaction of the families and the BHSA will
enable more thorough data collection to ensure freedom of choice in service
providers, and to measure locality trends, service provider trends, and
population trends to facilitate evidence-based decisions in both the clinical
service delivery and administration of the program. The enhanced family interaction
will enable the BHSA to complete individual family surveys and monitor care
more effectively after discharge from services to assess the family and
individual perspective on service delivery and enable DMAS to more effectively
manage evidence-based residential treatment services.
Since 2001, when residential treatment services were
implemented by DMAS, individuals have not had access to standardized methods of
effective care coordination upon entry into residential treatment due to
locality influence and DMAS reimbursement limitations. This has resulted in a
fragmented coordination approach for these individuals who are at risk for high
levels of care and remain at risk of repeated placements at this level of care.
The residential treatment prior authorization and utilization management
structures require an enhanced care coordination model to support the
individuals who receive this level of service to ensure an effective return to
the family or caregiver home environment with follow-up services to facilitate
ongoing treatment progress in the least restrictive environment. The added
coordination is required to navigate a very complex service environment for the
individual as the individual returns to a community setting to establish an
effective aftercare environment that involves service providers who may be
contracted with a variety of entities such as DMAS contracted managed care
organizations (MCOs), BHSA enrolled providers, the local FAPT, local school
divisions, and the local community services board (CSB). This regulation will
allow DMAS to implement a contracted care coordination team that will focus on
attaining specific clinical outcomes for all residential care episodes and
provide a new single liaison who will ensure coordination of care in a complex
service environment for individuals upon discharge from residential treatment
and prior to the time when they will enroll in an MCO. During this transition
period the individual is very vulnerable to repeated admissions to residential
or inpatient care and must also be supported in the fee for service (FFS)
environment with resources from the local CSB and BHSA enrolled services
providers and requires ongoing support and coordination with the local FAPT to
provide aftercare services consisting of post-discharge follow-up and
transition services provided by the BHSA coordination team.
The care coordination team will (i) provide increased
standardization of preadmission assessment activity, (ii) provide facilitation
of an effective independent certification team process, (iii) ensure that MCO
and medical home resources are used to provide accurate psychosocial assessment
and clinical/medical history to the certification team and BHSA, (iv)
facilitate accurate authorization decisions and consider community-based
service options prior to any out-of-home placement, (v) facilitate high levels
of family involvement, (vi) provide aggressive discharge planning that ensures
smooth transition into community-based services and MCO-funded health services,
and (vii) provide meaningful, coordinated post-discharge follow-up for up to 90
days after discharge with the youth and family.
The residential care coordination team will ensure
meaningful communication across all parts of the Comprehensive Services Act,
Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, MCO, and FFS
service systems to maximize efficiency of activities, eliminate duplicative or
conflicting efforts, and ensure established timelines are met (e.g., regular
assessment of progress).
These enclosed proposed utilization control requirements
are recommended consistent with the federal requirements at 42 CFR Part 456
Utilization Control. Specifically, 42 CFR 456.3, "Statewide surveillance
and utilization control program" provides: "The Medicaid agency must
implement a statewide surveillance and utilization control program that—
(a) Safeguards against unnecessary or inappropriate use of
Medicaid services and against excess payments;
(b) Assesses the quality of those services;
(c) Provides for the control of the utilization of all
services provided under the plan in accordance with subpart B of this part, and
(d) Provides for the control of the utilization of
inpatient services in accordance with subparts C through I of this part."
The Code of Federal Regulations also provides, at 42 CFR
430.10, "...The State plan contains all information necessary for CMS to
determine whether the plan can be approved to serve as a basis for Federal
financial participation (FFP) in the State program." FFP is the federal
matching funds that DMAS receives from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Services. Not performing utilization control of the services affected by these
proposed regulations, as well as all Medicaid covered services, could subject
DMAS' federal matching funds to a CMS recovery action.
Purpose. This regulatory action is essential to protect the
health, safety, or welfare of individuals with Medicaid who require behavioral
health services. In addition, these proposed changes are intended to promote improved
quality of Medicaid-covered behavioral health services provided to individuals.
This regulatory action is also essential to ensure that
Medicaid individuals and their families are well informed about their
behavioral health condition and service options prior to receiving these
services. This ensures the services are medically necessary for the individual
and are rendered by providers who use evidence-based treatment approaches.
While residential treatment is not a service that should be
approved with great frequency for a large number of individuals, it is a
service that should be accessible to the families and individuals who require
that level of care. The current service model has significant operational
layers that must be navigated to access residential services. The current
program processes involve coordination of care by local FAPT teams who have,
over time, demonstrated some influence on determining an individual's
eligibility for FAPT funded services. The local influence on the program's administration
causes limitations on individualized freedom of provider choice and
inconsistent authorization of funding for persons deemed to need psychiatric
care out of the home setting. This local administration of the primary referral
source for residential treatment lies outside the purview of DMAS and this
situation produces outcomes that are inadequate to meet CMS requirements on
ensuring the individual freedom of choice of providers. In addition, local FAPT
administrators do not enforce the Department of Justice settlement requirements
in a uniform manner.
DMAS has added content to program requirements and covered
services portions of the regulations to better clarify the benefit coverage and
utilization criteria. The emergency regulations allow the use of additional
information collection to better assess ways to reduce the average length of
stay for individuals in residential care, and to better coordinate educational
funding for those who require medically necessary services in a psychiatric
treatment setting by using enhanced Medicaid supports.
The goal is that individuals receive the correct level of
service at the correct time for the treatment (service) needs related to the
individual's medical/psychiatric condition. Residential treatment services
consist of behavioral health interventions and are intended to provide high
intensity clinical treatment that should be provided for a short duration.
Stakeholder feedback supported DMAS observations of lengthy durations of stay
for many individuals. Residential treatment services will benefit from
clarification of the service definition and eligibility requirements to ensure
that residential treatment does not evolve into a long-term level of support
instead of the high intensity psychiatric treatment modality that defines this
level of care.
Substance. The sections of the State Plan for Medical
Assistance that are affected by this action are 12VAC30-10-540 (Inspection of
care in intermediate care facilities); 12VAC30-50-130 (Skilled nursing facility
services, EPSDT, school health services, and family planning); 12VAC30-60-5
(Applicability of utilization review requirements); 12VAC30-60-50 (Utilization
control: Intermediate Care Facilities for the Mentally Retarded (ICF/MR) and
Institutions for Mental Disease (IMD); 12VAC30-60-61 (Services related to the
Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment Program (EPSDT);
community mental health services for children). The state-only regulations that
are affected by this action are 12VAC30-130-850 through 12VAC30-130-890 (Part
XIV - Residential Psychiatric Treatment for Children and Adolescents).
12VAC30-10-540. Inspection of care in intermediate care
facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
developmental disabilities, facilities providing inpatient psychiatric
services for individuals under 21, and mental hospitals.
All applicable requirements of 42 CFR 456, Subpart I, are met
with respect to periodic inspections of care and services.*
Inpatient psychiatric services for individuals under age
21 are not provided under this plan.
*Inspection of Care care (IOC) in Intermediate
Care Facilities intermediate care facilities for the Mentally
Retarded and Institutions for Mental Diseases are persons with
intellectual and developmental disabilities is completed through
contractual arrangements with the Virginia Department of Health.
12VAC30-50-130. Skilled nursing facility services, EPSDT,
school health services, and family planning.
A. Skilled nursing facility services (other than services in
an institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older.
Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
performed within the scope of a license of the practitioner of the healing
arts.
B. Early and periodic screening and, diagnosis,
and treatment (EPSDT) of individuals under 21 years of age, and treatment
of conditions found - general provisions.
1. Payment of medical assistance services shall be made on
behalf of individuals under 21 years of age, who are Medicaid eligible, for
medically necessary stays in acute care facilities, and the accompanying
attendant physician care, in excess of 21 days per admission when such services
are rendered for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of health conditions
identified through a physical examination.
2. Routine physicals and immunizations (except as provided
through EPSDT) are not covered except that well-child examinations in a private
physician's office are covered for foster children of the local social services
departments on specific referral from those departments.
3. Orthoptics services shall only be reimbursed if medically
necessary to correct a visual defect identified by an EPSDT examination or
evaluation. The department shall place appropriate utilization controls upon
this service.
4. Consistent with the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of
1989 § 6403, early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment services
means the following services: screening services, vision services, dental
services, hearing services, and such other necessary health care, diagnostic
services, treatment, and other measures described in Social Security Act §
1905(a) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and mental illnesses and
conditions discovered by the screening services and which are medically
necessary, whether or not such services are covered under the State Plan and
notwithstanding the limitations, applicable to recipients ages 21 and over,
provided for by the Act § 1905(a).
5. Community C. Early and periodic screening
diagnosis and treatment (EPSDT) of individuals younger than 21 years of age -
community mental health services. These services in order to be covered (i)
shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses made by LMHPs who
are practicing within the scope of their licenses and (ii) are reflected in
provider records and on providers' provider claims for services
by recognized diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the
requested professional services.
a. 1. Definitions. The following words and terms
when used in this section shall have the following meanings unless the context
clearly indicates otherwise:
"Activities of daily living" means personal care
activities and includes bathing, dressing, transferring, toileting, feeding,
and eating.
"Adolescent or child" means the individual
receiving the services described in this section. For the purpose of the use of
these terms this term, adolescent means an individual 12-20 years
of age; a child means an individual from birth up to 12 years of age.
"Behavioral health services administrator" or
"BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
benefits program under contract with DMAS.
"Care coordination" means collaboration and sharing
of information among health care providers, who are involved with an
individual's health care, to improve the care.
"Certified prescreener" means an employee of the
local community services board or behavioral health authority, or its designee,
who is skilled in the assessment and treatment of mental illness and has
completed a certification program approved by the Department of Behavioral
Health and Developmental Services.
"Clinical experience" means providing direct
behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
in-home services, (ii) day treatment for children and adolescents, (iii)
community-based residential services for children and adolescents who are
younger than 21 years of age (Level A), or (iv) therapeutic behavioral services
(Level B). Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be as
established by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Child" means the individual receiving the
services described in this section; an individual from birth up to 12 years of
age.
"DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
and Developmental Services.
"DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
Services and its contractor or contractors.
"Human services field" means the same as the term
is defined by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
the same as the term is defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
"Licensed mental health professional" or
"LMHP" means a licensed physician, licensed clinical psychologist,
licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical social worker, licensed
substance abuse treatment practitioner, licensed marriage and family therapist,
or certified psychiatric clinical nurse specialist the same as defined
in 12VAC35-105-20.
"LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the same
as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a
"resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Counseling. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by such residents, they shall use the title
"Resident" in connection with the applicable profession after their
signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-resident in psychology" or "LMHP-RP"
means the same as an individual in a residency, as that term is defined in
18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An LMHP-resident in
psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the regulatory requirements
for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65 and shall not perform the
functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a "resident" until the
supervision for specific clinical duties at a specific site has been
preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Psychology. For purposes of
Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services provided by such residents,
they shall use the title "Resident in Psychology" after their
signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
"LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
"supervisee" as defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be
considered a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical
duties at a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Social Work. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title "Supervisee
in Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such status.
"Progress notes" means individual-specific
documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
the notes. Individualized and member-specific progress notes are part of the
minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's status,
staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress, or lack of
progress, toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes shall also
include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the
service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered the
service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time
or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each progress
note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be
documented for each service that is billed.
"Psychoeducation" means (i) a specific form of
education aimed at helping individuals who have mental illness and their family
members or caregivers to access clear and concise information about mental
illness and (ii) a way of accessing and learning strategies to deal with mental
illness and its effects in order to design effective treatment plans and
strategies.
"Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving and increasing coping
skills.
"Qualified mental health professional-child" or
"QMHP-C" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
"QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20 and
consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-590.
"Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
"QPPMH" means the same as the term is defined in
12VAC35-105-20 and consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
"Service-specific provider intake" means the
face-to-face interaction in which the provider obtains information from the
child or adolescent, and parent or other family member or members, as
appropriate, about the child's or adolescent's mental health status. It
includes documented history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental
health care problems and issues and shall contain all of the following
elements: (i) the presenting issue/reason for referral, (ii) mental health
history/hospitalizations, (iii) previous interventions by providers and
timeframes and response to treatment, (iv) medical profile, (v) developmental
history including history of abuse, if appropriate, (vi) educational/vocational
status, (vii) current living situation and family history and relationships,
(viii) legal status, (ix) drug and alcohol profile, (x) resources and
strengths, (xi) mental status exam and profile, (xii) diagnosis, (xiii)
professional summary and clinical formulation, (xiv) recommended care and
treatment goals, and (xv) the dated signature of the LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
b. 2. Intensive in-home services (IIH) to
children and adolescents under age 21 shall be time-limited interventions
provided in the individual's residence and when clinically necessary in
community settings. All interventions and the settings of the intervention
shall be defined in the Individual Service Plan. All IIH services shall be
designed to specifically improve family dynamics, provide modeling, and the
clinically necessary interventions that increase functional and therapeutic
interpersonal relations between family members in the home. IIH services are
designed to promote psychoeducational benefits in the home setting of an
individual who is at risk of being moved into an out-of-home placement or who
is being transitioned to home from an out-of-home placement due to a documented
medical need of the individual. These services provide crisis treatment;
individual and family counseling; communication skills (e.g., counseling to
assist the individual and his parents or guardians, as appropriate, to
understand and practice appropriate problem solving, anger management, and
interpersonal interaction, etc.); care coordination with other required
services; and 24-hour emergency response.
(1) These services shall be limited annually to 26 weeks.
a. Service authorization shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement
prior to the onset of services. Services rendered before the date of
authorization shall not be reimbursed.
(2) b. Service authorization shall be required
for services to continue beyond the initial 26 weeks.
(3) c. Service-specific provider intakes shall
be required at the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the
entire duration of services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or
outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement.
Requirements for service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are set out in this
section.
(4) d. These services may shall
only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C,
or a QMHP-E.
c. 3. Therapeutic day treatment (TDT) shall be
provided two or more hours per day in order to provide therapeutic
interventions. Day treatment programs, limited annually to 780 units, (a
unit is defined in 12VAC30-60-61 D 11) provide evaluation; medication education
and management; opportunities to learn and use daily living skills and to
enhance social and interpersonal skills (e.g., problem solving, anger
management, community responsibility, increased impulse control, and
appropriate peer relations, etc.); and individual, group and family counseling.
(1) a. Service authorization shall be required
for Medicaid reimbursement.
(2) b. Service-specific provider intakes shall
be required at the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the
entire duration of services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or
outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied
reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are
set out in this section.
(3) c. These services may shall be
rendered only by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or
a QMHP-E.
d. Community-based services for children and adolescents
under 21 years of age (Level A).
(1) Such services shall be a combination of therapeutic
services rendered in a residential setting. The residential services will
provide structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic
supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric treatment to ensure the
attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the individual
service plan (plan of care). Individuals qualifying for this service must
demonstrate medical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to
mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments
in major life activities in the home, school, at work, or in the community. The
service must reasonably be expected to improve the child's condition or prevent
regression so that the services will no longer be needed. The application of a
national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry,
such as McKesson InterQual® Criteria or an equivalent standard
authorized in advance by DMAS, shall be required for this service.
(2) In addition to the residential services, the child must
receive, at least weekly, individual psychotherapy that is provided by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
(3) Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
other less intensive services may achieve stabilization.
(4) Authorization shall be required for Medicaid
reimbursement. Services that were rendered before the date of service
authorization shall not be reimbursed.
(5) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed. DMAS
shall reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no
more than 16 beds.
(6) These residential providers must be licensed by the
Department of Social Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of
Behavioral Health and Developmental Services under the Standards for Licensed
Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC40-151), Standards for Interim
Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (6VAC35-51), or Regulations for
Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
(7) Daily progress notes shall document a minimum of seven
psychoeducational activities per week. Psychoeducational programming must
include, but is not limited to, development or maintenance of daily living
skills, anger management, social skills, family living skills, communication
skills, stress management, and any care coordination activities.
(8) The facility/group home must coordinate services with
other providers. Such care coordination shall be documented in the individual's
medical record. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
(9) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-60-61.
(10) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
D. Early and periodic screening diagnosis and treatment
(EPSDT) of individuals younger than 21 years of age - therapeutic group home
services and residential treatment services.
1. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
this subsection shall have the following meanings:
"Active treatment" means implementation of an
initial plan of care (IPOC) and comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC)
that shall be developed, supervised, and approved by the family or legally
authorized representative, treating physician, psychiatrist, or LMHP
responsible for the overall supervision of the CIPOC. Each plan of care shall
be designed to improve the individual's condition and to achieve the
individual's safe discharge from residential care at the earliest possible
time.
"Assessment" means a service conducted within
seven calendar days of admission by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S
utilizing a tool or series of tools to provide a comprehensive evaluation and
review of an individual's current mental health status in order to make
recommendations; provide diagnosis; identify strengths, needs, and risk level;
and describe the severity of symptoms.
"Behavioral health services administrator" or
"BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
benefits program under contract with DMAS.
"Certificate of need" or "CON" means a
written statement by an independent certification team that services in a
residential treatment facility are or were needed.
"Combined treatment services" means a structured,
therapeutic milieu and planned interventions that promote (i) the development
or restoration of adaptive functioning, self-care, and social skills; (ii)
community integrated activities and community living skills that each
individual requires to live in less restrictive environments; (iii) behavioral
consultation; (iv) individual and group therapy; (v) recreation therapy, (vi)
family education and family therapy; and (vii) individualized treatment
planning.
"Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
"CIPOC" means a person-centered plan of care that meets all of the
requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
information gathered during the referral process.
"Crisis" means a deteriorating or unstable
situation, often developing suddenly that produces an acute, heightened
emotional, mental, physical, medical, or behavioral event.
"Crisis management" means immediately provided
activities and interventions designed to rapidly manage a crisis.
"Daily supervision" means the supervision
provided in a residential treatment facility through a resident-to-staff ratio
approved by the Office of Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and
Developmental Services with documented supervision checks every 15 minutes
throughout the 24-hour period.
"Discharge planning" means family and
locality-based care coordination that begins upon admission to a residential
treatment facility or therapeutic group home with the goal of transitioning the
individual out of the residential treatment facility or therapeutic group home
to a less restrictive care setting with continued, clinically-appropriate, and
possibly intensive, services as soon as possible upon discharge. Discharge
plans shall be recommended by the treating physician, psychiatrist, or treating
LMHP responsible for the overall supervision of the CIPOC and shall be approved
by the BHSA.
"DSM-5" means the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, copyright 2013, American Psychiatric
Association.
"Emergency admissions" means those admissions
that are made when, pending a review for the certificate of need, it appears
that the individual is in need of an immediate admission to group home or
residential treatment and likely does not meet the medical necessity criteria
to receive crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, or acute psychiatric
inpatient services.
"Emergency services" means unscheduled and
sometimes scheduled crisis intervention, stabilization, acute psychiatric
inpatient services, and referral assistance provided over the telephone or
face-to-face if indicated, and available 24 hours a day, seven days per week.
"Family engagement" means a family-centered and strengths-based
approach to partnering with families in making decisions, setting goals,
achieving desired outcomes, and promoting safety, permanency, and well-being
for children, youth, and families. Family engagement requires ongoing
opportunities for an individual to build and maintain meaningful relationships
with family members, for example, frequent, unscheduled, and noncontingent
phone calls and visits between an individual and family members. Family
engagement may also include enhancing or facilitating the development of the
individual's relationship with other family members and supportive adults
responsible for the individual's care and well-being upon discharge.
"Family engagement activity" means an
intervention consisting of family psychoeducational training or coaching,
transition planning with the family, family and independent living skills, and
training on accessing community supports as identified in the IPOC and CIPOC.
Family engagement activity does not include and is not the same as family
therapy.
"Independent certification team" means a team
that has competence in diagnosis and treatment of mental illness, preferably in
child psychiatry; has knowledge of the individual's situation; and is composed
of at least one physician and one LMHP. The independent certification team
shall be a DMAS-authorized contractor with contractual or employment
relationships with the required team members.
"Individual" means the child or adolescent
younger than 21 years of age who is receiving therapeutic group home or
residential treatment facility services.
"Initial plan of care" or "IPOC" means
a person-centered plan of care established at admission that meets all of the
requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
information gathered during the referral process.
"Intervention" means scheduled therapeutic
treatment such as individual or group psychoeducation; psychoeducational
activities with specific topics focused to address individualized needs;
structured behavior support and training activities; recreation, art, and music
therapies; community integration activities that promote or assist in the
youth's ability to acquire coping and functional or self-regulating behavior
skills; day and overnight passes; and family engagement activities.
Interventions shall not include individual, group, and family therapy,
medical, or dental appointments, physician services, medication evaluation or
management provided by a licensed clinician or physician and shall not include
school attendance. Interventions shall be provided in the therapeutic group
home or residential treatment facility and, when clinically necessary, in a
community setting or as part of a therapeutic leave activity. All interventions
and settings of the intervention shall be established in the CIPOC.
"Physician" means an individual licensed to
practice medicine or osteopathic medicine in Virginia, as defined in §
54.1-2900 of the Code of Virginia.
"Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving, and increasing coping
skills.
"Recertification" means a certification for each
applicant or recipient for whom residential treatment facility services are
needed.
"Residential case management" means providing
care coordination, maintaining records, making calls, sending emails, compiling
monthly reports, scheduling meetings, and performing other administrative tasks
related to the individual. Residential case management is a component of the
combined treatment services provided in a group home setting or residential
treatment facility.
"Residential medical supervision" means
around-the-clock nursing and medical care through onsite nurses and onsite or
on-call physicians, as well as nurse and physician attendance at each treatment
planning meeting. Residential medical supervision is a component of the
combined treatment services provided in a congregate residential care facility
and is included in the reimbursement for residential services.
"Residential supplemental therapies" means a
specified minimum of daily interventions and other professional therapies.
Residential supplemental therapies are a component of the combined treatment
services provided in a congregate residential care facility and are included in
the reimbursement for residential services. Residential providers shall not
bill other payment sources in addition to DMAS for these covered services as
part of a residential stay.
"Residential treatment facility" means the same
as defined in 42 CFR 483.352 and is a 24-hour, supervised, clinically and
medically necessary, out-of-home active treatment program designed to provide
necessary support and address mental health, behavioral, substance abuse,
cognitive, and training needs of an individual younger than 21 years of age in
order to prevent or minimize the need for more intensive inpatient treatment.
"Room and board" means a component of the total
daily cost for placement in a licensed residential treatment facility. Residential
room and board costs are maintenance costs associated with placement in a
licensed residential treatment facility and include a semi-private room, three
meals and two snacks per day, and personal care items. Room and board costs are
reimbursed only for residential treatment settings.
"Therapeutic group home" means a congregate
residential service providing 24-hour supervision in a community-based home
having eight or fewer residents.
"Therapeutic leave" and "therapeutic
passes" mean time at home or time with family consisting of partial
or entire days of time away from the group home or treatment facility with
identified goals as approved by the treating physician, psychiatrist, or LMHP
responsible for the overall supervision of the CIPOC and documented in the
CIPOC that facilitate or measure treatment progress, facilitate aftercare
designed to promote family/community engagement, connection and permanency, and
provide for goal-directed family engagement.
e. 2. Therapeutic behavioral group
home services (Level B).
(1) Such services must be therapeutic services rendered in
a residential setting that provides structure for daily activities,
psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric
treatment to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as
identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). Individuals
qualifying for this service must demonstrate medical necessity for the service
arising from a condition due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that
results in significant functional impairments in major life activities in the
home, school, at work, or in the community. The service must reasonably be
expected to improve the child's condition or prevent regression so that the
services will no longer be needed. The application of a national standardized
set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson
InterQual® Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance
by DMAS shall be required for this service.
a. Therapeutic group home services for children and
adolescents younger than the age of 21 years are combined treatment services.
The combination of therapeutic services rendered in a residential setting
provides a therapeutic structure of daily psychoeducational activities,
therapeutic supervision, behavioral modification, and mental health care to
ensure the attainment of therapeutic goals. The therapeutic group home shall
provide therapeutic services to restore, develop, or maintain appropriate
skills necessary to promote prosocial behavior and healthy living to include
the development of coping skills, family living and health awareness,
interpersonal skills, communication skills, and stress management skills.
Treatment for substance use disorders shall be addressed as clinically
indicated. The program shall include individualized activities provided in
accordance with the IPOC and CIPOC including a minimum of one intervention per
24-hour period in addition to individual, group, and family therapies. Daily
interventions are not required when there is documentation to justify clinical
or medical reasons for the individual's deviations from the service plan.
Interventions shall be documented on a progress note and shall be outlined in
and aligned with the treatment goals and objectives in the IPOC and CIPOC. Any
deviation from the IPOC or CIPOC shall be documented along with a clinical or
medical justification for the deviation.
b. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a
therapeutic group home. The following requirements for severity of need and
intensity and quality of service shall be met to satisfy the medical necessity
criteria for admission.
(1) Admission - severity of need. The following criteria
shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
(a) The individual's behavioral health condition can only
be safely and effectively treated in a 24-hour therapeutic milieu with onsite
behavioral health therapy due to significant impairments in home, school, and
community functioning caused by current mental health symptoms consistent with
a DSM-5 diagnosis.
(b) The certificate of need must demonstrate all of the
following: (i) ambulatory care resources (all available modalities of treatment
less restrictive than inpatient treatment) available in the community do not
meet the treatment needs of the individual; (ii) proper treatment of the
individual's psychiatric condition requires services on an inpatient basis
under the direction of a physician; and (iii) the services can reasonably be
expected to improve the individual's condition or prevent further regression so
that the services will no longer be needed.
(c) An assessment that demonstrates at least two areas of
moderate impairment in major life activities. A moderate impairment is defined
as a major or persistent disruption in major life activities. The state uniform
assessment tool must be completed. A moderate impairment is evidenced by, but
not limited to (i) frequent conflict in the family setting such as credible
threats of physical harm. "Frequent" is defined as more than expected
for the individual's age and developmental level; (ii) frequent inability to
accept age-appropriate direction and supervision from caretakers, from family
members, at school, or in the home or community; (iii) severely limited
involvement in social support, which means significant avoidance of appropriate
social interaction, deterioration of existing relationships, or refusal to
participate in therapeutic interventions; (iv) impaired ability to form a
trusting relationship with at least one caretaker in the home, school, or
community; (v) limited ability to consider the effect of one's inappropriate
conduct on others; and (vi) interactions consistently involving conflict, which
may include impulsive or abusive behaviors.
(d) Less restrictive community-based services have been
given a fully adequate trial and were unsuccessful or, if not attempted, have
been considered, but in either situation were determined to be to be unable to
meet the individual's treatment needs and the reasons for that are discussed in
the application.
(e) The individual's symptoms, or the need for treatment in
a 24 hours a day, seven days a week level of care (LOC), are not primarily due
to any of the following: (i) intellectual disability, developmental disability,
or autistic spectrum disorder; (ii) organic mental disorders, traumatic brain
injury, or other medical condition; or (iii) the individual does not require a
more intensive level of care.
(f) The individual does not require primary medical or
surgical treatment.
(2) Admission - intensity and quality of service. All of
the following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for intensity and
quality of service.
(a) The therapeutic group home service has been prescribed
by a psychiatrist, psychologist, or other LMHP who has documented that a
residential setting is the least restrictive clinically appropriate service
that can meet the specifically identified treatment needs of the individual
(b) Therapeutic group home is not being used for clinically
inappropriate reasons, including: (i) an alternative to incarceration, and/or
preventative detention; (ii) an alternative to parents', guardian's or agency's
capacity to provide a place of residence for the individual; or, (iii) a
treatment intervention, when other less restrictive alternatives are available.
(c) The individual's treatment goals are included in the
service specific provider intake and include behaviorally defined objectives
that require, and can reasonably be achieved within, a therapeutic group home
setting.
(d) The therapeutic group home is required to coordinate
with the individual's community resources, including schools, with the goal of
transitioning the individual out of the program to a less restrictive care
setting for continued, sometimes intensive, services as soon as possible and
appropriate.
(e) The therapeutic group home program must incorporate
nationally established, evidence-based, trauma informed services and supports
that promote recovery and resiliency.
(f) Discharge planning begins upon admission, with concrete
plans for the individual to transition back into the community beginning within
the first week of admission, with clear action steps and target dates outlined
in the treatment plan.
(3) Continued stay criteria. The following criteria shall
be met in order to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
(a) All of the admission guidelines continue to be met and
this is supported by the written clinical documentation.
(b) The individual shall meet one of the following: (i) the
desired outcome or level of functioning has not been restored or improved in
the timeframe outlined in the individual's CIPOC or the individual continues to
be at risk for relapse based on history or (ii) the tenuous nature of the
functional gains and use of less intensive services will not achieve
stabilization.
(c) The individual shall meet one of the following: (i) the
individual has achieved initial CIPOC goals but additional goals are indicated
that cannot be met at a lower level of care; (ii) the individual is making
satisfactory progress toward meeting goals but has not attained CIPOC goals,
and the goals cannot be addressed at a lower level of care; (iii) the
individual is not making progress, and the CIPOC has been modified to identify
more effective interventions; or (iv) there are current indications that the
individual requires this level of treatment to maintain level of functioning as
evidenced by failure to achieve goals identified for therapeutic visits or
stays in a nontreatment residential setting or in a lower level of residential
treatment.
(d) There is a written, up-to-date discharge plan that (i)
identifies the custodial parent or custodial caregiver at discharge; (ii)
identifies the school the individual will attend at discharge; (iii) includes
individualized education program (IEP) recommendations, if necessary; (iv)
outlines the aftercare treatment plan (discharge to another residential LOC is
not an acceptable discharge goal); and (v) lists barriers to community
reintegration and progress made on resolving these barriers since last review.
(e) The active treatment plan includes structure for daily
activities, psychoeducation, and therapeutic supervision and activities to
ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the
treatment plan. In addition to the daily therapeutic residential services, the
child/adolescent must also receive psychotherapy services, care coordination,
family-based discharge planning, and locality-based transition activities.
Intensive family interventions, with a recommended frequency of one family
therapy session per week, although twice per month is minimally acceptable.
Family involvement begins immediately upon admission to therapeutic group home.
If the minimum requirement cannot be met, the reasons must be reported, and
continued efforts to involve family members must also be documented. Under
certain circumstances an alternate plan, aimed at enhancing the individual's
connections with other family members and/or supportive adults may be an
appropriate substitute.
(f) Less restrictive treatment options have been
considered, but cannot yet meet the individual's treatment needs. There is
sufficient current clinical documentation/evidence to show that therapeutic
group home LOC continues to be the least restrictive level of care that can
meet the individual's mental health treatment needs.
(4) Discharge criteria are as follows:
(a) Medicaid reimbursement is not available when other less
intensive services may achieve stabilization.
(b) Reimbursement shall not be made for this level of care
if any of the following applies: (i) the level of functioning has improved with
respect to the goals outlined in the CIPOC and the individual can reasonably be
expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment or (ii) the
individual no longer benefits from service as evidenced by absence of progress
toward CIPOC goals for a period of 60 days.
c. The following clinical interventions shall be required
for each therapeutic group home resident:
(1) Preadmission service-specific provider intake shall be
performed by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S.
(2) A face-to-face behavioral health assessment shall be
performed by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S within 30 days prior to
admission and shall document a DSM-5/ICD-10 diagnosis.
(3) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
independent certification team according to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-130
D 4. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 days by a LMHP, LMHP-R,
LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S acting within their scope of practice.
(4) An initial plan of care shall be completed on the day
of admission by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be signed by the
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual and a family member or
legally authorized representative. The initial plan of care shall include all
of the following:
(a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
strategies and treatment alliance;
(b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
(c) A description of the functional level of the
individual;
(d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
(e) Orders for medications, psychiatric, medical, dental,
and any special health care needs whether or not provided in the facilities,
treatments, restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies,
social services, community integration, diet, and special procedures
recommended for the health and safety of the individual;
(f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care; and
(g) Plans for discharge.
(5) The CIPOC shall be completed no later than 14 calendar
days after admission and shall meet all of the following criteria:
(a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the individual's situation and shall reflect the need
for therapeutic group home care;
(b) Be based on input from school, home, other health care
providers, the individual, and the family or legal guardian;
(c) Shall state treatment objectives that include
measurable short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
achievement;
(d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
to the diagnosis; and
(e) Include a comprehensive discharge plan with necessary,
clinically appropriate community services to ensure continuity of care upon
discharge with the child's family, school, and community.
(6) The CIPOC shall be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30
calendar days by the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a
family member or primary caregiver. Updates shall be signed and dated by the
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a family member or
legally authorized representative. The review shall include all of the
following:
(a) The individual's response to the services provided;
(b) Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
individual's overall response to the CIPOC interventions; and
(c) Determinations regarding whether the services being
provided continue to be required.
(7) Crisis management, clinical assessment, and
individualized therapy shall be provided as indicated in the IPOC and CIPOC to
address intermittent crises and challenges within the group home setting or
community settings as defined in the plan of care and to avoid a higher level
of care.
(8) Care coordination shall be provided with medical,
educational, and other behavioral health providers and other entities involved
in the care and discharge planning for the individual as included in the IPOC
and CIPOC.
(9) Weekly individual therapy shall be provided in the
therapeutic group home, or other settings as appropriate for the individual's
needs, by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which shall be documented in
progress notes in accordance with the requirements in 12VAC30-60-61.
(10) Weekly (or more frequently if clinically indicated)
group therapy shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which
shall be documented in progress notes in accordance with the requirements in
12VAC30-60-61 and as planned and documented in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(11) Family treatment shall be provided as clinically
indicated, provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which shall be
documented in progress notes in accordance with the requirements in
12VAC30-60-61 and as planned and documented in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(12) Family engagement activities shall be provided in
addition to family therapy/counseling. Family engagement activities shall be
provided at least weekly as outlined in the IPOC and CIPOC, and daily
communication with the family or legally authorized representative shall be
part of the family engagement strategies in the IPOC or CIPOC. For each
service authorization period when family engagement is not possible, the
therapeutic group home shall identify and document the specific barriers to the
individual's engagement with his family or legally authorized representatives.
The therapeutic group home shall document on a weekly basis the reasons why
family engagement is not occurring as required. The therapeutic group home
shall document alternative family engagement strategies to be used as part of
the interventions in the IPOC or CIPOC and request approval of the revised IPOC
or CIPOC by DMAS or its contractor. When family engagement is not possible, the
therapeutic group home shall collaborate with DMAS or its contractor on a
weekly basis to develop individualized family engagement strategies and
document the revised strategies in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(13) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
indicated and as paired with facility-based and community-based interventions
and combined treatment services to promote discharge planning, community
integration, and family engagement activities. Twenty-four therapeutic passes
shall be permitted per individual, per admission, without authorization as
approved by the treating LMHP and documented in the CIPOC. Additional
therapeutic leave passes shall require service authorization. Any unauthorized
therapeutic leave passes shall result in retraction for those days of service.
(14) Discharge planning. Beginning at admission and
continuing throughout the individual's stay at the therapeutic group home, the
family or guardian, the community services board (CSB), the family assessment
and planning team (FAPT) case manager, and either the managed care organization
(MCO) or BHSA care manager shall be involved in treatment planning and shall
identify the anticipated needs of the individual and family upon discharge and
available services in the community. Prior to discharge, the therapeutic group
home shall submit an active and viable discharge plan to the BHSA for review.
Once the BHSA approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin actively
collaborating with the family or legally authorized representative and the
treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The therapeutic
group home shall request permission from the parent or legally authorized
representative to share treatment information with these providers and shall
share information pursuant to a valid release. The therapeutic group home shall
request information from post-discharge providers to establish that the
planning of pending services and transition planning activities have begun,
shall establish that active transition planning has begun, shall establish that
the individual has been enrolled in school, and shall provide IEP recommendations
to the school if necessary. The therapeutic group home shall inform the BHSA of
all scheduled appointments within 30 days of discharge and shall notify the
BHSA within one business day of the individual's discharge date from the
therapeutic group home.
(2) Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
Services that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not
be reimbursed.
(3) (15) Room and board costs shall not be
reimbursed. Facilities that only provide independent living services or
nonclinical services that do not meet the requirements of this subsection
are not reimbursed eligible for reimbursement. DMAS shall
reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no more
than 16 beds.
(4) These residential (16) Therapeutic group home
services providers must shall be licensed by the Department
of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) under the Regulations
for Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
(5) Daily progress notes shall document that a minimum of
seven psychoeducational activities per week occurs. Psychoeducational
programming must include, but is not limited to, development or maintenance of
daily living skills, anger management, social skills, family living skills,
communication skills, and stress management. This service may be provided in a
program setting or a community-based group home.
(6) The individual must receive, at least weekly,
individual psychotherapy and, at least weekly, group psychotherapy that is
provided as part of the program.
(7) (17) Individuals shall be discharged from
this service when treatment goals are met or other less intensive
services may achieve stabilization.
(8) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. (18) Services that are based upon incomplete, missing, or
outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs CIPOCs shall
be denied reimbursement. Requirements for intakes and ISPs are set out in
12VAC30-60-61.
(9)These (19) Therapeutic group home services
may only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a
QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH qualified paraprofessional in mental
health.
(10) (20) The facility / or group
home shall coordinate necessary services and discharge planning with
other providers as medically and clinically necessary. Documentation of
this care coordination shall be maintained by the facility / or
group home in the individual's record. The documentation shall include who was
contacted, when the contact occurred, and what information was
transmitted, and recommended next steps.
(21) Failure to perform any of the items described in this
subsection shall result in a retraction of the per diem for each day of
noncompliance.
6. Inpatient psychiatric 3. Residential
treatment facility services shall are a 24-hour, supervised,
clinically and medically necessary out-of-home program designed to provide
necessary support and address mental health, behavioral, substance use,
cognitive, or other treatment needs of an individual younger than the age of 21
years in order to prevent or minimize the need for more intensive inpatient
treatment. Active treatment and comprehensive discharge planning shall begin
prior to admission. In order to be covered for individuals younger
than age 21 for medically necessary stays for the purpose of diagnosis and
treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders identified under EPSDT when
such services are rendered by: these services shall (i) meet
DMAS-approved psychiatric medical necessity criteria or be approved as an EPSDT
service based upon a diagnosis made by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S who
is practicing within the scope of his license and (ii) be reflected in provider
records and on the provider's claims for services by recognized diagnosis codes
that support and are consistent with the requested professional services.
a. A psychiatric hospital or an inpatient psychiatric
program in a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
Healthcare Organizations; or a psychiatric facility that is accredited by the
Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission
on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Accreditation of
Services for Families and Children or the Council on Quality and Leadership.
b. Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general
acute care hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be
subject to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and
12VAC30-60-25. Inpatient psychiatric admissions to residential treatment
facilities shall also be subject to the requirements of Part XIV
(12VAC30-130-850 et seq.) of Amount, Duration and Scope of Selected Services.
c. Inpatient psychiatric services are reimbursable only
when the treatment program is fully in compliance with 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart
D, as contained in 42 CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 441.152 through 441.156. Each
admission must be preauthorized and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements
for clinical necessity.
a. Residential treatment facility services shall be covered
for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral
disorders when such services are rendered by:
(1) A psychiatric hospital or an inpatient psychiatric
program in a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission; or a psychiatric
facility that is accredited by the Joint Commission, the Commission on
Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Accreditation of
Services for Families and Children, or the Council on Quality and Leadership.
Providers of residential treatment facility services shall be licensed by
DBHDS.
(2) Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general
acute care hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be
subject to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and
12VAC30-60-25. Inpatient psychiatric admissions to residential treatment
facilities shall also be subject to the requirements of 12VAC30-130 (Amount,
Duration and Scope of Selected Services).
(3) Residential treatment facility services are
reimbursable only when the treatment program is fully in compliance with (i)
the Code of Federal Regulations at 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, specifically 42
CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42 CFR 441.156 and (ii) the
Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 483 Subpart G. Each admission must
be preauthorized and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements for clinical
necessity.
b. Residential treatment facility services shall
include assessment and re-assessment; room and board; daily supervision;
combined treatment services; individual, family, and group therapy; residential
care coordination; interventions; general or special education; medical
treatment (including medication, coordination of necessary medical services,
and 24-hour onsite nursing); specialty services; and discharge planning that
meets the medical and clinical needs of the individual.
c. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a
psychiatric residential treatment facility. The following requirements for
severity of need and intensity and quality of service shall be met to satisfy
the medical necessity criteria for admission:
(1) Admission - severity of need. The following criteria
shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
(a) There is clinical evidence that the patient has a DSM-5
disorder that is amenable to active psychiatric treatment.
(b) There is a high degree of potential of the condition
leading to acute psychiatric hospitalization in the absence of residential
treatment.
(c) Either (i) there is clinical evidence that the
individual would be a risk to self or others if he were not in a residential
treatment program or (ii) as a result of the individual's mental disorder, there
is an inability to adequately care for one's physical needs, and
caretakers/guardians/family members are unable to safely fulfill these needs,
representing potential serious harm to self.
(d) The individual requires supervision seven days per
week, 24 hours per day to develop skills necessary for daily living; to assist
with planning and arranging access to a range of educational, therapeutic, and
aftercare services; and to develop the adaptive and functional behavior that
will allow him to live outside of a residential setting.
(e) The individual's current living environment does not
provide the support and access to therapeutic services needed.
(f) The individual is medically stable and does not require
the 24-hour medical or nursing monitoring or procedures provided in a hospital
level of care.
(2) Admission - intensity and quality of service. The
following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for intensity and
quality of service:
(a) The evaluation and assignment of a DSM-5 diagnosis must
result from a face-to-face psychiatric evaluation.
(b) The program provides supervision seven days per week,
24 hours per day to assist with the development of skills necessary for daily
living; to assist with planning and arranging access to a range of educational,
therapeutic, and aftercare services; and to assist with the development of the
adaptive and functional behavior that will allow the patient to live outside of
a residential setting.
(c) An individualized plan of active psychiatric treatment
and residential living support is provided in a timely manner. This treatment
must be medically monitored, with 24-hour medical availability and 24-hour
nursing services availability. This plan includes (i) at least once-a-week
psychiatric reassessments; (ii) intensive family and/or support system
involvement occurring at least once per week, or identifies valid reasons why
such a plan is not clinically appropriate or feasible; (iii) psychotropic
medications, when used, are to be used with specific target symptoms
identified; (iv) evaluation for current medical problems; (v) evaluation for
concomitant substance use issues; (vi) linkage and/or coordination with the
patient's community resources with the goal of returning the patient to his
regular social environment as soon as possible, unless contraindicated. School
contact should address an individualized educational plan as appropriate.
(d) A urine drug screen is considered at the time of
admission, when progress is not occurring, when substance misuse is suspected,
or when substance use and medications may have a potential adverse interaction.
After a positive screen, additional random screens are considered and referral
to a substance use disorder provider is considered.
(3) Criteria for continued stay. The following criteria
shall be met to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
(a) Despite reasonable therapeutic efforts, clinical
evidence indicates at least one of the following: (i) the persistence of
problems that caused the admission to a degree that continues to meet the
admission criteria (both severity of need and intensity of service needs); (ii)
the emergence of additional problems that meet the admission criteria (both
severity of need and intensity of service needs); (iii) that disposition planning
and/or attempts at therapeutic re-entry into the community have resulted in or
would result in exacerbation of the psychiatric illness to the degree that
would necessitate continued residential treatment. Subjective opinions without
objective clinical information or evidence are not sufficient to meet severity
of need based on justifying the expectation that there would be a
decompensation.
(b) There is evidence of objective, measurable, and
time-limited therapeutic clinical goals that must be met before the patient can
return to a new or previous living situation. There is evidence that attempts
are being made to secure timely access to treatment resources and housing in
anticipation of discharge, with alternative housing contingency plans also
being addressed.
(c) There is evidence that the treatment plan is focused on
the alleviation of psychiatric symptoms and precipitating psychosocial
stressors that are interfering with the patient's ability to return to a
less-intensive level of care.
(d) The current or revised treatment plan can be reasonably
expected to bring about significant improvement in the problems meeting the
criteria in subdivision 3 c (3) (a) of this subsection, and this is documented
in weekly progress notes written and signed by the provider.
(e) There is evidence of intensive family and/or support
system involvement occurring at least once per week, unless there is an
identified, valid reason why it is not clinically appropriate or feasible.
(f) A discharge plan is formulated that is directly linked
to the behaviors and/or symptoms that resulted in admission, and begins to
identify appropriate post-residential treatment resources.
(g) All applicable elements in admission-intensity and
quality of service criteria are applied as related to assessment and treatment
if clinically relevant and appropriate.
d. The following clinical activities shall be required
for each residential treatment facility resident:
(1) A face-to-face assessment shall be performed by an
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RS, or LMHP-S within 30 days prior to admission and weekly
thereafter and shall document a DSM-5/ICD-10 diagnosis.
(2) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
independent certification team according to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-130
D 4. Recertification shall occur at least every 30 days by a physician acting
within his scope of practice.
(3) The initial plan of care (IPOC) shall be completed
within 24 hours of admission by the treatment team. The initial plan of care
shall include:
(a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
strategies and treatment alliance;
(b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
(c) A description of the functional level of the
individual;
(d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
(e) Any orders for medications, psychiatric, medical,
dental, and any special health care needs, whether or not provided in the
facility, education or special education, treatments, interventions,
restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social
services, diet, and special procedures recommended for the health and safety of
the individual;
(f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care;
(g) Plans for discharge; and
(h) Signature and date by the individual, parent, or
legally authorized representative, a physician, and treatment team members.
(4) The CIPOC shall be completed no later than 14 calendar
days after admission by the treatment team. The residential treatment facility
shall request authorizations from families to release confidential information
to collect information from medical and behavioral health treatment providers,
schools, social services, court services, and other relevant parties. This
information shall be used when considering changes and updating the CIPOC. The
CIPOC shall meet all of the following criteria:
(a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
for residential treatment facility care;
(b) Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
and other personnel specified in this subdivision 3 d of this subsection who
are employed by or provide services to the individual in the facility in
consultation with the individual, family member, or legally authorized
representative, or appropriate others into whose care the individual will be
released after discharge;
(c) Shall state treatment objectives that shall include
measurable, evidence-based, short-term and long-term goals and objectives;
family engagement activities; and the design of community-based aftercare with target
dates for achievement;
(d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
interventions, activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment
objectives related to the individual and family treatment needs; and
(e) Describe comprehensive transition plans and
coordination of current care and post-discharge plans with related community
services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the recipient's
family, school, and community.
(5) The CIPOC shall be reviewed every 30 calendar days by the
team specified in this subdivision 3 d of this subsection to determine that
services being provided are or were required from a residential treatment
facility and to recommend changes in the plan as indicated by the individual's
overall adjustment during the time away from home. The CIPOC shall include the
signature and date from the individual, parent, or legally authorized
representative, a physician, and treatment team members.
(6) Individual therapy shall be provided three times
per week (or more frequently based upon the individual's needs) provided by an
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the IPOC, CIPOC,
and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this subsection.
(7) Group therapy shall be provided as clinically indicated
by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the IPOC,
CIPOC, and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this
subsection.
(8) Family therapy shall be provided as clinically
indicated by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the
IPOC, CIPOC, and progress notes in accordance with the individual and family or
legally authorized representative's goals and the requirements in this
subsection.
(9) Family engagement shall be provided in addition to
family therapy/counseling. Family engagement shall be provided at least weekly
as outlined in the IPOC and CIPOC, and daily communication with the family or
legally authorized representative shall be part of the family engagement
strategies in the IPOC and CIPOC. For each service authorization period
when family engagement is not possible, the psychiatric residential treatment
facility shall identify and document the specific barriers to the individual's
engagement with his family or legally authorized representatives. The
psychiatric residential treatment facility shall document on a weekly basis,
the reasons that family engagement is not occurring as required. The
psychiatric residential treatment facility shall document alternate family
engagement strategies to be used as part of the interventions in the IPOC or
CIPOC and request approval of the revised IPOC or CIPOC by DMAS or its
contractor. When family engagement is not possible, the psychiatric residential
treatment facility shall collaborate with DMAS or its contractor on a weekly
basis to develop individualized family engagement strategies and document the
revised strategies in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(10) Three interventions shall be provided per 24-hour
period including nights and weekends. Family engagement activities are
considered to be an intervention and shall occur based on the treatment and
visitation goals and scheduling needs of the family or legally authorized
representative. Interventions shall be documented on a progress note and shall
be outlined in and aligned with the treatment goals and objectives in the IPOC
and CIPOC. Any deviation from the IPOC or CIPOC shall be documented along with
a clinical or medical justification for the deviation based on the needs of the
individual.
(11) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
indicated and as paired with community and facility-based interventions and
combined treatment services to promote discharge planning, community
integration, and family engagement. Twenty-four therapeutic passes shall be
permitted per individual, per admission, without authorization as approved by
the treating physician and documented in the CIPOC. Additional therapeutic
leave passes shall require service authorization. Any unauthorized therapeutic
leave passes shall result in retraction for those days of service.
(12) Discharge planning. Beginning at admission and
continuing throughout the individual's placement at the residential treatment
facility, the parent or legally authorized representative, the community
services board (CSB), the family assessment planning team (FAPT) case manager,
if appropriate, and either the managed care organization (MCO) or BHSA care
manager shall be involved in treatment planning and shall identify the
anticipated needs of the individual and family upon discharge and identify the
available services in the community. Prior to discharge, the residential
treatment facility shall submit an active discharge plan to the BHSA for
review. Once the BHSA approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin
collaborating with the parent or legally authorized representative and the
treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The residential
treatment facility shall request written permission from the parent or legally
authorized representative to share treatment information with these providers
and shall share information pursuant to a valid release. The residential
treatment facility shall request information from post-discharge providers to
establish that the planning of services and activities has begun, shall
establish that the individual has been enrolled in school, and shall provide
individualized education program (IEP) recommendations to the school if
necessary. The residential treatment facility shall inform the BHSA of all
scheduled appointments within 30 calendar days of discharge and shall notify
the BHSA within one business day of the individual's discharge date from the
residential treatment facility.
(13) Failure to perform any of the items as described in
subdivisions 3 d (1) through 3 d (12) of this subsection up until the discharge
of the individual shall result in a retraction of the per diem and all other
contracted and coordinated service payments for each day of noncompliance.
e. The team developing the CIPOC shall meet the following
requirements:
(1) At least one member of the team must have expertise in
pediatric behavioral health. Based on education and experience, preferably
including competence in child/adolescent psychiatry, the team must be capable
of all of the following: assessing the individual's immediate and long-range
therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths and
liabilities; assessing the potential resources of the individual's family or
legally authorized representative; setting treatment objectives; and
prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the plan's objectives.
(2) The team shall include either:
(a) A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist;
(b) A licensed clinical psychologist and a physician
licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or
(c) A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
mental diseases and a licensed clinical psychologist.
(3) The team shall also include one of the
following: an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
4. Requirements applicable to both therapeutic group homes
and residential treatment facilities: independent certification teams.
a. The independent certification team shall certify the
need for residential treatment or therapeutic group home services and issue a
certificate of need document within the process and timeliness standards as approved
by DMAS under contractual agreement with the BHSA.
b. The independent certification team shall be approved by
DMAS through a memorandum of understanding with a locality or be approved under
contractual agreement with the BHSA. The team shall initiate and coordinate
referral to the family assessment and planning team (FAPT) as defined in §§
2.2-5207 and 2.2-5208 of the Code of Virginia to facilitate care coordination
and for consideration of educational coverage and other supports not covered by
DMAS.
c. The independent certification team shall assess the
individual's and family's strengths and needs in addition to diagnoses,
behaviors, and symptoms that indicate the need for behavioral health treatment
and also consider whether local resources and community-based care are
sufficient to meet the individual's treatment needs, as presented within the
previous 30 calendar days, within the least restrictive environment.
d. The LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP, as
part of the independent certification team, shall meet with an individual and
his parent or legally authorized representative within two business days from a
request to assess the individual's needs and begin the process to certify the
need for an out-of-home placement.
e. The independent certification team shall meet with an
individual and his parent or legally authorized representative within 10
business days from a request to certify the need for an out-of-home placement.
f. The independent certification team shall assess the treatment
needs of the individual to issue a certificate of need (CON) for the most
appropriate medically-necessary services. The certification shall include the
dated signature and credentials for each of the team members who rendered the
certification. Referring or treatment providers shall not actively participate
during the certification process but may provide supporting clinical
documentation to the certification team.
g. The CON shall be effective for 30 calendar days prior to
admission.
h. The independent certification team shall provide the
completed CON to the facility within one calendar day of completing the CON.
i. The individual and his parent or legally authorized
representative shall have the right to freedom of choice of service providers.
j. If the individual or his parent or legally authorized
representative disagrees with the independent certification team's
recommendation, the parent or legally authorized representative may appeal the
recommendation in accordance with 12VAC30-110-10.
k. If the LMHP, as part of the independent certification
team, determines that the individual is in immediate need of treatment, the
LMHP shall refer the individual to an appropriate Medicaid-enrolled emergency
services provider in accordance with 12VAC30-50-226 or shall refer the
individual for emergency admission to a residential treatment facility or
therapeutic group home under subdivision 4 m of this subsection, and shall also
alert the individual's managed care organization.
l. For individuals who are already eligible for Medicaid at
the time of admission, the independent certification team shall be a
DMAS-authorized contractor with competence in the diagnosis and treatment of
mental illness, preferably in child psychiatry, and have knowledge of the individual's
situation and service availability in the individual's local service area. The
team shall be composed of at least one physician and one LMHP, including
LMHP-S, LMHP-R, and LMHP-RP. An individual's parent or legally authorized
representative shall be included in the certification process.
m. For emergency admissions, an assessment must be made by
the team responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
Reimbursement shall only occur when a certificate of need is issued by the team
responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care within 14 days after
admission. The certification shall cover any period of time after admission and
before for which claims are made for reimbursement by Medicaid. After
processing an emergency admission the residential treatment facility or
institution for mental diseases (IMD) shall notify the BHSA of the individual's
status as being under the care of the facility within five days.
n. For all individuals who apply and become eligible for
Medicaid while an inpatient in a facility or program, the certification team
shall refer the case to the DMAS-contracted BHSA for referral to the local FAPT
to facilitate care coordination and consideration of educational coverage and
other supports not covered by DMAS.
o. For individuals who apply and become eligible for
Medicaid while an inpatient in the facility or program, the certification shall
be made by the team responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care
and shall cover any period of time before the application for Medicaid
eligibility for which claims are made for reimbursement by Medicaid. Upon the
individual's enrollment into the Medicaid program, the residential treatment
facility or IMD shall notify the BHSA of the individual's status as being under
the care of the facility within five days of the individual becoming eligible
for Medicaid benefits.
5. Requirements applicable to both therapeutic group homes
and residential treatment facilities - service authorization.
a. Authorization shall be required and shall be conducted
by DMAS, its behavioral health services administrator, or its utilization
management contractor using medical necessity criteria specified in this
subsection.
b. An individual shall have a valid psychiatric diagnosis
and meet the medical necessity criteria as defined in this subsection to
satisfy the criteria for admission. The diagnosis shall be current, as
documented within the past 12 months. If a current diagnosis is not available,
the individual will require a mental health evaluation by an LMHP employed or
contracted with the independent certification team to establish a diagnosis,
and recommend and coordinate referral to the available treatment options.
c. At authorization, an initial length of stay shall be agreed
upon by the individual and parent or legally authorized representative with the
treating provider, and the treating provider shall be responsible for
evaluating and documenting evidence of treatment progress, assessing the need
for ongoing out-of-home placement, and obtaining authorization for continued
stay.
d. Information that is required to obtain authorization for
these services shall include:
(1) A completed state-designated uniform assessment
instrument approved by DMAS;
(2) A certificate of need completed by an independent
certification team specifying all of the following:
(a) The ambulatory care and Medicaid or FAPT-funded
services available in the community do not meet the specific treatment needs of
the individual;
(b) Alternative community-based care was not successful;
(c) Proper treatment of the individual's psychiatric
condition requires services in a 24-hour supervised setting under the direction
of a physician; and
(d) The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
individual's condition or prevent further regression so that a more intensive
level of care will not be needed;
(3) Diagnosis as defined in the DSM-5 and based on (i) an
evaluation by a psychiatrist or LMHP that has been completed within 30 days of
admission or (ii) a diagnosis confirmed in writing by an LMHP after review of a
previous evaluation completed within one year of admission;
(4) A description of the individual's behavior during the
seven days immediately prior to admission;
(5) A description of alternate placements and community
mental health and rehabilitation services and traditional behavioral health
services pursued and attempted and the outcomes of each service.
(6) The individual's level of functioning and clinical
stability.
(7) The level of family involvement and supports available.
(8) The initial plan of care (IPOC).
6. Requirements applicable to both therapeutic group homes
and residential treatment facilities - continued stay criteria. For a continued
stay authorization or a reauthorization to occur, the individual shall meet the
medical necessity criteria as defined in this subsection to satisfy the
criteria for continuing care. The length of the authorized stay shall be
determined by DMAS, the behavioral health services administrator, or the utilization
management contractor. A current CIPOC and a current (within 30 days) summary
of progress related to the goals and objectives of the CIPOC shall be submitted
to DMAS, the behavioral health services administrator, or the utilization
management contractor for continuation of the service. The service provider
shall also submit:
a. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
than 30 business days prior to the date of submission;
b. Documentation that the required services have been provided
as defined in the CIPOC;
c. Current (within the last 14 days) information on
progress related to the achievement of all treatment and discharge-related
goals; and
d. A description of the individual's continued impairment
and treatment needs, problem behaviors, family engagement activities,
community-based discharge planning and care coordination, and need for a
residential level of care.
7. Requirements applicable to therapeutic group homes and
residential treatment facilities - EPSDT services. EPSDT services may involve
service modalities not available to other individuals, such as applied
behavioral analysis and neuro-rehabilitative services. Individualized services
to address specific clinical needs identified in an EPSDT screening shall
require authorization by DMAS, a DMAS contractor, or the BHSA. In unique EPSDT
cases, DMAS, the DMAS contractor, or the BHSA may authorize specialized
services beyond the standard therapeutic group home or residential treatment
medical necessity criteria and program requirements, as medically and
clinically indicated to ensure the most appropriate treatment is available to
each individual. Treating service providers authorized to deliver medically
necessary EPSDT services in inpatient settings, therapeutic group homes, and
residential treatment facilities on behalf of a Medicaid-enrolled individual
shall adhere to the individualized interventions and evidence-based progress
measurement criteria described in the CIPOC and approved for reimbursement by
DMAS, the DMAS contractor, or the BHSA. All documentation, independent
certification team, family engagement activity, therapeutic pass, and discharge
planning requirements shall apply to cases approved as EPSDT inpatient,
residential treatment, or therapeutic group home service.
7. 8. Hearing aids shall be reimbursed for
individuals younger than 21 years of age according to medical necessity when
provided by practitioners licensed to engage in the practice of fitting or
dealing in hearing aids under the Code of Virginia.
C. E. School health services.
1. School health assistant services are repealed effective
July 1, 2006.
2. School divisions may provide routine well-child screening
services under the State Plan. Diagnostic and treatment services that are
otherwise covered under early and periodic screening, diagnosis and treatment
services, shall not be covered for school divisions. School divisions to
receive reimbursement for the screenings shall be enrolled with DMAS as clinic
providers.
a. Children enrolled in managed care organizations shall
receive screenings from those organizations. School divisions shall not receive
reimbursement for screenings from DMAS for these children.
b. School-based services are listed in a recipient's
individualized education program (IEP) and covered under one or more of the
service categories described in § 1905(a) of the Social Security Act. These
services are necessary to correct or ameliorate defects of physical or mental
illnesses or conditions.
3. Service providers shall be licensed under the applicable
state practice act or comparable licensing criteria by the Virginia Department
of Education, and shall meet applicable qualifications under 42 CFR Part 440.
Identification of defects, illnesses or conditions and services necessary to
correct or ameliorate them shall be performed by practitioners qualified to
make those determinations within their licensed scope of practice, either as a
member of the IEP team or by a qualified practitioner outside the IEP team.
a. Service providers shall be employed by the school division
or under contract to the school division.
b. Supervision of services by providers recognized in
subdivision 4 of this subsection shall occur as allowed under federal
regulations and consistent with Virginia law, regulations, and DMAS provider
manuals.
c. The services described in subdivision 4 of this subsection
shall be delivered by school providers, but may also be available in the community
from other providers.
d. Services in this subsection are subject to utilization
control as provided under 42 CFR Parts 455 and 456.
e. The IEP shall determine whether or not the services
described in subdivision 4 of this subsection are medically necessary and that
the treatment prescribed is in accordance with standards of medical practice.
Medical necessity is defined as services ordered by IEP providers. The IEP
providers are qualified Medicaid providers to make the medical necessity
determination in accordance with their scope of practice. The services must be
described as to the amount, duration and scope.
4. Covered services include:
a. Physical therapy, occupational therapy and services for
individuals with speech, hearing, and language disorders, performed by, or
under the direction of, providers who meet the qualifications set forth at 42
CFR 440.110. This coverage includes audiology services.
b. Skilled nursing services are covered under 42 CFR 440.60.
These services are to be rendered in accordance to the licensing standards and
criteria of the Virginia Board of Nursing. Nursing services are to be provided
by licensed registered nurses or licensed practical nurses but may be delegated
by licensed registered nurses in accordance with the regulations of the
Virginia Board of Nursing, especially the section on delegation of nursing
tasks and procedures. The licensed practical nurse is under the supervision of
a registered nurse.
(1) The coverage of skilled nursing services shall be of a
level of complexity and sophistication (based on assessment, planning,
implementation and evaluation) that is consistent with skilled nursing services
when performed by a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse.
These skilled nursing services shall include, but not necessarily be limited to
dressing changes, maintaining patent airways, medication
administration/monitoring and urinary catheterizations.
(2) Skilled nursing services shall be directly and
specifically related to an active, written plan of care developed by a
registered nurse that is based on a written order from a physician, physician
assistant or nurse practitioner for skilled nursing services. This order shall
be recertified on an annual basis.
c. Psychiatric and psychological services performed by
licensed practitioners within the scope of practice are defined under state law
or regulations and covered as physicians' services under 42 CFR 440.50 or
medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR 440.60. These outpatient services
include individual medical psychotherapy, group medical psychotherapy coverage,
and family medical psychotherapy. Psychological and neuropsychological testing
are allowed when done for purposes other than educational diagnosis, school
admission, evaluation of an individual with intellectual or developmental
disability prior to admission to a nursing facility, or any placement issue.
These services are covered in the nonschool settings also. School providers who
may render these services when licensed by the state include psychiatrists,
licensed clinical psychologists, school psychologists, licensed clinical social
workers, professional counselors, psychiatric clinical nurse specialist,
marriage and family therapists, and school social workers.
d. Personal care services are covered under 42 CFR
440.167 and performed by persons qualified under this subsection. The personal
care assistant is supervised by a DMAS recognized school-based health
professional who is acting within the scope of licensure. This practitioner develops
a written plan for meeting the needs of the child, which is implemented by the
assistant. The assistant must have qualifications comparable to those for other
personal care aides recognized by the Virginia Department of Medical Assistance
Services. The assistant performs services such as assisting with toileting,
ambulation, and eating. The assistant may serve as an aide on a specially
adapted school vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or
school contracted provider on days when the student is receiving a
Medicaid-covered service under the IEP. Children requiring an aide during
transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the
IEP.
e. Medical evaluation services are covered as physicians'
services under 42 CFR 440.50 or as medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR
440.60. Persons performing these services shall be licensed physicians,
physician assistants, or nurse practitioners. These practitioners shall
identify the nature or extent of a child's medical or other health related
condition.
f. Transportation is covered as allowed under 42 CFR
431.53 and described at State Plan Attachment 3.1-D. Transportation shall be
rendered only by school division personnel or contractors. Transportation is
covered for a child who requires transportation on a specially adapted school
vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or school contracted
provider on days when the student is receiving a Medicaid-covered service under
the IEP. Transportation shall be listed in the child's IEP. Children requiring
an aide during transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this
stated in the IEP.
g. Assessments are covered as necessary to assess or reassess
the need for medical services in a child's IEP and shall be performed by any of
the above licensed practitioners within the scope of practice. Assessments and
reassessments not tied to medical needs of the child shall not be covered.
5. DMAS will ensure through quality management review that
duplication of services will be monitored. School divisions have a
responsibility to ensure that if a child is receiving additional therapy
outside of the school, that there will be coordination of services to avoid
duplication of service.
D. F. Family planning services and supplies for
individuals of child-bearing age.
1. Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
performed within the scope of the license of a practitioner of the healing
arts.
2. Family planning services shall be defined as those services
that delay or prevent pregnancy. Coverage of such services shall not include
services to treat infertility nor services to promote fertility.
12VAC30-60-5. Applicability of utilization review requirements.
A. These utilization requirements shall apply to all Medicaid
covered services unless otherwise specified.
B. Some Medicaid covered services require an approved service
authorization prior to service delivery in order for reimbursement to occur.
1. To obtain service authorization, all providers' information
supplied to the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS), service
authorization contractor, or the behavioral health service authorization
contractor shall be fully substantiated throughout individuals' medical
records.
2. Providers shall be required to maintain documentation
detailing all relevant information about the Medicaid individuals who are in
providers' care. Such documentation shall fully disclose the extent of services
provided in order to support providers' claims for reimbursement for services
rendered. This documentation shall be written, signed, and dated at the time
the services are rendered unless specified otherwise.
C. DMAS, or its designee, shall perform reviews of the
utilization of all Medicaid covered services pursuant to 42 CFR 440.260
and 42 CFR Part 456.
D. DMAS shall recover expenditures made for covered services
when providers' documentation does not comport with standards specified in all
applicable regulations.
E. Providers who are determined not to be in compliance with
DMAS requirements shall be subject to 12VAC30-80-130 for the repayment of those
overpayments to DMAS.
F. Utilization review requirements specific to community
mental health services, as set out in 12VAC30-50-130 and 12VAC30-50-226, shall be
as follows:
1. To apply to be reimbursed as a Medicaid provider, the
required Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS)
license shall be either a full, annual, triennial, or conditional license.
Providers must be enrolled with DMAS or the BHSA behavioral health
services administrator (BHSA) to be reimbursed. Once a health care entity
has been enrolled as a provider, it shall maintain, and update periodically as
DMAS requires, a current Provider Enrollment Agreement for each Medicaid
service that the provider offers.
2. Health care entities with provisional licenses shall not be
reimbursed as Medicaid providers of community mental health services.
3. Payments shall not be permitted to health care entities
that either hold provisional licenses or fail to enter into a Medicaid Provider
Enrollment Agreement including a BHSA contract for a service prior to
rendering that service.
4. The DMAS-contracted behavioral health service
authorization contractor services administrator shall apply a
national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry,
such as McKesson InterQual Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized
in advance by DMAS. Services that fail to meet medical necessity criteria shall
be denied service authorization.
5. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement for services
provided by staff in residency, the following terms shall be used after their
signatures to indicate such status:
a. LMHP-Rs shall use the term "Resident" after
their signatures.
b. LMHP-RPs shall use the term "Resident in
Psychology" after their signatures.
c. LMHP-Ss shall use the term "Supervisee in Social
Work" after their signatures.
12VAC30-60-50. Utilization control: Intermediate Care
Facilities care facilities for the Mentally Retarded (ICF/MR)
persons with intellectual and developmental disabilities and Institutions
institutions for Mental Disease mental disease (IMD).
A. "Institution for mental disease" or
"IMD" means the same as that term is defined in the Social Security
Act, § 1905(i).
A. B. With respect to each Medicaid-eligible
resident in an ICF/MR intermediate care facility for persons with
intellectual and developmental disabilities (ICF/ID) or IMD in Virginia, a
written plan of care must be developed prior to admission to or authorization
of benefits in such facility, and a regular program of independent professional
review (including a medical evaluation) shall be completed periodically for
such services. The purpose of the review is to determine: the adequacy of the services
available to meet his current health needs and promote his maximum physical
well being; the necessity and desirability of his continued placement in the
facility; and the feasibility of meeting his health care needs through
alternative institutional or noninstitutional services. Long-term care of
residents in such facilities will be provided in accordance with federal law
that is based on the resident's medical and social needs and requirements.
B. C. With respect to each ICF/MR ICF/ID
or IMD, periodic on-site onsite inspections of the care being
provided to each person receiving medical assistance, by one or more
independent professional review teams (composed of a physician or registered
nurse and other appropriate health and social service personnel), shall be
conducted. The review shall include, with respect to each recipient, a
determination of the adequacy of the services available to meet his current
health needs and promote his maximum physical well-being, the necessity and
desirability of continued placement in the facility, and the feasibility of
meeting his health care needs through alternative institutional or
noninstitutional services. Full reports shall be made to the state agency by
the review team of the findings of each inspection, together with any
recommendations.
C. D. In order for reimbursement to be made to
a facility for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
developmental disabilities, the resident must meet criteria for placement
in such facility as described in 12VAC30-60-360 and the facility must provide
active treatment for mental retardation intellectual or developmental
disabilities.
D. E. In each case for which payment for
nursing facility services for the mentally retarded persons with
intellectual or developmental disabilities or institution for mental
disease services is made under the State Plan:
1. A physician must certify for each applicant or recipient
that inpatient care is needed in a facility for the mentally retarded or an
institution for mental disease. A certificate of need shall be completed
by an independent certification team according to the requirements of
12VAC30-50-130 D 5. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 days by a
physician, or by a physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within
their scope of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a
physician. The certification must be made at the time of admission or, if
an individual applies for assistance while in the facility, before the Medicaid
agency authorizes payment; and
2. A physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner
acting within the scope of the practice as defined by state law and under the
supervision of a physician, must recertify for each applicant at least every 365
60 days that services are needed in a facility for the mentally
retarded persons with intellectual disability or institution for
mental disease.
E. F. When a resident no longer meets criteria
for facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual or
developmental disabilities, or an institution for mental disease or no
longer requires active treatment in a facility for the mentally retarded
persons with intellectual or developmental disabilities, then the
resident must shall be discharged.
F. G. All services provided in an IMD and in
an ICF/MR ICF/ID shall be provided in accordance with guidelines
found in the Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual.
H. All services provided in an IMD shall be provided with
the applicable provider agreement and all documents referenced therein.
I. Psychiatric services in IMDs shall only be covered for
eligible individuals younger than 21 years of age.
J. IMD services provided without service authorization
shall not be covered.
K. Absence of any of the required IMD documentation shall
result in denial or retraction of reimbursement.
L. In each case for which payment for IMD services is made
under the State Plan:
1. A physician shall certify at the time of admission, or
at the time the IMD is notified of an individuals' retroactive eligibility
status, that the individual requires or required inpatient services in an IMD
consistent with 42 CFR 456.160.
2. The physician or physician assistant or nurse
practitioner acting within the scope of practice as defined by state law and
under the supervision of a physician, shall recertify at least every 60 days
that the individual continues to require inpatient services in an IMD.
3. Before admission to an IMD or before authorization
for payment, the attending physician or staff physician shall perform a medical
evaluation of the individual, and appropriate personnel shall complete a
psychiatric and social evaluation as described in 42 CFR 456.170.
4. Before admission to a residential treatment facility or
before authorization for payment, the attending physician or staff physician
shall establish a written plan of care for each individual as described in 42
CFR 441.155 and 42 CFR 456.180.
M. It shall be documented that the individual requiring
admission to an IMD is younger than 21 years of age, that treatment is
medically necessary, and that the necessity was identified as a result of an
independent certification of need team review. Required documentation shall
include the following:
1. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition 2013, American Psychiatric
Association, and based on an evaluation by a psychiatrist completed within 30
days of admission or if the diagnosis is confirmed, in writing, by a previous
evaluation completed within one year within admission.
2. A certification of the need for services as defined in
42 CFR 441.152 by an interdisciplinary team meeting the requirements of 42
CFR 441.153 or 42 CFR 441.156 and the Psychiatric Treatment of Minors Act (§
16.1-335 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
N. The use of seclusion and restraint in an IMD shall be
in accordance with 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376. Each use of a
seclusion or restraint, as defined in 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376,
shall be reported by the service provider to DMAS or the BHSA within one
calendar day of the incident.
12VAC30-60-61. Services related to the Early and Periodic
Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment Program (EPSDT); community mental health
services for children.
A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
this section shall have the following meanings unless the context indicates
otherwise:
"At risk" means one or more of the following: (i)
within the two weeks before the intake, the individual shall be screened by an
LMHP for escalating behaviors that have put either the individual or others at
immediate risk of physical injury; (ii) the parent/guardian is unable to manage
the individual's mental, behavioral, or emotional problems in the home and is
actively, within the past two to four weeks, seeking an out-of-home placement;
(iii) a representative of either a juvenile justice agency, a department of
social services (either the state agency or local agency), a community services
board/behavioral health authority, the Department of Education, or an LMHP, as
defined in 12VAC35-105-20, and who is neither an employee of nor consultant to
the intensive in-home (IIH) services or therapeutic day treatment (TDT)
provider, has recommended an out-of-home placement absent an immediate change
of behaviors and when unsuccessful mental health services are evident; (iv) the
individual has a history of unsuccessful services (either crisis intervention,
crisis stabilization, outpatient psychotherapy, outpatient substance abuse
services, or mental health support) within the past 30 days; (v) the treatment
team or family assessment planning team (FAPT) recommends IIH services or TDT
for an individual currently who is either: (a) transitioning out of residential
treatment facility Level C services, (b) transitioning out of a therapeutic
group home Level A or B services, (c) transitioning out of acute
psychiatric hospitalization, or (d) transitioning between foster homes, mental
health case management, crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, outpatient
psychotherapy, or outpatient substance abuse services.
"Clinical experience" means providing direct
behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
in-home services, (ii) therapeutic day treatment for children and adolescents,
and (iii) therapeutic group homes. Experience shall not include unsupervised
internships, unsupervised practicums, or unsupervised field experience. The
equivalency of part-time hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this
requirement shall be as established by DBHDS in the document entitled
"Human Services and Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience"
issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Failed services" or "unsuccessful
services" means, as measured by ongoing behavioral, mental, or physical
distress, that the service or services did not treat or resolve the
individual's mental health or behavioral issues.
"Individual" means the Medicaid-eligible person
receiving these services and for the purpose of this section includes children
from birth up to 12 years of age or adolescents ages 12 through 20 years.
"New service" means a community mental health
rehabilitation service for which the individual does not have a current service
authorization in effect as of July 17, 2011.
"Out-of-home placement" means placement in one or
more of the following: (i) either a Level A or Level B therapeutic
group home; (ii) regular foster home if the individual is currently residing
with his biological family and, due to his behavior problems, is at risk of
being placed in the custody of the local department of social services; (iii)
treatment foster care if the individual is currently residing with his
biological family or a regular foster care family and, due to the individual's
behavioral problems, is at risk of removal to a higher level of care; (iv) Level
C residential treatment facility; (v) emergency shelter for the
individual only due either to his mental health or behavior or both; (vi)
psychiatric hospitalization; or (vii) juvenile justice system or incarceration.
"Progress notes" means individual-specific
documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
the notes. Individualized and individual-specific progress notes are part of
the minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's
status, staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress or
lack of progress toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes
shall also include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of
the service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered
the service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of
time or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each
progress note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be
documented for each service that is billed.
"Service-specific provider intake" means the
evaluation that is conducted according to the Department of Medical Assistance
Services (DMAS) intake definition set out in 12VAC30-50-130.
B. The services described in this section shall be rendered
consistent with the definitions, service limits, and requirements described in
this section and in 12VAC30-50-130.
C. Intensive in-home (IIH) services for children and
adolescents.
1. The service definition for intensive in-home (IIH) services
is contained in 12VAC30-50-130.
2. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral or emotional
illness which results in significant functional impairments in major life
activities. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria on a
continuing or intermittent basis to be authorized for these services:
a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
community.
b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
repeated interventions by the mental health, social services or judicial system
are or have been necessary.
c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
social behavior.
3. Prior to admission, an appropriate service-specific
provider intake, as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, shall be conducted by the
licensed mental health professional (LMHP), LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or
LMHP-RP, documenting the individual's diagnosis and describing how service
needs can best be met through intervention provided typically but not solely in
the individual's residence. The service-specific provider intake shall describe
how the individual's clinical needs put the individual at risk of out-of-home
placement and shall be conducted face-to-face in the individual's residence.
Claims for services that are based upon service-specific provider intakes that
are incomplete, outdated (more than 12 months old), or missing shall not be
reimbursed.
4. An individual service plan (ISP) shall be fully completed,
signed, and dated by either an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a
QMHP-C, or a QMHP-E and the individual and individual's parent/guardian within
30 days of initiation of services. The ISP shall meet all of the requirements
as defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
5. DMAS shall not reimburse for dates of services in which the
progress notes are not individualized and child-specific. Duplicated progress
notes shall not constitute the required child-specific individualized progress
notes. Each progress note shall demonstrate unique differences particular to
the individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress. Claim payments shall
be retracted for services that are supported by documentation that does not
demonstrate unique differences particular to the individual.
6. Services shall be directed toward the treatment of the
eligible individual and delivered primarily in the family's residence with the
individual present. As clinically indicated, the services may be rendered
in the community if there is documentation, on that date of service, of the
necessity of providing services in the community. The documentation shall
describe how the alternative community service location supports the identified
clinical needs of the individual and describe how it facilitates the
implementation of the ISP. For services provided outside of the home, there
shall be documentation reflecting therapeutic treatment as set forth in the ISP
provided for that date of service in the appropriately signed and dated
progress notes.
7. These services shall be provided when the clinical needs of
the individual put him at risk for out-of-home placement, as these terms are
defined in this section:
a. When services that are far more intensive than outpatient
clinic care are required to stabilize the individual in the family situation,
or
b. When the individual's residence as the setting for services
is more likely to be successful than a clinic.
The service-specific provider intake shall describe how the
individual meets either subdivision a or b of this subdivision.
8. Services shall not be provided if the individual is no
longer a resident of the home.
9. Services shall also be used to facilitate the transition to
home from an out-of-home placement when services more intensive than outpatient
clinic care are required for the transition to be successful. The individual
and responsible parent/guardian shall be available and in agreement to
participate in the transition.
10. At least one parent/legal guardian or responsible adult
with whom the individual is living must be willing to participate in the
intensive in-home services with the goal of keeping the individual with the
family. In the instance of this service, a responsible adult shall be an adult
who lives in the same household with the child and is responsible for engaging
in therapy and service-related activities to benefit the individual.
11. The enrolled service provider shall be licensed by the Department
of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) as a provider of
intensive in-home services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment
agreement with DMAS or its contractor in effect prior to the delivery of this
service that indicates that the provider will offer intensive in-home services.
12. Services must only be provided by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E. Reimbursement shall
not be provided for such services when they have been rendered by a QPPMH as
defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
13. The billing unit for intensive in-home service shall be
one hour. Although the pattern of service delivery may vary, intensive in-home
services is an intensive service provided to individuals for whom there is an ISP
in effect which demonstrates the need for a minimum of three hours a week of
intensive in-home service, and includes a plan for service provision of a
minimum of three hours of service delivery per individual/family per week in
the initial phase of treatment. It is expected that the pattern of service
provision may show more intensive services and more frequent contact with the
individual and family initially with a lessening or tapering off of intensity
toward the latter weeks of service. Service plans shall incorporate an
individualized discharge plan that describes transition from intensive in-home
to less intensive or nonhome based services.
14. The ISP, as defined in 12VAC30-50-226, shall be updated as
the individual's needs and progress changes and signed by either the parent or
legal guardian and the individual. Documentation shall be provided if the
individual, who is a minor child, is unable or unwilling to sign the ISP. If
there is a lapse in services that is greater than 31 consecutive calendar days
without any communications from family members/legal guardian or the individual
with the service provider, the provider shall discharge the individual. If the
individual continues to need services, then a new intake/admission shall be
documented and a new service authorization shall be required.
15. The provider shall ensure that the maximum
staff-to-caseload ratio fully meets the needs of the individual.
16. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430,
the service provider shall contact the case manager and provide
notification of the provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send
monthly updates to the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge
summary shall be sent to the case manager within 30 days of the service
discontinuation date. Service providers and case managers who are using the
same electronic health record for the individual shall meet requirements for
delivery of the notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry
of the information in the electronic health records.
17. Emergency assistance shall be available 24 hours per day,
seven days a week.
18. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements at
12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines violate these marketing
requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
12VAC30-130-2000 E.
19. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or guardian, shall
inform him of the individual's receipt of IIH services. The documentation shall
include who was contacted, when the contact occurred, and what information was
transmitted.
D. Therapeutic day treatment for children and adolescents.
1. The service definition for therapeutic day treatment (TDT)
for children and adolescents is contained in 12VAC30-50-130.
2. Therapeutic day treatment is appropriate for children and
adolescents who meet one of the following:
a. Children and adolescents who require year-round treatment
in order to sustain behavior or emotional gains.
b. Children and adolescents whose behavior and emotional
problems are so severe they cannot be handled in self-contained or resource
emotionally disturbed (ED) classrooms without:
(1) This programming during the school day; or
(2) This programming to supplement the school day or school
year.
c. Children and adolescents who would otherwise be placed on
homebound instruction because of severe emotional/behavior problems that
interfere with learning.
d. Children and adolescents who (i) have deficits in social
skills, peer relations or dealing with authority; (ii) are hyperactive; (iii)
have poor impulse control; (iv) are extremely depressed or marginally connected
with reality.
e. Children in preschool enrichment and early intervention
programs when the children's emotional/behavioral problems are so severe that
they cannot function in these programs without additional services.
3. The service-specific provider intake shall document the
individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets these specific
service criteria in subdivision 2 of this subsection.
4. Prior to admission to this service, a service-specific
provider intake shall be conducted by the LMHP as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
5. An ISP shall be fully completed, signed, and dated by an
LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or QMHP-E and by the
individual or the parent/guardian within 30 days of initiation of services and
shall meet all requirements of an ISP as defined in 12VAC30-50-226. Individual
progress notes shall be required for each contact with the individual and shall
meet all of the requirements as defined in 12VAC30-50-130 12VAC30-60-61.
6. Such services shall not duplicate those services provided
by the school.
7. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to mental,
behavioral or emotional illness which results in significant functional
impairments in major life activities. Individuals shall meet at least two of
the following criteria on a continuing or intermittent basis:
a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
community.
b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
repeated interventions by the mental health, social services, or judicial
system are or have been necessary.
c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
social behavior.
8. The enrolled provider of therapeutic day treatment for
child and adolescent services shall be licensed by DBHDS to provide day support
services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment agreement in
effect with DMAS prior to the delivery of this service that indicates that the
provider offers therapeutic day treatment services for children and
adolescents.
9. Services shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C or QMHP-E.
10. The minimum staff-to-individual ratio as defined by DBHDS
licensing requirements shall ensure that adequate staff is available to meet
the needs of the individual identified on the ISP.
11. The program shall operate a minimum of two hours per day
and may offer flexible program hours (i.e., before or after school or during
the summer). One unit of service shall be defined as a minimum of two hours but
less than three hours in a given day. Two units of service shall be defined as
a minimum of three but less than five hours in a given day. Three units of
service shall be defined as five or more hours of service in a given day.
12. Time required for academic instruction when no treatment
activity is going on shall not be included in the billing unit.
13. Services shall be provided following a service-specific
provider intake that is conducted by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident,
or LMHP-RP. An LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, or LMHP-resident shall make and document
the diagnosis. The service-specific provider intake shall include the elements
as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
14. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430, the provider
shall collaborate with the case manager and provide notification of the
provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates to
the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge summary shall be sent
to the case manager within 30 days of the service discontinuation date. Service
providers and case managers using the same electronic health record for the
individual shall meet requirements for delivery of the notification, monthly
updates, and discharge summary upon entry of this documentation into the
electronic health record.
15. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
guardian, shall inform him of the child's receipt of community mental health
rehabilitative services. The documentation shall include who was contacted,
when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. The
parent/legal guardian shall be required to give written consent that this
provider has permission to inform the primary care provider of the child's or adolescent's
receipt of community mental health rehabilitative services.
16. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements as
set out in 12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines have violated these
marketing requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
12VAC30-130-2000 E.
17. If there is a lapse in services greater than 31
consecutive calendar days, the provider shall discharge the individual. If the
individual continues to need services, a new intake/admission documentation
shall be prepared and a new service authorization shall be required.
E. Community-based services
for children and adolescents under 21 years of age (Level A).
1. The staff ratio must be at least 1 to 6 during the day
and at least 1 to 10 between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. The program director
supervising the program/group home must be, at minimum, a QMHP-C or QMHP-E (as
defined in 12VAC35-105-20). The program director must be employed full time.
2. In order for Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at least
50% of the provider's direct care staff at the group home must meet DBHDS
paraprofessional staff criteria, defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
3. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
All community-based services for children and adolescents under 21 (Level A)
require authorization prior to reimbursement for these services. Reimbursement
shall not be made for this service when other less intensive services may
achieve stabilization.
4. Services must be provided in accordance with an
individual service plan (ISP), which must be fully completed within 30 days of
authorization for Medicaid reimbursement.
5. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
shall be conducted according to DMAS specifications described in
12VAC30-50-130.
6. Such service-specific provider intakes shall be
performed by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
7. If an individual receiving community-based services for
children and adolescents under 21 (Level A) is also receiving case management
services, the provider shall collaborate with the case manager by notifying the
case manager of the provision of Level A services and shall send monthly
updates on the individual's progress. When the individual is discharged from
Level A services, a discharge summary shall be sent to the case manager within
30 days of the service discontinuation date. Service providers and case
managers who are using the same electronic health record for the individual
shall meet requirements for the delivery of the notification, monthly updates,
and discharge summary upon entry of this documentation into the electronic
health record.
F. E. Therapeutic behavioral services group
home for children and adolescents under 21 years of age (Level B).
1. The staff ratio must be at least 1 to 4 during the day
and at least 1 to 8 between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. approved by the
Office of Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
Services. The clinical director must shall be a licensed
mental health professional. The caseload of the clinical director must not
exceed 16 individuals including all sites for which the same clinical director
is responsible.
2. The program director must shall be full time
and be a QMHP-C or QMHP-E with a bachelor's degree and at least one year's
clinical experience.
3. For Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at least 50% of
the provider's direct care staff at the therapeutic group home shall
meet DBHDS paraprofessional staff qualified paraprofessional in
mental health (QPPMH) criteria, as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. The program/group
therapeutic group home must shall coordinate services with
other providers.
4. All therapeutic behavioral group home
services (Level B) shall be authorized prior to reimbursement for these
services. Services rendered without such prior authorization shall not be
covered.
5. Services must be provided in accordance with an ISP a
CIPOC, as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, which shall be fully completed within
30 days of authorization for Medicaid reimbursement.
6. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
shall be performed using all elements specified by DMAS in 12VAC30-50-130.
7. Such service-specific provider intakes shall be performed
by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
8. If an individual receiving therapeutic behavioral group
home services for children and adolescents under 21 (Level B) is
also receiving case management services, the therapeutic behavioral group
home services provider must collaborate with the care coordinator/case
manager by notifying him of the provision of Level B therapeutic
group home services and the Level B therapeutic group home
services provider shall send monthly updates on the individual's treatment
status. When the individual is discharged from Level B services, a discharge
summary shall be sent to the care coordinator/case manager within 30 days of
the discontinuation date.
9. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
guardian parent or legally authorized representative, shall inform
him of the individual's receipt of these Level B therapeutic group
home services. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. If these individuals
are children or adolescents, then the parent/legal guardian parent or
legally authorized representative shall be required to give written consent
that this provider has permission to inform the primary care provider of the
individual's receipt of community mental health rehabilitative services.
G. Utilization review. Utilization reviews for
community-based therapeutic group home services for children and adolescents
under 21 years of age (Level A) and therapeutic behavioral services for
children and adolescents under 21 years of age (Level B) shall include
determinations whether providers meet all DMAS requirements, including
compliance with DMAS marketing requirements. Providers that DMAS determines
have violated the DMAS marketing requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid
provider pursuant to 12VAC30-130-2000 E.
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-60)
Department of Medical Assistance Services Provider Manuals (https://www.virginiamedicaid.dmas.virginia.gov/wps/portal/ProviderManuals):
Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual
Virginia Medicaid Rehabilitation Manual
Virginia Medicaid Hospice Manual
Virginia Medicaid School Division Manual
Development of Special Criteria for the Purposes
of Pre-Admission Screening, Medicaid Memo, October 3, 2012, Department of
Medical Assistance Services
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth
Edition (DSM-IV-TR), copyright 2000, American Psychiatric Association
Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
Substance-Related Disorders (ASAM PPC-2R), Second Edition, copyright 2001,
American Society on Addiction Medicine, Inc.
Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: New Service
Authorization Requirement for an Independent Clinical Assessment for Medicaid
and FAMIS Children's Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services, dated
June 16, 2011, Department of Medical Assistance Services
Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
Children Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Children's Services,
July 1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of
Medical Assistance Services
Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Adult-Oriented Services, July
1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of Medical
Assistance Services
Human
Services and Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience, updated May 3, 2013,
Department of Behavioral Health and Human Services
Part XIV
Residential Psychiatric Treatment for Children and Adolescents (Repealed)
12VAC30-130-850. Definitions. (Repealed.)
The following words and terms when used in this part shall
have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Active treatment" means implementation of a
professionally developed and supervised individual plan of care that must be
designed to achieve the recipient's discharge from inpatient status at the
earliest possible time.
"Certification" means a statement signed by a
physician that inpatient services in a residential treatment facility are or
were needed. The certification must be made at the time of admission, or, if an
individual applies for assistance while in a mental hospital or residential
treatment facility, before the Medicaid agency authorizes payment.
"Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
"CIPOC" means a written plan developed for each recipient in
accordance with 12VAC30-130-890 to improve his condition to the extent that
inpatient care is no longer necessary.
"Initial plan of care" means a plan of care
established at admission, signed by the attending physician or staff physician,
that meets the requirements in 12VAC30-130-890.
"Recertification" means a certification for each
applicant or recipient that inpatient services in a residential treatment
facility are needed. Recertification must be made at least every 60 days by a
physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within the scope
of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a physician.
"Recipient" or "recipients" means the
child or adolescent younger than 21 years of age receiving this covered
service.
12VAC30-130-860. Service coverage; eligible individuals;
service certification. (Repealed.)
A. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall be
24-hour, supervised, medically necessary, out-of-home programs designed to
provide necessary support and address the special mental health and behavioral
needs of a child or adolescent in order to prevent or minimize the need for
more intensive inpatient treatment. Services must include, but shall not be
limited to, assessment and evaluation, medical treatment (including drugs),
individual and group counseling, and family therapy necessary to treat the child.
B. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall provide
a total, 24 hours per day, specialized form of highly organized, intensive and
planned therapeutic interventions that shall be utilized to treat some of the
most severe mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders. Residential treatment
is a definitive therapeutic modality designed to deliver specified results for
a defined group of problems for children or adolescents for whom outpatient day
treatment or other less intrusive levels of care are not appropriate, and for
whom a protected, structured milieu is medically necessary for an extended
period of time.
C. Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level B) and Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be therapeutic services rendered in a
residential type setting such as a group home or program that provides
structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision and
mental health care to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals
as identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). The child or
adolescent must have a medical need for the service arising from a condition
due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant
functional impairments in major life activities.
D. Active treatment shall be required. Residential
Treatment, Therapeutic Behavioral and Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under age 21 shall be designed to serve the mental health needs of
children. In order to be reimbursed for Residential Treatment (Level C),
Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
B), and Community-Based Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
A), the facility must provide active mental health treatment beginning at
admission and it must be related to the recipient's principle diagnosis and
admitting symptoms. To the extent that any recipient needs mental health
treatment and his needs meet the medical necessity criteria for the service, he
will be approved for these services. These services do not include
interventions and activities designed only to meet the supportive nonmental
health special needs, including but not limited to personal care, habilitation
or academic educational needs of the recipients.
E. An individual eligible for Residential Treatment
Services (Level C) is a recipient under the age of 21 years whose treatment
needs cannot be met by ambulatory care resources available in the community,
for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires services on an
inpatient basis under the direction of a physician.
An individual eligible for Therapeutic Behavioral Services
for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B) is a child, under the age of 21
years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
direction of a Licensed Mental Health Professional.
An individual eligible for Community-Based Services for
Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) is a child, under the age of 21
years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
direction of a qualified mental health professional. The services for all three
levels can reasonably be expected to improve the child's or adolescent's
condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed.
F. In order for Medicaid to reimburse for Residential
Treatment (Level C), Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A), the need for the service must be certified
according to the standards and requirements set forth in subdivisions 1 and 2
of this subsection. At least one member of the independent certifying team must
have pediatric mental health expertise.
1. For an individual who is already a Medicaid recipient
when he is admitted to a facility or program, certification must:
a. Be made by an independent certifying team that includes
a licensed physician who:
(1) Has competence in diagnosis and treatment of pediatric
mental illness; and
(2) Has knowledge of the recipient's mental health history
and current situation.
b. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team.
2. For a recipient who applies for Medicaid while an
inpatient in the facility or program, the certification must:
a. Be made by the team responsible for the plan of care;
b. Cover any period of time before the application for
Medicaid eligibility for which claims for reimbursement by Medicaid are made;
and
c. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team.
12VAC30-130-870. Preauthorization. (Repealed.)
A. Authorization for Residential Treatment (Level C) shall
be required within 24 hours of admission and shall be conducted by DMAS or its
utilization management contractor using medical necessity criteria specified by
DMAS. At preauthorization, an initial length of stay shall be assigned and the
residential treatment provider shall be responsible for obtaining authorization
for continued stay.
B. DMAS will not pay for admission to or continued stay in
residential facilities (Level C) that were not authorized by DMAS.
C. Information that is required in order to obtain
admission preauthorization for Medicaid payment shall include:
1. A completed state-designated uniform assessment
instrument approved by the department.
2. A certification of the need for this service by the team
described in 12VAC30-130-860 that:
a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
do not meet the specific treatment needs of the recipient;
b. Proper treatment of the recipient's psychiatric
condition requires services on an inpatient basis under the direction of a
physician; and
c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
recipient's condition or prevent further regression so that the services will
not be needed.
3. Additional required written documentation shall include
all of the following:
a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
Retardation, Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning);
b. A description of the child's behavior during the seven
days immediately prior to admission;
c. A description of alternative placements tried or
explored and the outcomes of each placement;
d. The child's functional level and clinical stability;
e. The level of family support available; and
f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
12VAC30-130-890.
D. Continued stay criteria for Residential Treatment
(Level C): information for continued stay authorization (Level C) for Medicaid
payment must include:
1. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
than 90 days prior to the date of submission;
2. Documentation that the required services are provided as
indicated;
3. Current (within the last 30 days) information on
progress related to the achievement of treatment goals. The treatment goals
must address the reasons for admission, including a description of any new
symptoms amenable to treatment;
4. Description of continued impairment, problem behaviors,
and need for Residential Treatment level of care.
E. Denial of service may be appealed by the recipient
consistent with 12VAC30-110-10 et seq.; denial of reimbursement may be appealed
by the provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et
seq. of the Code of Virginia).
F. DMAS will not pay for services for Therapeutic
Behavioral Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and
Community-Based Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) that
are not prior authorized by DMAS.
G. Authorization for Level A and Level B residential
treatment shall be required within three business days of admission.
Authorization for services shall be based upon the medical necessity criteria
described in 12VAC30-50-130. The authorized length of stay must not exceed six
months and may be reauthorized. The provider shall be responsible for
documenting the need for a continued stay and providing supporting
documentation.
H. Information that is required in order to obtain
admission authorization for Medicaid payment must include:
1. A current completed state-designated uniform assessment
instrument approved by the department. The state designated uniform assessment
instrument must indicate at least two areas of moderate impairment for Level B
and two areas of moderate impairment for Level A. A moderate impairment is
evidenced by, but not limited to:
a. Frequent conflict in the family setting, for example,
credible threats of physical harm.
b. Frequent inability to accept age appropriate direction
and supervision from caretakers, family members, at school, or in the home or
community.
c. Severely limited involvement in social support; which
means significant avoidance of appropriate social interaction, deterioration of
existing relationships, or refusal to participate in therapeutic interventions.
d. Impaired ability to form a trusting relationship with at
least one caretaker in the home, school or community.
e. Limited ability to consider the effect of one's
inappropriate conduct on others, interactions consistently involving conflict,
which may include impulsive or abusive behaviors.
2. A certification of the need for the service by the team
described in 12VAC30-130-860 that:
a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
do not meet the specific treatment needs of the child;
b. Proper treatment of the child's psychiatric condition requires
services in a community-based residential program; and
c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
child's condition or prevent regression so that the services will not be
needed.
3. Additional required written documentation must include
all of the following:
a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
Retardation), Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning);
b. A description of the child's behavior during the 30 days
immediately prior to admission;
c. A description of alternative placements tried or
explored and the outcomes of each placement;
d. The child's functional level and clinical stability;
e. The level of family support available; and
f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
12VAC30-130-890.
I. Denial of service may be appealed by the child
consistent with 12VAC30-110; denial of reimbursement may be appealed by the
provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of
the Code of Virginia).
J. Continued stay criteria for Levels A and B:
1. The length of the authorized stay shall be determined by
DMAS or its contractor.
2. A current Individual Service Plan (ISP) (plan of care)
and a current (within 30 days) summary of progress related to the goals and
objectives on the ISP (plan of care) must be submitted for continuation of the
service.
3. For reauthorization to occur, the desired outcome or
level of functioning has not been restored or improved, over the time frame
outlined in the child's ISP (plan of care) or the child continues to be at risk
for relapse based on history or the tenuous nature of the functional gains and
use of less intensive services will not achieve stabilization. Any one of the
following must apply:
a. The child has achieved initial service plan (plan of
care) goals but additional goals are indicated that cannot be met at a lower
level of care.
b. The child is making satisfactory progress toward meeting
goals but has not attained ISP goals, and the goals cannot be addressed at a
lower level of care.
c. The child is not making progress, and the service plan
(plan of care) has been modified to identify more effective interventions.
d. There are current indications that the child requires
this level of treatment to maintain level of functioning as evidenced by
failure to achieve goals identified for therapeutic visits or stays in a
nontreatment residential setting or in a lower level of residential treatment.
K. Discharge criteria for Levels A and B.
1. Reimbursement shall not be made for this level of care
if either of the following applies:
a. The level of functioning has improved with respect to
the goals outlined in the service plan (plan of care) and the child can
reasonably be expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment;
or
b. The child no longer benefits from service as evidenced
by absence of progress toward service plan goals for a period of 60 days.
12VAC30-130-880. Provider qualifications. (Repealed.)
A. Providers must provide all Residential Treatment
Services (Level C) as defined within this part and set forth in 42 CFR Part 441
Subpart D.
B. Providers of Residential Treatment Services (Level C)
must be:
1. A residential treatment program for children and
adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric hospital
accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
Organizations;
2. A residential treatment program for children and
adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric unit of an
acute general hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
Healthcare Organizations; or
3. A psychiatric facility that is (i) accredited by the
Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission
on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Quality and
Leadership in Supports for People with Disabilities, or the Council on
Accreditation of Services for Families and Children and (ii) licensed by
DMHMRSAS as a residential treatment program for children and adolescents.
C. Providers of Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be licensed by the Department of Social
Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of Education under the
Standards for Interdepartmental Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities
(22VAC42-10).
D. Providers of Therapeutic Behavioral Services (Level B)
must be licensed by the Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation, and
Substance Abuse Services (DMHMRSAS) under the Standards for Interdepartmental
Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC42-10).
12VAC30-130-890. Plans of care; review of plans of care.
(Repealed.)
A. For Residential Treatment Services (Level C), an initial
plan of care must be completed at admission and a Comprehensive Individual Plan
of Care (CIPOC) must be completed no later than 14 days after admission.
B. Initial plan of care (Level C) must include:
1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
2. A description of the functional level of the recipient;
3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the patient;
5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care;
6. Plans for discharge; and
7. Signature and date by the physician.
C. The CIPOC for Level C must meet all of the following
criteria:
1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the recipient's situation and must reflect the need
for inpatient psychiatric care;
2. Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
and other personnel specified under subsection F of this section, who are
employed by, or provide services to, patients in the facility in consultation
with the recipient and his parents, legal guardians, or appropriate others in
whose care he will be released after discharge;
3. State treatment objectives that must include measurable
short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
achievement;
4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
to the diagnosis; and
5. Describe comprehensive discharge plans and coordination
of inpatient services and post-discharge plans with related community services
to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the recipient's family,
school, and community.
D. Review of the CIPOC for Level C. The CIPOC must be
reviewed every 30 days by the team specified in subsection F of this section
to:
1. Determine that services being provided are or were
required on an inpatient basis; and
2. Recommend changes in the plan as indicated by the
recipient's overall adjustment as an inpatient.
E. The development and review of the plan of care for
Level C as specified in this section satisfies the facility's utilization
control requirements for recertification and establishment and periodic review
of the plan of care, as required in 42 CFR 456.160 and 456.180.
F. Team developing the CIPOC for Level C. The following
requirements must be met:
1. At least one member of the team must have expertise in
pediatric mental health. Based on education and experience, preferably
including competence in child psychiatry, the team must be capable of all of
the following:
a. Assessing the recipient's immediate and long-range
therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths and
liabilities;
b. Assessing the potential resources of the recipient's
family;
c. Setting treatment objectives; and
d. Prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the plan's
objectives.
2. The team must include, at a minimum, either:
a. A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist;
b. A clinical psychologist who has a doctoral degree and a
physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or
c. A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
mental diseases, and a psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
association.
3. The team must also include one of the following:
a. A psychiatric social worker;
b. A registered nurse with specialized training or one
year's experience in treating mentally ill individuals;
c. An occupational therapist who is licensed, if required
by the state, and who has specialized training or one year of experience in
treating mentally ill individuals; or
d. A psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
association.
G. All Medicaid services are subject to utilization
review. Absence of any of the required documentation may result in denial or
retraction of any reimbursement.
H. For Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level B), the initial plan of care must be completed at
admission by the licensed mental health professional (LMHP) and a CIPOC must be
completed by the LMHP no later than 30 days after admission. The assessment
must be signed and dated by the LMHP.
I. For Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A), the initial plan of care must be completed at
admission by the QMHP and a CIPOC must be completed by the QMHP no later than
30 days after admission. The individualized plan of care must be signed and
dated by the program director.
J. Initial plan of care for Levels A and B must include:
1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
2. A description of the functional level of the child;
3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the patient;
5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care; and
6. Plans for discharge.
K. The CIPOC for Levels A and B must meet all of the
following criteria:
1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the child's situation and must reflect the need for
residential psychiatric care;
2. The CIPOC for both levels must be based on input from
school, home, other healthcare providers, the child and family (or legal
guardian);
3. State treatment objectives that include measurable
short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
achievement;
4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
to the diagnosis; and
5. Describe comprehensive discharge plans with related
community services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the child's
family, school, and community.
L. Review of the CIPOC for Levels A and B. The CIPOC must
be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30 days by the QMHP for Level A and by the
LMHP for Level B. The review must include:
1. The response to services provided;
2. Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
child's overall response to the plan of care interventions; and
3. Determinations regarding whether the services being
provided continue to be required.
Updates must be signed and dated by the service provider.
M. All Medicaid services are subject to utilization
review. Absence of any of the required documentation may result in denial or
retraction of any reimbursement.
Part XVIII
Behavioral Health Services
12VAC30-130-3000. Behavioral health services.
A. Behavioral health services that shall be covered only for
individuals from birth through 21 years of age are set out in 12VAC30-50-130 B
5 and include: (i) intensive in-home services (IIH), (ii)
therapeutic day treatment (TDT), (iii) community based services for children
and adolescents (Level A) therapeutic group homes, and (iv) therapeutic
behavioral services (Level B) psychiatric residential treatment
facilities.
B. Behavioral health services that shall be covered for
individuals regardless of age are set out in 12VAC30-50-226 and include: (i)
day treatment/partial hospitalization, (ii) psychosocial rehabilitation, (iii)
crisis intervention, (iv) case management as set out in 12VAC30-50-420 and
12VAC30-50-430, (v) intensive community treatment (ICT), (vi) crisis
stabilization services, and (vii) mental health support services (MHSS).
12VAC30-130-3020. Independent clinical assessment requirements;
behavioral health level of care determinations and service eligibility. (Repealed.)
A. The independent clinical assessment (ICA), as set forth
in the Virginia Independent Assessment Program (VICAP-001) form, shall contain
the Medicaid individual-specific elements of information and data that shall be
required for an individual younger than the age of 21 to be approved for
intensive in-home (IIH) services, therapeutic day treatment (TDT), or mental
health support services (MHSS) or any combination thereof. Eligibility
requirements for IIH are in 12VAC30-50-130 B 5 b. Eligibility requirements for
TDT are in 12VAC30-50-130 B 5 c. Eligibility requirements for MHSS are in
12VAC30-50-226 B 8.
1. The required elements in the ICA shall be specified in
the VICAP form with either the BHSA or CSBs/BHAs and DMAS.
2. Service recommendations set out in the ICA shall not be
subject to appeal.
B. Independent clinical assessment requirements.
1. Effective July 18, 2011, an ICA shall be required as a
part of the service authorization process for Medicaid and Family Access to
Medical Insurance Security (FAMIS) intensive in-home (IIH) services,
therapeutic day treatment (TDT), or mental health support services (MHSS) for
individuals up to the age of 21. This ICA shall be performed prior to
the request for service authorization and initiation of treatment for
individuals who are not currently receiving or authorized for services. The ICA
shall be completed prior to the service provider conducting an intake or
providing treatment.
a. Each individual shall have at least one ICA prior to the
initiation of either IIH or TDT, or MHSS for individuals up to the age of 21.
b. For individuals who are already receiving IIH services
or TDT, or MHSS, as of July 18, 2011, the requirement for a completed ICA shall
be effective for service reauthorizations for dates of services on and after
September 1, 2011.
c. Individuals who are being discharged from residential
treatment (DMAS service Levels A, B, or C) or inpatient psychiatric
hospitalization do not need an ICA prior to receiving community IIH services or
TDT, or MHSS. They shall be required, however, to have an ICA as part of the
first subsequent service reauthorization for IIH services, TDT, MHSS, or any
combination thereof.
2. The ICA shall be completed and submitted to DMAS or its
service authorization contractor by the independent assessor prior to the
service provider submitting the service authorization or reauthorization
request to the DMAS service authorization contractor. Failure to meet these
requirements shall result in the provider's service authorization or
reauthorization request being returned to the provider.
3. A copy of the ICA shall be retained in the service
provider's individual's file.
4. If a service provider receives a request from parents or
legal guardians to provide IIH services, TDT, or MHSS for individuals who are
younger than 21 years of age, the service provider shall refer the parent or
legal guardian to the BHSA or the local CSB/BHA to obtain the ICA prior to
providing services.
a. In order to provide services, the service provider shall
be required to conduct a service-specific provider intake as defined in
12VAC30-50-130.
b. If the selected service provider concurs that the child
meets criteria for the service recommended by the independent assessor, the
selected service provider shall submit a service authorization request to DMAS
service authorization contractor. The service-specific provider's intake for
IIH services, TDT, or MHSS shall not occur prior to the completion of the ICA
by the BHSA or CSB/BHA, or its subcontractor.
c. If within 30 days after the ICA a service provider
identifies the need for services that were not recommended by the ICA, the
service provider shall contact the independent assessor and request a
modification. The request for a modification shall be based on a significant
change in the individual's life that occurred after the ICA was conducted.
Examples of a significant change may include, but shall not be limited to,
hospitalization; school suspension or expulsion; death of a significant other;
or hospitalization or incarceration of a parent or legal guardian.
d. If the independent assessment is greater than 30 days
old, a new ICA must be obtained prior to the initiation of IIH services, TDT,
or MHSS for individuals younger than 21 years of age.
e. If the parent or legal
guardian disagrees with the ICA recommendation, the parent or legal guardian
may appeal the recommendation in accordance with Part I (12VAC30-110-10 et
seq.) In the alternative, the parent or legal guardian may request that a
service provider perform his own evaluation. If after conducting a
service-specific provider intake the service provider identifies additional
documentation previously not submitted for the ICA that demonstrates the
service is medically necessary and clinically indicated, the service provider
may submit the supplemental information with a service authorization request to
the DMAS service authorization contractor. The DMAS service authorization
contractor will review the service authorization submission and the ICA and
make a determination. If the determination results in a service denial, the
individual, parent or legal guardian, and service provider will be notified of
the decision and their appeal rights pursuant to Part I (12VAC30-110-10 et
seq.).
5. If the individual is in immediate need of treatment, the
independent clinical assessor shall refer the individual to the appropriate
enrolled Medicaid emergency services providers in accordance with
12VAC30-50-226 and shall also alert the individual's managed care organization.
C. Requirements for behavioral health services
administrator and community services boards/behavioral health authorities.
1. When the BHSA, CSB, or BHA
has been contacted by the parent or legal guardian, the ICA appointment shall
be offered within five business days of a request for IIH services and within
10 business days for a request for TDT or MHSS, or both. The appointment may be
scheduled beyond the respective time frame at the documented request of the
parent or legal guardian.
2. The independent assessor
shall conduct the ICA with the individual and the parent or legal guardian
using the VICAP-001 form and make a recommendation for the most appropriate
medically necessary services, if indicated. Referring or treating providers
shall not be present during the assessment but may submit supporting clinical
documentation to the assessor.
3. The ICA shall be effective for a 30-day period.
4. The independent assessor
shall enter the findings of the ICA into the DMAS service authorization
contractor's web portal within one business day of conducting the assessment.
The independent clinical assessment form (VICAP-001) shall be completed by the
independent assessor within three business days of completing the ICA.
D. The individual or his parent or legal guardian shall
have the right to freedom of choice of service providers.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4495; Filed January 31, 2017, 4:07 p.m.
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL ASSISTANCE SERVICES
Emergency Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 12VAC30-10. State Plan under
Title XIX of the Social Security Act Medical Assistance Program; General Provisions (amending 12VAC30-10-540).
12VAC30-50. Amount, Duration, and Scope of Medical and
Remedial Care Services (amending 12VAC30-50-130).
12VAC30-60. Standards Established and Methods Used to Assure
High Quality Care (amending 12VAC30-60-5, 12VAC30-60-50,
12VAC30-60-61).
12VAC30-130. Amount, Duration and Scope of Selected Services (amending 12VAC30-130-3000; repealing
12VAC30-130-850, 12VAC30-130-860, 12VAC30-130-870, 12VAC30-130-880,
12VAC30-130-890, 12VAC30-130-3020).
Statutory Authority: § 32.1-325 of the Code of
Virginia; 42 USC § 1396 et seq.
Effective Dates: July 1, 2017, through December 31,
2018.
Agency Contact: Emily McClellan, Regulatory Supervisor,
Policy Division, Department of Medical Assistance Services, 600 East Broad
Street, Suite 1300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-4300, FAX (804)
786-1680, or email emily.mcclellan@dmas.virginia.gov.
Preamble:
The psychiatric residential treatment service was
implemented in 2001. The existing regulations are not adequate to ensure
successful treatment outcomes are attained for the individuals who receive high
cost high intensity residential treatment services. Since moving behavioral
health services to Magellan (the DMAS behavioral health service administrator
or BHSA) there has been enhanced supervision of these services. The enhanced
supervision has led to an increased awareness of some safety challenges and
administrative challenges in this high level of care. The proposed revisions
will serve to better clarify policy interpretations that revise program
standards to allow for more evidence-based service delivery, allow DMAS to
implement more effective utilization management in collaboration with the BHSA,
enhance individualized coordination of care, implement standardized
coordination of individualized aftercare resources by ensuring access to
medical and behavioral health service providers in the individual's home
community, and support DMAS audit practices. The changes will move toward a
service model that will reduce lengths of stay for and facilitate an
evidence-based treatment approach to better support the individual's discharge
into his home environment.
The emergency action, pursuant to § 2.2-4011 of the Code of
Virginia, includes changes to the following areas: (i) provider qualifications
including acceptable licensing standards, (ii) preadmission assessment requirements,
(iii) program requirements, (iv) new discharge planning and care coordination
requirements, and (iv) language enhancements for utilization review
requirements to clarify program requirements and help providers avoid payment
retractions. These changes are part of a review of the services to ensure that
they are effectively delivered and utilized for individuals who meet the
medical necessity criteria. For each individual seeking residential treatment
their treatment needs will be assessed with enhanced requirements by the
current independent certification teams who must coordinate clinical assessment
information and assess local resources for each person requesting residential
care to determine an appropriate level of care. The certification teams will
also be more able to coordinate referrals for care to determine, in accordance
with Department of Justice requirements, whether or not the individual seeking
services can be safely served using community-based services in the least
restrictive setting. Independent team certifications will be conducted prior to
the onset of specified services, as required by Centers for Medicare and
Medicaid Services guidelines, by the DMAS behavioral health services
administrator.
The proposal includes changes to program requirements that
ensure that effective levels of care coordination and discharge planning occurs
for each individual during his residential stay by enhancing program rules and
utilization management principles that facilitate effective discharge planning
and establish community-based services prior to the individual's discharge from
residential care. The proposal requires enhanced care coordination to provide
the necessary, objective evaluations of treatment progress and to facilitate
evidence-based practices during the treatment to reduce the length of stay by
ensuring that medical necessity indicates the correct level of care and that
appropriate and effective care is delivered in a person-centered manner. The
proposal requires that service providers and local systems will use
standardized preadmission and discharge processes to ensure effective services
are delivered.
This emergency action is in compliance with provisions of
Item 301 OO and Item 301 PP of Chapter 665 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly, as follows:
Item 301 OO c 7, 8, 9, 14, 15, 16, 17, and 18 directed that
DMAS shall develop a blueprint for a care coordination model for individuals in
need of behavioral health services that includes the following principles:
"7. Develops direct linkages between medical and
behavioral services in order to make it easier for consumers to obtain timely
access to care and services, which could include up to full integration.
8. Builds upon current best practices in the delivery of
behavioral health services.
9. Accounts for local services and reflects familiarity
with the community where services are provided.
…
14. Achieves cost savings through decreasing avoidable
episodes of care and hospitalizations, strengthening the discharge planning
process, improving adherence to medication regimens, and utilizing community
alternatives to hospitalizations and institutionalization.
15. Simplifies the administration of acute psychiatric,
community and mental health rehabilitation, and medical health services for the
coordinating entity, providers, and consumers.
16. Requires standardized data collection, outcome
measures, customer satisfaction surveys, and reports to track costs,
utilization of services, and outcomes. Performance data should be explicit,
benchmarked, standardized, publicly available, and validated.
17. Provides actionable data and feedback to providers.
18. In accordance with federal and state regulations,
includes provisions for effective and timely grievances and appeals for
consumers."
Item 301 OO d states:
"The department may seek the necessary waiver(s) or
State Plan authorization under Titles XIX and XXI of the Social Security Act to
develop and implement a care coordination model … This model may be applied to
individuals on a mandatory basis. The department shall have authority to
promulgate emergency regulations to implement this amendment within 280 days or
less from the enactment date of this act."
Item 301 PP states:
"The Department of Medical Assistance Services shall
make programmatic changes in the provision of Residential Treatment Facility
(Level C) and Levels A and B residential services (group homes) for children
with serious emotional disturbances in order [to] ensure appropriate
utilization and cost efficiency. The department shall consider all available
options including, but not limited to, prior authorization, utilization review
and provider qualifications. The department shall have authority to promulgate
regulations to implement these changes within 280 days or less from the enactment
date of this act."
In response to Item 301 OO c 14, DMAS is proposing new
requirements to ensure that comprehensive discharge planning begins at
admission to a therapeutic group home or residential treatment facility so that
the individual can return to the community setting with appropriate supports at
the soonest possible time.
DMAS is responding to the legislative mandates in Item 301
OO c 7 through 9, 14, and 15 by sunsetting the Virginia Independent Assessment
Program (VICAP) regulation at 12VAC30-130-3020. The VICAP program is no longer
needed, as the BHSA is now conducting thorough reviews of medical necessity for
each requested service, and the funds allocated to the VICAP program can be
more effectively used elsewhere.
DMAS is responding to the legislative mandates in Item 301
OO c 16 through 18 by creating a single point of contact at the BHSA for
families and caregivers who will increase timely access to residential
behavioral health services, promote effective service delivery, and decrease
wait times for medical necessity and placement decisions that previously have
been managed by local family assessment and planning teams (FAPT). The FAPTs
are not DMAS-enrolled service providers, and the individuals who must use the
FAPT process to gain access to Medicaid covered residential treatment are not
subject to the established Medicaid grievance process and choice options as
mandated by CMS. The enhanced interaction of the families and the BHSA will
enable more thorough data collection to ensure freedom of choice in service
providers, and to measure locality trends, service provider trends, and
population trends to facilitate evidence-based decisions in both the clinical
service delivery and administration of the program. The enhanced family interaction
will enable the BHSA to complete individual family surveys and monitor care
more effectively after discharge from services to assess the family and
individual perspective on service delivery and enable DMAS to more effectively
manage evidence-based residential treatment services.
Since 2001, when residential treatment services were
implemented by DMAS, individuals have not had access to standardized methods of
effective care coordination upon entry into residential treatment due to
locality influence and DMAS reimbursement limitations. This has resulted in a
fragmented coordination approach for these individuals who are at risk for high
levels of care and remain at risk of repeated placements at this level of care.
The residential treatment prior authorization and utilization management
structures require an enhanced care coordination model to support the
individuals who receive this level of service to ensure an effective return to
the family or caregiver home environment with follow-up services to facilitate
ongoing treatment progress in the least restrictive environment. The added
coordination is required to navigate a very complex service environment for the
individual as the individual returns to a community setting to establish an
effective aftercare environment that involves service providers who may be
contracted with a variety of entities such as DMAS contracted managed care
organizations (MCOs), BHSA enrolled providers, the local FAPT, local school
divisions, and the local community services board (CSB). This regulation will
allow DMAS to implement a contracted care coordination team that will focus on
attaining specific clinical outcomes for all residential care episodes and
provide a new single liaison who will ensure coordination of care in a complex
service environment for individuals upon discharge from residential treatment
and prior to the time when they will enroll in an MCO. During this transition
period the individual is very vulnerable to repeated admissions to residential
or inpatient care and must also be supported in the fee for service (FFS)
environment with resources from the local CSB and BHSA enrolled services
providers and requires ongoing support and coordination with the local FAPT to
provide aftercare services consisting of post-discharge follow-up and
transition services provided by the BHSA coordination team.
The care coordination team will (i) provide increased
standardization of preadmission assessment activity, (ii) provide facilitation
of an effective independent certification team process, (iii) ensure that MCO
and medical home resources are used to provide accurate psychosocial assessment
and clinical/medical history to the certification team and BHSA, (iv)
facilitate accurate authorization decisions and consider community-based
service options prior to any out-of-home placement, (v) facilitate high levels
of family involvement, (vi) provide aggressive discharge planning that ensures
smooth transition into community-based services and MCO-funded health services,
and (vii) provide meaningful, coordinated post-discharge follow-up for up to 90
days after discharge with the youth and family.
The residential care coordination team will ensure
meaningful communication across all parts of the Comprehensive Services Act,
Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, MCO, and FFS
service systems to maximize efficiency of activities, eliminate duplicative or
conflicting efforts, and ensure established timelines are met (e.g., regular
assessment of progress).
These enclosed proposed utilization control requirements
are recommended consistent with the federal requirements at 42 CFR Part 456
Utilization Control. Specifically, 42 CFR 456.3, "Statewide surveillance
and utilization control program" provides: "The Medicaid agency must
implement a statewide surveillance and utilization control program that—
(a) Safeguards against unnecessary or inappropriate use of
Medicaid services and against excess payments;
(b) Assesses the quality of those services;
(c) Provides for the control of the utilization of all
services provided under the plan in accordance with subpart B of this part, and
(d) Provides for the control of the utilization of
inpatient services in accordance with subparts C through I of this part."
The Code of Federal Regulations also provides, at 42 CFR
430.10, "...The State plan contains all information necessary for CMS to
determine whether the plan can be approved to serve as a basis for Federal
financial participation (FFP) in the State program." FFP is the federal
matching funds that DMAS receives from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Services. Not performing utilization control of the services affected by these
proposed regulations, as well as all Medicaid covered services, could subject
DMAS' federal matching funds to a CMS recovery action.
Purpose. This regulatory action is essential to protect the
health, safety, or welfare of individuals with Medicaid who require behavioral
health services. In addition, these proposed changes are intended to promote improved
quality of Medicaid-covered behavioral health services provided to individuals.
This regulatory action is also essential to ensure that
Medicaid individuals and their families are well informed about their
behavioral health condition and service options prior to receiving these
services. This ensures the services are medically necessary for the individual
and are rendered by providers who use evidence-based treatment approaches.
While residential treatment is not a service that should be
approved with great frequency for a large number of individuals, it is a
service that should be accessible to the families and individuals who require
that level of care. The current service model has significant operational
layers that must be navigated to access residential services. The current
program processes involve coordination of care by local FAPT teams who have,
over time, demonstrated some influence on determining an individual's
eligibility for FAPT funded services. The local influence on the program's administration
causes limitations on individualized freedom of provider choice and
inconsistent authorization of funding for persons deemed to need psychiatric
care out of the home setting. This local administration of the primary referral
source for residential treatment lies outside the purview of DMAS and this
situation produces outcomes that are inadequate to meet CMS requirements on
ensuring the individual freedom of choice of providers. In addition, local FAPT
administrators do not enforce the Department of Justice settlement requirements
in a uniform manner.
DMAS has added content to program requirements and covered
services portions of the regulations to better clarify the benefit coverage and
utilization criteria. The emergency regulations allow the use of additional
information collection to better assess ways to reduce the average length of
stay for individuals in residential care, and to better coordinate educational
funding for those who require medically necessary services in a psychiatric
treatment setting by using enhanced Medicaid supports.
The goal is that individuals receive the correct level of
service at the correct time for the treatment (service) needs related to the
individual's medical/psychiatric condition. Residential treatment services
consist of behavioral health interventions and are intended to provide high
intensity clinical treatment that should be provided for a short duration.
Stakeholder feedback supported DMAS observations of lengthy durations of stay
for many individuals. Residential treatment services will benefit from
clarification of the service definition and eligibility requirements to ensure
that residential treatment does not evolve into a long-term level of support
instead of the high intensity psychiatric treatment modality that defines this
level of care.
Substance. The sections of the State Plan for Medical
Assistance that are affected by this action are 12VAC30-10-540 (Inspection of
care in intermediate care facilities); 12VAC30-50-130 (Skilled nursing facility
services, EPSDT, school health services, and family planning); 12VAC30-60-5
(Applicability of utilization review requirements); 12VAC30-60-50 (Utilization
control: Intermediate Care Facilities for the Mentally Retarded (ICF/MR) and
Institutions for Mental Disease (IMD); 12VAC30-60-61 (Services related to the
Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment Program (EPSDT);
community mental health services for children). The state-only regulations that
are affected by this action are 12VAC30-130-850 through 12VAC30-130-890 (Part
XIV - Residential Psychiatric Treatment for Children and Adolescents).
12VAC30-10-540. Inspection of care in intermediate care
facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
developmental disabilities, facilities providing inpatient psychiatric
services for individuals under 21, and mental hospitals.
All applicable requirements of 42 CFR 456, Subpart I, are met
with respect to periodic inspections of care and services.*
Inpatient psychiatric services for individuals under age
21 are not provided under this plan.
*Inspection of Care care (IOC) in Intermediate
Care Facilities intermediate care facilities for the Mentally
Retarded and Institutions for Mental Diseases are persons with
intellectual and developmental disabilities is completed through
contractual arrangements with the Virginia Department of Health.
12VAC30-50-130. Skilled nursing facility services, EPSDT,
school health services, and family planning.
A. Skilled nursing facility services (other than services in
an institution for mental diseases) for individuals 21 years of age or older.
Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
performed within the scope of a license of the practitioner of the healing
arts.
B. Early and periodic screening and, diagnosis,
and treatment (EPSDT) of individuals under 21 years of age, and treatment
of conditions found - general provisions.
1. Payment of medical assistance services shall be made on
behalf of individuals under 21 years of age, who are Medicaid eligible, for
medically necessary stays in acute care facilities, and the accompanying
attendant physician care, in excess of 21 days per admission when such services
are rendered for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of health conditions
identified through a physical examination.
2. Routine physicals and immunizations (except as provided
through EPSDT) are not covered except that well-child examinations in a private
physician's office are covered for foster children of the local social services
departments on specific referral from those departments.
3. Orthoptics services shall only be reimbursed if medically
necessary to correct a visual defect identified by an EPSDT examination or
evaluation. The department shall place appropriate utilization controls upon
this service.
4. Consistent with the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of
1989 § 6403, early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment services
means the following services: screening services, vision services, dental
services, hearing services, and such other necessary health care, diagnostic
services, treatment, and other measures described in Social Security Act §
1905(a) to correct or ameliorate defects and physical and mental illnesses and
conditions discovered by the screening services and which are medically
necessary, whether or not such services are covered under the State Plan and
notwithstanding the limitations, applicable to recipients ages 21 and over,
provided for by the Act § 1905(a).
5. Community C. Early and periodic screening
diagnosis and treatment (EPSDT) of individuals younger than 21 years of age -
community mental health services. These services in order to be covered (i)
shall meet medical necessity criteria based upon diagnoses made by LMHPs who
are practicing within the scope of their licenses and (ii) are reflected in
provider records and on providers' provider claims for services
by recognized diagnosis codes that support and are consistent with the
requested professional services.
a. 1. Definitions. The following words and terms
when used in this section shall have the following meanings unless the context
clearly indicates otherwise:
"Activities of daily living" means personal care
activities and includes bathing, dressing, transferring, toileting, feeding,
and eating.
"Adolescent or child" means the individual
receiving the services described in this section. For the purpose of the use of
these terms this term, adolescent means an individual 12-20 years
of age; a child means an individual from birth up to 12 years of age.
"Behavioral health services administrator" or
"BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
benefits program under contract with DMAS.
"Care coordination" means collaboration and sharing
of information among health care providers, who are involved with an
individual's health care, to improve the care.
"Certified prescreener" means an employee of the
local community services board or behavioral health authority, or its designee,
who is skilled in the assessment and treatment of mental illness and has
completed a certification program approved by the Department of Behavioral
Health and Developmental Services.
"Clinical experience" means providing direct
behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
in-home services, (ii) day treatment for children and adolescents, (iii)
community-based residential services for children and adolescents who are
younger than 21 years of age (Level A), or (iv) therapeutic behavioral services
(Level B). Experience shall not include unsupervised internships, unsupervised
practicums, and unsupervised field experience. The equivalency of part-time
hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this requirement shall be as
established by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Child" means the individual receiving the
services described in this section; an individual from birth up to 12 years of
age.
"DBHDS" means the Department of Behavioral Health
and Developmental Services.
"DMAS" means the Department of Medical Assistance
Services and its contractor or contractors.
"Human services field" means the same as the term
is defined by DBHDS in the document entitled Human Services and Related Fields
Approved Degrees/Experience, issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Individual service plan" or "ISP" means
the same as the term is defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
"Licensed mental health professional" or
"LMHP" means a licensed physician, licensed clinical psychologist,
licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical social worker, licensed
substance abuse treatment practitioner, licensed marriage and family therapist,
or certified psychiatric clinical nurse specialist the same as defined
in 12VAC35-105-20.
"LMHP-resident" or "LMHP-R" means the same
as "resident" as defined in (i) 18VAC115-20-10 for licensed
professional counselors; (ii) 18VAC115-50-10 for licensed marriage and family
therapists; or (iii) 18VAC115-60-10 for licensed substance abuse treatment
practitioners. An LMHP-resident shall be in continuous compliance with the
regulatory requirements of the applicable counseling profession for supervised
practice and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-R or be considered a
"resident" until the supervision for specific clinical duties at a
specific site has been preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Counseling. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by such residents, they shall use the title
"Resident" in connection with the applicable profession after their
signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-resident in psychology" or "LMHP-RP"
means the same as an individual in a residency, as that term is defined in
18VAC125-20-10, program for clinical psychologists. An LMHP-resident in
psychology shall be in continuous compliance with the regulatory requirements
for supervised experience as found in 18VAC125-20-65 and shall not perform the
functions of the LMHP-RP or be considered a "resident" until the
supervision for specific clinical duties at a specific site has been
preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of Psychology. For purposes of
Medicaid reimbursement by supervisors for services provided by such residents,
they shall use the title "Resident in Psychology" after their
signatures to indicate such status.
"LMHP-supervisee in social work,"
"LMHP-supervisee," or "LMHP-S" means the same as
"supervisee" as defined in 18VAC140-20-10 for licensed clinical
social workers. An LMHP-supervisee in social work shall be in continuous
compliance with the regulatory requirements for supervised practice as found in
18VAC140-20-50 and shall not perform the functions of the LMHP-S or be
considered a "supervisee" until the supervision for specific clinical
duties at a specific site is preapproved in writing by the Virginia Board of
Social Work. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement to their supervisors for
services provided by supervisees, these persons shall use the title "Supervisee
in Social Work" after their signatures to indicate such status.
"Progress notes" means individual-specific
documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
the notes. Individualized and member-specific progress notes are part of the
minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's status,
staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress, or lack of
progress, toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes shall also
include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of the
service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered the
service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of time
or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each progress
note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be
documented for each service that is billed.
"Psychoeducation" means (i) a specific form of
education aimed at helping individuals who have mental illness and their family
members or caregivers to access clear and concise information about mental
illness and (ii) a way of accessing and learning strategies to deal with mental
illness and its effects in order to design effective treatment plans and
strategies.
"Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving and increasing coping
skills.
"Qualified mental health professional-child" or
"QMHP-C" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
"Qualified mental health professional-eligible" or
"QMHP-E" means the same as the term is defined in 12VAC35-105-20 and
consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-590.
"Qualified paraprofessional in mental health" or
"QPPMH" means the same as the term is defined in
12VAC35-105-20 and consistent with the requirements of 12VAC35-105-1370.
"Service-specific provider intake" means the
face-to-face interaction in which the provider obtains information from the
child or adolescent, and parent or other family member or members, as
appropriate, about the child's or adolescent's mental health status. It
includes documented history of the severity, intensity, and duration of mental
health care problems and issues and shall contain all of the following
elements: (i) the presenting issue/reason for referral, (ii) mental health
history/hospitalizations, (iii) previous interventions by providers and
timeframes and response to treatment, (iv) medical profile, (v) developmental
history including history of abuse, if appropriate, (vi) educational/vocational
status, (vii) current living situation and family history and relationships,
(viii) legal status, (ix) drug and alcohol profile, (x) resources and
strengths, (xi) mental status exam and profile, (xii) diagnosis, (xiii)
professional summary and clinical formulation, (xiv) recommended care and
treatment goals, and (xv) the dated signature of the LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
b. 2. Intensive in-home services (IIH) to
children and adolescents under age 21 shall be time-limited interventions
provided in the individual's residence and when clinically necessary in
community settings. All interventions and the settings of the intervention
shall be defined in the Individual Service Plan. All IIH services shall be
designed to specifically improve family dynamics, provide modeling, and the
clinically necessary interventions that increase functional and therapeutic
interpersonal relations between family members in the home. IIH services are
designed to promote psychoeducational benefits in the home setting of an
individual who is at risk of being moved into an out-of-home placement or who
is being transitioned to home from an out-of-home placement due to a documented
medical need of the individual. These services provide crisis treatment;
individual and family counseling; communication skills (e.g., counseling to
assist the individual and his parents or guardians, as appropriate, to
understand and practice appropriate problem solving, anger management, and
interpersonal interaction, etc.); care coordination with other required
services; and 24-hour emergency response.
(1) These services shall be limited annually to 26 weeks.
a. Service authorization shall be required for Medicaid reimbursement
prior to the onset of services. Services rendered before the date of
authorization shall not be reimbursed.
(2) b. Service authorization shall be required
for services to continue beyond the initial 26 weeks.
(3) c. Service-specific provider intakes shall
be required at the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the
entire duration of services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or
outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement.
Requirements for service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are set out in this
section.
(4) d. These services may shall
only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C,
or a QMHP-E.
c. 3. Therapeutic day treatment (TDT) shall be
provided two or more hours per day in order to provide therapeutic
interventions. Day treatment programs, limited annually to 780 units, (a
unit is defined in 12VAC30-60-61 D 11) provide evaluation; medication education
and management; opportunities to learn and use daily living skills and to
enhance social and interpersonal skills (e.g., problem solving, anger
management, community responsibility, increased impulse control, and
appropriate peer relations, etc.); and individual, group and family counseling.
(1) a. Service authorization shall be required
for Medicaid reimbursement.
(2) b. Service-specific provider intakes shall
be required at the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the
entire duration of services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or
outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied
reimbursement. Requirements for service-specific provider intakes and ISPs are
set out in this section.
(3) c. These services may shall be
rendered only by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or
a QMHP-E.
d. Community-based services for children and adolescents
under 21 years of age (Level A).
(1) Such services shall be a combination of therapeutic
services rendered in a residential setting. The residential services will
provide structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic
supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric treatment to ensure the
attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the individual
service plan (plan of care). Individuals qualifying for this service must
demonstrate medical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to
mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant functional impairments
in major life activities in the home, school, at work, or in the community. The
service must reasonably be expected to improve the child's condition or prevent
regression so that the services will no longer be needed. The application of a
national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry,
such as McKesson InterQual® Criteria or an equivalent standard
authorized in advance by DMAS, shall be required for this service.
(2) In addition to the residential services, the child must
receive, at least weekly, individual psychotherapy that is provided by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
(3) Individuals shall be discharged from this service when
other less intensive services may achieve stabilization.
(4) Authorization shall be required for Medicaid
reimbursement. Services that were rendered before the date of service
authorization shall not be reimbursed.
(5) Room and board costs shall not be reimbursed. DMAS
shall reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no
more than 16 beds.
(6) These residential providers must be licensed by the
Department of Social Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of
Behavioral Health and Developmental Services under the Standards for Licensed
Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC40-151), Standards for Interim
Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (6VAC35-51), or Regulations for
Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
(7) Daily progress notes shall document a minimum of seven
psychoeducational activities per week. Psychoeducational programming must
include, but is not limited to, development or maintenance of daily living
skills, anger management, social skills, family living skills, communication
skills, stress management, and any care coordination activities.
(8) The facility/group home must coordinate services with
other providers. Such care coordination shall be documented in the individual's
medical record. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
contact occurred, and what information was transmitted.
(9) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. Services based upon incomplete, missing, or outdated service-specific
provider intakes or ISPs shall be denied reimbursement. Requirements for
intakes and ISPs are set out in 12VAC30-60-61.
(10) These services may only be rendered by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH.
D. Early and periodic screening diagnosis and treatment
(EPSDT) of individuals younger than 21 years of age - therapeutic group home
services and residential treatment services.
1. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
this subsection shall have the following meanings:
"Active treatment" means implementation of an
initial plan of care (IPOC) and comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC)
that shall be developed, supervised, and approved by the family or legally
authorized representative, treating physician, psychiatrist, or LMHP
responsible for the overall supervision of the CIPOC. Each plan of care shall
be designed to improve the individual's condition and to achieve the
individual's safe discharge from residential care at the earliest possible
time.
"Assessment" means a service conducted within
seven calendar days of admission by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S
utilizing a tool or series of tools to provide a comprehensive evaluation and
review of an individual's current mental health status in order to make
recommendations; provide diagnosis; identify strengths, needs, and risk level;
and describe the severity of symptoms.
"Behavioral health services administrator" or
"BHSA" means an entity that manages or directs a behavioral health
benefits program under contract with DMAS.
"Certificate of need" or "CON" means a
written statement by an independent certification team that services in a
residential treatment facility are or were needed.
"Combined treatment services" means a structured,
therapeutic milieu and planned interventions that promote (i) the development
or restoration of adaptive functioning, self-care, and social skills; (ii)
community integrated activities and community living skills that each
individual requires to live in less restrictive environments; (iii) behavioral
consultation; (iv) individual and group therapy; (v) recreation therapy, (vi)
family education and family therapy; and (vii) individualized treatment
planning.
"Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
"CIPOC" means a person-centered plan of care that meets all of the
requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
information gathered during the referral process.
"Crisis" means a deteriorating or unstable
situation, often developing suddenly that produces an acute, heightened
emotional, mental, physical, medical, or behavioral event.
"Crisis management" means immediately provided
activities and interventions designed to rapidly manage a crisis.
"Daily supervision" means the supervision
provided in a residential treatment facility through a resident-to-staff ratio
approved by the Office of Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and
Developmental Services with documented supervision checks every 15 minutes
throughout the 24-hour period.
"Discharge planning" means family and
locality-based care coordination that begins upon admission to a residential
treatment facility or therapeutic group home with the goal of transitioning the
individual out of the residential treatment facility or therapeutic group home
to a less restrictive care setting with continued, clinically-appropriate, and
possibly intensive, services as soon as possible upon discharge. Discharge
plans shall be recommended by the treating physician, psychiatrist, or treating
LMHP responsible for the overall supervision of the CIPOC and shall be approved
by the BHSA.
"DSM-5" means the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, copyright 2013, American Psychiatric
Association.
"Emergency admissions" means those admissions
that are made when, pending a review for the certificate of need, it appears
that the individual is in need of an immediate admission to group home or
residential treatment and likely does not meet the medical necessity criteria
to receive crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, or acute psychiatric
inpatient services.
"Emergency services" means unscheduled and
sometimes scheduled crisis intervention, stabilization, acute psychiatric
inpatient services, and referral assistance provided over the telephone or
face-to-face if indicated, and available 24 hours a day, seven days per week.
"Family engagement" means a family-centered and strengths-based
approach to partnering with families in making decisions, setting goals,
achieving desired outcomes, and promoting safety, permanency, and well-being
for children, youth, and families. Family engagement requires ongoing
opportunities for an individual to build and maintain meaningful relationships
with family members, for example, frequent, unscheduled, and noncontingent
phone calls and visits between an individual and family members. Family
engagement may also include enhancing or facilitating the development of the
individual's relationship with other family members and supportive adults
responsible for the individual's care and well-being upon discharge.
"Family engagement activity" means an
intervention consisting of family psychoeducational training or coaching,
transition planning with the family, family and independent living skills, and
training on accessing community supports as identified in the IPOC and CIPOC.
Family engagement activity does not include and is not the same as family
therapy.
"Independent certification team" means a team
that has competence in diagnosis and treatment of mental illness, preferably in
child psychiatry; has knowledge of the individual's situation; and is composed
of at least one physician and one LMHP. The independent certification team
shall be a DMAS-authorized contractor with contractual or employment
relationships with the required team members.
"Individual" means the child or adolescent
younger than 21 years of age who is receiving therapeutic group home or
residential treatment facility services.
"Initial plan of care" or "IPOC" means
a person-centered plan of care established at admission that meets all of the
requirements of this subsection and is specific to the individual's unique
treatment needs and acuity levels as identified in the clinical assessment and
information gathered during the referral process.
"Intervention" means scheduled therapeutic
treatment such as individual or group psychoeducation; psychoeducational
activities with specific topics focused to address individualized needs;
structured behavior support and training activities; recreation, art, and music
therapies; community integration activities that promote or assist in the
youth's ability to acquire coping and functional or self-regulating behavior
skills; day and overnight passes; and family engagement activities.
Interventions shall not include individual, group, and family therapy,
medical, or dental appointments, physician services, medication evaluation or
management provided by a licensed clinician or physician and shall not include
school attendance. Interventions shall be provided in the therapeutic group
home or residential treatment facility and, when clinically necessary, in a
community setting or as part of a therapeutic leave activity. All interventions
and settings of the intervention shall be established in the CIPOC.
"Physician" means an individual licensed to
practice medicine or osteopathic medicine in Virginia, as defined in §
54.1-2900 of the Code of Virginia.
"Psychoeducational activities" means systematic
interventions based on supportive and cognitive behavior therapy that
emphasizes an individual's and his family's needs and focuses on increasing the
individual's and family's knowledge about mental disorders, adjusting to mental
illness, communicating and facilitating problem solving, and increasing coping
skills.
"Recertification" means a certification for each
applicant or recipient for whom residential treatment facility services are
needed.
"Residential case management" means providing
care coordination, maintaining records, making calls, sending emails, compiling
monthly reports, scheduling meetings, and performing other administrative tasks
related to the individual. Residential case management is a component of the
combined treatment services provided in a group home setting or residential
treatment facility.
"Residential medical supervision" means
around-the-clock nursing and medical care through onsite nurses and onsite or
on-call physicians, as well as nurse and physician attendance at each treatment
planning meeting. Residential medical supervision is a component of the
combined treatment services provided in a congregate residential care facility
and is included in the reimbursement for residential services.
"Residential supplemental therapies" means a
specified minimum of daily interventions and other professional therapies.
Residential supplemental therapies are a component of the combined treatment
services provided in a congregate residential care facility and are included in
the reimbursement for residential services. Residential providers shall not
bill other payment sources in addition to DMAS for these covered services as
part of a residential stay.
"Residential treatment facility" means the same
as defined in 42 CFR 483.352 and is a 24-hour, supervised, clinically and
medically necessary, out-of-home active treatment program designed to provide
necessary support and address mental health, behavioral, substance abuse,
cognitive, and training needs of an individual younger than 21 years of age in
order to prevent or minimize the need for more intensive inpatient treatment.
"Room and board" means a component of the total
daily cost for placement in a licensed residential treatment facility. Residential
room and board costs are maintenance costs associated with placement in a
licensed residential treatment facility and include a semi-private room, three
meals and two snacks per day, and personal care items. Room and board costs are
reimbursed only for residential treatment settings.
"Therapeutic group home" means a congregate
residential service providing 24-hour supervision in a community-based home
having eight or fewer residents.
"Therapeutic leave" and "therapeutic
passes" mean time at home or time with family consisting of partial
or entire days of time away from the group home or treatment facility with
identified goals as approved by the treating physician, psychiatrist, or LMHP
responsible for the overall supervision of the CIPOC and documented in the
CIPOC that facilitate or measure treatment progress, facilitate aftercare
designed to promote family/community engagement, connection and permanency, and
provide for goal-directed family engagement.
e. 2. Therapeutic behavioral group
home services (Level B).
(1) Such services must be therapeutic services rendered in
a residential setting that provides structure for daily activities,
psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision, care coordination, and psychiatric
treatment to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as
identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). Individuals
qualifying for this service must demonstrate medical necessity for the service
arising from a condition due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that
results in significant functional impairments in major life activities in the
home, school, at work, or in the community. The service must reasonably be
expected to improve the child's condition or prevent regression so that the
services will no longer be needed. The application of a national standardized
set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry, such as McKesson
InterQual® Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized in advance
by DMAS shall be required for this service.
a. Therapeutic group home services for children and
adolescents younger than the age of 21 years are combined treatment services.
The combination of therapeutic services rendered in a residential setting
provides a therapeutic structure of daily psychoeducational activities,
therapeutic supervision, behavioral modification, and mental health care to
ensure the attainment of therapeutic goals. The therapeutic group home shall
provide therapeutic services to restore, develop, or maintain appropriate
skills necessary to promote prosocial behavior and healthy living to include
the development of coping skills, family living and health awareness,
interpersonal skills, communication skills, and stress management skills.
Treatment for substance use disorders shall be addressed as clinically
indicated. The program shall include individualized activities provided in
accordance with the IPOC and CIPOC including a minimum of one intervention per
24-hour period in addition to individual, group, and family therapies. Daily
interventions are not required when there is documentation to justify clinical
or medical reasons for the individual's deviations from the service plan.
Interventions shall be documented on a progress note and shall be outlined in
and aligned with the treatment goals and objectives in the IPOC and CIPOC. Any
deviation from the IPOC or CIPOC shall be documented along with a clinical or
medical justification for the deviation.
b. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a
therapeutic group home. The following requirements for severity of need and
intensity and quality of service shall be met to satisfy the medical necessity
criteria for admission.
(1) Admission - severity of need. The following criteria
shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
(a) The individual's behavioral health condition can only
be safely and effectively treated in a 24-hour therapeutic milieu with onsite
behavioral health therapy due to significant impairments in home, school, and
community functioning caused by current mental health symptoms consistent with
a DSM-5 diagnosis.
(b) The certificate of need must demonstrate all of the
following: (i) ambulatory care resources (all available modalities of treatment
less restrictive than inpatient treatment) available in the community do not
meet the treatment needs of the individual; (ii) proper treatment of the
individual's psychiatric condition requires services on an inpatient basis
under the direction of a physician; and (iii) the services can reasonably be
expected to improve the individual's condition or prevent further regression so
that the services will no longer be needed.
(c) An assessment that demonstrates at least two areas of
moderate impairment in major life activities. A moderate impairment is defined
as a major or persistent disruption in major life activities. The state uniform
assessment tool must be completed. A moderate impairment is evidenced by, but
not limited to (i) frequent conflict in the family setting such as credible
threats of physical harm. "Frequent" is defined as more than expected
for the individual's age and developmental level; (ii) frequent inability to
accept age-appropriate direction and supervision from caretakers, from family
members, at school, or in the home or community; (iii) severely limited
involvement in social support, which means significant avoidance of appropriate
social interaction, deterioration of existing relationships, or refusal to
participate in therapeutic interventions; (iv) impaired ability to form a
trusting relationship with at least one caretaker in the home, school, or
community; (v) limited ability to consider the effect of one's inappropriate
conduct on others; and (vi) interactions consistently involving conflict, which
may include impulsive or abusive behaviors.
(d) Less restrictive community-based services have been
given a fully adequate trial and were unsuccessful or, if not attempted, have
been considered, but in either situation were determined to be to be unable to
meet the individual's treatment needs and the reasons for that are discussed in
the application.
(e) The individual's symptoms, or the need for treatment in
a 24 hours a day, seven days a week level of care (LOC), are not primarily due
to any of the following: (i) intellectual disability, developmental disability,
or autistic spectrum disorder; (ii) organic mental disorders, traumatic brain
injury, or other medical condition; or (iii) the individual does not require a
more intensive level of care.
(f) The individual does not require primary medical or
surgical treatment.
(2) Admission - intensity and quality of service. All of
the following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for intensity and
quality of service.
(a) The therapeutic group home service has been prescribed
by a psychiatrist, psychologist, or other LMHP who has documented that a
residential setting is the least restrictive clinically appropriate service
that can meet the specifically identified treatment needs of the individual
(b) Therapeutic group home is not being used for clinically
inappropriate reasons, including: (i) an alternative to incarceration, and/or
preventative detention; (ii) an alternative to parents', guardian's or agency's
capacity to provide a place of residence for the individual; or, (iii) a
treatment intervention, when other less restrictive alternatives are available.
(c) The individual's treatment goals are included in the
service specific provider intake and include behaviorally defined objectives
that require, and can reasonably be achieved within, a therapeutic group home
setting.
(d) The therapeutic group home is required to coordinate
with the individual's community resources, including schools, with the goal of
transitioning the individual out of the program to a less restrictive care
setting for continued, sometimes intensive, services as soon as possible and
appropriate.
(e) The therapeutic group home program must incorporate
nationally established, evidence-based, trauma informed services and supports
that promote recovery and resiliency.
(f) Discharge planning begins upon admission, with concrete
plans for the individual to transition back into the community beginning within
the first week of admission, with clear action steps and target dates outlined
in the treatment plan.
(3) Continued stay criteria. The following criteria shall
be met in order to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
(a) All of the admission guidelines continue to be met and
this is supported by the written clinical documentation.
(b) The individual shall meet one of the following: (i) the
desired outcome or level of functioning has not been restored or improved in
the timeframe outlined in the individual's CIPOC or the individual continues to
be at risk for relapse based on history or (ii) the tenuous nature of the
functional gains and use of less intensive services will not achieve
stabilization.
(c) The individual shall meet one of the following: (i) the
individual has achieved initial CIPOC goals but additional goals are indicated
that cannot be met at a lower level of care; (ii) the individual is making
satisfactory progress toward meeting goals but has not attained CIPOC goals,
and the goals cannot be addressed at a lower level of care; (iii) the
individual is not making progress, and the CIPOC has been modified to identify
more effective interventions; or (iv) there are current indications that the
individual requires this level of treatment to maintain level of functioning as
evidenced by failure to achieve goals identified for therapeutic visits or
stays in a nontreatment residential setting or in a lower level of residential
treatment.
(d) There is a written, up-to-date discharge plan that (i)
identifies the custodial parent or custodial caregiver at discharge; (ii)
identifies the school the individual will attend at discharge; (iii) includes
individualized education program (IEP) recommendations, if necessary; (iv)
outlines the aftercare treatment plan (discharge to another residential LOC is
not an acceptable discharge goal); and (v) lists barriers to community
reintegration and progress made on resolving these barriers since last review.
(e) The active treatment plan includes structure for daily
activities, psychoeducation, and therapeutic supervision and activities to
ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals as identified in the
treatment plan. In addition to the daily therapeutic residential services, the
child/adolescent must also receive psychotherapy services, care coordination,
family-based discharge planning, and locality-based transition activities.
Intensive family interventions, with a recommended frequency of one family
therapy session per week, although twice per month is minimally acceptable.
Family involvement begins immediately upon admission to therapeutic group home.
If the minimum requirement cannot be met, the reasons must be reported, and
continued efforts to involve family members must also be documented. Under
certain circumstances an alternate plan, aimed at enhancing the individual's
connections with other family members and/or supportive adults may be an
appropriate substitute.
(f) Less restrictive treatment options have been
considered, but cannot yet meet the individual's treatment needs. There is
sufficient current clinical documentation/evidence to show that therapeutic
group home LOC continues to be the least restrictive level of care that can
meet the individual's mental health treatment needs.
(4) Discharge criteria are as follows:
(a) Medicaid reimbursement is not available when other less
intensive services may achieve stabilization.
(b) Reimbursement shall not be made for this level of care
if any of the following applies: (i) the level of functioning has improved with
respect to the goals outlined in the CIPOC and the individual can reasonably be
expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment or (ii) the
individual no longer benefits from service as evidenced by absence of progress
toward CIPOC goals for a period of 60 days.
c. The following clinical interventions shall be required
for each therapeutic group home resident:
(1) Preadmission service-specific provider intake shall be
performed by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S.
(2) A face-to-face behavioral health assessment shall be
performed by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S within 30 days prior to
admission and shall document a DSM-5/ICD-10 diagnosis.
(3) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
independent certification team according to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-130
D 4. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 days by a LMHP, LMHP-R,
LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S acting within their scope of practice.
(4) An initial plan of care shall be completed on the day
of admission by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be signed by the
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual and a family member or
legally authorized representative. The initial plan of care shall include all
of the following:
(a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
strategies and treatment alliance;
(b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
(c) A description of the functional level of the
individual;
(d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
(e) Orders for medications, psychiatric, medical, dental,
and any special health care needs whether or not provided in the facilities,
treatments, restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies,
social services, community integration, diet, and special procedures
recommended for the health and safety of the individual;
(f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care; and
(g) Plans for discharge.
(5) The CIPOC shall be completed no later than 14 calendar
days after admission and shall meet all of the following criteria:
(a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the individual's situation and shall reflect the need
for therapeutic group home care;
(b) Be based on input from school, home, other health care
providers, the individual, and the family or legal guardian;
(c) Shall state treatment objectives that include
measurable short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
achievement;
(d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
to the diagnosis; and
(e) Include a comprehensive discharge plan with necessary,
clinically appropriate community services to ensure continuity of care upon
discharge with the child's family, school, and community.
(6) The CIPOC shall be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30
calendar days by the LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a
family member or primary caregiver. Updates shall be signed and dated by the
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and the individual or a family member or
legally authorized representative. The review shall include all of the
following:
(a) The individual's response to the services provided;
(b) Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
individual's overall response to the CIPOC interventions; and
(c) Determinations regarding whether the services being
provided continue to be required.
(7) Crisis management, clinical assessment, and
individualized therapy shall be provided as indicated in the IPOC and CIPOC to
address intermittent crises and challenges within the group home setting or
community settings as defined in the plan of care and to avoid a higher level
of care.
(8) Care coordination shall be provided with medical,
educational, and other behavioral health providers and other entities involved
in the care and discharge planning for the individual as included in the IPOC
and CIPOC.
(9) Weekly individual therapy shall be provided in the
therapeutic group home, or other settings as appropriate for the individual's
needs, by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which shall be documented in
progress notes in accordance with the requirements in 12VAC30-60-61.
(10) Weekly (or more frequently if clinically indicated)
group therapy shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which
shall be documented in progress notes in accordance with the requirements in
12VAC30-60-61 and as planned and documented in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(11) Family treatment shall be provided as clinically
indicated, provided by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S, which shall be
documented in progress notes in accordance with the requirements in
12VAC30-60-61 and as planned and documented in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(12) Family engagement activities shall be provided in
addition to family therapy/counseling. Family engagement activities shall be
provided at least weekly as outlined in the IPOC and CIPOC, and daily
communication with the family or legally authorized representative shall be
part of the family engagement strategies in the IPOC or CIPOC. For each
service authorization period when family engagement is not possible, the
therapeutic group home shall identify and document the specific barriers to the
individual's engagement with his family or legally authorized representatives.
The therapeutic group home shall document on a weekly basis the reasons why
family engagement is not occurring as required. The therapeutic group home
shall document alternative family engagement strategies to be used as part of
the interventions in the IPOC or CIPOC and request approval of the revised IPOC
or CIPOC by DMAS or its contractor. When family engagement is not possible, the
therapeutic group home shall collaborate with DMAS or its contractor on a
weekly basis to develop individualized family engagement strategies and
document the revised strategies in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(13) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
indicated and as paired with facility-based and community-based interventions
and combined treatment services to promote discharge planning, community
integration, and family engagement activities. Twenty-four therapeutic passes
shall be permitted per individual, per admission, without authorization as
approved by the treating LMHP and documented in the CIPOC. Additional
therapeutic leave passes shall require service authorization. Any unauthorized
therapeutic leave passes shall result in retraction for those days of service.
(14) Discharge planning. Beginning at admission and
continuing throughout the individual's stay at the therapeutic group home, the
family or guardian, the community services board (CSB), the family assessment
and planning team (FAPT) case manager, and either the managed care organization
(MCO) or BHSA care manager shall be involved in treatment planning and shall
identify the anticipated needs of the individual and family upon discharge and
available services in the community. Prior to discharge, the therapeutic group
home shall submit an active and viable discharge plan to the BHSA for review.
Once the BHSA approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin actively
collaborating with the family or legally authorized representative and the
treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The therapeutic
group home shall request permission from the parent or legally authorized
representative to share treatment information with these providers and shall
share information pursuant to a valid release. The therapeutic group home shall
request information from post-discharge providers to establish that the
planning of pending services and transition planning activities have begun,
shall establish that active transition planning has begun, shall establish that
the individual has been enrolled in school, and shall provide IEP recommendations
to the school if necessary. The therapeutic group home shall inform the BHSA of
all scheduled appointments within 30 days of discharge and shall notify the
BHSA within one business day of the individual's discharge date from the
therapeutic group home.
(2) Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
Services that are rendered before the date of service authorization shall not
be reimbursed.
(3) (15) Room and board costs shall not be
reimbursed. Facilities that only provide independent living services or
nonclinical services that do not meet the requirements of this subsection
are not reimbursed eligible for reimbursement. DMAS shall
reimburse only for services provided in facilities or programs with no more
than 16 beds.
(4) These residential (16) Therapeutic group home
services providers must shall be licensed by the Department
of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) under the Regulations
for Children's Residential Facilities (12VAC35-46).
(5) Daily progress notes shall document that a minimum of
seven psychoeducational activities per week occurs. Psychoeducational
programming must include, but is not limited to, development or maintenance of
daily living skills, anger management, social skills, family living skills,
communication skills, and stress management. This service may be provided in a
program setting or a community-based group home.
(6) The individual must receive, at least weekly,
individual psychotherapy and, at least weekly, group psychotherapy that is
provided as part of the program.
(7) (17) Individuals shall be discharged from
this service when treatment goals are met or other less intensive
services may achieve stabilization.
(8) Service-specific provider intakes shall be required at
the onset of services and ISPs shall be required during the entire duration of
services. (18) Services that are based upon incomplete, missing, or
outdated service-specific provider intakes or ISPs CIPOCs shall
be denied reimbursement. Requirements for intakes and ISPs are set out in
12VAC30-60-61.
(9)These (19) Therapeutic group home services
may only be rendered by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a
QMHP-C, a QMHP-E, or a QPPMH qualified paraprofessional in mental
health.
(10) (20) The facility / or group
home shall coordinate necessary services and discharge planning with
other providers as medically and clinically necessary. Documentation of
this care coordination shall be maintained by the facility / or
group home in the individual's record. The documentation shall include who was
contacted, when the contact occurred, and what information was
transmitted, and recommended next steps.
(21) Failure to perform any of the items described in this
subsection shall result in a retraction of the per diem for each day of
noncompliance.
6. Inpatient psychiatric 3. Residential
treatment facility services shall are a 24-hour, supervised,
clinically and medically necessary out-of-home program designed to provide
necessary support and address mental health, behavioral, substance use,
cognitive, or other treatment needs of an individual younger than the age of 21
years in order to prevent or minimize the need for more intensive inpatient
treatment. Active treatment and comprehensive discharge planning shall begin
prior to admission. In order to be covered for individuals younger
than age 21 for medically necessary stays for the purpose of diagnosis and
treatment of mental health and behavioral disorders identified under EPSDT when
such services are rendered by: these services shall (i) meet
DMAS-approved psychiatric medical necessity criteria or be approved as an EPSDT
service based upon a diagnosis made by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S who
is practicing within the scope of his license and (ii) be reflected in provider
records and on the provider's claims for services by recognized diagnosis codes
that support and are consistent with the requested professional services.
a. A psychiatric hospital or an inpatient psychiatric
program in a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
Healthcare Organizations; or a psychiatric facility that is accredited by the
Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission
on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Accreditation of
Services for Families and Children or the Council on Quality and Leadership.
b. Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general
acute care hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be
subject to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and
12VAC30-60-25. Inpatient psychiatric admissions to residential treatment
facilities shall also be subject to the requirements of Part XIV
(12VAC30-130-850 et seq.) of Amount, Duration and Scope of Selected Services.
c. Inpatient psychiatric services are reimbursable only
when the treatment program is fully in compliance with 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart
D, as contained in 42 CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 441.152 through 441.156. Each
admission must be preauthorized and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements
for clinical necessity.
a. Residential treatment facility services shall be covered
for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of mental health and behavioral
disorders when such services are rendered by:
(1) A psychiatric hospital or an inpatient psychiatric
program in a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission; or a psychiatric
facility that is accredited by the Joint Commission, the Commission on
Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Accreditation of
Services for Families and Children, or the Council on Quality and Leadership.
Providers of residential treatment facility services shall be licensed by
DBHDS.
(2) Inpatient psychiatric hospital admissions at general
acute care hospitals and freestanding psychiatric hospitals shall also be
subject to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-100, 12VAC30-50-105, and
12VAC30-60-25. Inpatient psychiatric admissions to residential treatment
facilities shall also be subject to the requirements of 12VAC30-130 (Amount,
Duration and Scope of Selected Services).
(3) Residential treatment facility services are
reimbursable only when the treatment program is fully in compliance with (i)
the Code of Federal Regulations at 42 CFR Part 441 Subpart D, specifically 42
CFR 441.151 (a) and (b) and 42 CFR 441.152 through 42 CFR 441.156 and (ii) the
Conditions of Participation in 42 CFR Part 483 Subpart G. Each admission must
be preauthorized and the treatment must meet DMAS requirements for clinical
necessity.
b. Residential treatment facility services shall
include assessment and re-assessment; room and board; daily supervision;
combined treatment services; individual, family, and group therapy; residential
care coordination; interventions; general or special education; medical
treatment (including medication, coordination of necessary medical services,
and 24-hour onsite nursing); specialty services; and discharge planning that
meets the medical and clinical needs of the individual.
c. Medical necessity criteria for admission to a
psychiatric residential treatment facility. The following requirements for
severity of need and intensity and quality of service shall be met to satisfy
the medical necessity criteria for admission:
(1) Admission - severity of need. The following criteria
shall be met to satisfy the criteria for severity of need:
(a) There is clinical evidence that the patient has a DSM-5
disorder that is amenable to active psychiatric treatment.
(b) There is a high degree of potential of the condition
leading to acute psychiatric hospitalization in the absence of residential
treatment.
(c) Either (i) there is clinical evidence that the
individual would be a risk to self or others if he were not in a residential
treatment program or (ii) as a result of the individual's mental disorder, there
is an inability to adequately care for one's physical needs, and
caretakers/guardians/family members are unable to safely fulfill these needs,
representing potential serious harm to self.
(d) The individual requires supervision seven days per
week, 24 hours per day to develop skills necessary for daily living; to assist
with planning and arranging access to a range of educational, therapeutic, and
aftercare services; and to develop the adaptive and functional behavior that
will allow him to live outside of a residential setting.
(e) The individual's current living environment does not
provide the support and access to therapeutic services needed.
(f) The individual is medically stable and does not require
the 24-hour medical or nursing monitoring or procedures provided in a hospital
level of care.
(2) Admission - intensity and quality of service. The
following criteria shall be met to satisfy the criteria for intensity and
quality of service:
(a) The evaluation and assignment of a DSM-5 diagnosis must
result from a face-to-face psychiatric evaluation.
(b) The program provides supervision seven days per week,
24 hours per day to assist with the development of skills necessary for daily
living; to assist with planning and arranging access to a range of educational,
therapeutic, and aftercare services; and to assist with the development of the
adaptive and functional behavior that will allow the patient to live outside of
a residential setting.
(c) An individualized plan of active psychiatric treatment
and residential living support is provided in a timely manner. This treatment
must be medically monitored, with 24-hour medical availability and 24-hour
nursing services availability. This plan includes (i) at least once-a-week
psychiatric reassessments; (ii) intensive family and/or support system
involvement occurring at least once per week, or identifies valid reasons why
such a plan is not clinically appropriate or feasible; (iii) psychotropic
medications, when used, are to be used with specific target symptoms
identified; (iv) evaluation for current medical problems; (v) evaluation for
concomitant substance use issues; (vi) linkage and/or coordination with the
patient's community resources with the goal of returning the patient to his
regular social environment as soon as possible, unless contraindicated. School
contact should address an individualized educational plan as appropriate.
(d) A urine drug screen is considered at the time of
admission, when progress is not occurring, when substance misuse is suspected,
or when substance use and medications may have a potential adverse interaction.
After a positive screen, additional random screens are considered and referral
to a substance use disorder provider is considered.
(3) Criteria for continued stay. The following criteria
shall be met to satisfy the criteria for continued stay:
(a) Despite reasonable therapeutic efforts, clinical
evidence indicates at least one of the following: (i) the persistence of
problems that caused the admission to a degree that continues to meet the
admission criteria (both severity of need and intensity of service needs); (ii)
the emergence of additional problems that meet the admission criteria (both
severity of need and intensity of service needs); (iii) that disposition planning
and/or attempts at therapeutic re-entry into the community have resulted in or
would result in exacerbation of the psychiatric illness to the degree that
would necessitate continued residential treatment. Subjective opinions without
objective clinical information or evidence are not sufficient to meet severity
of need based on justifying the expectation that there would be a
decompensation.
(b) There is evidence of objective, measurable, and
time-limited therapeutic clinical goals that must be met before the patient can
return to a new or previous living situation. There is evidence that attempts
are being made to secure timely access to treatment resources and housing in
anticipation of discharge, with alternative housing contingency plans also
being addressed.
(c) There is evidence that the treatment plan is focused on
the alleviation of psychiatric symptoms and precipitating psychosocial
stressors that are interfering with the patient's ability to return to a
less-intensive level of care.
(d) The current or revised treatment plan can be reasonably
expected to bring about significant improvement in the problems meeting the
criteria in subdivision 3 c (3) (a) of this subsection, and this is documented
in weekly progress notes written and signed by the provider.
(e) There is evidence of intensive family and/or support
system involvement occurring at least once per week, unless there is an
identified, valid reason why it is not clinically appropriate or feasible.
(f) A discharge plan is formulated that is directly linked
to the behaviors and/or symptoms that resulted in admission, and begins to
identify appropriate post-residential treatment resources.
(g) All applicable elements in admission-intensity and
quality of service criteria are applied as related to assessment and treatment
if clinically relevant and appropriate.
d. The following clinical activities shall be required
for each residential treatment facility resident:
(1) A face-to-face assessment shall be performed by an
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RS, or LMHP-S within 30 days prior to admission and weekly
thereafter and shall document a DSM-5/ICD-10 diagnosis.
(2) A certificate of need shall be completed by an
independent certification team according to the requirements of 12VAC30-50-130
D 4. Recertification shall occur at least every 30 days by a physician acting
within his scope of practice.
(3) The initial plan of care (IPOC) shall be completed
within 24 hours of admission by the treatment team. The initial plan of care
shall include:
(a) Individual and family strengths and personal traits
that would facilitate recovery and opportunities to develop motivational
strategies and treatment alliance;
(b) Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
(c) A description of the functional level of the
individual;
(d) Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
(e) Any orders for medications, psychiatric, medical,
dental, and any special health care needs, whether or not provided in the
facility, education or special education, treatments, interventions,
restorative and rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social
services, diet, and special procedures recommended for the health and safety of
the individual;
(f) Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care;
(g) Plans for discharge; and
(h) Signature and date by the individual, parent, or
legally authorized representative, a physician, and treatment team members.
(4) The CIPOC shall be completed no later than 14 calendar
days after admission by the treatment team. The residential treatment facility
shall request authorizations from families to release confidential information
to collect information from medical and behavioral health treatment providers,
schools, social services, court services, and other relevant parties. This
information shall be used when considering changes and updating the CIPOC. The
CIPOC shall meet all of the following criteria:
(a) Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the individual's situation and must reflect the need
for residential treatment facility care;
(b) Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
and other personnel specified in this subdivision 3 d of this subsection who
are employed by or provide services to the individual in the facility in
consultation with the individual, family member, or legally authorized
representative, or appropriate others into whose care the individual will be
released after discharge;
(c) Shall state treatment objectives that shall include
measurable, evidence-based, short-term and long-term goals and objectives;
family engagement activities; and the design of community-based aftercare with target
dates for achievement;
(d) Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
interventions, activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment
objectives related to the individual and family treatment needs; and
(e) Describe comprehensive transition plans and
coordination of current care and post-discharge plans with related community
services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the recipient's
family, school, and community.
(5) The CIPOC shall be reviewed every 30 calendar days by the
team specified in this subdivision 3 d of this subsection to determine that
services being provided are or were required from a residential treatment
facility and to recommend changes in the plan as indicated by the individual's
overall adjustment during the time away from home. The CIPOC shall include the
signature and date from the individual, parent, or legally authorized
representative, a physician, and treatment team members.
(6) Individual therapy shall be provided three times
per week (or more frequently based upon the individual's needs) provided by an
LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the IPOC, CIPOC,
and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this subsection.
(7) Group therapy shall be provided as clinically indicated
by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the IPOC,
CIPOC, and progress notes in accordance with the requirements in this
subsection.
(8) Family therapy shall be provided as clinically
indicated by an LMHP, LMHP-R, LMHP-RP, or LMHP-S and shall be documented in the
IPOC, CIPOC, and progress notes in accordance with the individual and family or
legally authorized representative's goals and the requirements in this
subsection.
(9) Family engagement shall be provided in addition to
family therapy/counseling. Family engagement shall be provided at least weekly
as outlined in the IPOC and CIPOC, and daily communication with the family or
legally authorized representative shall be part of the family engagement
strategies in the IPOC and CIPOC. For each service authorization period
when family engagement is not possible, the psychiatric residential treatment
facility shall identify and document the specific barriers to the individual's
engagement with his family or legally authorized representatives. The
psychiatric residential treatment facility shall document on a weekly basis,
the reasons that family engagement is not occurring as required. The
psychiatric residential treatment facility shall document alternate family
engagement strategies to be used as part of the interventions in the IPOC or
CIPOC and request approval of the revised IPOC or CIPOC by DMAS or its
contractor. When family engagement is not possible, the psychiatric residential
treatment facility shall collaborate with DMAS or its contractor on a weekly
basis to develop individualized family engagement strategies and document the
revised strategies in the IPOC or CIPOC.
(10) Three interventions shall be provided per 24-hour
period including nights and weekends. Family engagement activities are
considered to be an intervention and shall occur based on the treatment and
visitation goals and scheduling needs of the family or legally authorized
representative. Interventions shall be documented on a progress note and shall
be outlined in and aligned with the treatment goals and objectives in the IPOC
and CIPOC. Any deviation from the IPOC or CIPOC shall be documented along with
a clinical or medical justification for the deviation based on the needs of the
individual.
(11) Therapeutic passes shall be provided as clinically
indicated and as paired with community and facility-based interventions and
combined treatment services to promote discharge planning, community
integration, and family engagement. Twenty-four therapeutic passes shall be
permitted per individual, per admission, without authorization as approved by
the treating physician and documented in the CIPOC. Additional therapeutic
leave passes shall require service authorization. Any unauthorized therapeutic
leave passes shall result in retraction for those days of service.
(12) Discharge planning. Beginning at admission and
continuing throughout the individual's placement at the residential treatment
facility, the parent or legally authorized representative, the community
services board (CSB), the family assessment planning team (FAPT) case manager,
if appropriate, and either the managed care organization (MCO) or BHSA care
manager shall be involved in treatment planning and shall identify the
anticipated needs of the individual and family upon discharge and identify the
available services in the community. Prior to discharge, the residential
treatment facility shall submit an active discharge plan to the BHSA for
review. Once the BHSA approves the discharge plan, the provider shall begin
collaborating with the parent or legally authorized representative and the
treatment team to identify behavioral health and medical providers and schedule
appointments for service-specific provider intakes as needed. The residential
treatment facility shall request written permission from the parent or legally
authorized representative to share treatment information with these providers
and shall share information pursuant to a valid release. The residential
treatment facility shall request information from post-discharge providers to
establish that the planning of services and activities has begun, shall
establish that the individual has been enrolled in school, and shall provide
individualized education program (IEP) recommendations to the school if
necessary. The residential treatment facility shall inform the BHSA of all
scheduled appointments within 30 calendar days of discharge and shall notify
the BHSA within one business day of the individual's discharge date from the
residential treatment facility.
(13) Failure to perform any of the items as described in
subdivisions 3 d (1) through 3 d (12) of this subsection up until the discharge
of the individual shall result in a retraction of the per diem and all other
contracted and coordinated service payments for each day of noncompliance.
e. The team developing the CIPOC shall meet the following
requirements:
(1) At least one member of the team must have expertise in
pediatric behavioral health. Based on education and experience, preferably
including competence in child/adolescent psychiatry, the team must be capable
of all of the following: assessing the individual's immediate and long-range
therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths and
liabilities; assessing the potential resources of the individual's family or
legally authorized representative; setting treatment objectives; and
prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the plan's objectives.
(2) The team shall include either:
(a) A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist;
(b) A licensed clinical psychologist and a physician
licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or
(c) A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
mental diseases and a licensed clinical psychologist.
(3) The team shall also include one of the
following: an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
4. Requirements applicable to both therapeutic group homes
and residential treatment facilities: independent certification teams.
a. The independent certification team shall certify the
need for residential treatment or therapeutic group home services and issue a
certificate of need document within the process and timeliness standards as approved
by DMAS under contractual agreement with the BHSA.
b. The independent certification team shall be approved by
DMAS through a memorandum of understanding with a locality or be approved under
contractual agreement with the BHSA. The team shall initiate and coordinate
referral to the family assessment and planning team (FAPT) as defined in §§
2.2-5207 and 2.2-5208 of the Code of Virginia to facilitate care coordination
and for consideration of educational coverage and other supports not covered by
DMAS.
c. The independent certification team shall assess the
individual's and family's strengths and needs in addition to diagnoses,
behaviors, and symptoms that indicate the need for behavioral health treatment
and also consider whether local resources and community-based care are
sufficient to meet the individual's treatment needs, as presented within the
previous 30 calendar days, within the least restrictive environment.
d. The LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP, as
part of the independent certification team, shall meet with an individual and
his parent or legally authorized representative within two business days from a
request to assess the individual's needs and begin the process to certify the
need for an out-of-home placement.
e. The independent certification team shall meet with an
individual and his parent or legally authorized representative within 10
business days from a request to certify the need for an out-of-home placement.
f. The independent certification team shall assess the treatment
needs of the individual to issue a certificate of need (CON) for the most
appropriate medically-necessary services. The certification shall include the
dated signature and credentials for each of the team members who rendered the
certification. Referring or treatment providers shall not actively participate
during the certification process but may provide supporting clinical
documentation to the certification team.
g. The CON shall be effective for 30 calendar days prior to
admission.
h. The independent certification team shall provide the
completed CON to the facility within one calendar day of completing the CON.
i. The individual and his parent or legally authorized
representative shall have the right to freedom of choice of service providers.
j. If the individual or his parent or legally authorized
representative disagrees with the independent certification team's
recommendation, the parent or legally authorized representative may appeal the
recommendation in accordance with 12VAC30-110-10.
k. If the LMHP, as part of the independent certification
team, determines that the individual is in immediate need of treatment, the
LMHP shall refer the individual to an appropriate Medicaid-enrolled emergency
services provider in accordance with 12VAC30-50-226 or shall refer the
individual for emergency admission to a residential treatment facility or
therapeutic group home under subdivision 4 m of this subsection, and shall also
alert the individual's managed care organization.
l. For individuals who are already eligible for Medicaid at
the time of admission, the independent certification team shall be a
DMAS-authorized contractor with competence in the diagnosis and treatment of
mental illness, preferably in child psychiatry, and have knowledge of the individual's
situation and service availability in the individual's local service area. The
team shall be composed of at least one physician and one LMHP, including
LMHP-S, LMHP-R, and LMHP-RP. An individual's parent or legally authorized
representative shall be included in the certification process.
m. For emergency admissions, an assessment must be made by
the team responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care (CIPOC).
Reimbursement shall only occur when a certificate of need is issued by the team
responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care within 14 days after
admission. The certification shall cover any period of time after admission and
before for which claims are made for reimbursement by Medicaid. After
processing an emergency admission the residential treatment facility or
institution for mental diseases (IMD) shall notify the BHSA of the individual's
status as being under the care of the facility within five days.
n. For all individuals who apply and become eligible for
Medicaid while an inpatient in a facility or program, the certification team
shall refer the case to the DMAS-contracted BHSA for referral to the local FAPT
to facilitate care coordination and consideration of educational coverage and
other supports not covered by DMAS.
o. For individuals who apply and become eligible for
Medicaid while an inpatient in the facility or program, the certification shall
be made by the team responsible for the comprehensive individual plan of care
and shall cover any period of time before the application for Medicaid
eligibility for which claims are made for reimbursement by Medicaid. Upon the
individual's enrollment into the Medicaid program, the residential treatment
facility or IMD shall notify the BHSA of the individual's status as being under
the care of the facility within five days of the individual becoming eligible
for Medicaid benefits.
5. Requirements applicable to both therapeutic group homes
and residential treatment facilities - service authorization.
a. Authorization shall be required and shall be conducted
by DMAS, its behavioral health services administrator, or its utilization
management contractor using medical necessity criteria specified in this
subsection.
b. An individual shall have a valid psychiatric diagnosis
and meet the medical necessity criteria as defined in this subsection to
satisfy the criteria for admission. The diagnosis shall be current, as
documented within the past 12 months. If a current diagnosis is not available,
the individual will require a mental health evaluation by an LMHP employed or
contracted with the independent certification team to establish a diagnosis,
and recommend and coordinate referral to the available treatment options.
c. At authorization, an initial length of stay shall be agreed
upon by the individual and parent or legally authorized representative with the
treating provider, and the treating provider shall be responsible for
evaluating and documenting evidence of treatment progress, assessing the need
for ongoing out-of-home placement, and obtaining authorization for continued
stay.
d. Information that is required to obtain authorization for
these services shall include:
(1) A completed state-designated uniform assessment
instrument approved by DMAS;
(2) A certificate of need completed by an independent
certification team specifying all of the following:
(a) The ambulatory care and Medicaid or FAPT-funded
services available in the community do not meet the specific treatment needs of
the individual;
(b) Alternative community-based care was not successful;
(c) Proper treatment of the individual's psychiatric
condition requires services in a 24-hour supervised setting under the direction
of a physician; and
(d) The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
individual's condition or prevent further regression so that a more intensive
level of care will not be needed;
(3) Diagnosis as defined in the DSM-5 and based on (i) an
evaluation by a psychiatrist or LMHP that has been completed within 30 days of
admission or (ii) a diagnosis confirmed in writing by an LMHP after review of a
previous evaluation completed within one year of admission;
(4) A description of the individual's behavior during the
seven days immediately prior to admission;
(5) A description of alternate placements and community
mental health and rehabilitation services and traditional behavioral health
services pursued and attempted and the outcomes of each service.
(6) The individual's level of functioning and clinical
stability.
(7) The level of family involvement and supports available.
(8) The initial plan of care (IPOC).
6. Requirements applicable to both therapeutic group homes
and residential treatment facilities - continued stay criteria. For a continued
stay authorization or a reauthorization to occur, the individual shall meet the
medical necessity criteria as defined in this subsection to satisfy the
criteria for continuing care. The length of the authorized stay shall be
determined by DMAS, the behavioral health services administrator, or the utilization
management contractor. A current CIPOC and a current (within 30 days) summary
of progress related to the goals and objectives of the CIPOC shall be submitted
to DMAS, the behavioral health services administrator, or the utilization
management contractor for continuation of the service. The service provider
shall also submit:
a. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
than 30 business days prior to the date of submission;
b. Documentation that the required services have been provided
as defined in the CIPOC;
c. Current (within the last 14 days) information on
progress related to the achievement of all treatment and discharge-related
goals; and
d. A description of the individual's continued impairment
and treatment needs, problem behaviors, family engagement activities,
community-based discharge planning and care coordination, and need for a
residential level of care.
7. Requirements applicable to therapeutic group homes and
residential treatment facilities - EPSDT services. EPSDT services may involve
service modalities not available to other individuals, such as applied
behavioral analysis and neuro-rehabilitative services. Individualized services
to address specific clinical needs identified in an EPSDT screening shall
require authorization by DMAS, a DMAS contractor, or the BHSA. In unique EPSDT
cases, DMAS, the DMAS contractor, or the BHSA may authorize specialized
services beyond the standard therapeutic group home or residential treatment
medical necessity criteria and program requirements, as medically and
clinically indicated to ensure the most appropriate treatment is available to
each individual. Treating service providers authorized to deliver medically
necessary EPSDT services in inpatient settings, therapeutic group homes, and
residential treatment facilities on behalf of a Medicaid-enrolled individual
shall adhere to the individualized interventions and evidence-based progress
measurement criteria described in the CIPOC and approved for reimbursement by
DMAS, the DMAS contractor, or the BHSA. All documentation, independent
certification team, family engagement activity, therapeutic pass, and discharge
planning requirements shall apply to cases approved as EPSDT inpatient,
residential treatment, or therapeutic group home service.
7. 8. Hearing aids shall be reimbursed for
individuals younger than 21 years of age according to medical necessity when
provided by practitioners licensed to engage in the practice of fitting or
dealing in hearing aids under the Code of Virginia.
C. E. School health services.
1. School health assistant services are repealed effective
July 1, 2006.
2. School divisions may provide routine well-child screening
services under the State Plan. Diagnostic and treatment services that are
otherwise covered under early and periodic screening, diagnosis and treatment
services, shall not be covered for school divisions. School divisions to
receive reimbursement for the screenings shall be enrolled with DMAS as clinic
providers.
a. Children enrolled in managed care organizations shall
receive screenings from those organizations. School divisions shall not receive
reimbursement for screenings from DMAS for these children.
b. School-based services are listed in a recipient's
individualized education program (IEP) and covered under one or more of the
service categories described in § 1905(a) of the Social Security Act. These
services are necessary to correct or ameliorate defects of physical or mental
illnesses or conditions.
3. Service providers shall be licensed under the applicable
state practice act or comparable licensing criteria by the Virginia Department
of Education, and shall meet applicable qualifications under 42 CFR Part 440.
Identification of defects, illnesses or conditions and services necessary to
correct or ameliorate them shall be performed by practitioners qualified to
make those determinations within their licensed scope of practice, either as a
member of the IEP team or by a qualified practitioner outside the IEP team.
a. Service providers shall be employed by the school division
or under contract to the school division.
b. Supervision of services by providers recognized in
subdivision 4 of this subsection shall occur as allowed under federal
regulations and consistent with Virginia law, regulations, and DMAS provider
manuals.
c. The services described in subdivision 4 of this subsection
shall be delivered by school providers, but may also be available in the community
from other providers.
d. Services in this subsection are subject to utilization
control as provided under 42 CFR Parts 455 and 456.
e. The IEP shall determine whether or not the services
described in subdivision 4 of this subsection are medically necessary and that
the treatment prescribed is in accordance with standards of medical practice.
Medical necessity is defined as services ordered by IEP providers. The IEP
providers are qualified Medicaid providers to make the medical necessity
determination in accordance with their scope of practice. The services must be
described as to the amount, duration and scope.
4. Covered services include:
a. Physical therapy, occupational therapy and services for
individuals with speech, hearing, and language disorders, performed by, or
under the direction of, providers who meet the qualifications set forth at 42
CFR 440.110. This coverage includes audiology services.
b. Skilled nursing services are covered under 42 CFR 440.60.
These services are to be rendered in accordance to the licensing standards and
criteria of the Virginia Board of Nursing. Nursing services are to be provided
by licensed registered nurses or licensed practical nurses but may be delegated
by licensed registered nurses in accordance with the regulations of the
Virginia Board of Nursing, especially the section on delegation of nursing
tasks and procedures. The licensed practical nurse is under the supervision of
a registered nurse.
(1) The coverage of skilled nursing services shall be of a
level of complexity and sophistication (based on assessment, planning,
implementation and evaluation) that is consistent with skilled nursing services
when performed by a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse.
These skilled nursing services shall include, but not necessarily be limited to
dressing changes, maintaining patent airways, medication
administration/monitoring and urinary catheterizations.
(2) Skilled nursing services shall be directly and
specifically related to an active, written plan of care developed by a
registered nurse that is based on a written order from a physician, physician
assistant or nurse practitioner for skilled nursing services. This order shall
be recertified on an annual basis.
c. Psychiatric and psychological services performed by
licensed practitioners within the scope of practice are defined under state law
or regulations and covered as physicians' services under 42 CFR 440.50 or
medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR 440.60. These outpatient services
include individual medical psychotherapy, group medical psychotherapy coverage,
and family medical psychotherapy. Psychological and neuropsychological testing
are allowed when done for purposes other than educational diagnosis, school
admission, evaluation of an individual with intellectual or developmental
disability prior to admission to a nursing facility, or any placement issue.
These services are covered in the nonschool settings also. School providers who
may render these services when licensed by the state include psychiatrists,
licensed clinical psychologists, school psychologists, licensed clinical social
workers, professional counselors, psychiatric clinical nurse specialist,
marriage and family therapists, and school social workers.
d. Personal care services are covered under 42 CFR
440.167 and performed by persons qualified under this subsection. The personal
care assistant is supervised by a DMAS recognized school-based health
professional who is acting within the scope of licensure. This practitioner develops
a written plan for meeting the needs of the child, which is implemented by the
assistant. The assistant must have qualifications comparable to those for other
personal care aides recognized by the Virginia Department of Medical Assistance
Services. The assistant performs services such as assisting with toileting,
ambulation, and eating. The assistant may serve as an aide on a specially
adapted school vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or
school contracted provider on days when the student is receiving a
Medicaid-covered service under the IEP. Children requiring an aide during
transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this stated in the
IEP.
e. Medical evaluation services are covered as physicians'
services under 42 CFR 440.50 or as medical or other remedial care under 42 CFR
440.60. Persons performing these services shall be licensed physicians,
physician assistants, or nurse practitioners. These practitioners shall
identify the nature or extent of a child's medical or other health related
condition.
f. Transportation is covered as allowed under 42 CFR
431.53 and described at State Plan Attachment 3.1-D. Transportation shall be
rendered only by school division personnel or contractors. Transportation is
covered for a child who requires transportation on a specially adapted school
vehicle that enables transportation to or from the school or school contracted
provider on days when the student is receiving a Medicaid-covered service under
the IEP. Transportation shall be listed in the child's IEP. Children requiring
an aide during transportation on a specially adapted vehicle shall have this
stated in the IEP.
g. Assessments are covered as necessary to assess or reassess
the need for medical services in a child's IEP and shall be performed by any of
the above licensed practitioners within the scope of practice. Assessments and
reassessments not tied to medical needs of the child shall not be covered.
5. DMAS will ensure through quality management review that
duplication of services will be monitored. School divisions have a
responsibility to ensure that if a child is receiving additional therapy
outside of the school, that there will be coordination of services to avoid
duplication of service.
D. F. Family planning services and supplies for
individuals of child-bearing age.
1. Service must be ordered or prescribed and directed or
performed within the scope of the license of a practitioner of the healing
arts.
2. Family planning services shall be defined as those services
that delay or prevent pregnancy. Coverage of such services shall not include
services to treat infertility nor services to promote fertility.
12VAC30-60-5. Applicability of utilization review requirements.
A. These utilization requirements shall apply to all Medicaid
covered services unless otherwise specified.
B. Some Medicaid covered services require an approved service
authorization prior to service delivery in order for reimbursement to occur.
1. To obtain service authorization, all providers' information
supplied to the Department of Medical Assistance Services (DMAS), service
authorization contractor, or the behavioral health service authorization
contractor shall be fully substantiated throughout individuals' medical
records.
2. Providers shall be required to maintain documentation
detailing all relevant information about the Medicaid individuals who are in
providers' care. Such documentation shall fully disclose the extent of services
provided in order to support providers' claims for reimbursement for services
rendered. This documentation shall be written, signed, and dated at the time
the services are rendered unless specified otherwise.
C. DMAS, or its designee, shall perform reviews of the
utilization of all Medicaid covered services pursuant to 42 CFR 440.260
and 42 CFR Part 456.
D. DMAS shall recover expenditures made for covered services
when providers' documentation does not comport with standards specified in all
applicable regulations.
E. Providers who are determined not to be in compliance with
DMAS requirements shall be subject to 12VAC30-80-130 for the repayment of those
overpayments to DMAS.
F. Utilization review requirements specific to community
mental health services, as set out in 12VAC30-50-130 and 12VAC30-50-226, shall be
as follows:
1. To apply to be reimbursed as a Medicaid provider, the
required Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS)
license shall be either a full, annual, triennial, or conditional license.
Providers must be enrolled with DMAS or the BHSA behavioral health
services administrator (BHSA) to be reimbursed. Once a health care entity
has been enrolled as a provider, it shall maintain, and update periodically as
DMAS requires, a current Provider Enrollment Agreement for each Medicaid
service that the provider offers.
2. Health care entities with provisional licenses shall not be
reimbursed as Medicaid providers of community mental health services.
3. Payments shall not be permitted to health care entities
that either hold provisional licenses or fail to enter into a Medicaid Provider
Enrollment Agreement including a BHSA contract for a service prior to
rendering that service.
4. The DMAS-contracted behavioral health service
authorization contractor services administrator shall apply a
national standardized set of medical necessity criteria in use in the industry,
such as McKesson InterQual Criteria, or an equivalent standard authorized
in advance by DMAS. Services that fail to meet medical necessity criteria shall
be denied service authorization.
5. For purposes of Medicaid reimbursement for services
provided by staff in residency, the following terms shall be used after their
signatures to indicate such status:
a. LMHP-Rs shall use the term "Resident" after
their signatures.
b. LMHP-RPs shall use the term "Resident in
Psychology" after their signatures.
c. LMHP-Ss shall use the term "Supervisee in Social
Work" after their signatures.
12VAC30-60-50. Utilization control: Intermediate Care
Facilities care facilities for the Mentally Retarded (ICF/MR)
persons with intellectual and developmental disabilities and Institutions
institutions for Mental Disease mental disease (IMD).
A. "Institution for mental disease" or
"IMD" means the same as that term is defined in the Social Security
Act, § 1905(i).
A. B. With respect to each Medicaid-eligible
resident in an ICF/MR intermediate care facility for persons with
intellectual and developmental disabilities (ICF/ID) or IMD in Virginia, a
written plan of care must be developed prior to admission to or authorization
of benefits in such facility, and a regular program of independent professional
review (including a medical evaluation) shall be completed periodically for
such services. The purpose of the review is to determine: the adequacy of the services
available to meet his current health needs and promote his maximum physical
well being; the necessity and desirability of his continued placement in the
facility; and the feasibility of meeting his health care needs through
alternative institutional or noninstitutional services. Long-term care of
residents in such facilities will be provided in accordance with federal law
that is based on the resident's medical and social needs and requirements.
B. C. With respect to each ICF/MR ICF/ID
or IMD, periodic on-site onsite inspections of the care being
provided to each person receiving medical assistance, by one or more
independent professional review teams (composed of a physician or registered
nurse and other appropriate health and social service personnel), shall be
conducted. The review shall include, with respect to each recipient, a
determination of the adequacy of the services available to meet his current
health needs and promote his maximum physical well-being, the necessity and
desirability of continued placement in the facility, and the feasibility of
meeting his health care needs through alternative institutional or
noninstitutional services. Full reports shall be made to the state agency by
the review team of the findings of each inspection, together with any
recommendations.
C. D. In order for reimbursement to be made to
a facility for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual and
developmental disabilities, the resident must meet criteria for placement
in such facility as described in 12VAC30-60-360 and the facility must provide
active treatment for mental retardation intellectual or developmental
disabilities.
D. E. In each case for which payment for
nursing facility services for the mentally retarded persons with
intellectual or developmental disabilities or institution for mental
disease services is made under the State Plan:
1. A physician must certify for each applicant or recipient
that inpatient care is needed in a facility for the mentally retarded or an
institution for mental disease. A certificate of need shall be completed
by an independent certification team according to the requirements of
12VAC30-50-130 D 5. Recertification shall occur at least every 60 days by a
physician, or by a physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within
their scope of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a
physician. The certification must be made at the time of admission or, if
an individual applies for assistance while in the facility, before the Medicaid
agency authorizes payment; and
2. A physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner
acting within the scope of the practice as defined by state law and under the
supervision of a physician, must recertify for each applicant at least every 365
60 days that services are needed in a facility for the mentally
retarded persons with intellectual disability or institution for
mental disease.
E. F. When a resident no longer meets criteria
for facilities for the mentally retarded persons with intellectual or
developmental disabilities, or an institution for mental disease or no
longer requires active treatment in a facility for the mentally retarded
persons with intellectual or developmental disabilities, then the
resident must shall be discharged.
F. G. All services provided in an IMD and in
an ICF/MR ICF/ID shall be provided in accordance with guidelines
found in the Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual.
H. All services provided in an IMD shall be provided with
the applicable provider agreement and all documents referenced therein.
I. Psychiatric services in IMDs shall only be covered for
eligible individuals younger than 21 years of age.
J. IMD services provided without service authorization
shall not be covered.
K. Absence of any of the required IMD documentation shall
result in denial or retraction of reimbursement.
L. In each case for which payment for IMD services is made
under the State Plan:
1. A physician shall certify at the time of admission, or
at the time the IMD is notified of an individuals' retroactive eligibility
status, that the individual requires or required inpatient services in an IMD
consistent with 42 CFR 456.160.
2. The physician or physician assistant or nurse
practitioner acting within the scope of practice as defined by state law and
under the supervision of a physician, shall recertify at least every 60 days
that the individual continues to require inpatient services in an IMD.
3. Before admission to an IMD or before authorization
for payment, the attending physician or staff physician shall perform a medical
evaluation of the individual, and appropriate personnel shall complete a
psychiatric and social evaluation as described in 42 CFR 456.170.
4. Before admission to a residential treatment facility or
before authorization for payment, the attending physician or staff physician
shall establish a written plan of care for each individual as described in 42
CFR 441.155 and 42 CFR 456.180.
M. It shall be documented that the individual requiring
admission to an IMD is younger than 21 years of age, that treatment is
medically necessary, and that the necessity was identified as a result of an
independent certification of need team review. Required documentation shall
include the following:
1. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition 2013, American Psychiatric
Association, and based on an evaluation by a psychiatrist completed within 30
days of admission or if the diagnosis is confirmed, in writing, by a previous
evaluation completed within one year within admission.
2. A certification of the need for services as defined in
42 CFR 441.152 by an interdisciplinary team meeting the requirements of 42
CFR 441.153 or 42 CFR 441.156 and the Psychiatric Treatment of Minors Act (§
16.1-335 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
N. The use of seclusion and restraint in an IMD shall be
in accordance with 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376. Each use of a
seclusion or restraint, as defined in 42 CFR 483.350 through 42 CFR 483.376,
shall be reported by the service provider to DMAS or the BHSA within one
calendar day of the incident.
12VAC30-60-61. Services related to the Early and Periodic
Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment Program (EPSDT); community mental health
services for children.
A. Definitions. The following words and terms when used in
this section shall have the following meanings unless the context indicates
otherwise:
"At risk" means one or more of the following: (i)
within the two weeks before the intake, the individual shall be screened by an
LMHP for escalating behaviors that have put either the individual or others at
immediate risk of physical injury; (ii) the parent/guardian is unable to manage
the individual's mental, behavioral, or emotional problems in the home and is
actively, within the past two to four weeks, seeking an out-of-home placement;
(iii) a representative of either a juvenile justice agency, a department of
social services (either the state agency or local agency), a community services
board/behavioral health authority, the Department of Education, or an LMHP, as
defined in 12VAC35-105-20, and who is neither an employee of nor consultant to
the intensive in-home (IIH) services or therapeutic day treatment (TDT)
provider, has recommended an out-of-home placement absent an immediate change
of behaviors and when unsuccessful mental health services are evident; (iv) the
individual has a history of unsuccessful services (either crisis intervention,
crisis stabilization, outpatient psychotherapy, outpatient substance abuse
services, or mental health support) within the past 30 days; (v) the treatment
team or family assessment planning team (FAPT) recommends IIH services or TDT
for an individual currently who is either: (a) transitioning out of residential
treatment facility Level C services, (b) transitioning out of a therapeutic
group home Level A or B services, (c) transitioning out of acute
psychiatric hospitalization, or (d) transitioning between foster homes, mental
health case management, crisis intervention, crisis stabilization, outpatient
psychotherapy, or outpatient substance abuse services.
"Clinical experience" means providing direct
behavioral health services on a full-time basis or equivalent hours of
part-time work to children and adolescents who have diagnoses of mental illness
and includes supervised internships, supervised practicums, and supervised
field experience for the purpose of Medicaid reimbursement of (i) intensive
in-home services, (ii) therapeutic day treatment for children and adolescents,
and (iii) therapeutic group homes. Experience shall not include unsupervised
internships, unsupervised practicums, or unsupervised field experience. The
equivalency of part-time hours to full-time hours for the purpose of this
requirement shall be as established by DBHDS in the document entitled
"Human Services and Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience"
issued March 12, 2013, revised May 3, 2013.
"Failed services" or "unsuccessful
services" means, as measured by ongoing behavioral, mental, or physical
distress, that the service or services did not treat or resolve the
individual's mental health or behavioral issues.
"Individual" means the Medicaid-eligible person
receiving these services and for the purpose of this section includes children
from birth up to 12 years of age or adolescents ages 12 through 20 years.
"New service" means a community mental health
rehabilitation service for which the individual does not have a current service
authorization in effect as of July 17, 2011.
"Out-of-home placement" means placement in one or
more of the following: (i) either a Level A or Level B therapeutic
group home; (ii) regular foster home if the individual is currently residing
with his biological family and, due to his behavior problems, is at risk of
being placed in the custody of the local department of social services; (iii)
treatment foster care if the individual is currently residing with his
biological family or a regular foster care family and, due to the individual's
behavioral problems, is at risk of removal to a higher level of care; (iv) Level
C residential treatment facility; (v) emergency shelter for the
individual only due either to his mental health or behavior or both; (vi)
psychiatric hospitalization; or (vii) juvenile justice system or incarceration.
"Progress notes" means individual-specific
documentation that contains the unique differences particular to the
individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress that is also signed and
contemporaneously dated by the provider's professional staff who have prepared
the notes. Individualized and individual-specific progress notes are part of
the minimum documentation requirements and shall convey the individual's
status, staff interventions, and, as appropriate, the individual's progress or
lack of progress toward goals and objectives in the ISP. The progress notes
shall also include, at a minimum, the name of the service rendered, the date of
the service rendered, the signature and credentials of the person who rendered
the service, the setting in which the service was rendered, and the amount of
time or units/hours required to deliver the service. The content of each
progress note shall corroborate the time/units billed. Progress notes shall be
documented for each service that is billed.
"Service-specific provider intake" means the
evaluation that is conducted according to the Department of Medical Assistance
Services (DMAS) intake definition set out in 12VAC30-50-130.
B. The services described in this section shall be rendered
consistent with the definitions, service limits, and requirements described in
this section and in 12VAC30-50-130.
C. Intensive in-home (IIH) services for children and
adolescents.
1. The service definition for intensive in-home (IIH) services
is contained in 12VAC30-50-130.
2. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from mental, behavioral or emotional
illness which results in significant functional impairments in major life
activities. Individuals must meet at least two of the following criteria on a
continuing or intermittent basis to be authorized for these services:
a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
community.
b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
repeated interventions by the mental health, social services or judicial system
are or have been necessary.
c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
social behavior.
3. Prior to admission, an appropriate service-specific
provider intake, as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, shall be conducted by the
licensed mental health professional (LMHP), LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or
LMHP-RP, documenting the individual's diagnosis and describing how service
needs can best be met through intervention provided typically but not solely in
the individual's residence. The service-specific provider intake shall describe
how the individual's clinical needs put the individual at risk of out-of-home
placement and shall be conducted face-to-face in the individual's residence.
Claims for services that are based upon service-specific provider intakes that
are incomplete, outdated (more than 12 months old), or missing shall not be
reimbursed.
4. An individual service plan (ISP) shall be fully completed,
signed, and dated by either an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a
QMHP-C, or a QMHP-E and the individual and individual's parent/guardian within
30 days of initiation of services. The ISP shall meet all of the requirements
as defined in 12VAC30-50-226.
5. DMAS shall not reimburse for dates of services in which the
progress notes are not individualized and child-specific. Duplicated progress
notes shall not constitute the required child-specific individualized progress
notes. Each progress note shall demonstrate unique differences particular to
the individual's circumstances, treatment, and progress. Claim payments shall
be retracted for services that are supported by documentation that does not
demonstrate unique differences particular to the individual.
6. Services shall be directed toward the treatment of the
eligible individual and delivered primarily in the family's residence with the
individual present. As clinically indicated, the services may be rendered
in the community if there is documentation, on that date of service, of the
necessity of providing services in the community. The documentation shall
describe how the alternative community service location supports the identified
clinical needs of the individual and describe how it facilitates the
implementation of the ISP. For services provided outside of the home, there
shall be documentation reflecting therapeutic treatment as set forth in the ISP
provided for that date of service in the appropriately signed and dated
progress notes.
7. These services shall be provided when the clinical needs of
the individual put him at risk for out-of-home placement, as these terms are
defined in this section:
a. When services that are far more intensive than outpatient
clinic care are required to stabilize the individual in the family situation,
or
b. When the individual's residence as the setting for services
is more likely to be successful than a clinic.
The service-specific provider intake shall describe how the
individual meets either subdivision a or b of this subdivision.
8. Services shall not be provided if the individual is no
longer a resident of the home.
9. Services shall also be used to facilitate the transition to
home from an out-of-home placement when services more intensive than outpatient
clinic care are required for the transition to be successful. The individual
and responsible parent/guardian shall be available and in agreement to
participate in the transition.
10. At least one parent/legal guardian or responsible adult
with whom the individual is living must be willing to participate in the
intensive in-home services with the goal of keeping the individual with the
family. In the instance of this service, a responsible adult shall be an adult
who lives in the same household with the child and is responsible for engaging
in therapy and service-related activities to benefit the individual.
11. The enrolled service provider shall be licensed by the Department
of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services (DBHDS) as a provider of
intensive in-home services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment
agreement with DMAS or its contractor in effect prior to the delivery of this
service that indicates that the provider will offer intensive in-home services.
12. Services must only be provided by an LMHP,
LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C, or QMHP-E. Reimbursement shall
not be provided for such services when they have been rendered by a QPPMH as
defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
13. The billing unit for intensive in-home service shall be
one hour. Although the pattern of service delivery may vary, intensive in-home
services is an intensive service provided to individuals for whom there is an ISP
in effect which demonstrates the need for a minimum of three hours a week of
intensive in-home service, and includes a plan for service provision of a
minimum of three hours of service delivery per individual/family per week in
the initial phase of treatment. It is expected that the pattern of service
provision may show more intensive services and more frequent contact with the
individual and family initially with a lessening or tapering off of intensity
toward the latter weeks of service. Service plans shall incorporate an
individualized discharge plan that describes transition from intensive in-home
to less intensive or nonhome based services.
14. The ISP, as defined in 12VAC30-50-226, shall be updated as
the individual's needs and progress changes and signed by either the parent or
legal guardian and the individual. Documentation shall be provided if the
individual, who is a minor child, is unable or unwilling to sign the ISP. If
there is a lapse in services that is greater than 31 consecutive calendar days
without any communications from family members/legal guardian or the individual
with the service provider, the provider shall discharge the individual. If the
individual continues to need services, then a new intake/admission shall be
documented and a new service authorization shall be required.
15. The provider shall ensure that the maximum
staff-to-caseload ratio fully meets the needs of the individual.
16. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430,
the service provider shall contact the case manager and provide
notification of the provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send
monthly updates to the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge
summary shall be sent to the case manager within 30 days of the service
discontinuation date. Service providers and case managers who are using the
same electronic health record for the individual shall meet requirements for
delivery of the notification, monthly updates, and discharge summary upon entry
of the information in the electronic health records.
17. Emergency assistance shall be available 24 hours per day,
seven days a week.
18. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements at
12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines violate these marketing
requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
12VAC30-130-2000 E.
19. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or guardian, shall
inform him of the individual's receipt of IIH services. The documentation shall
include who was contacted, when the contact occurred, and what information was
transmitted.
D. Therapeutic day treatment for children and adolescents.
1. The service definition for therapeutic day treatment (TDT)
for children and adolescents is contained in 12VAC30-50-130.
2. Therapeutic day treatment is appropriate for children and
adolescents who meet one of the following:
a. Children and adolescents who require year-round treatment
in order to sustain behavior or emotional gains.
b. Children and adolescents whose behavior and emotional
problems are so severe they cannot be handled in self-contained or resource
emotionally disturbed (ED) classrooms without:
(1) This programming during the school day; or
(2) This programming to supplement the school day or school
year.
c. Children and adolescents who would otherwise be placed on
homebound instruction because of severe emotional/behavior problems that
interfere with learning.
d. Children and adolescents who (i) have deficits in social
skills, peer relations or dealing with authority; (ii) are hyperactive; (iii)
have poor impulse control; (iv) are extremely depressed or marginally connected
with reality.
e. Children in preschool enrichment and early intervention
programs when the children's emotional/behavioral problems are so severe that
they cannot function in these programs without additional services.
3. The service-specific provider intake shall document the
individual's behavior and describe how the individual meets these specific
service criteria in subdivision 2 of this subsection.
4. Prior to admission to this service, a service-specific
provider intake shall be conducted by the LMHP as defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
5. An ISP shall be fully completed, signed, and dated by an
LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, a QMHP-C, or QMHP-E and by the
individual or the parent/guardian within 30 days of initiation of services and
shall meet all requirements of an ISP as defined in 12VAC30-50-226. Individual
progress notes shall be required for each contact with the individual and shall
meet all of the requirements as defined in 12VAC30-50-130 12VAC30-60-61.
6. Such services shall not duplicate those services provided
by the school.
7. Individuals qualifying for this service shall demonstrate a
clinical necessity for the service arising from a condition due to mental,
behavioral or emotional illness which results in significant functional
impairments in major life activities. Individuals shall meet at least two of
the following criteria on a continuing or intermittent basis:
a. Have difficulty in establishing or maintaining normal
interpersonal relationships to such a degree that they are at risk of
hospitalization or out-of-home placement because of conflicts with family or
community.
b. Exhibit such inappropriate behavior that documented,
repeated interventions by the mental health, social services, or judicial
system are or have been necessary.
c. Exhibit difficulty in cognitive ability such that they are
unable to recognize personal danger or recognize significantly inappropriate
social behavior.
8. The enrolled provider of therapeutic day treatment for
child and adolescent services shall be licensed by DBHDS to provide day support
services. The provider shall also have a provider enrollment agreement in
effect with DMAS prior to the delivery of this service that indicates that the
provider offers therapeutic day treatment services for children and
adolescents.
9. Services shall be provided by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee,
LMHP-resident, LMHP-RP, QMHP-C or QMHP-E.
10. The minimum staff-to-individual ratio as defined by DBHDS
licensing requirements shall ensure that adequate staff is available to meet
the needs of the individual identified on the ISP.
11. The program shall operate a minimum of two hours per day
and may offer flexible program hours (i.e., before or after school or during
the summer). One unit of service shall be defined as a minimum of two hours but
less than three hours in a given day. Two units of service shall be defined as
a minimum of three but less than five hours in a given day. Three units of
service shall be defined as five or more hours of service in a given day.
12. Time required for academic instruction when no treatment
activity is going on shall not be included in the billing unit.
13. Services shall be provided following a service-specific
provider intake that is conducted by an LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident,
or LMHP-RP. An LMHP, LMHP-supervisee, or LMHP-resident shall make and document
the diagnosis. The service-specific provider intake shall include the elements
as defined in 12VAC30-50-130.
14. If an individual receiving services is also receiving case
management services pursuant to 12VAC30-50-420 or 12VAC30-50-430, the provider
shall collaborate with the case manager and provide notification of the
provision of services. In addition, the provider shall send monthly updates to
the case manager on the individual's status. A discharge summary shall be sent
to the case manager within 30 days of the service discontinuation date. Service
providers and case managers using the same electronic health record for the
individual shall meet requirements for delivery of the notification, monthly
updates, and discharge summary upon entry of this documentation into the
electronic health record.
15. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
guardian, shall inform him of the child's receipt of community mental health
rehabilitative services. The documentation shall include who was contacted,
when the contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. The
parent/legal guardian shall be required to give written consent that this
provider has permission to inform the primary care provider of the child's or adolescent's
receipt of community mental health rehabilitative services.
16. Providers shall comply with DMAS marketing requirements as
set out in 12VAC30-130-2000. Providers that DMAS determines have violated these
marketing requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid provider pursuant to
12VAC30-130-2000 E.
17. If there is a lapse in services greater than 31
consecutive calendar days, the provider shall discharge the individual. If the
individual continues to need services, a new intake/admission documentation
shall be prepared and a new service authorization shall be required.
E. Community-based services
for children and adolescents under 21 years of age (Level A).
1. The staff ratio must be at least 1 to 6 during the day
and at least 1 to 10 between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. The program director
supervising the program/group home must be, at minimum, a QMHP-C or QMHP-E (as
defined in 12VAC35-105-20). The program director must be employed full time.
2. In order for Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at least
50% of the provider's direct care staff at the group home must meet DBHDS
paraprofessional staff criteria, defined in 12VAC35-105-20.
3. Authorization is required for Medicaid reimbursement.
All community-based services for children and adolescents under 21 (Level A)
require authorization prior to reimbursement for these services. Reimbursement
shall not be made for this service when other less intensive services may
achieve stabilization.
4. Services must be provided in accordance with an
individual service plan (ISP), which must be fully completed within 30 days of
authorization for Medicaid reimbursement.
5. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
shall be conducted according to DMAS specifications described in
12VAC30-50-130.
6. Such service-specific provider intakes shall be
performed by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
7. If an individual receiving community-based services for
children and adolescents under 21 (Level A) is also receiving case management
services, the provider shall collaborate with the case manager by notifying the
case manager of the provision of Level A services and shall send monthly
updates on the individual's progress. When the individual is discharged from
Level A services, a discharge summary shall be sent to the case manager within
30 days of the service discontinuation date. Service providers and case
managers who are using the same electronic health record for the individual
shall meet requirements for the delivery of the notification, monthly updates,
and discharge summary upon entry of this documentation into the electronic
health record.
F. E. Therapeutic behavioral services group
home for children and adolescents under 21 years of age (Level B).
1. The staff ratio must be at least 1 to 4 during the day
and at least 1 to 8 between 11 p.m. and 7 a.m. approved by the
Office of Licensure at the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental
Services. The clinical director must shall be a licensed
mental health professional. The caseload of the clinical director must not
exceed 16 individuals including all sites for which the same clinical director
is responsible.
2. The program director must shall be full time
and be a QMHP-C or QMHP-E with a bachelor's degree and at least one year's
clinical experience.
3. For Medicaid reimbursement to be approved, at least 50% of
the provider's direct care staff at the therapeutic group home shall
meet DBHDS paraprofessional staff qualified paraprofessional in
mental health (QPPMH) criteria, as defined in 12VAC35-105-20. The program/group
therapeutic group home must shall coordinate services with
other providers.
4. All therapeutic behavioral group home
services (Level B) shall be authorized prior to reimbursement for these
services. Services rendered without such prior authorization shall not be
covered.
5. Services must be provided in accordance with an ISP a
CIPOC, as defined in 12VAC30-50-130, which shall be fully completed within
30 days of authorization for Medicaid reimbursement.
6. Prior to admission, a service-specific provider intake
shall be performed using all elements specified by DMAS in 12VAC30-50-130.
7. Such service-specific provider intakes shall be performed
by an LMHP, an LMHP-supervisee, LMHP-resident, or LMHP-RP.
8. If an individual receiving therapeutic behavioral group
home services for children and adolescents under 21 (Level B) is
also receiving case management services, the therapeutic behavioral group
home services provider must collaborate with the care coordinator/case
manager by notifying him of the provision of Level B therapeutic
group home services and the Level B therapeutic group home
services provider shall send monthly updates on the individual's treatment
status. When the individual is discharged from Level B services, a discharge
summary shall be sent to the care coordinator/case manager within 30 days of
the discontinuation date.
9. The provider shall determine who the primary care provider
is and, upon receiving written consent from the individual or parent/legal
guardian parent or legally authorized representative, shall inform
him of the individual's receipt of these Level B therapeutic group
home services. The documentation shall include who was contacted, when the
contact occurred, and what information was transmitted. If these individuals
are children or adolescents, then the parent/legal guardian parent or
legally authorized representative shall be required to give written consent
that this provider has permission to inform the primary care provider of the
individual's receipt of community mental health rehabilitative services.
G. Utilization review. Utilization reviews for
community-based therapeutic group home services for children and adolescents
under 21 years of age (Level A) and therapeutic behavioral services for
children and adolescents under 21 years of age (Level B) shall include
determinations whether providers meet all DMAS requirements, including
compliance with DMAS marketing requirements. Providers that DMAS determines
have violated the DMAS marketing requirements shall be terminated as a Medicaid
provider pursuant to 12VAC30-130-2000 E.
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (12VAC30-60)
Department of Medical Assistance Services Provider Manuals (https://www.virginiamedicaid.dmas.virginia.gov/wps/portal/ProviderManuals):
Virginia Medicaid Nursing Home Manual
Virginia Medicaid Rehabilitation Manual
Virginia Medicaid Hospice Manual
Virginia Medicaid School Division Manual
Development of Special Criteria for the Purposes
of Pre-Admission Screening, Medicaid Memo, October 3, 2012, Department of
Medical Assistance Services
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth
Edition (DSM-IV-TR), copyright 2000, American Psychiatric Association
Patient Placement Criteria for the Treatment of
Substance-Related Disorders (ASAM PPC-2R), Second Edition, copyright 2001,
American Society on Addiction Medicine, Inc.
Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: New Service
Authorization Requirement for an Independent Clinical Assessment for Medicaid
and FAMIS Children's Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services, dated
June 16, 2011, Department of Medical Assistance Services
Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
Children Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Children's Services,
July 1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of
Medical Assistance Services
Medicaid Special Memo, Subject: Changes to
Community Mental Health Rehabilitative Services - Adult-Oriented Services, July
1, 2010 & September 1, 2010, dated July 23, 2010, Department of Medical
Assistance Services
Human
Services and Related Fields Approved Degrees/Experience, updated May 3, 2013,
Department of Behavioral Health and Human Services
Part XIV
Residential Psychiatric Treatment for Children and Adolescents (Repealed)
12VAC30-130-850. Definitions. (Repealed.)
The following words and terms when used in this part shall
have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Active treatment" means implementation of a
professionally developed and supervised individual plan of care that must be
designed to achieve the recipient's discharge from inpatient status at the
earliest possible time.
"Certification" means a statement signed by a
physician that inpatient services in a residential treatment facility are or
were needed. The certification must be made at the time of admission, or, if an
individual applies for assistance while in a mental hospital or residential
treatment facility, before the Medicaid agency authorizes payment.
"Comprehensive individual plan of care" or
"CIPOC" means a written plan developed for each recipient in
accordance with 12VAC30-130-890 to improve his condition to the extent that
inpatient care is no longer necessary.
"Initial plan of care" means a plan of care
established at admission, signed by the attending physician or staff physician,
that meets the requirements in 12VAC30-130-890.
"Recertification" means a certification for each
applicant or recipient that inpatient services in a residential treatment
facility are needed. Recertification must be made at least every 60 days by a
physician, or physician assistant or nurse practitioner acting within the scope
of practice as defined by state law and under the supervision of a physician.
"Recipient" or "recipients" means the
child or adolescent younger than 21 years of age receiving this covered
service.
12VAC30-130-860. Service coverage; eligible individuals;
service certification. (Repealed.)
A. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall be
24-hour, supervised, medically necessary, out-of-home programs designed to
provide necessary support and address the special mental health and behavioral
needs of a child or adolescent in order to prevent or minimize the need for
more intensive inpatient treatment. Services must include, but shall not be
limited to, assessment and evaluation, medical treatment (including drugs),
individual and group counseling, and family therapy necessary to treat the child.
B. Residential treatment programs (Level C) shall provide
a total, 24 hours per day, specialized form of highly organized, intensive and
planned therapeutic interventions that shall be utilized to treat some of the
most severe mental, emotional, and behavioral disorders. Residential treatment
is a definitive therapeutic modality designed to deliver specified results for
a defined group of problems for children or adolescents for whom outpatient day
treatment or other less intrusive levels of care are not appropriate, and for
whom a protected, structured milieu is medically necessary for an extended
period of time.
C. Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level B) and Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be therapeutic services rendered in a
residential type setting such as a group home or program that provides
structure for daily activities, psychoeducation, therapeutic supervision and
mental health care to ensure the attainment of therapeutic mental health goals
as identified in the individual service plan (plan of care). The child or
adolescent must have a medical need for the service arising from a condition
due to mental, behavioral or emotional illness that results in significant
functional impairments in major life activities.
D. Active treatment shall be required. Residential
Treatment, Therapeutic Behavioral and Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under age 21 shall be designed to serve the mental health needs of
children. In order to be reimbursed for Residential Treatment (Level C),
Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
B), and Community-Based Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level
A), the facility must provide active mental health treatment beginning at
admission and it must be related to the recipient's principle diagnosis and
admitting symptoms. To the extent that any recipient needs mental health
treatment and his needs meet the medical necessity criteria for the service, he
will be approved for these services. These services do not include
interventions and activities designed only to meet the supportive nonmental
health special needs, including but not limited to personal care, habilitation
or academic educational needs of the recipients.
E. An individual eligible for Residential Treatment
Services (Level C) is a recipient under the age of 21 years whose treatment
needs cannot be met by ambulatory care resources available in the community,
for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires services on an
inpatient basis under the direction of a physician.
An individual eligible for Therapeutic Behavioral Services
for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B) is a child, under the age of 21
years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
direction of a Licensed Mental Health Professional.
An individual eligible for Community-Based Services for
Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) is a child, under the age of 21
years, for whom proper treatment of his psychiatric condition requires less
intensive treatment in a structured, therapeutic residential program under the
direction of a qualified mental health professional. The services for all three
levels can reasonably be expected to improve the child's or adolescent's
condition or prevent regression so that the services will no longer be needed.
F. In order for Medicaid to reimburse for Residential
Treatment (Level C), Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A), the need for the service must be certified
according to the standards and requirements set forth in subdivisions 1 and 2
of this subsection. At least one member of the independent certifying team must
have pediatric mental health expertise.
1. For an individual who is already a Medicaid recipient
when he is admitted to a facility or program, certification must:
a. Be made by an independent certifying team that includes
a licensed physician who:
(1) Has competence in diagnosis and treatment of pediatric
mental illness; and
(2) Has knowledge of the recipient's mental health history
and current situation.
b. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team.
2. For a recipient who applies for Medicaid while an
inpatient in the facility or program, the certification must:
a. Be made by the team responsible for the plan of care;
b. Cover any period of time before the application for
Medicaid eligibility for which claims for reimbursement by Medicaid are made;
and
c. Be signed and dated by a physician and the team.
12VAC30-130-870. Preauthorization. (Repealed.)
A. Authorization for Residential Treatment (Level C) shall
be required within 24 hours of admission and shall be conducted by DMAS or its
utilization management contractor using medical necessity criteria specified by
DMAS. At preauthorization, an initial length of stay shall be assigned and the
residential treatment provider shall be responsible for obtaining authorization
for continued stay.
B. DMAS will not pay for admission to or continued stay in
residential facilities (Level C) that were not authorized by DMAS.
C. Information that is required in order to obtain
admission preauthorization for Medicaid payment shall include:
1. A completed state-designated uniform assessment
instrument approved by the department.
2. A certification of the need for this service by the team
described in 12VAC30-130-860 that:
a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
do not meet the specific treatment needs of the recipient;
b. Proper treatment of the recipient's psychiatric
condition requires services on an inpatient basis under the direction of a
physician; and
c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
recipient's condition or prevent further regression so that the services will
not be needed.
3. Additional required written documentation shall include
all of the following:
a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
Retardation, Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning);
b. A description of the child's behavior during the seven
days immediately prior to admission;
c. A description of alternative placements tried or
explored and the outcomes of each placement;
d. The child's functional level and clinical stability;
e. The level of family support available; and
f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
12VAC30-130-890.
D. Continued stay criteria for Residential Treatment
(Level C): information for continued stay authorization (Level C) for Medicaid
payment must include:
1. A state uniform assessment instrument, completed no more
than 90 days prior to the date of submission;
2. Documentation that the required services are provided as
indicated;
3. Current (within the last 30 days) information on
progress related to the achievement of treatment goals. The treatment goals
must address the reasons for admission, including a description of any new
symptoms amenable to treatment;
4. Description of continued impairment, problem behaviors,
and need for Residential Treatment level of care.
E. Denial of service may be appealed by the recipient
consistent with 12VAC30-110-10 et seq.; denial of reimbursement may be appealed
by the provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et
seq. of the Code of Virginia).
F. DMAS will not pay for services for Therapeutic
Behavioral Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level B), and
Community-Based Services for Children and Adolescents under 21 (Level A) that
are not prior authorized by DMAS.
G. Authorization for Level A and Level B residential
treatment shall be required within three business days of admission.
Authorization for services shall be based upon the medical necessity criteria
described in 12VAC30-50-130. The authorized length of stay must not exceed six
months and may be reauthorized. The provider shall be responsible for
documenting the need for a continued stay and providing supporting
documentation.
H. Information that is required in order to obtain
admission authorization for Medicaid payment must include:
1. A current completed state-designated uniform assessment
instrument approved by the department. The state designated uniform assessment
instrument must indicate at least two areas of moderate impairment for Level B
and two areas of moderate impairment for Level A. A moderate impairment is
evidenced by, but not limited to:
a. Frequent conflict in the family setting, for example,
credible threats of physical harm.
b. Frequent inability to accept age appropriate direction
and supervision from caretakers, family members, at school, or in the home or
community.
c. Severely limited involvement in social support; which
means significant avoidance of appropriate social interaction, deterioration of
existing relationships, or refusal to participate in therapeutic interventions.
d. Impaired ability to form a trusting relationship with at
least one caretaker in the home, school or community.
e. Limited ability to consider the effect of one's
inappropriate conduct on others, interactions consistently involving conflict,
which may include impulsive or abusive behaviors.
2. A certification of the need for the service by the team
described in 12VAC30-130-860 that:
a. The ambulatory care resources available in the community
do not meet the specific treatment needs of the child;
b. Proper treatment of the child's psychiatric condition requires
services in a community-based residential program; and
c. The services can reasonably be expected to improve the
child's condition or prevent regression so that the services will not be
needed.
3. Additional required written documentation must include
all of the following:
a. Diagnosis, as defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV, effective October 1, 1996),
including Axis I (Clinical Disorders), Axis II (Personality Disorders/Mental
Retardation), Axis III (General Medical Conditions), Axis IV (Psychosocial and
Environmental Problems), and Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning);
b. A description of the child's behavior during the 30 days
immediately prior to admission;
c. A description of alternative placements tried or
explored and the outcomes of each placement;
d. The child's functional level and clinical stability;
e. The level of family support available; and
f. The initial plan of care as defined and specified at
12VAC30-130-890.
I. Denial of service may be appealed by the child
consistent with 12VAC30-110; denial of reimbursement may be appealed by the
provider consistent with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of
the Code of Virginia).
J. Continued stay criteria for Levels A and B:
1. The length of the authorized stay shall be determined by
DMAS or its contractor.
2. A current Individual Service Plan (ISP) (plan of care)
and a current (within 30 days) summary of progress related to the goals and
objectives on the ISP (plan of care) must be submitted for continuation of the
service.
3. For reauthorization to occur, the desired outcome or
level of functioning has not been restored or improved, over the time frame
outlined in the child's ISP (plan of care) or the child continues to be at risk
for relapse based on history or the tenuous nature of the functional gains and
use of less intensive services will not achieve stabilization. Any one of the
following must apply:
a. The child has achieved initial service plan (plan of
care) goals but additional goals are indicated that cannot be met at a lower
level of care.
b. The child is making satisfactory progress toward meeting
goals but has not attained ISP goals, and the goals cannot be addressed at a
lower level of care.
c. The child is not making progress, and the service plan
(plan of care) has been modified to identify more effective interventions.
d. There are current indications that the child requires
this level of treatment to maintain level of functioning as evidenced by
failure to achieve goals identified for therapeutic visits or stays in a
nontreatment residential setting or in a lower level of residential treatment.
K. Discharge criteria for Levels A and B.
1. Reimbursement shall not be made for this level of care
if either of the following applies:
a. The level of functioning has improved with respect to
the goals outlined in the service plan (plan of care) and the child can
reasonably be expected to maintain these gains at a lower level of treatment;
or
b. The child no longer benefits from service as evidenced
by absence of progress toward service plan goals for a period of 60 days.
12VAC30-130-880. Provider qualifications. (Repealed.)
A. Providers must provide all Residential Treatment
Services (Level C) as defined within this part and set forth in 42 CFR Part 441
Subpart D.
B. Providers of Residential Treatment Services (Level C)
must be:
1. A residential treatment program for children and
adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric hospital
accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare
Organizations;
2. A residential treatment program for children and
adolescents licensed by DMHMRSAS that is located in a psychiatric unit of an
acute general hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of
Healthcare Organizations; or
3. A psychiatric facility that is (i) accredited by the
Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, the Commission
on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities, the Council on Quality and
Leadership in Supports for People with Disabilities, or the Council on
Accreditation of Services for Families and Children and (ii) licensed by
DMHMRSAS as a residential treatment program for children and adolescents.
C. Providers of Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A) must be licensed by the Department of Social
Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, or Department of Education under the
Standards for Interdepartmental Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities
(22VAC42-10).
D. Providers of Therapeutic Behavioral Services (Level B)
must be licensed by the Department of Mental Health, Mental Retardation, and
Substance Abuse Services (DMHMRSAS) under the Standards for Interdepartmental
Regulation of Children's Residential Facilities (22VAC42-10).
12VAC30-130-890. Plans of care; review of plans of care.
(Repealed.)
A. For Residential Treatment Services (Level C), an initial
plan of care must be completed at admission and a Comprehensive Individual Plan
of Care (CIPOC) must be completed no later than 14 days after admission.
B. Initial plan of care (Level C) must include:
1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
2. A description of the functional level of the recipient;
3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the patient;
5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care;
6. Plans for discharge; and
7. Signature and date by the physician.
C. The CIPOC for Level C must meet all of the following
criteria:
1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the recipient's situation and must reflect the need
for inpatient psychiatric care;
2. Be developed by an interdisciplinary team of physicians
and other personnel specified under subsection F of this section, who are
employed by, or provide services to, patients in the facility in consultation
with the recipient and his parents, legal guardians, or appropriate others in
whose care he will be released after discharge;
3. State treatment objectives that must include measurable
short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
achievement;
4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
to the diagnosis; and
5. Describe comprehensive discharge plans and coordination
of inpatient services and post-discharge plans with related community services
to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the recipient's family,
school, and community.
D. Review of the CIPOC for Level C. The CIPOC must be
reviewed every 30 days by the team specified in subsection F of this section
to:
1. Determine that services being provided are or were
required on an inpatient basis; and
2. Recommend changes in the plan as indicated by the
recipient's overall adjustment as an inpatient.
E. The development and review of the plan of care for
Level C as specified in this section satisfies the facility's utilization
control requirements for recertification and establishment and periodic review
of the plan of care, as required in 42 CFR 456.160 and 456.180.
F. Team developing the CIPOC for Level C. The following
requirements must be met:
1. At least one member of the team must have expertise in
pediatric mental health. Based on education and experience, preferably
including competence in child psychiatry, the team must be capable of all of
the following:
a. Assessing the recipient's immediate and long-range
therapeutic needs, developmental priorities, and personal strengths and
liabilities;
b. Assessing the potential resources of the recipient's
family;
c. Setting treatment objectives; and
d. Prescribing therapeutic modalities to achieve the plan's
objectives.
2. The team must include, at a minimum, either:
a. A board-eligible or board-certified psychiatrist;
b. A clinical psychologist who has a doctoral degree and a
physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy; or
c. A physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy
with specialized training and experience in the diagnosis and treatment of
mental diseases, and a psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
association.
3. The team must also include one of the following:
a. A psychiatric social worker;
b. A registered nurse with specialized training or one
year's experience in treating mentally ill individuals;
c. An occupational therapist who is licensed, if required
by the state, and who has specialized training or one year of experience in
treating mentally ill individuals; or
d. A psychologist who has a master's degree in clinical
psychology or who has been certified by the state or by the state psychological
association.
G. All Medicaid services are subject to utilization
review. Absence of any of the required documentation may result in denial or
retraction of any reimbursement.
H. For Therapeutic Behavioral Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level B), the initial plan of care must be completed at
admission by the licensed mental health professional (LMHP) and a CIPOC must be
completed by the LMHP no later than 30 days after admission. The assessment
must be signed and dated by the LMHP.
I. For Community-Based Services for Children and
Adolescents under 21 (Level A), the initial plan of care must be completed at
admission by the QMHP and a CIPOC must be completed by the QMHP no later than
30 days after admission. The individualized plan of care must be signed and
dated by the program director.
J. Initial plan of care for Levels A and B must include:
1. Diagnoses, symptoms, complaints, and complications
indicating the need for admission;
2. A description of the functional level of the child;
3. Treatment objectives with short-term and long-term
goals;
4. Any orders for medications, treatments, restorative and
rehabilitative services, activities, therapies, social services, diet, and
special procedures recommended for the health and safety of the patient;
5. Plans for continuing care, including review and
modification to the plan of care; and
6. Plans for discharge.
K. The CIPOC for Levels A and B must meet all of the
following criteria:
1. Be based on a diagnostic evaluation that includes
examination of the medical, psychological, social, behavioral, and
developmental aspects of the child's situation and must reflect the need for
residential psychiatric care;
2. The CIPOC for both levels must be based on input from
school, home, other healthcare providers, the child and family (or legal
guardian);
3. State treatment objectives that include measurable
short-term and long-term goals and objectives, with target dates for
achievement;
4. Prescribe an integrated program of therapies,
activities, and experiences designed to meet the treatment objectives related
to the diagnosis; and
5. Describe comprehensive discharge plans with related
community services to ensure continuity of care upon discharge with the child's
family, school, and community.
L. Review of the CIPOC for Levels A and B. The CIPOC must
be reviewed, signed, and dated every 30 days by the QMHP for Level A and by the
LMHP for Level B. The review must include:
1. The response to services provided;
2. Recommended changes in the plan as indicated by the
child's overall response to the plan of care interventions; and
3. Determinations regarding whether the services being
provided continue to be required.
Updates must be signed and dated by the service provider.
M. All Medicaid services are subject to utilization
review. Absence of any of the required documentation may result in denial or
retraction of any reimbursement.
Part XVIII
Behavioral Health Services
12VAC30-130-3000. Behavioral health services.
A. Behavioral health services that shall be covered only for
individuals from birth through 21 years of age are set out in 12VAC30-50-130 B
5 and include: (i) intensive in-home services (IIH), (ii)
therapeutic day treatment (TDT), (iii) community based services for children
and adolescents (Level A) therapeutic group homes, and (iv) therapeutic
behavioral services (Level B) psychiatric residential treatment
facilities.
B. Behavioral health services that shall be covered for
individuals regardless of age are set out in 12VAC30-50-226 and include: (i)
day treatment/partial hospitalization, (ii) psychosocial rehabilitation, (iii)
crisis intervention, (iv) case management as set out in 12VAC30-50-420 and
12VAC30-50-430, (v) intensive community treatment (ICT), (vi) crisis
stabilization services, and (vii) mental health support services (MHSS).
12VAC30-130-3020. Independent clinical assessment requirements;
behavioral health level of care determinations and service eligibility. (Repealed.)
A. The independent clinical assessment (ICA), as set forth
in the Virginia Independent Assessment Program (VICAP-001) form, shall contain
the Medicaid individual-specific elements of information and data that shall be
required for an individual younger than the age of 21 to be approved for
intensive in-home (IIH) services, therapeutic day treatment (TDT), or mental
health support services (MHSS) or any combination thereof. Eligibility
requirements for IIH are in 12VAC30-50-130 B 5 b. Eligibility requirements for
TDT are in 12VAC30-50-130 B 5 c. Eligibility requirements for MHSS are in
12VAC30-50-226 B 8.
1. The required elements in the ICA shall be specified in
the VICAP form with either the BHSA or CSBs/BHAs and DMAS.
2. Service recommendations set out in the ICA shall not be
subject to appeal.
B. Independent clinical assessment requirements.
1. Effective July 18, 2011, an ICA shall be required as a
part of the service authorization process for Medicaid and Family Access to
Medical Insurance Security (FAMIS) intensive in-home (IIH) services,
therapeutic day treatment (TDT), or mental health support services (MHSS) for
individuals up to the age of 21. This ICA shall be performed prior to
the request for service authorization and initiation of treatment for
individuals who are not currently receiving or authorized for services. The ICA
shall be completed prior to the service provider conducting an intake or
providing treatment.
a. Each individual shall have at least one ICA prior to the
initiation of either IIH or TDT, or MHSS for individuals up to the age of 21.
b. For individuals who are already receiving IIH services
or TDT, or MHSS, as of July 18, 2011, the requirement for a completed ICA shall
be effective for service reauthorizations for dates of services on and after
September 1, 2011.
c. Individuals who are being discharged from residential
treatment (DMAS service Levels A, B, or C) or inpatient psychiatric
hospitalization do not need an ICA prior to receiving community IIH services or
TDT, or MHSS. They shall be required, however, to have an ICA as part of the
first subsequent service reauthorization for IIH services, TDT, MHSS, or any
combination thereof.
2. The ICA shall be completed and submitted to DMAS or its
service authorization contractor by the independent assessor prior to the
service provider submitting the service authorization or reauthorization
request to the DMAS service authorization contractor. Failure to meet these
requirements shall result in the provider's service authorization or
reauthorization request being returned to the provider.
3. A copy of the ICA shall be retained in the service
provider's individual's file.
4. If a service provider receives a request from parents or
legal guardians to provide IIH services, TDT, or MHSS for individuals who are
younger than 21 years of age, the service provider shall refer the parent or
legal guardian to the BHSA or the local CSB/BHA to obtain the ICA prior to
providing services.
a. In order to provide services, the service provider shall
be required to conduct a service-specific provider intake as defined in
12VAC30-50-130.
b. If the selected service provider concurs that the child
meets criteria for the service recommended by the independent assessor, the
selected service provider shall submit a service authorization request to DMAS
service authorization contractor. The service-specific provider's intake for
IIH services, TDT, or MHSS shall not occur prior to the completion of the ICA
by the BHSA or CSB/BHA, or its subcontractor.
c. If within 30 days after the ICA a service provider
identifies the need for services that were not recommended by the ICA, the
service provider shall contact the independent assessor and request a
modification. The request for a modification shall be based on a significant
change in the individual's life that occurred after the ICA was conducted.
Examples of a significant change may include, but shall not be limited to,
hospitalization; school suspension or expulsion; death of a significant other;
or hospitalization or incarceration of a parent or legal guardian.
d. If the independent assessment is greater than 30 days
old, a new ICA must be obtained prior to the initiation of IIH services, TDT,
or MHSS for individuals younger than 21 years of age.
e. If the parent or legal
guardian disagrees with the ICA recommendation, the parent or legal guardian
may appeal the recommendation in accordance with Part I (12VAC30-110-10 et
seq.) In the alternative, the parent or legal guardian may request that a
service provider perform his own evaluation. If after conducting a
service-specific provider intake the service provider identifies additional
documentation previously not submitted for the ICA that demonstrates the
service is medically necessary and clinically indicated, the service provider
may submit the supplemental information with a service authorization request to
the DMAS service authorization contractor. The DMAS service authorization
contractor will review the service authorization submission and the ICA and
make a determination. If the determination results in a service denial, the
individual, parent or legal guardian, and service provider will be notified of
the decision and their appeal rights pursuant to Part I (12VAC30-110-10 et
seq.).
5. If the individual is in immediate need of treatment, the
independent clinical assessor shall refer the individual to the appropriate
enrolled Medicaid emergency services providers in accordance with
12VAC30-50-226 and shall also alert the individual's managed care organization.
C. Requirements for behavioral health services
administrator and community services boards/behavioral health authorities.
1. When the BHSA, CSB, or BHA
has been contacted by the parent or legal guardian, the ICA appointment shall
be offered within five business days of a request for IIH services and within
10 business days for a request for TDT or MHSS, or both. The appointment may be
scheduled beyond the respective time frame at the documented request of the
parent or legal guardian.
2. The independent assessor
shall conduct the ICA with the individual and the parent or legal guardian
using the VICAP-001 form and make a recommendation for the most appropriate
medically necessary services, if indicated. Referring or treating providers
shall not be present during the assessment but may submit supporting clinical
documentation to the assessor.
3. The ICA shall be effective for a 30-day period.
4. The independent assessor
shall enter the findings of the ICA into the DMAS service authorization
contractor's web portal within one business day of conducting the assessment.
The independent clinical assessment form (VICAP-001) shall be completed by the
independent assessor within three business days of completing the ICA.
D. The individual or his parent or legal guardian shall
have the right to freedom of choice of service providers.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-4495; Filed January 31, 2017, 4:07 p.m.
TITLE 13. HOUSING
BOARD OF HOUSING AND COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT
Proposed Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
Board of Housing and Community Development is claiming an exemption from
Article 2 of the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4006 A 12 of
the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations adopted by the Board of
Housing and Community Development pursuant to the Statewide Fire Prevention
Code (§ 27-94 et seq.), the Industrialized Building Safety Law (§ 36-70
et seq.), the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.), and
§ 36-98.3 of the Code of Virginia, provided the board (i) provides a
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action in conformance with the provisions of
§ 2.2-4007.01, (ii) publishes the proposed regulation and provides an
opportunity for oral and written comments as provided in § 2.2-4007.03,
and (iii) conducts at least one public hearing as provided in §§ 2.2-4009
and 36-100 prior to the publishing of the proposed regulations.
Title of Regulation: 13VAC5-31. Virginia Amusement
Device Regulations (amending 13VAC5-31-40, 13VAC5-31-50).
Statutory Authority: § 36-98.3 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information:
May 15, 2017 - 10 a.m. - Virginia Housing Development
Authority Virginia Housing Center, 4224 Cox Road, Glen Allen, VA 23060
Public Comment Deadline: April 21, 2017.
Agency Contact: Elizabeth O. Rafferty, Policy and
Legislative Director, Department of Housing and Community Development, Main
Street Centre, 600 East Main Street, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone
(804) 371-7011, FAX (804) 371-7090, TTY (804) 371-7089, or email
elizabeth.rafferty@dhcd.virginia.gov.
Background: The Virginia Amusement Device Regulations
(VADR) governs the construction and operation of amusement devices, which are
by statutory definition devices or structures open to the public by which
persons are conveyed or moved in an unusual manner for diversion and passenger
tramways. The regulations are closely related to the Uniform Statewide Building
Code (13VAC5-63) (USBC) and under state law the USBC applies to amusement
devices to the extent that the VADR does not set out differing requirements.
Both regulations utilize nationally recognized model building codes and
standards to provide the technical requirements for the actual construction of
the regulated buildings. Every three years, new editions of the model codes
become available. At that time, the Board of Housing and Community Development
initiates a regulatory action to incorporate the newest editions of the model
codes into the regulation and accepts proposals for changes to the regulation
from affected client groups and the public. The Department of Housing and
Community Development staff maintains mailing lists for workgroups involving
different subject areas of regulation and conducts workgroup meetings to
develop consensus recommendations, when possible, concerning submitted
proposals. The department uses an online program incorporating the provisions
of the regulation and the model codes and standards to facilitate the submittal
of proposals. A public hearing is held during the workgroup meeting stage of
the process and a comment period established. Once workgroup meetings are
completed, the board holds series of meetings to consider each proposal, and
the approved proposals are incorporated into the proposed regulation. After
publication of the proposed regulations, the board establishes a comment period
for the acceptance of comments on amendments reflected in the proposed
regulation, and an additional public hearing is held. The board then meets to
consider proposals and public comments and develops a final regulation to
complete the regulatory process.
Summary:
The proposed amendments to the VADR in this regulatory
action are as follows:
13VAC5-31-40 A 2: Update the referenced standards for
amusement devices to the latest editions available.
13VAC5-31-50: The Virginia Certification Standards
(13VAC5-21) (VCS), also a regulation under the authority of the board, was
amended and became effective in September of 2014. It sets out periodic
training and continuing education requirements for maintaining inspector
certificates issued by the board. Prior to the amendments to the VCS, the VADR
contained those requirements. Now that the VCS contains the requirements, those
requirements are being deleted from the VADR, and a reference to the VCS is
added in place of the requirements.
13VAC5-31-40. Incorporated standards.
A. The following standards are hereby incorporated by
reference for use as part of this chapter:
1. American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Standard No.
B77.1-2011 for the regulation of passenger tramways; and
2. American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) Standard
Nos. F698-94, F747-06 F747-15, F770-11 F770-15, F846-92
(2009), F853-05, F893-10, F1159-11 F1159-15b, F1193-06 F1193-16,
F1957-99 (2011), F2007-12, F2137-11 F2137-16, F2291-11 F2291-15,
F2374-10, F2375-09, F2376-08 F2376-13, F2460-11, and F2959-12
F2959-16, and F2974-15 for the regulation of amusement devices.
The standards referenced above
may be procured from:
ANSI
25 W 43rd Street
New York, NY 10036
|
ASTM
100 Barr Harbor Dr.
West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959
|
B. The provisions of this chapter govern where they are in
conflict with any provisions of the standards incorporated by reference in this
chapter.
C. The following requirements supplement the provisions of
the ASTM standards incorporated by reference in this chapter:
1. The operator of an amusement device shall be at least 16
years of age, except when the person is under the supervision of a parent or
guardian and engaged in activities determined not to be hazardous by the
Commissioner of the Virginia Department of Labor and Industry;
2. The amusement device shall be attended by an operator at
all times during operation except that (i) one operator is permitted to operate
two or more amusement devices provided they are within the sight of the
operator and operated by a common control panel or station and (ii) one
operator is permitted to operate two small mechanical rides with separate
controls provided the distance between controls is no more than 35 feet and the
controls are equipped with a positive pressure switch; and
3. The operator of an amusement device shall not be (i) under
the influence of any drugs which may affect the operator's judgment or ability
to assure the safety of the public or (ii) under the influence of alcohol.
D. Where an amusement device was manufactured under previous
editions of the standards incorporated by reference in this chapter, the
previous editions shall apply to the extent that they are different from the
current standards.
13VAC5-31-50. Certification of amusement device inspectors.
A. Any person, including local building department
personnel, inspecting an amusement device relative to a certificate of
inspection shall possess certification as an amusement device inspector in
accordance with the Virginia Certification Standards (13VAC5-21).
B. Local building department personnel enforcing this
chapter and private inspectors shall attend periodic maintenance training as
designated by DHCD. In addition to the periodic maintenance training required
above, local building department personnel and private inspectors shall attend
16 hours of continuing education every two years as approved by DHCD. If local
building department personnel or private inspectors possess more than one BHCD
certificate, the 16 hours shall satisfy the continuing education requirement
for all BHCD certificates.
Note: Continuing education and periodic training
requirements for DHCD certifications are set out in the Virginia Certification
Standards (13VAC5-21).
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (13VAC5-31)
ANSI B77.1-2011, Passenger Ropeways – Aerial Tramways, Aerial
Lifts, Surface Lifts, Tows and Conveyors – Safety Requirements, American
National Standards Institute (ANSI), 25 West 43rd Street, 4th Floor, New York,
NY 10036 (http://www.ansi.org/)
American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM), 100 Barr
Harbor Drive, West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959; (http://www.astm.org/):
ASTM F698-94, Standard Specification for Physical Information
to be Provided for Amusement Rides and Devices
ASTM F747-06 F747-15, Standard Terminology
Relating to Amusement Rides and Devices
ASTM F770-11 F770-15, Standard Practice for
Ownership, and Operation, Maintenance, and Inspection of
Amusement Rides and Devices
ASTM F846-92 (2009), Standard Guide for Testing Performance
of Amusement Rides and Devices
ASTM F853-05, Standard Practice for Maintenance Procedures
for Amusement Rides and Devices
ASTM F893-10, Standard Guide for Inspection of Amusement Rides
and Devices
ASTM F1159-11 F1159-15b, Standard Practice for
Design and Manufacture of Patron Directed, Artificial Climbing Walls, Dry
Slide, Coin Operated and Purposeful Water Immersion of Amusement
Rides and Devices and Air-Supported Structures that are Outside the
Purview of Other F24 Design Standards
ASTM F1193-06 F1193-16, Standard Practice for
Quality, Manufacture, and Construction of Amusement Rides and Devices
ASTM F1957-99 (2011), Standard Test Method for Composite Foam
Hardness-Durometer Hardness
ASTM F2007-12, Standard Practice for Classification, Design,
Manufacture, and Operation of Concession Go-Karts and Facilities
ASTM F2137-11 F2137-16, Standard Practice for
Measuring the Dynamic Characteristics of Amusement Rides and Devices
ASTM F2291-11 F2291-15, Standard Practice for
Design of Amusement Rides and Devices
ASTM F2374-10, Standard Practice for Design, Manufacture,
Operation, and Maintenance of Inflatable Amusement Devices
ASTM F2375-09, Standard Practice for Design, Manufacture,
Installation and Testing of Climbing Nets and Netting/Mesh used in Amusement
Rides, Devices, Play Areas and Attractions
ASTM F2376-08 F2376-13, Standard Practice for
Classification, Design, Manufacture, Construction, and Operation of Water Slide
Systems
ASTM F2460-11, Standard Practice for Special Requirements for
Bumper Boats
ASTM F2959-12 F2959-16, Standard Practice for Special
Requirements for Aerial Adventure Courses
ASTM F2974-15, Standard Guide for Auditing Amusement Rides
and Devices
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4667; Filed January 20, 2017, 2:38 p.m.
TITLE 13. HOUSING
BOARD OF HOUSING AND COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT
Proposed Regulation
Proposed Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Housing and Community Development is claiming an exemption from Article 2 of the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4006 A 12 of the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations adopted by the Board of Housing and Community Development pursuant to the Statewide Fire Prevention Code (§ 27-94 et seq.), the Industrialized Building Safety Law (§ 36-70 et seq.), the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.), and § 36-98.3 of the Code of Virginia, provided the board (i) provides a Notice of Intended Regulatory Action in conformance with the provisions of § 2.2-4007.01, (ii) publishes the proposed regulation and provides an opportunity for oral and written comments as provided in § 2.2-4007.03, and (iii) conducts at least one public hearing as provided in § § 2.2-4009 and 36-100 prior to the publishing of the proposed regulations.
Title of Regulation: 13VAC5-51. Virginia Statewide Fire Prevention Code (amending 13VAC5-51-11 through 13VAC5-51-155; adding 13VAC5-51-144.8; repealing 13VAC5-51-146).
Statutory Authority: § 27-97 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information:
May 15, 2017 - 10 a.m. - Virginia Housing Development Authority Virginia Housing Center, 4224 Cox Road, Glen Allen, VA 23060
Public Comment Deadline: April 21, 2017.
Agency Contact: Elizabeth O. Rafferty, Policy and Legislative Director, Department of Housing and Community Development, Main Street Centre, 600 East Main Street, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-7011, FAX (804) 371-7090, TTY (804) 371-7089, or email elizabeth.rafferty@dhcd.virginia.gov.
Background: The Statewide Fire Prevention Code (SFPC) is a regulation governing the maintenance of the fire protection aspects of existing structures and operational functions relating to fire safety wherever located, including the regulation of the use of explosives and blasting and fireworks displays. The SFPC uses a nationally recognized model code produced by the International Code Council as the basis for the technical provisions of the regulation. Every three years, a new edition of the model code becomes available. At that time, the Board of Housing and Community Development initiates a regulatory action to incorporate the newest edition of the model code into the regulation as well as accepting proposals for changes to the regulation from affected client groups and the public. The Department of Housing and Community Development staff maintains mailing lists for workgroups involving different subject areas of regulation and conducts workgroup meetings to develop consensus recommendations, when possible, concerning submitted proposals. The department uses an online program incorporating the provisions of the regulation and the model code to facilitate the submittal of proposals. A public hearing is held during the workgroup meeting stage of the process and a comment period established. Once workgroup meetings are completed, the board holds a series of meetings to consider each proposal, and the approved proposals are incorporated into the proposed regulation. After publication of the proposed regulation, the board establishes a comment period for the acceptance of comments on amendments reflected in the proposed regulation, and an additional public hearing is held. The board then meets to consider proposals and public comments and develops a final regulation to complete the regulatory process.
Summary:
The proposed amendments to the SFPC in this regulatory action are as follows:
13VAC5-51-31 A: The 2015 edition of the International Fire Code (IFC) is incorporated by reference to replace the 2012 edition of the IFC.
13VAC5-51-51 K: The Virginia Certification Standards (13VAC5-21) (VCS), also a regulation under the authority of the BHCD, was amended and became effective in September 2014. It sets out periodic training and continuing education requirements for maintaining inspector certificates issued by the BHCD. Prior to the amendments to the VCS, the SFPC contained those requirements. Now that the VCS has the requirements, they are deleted in the SFPC and replaced with a reference the VCS.
13VAC5-51-81 K: Add language from § 27-98 of the Code of Virginia, regarding local fees from the 2012 Acts of Assembly.
13VAC5-51-121 B: Amend the requirement for local government appeals boards to meet annually even if there are no appeals. The Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63) (USBC) was amended by a proposal from the State Building Code Technical Review Board to permit the local appeals boards to meet only when necessary to conduct business. This amendment provides consistent language with the USBC.
13VAC5-51-130: Add new definitions necessary for substantive amendments to the technical requirements of the code addressing college research laboratories in 13VAC5-51-145.
13VAC5-51-131 C, G, and K: Delete provisions addressing sky lanterns and unoccupied tenant spaces in malls since comparable provisions are in the 2015 edition of the IFC being incorporated into the code in 13VAC5-51-31 A.
13VAC5-51-132: When the current SFPC was developed in 2013-2014, the 2015 edition of the IFC was already in process at the International Code Council (ICC) hearings and while the language was not finalized until 2015, many proposals had already been approved in the ICC process. The fire services community submitted a proposal to use the new language, which it was believed would be contained in the 2015 IFC for the SFPC at that time. Now that the 2015 IFC is being incorporated into the SFPC in this action, the language in the SFPC is no longer necessary since it is already in the 2015 edition of the IFC. Therefore the language is deleted from the SFPC. The subject matter of the language is emergency planning and preparedness, and the requirements address the use of emergency evacuation plans and the use of crowd managers for large events. There are no substantive changes to address since all requirements that are being deleted are contained in the 2015 IFC; however, since much existing language is being stricken, this summary is necessary as readers of the proposed regulations not familiar with the 2015 IFC would see much stricken text and not necessarily know that the requirements are not actually changing.
13VAC5-51-133 through 13VAC5-51-140: As explained in the summary of changes to 13VAC5-51-132, the changes in these sections are not substantive, but are simply to delete amendments made in the last regulatory process adopting text that proponents of the proposals were confident would be in the 2015 edition of the IFC being developed through the ICC process. That in fact did happen, and now the changes to the SFPC may be deleted since the language is already in the 2015 IFC, and the 2015 IFC is being incorporated into the SFPC in 13VAC5-51-31 A.
13VAC5-51-144.8: This amendment changes the IFC language for permits to reference the appropriate permit section in the SFPC. The permit sections in all other chapters of the IFC were addressed in the previous regulatory process for the SFPC, but this chapter (Chapter 37 Combustible Fibers) was inadvertently omitted. This amendment corrects the omission and makes all the permit requirements in the IFC consistent.
13VAC5- 51-145 E: In the previous regulatory process for the SFPC, where the 2012 edition of the IFC was incorporated, a proposal was approved to change the table in the IFC addressing the quantities of consumer fireworks that could be stored in a building based on whether the building had a sprinkler system. The 2012 IFC permitted a 100% increase in the amounts stored if there was a sprinkler system present, and that allowance was permitted through the use of a footnote "d" in the table that was referenced in the consumer fireworks entry in the table. A proposal approved during that regulatory process deleted the reference to the footnote for consumer fireworks, but left the reference to the footnote for permissible fireworks (a subset of consumer fireworks that do not lift from the ground when used). The 2015 edition of the IFC does not have the reference to footnote "d" in the table, therefore it is no longer necessary to show consumer fireworks entry in the table changed in the SFPC. The reference to the footnote remains for permissible fireworks.
13VAC5-51-145 F: Add comprehensive new requirements for the safe use of hazardous materials in college research laboratories. DHCD staffed a workgroup of affected parties to develop these requirements, which in conjunction with changes to the USBC, addressing the safe use of materials in the constantly changing field of educational research laboratories. The requirements are consistent with a proposal developed in the ICC process for the 2018 IFC.
13VAC5-51-145 G: Add a reference in the provisions of the SFPC addressing petroleum spills to the Virginia Petroleum Storage Tank Fund (§ 62.1-44.34:11 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
13VAC5-51-155: Add nationally recognized standards to the IFC that are used in the new provisions for college research laboratories in 13VAC5- 51-145 F.
Part I
General Regulations
13VAC5-51-11. Chapter 1, Administration,; Section101.0.101 Scope.
A. 101.1. Title:. These regulations shall be known as the Virginia Statewide Fire Prevention Code (SFPC), hereinafter referred to as "this code" or "SFPC." The term "chapter" means a chapter in the SFPC. The SFPC was cooperatively developed by the Virginia Fire Services Board and the Virginia Board of Housing and Community Development.
B. 101.2. Scope:. The SFPC prescribes regulations affecting or relating to maintenance of structures, processes and premises and safeguards to be complied with for the protection of life and property from the hazards of fire or explosion and for the handling, storage and use of fireworks, explosives or blasting agents, and provides for the administration and enforcement of such regulations. The SFPC also establishes regulations for obtaining permits for the manufacturing, storage, handling, use, or sales of explosives. Inspections under the SFPC are a governmental responsibility.
C. 101.3. Purpose:. The purposes of the SFPC are to provide for statewide standards to safeguard life and property from the hazards of fire or explosion arising from the improper maintenance of life safety and fire prevention and protection materials, devices, systems and structures, and the unsafe storage, handling, and use of substances, materials and devices, including explosives and blasting agents, wherever located.
D. 101.4. Validity:. To the extent that any provisions of the SFPC or the referenced codes or standards are not within the scope of this chapter, those provisions are considered to be invalid. When any provision of the SFPC is found to be in conflict with the USBC, OSHA, or statute, that provision of the SFPC shall become invalid.
E. 101.5. Local regulations:. Any local governing body may adopt fire prevention regulations that are more restrictive or more extensive in scope than the SFPC provided such regulations do not affect the manner of construction or materials to be used in the erection, alteration, repair, or use of a building or structure, as provided in the USBC, including the voluntary installation of smoke alarms and regulation and inspections thereof in commercial buildings where such smoke alarms are not required under the provisions of the SFPC.
F. 101.6. Nonresidential farm structures:. Farm structures not used for residential purposes are exempt from the SFPC except when the inspection and enforcement provisions of the code are exercised by a warrant issued under the authority of §§ 27-98.2 through 27-98.5 of the Code of Virginia.
13VAC5-51-21. Section102.0.102 Applicability.
A. 102.1. General:. The provisions of the SFPC shall apply to all matters affecting or relating to structures, processes and premises as set forth in Section 101.0. The SFPC shall supersede any fire prevention regulations previously adopted by a local government or other political subdivision.
B. 102.1.1. Changes:. No change shall be made in the use or occupancy of any structure that would place the structure in a different division of the same group of occupancies, unless such structure is made to comply with the requirements of this code and the USBC.
C. 102.2. Application to pre-1973 buildings and structures:. Buildings and structures constructed prior to the USBC (1973) shall comply with the maintenance requirements of the SFPC to the extent that equipment, systems, devices, and safeguards which were provided and approved when constructed shall be maintained. Such buildings and structures, if subject to the state fire and public building regulations (Virginia Public Building Safety Regulations, VR 394-01-05) in effect prior to March 31, 1986, shall also be maintained in accordance with those regulations.
D. 102.3. Application to post-1973 buildings and structures:. Buildings and structures constructed under any edition of the USBC shall comply with the maintenance requirements of the SFPC to the extent that equipment, systems, devices, and safeguards which were provided and approved when constructed shall be maintained.
E. 102.4. Referenced codes and standards:. The codes and standards referenced in the IFC shall be those listed in Chapter 80 and considered part of the requirements of the SFPC to the prescribed extent of each such reference. Where differences occur between the provisions of this code and the referenced standards, the provisions of this code shall apply.
F. 102.5. State-owned buildings and structures:. The SFPC shall be applicable to all state-owned buildings and structures in the manner and extent described in § 27-99 of the Code of Virginia and the State Fire Marshal shall have the authority to enforce this code in state-owned buildings and structures as is prescribed in §§ 27-98 and 27-99 of the Code of Virginia.
G. 102.6. Relationship to USBC:. In accordance with §§ 27-34.4, 36-105.1 and 36-119.1 of the Code of Virginia, the USBC does not supersede the provisions of this code that prescribe standards to be complied with in existing buildings and structures, provided that this code shall not impose requirements that are more restrictive than those of the USBC under which the buildings or structures were constructed. Subsequent alteration, enlargement, rehabilitation, repair or conversion of the occupancy classification of such buildings and structures shall be subject to the construction and rehabilitation provisions of the USBC. Inspection of buildings other than state-owned buildings under construction and the review and approval of building plans for these structures for enforcement of the USBC shall be the sole responsibility of the appropriate local building inspectors.
Upon completion of such structures, responsibility for fire safety protection shall pass to the local fire marshal or official designated by the locality to enforce this code in those localities that enforce the SFPC or to the State Fire Marshal in those localities that do not enforce this code.
H. 102.7. Inspections for USBC requirements:. The fire official shall require that existing structures subject to the requirements of the applicable retrofitting provisions relating to the fire protection equipment and system requirements of the USBC, Part I, Construction, Section 103.7, comply with the provisions located therein.
13VAC5-51-31. Section103.0.103 Incorporation by reference.
A. 103.1. General:. The following document is adopted and incorporated by reference to be an enforceable part of the SFPC:
The International Fire Code --20122015 Edition, hereinafter referred to as "IFC," published by the International Code Council, Inc., 500 New Jersey Avenue, NW, 6th Floor, Washington, DC 20001-2070, 1-888 422-7233.
B. 103.1.1. Deletion:. Delete IFC Chapter 1.
C. 103.1.2. Appendices:. The appendices in the IFC are not considered part of the IFC for the purposes of Section 103.1.
Note: Section 101.5 references authority contained in the Code of Virginia for local fire prevention regulations that may be evaluated by localities to determine whether provisions in the IFC appendices may be considered for local fire prevention regulations.
D. 103.2. Amendments:. All requirements of the referenced codes and standards that relate to fees, non-operational permits not specifically required by Section 107.2, unsafe notices, disputes, condemnation, inspections, scope of enforcement and all other procedural, and administrative matters are deleted and replaced by the provisions of Chapter 1 of the SFPC.
Exception: The scope of referenced codes and standards referenced by the SFPC that relate to the maintenance, testing and inspection requirements or limitations shall be enforceable.
E. 103.2.1. Other amendments:. The SFPC contains provisions adopted by the Virginia Board of Housing and Community Development (BHCD), some of which delete, change or amend provisions of the IFC and referenced standards. Where conflicts occur between such changed provisions and the unchanged provisions of the IFC and referenced standards, the provisions changed by the BHCD shall govern.
Note: The IFC and its referenced standards contain some areas of regulation outside of the scope of the SFPC, as established by the BHCD and under state law. Where conflicts have been readily noted, changes have been made to the IFC and its referenced standards to bring it within the scope of authority; however, in some areas, judgment will have to be made as to whether the provisions of the IFC and its referenced standards are fully applicable.
F. 103.3. International Fire Code. Retroactive fire protection system requirements contained in the IFC shall not be enforced unless specified by the USBC.
13VAC5-51-41. Section104.0.104 Enforcement.
A. 104.1. Local enforcement:. Any local government may enforce the SFPC following official action by such body. The official action shall (i) require compliance with the provisions of the SFPC in its entirety or with respect only to those provisions of the SFPC relating to open burning, fire lanes, fireworks, and hazardous materials and (ii) assign enforcement responsibility to the local agency or agencies of its choice. Any local governing body may establish such procedures or requirements as may be necessary for the administration and enforcement of this code. If a local governing body elects to enforce only those provisions of the SFPC relating to open burning, it may do so in all or in any designated geographic areas of its jurisdiction. The terms "enforcing agency" and "fire official" are intended to apply to the agency or agencies to which responsibility for enforcement of the SFPC has been assigned. The terms "building official" or "building department" are intended to apply only to the local building official or local building department.
B. 104.1.1. Enforcement of fireworks provisions by law-enforcement officers:. In accordance with § 27-100.1 of the Code of Virginia, law-enforcement officers who are otherwise authorized to enforce certain provisions of this code shall not be subject to the certification requirements of Section 105.2 or 105.3.2.
C. 104.2. State enforcement:. In accordance with § 27-98 of the Code of Virginia, the State Fire Marshal shall also have the authority, in cooperation with any local governing body, to enforce the SFPC. The State Fire Marshal shall also have authority to enforce the SFPC in those jurisdictions in which the local governments do not enforce the SFPC and may establish such procedures or requirements as may be necessary for the administration and enforcement of the SFPC in such jurisdictions.
D. 104.3. State structures:. Every agency, commission or institution of this Commonwealth, including all institutions of higher education, shall permit, at all reasonable hours, the fire official reasonable access to existing structures or a structure under construction or renovation, for the purpose of performing an informational and advisory fire safety inspection. The fire official is permitted to submit, subsequent to performing such inspection, his findings and recommendations, including a list of corrective actions necessary to ensure that such structure is reasonably safe from the hazards of fire, to the appropriate official of such agency, commission, or institution and the State Fire Marshal. Such agency, commission or institution shall notify, within 60 days of receipt of such findings and recommendations, the State Fire Marshal and the fire official of the corrective measures taken to eliminate the hazards reported by the fire official. The State Fire Marshal shall have the same power in the enforcement of this section as is provided for in § 27-98 of the Code of Virginia. The State Fire Marshal may enter into an agreement as is provided for in § 9.1-208 of the Code of Virginia with any local enforcement agency that enforces the SFPC to enforce this section and to take immediate enforcement action upon verification of a complaint of an imminent hazard such as a chained or blocked exit door, improper storage of flammable liquids, use of decorative materials, and overcrowding.
13VAC5-51-51. Section105.0.105 Enforcing agency.
A. 105.1. Fire official:. Each enforcing agency shall have an executive official in charge, hereinafter referred to as the "fire official."
Note: Fire officials are subject to sanctions in accordance with the Virginia Certification Standards (13VAC5-21).
B. 105.1.1. Appointment:. The fire official shall be appointed in a manner selected by the local government having jurisdiction. After permanent appointment, the fire official shall not be removed from office except for cause after having been afforded a full opportunity to be heard on specific and relevant charges by and before the appointing authority.
C. 105.1.2. Notification of appointment:. The appointing authority of the local governing body shall notify theDepartment of Housing and Community Development(DHCD) and the State Fire Marshal's Office (SFMO) within 30 days of the appointment or release of the permanent or acting fire official.
D. 105.1.3. Qualifications:. The fire official shall have at least five years of fire-related experience as a firefighter, fire officer, licensed professional engineer or architect, fire or building inspector, contractor or superintendent of fire protection-related or building construction or at least five years of fire-related experience after obtaining a degree in architecture or engineering, with at least three years in responsible charge of work. Any combination of education and experience that would confer equivalent knowledge and ability shall be deemed to satisfy this requirement. The fire official shall have general knowledge of sound engineering practice with respect to the design and construction of structures, the basic principles of fire prevention and protection, the accepted requirements for means of egress and the installation of elevators and other service equipment necessary for the health, safety and general welfare of the occupants and the public. The local governing body may establish additional qualification requirements.
E. 105.2. Certification:. The permanent or acting fire official shall obtain certification from the BHCD in accordance with the Virginia Certification Standards (13VAC5-21) within one year after permanent or acting appointment.
Exception: A fire official appointed prior to April 1, 1994, continuously employed by the same local governing body as the fire official shall comply with required DHCD training under the Virginia Certification Standards (13VAC5-21).
F. 105.2.1. Noncertified fire official:. Except for a fire official exempt from certification under the exception to Section 105.2, any acting or permanent fire official who is not certified as a fire official in accordance with the Virginia Certification Standards (13VAC5-21) shall attend the core module of the Virginia Building Code Academy or an equivalent course in an individual or regional code academy accredited by DHCD within 180 days of appointment. This requirement is in addition to meeting the certification requirement in Section 105.2.
G. 105.3. Technical assistant:. The local governing body or its designee may utilize one or more technical assistants who, in the absence of the fire official, shall have the powers and perform the duties of the fire official.
Note: Technical assistants are subject to sanctions in accordance with the Virginia Certification Standards (13VAC5-21).
H. 105.3.1. Notification:. The fire official shall notify the DHCD within 60 days of the employment, contract or termination of all technical assistants for enforcement of the SFPC.
I. 105.3.2. Qualifications:. A technical assistant shall have at least three years of experience and general knowledge in at least one of the following areas: fire protection, firefighting, electrical, building, plumbing or mechanical trades. Any combination of education and experience that would confer equivalent knowledge and ability shall be deemed to satisfy this requirement. The locality may establish additional qualification requirements.
J. 105.3.3. Certification:. All technical assistants employed by or under contract to an enforcing agency for enforcing the SFPC shall be certified in the appropriate subject area in accordance with the Virginia Certification Standards (13VAC5-21) within one and one-half years after permanent or acting appointment. When required by a locality to have two or more certifications, the remaining certifications shall be obtained within three years from the date of such requirement.
Exception: Any technical assistant continuously employed by or continuously under contract to the same enforcing agency for enforcing the SFPC since before April 1, 1994, shall be exempt from the provisions of this section; however, such exempt technical assistant shall comply with required DHCD training under Virginia Certification Standards (13VAC5-21).
Note: Continuing education and periodic training requirements for DHCD certifications are set out in the Virginia Certification Standards (13VAC5-21).
K. 105.4. Continuing education: Fire officials and technical assistants enforcing the SFPC shall attend periodic training courses as designated by the DHCD.
L. 105.5.K. 105.4 Control of conflict of interest:. The standards of conduct for officials and employees of the enforcing agency shall be in accordance with the provisions of the State and Local Government Conflict of Interests Act, Chapter 31 (§ 2.2-3100 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
13VAC5-51-61. Section106.0.106 Duties and powers of the fire official.
A. 106.1. General:. The fire official shall enforce the provisions of the SFPC as provided herein and as interpreted by the StateBuilding Code Technical Review Board(TRB) in accordance with § 36-118 of the Code of Virginia.
B. 106.2. Delegation of duties and powers:. The fire official may delegate duties and powers subject to any limitations imposed by the local governing body. The fire official shall be responsible that any powers and duties delegated are carried out in accordance with this code.
C. 106.3. Inspections:. The fire official is authorized to conduct such inspections as are deemed necessary to determine the extent of compliance with the provisions of this code and to approve reports of inspection by approved agencies or individuals in accordance with the fire official's written policy. All reports of such inspections by approved agencies or individuals shall be prepared and submitted in writing for review and approval. Inspection reports shall be certified by a responsible officer of such approved agency or by the responsible individual. The fire official is authorized to engage such expert opinion as deemed necessary to report upon unusual, detailed or complex technical issues in accordance with local policies.
D. 106.3.1. Observations:. When, during an inspection, the fire official or an authorized representative observes an apparent or actual violation of another law, ordinance or code not within the official's authority to enforce, such official shall report the findings to the official having jurisdiction in order that such official may institute the necessary measures.
E. 106.4. Alternatives:. The SFPC provisions are not intended to prevent the use of any safeguards used to protect life and property from the hazards of fire or explosion that are not specifically prescribed by the SFPC, provided that such alternative safeguards comply with the intent of the SFPC. The alternative safeguard offered shall be, for the purpose intended, at least the equivalent of that prescribed in this code in quality, strength, effectiveness, fire resistance, durability and safety.
F. 106.5. Modifications:. The fire official may grant modifications to any provision of the SFPC upon application by the owner or the owner's agent provided the spirit and intent of the SFPC are observed and public health, welfare, and safety are assured.
Note: The current editions of many nationally recognized model codes and standards are referenced by the SFPC. Future amendments to such codes and standards do not automatically become part of the SFPC; however, the fire official should consider such amendments in deciding whether a modification request should be granted.
G. 106.5.1. Supporting data:. The fire official shall require that sufficient technical data be submitted to substantiate the proposed use of any alternative. If it is determined that the evidence presented is satisfactory proof of performance for the use intended, the fire official shall approve the use of such alternative subject to the requirements of this code. The fire official may require and consider a statement from a professional engineer, architect or other competent person as to the equivalency of the proposed modification.
H. 106.5.2. Decision:. The application for modification and the final decision of the fire official shall be in writing and shall be recorded in the permanent records of the local enforcing agency.
I. 106.6. Notices and orders:. The fire official shall issue all necessary notices or orders to ensure compliance with the SFPC.
J. 106.7. Department records:. The fire official shall keep official records of applications received, permits and certificates issued, fees collected, reports of inspections, and notices and orders issued. Such records shall be retained in the official records or disposed of in accordance with General Schedule Number Ten available from The Library of Virginia.
13VAC5-51-81. Section107.0.107 Permits and fees.
A. 107.1. Prior notification:. The fire official may require notification prior to (i) activities involving the handling, storage or use of substances, materials or devices regulated by the SFPC; (ii) conducting processes which produce conditions hazardous to life or property; or (iii) establishing a place of assembly.
B. 107.2. Permits required:. Operational permits may be required by the fire official as permitted under the SFPC in accordance with Table 107.2, except that the fire official shall require permits for the manufacturing, storage, handling, use, and sale of explosives. In accordance with Section 5601.2.3.1, an application for a permit to manufacture, store, handle, use, or sell explosives shall only be made by a designated individual.
Exception: Such permits shall not be required for the storage of explosives or blasting agents by the Virginia Department of State Police provided notification to the fire official is made annually by the Chief Arson
C. Add Table 107.2 as follows:
Table 107.2. OPERATIONAL PERMIT REQUIREMENTS (to be filled in by local jurisdiction). |
Description | Permit Required (yes or no) | Permit Fee | Inspection Fee |
Aerosol products. An operational permit is required to manufacture, store or handle an aggregate quantity of Level 2 or Level 3 aerosol products in excess of 500 pounds (227 kg) net weight. |
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Amusement buildings. An operational permit is required to operate a special amusement building. |
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Aviation facilities. An operational permit is required to use a Group H or Group S occupancy for aircraft servicing or repair and aircraft fuel-servicing vehicles. Additional permits required by other sections of this code include, but are not limited to, hot work, hazardous materials and flammable or combustible finishes. |
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Carnivals and fairs. An operational permit is required to conduct a carnival or fair. |
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Cellulose nitrate film. An operational permit is required to store, handle or use cellulose nitrate film in a Group A occupancy. |
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Combustible dust-producing operations. An operational permit is required to operate a grain elevator, flour starch mill, feed mill, or a plant pulverizing aluminum, coal, cocoa, magnesium, spices or sugar, or other operations producing combustible dusts as defined in Chapter 2. |
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Combustible fibers. An operational permit is required for the storage and handling of combustible fibers in quantities greater than 100 cubic feet (2.8 m3). Exception: An operational permit is not required for agricultural storage. |
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Compressed gas. An operational permit is required for the storage, use or handling at normal temperature and pressure (NTP) of compressed gases in excess of the amounts listed below. Exception: Vehicles equipped for and using compressed gas as a fuel for propelling the vehicle. | | | |
Permit Amounts for Compressed Gases | | | |
Type of Gas | Amount (cubic feet at NTP) | | | |
Corrosive | 200 | | | |
Flammable (except cryogenic fluids and liquefied petroleum gases) | 200 | | | |
Highly toxic | Any Amount | | | |
Inert and simple asphyxiant | 6,000 | | | |
Oxidizing (including oxygen) | 504 | | | |
Pyrophoric | Any Amount | | | |
Toxic | Any Amount | | | |
For SI: 1 cubic foot = 0.02832 m3. | | | |
Covered and open mall buildings. An operational permit is required for: 1. The placement of retail fixtures and displays, concession equipment, displays of highly combustible goods and similar items in the mall. 2. The display of liquid-fired or gas-fired equipment in the mall. 3. The use of open-flame or flame-producing equipment in the mall. | | | |
Cryogenic fluids. An operational permit is required to produce, store, transport on site, use, handle or dispense cryogenic fluids in excess of the amounts listed below. Exception: Operational permits are not required for vehicles equipped for and using cryogenic fluids as a fuel for propelling the vehicle or for refrigerating the lading. | | | |
Permit Amounts for Cryogenic Fluids | | | |
Type of Cryogenic Fluid | Inside Building (gallons) | Outside Building (gallons) | | | |
Flammable | More than 1 | 60 | | | |
Inert | 60 | 500 | | | |
Oxidizing (includes oxygen) | 10 | 50 | | | |
Physical or health hazard not indicated above | Any Amount | Any Amount | | | |
For SI: 1 gallon = 3.785 L. | | | |
Cutting and welding. An operational permit is required to conduct cutting or welding operations within the jurisdiction. | | | |
Dry cleaning plants. An operational permit is required to engage in the business of dry cleaning or to change to a more hazardous cleaning solvent used in existing dry cleaning equipment. | | | |
Exhibits and trade shows. An operational permit is required to operate exhibits and trade shows. | | | |
Explosives, fireworks, and pyrotechnics. An operational permit is required for the manufacture, storage, handling, sale or use of any quantity of explosive, explosive materials, fireworks, pyrotechnic special effects, or pyrotechnic special effects material within the scope of Chapter 56. Exception: Storage in Group R-3 or R-5 occupancies of smokeless propellant, black powder and small arms primers for personal use, not for resale, and in accordance with the quantity limitations and conditions set forth in Section 5601.1, exception numbers four and 12. | | | |
Fire hydrants and valves. An operational permit is required to use or operate fire hydrants or valves intended for fire suppression purposes that are installed on water systems and accessible to a fire apparatus access road that is open to or generally used by the public. Exception: An operational permit is not required for authorized employees of the water company that supplies the system or the fire department to use or operate fire hydrants or valves. | | | |
Flammable and combustible liquids. An operational permit is required: 1. To use or operate a pipeline for the transportation within facilities of flammable or combustible liquids. This requirement shall not apply to the offsite transportation in pipelines regulated by the Department of Transportation (DOTn) nor does it apply to piping systems. 2. To store, handle or use Class I liquids in excess of 5 gallons (19 L) in a building or in excess of 10 gallons (37.9 L) outside of a building, except that a permit is not required for the following: | | | |
2.1. The storage or use of Class I liquids in the fuel tank of a motor vehicle, aircraft, motorboat, mobile power plant or mobile heating plant, unless such storage, in the opinion of the fire official, would cause an unsafe condition. 2.2. The storage or use of paints, oils, varnishes or similar flammable mixtures when such liquids are stored for maintenance, painting or similar purposes for a period of not more than 30 days. | | | |
3. To store, handle or use Class II or Class IIIA liquids in excess of 25 gallons (95 L) in a building or in excess of 60 gallons (227 L) outside a building, except for fuel oil used in connection with oil-burning equipment. 4. To remove Class I or Class II liquids from an underground storage tank used for fueling motor vehicles by any means other than the approved, stationary on-site pumps normally used for dispensing purposes. 5. To operate tank vehicles, equipment, tanks, plants, terminals, wells, fuel-dispensing stations, refineries, distilleries and similar facilities where flammable and combustible liquids are produced, processed, transported, stored, dispensed or used. 6. To install, alter, remove, abandon, place temporarily out of service (for more than 90 days) or otherwise dispose of an underground, protected above-ground or above-ground flammable or combustible liquid tank. 7. To change the type of contents stored in a flammable or combustible liquid tank to a material that poses a greater hazard than that for which the tank was designed and constructed. 8. To manufacture, process, blend or refine flammable or combustible liquids. | | | |
Floor finishing. An operational permit is required for floor finishing or surfacing operations exceeding 350 square feet (33 m2) using Class I or Class II liquids. | | | |
Fruit and crop ripening. An operational permit is required to operate a fruit- ripening or crop-ripening facility or conduct a fruit-ripening process using ethylene gas. | | | |
Fumigation, thermal, and insecticidal fogging. An operational permit is required to operate a business of fumigation, thermal, or insecticidal fogging and to maintain a room, vault or chamber in which a toxic or flammable fumigant is used. | | | |
Hazardous materials. An operational permit is required to store, transport on site, dispense, use or handle hazardous materials in excess of the amounts listed below. | | | |
Permit Amounts for Hazardous Materials | | | |
Type of Material | Amount | | | |
Combustible liquids | See flammable and combustible liquids | | | |
Corrosive materials | | | | |
Gases | See compressed gases | | | |
Liquids | 55 gallons | | | |
Solids | 1000 pounds | | | |
Explosive materials | See explosives | | | |
Flammable materials | | | | |
Gases | See compressed gases | | | |
Liquids | See flammable and combustible liquids | | | |
Solids | 100 pounds | | | |
Highly toxic materials | | | | |
Gases | See compressed gases | | | |
Liquids | Any amount | | | |
Solids | Any amount | | | |
Oxidizing materials | | | | |
Gases | See compressed gases | | | |
Liquids | | | | |
Class 4 | Any amount | | | |
Class 3 | 1 gallona | | | |
Class 2 | 10 gallons | | | |
Class 1 | 55 gallons | | | |
Solids | | | | |
Class 4 | Any amount | | | |
Class 3 | 10 poundsb | | | |
Class 2 | 100 pounds | | | |
Class 1 | 500 pounds | | | |
Organic peroxides | | | | |
Liquids | | | | |
Class I | Any amount | | | |
Class II | Any amount | | | |
Class III | 1 gallon | | | |
Class IV | 2 gallons | | | |
Class V | No permit required | | | |
Solids | | | | |
Class I | Any amount | | | |
Class II | Any amount | | | |
Class III | 10 pounds | | | |
Class IV | 20 pounds | | | |
Class V | No permit required | | | |
Pyrophoric materials | | | | |
Gases | See compressed gases | | | |
Liquids | Any amount | | | |
Solids | Any amount | | | |
Toxic materials | | | | |
Gases | See compressed gases | | | |
Liquids | 10 gallons | | | |
Solids | 100 pounds | | | |
Unstable (reactive) materials | | | |
Liquids | | | | |
Class 4 | Any amount | | | |
Class 3 | Any amount | | | |
Class 2 | 5 gallons | | | |
Class 1 | 10 gallons | | | |
Solids | | | | |
Class 4 | Any amount | | | |
Class 3 | Any amount | | | |
Class 2 | 50 pounds | | | |
Class 1 | 100 pounds | | | |
Water reactive materials | | | | |
Liquids | | | |
Class 3 | Any amount | | | |
Class 2 | 5 gallons | | | |
Class 1 | 55 gallons | | | |
Solids | | | | |
Class 3 | Any amount | | | |
Class 2 | 50 pounds | | | |
Class 1 | 500 pounds | | | |
For SI: 1 gallon = 3.785 L, 1 pound = 0.454 kg. a. Twenty gallons when Table 5003.1.1(1) Note k applies and hazard identification signs in accordance with Section 5003.5 are provided for quantities of 20 gallons or less. b. Two hundred pounds when Table 5003.1.1(1) Note k applies and hazard identification signs in accordance with Section 5003.5 are provided for quantities of 200 pounds or less. | | | |
HPM facilities. An operational permit is required to store, handle or use hazardous production materials. | | | |
High piled storage. An operational permit is required to use a building or portion thereof as a high-piled storage area exceeding 500 square feet (46 m2). | | | |
Hot work operations. An operational permit is required for hot work including, but not limited to: 1. Public exhibitions and demonstrations where hot work is conducted. 2. Use of portable hot work equipment inside a structure. Exception: Work that is conducted under a construction permit. 3. Fixed-site hot work equipment such as welding booths. 4. Hot work conducted within a hazardous fire area. 5. Application of roof coverings with the use of an open-flame device. 6. When approved, the fire official shall issue a permit to carry out a Hot Work Program. This program allows approved personnel to regulate their facility's hot work operations. The approved personnel shall be trained in the fire safety aspects denoted in this chapter and shall be responsible for issuing permits requiring compliance with the requirements found in this chapter. These permits shall be issued only to their employees or hot work operations under their supervision. | | | |
Industrial ovens. An operational permit is required for operation of industrial ovens regulated by Chapter 30. | | | |
Lumber yards and woodworking plants. An operational permit is required for the storage or processing of lumber exceeding 100,000 board feet (8,333 ft3) (236 m3). | | | |
Liquid-fueled or gas-fueled vehicles or equipment in assembly buildings. An operational permit is required to display, operate or demonstrate liquid-fueled or gas-fueled vehicles or equipment in assembly buildings. | | | |
LP-gas. An operational permit is required for: 1. Storage and use of LP-gas. Exception: An operational permit is not required for individual containers with a 500-gallon (1893 L) water capacity or less or multiple container systems having an aggregate quantity not exceeding 500 gallons (1893 L), serving occupancies in Group R-3. 2. Operation of cargo tankers that transport LP-gas. | | | |
Magnesium. An operational permit is required to melt, cast, heat treat or grind more than 10 pounds (4.54 kg) of magnesium. | | | |
Miscellaneous combustible storage. An operational permit is required to store in any building or upon any premises in excess of 2,500 cubic feet (71 m3) gross volume of combustible empty packing cases, boxes, barrels or similar containers, rubber tires, rubber, cork or similar combustible material. | | | |
Open burning. An operational permit is required for the kindling or maintaining of an open fire or a fire on any public street, alley, road, or other public or private ground. Instructions and stipulations of the permit shall be adhered to. Exception: Recreational fires. | | | |
Open flames and candles. An operational permit is required to use open flames or candles in connection with assembly areas, dining areas of restaurants or drinking establishments. | | | |
Open flames and torches. An operational permit is required to remove paint with a torch, or to use a torch or open-flame device in a wildfire risk area. | | | |
Organic coatings. An operational permit is required for any organic-coating manufacturing operation producing more than 1 gallon (4 L) of an organic coating in one day. | | | |
Places of assembly. An operational permit is required to operate a place of assembly. | | | |
Private fire hydrants. An operational permit is required for the removal from service, use or operation of private fire hydrants. Exception: An operational permit is not required for private industry with trained maintenance personnel, private fire brigade or fire departments to maintain, test and use private hydrants. | | | |
Pyrotechnic special effects material. An operational permit is required for use and handling of pyrotechnic special effects material. | | | |
Pyroxylin plastics. An operational permit is required for storage or handling of more than 25 pounds (11 kg) of cellulose nitrate (pyroxylin) plastics and for the assembly or manufacture of articles involving pyroxylin plastics. | | | |
Refrigeration equipment. An operational permit is required to operate a mechanical refrigeration unit or system regulated by Chapter 6. | | | |
Repair garages and service stations. An operational permit is required for operation of repair garages and automotive, marine and fleet service stations. | | | |
Rooftop heliports. An operational permit is required for the operation of a rooftop heliport. | | | |
Spraying or dipping. An operational permit is required to conduct a spraying or dipping operation utilizing flammable or combustible liquids or the application of combustible powders regulated by Chapter 24. | | | |
Storage of scrap tires and tire byproducts. An operational permit is required to establish, conduct or maintain storage of scrap tires and tire byproducts that exceeds 2,500 cubic feet (71 m3) of total volume of scrap tires and for indoor storage of tires and tire byproducts. | | | |
Temporary membrane structures and tents. An operational permit is required to operate an air-supported temporary membrane structure or a tent. Exceptions: 1. Tents used exclusively for recreational camping purposes. 2. Tents and air-supported structures that cover an area of 900 square feet (84 m2) or less, including all connecting areas or spaces with a common means of egress or entrance and with an occupant load of 50 or less persons. | | | |
Tire-rebuilding plants. An operational permit is required for the operation and maintenance of a tire-rebuilding plant. | | | |
Waste handling. An operational permit is required for the operation of wrecking yards, junk yards and waste material-handling facilities. | | | |
Wood products. An operational permit is required to store chips, hogged material, lumber or plywood in excess of 200 cubic feet (6 m3). | | | |
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D. 107.3. Application forpermit:. Application for a permit shall be made on formsprescribed by the fire official.
E. 107.4. Issuance of permits:. Before apermit is issued, the fire official shall make such inspections or tests as arenecessary to assure that the use and activities for which application is madecomply with the provisions of this code.
F. 107.5. Conditions of permit:. Apermit shall constitute permission to store or handle materials or to conductprocesses in accordance with the SFPC, and shall not be construed asauthority to omit or amend any of the provisions of this code. Permits shallremain in effect until revoked or for such period as specified on the permit.Permits are not transferable.
G. 107.6. Annual:. The enforcing agency mayissue annual permits for the manufacturing, storage, handling, use, or sales ofexplosives to any state regulated public utility.
H. 107.7. Approved plans:. Plansapproved by the fire official are approved with the intent that they comply inall respects to this code. Any omissions or errors on the plans do not relievethe applicant of complying with all applicable requirements of this code.
I. 107.8. Posting:.Issued permits shall be kept on the premises designated therein at all timesand shall be readily available for inspection by the fire official.
J. 107.9. Suspension of permit:. Apermit shall become invalid if the authorized activity is not commenced withinsix months after issuance of the permit, or if the authorized activityis suspended or abandoned for a period of six months after the time ofcommencement.
K. 107.10. Local fees:.In accordance with §27-9727-98 of the Code of Virginia, feesmay be levied by the local governing body in order to defray the cost ofenforcement and appeals under the SFPC.However, for the city of Chesapeakeno fee charged for the inspection of any place of religious worship designatedas Assembly Group A-3 shall exceed $50. For purposes of this section,"defray the cost" may include the fair and reasonable costs incurredfor such enforcement during normal business hours but shall not includeovertime costs, unless conducted outside of the normal working hoursestablished by the locality. A schedule of such costs shall be adopted by thelocal governing body in a local ordinance. A locality shall not charge anovertime rate for inspections conducted during the normal business hours establishedby the locality. Nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit a private entityfrom conducting such inspections, provided the private entity has been approvedto perform such inspections in accordance with the written policy of the fireofficial for the locality.
L. 107.11. State Fire Marshal's office permit fees forexplosives, blasting agents, theatrical flame effects, and fireworks:.Except as modified herein, applications for firework or pyrotechnic displaysshall be submitted to and received by the State Fire Marshal's office not lessthan 15 days prior to the planned event. State Fire Marshal's Office permitfees shall be as follows:
1. $150 per year per magazine to store explosives and blastingagents.
2. $250 per year per city or county to use explosives andblasting agents.
3. $200 per year to sell explosives and blasting agents.
4. $250 per year to manufacture explosives, blasting agentsand fireworks.
5. $350 the first day of fireworks, pyrotechnics or proximateaudience displays conducted in any state-owned building and $150 per day foreach consecutive day for identical multi-day events. If an application isreceived by the State Fire Marshal's office less than 15 days prior to theplanned event, the permit fee shall be $550 the first day and $150 per day foreach consecutive day for identical multi-day events. If an application isreceived by the State Fire Marshal's office less than seven days prior to theplanned event, the permit fee shall be $650 the first day and $150 per day foreach consecutive day for identical multi-day events.
6. $250 the first day of fireworks, pyrotechnics or proximateaudience displays conducted out-of-doors on any state-owned property and $150per day for each consecutive day for identical multi-day events. If anapplication is received by the State Fire Marshal's office less than 15 daysprior to the planned event, the permit fee shall be $550 the first day and $150per day for each consecutive day for identical multi-day events. If anapplication is received by the State Fire Marshal's office less than seven daysprior to the planned event, the permit fee shall be $650 the first day and $150per day for each consecutive day for identical multi-day events.
7. $100 per nonrenewable permit, valid for one week from thedate of issuance, for the use of explosives in special operations or emergencyconditions.
8. $300 the first day for flame effects conducted inaccordance with Section 308.3.2 indoors of any state-owned building or outdoorson state-owned property and $200 per day for each consecutive day for identicalmulti-day events, or, if conducted as part of a firework (pyrotechnic) display,$150 the first day and $125 per day for each consecutive day for identicalmulti-day events. If an application for flame effects is received by the StateFire Marshal's office less than 15 days prior to the planned event, the permitfee shall be $550 the first day and $200 per day for each consecutive day foridentical multi-day events or, if conducted as part of a firework (pyrotechnic)display, $200 the first day and $100 per day for each consecutive day foridentical multi-day events. If an application is received by the State FireMarshal's office less than seven days prior to the planned event, the permitfee shall be $650 the first day and $150 per day for each consecutive day foridentical multi-day events or, if conducted as part of a firework (pyrotechnic)display, $300 the first day and $125 per day for each consecutive day foridentical multi-day events.
Exception: Permits shall not be required for the storage ofexplosives or blasting agents by the Virginia Department of State Policeprovided notification to the State Fire Marshal is made annually by the ChiefArson Investigator listing all storage locations within areas where enforcementis provided by the State Fire Marshal's office.
M. 107.12. State annual compliance inspection fees:.Fees for compliance inspections performed by the State Fire Marshal's officeshall be as follows:
1. Nightclubs.
1.1. $350 for occupant load of 100 or less.
1.2. $450 for occupant load of 101 to 200.
1.3. $500 for occupant load of 201 to 300.
1.4. $500 plus $50 for each 100 occupants where occupant loadsexceed 300.
2. Private college dormitories with or without assembly areas.If containing assembly areas, such assembly areas are not included in thecomputation of square footage.
2.1. $150 for 3500 square feet or less.
2.2. $200 for greater than 3500 square feet up to 7000 squarefeet.
2.3. $250 for greater than 7000 square feet up to 10,000square feet.
2.4. $250 plus $50 for each additional 3000 square feet wheresquare footage exceeds 10,000.
3. Assembly areas that are part of private collegedormitories.
3.1. $50 for 10,000 square feet or less provided the assemblyarea is within or attached to a dormitory building.
3.2. $100 for greater than 10,000 square feet up to 25,000square feet provided the assembly area is within or attached to a dormitorybuilding, such as gymnasiums, auditoriums or cafeterias.
3.3. $100 for up to 25,000 square feet provided the assemblyarea is in a separate or separate buildings such as gymnasiums, auditoriums orcafeterias.
3.4. $150 for greater than 25,000 square feet for assemblyareas within or attached to a dormitory building or in a separate or separatebuildings such as gymnasiums, auditoriums or cafeterias.
4. Hospitals.
4.1. $300 for 1 to 50 beds.
4.2. $400 for 51 to 100 beds.
4.3. $500 for 101 to 150 beds.
4.4. $600 for 151 to 200 beds.
4.5. $600 plus $100 for each additional 100 beds where the numberof beds exceeds 200.
5. Facilities licensed by the Virginia Department of SocialServices based on licensed capacity as follows:
5.1. $50 for 1 to 8.
5.2. $75 for 9 to 20.
5.3. $100 for 21 to 50.
5.4. $200 for 51 to 100.
5.5. $300 for 101 to 150.
5.6. $400 for 151 to 200.
5.7. $500 for 201 or more.
Exception: Annual compliance inspection fees for any buildingor groups of buildings on the same site may not exceed $2500.
6. Registered complaints.
6.1. No charge for first visit (initial complaint), and ifviolations are found.
6.2. $51 per hour for each State Fire Marshal's office stafffor all subsequent visits.
7. Bonfires (small and large) on state-owned property.
7.1. For a small bonfire pile with a total fuel area more than3 feet in diameter and more than 2 feet in height, but not more than 9 feet indiameter and not more than 6 feet in height, the permit fee is $50. If anapplication for a bonfire permit is received by the State Fire Marshal's officeless than 15 days prior to the planned event, the permit fee shall be $100. Ifan application for a bonfire permit is received by the State Fire Marshal'soffice less than seven days prior to the planned event, the permit fee shall be$150.
7.2. For a large bonfire pile with a total fuel area more than9 feet in diameter and more than 6 feet in height, the permit fee is $150. Ifan application for a bonfire permit is received by the State Fire Marshal'soffice less than 15 days prior to the planned event, the permit fee shall be$300. If an application for a bonfire permit is received by the State FireMarshal's office less than seven days prior to the planned event, the permitfee shall be $450.
N. 107.13. Fee schedule:. The localgoverning body may establish a fee schedule. The schedule shall incorporateunit rates, which may be based on square footage, cubic footage, estimated costof inspection or other appropriate criteria.
O. 107.14. Payment of fees:. A permitshall not be issued until the designated fees have been paid.
Exception: The fire official may authorize delayed payment offees.
P. 107.14.1. State Fire Marshal's office certificationand permit fees not refundable:. No refund of any part of theamount paid as a permit or certification fee will be made where the applicant,permit or certification holder, for any reason, discontinued an activity,changed conditions, or changed circumstances for which the permit orcertification was issued. However, the permit or certification fee submittedwith an application will be refunded if the permit or certification iscanceled, revoked, or suspended subsequent to having been issued throughadministrative error, or if a permit being applied for is to be obtained from alocally appointed fire official.
13VAC5-51-85. Section108.0.108 Operationalpermits.
A. 108.1. General. Operational permits shall be inaccordance with Section 108. The fire official may require notification priorto (i) activities involving the handling, storage or use of substances,materials or devices regulated by the SFPC; (ii) conducting processes whichproduce conditions hazardous to life or property; or (iii) establishing a placeof assembly.
B. 108.1.1. Permits required. Operational permits maybe required by the fire official in accordance with Table 107.2. The fireofficial shall require operational permits for the manufacturing, storage,handling, use and sale of explosives. Issued permits shall be kept on thepremises designated therein at all times and shall be readily available forinspection by the fire official.
Exceptions:
1. Operational permits will not be required by the State FireMarshal except for the manufacturing, storage, handling, use and sale ofexplosives in localities not enforcing the SFPC.
2. Operational permits will not be required for themanufacturing, storage, handling or use of explosives or blasting agents by theVirginia Department of State Police provided notification to the fire officialis made annually by the Chief Arson Investigator listing all storage locations.
C. 108.1.2. Duration of operational permits.
An operational permit allows the applicant to conduct anoperation or a business for which a permit is required by Section 108.1.1 foreither:
1. A prescribed period.
2. Until renewed, suspended, or revoked.
D. 108.1.3. Operational permits for the same location.When more than one operational permit is required for the same location, thefire official is authorized to consolidate such permits into a single permitprovided that each provision is listed in the permit.
E. 108.2. Application. Application for an operationalpermit required by this code shall be made to the fire official in such formand detail as prescribed by the fire official. Applications for permits shallbe accompanied by such plans as prescribed by the fire official.
F. 108.2.1. Refusal to issue permit. If theapplication for an operational permit describes a use that does not conform tothe requirements of this code and other pertinent laws and ordinances, the fireofficial shall not issue a permit, but shall return the application to theapplicant with the refusal to issue such permit. Such refusal shall, whenrequested, be in writing and shall contain the reasons for refusal.
G. 108.2.2. Inspection authorized. Before a newoperational permit is approved, the fire official is authorized to inspect thereceptacles, vehicles, buildings, devices, premises, storage spaces or areas tobe used to determine compliance with this code or any operational constraintsrequired.
H. 108.2.3. Time limitation of application. Anapplication for an operational permit for any proposed work or operation shallbe deemed to have been abandoned six months after the date of filing, unlesssuch application has been diligently prosecuted or a permit shall have beenissued; except that the fire official is authorized to grant one or moreextensions of time for additional periods not exceeding 90 days each if thereis reasonable cause.
I. 108.2.4. Action on application. The fire officialshall examine or cause to be examined applications for operational permits andamendments thereto within a reasonable time after filing. If the applicationdoes not conform to the requirements of pertinent laws, the fire official shallreject such application in writing, stating the reasons. If the fire officialis satisfied that the proposed work or operation conforms to the requirementsof this code and laws and ordinances applicable thereto, the fire officialshall issue a permit as soon as practicable.
J. 108.3. Conditions of a permit. An operationalpermit shall constitute permission to maintain, store or handle materials; orto conduct processes in accordance with the SFPC, and shall not be construed asauthority to omit or amend any of the provisions of this code.
Note: The building official issues permits to installequipment utilized in connection with such activities or to install or modifyany fire protection system or equipment or any other construction, equipmentinstallation or modification.
K. 108.3.1. Expiration. An operational permit shallremain in effect until reissued, renewed, or revoked for such a period of timeas specified in the permit. Permits are not transferable and any change inoccupancy, operation, tenancy or ownership shall require that a new permit beissued.
L. 108.3.2. Extensions. A permittee holding anunexpired permit shall have the right to apply for an extension of the timewithin which the permittee will commence work under that permit when work isunable to be commenced within the time required by this section for good andsatisfactory reasons. The fire official is authorized to grant, in writing, oneor more extensions of the time period of a permit for periods of not more than90 days each. Such extensions shall be requested by the permit holder inwriting and justifiable cause demonstrated.
M. 108.3.3. Annual. The enforcing agency may issueannual operational permits for the manufacturing, storage, handling, use, orsales of explosives to any state regulated public utility.
N. 108.3.4. Suspension of permit. An operationalpermit shall become invalid if the authorized activity is not commenced withinsix months after issuance of the permit, or if the authorized activity issuspended or abandoned for a period of six months after the time ofcommencement.
O. 108.3.5. Posting. Issued operational permits shallbe kept on the premises designated therein at all times and shall be readilyavailable for inspection by the fire official.
P. 108.3.6. Compliance with code. The issuance orgranting of an operational permit shall not be construed to be a permit for, oran approval of, any violation of any of the provisions of this code or of anyother ordinance of the jurisdiction. Operational permits presuming to giveauthority to violate or cancel the provisions of this code or other ordinancesof the jurisdiction shall not be valid. The issuance of a permit based on otherdata shall not prevent the fire official from requiring the correction oferrors in the provided documents and other data. Any addition to or alterationof approved provided documents shall be approved in advance by the fireofficial, as evidenced by the issuance of a new or amended permit.
Q. 108.3.7. Information on the permit. The fireofficial shall issue all operational permits required by this code on an approvedform furnished for that purpose. The operational permit shall contain a generaldescription of the operation or occupancy and its location and any otherinformation required by the fire official. Issued permits shall bear theoriginal or electronic signature of the fire official or other designeeapproved by the fire official.
R. 108.4. Revocation. The fire official is authorizedto revoke an operational permit issued under the provisions of this code whenit is found by inspection or otherwise that there has been a false statement ormisrepresentation as to the material facts in the application or documents onwhich the permit or approval was based including, but not limited to, any oneof the following:
1. The permit is used for a location or establishment otherthan that for which it was issued.
2. The permit is used for a condition or activity other thanthat listed in the permit.
3. Conditions and limitations set forth in the permit havebeen violated.
4. Inclusion of any false statements or misrepresentations asto a material fact in the application for permit or plans submitted or acondition of the permit.
5. The permit is used by a different person or firm than theperson or firm for which it was issued.
6. The permittee failed, refused or neglected to comply withorders or notices duly served in accordance with the provisions of this codewithin the time provided therein.
7. The permit was issued in error or in violation of anordinance, a regulation, or this code.
13VAC5-51-91. Section109.0.109 Inspection.
A. 109.1. Inspection:. The fire officialmay inspect all structures and premises for the purposes of ascertaining andcausing to be corrected any conditions liable to cause fire, contribute to the spreadof fire, interfere with firefighting operations, endanger life, or anyviolations of the provisions or intent of the SFPC.
Exception: Single family dwellings and dwelling units in twofamily and multiple family dwellings and farm structures shall be exempt fromroutine inspections. This exemption shall not preclude the fire official fromconducting routine inspections in Group R-3 or Group R-5 occupancies operatingas a commercial bed and breakfast as outlined in Section 310.3 of the USBC orinspecting under § 27-98.2 of the Code of Virginia for hazardous conditionsrelating to explosives, flammable and combustible conditions, and hazardousmaterials.
B. 109.1.1. Right to entry:. The fireofficial may enter any structure or premises at any reasonable time to inspectsubject to constitutional restrictions on unreasonable searches and seizures.If entry is refused or not obtained, the fire official may pursue recourse asprovided by law.
Note: Specific authorization and procedures for inspectionsand issuing warrants are set out in §§ 27-98.1 through 27-98.5 of the Code ofVirginia and shall be taken into consideration.
C. 109.1.2. Credentials:. The fireofficial and technical assistants shall carry proper credentials of office wheninspecting in the performance of their duties under the SFPC.
D. 109.2. Coordinated inspections:. Thefire official shall coordinate inspections and administrative orders with anyother state and local agencies having related inspection authority, and shallcoordinate those inspections required by the USBC for new construction wheninvolving provisions of the amended IFC, so that the owners and occupants willnot be subjected to numerous inspections or conflicting orders.
Note: The USBC requires the building official to coordinatesuch inspections with the fire official.
E. 109.3. Other inspections:. Inaccordance with § 9.1-207 of the Code of Virginia, the State Fire Marshal, uponpresenting proper credentials, shall make annual inspections for hazardsincident to fire in all (i) residential care facilities operated by any stateagency, (ii) assisted living facilities licensed or subject to licensurepursuant to Chapter 18 (§ 63.2-1800 et seq.) of Title 63.2 of the Code ofVirginia which are not inspected by a local fire marshal, (iii)student-residence facilities owned or operated by the public institutions ofhigher education in the Commonwealth, and (iv) public schools in theCommonwealth which are not inspected by a local fire marshal. In the event thatany such facility or residence is found to be nonconforming to the SFPC, theState Fire Marshal or local fire marshal may petition any court of competentjurisdiction for the issuance of an injunction.
13VAC5-51-101. Section110.0.110 Unsafeconditions.
A. 110.1. General:. The fire officialshall order the following dangerous or hazardous conditions or materials to beremoved or remedied in accordance with the SFPC:
1. Dangerous conditions which are liable to cause orcontribute to the spread of fire in or on said premises, building or structure,or to endanger the occupants thereof.
2. Conditions which would interfere with the efficiency anduse of any fire protection equipment.
3. Obstructions to or on fire escapes, stairs, passageways,doors or windows, which are liable to interfere with the egress of occupants orthe operation of the fire department in case of fire.
4. Accumulations of dust or waste material in air conditioningor ventilating systems or grease in kitchen or other exhaust ducts.
5. Accumulations of grease on kitchen cooking equipment, oroil, grease or dirt upon, under or around any mechanical equipment.
6. Accumulations of rubbish, waste, paper, boxes, shavings, orother combustible materials, or excessive storage of any combustible material.
7. Hazardous conditions arising from defective or improperlyused or installed electrical wiring, equipment or appliances.
8. Hazardous conditions arising from defective or improperlyused or installed equipment for handling or using combustible, explosive orotherwise hazardous materials.
9. Dangerous or unlawful amounts of combustible, explosive orotherwise hazardous materials.
10. All equipment, materials, processes or operations whichare in violation of the provisions and intent of this code.
B. 110.2. Maintenance:. The owner shallbe responsible for the safe and proper maintenance of any structure, premisesor lot. In all structures, the fire protection equipment, means of egress,alarms, devices and safeguards shall be maintained in a safe and proper operatingcondition as required by the SFPC and applicable referenced standards.
C. 110.3. Occupant responsibility:. If abuilding occupant creates conditions in violation of this code, by virtue ofstorage, handling and use of substances, materials, devices and appliances,such occupant shall be held responsible for the abatement of said hazardousconditions.
D. 110.4. Unsafe structures:. Allstructures that are or shall hereafter become unsafe or deficient in adequateexit facilities or which constitute a fire hazard, or are otherwise dangerousto human life or the public welfare, or by reason of illegal or improper use,occupancy or maintenance or which have sustained structural damage by reason offire, explosion, or natural disaster shall be deemed unsafe structures. Avacant structure, or portion of a structure, unguarded or open at door orwindow shall be deemed a fire hazard and unsafe within the meaning of thiscode. Unsafe structures shall be reported to the building official or buildingmaintenance official who shall take appropriate action under the provisions ofthe USBC to secure abatement. Subsequently, the fire official may request thelegal counsel of the local governing body to institute the appropriateproceedings for an injunction against the continued use and occupancy of thestructure until such time as conditions have been remedied.
E. 110.5. Evacuation:. When, in the fireofficial's opinion, there is actual and potential danger to the occupants orthose in the proximity of any structure or premises because of unsafestructural conditions, or inadequacy of any means of egress, the presence ofexplosives, explosive fumes or vapors, or the presence of toxic fumes, gases ormaterials, the fire official may order the immediate evacuation of the structureor premises. All notified occupants shall immediately leave the structure orpremises and no person shall enter until authorized by the fire official.
F. 110.6. Unlawful continuance:. Anyperson who refuses to leave, interferes with the evacuation of other occupantsor continues any operation after having been given an evacuation order shall bein violation of this code.
Exception: Any person performing work directed by the fireofficial to be performed to remove an alleged violation or unsafe condition.
13VAC5-51-111. Section111.0.111 Violations.
A. 111.1. Notice:. When the fireofficial discovers an alleged violation of a provision of the SFPC or othercodes or ordinances under the fire official's jurisdiction, the fire officialshall prepare a written notice citing the section allegedly violated,describing the condition deemed unsafe and specifying time limitations for therequired abatements to be made to render the structure or premises safe andsecure.
B. 111.1.1. Right of appeal:. Notices ofviolation issued under Section 111.1 shall indicate the right of appeal byreferencing the appeals section of this code.
Exceptions:
1. Summons issued in lieu of a notice of violation inaccordance with Section 111.5 of this code.
2. Documents reflecting uncorrected violations in subsequentinspections to verify compliance.
C. 111.2. Service:. The written noticeof violation of this code shall be served upon the owner, a duly authorized agentor upon the occupant or other person responsible for the conditions underviolation. Such notice shall be served either by delivering a copy of same tosuch persons by mail to the last known post office address, by delivering inperson or by delivering it to and leaving it in the possession of any person incharge of the premises, or, in the case such person is not found upon thepremises, by affixing a copy thereof in a conspicuous place at the entrancedoor or avenue of access. Such procedure shall be deemed the equivalent ofpersonal notice.
D. 111.3. Failure to correct violations:.If the notice of violation is not complied with within the time specified, thefire official shall request the legal counsel of the local governing body toinstitute the appropriate legal proceedings to restrain, correct, or abate suchalleged violation.
E. 111.4. Penalty:. Penalties uponconviction of violating the SFPC shall be as set out in § 27-100 of the Code ofVirginia.
F. 111.5. Summons:. When authorized andcertified in accordance with § 27-34.2 of the Code of Virginia, the fireofficial may, subject to any limitations imposed by the local governing body,issue a summons in lieu of a notice of violation. Fire officials not certifiedin accordance with § 27-34.2 of the Code of Virginia may request thelaw-enforcement agency of the local governing body to make arrests for anyalleged violations of the SFPC or orders affecting the immediate public safety.
13VAC5-51-121. Section112.0.112 Appeals.
A. 112.1. Local Board of Fire Prevention Code Appeals(BFPCA):(LBFPCA). Each local governing body which enforces the SFPC shall have aBFPCALBFPCA to hear appeals as authorized herein or it shallenter into an agreement with the governing body of another county ormunicipality, with some other agency, or with a state agency approved by theDHCD to act on appeals. An appeal case decided by some other approved agencyshall constitute an appeal in accordance with this section and shall be finalunless appealed to the StateBuilding Code Technical Review Board(TRB).
B. 112.2. Membership:. TheBFPCALBFPCAshall consist of at least five members appointed by the local governing bodyand having terms of office established by written policy. Alternate members maybe appointed to serve in the absence of any regular members and, assuch, shall have the full power and authority of the regular members. Regularand alternate members may be reappointed. Written records of currentmembership, including a record of the current chairman and secretary shall bemaintained in the office of the local governing body. In order to providecontinuity, the terms of the members may be of different length so that lessthan half will expire in any one-year period. TheBFPCALBFPCAshall meetat least once annuallyas necessary to assure a dulyconstituted board, appoint officers as necessary and receive such training onthe code as may be appropriate or necessary from staff of the locality.
C. 112.2.1. Chairman:. TheBFPCALBFPCAshall annually select one of its regular members to serve as chairman. In caseof the absence of the chairman at a hearing, the members present shall selectan acting chairman.
D. 112.2.2. Secretary:. The localgoverning body shall appoint a secretary to theBFPCALBFPCA tomaintain a detailed record of all proceedings.
E. 112.3. Qualifications of members: BFPCALBFPCA.members shall be selected by the local governing body on the basis of theirability to render fair and competent decisions regarding application of theSFPC and shall, to the extent possible, represent different occupational orprofessional fields relating to building construction or fire prevention. Atleast one member should be an experienced builder and one member a licensedprofessional engineer or architect. Employees or officials of the localgoverning body shall not serve as members of theBFPCALBFPCA.
F. 112.4. Disqualification of member:. Amember shall not hear an appeal in which that member has conflict of interestin accordance with the State and Local Government Conflict of Interests Act,Chapter 31 (§ 2.2-3100 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
G. 112.5. Application for appeal:. Theowner of a structure, the owner's agent or any other person involved in the design,construction or maintenance of the structure may appeal a decision of the fireofficial concerning the application of the SFPC or the fire official's refusalto grant modification under Section 106.5 to the provisions of the SFPC. Theappeal shall first lie to thelocal board of fire prevention code appeals(BFPCA)LBFPCA and then to theTRBState Review Boardexcept that appeals concerning the application of the SFPC or refusal to grantmodifications by the State Fire Marshal shall be made directly to theTRBState Review Board. The appeal shall be submitted to theBFPCALBFPCAwithin 14 calendar days of the application of the SFPC. The application shallcontain the name and address of the owner of the structure and the personappealing if not the owner. A copy of the written decision of the fire officialshall be submitted along with the application for appeal and maintained as partof the record. The application shall be stamped or otherwise marked by theBFPCALBFPCA to indicate the date received. Failure to submit an applicationfor appeal within the time limit established by this section shall constituteacceptance of the fire official's decision.
Note: In accordance with § 27-98 of the Code of Virginia, anylocal fire code may provide for an appeal to a local board of appeals. If nolocal board of appeals exists, theTRBState Review Board shallhear appeals of any local fire code violation.
H. 112.6. Notice of meeting:. TheBFPCALBFPCA shall meet within 30 calendar days after the date of receipt ofthe application for appeal. Notice indicating the time and place of the hearingshall be sent to the parties in writing to the addresses listed on theapplication at least 14 calendar days prior to the date of the hearing. Lessnotice may be given if agreed upon by the applicant.
I. 112.7. Hearing procedures:. Allhearings before theBFPCALBFPCA shall be open to the public. Theappellant, the appellant's representative, the local governing body'srepresentative and any person whose interests are affected shall be given anopportunity to be heard. The chairman shall have the power and duty to directthe hearing, rule upon the acceptance of evidence and oversee the record of allproceedings.
J. 112.7.1. Postponement:. When a quorumof theBFPCALBFPCA is not present to hear an appeal, either theappellant or the appellant's representative shall have the right to request apostponement of the hearing. TheBFPCALBFPCA shall reschedulethe appeal within 30 calendar days of the postponement.
K. 112.8. Decision:. TheBFPCALBFPCAshall have the power to uphold, reverse or modify the decision of the fireofficial by a concurring vote of a majority of those present. Decisions of theBFPCALBFPCA shall be final if no appeal is made therefrom and the appellantand the fire official shall act accordingly.
L. 112.8.1. Resolution:. TheBFPCA'sLBFPCA's decision shall be by resolution signed by the chairman andretained as part of the record by theBFPCALBFPCA. The followingwording shall be part of the resolution: "Any person who was a party tothe appeal may appeal to the State Building Code Technical Review Board(TRB)(State Review Board) by submitting an application to theTRBStateReview Board within 21 calendar days upon receipt by certified mail of thisresolution. Application forms are available from the Office of theTRBStateReview Board, 600 East Main Street, Richmond, Virginia 23219, (804)371-7150." Copies of the resolution shall be furnished to all parties.
M. 112.9. Appeal to theTRB:State ReviewBoard. After final determination by theBFPCALBFPCA, anyperson who was a party to the local appeal may appeal to theTRBStateReview Board. Application shall be made to theTRBState ReviewBoard within 21 calendar days of receipt of the decision to be appealed.Application for appeal to theTRBState Review Board arising fromthe SFMO's enforcement of the code or from any local fire code violation if nolocal board of appeals exists shall be made to theTRBState ReviewBoard within 14 calendar days of receipt of the decision to be appealed andshall be accompanied by copies of the inspection reports and other relevantinformation. Failure to submit an application for appeal within the time limitestablished by this section shall constitute an acceptance of theBFPCA'sLBFPCA's resolution or fire official's decision.
N. 112.9.1. Information to be submitted:.Copies of the fire official's decision and the resolution of theBFPCALBFPCAshall be submitted with the application for appeal. Upon request by the officeof theTRBState Review Board, theBFPCALBFPCAshall submit a copy of all inspection reports and all pertinent informationfrom the record of theBFPCALBFPCA.
O. 112.9.2. Decision ofTRB:State ReviewBoard. Procedures of theTRBState Review Board are inaccordance with Article 2 (§ 36-108 et seq.) of Chapter 6 of Title 36 of theCode of Virginia. Decisions of theTRBState Review Board shallbe final if no appeal is made therefrom and the appellant and the code officialshall act accordingly.
13VAC5-51-130. IFC Section202.0.202Definitions.
A. Add the following definitionsto read:
Background clearance card or BCC:. Anidentification card issued to an individual who is not a certified blaster orpyrotechnician and is responsible management or an employee of a company,corporation, firm, or other entity, solely for the purpose of submitting anapplication to the fire official for a permit to manufacture, use, handle,store, or sell explosive materials; or conduct a fireworks display. A person towhom a BCC has been issued can fulfill the role of a designated individual onan application for a permit to manufacture, use, handle, store, or sellexplosive materials; or on an application for a permit to design, setup, andconduct a fireworks display.
Blaster, restricted:. Any person engaging in theuse of explosives or blasting agents utilizing five pounds (2.25 kg) or lessper blasting operation and using instantaneous detonators. A certifiedrestricted blaster can fulfill the role of a designated individual on anapplication for permit to manufacture, use, handle, store, or sell explosivematerials.
Blaster, unrestricted:. Any person engaging inthe use of explosives or blasting agents without the limit to the amount ofexplosives or blasting agents or type of detonator. A certified unrestrictedblaster can fulfill the role of a designated individual on an application forpermit to manufacture, use, handle, store, or sell explosive materials.
Chemical fume hood. A ventilated enclosure designed tocontain and exhaust fumes, gases, vapors, mists, and particulate mattergenerated within the hood.
Design:. For the purposes of a fireworksdisplay, either inside a building or structure or outdoors, it shall mean thepyrotechnician who will be in attendance and makes the final artisticdetermination for the placement of fireworks and ground display pieces suitablefor the display site.
Designated individual:. A person who is inpossession of a BCC issued by the SFMO, certified by the SFMO as apyrotechnician, or a restricted or unrestricted blaster, any of whom areresponsible for ensuring compliance with state law and regulations relating toblasting agents and explosives and applying for explosives or firework permits;is at least 21 years of age; and demonstrates the capability to effectivelycommunicate safety messages verbally and in writing in the English language.
DHCD:. The Virginia Department of Housing andCommunity Development.
Laboratory suite. A fire-rated enclosed laboratory areathat will provide one or more laboratory spaces, within a Group B educationaloccupancy, that are permitted to include ancillary uses such as offices,bathrooms, and corridors that are contiguous with the laboratory area and areconstructed in accordance with Section 430.3 of the USBC, Part I, Construction.
LBFPCA. Local Board of Fire Prevention Code Appeals.
Local government, local governing body or locality:.The governing body of any county, city, or town, other political subdivisionand state agency in this Commonwealth charged with the enforcement of the SFPCunder state law.
Night club:. Any building or portion thereof inwhich the main use is a place of public assembly that provides exhibition,performance or other forms or entertainment; serves alcoholic beverages; andprovides music and space for dancing.
Permissible fireworks:. Any sparklers,fountains, Pharaoh's serpents, caps for pistols, or pinwheels commonly known aswhirligigs or spinning jennies.
Pyrotechnician (firework operator):. Any personsupervising or engaged in the design, setup, or conducting of any fireworksdisplay, either inside a building or outdoors. A certified pyrotechnician canfulfill the role of a designated individual on an application for a permit fora fireworks display.
Pyrotechnician, aerial:. A person supervising orengaged in the design, setup, or conducting of an outdoor aerial fireworksdisplay performed in accordance with the regulations as set forth in this codeand NFPA 1123, a referenced standard for fireworks displays.
Pyrotechnician, proximate:. A person supervisingor engaged in the design, setup, or conducting of a fireworks display, eitherinside a building or outdoors, performed in accordance with the regulations asset forth in this code and NFPA 1126, a referenced standard for the use ofpyrotechnics before a proximate audience.
Responsible management:. A person who is any ofthe following:
1. The sole proprietor of a sole proprietorship.
2. The partners of a general partnership.
3. The managing partners of a limited partnership.
4. The officers or directors of a corporation.
5. The managers or members of a limited liability company.
6. The managers, officers or directors of an association.
7. Individuals in other business entities recognized under thelaws of the Commonwealth as having a fiduciary responsibility to the firm.
Sky lantern: An unmanned device with a fuel source thatincorporates an open flame in order to make the device airborne.
Sole proprietor:. A person or individual, not acorporation, who is trading under his own name or under an assumed orfictitious name pursuant to the provisions of §§ 59.1-69 through 59.1-76of the Code of Virginia.
Special expert. An individual who has demonstrated qualificationsin a specific area, outside the practice of architecture or engineering,through education, training, and experience.
State Fire Marshal:. The State Fire Marshal asprovided for by § 9.1-206 of the Code of Virginia.
State Regulated Care Facility (SRCF):. Abuilding with an occupancy in Group R-2, R-3, R-4, or R-5 occupied by personsin the care of others where program oversight is provided by the VirginiaDepartment of Social Services, the Virginia Department of Behavioral Health andDevelopmental Services, the Virginia Department of Education or the VirginiaDepartment of Juvenile Justice.
State Review Board. The Virginia State Building CodeTechnical Review Board as established under § 36-108 of the Code of Virginia.
Teaching and research laboratory. A building or portion ofa building where hazardous materials are stored, used, and handled for thepurpose of testing, analysis, teaching, research, or developmental activitieson a nonproduction basis rather than in a manufacturing process.
Technical Assistant:. Any person employed by orunder an extended contract to a local enforcing agency for enforcing the SFPC.For the purposes of this definition, an extended contract shall be a contractwith an aggregate term of 18 months or longer.
TRB: The Virginia State Building Code Technical ReviewBoard.
USBC:. The Virginia Uniform Statewide BuildingCode (13VAC5-63).
B. Add the following definition under the term"Occupancy Classification--Residential Group R"to read:
Residential Group R-5. Detached one and two-family dwellingsand multiple single-family dwellings (townhouses) not more than three storieshigh with separate means of egress and their accessory structures. The terms"R-5" and "one and two-family dwelling" where used in thiscode shall be interchangeable.
C. Change the following definitions to read:
Automatic fire-extinguishing system:. Anapproved system of devices and equipment that automatically detects a fire anddischarges an approved fire-extinguishing agent onto or in the area of a fire. Suchsystem shall include an automatic sprinkler system, unless otherwise expresslystated.
Fire code official:. The officer or otherdesignated authority charged with administration and enforcement of this code,or a duly authorized representative. For the purpose of this code, the terms"code official" and "fire official" shall have the samemeaning as the term "fire code official" and, in addition, suchofficial shall have the powers outlined in § 27-98.1 of the Code ofVirginia.
Fireworks:. Any firecracker, torpedo, skyrocket,or other substance or object, of whatever form or construction, that containsany explosive or inflammable compound or substance, and is intended, orcommonly known, as fireworks and that explodes, rises into the air or travelslaterally, or fires projectiles into the air. Fireworks shall not includeautomobile flares, paper caps containing not more than the average of 0.25grain (16 mg) of explosive content per cap or toy pistols, toy canes, toy guns,or other devices utilizing such caps and items commonly known as party poppers,pop rocks, and snap-n-pops. Fireworks may be further delineated and referred toas:
Fireworks, 1.4G (formerly known as Class C, Common Fireworks):.Small fireworks devices containing restricted amounts of pyrotechniccomposition designed primarily to produce visible or audible effects bycombustion. Such 1.4G fireworks that comply with the construction, chemicalcomposition, and labeling regulations of the DOTn for Fireworks, UN0336, andthe U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission as set forth in CPSC 16 CFR Parts1500 and 1507, are not explosive materials for the purpose of this code.
Fireworks, 1.3G (formerly Class B, Special Fireworks):.Large fireworks devices, which are explosive materials, intended for the use infireworks displays and designed to produce audible or visible effects bycombustion, deflagration, or detonation. Such 1.3G fireworks include, but arenot limited to, firecrackers containing more than 130 milligrams (2 grains) ofexplosive composition, aerial shells containing more than 40 grams ofpyrotechnic composition, and other display pieces that exceed the limits forclassification as 1.4G fireworks. Such 1.3G fireworks are also described asFireworks, UN0335 by the DOTn.
Smokeless propellants:. Solid propellants,commonly referred to as smokeless powders or any propellant classified by DOTnas a smokeless propellant in accordance with NA3178, Smokeless Powder for SmallArms, used in small arms ammunition, firearms, cannons, rockets, propellant-actuateddevices, and similar articles.
13VAC5-51-131. IFC Chapter 3. General Requirements.
A. Change Section 301.2 to read:
301.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2 for the activities or uses regulated by Sections 306, 307,308, and 315.
B. Add Section 301.3 to read:
301.3. Occupancy. The occupancy of a structure shall becontinued as originally permitted under and in full compliance with the codesin force at the time of construction or alteration. The occupancy of astructure shall not change to another occupancy that will subject the structureto any special provisions of this code or the USBC without the approval of thebuilding official.
C. Add the following to the list of definitions in Section302.1:
Sky lantern.
D.C. Change Section 304.3.2 to read:
304.3.2. Capacity exceeding 5.88 cubic feet. Containerswith a capacity exceeding 5.88 cubic feet (44 gallons) (0.17 m³) shall beprovided with lids. Containers and lids shall be constructed of noncombustiblematerials or approved combustible materials.
E.D. Add an exception to Section 307.1 toread:
Exception: Approved outdoor live fire training using equipmentor appliances accessible or available to the general public, and that complieswith Section 307.4.
F.E. Change Section 307.2 to read:
307.2. Permit required. A permit shall be obtained fromthe fire code official in accordance with Section 107.2 prior to kindling afire for recognized silvicultural or range or wildlife management practices,prevention or control of disease or pests, or a bonfire. Application for suchapproval shall only be presented by and permits issued to the owner of the landupon which the fire is to be kindled.
G. Add Section 308.1.6.3 to read:
308.1.6.3. Sky lanterns. No person shall release or causeto be released an untethered sky lantern.
H.F. Change Section 308.2 to read:
308.2. Permits required. Permits shall be obtained fromthe fire code official in accordance with Section 107.2 prior to engaging inthe following activities involving open flame, fire, and burning:
1. Use of a torch or flame-producing device to remove paintfrom a structure.
2. Use of open flame, fire, or burning in connection withGroup A or E occupancies.
3. Use or operation of torches and other devices, machines, orprocesses liable to start or cause fire in or upon wildfire risk areas.
I.G. Change Section 311.1 to read:
311.1. General. Temporarily unoccupied buildings,structures, premises, or portions thereof, including tenant spaces, shall besafeguarded and maintained in accordance with Sections 311.1.1 through311.5.6311.6.
J.H. Add Section 311.5.6 to read:
311.5.6. Removal. Removal of placards posted inaccordance with this section without the approval of the fire official shall bea violation of this code.
K. Add Section 311.6 to read:
311.6. Unoccupied tenant spaces in mall buildings.Unoccupied tenant spaces in covered and open mall buildings shall be:
1. Kept free from the storage of any materials.
2. Separated from the remainder of the building bypartitions of at least 0.5-inch-thick (12.7 mm) gypsum board or an approvedequivalent to the underside of the ceiling of the adjoining tenant spaces.
3. Without doors or other access openings other than onedoor that shall be kept key locked in the closed position except during thattime when opened for inspection.
4. Kept free from combustible waste and be broom sweptclean.
L.I. ChangeSection 314.1 to read:
314.1. General. Indoor displays constructed within anybuilding or structure shall comply with Sections 314.2 through 314.5.
M.J. Add Section 314.5 to read:
314.5. Smokeless powder and small arms primers. Vendersshall not store, display, or sell smokeless powder or small arms primers duringtrade shows inside exhibition halls except as follows:
1. The amount of smokeless powder displayed by each vender islimited to the amount established in Section 5606.5.1.1.
2. The amount of smokeless powder each vender may store islimited to the storage arrangements and storage amounts established in Section5606.5.2.1. Smokeless powder shall remain in the manufacturer's original sealedcontainer, and the container shall remain sealed while inside the building. Therepackaging of smokeless powder shall not be performed inside the building.Damaged containers shall not be repackaged inside the building and shall beimmediately removed from the building in such manner to avoid spilling anypowder.
3. There shall be at least 50 feet separation between vendersand 20 feet from any exit.
4. Small arms primers shall be displayed and stored in themanufacturer's original packaging and in accordance with the requirements ofSection 5606.5.2.3.
N.K. Change Section 315.2 to read:
315.2. Permit required. A permit for miscellaneouscombustible storage shall be required as set forth in Section 107.2.
O.L. Change Section 315.4 to read:
315.4. Outside storage. Outside storage of combustiblematerials shall not be located within 10 feet (3048 mm) of a property line orother building on the site.
Exceptions:
1. The separation distance is allowed to be reduced to 3 feet(914 mm) for storage not exceeding 6 feet (1829 mm) in height.
2. The separation distance is allowed to be reduced when thefire official determines that no hazard to the adjoining property exists.
P.M. Change Section 315.4.1 to read:
315.4.1. Storage beneath overhead projections frombuildings. To the extent required by the code the building was constructedunder, when buildings are required to be protected by automatic sprinklers, theoutdoor storage, display, and handling of combustible materials under eaves,canopies, or other projections or overhangs is prohibited except whereautomatic sprinklers are installed under such eaves, canopies, or otherprojections or overhangs.
13VAC5-51-132. IFC Chapter 4. Emergency Planning andPreparedness.
A. Add Section 401.1.1 to read:
401.1.1. State Regulated Care Facilities. When a statelicense is required by the Virginia Department of Social Services; VirginiaDepartment of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services; Virginia Departmentof Education; or Virginia Department of Juvenile Justice to operate, SRCF shallcomply with this section and the provisions of Section404.0404.
B.ChangeAdd Section403403.1.1to read:
Section 403.
Emergency Preparedness Requirements.
403.1. General. In addition to the requirements of Section401, occupancies, uses and outdoor locations shall comply with the emergencypreparedness requirements set forth in Sections 403.2 through 403.11. Where afire safety and evacuation plan is required by Sections 403.2 through 403.11,evacuation drills shall be in accordance with Section 405 and employee trainingshall be in accordance with Section 406.
403.1.1. Maintaining occupant load posting. Occupantload postings required by the building code are required to be maintained.
403.2. Group A occupancies. An approved fire safety andevacuation plan in accordance with Section 404 shall be prepared and maintainedfor Group A occupancies, other than those occupancies used exclusively forpurposes of religious worship with an occupant load less than 2,000, and forbuildings containing both a Group A occupancy and an atrium. Group Aoccupancies shall also comply with Sections 403.2.1 through 403.2.4.
403.2.1. Seating plan. In addition to the requirements ofSection 404.2, the fire safety and evacuation plans for assembly occupanciesshall include a detailed seating plan, occupant load and occupant load limit.Deviations from the approved plans shall be allowed provided the occupant loadlimit for the occupancy is not exceeded and the aisles and exit accesswaysremain unobstructed.
403.2.2. Announcements. In theaters, motion picturetheaters, auditoriums and similar assembly occupancies in Group A used fornoncontinuous programs, an audible announcement shall be made not more than 10minutes prior to the start of each program to notify the occupants of the locationof the exits to be used in the event of a fire or other emergency.
Exception: In motion picture theaters, the announcement isallowed to be projected upon the screen in a manner approved by the fire codeofficial.
C. Add Sections 403.2.2.1, 403.2.2.1.1, and 403.2.2.1.2 toread:
403.2.2.1. Night clubs. Night clubs shall comply withSections 403.2.2.1.1 and 403.2.2.1.2.
403.2.2.1.1. Audible announcements. Audibleannouncements shall be made to the occupants no longer than 10 minutes prior tothe start of the entertainment and at each intermission to notify the occupantsof the location of the exits to be used in the event of a fire or otheremergency.
403.2.2.1.2. Occupant load count. Upon request of thefire code official, the owner or operator, or both, will be required to keep arunning count of the occupant load to provide to the fire code official duringperformance hours of operation, entertainment hours of operation, or both.
403.2.3. Fire watch personnel. Fire watch personnel shallbe provided where required by Section 403.11.1.
403.2.4. Crowd managers. Crowd managers shall be providedwhere required by Section 403.11.3.
403.3. Group B occupancies. An approved fire safety andevacuation plan in accordance with Section 404 shall be prepared and maintainedfor buildings containing a Group B occupancy where the Group B occupancy has anoccupant load of 500 or more persons or more than 100 persons above or belowthe lowest level of exit discharge.
403.4. Group E occupancies. An approved fire safety andevacuation plan in accordance with Section 404 shall be prepared and maintainedfor Group E occupancies and for buildings containing both a Group E occupancy andan atrium. Group E occupancies shall also comply with Section 403.4.1.
403.4.1. Group E occupancies. Group E occupancies shallcomply with 403.4.1.1 through 403.4.1.3.
403.4.1.1. First emergency evacuation drill. The firstemergency evacuation drill of each school year shall be conducted within 10days of the beginning of classes.
403.4.1.2. Time of day. Emergency evacuation drills shallbe conducted at different hours of the day or evening, during the changing ofclasses, when the school is at assembly, during the recess or gymnasticperiods, or during other times to avoid distinction between drills and actualfires.
403.4.1.3. Assembly points. Outdoor assembly areas shall bedesignated and shall be located a safe distance from the building being evacuatedso as to avoid interference with fire department operations. The assembly areasshall be arranged to keep each class separate to provide accountability of allindividuals.
403.5. Group F occupancies. An approved fire safety andevacuation plan in accordance with Section 404 shall be prepared and maintainedfor buildings containing a Group F occupancy where the Group F occupancy has anoccupant load of 500 or more persons or more than 100 persons above or belowthe lowest level of exit discharge.
403.6. Group H occupancies. An approved fire safety andevacuation plan in accordance with Section 404 shall be prepared and maintainedfor Group H occupancies. Group H-5 occupancies shall also comply with Section403.6.1.
403.6.1. Group H-5 occupancies. Group H-5 occupancies shallcomply with Sections 403.6.1.1 through 403.6.1.4.
403.6.1.1. Plans and diagrams. In addition to therequirements of Section 404 and Section 407.6, plans and diagrams shall bemaintained in approved locations indicating the approximate plan for each area;the amount and type of HPM stored, handled and used; locations of shutoffvalves for HPM supply piping; emergency telephone locations; and locations ofexits.
403.6.1.2. Plan updating. The plans and diagrams requiredby Section 404, 403.6.1.1 and 407.6 shall be maintained up to date and the firecode official and fire department shall be informed of major changes.
403.6.1.3. Emergency response team. Responsible personsshall be designated as an on-site emergency response team and trained to beliaison personnel for the fire department. These persons shall aid the firedepartment in preplanning emergency responses; identifying locations where HPMis stored, handled and used; and be familiar with the chemical nature of suchmaterial. An adequate number of personnel for each work shift shall bedesignated.
403.6.1.4. Emergency drills. Emergency drills of theon-site emergency response team shall be conducted on a regular basis but notless than once every three months. Records of drills conducted shall bemaintained.
403.7. Group I occupancies. An approved fire safety andevacuation plan in accordance with Section 404 shall be prepared and maintainedfor Group I occupancies. Group I occupancies shall also comply with Sections403.7.1 through 403.7.3.
403.7.1. Group I-1 occupancies. Group I-1 occupancies shallcomply with Sections 403.7.1.1 through 403.7.1.6.
403.7.1.1. Fire safety and evacuation plan. The fire safetyand evacuation plan required by Section 404 shall include special employee actions,including fire protection procedures necessary for residents, and shall beamended or revised upon admission of any resident with unusual needs.
403.7.1.2. Employee training. Employees shall beperiodically instructed and kept informed of their duties and responsibilitiesunder the plan. Such instruction shall be reviewed by employees at intervalsnot exceeding two months. A copy of the plan shall be readily available at alltimes within the facility.
403.7.1.3. Resident training. Residents capable of assistingin their own evacuation shall be trained in the proper actions to take in theevent of a fire. The training shall include actions to take if the primaryescape route is blocked. Where the resident is given rehabilitation orhabilitation training, training in fire prevention and actions to take in theevent of a fire shall be a part of the rehabilitation training program.Residents shall be trained to assist each other in case of fire to the extenttheir physical and mental abilities permit them to do so without additionalpersonal risk.
403.7.1.4. Drill frequency. Emergency evacuation drillsshall be conducted at least six times per year, two times per year on eachshift. Twelve drills shall be conducted in the first year of operation.
403.7.1.5. Drill times. Drills times are not required tocomply with Section 405.4.
403.7.1.6. Resident participation in drills. Emergencyevacuation drills shall involve the actual evacuation of residents to aselected assembly point.
403.7.2. Group I-2 occupancies. Group I-2 occupancies shallcomply with Sections 403.7.2.1 through 403.7.2.3.
403.7.2.1. Drill times. Drill times are not required tocomply with Section 405.4.
403.7.2.2. Evacuation not required. During emergencyevacuation drills, the movement of patients to safe areas or to the exterior ofthe building is not required.
403.7.2.3. Coded alarm signal. When emergency evacuationdrills are conducted after visiting hours or when patients or residents areexpected to be asleep, a coded announcement is allowed instead of audiblealarms.
403.7.3. Group I-3 occupancies. Group I-3 occupancies shallcomply with Sections 403.7.3.1 through 403.7.3.4.
403.7.3.1. Employee training. Employees shall be instructedin the proper use of portable fire extinguishers and other manual firesuppression equipment. Training of new employees shall be provided promptlyupon entrance on duty. Refresher training shall be provided at least annually.
403.7.3.2. Employee staffing. Group I-3 occupancies shallbe provided with 24-hour staffing. An employee shall be within three floors or300 feet (91 440 mm) horizontal distance of the access door of each residenthousing area. In Conditions 3, 4 and 5, as defined in "OccupancyClassification – Institutional Group I-3" in Chapter 2, the arrangementshall be such that the employee involved can start release of locks necessaryfor emergency evacuation or rescue and initiate other necessary emergencyactions within 2 minutes of an alarm.
Exception: An employee shall not be required to be withinthree floors or 300 feet (9144 mm) in areas in which all locks are unlockedremotely and automatically in accordance with Section 408.4 of theInternational Building Code.
403.7.3.3. Notification. Provisions shall be made forresidents in Conditions 3, 4 and 5, as defined in "OccupancyClassification – Institutional Group I-3" in Chapter 2, to readily notifyan employee of an emergency.
403.7.3.4. Keys. Keys necessary for unlocking doorsinstalled in a means of egress shall be individually identifiable by both touchand sight.
403.8. Group M occupancies. An approved fire safety andevacuation plan in accordance with Section 404 shall be prepared and maintainedfor buildings containing a Group M occupancy, where the Group M occupancy hasan occupant load of 500 or more persons or more than 100 persons above or belowthe lowest level of exit discharge, and for buildings containing both a Group Moccupancy and an atrium.
D. Change Section 403.10 to read:
403.9.403.10 Group R occupancies. Group Roccupancies shall comply withthe provisions of this section applicable tothe type of Group R occupancySections 403.10.1 through 403.10.4.
403.9.1. Group R-1 occupancies. An approved fire safety andevacuation plan in accordance with Section 404 shall be prepared and maintainedfor Group R-1 occupancies. Group R-1 occupancies shall also comply withSections 403.9.1.1 through 403.9.1.3.
403.9.1.1. Evacuation diagrams. A diagram depicting twoevacuation routes shall be posted on or immediately adjacent to every requiredegress door from each hotel or motel sleeping unit.
403.9.1.2. Emergency duties. Upon discovery of a fire orsuspected fire, hotel and motel employees shall perform the following duties:
1. Activate the fire alarm system, where provided.
2. Notify the public fire department.
3. Take other action as previously instructed.
403.9.1.3. Fire safety and evacuation instructions.Information shall be provided in the fire safety and evacuation plan requiredby Section 404 to allow guests to decide whether to evacuate to the outside,evacuate to an area of refuge, remain in place, or any combination of thethree.
403.9.2. Group R-2 occupancies. Group R-2 occupancies shallcomply with Sections 403.9.2.1 through 403.9.2.3.
403.9.2.1. College and university buildings. An approvedfire safety and evacuation plan in accordance with Section 404 shall beprepared and maintained for Group R-2 college and university buildings. GroupR-2 college and university buildings shall also comply with Sections403.9.2.1.1 and 403.9.2.1.2.
403.9.2.1.1. First emergency evacuation drill. The firstemergency evacuation drill of each school year shall be conducted within 10days of the beginning of classes.
403.9.2.1.2. Time of day. Emergency evacuation drills shallbe conducted at different hours of the day or evening, during the changing ofclasses, when the school is at assembly, during the recess or gymnasticperiods, or during other times to avoid distinction between drills and actualfires. One required drill shall be held during hours after sunset or beforesunrise.
403.9.2.2. Emergency guide. Fire emergency guides shall beprovided for Group R-2 occupancies. Guide contents, maintenance anddistribution shall comply with Sections 403.9.2.2.1 through 403.9.2.2.3.
403.9.2.2.1. Guide contents. Fire emergency guides shalldescribe the location, function and use of fire protection equipment andappliances accessible to residents, including fire alarm systems, smoke alarms,and portable fire extinguishers. Guides shall also include an emergency evacuationplan for each dwelling unit.
403.9.2.2.2. Emergency guide maintenance. Emergency guidesshall be reviewed and approved by the fire code official.
403.9.2.2.3. Emergency guide distribution. A copy of theemergency guide shall be given to each tenant prior to initial occupancy.
403.9.2.3. Evacuation diagrams for dormitories. A diagramdepicting two evacuation routes shall be posted on or immediately adjacent toevery required egress door from each dormitory sleeping unit. Evacuationdiagrams shall be reviewed and updated as needed to maintain accuracy.
403.9.3. Group R-4 occupancies. An approved fire safety andevacuation plan in accordance with Section 404 shall be prepared and maintainedfor Group R-4 occupancies. Group R-4 occupancies shall also comply withSections 403.9.3.1 through 403.9.3.6.
403.9.3.1. Fire safety and evacuation plan. The fire safetyand evacuation plan required by Section 404 shall include special employeeactions, including fire protection procedures necessary for residents, andshall be amended or revised upon admission of a resident with unusual needs.
403.9.3.2. Employee training. Employees shall beperiodically instructed and kept informed of their duties and responsibilitiesunder the plan. Such instruction shall be reviewed by employees at intervalsnot exceeding two months. A copy of the plan shall be readily available at alltimes within the facility.
403.9.3.3. Resident training. Residents capable ofassisting in their own evacuation shall be trained in the proper actions totake in the event of a fire. The training shall include actions to take if theprimary escape route is blocked. Where the resident is given rehabilitation orhabilitation training, training in fire prevention and actions to take in theevent of a fire shall be a part of the rehabilitation training program.Residents shall be trained to assist each other in case of fire to the extenttheir physical and mental abilities permit them to do so without additionalpersonal risk.
403.9.3.4. Drill frequency. Emergency evacuation drillsshall be conducted at least six times per year, two times per year on eachshift. Twelve drills shall be conducted in the first year of operation.
403.9.3.5. Drill times. Drills are not required to complywith Section 405.4.
403.9.3.6. Resident participation in drills. Emergencyevacuation drills shall involve the actual evacuation of residents to aselected assembly point and shall provide residents with experience in exitingthrough all required exits. All required exits shall be used during emergencyevacuation drills.
Exception: Actual exiting from windows shall not berequired. Opening the window and signaling for help shall be an acceptablealternative.
E. Add Section 403.10.4 to read:
403.9.4.403.10.4 Group R-3 and R-5 lodgingfacilities. An approved fire safety and evacuation plan in accordance withSection 404 shall be prepared and maintained for Group R-3 and R-5 bed andbreakfast and other transient boarding facilities that are either proprietor ornon-proprietor occupied.
F. Change Section 403.11 to read:
403.10.403.11 Special uses. Special uses shallcomplywith the provisions of this section applicable to the type of special usebein accordance with Sections 403.11.1 through 403.11.5.
403.10.1. Covered and open mall buildings. Covered and openmall buildings shall comply with the requirements of Sections 403.10.1.1through 403.10.1.6.
403.10.1.1. Malls and mall buildings exceeding 50,000square feet. An approved fire safety and evacuation plan in accordance with Section404 shall be prepared and maintained for covered malls exceeding 50,000 squarefeet (4645 m2) in aggregate floor area and for open mall buildingsexceeding 50,000 square feet (4645 m2) in aggregate area withinperimeter line.
403.10.1.2. Lease plan. In addition to the requirements ofSection 404.2.2, a lease plan that includes the following information shall beprepared for each covered and open mall building:
1. Each occupancy, including identification of tenant.
2. Exits from each tenant space.
3. Fire protection features, including the following:
3.1. Fire department connections.
3.2. Fire command center.
3.3. Smoke management system controls.
3.4. Elevators, elevator machine rooms and controls.
3.5. Hose valve outlets.
3.6. Sprinkler and standpipe control valves.
3.7. Automatic fire-extinguishing system areas.
3.8. Automatic fire detector zones.
3.9. Fire barriers.
403.10.1.3. Lease plan approval. The lease plan shall besubmitted to the fire code official for approval, and shall be maintained on sitefor immediate reference by responding fire service personnel.
403.10.1.4. Lease plan revisions. The lease plans shall berevised annually or as often as necessary to keep them current. Modificationsor changes in tenants or occupancies shall not be made without prior approvalof the fire code official and building official.
403.10.1.5. Tenant identification. Tenant identificationshall be provided for secondary exits from occupied tenant spaces that lead toan exit corridor or directly to the exterior of the building. Tenantidentification shall be posted on the exterior side of the exit or exit accessdoor and shall identify the business name or address, or both, using plainlylegible letters and numbers that contrast with their background.
Exception: Tenant identification is not required for anchorstores.
403.10.1.6. Unoccupied tenant spaces. The fire safety andevacuation plan shall provide for compliance with the requirements forunoccupied tenant spaces in Section 311.
403.10.2. High-rise buildings. An approved fire safety andevacuation plan in accordance with Section 404 shall be prepared and maintainedfor high-rise buildings.
403.10.3. Underground buildings. An approved fire safetyand evacuation plan in accordance with Section 404 shall be prepared andmaintained for underground buildings.
G. Add Section 403.11.5 to read:
403.10.4.403.11.5 SRCF. An approved fire safetyand evacuation plan in accordance with Section 404 shall be prepared andmaintained for SRCFs.
403.11. Special requirements for public safety. Specialrequirements for public safety shall be as required in this section.
403.11.1. Fire watch personnel. When, in the opinion of thefire code official, it is essential for public safety in a place of assembly orany other place where people congregate, because of the number of persons orthe nature of the performance, exhibition, display, contest or activity, theowner, agent or lessee shall provide one or more fire watch personnel, asrequired and approved. Fire watch personnel shall comply with Sections403.11.1.1 and 403.11.1.2.
403.11.1.1. Duty times. Fire watch personnel shall remainon duty during the times places requiring a fire watch are open to the public,or when an activity requiring a fire watch is being conducted.
403.11.1.2. Duties. On-duty fire watch personnel shall havethe following duties:
1. Keep diligent watch for fires, obstructions to means ofegress and other hazards.
2. Take prompt measures for remediation of hazards andextinguishment of fires that occur.
3. Take prompt measures to assist in the evacuation of thepublic from the structures.
403.11.2. Public safety plan for gatherings. In other thanGroup A or E occupancies, where the fire code official determines that anindoor or outdoor gathering of persons has an adverse impact on public safetythrough diminished access to buildings, structures, fire hydrants and fireapparatus access roads or where such gatherings adversely affect public safetyservices of any kind, the fire code official shall have the authority to orderthe development of or prescribe a public safety plan that provides an approvedlevel of public safety and addresses the following items:
1. Emergency vehicle ingress and egress.
2. Fire protection.
3. Emergency egress or escape routes.
4. Emergency medical services.
5. Public assembly areas.
6. The directing of both attendees and vehicles, includingthe parking of vehicles.
7. Vendor and food concession distribution.
8. The need for the presence of law enforcement.
9. The need for fire and emergency medical servicespersonnel.
403.11.3. Crowd managers for gatherings exceeding 1,000people. Where facilities or events involve a gathering of more than 1,000people, crowd managers shall be provided in accordance with Section 403.11.3.1.
403.11.3.1. Number of crowd managers. The minimum number ofcrowd managers shall be established at a ratio of one crowd manager for every250 persons.
Exception: Where approved by the fire code official, thenumber of crowd managers shall be permitted to be reduced where the facility isequipped throughout with an approved automatic sprinkler system or based uponthe nature of the event.
403.11.3.2. Duties. The duties of crowd managers shallinclude, but not be limited to:
1. Conduct an inspection of the area of responsibility andidentify and address any egress barriers.
2. Conduct an inspection of the area of responsibility andidentify and mitigate any fire hazards.
3. Verify compliance with all permit conditions, includingthose governing pyrotechnics and other special effects.
4. Direct and assist the event attendees in evacuationduring an emergency.
5. Assist emergency response personnel where requested.
6. Other duties required by the fire code official.
7. Other duties as specified in the fire safety plan.
403.11.3.3. Training. Training for crowd managers shall beapproved.
C. Change Section 404 to read:
Section 404.
Fire Safety, Evacuation and Lockdown Plans.
404.1. General. Where required by Section 403, fire safety,evacuation and lockdown plans shall comply with Sections 404.2 through 404.4.1.
404.2. Contents. Fire safety and evacuation plan contentsshall be in accordance with Sections 404.2.1 and 404.2.2.
404.2.1. Fire evacuation plans. Fire evacuation plans shallinclude the following:
1. Emergency egress or escape routes and whether evacuationof the building is to be complete or, where approved, by selected floors orareas only.
2. Procedures for employees who must remain to operatecritical equipment before evacuating.
3. Procedures for assisted rescue for persons unable to usethe general means of egress unassisted.
4. Procedures for accounting for employees and occupantsafter evacuation has been completed.
5. Identification and assignment of personnel responsiblefor rescue or emergency medical aid.
6. The preferred and any alternative means of notifyingoccupants of a fire or emergency.
7. The preferred and any alternative means of reportingfires and other emergencies to the fire department or designated emergencyresponse organization.
8. Identification and assignment of personnel who can becontacted for further information or explanation of duties under the plan.
9. A description of the emergency voice/alarm communicationsystem alert tone and preprogrammed voice messages, where provided.
404.2.2. Fire safety plans. Fire safety plans shall includethe following:
1. The procedure for reporting a fire or other emergency.
2. The life safety strategy and procedures for notifying,relocating or evacuating occupants, including occupants who need assistance.
3. Site plans indicating the following:
3.1. The occupancy assembly point.
3.2. The locations of fire hydrants.
3.3. The normal routes of fire department vehicle access.
4. Floor plans identifying the locations of the following:
4.1. Exits.
4.2. Primary evacuation routes.
4.3. Secondary evacuation routes.
4.4. Accessible egress routes.
4.5. Areas of refuge.
4.6. Exterior areas for assisted rescue.
4.7. Manual fire alarm boxes.
4.8. Portable fire extinguishers.
4.9. Occupant-use hose stations.
4.10. Fire alarm annunciators and controls.
5. A list of major fire hazards associated with the normaluse and occupancy of the premises, including maintenance and housekeepingprocedures.
6. Identification and assignment of personnel responsiblefor maintenance of systems and equipment installed to prevent or control fires.
7. Identification and assignment of personnel responsiblefor maintenance, housekeeping and controlling fuel hazard sources.
404.2.3. Lockdown plans. Where facilities develop alockdown plan, the lockdown plan shall be in accordance with Sections 404.2.3.1through 404.2.3.3.
404.2.3.1. Lockdown plan contents. Lockdown plans shall beapproved by the fire code official and shall include the following:
1. Initiation. The plan shall include instructions forreporting an emergency that requires a lockdown.
2. Accountability. The plan shall include accountabilityprocedures for staff to report the presence or absence of occupants.
3. Recall. The plan shall include a prearranged signal forreturning to normal activity.
4. Communication and coordination. The plan shall includean approved means of two-way communication between a central location and eachsecured area.
404.2.3.2. Training frequency. The training frequency shallbe included in the lockdown plan. The lockdown drills shall not substitute forany of the fire and evacuation drills required in Section 405.2.
404.2.3.3. Lockdown notification. The method of notifyingbuilding occupants of a lockdown shall be included in the plan. The method of notificationshall be separate and distinct from the fire alarm signal.
404.3. Maintenance. Fire safety and evacuation plans shallbe reviewed or updated annually or as necessitated by changes in staffassignments, occupancy or the physical arrangement of the building.
404.4. Availability. Fire safety and evacuation plans shallbe available in the workplace for reference and review by employees, and copiesshall be furnished to the fire code official for review upon request.
H. Change Section 404.4.1 to read:
404.4.1. Distribution. The fire safety and evacuationplans shall be distributed to the tenants and building service employees by theowner or owner's agent. Tenants shall distribute to their employees applicableparts of the fire safety plan affecting the employees' actions in the event ofa fire or other emergency. Fire safety and evacuation plans shall be madeavailable by the proprietor of Group R-3 and R-5 bed and breakfast and othertransient boarding facilities to transient guests upon their arrival or arepresent in each transient guest room.
D.I. Change Section 405.1 to read:
405.1. General. Emergency evacuation drills complyingwith Sections 405.2 through 405.9 shall be conducted at least annually wherefire safety and evacuation plans are required by Section 403 or when requiredby the fire code official. Drills shall be designed in cooperation with thelocal authorities.
Exception: Emergency evacuation drills shall not be conductedin school buildings during periods of mandatory testing required by theVirginia Board of Education.
E. Delete the "High-rise buildings" row in Table405.2; addJ. Add the following row to Table 405.2; and changefootnotes "a," "b," and "d" of Table 405.2 toread:
Group or Occupancy | Frequency | Participation |
SRCF | Monthly | All occupants |
a. In severe climates, the fire code official shall have the authority to modify the emergency evacuation drill frequency.
b. Fire and evacuation drills in residential care assisted living facilities shall include complete evacuation of the premises in accordance with Section 403.9.3.6. Where occupants receive habilitation or rehabilitation training, fire prevention and fire safety practices shall be included as part of the training program.
d. Applicable to Group R-2 college and university buildings in accordance with Section 403.9.2.1.
|
F.K. Add Section 405.2.1 to read:
405.2.1. High-rise buildings. Fire exit drills shall beconducted annually by building staff personnel or the owner of the building inaccordance with the fire safety plan and shall not affect other currentoccupants.
G. Change Item 4 of Section 405.5 to read:
4. Employees on duty and participating.
H. Change Section 406.1 to read:
406.1. General. Where fire safety and evacuation plans arerequired by Section 403, employees shall be trained in fire emergencyprocedures based on plans prepared in accordance with Section 404.
I. Change Section 406.3.3 to read:
406.3.3. Fire safety training. Employees assignedfirefighting duties shall be trained to know the locations and proper use ofportable fire extinguishers or other manual firefighting equipment and theprotective clothing or equipment required for its safe and proper use.
J. Delete Section 406.3.4.
K. Add Section 406.4 to read:
406.4. Emergency lockdown training. Where a facility has alockdown plan, employees shall be trained on their assigned duties andprocedures in the event of an emergency lockdown.
L. Delete Section 408 in its entirety.
13VAC5-51-133. IFC Chapter 5. Fire Service Features.
A. Change Section 501.2 toread:
501.2. Permits. A permit shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
B. Delete Section 501.4.
C. Add exceptions to Section 503.1 to read:
Exceptions:
1. Fire apparatus access roads shall be permitted to beprovided and maintained in accordance with written policy that establish fireapparatus access road requirements and such requirements shall be identified tothe owner or his agent prior to the building official's approval of thebuilding permit.
2. On construction and demolition sites fire apparatus accessroads shall be permitted to be provided and maintained in accordance withSection 3310.1.
D. Add exception to Section 503.2.1 to read:
Exception: Fire apparatus access roads exclusively servingsingle family dwelling or townhouse developments that are fully sprinklered asprovided for in Sections R313.1 or R313.2 of the International Residential Codeshall have an unobstructed width of not less than 18 feet (5486 mm), exclusiveof shoulders.
E. Add Section 503.7 to read:
503.7. Fire lanes for existing buildings. The fire codeofficial is authorized to designate public and private fire lanes as deemednecessary for the efficient and effective operation of fire apparatus. Firelanes shall comply with Sections 503.2 through 503.6.
F. AddSectionsSection507.3.1and 507.3.2 to read:
507.3.1. Fire flow requirements for fully sprinkleredresidential developments. Notwithstanding Section 103.1.2, the fire flowrequirements in TableB105.1B105.1(1) of Appendix B of the IFC,as modified by Section 507.3.2, shall be permitted to be used fordetermining fire flow in single family dwelling and townhouse developmentswhich are fully sprinklered as provided for in Sections R313.1 or R313.2 of theInternational Residential Code.
507.3.2. Modifications to Table B105.1. The first six rowsof columns five and six of Table B105.1 of Appendix B of the IFC shall bemodified as shown below for the use of Table B105.1 in Section 507.3.1.
Type 5-B
| Fire-flow (gallons per minute)
|
0-5000
| 1000
|
5001-7200
| 1250
|
7201-8200
| 1500
|
8201-9500
| 1750
|
9501-11300
| 2000
|
11301-13000
| 2250
|
G. Change Section 507.5.1 to read:
507.5.1. Where required. Fire hydrant systems shall belocated and installed as directed by the fire department. Fire hydrant systemsshall conform to the written standards of the jurisdiction and the firedepartment.
H. Add Section 507.5.1.2 to read:
507.5.1.2. Fire hydrant requirements for fullysprinklered residential developments. Notwithstanding Section 103.1.2, thenumber and distribution of fire hydrants in TableC105.1C102.1of Appendix C of the IFC shall be permitted to be used in single familydwelling and townhouse developments which are fully sprinklered as provided forin Sections R313.1 or R313.2 of the International Residential Code, with thespacing and distances of fire hydrants indicated in TableC105.1C102.1increased by 100%.
I. Change Section 510 to read:
Section 510.
Maintenance of In-Building Emergency Communication Equipment.
510.1. General. In-building emergency communicationequipment shall be maintained in accordance with USBC and the provisions ofthis section.
510.2. Additional in-building emergency communicationsinstallations. If it is determined by the locality that increased amplificationof their emergency communication system is needed, the building owner shallallow the locality access as well as provide appropriate space within thebuilding to install and maintain necessary additional communication equipmentby the locality. If the building owner denies the locality access orappropriate space, or both, the building owner shall be responsible for theinstallation and maintenance of these additional systems.
510.3. Field tests. After providing reasonable noticeto the owner ortheirthe owner's representative, the fireofficial, police chief, or their agents shall have the right during normalbusiness hours, or other mutually agreed upon time, to enter onto the propertyto conduct field tests to verify that the required level of radio coverage ispresent at no cost to the owner.
13VAC5-51-133.5. IFC Chapter 6. Building Services andSystems.
A. Change Section 601.2 to read:
601.2. Permits. Permits shall be obtained forrefrigeration systems, battery systems and solar photovoltaic power systems asset forth in Section 107.2.
B. Add a note to Section 603.7 to read:
Note: The fire code official may request a copy of the latestcertificate of inspection from the Virginia Department of Labor and Industryfor boilers and pressure vessels subject to such requirements. When thecertificate is not available, the fire code official shall notify theDepartment of Labor and Industry to ensure that the required maintenance andtesting is performed in accordance the Virginia Boiler and Pressure VesselRegulations (16VAC25-50).
C. Add Section604.7604.8 to read:
604.7.604.8 Testing of battery poweredemergency lights and exit signs. Required emergency lighting utilizing batterypowered emergency lights or exit signs, or both, shall be tested annually. Theemergency lights and exit signs shall be tested for proper operation for thetime period established in the building code in effect when the equipment wasinstalled. Written records of tests shall be retained by the owner of thebuilding for a minimum of two years after the test is conducted and shall bemade available to the fire code official upon request.
D. Change Section 605.10.1 to read:
605.10.1. Listed and labeled. Only portable electricspace heaters listed and labeled in accordance with UL 1278 shall be used.
E. Change Section 607.1 to read:
607.1. Operation. Existing elevators with a traveldistance of 25 feet (7620 mm) or more shall comply with the requirements ofSection 607.5 and the USBC, Part III, Maintenance.
F. Change Section 609.3.3.3andadd Section 609.3.3.3.1 to read:
609.3.3.3. Records. Records for inspections shall statethe individual and company performing the inspection, a description of theinspection, and when the inspection took place. Records for cleanings shallstate the individual and company performing the cleaning and when the cleaningtook place. Such records shall be completed after each inspection or cleaningand maintained for a minimum of three years and be copied to the fire codeofficial upon request.
609.3.3.3.1. Tags. Where a commercial kitchen hood or ductsystem is cleaned, a tag containing the service provider name, address,telephone number, and date of service shall be provided in a conspicuouslocation. Prior tags shall be covered or removed.
G. Add an exception to Section 609.3.3.3.1 to read:
Exception: Where records required by Section 609.3.3.3 aremaintained on the premises.
13VAC5-51-133.8. IFC Chapter 7. Fire-Resistance-RatedConstructionFire and Smoke Protection Features.
Change Section 704.1 to read:
704.1. Enclosure. New floor openings in existingbuildings shall comply with the International Building Code.
13VAC5-51-134. IFC Chapter 8. Interior Finish,Decorative Materials and Furnishings.
A. Add exception 3 to Section 806.1.1 to read:
3. Trees shall be permitted in places of worship in Group Aoccupancies.
B. Changeexception 2 in Section807.1807.3to read:
807.1. General requirements. In occupancies in Groups A, E,I and R-1 and dormitories in Group R-2, curtains, draperies, hangings and otherdecorative materials suspended from walls or ceilings shall meet the flamepropagation performance criteria of NFPA 701 in accordance with Section 806.2or be noncombustible.
Exception:
2. In dwelling units or sleeping rooms in Group R-2dormitories, the permissible amount of decorative material suspended from orattached to the walls shall not exceed 50% of the aggregate area of the wallswhere the building has an approved automatic sprinkler system or 20% of theaggregate area of the walls where approved smoke alarms are provided and in thecorridors of such buildings, the permissible amount of decorative materialsuspended from or attached to the walls shall not exceed 10% of the aggregatearea of the walls.
In Groups I-1 and I-2, combustible decorative materialsshall meet the flame propagation criteria of NFPA 701 unless the decorativematerials, including, but not limited to, photographs and paintings, are ofsuch limited quantities that a hazard of fire development or spread is notpresent. In Group I-3, combustible decorative materials are prohibited.
Fixed or movable walls and partitions, paneling, wall padsand crash pads, applied structurally or for decoration, acoustical correction,surface insulation or other purposes, shall be considered interior finish ifthey cover 10% or more of the wall or of the ceiling area, and shall not beconsidered decorative materials or furnishings.
In Group B and M occupancies, fabric partitions suspendedfrom the ceiling and not supported by the floor shall meet the flamepropagation performance criteria in accordance with Section 807.2 and NFPA 701or shall be noncombustible.
13VAC5-51-135. IFC Chapter 9. Fire Protection Systems.
A. Change Section 901.3 to read:
901.3. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
B. Change Section 901.4.2 to read:
901.4.2. Nonrequired fire protection systems.Nonrequired fire protection systems shall be maintained to function asoriginally installed. If any such systems are to be reduced in function ordiscontinued, approval shall be obtained from the building official inaccordance with Section 103.8.1 of Part I of the USBC.
C. Delete Section 901.4.4.
D. Change Section 901.6 to read:
901.6. Inspection, testing and maintenance. To theextent that equipment, systems, devices, and safeguards, such as firedetection, alarm and extinguishing systems, which were provided and approved bythe building official when constructed, shall be maintained in an operativecondition at all times. And where such equipment, systems, devices, andsafeguards are found not to be in an operative condition, the fire officialshall order all such equipment to be rendered safe in accordance with the USBC.
E. Add Section 901.11 to read:
901.11. Defective equipment. When the fire officialdetermines through investigation or testing or reports by a nationallyrecognized testing agency that specific, required water sprinkler orwater-spray extinguishing equipment has been identified as failing to performor operate through not less than 30 randomly selected sprinkler heads at fouror more building sites anywhere in the nation, the fire official shall orderall such equipment to be rendered safe.
F. Change Section 903.6 to read:
903.6. Where required in existing buildings andstructures. An automatic sprinkler system shall be provided in existingbuildings and structures in accordance with Section 102.7 of this code.
G. Delete Section 905.11.
H. Change Item 1 in Section906.1 to read:
1. In Group A, B, E, F, H, I, M, R-1, R-4 and S occupancies.
Exceptions:
1. In Groups A, B, and E occupancies equipped throughout withquick response sprinklers, portable fire extinguishers shall be required onlyin locations specified in Items 2 through 6.
2. In Group I-3 occupancies, portable fire extinguishers shallbe permitted to be located at staff locations and the access to suchextinguishers shall be permitted to be locked.
I. Add a note to Section 906.1 to read:
Note: In existing buildings, whether fire extinguishers areneeded is determined by the USBC or other code in effect when such buildingswere constructed.
J. Change Section 907.1 to read:
907.1. General. This section covers the application,installation, performance and maintenance of fire alarm systems and theircomponents in new and existing buildings and structures. The requirements ofSection 907.2 are applicable to new buildings and structures.
K. Change Section 907.8.2 to read:
907.8.2. Testing. Testing shall be performed inaccordance with the schedules in Chapter 10 of NFPA 72 or more frequently whererequired by the fire code official. Where automatic testing is performed atleast weekly by a remotely monitored fire alarm control unit specificallylisted for the application, the manual testing frequency shall be permitted tobe extended to annual. In Group R-1 occupancies, battery-powered single stationsmoke detectors shall be tested and inspected at one-month intervals.
Exception: Devices or equipment that are inaccessible forsafety considerations shall be tested during scheduled shutdowns where approvedby the fire code official, but not less than every 18 months.
L. Change Section 907.8.5 to read:
907.8.5. Maintenance, inspection and testing. Thebuilding owner shall be responsible for maintaining the fire and life safetysystems in an operable condition at all times. Service personnel shall meet thequalification requirements of NFPA 72 for maintaining, inspecting and testingsuch systems. A written record shall be maintained and shall be made availableto the fire code official. In addition to all applicable information containedin Figure 14.6.2.2 of NFPA 72, the written record of inspections, testing andmaintenance shall contain the following minimum information:
1. Date, name and address of property.
2. Name of person performing inspection, maintenance andtests, or combination thereof, and affiliation, business address and telephonenumber.
3. Name, address and representative of approving agency oragencies.
4. Test frequency.
5. Designation of the detector or detectors tested (forexample, "Test performed in accordance with Section _______.").
6. Physical location (for example, "Heat detector in mainkitchen; horn-strobe in Room 115.") and a list of all initiating andnotification devices and appliances tested.
7. Functional list of detectors and required sequence ofoperations.
8. Check of all smoke detectors.
9. Loop resistance for all fixed-temperature, line-typedetectors.
10. Other tests as required by either the equipmentmanufacturer's published instructions or the authority having jurisdiction.
11. Signature of tester and approved authority representative.
12. Disposition of problems identified during test (examples,"Owner notified," "Problem corrected or successfully retested,or both," "Device abandoned in place.").
M. Delete Section 907.9.
N. Change Section 908.7 to read:
908.7. Carbon monoxide alarms. Carbon monoxide alarmsshall be maintained as approved.
O. Delete Section 908.7.1.
13VAC5-51-135.5. IFC Chapter 10. Means of Egress.
A. Add Section 1001.3 to read:
1001.3. Overcrowding. Overcrowding, admittance of anyperson beyond the approved occupant load established by the USBC or other buildingcode under which the building was constructed, or obstructing aisles,passageways, or any part of the means of egress shall not be allowed. The firecode official, upon finding any condition that constitutes a life safetyhazard, shall be authorized to cause the event to be stopped until suchcondition or obstruction is corrected.
B. Change Section1029.41030.4 to read:
1029.4.1030.4 Operational constraints.Emergency escape and rescue openings shall be operational from the inside ofthe room without the use of keys or tools. Bars, grilles, grates, or similardevices are permitted to be placed over emergency escape and rescue openingsprovided (i) the minimum net clear opening size complies with Section1029.21030.2, (ii) such devices shall be releasable or removable from theinside without the use of a key, tool, or force greater than that which isrequired for normal operation of the escape and rescue opening, and (iii) wheresmoke alarms are installed in accordance with Section 907.2.11 and approved bythe building official regardless of the valuation of the alteration.
13VAC5-51-138. IFC Chapter 11. Construction Requirementsfor Existing Buildings.
Delete Chapter 11 in its entirety.
13VAC5-51-138.4. IFC Chapter 20. Aviation Facilities.
Change Section 2001.3 to read:
2001.3. Permits. For permits to operateaircraft-refueling vehicles, application of flammable or combustible finishesand hot work, see Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-138.8. IFC Chapter 21. Dry Cleaning.
Change Section 2101.2 to read:
2101.2. Permit required. Permits shall be required asset forth in Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-139. IFC Chapter 22. CombustibleDust-Producing Operations.
Change Section 2201.2 to read:
2201.2. Permits. Permits shall be required forcombustible dust-producing operations as set forth in Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-140. IFC Chapter 23. Motor Fuel-DispensingFacilities and Repair Garages.
A. Change Section 2301.2 toread:
2301.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
B. Change Section 2305.4 to read:
2305.4. Sources of ignition. Smoking and open flamesshall be prohibited within 20 feet (6096 mm) of a fuel dispensing device. Theengines of vehicles being fueled shall be shut off during fueling. Electricalequipment shall be in accordance with NFPA 70.
C. Change Section 2306.2.1.1 to read:
2306.2.1.1. Inventory control and leak detection forunderground tanks. Accurate inventory records shall be maintained onunderground fuel storage tanks for indication of possible leakage from tanksand piping. The records shall be kept at the premises or made available forinspection by the fire official within 24 hours of a written or verbal requestand shall include records for each tank. Where there is more than one systemconsisting of tanks serving separate pumps or dispensers for a product, theinventory record shall be maintained separately for each tank system.
Owners and operators of underground fuel storage tanks shallprovide release detection for tanks and piping that routinely contain flammableand combustible liquids in accordance with one of the following methods:
1. Monthly inventory control to detect a release of at least1.0% of flow-through plus 130 gallons.
2. Manual tank gauging for tanks with 2,000 gallon capacity orless when measurements are taken at the beginning and ending of a 36-hour to58-hour period during which no liquid is added to or removed from the tank.
3. Tank tightness testing capable of detecting a 0.1 gallonper hour leak rate.
4. Automatic tank gauging that tests for loss of liquid.
5. Vapor monitoring for vapors within the soil of the tankfield.
6. Groundwater monitoring when the groundwater is never morethan 20 feet from the ground surface.
7. Interstitial monitoring between the underground tank and asecondary barrier immediately around or beneath the tank.
8. Other approved methods that have been demonstrated to be aseffective in detecting a leak as the methods listed above.
A consistent or accidental loss of product shall beimmediately reported to the fire official.
D. Change Section 2306.8.1to read:
2306.8.1. Listed. Dispensers shall be listed in accordancewith UL 87A. Hoses, nozzles, breakaway fittings, swivels, flexible connectorsor dispenser emergency shutoff valves, vapor recovery systems, leak detectiondevices, and pumps used in alcohol-blended fuel-dispensing systems shall belisted for the specific purpose.
E. Add Section 2306.8.6 to read:
2306.8.6. Compatibility. Dispensers shall only be used withthe fuels for which they have been listed, which are marked on the product.Field installed components including hose assemblies, breakaway couplings,swivel connectors, and hose nozzle valves shall be provided in accordance withthe listing and the marking on the unit.
13VAC5-51-140.5. IFC Chapter 24. Flammable Finishes.
Change Section 2401.3 to read:
2401.3. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-141. IFC Chapter 25. Fruit and Crop Ripening.
Change Section 2501.2 to read:
2501.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-141.5. IFC Chapter 26. Fumigation andInsecticidal Fogging.
Change Section 2601.2 to read:
2601.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-142. IFC Chapter 27. Semiconductor FabricationFacilities.
Change Section 2701.5 to read:
2701.5. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-142.5. IFC Chapter 28. Lumber Yards andAgro-Industrial,Solid Biomass, and Woodworking Facilities.
Change Section 2801.2 to read:
2801.2. Permit. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-143.5. IFC Chapter 29. Manufacture of OrganicCoatings.
Change Section 2901.2 to read:
2901.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-144. IFC Chapter 30. Industrial Ovens.
Change Section 3001.2 to read:
3001.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-144.2. IFC Chapter 31. Tents and OtherMembrane Structures.
Change Section 3103.4 to read:
3103.4. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-144.4. IFC Chapter 32. High-Piled CombustibleStorage.
Change Section 3201.2 to read:
3201.2. Permits. A permit shall be required as setforth in Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-144.6. IFC Chapter 34. Tire Rebuilding andTire Storage.
A. Change Section 3401.2 to read:
3401.2. Permit required. Permits shall be required asset forth in Section 107.2.
B. Change Section 3406.1 to read:
3406.1. Required access. New and existing tire storageyards shall be provided with fire apparatus access roads in accordance withSection 503 and Section 3406.2.
13VAC5-51-144.8. IFC Chapter 37 Combustible Fibers.
Change Section 3701.3 to read:
3701.3 Permits. Permits shall be required as set forth inSection 107.2.
13VAC5-51-145. IFC Chapter 50. Hazardous Materials -General Provisions.
A. Change Section 5001.5 to read:
5001.5. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
B. Add the following language to the end of Section 5001.5.1to read:
The HMMP shall be maintained onsite for use by emergencyresponders, and shall be updated not less than annually.
C. Add the following language to the end of Section 5001.5.2to read:
The HMIS shall be maintained onsite or readily availablethrough another means where approved by the fire code official for use bytemporary responders, and shall be updated not less than annually.
D. Add Sections 5001.5.3,5001.5.3.1, and 5001.5.3.2 to read:
5001.5.3. Repository container. When a HMMP or HMIS isrequired, the owner or operator shall provide a repository container (lock box)or other approved means for the storage of items required in Sections 5001.5.1and 5001.5.2 so as to be readily available to emergency response personnel.
5001.5.3.1. Location and identification. The repositorycontainer (lock box) shall be located, installed and identified in an approvedmanner.
5001.5.3.2. Keying. All repository containers (lockboxes) shall be keyed as required by the fire code official.
E.Change the "Consumer fireworks" row in andaddAdd a new "Permissible fireworks" row to Table5003.1.1(1) to read:
Consumer fireworks
| 1.4G
| H-3
| 125e,l
| N/A
| N/A
| N/A
| N/A
| N/A
| N/A
| N/A
|
Permissible fireworks | 1.4G | H-3 | 125d,e,l | N/A | N/A | N/A | N/A | N/A | N/A | N/A |
F.Add Section 5001.7, includingsubsections, to read:
5001.7 Operational requirements for Group B teaching andresearch laboratories. Teaching and research laboratories in Group Beducational occupancies above the 12th grade utilizing Section 430 of the USBC,Part I, Construction, or Section 302.6 of the USBC, Part II, ExistingBuildings, shall comply with this section and other applicable requirements ofthis code. In the case of conflicts between the requirements of Section 430 ofthe USBC, Part I, Construction, or Section 302.6 of the USBC, Part II, ExistingBuildings, and provisions of this code other than those set out in thissection, Section 430 of the USBC, Part I, Construction, or Section 302.6 of theUSBC, Part II, Existing Buildings, as applicable, shall govern.
5001.7.1 Chemical safety reviews. Operating and emergencyprocedures planning and documentation shall be as set out in Sections5001.3.3.11 through 5001.3.3.17. Such documentation shall be prepared bylaboratory safety personnel or special experts and shall be made available inthe workplace for reference and review by employees. Copies of suchdocumentation shall be furnished to the fire code official for review uponrequest.
5001.7.2 Hazardous materials handling. Receiving,transporting on site, unpacking, and dispensing of hazardous materials shall becarried out by persons trained in proper handling of such materials and shallbe performed in accordance with Chapters 50 through 67, as applicable.
5001.7.3 Hazard identification signage. Warning signs forother than building components shall be provided in accordance with Section5003.5.
5001.7.4 Maintenance of equipment, machinery, andprocesses. Maintenance of equipment, machinery, and processes used withhazardous materials shall comply with Section 5003.2.6.
5001.7.5 Time sensitive materials. Containers of materialsthat have the potential to become hazardous during prolonged storage shall bedated when first opened and shall be managed in accordance with NFPA 45,Section 8.2.4.4.1.
5001.7.6 Maintenance of storage, dispensing, use, andhandling requirements. Storage, dispensing, use, and handling requirements inthe USBC, Part I, Construction, or the USBC, Part II, Existing Buildings, shallbe maintained. Operational requirements not affecting the manner ofconstruction shall comply with this chapter and Chapters 51 through 67, asapplicable.
5001.7.7 Hazardous wastes. Storage, dispensing, use, andhandling of hazardous waste shall comply with this chapter and Chapters 51through 67, as applicable.
5001.7.8 Container size. The maximum container size for allhazardous materials shall be 5.3 gallons (20 L) for liquids, 50 pounds (23 kg)for solids, 100 cubic feet (2.8. m3) for health hazard gases perTable 5003.1.1(2), and 500 cubic feet (14 m3) for all other gases inaccordance with Table 5003.1.1(1).
Exception: Hazardous waste collection containers, for otherthan Class I and Class II flammable liquids, are permitted to exceed 5.3gallons (20 L) where approved.
5001.7.9 Density. Quantities of Class I, II, and IIIAcombustible or flammable liquids in storage and use within control areas orlaboratory suites shall not exceed 8 gallons per 100 square feet (30 L/9.3 m2)of floor area, with not more than 4 gallons per 100 square feet (15 L/9.3 m2)being in use. Quantities of Class I flammable liquids in storage and use shallnot exceed 4 gallons per 100 square feet (15 L/9.3 m2) of floor areawith not more than 2 gallons (7.5 L) being in use. The maximum in use in opensystems is limited to 10% of these quantities. Densities shall be reduced by25% on the 4th-floor through 6th-floor levels above grade plane of the buildingand 50% above the 6th-floor level. The density is to be reduced to 50% of thesevalues for buildings that are not protected throughout with an approvedautomatic fire sprinkler system. Regardless of the density, the maximumallowable quantity per control area or laboratory suite shall not be exceeded.
Exception: Density limits may be exceeded in designatedhazardous waste collection areas or rooms within a control area or laboratorysuite, but stored quantities shall not exceed the maximum allowable quantityper laboratory suite or control area.
5001.7.10 Restricted materials in storage. Storage ofpyrophorics and Class 4 oxidizers prohibited by Table 5003.1.1(1) in existingbuildings not equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system inaccordance with Section 903.3.1.1 of the USBC, Part I, Construction, shall beallowed within a control area at 25% of the limits in Table 5003.1.1(1) for abuilding equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system, with noadditional increases allowed, provided that such materials are stored inaccordance with all of the following:
1. Containers shall be completely sealed and storedaccording to the manufacturer's recommendations.
2. Storage shall be within approved hazardous materialsstorage cabinets in accordance with Section 5003.8.7 or shall be located in aninert atmosphere glove box in accordance with NFPA 45, Section 7.11.
3. The storage cabinet or glove box shall not contain anystorage of incompatible materials.
5001.7.11 Restricted materials in use. Use of pyrophoricsand Class 4 oxidizers prohibited by Table 5003.1.1(1) in existing buildings notequipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance withSection 903.3.1.1 of the USBC, Part I, Construction, shall be allowed within acontrol area at 25% of the limits in Table 5003.1.1(1) for buildings equippedthroughout with an automatic sprinkler system, with no additional increasesallowed, provided that such materials are used in accordance with all of thefollowing:
1. Use shall be within an approved chemical fume hoodlisted in accordance with UL 1805, or in an inert atmosphere glove box inaccordance with NFPA 45, Section 7.11, or other approved equipment designed forthe specific hazard of the material.
2. Combustible materials shall be kept at least 2 feet (610mm) away from the work area, except for those items directly related to theresearch.
3. A portable fire extinguisher appropriate for thespecific material shall be provided within 20 feet (6096 mm) of the use inaccordance with Section 906.
G. Change Section 5003.3.1.4 to read:
5003.3.1.4. Responsibility for cleanup. The person,firm, or corporation responsible for an unauthorized discharge shallinstitute and complete all actions necessary to remedy the effects of suchunauthorized discharge, whether sudden or gradual, at no cost to thejurisdiction. The fire code official may require records and receipts to verifycleanup and proper disposal of unauthorized discharges. When deemed necessaryby the fire code official, cleanup may be initiated by the fire department orby an authorized individual or firm. Costs associated with such cleanup shallbeborne bythe responsibility of the owner, operator, orother person responsible for the unauthorized discharge.
Note: Owners and operators of certain underground andaboveground petroleum storage tanks may have access to the Virginia PetroleumStorage Tank Fund for reimbursement of some cleanup costs associated withpetroleum discharges from these tanks. See Article 10 (§ 62.1-44.34:10 et seq.)of Title 62.1of the Code of Virginia.
13VAC5-51-145.5. IFC Chapter 51. Aerosols.
Change Section 5101.2 to read:
5101.2. Permit required. Permits shall be required asset forth in Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-146.IFC Chapter 52. Combustible Fibers.(Repealed.)
Change Section 5201.3 to read:
5201.3. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forth inSection 107.2.
13VAC5-51-146.5. IFC Chapter 53. Compressed Gases.
Change Section 5301.2 to read:
5301.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-147. IFC Chapter 54. Corrosive Materials.
Change Section 5401.2 to read:
5401.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-147.5. IFC Chapter 55. Cryogenic Fluids.
Change Section 5501.2 to read:
5501.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-150. IFC Chapter 56. Explosives and Fireworks.
A. Change exception 4 in Section 5601.1 to read:
4. The possession, storage, and use of not more than 15 pounds(6.81 kg) of commercially manufactured sporting black powder, 20 pounds (9 kg)of smokeless powder and any amount of small arms primers for hand loading ofsmall arms ammunition for personal consumption.
B. Add exceptions 10, 11 and12 to Section 5601.1 to read:
10. The storage, handling, or use of explosives or blastingagents pursuant to the provisions of Title 45.1 of the Code of Virginia.
11. The display of small arms primers in Group M when in theoriginal manufacturer's packaging.
12. The possession, storage and use of not more than 50 pounds(23 kg) of commercially manufactured sporting black powder, 100 pounds (45 kg)of smokeless powder, and small arms primers for hand loading of small armsammunition for personal consumption in Group R-3 or R-5, or 200 pounds (91 kg)of smokeless powder when stored in the manufacturer's original containers indetached Group U structures at least 10 feet (3048 mm) from inhabited buildingsand are accessory to Group R-3 or R-5.
C. Change exception 4 in Section 5601.1.3 to read:
4. The possession, storage, sale, handling and use ofpermissible fireworks where allowed by applicable local or state laws,ordinances and regulations provided such fireworks comply with CPSC 16 CFR,Parts 1500-1507, and DOTn 49 CFR, Parts 100-178, for consumer fireworks.
D. Add exception 5 to Section 5601.1.3 to read:
5. The sale or use of materials or equipment when suchmaterials or equipment is used or to be used by any person for signaling orother emergency use in the operation of any boat, railroad train or othervehicle for the transportation of persons or property.
E. Change entire Section 5601.2 to read:
5601.2. Permit required. Permits shall be required asset forth in Section 107.2 and regulated in accordance with this section. Themanufacture, storage, possession, sale and use of fireworks or explosives shallnot take place without first applying for and obtaining a permit.
5601.2.1. Residential uses. No person shall keep orstore, nor shall any permit be issued to keep, possess or store, any fireworksor explosives at any place of habitation, or within 100 feet (30,480 mm)thereof.
Exception: Storage of smokeless propellant, black powder, andsmall arms primers for personal use and not for resale in accordance withSection 5606.
5601.2.2. Sale and retail display. Except for the ArmedForces of the United States, Coast Guard, National Guard, federal, state andlocal regulatory, law enforcement and fire agencies acting in their officialcapacities, explosives shall not be sold, given, delivered or transferred toany person or company not in possession of a valid permit. The holder of apermit to sell explosives shall make a record of all transactions involvingexplosives in conformance with Section 5603.2 and include the signature of anyreceiver of the explosives. No person shall construct a retail display noroffer for sale explosives, explosive materials, or fireworks upon highways,sidewalks, public property, or in assembly or educational occupancies.
5601.2.3. Permit restrictions. The fire official isauthorized to limit the quantity of explosives, explosive materials, orfireworks permitted at a given location. No person, possessing a permit forstorage of explosives at any place, shall keep or store an amount greater thanauthorized in such permit. Only the kind of explosive specified in such apermit shall be kept or stored.
5601.2.3.1. Permit applicants. As a condition of apermit as provided for in Section 107.5, the fire official shall not issue apermit to manufacture, store, handle, use or sell explosives or blasting agentsto any applicant who has not provided on the permit application the name andsignature of a designated individual as representing the applicant. When, asprovided for in Section 107.2 or 107.6, a permit is required to conduct afireworks display, as a condition of permit as provided for in Section 107.5,the fire official shall not issue a permit to design, setup or conduct afireworks display to any applicant who has not provided on the permitapplication the name and signature of a designated individual as representingthe applicant.
If the applicant's designated individual changes or becomes nolonger qualified to represent the applicant as responsible management ordesignated individual, the applicant shall notify the fire official who issuedthe permit on the change of status of the designated individual. The notice isto be made prior to the use of any explosives or conducting a fireworks displaybut in no case shall the notification occur more than seven days after thechange of status and shall provide the name of another designated individual.The fire official may revoke or require the reissuance of a permit based on achange of permit conditions or status or inability to provide anotherdesignated individual.
5601.2.3.1.1. BCC:. The SFMO shallprocess all applications for a BCC for compliance with § 27-97.2 of the Code ofVirginia and will be the sole provider of a BCC. Using forms provided by theSFMO, a BCC may be applied for and issued to any person who submits to thecompletion of a background investigation by providing fingerprints and personaldescriptive information to the SFMO. The SFMO shall forward the fingerprintsand personal descriptive information to the Central Criminal Records Exchangefor submission to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose ofobtaining a national criminal history records check regarding such applicant.
5601.2.3.1.2. Issuance of a BCC:. Theissuance of a BCC shall be denied if the applicant or designated personrepresenting an applicant has been convicted of any felony, whether suchconviction occurred under the laws of the Commonwealth, or any other state, theDistrict of Columbia, the United States or any territory thereof, unless hiscivil rights have been restored by the Governor or other appropriate authority.
5601.2.3.1.3. Fee for BCC:. The fee forobtaining or renewing a BCC from the SFMO shall be $150 plus any additionalfees charged by other agencies for fingerprinting and for obtaining a nationalcriminal history record check through the Central Criminal Records Exchange tothe Federal Bureau of Investigation.
5601.2.3.1.4. Revocation of a BCC:. Afterissuance of a BCC, subsequent conviction of a felony will be grounds forimmediate revocation of a BCC, whether such conviction occurred under the lawsof the Commonwealth, or any other state, the District of Columbia, the UnitedStates or any territory thereof. The BCC shall be returned to the SFMOimmediately. An individual may reapply for his BCC if his civil rights havebeen restored by the Governor or other appropriate authority.
5601.2.4. Financial responsibility. Before a permit isissued, as required by Section 5601.2, the applicant shall file with thejurisdiction a corporate surety bond in the principal sum of $500,000 or apublic liability insurance policy for the same amount, for the purpose of thepayment of all damages to persons or property which arise from, or are causedby, the conduct of any act authorized by the permit upon which any judicialjudgment results. The legal department of the jurisdiction may specify agreater amount when conditions at the location of use indicate a greater amountis required. Government entities shall be exempt from this bond requirement.
5601.2.4.1. Blasting. Before approval to do blasting isissued, the applicant for approval shall file a bond or submit a certificate ofinsurance in such form, amount, and coverage as determined by the legaldepartment of the jurisdiction to be adequate in each case to indemnify thejurisdiction against any and all damages arising from permitted blasting but inno case shall the value of the coverage be less than $1,000,000.
Exception: Filing a bond or submitting a certificate ofliability insurance is not required for blasting on real estate parcels of fiveor more acres conforming to the definition of "real estate devoted toagricultural use" or "real estate devoted to horticultural use"in § 58.1-3230 of the Code of Virginia and conducted by the owner of such realestate.
5601.2.4.2. Fireworks display. The permit holder shallfurnish a bond or certificate of insurance in an amount deemed adequate by thelegal department of the jurisdiction for the payment of all potential damagesto a person or persons or to property by reason of the permitted display, andarising from any acts of the permit holder, the agent, employees orsubcontractors, but in no case shall the value of the coverage be less than$1,000,000.
F. Change entire Section 5601.4 to read:
5601.4. Qualifications. Persons in charge of magazines,blasting, fireworks display, or pyrotechnic special effect operations shall notbe under the influence of alcohol or drugs which impair sensory or motorskills, shall be at least 21 years of age and possess knowledge of all safetyprecautions related to the storage, handling or use of explosives, explosivematerials or fireworks.
5601.4.1. Certification of blasters andpyrotechnicians. Certificates as a restricted blaster, unrestricted blaster orpyrotechnician will be issued upon proof of successful completion of anexamination approved by the SFMO commensurate to the certification sought andcompletion of a background investigation for compliance with § 27-97.2 of theCode of Virginia. The applicant for certification shall submit proof to theSFMO of the following experience:
1. For certification as a restricted blaster, at least oneyear under direct supervision by a certified unrestricted blaster, certifiedrestricted blaster or other person(s) approved by the SFMO.
2. For certification as an unrestricted blaster, at least oneyear under direct supervision by a certified unrestricted blaster or otherperson or persons approved by the SFMO.
3. For certification as a pyrotechnician, aerial, orpyrotechnician, proximate, applicant was in responsible charge of or hasassisted in the documented design, setup and conducting of a fireworks displayon at least six occasions within the 24 months immediately preceding theapplication for certification.
The SFMO shall process all certification applicants forcompliance with § 27-97.2 of the Code of Virginia and will be the sole providerof blaster and pyrotechnician certifications.
Exception: The use of explosives by the owner of real estateparcels of five or more acres conforming to the definition of "real estatedevoted to agricultural use" or "real estate devoted to horticulturaluse" in § 58.1-3230 of the Code of Virginia when blasting on suchreal estate.
5601.4.2. Certification issuance. The issuance of acertification as a blaster or pyrotechnician shall be denied if the applicanthas (i) been convicted of any felony, whether such conviction occurred underthe laws of the Commonwealth, or any other state, the District of Columbia, theUnited States or any territory thereof, unless his civil rights have beenrestored by the Governor or other appropriate authority, (ii) has not providedacceptable proof or evidence of the experience required in Section 5601.4.1, or(iii) has not provided acceptable proof or evidence of the continued trainingor education required in Section 5601.4.5.
5601.4.3. Fee for certification. The fee for obtainingor renewing a blaster or pyrotechnician certificate from the SFMO shall be $150plus any additional fees charged by other agencies for fingerprinting and forobtaining a national criminal history record check through the Central CriminalRecords Exchange to the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
5601.4.3.1. Fee for replacement certificate. A writtenrequest for a replacement blaster or pyrotechnician certificate shall beaccompanied by the payment of an administrative fee in the amount of $20 madepayable to the Treasurer of Virginia. Verbal requests shall not be accepted.
5601.4.4. Revocation of a blaster or pyrotechniciancertification. After issuance of a blaster or pyrotechnician certification,subsequent conviction of a felony will be grounds for immediate revocation of ablaster or pyrotechnician certification, whether such conviction occurred underthe laws of the Commonwealth, or any other state, the District of Columbia, theUnited States or any territory thereof. The certification shall be returned tothe SFMO immediately. An individual may subsequently reapply for his blaster orpyrotechnician certification if his civil rights have been restored by theGovernor or other appropriate authority.
5601.4.5. Expiration and renewal of a BCC, or blasteror pyrotechnician certification. A certificate for an unrestricted blaster,restricted blaster or pyrotechnician shall be valid for three years from thedate of issuance. A BCC shall be valid for three years from the date ofissuance. Renewal of the unrestricted blaster certificate will be issued uponproof of at least 16 accumulated hours of continued training or education inthe use of explosives within three consecutive years and a backgroundinvestigation for compliance with § 27-97.2 of the Code of Virginia.Renewal of the restricted blaster certificate will be issued upon proof of atleast eight accumulated hours of continued training or education in the use ofexplosives within three consecutive years and a background investigation forcompliance with § 27-97.2 of the Code of Virginia. Renewal of thepyrotechnician certificate will be issued upon proof of at least 12 accumulatedhours of continued training or education in the subject areas of explosivesstorage; the design, setup or conduct of a fireworks display within threeconsecutive years; and a background investigation for compliance with § 27-97.2of the Code of Virginia. The continued training or education required forrenewal of a blaster or pyrotechnician certificate shall be obtained during thethree years immediately prior to the certificate's published expiration date.Failure to renew a blaster or pyrotechnician certificate in accordance withthis section shall cause an individual to obtain another blaster or pyrotechniciancertificate upon compliance with Section 5601.4.1 to continue engaging in theunsupervised use of explosives or conducting a fireworks display.
5601.4.6. Denial, suspension or revocation of acertificate. If issuance or renewal of a blaster or pyrotechnician certificateis denied, or upon the filing of a complaint against an applicant orcertificate holder for non-performance, or performance in violation of the SFPCand the appropriate referenced NFPA 495, 1123 or 1126 standards, the State FireMarshal may convene a three-member panel to hear the particulars of thecomplaint or denial. The three-member panel will be comprised of the followingpersons:
1. A Virginia certified fire official, excluding any personcertified as a blaster or pyrotechnician, or who is on the staff of the SFMO.
2. A Virginia certified blaster or pyrotechnician whosecertification is the same as that of the person to whom a complaint is lodged,and who is not associated in any way with the person against whom a complaintis lodged and whose work or employer is geographically remote, as much aspractically possible, from the person to whom a complaint is lodged.
3. A member of the general public who does not have a vestedfinancial interest in conducting a fireworks display, or the manufacture, sale,storage, or use of explosives.
Upon the State Fire Marshal convening such panel, the hearingis to commence within 60 calendar days of the filing of the complaint ordenial. The three-member panel is to hear the complaint and render a writtenrecommendation to the State Fire Marshal for certificate issuance, no action,revocation, or suspension of a certificate for a period not to exceed sixmonths. Notwithstanding the discretionary decision and action to convene suchpanel, the State Fire Marshal reserves the authority to choose an action thatmay be contrary to the panel's recommendation. A written decision of the StateFire Marshal is to be delivered to the party within 14 days of the hearing'sconclusion. If the certificate is denied, revoked, or suspended by the SFMO, inaccordance with Section 112.9, the party may file an appeal with theTRBState Review Board. The party's appeal toTRBState ReviewBoard must be filed within 14 calendar days of the receipt of the StateFire Marshal's written decision to deny, revoke, or suspend. The denial,revocation, or suspension of a license is independent of any criminalproceedings that may be initiated by any state or local authority.
5601.4.6.1. Replacement of revoked certificate. Anyperson whose certificate as a pyrotechnician or blaster was revoked upon causemay apply for certification as a pyrotechnician or blaster six months or morefrom the date of the revocation and upon compliance with Section 5601.4.1. Allelements of Section 5601.4.1 are required to be obtained and dated after thedate of revocation.
5601.4.6.2. Return of suspended certificate. Anycertificate that was suspended upon cause will be reinstated at the end of thesuspension period without change to its expiration date.
G. Change Section 5601.7 to read:
5601.7. Seizure. The fire official is authorized toremove or cause to be removed or disposed of in an approved manner, at theexpense of the owner, fireworks offered or exposed for sale, stored, possessedor used in violation of this chapter.
H. Add the following to the list of definitions in Section5602.1:
Background clearance card (BCC).
Blaster, restricted.
Blaster, unrestricted.
Design.
Designated individual.
Fireworks.
Fireworks, 1.4G.
Fireworks, 1.3G.
Permissible fireworks.
Pyrotechnician (fireworks operator).
Pyrotechnician, aerial.
Pyrotechnician, proximate.
Responsible management.
Smokeless propellants.
Sole proprietor.
I. Change Section 5603.4 to read:
5603.4. Accidents. Accidents involving the use ofexplosives, explosive materials, and fireworks, which result in injuries orproperty damage, shall be immediately reported by the permit holder to the firecode official and State Fire Marshal.
J. Change Section 5605.1 to read:
5605.1. General. The manufacture, assembly and testingof explosives, ammunition, blasting agents and fireworks shall comply with therequirements of this section, Title 59.1, Chapter 11 of the Code of Virginia,and NFPA 495 or NFPA 1124.
Exceptions:
1. The hand loading of small arms ammunition prepared forpersonal use and not offered for resale.
2. The mixing and loading of blasting agents at blasting sitesin accordance with NFPA 495.
3. The use of binary explosives or plosophoric materials inblasting or pyrotechnic special effects applications in accordance with NFPA495 or NFPA 1126.
K. Add Section 5605.1.1 to read:
5605.1.1. Permits. Permits for the manufacture,assembly and testing of explosives, ammunition, blasting agents and fireworksshall be required as set forth in Section 107.2 and regulated in accordancewith this section. A permit to manufacture any explosive material in anyquantity shall be prohibited unless such manufacture is authorized by a federallicense and conducted in accordance with recognized safety practices.
L. Change Section 5606.4 to read:
5606.4. Storage in residences. Propellants for personaluse in quantities not exceeding 50 pounds (23 kg) of black powder or 100 pounds(45 kg) of smokeless powder shall be stored in original containers inoccupancies limited to Groups R-3 and R-5, or 200 pounds (91 kg) of smokelesspowder when stored in the manufacturer's original containers in detached GroupU structures that are at least 10 feet from inhabited buildings and areaccessory to Group R-3 or R-5. In other than Group R-3 or R-5, smokeless powderin quantities exceeding 20 pounds (9 kg) but not exceeding 50 pounds (23 kg)shall be kept in a wooden box or cabinet having walls of at least one inch (25mm) nominal thickness or equivalent.
M. Delete Sections 5606.4.1, 5606.4.2, and 5606.4.3.
N. Change Section 5606.5.1.1 to read:
5606.5.1.1. Smokeless propellant. No more than 100pounds (45 kg) of smokeless propellants, in containers of 8 pounds (3.6 kg) orless capacity, shall be displayed in Group M occupancies.
O. Delete Section 5606.5.1.3.
P. Change Section 5606.5.2.1to read:
5606.5.2.1. Smokeless propellant. Commercialstocks of smokeless propellants shall be stored as follows:
1. Quantities exceeding 20 pounds (9 kg), but not exceeding100 pounds (45 kg) shall be stored in portable wooden boxes having walls of atleast one inch (25 mm) nominal thickness or equivalent.
2. Quantities exceeding 100 pounds (45 kg), but not exceeding800 pounds (363 kg), shall be stored in storage cabinets having walls at leastone inch (25 mm) nominal thickness or equivalent. Not more than 400 pounds (182kg) shall be stored in any one cabinet, and cabinets shall be separated by adistance of at least 25 feet (7620 mm) or by a fire partition having afire-resistance rating of at least one hour.
3. Storage of quantities exceeding 800 pounds (363 kg), but notexceeding 5,000 pounds (2270 kg) in a building shall comply with all of thefollowing:
3.1. The storage is inaccessible to unauthorized personnel.
3.2. Smokeless propellant shall be stored in nonportablestorage cabinets having wood walls at least one inch (25 mm) nominal thicknessor equivalent and having shelves with no more than three feet (914 mm) ofvertical separation between shelves.
3.3. No more than 400 pounds (182 kg) is stored in any onecabinet.
3.4. Cabinets shall be located against walls with at least 40feet (12 192 mm) between cabinets. The minimum required separation betweencabinets may be reduced to 20 feet (6096 mm) provided that barricades twice theheight of the cabinets are attached to the wall, midway between each cabinet.The barricades must extend a minimum of 10 feet (3048 mm) outward, be firmlyattached to the wall, and be constructed of steel not less than 0.25 inch thick(6.4 mm), two-inch (51 mm) nominal thickness wood, brick, or concrete block.
3.5. Smokeless propellant shall be separated from materialsclassified as combustible liquids, flammable liquids, flammable solids, oroxidizing materials by a distance of 25 feet (7620 mm) or by a fire partitionhaving a fire-resistance rating of one hour.
3.6. The building shall be equipped throughout with anautomatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1.
4. Smokeless propellants not stored according to Item 1, 2, or3 above shall be stored in a Type 2 or 4 magazine in accordance with Section5604 and NFPA 495.
Q. Change Section 5607.1 to read:
5607.1. General. Blasting operations shall be conductedonly by persons certified by the SFMO as a restricted or unrestricted blasteror shall be supervised on-site by a person properly certified by the SFMO as arestricted or unrestricted blaster.
R. Add Section 5607.16 to read:
5607.16. Blast records. A record of each blast shall bekept and retained for at least five years and shall be readily available forinspection by the code official. The record shall be in a format selected bythe blaster and shall contain the minimum data and information indicated inForm 5607.16.
Form 5607.16 Blast (shot) Record |
Block 1 General Information |
1 | Blast date: | Blast Number: | Blast Time: | Permit Number: |
2 | Blast location by address including city, county or town: |
3 | Blast location by GPS coordinates: □ check box if unknown |
4 | Name of Permit Holder: |
5 | Name of Blaster in charge (print): |
6 | Signature of Blaster in charge: |
7 | Certification Number of Blaster in charge: |
|
Block 2 General Environmental Conditions |
1 | Weather (Clear? Cloudy? Overcast?) | Wind direction and speed @________mph
| Temperature F° / C° |
2 | Topography (Flat? Hilly? Mountainous?) | Distance from blast site to nearest inhabited building: | Distance from nearest inhabited building determined by: □ GPS coordinates □ Measurement □ Estimated |
3 | Use of nearest inhabited building (Dwelling? Business? Apartment Building? School?) | Direction from blast site to nearest inhabited building: | Direction from blast site to nearest inhabited building determined by: □ GPS instrument □ Compass □ Estimated |
Additional Blaster notations on environmental conditions: |
|
Block 3 Shot Layout and Precautions Taken (N/A = Not Applicable) |
1 | Number of holes
| Diameter of hole or holes | Depth of hole or holes |
2 | Were any holes decked? □ Yes
□ No | How many holes were decked? □ N/A | How many decks per hole? □ N/A
|
(If applicable, indicate on any attached shot pattern drawing which holes were decked and the number of decks for the holes.) |
3 | Shot pattern □ Check this box if only single hole.
| Depth of sub-drilling | Drilling angle |
4 | Burden | Spacing of holes | Water height |
5 | Stemming height | Material used for stemming | Check box for flyrock precautions taken □ Mats
□ Overburden □ None taken |
Additional Blaster notations on shot layout and precautions: |
|
Block 4 Seismic Control Measures (N/A = Not Applicable) |
1 | Was scaled distance formula used? □ Yes □ No | Indicate which scaled distance equation was used. □ N/A □ W(lb)={D(ft)/50}2 □ W(lb)={D(ft)/55}2
□ W(lb)={D(ft)/65}2
| Maximum allowable charge weight per 8 ms based on scaled distance. □ N/A |
2 | Was seismograph used? □ Yes □ No | Seismograph manufacturer and model number: □ N/A | Seismograph serial number: □ N/A |
Seismograph's last calibration date. □ N/A |
3 | Distance and direction seismograph from blast site □ N/A | Distance determined by: □ N/A □ GPS coordinates □ Estimated □ Measurement |
4 | Seismograph □ N/A Geophone Minimum Frequency _______Hz Seismograph Microphone Minimum Frequency _______Hz | Seismograph recordings: □ N/A Transverse _____in/s ____ Hz Vertical _____in/s ____ Hz Longitudinal _____in/s ____ Hz Acoustic ______dB ____ Hz |
5 | Seismograph trigger level □ N/A _____ in/s _____dB
|
Additional Blaster notations on seismic control measures: |
|
Block 5 Quantity and Product |
1 | Maximum allowable charge weight per 8 ms interval □ Delay not used _____ lbs | Initiation (Check) □ Electric
□ Non-electric □ Electronic |
2 | Maximum number of holes/decks per 8 ms interval □ Delay not used _____ lbs |
3 | Maximum weight or sticks of explosive per hole _____ lbs
| Firing device manufacturer and model: □ N/A |
| Explosive Product listing (Attach additional pages as needed.) |
4 | Manufacturer | Product name, description or brand | Number of units | Unit weight (lb) |
| | | | |
| | | | |
| | | | |
| | | | |
| | | | |
| | | | |
| | | | |
5 | Total explosive weight in this shot: lbs. |
Additional Blaster notations on product and quantities: |
|
Block 6 Completion of Shot Record and General Comments |
General comments on shot not included in notes above: |
Date shot report completed: | Time shot report completed: |
Printed name and signature of person completing shot report if different from Block 1, Lines 5 and 6. | (Print) |
(Signature) |
| | | | | | | | | | | | | | |
S. Change Section 5608.2 to read:
5608.2. Permit application. Prior to issuing permitsfor a fireworks display, plans for the fireworks display, inspections of thedisplay site and demonstrations of the display operations shall be approved. Aplan establishing procedures to follow and actions to be taken in the eventthat a shell fails to ignite in, or discharge from, a mortar or fails tofunction over the fallout area or other malfunctions shall be provided to thefire code official.
In addition to the requirements of Section 5601.2.3.1, apermit to conduct a fireworks display shall not be issued to any applicantwithout the applicant identifying on the application the pyrotechnician whowill be in responsible charge of the fireworks display and who is appropriatelycertified as a pyrotechnician in accordance with Section 5601.4.1.
Exception: Permits are not required for the use or display ofpermissible fireworks on private property with the consent of the owner of suchproperty.
T. Change Section 5608.3 to read:
5608.3. Approved fireworksdisplays. Approved fireworks displays shall include only the approved fireworks1.3G, fireworks 1.4G, fireworks 1.4S and pyrotechnic articles 1.4G. The design,setup, conducting or direct on-site supervision of the design, setup and conductingof any fireworks display, either inside a building or outdoors, shall beperformed only by persons certified by the SFMO in accordance with Section5601.4.1 as a pyrotechnician (firework operator) and at least one personproperly certified by the SFMO as a pyrotechnician shall be present at the sitewhere the fireworks display is being conducted. The approved fireworks shall bearranged, located, discharged and fired in a manner that will not pose a hazardto property or endanger any person.
Exception: Certification as a pyrotechnician is not requiredfor the use or display of permissible fireworks when conducted on privateproperty with the consent of the owner of such property.
U. Change Section 5608.4 to read:
5608.4 Clearance. Spectators, spectator parking areas, anddwellings, buildings or structures shall not be located within the displaysite. The site for the outdoor land or water display shall have at least100-ft/in. (31-m/2.4mm) radius of internal mortar diameter of the largest shellto be fired as shown in Table 5608.4.
Exceptions:
1. This provision shall not apply to pyrotechnic specialeffects and fireworks displays using Division 1.4G materials before a proximateaudience in accordance with NFPA 1126.
2. This provision shall not apply to unoccupied dwellings,buildings and structures with the approval of the building owner and the firecode official.
V. Add Table 5608.4 to read:
Table 5608.4 Distances for Outdoor Fireworks Display Sites: Minimum Separation Distances from Mortars to Spectators for Land and Water Displays |
Mortar Sizea | Minimum Secured Diameter of Site | Vertical Mortarsb | Angled Mortarsc 1/3 offset | Mortars to Special Hazardsd |
in. | mm | ft | m | ft | m | ft | m | ft | m |
<3 | <76 | 300 | 92 | 150 | 46 | 100 | 31 | 300 | 92 |
3 | 76 | 600 | 183 | 300 | 92 | 200 | 61 | 600 | 183 |
4 | 102 | 800 | 244 | 400 | 122 | 266 | 81 | 800 | 244 |
5 | 127 | 1000 | 305 | 500 | 152 | 334 | 102 | 1000 | 305 |
6 | 152 | 1200 | 366 | 600 | 183 | 400 | 122 | 1200 | 366 |
7 | 178 | 1400 | 427 | 700 | 213 | 467 | 142 | 1400 | 427 |
8 | 203 | 1600 | 488 | 800 | 244 | 534 | 163 | 1600 | 488 |
10 | 254 | 2000 | 610 | 1000 | 305 | 667 | 203 | 2000 | 610 |
12 | 305 | 2400 | 732 | 1200 | 366 | 800 | 244 | 2400 | 732 |
>12 | Requires the approval of the fire official |
aAerial shells, mines, and comets shall be classified and described only in terms of the inside diameter of the mortar from which they are fired (e.g., 3-in. (76-mm) aerial shells, mines and comets are only for use in 3-in. (76mm) mortars). bWhere the mortars are positioned vertically, the mortars shall be placed at the approximate center of the display site. cMortars shall be permitted to be angled during a display to allow for wind and to carry shells away from the main spectator viewing areas. For angled mortars, the minimum secured diameter of the display site does not change. Only the location of the mortars within the secured area changes when the mortars are angled. dNote that this is only the distance to the special hazards. The minimum secured diameter of the display site does not change. |
W. Add Sections 5608.4.1 and5608.4.2 to read:
5608.4.1. Non-splitting, non-bursting comets and mines.For non-splitting or non-bursting comets and mines containing only stars ornon-splitting or non-bursting comets, the minimum required radius of thedisplay site shall be 50 feet per inch (15.24 m per 25.4 mm) of the internalmortar diameter of the largest comet or mine to be fired, one-half that shownin Table 5608.4.
5608.4.2. Special distance requirements. The minimumdistance requirements of Table 5608.4 shall be adjusted as follows:
1. For chain-fused aerial shells and comets and mines to befired from mortars, racks, or other holders that are sufficiently strong toprevent their being repositioned in the event of an explosive malfunction ofthe aerial shells, comets, or mines, the minimum required radius shall be thesame as that required in Sections 5608.4 and 5608.4.1. For chain-fused aerialshells and comets and mines to be fired from mortars, racks, or other holdersthat are not sufficiently strong to prevent their being repositioned in theevent of an explosive malfunction of the aerial shells, comets, or mines, or ifthere is doubt concerning the strength of racks holding chain-fused mortars,based upon the largest mortar in the sequence, the minimum required radiusshall be double that required in Sections 5608.4 and 5608.4.1.
2. Distances from the point of discharge of any firework to ahealth care or detention and correctional facility, or the bulk storage ofmaterials that have flammability, explosive, or toxic hazard shall be at leasttwice the distances specified in Table 5608.4.
3. The minimum required spectator separation distance forroman candles and cakes that produce aerial shells, comets, or mine effectsshall be the same as the minimum required radius specified in Table 5608.4.
4. Aerial shells, comets and mines,and roman candles and cakes shall be permitted to be angled if the dud shellsor components are carried away from the main spectator area and either of thefollowing requirements is satisfied:
4.1. The offset specified in Table 5608.4 is followed.
4.2. The separation distance is correspondingly increased inthe direction of the angle.
If the offset provided in Table 5608.4 is followed, themortars or tubes shall be angled so that any dud shells or components fall at apoint approximately equal to the offset of the mortars or tubes from theotherwise required discharge point but in the opposite direction.
13VAC5-51-151. IFC Chapter 57. Flammable and CombustibleLiquids.
A. Add Section 5701.1.1 to read:
5701.1.1. Other regulations. Provisions of the VirginiaState Water Control Board regulations 9VAC25-91 and 9VAC25-580 addressing themaintenance and operational aspects of underground and aboveground storagetanks subject to those regulations are hereby incorporated by reference to bean enforceable part of this code. Where differences occur between theprovisions of this code and the incorporated provisions of the State WaterControl Board regulations, the provisions of the State Water Control Boardregulations shall apply.
Note: For requirements for the installation, repair, upgradeand closure of such tanks, see Section 414.6.2 of the USBC, Part I, Construction.
B. Change Section 5701.4 to read:
5701.4. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
C. Add the following exceptionto Section 5704.2.13.1.3 to read:
Exception: Underground storage tanks subject to the VirginiaState Water Control Board regulation 9VAC25-580.
13VAC5-51-151.5. IFC Chapter 58. Flammable Gases andFlammable Cryogenic Fluids.
Change Section 5801.2 to read:
5801.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-152.5. IFC Chapter 59. Flammable Solids.
Change Section 5901.2 to read:
5901.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-153. IFC Chapter 60. Highly Toxic and ToxicMaterials.
Change Section 6001.2 to read:
6001.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-154. IFC Chapter 61. Liquefied PetroleumGases.
A. Change Section 6101.2 to read:
6101.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2. Distributors shall not fill an LP-gas container for which apermit is required unless a permit for installation has been issued for thatlocation by the fire code official, except when the container is for temporaryuse on construction sites.
B. Add Section 6106.4 to read:
6106.4. DOTn cylinders filled on site. DOTn cylindersin stationary service that are filled on site and therefore are not under thejurisdiction of DOTn either shall be requalified in accordance with DOTnrequirements or shall be visually inspected within 12 years of the date ofmanufacture or within five years from May 1, 2008, whichever is later, andwithin every five years thereafter, in accordance with the following:
1. Any cylinder that fails one or more of the criteria in Item3 shall not be refilled or continued in service until the condition iscorrected.
2. Personnel shall be trained and qualified to performinspections.
3. Visual inspection shall be performed in accordance with thefollowing:
3.1. The cylinder is checked for exposure to fire, dents,cuts, digs, gouges, and corrosion according to CGA C-6, Standards for VisualInspection of Steel Compressed Gas Cylinders, except that paragraph 4.2.1(1) ofthat standard (which requires tare weight certification), shall not be part ofthe required inspection criteria.
3.2. The cylinder protective collar (where utilized) and thefoot ring are intact and are firmly attached.
3.3. The cylinder is painted or coated to retard corrosion.
3.4. The cylinder pressure relief valve indicates no visibledamage, corrosion of operating components, or obstructions.
3.5. There is no leakage from the cylinder or itsappurtenances that is detectable without the use of instruments.
3.6. The cylinder is installed on a firm foundation and is notin contact with the soil.
3.7. A cylinder that passed the visual inspection shall bemarked with the month and year of the examination followed by the letter"E" (example: 10-01E, indicating requalification in October 2001 bythe external inspection method).
3.8. The results of the visual inspection shall be documented,and a record of the inspection shall be retained for a five-year period.
Exception: Any inspection procedure outlined in Items 3.1 through3.8 that would require a cylinder be moved in such a manner that disconnectionfrom the piping system would be necessary shall be omitted, provided the otherinspection results do not indicate further inspection is warranted.
C. Change Section 6111.2 to read:
6111.2. Unattended parking. The unattended parking ofLP-gas tank vehicles shall be in accordance with Sections 6111.2.1 and6111.2.2.
Exception: The unattended outdoor parking of LP-gas tankvehicles may also be in accordance with Section 9.7.2 of NFPA 58.
13VAC5-51-154.2. IFC Chapter 62. OrganicPeroxides.
Change Section 6201.2 to read:
6201.2. Permits. Permits shall be required for organicperoxides as set forth in Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-154.4. IFC Chapter 63. Oxidizers, OxidizingGases and Oxidizing Cryogenic Fluids.
Change Section 6301.2 to read:
6301.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-154.6. IFC Chapter 64. PyrophoricMaterials.
Change Section 6401.2 to read:
6401.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-154.7. IFC Chapter 65. Pyroxylin (CelluloseNitrate) Plastics.
Change Section 6501.2 to read:
6501.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-154.8. IFC Chapter 66. Unstable (Reactive)Materials.
Change Section 6601.2 to read:
6601.2. Permits. Permits shall be required as set forthin Section 107.2.
13VAC5-51-155. IFC Chapter 80. Referenced Standards.
Change the referenced standards as follows (standards notshown remain the same):
Standard reference number | Title | Referenced in code section number |
CGA C-6 (2001) | Standards for Visual Inspection of Steel Compressed Gas Cylinders | 6106.4 |
NFPA 45-15 | Standard on Fire Protection for Laboratories Using Chemicals | 5001.7.5, 5001.7.10, 5001.7.11 |
UL 87A-12
| Outline of Investigation for Power-Operated Dispensing Devices for Gasoline and Gasoline/ethanol Blends with Nominal Ethanol Concentrations up to 85 Percent
| 2306.8.1
|
UL 1278-00 | Standard for Movable and Wall- or Ceiling-Hung Electric Room Heaters | 605.10.1 |
UL 1805-2002 | Standard for Laboratory Hoods and Cabinets | 5001.7.11 |
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (13VAC5-51)
The International Fire Code – 2012 Edition,International Code Council, Inc., 500 New Jersey Avenue, NW, 6th Floor,Washington, DC 20001-2070(http://www.iccsafe.org):
International Fire Code - 2015 Edition
International Residential Code - 2015 Edition
CGA C-6 – 2001, Standards for Visual Inspection of SteelCompressed Gas Cylinders, Eighth Edition, Compressed Gas Association, 1725Jefferson Davis Highway, 5th Floor, Arlington, VA 22202-4102
National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park,Quincy, MA 02169-7471 (http://www.nfpa.org):
NFPA 45-15, Standard on Fire Protection for LaboratoriesUsing Chemicals
NFPA 58-11, Liquefied Petroleum Gas Code
NFPA70-1170-14, National Electrical Code
NFPA72-1072-13, National Fire Alarm andSignaling Code
NFPA495-10495-13, Explosives Materials Code
NFPA 701-10, Standard Methods of Fire Tests for Flame -Propagation of Textiles and Films
NFPA1123-101123-14, Code for Fireworks Display
NFPA 1124-06, Code for the Manufacture, Transportation,Storage, and Retail Sales of Fireworks and Pyrotechnic Articles
NFPA 1126-11, Standard for the Use of Pyrotechnics Before aProximate Audience
Underwriters Laboratories, Inc., 333 Pfingsten Road,Northbrook, IL 60062 (http://www.ul.com):
UL 87A-12, Outline of Investigation for Power-OperatedDispensing Devices for Gasoline and Gasoline/ethanol Blends with NominalEthanol Concentrations up to 85 Percent
UL 1278–00, Standard for Movable and Wall- or Ceiling-HungElectric Room Heaters, Third Edition, June 21, 2000
UL 1805-2002, Standard for Laboratory Hoods and Cabinets
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4665; Filed January 20, 2017, 2:39 p.m.
TITLE 13. HOUSING
BOARD OF HOUSING AND COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT
Proposed Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Housing and Community Development is claiming an exemption from Article 2 of the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4006 A 12 of the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations adopted by the Board of Housing and Community Development pursuant to the Statewide Fire Prevention Code (§ 27-94 et seq.), the Industrialized Building Safety Law (§ 36-70 et seq.), the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.), and § 36-98.3 of the Code of Virginia, provided the board (i) provides a Notice of Intended Regulatory Action in conformance with the provisions of § 2.2-4007.01, (ii) publishes the proposed regulation and provides an opportunity for oral and written comments as provided in § 2.2-4007.03, and (iii) conducts at least one public hearing as provided in § § 2.2-4009 and 36-100 prior to the publishing of the proposed regulations.
Title of Regulation: 13VAC5-63. Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (amending 13VAC5-63-10 through 13VAC5-63-50, 13VAC5-63-70, 13VAC5-63-80, 13VAC5-63-170, 13VAC5-63-200, 13VAC5-63-210, 13VAC5-63-220, 13VAC5-63-230 through 13VAC5-63-264, 13VAC5-63-270 through 13VAC5-63-330, 13VAC5-63-360, 13VAC5-63-370, 13VAC5-63-400, 13VAC5-63-410, 13VAC5-63-430, 13VAC5-63-434, 13VAC5-63-440, 13VAC5-63-450, 13VAC5-63-470, 13VAC5-63-480, 13VAC5-63-490, 13VAC5-63-510 through 13VAC5-63-540; adding 13VAC5-63-268, 13VAC5-63-431, 13VAC5-63-432.5, 13VAC5-63-433, 13VAC5-63-433.5, 13VAC5-63-434.5, 13VAC5-63-435, 13VAC5-63-439, 13VAC5-63-524, 13VAC5-63-545, 13VAC5-63-549; repealing 13VAC5-63-225, 13VAC5-63-350).
Statutory Authority: § 36-98 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information:
May 15, 2017 - 10 a.m. - Virginia Housing Development Authority Virginia Housing Center, 4224 Cox Road, Glen Allen, VA 23060
Public Comment Deadline: April 21, 2017.
Agency Contact: Elizabeth O. Rafferty, Policy and Legislative Director, Department of Housing and Community Development, Main Street Centre, 600 East Main Street, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 371-7011, FAX (804) 371-7090, TTY (804) 371-7089, or email elizabeth.rafferty@dhcd.virginia.gov.
Background: The Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (USBC) governs the construction, maintenance, and rehabilitation of new and existing building and structures. The USBC uses nationally recognized model building codes and standards produced by the International Code Council and other standard-writing groups as the basis for the technical provisions of the regulation. Every three years, new editions of the model codes become available. At that time, the Board of Housing and Community Development initiates a regulatory action to incorporate the newest editions of the model codes into the regulation and accepts proposals for changes to the regulation from affected client groups and the public. The Department of Housing and Community Development staff maintains mailing lists for workgroups involving different subject areas of regulation and conducts workgroup meetings to develop consensus recommendations, when possible, concerning submitted proposals. The department uses an online program incorporating the provisions of the regulation and the model codes and standards to facilitate the submittal of proposals. A public hearing is held during the workgroup meeting stage of the process and a comment period established. Once workgroup meetings are completed, the board holds a series of meetings to consider each proposal, and the approved proposals are incorporated into the proposed regulation. After publication of the proposed regulation, the board establishes a comment period for the acceptance of comments on amendments reflected in the proposed regulation, and an additional public hearing is held. The board then meets to consider proposals and public comments and develops a final regulation to complete the regulatory process.
Summary:
The proposed regulatory action incorporates the newest editions of the nationally recognized model codes, produced by the International Code Council (ICC) and other standard-writing groups, into the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (USBC).
The proposed substantive amendments in this regulatory action include the following:
13VAC5-63-10 A and B: Updates the incorporation by reference to the latest ICC International Codes and standards.
13VAC5-63-20: Clarification of the exemption in the USBC for public utilities to include wiring and equipment of telecommunication (cellular telephone) companies. In addition, a new exemption for conveyor systems is added in subdivision D 3, as such equipment is not part of a building and therefore not within the scope of the USBC. In subdivision D 6 language is added to clarify that the demolition of manufactured homes or industrialized buildings is subject to the USBC. The prior edition of the code did not have explicit language addressing this, but demolition is a form of construction, so it did fall within the scope of the code.
13VAC5-63-30 D: Establishes a new provision for existing college research laboratories to permit compliance with special provisions in Part II of the USBC (the Virginia Existing Building Code; formerly the Virginia Rehabilitation Code) when utilizing new or differing amount of certain hazardous materials. The new provision is part of comprehensive changes to the USBC and the Statewide Fire Prevention Code (13VAC5-51) (SFPC) developed by an ad hoc committee of affected parties and representatives of educational research laboratories. The language is based on actions approved at the ICC hearings for the 2018 editions of the International Codes with conditions specific to Virginia institutions considered in the final language.
13VAC5-63-50 E and I: The Virginia Certification Standards (13VAC5-21) (VCS), also under the authority of the BHCD, were amended in September of 2014 to include requirements for continuing education and periodic training for all inspector certificates issued by the BHCD. Formerly the requirements were in the USBC, SFPC, and Virginia Amusement Device Regulations. Now that the VCS contains those requirements, duplicate requirements in the USBC are no longer necessary and are therefore being deleted.
13VAC5-63-80 B 16: A new permit exemption is added for work on billboards necessary to comply with federal guidelines of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration that is necessary so that sign companies are not subject to varying requirements from jurisdiction to jurisdiction, and safeguards are in place through the federal requirements to assure safe installations without the necessity for a USBC permit.
13VAC5-63-210 C: A new provision is added to address day treatment facilities licensed by the Virginia Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services to clarify that buildings used for such purposes must have sprinkler systems if located above the second story. This is necessary due to the inability of the occupants of the treatment facilities to be able to exit quickly if an emergency exists. Many occupants need assistance in evacuating due to physical or mental limitations; therefore, in sprinklered buildings, the occupants could be moved to protected areas on the floor they are on without the spread of fire to those areas since the fire would be suppressed by the sprinkler system.
13VAC5-63-210 D: An allowance is added for alcohol to be stored in wooden barrels or casks without complying with the hazardous material provisions of the code. The language was in the International Fire Code, but not in the International Building Code, as those codes are developed independently in the ICC code development process. The language is necessary to assure all breweries and producers of distilled spirits and wines are subject to consistent requirements and is based on the fact that there is no evidence that storage in wooden barrels or casks is a potential fire hazard necessitating the requirements of the code used for explosives, fireworks, flammable gases such as liquefied petroleum gas, and gasoline and diesel fuels to be applicable.
13VAC5-63-210 T 4: Adds a new exception 7 to the requirements of the International Residential Code (IRC) for separation of dwellings from lot lines to recognize zoning ordinances that require setbacks to prevent houses on adjacent lots from being within 10 feet of each other. This allows flexibility in the clustering of homes for zoning purposes and accomplishes the building code objective of maintaining fire separation distances between dwellings. The IRC requires any building wall within five feet of a property line to be of fire-rated construction without this exception.
13VAC5-63-210 T 37 and T 38: Relocates the interior passageway requirements for new homes (former subdivision T 14) and clarifies the text. Removes difficult to apply language involving doors at the end of a hallway. The overall goal of the provision is to provide doors for wheelchair users on the main level of new dwellings.
13VAC5-63-210 T 45 and T 46: Adds tables permitting the use of No. 2 (quality) southern yellow pine (wood) of appropriate spans to be used in the framing of homes. The tables in the existing regulation (2012 edition) inadvertently omitted spans for No. 2 pine and only permitted No. 1 quality, which is not readily available by wood distributors.
13VAC5-63-210 T 61: Deletes former subdivision T 94 that required only 50% of new lamps (light bulbs) to be high efficacy (efficiency) bulbs. This deletion will allow the provisions of the IRC to be applicable, which require 75% of new bulbs to be high efficiency.
13VAC5-63-210 T 69: Adds new provisions to permit the use of a corrugated gas tubing with coatings to prevent lightning arcs from causing holes in the tubing. The product has undergone the approval process through the National Fuel Gas Code and the American National Standards Institute standard writing process.
13VAC5-63-210 T 74: From a proposal submitted by the Virginia State Corporation Commission, a new provision is added to require a tracer wire to be installed in the ditch with nonmetallic water service piping to new homes. This will enable other utilities to locate the water service line when installing additional underground lines and prevent the possible inadvertent rupturing of the water service line. There was a case where a gas line crossed a water service line that was not pressurized yet and gas traveled up the water service line and caused an explosion in the house it served. Tracer wire is already required by the USBC for nonmetallic sewer lines.
13VAC5-63-220 X and Y: Establishes a new provision for new college research laboratories to utilize certain hazardous materials inherent in operations without having to fully comply with the hazardous material provisions of the code as the use of such materials is in limited quantity. The new provision is part of comprehensive changes to the USBC and the Statewide Fire Prevention Code (13VAC5-51) (SFPC) developed by an ad hoc committee of affected parties and representatives of educational research laboratories. The language is based on actions approved at the ICC hearings for the 2018 editions of the International Codes with conditions specific to Virginia institutions considered in the final language.
13VAC5-63-230 E: Reestablishes exceptions for when smoke and fire dampers are required in shaft enclosures for heating, ventilating and air-conditioning duct systems. The exceptions were in the 2009 edition of the USBC and were deleted in the 2012 edition based on wording in the 2012 International Building Code (IBC); however, since the wording in the 2012 IBC differed slightly from the 2009 USBC language, the 2009 exceptions are being reinserted.
13VAC5-63-245 L and Q: Adds language in the IBC that is consistent with the IRC stairway landing requirements when dwelling units are being designed under the IBC, such as four-story townhomes that are outside of the scope of the IRC. The same hazards exist for dwellings, whether constructed under the IBC or the IRC.
13VAC5-63-264 A 13: Deletes former subdivision A 21 that required only 50% of new lamps (light bulbs) to be high efficacy (efficiency) bulbs in buildings subject to the International Energy Conservation Code (IECC). This deletion will allow the provisions of the 2015 IECC to be applicable, which require 75% of new bulbs to be high efficiency.
13VAC5-63-295 B and C: Adds tables permitting the use of No. 2 (quality) southern yellow pine (wood) of appropriate spans to be used in the framing of dwellings constructed under the IBC. The tables in the existing regulation (2012 edition) inadvertently omitted spans for No. 2 pine and only permitted No. 1 quality, which is not readily available by wood distributors.
13VAC5-63-310 D 1, D 7, and D 8: Add requirements for pollution control units where such systems are voluntarily installed. The use of these systems to control pollutants in grease ducts in restaurants and other facilities having grease ducts has become more prevalent, and this language was approved for the 2018 International Mechanical Code (IMC) at the ICC process in time for implementing in it Virginia for the 2015 USBC.
13VAC5-63-310 D 9: Reestablishes exceptions for when smoke and fire dampers are required in shaft enclosures for heating, ventilating, and air-conditioning duct systems. The exceptions were in the 2009 edition of the USBC (in both the IBC and the IMC) and were deleted in the 2012 edition based on wording in the 2012 IMC; however, since the wording in the 2012 IMC differed slightly from the 2009 USBC language, the 2009 exceptions are being reinserted.
13VAC5-63-310 E 2 and E 5: Adds new sections to permit the use of a corrugated gas tubing with coatings to prevent lightning arcs from causing holes in the tubing in buildings subject to the IBC. The product has undergone the approval process through the National Fuel Gas Code and the American National Standards Institute standard writing process.
13VAC5-63-431 A, B, and C: Modifies the wording of the 2005 edition of the ICC International Existing Building Code (IEBC) for use in Part II of the USBC, which governs alterations, additions, and change of occupancy of existing buildings. The new wording permits an additional compliance method for alterations and repairs based on the code in effect when the building was originally constructed.
13VAC5-63-431 D: Establishes the technical requirements for a new provision for existing college research laboratories when utilizing new or differing amount of certain hazardous materials. The requirements are part of comprehensive changes to the USBC and SFPC developed by an ad hoc committee of affected parties and representatives of educational research laboratories. The language is based on actions approved at the ICC hearings for the 2018 editions of the International Codes with conditions specific to Virginia institutions considered in the final language.
13VAC5-63-422 A, B, and C: Minor changes to the 2015 IEBC to clarify the classifications of work that are covered under the Level Method of compliance in the IEBC and how the work area concept is to be applied. Clarifying language is also added for addressing buildings that have horizontal fire separation as only vertical fire separation was addressed.
13VAC5-63-433.5, 13VAC5-63-434, 13VAC5-63-434.5, 13VAC5-63-435, 13VAC5-63-439, and 13VAC5-63-440. Minor changes to the 2015 IEBC developed by an ad hoc group preparing a training module for the department's Jack A. Proctor Building Code Academy for Part II of the USBC. These changes clarify the requirements of the different compliance methods set out in the IEBC based on questions raised during the development of the training module.
Clarifying proposed changes in this regulatory action include amendments to 13VAC5-63-450 through 13VAC5-63-545: Part III of the USBC (13VAC5-63-450 et seq.) that is known as the Virginia Maintenance Code (VMC) and sets out provisions requiring existing buildings and structures to be maintained in accordance with the codes in effect when such buildings and structures were constructed. The VMC incorporates the ICC International Property Maintenance Code (IPMC). Since its inception, the VMC has contained administrative language limiting the use of the provisions of the IPMC to only those provisions requiring maintenance and disallowing the use of any provisions of the IPMC that would require existing buildings or structures to be upgraded or retrofitted to meet newer code requirements. This arrangement has caused confusion among code enforcing agencies and those affected by the code. The department, under direction from the Board of Housing and Community Development, convened an ad hoc committee of all affected parties and organizations to develop a draft of the VMC. The proposed amendments remove any provisions of the IPMC requiring existing buildings or structures to be upgraded or retrofitted; thus eliminating the need to depend upon the administrative provisions for the proper application of the VMC.
The proposed changes to the provisions of the VMC in this action are therefore editorial in nature, but fairly extensive. The ad hoc committee evaluated every provision in the IPMC and where any provision required the upgrading or retrofitting of existing buildings, the wording of that section was changed to just require maintenance of the aspect of construction being addressed by the section, since the administrative provisions of the VMC would have prevented any such provision from being enforceable. The end result is a code in which all the provisions left intact or modified are fully enforceable without a comparison to the administrative provisions to determine whether they may be enforced.
Part I
Construction
13VAC5-63-10. Chapter 1 Administration; Section 101 General.
A. Section 101.1 Short title. The Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code, Part I, Construction, may be cited as the Virginia Construction Code or as the VCC. The term "USBC" shall mean the VCC unless the context in which the term is used clearly indicates it to be an abbreviation for the entire Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code or for a different part of the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code.
Note: This code is also known as the 2012 2015 edition of the USBC due to the use of the 2012 2015 editions of the model codes.
B. Section 101.2 Incorporation by reference. Chapters 2 - 35 of the 2012 2015 International Building Code, published by the International Code Council, Inc., are adopted and incorporated by reference to be an enforceable part of the USBC. The term "IBC" means the 2012 2015 International Building Code, published by the International Code Council, Inc. Any codes and standards referenced in the IBC are also considered to be part of the incorporation by reference, except that such codes and standards are used only to the prescribed extent of each such reference. In addition, any provisions of the appendices of the IBC specifically identified to be part of the USBC are also considered to be part of the incorporation by reference.
Note 1: The IBC references other International Codes and standards including the following major codes:
2012 2015 International Plumbing Code (IPC)
2012 2015 International Mechanical Code (IMC)
2011 2014 NFPA 70
2012 2015 International Fuel Gas Code (IFGC)
2012 2015 International Energy Conservation Code (IECC)
2012 2015 International Residential Code (IRC)
Note 2: The IRC is applicable to the construction of detached one-family and two-family dwellings and townhouses as set out in Section 310.
C. Section 101.3 Numbering system. A dual numbering system is used in the USBC to correlate the numbering system of the Virginia Administrative Code with the numbering system of the IBC. IBC numbering system designations are provided in the catchlines of the Virginia Administrative Code sections. Cross references between sections or chapters of the USBC use only the IBC numbering system designations. The term "chapter" is used in the context of the numbering system of the IBC and may mean a chapter in the USBC, a chapter in the IBC or a chapter in a referenced code or standard, depending on the context of the use of the term. The term "chapter" is not used to designate a chapter of the Virginia Administrative Code, unless clearly indicated.
D. Section 101.4 Arrangement of code provisions. The USBC is comprised of the combination of (i) the provisions of Chapter 1, Administration, which are established herein, (ii) Chapters 2 - 35 of the IBC, which are incorporated by reference in Section 101.2, and (iii) the changes to the text of the incorporated chapters of the IBC that are specifically identified. The terminology "changes to the text of the incorporated chapters of the IBC that are specifically identified" shall also be referred to as the "state amendments to the IBC." Such state amendments to the IBC are set out using corresponding chapter and section numbers of the IBC numbering system. In addition, since Chapter 1 of the IBC is not incorporated as part of the USBC, any reference to a provision of Chapter 1 of the IBC in the provisions of Chapters 2 - 35 of the IBC is generally invalid. However, where the purpose of such a reference would clearly correspond to a provision of Chapter 1 established herein, then the reference may be construed to be a valid reference to such corresponding Chapter 1 provision.
E. Section 101.5 Use of terminology and notes. The provisions of this code shall be used as follows:
1. The term "this code," or "the code," where used in the provisions of Chapter 1, in Chapters 2 - 35 of the IBC or in the state amendments to the IBC means the USBC, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
2. The term "this code" or "the code" where used in a code or standard referenced in the IBC means that code or standard, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
3. The use of notes in Chapter 1 is to provide information only and shall not be construed as changing the meaning of any code provision.
4. Notes in the IBC, in the codes and standards referenced in the IBC and in the state amendments to the IBC may modify the content of a related provision and shall be considered to be a valid part of the provision, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
F. Section 101.6 Order of precedence. The provisions of this code shall be used as follows:
1. The provisions of Chapter 1 of this code supersede any provisions of Chapters 2 - 35 of the IBC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
2. The provisions of Chapter 1 of this code supersede any provisions of the codes and standards referenced in the IBC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
3. The state amendments to the IBC supersede any provisions of Chapters 2 - 35 of the IBC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
4. The state amendments to the IBC supersede any provisions of the codes and standards referenced in the IBC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
5. The provisions of Chapters 2 - 35 of the IBC supersede any provisions of the codes and standards referenced in the IBC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
G. Section 101.7 Administrative provisions. The provisions of Chapter 1 establish administrative requirements, which include but are not limited to provisions relating to the scope of the code, enforcement, fees, permits, inspections and disputes. Any provisions of Chapters 2 - 35 of the IBC or any provisions of the codes and standards referenced in the IBC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements are deleted and replaced by the provisions of Chapter 1. Further, any administrative requirements contained in the state amendments to the IBC shall be given the same precedence as the provisions of Chapter 1. Notwithstanding the above, where administrative requirements of Chapters 2 - 35 of the IBC or of the codes and standards referenced in the IBC are specifically identified as valid administrative requirements in Chapter 1 of this code or in the state amendments to the IBC, then such requirements are not deleted and replaced.
Note: The purpose of this provision is to eliminate overlap, conflicts and duplication by providing a single standard for administrative, procedural and enforcement requirements of this code.
H. Section 101.8 Definitions. The definitions of terms used in this code are contained in Chapter 2 along with specific provisions addressing the use of definitions. Terms may be defined in other chapters or provisions of the code and such definitions are also valid.
Note: The order of precedence outlined in Section 101.6 may be determinative in establishing how to apply the definitions in the IBC and in the referenced codes and standards.
13VAC5-63-20. Section 102 Purpose and scope.
A. Section 102.1 Purpose. In accordance with § 36-99 of the Code of Virginia, the purpose of the USBC is to protect the health, safety and welfare of the residents of the Commonwealth of Virginia, provided that buildings and structures should be permitted to be constructed at the least possible cost consistent with recognized standards of health, safety, energy conservation and water conservation, including provisions necessary to prevent overcrowding, rodent or insect infestation, and garbage accumulation; and barrier-free provisions for the physically handicapped and aged.
B. Section 102.2 Scope. This section establishes the scope of the USBC in accordance with § 36-98 of the Code of Virginia. The USBC shall supersede the building codes and regulations of the counties, municipalities and other political subdivisions and state agencies. This code also shall supersede the provisions of local ordinances applicable to single-family residential construction that (i) regulate dwelling foundations or crawl spaces, (ii) require the use of specific building materials or finishes in construction, or (iii) require minimum surface area or numbers of windows; however, this code shall not supersede proffered conditions accepted as a part of a rezoning application, conditions imposed upon the grant of special exceptions, special or conditional use permits or variances, conditions imposed upon a clustering of single-family homes and preservation of open space development through standards, conditions, and criteria established by a locality pursuant to subdivision 8 of § 15.2-2242 of the Code of Virginia or subdivision A 12 of § 15.2-2286 § 15.2-2286.1 of the Code of Virginia, or land use requirements in airport or highway overlay districts, or historic districts created pursuant to § 15.2-2306 of the Code of Virginia, or local flood plain regulations adopted as a condition of participation in the National Flood Insurance Program.
Note: Requirements relating to functional design are contained in Section 103.10 of this code.
C. Section 102.2.1 Invalidity of provisions. To the extent that any provisions of this code are in conflict with Chapter 6 (§ 36-97 et seq.) of Title 36 of the Code of Virginia or in conflict with the scope of the USBC, those provisions are considered to be invalid to the extent of such conflict.
D. Section 102.3 Exemptions. The following are exempt from this code:
1. Equipment, related wiring, and poles and towers supporting the related structures used for providing wired utility, telecommunications, information, or cable television service in accordance with all of the following conditions:
1.1. The equipment, wiring installed, and supporting structures are owned and controlled by a provider of publicly regulated utility service or a franchised cable television operator and electrical or its affiliates.
1.2. The equipment and related, wiring used for radio, broadcast or cable television, telecommunications or information service transmission. The exemption shall apply only if under applicable federal and state law the ownership and control of the equipment and wiring is by the service provider or its affiliates. Such exempt equipment and wiring shall be, and supporting structures are located on either rights-of-way or property for which the service provider has rights of occupancy and entry; however, the structures, including their service equipment,.
1.3. Buildings housing or supporting such exempt equipment and wiring shall be subject to the USBC.
1.4. The installation of equipment and, wiring, and supporting structures exempted by this section shall not create an unsafe condition prohibited by the USBC.
2. Electrical equipment, transmission equipment, and related wiring used for wireless transmission of radio, broadcast, telecommunications, or information service in accordance with all of the following conditions:
2.1. Buildings housing exempt equipment and wiring and structures supporting exempt equipment and wiring shall be subject to the USBC.
2.2. The equipment and wiring exempted by this section shall not create an unsafe condition prohibited by the USBC.
2. 3. Manufacturing and, processing, and product handling machines and equipment that do not produce or process hazardous materials regulated by this code, including those portions of conveyor systems used exclusively for the transport of associated materials or products, and all of the following service equipment associated with the manufacturing or processing machines.:
2.1. 3.1. Electrical equipment connected after the last disconnecting means.
2.2. 3.2. Plumbing piping and equipment connected after the last shutoff valve or backflow device and before the equipment drain trap.
2.3. 3.3. Gas piping and equipment connected after the outlet shutoff valve.
Manufacturing and processing machines that produce or process hazardous materials regulated by this code are only required to comply with the code provisions regulating the hazardous materials.
3. 4. Parking lots and sidewalks that are not part of an accessible route.
4. 5. Nonmechanized playground or recreational equipment such as swing sets, sliding boards, climbing bars, jungle gyms, skateboard ramps, and similar equipment where no admission fee is charged for its use or for admittance to areas where the equipment is located.
5. 6. Industrialized buildings subject to the Virginia Industrialized Building Safety Regulations (13VAC5-91) and manufactured homes subject to the Virginia Manufactured Home Safety Regulations (13VAC5-95); except as provided for in Section 425 427 and in the case of demolition of such industrialized buildings or manufactured homes.
6. 7. Farm buildings and structures, except for a building or a portion of a building located on a farm that is operated as a restaurant as defined in § 35.1-1 of the Code of Virginia and licensed as such by the Virginia Board of Health pursuant to Chapter 2 (§ 35.1-11 et seq.) of Title 35.1 of the Code of Virginia. However, farm buildings and structures lying within a flood plain or in a mudslide-prone area shall be subject to flood-proofing regulations or mudslide regulations, as applicable.
7. 8. Federally owned buildings and structures unless federal law specifically requires a permit from the locality. Underground storage tank installations, modifications and removals shall comply with this code in accordance with federal law.
8. 9. Off-site manufactured intermodal freight containers, moving containers, and storage containers placed on site temporarily or permanently for use as a storage container.
9. 10. Automotive lifts.
13VAC5-63-30. Section 103 Application of code.
A. Section 103.1 General. In accordance with § 36-99 of the Code of Virginia, the USBC shall prescribe building regulations to be complied with in the construction and rehabilitation of buildings and structures, and the equipment therein.
B. Section 103.2 When applicable to new construction. Construction for which a permit application is submitted to the local building department on or after the effective date of the 2012 2015 edition of the code shall comply with the provisions of this code, except for permit applications submitted during a one-year period beginning on the effective date of the 2012 2015 edition of the code. The applicant for a permit during such one-year period shall be permitted to choose whether to comply with the provisions of this code or the provisions of the edition of the code in effect immediately prior to the 2012 2015 edition. This provision shall also apply to subsequent amendments to this code based on the effective date of such amendments. In addition, when a permit has been properly issued under a previous edition of this code, this code shall not require changes to the approved construction documents, design or construction of such a building or structure, provided the permit has not been suspended or revoked.
C. Section 103.3 Change of occupancy. No change of occupancy shall be made in any structure when the current USBC requires a greater degree of accessibility, structural strength, fire protection, means of egress, ventilation or sanitation. When such a greater degree is required, the owner or the owner's agent shall comply with the following:
1. When involving Group I-2 or I-3, written application shall be made to the local building department for a new certificate of occupancy and the new certificate of occupancy shall be obtained prior to the new use of the structure. When impractical to achieve compliance with this code for the new occupancy classification, the building official shall consider modifications upon application and as provided for in Section 106.3. In addition, the applicable accessibility provisions of Section 1012.8 of Part II of the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code, also known as the "Virginia Rehabilitation Existing Building Code," or the "VRC" "VEBC" shall be met.
Exception: This section shall not be construed to permit noncompliance with any applicable flood load or flood-resistant construction requirements of this code.
2. In other than Group I-2 or I-3, the provisions of the VRC VEBC for change of occupancy shall be met.
D. Section 103.3.1 Group B teaching and research laboratories. Where the use of new or different hazardous materials or a change in the amount of hazardous materials in existing Group B teaching and research laboratories in educational occupancies above the 12th grade would constitute a change of occupancy, Section 302.6 of the VEBC shall be permitted to be used as an acceptable alternative to compliance with change of occupancy requirements to permit the increased amounts of hazardous materials stipulated without the laboratories being classified as Group H.
E. Section 103.4 Additions. Additions to buildings and structures shall comply with the requirements of this code for new construction or shall comply with the VRC VEBC. An existing building or structure plus additions shall comply with the height and area provisions of Chapter 5 and the applicable provisions of Chapter 9. Further, this code shall not require changes to the design or construction of any portions of the building or structure not altered or affected by an addition, unless the addition has the effect of lowering the current level of safety.
Exceptions:
1. This section shall not be construed to permit noncompliance with any applicable flood load or flood-resistant construction requirements of this code.
2. When this code is used for compliance, existing structural elements carrying gravity loads shall be permitted to comply with Section 1103 of the International Existing Building Code VEBC.
E. F. Section 103.5 Reconstruction, alteration or repair in Group R-5 occupancies. The following criteria is applicable to reconstruction, alteration or repair of Group R-5 buildings or structures:
1. Any reconstruction, alteration or repair shall not adversely affect the performance of the building or structure, or cause the building or structure to become unsafe or lower existing levels of health and safety.
2. Parts of the building or structure not being reconstructed, altered or repaired shall not be required to comply with the requirements of this code applicable to newly constructed buildings or structures.
3. The installation of material or equipment, or both, that is neither required nor prohibited shall only be required to comply with the provisions of this code relating to the safe installation of such material or equipment.
4. Material or equipment, or both, may be replaced in the same location with material or equipment of a similar kind or capacity.
Exceptions:
1. This section shall not be construed to permit noncompliance with any applicable flood load or flood-resistant construction requirements of this code.
2. Reconstructed decks, balconies, porches and similar structures located 30 inches (762 mm) or more above grade shall meet the current code provisions for structural loading capacity, connections and structural attachment. This requirement excludes the configuration and height of handrails and guardrails.
3. Compliance with the VRC VEBC shall be an acceptable alternative to compliance with this section at the discretion of the owner or owner's agent.
F. G. Section 103.5.1 Equipment changes. Upon the replacement or new installation of any fuel-burning appliances or equipment in existing Group R-5 occupancies, an inspection or inspections shall be conducted to ensure that the connected vent or chimney systems comply with the following:
1. Vent or chimney systems are sized in accordance with the IRC.
2. Vent or chimney systems are clean, free of any obstruction or blockages, defects, or deterioration, and are in operable condition. Where not inspected by the local building department, persons performing such changes or installations shall certify to the building official that the requirements of Items 1 and 2 of this section are met.
G. H. Section 103.6 Reconstruction, alteration, and repair in other occupancies. Reconstruction, alteration, and repair in occupancies other than Group R-5 shall comply with the VRC VEBC.
H. I. Section 103.7 Retrofit requirements. The local building department shall enforce the provisions of Section 1701 of the VRC, which require certain existing buildings to be retrofitted with fire protection systems and other safety equipment. Retroactive fire protection system requirements contained in the International Fire Code (IFC) shall not be applicable unless required for compliance with the provisions of Section 1701 of the VRC VEBC.
I. J. Section 103.8 Nonrequired equipment. The following criteria for nonrequired equipment is in accordance with § 36-103 of the Code of Virginia. Building owners may elect to install partial or full fire alarms or other safety equipment that was not required by the edition of the USBC in effect at the time a building was constructed without meeting current requirements of the code, provided the installation does not create a hazardous condition. Permits for installation shall be obtained in accordance with this code. In addition, as a requirement of this code, when such nonrequired equipment is to be installed, the building official shall notify the appropriate fire official or fire chief.
J. K. Section 103.8.1 Reduction in function or discontinuance of nonrequired fire protection systems. When a nonrequired fire protection system is to be reduced in function or discontinued, it shall be done in such a manner so as not to create a false sense of protection. Generally, in such cases, any features visible from interior areas shall be removed, such as sprinkler heads, smoke detectors or alarm panels or devices, but any wiring or piping hidden within the construction of the building may remain. Approval of the proposed method of reduction or discontinuance shall be obtained from the building official.
K. L. Section 103.9 Use of certain provisions of referenced codes. The following provisions of the IBC and of other indicated codes or standards are to be considered valid provisions of this code. Where any such provisions have been modified by the state amendments to the IBC, then the modified provisions apply.
1. Special inspection requirements in Chapters 2 - 35.
2. Testing requirements and requirements for the submittal of construction documents in any of the ICC codes referenced in Chapter 35 and in the IRC.
3. Section R301.2 of the IRC authorizing localities to determine climatic and geographic design criteria.
4. Flood load or flood-resistant construction requirements in the IBC or the IRC, including, but not limited to, any such provisions pertaining to flood elevation certificates that are located in Chapter 1 of those codes. Any required flood elevation certificate pursuant to such provisions shall be prepared by a land surveyor licensed in Virginia or an RDP.
5. Section R101.2 of the IRC.
6. Section N1101.6 N1102.1 of the IRC and Sections C101.5.2 C402.1.1 and R101.5.2 R402.1 of the IECC.
L. M. Section 103.10 Functional design. The following criteria for functional design is in accordance with § 36-98 of the Code of Virginia. The USBC shall not supersede the regulations of other state agencies that require and govern the functional design and operation of building related activities not covered by the USBC, including but not limited to (i) public water supply systems, (ii) waste water treatment and disposal systems, and (iii) solid waste facilities. Nor shall state agencies be prohibited from requiring, pursuant to other state law, that buildings and equipment be maintained in accordance with provisions of this code. In addition, as established by this code, the building official may refuse to issue a permit until the applicant has supplied certificates of functional design approval from the appropriate state agency or agencies. For purposes of coordination, the locality may require reports to the building official by other departments or agencies indicating compliance with their regulations applicable to the functional design of a building or structure as a condition for issuance of a building permit or certificate of occupancy. Such reports shall be based upon review of the plans or inspection of the project as determined by the locality. All enforcement of these conditions shall not be the responsibility of the building official, but rather the agency imposing the condition.
Note: Identified state agencies with functional design approval are listed in the "Related Laws Package," which is available from DHCD.
M. N. Section 103.11 Amusement devices and inspections. In accordance with § 36-98.3 of the Code of Virginia, to the extent they are not superseded by the provisions of § 36-98.3 of the Code of Virginia and the VADR, the provisions of the USBC shall apply to amusement devices. In addition, as a requirement of this code, inspections for compliance with the VADR shall be conducted either by local building department personnel or private inspectors provided such persons are certified as amusement device inspectors under the VCS.
N. O. Section 103.12 State buildings and structures. This section establishes the application of the USBC to state-owned buildings and structures in accordance with § 36-98.1 of the Code of Virginia. The USBC shall be applicable to all state-owned buildings and structures, with the exception that §§ 2.2-1159 through 2.2-1161 of the Code of Virginia shall provide the standards for ready access to and use of state-owned buildings by the physically handicapped.
Any state-owned building or structure or building built on state-owned property for which preliminary plans were prepared or on which construction commenced after the initial effective date of the USBC, shall remain subject to the provisions of the USBC that were in effect at the time such plans were completed or such construction commenced. Subsequent reconstruction, renovation or demolition of such building or structure shall be subject to the pertinent provisions of this code.
Acting through the Division of Engineering and Buildings, the Virginia Department of General Services shall function as the building official for state-owned buildings. The department shall review and approve plans and specifications, grant modifications, and establish such rules and regulations as may be necessary to implement this section. It shall provide for the inspection of state-owned buildings and enforcement of the USBC and standards for access by the physically handicapped by delegating inspection and USBC enforcement duties to the State Fire Marshal's Office, to other appropriate state agencies having needed expertise, and to local building departments, all of which shall provide such assistance within a reasonable time and in the manner requested. State agencies and institutions occupying buildings shall pay to the local building department the same fees as would be paid by a private citizen for the services rendered when such services are requested by the department. The department may alter or overrule any decision of the local building department after having first considered the local building department's report or other rationale given for its decision. When altering or overruling any decision of a local building department, the department shall provide the local building department with a written summary of its reasons for doing so.
Notwithstanding any provision of this code to the contrary, roadway tunnels and bridges owned by the Virginia Department of Transportation shall be exempt from this code. The Virginia Department of General Services shall not have jurisdiction over such roadway tunnels, bridges and other limited access highways; provided, however, that the Department of General Services shall have jurisdiction over any occupied buildings within any Department of Transportation rights-of-way that are subject to this code.
Except as provided in subsection D E of § 23-38.109 23.1-1016 of the Code of Virginia, and notwithstanding any provision of this code to the contrary, at the request of a public institution of higher education, the Virginia Department of General Services, as further set forth in this provision, shall authorize that institution of higher education to contract with a building official of the locality in which the construction is taking place to perform any inspection and certifications required for the purpose of complying with this code. The department shall publish administrative procedures that shall be followed in contracting with a building official of the locality. The authority granted to a public institution of higher education under this provision to contract with a building official of the locality shall be subject to the institution meeting the conditions prescribed in subsection B A of § 23-38.88 23.1-1002 of the Code of Virginia.
Note: In accordance with § 36-98.1 of the Code of Virginia, roadway tunnels and bridges shall be designed, constructed and operated to comply with fire safety standards based on nationally recognized model codes and standards to be developed by the Virginia Department of Transportation in consultation with the State Fire Marshal and approved by the Virginia Commonwealth Transportation Board. Emergency response planning and activities related to the standards approved by the Commonwealth Transportation Board shall be developed by the Department of Transportation and coordinated with the appropriate local officials and emergency service providers. On an annual basis, the Department of Transportation shall provide a report on the maintenance and operability of installed fire protection and detection systems in roadway tunnels and bridges to the State Fire Marshal.
O. P. Section 103.12.1 Certification of state enforcement personnel. State enforcement personnel shall comply with the applicable requirements of Section 105 for certification, periodic maintenance training, and continuing education.
13VAC5-63-40. Section 104 Enforcement, generally.
A. Section 104.1 Scope of enforcement. This section establishes the requirements for enforcement of the USBC in accordance with § 36-105 of the Code of Virginia. Enforcement of the provisions of the USBC for construction and rehabilitation shall be the responsibility of the local building department. Whenever a county or municipality does not have such a building department, the local governing body shall enter into an agreement with the local governing body of another county or municipality or with some other agency, or a state agency approved by DHCD for such enforcement. For the purposes of this section, towns with a population of less than 3,500 may elect to administer and enforce the USBC; however, where the town does not elect to administer and enforce the code, the county in which the town is situated shall administer and enforce the code for the town. In the event such town is situated in two or more counties, those counties shall administer and enforce the USBC for that portion of the town situated within their respective boundaries.
However, upon a finding by the local building department, following a complaint by a tenant of a residential dwelling unit that is the subject of such complaint, that there may be a violation of the unsafe structures provisions of Part III of the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code, also known as the "Virginia Maintenance Code," or the "VMC," the local building department shall enforce such provisions.
If the local building department receives a complaint that a violation of the VMC exists that is an immediate and imminent threat to the health or safety of the owner, tenant, or occupants of any building or structure, or the owner, occupant, or tenant of any nearby building or structure, and the owner, occupant, or tenant of the building or structure that is the subject of the complaint has refused to allow the local building official or his agent to have access to the subject building or structure, the local building official or his agent may present sworn testimony to make an affidavit under oath before a magistrate or a court of competent jurisdiction and request that the magistrate or court grant the local building official or his agent an inspection warrant to enable the building official or his agent to enter the subject building or structure for the purpose of determining whether violations of the VMC exist. After issuing a warrant under this section, the magistrate or judge shall file the affidavit in the manner prescribed by § 19.2-54 of the Code of Virginia. After executing the warrant, the local building official or his agents shall return the warrant to the clerk of the circuit court of the city or county wherein the inspection was made. The local building official or his agent shall make a reasonable effort to obtain consent from the owner, occupant, or tenant of the subject building or structure prior to seeking the issuance of an inspection warrant under this section.
The local governing body shall, however, inspect and enforce the provisions of the VMC for elevators, escalators, and related conveyances, except for elevators in single-family and two-family homes and townhouses. Such inspection and enforcement shall be carried out by an agency or department designated by the local governing body.
B. Section 104.2 Interagency coordination. When any inspection functions under this code are assigned to a local agency other than the local building department, such agency shall coordinate its reports of inspection with the local building department.
13VAC5-63-50. Section 105 Local building department.
A. Section 105.1 Appointment of building official. Every local building department shall have a building official as the executive official in charge of the department. The building official shall be appointed in a manner selected by the local governing body. After permanent appointment, the building official shall not be removed from office except for cause after having been afforded a full opportunity to be heard on specific and relevant charges by and before the appointing authority. DHCD shall be notified by the appointing authority within 30 days of the appointment or release of a permanent or acting building official.
Note: Building officials are subject to sanctions in accordance with the VCS.
B. Section 105.1.1 Qualifications of building official. The building official shall have at least five years of building experience as a licensed professional engineer or architect, building, fire or trade inspector, contractor, housing inspector or superintendent of building, fire or trade construction or at least five years of building experience after obtaining a degree in architecture or engineering, with at least three years in responsible charge of work. Any combination of education and experience that would confer equivalent knowledge and ability shall be deemed to satisfy this requirement. The building official shall have general knowledge of sound engineering practice in respect to the design and construction of structures, the basic principles of fire prevention, the accepted requirements for means of egress and the installation of elevators and other service equipment necessary for the health, safety and general welfare of the occupants and the public. The local governing body may establish additional qualification requirements.
C. Section 105.1.2 Certification of building official. An acting or permanent building official shall be certified as a building official in accordance with the VCS within one year after being appointed as acting or permanent building official.
Exception: A building official in place prior to April 1, 1983, shall not be required to meet the certification requirements in this section while continuing to serve in the same capacity in the same locality.
D. Section 105.1.3 Noncertified building official. Except for a building official exempt from certification under the exception to Section 105.1.2, any acting or permanent building official who is not certified as a building official in accordance with the VCS shall attend the core module of the Virginia Building Code Academy or an equivalent course in an individual or regional code academy accredited by DHCD within 180 days of appointment. This requirement is in addition to meeting the certification requirement in Section 105.1.2.
E. Section 105.1.4 Requirements for periodic maintenance and continuing education. Building officials shall attend periodic maintenance training as designated by DHCD. In addition to the periodic maintenance training required above, building officials shall attend 16 hours of continuing education every two years as approved by DHCD. If a building official possesses more than one BHCD certificate, the 16 hours shall satisfy the continuing education requirement for all BHCD certificates.
Note: Continuing education and periodic training requirements for DHCD certifications are set out in the VCS.
F. E. Section 105.2 Technical assistants. The building official, subject to any limitations imposed by the locality, shall be permitted to utilize technical assistants to assist the building official in the enforcement of the USBC. DHCD shall be notified by the building official within 60 days of the employment of, contracting with or termination of all technical assistants.
Note: Technical assistants are subject to sanctions in accordance with the VCS.
G. F. Section 105.2.1 Qualifications of technical assistants. A technical assistant shall have at least three years of experience and general knowledge in at least one of the following areas: building construction; building, fire or housing inspections; plumbing, electrical or mechanical trades; or fire protection, elevator or property maintenance work. Any combination of education and experience that would confer equivalent knowledge and ability shall be deemed to satisfy this requirement. The locality may establish additional qualification requirements.
H. G. Section 105.2.2 Certification of technical assistants. A technical assistant shall be certified in the appropriate subject area within 18 months after becoming a technical assistant. When required by local policy to have two or more certifications, a technical assistant shall obtain the additional certifications within three years from the date of such requirement.
Exception: A technical assistant in place prior to March 1, 1988, shall not be required to meet the certification requirements in this section while continuing to serve in the same capacity in the same locality.
I. Section 105.2.3 Requirements for periodic maintenance and continuing education. Technical assistants shall attend periodic maintenance training as designated by DHCD. In addition to the periodic maintenance training required above, technical assistants shall attend 16 hours of continuing education every two years as approved by DHCD. If a technical assistant possesses more than one BHCD certificate, the 16 hours shall satisfy the continuing education requirement for all BHCD certificates.
Note: Continuing education and periodic training requirements for DHCD certifications are set out in the VCS.
J. H. Section 105.3 Conflict of interest. The standards of conduct for building officials and technical assistants shall be in accordance with the provisions of the State and Local Government Conflict of Interests Act, Chapter 31 (§ 2.2-3100 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
K. I. Section 105.4 Records. The local building department shall retain a record of applications received, permits, certificates, notices and orders issued, fees collected and reports of inspection in accordance with The Library of Virginia's General Schedule Number Six.
13VAC5-63-70. Section 107 Fees.
A. Section 107.1 Authority for charging fees. In accordance with § 36-105 of the Code of Virginia, fees may be levied by the local governing body in order to defray the cost of enforcement of the USBC.
Note: See subsection D of § 36-105 of the Code of Virginia for rules for permit fees involving property with easements or liens.
B. Section 107.1.1 Fee schedule. The local governing body shall establish a fee schedule incorporating unit rates, which may be based on square footage, cubic footage, estimated cost of construction or other appropriate criteria. A permit or any amendments to an existing permit shall not be issued until the designated fees have been paid, except that the building official may authorize the delayed payment of fees.
C. Section 107.1.2 Refunds. When requested in writing by a permit holder, the locality shall provide a fee refund in the case of the revocation of a permit or the abandonment or discontinuance of a building project. The refund shall not be required to exceed an amount which correlates to work not completed.
D. Section 107.1.3 Fees for generators used with amusement devices. Fees for generators and associated wiring used with amusement devices shall only be charged under the Virginia Amusement Device Regulations (13VAC5-31).
E. Section 107.2 Code academy fee levy. In accordance with subdivision 7 of § 36-137 of the Code of Virginia, the local building department shall collect a 2.0% levy of fees charged for permits issued under this code and transmit it quarterly to DHCD to support training programs of the Virginia Building Code Academy. Localities that maintain individual or regional training academies accredited by DHCD shall retain such levy.
13VAC5-63-80. Section 108 Application for permit.
A. Section 108.1 When applications are required. Application for a permit shall be made to the building official and a permit shall be obtained prior to the commencement of any of the following activities, except that applications for emergency construction, alterations or equipment replacement shall be submitted by the end of the first working day that follows the day such work commences. In addition, the building official may authorize work to commence pending the receipt of an application or the issuance of a permit.
1. Construction or demolition of a building or structure. Installations or alterations involving (i) the removal or addition of any wall, partition or portion thereof, (ii) any structural component, (iii) the repair or replacement of any required component of a fire or smoke rated assembly, (iv) the alteration of any required means of egress system, (v) water supply and distribution system, sanitary drainage system or vent system, (vi) electric wiring, (vii) fire protection system, mechanical systems, or fuel supply systems, or (viii) any equipment regulated by the USBC.
2. For change of occupancy, application for a permit shall be made when a new certificate of occupancy is required under Section 103.3.
3. Movement of a lot line that increases the hazard to or decreases the level of safety of an existing building or structure in comparison to the building code under which such building or structure was constructed.
4. Removal or disturbing of any asbestos containing materials during the construction or demolition of a building or structure, including additions.
B. Section 108.2 Exemptions from application for permit. Notwithstanding the requirements of Section 108.1, application for a permit and any related inspections shall not be required for the following; however, this section shall not be construed to exempt such activities from other applicable requirements of this code. In addition, when an owner or an owner's agent requests that a permit be issued for any of the following, then a permit shall be issued and any related inspections shall be required.
1. Installation of wiring and equipment that (i) operates at less than 50 volts, (ii) is for network powered broadband communications systems, or (iii) is exempt under Section 102.3(1) or 102.3(2), except when any such installations are located in a plenum, penetrate fire rated or smoke protected construction or are a component of any of the following:
1.1. Fire alarm system.
1.2. Fire detection system.
1.3. Fire suppression system.
1.4. Smoke control system.
1.5. Fire protection supervisory system.
1.6. Elevator fire safety control system.
1.7. Access or egress control system or delayed egress locking or latching system.
1.8. Fire damper.
1.9. Door control system.
2. One story detached structures used as tool and storage sheds, playhouses or similar uses, provided the building area does not exceed 256 square feet (23.78 m2) and the structures are not classified as a Group F-1 or H occupancy.
3. Detached prefabricated buildings housing the equipment of a publicly regulated utility service, provided the floor area does not exceed 150 square feet (14 m2).
4. Tents or air-supported structures, or both, that cover an area of 900 square feet (84 m2) or less, including within that area all connecting areas or spaces with a common means of egress or entrance, provided such tents or structures have an occupant load of 50 or less persons.
5. Fences of any height unless required for pedestrian safety as provided for by Section 3306, or used for the barrier for a swimming pool.
6. Concrete or masonry walls, provided such walls do not exceed six feet in height above the finished grade. Ornamental column caps shall not be considered to contribute to the height of the wall and shall be permitted to extend above the six feet height measurement.
7. Retaining walls supporting less than three feet of unbalanced fill that are not constructed for the purpose of impounding Class I, II or III-A liquids or supporting a surcharge other than ordinary unbalanced fill.
8. Swimming pools that have a surface area not greater than 150 square feet (13.95 m2), do not exceed 5,000 gallons (19 000 L) and are less than 24 inches (610 mm) deep.
9. Signs under the conditions in Section H101.2 of Appendix H.
10. Replacement of above-ground existing LP-gas containers of the same capacity in the same location and associated regulators when installed by the serving gas supplier.
11. Flagpoles 30 feet (9144 mm) or less in height.
12. Temporary ramps serving dwelling units in Group R-3 and R-5 occupancies where the height of the entrance served by the ramp is no more than 30 inches (762 mm) above grade.
13. Construction work deemed by the building official to be minor and ordinary and which does not adversely affect public health or general safety.
14. Ordinary repairs that include the following:
14.1. Replacement of windows and doors with windows and doors of similar operation and opening dimensions that do not require changes to the existing framed opening and that are not required to be fire rated in Group R-2 where serving a single dwelling unit and in Groups R-3, R-4 and R-5.
14.2. Replacement of plumbing fixtures and well pumps in all groups without alteration of the water supply and distribution systems, sanitary drainage systems or vent systems.
14.3. Replacement of general use snap switches, dimmer and control switches, 125 volt-15 or 20 ampere receptacles, luminaires (lighting fixtures) and ceiling (paddle) fans in Group R-2 where serving a single dwelling unit and in Groups R-3, R-4 and R-5.
14.4. Replacement of mechanical appliances provided such equipment is not fueled by gas or oil in Group R-2 where serving a single-family dwelling and in Groups R-3, R-4 and R-5.
14.5. Replacement of an unlimited amount of roof covering or siding in Groups R-3, R-4 or R-5 provided the building or structure is not in an area where the nominal design (3 second gust) wind speed is greater than 100 miles per hour (160 km/hr) (44.7 meters per second) and replacement of 100 square feet (9.29 m2) or less of roof covering in all groups and all wind zones.
14.6. Replacement of 100 square feet (9.29 m2) or less of roof decking in Groups R-3, R-4 or R-5 unless the decking to be replaced was required at the time of original construction to be fire-retardant-treated or protected in some other way to form a fire-rated wall termination.
14.7. Installation or replacement of floor finishes in all occupancies.
14.8. Replacement of Class C interior wall or ceiling finishes installed in Groups A, E and I and replacement of all classes of interior wall or ceiling finishes in other groups.
14.9. Installation or replacement of cabinetry or trim.
14.10. Application of paint or wallpaper.
14.11. Other repair work deemed by the building official to be minor and ordinary which does not adversely affect public health or general safety.
15. Crypts, mausoleums, and columbaria structures not exceeding 1500 square feet (139.35 m2) in area if the building or structure is not for occupancy and used solely for the interment of human or animal remains and is not subject to special inspections.
16. Billboard safety upgrades to add or replace steel catwalks, steel ladders, or steel safety cable.
Exception: Application for a permit may be required by the building official for the installation of replacement siding, roofing and windows in buildings within a historic district designated by a locality pursuant to § 15.2-2306 of the Code of Virginia.
C. Section 108.3 Applicant information, processing by mail. Application for a permit shall be made by the owner or lessee of the relevant property or the agent of either or by the RDP, contractor or subcontractor associated with the work or any of their agents. The full name and address of the owner, lessee and applicant shall be provided in the application. If the owner or lessee is a corporate body, when and to the extent determined necessary by the building official, the full name and address of the responsible officers shall also be provided.
A permit application may be submitted by mail and such permit applications shall be processed by mail, unless the permit applicant voluntarily chooses otherwise. In no case shall an applicant be required to appear in person.
The building official may accept applications for a permit through electronic submissions provided the information required by this section is obtained.
D. Section 108.4 Prerequisites to obtaining permit. In accordance with § 54.1-1111 of the Code of Virginia, any person applying to the building department for the construction, removal or improvement of any structure shall furnish prior to the issuance of the permit either (i) satisfactory proof to the building official that he is duly licensed or certified under the terms or Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1000 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia to carry out or superintend the same or (ii) file a written statement, supported by an affidavit, that he is not subject to licensure or certification as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to Chapter 11 of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia. The applicant shall also furnish satisfactory proof that the taxes or license fees required by any county, city, or town have been paid so as to be qualified to bid upon or contract for the work for which the permit has been applied.
E. Section 108.5 Mechanics' lien agent designation. In accordance with § 36-98.01 of the Code of Virginia, a building permit issued for any one-family or two-family residential dwelling shall at the time of issuance contain, at the request of the applicant, the name, mailing address, and telephone number of the mechanics' lien agent as defined in § 43-1 of the Code of Virginia. If the designation of a mechanics' lien agent is not so requested by the applicant, the building permit shall at the time of issuance state that none has been designated with the words "None Designated."
Note: In accordance with § 43-4.01A of the Code of Virginia, a permit may be amended after it has been initially issued to name a mechanics' lien agent or a new mechanics' lien agent.
F. Section 108.6 Application form, description of work. The application for a permit shall be submitted on a form or forms supplied by the local building department. The application shall contain a general description and location of the proposed work and such other information as determined necessary by the building official.
G. Section 108.7 Amendments to application. An application for a permit may be amended at any time prior to the completion of the work governed by the permit. Additional construction documents or other records may also be submitted in a like manner. All such submittals shall have the same effect as if filed with the original application for a permit and shall be retained in a like manner as the original filings.
H. Section 108.8 Time limitation of application. An application for a permit for any proposed work shall be deemed to have been abandoned six months after the date of filing unless such application has been pursued in good faith or a permit has been issued, except that the building official is authorized to grant one or more extensions of time if a justifiable cause is demonstrated.
13VAC5-63-170. Section 117 Temporary and moved buildings and structures; demolition.
A. Section 117.1 Temporary buildings and structures. The building official is authorized to issue a permit for temporary buildings or structures. Such permits shall be limited as to time of service, but shall not be permitted for more than one year, except that upon the permit holder's written request, the building official may grant one or more extensions of time, not to exceed one year per extension. The building official is authorized to terminate the approval and order the demolition or removal of temporary buildings or structures during the period authorized by the permit when determined necessary.
B. Section 117.1.1 Temporary uses within existing buildings and structures. The building official shall review and may approve conditions or modifications for temporary uses, including hypothermia and hyperthermia shelters, that may be necessary as long as the use meets the spirit and functional intent intended by this code. The building official is authorized to terminate the approval and order the discontinuance of the temporary use during the period authorized by the permit when determined necessary. The building official shall notify the appropriate fire official or fire chief of the approved temporary use.
C. Section 117.2 Moved buildings and structures. Any building or structure moved into a locality or moved to a new location within a locality shall not be occupied or used until a certification certificate of occupancy is issued for the new location. Such moved buildings or structures shall be required to comply with the requirements of this code for a newly constructed building or structure unless meeting all of the following requirements relative to the new location:
1. There is no change in the occupancy classification from its previous location.
2. The building or structure was in compliance with all state and local requirements applicable to it in its previous location and is in compliance with all state and local requirements applicable if originally constructed in the new location.
3. The building or structure did not become unsafe during the moving process due to structural damage or for other reasons.
4. Any alterations, reconstruction, renovations or repairs made pursuant to the move are in compliance with applicable requirements of the VRC VEBC.
D. Section 117.3 Demolition of buildings and structures. Prior to the issuance of a permit for the demolition of any building or structure, the owner or the owner's agent shall provide certification to the building official that all service connections of utilities have been removed, sealed or plugged satisfactorily and a release has been obtained from the associated utility company. The certification shall further provide that written notice has been given to the owners of adjoining lots and any other lots that may be affected by the temporary removal of utility wires or the temporary disconnection or termination of other services or facilities relative to the demolition. In addition, the requirements of Chapter 33 of the IBC for any necessary retaining walls or fences during demolition shall be applicable and when a building or structure is demolished or removed, the established grades shall be restored.
13VAC5-63-200. Chapter 2 Definitions.
A. Add the following definitions to Section 202 of the IBC to read:
Aboveground liquid fertilizer storage tank (ALFST). A device that contains an accumulation of liquid fertilizer (i) constructed of nonearthen materials, such as concrete, steel or plastic, that provide structural support; (ii) having a capacity of 100,000 gallons (378 500 L) or greater; and (iii) the volume of which is more than 90% above the surface of the ground. The term does not include any wastewater treatment or wastewater storage tank, utility or industry pollution control equipment.
Building regulations. Any law, rule, resolution, regulation, ordinance or code, general or special, or compilation thereof, heretofore or hereafter enacted or adopted by the Commonwealth or any county or municipality, including departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, or other agencies thereof, relating to construction, reconstruction, alteration, conversion, repair, maintenance, or use of structures and buildings and installation of equipment therein. The term does not include zoning ordinances or other land use controls that do not affect the manner of construction or materials to be used in the erection, alteration or repair of a building or structure.
Change of occupancy. A change in the use or occupancy of any building or structure that would place the building or structure in a different division of the same group of occupancies or in a different group of occupancies; or a change in the purpose or level of activity within a building or structure that involves a change in application of the requirements of this code.
Chemical fume hood. A ventilated enclosure designed to contain and exhaust fumes, gases, vapors, mists, and particulate matter generated within the hood.
Construction. The construction, reconstruction, alteration, repair, or conversion of buildings and structures.
Day-night average sound level (Ldn). A 24-hour energy average sound level expressed in dBA, with a 10 decibel penalty applied to noise occurring between 10 p.m. and 7 a.m.
DHCD. The Virginia Department of Housing and Community Development.
Emergency communication equipment. Emergency communication equipment, includes but is not limited to two-way radio communications, signal booster, bi-directional amplifiers, radiating cable systems, or internal multiple antenna, or a combination of the foregoing.
Emergency public safety personnel. Emergency public safety personnel includes firefighters, emergency medical personnel, law-enforcement officers, and other emergency public safety personnel routinely called upon to provide emergency assistance to members of the public in a wide variety of emergency situations, including but not limited to fires, medical emergencies, violent crimes, and terrorist attacks.
Equipment. Plumbing, heating, electrical, ventilating, air-conditioning and refrigeration equipment, elevators, dumbwaiters, escalators, and other mechanical additions or installations.
Farm building or structure. A building or structure not used for residential purposes, located on property where farming operations take place, and used primarily for any of the following uses or combination thereof:
1. Storage, handling, production, display, sampling or sale of agricultural, horticultural, floricultural or silvicultural products produced in the farm.
2. Sheltering, raising, handling, processing or sale of agricultural animals or agricultural animal products.
3. Business or office uses relating to the farm operations.
4. Use of farm machinery or equipment or maintenance or storage of vehicles, machinery or equipment on the farm.
5. Storage or use of supplies and materials used on the farm.
6. Implementation of best management practices associated with farm operations.
Hospice facility. An institution, place, or building owned or operated by a hospice provider and licensed by the Virginia Department of Health as a hospice facility to provide room, board, and palliative and supportive medical and other health services to terminally ill patients and their families, including respite and symptom management, on a 24-hour basis to individuals requiring such care pursuant to the orders of a physician.
Industrialized building. A combination of one or more sections or modules, subject to state regulations and including the necessary electrical, plumbing, heating, ventilating and other service systems, manufactured off-site and transported to the point of use for installation or erection, with or without other specified components, to comprise a finished building. Manufactured homes shall not be considered industrialized buildings for the purpose of this code.
Laboratory suite. A fire-rated enclosed laboratory area that will provide one or more laboratory spaces, within a Group B educational occupancy, that are permitted to include ancillary uses such as offices, bathrooms, and corridors that are contiguous with the laboratory area and are constructed in accordance with Section 430.3.
LBBCA. Local board of building code appeals.
Liquid fertilizer. A fluid in which a fertilizer is in true solution. This term does not include anhydrous ammonia or a solution used in pollution control.
Local building department. The agency or agencies of any local governing body charged with the administration, supervision, or enforcement of this code, approval of construction documents, inspection of buildings or structures, or issuance of permits, licenses, certificates or similar documents.
Local governing body. The governing body of any city, county or town in this Commonwealth.
Locality. A city, county or town in this Commonwealth.
Manufactured home. A structure subject to federal regulation, which is transportable in one or more sections; is eight body feet or more in width and 40 body feet or more in length in the traveling mode, or is 320 or more square feet when erected on site; is built on a permanent chassis; is designed to be used as a single-family dwelling, with or without a permanent foundation, when connected to the required utilities; and includes the plumbing, heating, air-conditioning, and electrical systems contained in the structure.
Marina. Any installation, operating under public or private ownership, that has a structure providing dockage or moorage for boats, other than paddleboats or rowboats, and provides, through sale, rental, fee, or on a free basis, any equipment, supply, or service, including fuel, electricity, or water, for the convenience of the public or its lessees, renters, or users of its facilities. A dock or pier with or without slips that exclusively serves a single-family residential lot for the use of the owner of the lot is not a marina.
Night club. Any building in which the main use is a place of public assembly that provides exhibition, performance or other forms of entertainment; serves alcoholic beverages; and provides music and space for dancing.
Permissible fireworks. Any sparklers, fountains, Pharaoh's serpents, caps for pistols, or pinwheels commonly known as whirligigs or spinning jennies.
Short-term holding area. An area containing a holding cell or cells, or a holding room or rooms, including associated rooms or spaces where the occupants are restrained or detained by the use of security measures not under the occupant's control for less than 24 hours.
Skirting. A weather-resistant material used to enclose the space from the bottom of the manufactured home to grade.
Slip. A berth or space where a boat may be secured to a fixed or floating structure, including a dock, finger pier, boat lift, or mooring buoy.
Sound transmission class (STC) rating. A single number characterizing the sound reduction performance of a material tested in accordance with ASTM E90-90, "Laboratory Measurement of Airborne Sound Transmission Loss of Building Partitions."
State regulated care facility (SRCF). A building with an occupancy in Group R-2, R-3, R-4 or R-5 occupied by persons in the care of others where program oversight is provided by the Virginia Department of Social Services, the Virginia Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, the Virginia Department of Education or the Virginia Department of Juvenile Justice.
State Review Board. The Virginia State Building Code Technical Review Board as established under § 36-108 of the Code of Virginia.
Teaching and research laboratory. A building or portion of a building where hazardous materials are stored, used, and handled for the purpose of testing, analysis, teaching, research, or developmental activities on a nonproduction basis rather than in a manufacturing process.
Technical assistant. Any person employed by or under an extended contract to a local building department or local enforcing agency for enforcing the USBC, including but not limited to inspectors and plans reviewers. For the purpose of this definition, an extended contract shall be a contract with an aggregate term of 18 months or longer.
Tenable environmental. An environment in which the products of combustion, including smoke, toxic gases, particulates, and heat, are limited or otherwise restricted in order to maintain the impact on occupants, including those in the area of fire origin, to a level that is not life threatening and permits the rescue of occupants for a limited time.
Unsafe building or structure. Any building or structure that is under construction and has not received a permanent certificate of occupancy, final inspection, or for which a permit was never issued or has expired and has been determined by the building official to be of faulty construction that is so damaged, decayed, dilapidated, structurally unsafe, or of such faulty construction or unstable foundation that partial or complete collapse is likely, or any unfinished construction that does not have a valid permit, or the permit has been revoked, and the condition of the unfinished construction presents an immediate serious and imminent threat to the life and safety of the occupants or the public.
VADR. The Virginia Amusement Device Regulations (13VAC5-31).
VCS. The Virginia Certification Standards (13VAC5-21).
Working day. A day other than Saturday, Sunday or a legal local, state or national holiday.
B. Change the following definitions in Section 202 of the IBC to read:
24-hour basis. The actual time that a person is an occupant within a facility for the purpose of receiving care. It shall not include a facility that is open for 24 hours and is capable of providing care to someone visiting the facility during any segment of the 24 hours.
Addition. An extension or increase in floor area, number of stories, or height of a building or structure.
Ambulatory health care facility. Buildings or portions thereof used to provide medical care on less than a 24-hour basis that are licensed by the Virginia Department of Health as outpatient surgical hospitals.
Automatic fire-extinguishing system. An approved system of devices and equipment that automatically detects a fire and discharges an approved fire-extinguishing agent onto or in the area of a fire and includes among other systems an automatic sprinkler system, unless otherwise expressly stated.
Building. A combination of materials, whether portable or fixed, having a roof to form a structure for the use or occupancy by persons, or property. The word "building" shall be construed as though followed by the words "or part or parts thereof" unless the context clearly requires a different meaning. "Building" shall not include roadway tunnels and bridges owned by the Virginia Department of Transportation, which shall be governed by construction and design standards approved by the Virginia Commonwealth Transportation Board.
For application of this code, each portion of a building that is completely separated from other portions by fire walls complying with Section 706 shall be considered as a separate building (see Section 503.1).
Change of occupancy. A change in the use or occupancy of any building or structure that would place the building or structure in a different division of the same group of occupancies or in a different group of occupancies or a change in the purpose or level of activity within a building or structure that involves a change in application of the requirements of this code.
Clinic, outpatient. Buildings or portions thereof used to provide medical care on less than a 24-hour basis that are not licensed by the Virginia Department of Health as outpatient surgical hospitals.
Custodial care. Assistance with day-to-day living tasks, such as assistance with cooking, taking medication, bathing, using toilet facilities, and other tasks of daily living. In other than in hospice facilities, custodial care includes occupants that have the ability to respond to emergency situations and evacuate at a slower rate or who have mental and psychiatric complications, or both.
Group home. A facility for social rehabilitation or substance abuse or mental health problems that contains a group housing arrangement that provides custodial care but does not provide medical care.
Existing structure. A structure (i) for which a legal building permit has been issued under any edition of the USBC, (ii) which has been previously approved, or (iii) which was built prior to the initial edition of the USBC. For application of provisions in flood hazard areas, an existing structure is any building or structure for which the start of construction commenced before the effective date of the community's first flood plain management code, ordinance, or standard.
Owner. The owner or owners of the freehold of the premises or lesser estate therein, a mortgagee or vendee in possession, assignee of rents, receiver, executor, trustee or lessee in control of a building or structure.
Registered Design Professional (RDP). An architect or professional engineer, licensed to practice architecture or engineering, as defined under § 54.1-400 of the Code of Virginia.
Substantial damage. For the purpose of determining compliance with the flood provisions of this code, damage of any origin sustained by a structure whereby the cost of restoring the structure to its before-damaged condition would equal or exceed 50% of the market value of the structure before the damage occurred.
Substantial improvement. For the purpose of determining compliance with the flood provisions of this code, any improvement, including repair, reconstruction, rehabilitation, alteration, or addition, or other improvement of a building or structure or a portion thereof the cost of which equals or exceeds 50% of the market value of the building or structure before the improvement or repair is started. If the building or structure or portion thereof has sustained substantial damage, any improvements are considered substantial improvements regardless of the actual improvement performed. The term does not, however, include either:
1. Any project for improvement of a building or a structure or portion thereof required to correct existing health, sanitary, or safety code violations identified by the building official and that is the minimum necessary to assure safe living conditions; or
2. Any alteration of a historic structure, provided that the alteration will not preclude the building or structure's continued designation as a historic building or structure.
Swimming pool. An aquatic vessel A pool or spa as defined in the International Swimming Pool and Spa Code (ISPSC).
Structure. An assembly of materials forming a construction for occupancy or use including stadiums, gospel and circus tents, reviewing stands, platforms, stagings, observation towers, radio towers, water tanks, storage tanks (underground and aboveground), trestles, piers, wharves, swimming pools, amusement devices, storage bins, and other structures of this general nature but excluding water wells. The word "structure" shall be construed as though followed by the words "or part or parts thereof" unless the context clearly requires a different meaning. "Structure" shall not include roadway tunnels and bridges owned by the Virginia Department of Transportation, which shall be governed by construction and design standards approved by the Virginia Commonwealth Transportation Board.
C. Delete the following definitions from Section 202 of the IBC:
Agricultural, building
Existing structure (For Chapter 34)
Approved
Historic buildings
13VAC5-63-210. Chapter 3 Use and occupancy classification.
A. Change Sections 303.1.1 and 303.1.2 of the IBC to read:
303.1.1 Small buildings and tenant spaces. A building or tenant space used for assembly purposes with an occupant load of less than 50 persons shall be permitted to be classified as a Group B occupancy.
303.1.2 Small assembly spaces. The following rooms and spaces shall be permitted to be classified as Group B occupancies or as part of the assembly occupancy:
1. A room or space used for assembly purposes with an occupant load of less than 50 persons and ancillary to another occupancy.
2. A room or space used for assembly purposes that is less than 750 square feet (70 m2) in area and ancillary to another occupancy.
B. Change Section 303.6 of the IBC to read:
303.6 Assembly Group A-5. Assembly uses intended for participation in or viewing outdoor activities including, but not limited to:
Amusement park structures
Bleachers
Grandstands
Stadiums
Swimming pools
C. Add Section 304.1.1 to the IBC to read:
304.1.1 Day support and day treatment facilities. Day support and day treatment facilities licensed by the Virginia Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services shall be permitted to be classified as Group B occupancies provided all of the following conditions are met:
1. Participants who may require physical assistance from staff to respond to an emergency situation shall be located on the level of exit discharge.
2. Any change in elevation within the exit access on the level of exit discharge shall be made by means of a ramp or sloped walkway.
3. Where the facilities are located more than two stories above grade, an automatic sprinkler system shall be provided throughout the building in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1.
B. D. Change exception 13 14 of Section 307.1 307.1.1 of the IBC and add exception 15 to Section 307.1.1 of the IBC to read:
13. 14. The storage of black powder, smokeless propellant and small arms primers in Groups M, R-3 and R-5 and special industrial explosive devices in Groups B, F, M and S, provided such storage conforms to the quantity limits and requirements prescribed in the IFC, as amended in Section 307.9.
15. The storage of distilled spirits and wines in wooden barrels and casks. Distillation, blending, bottling, and other hazardous materials storage or processing shall be in separate control areas complying with Section 414.2.
C. E. Change the "Consumer fireworks" row in and "Flammable liquid, combination (IA, IB, IC)" row in Table 307.1(1), add a new "Permissible fireworks" row to Table 307.1(1) of the IBC, and add footnote "r" to Table 307.1(1) of the IBC to read:
Consumer fireworks | 1.4G | H-3 | 125e,l | N/A | N/A | N/A | N/A | N/A | N/A | N/A |
Flammable liquid, combination (IA, IB, IC) | NA | H-2 or H-3 | NA | 120d,e,h | NA | NA | 120d,h | NA | NA | 30d,h,r |
Permissible fireworks | 1.4G | H-3 | 125d,e,l | N/A NA | N/A NA | N/A NA | N/A NA | N/A NA | N/A NA | N/A NA |
r. The tabular value for distilled spirit distillation and blending rooms is 120 gallons. |
D. F. Add Section 307.9 to the IBC to read:
307.9 Amendments. The following changes shall be made to the IFC for the use of Exception 13 14 in Section 307.1 307.1.1:
1. Change the following definition in Section 202 of the IFC to read:
Smokeless propellants. Solid propellants, commonly referred to as smokeless powders, or any propellants classified by DOTn as smokeless propellants in accordance with NA3178 (Smokeless Powder for Small Arms), used in small arms ammunition, firearms, cannons, rockets, propellant-actuated devices, and similar articles.
2. Change Section 314.1 of the IFC to read as follows:
314.1 General. Indoor displays constructed within any building or structure shall comply with Sections 314.2 through 314.5.
3. Add new Section 314.5 to the IFC to read as follows:
314.5 Smokeless powder and small arms primers. Vendors shall not store, display or sell smokeless powder or small arms primers during trade shows inside exhibition halls except as follows:
1. The amount of smokeless powder each vender may store is limited to the storage arrangements and storage amounts established in Section 5606.5.2.1.
2. Smokeless powder shall remain in the manufacturer's original sealed container and the container shall remain sealed while inside the building. The repackaging of smokeless powder shall not be performed inside the building. Damaged containers shall not be repackaged inside the building and shall be immediately removed from the building in such manner to avoid spilling any powder.
3. There shall be at least 50 feet separation between vendors and 20 feet from any exit.
4. Small arms primers shall be displayed and stored in the manufacturer's original packaging and in accordance with the requirements of Section 5606.5.2.3.
4. Change Exception 4 and add Exceptions 10 and 11 to Section 5601.1 of the IFC as follows:
4. The possession, storage and use of not more than 15 pounds (6.75 kg) of commercially manufactured sporting black powder, 20 pounds (9 kg) of smokeless powder and any amount of small arms primers for hand loading of small arms ammunition for personal consumption.
10. The display of small arms primers in Group M when in the original manufacturer's packaging.
11. The possession, storage and use of not more than 50 pounds (23 kg) of commercially manufactured sporting black powder, 100 pounds (45 kg) of smokeless powder, and small arms primers for hand loading of small arms ammunition for personal consumption in Group R-3 or R-5, or 200 pounds (91 kg) of smokeless powder when stored in the manufacturer's original containers in detached Group U structures at least 10 feet (3048 mm) from inhabited buildings and are accessory to Group R-3 or R-5.
5. Change Section 5606.4 of the IFC to read as follows:
5606.4 Storage in residences. Propellants for personal use in quantities not exceeding 50 pounds (23 kg) of black powder or 100 pounds (45 kg) of smokeless powder shall be stored in original containers in occupancies limited to Group R-3 and R-5 or 200 pounds (91 kg) of smokeless powder when stored in the manufacturer's original containers in detached Group U structures at least 10 feet (3048 mm) from inhabited buildings and are accessory to Group R-3 or R-5. In other than Group R-3 or R-5, smokeless powder in quantities exceeding 20 pounds (9 kg) but not exceeding 50 pounds (23 kg) shall be kept in a wooden box or cabinet having walls of at least one inch (25 mm) nominal thickness or equivalent.
6. Delete Sections 5606.4.1 and 5606.4.2 of the IFC.
7. Change Section 5606.5.1.1 of the IFC to read as follows:
5606.5.1.1 Smokeless propellant. No more than 100 pounds (45 kg) of smokeless propellants in containers of eight pounds (3.6 kg) or less capacity shall be displayed in Group M occupancies.
8. Delete Section 5606.5.1.3 of the IFC.
9. Change Section 5606.5.2.1 of the IFC as follows:
5606.5.2.1 Smokeless propellant. Commercial stocks of smokeless propellants shall be stored as follows:
1. Quantities exceeding 20 pounds (9 kg), but not exceeding 100 pounds (45 kg) shall be stored in portable wooden boxes having walls of at least one inch (25 mm) nominal thickness or equivalent.
2. Quantities exceeding 100 pounds (45 kg), but not exceeding 800 pounds (363 kg), shall be stored in storage cabinets having walls at least one inch (25 mm) nominal thickness or equivalent. Not more than 400 pounds (182 kg) shall be stored in any one cabinet, and cabinets shall be separated by a distance of at least 25 feet (7620 mm) or by a fire partition having a fire-resistance rating of at least one hour.
3. Storage of quantities exceeding 800 pounds (363 kg), but not exceeding 5,000 pounds (2270 kg) in a building shall comply with all of the following:
3.1. The storage is inaccessible to unauthorized personnel.
3.2. Smokeless propellant shall be stored in nonportable storage cabinets having wood walls at least one inch (25 mm) nominal thickness or equivalent and having shelves with no more than 3 feet (914 mm) of vertical separation between shelves.
3.3. No more than 400 pounds (182 kg) is stored in any one cabinet.
3.4. Cabinets shall be located against walls with at least 40 feet (12 192 mm) between cabinets. The minimum required separation between cabinets may be reduced to 20 feet (6096 mm) provided that barricades twice the height of the cabinets are attached to the wall, midway between each cabinet. The barricades must extend a minimum of 10 feet (3048 mm) outward, be firmly attached to the wall, and be constructed of steel not less than 0.25 inch thick (6.4 mm), 2-inch (51 mm) nominal thickness wood, brick, or concrete block.
3.5. Smokeless propellant shall be separated from materials classified as combustible liquids, flammable liquids, flammable solids, or oxidizing materials by a distance of 25 feet (7620 mm) or by a fire partition having a fire-resistance rating of 1 hour.
3.6. The building shall be equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1.
4. Smokeless propellants not stored according to Item 1, 2, or 3 above shall be stored in a Type 2 or 4 magazine in accordance with Section 5604 and NFPA 495.
E. G. Add the following to the list of terms in Section 308.2 of the IBC:
Hospice facility
F. H. Change Section 308.3 of the IBC to read:
308.3 Institutional Group I-1. This occupancy shall include buildings, structures or portions thereof for more than 16 persons, excluding staff, who reside on a 24-hour basis in a supervised environment and receive custodial care. Buildings of Group I-1, other than assisted living facilities licensed by the Virginia Department of Social Services, shall be classified as the occupancy condition indicated in Section 308.3.1. Assisted living facilities licensed by the Virginia Department of Social Services shall be classified as one of the occupancy conditions indicated in Section 308.3.1 or 308.3.2. This group shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
Alcohol and drug centers
Assisted living facilities
Congregate care facilities
Group homes
Halfway houses
Residential board and care facilities
Social rehabilitation facilities
G. I. Change Sections 308.3.1 and 308.3.2 of the IBC to read:
308.3.1 Condition 1. This occupancy condition shall include buildings in which all persons receiving custodial care who, without any assistance, are capable of responding to an emergency situation to complete building evacuation. Not more than five of the residents may require physical assistance from staff to respond to an emergency situation when all residents who may require the physical assistance reside on a single level of exit discharge.
308.3.2 Condition 2. This occupancy condition shall include buildings in which there are persons receiving custodial care who require assistance by not more than one staff member while responding to an emergency situation to complete building evacuation. Five of the residents may require physical assistance from more than one staff member to respond to an emergency.
H. Add Sections 308.3.3 and 308.3.4 to the IBC to read:
308.3.3 Six to 16 persons receiving custodial care. A facility housing not fewer than six and not more than 16 persons receiving custodial care shall be classified as Group R-4.
308.3.4 Five or fewer persons receiving custodial care. A facility with five or fewer persons receiving custodial care shall be classified as Group R-3 or shall comply with the IRC provided an automatic sprinkler system is installed in accordance with Section 903.3.1.3 or with Section P2904 of the IRC.
I. J. Change Section 308.4 of the IBC to read:
308.4 Group I-2. This occupancy shall include buildings and structures used for medical care on a 24-hour basis for more than five persons who are incapable of self-preservation. This group shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
Convalescent facilities
Detoxification facilities
Foster care facilities
Hospice facilities
Hospitals
Nursing homes
Psychiatric hospitals
Exception: Hospice facilities occupied by 16 or less occupants, excluding staff, are permitted to be classified as Group R-4.
J. K. Add an exception to Section 308.6 of the IBC to read:
Exception: Family day homes under Section 310.9.
K. L. Change Section 310.3 of the IBC to read:
310.3 Residential Group R-1. Residential occupancies containing sleeping units where the occupants are primarily transient in nature, including:
Boarding houses (transient) with more than 10 occupants
Congregate living facilities (transient) with more than 10 occupants
Hotels (transient)
Motels (transient)
Exceptions:
1. Nonproprietor occupied bed and breakfast and other transient boarding facilities not more than three stories above grade plane in height with a maximum of 10 occupants total are permitted to be classified as either Group R-3 or R-5 provided that smoke alarms are installed in compliance with Section 907.2.11.2 for Group R-3 or Section R314 of the IRC for Group R-5.
2. Proprietor occupied bed and breakfast and other transient boarding facilities not more than three stories above grade plane in height, that are also occupied as the residence of the proprietor, with a maximum of five guest room sleeping units provided for the transient occupants are permitted to be classified as either Group R-3 or R-5 provided that smoke alarms are installed in compliance with Section 907.2.11.2 for Group R-3 or Section R314 of the IRC for Group R-5.
L. M. Change Section 310.6 of the IBC to read:
310.6 Residential Group R-4. This occupancy shall include buildings, structures or portions thereof for more than five but not more than 16 persons, excluding staff, who reside on a 24-hour basis in a supervised environment and receive custodial care. Buildings of Group R-4, other than assisted living facilities licensed by the Virginia Department of Social Services, shall be classified as the occupancy condition indicated in Section 310.6.1. Assisted living facilities licensed by the Virginia Department of Social Services shall be classified as one of the occupancy conditions indicated in Section 310.6.1 or 310.6.2. This group shall include, but not be limited to the following:
Alcohol and drug centers
Assisted living facilities
Congregate care facilities
Group homes
Halfway houses
Residential board and care facilities
Social rehabilitation facilities
This occupancy shall also include hospice facilities with not more than 16 occupants, excluding staff.
Group R-4 occupancies shall meet the requirements for construction as defined for Group R-3, except as otherwise provided for in this code.
Exceptions:
1. Group homes licensed by the Virginia Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services that house no more than eight persons with one or more resident counselors shall be classified as Group R-2, R-3, R-4 or R-5. Not more than five of the persons may require physical assistance from staff to respond to an emergency situation.
2. In Group R-4 occupancies classified as the occupancy condition indicated in Section 310.6.1, other than in hospice facilities, not more than five of the residents may require physical assistance from staff to respond to an emergency situation when all residents who may require the physical assistance from staff reside on a single level of exit discharge and other than using a ramp, a change of elevation using steps or stairs is not within the path of egress to an exit door.
3. Assisted living facilities licensed by the Virginia Department of Social Services that house no more than eight persons, with one or more resident counselors, and all of the residents are capable of responding to an emergency situation without physical assistance from staff, may be classified as Group R-2, R-3 or R-5.
4. Assisted living facilities licensed by the Virginia Department of Social Services that house no more than eight persons, with one or more resident counselors, may be classified as Group R-5 when in compliance with all of the following:
4.1. The building is protected by an automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with Section 903.3 or Section P2904 of the IRC.
4.2. Not more than five of the residents may require physical assistance from staff to respond to an emergency situation.
4.3. All residents who may require physical assistance from staff to respond to an emergency situation reside on a single level of exit discharge and other than using a ramp, a change in elevation using steps or stairs is not within the path of egress to an exit door.
5. Hospice facilities with five or fewer occupants are permitted to comply with the IRC provided the building is protected by an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with IRC Section P2904 or IBC Section 903.3.
M. N. Add Sections 310.6.1 and 310.6.2 to the IBC to read:
310.6.1 Condition 1. This occupancy condition shall include buildings in which all persons receiving custodial care who, without any assistance, are capable of responding to an emergency situation to complete building evacuation and hospice facilities.
310.6.2 Condition 2. This occupancy condition shall include buildings in which there are persons receiving custodial care who require assistance by not more than one staff member while responding to an emergency situation to complete building evacuation.
N. O. Add Section 310.7 to the IBC to read:
310.7 Residential Group R-5. Residential occupancies in detached single-family and two-family dwellings, townhouses and accessory structures within the scope of the IRC.
O. P. Add Section 310.8 to the IBC to read:
310.8 Group R-5. The construction of Group R-5 structures shall comply with the IRC. The amendments to the IRC set out in Section 310.11 shall be made to the IRC for its use as part of this code. In addition, all references to the IRC in the IBC shall be considered to be references to this section.
P. Q. Add Section 310.8.1 to the IBC to read:
310.8.1 Additional requirements. Methods of construction, materials, systems, equipment or components for Group R-5 structures not addressed by prescriptive or performance provisions of the IRC shall comply with applicable IBC requirements.
Q. R. Add Section 310.9 to the IBC to read:
310.9 Family day homes. Family day homes where program oversight is provided by the Virginia Department of Social Services shall be classified as Group R-2, R-3 or R-5.
Note: Family day homes may generally care for up to 12 children. See the DHCD Related Laws Package for additional information.
R. S. Add Section 310.10 to the IBC to read:
310.10 Radon-resistant construction in Groups R-3 and R-4 structures. Groups R-3 and R-4 structures shall be subject to the radon-resistant construction requirements in Appendix F of the IRC in localities enforcing such requirements pursuant to Section R324 of the IRC.
S. T. Add Section 310.11 to the IBC to read:
310.11 Amendments to the IRC. The following changes shall be made to the IRC for its use as part of this code:
1. Add the following definitions to read:
Living area. Space within a dwelling unit utilized for living and entertainment, including family rooms, great rooms, living rooms, dens, media rooms, and similar spaces.
Nonpotable fixtures and outlets. Fixtures and outlets that are not dependent on potable water for the safe operation to perform their intended use. Such fixtures and outlets may include, but are not limited to water closets, urinals, irrigation, mechanical equipment, and hose connections to perform operations, such as vehicle washing and lawn maintenance.
Nonpotable water systems. Water systems for the collection, treatment, storage, distribution, and use or reuse of nonpotable water. Nonpotable systems include reclaimed water, rainwater, and gray water systems.
Rainwater. Natural precipitation, including snow melt, from roof surfaces only.
Stormwater. Precipitation that is discharged across the land surface or through conveyances to one or more waterways and that may include stormwater runoff, snow melt runoff, and surface runoff and drainage.
2. Change the following definitions to read:
Attic, habitable. A finished or unfinished area, not considered a story, complying with all of the following requirements:
1. The occupiable floor area is at least 70 square feet (17 m2), in accordance with Section R304,
2. The occupiable floor area has a ceiling height in accordance with Section R305, and
3. The occupiable space is enclosed by the roof assembly above, knee walls (if applicable) on the sides and the floor-ceiling assembly below.
Habitable attics greater than two-thirds of the area of the story below or over 400 square feet (37.16 m2) shall not be permitted in dwellings or townhouses that are three stories above grade plane in height.
Gray water. Water discharged from lavatories, bathtubs, showers, clothes washers, and laundry trays.
3. Change Section R301.2.1 to read:
R301.2.1 Wind design criteria. Buildings and portions thereof shall be constructed in accordance with the wind provisions of this code using the basic ultimate design wind speed in Table R301.2(1) as determined from Figure R301.2(4)A. The structural provisions of this code for wind loads are not permitted where wind design is required as specified in Section R301.2.1.1. Where different construction methods and structural materials are used for various portions of a building, the applicable requirements of this section for each portion shall apply. Where not otherwise specified, the wind loads listed in Table R301.2(2) adjusted for height and exposure using Table R301.2(3) shall be used to determine design load performance requirements for wall coverings, curtain walls, roof coverings, exterior windows, skylights, garage doors, and exterior doors. Asphalt shingles shall be designed for wind speeds in accordance with Section R905.2.4. A continuous load path shall be provided to transmit the applicable uplift forces in Section R802.11.1 from the roof assembly to the foundation. Wind speeds for localities in special wind regions, near mountainous terrain, and near gorges shall be based on elevation. Areas at 4,000 feet in elevation or higher shall use the nominal design wind speed of 110 V mph (48.4 m/s) and areas under 4,000 feet in elevation shall use nominal design wind speed of 90 V mph (39.6 m/s). Gorge areas shall be based on the highest recorded speed per locality or in accordance with local jurisdiction requirements determined in accordance with Section 26.5.1 of ASCE 7.
4. Add Exception Exceptions 6 and 7 to Section R302.1 to read:
6. Decks and open porches.
7. Walls of dwellings and accessory structures located on lots in subdivisions or zoning districts where building setbacks established by local ordinance prohibit the walls of the structures on adjacent lots from being closer than 10 feet (3048 mm) to each other at any point along the exterior walls.
5. Change the exception in Section R302.2 to require a common two-hour fire-resistance-rated wall instead of a one-hour fire-resistance-rated wall, unless the townhouse development is fully sprinklered as provided for in Section R313.1, in which case a common one-hour fire-resistive-rated wall shall be permitted between townhouses.
6. 5. Add the following sentence to the end of Section R302.3 to read:
Dwelling unit separation wall assemblies that are constructed on a lot line shall be constructed as required in Section R302.2 for townhouses.
7. 6. Change Section R302.5.1 to read:
R302.5.1 Opening protection. Openings from a private garage directly into a room used for sleeping purposes shall not be permitted. Other openings between the garage and residence shall be equipped with solid wood doors not less than 1-3/8 inches (35 mm) thickness, solid or honeycomb-core steel doors not less than 1-3/8 inches (35 mm) thick, or 20-minute fire-rated doors.
7. Change Section R303.4 to read:
R303.4 Mechanical ventilation. Dwelling units shall be provided with mechanical ventilation in accordance with Section M1507.
8. Add an exception to Section R303.9 to read:
Exception: Seasonal structures not used as a primary residence for more than 90 days per year, unless rented, leased or let on terms expressed or implied to furnish heat, shall not be required to comply with this section.
9. Add Section R303.9.1 to read:
R303.9.1 Nonowner occupied required heating. Every dwelling unit or portion thereof which is to be rented, leased or let on terms either expressed or implied to furnish heat to the occupants thereof shall be provided with facilities in accordance with Section R303.9 during the period from October 15 to May 1.
10. Add Section R303.10 to read:
R303.10 Insect screens. Every door, window and other outside opening required for ventilation purposes shall be supplied with approved tightly fitted screens of not less than 16 mesh per inch (16 mesh per 25 mm) and every screen door used for insect control shall have a self-closing device.
11. Add Section R306.5 to read:
R306.5 Water supply sources and sewage disposal systems. The water and drainage system of any building or premises where plumbing fixtures are installed shall be connected to a public or private water supply and a public or private sewer system. As provided for in Section 103.10 of Part I of the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63), for functional design, water supply sources and sewage disposal systems are regulated and approved by the Virginia Department of Health and the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality.
Note: See also the Memorandums of Agreement in the "Related Laws Package," which is available from the Virginia Department of Housing and Community Development.
12. Change Section R310.1 to read:
R310.1 Emergency escape and rescue opening required. Basements, habitable attics, and every sleeping room designated on the construction documents shall have at least not less than one operable emergency escape and rescue opening. Where basements contain one or more sleeping rooms, an emergency egress and rescue openings opening shall be required in each sleeping room. Where emergency escape and rescue openings are provided, they shall have a sill height of not more than 44 inches (1118 mm) measured from the finished floor to the bottom of the clear opening. Where a door opening having a threshold below the adjacent ground elevation serves as an emergency escape and rescue opening and is provided with a bulkhead enclosure, the bulkhead enclosure shall comply with Section R310.3. The net clear opening dimensions required by this section shall be obtained by the normal operation of the emergency escape and rescue opening from the inside, except that tilt-out or removable sash designed windows shall be permitted to be used. Emergency escape and rescue openings with a finished height below the adjacent ground elevation shall be provided with a window well in accordance with Section R310.2. Emergency escape and rescue openings shall open directly into a public way, or to a yard or court that opens to a public way.
Exceptions:
1. Dwelling units equipped throughout with an approved automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with NFPA 13, 13R, or 13D or Section P2904.
2. Basements Storm shelters and basements used only to house mechanical equipment and not exceeding total floor area of 200 square feet (18.58 m2).
13. Change Section R310.1.1 R310.2.1 to read:
R310.1.1 R310.2.1 Minimum opening area. All emergency Emergency and escape and rescue openings shall have a minimum net clear opening of not less than 5.7 square feet (0.530 m2). The net clear opening dimensions required by this section shall be obtained by the normal operation of the emergency escape and rescue opening from the inside, including the tilting or removal of the sash as the normal operation to comply with Sections R310.1.2 and R310.1.3. The net clear height opening shall be not less than 24 inches (610 mm), and the net clear width shall be not less than 20 inches (508 mm).
Exception: Grade floor or below grade openings shall have a minimum net clear opening of not less than 5 square feet (0.465 m2).
14. Add Section R311.2.1 to read:
R311.2.1 Interior passage. Where a dwelling unit has both a kitchen and a living or entertainment area on the same level as the egress door required by Section R311.2, an interior passage route shall be provided from such egress door to the kitchen and the living or entertainment area and to at least one bedroom and at least one bathroom containing a water closet, lavatory and bathtub or shower, where such rooms are provided on that same level. Any doors or cased openings along such interior passage route providing access to the areas identified above shall comply with the following.
1. Cased openings shall provide a minimum 34-inch clear width.
2. Doors shall be, at a minimum, nominal 34-inch doors.
Exceptions:
1. Where a door or cased opening, and its associated molding or trim, is at the end and facing the length of a hallway and the width of the hallway is not wide enough to accommodate such doors or cased openings.
2. Closet doors or cased openings.
3. Pantry door or cased openings.
4. Bathrooms accessed directly from a bedroom that is not required to comply with this section.
15. 14. Change the exception in Section R311.3.1 to read:
Exception: The landing or floor on the exterior side shall not be more than 8-1/4 inches (210 mm) below the top of the threshold provided the door does not swing over the landing or floor.
16. 15. Change Section R311.7.5.1 to read:
R311.7.5.1 Risers. The maximum riser height shall be not more than 8-1/4 inches (210 mm). The riser shall be measured vertically between the leading edges of the adjacent treads. The greatest riser height within any flight of stairs shall not exceed the smallest by more than 3/8 inch (9.5 mm). Risers shall be vertical or sloped from the underside of the nosing of the tread above at an angle not more than 30 degrees (0.51 rad) from the vertical. Open risers are permitted provided that the opening between treads does openings located more than 30 inches (763 mm), as measured vertically, to the floor or grade below do not permit the passage of a 4-inch-diameter (102 mm) sphere.
Exception Exceptions:
1. The opening between adjacent treads is not limited on stairs with a total rise of 30 inches (762 mm) or less spiral stairways.
2. The riser height of spiral stairways shall be in accordance with Section R311.7.10.1.
17. 16. Change Section R311.7.5.2 to read:
R311.7.5.2 Treads. The minimum tread depth shall be not less than 9 inches (229 mm). The tread depth shall be measured horizontally between the vertical planes of the foremost projection of adjacent treads and at a right angle to the tread's leading edge. The greatest tread depth within any flight of stairs shall not exceed the smallest by more than 3/8 inch (9.5 mm).
18. 17. Change Section R311.7.7 to read:
R311.7.7 Stairway walking surface. The walking surface of treads and landings of stairways shall be level or sloped no steeper than one unit vertical in 48 units horizontal (2.0% slope).
19. 18. Change Section R312.2.1 to read:
R312.2.1 Window sills. In dwelling units, where the opening top of the sill of an operable window opening is located more less than 18 inches (457 mm) above the finished floor and greater than 72 inches (1829 mm) above the finished grade or other surface below on the exterior of the building, the lowest part of the clear opening of the window shall be a minimum of 18 inches (457 mm) above the finished floor of the room in which the window is located. Operable sections of windows shall not permit openings that allow passage of a 4-inch-diameter (102 mm) sphere where such openings are located within 18 inches (457 mm) of the finished floor. Exceptions: operable window shall comply with one of the following:
1. Windows whose Operable windows with openings that will not allow a 4-inch-diameter (102 mm) sphere to pass through the opening when where the opening is in its largest opened position.
2. Openings Operable windows that are provided with window fall prevention devices that comply with ASTM F 2090.
3. Windows Operable windows that are provided with window opening control devices that comply with Section R312.2.2.
20. 19. Replace Section R313 with the following:
Section R313.
Automatic Fire Sprinkler Systems.
R313.1 Townhouse automatic fire sprinkler systems. Notwithstanding the requirements of Section 103.8, where installed, an automatic residential fire sprinkler system for townhouses shall be designed and installed in accordance with NFPA 13D or Section P2904.
Exception: An automatic residential fire sprinkler system shall not be required when additions or alterations are made to existing townhouses that do not have an automatic residential fire sprinkler system installed.
R313.2 One-family and two-family dwellings automatic fire sprinkler systems. Notwithstanding the requirements of Section 103.8, where installed, an automatic residential fire sprinkler system shall be designed and installed in accordance with NFPA 13D or Section P2904.
Exception: An automatic residential fire sprinkler system shall not be required for additions or alterations to existing buildings that are not already provided with an automatic residential fire sprinkler system.
21. Change 20. Delete Section R314.2 to read: R314.2.2.
314.2 Smoke detection systems. Household fire alarm systems installed in accordance with NFPA 72 that include smoke alarms, or a combination of smoke detector and audible notification device installed as required by this section for smoke alarms, shall be permitted. The household fire alarm system shall provide the same level of smoke detection and alarm as required by this section for smoke alarms. Where a household fire warning system is installed using a combination of smoke detector and audible notification device(s), the system shall become a permanent fixture of the dwelling unit.
Exception: Where smoke alarms are provided meeting the requirements of Section R314.4.
22. Delete 21. Change Section R314.3.1. R314.7.3 to read:
R314.7.3 Permanent fixture. Where a household fire alarm system is installed, it shall become a permanent fixture of the dwelling unit.
23. Delete 22. Change Section R315.3. R315.1.1 to read:
24. Change Section R315.4 to read:
R315.4 Alarm requirements. Single station carbon R315.1.1 Listings. Carbon monoxide alarms shall be hard wired, plug-in or battery type; listed as complying with UL 2034; and installed in accordance with this code and the manufacturer's installation instructions. Combination carbon monoxide and smoke alarms shall be listed in accordance with UL 2034 and UL 217.
23. Change Section R315.2 to read:
R315.2 Where required. Carbon monoxide alarms shall be provided in accordance with this section.
24. Delete Section R315.2.2.
25. Delete Section R315.5.
26. Change Section R315.6.3 to read:
R315.6.3 Permanent fixture. Where a household carbon monoxide detection system is installed, it shall become a permanent fixture of the occupancy.
25. Add Exception 3 to Section R317.1.4 to read:
3. Deck posts supported by concrete piers or metal pedestals projecting a minimum of one inch (25.4 mm) above a concrete floor or six inches (152 mm) above exposed earth.
26. 27. Add Section R320.2 to read:
R320.2 Universal design features for accessibility in dwellings. Dwellings constructed under the IRC not subject to Section R320.1 may comply with Section 1109.16 of the USBC and be approved by the local building department as dwellings containing universal design features for accessibility.
27. 28. Add Section R324 R327 Radon-Resistant Construction.
28. 29. Add Section R324.1 R327.1 to read:
R324.1 R327.1 Local enforcement of radon requirements. Following official action under Article 7 (§ 15.2-2280 et seq.) of Chapter 22 of Title 15.2 of the Code of Virginia by a locality in areas of high radon potential, as indicated by Zone 1 on the U.S. EPA Map of Radon Zones (IRC Figure AF101), such locality shall enforce the provisions contained in Appendix F.
Exception: Buildings or portions thereof with crawl space foundations which are ventilated to the exterior, shall not be required to provide radon-resistant construction.
29. Add Section R325 Swimming Pools.
30. Add Section R325.1 to read:
R325.1 Swimming pools. In addition to other applicable provisions of this code, swimming pools, as defined in the USBC, shall comply with the applicable provisions of the ISPSC.
31. 30. Add Section R326 R328 Patio Covers.
32. 31. Add Section R326.1 R328.1 to read:
R326.1 R328.1 Use of Appendix H for patio covers. Patio covers shall comply with the provisions in Appendix H.
33. 32. Add Section R327 R329 Sound Transmission.
34. 33. Add Section R327.1 R329.1 to read:
R327.1 R329.1 Sound transmission between dwelling units. Construction assemblies separating dwelling units shall provide airborne sound insulation as required in Appendix K.
35. 34. Add Section R327.2 R329.2 to read:
R327.2 R329.2 Airport noise attenuation. This section applies to the construction of the exterior envelope of detached one-family and two-family dwellings and multiple single-family dwellings (townhouses) not more than three stories high with separate means of egress within airport noise zones when enforced by a locality pursuant to § 15.2-2295 of the Code of Virginia. The exterior envelope of such structures shall comply with Section 1207.4 of the state amendments to the IBC.
36. 35. Add Section R328 R330 Fire Extinguishers.
37. 36. Add Section R328.1 R330.1 to read:
R328.1 R330.1 Kitchen areas. Other than where the dwelling is equipped with an approved sprinkler system in accordance with Section R313, a fire extinguisher having a rating of 2-A:10-B:C or an approved equivalent type of fire extinguisher shall be installed in the kitchen area.
37. Add Section R331 Interior Passage.
38. Add Sections R331.1 through R331.6 to read:
R331.1 General. This section applies to new dwelling units that have both a kitchen and a living area on the same floor level as the egress door required by Section R311.2. This section is not applicable to additions, reconstruction, alteration, or repair.
R331.2 Kitchen. One interior passage route from the egress door to the kitchen shall comply with R331.6.
R331.3 Living area. One interior passage route from the egress door to at least one living area shall comply with R331.6.
R331.4 Bedroom. Where the dwelling unit has a bedroom on the same floor level as the egress door, one interior passage route from the egress door to at least one bedroom shall comply with R331.6.
R331.5 Bathroom. Where a dwelling unit has a bathroom on the same floor level as the egress door, and the bathroom contains a water closet, lavatory, and bathtub or shower, one interior passage route from the egress door to at least one bathroom shall comply with R331.6. Bathroom fixture clearances shall comply with R307 and access to fixtures is not required to comply with R331.6.
R331.6 Opening widths. Opening widths along the interior passage route required by this section shall comply with the following:
1. Cased openings shall provide a minimum 34 inch (864 mm) clear width.
2. Doors shall be a nominal 34 inch (864 mm) minimum width. Double doors are permitted to be used to meet this requirement.
38. 39. Change Section R401.3 to read:
R401.3 Drainage. Surface drainage shall be diverted to a storm sewer conveyance or other approved point of collection that does not create a hazard to the dwelling unit. Lots shall be graded to drain surface water away from foundation walls. The grade shall fall a minimum of six inches (152 mm) within the first 10 feet (3048 mm).
Exception: Where lot lines, walls, slopes or other physical barriers prohibit six inches (152 mm) of fall within 10 feet (3048 mm), drains or swales shall be constructed to ensure drainage away from the structure. Impervious surfaces within 10 feet (3048 mm) of the building foundation shall be sloped a minimum of 2.0% away from the building.
39. Change 40. Add the following exceptions to Section R403.1 to read:
403.1 General. All exterior walls shall be supported on continuous solid or fully grouted masonry or concrete footings, wood foundations, or other approved structural systems that shall be of sufficient design to accommodate all loads according to Section R301 and to transmit the resulting loads to the soil within the limitations as determined from the character of the soil. Footings shall be supported on undisturbed natural soils or engineered fill.
Exceptions:
1. One-story detached accessory structures used as tool and storage sheds, playhouses and similar uses, not exceeding 256 square feet (23.7824 m2) of building area, provided all of the following conditions are met:
1.1. The building eave height is 10 feet or less.
1.2. The maximum height from the finished floor level to grade does not exceed 18 inches.
1.3. The supporting structural elements in direct contact with the ground shall be placed level on firm soil and when such elements are wood they shall be approved pressure preservative treated suitable for ground contact use.
1.4. The structure is anchored to withstand wind loads as required by this code.
1.5. The structure shall be of light-frame construction whose vertical and horizontal structural elements are primarily formed by a system of repetitive wood or light gauge steel framing members, with walls and roof of light weight material, not slate, tile, brick or masonry.
2. Footings are not required for ramps serving dwelling units in Group R-3 and R-5 occupancies where the height of the entrance is no more than 30 inches (762 mm) above grade.
41. Change the indicated rows of Table R502.3.1(1) to read:
Joist Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 psf | Dead Load = 20 psf |
2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum floor joist spans |
(ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 12-3 | 16-2 | 20-8 | 25-1 | 12-3 | 16-2 | 20-8 | 25-1 |
Southern Pine #1 | 11-10 | 15-7 | 19 10 | 24-2 | 11-10 | 15-7 | 18-7 | 22-0 |
Southern Pine #2 | 11-3 | 14-11 | 18-1 | 21-4 | 10-9 | 13-8 | 16-2 | 19-1 |
Southern Pine #3 | 9-2 | 11-6 | 14-0 | 16-6 | 8-2 | 10-3 | 12-6 | 14-9 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 11-2 | 14-8 | 18-9 | 22-10 | 11-2 | 14-8 | 18-9 | 22-10 |
Southern Pine #1 | 10-9 | 14-2 | 18-0 | 21-4 | 10-9 | 13-9 | 16-1 | 19-1 |
Southern Pine #2 | 10-3 | 13-3 | 15-8 | 18-6 | 9-4 | 11-10 | 14-0 | 16-6 |
Southern Pine #3 | 7-11 | 10-0 | 12-1 | 14-4 | 7-1 | 8-11 | 10-10 | 12-10 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 10-6 | 13-10 | 17-8 | 21-6 | 10-6 | 13-10 | 17-8 | 21-6 |
Southern Pine #1 | 10-1 | 13-4 | 16-5 | 19-6 | 9-11 | 12-7 | 14-8 | 17-5 |
Southern Pine #2 | 9-6 | 12-1 | 14-4 | 16-10 | 8-6 | 10-10 | 12-10 | 15-1 |
Southern Pine #3 | 7-3 | 9-1 | 11-0 | 13-1 | 6-5 | 8-2 | 9-10 | 11-8 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 9-9 | 12-10 | 16-5 | 19-11 | 9-9 | 12-10 | 16-5 | 19-8 |
Southern Pine #1 | 9-4 | 12-4 | 14-8 | 17-5 | 8-10 | 11-3 | 13-1 | 15-7 |
Southern Pine #2 | 8-6 | 10-10 | 12-10 | 15-1 | 7-7 | 9-8 | 11-5 | 13-6 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-5 | 8-2 | 9-10 | 11-8 | 5-9 | 7-3 | 8-10 | 10-5 |
42. Change the indicated rows of Table R502.3.1(2) to read:
Joist Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 psf | Dead Load = 20 psf |
2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum floor joist spans |
(ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 11-2 | 14-8 | 18-9 | 22-10 | 11-2 | 14-8 | 18-9 | 22-10 |
Southern Pine #1 | 10-9 | 14-2 | 18-0 | 21-11 | 10-9 | 14-2 | 16-11 | 20-1 |
Southern Pine #2 | 10-3 | 13-6 | 16-2 | 19-1 | 9-10 | 12-6 | 14-9 | 17-5 |
Southern Pine #3 | 8-2 | 10-3 | 12-6 | 14-9 | 7-5 | 9-5 | 11-5 | 13-6 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 10-2 | 13-4 | 17-0 | 20-9 | 10-2 | 13-4 | 17-0 | 20-9 |
Southern Pine #1 | 9-9 | 12-10 | 16-1 | 19-1 | 9-9 | 12-7 | 14-8 | 17-5 |
Southern Pine #2 | 9-4 | 11-10 | 14-0 | 16-6 | 8-6 | 10-10 | 12-10 | 15-1 |
Southern Pine #3 | 7-1 | 8-11 | 10-10 | 12-10 | 6-5 | 8-2 | 9-10 | 11-8 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 9-6 | 12-7 | 16-0 | 19-6 | 9-6 | 12-7 | 16-0 | 19-6 |
Southern Pine #1 | 9-2 | 12-1 | 14-8 | 17-5 | 9-0 | 11-5 | 13-5 | 15-11 |
Southern Pine #2 | 8-6 | 10-10 | 12-10 | 15-1 | 7-9 | 9-10 | 11-8 | 13-9 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-5 | 8-2 | 9-10 | 11-8 | 5-11 | 7-5 | 9-0 | 10-8 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 8-10 | 11-8 | 14-11 | 18-1 | 8-10 | 11-8 | 14-11 | 18-0 |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-6 | 11-3 | 13-1 | 15-7 | 8-1 | 10-3 | 12-0 | 14-3 |
Southern Pine #2 | 7-7 | 9-8 | 11-5 | 13-6 | 7-0 | 8-10 | 10-5 | 12-4 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-9 | 7-3 | 8-10 | 10-5 | 5-3 | 6-8 | 8-1 | 9-6 |
43. Change footnote "b" in Table R502.3.3(1) to read:
b. Spans are based on minimum design properties for No. 2 Grade lumber of Douglas fir-larch, hem-fir, and spruce-pine-fir for repetitive (three or more) members. No. 1 or better grade lumber shall be used for southern pine.
44. Change footnote "a" in Table R502.3.3(2) to read:
a. Spans are based on minimum design properties for No. 2 Grade lumber of Douglas fir-larch, hem-fir, and spruce-pine-fir for repetitive (three or more) members. No. 1 or better grade lumber shall be used for southern pine.
45. Change Section R502.5 to read:
R502.5 Allowable girder and header spans. The allowable spans of girders and headers fabricated of dimension lumber shall not exceed the values set forth in Tables R502.5(1) through R502.5(3).
46. Change the title and footnote "b" of Table R502.5(1) to read:
Table R502.5(1)
Girder Spansa,b and Header Spansa,b for Exterior Bearing Walls
(Maximum Spans for Douglas fir-larch, hem-fir, southern pine, and spruce-pine-firb and required number of jack studs)
b. Spans are based on minimum design properties for No. 2 Grade lumber of Douglas fir-larch, hem-fir, and spruce-pine-fir. No. 1 or better grade lumber shall be used for southern pine.
47. Change the title and footnote "b" of Table R502.5(2) to read:
Table R502.5(2)
Girder Spansa,b and Header Spansa,b for Interior Bearing Walls
(Maximum Spans for Douglas fir-larch, hem-fir, southern pine, and spruce-pine-firb and required number of jack studs)
b. Spans are based on minimum design properties for No. 2 Grade lumber of Douglas fir-larch, hem-fir, and spruce-pine-fir. No. 1 or better grade lumber shall be used for southern pine.
48. Add Table R502.5(3) to read:
Table R502.5(3) Girder and Header Spans a for Porches b, c (Maximum span for southern pine) |
Supporting | Size | Porch Width (ft) |
8 | 14 |
Roof | 2-2x4 | 6'-11" | 5'-3" |
2-2x6 | 9'-11" | 7'-6" |
2-2x8 | 12'-10" | 9'-8" |
2-2x10 | 16'-8" | 12'-7" |
2-2x12 | 19'-6" | 14'-9" |
Floor | 2-2x4 | 5'-1" | 3'-10" |
2-2x6 | 7'-4" | 5'-6" |
2-2x8 | 9'-5" | 7'-1" |
2-2x10 | 12'-2" | 9'-3" |
2-2x12 | 14'-4" | 10'-10" |
For SI: 1 inch = 25.4 mm, 1 foot = 304.8 mm. a. Spans are given in feet and inches. b. Tabulated values based on 30 psf ground snow load, L/240 deflection and No. 2 grade lumber. c. The values of this table shall be equivalent to a roof live load of 20 psf. |
41. Change the exception to Section R408.2 to read:
Exception: The total area of ventilation openings shall be permitted to be reduced to 1/1,500 of the under-floor area where the ground surface is covered with an approved Class I vapor retarder material and the required openings are placed to provide cross ventilation of the space. The installation of operable louvers shall not be prohibited nor shall the required openings need to be within three feet (915 mm) of each corner provided there is cross ventilation of the space.
40. 42. Add Section R408.3.1 to read as follows and delete Section R501.3 in its entirety:
R408.3.1 Termite inspection. Where an unvented crawl space is installed and meets the criteria in Section R408, the vertical face of the sill plate shall be clear and unobstructed and an inspection gap shall be provided below the sill plate along the top of any interior foundation wall covering. The gap shall be a minimum of one inch (25.4 mm) and a maximum of two inches (50.8 mm) in width and shall extend throughout all parts of any foundation that is enclosed. Joints between the sill plate and the top of any interior wall covering may be sealed.
Exceptions:
1. In areas not subject to damage by termites as indicated by Table R301.2(1).
2. Where other approved means are provided to inspect for potential damage.
Where pier and curtain foundations are installed as depicted in Figure R404.1.5(1), the inside face of the rim joist and sill plate shall be clear and unobstructed except for construction joints which may be sealed.
Exception: Fiberglass or similar insulation may be installed if easily removable.
49. 43. Change Section R506.2.1 to read:
R506.2.1 Fill. Fill material shall be free of vegetation and foreign material and shall be natural nonorganic material that is not susceptible to swelling when exposed to moisture. The fill shall be compacted to assure uniform support of the slab, and except where approved, the fill depth shall not exceed 24 inches (610 mm) for clean sand or gravel and 8 inches (203 mm) for earth.
Exception: Material other than natural material may be used as fill material when accompanied by a certification from an RDP and approved by the building official.
50. 44. Change Section R506.2.2 to read:
R506.2.2 Base. A 4-inch-thick (102 mm) base course consisting of clean graded sand, gravel or crushed stone passing a 2-inch (51 mm) sieve shall be placed on the prepared subgrade when the slab is below grade.
Exception: A base course is not required when the concrete slab is installed on well drained or sand-gravel mixture soils classified as Group I according to the United Soil Classification System in accordance with Table R405.1. Material other than natural material may be used as base course material when accompanied by a certification from an RDP and approved by the building official.
51. Change Section R507.1 to read:
R507.1 Decks. Wood-framed decks shall be in accordance with this section or Section R301 for materials and conditions not prescribed in this section. Where supported by attachment to an exterior wall, decks shall be positively anchored to the primary structure and designed for both vertical and lateral loads. Such attachment shall not be accomplished by the use of toenails or nails subject to withdrawal. Where positive connection to the primary building structure cannot be verified during inspection, decks shall be self-supporting. For decks with cantilevered framing members, connections to exterior walls or other framing members shall be designed and constructed to resist uplift resulting from the full live load specified in Table R301.5 acting on the cantilevered portion of the deck.
52. Add Sections R507.4 through R507.8 to read:
R507.4 Decking. Maximum allowable spacing for wood joists supporting decking shall be in accordance with Table R507.4. Wood decking shall be attached to each supporting member with a minimum of two 8d nails or two #8 wood screws.
Table R507.4 Maximum Joist Spacing (inches) |
Material Type and Nominal Size | Maximum Joist Spacing |
Perpendicular to Joist | Diagonal to Joista |
5/4-inch thick wood | 16 | 12 |
2-inch thick wood | 24 | 16 |
Wood/plastic composite | per R507.3 | per R507.3 |
For SI: 1 inch = 25.4 mm a. Maximum angle of 45 degrees from perpendicular for wood deck boards. |
R507.5 Deck joists. Maximum allowable spans for wood deck joists, as shown in Figure R507.5, shall be in accordance with Table R507.5. Deck joist shall be permitted to cantilever a maximum of one-fourth of the actual, adjacent joist span.
Editor's Note: Figures R507.5, R507.6, R507.7.1, R507.8.1, and R602.3(2) in this section shown below this note are being deleted in the proposed action.
Table R507.5 Deck Joist Spansa and Cantileversa for Common Lumber Species |
Speciesb | Size | Allowable Joist Spanc | Allowable Cantileverd,e |
Spacing of deck joists (in.) | Spacing of deck joists (in.) |
12 | 16 | 24 | 12 | 16 | 24 |
Southern pine | 2 x 6 | 9-11 | 9-0 | 7-7 | 1-3 | 1-4 | 1-6 |
2 x 8 | 13-1 | 11-10 | 9-8 | 2-1 | 2-3 | 2-5 |
2 x 10 | 16-2 | 14-0 | 11-5 | 3-4 | 3-6 | 2-10 |
2 x 12 | 18-0 | 16-6 | 13-6 | 4-6 | 4-2 | 3-4 |
Douglas fir-larchf, hem-firf, spruce-pine-firf | 2 x 6 | 9-6 | 8-4 | 6-10 | 1-2 | 1-3 | 1-5 |
2 x 8 | 12-6 | 11-1 | 9-1 | 1-11 | 2-1 | 2-3 |
2 x 10 | 15-8 | 13-7 | 11-1 | 3-1 | 3-5 | 2-9 |
2 x 12 | 18-0 | 15-9 | 12-10 | 4-6 | 3-11 | 3-3 |
Redwood, western cedars, ponderosa pineg, red pineg | 2 x 6 | 8-10 | 8-0 | 6-10 | 1-0 | 1-1 | 1-2 |
2 x 8 | 11-8 | 10-7 | 8-8 | 1-8 | 1-10 | 2-0 |
2 x 10 | 14-11 | 13-0 | 10-7 | 2-8 | 2-10 | 2-8 |
2 x 12 | 17-5 | 15-1 | 12-4 | 3-10 | 3-9 | 3-1 |
For SI: 1 inch = 25.4 mm, 1 foot = 304.8 mm. a. Spans and cantilevers are given in feet and inches. b. No. 2 grade with wet service factor. c. Ground snow load, live load = 40 psf, dead load = 10 psf, L/Δ = 360. d. Ground snow load, live load = 40 psf, dead load = 10 psf, L/Δ = 360 at main span, L/Δ = 180 at cantilever with a 220 pound point load applied to end. e. Maximum allowable cantilever shall not exceed one-fourth of the actual joist span. f. Includes incising factor. g. Northern species with no incising factor. |
R507.5.1 Lateral restraint at supports. Joist ends and bearing locations shall be provided with lateral restraint to prevent rotation. Where lateral restraint is provided by joist hangers or blocking between joists, their depth shall equal not less than 60% of the joist depth. Where lateral restraint is provided by rim joists, they shall be secured to the end of each joist with a minimum of (3)10d (3-inch x 0.128-inch) nails or (3)#10x3 inch (76 mm) long wood screws.
R507.6 Deck beams. Maximum allowable spans for wood deck beams, as shown in Figure R507.6, shall be in accordance with Table R507.6. Beam plies shall be fastened with two rows of 10d (3-inch x 0.128-inch) nails minimum at 16 inches (406 mm) on center along each edge. Beams shall be permitted to cantilever at each end up to one-fourth of the beam span. Splices of multi-span beams shall be located at interior post locations.
Table R507.6 Deck Beam Spana Lengthsb,c |
Speciesd | Sizee | Deck Joist Span (feet) Less Than or Equal To: |
6 | 8 | 10 | 12 | 14 | 16 | 18 |
Southern pine | 2-2x6 | 6-11 | 5-11 | 5-4 | 4-10 | 4-6 | 4-3 | 4-0 |
2-2x8 | 8-9 | 7-7 | 6-9 | 6-2 | 5-9 | 5-4 | 5-0 |
2-2x10 | 10-4 | 9-0 | 8-0 | 7-4 | 6-9 | 6-4 | 6-0 |
2-2x12 | 12-2 | 10-7 | 9-5 | 8-7 | 8-0 | 7-6 | 7-0 |
3-2x6 | 8-2 | 7-5 | 6-8 | 6-1 | 5-8 | 5-3 | 5-0 |
3-2x8 | 10-10 | 9-6 | 8-6 | 7-9 | 7-2 | 6-8 | 6-4 |
3-2x10 | 13-0 | 11-3 | 10-0 | 9-2 | 8-6 | 7-11 | 7-6 |
3-2x12 | 15-3 | 13-3 | 11-10 | 10-9 | 10-0 | 9-4 | 8-10 |
Douglas fir-larchf, hem-firf, spruce-pine-firf, redwood, western cedars, ponderosa pineg, red pineg | 3x6 or 2-2x6 | 5-5 | 4-8 | 4-2 | 3-10 | 3-6 | 3-1 | 2-9 |
3x8 or 2-2x8 | 6-10 | 5-11 | 5-4 | 4-10 | 4-6 | 4-1 | 3-8 |
3x10 or 2-2x10 | 8-4 | 7-3 | 6-6 | 5-11 | 5-6 | 5-1 | 4-8 |
3x12 or 2-2x12 | 9-8 | 8-5 | 7-6 | 6-10 | 6-4 | 5-11 | 5-7 |
4x6 | 6-5 | 5-6 | 4-11 | 4-6 | 4-2 | 3-11 | 3-8 |
4x8 | 8-5 | 7-3 | 6-6 | 5-11 | 5-6 | 5-2 | 4-10 |
4x10 | 9-11 | 8-7 | 7-8 | 7-0 | 6-6 | 6-1 | 5-8 |
4x12 | 11-5 | 9-11 | 8-10 | 8-1 | 7-6 | 7-0 | 6-7 |
3-2x6 | 7-4 | 6-8 | 6-0 | 5-6 | 5-1 | 4-9 | 4-6 |
3-2x8 | 9-8 | 8-6 | 7-7 | 6-11 | 6-5 | 6-0 | 5-8 |
3-2x10 | 12-0 | 10-5 | 9-4 | 8-6 | 7-10 | 7-4 | 6-11 |
3-2x12 | 13-11 | 12-1 | 10-9 | 9-10 | 9-1 | 8-6 | 8-1 |
For SI: 1 inch = 25.4 mm, 1 foot = 304.8 mm. a. Spans are given in feet and inches. b. Ground snow load, live load = 40 psf, dead load = 10 psf, L/Δ = 360 at main span, L/Δ = 180 at cantilever with a 220 pound point load applied at the end. c. Beams supporting deck joists from one side only. d. No. 2 grade, wet service factor. e. Beam depth shall be greater than or equal to depth of joists with a flush beam condition. f. Includes incising factor. g. Northern species with no incising factor. |
R507.7 Deck joist and deck beam bearing. The ends of each joist and beam shall have not less than 1.5 inches (38 mm) of bearing on wood or metal and not less than three inches (76 mm) on concrete or masonry for the entire width of the beam. Joist framing into the side of a ledger board or beam shall be supported by approved joist hangers. Joists bearing on a beam shall be attached to the beam to resist lateral displacement.
R507.7.1 Deck beam to deck post. Deck beams shall be attached to deck posts in accordance with Figure R507.7.1 or by other equivalent means capable to resist lateral displacement. Manufactured post-to-beam connectors shall be sized for the post and beam sizes. All bolts shall have washers under the head and nut.
Exception: Where deck beams bear directly on footings in accordance with Section R507.8.1.
R507.8 Deck posts. For single level wood-framed decks with beams sized in accordance with Table R507.6, deck post size shall be in accordance with Table R507.8.
Table R507.8 Deck Post Heighta (feet) |
Deck Post Size | Maximum Heighta |
4x4 | 8 |
4x6 | 8 |
6x6 | 14 |
For SI: 1 inch = 25.4 mm, 1 foot = 304.8 mm. a. Measured to the underside of the beam. |
R507.8.1 Deck post to deck footing. Posts shall bear on footings in accordance with Section R403 and Figure R507.8.1. Posts shall be restrained to prevent lateral displacement at the footing. Lateral restraint shall be provided by manufactured connectors installed in accordance with the manufacturers' installation instructions or by a minimum post embedment of 12 inches (304.8 mm) in surrounding soils or concrete piers.
Figure R507.8.1
Typical Deck Posts to Deck Footings
53. Change Section R602.3.1 to read:
R602.3.1 Stud size, height, and spacing. The size, height, and spacing of studs shall be in accordance with Table R602.3(5).
Exceptions:
1. Utility grade studs shall not be spaced more than 16 inches (406 mm) on center, shall not support more than a roof and ceiling, and shall not exceed eight feet (2438 mm) in height for exterior walls and load-bearing walls or 10 feet (3048 mm) for interior nonload-bearing walls.
2. Where snow loads are less than or equal to 25 pounds per square foot (1.198 kPa), and the ultimate design wind speed is less than or equal to 130 mph (58.11 m/s), 2-inch by 6-inch (38 mm by 140 mm) studs supporting a roof load with not more than six feet (1829 mm) of tributary length shall have a maximum height of 18 feet (5486 mm) where spaced at 16 inches (406 mm) on center, or 20 feet (6096 mm) where spaced at 12 inches (305 mm) on center. Studs shall be minimum No. 2 grade lumber.
54. Delete Table R602.3.1.
55. Change Figure R602.3(2) to read:
45. Change Table R602.7.1(1) to read:
46. Change Table R602.7(2) to read:
Table R602.7(2) Girder Spansa and Header Spansa for Interior Bearing Walls (Maximum spans for Douglas Fir-Larch, Hem-Fir, Southern Pine, and Spruce-Pine Firb and required number of jack studs) |
Headers and Girders Supporting | Size | Building Widthc (feet) |
12 | 24 | 36 |
Spane | NJd | Spane | NJd | Spane | NJd |
One floor only | 2-2 x 4 | 4-1 | 1 | 2-10 | 1 | 2-4 | 1 |
2-2 x 6 | 6-1 | 1 | 4-4 | 1 | 3-6 | 1 |
2-2 x 8 | 7-9 | 1 | 5-5 | 1 | 4-5 | 2 |
2-2 x 10 | 9-2 | 1 | 6-6 | 2 | 5-3 | 2 |
2-2 x 12 | 10-9 | 1 | 7-7 | 2 | 6-3 | 2 |
3-2 x 8 | 9-8 | 1 | 6-10 | 1 | 5-7 | 1 |
3-2 x 10 | 11-5 | 1 | 8-1 | 1 | 6-7 | 2 |
3-2 x 12 | 13-6 | 1 | 9-6 | 2 | 7-9 | 2 |
4-2 x 8 | 11-2 | 1 | 7-11 | 1 | 6-5 | 1 |
4-2 x 10 | 13-3 | 1 | 9-4 | 1 | 7-8 | 1 |
4-2 x 12 | 15-7 | 1 | 11-0 | 1 | 9-0 | 2 |
Two floors | 2-2 x 4 | 2-7 | 1 | 1-11 | 1 | 1-7 | 1 |
2-2 x 6 | 3-11 | 1 | 2-11 | 2 | 2-5 | 2 |
2-2 x 8 | 5-0 | 1 | 3-8 | 2 | 3-1 | 2 |
2-2 x 10 | 5-11 | 2 | 4-4 | 2 | 3-7 | 2 |
2-2 x 12 | 6-11 | 2 | 5-2 | 2 | 4-3 | 3 |
3-2 x 8 | 6-3 | 1 | 4-7 | 2 | 3-10 | 2 |
3-2 x 10 | 7-5 | 1 | 5-6 | 2 | 4-6 | 2 |
3-2 x 12 | 8-8 | 2 | 6-5 | 2 | 5-4 | 2 |
4-2 x 8 | 7-2 | 1 | 5-4 | 1 | 4-5 | 2 |
4-2 x 10 | 8-6 | 1 | 6-4 | 2 | 5-3 | 2 |
4-2 x 12 | 10-1 | 1 | 7-5 | 2 | 6-2 | 2 |
a. Spans are given in feet and inches. b. Spans are based on the minimum design properties for No. 2 grade lumber of Douglas Fir-Larch, Hem-Fir, Southern Pine, and Spruce-Pine Fir. c. Building width is measured perpendicular to the ridge. For widths between those shown, spans are permitted to be interpolated. d. NJ - Number of jack studs required to support each end. Where the number of required jack studs equals one, the header is permitted to be supported by an approved framing anchor attached to the full-height wall stud and to the header. e. Spans are calculated assuming the top of the header or girder is laterally braced by perpendicular framing. Where the top of the header or girder is not laterally braced (e.g., cripple studs bearing on the header), tabulated spans for headers consisting of 2x8, 2x10, or 2x12 sizes shall be multiplied by 0.70 or the header shall be designed. |
56. Change the column entries under the heading "Wood Species" in Table R602.7.1 to read:
Spruce-Pine-Fir Hem-Fir Douglas-Fir or No. 1 Grade Southern Pine |
57. Add Section R602.7.4 to read:
R602.7.4 Supports for headers. Headers shall be supported on each end with one or more jack studs in accordance with Table R505.5(1) or Table R502.5(2). A king stud shall be adjacent to the jack stud on each end of the header and nailed at each end of the header with 4-12d nails.
58. 47. Change Section R602.10 to read:
R602.10 Wall bracing. Buildings shall be braced in accordance with this section or Section R602.12. Where a building, or portion thereof, does not comply with one or more of the bracing requirements in this section, those portions shall be designed and constructed in accordance with Section R301.1.
The building official shall be permitted to require the permit applicant to identify braced wall lines and braced wall panels on the construction documents as described in this section and provide associated analysis. The building official shall be permitted to waive the analysis of the upper floors where the cumulative length of wall openings of each upper floor wall is less than or equal to the length of the openings of the wall directly below.
59. Change the following row and footnotes in Table R602.10.3(1) to read:
Basic Wind Speed (mph) | Story Location | Braced Wall Line Spacingb (feet) | Method LIBc | Method GB | Methods DWB, WSP, SFB, PBS, PCP, HPS, BV-WSP, ABW, PFH, PFG, CS-SFBd | Methods CS-WSP, CS-G, CS-PF |
For SI: 1 inch = 25.4 mm, 1 foot = 305 mm, 1 mile per hour = 0.447 m/s. a. Linear interpolation shall be permitted. b. Where a braced wall line has parallel braced wall lines on one or both sides of differing dimensions, the average dimension shall be permitted to be used for braced wall line spacing. c. Method LIB shall have gypsum board fastened to at least one side with nails or screws per Table R602.3(1) for exterior sheathing or Table R702.3.5 for interior gypsum board. Spacing of fasteners at panel edges shall not exceed eight inches (203 mm). d. Method CS-SFB does not apply where the wind speed is greater than 100 mph. |
60. Change Section R602.10.4.1 to read:
R602.10.4.1 Mixing methods. Mixing of bracing methods shall be permitted as follows:
1. Mixing bracing methods from braced wall line to braced wall line shall be permitted.
2. Mixing intermittent bracing methods along a braced wall line shall be permitted in Seismic Design Categories A and B, and detached dwellings in Seismic Design Category C, provided the length of bracing in accordance with Table R602.10.3(1) or R602.10.3(3) is the highest value of all bracing methods used.
3. Mixing of methods CS-WSP, CS-G, CS-PF, ABW, PFH, and PFG along a braced wall line shall be permitted.
4. In Seismic Design Categories A and B, and detached dwellings in Seismic Design Category C, mixing of intermittent bracing methods along the interior portion of a braced wall line with continuous sheathing methods along the exterior portion of the same braced wall line shall be permitted. The length of required bracing shall be the highest value of all bracing methods used in accordance with Table R602.10.3(1) or R602.10.3(3). The requirements of Section R602.10.7 shall apply to each end of the continuously sheathed portions of the braced wall line.
61. Change the "CS-PF" row of Table R602.10.5 to read:
CS-PF | 16 | 18 | 20 | 22e | 24e | 1.5 x Actualb |
62. Change Items 3.3 and 3.4 of Section R602.10.8.2 to read:
3.3. Blocking panels provided by the roof truss manufacturer and designed in accordance with Section R802.10.
3.4. Blocking, blocking panels, or other methods of lateral load transfer designed in accordance with the AWC WFCM or accepted engineering practice.
63. Change Item 3 of Section R602.10.10 to read:
3. Where the bracing length provided is at least twice the minimum length required by Table R602.10.3(1) and Table R602.10.3(3), blocking at horizontal joints shall not be required in braced wall panels constructed using Methods WSP, SFB, GB, PBS, HPS, CS-WSP or CS-SFB.
64. Change Section R602.10.11 to read:
R602.10.11 Cripple wall bracing. Cripple walls shall be constructed in accordance with Section R602.9 and braced in accordance with this section. Cripple walls shall be braced with the length and method of bracing used for the wall above in accordance with Tables R602.10.3(1) and R602.10.3(3), and the applicable adjustment factors in Tables R602.10.3(2) and R602.10.3(4), respectively, except the length of the cripple wall bracing shall be multiplied by a factor of 1.15. Cripple wall bracing shall comply with Section R602.10.4.3.
65. 48. Replace Section R602.12, including all subsections, with the following:
R602.12 Practical wall bracing. All buildings in Seismic Design Categories A and B and detached buildings in Seismic Design Category C shall be permitted to be braced in accordance with this section as an alternative to the requirements of Section R602.10. Where a building, or portion thereof, does not comply with one or more of the bracing requirements in this section, those portions shall be designed and constructed in accordance with Section R301.1. The use of other bracing provisions of Section R602.10, except as specified herein, shall not be permitted.
The building official shall be permitted to require the permit applicant to identify bracing on the construction documents and provide associated analysis. The building official shall be permitted to waive the analysis of the upper floors where the cumulative length of wall openings of each upper floor wall is less than or equal to the length of the openings of the wall directly below.
R602.12.1 Sheathing materials. The following materials shall be permitted for use as sheathing for wall bracing. Exterior walls shall be sheathed on all sheathable surfaces, including infill areas between bracing locations, above and below wall openings, and on gable end walls.
1. Wood structural panels with a minimum thickness of 7/16 inch (9.5 mm) fastened in accordance with Table R602.3(3).
2. Structural fiberboard sheathing with a minimum thickness of 1/2 inch (12.7 mm) fastened in accordance with Table R602.3(1).
3. Gypsum board with a minimum thickness of 1/2 inch (12.7 mm) fastened in accordance with Table R702.3.5 on interior walls only.
R602.12.2 Braced wall panels. Braced wall panels shall be full-height wall sections sheathed with the materials listed in Section R602.12.1 and complying with the following:
1. Exterior braced wall panels shall have a minimum length based on the height of the adjacent opening as specified in Table R602.12.2. Panels with openings on both sides of differing heights shall be governed by the taller opening when determining panel length.
2. Interior braced wall panels shall have a minimum length of 48 inches (1220 mm) when sheathing material is applied to one side. Doubled-sided applications shall be permitted to be considered two braced wall panels.
3. Braced wall panels shall be permitted to be constructed of Methods ABW, PFH, PFG, and CS-PF in accordance with Section R602.10.4.
4. Exterior braced wall panels, other than the methods listed in Item 3 above shall have a finish material installed on the interior. The finish material shall consist of 1/2 inch (12.7 mm) gypsum board or equivalent and shall be permitted to be omitted where the required length of bracing, as determined in Section R602.12.4, is multiplied by 1.40, unless otherwise required by Section R302.6.
5. Vertical sheathing joints shall occur over and be fastened to common studs.
6. Horizontal sheathing joints shall be edge nailed to 1-1/2 inch (38 mm) minimum thick common blocking.
Table R602.12.2 Braced Wall Panel Lengths | |
Location | Wall Height (feet) | |
|
8 | 9 | 10 | 11 | 12 | |
Minimum Panel Length (inches) | |
Adjacent garage door of one-story garagea | 24 | 27 | 30 | 33 | 36 | |
Adjacent all other openingsb | | | | | | |
Clear opening height (inches) ≤ 64 | 24 | 27 | 30 | 33 | 36 | |
Clear opening height (inches) ≤ 72 | 27 | 27 | 30 | 33 | 36 | |
Clear opening height (inches) ≤ 80 | 30 | 30 | 30 | 33 | 36 | |
Clear opening height (inches) > 80 | 36 | 36 | 36 | 40 | 40 | |
For SI: 1 inch = 25.4 mm, 1 foot = 304.8 mm. a. Braced wall panels supporting a gable end wall or roof load only. b. Interpolation shall be permitted. | |
R602.12.3 Circumscribed rectangle. Required length of bracing shall be determined by circumscribing one or more rectangles around the entire building or portions thereof as shown in Figure R602.12.3. Rectangles shall surround all enclosed offsets and projections such as sunrooms and attached garages. Chimneys, partial height projections, and open structures, such as carports and decks, shall be excluded from the rectangle. Each rectangle shall have no side greater than 80 feet (24 384 mm) with a maximum 3:1 ratio between the long and short side. Rectangles shall be permitted to be skewed to accommodate angled projections as shown in Figure R602.12.4.3.
R602.12.4 Required length of bracing. The required length of bracing for each side of a circumscribed rectangle shall be determined using Table R602.12.4. Where multiple rectangles share a common side or sides, the required length of bracing shall equal the sum of the required lengths from all shared rectangle sides.
Table R602.12.4 Required Length of Bracing Along Each Side of a Circumscribed Rectanglea,b,c |
Wind Speed | Eave-to-Ridge Height (feet) | Number of Floor Levels Abovee,f | Required Length of Bracing on Front/Rear Side (feet) | Required Length of Bracing on Left/Right Side (feet) |
Length of Left/Right Side (feet) | Length of Front/Rear Side (feet) |
10 | 20 | 30 | 40 | 50 | 60 | 70 | 80 | 10 | 20 | 30 | 40 | 50 | 60 | 70 | 80 |
90 115 | 10 | 0 | 2.0 | 3.5 | 5.0 | 6.0 | 7.5 | 9.0 | 10.5 | 12.0 | 2.0 | 3.5 | 5.0 | 6.0 | 7.5 | 9.0 | 10.5 | 12.0 |
1d | 3.5 | 6.5 | 9.0 | 12.0 | 14.5 | 17.0 | 19.8 | 22.6 | 3.5 | 6.5 | 9.0 | 12.0 | 14.5 | 17.0 | 19.8 | 22.6 |
2d | 5.0 | 9.5 | 13.5 | 17.5 | 21.5 | 25.0 | 29.2 | 33.4 | 5.0 | 9.5 | 13.5 | 17.5 | 21.5 | 25.0 | 29.2 | 33.4 |
15 | 0 | 2.6 | 4.6 | 6.5 | 7.8 | 9.8 | 11.7 | 13.7 | 15.7 | 2.6 | 4.6 | 6.5 | 7.8 | 9.8 | 11.7 | 13.7 | 15.7 |
1d | 4.0 | 7.5 | 10.4 | 13.8 | 16.7 | 19.6 | 22.9 | 26.2 | 4.0 | 7.5 | 10.4 | 13.8 | 16.7 | 19.6 | 22.9 | 26.2 |
2d | 5.5 | 10.5 | 14.9 | 19.3 | 23.7 | 27.5 | 32.1 | 36.7 | 5.5 | 10.5 | 14.9 | 19.3 | 23.7 | 27.5 | 32.1 | 36.7 |
20 | 0 | 2.9 | 5.2 | 7.3 | 8.8 | 11.1 | 13.2 | 15.4 | 17.6 | 2.9 | 5.2 | 7.3 | 8.8 | 11.1 | 13.2 | 15.4 | 17.6 |
1d | 4.5 | 8.5 | 11.8 | 15.6 | 18.9 | 22.1 | 25.8 | 29.5 | 4.5 | 8.5 | 11.8 | 15.6 | 18.9 | 22.1 | 25.8 | 29.5 |
2d | 6.2 | 11.9 | 16.8 | 21.8 | 27.3 | 31.1 | 36.3 | 41.5 | 6.2 | 11.9 | 16.8 | 21.8 | 27.3 | 31.1 | 36.3 | 41.5 |
100 130 | 10 | 0 | 2.5 | 4.0 | 6.0 | 7.5 | 9.5 | 11.0 | 12.8 | 14.6 | 2.5 | 4.0 | 6.0 | 7.5 | 9.5 | 11.0 | 12.8 | 14.6 |
1d | 4.5 | 8.0 | 11.0 | 14.5 | 18.0 | 21.0 | 24.5 | 28.0 | 4.5 | 8.0 | 11.0 | 14.5 | 18.0 | 21.0 | 24.5 | 28.0 |
2d | 6.0 | 11.5 | 16.5 | 21.5 | 26.5 | 31.0 | 36.2 | 41.4 | 6.0 | 11.5 | 16.5 | 21.5 | 26.5 | 31.0 | 36.2 | 41.4 |
15 | 0 | 3.4 | 5.2 | 7.8 | 9.8 | 12.4 | 14.3 | 16.7 | 19.1 | 3.4 | 5.2 | 7.8 | 9.8 | 12.4 | 14.3 | 16.7 | 19.1 |
1d | 5.2 | 9.2 | 12.7 | 16.7 | 20.7 | 24.2 | 28.2 | 32.2 | 5.2 | 9.2 | 12.7 | 16.7 | 20.7 | 24.2 | 28.2 | 32.2 |
2d | 6.6 | 12.7 | 18.2 | 23.7 | 29.2 | 34.1 | 39.8 | 45.5 | 6.6 | 12.7 | 18.2 | 23.7 | 29.2 | 34.1 | 39.8 | 45.5 |
20 | 0 | 3.8 | 5.9 | 8.8 | 11.1 | 14.0 | 16.2 | 18.9 | 21.6 | 3.8 | 5.9 | 8.8 | 11.1 | 14.0 | 16.2 | 18.9 | 21.6 |
1d | 5.9 | 10.4 | 14.4 | 18.9 | 23.4 | 27.3 | 31.8 | 36.3 | 5.9 | 10.4 | 14.4 | 18.9 | 23.4 | 27.3 | 31.8 | 36.3 |
2d | 7.5 | 14.4 | 20.6 | 26.8 | 33.0 | 38.5 | 44.9 | 51.3 | 7.5 | 14.4 | 20.6 | 26.8 | 33.0 | 38.5 | 44.9 | 51.3 |
For SI: 1 ft = 304.8 mm. a. Interpolation shall be permitted; extrapolation shall be prohibited. b. For Exposure Category C, multiply the required length of bracing by a factor of 1.20 for a one-story building, 1.30 for a two-story building, and 1.40 for a three-story building. c. For wall height adjustments multiply the required length of bracing by the following factors: 0.90 for 8 feet (2438 mm), 0.95 for 9 feet (2743 mm), 1.0 for 10 feet (3048 mm), 1.05 for 11 feet (3353 mm), and 1.10 for 12 feet (3658 mm). d. Where braced wall panels supporting stories above have been sheathed in wood structural panels with edge fasteners spaced at 4 inches (102 mm) on center, multiply the required length of bracing by 0.83. e. A floor level, habitable or otherwise, contained wholly within the roof rafters or trusses shall not be considered a floor level for purposes of determining the required length of bracing. f. A rectangle side with differing number of floor levels above shall use the greatest number when determining the required length of bracing. |
R602.12.4.1 Braced wall panel assignment to rectangle sides. Braced wall panels shall be assigned to the applicable rectangle side and contribute to its required length of bracing. Panels shall be assigned as specified below and as shown in Figure R602.12.4.1.
1. Exterior braced wall panels shall be assigned to the parallel rectangle side on which they are located or in which they face.
2. Interior braced wall panels shall be assigned to the parallel rectangle side on which they are located or in which they face up to 4 feet (1220 mm) away. Interior braced wall panels more than 4 feet (1220 mm) away from a parallel rectangle side shall not contribute.
3. The projections of angled braced wall panels shall be assigned to the adjacent rectangle sides.
R602.12.4.2 Contributing length. The cumulative contributing length of braced wall panels assigned to a rectangle side shall be greater than or equal to the required length of bracing as determined in Section R602.12.4. The contributing length of a braced wall panel shall be as specified below. When applying contributing length to angled braced wall panels, apply the requirements below to each projection:
1. Exterior braced wall panels shall contribute their actual length.
2. Interior braced wall panels shall contribute one-half of their actual length.
3. The contributing length of Methods ABW, PFH, PFG, and CS-PF shall be in accordance with Table R602.10.5.
R602.12.4.3 Common sides with skewed rectangles. Braced wall panels located on a common wall where skewed rectangles intersect, as shown in Figure R602.12.4.3, shall be permitted to be assigned to the parallel rectangle side, and their projections shall be permitted to be assigned to the adjacent skewed rectangle sides.
R602.12.5 Cripple walls and framed walls of walk-out basements. For rectangle sides with cripple walls having a maximum height of 48 inches (1220 mm), the required length of bracing shall be as determined in Section R602.12.4. For rectangle sides with cripple walls having a height greater than 48 inches (1220 mm) at any location or framed walls of a walk-out basement, the required length of bracing shall be determined using Table R602.12.4. Braced wall panels within cripple walls and walls of walk-out basements shall comply with Item 4 of Section R602.12.2.
R602.12.6 Distribution of braced wall panels. Braced wall panels shall be distributed in accordance with the following requirements as shown in Figure R602.12.6.
1. The edge of a braced wall panel shall be no more than 12 feet (3658 mm) from any building corner or rectangle corner.
2. The distance between adjacent edges of braced wall panels shall be no more than 20 feet (6096 mm).
3. Segments of exterior walls greater than 8 feet (2438 mm) in length shall have a minimum of one braced wall panel.
4. Segments of exterior wall 8 feet (2438 mm) or less in length shall be permitted to have no braced wall panels.
R602.12.6.1 Panels adjacent to balloon framed walls. Braced wall panels shall be placed on each side of each story adjacent to balloon framed walls designed in accordance with Section R602.3 with a maximum height of two stories.
R602.12.7 Braced wall panel connection. Braced wall panels shall be connected to other structural elements in accordance with Section R602.10.8.
R602.12.8 Braced wall panel support. Braced wall panels shall be supported in accordance with Section R602.10.9.
66. Change the indicated rows of Table R802.4(1) to read:
Ceiling Joist Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 5 psf |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 |
Maximum ceiling joist spans |
(feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) |
12 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 12-11 12-5 11-10 10-1 | 20-3 19-6 18-8 14-11 | Note a 25-8 24-7 18-9 | Note a Note a Note a 22-9 |
16 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 11-9 11-3 10-9 8-9 | 18-5 17-8 16-11 12-11 | 24-3 23-4 21-7 16-3 | Note a Note a 25-7 19-9 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 11-0 10-7 10-2 8-0 | 17-4 16-8 15-7 11-9 | 22-10 22-0 19-8 14-10 | Note a Note a 23-5 18-0 |
24 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 10-3 9-10 9-3 7-2 | 16-1 15-6 13-11 10-6 | 21-2 20-5 17-7 13-3 | Note a 24-0 20-11 16-1 |
67. Change the indicated rows of Table R802.4(2) to read:
Ceiling Joist Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 psf |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 |
Maximum ceiling joist spans |
(feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) |
12 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 10-3 9-10 9-3 7-2 | 16-1 15-6 13-11 10-6 | 21-2 20-5 17-7 13-3 | Note a 24-0 20-11 16-1 |
16 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 9-4 8-11 8-0 6-2 | 14-7 14-0 12-0 9-2 | 19-3 17-9 15-3 11-6 | 24-7 20-9 18-1 14-0 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 8-9 8-5 7-4 5-8 | 13-9 12-9 11-0 8-4 | 18-2 16-2 13-11 10-6 | 23-1 18-11 16-6 12-9 |
24 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 8-1 7-8 6-7 5-1 | 12-9 11-5 9-10 7-5 | 16-10 14-6 12-6 9-5 | 21-6 16-11 14-9 11-5 |
68. Change the indicated rows of Table R802.5.1(1) to read:
Rafter Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 psf | Dead Load = 20 psf |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum rafter spansa |
(feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 11-3 | 17-8 | 23-4 | Note b | Note b | 11-3 | 17-8 | 23-4 | Note b | Note b |
Southern Pine #1 | 10-10 | 17-0 | 22-5 | Note b | Note b | 10-6 | 15-8 | 19-10 | 23-2 | Note b |
Southern Pine #2 | 10-4 | 15-7 | 19-8 | 23-5 | Note b | 9-0 | 13-6 | 17-1 | 20-3 | 23-10 |
Southern Pine #3 | 8-0 | 11-9 | 14-10 | 18-0 | 21-4 | 6-11 | 10-2 | 12-10 | 15-7 | 18-6 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 10-3 | 16-1 | 21-2 | Note b | Note b | 10-3 | 16-1 | 21-2 | 25-7 | Note b |
Southern Pine #1 | 9-10 | 15-6 | 19-10 | 23-2 | Note b | 9-1 | 13-7 | 17-2 | 20-1 | 23-10 |
Southern Pine #2 | 9-0 | 13-6 | 17-1 | 20-3 | 23-10 | 7-9 | 11-8 | 14-9 | 17-6 | 20-8 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-11 | 10-2 | 12-10 | 15-7 | 18-6 | 6-0 | 8-10 | 11-2 | 13-6 | 16-0 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 9-8 | 15-2 | 19-11 | 25-5 | Note b | 9-8 | 15-2 | 19-7 | 23-4 | Note b |
Southern Pine #1 | 9-3 | 14-3 | 18-1 | 21-2 | 25-2 | 8-4 | 12-4 | 15-8 | 18-4 | 21-9 |
Southern Pine #2 | 8-2 | 12-3 | 15-7 | 18-6 | 21-9 | 7-1 | 10-8 | 13-6 | 16-0 | 18-10 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-4 | 9-4 | 11-9 | 14-3 | 16-10 | 5-6 | 8-1 | 10-2 | 12-4 | 14-7 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 8-11 | 14-1 | 18-6 | 23-8 | Note b | 8-11 | 13-10 | 17-6 | 20-10 | 24-8 |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-7 | 12-9 | 16-2 | 18-11 | 22-6 | 7-5 | 11-1 | 14-0 | 16-5 | 19-6 |
Southern Pine #2 | 7-4 | 11-0 | 13-11 | 16-6 | 19-6 | 6-4 | 9-6 | 12-1 | 14-4 | 16-10 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-8 | 8-4 | 10-6 | 12-9 | 15-1 | 4-11 | 7-3 | 9-1 | 11-0 | 13-1 |
| | | | | | | | | | | | |
69. Change the indicated rows of Table R802.5.1(2) to read:
Rafter Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 psf | Dead Load = 20 psf |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum rafter spansa |
(feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 10-3 | 16-1 | 21-2 | Note b | Note b | 10-3 | 16-1 | 21-2 | Note b | Note b |
Southern Pine #1 | 9-10 | 15-6 | 20-5 | Note b | Note b | 9-10 | 15-6 | 19-10 | 23-2 | Note b |
Southern Pine #2 | 9-5 | 14-9 | 19-6 | 23-5 | Note b | 9-0 | 13-6 | 17-1 | 20-3 | 23-10 |
Southern Pine #3 | 8-0 | 11-9 | 14-10 | 18-0 | 21-4 | 6-11 | 10-2 | 12-10 | 15-7 | 18-6 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 9-4 | 14-7 | 19-3 | 24-7 | Note b | 9-4 | 14-7 | 19-3 | 24-7 | Note b |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-11 | 14-1 | 18-6 | 23-2 | Note b | 8-11 | 13-7 | 17-2 | 20-1 | 23-10 |
Southern Pine #2 | 8-7 | 13-5 | 17-1 | 20-3 | 23-10 | 7-9 | 11-8 | 14-9 | 17-6 | 20-8 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-11 | 10-2 | 12-10 | 15-7 | 18-6 | 6-0 | 8-10 | 11-2 | 13-6 | 16-0 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 8-9 | 13-9 | 18-2 | 23-1 | Note b | 8-9 | 13-9 | 18-2 | 23-1 | Note b |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-5 | 13-3 | 17-5 | 21-2 | 25-2 | 8-4 | 12-4 | 15-8 | 18-4 | 21-9 |
Southern Pine #2 | 8-1 | 12-3 | 15-7 | 16-6 | 21-9 | 7-1 | 10-8 | 13-6 | 16-0 | 18-10 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-4 | 9-4 | 11-9 | 14-3 | 16-10 | 5-6 | 8-1 | 10-2 | 12-4 | 14-7 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 8-1 | 12-9 | 16-10 | 21-6 | Note b | 8-1 | 12-9 | 16-10 | 20-10 | 24-8 |
Southern Pine #1 | 7-10 | 12-3 | 16-2 | 18-11 | 22-6 | 7-6 | 11-1 | 14-0 | 16-5 | 19-6 |
Southern Pine #2 | 7-4 | 11-0 | 13-11 | 16-6 | 19-6 | 6-4 | 9-6 | 12-1 | 14-4 | 16-10 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-8 | 8-4 | 10-6 | 12-9 | 15-1 | 4-11 | 7-3 | 9-1 | 11-0 | 13-1 |
70. Change the indicated rows of Table R802.5.1(3) to read:
Rafter Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 psf | Dead Load = 20 psf |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum rafter spansa |
(feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 9-10 | 15-6 | 20-5 | Note b | Note b | 9-10 | 15-6 | 20-5 | 25-4 | Note b |
Southern Pine #1 | 9-6 | 14-10 | 19-0 | 22-3 | Note b | 9-0 | 13-5 | 17-0 | 19-11 | 23-7 |
Southern Pine #2 | 8-7 | 12-11 | 16-4 | 19-5 | 22-10 | 7-8 | 11-7 | 14-8 | 17-4 | 20-5 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-7 | 9-9 | 12-4 | 15-0 | 17-9 | 5-11 | 8-9 | 11-0 | 13-5 | 15-10 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 8-11 | 14-1 | 18-6 | 23-8 | Note b | 8-11 | 14-1 | 18-5 | 21-11 | 25-11 |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-7 | 13-0 | 16-6 | 19-3 | 22-10 | 7-10 | 11-7 | 14-9 | 17-3 | 20-5 |
Southern Pine #2 | 7-6 | 11-2 | 14-2 | 16-10 | 19-10 | 6-8 | 10-0 | 12-8 | 15-1 | 17-9 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-9 | 8-6 | 10-8 | 13-0 | 15-4 | 5-2 | 7-7 | 9-7 | 11-7 | 13-9 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 8-5 | 13-3 | 17-5 | 22-3 | Note b | 8-5 | 13-3 | 16-10 | 20-0 | 23-7 |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-0 | 11-10 | 15-1 | 17-7 | 20-11 | 7-1 | 10-7 | 13-5 | 15-9 | 18-8 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-10 | 10-2 | 12-11 | 15-4 | 18-1 | 6-1 | 9-2 | 11-7 | 13-9 | 16-2 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-3 | 7-9 | 9-9 | 11-10 | 14-0 | 4-8 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-7 | 12-6 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 7-10 | 12-3 | 16-2 | 20-0 | 23-7 | 7-10 | 11-10 | 15-0 | 17-11 | 21-2 |
Southern Pine #1 | 7-1 | 10-7 | 13-5 | 15-9 | 18-8 | 6-4 | 9-6 | 12-0 | 14-1 | 16-8 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-1 | 9-2 | 11-7 | 13-9 | 16-2 | 5-5 | 8-2 | 10-4 | 12-3 | 14-6 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-8 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-7 | 12-6 | 4-2 | 6-2 | 7-10 | 9-6 | 11-2 |
71. Change the indicated rows of Table R802.5.1(4) to read:
Rafter Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 psf | Dead Load = 20 psf |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum rafter spansa |
(feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 8-4 | 13-1 | 17-2 | 21-11 | Note b | 8-4 | 13-1 | 17-2 | 21-5 | 25-3 |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-0 | 12-3 | 15-6 | 18-2 | 21-7 | 7-7 | 11-4 | 14-5 | 16-10 | 20-0 |
Southern Pine #2 | 7-0 | 10-6 | 13-4 | 15-10 | 18-8 | 6-6 | 9-9 | 12-4 | 14-8 | 17-3 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-5 | 8-0 | 10-1 | 12-3 | 14-6 | 5-0 | 7-5 | 9-4 | 11-4 | 13-5 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 7-6 | 11-10 | 15-7 | 19-11 | 23-7 | 7-6 | 11-10 | 15-7 | 18-6 | 21-10 |
Southern Pine #1 | 7-1 | 10-7 | 13-5 | 15-9 | 18-8 | 6-7 | 9-10 | 12-5 | 14-7 | 17-3 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-1 | 9-2 | 11-7 | 13-9 | 16-2 | 5-8 | 8-5 | 10-9 | 12-9 | 15-0 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-8 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-7 | 12-6 | 4-4 | 6-5 | 8-1 | 9-10 | 11-7 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 7-1 | 11-2 | 14-8 | 18-3 | 21-7 | 7-1 | 11-2 | 14-2 | 16-11 | 20-0 |
Southern Pine #1 | 6-6 | 9-8 | 12-3 | 14-4 | 17-1 | 6-0 | 9-0 | 11-4 | 13-4 | 15-9 |
Southern Pine #2 | 5-7 | 8-4 | 10-7 | 12-6 | 14-9 | 5-2 | 7-9 | 9-9 | 11-7 | 13-8 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-3 | 6-4 | 8-0 | 9-8 | 11-5 | 4-0 | 5-10 | 7-4 | 8-11 | 10-7 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 6-7 | 10-4 | 13-8 | 16-4 | 19-3 | 6-7 | 10-0 | 12-8 | 15-2 | 17-10 |
Southern Pine #1 | 5-10 | 8-8 | 11-0 | 12-10 | 15-3 | 5-5 | 8-0 | 10-2 | 11-11 | 14-1 |
Southern Pine #2 | 5-0 | 7-5 | 9-5 | 11-3 | 13-2 | 4-7 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-5 | 12-3 |
Southern Pine #3 | 3-10 | 5-8 | 7-1 | 8-8 | 10-3 | 3-6 | 5-3 | 6-7 | 8-0 | 9-6 |
72. Change the indicated rows of Table R802.5.1(5) to read:
Rafter Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 psf | Dead Load = 20 psf |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum rafter spansa |
(feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 8-11 | 14-1 | 18-6 | 23-8 | Note b | 8-11 | 14-1 | 18-6 | 23-8 | Note b |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-7 | 13-6 | 17-10 | 22-3 | Note b | 8-7 | 13-5 | 17-0 | 19-11 | 23-7 |
Southern Pine #2 | 8-3 | 12-11 | 16-4 | 19-5 | 22-10 | 7-8 | 11-7 | 14-8 | 17-4 | 20-5 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-7 | 9-9 | 12-4 | 15-0 | 17-9 | 5-11 | 8-9 | 11-0 | 13-5 | 15-10 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 8-1 | 12-9 | 16-10 | 21-6 | Note b | 8-1 | 12-9 | 16-10 | 21-6 | 25-11 |
Southern Pine #1 | 7-10 | 12-3 | 16-2 | 19-3 | 22-10 | 7-10 | 11-7 | 14-9 | 17-3 | 20-5 |
Southern Pine #2 | 7-6 | 11-2 | 14-2 | 16-10 | 19-10 | 6-8 | 10-0 | 12-8 | 15-1 | 17-9 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-9 | 8-6 | 10-8 | 13-0 | 15-4 | 5-2 | 7-7 | 9-7 | 11-7 | 13-9 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 7-8 | 12-0 | 15-10 | 20-2 | 24-7 | 7-8 | 12-0 | 15-10 | 20-0 | 23-7 |
Southern Pine #1 | 7-4 | 11-7 | 15-1 | 17-7 | 20-11 | 7-1 | 10-7 | 13-5 | 15-9 | 18-8 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-10 | 10-2 | 12-11 | 15-4 | 18-1 | 6-1 | 9-2 | 11-7 | 13-9 | 16-2 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-3 | 7-9 | 9-9 | 11-10 | 14-0 | 4-8 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-7 | 12-6 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 7-1 | 11-2 | 14-8 | 18-9 | 22-10 | 7-1 | 11-2 | 14-8 | 17-11 | 21-2 |
Southern Pine #1 | 6-10 | 10-7 | 13-5 | 15-9 | 18-8 | 6-4 | 9-6 | 12-0 | 14-1 | 16-8 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-1 | 9-2 | 11-7 | 13-9 | 16-2 | 5-5 | 8-2 | 10-4 | 12-3 | 14-6 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-8 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-7 | 12-6 | 4-2 | 6-2 | 7-10 | 9-6 | 11-2 |
73. Change the indicated rows of Table R802.5.1(6) to read:
Rafter Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 psf | Dead Load = 20 psf |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum rafter spansa |
(feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 7-6 | 11-0 | 15-7 | 19-11 | 24-3 | 7-6 | 11-10 | 15-7 | 19-11 | 24-3 |
Southern Pine #1 | 7-3 | 11-5 | 15-0 | 18-2 | 21-7 | 7-3 | 11-4 | 14-5 | 16-10 | 20-0 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-11 | 10-6 | 13-4 | 15-10 | 18-8 | 6-6 | 9-9 | 12-4 | 14-8 | 17-3 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-5 | 8-0 | 10-1 | 12-3 | 14-6 | 5-0 | 7-5 | 9-4 | 11-4 | 13-5 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 6-10 | 10-9 | 14-2 | 18-1 | 22-0 | 6-10 | 10-9 | 14-2 | 18-1 | 21-10 |
Southern Pine #1 | 6-7 | 10-4 | 13-5 | 15-9 | 18-8 | 6-7 | 9-10 | 12-5 | 14-7 | 17-3 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-1 | 9-2 | 11-7 | 13-9 | 16-2 | 5-8 | 8-5 | 10-9 | 12-9 | 15-0 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-8 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-7 | 12-6 | 4-4 | 6-5 | 8-1 | 9-10 | 11-7 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 6-5 | 10-2 | 13-4 | 17-0 | 20-9 | 6-5 | 10-2 | 13-4 | 16-11 | 20-0 |
Southern Pine #1 | 6-2 | 9-8 | 12-3 | 14-4 | 17-1 | 6-0 | 9-0 | 11-4 | 13-4 | 13-8 |
Southern Pine #2 | 5-7 | 8-4 | 10-7 | 12-6 | 14-9 | 5-2 | 7-9 | 9-9 | 11-7 | 15-9 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-3 | 6-4 | 8-0 | 9-8 | 11-5 | 4-0 | 5-10 | 7-4 | 8-11 | 10-7 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 6-0 | 9-5 | 12-5 | 15-10 | 19-3 | 6-0 | 9-5 | 12-5 | 15-2 | 17-10 |
Southern Pine #1 | 5-9 | 8-8 | 11-0 | 12-10 | 15-3 | 5-5 | 8-0 | 10-2 | 11-11 | 14-1 |
Southern Pine #2 | 5-0 | 7-5 | 9-5 | 11-3 | 13-2 | 4-7 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-5 | 12-3 |
Southern Pine #3 | 3-10 | 5-8 | 7-1 | 8-8 | 10-3 | 3-6 | 5-3 | 6-7 | 8-0 | 9-6 |
74. Change the indicated rows of Table R802.5.1(7) to read:
Rafter Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 psf | Dead Load = 20 psf |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum rafter spansa |
(feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 7-5 | 11-8 | 15-4 | 19-7 | 23-7 | 7-5 | 11-8 | 15-4 | 18-10 | 22-3 |
Southern Pine #1 | 7-1 | 10-7 | 13-5 | 15-9 | 18-8 | 6-9 | 10-0 | 12-8 | 14-10 | 17-7 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-1 | 9-2 | 11-7 | 13-9 | 16-2 | 5-9 | 8-7 | 10-11 | 12-11 | 15-3 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-8 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-7 | 12-6 | 4-5 | 6-6 | 8-3 | 10-0 | 11-10 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 6-9 | 10-7 | 14-0 | 17-4 | 20-5 | 6-9 | 10-7 | 13-9 | 16-4 | 19-3 |
Southern Pine #1 | 6-2 | 9-2 | 11-8 | 13-8 | 16-2 | 5-10 | 8-8 | 11-0 | 12-10 | 15-3 |
Southern Pine #2 | 5-3 | 7-11 | 10-0 | 11-11 | 14-0 | 5-0 | 7-5 | 9-5 | 11-3 | 13-2 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-1 | 6-0 | 7-7 | 9-2 | 10-10 | 3-10 | 5-8 | 7-1 | 8-8 | 10-3 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 6-4 | 10-0 | 13-2 | 15-10 | 18-8 | 6-4 | 9-10 | 12-6 | 14-11 | 17-7 |
Southern Pine #1 | 5-8 | 8-5 | 10-8 | 12-5 | 14-9 | 5-4 | 7-11 | 10-0 | 11-9 | 13-11 |
Southern Pine #2 | 4-10 | 7-3 | 9-2 | 10-10 | 12-9 | 4-6 | 6-10 | 8-8 | 10-3 | 12-1 |
Southern Pine #3 | 3-8 | 5-6 | 6-11 | 8-4 | 9-11 | 3-6 | 5-2 | 6-6 | 7-11 | 9-4 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 5-11 | 9-3 | 11-11 | 14-2 | 16-8 | 5-11 | 8-10 | 11-2 | 13-4 | 15-9 |
Southern Pine #1 | 5-0 | 7-6 | 9-6 | 11-1 | 13-2 | 4-9 | 7-1 | 9-0 | 10-6 | 12-5 |
Southern Pine #2 | 4-4 | 6-5 | 8-2 | 9-9 | 11-5 | 4-1 | 6-1 | 7-9 | 9-2 | 10-9 |
Southern Pine #3 | 3-4 | 4-11 | 6-2 | 7-6 | 8-10 | 3-1 | 4-7 | 5-10 | 7-1 | 8-4 |
75. Change the indicated rows of Table R802.5.1(8) to read:
Rafter Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 psf | Dead Load = 20 psf |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum rafter spansa |
(feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) | (feet-inches) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 6-9 | 10-7 | 14-0 | 17-10 | 21-8 | 6-9 | 10-7 | 14-0 | 17-10 | 21-8 |
Southern Pine #1 | 6-6 | 10-2 | 13-5 | 15-9 | 18-8 | 6-6 | 10-0 | 12-8 | 14-10 | 17-7 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-1 | 9-2 | 11-7 | 13-9 | 16-2 | 5-9 | 8-7 | 10-11 | 12-11 | 15-3 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-8 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-7 | 12-6 | 4-5 | 6-6 | 8-3 | 10-0 | 11-10 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 6-1 | 9-7 | 12-8 | 16-2 | 19-8 | 6-1 | 9-7 | 12-8 | 16-2 | 19-3 |
Southern Pine #1 | 5-11 | 9-2 | 11-8 | 13-8 | 16-2 | 5-10 | 8-8 | 11-0 | 12-10 | 15-3 |
Southern Pine #2 | 5-3 | 7-11 | 10-0 | 11-11 | 14-0 | 5-0 | 7-5 | 9-5 | 11-3 | 13-2 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-1 | 6-0 | 7-7 | 9-2 | 10-10 | 3-10 | 5-8 | 7-1 | 8-8 | 10-3 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 5-9 | 9-1 | 11-11 | 15-3 | 18-6 | 5-9 | 9-1 | 11-11 | 14-11 | 17-7 |
Southern Pine #1 | 5-6 | 8-5 | 10-8 | 12-5 | 14-9 | 5-4 | 7-11 | 10-0 | 11-9 | 13-11 |
Southern Pine #2 | 4-10 | 7-3 | 9-2 | 10-10 | 12-9 | 4-6 | 6-10 | 8-8 | 10-3 | 12-1 |
Southern Pine #3 | 3-8 | 5-6 | 6-11 | 8-4 | 9-11 | 3-6 | 5-2 | 6-6 | 7-11 | 9-4 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 5-4 | 8-5 | 11-1 | 14-2 | 16-8 | 5-4 | 8-5 | 11-1 | 13-4 | 15-9 |
Southern Pine #1 | 5-0 | 7-6 | 9-6 | 11-1 | 13-2 | 4-9 | 7-1 | 9-0 | 10-6 | 12-5 |
Southern Pine #2 | 4-4 | 6-5 | 8-2 | 9-9 | 11-5 | 4-1 | 6-1 | 7-9 | 9-2 | 10-9 |
Southern Pine #3 | 3-4 | 4-11 | 6-2 | 7-6 | 8-10 | 3-1 | 4-7 | 5-10 | 7-1 | 8-4 |
76. Change Section R807.1 to read:
R807.1 Attic access. Buildings with combustible ceiling or roof construction shall have an attic access opening to attic areas 30 square feet (2.8 m2) or larger having a vertical height of not less than 30 inches (762 mm). The vertical height shall be measured from the top of the ceiling framing members to the underside of the roof framing members.
The rough-framed opening shall not be less than 22 inches by 30 inches (559 mm by 762 mm) and shall be located in a hallway or other readily accessible location. When located in a wall, the opening shall be a minimum of 22 inches wide by 30 inches high (559 mm wide by 762 mm high). When the access is located in a ceiling, minimum unobstructed headroom in the attic space shall be 30 inches (762 mm) at some point above the access measured vertically from the bottom of ceiling framing members. See Section M1305.1.3 for access requirements where mechanical equipment is located in attics.
77. 49. Delete Section R905.2.8.5.
78. 50. Change Section R1001.8 to read:
R1001.8 Smoke chamber. Smoke chamber walls shall be constructed of solid masonry units, hollow masonry units grouted solid, stone, or concrete. The total minimum thickness of front, back, and side walls shall be 8 inches (203 mm) of solid masonry. When the inside surface of the smoke chamber is formed by corbelled masonry, the inside surface shall be parged smooth. When a lining of firebrick at least 2 inches (51 mm) thick, or a lining of vitrified clay at least 5/8 inch (16 mm) thick, is provided, the total minimum thickness of front, back, and side walls shall be 6 inches (152 mm) of solid masonry, including the lining. Firebrick shall conform to ASTM C 1261 and shall be laid with medium duty refractory mortar conforming to ASTM C 199. Vitrified clay linings shall conform to ASTM C 315.
79. 51. Delete Section N1101.16 N1101.14 (R401.3).
80. 52. Change the ceiling R-value and wood frame wall R-value categories for climate zone "4 except Marine" in Table N1102.1.1 (R402.1.1) N1102.1.2 (R402.1.2) to read:
Ceiling R-Value | Wood Frame Wall R-Value |
38 | 15 or 13 + 1h |
81. 53. Change the ceiling U-factor and frame wall U-factor categories for climate zone "4 except Marine" in Table N1102.1.3 (R402.1.3) N1102.1.4 (R402.1.4) to read:
Ceiling U-Factor | Frame Wall U-Factor |
0.030 | 0.079 |
82. 54. Change Sections N1102.2.1 (R402.2.1) and Section N1102.2.4 (R402.2.4) to read:
N1102.2.1 (R402.2.1) Ceilings with attic spaces. When Section N1102.1.1 would require R-38 in the ceiling, installing R-30 over 100% of the ceiling area shall be deemed to satisfy the requirement for R-38 wherever the full height of uncompressed R-30 insulation extends over the wall top plate at the eaves. Similarly, when Section N1102.1.1 would require R-49 in the ceiling, installing R-38 over 100% of the ceiling area shall be deemed to satisfy the requirement for R-49 wherever the full height of uncompressed R-38 insulation extends over the wall top plate at the eaves. This reduction shall not apply to the U-factor alternative approach in Section N1102.1.3 and the total UA alternative in Section N1102.1.4.
N1102.2.4 (R402.2.4) Access hatches and doors. Access doors from conditioned spaces to unconditioned spaces (e.g., attics and crawl spaces) shall be weatherstripped and insulated in accordance with the following values:
1. Hinged vertical doors shall have a minimum overall R-5 insulation value;
2. Hatches and scuttle hole covers shall be insulated to a level equivalent to the insulation on the surrounding surfaces; and
3. Pull down stairs shall have a minimum of 75% of the panel area having R-5 rigid insulation.
Access shall be provided to all equipment that prevents damaging or compressing the insulation. A wood framed or equivalent baffle or retainer is required to be provided when loose fill insulation is installed, the purpose of which is to prevent the loose fill insulation from spilling into the living space when the attic access is opened, and to provide a permanent means of maintaining the installed R-value of the loose fill insulation.
83. Delete Section N1102.3.6 (R402.3.6) and change 55. Change Sections N1102.4 (R402.4) and N1102.4.1.1 (R402.4.1.1) to read:
N1102.4 (R402.4) Air leakage. The building thermal envelope shall be constructed to limit air leakage in accordance with the requirements of Sections N1102.4.1 through N1102.4.4.
N1102.4.1.1 (R402.4.1.1) Installation (Mandatory). The components of the building thermal envelope as listed in Table N1102.4.1.1 shall be installed in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and the criteria listed in Table N1102.4.1.1, as applicable to the method of construction. Where required by the code official, an approved third party shall inspect all components and verify compliance.
84. 56. Change the title of the "Criteria" "Insulation Installation Criteria" category of Table N1102.4.1.1 (R402.4.1.1); change the "Walls," "Shower/tub on exterior wall," and "Fireplace" categories category of Table N1102.4.1.1 (R402.4.1.1), and add footnotes "b" and "c" to Table N1102.4.1.1 (R402.4.1.1) to read:
Component | Criteriaa,b |
Walls | Cavities within corners and headers shall be insulated by completely filling the cavity with a material having a minimum thermal resistance of R-3 per inch. The junction of the foundation and sill plate shall be sealed. The junction of the top plate and top of exterior walls shall be sealed. Exterior thermal envelope insulation for framed walls shall be installed in substantial contact and continuous alignment with the air barrier. Knee walls shall be sealed. |
Shower/tub on exterior wallc | Exterior walls adjacent to showers and tubs shall be insulated, and an air barrier shall be installed on the interior side of the exterior wall, adjacent to the shower or tub. |
Fireplace | An air barrier shall be installed on fireplace walls. Fireplaces shall have gasketed doors or tight-fitting flue dampers. |
b. Structural integrity of headers shall be in accordance with the applicable building code. c. Air barriers used behind showers and tubs on exterior walls shall be of a permeable material that does not cause the entrapment of moisture in the stud cavity. |
Component | Air Barrier Criteria | Insulation Installation Criteriab |
Shower/tub on exterior wallc | The air barrier installed at exterior walls adjacent to showers and tubs shall be installed on the interior side and separate the exterior walls from the showers and tubs. | Exterior walls adjacent to showers and tubs shall be insulated. |
b. Structural integrity of headers shall be in accordance with the applicable building code. c. Air barriers used behind showers and tubs on exterior walls shall be of a permeable material that does not cause the entrapment of moisture in the stud cavity. |
85. 57. Change Section N1102.4.1.2 (R402.4.1.2) and add Sections N1102.4.1.2.1 (R402.4.1.2.1), N1102.4.1.2.2 (R402.4.1.2.2), and N1102.4.1.3 (R402.4.1.3) to read:
N1102.4.1.2 (R402.4.1.2) Air sealing. Building envelope air tightness shall be demonstrated to comply with either Section N1102.4.1.2.1 or N1102.4.1.2.2.
N1102.4.1.2.1 (R402.4.1.2.1) Testing option. The building or dwelling unit shall be tested for air leakage. Testing shall be conducted with a blower door at a pressure of 0.2 inches w.g. (50 Pa). Where required by the building official, testing shall be conducted by an approved third party. A written report of the results of the test shall be signed by the party conducting the test and provided to the building official. Testing shall be performed at any time after creation of all penetrations of the building thermal envelope.
During testing:
1. Exterior windows and doors and fireplace and stove doors shall be closed, but not sealed beyond the intended weatherstripping or other infiltration control measures;
2. Dampers, including exhaust, intake, makeup air, backdraft, and flue dampers shall be closed, but not sealed beyond intended infiltration control measures;
3. Interior doors, if installed at the time of the test, shall be open;
4. Exterior doors for continuous ventilation systems and heat recovery ventilators shall be closed and sealed;
5. Heating and cooling systems, if installed at the time of the test, shall be turned off; and
6. Supply and return registers, if installed at the time of the test, shall be fully open.
N1102.4.1.2.2 (R402.4.1.2.2) Visual inspection option. Building envelope tightness shall be considered acceptable when the items listed in Table N1102.4.1.1, applicable to the method of construction, are field verified. Where required by the building official, an approved party, independent from the installer, shall inspect the air barrier. When this option is chosen, whole-house mechanical ventilation shall be provided in accordance with Section M1507.3.
N1102.4.1.3 (R402.4.1.3) Leakage rate (Prescriptive). The building or dwelling unit shall have an air leakage rate less than 5 changes per hour as verified in accordance with Section N1102.4.1.2.
86. Change Section N1103.1.1 (R403.1.1) to read:
N1103.1.1 (R403.1.1) Programmable thermostat. The thermostat controlling the primary heating or cooling system of the dwelling unit shall be capable of controlling the heating and cooling system on a daily schedule to maintain different temperature set points at different times of the day. This thermostat shall include the capability to set back or temporarily operate the system to maintain zone temperatures down to 55°F (13°C) or up to 85°F (29°C). The thermostat shall initially be programmed with a heating temperature set point no higher than 70°F (21°C) and a cooling temperature set point no lower than 78°F (26°C).
87. 58. Change Section N1103.2.2 (R403.2.2) N1103.3.2 (R403.3.2) to read:
N1103.2.2 (R403.2.2) N1103.3.2 (R403.3.2) Sealing (Mandatory). Ducts, air handlers, and filter boxes shall be sealed. Joints and seams shall comply with either the International Mechanical Code or Section M1601.4.1 of this code, as applicable. Verification of compliance with this section shall be in accordance with either Section N1103.2.2.1 Sections N1103.3.3 and N1103.3.4 when the testing option is chosen or N1103.2.2.2 N1103.3.4 when the visual inspection option is chosen.
Exceptions:
1. Air-impermeable spray foam products shall be permitted to be applied without additional joint seals.
2. Where a duct connection is made that is partially inaccessible, three screws or rivets shall be equally spaced on the exposed portion of the joint so as to prevent a hinge effect.
3. Continuously welded and locking-type longitudinal joints and seams in ducts operating at 2. For ducts having a static pressures pressure of less than 2 inches of water column (500 Pa) pressure classification shall not require, additional closure systems shall not be required for continuously welded joints and seams and locking-type joints and seams of other than the snap-lock and button-lock types.
88. 59. Change Section N1103.2.2.1 (R403.2.2.1) N1103.3.5 (R403.3.5) to read:
N1103.2.2.1 (R403.2.2.1) Testing option. Duct tightness shall be verified by either of the following:
1. Post-construction test: Total leakage shall be less than or equal to 6 cfm (169.9 L/min) per 100 square feet (9.29 m2) of conditioned floor area when tested at a pressure differential of 0.1 inch w.g. (25 Pa) across the entire system, including the manufacturer's air handler enclosure. All register boots shall be taped or otherwise sealed during the test.
2. Rough-in test: Total leakage shall be less than or equal to 5 cfm (141.5 L/min) per 100 square feet (9.29 m2) of conditioned floor area when tested at a pressure differential of 0.1 inch w.g. (25 Pa) across the system, including the manufacturer's air handler enclosure. All register boots shall be taped or otherwise sealed during the test. If the air handler is not installed at the time of the test, total leakage shall be less than or equal to 5 cfm (141.5 L/min) per 100 square feet (9.29 m2) of conditioned floor area.
Exception: The total leakage test is not required for ducts and air handlers located entirely within the building thermal envelope.
When this option is chosen, testing shall be performed by approved qualified individuals, testing agencies or contractors. Testing and results shall be as prescribed in Section N1103.2.2 and approved recognized industry standards.
89. Add Section N1103.2.2.2 (R403.2.2.2) to read:
N1103.2.2.2 (R403.2.2.2) N1103.3.5 (R403.3.5) Visual inspection option. In addition to the inspection of ducts otherwise required by this code, when the air handler and all ducts are not within conditioned space and this option is chosen to verify duct tightness, duct tightness shall be considered acceptable when the requirements of Section N1103.2.2 N1103.3.2 are field verified.
90. 60. Add Section N1103.2.2.3 (R403.2.2.3) N1103.3.6 (R403.3.6) to read:
N1103.2.2.3 (R403.2.2.1) Sealed air handler. Air handlers shall have a manufacturer's designation for an air leakage of no more than 2.0% of the design air flow rate when tested in accordance with ASHRAE 193.
91. Change Section N1103.4.2 (R403.4.2) to read:
N1103.4.2 (R403.4.2) Hot water pipe insulation (Prescriptive). Insulation for hot water pipe with a minimum thermal resistance (R-value) of R-3 shall be applied to the following:
1. Piping larger than 3/4 inch nominal diameter.
2. Piping serving more than one dwelling unit.
3. Piping located outside the conditioned space.
4. Piping from the water heater to a distribution manifold.
5. Piping located under a floor slab.
6. Buried piping.
7. Supply and return piping in recirculation systems other than demand recirculation systems.
92. Delete Table N1103.4.2 (R403.4.2).
N1103.3.6 (R403.3.6) Building cavities (mandatory). Building framing cavities shall not be used as ducts or plenums.
93. 61. Change Section N1103.6 (R403.6) N1103.7 (R403.7) to read:
N1103.6 (R403.6) N1103.7 (R403.7) Equipment and appliance sizing. Heating and cooling equipment and appliances shall be sized in accordance with ACCA Manual S or other approved sizing methodologies based on building loads calculated in accordance with ACCA Manual J or other approved heating and cooling calculation methodologies.
Exception: Heating and cooling equipment and appliance sizing shall not be limited to the capacities determined in accordance with Manual S or other approved sizing methodologies where any of the following conditions apply:
1. The specified equipment or appliance utilizes multi-stage technology or variable refrigerant flow technology and the loads calculated in accordance with the approved heating and cooling methodology fall within the range of the manufacturer's published capacities for that equipment or appliance.
2. The specified equipment or appliance manufacturer's published capacities cannot satisfy both the total and sensible heat gains calculated in accordance with the approved heating and cooling methodology and the next larger standard size unit is specified.
3. The specified equipment or appliance is the lowest capacity unit available from the specified manufacturer.
94. Change Section N1104.1 (R404.1) to read:
N1104.1 (R404.1) Lighting equipment (Mandatory). A minimum of 50% of the lamps in permanently installed luminaires shall be high-efficacy lamps, or a minimum of 50% of the permanently installed luminaires shall contain only high-efficacy lamps.
Exception: Low-voltage lighting shall not be required to utilize high-efficiency lamps.
95. 62. Change the "Glazing" "Vertical fenestration other than opaque doors" and "Air exchange rate" categories of Table N1105.5.2(1) (Table R405.5.2(1)) to read:
Building Component | Standard Reference Design | Proposed Design |
Glazinga Vertical fenestration other than opaque doors | Total areab is 15% of the conditioned floor area. | As proposed |
Glazinga Vertical fenestration other than opaque doors | Orientation: equally distributed to four cardinal compass orientations (North, East, South & West). | As proposed |
Glazinga Vertical fenestration other than opaque doors | U-factor: from Table N1102.1.3 (R402.1.3) N1102.1.4. | As proposed |
Glazinga Vertical fenestration other than opaque doors | SHGC: From Table N1102.1.1 (R402.1.1) N1102.1.2 except that for climates with no requirement (NR) SHGC = 0.40 shall be used. | As proposed |
Glazinga Vertical fenestration other than opaque doors | Interior shade fraction: 0.92-(0.21 x SHGC for the standard reference design). | 0.92-(0.21 x SHGC as proposed) |
Glazinga Vertical fenestration other than opaque doors | External shading: none. | As proposed |
Air exchange rate | Air leakage rate of 5 air changes per hour at a pressure of 0.2 inches w.g (50 Pa). The mechanical ventilation rate shall be in addition to the air leakage rate and the same as in the proposed design, but no greater than 0.01 × CFA + 7.5 × (Nbr + 1) where: CFA = conditioned floor area Nbr = number of bedrooms Energy recovery shall not be assumed for mechanical ventilation. | For residences that are not tested, the same air leakage rate as the standard reference design. For tested residences, the measured air exchange ratec a. The mechanical ventilation rated b shall be in addition to the air leakage rate and shall be as proposed. |
a. Where required by the code official, testing shall be conducted by an approved party. Hourly calculations as specified in the ASHRAE Handbook of Fundamentals, or the equivalent shall be used to determine the energy loads resulting from infiltration. b. The combined air exchange rate for infiltration and mechanical ventilation shall be determined in accordance with Equation 43 of 2001 ASHRAE Handbook of Fundamentals, page 26.24 and the "Whole-house Ventilation" provisions of 2001 ASHRAE Handbook of Fundamentals, page 26.19 for intermittent mechanical ventilation. |
63. Delete Section N1109.1.1.1 (R503.1.1.1).
96. 64. Change Section M1401.3 to read:
M1401.3 Equipment and appliance sizing. Heating and cooling equipment and appliances shall be sized in accordance with ACCA Manual S or other approved sizing methodologies based on building loads calculated in accordance with ACCA Manual J or other approved heating and cooling calculation methodologies.
Exception: Heating and cooling equipment and appliance sizing shall not be limited to the capacities determined in accordance with Manual S or other approved sizing methodologies where any of the following conditions apply:
1. The specified equipment or appliance utilizes multi-stage technology or variable refrigerant flow technology and the loads calculated in accordance with the approved heating and cooling methodology fall within the range of the manufacturer's published capacities for that equipment or appliance.
2. The specified equipment or appliance manufacturer's published capacities cannot satisfy both the total and sensible heat gains calculated in accordance with the approved heating and cooling methodology, and the next larger standard size unit is specified.
3. The specified equipment or appliance is the lowest capacity unit available from the specified manufacturer.
97. 65. Add Section M1501.2 to read:
M1501.2 Transfer air. Air transferred from occupiable spaces other than kitchens, baths, and toilet rooms shall not be prohibited from serving as makeup air for exhaust systems. Transfer openings between spaces shall be of the same cross-sectional area as the free area of the makeup air openings. Where louvers and grilles are installed, the required size of openings shall be based on the net free area of each opening. Where the design and free area of louvers and grilles are not known, it shall be assumed that wood louvers will have 25% free area and metal louvers and grilles will have 75% free area.
66. Change Section M1502.4.2 to read:
M1502.4.2 Duct installation. Exhaust ducts shall be supported at 4-foot (1219 mm) intervals and shall be secured in place. The insert end of the duct shall extend into the adjoining duct or fitting in the direction of airflow. Ducts shall not be joined with screws or similar fasteners that protrude into the inside of the duct.
98. 67. Change Section M1503.4 and add Section M1503.4.1 to read:
M1503.4 Makeup air required. Exhaust hood systems capable of exhausting more than 400 cubic feet per minute (0.19 m3/s) shall be provided with makeup air at a rate approximately equal to the exhaust air rate in excess of 400 cubic feet per minute (0.19 m3/s). Such makeup air systems shall be equipped with a means of closure and shall be automatically controlled to start and operate simultaneously with the exhaust system.
Exception: Intentional openings for makeup air are not required for kitchen exhaust systems capable of exhausting not greater than 600 cubic feet per minute (0.28 m3/s) provided that one of the following conditions is met:
1. Where the floor area within the air barrier of a dwelling unit is at least 1500 square feet (139.35 m2), and where natural draft or mechanical draft space-heating or water-heating appliances are not located within the air barrier.
2. Where the floor area within the air barrier of a dwelling unit is at least 3000 square feet (278.71 m2), and where natural draft space-heating or water-heating appliances are not located within the air barrier.
M1503.4.1 Location. Kitchen exhaust makeup air shall be provided in the same room as the exhaust system or in a room or duct system communicating through one or more permanent openings with the room in which such exhaust system is located. Permanent openings shall be at least of the same net cross-sectional area as the required area of the makeup air openings.
99. 68. Add Section M1801.1.1 to read:
M1801.1.1 Equipment changes. Upon the replacement or new installation of any fuel-burning appliances or equipment in existing buildings, an inspection or inspections shall be conducted to ensure that the connected vent or chimney systems comply with the following:
1. Vent or chimney systems are sized in accordance with this code.
2. Vent or chimney systems are clean, free of any obstruction or blockages, defects or deterioration and are in operable condition.
Where not inspected by the local building department, persons performing such changes or installations shall certify to the building official that the requirements of Items 1 and 2 of this section are met.
69. Change Sections G2411.1 and G2411.1.1 to read:
G2411.1 Pipe and tubing. Each above-group portion of a gas piping system that is likely to become energized shall be electrically continuous and bonded to an effective ground-fault current path. Gas piping shall be considered to be bonded where it is connected to appliances that are connected to the equipment grounding conductor of the circuit supplying that appliance. Corrugated stainless steel tubing (CSST) piping systems listed with an arc resistant jacket or coating system in accordance with ANSI LC 1/CSA 6.26 shall comply with this section. Where any CSST segments of a piping system are not listed with an arc resistant jacket or coating system in accordance with ANSI LC 1/CSA 6.26, Section G2411.1.1 shall apply.
G2411.1.1 CSST without arc resistant jacket or coating system. CSST gas piping systems and piping systems containing one or more segments of CSST not listed with an arc resistant jacket or coating system in accordance with ANSI LC 1/CSA 6.26 shall be bonded to the electrical service grounding electrode system or, where provided, the lightning protection electrode system and shall comply with Sections G2411.1.1.1 through G2411.1.1.5.
100. 70. Add Section G2425.1.1 to read:
G2425.1.1 Equipment changes. Upon the replacement or new installation of any fuel-burning appliances or equipment in existing buildings, an inspection or inspections shall be conducted to ensure that the connected vent or chimney systems comply with the following:
1. Vent or chimney systems are sized in accordance with this code.
2. Vent or chimney systems are clean, free of any obstruction or blockages, defects, or deterioration and are in operable condition.
Where not inspected by the local building department, persons performing such changes or installations shall certify to the building official that the requirements of Items 1 and 2 of this section are met.
71. Change Section G2439.7.2 to read:
G2439.7.2 Duct installation. Exhaust ducts shall be supported at 4-foot (1219 mm) intervals and secured in place. The insert end of the duct shall extend into the adjoining duct or fitting in the direction of airflow. Ducts shall not be joined with screws or similar fasteners that protrude into the inside of the duct.
101. 72. Change Section P2601.2 to read:
P2601.2 Connections. Plumbing fixtures, drains and appliances used to receive or discharge liquid wastes or sewage shall be directly connected to the sanitary drainage system of the building or premises, in accordance with the requirements of this code. This section shall not be construed to prevent indirect waste systems.
Exception: Bathtubs, showers, lavatories, clothes washers and laundry trays shall not be required to discharge to the sanitary drainage system where such fixtures discharge to an approved nonpotable gray water system in accordance with the applicable provisions of Sections P2909, P2910, and P2911, and P2912.
102. 73. Change Section P2602.1 to read:
P2602.1 General. The water and drainage system of any building or premises where plumbing fixtures are installed shall be connected to a public or private water supply and a public or private sewer system. As provided for in Section 103.10 of Part I of the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63) for functional design, water supply sources and sewage disposal systems are regulated and approved by the Virginia Department of Health and the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality.
Note: See also the Memorandums of Agreement in the "Related Laws Package," which is available from the Virginia Department of Housing and Community Development.
74. Add Section P2602.3 to read:
P2602.3 Tracer wire. Nonmetallic water service piping that connects to public systems shall be locatable. An insulated copper tracer wire, 18 AWG minimum in size and suitable for direct burial or an equivalent product, shall be utilized. The wire shall be installed in the same trench as the water service piping and within 12 inches (305 mm) of the pipe and shall be installed to within five feet (1524 mm) of the building wall to the point where the building water service pipe intersects with the public water supply. At a minimum, one end of the wire shall terminate above grade to provide access to the wire in a location that is resistant to physical damage, such as with a meter vault or at the building wall.
103. 75. Add Section P2901.1.1 to read:
P2901.1.1 Nonpotable fixtures and outlets. Nonpotable water shall be permitted to serve nonpotable type fixtures and outlets in accordance with the applicable provisions of Sections P2909, P2910, and P2911, and P2912.
104. 76. Change Section P2903.5 to read:
P2903.5 Water hammer. The flow velocity of the water distribution system shall be controlled to reduce the possibility of water hammer. A water-hammer arrestor shall be installed where quick-closing valves are utilized, unless otherwise approved. Water hammer arrestors shall be installed in accordance with manufacturer's specifications. Water hammer arrestors shall conform to ASSE 1010.
105. Add Section P3002.2.1 to read as follows and delete Section P3009 in its entirety:
P3002.2.1 Tracer wire. Nonmetallic sanitary sewer piping that discharges to public systems shall be locatable. An insulated copper tracer wire, 18 AWG minimum in size and suitable for direct burial or an equivalent product, shall be utilized. The wire shall be installed in the same trench as the sewer within 12 inches (305 mm) of the pipe and shall be installed from within five feet of the building wall to the point where the building sewer intersects with the public system. At a minimum, one end of the wire shall terminate above grade in an accessible location that is resistant to physical damage, such as with a cleanout or at the building wall.
106. Add an exception to Section P3301.1 to read:
Exception: Rainwater nonpotable water systems shall be permitted in accordance with the applicable provisions of Sections P2909 and 2911.
107. Add Section P2909 Nonpotable Water Systems.
108. Add 77. Change Sections P2909.1 P2910.1 through P2909.18 P2910.14, including subsections, to read:
P2909.1 P2910.1 Scope. The provisions of this section shall govern the materials, design, construction, and installation of nonpotable water systems subject to this code.
P2909.1.1 P2910.1.1 Design of nonpotable water systems. All portions of nonpotable water systems subject to this code shall be constructed using the same standards and requirements for the potable water systems or drainage systems as provided for in this code unless otherwise specified in this section or Section P2910 or P2911 or P2912, as applicable.
P2909.2 P2910.2 Makeup water. Makeup water shall be provided for all nonpotable water supply systems. The makeup water system shall be designed and installed to provide supply of water in the amounts and at the pressures specified in this code. The makeup water supply shall be potable and be protected against backflow in accordance with the applicable requirements of Section P2902.
P2909.2.1 P2910.2.1 Makeup water sources. Nonpotable water shall be permitted to serve as makeup water for gray water and rainwater systems.
P2909.2.2 P2910.2.2 Makeup water supply valve. A full-open valve shall be provided on the makeup water supply line.
P2909.2.3 P2910.2.3 Control valve alarm. Makeup water systems shall be fitted with a warning mechanism that alerts the user to a failure of the inlet control valve to close correctly. The alarm shall activate before the water within the storage tank begins to discharge into the overflow system.
P2909.3 P2910.3 Sizing. Nonpotable water distribution systems shall be designed and sized for peak demand in accordance with approved engineering practice methods that comply with the applicable provisions of this chapter.
P2909.4 P2910.4 Signage required. All nonpotable water outlets, other than water closets and urinals, such as hose connections, open ended pipes, and faucets shall be identified at the point of use for each outlet with signage that reads as follows: "Nonpotable water is utilized for (insert application name). Caution: nonpotable water. DO NOT DRINK." The words shall be legibly and indelibly printed on a tag or sign constructed of corrosion-resistant waterproof material or shall be indelibly printed on the fixture. The letters of the words shall be not less than 0.5 inches (12.7 mm) in height and in colors in contrast to the background on which they are applied. The pictograph shown in Figure P2909.4 P2910.4 shall appear on the signage required by this section.
Editor's Note: Figure P2909.4 is being deleted, and Figure P2910.4 is being added in the proposed action.
P2909.5 P2910.5 Potable water supply system connections. Where a potable water supply system is connected to a nonpotable water system, the potable water supply shall be protected against backflow in accordance with the applicable provisions of Section P2902.
P2909.6 P2910.6 Nonpotable water system connections. Where a nonpotable water system is connected and supplies water to another nonpotable water system, the nonpotable water system that supplies water shall be protected against backflow in accordance with the applicable provisions of Section P2902.
P2909.7 P2910.7 Approved components and materials. Piping, plumbing components, and materials used in the nonpotable water drainage and distribution systems shall be approved for the intended application and compatible with the water and any disinfection or treatment systems used.
P2909.8 P2910.8 Insect and vermin control. Nonpotable water systems shall be protected to prevent the entrance of insects and vermin into storage and piping systems. Screen materials shall be compatible with system material and shall not promote corrosion of system components.
P2909.9 P2910.9 Freeze protection. Nonpotable water systems shall be protected from freezing in accordance with the applicable provisions of Chapter 26.
P2909.10 P2910.10 Nonpotable water storage tanks. Nonpotable water storage tanks shall be approved for the intended application and comply with Sections P2909.10.1 P2910.10.1 through P2909.10.12 P2910.10.12.
P2909.10.1 P2910.10.1 Sizing. The holding capacity of storage tanks shall be sized for the intended use.
P2909.10.2 P2910.10.2 Inlets. Storage tank inlets shall be designed to introduce water into the tank and avoid agitating the contents of the storage tank. The water supply to storage tanks shall be controlled by fill valves or other automatic supply valves designed to stop the flow of incoming water before the tank contents reach the overflow pipes.
P2909.10.3 P2910.10.3 Outlets. Outlets shall be located at least 4 inches (102 mm) above the bottom of the storage tank and shall not skim water from the surface.
P2909.10.4 P2910.10.4 Materials and location. Storage tanks shall be constructed of material compatible with treatment systems used to treat water. Above grade storage vessels shall be constructed using opaque, UV-resistant materials such as tinted plastic, lined metal, concrete, or wood or painted to prevent algae growth. Above grade storage tanks shall be protected from direct sunlight unless their design specifically incorporates the use of the sunlight heat transfer. Wooden storage tanks shall be provided with a flexible liner. Storage tanks and their manholes shall not be located directly under soil or waste piping or sources of contamination.
P2909.10.5 P2910.10.5 Foundation and supports. Storage tanks shall be supported on a firm base capable of withstanding the storage tank's weight when filled to capacity. Storage tanks shall be supported in accordance with the applicable provisions of the IBC.
P2909.10.5.1 P2910.10.5.1 Ballast. Where the soil can become saturated, an underground storage tank shall be ballasted, or otherwise secured, to prevent the effects of buoyancy. The combined weight of the tank and hold down ballast shall meet or exceed the buoyancy force of the tank. Where the installation requires a foundation, the foundation shall be flat and shall be designed to support the storage tank weight when full, consistent with the bearing capability of adjacent soil.
P2909.10.5.2 P2910.10.5.2 Structural support. Where installed below grade, storage tank installations shall be designed to withstand earth and surface structural loads without damage.
P2909.10.6 P2910.10.6 Overflow. The storage tank shall be equipped with an overflow pipe having a diameter not less than that shown in Table P2909.10.6 P2910.10.6. The overflow outlet shall discharge at a point not less than 6 inches (152 mm) above the roof or roof drain, floor or floor drain, or over an open water-supplied fixture. The overflow outlet shall terminate through a check valve. Overflow pipes shall not be directed on walkways. The overflow drain shall not be equipped with a shutoff valve. A minimum of one cleanout shall be provided on each overflow pipe in accordance with the applicable provisions of Section P3005.2.
Table P2909.10.6 P2910.10.6 Sizes for Overflow Pipes for Water Supply Tanks |
Maximum Capacity of Water Supply Line to Tank (gpm) | Diameter of Overflow Pipe (inches) |
0 - 50 | 2 |
50 - 150 | 2-1/2 |
150 - 200 | 3 |
200 - 400 | 4 |
400 - 700 | 5 |
700 - 1,000 | 6 |
Over 1,000 | 8 |
For SI: 1 inch = 25.4 mm, 1 gallon per minute = 3.785 L/m. |
P2909.10.7 P2910.10.7 Access. A minimum of one access opening shall be provided to allow inspection and cleaning of the tank interior. Access openings shall have an approved locking device or other approved method of securing access. Below grade storage tanks, located outside of the building, shall be provided with either a manhole not less than 24 inches (610 mm) square or a manhole with an inside diameter not less than 24 inches (610 mm). The design and installation of access openings shall prohibit surface water from entering the tank. Each manhole cover shall have an approved locking device or other approved method of securing access.
Exception: Storage tanks under 800 gallons (3028 L) in volume installed below grade shall not be required to be equipped with a manhole, but shall have an access opening not less than 8 inches (203 mm) in diameter to allow inspection and cleaning of the tank interior.
P2909.10.8 P2910.10.8 Venting. Storage tanks shall be vented. Vents shall not be connected to the sanitary drainage system. Vents shall be at least equal in size to the internal diameter of the drainage inlet pipe or pipes connected to the tank. Where installed at grade, vents shall be protected from contamination by means of a U-bend installed with the opening directed downward. Vent outlets shall extend a minimum of 12 inches (304.8 mm) above grade, or as necessary to prevent surface water from entering the storage tank. Vent openings shall be protected against the entrance of vermin and insects. Vents serving gray water tanks shall terminate in accordance with the applicable provisions of Sections P3103 and P2909.8 P2910.8.
P2909.10.9 P2910.10.9 Drain. Where drains are provided, they shall be located at the lowest point of the storage tank. The tank drain pipe shall discharge as required for overflow pipes and shall not be smaller in size than specified in Table P2909.10.6 P2910.10.6. A minimum of one cleanout shall be provided on each drain pipe in accordance with Section P3005.2.
P2909.10.10 P2910.10.10 Labeling and signage. Each nonpotable water storage tank shall be labeled with its rated capacity and the location of the upstream bypass valve. Underground and otherwise concealed storage tanks shall be labeled at all access points. The label shall read: "CAUTION: NONPOTABLE WATER - DO NOT DRINK." Where an opening is provided that could allow the entry of personnel, the opening shall be marked with the words: "DANGER - CONFINED SPACE." Markings shall be indelibly printed on a tag or sign constructed of corrosion-resistant waterproof material mounted on the tank or shall be indelibly printed on the tank. The letters of the words shall be not less than 0.5 inches (12.7 mm) in height and shall be of a color in contrast with the background on which they are applied.
P2909.10.11 P2910.10.11 Storage tank tests. Storage tanks shall be tested in accordance with the following:
1. Storage tanks shall be filled with water to the overflow line prior to and during inspection. All seams and joints shall be left exposed and the tank shall remain water tight without leakage for a period of 24 hours.
2. After 24 hours, supplemental water shall be introduced for a period of 15 minutes to verify proper drainage of the overflow system and verify that there are no leaks.
3. Following a successful test of the overflow system, the water level in the tank shall be reduced to a level that is at 2 inches (50.8 mm) below the makeup water offset point. The tank drain shall be observed for proper operation. The makeup water system shall be observed for proper operation, and successful automatic shutoff of the system at the refill threshold shall be verified. Water shall not be drained from the overflow at any time during the refill test.
4. Air tests shall be permitted in lieu of water testing as recommended by the tank manufacturer or the tank standard.
P2909.10.12 P2910.10.12 Structural strength. Storage tanks shall meet the applicable structural strength requirements of the IBC.
P2909.11 P2910.11 Trenching requirements for nonpotable water system piping. Underground nonpotable water system piping shall be horizontally separated from the building sewer and potable water piping by 5 feet (1524 m) of undisturbed or compacted earth. Nonpotable water system piping shall not be located in, under, or above sewage systems cesspools, septic tanks, septic tank drainage fields, or seepage pits. Buried nonpotable water system piping shall comply with the requirements of this code for the piping material installed.
Exceptions:
1. The required separation distance shall not apply where the bottom of the nonpotable water pipe within 5 feet (1524 mm) of the sewer is equal to or greater than 12 inches (305 mm) above the top of the highest point of the sewer and the pipe materials conforms to Table P3002.2.
2. The required separation distance shall not apply where the bottom of the potable water service pipe within 5 feet (1524 mm) of the nonpotable water pipe is a minimum of 12 inches (305 mm) above the top of the highest point of the nonpotable water pipe and the pipe materials comply with the requirements of Table P2905.5 P2906.5.
3. Nonpotable water pipe is permitted to be located in the same trench with building sewer piping, provided that such sewer piping is constructed of materials that comply with the requirements of Table P3002.1(2).
4. The required separation distance shall not apply where a nonpotable water pipe crosses a sewer pipe, provided that the pipe is sleeved to at least 5 feet (1524 mm) horizontally from the sewer pipe centerline on both sides of such crossing with pipe materials that comply with Table P3002.1(2).
5. The required separation distance shall not apply where a potable water service pipe crosses a nonpotable water pipe provided that the potable water service pipe is sleeved for a distance of at least 5 feet (1524 mm) horizontally from the centerline of the nonpotable pipe on both sides of such crossing with pipe materials that comply with Table P3002.1(2).
P2909.12 P2910.12 Outdoor outlet access. Sillcocks, hose bibs, wall hydrants, yard hydrants, and other outdoor outlets that are supplied by nonpotable water shall be located in a locked vault or shall be operable only by means of a removable key.
P2909.13 P2910.13 Drainage and vent piping and fittings. Nonpotable drainage and vent pipe and fittings shall comply with the applicable material standards and installation requirements in accordance with provisions of Chapter 30.
P2909.13.1 P2910.13.1 Labeling and marking. Identification of nonpotable drainage and vent piping shall not be required.
P2909.14 P2910.14 Pumping and control system. Mechanical equipment, including pumps, valves, and filters, shall be accessible and removable in order to perform repair, maintenance, and cleaning. The minimum flow rate and flow pressure delivered by the pumping system shall be designed for the intended application in accordance with the applicable provisions of Section P2903.
78. Add Sections P2910.15 through P2910.18, including subsections, to read:
P2909.15 P2910.15 Water-pressure reducing valve or regulator. Where the water pressure supplied by the pumping system exceeds 80 psi (552 kPa) static, a pressure-reducing valve shall be installed to reduce the pressure in the nonpotable water distribution system piping to 80 psi (552 kPa) static or less. Pressure-reducing valves shall be specified and installed in accordance with the applicable provisions of Section P2903.3.1.
P2909.16 P2910.16 Distribution pipe. Distribution piping utilized in nonpotable water stems shall comply with Sections P2909.16.1 P2910.16.1 through P2909.16.4 P2910.16.4.
P2909.16.1 P2910.16.1 Materials, joints, and connections. Distribution piping and fittings shall comply with the applicable material standards and installation requirements in accordance with applicable provisions of Chapter 29.
P2909.16.2 P2910.16.2 Design. Distribution piping shall be designed and sized in accordance with the applicable provisions of Chapter 29.
P2909.16.3 P2910.16.3 Labeling and marking. Distribution piping labeling and marking shall comply with Section P2901.1.
P2909.16.4 P2910.16.4 Backflow prevention. Backflow preventers shall be installed in accordance with the applicable provisions of Section P2902.
P2909.17 P2910.17 Tests and inspections. Tests and inspections shall be performed in accordance with Sections P2909.17.1 P2910.17.1 through P2909.17.5 P2910.17.5.
P2909.17.1 P2910.17.1 Drainage and vent pipe test. Drain, waste, and vent piping used for gray water and rainwater nonpotable water systems shall be tested in accordance with the applicable provisions of Section P2503.
P2909.17.2 P2910.17.2 Storage tank test. Storage tanks shall be tested in accordance with the Section P2909.10.11 P2910.10.11.
P2909.17.3 P2910.17.3 Water supply system test. Nonpotable distribution piping shall be tested in accordance with Section P2503.7.
P2909.17.4 P2910.17.4 Inspection and testing of backflow prevention assemblies. The testing of backflow preventers and backwater valves shall be conducted in accordance with Section P2503.8.
P2909.17.5 P2910.17.5 Inspection of vermin and insect protection. Inlets and vent terminations shall be visually inspected to verify that each termination is installed in accordance with Section P2909.10.8 P2910.10.8.
P2909.18 P2910.18 Operation and maintenance manuals. Operations and maintenance materials for nonpotable water systems shall be provided as prescribed by the system component manufacturers and supplied to the owner to be kept in a readily accessible location.
109. Add 79. Change the title of Section P2910 P2911 to "Gray Water Nonpotable Water Systems."
110. Add 80. Change Sections P2910.1 P2911.1 through P2910.6 P2911.6, including subsections, to read:
P2910.1 P2911.1 Gray water nonpotable water systems. This code is applicable to the plumbing fixtures, piping or piping systems, storage tanks, drains, appurtenances, and appliances that are part of the distribution system for gray water within buildings and to storage tanks and associated piping that are part of the distribution system for gray water outside of buildings. This code does not regulate equipment used for, or the methods of, processing, filtering, or treating gray water, which may be regulated by the Virginia Department of Health or the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality.
P2910.1.1 P2911.1.1 Separate systems. Gray water nonpotable water systems, unless approved otherwise under the permit from the Virginia Department of Health, shall be separate from the potable water system of a building with no cross connections between the two systems except as permitted by the Virginia Department of Health.
P2910.2 P2911.2 Water quality. Each application of gray water reuse shall meet the minimum water quality requirements set forth in Sections P2910.2.1 P2911.2.1 through P2910.2.4 P2911.2.4 unless otherwise superseded by other state agencies.
P2910.2.1 P2911.2.1 Disinfection. Where the intended use or reuse application for nonpotable water requires disinfection or other treatment or both, it shall be disinfected as needed to ensure that the required water quality is delivered at the point of use or reuse.
P2910.2.2 P2911.2.2 Residual disinfectants. Where chlorine is used for disinfection, the nonpotable water shall contain not more than 4 parts per million (4 mg/L) of free chlorine, combined chlorine, or total chlorine. Where ozone is used for disinfection, the nonpotable water shall not exceed 0.1 parts per million (by volume) of ozone at the point of use.
P2910.2.3 P2911.2.3 Filtration. Water collected for reuse shall be filtered as required for the intended end use. Filters shall be accessible for inspection and maintenance. Filters shall utilize a pressure gauge or other approved method to indicate when a filter requires servicing or replacement. Shutoff valves installed immediately upstream and downstream of the filter shall be included to allow for isolation during maintenance.
P2910.2.4 P2911.2.4 Filtration required. Gray water utilized for water closet and urinal flushing applications shall be filtered by a 100 micron or finer filter.
P2910.3 P2911.3 Storage tanks. Storage tanks utilized in gray water nonpotable water systems shall comply with Section P2909.10 P2910.10.
P2910.4 P2911.4 Retention time limits. Untreated gray water shall be retained in storage tanks for a maximum of 24 hours.
P2910.5 P2911.5 Tank location. Storage tanks shall be located with a minimum horizontal distance between various elements as indicated in Table P2910.5.1 P2911.5.1.
Table P2910.5.1 P2911.5.1 Location of Nonpotable Gray Water Reuse Storage Tanks |
Element | Minimum Horizontal Distance from Storage Tank (feet) |
Lot line adjoining private lots | 5 |
Sewage systems | 5 |
Septic tanks | 5 |
Water wells | 50 |
Streams and lakes | 50 |
Water service | 5 |
Public water main | 10 |
P2910.6 P2911.6 Valves. Valves shall be supplied on gray water nonpotable water drainage systems in accordance with Sections P2910.6.1 P2911.6.1 and P2910.6.2 P2911.6.2.
P2910.6.1 P2911.6.1 Bypass valve. One three-way diverter valve certified to NSF 50 or other approved device shall be installed on collection piping upstream of each storage tank, or drainfield, as applicable, to divert untreated gray water to the sanitary sewer to allow servicing and inspection of the system. Bypass valves shall be installed downstream of fixture traps and vent connections. Bypass valves shall be labeled to indicate the direction of flow, connection, and storage tank or drainfield connection. Bypass valves shall be provided with access for operation and maintenance. Two shutoff valves shall not be installed to serve as a bypass valve.
P2910.6.2 P2911.6.2 Backwater valve. Backwater valves shall be installed on each overflow and tank drain pipe to prevent unwanted water from draining back into the storage tank. If the overflow and drain piping arrangement is installed to physically not allow water to drain back into the tank, such as in the form of an air gap, backwater valves shall not be required. Backwater valves shall be constructed and installed in accordance with Section P3008.
111. Add 81. Change the title of Section P2911 P2912 to "Rainwater Nonpotable Water Systems."
112. Add 82. Change Sections P2911.1 P2912.1 through P2911.10 P2912.10, including subsections, to read:
P2911.1 P2912.1 General. The provisions of this section shall govern the design, construction, installation, alteration, and repair of rainwater nonpotable water systems for the collection, storage, treatment, and distribution of rainwater for nonpotable applications.
P2911.2 P2912.2 Water quality. Each application of rainwater reuse shall meet the minimum water quality requirements set forth in Sections P2911.2.1 P2912.2.1 through P2911.2.4 P2912.2.4 unless otherwise superseded by other state agencies.
P2911.2.1 P2912.2.1 Disinfection. Where the intended use or reuse application for nonpotable water requires disinfection or other treatment or both, it shall be disinfected as needed to ensure that the required water quality is delivered at the point of use or reuse.
P2911.2.2 P2912.2.2 Residual disinfectants. Where chlorine is used for disinfection, the nonpotable water shall contain not more than 4 parts per million (4 mg/L) of free chlorine, combined chlorine, or total chlorine. Where ozone is used for disinfection, the nonpotable water shall not exceed 0.1 parts per million (by volume) of ozone at the point of use.
P2911.2.3 P2912.2.3 Filtration. Water collected for reuse shall be filtered as required for the intended end use. Filters shall be accessible for inspection and maintenance. Filters shall utilize a pressure gauge or other approved method to indicate when a filter requires servicing or replacement. Shutoff valves installed immediately upstream and downstream of the filter shall be included to allow for isolation during maintenance.
P2911.2.4 P2912.2.4 Filtration required. Rainwater utilized for water closet and urinal flushing applications shall be filtered by a 100 micron or finer filter.
P2911.3 P2912.3 Collection surface. Rainwater shall be collected only from aboveground impervious roofing surfaces constructed from approved materials. Overflow or discharge piping from appliances or equipment or both, including but not limited to evaporative coolers, water heaters, and solar water heaters shall not discharge onto rainwater collection surfaces.
P2911.4 P2912.4 Collection surface diversion. At a minimum, the first 0.04 inches (1.016 mm) of each rain event of 25 gallons (94.6 L) per 1000 square feet (92.9 m2) shall be diverted from the storage tank by automatic means and not require the operation of manually operated valves or devices. Diverted water shall not drain onto other collection surfaces that are discharging to the rainwater system or to the sanitary sewer. Such water shall be diverted from the storage tank and discharged in an approved location.
P2911.5 P2912.5 Pre-tank filtration. Downspouts, conductors, and leaders shall be connected to a pre-tank filtration device. The filtration device shall not permit materials larger than 0.015 inches (0.4 mm).
P2911.6 P2912.6 Roof gutters and downspouts. Gutters and downspouts shall be constructed of materials that are compatible with the collection surface and the rainwater quality for the desired end use. Joints shall be made watertight.
P2911.6.1 P2912.6.1 Slope. Roof gutters, leaders, and rainwater collection piping shall slope continuously toward collection inlets. Gutters and downspouts shall have a slope of not less than 1 unit in 96 units along their entire length, and shall not permit the collection or pooling of water at any point.
P2911.6.2 P2912.6.2 Size. Gutters and downspouts shall be installed and sized in accordance with local rainfall rates.
P2911.6.3 P2912.6.3 Cleanouts. Cleanouts or other approved openings shall be provided to permit access to all filters, flushes, pipes, and downspouts.
P2911.7 P2912.7 Storage tanks. Storage tanks utilized in rainwater nonpotable water systems shall comply with Section P2909.10 P2910.10.
P2911.8 P2912.8 Location. Storage tanks shall be located with a minimum horizontal distance between various elements as indicated in Table P2911.8.1 P2912.8.1.
Table P2911.8.1 P2912.8.1 Location of Rainwater Storage Tanks |
Element | Minimum Horizontal Distance from Storage Tank (feet) |
Lot line adjoining private lots | 5 |
Sewage systems | 5 |
Septic tanks | 5 |
P2911.9 P2912.9 Valves. Valves shall be installed in collection and conveyance drainage piping of rainwater nonpotable water systems in accordance with Sections P2911.9.1 P2912.9.1 and P2911.9.2 P2912.9.2.
P2911.9.1 P2912.9.1 Influent diversion. A means shall be provided to divert storage tank influent to allow maintenance and repair of the storage tank system.
P2911.9.2 P2912.9.2 Backwater valve. Backwater valves shall be installed on each overflow and tank drain pipe to prevent unwanted water from draining back into the storage tank. If the overflow and drain piping arrangement is installed to physically not allow water to drain back into the tank, such as in the form of an air gap, backwater valves shall not be required. Backwater valves shall be constructed and installed in accordance with Section P3008.
P2911.10 P2912.10 Tests and inspections. Tests and inspections shall be performed in accordance with Sections P2911.10.1 through P2911.10.2 P2912.10.1 and P2912.10.2.
P2911.10.1 P2912.10.1 Roof gutter inspection and test. Roof gutters shall be inspected to verify that the installation and slope is in accordance with Section P2911.6.1 P2912.6.1. Gutters shall be tested by pouring a minimum of one gallon of water into the end of the gutter opposite the collection point. The gutter being tested shall not leak and shall not retain standing water.
P2911.10.2 P2912.10.2 Collection surface diversion test. A collection surface diversion test shall be performed by introducing water into the gutters or onto the collection surface area. Diversion of the first quantity of water in accordance with the requirements of Section P2911.4 P2912.4 shall be verified.
83. Delete Sections P2912.11 through P2912.16.
84. Delete Section P2913 in its entirety.
85. Add Section P3002.2.2 to read:
P3002.2.2 Tracer wire. Nonmetallic sanitary sewer piping that discharges to public systems shall be locatable. An insulated copper tracer wire, 18 AWG minimum in size and suitable for direct burial or an equivalent product, shall be utilized. The wire shall be installed in the same trench as the sewer within 12 inches (305 mm) of the pipe and shall be installed from within five feet of the building wall to the point where the building sewer intersects with the public system. At a minimum, one end of the wire shall terminate above grade in an accessible location that is resistant to physical damage, such as with a cleanout or at the building wall.
86. Add an exception to Section P3301.1 to read:
Exception: Rainwater nonpotable water systems shall be permitted in accordance with the applicable provisions of Sections P2910 and P2912.
113. 87. Add Section E3601.8 to read:
E3601.8 Energizing service equipment. The building official shall give permission to energize the electrical service equipment of a one-family or two-family dwelling unit when all of the following requirements have been approved:
1. The service wiring and equipment, including the meter socket enclosure, shall be installed and the service wiring terminated.
2. The grounding electrode system shall be installed and terminated.
3. At least one receptacle outlet on a ground fault protected circuit shall be installed and the circuit wiring terminated.
4. Service equipment covers shall be installed.
5. The building roof covering shall be installed.
6. Temporary electrical service equipment shall be suitable for wet locations unless the interior is dry and protected from the weather.
114. 88. Change Section E3802.4 to read:
E3802.4 In unfinished basements. Where Type SE or NM cable is run at angles with joists in unfinished basements, cable assemblies containing two or more conductors of sizes 6 AWG and larger and assemblies containing three or more conductors of sizes 8 AWG and larger shall not require additional protection where attached directly to the bottom of the joists. Smaller cables shall be run either through bored holes in joists or on running boards. Type NM or SE cable installed on the wall of an unfinished basement shall be permitted to be installed in a listed conduit or tubing or shall be protected in accordance with Table E3802.1. Conduit or tubing shall be provided with a suitable insulating bushing or adapter at the point the where cable enters the raceway. The sheath of the Type NM or SE cable shall extend through the conduit or tubing and into the outlet or device box not less than 1/4 inch (6.4 mm). The cable shall be secured within 12 inches (305 mm) of the point where the cable enters the conduit or tubing. Metal conduit, tubing, and metal outlet boxes shall be connected to an equipment grounding conductor complying with Section E3908.13.
115. 89. Change Section E3902.12 E3902.16 to read:
E3902.12 E3902.16 Arc-fault protection of bedroom outlets. All branch Branch circuits that supply 120-volt, single phase, 15-ampere and 20-ampere outlets installed in bedrooms shall be protected by a combination type arc-fault circuit interrupter installed to provide protection of the branch circuit. any of the following:
1. A listed combination-type arc-fault circuit interrupter installed to provide protection of the entire branch circuit.
2. A listed branch/feeder-type AFCI installed at the origin of the branch-circuit in combination with a listed outlet branch-circuit type arc-fault circuit interrupter installed at the first outlet box on the branch circuit. The first outlet box in the branch circuit shall be marked to indicate that it is the first outlet of the circuit.
3. A listed supplemental arc protection circuit breaker installed at the origin of the branch circuit in combination with a listed outlet branch-circuit type arc-fault circuit interrupter installed at the first outlet box on the branch circuit where all of the following conditions are met:
3.1. The branch-circuit wiring shall be continuous from the branch-circuit overcurrent device to the outlet branch-circuit arc-fault circuit interrupter.
3.2. The maximum length of the branch-circuit wiring from the branch-circuit overcurrent device to the first outlet shall not exceed 50 feet (15.2 m) for 14 AWG conductors and 70 feet (21.3 m) for 12 AWG conductors.
3.3. The first outlet box on the branch circuit shall be marked to indicate that it is the first outlet on the circuit.
4. A listed outlet branch-circuit type arc-fault circuit interrupter installed at the first outlet on the branch circuit in combination with a listed branch-circuit overcurrent protective device where all of the following conditions are met:
4.1. The branch-circuit wiring shall be continuous from the branch-circuit overcurrent device to the outlet branch-circuit arc-fault circuit interrupter.
4.2. The maximum length of the branch-circuit wiring from the branch-circuit overcurrent device to the first outlet shall not exceed 50 feet (15.2 m) for 14 AWG conductors and 70 feet (21.3 m) for 12 AWG conductors.
4.3. The first outlet box on the branch circuit shall be marked to indicate that it is the first outlet on the circuit.
4.4. The combination of the branch-circuit overcurrent device and outlet branch-circuit AFCI shall be identified as meeting the requirements for a system combination-type AFCI and shall be listed as such.
5. Where metal outlet boxes and junction boxes and RMC, IMC, EMT, Type MC or steel-armored Type AC cables meeting the requirements of Section E3908.8, metal wireways or metal auxiliary gutters are installed for the portion of the branch circuit between the branch-circuit overcurrent device and the first outlet, a listed branch-circuit type AFCI installed at the first outlet shall be considered as providing protection for the remaining portion of the branch circuit.
6. Where a listed metal or nonmetallic conduit or tubing or Type MC cable is encased in not less than two inches (50.8 mm) of concrete for the portion of the branch circuit between the branch-circuit overcurrent device and the first outlet, a listed outlet branch-circuit type AFCI installed at the first outlet shall be considered as providing protection for the remaining portion of the branch circuit.
Exceptions Exception:
1. Where an outlet branch-circuit Type AFCI is installed at the first outlet to provide protection for the remaining portion of the branch circuit, the portion of the branch circuit between the branch-circuit overcurrent device and the first outlet shall be installed with metal outlet and junction boxes and RMC, IMC, EMT, Type MC or steel armored Type AC cables meeting the requirements of Section E3908.8.
2. Where an outlet branch-circuit Type AFCI is installed at the first outlet to provide protection for the remaining portion of the branch circuit, the portion of the branch circuit between the branch-circuit overcurrent device and the first outlet shall be installed with metal or nonmetallic conduit or tubing that is encased in not less than 2 inches (51 mm) of concrete.
3. AFCI protection is not required for an individual branch circuit supplying only a fire alarm system where the branch circuit is wired with metal outlet and junction boxes and RMC, IMC, EMT or steel-sheathed armored cable Type AC, or Type MC meeting the requirements of Section E3908.8.
116. Add 90. Change the following referenced standards to in Chapter 44 as follows (standards not shown remain the same):
Standard Reference Number | Title | Referenced in Code Section Number |
ANSI LC1/CSA 6.26-14 | Fuel Gas Piping Systems Using Corrugated Stainless Steel Tubing (CSST) | G2411.1, G2411.1.1, G2414.5.3 |
ICC ISPSC-12 | International Swimming Pool and Spa Code | R325.1 |
NFPA 13R-10 | Installation of Sprinkler Systems in Residential Occupancies Up to and Including Four Stories in Height | R310.1 |
NSF 50-09 | Equipment for Swimming Pools, Spas, Hot Tubs and Other Recreational Water Facilities | P2910.6.1 P2911.6.1 |
T. U. Add "Marinas" to the list of occupancies in Section 312.1 of the IBC.
13VAC5-63-220. Chapter 4 Special detailed requirements based on use and occupancy.
A. Delete Section 403.4.5 of the IBC.
B. Change Section 407.4.1.1 of the IBC to read:
407.4.1.1 Special locking arrangement. Means of egress doors shall be permitted to contain locking devices restricting the means of egress in areas in which the clinical needs of the patients require restraint of movement, where all of the following conditions are met:
1. The locks release upon activation of the fire alarm system or the loss of power.
2. The building is equipped with an approved automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1.
3. A manual release device is provided at a nursing station responsible for the area.
4. A key-operated switch or other manual device is provided adjacent to each door equipped with the locking device. Such switch or other device, when operated, shall result in direct interruption of power to the lock -- independent of the control system electronics.
5. All staff shall have keys or other means to unlock the switch or other device or each door provided with the locking device.
C. Add Section 407.11 to the IBC to read:
407.11 Emergency power systems. Emergency power shall be provided for medical life support equipment, operating, recovery, intensive care, emergency rooms, fire detection and alarm systems in any Group I-2 occupancy licensed by the Virginia Department of Health as a hospital, nursing home or hospice facility.
D. Add Section 408.2.1 to the IBC to read:
408.2.1 Short-term holding areas. Short-term holding areas shall be permitted to comply with Section 427 429.
E. Change Section 408.6 of the IBC to read:
408.6 Smoke barrier. Occupancies classified as Group I-3 shall have smoke barriers complying with Sections 408.8 and 709 to divide every story occupied by residents for sleeping, or any other story having an occupant load of 50 or more persons, into no fewer than two smoke compartments.
F. Change Section 408.9 of the IBC and add Sections 408.9.1 through 408.9.3 to the IBC to read:
408.9 Smoke control. Smoke control for each smoke compartment shall be in accordance with Sections 408.9.1 through 408.9.3.
Exception: Smoke compartments with operable windows or windows that are readily breakable.
408.9.1 Locations. An engineered smoke control system shall comply with Section 909 and shall be provided in the following locations:
1. Dormitory areas.
2. Celled areas.
3. General housing areas.
4. Intake areas.
5. Medical celled or medical dormitory areas.
6. Interior recreation areas.
408.9.2 Compliance. The engineered smoke control system shall provide and maintain a tenable environment in the area of origin and shall comply with all of the following:
1. Shall facilitate the timely evacuation and relocation of occupants from the area of origin.
2. Shall be independent of exhaust systems under Chapter 5 of the IMC.
3. Duration of operation in accordance with Section 909.4.6.
4. The pressurization method shall be permitted and shall provide a minimum of 24 air changes per hour of exhaust, and 20 air changes per hour of makeup, and shall comply with Section 909.6. If the pressurization method is not utilized, the exhaust method shall be provided and shall comply with Section 909.8.
408.9.3 Corridors. Egress corridors within smoke compartments shall be kept free and clear of smoke.
G. Add an exception to Section 414.1.1.1 to 414.2 of the IBC to read:
414.1.1.1 Amendments. The following changes shall be made to the IFC for the use of this section:
1. Change Section 2306.8.1 of the IFC and add Section 2306.8.6 to the IFC to read:
2306.8.1 Listed. Dispensers shall be listed in accordance with UL 87A. Hoses, nozzles, breakaway fittings, swivels, flexible connectors or dispenser emergency shutoff valves, vapor recovery systems, leak detection devices, and pumps used in alcohol-blended fuel-dispensing systems shall be listed for the specific purpose.
2306.8.6 Compatibility. Dispensers shall only be used with the fuels for which they have been listed, which are marked on the product. Field installed components including hose assemblies, breakaway couplings, swivel connectors, and hose nozzle valves shall be provided in accordance with the listing and the marking on the unit.
2. Add the following reference standard to Chapter 80 of the IFC:
Standard reference number | Title | Referenced in code section number |
UL 87A-12 | Outline of Investigation for Power-Operated Dispensing Devices for Gasoline and Gasoline/Ethanol Blends with Nominal Ethanol Concentrations up to 85% | 2306.8.1 |
Exception: Higher education teaching and research laboratories shall be permitted to comply with Section 430.
H. Add Section 414.6.2 to the IBC to read:
414.6.2 Other regulations. The installation, repair, upgrade, and closure of underground and aboveground storage tanks subject to the Virginia State Water Control Board regulations 9VAC25-91 and 9VAC25-580 shall be governed by those regulations, which are hereby incorporated by reference to be an enforceable part of this code. Where differences occur between the provisions of this code and the incorporated provisions of the State Water Control Board regulations, the provisions of the State Water Control Board regulations shall apply. Provisions of the International Fire Code addressing closure of such tanks that are subject to the Virginia State Water Control Board regulations 9VAC25-91 and 9VAC25-580 shall not be applicable.
I. Change the title of Section 420 and change Sections 420.1 and 420.4 of the IBC to read:
Section 420 Groups I-1, R-1, R-2, R-3, and R-4.
420.1 General. Occupancies in Groups I-1, R-1, R-2, R-3, and R-4 shall comply with the provisions of Sections 420.1 through 420.6 and other applicable provisions of this code.
420.4 Smoke barriers in Group I-1 Condition 2. Smoke barriers shall be provided in Group I-1 Condition 2 to subdivide every story used by persons receiving care or treatment or sleeping and to divide other stories, with an occupant load of 50 or more persons, into no fewer than two smoke compartments. Such stories shall be divided into smoke compartments with an area of not more than 22,500 square feet (2092 m2) and the travel distance from any point in a smoke compartment to a smoke barrier door shall not exceed 200 feet (60 960 mm). The smoke barrier shall be in accordance with Section 709.
J. Add Section 420.4.1 to the IBC to read:
420.4.1 Refuge area. Refuge areas shall be provided within each smoke compartment. The size of the refuge area shall accommodate the occupants and care recipients from the adjoining smoke compartment. Where a smoke compartment is adjoined by two or more smoke compartments, the minimum area of the refuge area shall accommodate the largest occupant load of the adjoining compartments. The size of the refuge area shall provide the following:
1. Not less than 15 net square feet (1.4 m2) for each care recipient.
2. Not less than 6 net square feet (0.56 m2) for other occupants.
Areas or spaces permitted to be included in the calculation of the refuge area are corridors, lounge, or dining areas and other low hazard areas.
K. Change Section 420.5 of the IBC and add Section 420.6 to the IBC to read:
420.5 Automatic sprinkler system. Group R occupancies shall be equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.2.8. Group I-1 occupancies shall be equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.2.6. Quick response or residential automatic sprinklers shall be installed in accordance with Section 903.3.2.
420.6 Fire alarm systems and smoke alarms. Fire alarm systems and smoke alarms shall be provided in Groups I-1, R-1, R-2, and R-4 occupancies in accordance with Sections 907.2.6, 907.2.8, 907.2.9, and 907.2.10, respectively. Single-station or multiple-station smoke alarms shall be provided in Groups I-1, R-2, R-3, and R-4 in accordance with Section 907.2.11.
L. I. Add IBC Section 425 427 Manufactured Homes and Industrialized Buildings.
M. J. Add Section 425.1 427.1 to the IBC to read:
425.1 427.1 General. The provisions of this section shall apply to the installation or erection of manufactured homes subject to the Virginia Manufactured Home Safety Regulations (13VAC5-95) and industrialized buildings subject to the Virginia Industrialized Building Safety Regulations (13VAC5-91).
Note: Local building departments are also responsible for the enforcement of certain provisions of the Virginia Manufactured Home Safety Regulations (13VAC5-95) and the Virginia Industrialized Building Safety Regulations (13VAC5-91) as set out in those regulations.
N. K. Add Section 425.2 427.2 to the IBC to read:
425.2 427.2 Site work for manufactured homes. Footing design, basements, grading, drainage, decks, stoops, porches and utility connections shall comply with the provisions of this code applicable to Group R-5 occupancies. Additionally, all applicable provisions of Chapter 1 of this code, including but not limited to requirements for permits, inspections, certificates of occupancy and requiring compliance, are applicable to the installation and set-up of a manufactured home. Where the installation or erection of a manufactured home utilizes components that are to be concealed, the installer shall notify the building official that an inspection is necessary and assure that an inspection is performed and approved prior to concealment of such components, unless the building official has agreed to an alternative method of verification.
O. L. Add Section 425.2.1 427.2.1 to the IBC to read:
425.2.1 427.2.1 Relocated manufactured homes. Installation, set-up, and site work for relocated manufactured homes shall comply with the provisions of this code and shall include the option of using the manufacturer's installations instructions or the federal Model Manufactured Home Installation Standards (24 CFR Part 3285) for the technical requirements.
P. M. Add Section 425.2.2 427.2.2 to the IBC to read:
425.2.2 427.2.2 Alterations and repairs to manufactured homes. Alterations and repairs to manufactured homes shall either be in accordance with federal Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards (24 CFR Part 3280) or in accordance with the alteration and repair provisions this code.
Q. N. Add Section 425.2.3 427.2.3 to the IBC to read:
425.2.3 427.2.3 Additions to manufactured homes. Additions to manufactured homes shall comply with this code and shall be structurally independent of the manufactured home, or when not structurally independent, shall be evaluated by an RDP to determine that the addition does not cause the manufactured home to become out of compliance with federal Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards (24 CFR Part 3280).
R. O. Add Section 425.3 427.3 to the IBC to read:
425.3 427.3 Wind load requirements for manufactured homes. Manufactured homes shall be anchored to withstand the wind loads established by the federal regulation for the area in which the manufactured home is installed. For the purpose of this code, Wind Zone II of the federal regulation shall include the cities of Chesapeake, Norfolk, Portsmouth, and Virginia Beach.
S. P. Add Section 425.4 427.4 to the IBC to read:
425.4 427.4 Skirting requirements for manufactured homes. As used in this section, "skirting" means a weather-resistant material used to enclose the space from the bottom of the manufactured home to grade. In accordance with § 36-99.8 of the Code of Virginia, manufactured homes installed or relocated shall have skirting installed within 60 days of occupancy of the home. Skirting materials shall be durable, suitable for exterior exposures and installed in accordance with the manufacturer's installation instructions. Skirting shall be secured as necessary to ensure stability, to minimize vibrations, to minimize susceptibility to wind damage and to compensate for possible frost heave. Each manufactured home shall have a minimum of one opening in the skirting providing access to any water supply or sewer drain connections under the home. Such openings shall be a minimum of 18 inches (457 mm) in any dimension and not less than three square feet (.28 m2) in area. The access panel or door shall not be fastened in a manner requiring the use of a special tool to open or remove the panel or door. On-site fabrication of the skirting by the owner or installer of the home shall be acceptable, provided that the material meets the requirements of this code. In addition, as a requirement of this code, skirting for the installation and set-up of a new manufactured home shall also comply with the requirements of 24 CFR Part 3285 – Model Manufactured Home Installation Standards.
T. Q. Add Section 425.5 427.5 to the IBC to read:
425.5 427.5 Site work for industrialized buildings. Site work for the erection and installation of an industrialized building shall comply with the manufacturer's installation instructions. To the extent that any aspect of the erection or installation of an industrialized building is not covered by the manufacturer's installation instructions, this code shall be applicable, including the use of the IRC for any construction work where the industrialized building would be classified as a Group R-5 building. In addition, all administrative requirements of this code for permits, inspections, and certificates of occupancy are also applicable. Further, the building official may require the submission of plans and specifications for details of items needed to comprise the finished building that are not included or specified in the manufacturer's instructions, including, but not limited to, footings, foundations, supporting structures, proper anchorage, and the completion of the plumbing, mechanical, and electrical systems. Where the installation or erection of an industrialized building utilizes components that are to be concealed, the installer shall notify the building official that an inspection is necessary and assure that an inspection is performed and approved prior to concealment of such components, unless the building official has agreed to an alternative method of verification.
Exception: Temporary family health care structures installed pursuant to § 15.2-2292.1 of the Code of Virginia shall not be required or permitted to be placed on a permanent foundation, but shall otherwise remain subject to all pertinent provisions of this section.
U. R. Add Section 425.6 427.6 to the IBC to read:
425.6 427.6 Relocated industrialized buildings; alterations and additions. Industrialized buildings constructed prior to January 1, 1972, shall be subject to Section 117 when relocated. Alterations and additions to any existing industrialized buildings shall be subject to pertinent provisions of this code. Building officials shall be permitted to require the submission of plans and specifications for the model to aid in the evaluation of the proposed alteration or addition. Such plans and specifications shall be permitted to be submitted in electronic or other available format acceptable to the building official.
V. S. Add Section 425.7 427.7 to the IBC to read:
425.7 427.7 Change of occupancy of industrialized buildings. Change of occupancy of industrialized buildings is regulated by the Virginia Industrialized Building Safety Regulations (13VAC5-91). When the industrialized building complies with those regulations for the new occupancy, the building official shall issue a new certificate of occupancy under the USBC.
W. T. Add IBC Section 426 428 Aboveground Liquid Fertilizer Tanks.
X. U. Add Sections 426.1 428.1 through 426.6 428.6 to the IBC to read:
426.1 428.1 General. This section shall apply to the construction of ALFSTs and shall supersede any conflicting requirements in other provisions of this code. ALFSTs shall also comply with any applicable nonconflicting requirements of this code.
426.1.1 428.1.1 When change of occupancy rules apply. A change of occupancy to use a tank as an ALFST occurs when there is a change in the use of a tank from storing liquids other than liquid fertilizers to a use of storing liquid fertilizer and when the type of liquid fertilizer being stored has a difference of at least 20% of the specific gravity or operating temperature, or both, or a significant change in the material's compatibility.
426.2 428.2 Standards. Newly constructed welded steel ALFSTs shall comply with API 650 and TFI RMIP, as applicable. Newly constructed ALFSTs constructed of materials other than welded steel shall be constructed in accordance with accepted engineering practice to prevent the discharge of liquid fertilizer and shall be constructed of materials that are resistant to corrosion, puncture or cracking. In addition, newly constructed ALFSTs constructed of materials other than welded steel shall comply with TFI RMIP, as applicable. For the purposes of this code, the use of TFI RMIP shall be construed as mandatory and any language in TFI RMIP, such as, but not limited to, the terms "should" or "may" which indicate that a provision is only a recommendation or a guideline shall be taken as a requirement. ALFSTs shall be placarded in accordance with NFPA 704.
Exception: Sections 4.1.4, 4.2.5, 5.1.2, 5.2.8, 5.3 and 8.1(d)(i) of TFI RMIP shall not be construed as mandatory.
426.3 428.3 Secondary containment. When ALFSTs are newly constructed and when there is a change of occupancy to use a tank as an ALFST, a secondary containment system designed and constructed to prevent any liquid fertilizer from reaching the surface water, groundwater or adjacent land before cleanup occurs shall be provided. The secondary containment system may include dikes, berms or retaining walls, curbing, diversion ponds, holding tanks, sumps, vaults, double-walled tanks, liners external to the tank, or other approved means and shall be capable of holding up to 110% of the capacity of the ALFST as certified by an RDP.
426.4 428.4 Repair, alteration and reconstruction of ALFSTs. Repair, alteration and reconstruction of ALFSTs shall comply with applicable provisions of API 653 and TFI RMIP.
426.5 428.5 Inspection. Applicable inspections as required by and in accordance with API 653 and TFI RMIP shall be performed for repairs and alterations to ALFSTS, the reconstruction of ALFSTs and when there is a change of occupancy to use a tank as an ALFST. When required by API 653 or TFI RMIP, such inspections shall occur prior to the use of the ALFST.
426.6 428.6 Abandoned ALFSTs. Abandoned ALFSTs shall comply with applicable provisions of Section 5704.2.13.2 of the IFC.
Y. V. Add IBC Section 427 429 Short-term Holding Areas.
Z. W. Add Section 427.1 429.1 to the IBC to read:
427.1 429.1 General. In all groups other than Group E, short-term holding areas shall be permitted to be classified as the main occupancy, provided all of the following are met:
1. Provisions are made for the release of all restrained or detained occupants of short-term holding areas at all times.
2. Aggregate area of short-term holding areas shall not occupy more than 10% of the building area of the story in which they are located and shall not exceed the tabular values for building area in Table 503 506.2, without building area increases.
3. Restrained or detained occupant load of each short-term holding area shall not exceed 20.
4. Aggregate restrained or detained occupant load in short-term holding areas per building shall not exceed 80.
5. Compliance with Sections 408.3.7, 408.3.8, 408.4, and 408.7, as would be applicable to I-3 occupancies.
6. Requirements of the main occupancy in which short-term holding areas are located shall be met.
7. Fire areas containing short-term holding areas shall be provided with a fire alarm system and automatic smoke detection system complying with Section 907.2.6.3, as would be applicable to I-3 occupancies.
8. Where each fire area containing short-term holding areas exceeds 12,000 square feet (1115 m2), such fire areas shall be provided with an automatic sprinkler system complying with Section 903.3.
9. Short-term holding areas shall be separated from other short-term holding areas and adjacent spaces by smoke partitions complying with Section 710.
X. Add IBC Section 430 Higher Education Laboratories.
Y. Add Sections 430.1 through 430.4 to the IBC to read:
430.1 Scope. Group B teaching and research laboratories in educational occupancies above the 12th grade complying with the requirements of this section shall be permitted to comply with Table 430.3, 430.4(1), or 430.4(2) without requiring classification as a Group H occupancy. Except as specified in this section, such laboratories shall comply with all applicable provisions of this code. In addition, as set out in Section 5001.7 of the SFPC, approval under this section is contingent upon operational requirements in the SFPC being complied with and maintained.
430.2 Application. The provisions of this section shall be applied as exceptions or additions to applicable requirements of this code.
430.3 Laboratory suite construction. Where laboratory suites are provided, they shall be constructed in accordance with this section. The number of laboratory suites and percentage of maximum allowable quantities of hazardous materials in laboratory suites shall be in accordance with Table 430.3.
430.3.1 Separation from adjacent areas. Laboratory suites shall be separated from other portions of the building in accordance with the most restrictive of either (i) Table 430.3 with fire barriers constructed in accordance with Section 707 and horizontal assemblies constructed in accordance with Section 711 or (ii) Section 508.4. Where individual laboratories within a laboratory suite are separated from each other, the separation shall consist of one-hour fire barriers.
Exception: Where an individual laboratory suite occupies more than one story, the fire resistance rating of intermediate floors contained within the laboratory suite shall comply with the requirements of this code.
430.3.2 Separation from other laboratory suites. Laboratory suites shall be separated from other laboratory suites in accordance with Table 430.3.
430.3.3 Floor assembly fire resistance. The floor assembly supporting the laboratory suite and the construction supporting the floor of the laboratory suite shall have a fire resistance rating of not less than two hours.
Exception: The floor assembly of the laboratory suite and the construction supporting the floor of the laboratory suite are allowed to be one-hour fire resistance rated in buildings of Types IIA, IIIA, and VA construction, provided that the building is three or fewer stories.
430.3.4 Maximum number. The maximum number of laboratory suites per floor shall be in accordance with Table 430.3. Where a building contains both laboratory suites complying with Section 430.3 and control areas complying with Section 414.2, the total number of laboratory suites and control areas shall not exceed the maximum number of laboratory suites in accordance with Table 430.3.
430.3.5 Standby or emergency power. Standby or emergency power shall be provided in accordance with Section 414.5.2 where laboratory suites are located above the sixth story above grade plane or located in a story below grade plane.
430.3.6 Ventilation. Ventilation shall be in accordance with the International Mechanical Code. The design and installation of ducts from chemical fume hoods shall be in accordance with NFPA 91.
430.3.7 Liquid tight floor. Portions of the laboratory suite where hazardous materials are present shall be provided with a liquid tight floor.
430.3.8 Automatic fire sprinkler systems. Buildings shall be equipped throughout with an approved automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1.
430.3.9 Automatic fire alarm and detection system. Laboratory suites shall be equipped throughout with an automatic fire detection system in accordance with Section 907.2. The building shall be equipped throughout with an automatic fire alarm system in accordance with Section 907.2.
430.3.10 Percentage of maximum allowable quantity in each laboratory suite. The percentage of maximum allowable quantities in each laboratory suite shall be in accordance with Table 430.3.
Table 430.3 Design and Number of Laboratory Suites Per Floor |
Floor Level | Percentage of the Maximum Allowable Quantity per Lab Suitea | Number of Lab Suites per Floor | Fire-Resistance Rating for Fire Barriers in Hoursb |
Above Grade Plane | 21+ | 5 | 1 | 2 |
16-20 | 25 | 1 | 2 |
11-15 | 50 | 1 | 2 |
7-10 | 50 | 2 | 2 |
4-6 | 75 | 4 | 1 |
3 | 100 | 6 | 1 |
1-2 | 100 | 8 | 1 |
Below Grade Plane | 1 | 75 | 4 | 1 |
2 | 50 | 2 | 1 |
Lower than 2 | Not Allowed | Not Allowed | Not Allowed |
a. Percentage shall be of the maximum allowable quantity per control area shown in Tables 307.1(1) and 307.1(2), with all increases allowed in the notes to those tables. b. Fire barriers shall include walls, floors, and ceilings necessary to provide separation from other portions of the building. |
430.4 Teaching and research laboratories utilizing control areas. Group B teaching and research laboratories in educational occupancies above the 12th grade utilizing control areas are permitted to increase amounts of hazardous materials stipulated in Section 414.2 without the laboratories being classified as Group H. The percentage of maximum allowable quantities of hazardous materials per control area and the number of control areas permitted at each floor level within a building shall be permitted to comply with Table 430.4(1) in buildings equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 or shall be permitted to comply with Table 430.4(2) in buildings not equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1. In addition, as set out in Section 5001.7 of the SFPC, approval under this section is contingent upon operational requirements in the SFPC being complied with and maintained.
Table 430.4(1) Design and Number of Control Areas in Buildings Equipped Throughout with an Automatic Sprinkler System in Accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 with Group B Teaching and Research Laboratories in Educational Occupancies above the 12th Grade |
Floor Level | Percentage of the Maximum Allowable Quantity per Control Areaa | Number of Control Areas per Floor | Fire-Resistance Rating for Fire Barriers and Horizontal Assemblies in Hoursb |
Above Grade Plane | Higher than 20 | 5 | 1 | 2 |
11-20 | 10 | 1 | 2 |
7-10 | 25 | 2 | 2 |
4-6 | 50 | 2 | 2 |
3 | 75 | 3 | 1 |
1-2 | 100 | 4 | 1 |
Below Grade Plane | 1 | 75 | 3 | 1 |
2 | 50 | 2 | 1 |
Lower than 2 | Not Allowed | Not Allowed | Not Allowed |
a. Percentage shall be of the maximum allowable quantity per control area shown in Tables 307.1(1) and 307.1(2), with all increases allowed in the notes to those tables. b. Separation shall include fire barriers and horizontal assemblies as necessary to provide separation from other portions of the building. |
Table 430.4(2) Design and Number of Control Areas in Buildings Not Equipped Throughout with an Automatic Sprinkler System in Accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 with Group B Teaching and Research Laboratories in Educational Occupancies above the 12th Grade |
Floor Level | Percentage of the Maximum Allowable Quantity per Control Areaa | Number of Control Areas per Floor | Fire-Resistance Rating for Fire Barriers and Horizontal Assemblies in Hoursb |
Above Grade Plane | Higher than 9 | 5 | 1 | 2 |
7-9 | 10 | 2 | 2 |
4-6 | 25 | 2 | 2 |
3 | 75 | 2 | 1 |
1-2 | 100 | 4 | 1 |
Below Grade Plane | 1 | 75 | 3 | 1 |
2 | 50 | 2 | 1 |
Lower than 2 | Not Allowed | Not Allowed | Not Allowed |
a. Percentage shall be of the maximum allowable quantity per control area shown in Tables 307.1(1) and 307.1(2), with all increases allowed in the notes to those tables. b. Separation shall include fire barriers and horizontal assemblies as necessary to provide separation from other portions of the building. |
430.4.1 Separation requirements. Control areas shall be separated from each other and from other non-control areas by fire barriers constructed in accordance with Section 707 or horizontal assemblies constructed in accordance with Section 711, or both.
430.4.2 Fire resistance rating requirements. The required fire-resistance rating for fire barriers shall be in accordance with Table 430.4(1) in buildings equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 or in accordance with Table 430.4(2) in buildings not equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1. The floor assembly of the control area and the construction supporting the floor of the control area shall have a fire-resistance rating in accordance with Table 430.4(1) in buildings equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 or in accordance with Table 430.4(2) in buildings not equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1.
Exception: The floor assembly of the control area and the construction supporting the floor of the control area are allowed to be one-hour fire resistance rated in buildings of Types IIA, IIIA, and VA construction, provided that the building is three or fewer stories.
430.4.3 Standby or emergency power. Standby or emergency power shall be provided where control areas are located above the sixth floor level above grade plane or located in a floor level below grade plane.
430.4.4 Restricted materials in storage and use. Where approved by the building official, the storage and use of the following hazardous materials prohibited by Table 307.1(1) in buildings not equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1, shall be allowed within a control area at 25% of Table 307.1(1) limits for a building equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system:
1. Pyrophorics.
2. Class 4 oxidizers.
No additional quantity increases shall be allowed. All such materials shall be stored and used in accordance with Section 5001.7 of the SFPC.
430.4.5 Automatic fire alarm and detection system. The building shall be equipped throughout with an automatic fire alarm system in accordance with Section 907.2, and control areas where hazardous materials are used or stored shall be equipped throughout with an automatic fire detection system in accordance with Section 907.2.
430.4.6 Ventilation. Ventilation shall be in accordance with the International Mechanical code.
13VAC5-63-225. Chapter 5 General building heights and areas. (Repealed.)
A. Change Section 504.2 of the IBC to read:
504.2 Automatic sprinkler system increase. Where a building is equipped throughout with an approved automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1, the value specified in Table 503 for maximum building height is increased by 20 feet (6096 mm) and the maximum number of stories is increased by one. These increases are permitted in addition to the building area increase in accordance with Sections 506.2 and 506.3. For Group R buildings equipped throughout with an approved automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.2, the value specified in Table 503 for maximum building height is increased by 20 feet (6096 mm) and the maximum number of stories is increased by one, but shall not exceed 60 feet (18 288 mm) or four stories, respectively.
Exception: The use of an automatic sprinkler system to increase building heights shall not be permitted for the following conditions:
1. Buildings, or portions of buildings, classified as Group I-1 Condition 2, of Type IIB, III, IV, or V construction or Group I-2 occupancies of Type IIB, III, IV, or V construction.
2. Buildings, or portions of buildings, classified as a Group H-1, H-2, H-3, or H-5 occupancy.
3. Buildings where an automatic sprinkler system is substituted for fire-resistance rated construction in accordance with Table 601, Note d.
B. Change Section 508.2.3 of the IBC to read:
508.2.3 Allowable building area and height. The allowable building area and height of the building containing accessory occupancies shall be based on the allowable building area and height for the main occupancy in accordance with Section 503.1. The building area of the accessory occupancies shall be in accordance with Section 508.2.1.
13VAC5-63-230. Chapter 7 Fire and smoke protection features.
A. Change Section 703.7 of the IBC to read:
703.7 Fire-resistance assembly marking. Where there is a concealed floor, floor-ceiling, or attic space, the fire walls, fire barriers, fire partitions, smoke barriers, or any other wall required to have protected openings or penetrations shall be designated above ceilings and on the inside of all ceiling access doors that provide access to such fire rated assemblies by signage having letters no smaller than one inch (25.4 mm) in height. Such signage shall indicate the fire-resistance rating of the assembly and the type of assembly and be provided at horizontal intervals of no more than eight feet (2438 mm).
Note: An example of suggested formatting for the signage would be "ONE HOUR FIRE PARTITION."
B. Change the exceptions to Section 705.2 of the IBC to read:
Exceptions:
1. Buildings on the same lot and considered as portions of one building in accordance with Section 705.3 are not required to comply with this section.
2. Decks and open porches of buildings of Groups R-3 and R-4.
C. Add Exception 4 to Section 706.5.2 of the IBC to read:
4. Decks and open porches of buildings in Groups R-3 and R-4.
D. Change Section 709.5 of the IBC to read:
709.5 Openings. Openings in a smoke barrier shall be protected in accordance with Section 716.
Exceptions:
1. In Group I-1 Condition 2, Group I-2, and ambulatory care facilities where doors are installed across corridors, a pair of opposite-swinging doors without a center mullion shall be installed having vision panels with fire-protection-rated glazing materials in fire-protection-rated frames, the area of which shall not exceed that tested. The doors shall be close fitting within operational tolerances and shall not have undercuts in excess of 3/4-inch, louvers, or grilles. The doors shall have head and jamb stops, astragals, or rabbets at meeting edges and shall be automatic-closing by smoke detection in accordance with Section 716.5.9.3. Where permitted by the door manufacturer's listing, positive-latching devices are not required.
2. In Group I-1 Condition 2, Group I-2, and ambulatory care facilities, horizontal sliding doors installed in accordance with Section 1008.1.4.3 and protected in accordance with Section 716.
E. Delete Sections 713.14.1 and 713.14.1.1.
F. Change Section 716.5.3.1 of the IBC to read:
716.5.3.1 Smoke and draft control. Fire door assemblies located in smoke barrier walls shall also meet the requirements for a smoke and draft control door assembly tested in accordance with UL 1784. The air leakage rate of the door assembly shall not exceed 3.0 cubic feet per minute per square foot (0.01524 m3/s ∙ m2) of door opening at 0.10 inch (24.9 Pa) of water for both the ambient temperature and elevated temperature tests. Louvers shall be prohibited. Installation of smoke doors shall be in accordance with NFPA 105.
E. Change Section 717.5.3 of the IBC to read:
717.5.3 Shaft enclosures. Shaft enclosures that are permitted to be penetrated by ducts and air transfer openings shall be protected with approved fire and smoke dampers installed in accordance with their listing.
Exceptions:
1. Fire and smoke dampers are not required where steel exhaust subducts extend at least 22 inches (559 mm) vertically in exhaust shafts, provided there is a continuous airflow upward to the outside.
2. Fire dampers are not required where penetrations are tested in accordance with ASTM E119 as part of the fire resistance-rated assembly.
3. Fire and smoke dampers are not required where ducts are used as part of an approved smoke control system in accordance with Section 909.
4. Fire and smoke dampers are not required where the penetrations are in parking garage exhaust or supply shafts that are separated from other building shafts by not less than two-hour fire-resistance-rated construction.
5. Smoke dampers are not required where the building is equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1.
13VAC5-63-235. Chapter 8 Interior finishes.
Change Section 806.1.2 806.3 of the IBC to read:
806.1.2 806.3 Combustible decorative materials. The permissible amount of decorative materials meeting the flame propagation performance criteria of NFPA 701 In other than Group I-3, curtains, draperies, fabric hangings, and similar combustible decorative materials suspended from walls or ceilings shall comply with Section 806.4 and shall not exceed 10% of the specific wall or ceiling area to which it is attached.
Fixed or movable walls and partitions, paneling, wall pads, and crash pads applied structurally or for decoration, acoustical correction, surface insulation, or other purposes shall be considered interior finish, shall comply with Section 803, and shall not be considered decorative materials or furnishings.
Exceptions:
1. In auditoriums or similar types of spaces in Group A, the permissible amount of curtains, draperies, fabric hangings, and similar combustible decorative material meeting the flame propagation performance criteria of NFPA 701 materials suspended from walls or ceilings shall not exceed 75% of the aggregate wall area where the building is equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1, and where the material is installed in accordance with Section 803.11 803.13 of this code.
2. In auditoriums or similar types of spaces in Group A, the permissible amount of decorative materials suspended from the ceiling, located no more than 12 inches (305 mm) from the wall, not supported by the floor, and meeting the flame propagation performance criteria of NFPA 701, shall not exceed 75% of the aggregate wall area when the building is equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1.
3. In Group R-2 dormitories, within sleeping units and dwelling units, the permissible amount of curtains, draperies, fabric hangings, and similar decorative materials suspended from walls or ceiling shall not exceed 50% of the aggregate walls areas where the building is equipped throughout with an approved automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with Section 903.3.1.
The 4. In Group B and M occupancies, the amount of fabric partitions suspended from the ceiling and not supported by the floor in Groups B and M occupancies shall comply with Section 806.4 and shall not be limited.
13VAC5-63-240. Chapter 9 Fire protection systems.
A. Add the following to the list of terms in Section 902.1 of the IBC:
Emergency communication equipment.
Emergency public safety personnel.
B. Change Section 903.2.1.2 of the IBC to read:
903.2.1.2 Group A-2. An automatic sprinkler system shall be provided for fire areas containing Group A-2 occupancies and intervening floors of the building where one of the following conditions exists:
1. The fire area exceeds 5,000 square feet (464.5m2);.
2. The fire area has an occupant load of 100 or more in night clubs or 300 or more in other Group A-2 occupancies; or.
3. The fire area is located on a floor other than a level of exit discharge serving such occupancies.
4. The fire area contains a multitheater complex.
C. Change Item 2 of Section 903.2.1.3 of the IBC to read:
2. In Group A-3 occupancies other than places of religious worship, the fire area has an occupant load of 300 or more; or
D. Change Section 903.2.3 of the IBC to read:
903.2.3 Group E. An automatic sprinkler system shall be provided for Group E occupancies as follows:
1. Throughout all Group E fire areas greater than 20,000 square feet (1858 m2) in area.
2. Throughout every portion of educational buildings below the lowest level of exit discharge serving that portion of the building.
Exception: An automatic sprinkler system is not required in any area below the lowest level of exit discharge serving that area where every classroom throughout the building has at least one exterior exit door at ground level.
E. Change Add Exception 4 to Section 903.2.6 to read:
903.2.6 Group I. An automatic sprinkler system shall be provided throughout all buildings with a Group I fire area.
Exceptions:
1. An automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with Section 903.3.1.2 shall be permitted in Group I-1 Condition 1 facilities.
2. An automatic sprinkler system is not required where Group I-4 day care facilities are at the level of exit discharge and where every room where care is provided has at least one exit door.
3. In buildings where Group I-4 day care is provided on levels other than the level of exit discharge, an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 shall be installed on the entire floor where care is provided and all floors between the level of care and the level of exit discharge and all floors below the level of exit discharge, other than areas classified as an open parking garage.
4. An automatic sprinkler system shall not be required for open-sided or chain link-sided buildings and overhangs over exercise yards 200 square feet (18.58 m2) or less in Group I-3 facilities, provided such buildings and overhangs are of noncombustible construction.
F. Change Section 903.2.7 of the IBC to read:
903.2.7 Group M. An automatic sprinkler system shall be provided throughout buildings containing a Group M occupancy where one of the following conditions exists:
1. A Group M fire area exceeds 12,000 square feet (1115 m2).
2. A Group M fire area is located more than three stories above grade plane.
3. The combined area of all Group M fire areas on all floors, including any mezzanines, exceeds 24,000 square feet (2230 m2).
G. Change Sections Section 903.2.8, 903.2.8.1, and 908.2.8.2 of the IBC to read:
903.2.8 Group R. An automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with Section 903.3 shall be provided throughout all buildings with a Group R fire area, except for Group R-2 occupancies listed in the exceptions to this section when the necessary water pressure or volume, or both, for the system is not available:
Exceptions:
1. Group R-2 occupancies that do not exceed two stories, including basements that are not considered as a story above grade, and with a maximum of 16 dwelling units per fire area. Each dwelling unit shall have at least one door opening to an exterior exit access that leads directly to the exits required to serve that dwelling unit.
2. Group R-2 occupancies where all dwelling units are not more than two stories above the lowest level of exit discharge and not more than one story below the highest level of exit discharge of exits serving the dwelling unit and a two-hour fire barrier is provided between each pair of dwelling units. Each bedroom of a dormitory or boarding house shall be considered a dwelling unit under this exception.
903.2.8.1 Group R-3. An automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with Section 903.3.1.3 shall be permitted in Group R-3.
903.2.8.2 Group R-4 Condition 1. An automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with Section 903.3.1.3 shall be permitted in Group R-4 Condition 1.
H. Add Sections 903.2.8.3, 903.2.8.3.1, 903.2.8.3.2, and 903.2.8.4 to the IBC to read:
903.2.8.3 Group R-4 Condition 2. An automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with Section 903.3.1.2 shall be permitted in Group R-4 Condition 2. Attics shall be protected in accordance with Section 903.2.8.3.1 or 903.2.8.3.2.
903.2.8.3.1 Attics used for living purposes, storage, or fuel fired equipment. Attics used for living purposes, storage, or fuel fired equipment shall be protected throughout with automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with Section 903.3.1.2.
903.2.8.3.2 Attics not used for living purposes, storage, or fuel fired equipment. Attics not used for living purposes, storage, or fuel fired equipment shall be protected in accordance with one of the following:
1. Attics protected throughout by a heat detector system arranged to activate the building fire alarm system in accordance with Section 907.2.10.
2. Attics constructed of noncombustible materials.
3. Attics constructed of fire-retardant-treated wood framing complying with Section 2303.2.
4. The automatic fire sprinkler system shall be extended to provide protection throughout the attic space.
903.2.8.4 Care facilities. An automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with 903.3.1.3 shall be permitted in care facilities with 5 or fewer individuals in a single-family dwelling.
I. Add Section 903.3.1.2.2 to the IBC to read:
903.3.1.2.2 Attics. Sprinkler protection shall be provided for attics in buildings of Type III, IV or V construction in Group R-2 occupancies that are designed or developed and marketed to senior citizens 55 years of age or older and in Group I-1 occupancies in accordance with Section 7.2 of NFPA 13R.
J. Change Section 903.3.1.3 of the IBC to read:
903.3.1.3 NFPA 13D sprinkler systems. Automatic sprinkler systems installed in one-family and two-family dwellings, Group R-3, Group R-4 Condition 1 and townhouses shall be permitted to be installed throughout in accordance with NFPA 13D.
K. I. Change Section 903.4.2 of the IBC to read:
903.4.2 Alarms. Approved audible devices shall be connected to every automatic sprinkler system. Such sprinkler water-flow alarm devices shall be activated by water flow equivalent to the flow of a single sprinkler of the smallest orifice size installed in the system. Alarm devices shall be provided on the exterior of the building in an approved location. Where a fire alarm system is installed, actuation of the automatic sprinkler system shall actuate the building fire alarm system. Group R-2 occupancies that contain 16 or more dwelling units or sleeping units, any dwelling unit or sleeping unit two or more stories above the lowest level of exit discharge, or any dwelling unit or sleeping unit more than one story below the highest level of exit discharge of exits serving the dwelling unit or sleeping unit shall provide a manual fire alarm box at an approved location to activate the suppression system alarm.
L. J. Add an exception to Section 905.2 of the IBC to read:
Exception: The residual pressure of 100 psi for 2-1/2 inch hose connection and 65 psi for 1-1/2 inch hose connection is not required in buildings equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 or 903.3.1.2 and where the highest floor level is not more than 150 feet above the lowest level of fire department vehicle access.
M. K. Change Item 1 of Section 906.1 of the IBC to read:
1. In Groups A, B, E, F, H, I, M, R-1, R-4, and S occupancies.
Exceptions:
1. In Groups A, B, and E occupancies equipped throughout with quick response sprinklers, portable fire extinguishers shall be required only in locations specified in Items 2 through 6.
2. In Group I-3 occupancies, portable fire extinguishers shall be permitted to be located at staff locations and the access to such extinguishers shall be permitted to be locked.
N. L. Change Section 907.2.1.1 of the IBC to read:
907.2.1.1 System initiation in Group A occupancies with an occupant load of 1,000 or more and in certain night clubs. Activation of the fire alarm in Group A occupancies with an occupant load of 1,000 or more and in night clubs with an occupant load of 300 or more shall initiate a signal using an emergency voice and alarm communications system in accordance with Section 907.5.2.2.
Exception: Where approved, the prerecorded announcement is allowed to be manually deactivated for a period of time, not to exceed three minutes, for the sole purpose of allowing a live voice announcement from an approved, constantly attended location.
M. Add Section 907.2.2.2 to the IBC to read:
907.2.2.2 Higher education laboratories. An automatic fire alarm and detection system shall be provided in Group B occupancies where an increase in hazardous materials is permitted in accordance with Section 430.
O. N. Change Section 907.2.3 of the IBC to read:
907.2.3 Group E. A manual fire alarm system that activates the occupant notification system meeting the requirements of Section 907.5 and installed in accordance with Section 907.6 shall be installed in Group E occupancies. When automatic sprinkler systems or smoke detectors are installed, such systems or detectors shall be connected to the building fire alarm system.
Exceptions:
1. A manual fire alarm system is not required in Group E occupancies with an occupant load of 50 or less.
2. Manual fire alarm boxes are not required in Group E occupancies where all of the following apply:
2.1. Interior corridors are protected by smoke detectors.
2.2. Auditoriums, cafeterias, gymnasiums, and similar areas are protected by heat detectors or other approved detection devices.
2.3. Shops and laboratories involving dusts or vapors are protected by heat detectors or other approved detection devices.
3. Manual fire alarm boxes shall not be required in Group E occupancies where the building is equipped throughout with an approved automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1, the occupant notification system will activate on sprinkler water flow and manual activation is provided from a normally occupied location.
P. Change Section 907.2.6.1 of the IBC to read:
907.2.6.1 Group I-1. In Group I-1 occupancies, an automatic smoke detection system shall be installed in corridors, waiting areas open to corridors, and habitable spaces other than sleeping units and kitchens. The system shall be activated in accordance with Section 907.5.
Exceptions:
1. For Group I-1 Condition 1, smoke detection in habitable spaces is not required where the facility is equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1.
2. Smoke detection is not required for exterior balconies.
Q. O. Add an exception to Section 907.5.2.1.1 of the IBC to read:
Exception: Sound pressure levels in Group I-3 occupancies shall be permitted to be limited to only the notification of occupants in the affected smoke compartment.
R. Change Sections 908.7 and 908.7.1 of the IBC and add Sections 908.7.2 and 908.7.3 to the IBC to read:
908.7 Carbon monoxide alarms. Carbon monoxide alarms shall comply with this section.
908.7.1 Group I or R. Group I or R occupancies located in a building containing a fuel-burning appliance or in a building which has an attached garage shall be equipped with single-station carbon monoxide alarms. The carbon monoxide alarms shall be listed as complying with UL 2034 and be installed and maintained in accordance with NFPA 720 and the manufacturer's instructions. An open parking garage, as defined in Chapter 2, or an enclosed parking garage ventilated in accordance with Section 404 of the IMC shall not be considered an attached garage.
Exception: Sleeping units or dwelling units which do not themselves contain a fuel-burning appliance or have an attached garage, but which are located in a building with a fuel-burning appliance or an attached garage, need not be equipped with single-station carbon monoxide alarms provided that:
1. The sleeping unit or dwelling unit is located more than one story above or below any story which contains a fuel-burning appliance or an attached garage;
2. The sleeping unit or dwelling unit is not connected by duct work or ventilation shafts to any room containing a fuel-burning appliance or to an attached garage; and
3. The building is equipped with a common area carbon monoxide alarm system.
908.7.2 Group E. Classrooms in E occupancies located in a building containing a fuel-burning appliance or in a building which has an attached garage or small engine or vehicle shop shall be equipped with single-station carbon monoxide alarms. The carbon monoxide alarms shall be listed as complying with UL 2034 and be installed and maintained in accordance with NFPA 720 and the manufacturer's instructions. An open parking garage, as defined in Chapter 2, or an enclosed parking garage ventilated in accordance with Section 404 of the IMC shall not be considered an attached garage.
Exception: Classrooms which do not themselves contain a fuel-burning appliance or have an attached garage, but which are located in a building with a fuel-burning appliance or an attached garage, need not be equipped with single-station carbon monoxide alarms provided that:
1. The classroom is located more than 100 feet from the fuel burning appliance or attached garage or located more than one story above or below any story which contains a fuel-burning appliance or attached garage; and
2. The classroom is not connected by duct work or ventilation shafts to any room containing a fuel-burning appliance.
908.7.3 Carbon monoxide detection systems. Carbon monoxide detection systems, which include carbon monoxide detectors and audible notification appliances, installed and maintained in accordance with this section for carbon monoxide alarms and NFPA 720 shall be permitted. The carbon monoxide detectors shall be listed as complying with UL 2075.
S. P. Change Section 909.6 of the IBC to read:
909.6 Pressurization method. When approved by the building official, the means of controlling smoke shall be permitted by pressure differences across smoke barriers. Maintenance of a tenable environment is not required in the smoke-control zone of fire origin.
T. Q. Change Section 911.1.3 of the IBC to read:
911.1.3 Size. The fire command center shall be a minimum of 96 square feet (9 m2) in area with a minimum dimension of eight feet (2438 mm).
Exception: Where it is determined by the building official, after consultation with the fire chief, that specific building characteristics require a larger fire command center, the building official may increase the minimum required size of the fire command center up to 200 square feet (19 m2) in area with a minimum dimension of up to 10 feet (3048 mm).
R. Replace Section 915 of the IBC with the following:
915.1 Carbon monoxide alarms. Carbon monoxide alarms shall comply with this section.
915.2 Group I or R. Group I or R occupancies located in a building containing a fuel-burning appliance or in a building that has an attached garage shall be equipped with single-station carbon monoxide alarms. The carbon monoxide alarms shall be listed as complying with UL 2034 and be installed and maintained in accordance with NFPA 720 and the manufacturer's instructions. An open parking garage, as defined in Chapter 2, or an enclosed parking garage ventilated in accordance with Section 404 of the IMC shall not be considered an attached garage.
Exception: Sleeping units or dwelling units that do not themselves contain a fuel-burning appliance or have an attached garage but that are located in a building with a fuel-burning appliance or an attached garage, need not be equipped with single-station carbon monoxide alarms provided that:
1. The sleeping unit or dwelling unit is located more than one story above or below any story that contains a fuel-burning appliance or an attached garage;
2. The sleeping unit or dwelling unit is not connected by duct work or ventilation shafts to any room containing a fuel-burning appliance or to an attached garage; and
3. The building is equipped with a common area carbon monoxide alarm system.
915.3 Group E. Classrooms in E occupancies located in a building containing a fuel-burning appliance or in a building that has an attached garage or small engine or vehicle shop shall be equipped with single-station carbon monoxide alarms. The carbon monoxide alarms shall be listed as complying with UL 2034 and be installed and maintained in accordance with NFPA 720 and the manufacturer's instructions. An open parking garage, as defined in Chapter 2, or an enclosed parking garage ventilated in accordance with Section 404 of the IMC shall not be considered an attached garage.
Exception: Classrooms that do not themselves contain a fuel-burning appliance or have an attached garage but are located in a building with a fuel-burning appliance or an attached garage, need not be equipped with single-station carbon monoxide alarms provided that:
1. The classroom is located more than 100 feet from the fuel burning appliance or attached garage or located more than one story above or below any story which contains a fuel-burning appliance or attached garage; and
2. The classroom is not connected by duct work or ventilation shafts to any room containing a fuel-burning appliance.
915.4 Carbon monoxide detection systems. Carbon monoxide detection systems, which include carbon monoxide detectors and audible notification appliances, installed and maintained in accordance with this section for carbon monoxide alarms and NFPA 720 shall be permitted. The carbon monoxide detectors shall be listed as complying with UL 2075.
U. S. Change the title of IBC Section 915 916 to read:
In-Building Emergency Communications Coverage.
V. T. Change Section 915.1 916.1 of the IBC to read:
915.1 916.1 General. For localities utilizing public safety wireless communications, dedicated infrastructure to accommodate and perpetuate continuous in-building emergency communication equipment to allow emergency public safety personnel to send and receive emergency communications shall be provided in new buildings and structures in accordance with this section.
Exceptions:
1. Buildings of Use Groups A-5, I-4, within dwelling units of R-2, R-3, R-4, R-5, and U.
2. Buildings of Types IV and V construction without basements, that are not considered unlimited area buildings in accordance with Section 507.
3. Above grade single story buildings of less than 20,000 square feet.
4. Buildings or leased spaces occupied by federal, state, or local governments, or the contractors thereof, with security requirements where the building official has approved an alternative method to provide emergency communication equipment for emergency public safety personnel.
5. Where the owner provides technological documentation from a qualified individual that the structure or portion thereof does not impede emergency communication signals.
W. U. Add Sections 915.1.1, 915.1.2 916.1.1, 916.1.2, and 915.1.3 916.1.3 to the IBC to read:
915.1.1 916.1.1 Installation. The building owner shall install radiating cable, such as coaxial cable or equivalent. The radiating cable shall be installed in dedicated conduits, raceways, plenums, attics, or roofs, compatible for these specific installations as well as other applicable provisions of this code. The locality shall be responsible for the installation of any additional communication equipment required for the operation of the system.
915.1.2 916.1.2 Operations. The locality will assume all responsibilities for the operation and maintenance of the emergency communication equipment. The building owner shall provide sufficient operational space within the building to allow the locality access to and the ability to operate in-building emergency communication equipment.
915.1.3 916.1.3 Inspection. In accordance with Section 113.3, all installations shall be inspected prior to concealment.
X. V. Add Section 915.2 916.2 to the IBC to read:
915.2 916.2 Acceptance test. Upon completion of installation, after providing reasonable notice to the owner or their representative, emergency public safety personnel shall have the right during normal business hours, or other mutually agreed upon time, to enter onto the property to conduct field tests to verify that the required level of radio coverage is present at no cost to the owner. Any noted deficiencies in the installation of the radiating cable or operational space shall be provided in an inspection report to the owner or the owner's representative.
13VAC5-63-245. Chapter 10 Means of egress.
A. Delete Section 1001.4 of the IBC.
B. Change Section 1004.3 of the IBC to read:
1004.3 Posting of occupant load. Every room or space that is an assembly occupancy and where the occupant load of that room or space is 50 or more shall have the occupant load of the room or space posted in a conspicuous place, near the main exit or exit access doorway from the room or space. Posted signs shall be of an approved legible permanent design and shall be maintained by the owner or the owner's authorized agent.
C. Change the exception to Exception 1 of Section 1005.3.1 of the IBC to read:
Exception:
1. For other than Groups H and I-2 occupancies, the capacity, in inches (mm), of means of egress stairways shall be calculated by multiplying the occupant load served by such stairway by a means of egress capacity factor of 0.2 inch (5.1 mm) per occupant in buildings equipped with an automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 or 903.3.1.2.
D. Change the exception to Exception 1 of Section 1005.3.2 of the IBC to read:
Exception:
1. For other than Groups H and I-2 occupancies, the capacity, in inches (mm), of means of egress components other than stairways shall be calculated by multiplying the occupant load served by such component by a means of egress capacity factor of 0.15 inch (3.8 mm) per occupant in buildings equipped with an automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 or 903.3.1.2.
E. Change Exception 1 of Section 1006.2.1 of the IBC to read:
1. In Group R-2 and R-3 occupancies, one means of egress is permitted within and from individual dwelling units with a maximum occupant load of 20 where the dwelling unit is equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 or 903.3.1.2 and the common path of egress travel does not exceed 125 feet (38 100 mm). This exception shall also apply to Group R-2 occupancies where Section 903.2.8, Exception 1 or 2 is applicable.
F. Change the number "49" to "50" in the "Maximum Occupant Load of Space" column in the "Ac, E, M," "B," "F," and "U" rows of Table 1006.2.1 of the IBC.
G. Change the number "49" to "50" in the "Maximum Occupant Load per Story" column of the "A, Bb, E, F, M, U" row of Table 1006.3.2(2).
H. Change Section 1007.6.2 1009.6.4 of the IBC to read:
1007.6.2 1009.6.4 Separation. Each area of refuge shall be separated from the remainder of the story by a smoke barrier complying with Section 709 or a horizontal exit complying with Section 1025 1026. Each area of refuge shall be designed to minimize the intrusion of smoke.
Exceptions:
1. Areas of refuge located within an exit enclosure for interior exit stairways complying with Section 1023.
2. Areas of refuge in outdoor facilities where exit access is essentially open to the outside.
3. Areas of refuge where the area of refuge and areas served by the area of refuge are equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system installed in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 or 903.3.1.2.
F. I. Change Item 2 of Section 1008.1.9.3 1010.1.9.3 of the IBC to read:
2. In buildings in occupancy Groups B, F, M and S, the main exterior door or doors are permitted to be equipped with key-operated locking devices from the egress side provided:
2.1. The locking device is readily distinguishable as locked.
2.2. A readily visible durable sign is posted on the egress side on or adjacent to the door stating: THIS DOOR TO REMAIN UNLOCKED WHEN BUILDING THIS SPACE IS OCCUPIED. The sign shall be in letters one inch (25 mm) high on a contrasting background.
2.3. The use of the key-operated locking device is revokable by the building official for due cause.
G. J. Delete Section 1008.1.9.6 1010.1.9.6 of the IBC.
H. Change Sections 1008.1.9.7 and 1008.1.9.8 K. Add an exception to Section 1010.1.9.7 of the IBC to read:
1008.1.9.7 Delayed egress locks. In other than Groups A, E, and H, approved, listed, delayed egress locks shall be permitted to be installed on doors in buildings which are equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 or an approved automatic smoke or heat detection system installed in accordance with Section 907, provided that the doors unlock in accordance with Items 1 through 6 below. A building occupant shall not be required to pass through more than one door equipped with a delayed egress lock before entering an exit.
1. The doors unlock upon actuation of the automatic sprinkler system or automatic fire detection system.
2. The doors unlock upon loss of power controlling the lock or lock mechanism.
3. The door locks shall have the capability of being unlocked by a signal from the fire command center.
4. The initiation of an irreversible process which will release the latch in not more than 15 seconds when a force of not more than 15 pounds (67 N) is applied for 1 second to the release device. Initiation of the irreversible process shall activate an audible signal in the vicinity of the door. Once the door lock has been released by the application of force to the releasing device, relocking shall be by manual means only.
Exception: Where approved, a delay of not more than 30 seconds is permitted.
5. A sign shall be provided on the door located above and within 12 inches (305 mm) of the release device reading: PUSH UNTIL ALARM SOUNDS. DOOR CAN BE OPENED IN 15 SECONDS.
Exception: Where approved, such sign shall read: PUSH UNTIL ALARM SOUNDS. DOOR CAN BE OPENED IN 30 SECONDS.
6. Emergency lighting shall be provided at the door.
Exception: Approved, listed, delayed egress locks shall be permitted to be installed on doors serving Group A-3 airport facilities, provided they are installed in accordance with this section.
1008.1.9.8 Sensor release of electronically locked egress doors. The electric locks on sensor released doors located in a means of egress in buildings with an occupancy in Group A, B, E, I-1, I-2, I-4, M, R-1, or R-2 and entrance doors to tenant spaces in occupancies in Group A, B, E, I-1, I-2, I-4, M, R-1, or R-2 are permitted where installed and operated in accordance with all of the following criteria:
1. The sensor shall be installed on the egress side arranged to detect an occupant approaching the doors. The doors shall be arranged to unlock by a signal from or loss of power to the sensor.
2. Loss of power to the lock or locking system shall automatically unlock the doors.
3. The doors shall be arranged to unlock from a manual unlocking device located 40 inches to 48 inches (1016 mm to 1219 mm) vertically above the floor and within five feet (1524 mm) of the secured doors. Ready access shall be provided to the manual unlocking device and the device shall be clearly identified by a sign that reads "PUSH TO EXIT." When operated, the manual unlocking device shall result in direct interruption of power to the lock–independent of locking system electronics–and the doors shall remain unlocked for not less than 30 seconds.
4. Activation of the building fire alarm system, if provided, shall automatically unlock the doors, and the doors shall remain unlocked until the fire alarm system has been reset.
5. Activation of the building automatic sprinkler or fire detection system, if provided, shall automatically unlock the doors. The doors shall remain unlocked until the fire alarm system has been reset.
6. The door locking system units shall be listed in accordance with UL 294.
L. Change Section 1010.1.6 of the IBC to read:
1010.1.6 Landings at doors. Landings shall have a width not less than the width of the stairway or the door, whichever is greater. Doors in the fully open position shall not reduce a required dimension by more than 7 inches (178 mm). Where a landing serves an occupant load of 50 or more, other doors, gates, or turnstiles in any position shall not reduce the landing to less than one-half its required width nor prevent a door, gate, or turnstile from opening to less than one-half of the required landing width. Landings shall have a length measured in the direction of travel of not less than 44 inches (1118 mm).
Exception: Landing length in the direction of travel in Groups R-3 and U and within individual units of Group R-2 need not exceed 36 inches (914 mm).
I. Delete the exception in M. Change Section 1008.1.10 1010.1.10 of the IBC. to read:
1010.1.10 Panic and fire exit hardware. Doors serving a Group H occupancy and doors serving rooms or spaces with an occupant load of 50 or more in a Group A or E occupancy shall not be provided with a latch or lock other than panic hardware or fire exit hardware.
Exception: Doors serving a Group A or E occupancy shall be permitted to be electromagnetically locked in accordance with Section 1010.1.9.9.
J. N. Add Section 1008.1.11 1010.1.11 to the IBC to read:
1008.1.11 1010.1.11 Locking certain residential sliding doors. In dwelling units of Group R-2 buildings, exterior sliding doors which are one story or less above grade, or shared by two dwelling units, or are otherwise accessible from the outside, shall be equipped with locks. The mounting screws for the lock case shall be inaccessible from the outside. The lock bolt shall engage the strike in a manner that will prevent it from being disengaged by movement of the door.
Exception: Exterior sliding doors which are equipped with removable metal pins or charlie bars.
K. O. Add Section 1008.1.12 1010.1.12 to the IBC to read:
1008.1.12 1010.1.12 Door viewers in certain residential buildings. Entrance doors to dwelling units of Group R-2 buildings shall be equipped with door viewers with a field of vision of not less than 180 degrees.
Exception: Entrance doors having a vision panel or side vision panels.
L. P. Change Exception 5 3 of Section 1009.7.2 1011.5.2 of the IBC to read:
5. 3. In Group R-3 occupancies; within dwelling units in Group R-2 occupancies; and in Group U occupancies that are accessory to a Group R-3 occupancy or accessory to individual dwelling units in Group R-2 occupancies; the maximum riser height shall be 8.25 inches (210 mm); the minimum tread depth shall be 9 inches (229 mm); the minimum winder tread depth at the walk line shall be 10 inches (254 mm); and the minimum winder tread depth shall be 6 inches (152 mm). A nosing not less than 0.75 inch (19.1 mm) but not more than 1.25 inches (32 mm) shall be provided on stairways with solid risers where the tread depth is less than 11 inches (279 mm).
Q. Change Section 1011.6 of the IBC to read:
1011.6 Stairway landings. There shall be a floor or landing at the top and bottom of each stairway. The width of landings shall be not less than the width of stairways served. Every landing shall have a minimum width measured perpendicular to the direction of travel equal to the width of the stairway. Where the stairway has a straight run the depth need not exceed 48 inches (1219 mm). Doors opening onto a landing shall not reduce the landing to less than one-half the required width. When fully open, the door shall not project more than 7 inches (178 mm) into a landing. Where wheelchair spaces are required on the stairway landing in accordance with Section 1009.6.3, the wheelchair space shall not be located in the required width of the landing and doors shall not swing over the wheelchair spaces.
Exceptions:
1. Where stairways connect stepped aisles to cross aisles or concourses, stairway landings are not required at the transition between stairways and stepped aisles constructed in accordance with Section 1029.
2. A floor or landing is not required at the top of an interior flight of exit access stairs within individual dwelling units and sleeping units of Group R-2 occupancies and dwelling units of Group R-3 occupancies, including stairs in an enclosed private garage serving only an individual dwelling unit, provided that a door does not swing over the stairs.
M. R. Change Section 1013.8 1015.8 of the IBC to read:
1013.8 1015.8 Window sills openings. In Occupancy Groups Windows in Group R-2 and R-3, one-family and two-family and multiple-family dwellings, buildings including dwelling units where the opening top of the sill portion of an operable window opening is located less than 18 inches (457 mm) above the finished floor and more than 72 inches (1829 mm) above the finished grade or other surface below, the lowest part of the clear opening of the window shall be at a height not less than 18 inches (457 mm) above the finished floor surface of the room in which the window is located. Operable sections of windows shall not permit openings that allow passage of a 4-inch-diameter (102 mm) sphere where such openings are located within 18 inches (457 mm) of the finished floor. on the exterior of the building shall comply with one of the following:
Exceptions:
1. Operable windows where the top of the sill portion of the opening is located more than 75 feet (22 860 mm) above the finished grade or other surface below and that are provided with window fall prevention devices that comply with ASTM F 2006.
2. Windows whose Operable windows where the openings will not allow a 4-inch diameter (102 mm) sphere to pass through the opening when the window is in its largest opened position.
3. Openings that Operable windows where the openings are provided with window fall prevention devices that comply with ASTM F 2090.
4. Windows Operable windows that are provided with window opening control devices that comply with Section 1013.8.1 1015.8.1.
N. S. Add Exception 3 to Item 4 5 of Section 1014.2 1016.2 of the IBC to read:
3. A maximum of one exit access is permitted to pass through kitchens, store rooms, closets or spaces used for similar purposes provided such a space is not the only means of exit access.
O. Change Exception 1 in Item 1 of Section 1015.1 of the IBC to read:
1. In Groups R-2 and R-3 occupancies, one means of egress is permitted within and from individual dwelling units with a maximum occupant load of 20 where the dwelling unit is equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 or 903.3.1.2. This exception shall also apply to Group R-2 occupancies where Section 903.2.8, Exception 1 or 2 is applicable.
P. Change Table 1015.1 of the IBC to read:
Table 1015.1 Spaces With One Exit or Exit Access Doorway |
Occupancy | Maximum Occupant Load |
A, B, E, F, M, U | 50 |
H-1, H-2, H-3 | 3 |
H-4, H-5, I-1, I-3, I-4, R | 10 |
S | 29 |
Q. Change Exception 2 of Section 1015.2.1 of the IBC to read:
2. Where a building is equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 or 903.3.1.2, the separation distance of the exit doors or exit access doorways shall not be less than one-fourth of the length of the maximum overall diagonal dimension of the area served.
R. Add Section 1016.2.2 to the IBC to read:
1016.2.2 Group F-1 and S-1 increase. The maximum exit access travel distance shall be 400 feet (122 m) in Group F-1 or S-1 occupancies where all of the following are met:
1. The portion of the building classified as Group F-1 or S-1 is limited to one story in height;
2. The minimum height from the finished floor to the bottom of the ceiling or roof slab or deck is 24 feet (7315 mm); and
3. The building is equipped throughout with an automatic fire sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1.
S. Add the following text to footnote "a" of Table 1016.2 of the IBC to read:
Section 1016.2.2: For increase distance limitation in Group F-1 and Group S-1.
T. Change Exception 2 of Section 1018.1 of the IBC to read:
2. A fire-resistance rating is not required for corridors contained within a dwelling or sleeping unit in an occupancy in Group I-1 and Group R.
U. T. Change Table 1018.1 1020.1 of the IBC to read:
Table 1018.1 1020.1 Corridor Fire-Resistance Rating |
Occupancy | Occupant Load Served By Corridor | Required Fire-Resistance Rating (hours) |
Without sprinkler system | With sprinkler systemb |
H-1, H-2, H-3 | All | Not Permitted | 1 |
H-4, H-5 | Greater than 30 | Not Permitted | 1 |
A, B, E, F, M, S, U | Greater than 30 | 1 | 0 |
R | Greater than 10 | 1 | 0.5 |
I-2a, I-4 | All | Not Permitted | 0 |
I-1, I-3 | All | Not Permitted | 0 |
a. For requirements for occupancies in Group I-2, see Sections 407.2 and 407.3. b. Buildings equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 or 903.3.1.2 where allowed. |
V. U. Add an additional row to Table 1018.2 1020.2 of the IBC to read:
Occupancy | Width (minimum) |
In corridors of Group I-2 assisted living facilities licensed by the Virginia Department of Social Services serving areas with wheelchair, walker, and gurney traffic where residents are capable of self-preservation or where resident rooms have a means of egress door leading directly to the outside. | 44 inches |
W. Change the first row in Table 1021.2(2) to read:
Story | Occupancy | Maximum Occupants per Story | Maximum Exit Access Travel Distance |
First story or basement | A, Bb, E, Fb, M, U, Sb | 50 occupants | 75 feet |
X. V. Change Section 1022.9 1023.9 of the IBC to read:
1022.9 1023.9 Floor identification signs. A sign shall be provided at each floor landing in exit enclosures connecting more than three stories designating the floor level, the terminus of the top and bottom of the exit enclosure and the identification of the stair or ramp by designation with a letter of the alphabet. The signage shall also state the story of, and the direction to, the exit discharge and the availability of roof access from the enclosure for the fire department. The sign shall be located five feet (1524 mm) above the floor landing in a position that is readily visible when the doors are in the open and closed positions. Floor level identification signs in tactile characters complying with ICC A117.1 shall be located at each floor level landing adjacent to the door leading from the enclosure into the corridor to identify the floor level.
Y. W. Change Section 1024.1 1025.1 of the IBC to read:
1024.1 1025.1 General. Approved luminous egress path markings delineating the exit path shall be provided in buildings of Groups A, B, E, I, M and R-1 having occupied floors located more than 420 feet (128 016 mm) above the lowest level of fire department vehicle access in accordance with Sections 1024.1 1025.1 through 1024.5 1025.5.
Exception: Luminous egress path markings shall not be required on the level of exit discharge in lobbies that serve as part of the exit path in accordance with Section 1027.1 1028.1, Exception 1.
13VAC5-63-250. Chapter 11 Accessibility.
A. Add an exception to Section 1101.2 of the IBC to read:
Exception: Wall-mounted visible alarm notification appliances in Group I-3 occupancies shall be permitted to be a maximum of 120 inches (3048 mm) above the floor or ground, measured to the bottom of the appliance. Such appliances shall otherwise comply with all applicable requirements.
B. Add Change Section 1103.2.16 to 1103.2.8 of the IBC to read:
1103.2.16 1103.2.8 Raised and lowered areas in places of religious worship. Raised or lowered areas in places of religious worship are not required to be accessible or to be served by an accessible route provided such areas are used exclusively for the performance of religious ceremonies and are located within an accessible story or mezzanine.
C. Change Section 1106.1 of the IBC and replace Table 1106.1 of the IBC with Tables 1106.1(1) and 1106.1(2) to read:
1106.1 Required. Where parking is provided, accessible parking spaces shall be provided in compliance with Tables 1106.1(1) and 1106.1(2), as applicable, except as required by Sections 1106.2 through 1106.4. Where more than one parking facility is provided on a site, the number of parking spaces required to be accessible shall be calculated separately for each parking facility. Exception: This section does not apply to parking spaces used exclusively for buses, trucks, other delivery vehicles, law-enforcement vehicles, or vehicular impound and motor pools where lots accessed by the public are provided with an accessible passenger loading zone.
Table 1106.1(1) Accessible Parking Spaces for Groups A, B, E, M, R-1, R-2, and Ia |
Total Parking Spaces Provided | Required Minimum Number of Accessible Spaces |
1 - 25 | 1 |
26 - 50 | 2 |
51 - 75 | 3 |
76 - 100 | 4 |
101 - 125 | 5 |
126 - 150 | 6 |
151 - 200 | 7 |
201 - 300 | 8 |
301 - 400 | 9 |
401 - 500 | 10 |
501 - 1,000 | 2.33% of total |
1,001 and over | 23, plus one for each 100, or fraction thereof, over 1,000 |
a. Condominium parking in Group R-2 occupancies where parking is part of the unit purchase shall be in accordance with Table 1106.1(2). |
Table 1106.1(2) Accessible Parking Spaces for Groups F, S, H, R-3, R-4, and U |
Total Parking Spaces Provided | Required Minimum Number of Accessible Spaces |
1 - 25 | 1 |
26 - 50 | 2 |
51 - 75 | 3 |
76 - 100 | 4 |
101 - 150 | 5 |
151 - 200 | 6 |
201 - 300 | 7 |
301 - 400 | 8 |
401 - 500 | 9 |
501 - 1,000 | 2.0% of total |
1,001 and over | 20, plus one for each 100, or fraction thereof, over 1,000 |
D. Add Section 1106.8 to the IBC to read:
1106.8 Identification of accessible parking spaces. In addition to complying with applicable provisions of this chapter, all accessible parking spaces shall be identified by above grade signs. A sign or symbol painted or otherwise displayed on the pavement of a parking space shall not constitute an above grade sign. All above grade parking space signs shall have the bottom edge of the sign no lower than four feet (1219 mm) nor higher than seven feet (2133 mm) above the parking surface. All disabled parking signs shall include the following language: PENALTY, $100-500 Fine, TOW-AWAY ZONE. Such language may be placed on a separate sign and attached below existing above grade disabled parking signs, provided that the bottom edge of the attached sign is no lower than four feet above the parking surface.
E. Add Sections 1109.16 and 1109.16.1 to the IBC to read:
1109.16 Dwellings containing universal design features for accessibility. Group R-5 occupancies not subject to Section R320.1 of the IRC and Group R-3 occupancies not subject to Section 1107.6.3 may comply with this section and be approved by the local building department as dwellings containing universal design features for accessibility.
1109.16.1 Standards for dwellings containing universal design features for accessibility. When the following requirements are met, approval shall be issued by the local building department indicating that a dwelling has been constructed in accordance with these standards and is deemed to be a dwelling containing universal design features for accessibility.
1. The dwelling must comply with the requirements for Type C units under Section 1005 of ICC A117.1 with the following changes to the those requirements:
1.1. That at least one bedroom be added to the interior spaces required by Section 1005.4 of ICC A117.1.
1.2. In the toilet room or bathroom required by Section 1005 of ICC A117.1, in addition to the lavatory and water closet, a shower or bathtub complying with Section 1004.11.3.2.3 of ICC A117.1 shall be provided and shall include reinforcement for future installation of grab bars in accordance with Section 1004.11.1 of ICC A117.1.
1.3. That the exception to Section 1005.4 of ICC A117.1 is not applicable.
1.4. That there be a food preparation area complying with Section 1005.7 of ICC A117.1 on the entrance level.
1.5. That any thermostat for heating or cooling on the entrance level comply with Section 1005.8 of ICC A117.1.
F. Change Item 1 of Section 1110.1 1111.1 of the IBC to read:
1. Accessible parking spaces required by Section 1106.1.
13VAC5-63-260. Chapter 12 Interior environment.
A. Add the following to the list of terms in Section 1202.1 of the IBC:
Day-night average sound level (Ldn).
Sound transmission class (STC) rating.
B. Add Section 1203.4.4 1203.5.4 to the IBC to read:
1203.4.4 1203.5.4 Insect screens in occupancies other than Group R. Every door, window and other outside opening for natural ventilation serving structures classified as other than a residential group containing habitable rooms, food preparation areas, food service areas, or any areas where products to be included or utilized in food for human consumption are processed, manufactured, packaged, or stored, shall be supplied with approved tightly fitting screens of not less than 16 mesh per inch (16 mesh per 25 mm) and every screen door used for insect control shall have a self-closing device.
Exception: Screen doors shall not be required for out swinging doors or other types of openings which make screening impractical, provided other approved means, such as air curtains or insect repellent fans are provided.
C. Add Section 1203.4.5 1203.5.5 to the IBC to read:
1203.4.5 1203.5.5 Insect screens in Group R occupancies. Every door, window and other outside opening required for natural ventilation purposes which serves a structure classified as a residential group shall be supplied with approved tightly fitted screens of not less than 16 mesh per inch (16 mesh per 25 mm) and every screen door used for insect control shall have a self-closing device.
D. Add Section 1203.6 1203.7 to the IBC to read:
1203.6 1203.7 Smoking areas in restaurants. Smoking areas in restaurants, as defined in § 15.2-2820 of the Code of Virginia, shall comply with the following:
1. The area where smoking may be permitted shall be structurally separated from the portion of the restaurant in which smoking is prohibited. For the purposes of this section, structurally separated means a stud wall covered with drywall or other building material or like barrier, which, when completed, extends from the floor to the ceiling, resulting in a physically separated room. Such wall or barrier may include portions that are glass or other gas-impervious building material and shall be permitted to have a door leading to areas in which smoking is prohibited, provided the door is capable of being closed at all times.
2. The area where smoking may be permitted shall be separately vented to prevent the recirculation of air from such area to the area of the restaurant where smoking is prohibited.
Exception: The above requirements do not apply if a restaurant is exempt from, or meets any of the exceptions to, the Virginia Indoor Clean Air Act (Chapter 28.2 of Title 15.2 (§ 15.2-2820 et seq.) of the Code of Virginia).
E. Change Section 1207.1 of the IBC to read:
1207.1 Scope. Sections 1207.2 and 1207.3 shall apply to common interior walls, partitions and floor/ceiling assemblies between adjacent dwelling units or between dwelling units and adjacent public areas such as halls, corridors, stairs or service areas. Section 1207.4 applies to the construction of the exterior envelope of Group R occupancies within airport noise zones and to the exterior envelope of Group A, B, E, I and M occupancies in any locality in whose jurisdiction, or adjacent jurisdiction, is located a United States Master Jet Base, a licensed airport or United States government or military air facility, when such requirements are enforced by a locality pursuant to § 15.2-2295 of the Code of Virginia.
F. Add Section 1207.4 to the IBC to read:
1207.4 Airport noise attenuation standards. Where the Ldn is determined to be 65 dBA or greater, the minimum STC rating of structure components shall be provided in compliance with Table 1207.4. As an alternative to compliance with Table 1207.4, structures shall be permitted to be designed and constructed so as to limit the interior noise level to no greater than 45 Ldn. Exterior structures, terrain and permanent plantings shall be permitted to be included as part of the alternative design. The alternative design shall be certified by an RDP.
G. Add Table 1207.4 to the IBC to read:
Table 1207.4 Airport Noise Attenuation Standards |
Ldn | STC of exterior walls and roof/ceiling assemblies | STC of doors and windows |
65-69 | 39 | 25 |
70-74 | 44 | 33 |
75 or greater | 49 | 38 |
13VAC5-63-264. Chapter 13 Energy efficiency.
Add Section 1301.1.1.1 to the IBC to read:
1301.1.1.1 Changes to the IECC. The following changes shall be made to the IECC:
1. Add Exception 3 to an exception to the first paragraph of Section C402.4.5.2 C403.2.4.3 to read:
3. Exception: Any grease duct serving a Type I hood installed in accordance with IMC Section 506.3 shall not be required to have a motorized or gravity damper.
2. Change Section C402.4.8 to read:
C402.4.8 Recessed lighting. Recessed luminaires installed in the building thermal envelope shall be sealed to limit air leakage between conditioned and unconditioned spaces. All recessed luminaires shall be IC-rated and labeled as having an air leakage rate or not more 2.0 cfm (0.944 L/s) when tested in accordance with ASTM E 283 at a 1.57 psf (75 Pa) pressure differential. All recessed luminaires installed in the thermal envelope shall be sealed with a gasket or caulk between the housing and interior wall or ceiling covering.
3. Add Exception 4 to Section C403.2.4.4 to read:
4. Any grease duct serving a Type I hood installed in accordance with IMC Section 506.3 shall not be required to have a motorized or gravity damper.
4. Change the exception to Section C405.1 to read:
Exception: Dwelling units within commercial buildings shall not be required to comply with Sections C405.2 through C405.5, provided that not less than 75% of the permanently installed luminaires, other than low-voltage lighting, shall be fitted for, and contain only, high-efficacy lamps.
5. Change Section C405.6 C405.5 to read:
C405.6 C405.5 Exterior lighting (Mandatory). All exterior lighting, other than low-voltage landscape lighting, shall comply with Sections C405.6.1 and C405.6.2 Section C405.5.1.
Exception: Where approved because of historical, safety, signage, or emergency considerations.
6. 3. Delete Section R401.3.
7. 4. Change the ceiling R-value and wood frame wall R-value categories for climate zone "4 except Marine" in Table R402.1.1 R402.1.2 to read:
Ceiling R-Value | Wood Frame Wall R-Value |
38 | 15 or 13 + 1h |
8. 5. Change the ceiling U-factor and frame wall U-factor categories for climate zone "4 except Marine" in Table R402.1.3 R402.1.4 to read:
Ceiling U-Factor | Frame Wall U-Factor |
0.030 | 0.079 |
9. 6. Change Sections R402.2.1 and Section R402.2.4 to read:
R402.2.1 Ceilings with attic spaces. When Section R402.1.1 would require R-38 in the ceiling, installing R-30 over 100% of the ceiling area shall be deemed to satisfy the requirement for R-38 wherever the full height of uncompressed R-30 insulation extends over the wall top plate at the eaves. Similarly, when Section R402.1.1 would require R-49 in the ceiling, installing R-38 over 100% of the ceiling area shall be deemed to satisfy the requirement for R-49 wherever the full height of uncompressed R-38 insulation extends over the wall top plate at the eaves. This reduction shall not apply to the U-factor alternative approach in Section R402.1.3 and the total UA alternative in Section R402.1.4.
R402.2.4 Access hatches and doors. Access doors from conditioned spaces to unconditioned spaces (e.g., attics and crawl spaces) shall be weatherstripped and insulated in accordance with the following values:
1. Hinged vertical doors shall have a minimum overall R-5 insulation value;
2. Hatches and scuttle hole covers shall be insulated to a level equivalent to the insulation on the surrounding surfaces; and
3. Pull down stairs shall have a minimum of 75% of the panel area having R-5 rigid insulation.
Access shall be provided to all equipment that prevents damaging or compressing the insulation. A wood framed or equivalent baffle or retainer is required to be provided when loose fill insulation is installed, the purpose of which is to prevent the loose fill insulation from spilling into the living space when the attic access is opened and to provide a permanent means of maintaining the installed R-value of the loose fill insulation.
10. Delete Section R402.3.6 and change 7. Change Sections R402.4 and R402.4.1.1 to read:
R402.4 Air leakage. The building thermal envelope shall be constructed to limit air leakage in accordance with the requirements of Sections R402.4.1 through R402.4.4.
R402.4.1.1 Installation (Mandatory). The components of the building thermal envelope as listed in Table R402.4.1.1 shall be installed in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions and the criteria listed in Table R402.4.1.1, as applicable to the method of construction. Where required by the code official, an approved third party shall inspect all components and verify compliance.
11. 8. Change the title of the "Criteria" "Insulation Installation Criteria" category of Table R402.4.1.1; change the "Walls," "Shower/tub on exterior wall" and "Fireplace" categories category of Table R402.4.1.1, and add footnotes "b" and "c" to Table R402.4.1.1 to read:
Component | Criteriaa,b |
Walls | Cavities within corners and headers shall be insulated by completely filling the cavity with a material having a minimum thermal resistance of R-3 per inch. The junction of the foundation and sill plate shall be sealed. The junction of the top plate and top of exterior walls shall be sealed. Exterior thermal envelope insulation for framed walls shall be installed in substantial contact and continuous alignment with the air barrier. Knee walls shall be sealed. |
Shower or tub on exterior wallc | Exterior walls adjacent to showers and tubs shall be insulated and an air barrier installed on the interior side of the exterior wall, adjacent to the shower or tub. |
Fireplace | An air barrier shall be installed on fireplace walls. Fireplaces shall have gasketed doors or tight-fitting flue dampers. |
b. Structural integrity of headers shall be in accordance with the applicable building code. c. Air barriers used behind showers and tubs on exterior walls shall be of a permeable material that does not cause the entrapment of moisture in the stud cavity. |
Component | Air Barrier Criteria | Insulation Installation Criteriab |
Shower/tub on exterior wallc | The air barrier installed at exterior walls adjacent to showers and tubs shall be installed on the interior side and separate the exterior walls from the showers and tubs. | Exterior walls adjacent to showers and tubs shall be insulated. |
b. Structural integrity of headers shall be in accordance with the applicable building code. c. Air barriers used behind showers and tubs on exterior walls shall be of a permeable material that does not cause the entrapment of moisture in the stud cavity. |
12. 9. Change Section R402.4.1.2 and add Sections R402.4.1.2.1, R402.4.1.2.2, and R402.4.1.3 to read:
R402.4.1.2 Air sealing. Building envelope air tightness shall be demonstrated to comply with either Section R402.4.1.2.1 or R402.4.1.2.2.
R402.4.1.2.1 Testing option. The building or dwelling unit shall be tested for air leakage. Testing shall be conducted with a blower door at a pressure of 0.2 inches w.g. (50 Pascals). Where required by the building official, testing shall be conducted by an approved third party. A written report of the results of the test shall be signed by the party conducting the test and provided to the building official. Testing shall be performed at any time after creation of all penetrations of the building thermal envelope.
During testing:
1. Exterior windows and doors and fireplace and stove doors shall be closed, but not sealed beyond the intended weatherstripping or other infiltration control measures;
2. Dampers, including exhaust, intake, makeup air, backdraft, and flue dampers, shall be closed, but not sealed beyond intended infiltration control measures;
3. Interior doors, if installed at the time of the test, shall be open;
4. Exterior doors for continuous ventilation systems and heat recovery ventilators shall be closed and sealed;
5. Heating and cooling systems, if installed at the time of the test, shall be turned off; and
6. Supply and return registers, if installed at the time of the test, shall be fully open.
R402.4.1.2.2 Visual inspection option. Building envelope tightness shall be considered acceptable when the items listed in Table R402.4.1.1, applicable to the method of construction, are field verified. Where required by the building official, an approved party, independent from the installer, shall inspect the air barrier. When this option is chosen, the dwelling unit shall be ventilated by mechanical means in accordance with Section 403 of the IMC.
R402.4.1.3 Leakage rate (Prescriptive). The building or dwelling unit shall have an air leakage rate not exceeding 5 changes per hour as verified in accordance with Section R402.4.1.2.
13. Change Section R403.1.1 to read:
R403.1.1 Programmable thermostat. The thermostat controlling the primary heating or cooling system of the dwelling unit shall be capable of controlling the heating and cooling system on a daily schedule to maintain different temperature set points at different times of the day. This thermostat shall include the capability to set back or temporarily operate the system to maintain zone temperatures down to 55°F (13°C) or up to 85°F (29°C). The thermostat shall initially be programmed with a heating temperature set point no higher than 70°F (21°C) and a cooling temperature set point no lower than 78°F (26°C).
14. 10. Change Section R403.2.2 R403.3.2 to read:
R403.2.2 R403.3.2 Sealing (Mandatory). Ducts, air handlers, and filter boxes shall be sealed. Joints and seams shall comply with either the IMC or the IRC, as applicable. Verification of compliance with this section shall be in accordance with either Section R403.2.2.1 Sections R403.3.3 and R403.3.4 when the testing option is chosen or Section R403.2.2.2 R403.3.5 when the visual inspection option is chosen.
Exceptions:
1. Air-impermeable spray foam products shall be permitted to be applied without additional joint seals.
2. Where a duct connection is made that is partially inaccessible, three screws or rivets shall be equally spaced on the exposed portion of the joint so as to prevent a hinge effect.
3. Continuously welded and locking-type longitudinal joints and seams in ducts operating at For ducts having a static pressures pressure of less than 2 inches of water column (500 Pa) pressure classification shall not require, additional closure systems shall not be required for continuously welded joints and seams and locking-type joints and seams of other than the snap-lock and button-lock types.
15. 11. Change Section R403.2.2.1 R403.3.5 to read:
R403.2.2.1 Testing option. Duct tightness shall be verified by either of the following:
1. Post-construction test: Total leakage shall be less than or equal to 6 cfm (169.9 L/min) per 100 square feet (9.29 m2) of conditioned floor area when tested at a pressure differential of 0.1 inch w.g. (25 Pa) across the entire system, including the manufacturer's air handler enclosure. All register boots shall be taped or otherwise sealed during the test.
2. Rough-in test: Total leakage shall be less than or equal to 5 cfm (141.5 L/min) per 100 square feet (9.29 m2) of conditioned floor area when tested at a pressure differential of 0.1 inch w.g. (25 Pa) across the system, including the manufacturer's air handler enclosure. All register boots shall be taped or otherwise sealed during the test. If the air handler is not installed at the time of the test, total leakage shall be less than or equal to 5 cfm (141.5 L/min) per 100 square feet (9.29 m2) of conditioned floor area.
Exception: The total leakage test is not required for ducts and air handlers located entirely within the building thermal envelope.
When this option is chosen, testing shall be performed by approved qualified individuals, testing agencies or contractors. Testing and results shall be as prescribed in Section R403.2.2 and approved recognized industry standards.
16. Add Section R403.2.2.2 to read:
R403.2.2.2 R403.3.5 Visual inspection option. In addition to the inspection of ducts otherwise required by this code, when the air handler and all ducts are not within conditioned space and this option is chosen to verify duct tightness, duct tightness shall be considered acceptable when the requirements of Section R403.2.2 R403.3.5 are field verified.
17. 12. Add Section R403.2.2.3 R403.3.6 to read:
R403.2.2.3 Sealed air handler. Air handlers shall have a manufacturer's designation for an air leakage of no more than 2.0% of the design air flow rate when tested in accordance with ASHRAE 193.
R403.3.6 Building cavities (Mandatory). Building framing cavities shall not be used as ducts or plenums.
18. Change Section R403.4.2 to read:
R403.4.2 Hot water pipe insulation (Prescriptive). Insulation for hot water pipe with a minimum thermal resistance (R-value) of R-3 shall be applied to the following:
1. Piping larger than 3/4 inch nominal diameter.
2. Piping serving more than one dwelling unit.
3. Piping located outside the conditioned space.
4. Piping from the water heater to a distribution manifold.
5. Piping located under a floor slab.
6. Buried piping.
7. Supply and return piping in recirculation systems other than demand recirculation systems.
19. Delete Table R403.4.2.
20. 13. Change Section R403.6 R403.7 to read:
R403.6 R403.7 Equipment and appliance sizing. Heating and cooling equipment and appliances shall be sized in accordance with ACCA Manual S or other approved sizing methodologies based on building loads calculated in accordance with ACCA Manual J or other approved heating and cooling calculation methodologies.
Exception: Heating and cooling equipment and appliance sizing shall not be limited to the capacities determined in accordance with Manual S or other approved sizing methodologies where any of the following conditions apply:
1. The specified equipment or appliance utilizes multi-stage technology or variable refrigerant flow technology and the loads calculated in accordance with the approved heating and cooling methodology fall within the range of the manufacturer's published capacities for that equipment or appliance.
2. The specified equipment or appliance manufacturer's published capacities cannot satisfy both the total and sensible heat gains calculated in accordance with the approved heating and cooling methodology and the next larger standard size unit is specified.
3. The specified equipment or appliance is the lowest capacity unit available from the specified manufacturer.
21. Change Section R404.1 to read:
R404.1 Lighting equipment (Mandatory). A minimum of 50% of the lamps in permanently installed luminaires shall be high-efficacy lamps or a minimum of 50% of the permanently installed luminaires shall contain only high-efficacy lamps.
Exception: Low-voltage lighting shall not be required to utilize high-efficiency lamps.
22. 14. Change the "Glazing" "Vertical fenestration other than opaque doors" and "Air exchange rate" categories of Table R405.5.2(1) to read:
Building Component | Standard Reference Design | Proposed Design |
Glazinga Vertical fenestration other than opaque doors | Total areab is 15% of the conditioned floor area. | As proposed |
Glazinga Vertical fenestration other than opaque doors | Orientation: equally distributed to four cardinal compass orientations (North, East, South & West). | As proposed |
Glazinga Vertical fenestration other than opaque doors | U-factor: from Table R402.1.3 R402.1.4 | As proposed |
Glazinga Vertical fenestration other than opaque doors | SHGC: From Table R402.1.1 R402.1.2 except that for climates with no requirement (NR) SHGC = 0.40 shall be used. | As proposed |
Glazinga Vertical fenestration other than opaque doors | Interior shade fraction: 0.92-(0.21 x SHGC for the standard reference design) | 0.92-(0.21 x SHGC as proposed) |
Glazinga Vertical fenestration other than opaque doors | External shading: none. | As proposed |
Air exchange rate | Air leakage rate of 5 air changes per hour at a pressure of 0.2 inches w.g (50 Pa). The mechanical ventilation rate shall be in addition to the air leakage rate and the same as in the proposed design, but no greater than 0.01 × CFA + 7.5 × (Nbr + 1) where: CFA = conditioned floor area Nbr = number of bedrooms Energy recovery shall not be assumed for mechanical ventilation. | For residences that are not tested, the same air leakage rate as the standard reference design. For tested residences, the measured air exchange ratec a. The mechanical ventilation rated b shall be in addition to the air leakage rate and shall be as proposed. |
a. Where required by the code official, testing shall be conducted by an approved party. Hourly calculations as specified in the ASHRAE Handbook of Fundamentals, or the equivalent shall be used to determine the energy loads resulting from infiltration. b. The combined air exchange rate for infiltration and mechanical ventilation shall be determined in accordance with Equation 43 of 2001 ASHRAE Handbook of Fundamentals, page 26.24 and the "Whole-house Ventilation" provisions of 2001 ASHRAE Handbook of Fundamentals, page 26.19 for intermittent mechanical ventilation. |
15. Delete Section R503.1.1.1.
13VAC5-63-268. Chapter 15 Roof assemblies and rooftop structures.
A. Change the title of IBC Section 1511 to read:
Roofing and Roofing Repair.
B. Change Section 1511.1 of the IBC to read as follows and delete the remainder of Section 1511 of the IBC:
1511.1 General. Materials and methods of application used for reroofing and roof repair shall comply with the applicable requirements of Chapter 15 and the requirements of Section 303 of the VEBC.
13VAC5-63-270. Chapter 16 Structural design.
A. Change Section 1609.3 of the IBC to read:
1609.3 Basic wind speed. The ultimate design wind speed, Vult, in miles per hour (mph), for the determination of the wind loads shall be determined by Figures 1609A 1609.3(1), 1609B 1609.3(2), and 1609C 1609.3(3). The ultimate design wind speed, Vult, for use in the design of Risk Category II buildings and structures shall be obtained from Figure 1609A 1609.3(1). The ultimate design wind speed, Vult, for use in the design of Risk Categories III and IV buildings and structures shall be obtained from Figure 1609B 1609.3(2). The ultimate design wind speed, Vult, for use in the design of Risk Category I buildings and structures shall be obtained from Figure 1609C 1609.3(3). The ultimate design wind speeds for localities in special wind regions, near mountainous terrains, and near gorges shall be based on elevation. Areas at 4,000 feet in elevation or higher shall use 142 V mph (62.5 m/s) and areas under 4,000 feet in elevation shall use 116 V mph (51 m/s). Gorge areas shall be based on the highest recorded speed per locality or in accordance with local jurisdiction requirements determined in accordance with Section 26.5.1 of ASCE 7.
In nonhurricane-prone regions, when the ultimate design wind speed, Vult, is estimated from regional climatic data, the ultimate design wind speed, Vult, shall be determined in accordance with Section 26.5.3 of ASCE 7.
B. Add Section 1612.1.1 to the IBC to read:
1612.1.1 Elevation of manufactured homes. New or replacement manufactured homes to be located in any flood hazard zone shall be placed in accordance with the applicable elevation requirements of this code.
Exception: Manufactured homes installed on sites in an existing manufactured home park or subdivision shall be permitted to be placed so that the manufactured home chassis is supported by reinforced piers or other foundation elements of at least equivalent strength that are no less than 36 inches (914 mm) above grade in lieu of being elevated at or above the base flood elevation provided no manufactured home at the same site has sustained flood damage exceeding 50% of the market value of the home before the damage occurred.
13VAC5-63-280. Chapter 17 Special inspections and tests.
A. Change Section 1703.1 of the IBC to read:
1703.1 Approved agency. An approved agency responsible for laboratory testing or special inspections, or both, must comply with the qualification, certification and experience requirements of ASTM E329 or the alternatives listed herein.
B. Change Section 1703.1.1 of the IBC to read:
1703.1.1 Independence. An approved agency shall be objective and competent. The agency shall also disclose possible conflicts of interest so that objectivity can be confirmed. The special inspector and their agents shall be independent from the person, persons or contractor responsible for the physical construction of the project requiring special inspections.
C. Change Section 1703.1.3 of the IBC to read:
1703.1.3 Personnel. An approved agency shall employ experienced personnel educated in conducting, supervising and evaluating tests or inspections, or both. Upon request by the building official, documentation shall be provided demonstrating the applicable agency's accreditation as noted in ASTM E329 and individuals' resumes indicating pertinent training, certifications and other qualifications for special inspection personnel associated with the proposed construction requiring special inspections. The building official may prescribe the manner of qualification documentation and frequency of updating information regarding agency or individual inspector approval.
Firms providing special inspection services or individual inspectors seeking approval of alternative certifications or qualifications, or both, listed in ASTM E329 may submit documentation demonstrating equivalency. This documentation may include evidence of meeting other recognized standards or alternative certifications to demonstrate that the minimum qualifications, certification and experience intended by ASTM E329 have been met. The building official may, if satisfied that equivalency has been demonstrated, approve the credentials of the firm or individual.
D. Change Section 1704.2 of the IBC to read:
1704.2 Special inspections. Where application is made for construction as described in this section, the owner shall employ one or more special inspectors to provide inspections and tests during construction on the types of work listed under Section 1704 1705. All individuals or agents performing special inspection functions shall operate under the direct supervision of an RDP in responsible charge of special inspection activities, also known as the "special inspector." The special inspector shall ensure that the individuals under their charge are performing only those special inspections or laboratory testing that are consistent with their knowledge, training and certification for the specified inspection or laboratory testing.
Exceptions:
1. Special inspections and tests are not required for work construction of a minor nature or as warranted by conditions in the jurisdiction as approved by the building official.
2. Special inspections are not required for building components unless the design involves the practice of professional engineering or architecture as defined by the laws of this Commonwealth and regulations governing the professional registration and certification of engineers and architects.
3. Unless otherwise required by the building official, special inspections are not required for occupancies in Groups R-3, R-4 or R-5 and occupancies in Group U that are accessory to a residential occupancy including, but not limited to, those listed in Section 312.1.
4. Special inspections and tests are not required for portions of structures designed and constructed in accordance with the cold-formed steel light-frame construction provisions of Section 2211.7 or the conventional light-frame construction provisions of Section 2308.
5. The contractor is permitted to employ the approved agencies where the contractor is also the owner.
E. Change Section 1704.2.3 of the IBC to read:
1704.2.3 Statement of special inspections. The permit applicant shall submit a statement of special inspections prepared by the RDP in responsible charge in accordance with Section 111.1. This statement shall be in accordance with Section 1704.3.
Exceptions Exception:
1. A statement of special inspections is not required for structures designed and constructed in accordance with the conventional construction provisions of Section 2308.
2. The statement of special inspections is permitted to be prepared by a qualified person approved by the building official for construction not designed by a registered design professional.
F. Change category "12" of Table 1705.3 of the IBC to read:
Verifica-tion and inspection Type | Contin-uous Special Inspec-tion | Periodic Special Inspection | Referenced Standarda | IBC Reference |
12. Inspect formwork for shape, location and dimen-sions of the concrete member being formed, shoring and reshoring. | -- | X | ACI 318: 6.1.1 26.10.1(b) | -- |
G. Delete Sections 1705.16 1705.17, 1705.16.1 1705.17.1, and 1705.16.2 1705.17.2 of the IBC.
13VAC5-63-290. Chapter 18 Soils and foundations.
A. Change the exception to Section 1804.5 1804.6 of the IBC to read:
Exception: Compacted fill material less than 12 inches (305 mm) in depth need not comply with an approved report, provided it is a natural non-organic material that is not susceptible to swelling when exposed to moisture and it has been compacted to a minimum of 90% Modified Proctor in accordance with ASTM D1557. The compaction shall be verified by a qualified inspector approved by the building official. Material other than natural material may be used as fill material when accompanied by a certification from an RDP and approved by the building official.
B. Add an exception to Section 1808.1 of the IBC to read:
Exception: One-story detached accessory structures not exceeding 256 square feet (23.78m2) of building area, provided all of the following conditions are met:
1. The building eave height is 10 feet (3048 mm) or less.
2. The maximum height from the finished floor level to grade does not exceed 18 inches (457.2 mm).
3. The supporting structural elements in direct contact with the ground shall be placed level on firm soil and when such elements are wood they shall be approved pressure preservative treated suitable for ground contact use.
4. The structure is anchored to withstand wind loads as required by this code.
5. The structure shall be of light-frame construction with walls and roof of light weight material, not slate, tile, brick or masonry.
13VAC5-63-295. Chapter 23 Wood.
A. Change Item 3.2 2 of Section 2308.2 2308.2.3 of the IBC to read:
3.2. 2. Live loads shall not exceed 40 psf (1916 N/m2) for floors.
Exception: Concrete slab-on-grade live load limited only by allowable soil bearing pressure.
B. Change the indicated rows of Table 2308.8(1) of the IBC to read:
Joist Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 pounds per square foot | Dead Load = 20 pounds per square foot |
2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum floor joist spans |
(ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 12-3 | 16-2 | 20–8 | 25-1 | 12-3 | 16-2 | 20–8 | 25-1 |
Southern Pine #1 | 11–10 | 15-7 | 19-10 | 24-2 | 11–10 | 15-7 | 18-7 | 22-0 |
Southern Pine #2 | 11–3 | 14-11 | 18-1 | 21-4 | 10-9 | 13-8 | 16-2 | 19-1 |
Southern Pine #3 | 9-2 | 11–6 | 14-0 | 16-6 | 8-2 | 10-3 | 12-6 | 14-9 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 11–2 | 14-8 | 18-9 | 22-10 | 11–2 | 14-8 | 18-9 | 22-10 |
Southern Pine #1 | 10-9 | 14-2 | 18-0 | 21-4 | 10-9 | 13-9 | 16-1 | 19-1 |
Southern Pine #2 | 10-3 | 13-3 | 15-8 | 18-6 | 9-4 | 11–10 | 14-0 | 16-6 |
Southern Pine #3 | 7-11 | 10-0 | 12-1 | 14-4 | 7-1 | 8-11 | 10-10 | 12-10 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 10-6 | 13-10 | 17-8 | 21-6 | 10-6 | 13-10 | 17-8 | 21-6 |
Southern Pine #1 | 10-1 | 13-4 | 16-5 | 19-6 | 9-11 | 12-7 | 14-8 | 17-5 |
Southern Pine #2 | 9-6 | 12-1 | 14-4 | 16-10 | 8-6 | 10-10 | 12-10 | 15-1 |
Southern Pine #3 | 7-3 | 9-1 | 11–0 | 13-1 | 6-5 | 8-2 | 9-10 | 11–8 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 9-9 | 12-10 | 16-5 | 19-11 | 9-9 | 12-10 | 16-5 | 19-8 |
Southern Pine #1 | 9-4 | 12-4 | 14-8 | 17-5 | 8-10 | 11–3 | 13-1 | 15-7 |
Southern Pine #2 | 8-6 | 10-10 | 12-10 | 15-1 | 7-7 | 9-8 | 11–5 | 13-6 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-5 | 8-2 | 9-10 | 11–8 | 5-9 | 7-3 | 8-10 | 10-5 |
C. Change the indicated rows of Table 2308.8(2) of the IBC to read:
Joist Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 pounds per square foot | Dead Load = 20 pounds per square foot |
2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum floor joist spans |
(ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) |
12 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 11–2 10-9 10-3 8-2 | 14-8 14-2 13-6 10-3 | 18-9 18-0 16-2 12-6 | 22-10 21-11 19-1 14-9 | 11–2 10-9 9-10 7-5 | 14-8 14-2 12-6 9-5 | 18-9 16-11 14-9 11–5 | 22-10 20–1 17-5 13-6 |
16 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 10-2 9-9 9-4 7-1 | 13-4 12-10 11–10 8-11 | 17-0 16-1 14-0 10-10 | 20–9 19-1 16-6 12-10 | 10-2 9-9 8-6 6-5 | 13-4 12-7 10-10 8-2 | 17-0 14-8 12-10 9-10 | 20–9 17-5 15-1 11–8 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 9-6 9-2 8-6 6-5 | 12-7 12-1 10-10 8-2 | 16-0 14-8 12-10 9-10 | 19-6 17-5 15-1 11–8 | 9-6 9-0 7-9 5-11 | 12-7 11–5 9-10 7-5 | 16-0 13-5 11–8 9-0 | 19-6 15-11 13-9 10-8 |
24 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 8-10 8-6 7-7 5-9 | 11–8 11–3 9-8 7-3 | 14-11 13-1 11–5 8-10 | 18-1 15-7 13-6 10-5 | 8-10 8-1 7-0 5-3 | 11–8 10-3 8-10 6-8 | 14-11 12-0 10-5 8-1 | 18-0 14-3 12-4 9-6 |
D. Change the title and footnote "b" of Table 2308.9.5 of the IBC to read:
Table 2308.9.5
Header and Girder Spansa,b for Exterior Bearing Walls
(Maximum Spans for Douglas Fir-Larch, Hem-Fir, Southern Pine, and Spruce-Pine-Fir and Required Number of Jack Studs)
b. Spans are based on minimum design properties for No. 2 Grade lumber of Douglas fir-larch, hem-fir, and spruce-pine-fir. No. 1 or better grade lumber shall be used for southern pine.
E. Change the title and footnote "b" of Table 2308.9.6 of the IBC to read:
Table 2308.9.6
Header and Girder Spansa,b for Interior Bearing Walls
(Maximum Spans for Douglas Fir-Larch, Hem-Fir, Southern Pine, and Spruce-Pine-Fir and Required Number of Jack Studs)
b. Spans are based on minimum design properties for No. 2 Grade lumber of Douglas fir-larch, hem-fir, and spruce-pine-fir. No. 1 or better grade lumber shall be used for southern pine.
F. Change the indicated rows of Table 2308.10.2(1) of the IBC to read:
Ceiling Joist Spacing | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 5 pounds per square foot |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 |
Maximum ceiling joist spans |
(ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) |
12 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 12-11 12-5 11–10 10-1 | 20–3 19-6 18-8 14-11 | 26-0 25-8 24-7 18-9 | 26-0 26-0 26-0 22-9 |
16 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 11–9 11–3 10-9 8-9 | 18-5 17-8 16-11 12-11 | 24-3 23–4 21-7 16-3 | 26-0 26-0 25-7 19-9 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 11–0 10-7 10-2 8-0 | 17-4 16-8 15-7 11–9 | 22-10 22-0 19-8 14-10 | 26-0 26-0 23–5 18-0 |
24 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 10-3 9-10 9-3 7-2 | 16-1 15-6 13-11 10-6 | 21-2 20–5 17-7 13-3 | 26-0 24-0 20–11 16-1 |
G. Change the indicated rows of Table 2308.10.2(2) of the IBC to read:
Ceiling Joist Spacing | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 pounds per square foot |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 |
Maximum ceiling joist spans |
(ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) |
12 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 10-3 9-10 9-3 7-2 | 16-1 15-6 13-11 10-6 | 21-2 20–5 17-7 13-3 | 26-0 24-0 20–11 16-1 |
16 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 9-4 8-11 8-0 6-2 | 14-7 14-0 12-0 9-2 | 19-3 17-9 15-3 11–6 | 24-7 20–9 18-1 14-0 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 8-9 8-5 7-4 5-8 | 13-9 12-9 11–0 8-4 | 18-2 16-2 13-11 10-6 | 23–1 18-11 16-6 12-9 |
24 | Southern Pine SS Southern Pine #1 Southern Pine #2 Southern Pine #3 | 8-1 7-8 6-7 5-1 | 12-9 11–5 9-10 7-5 | 16-10 14-6 12-6 9-5 | 21-6 16-11 14-9 11–5 |
H. Change the indicated rows of Table 2308.10.3(1) of the IBC to read:
Rafter Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 pounds per square foot | Dead Load = 20 pounds per square foot |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum rafter spans |
(ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 11–3 | 17-8 | 23–4 | 26-0 | 26-0 | 11–3 | 17-8 | 23–4 | 26-0 | 26-0 |
Southern Pine #1 | 10-10 | 17-0 | 22-5 | 26-0 | 26-0 | 10-6 | 15-8 | 19-10 | 23–2 | 26-0 |
Southern Pine #2 | 10-4 | 15-7 | 19-8 | 23–5 | 26-0 | 9-0 | 13-6 | 17-1 | 20–3 | 23–10 |
Southern Pine #3 | 8-0 | 11–9 | 14-10 | 18-0 | 21-4 | 6-11 | 10-2 | 12-10 | 15-7 | 18-6 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 10-3 | 16-1 | 21-2 | 26-0 | 26-0 | 10-3 | 16-1 | 21-2 | 25-7 | 26-0 |
Southern Pine #1 | 9-10 | 15-6 | 19-10 | 23–2 | 26-0 | 9-1 | 13-7 | 17-2 | 20–1 | 23–10 |
Southern Pine #2 | 9-0 | 13-6 | 17-1 | 20–3 | 23–10 | 7-9 | 11–8 | 14-9 | 17-6 | 20–8 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-11 | 10-2 | 12-10 | 15-7 | 18-6 | 6-0 | 8-10 | 11–2 | 13-6 | 16-0 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 9-8 | 15-2 | 19-11 | 25-5 | 26-0 | 9-8 | 15-2 | 19-7 | 23–4 | 26-0 |
Southern Pine #1 | 9-3 | 14-3 | 18-1 | 21-2 | 25-2 | 8-4 | 12-4 | 15-8 | 18-4 | 21-9 |
Southern Pine #2 | 8-2 | 12-3 | 15-7 | 18-6 | 21-9 | 7-1 | 10-8 | 13-6 | 16-0 | 18-10 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-4 | 9-4 | 11–9 | 14-3 | 16-10 | 5-6 | 8-1 | 10-2 | 12-4 | 14-7 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 8-11 | 14-1 | 18-6 | 23–8 | 26-0 | 8-11 | 13-10 | 17-6 | 20–10 | 24-8 |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-7 | 12-9 | 16-2 | 18-11 | 22-6 | 7-5 | 11–1 | 14-0 | 16-5 | 19-6 |
Southern Pine #2 | 7-4 | 11–0 | 13-11 | 16-6 | 19-6 | 6-4 | 9-6 | 12-1 | 14-4 | 16-10 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-8 | 8-4 | 10-6 | 12-9 | 15-1 | 4-11 | 7-3 | 9-1 | 11–0 | 13-1 |
| | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | |
I. Change the indicated rows of Table 2308.10.3(2) of the IBC to read:
Rafter Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 pounds per square foot | Dead Load = 20 pounds per square foot |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum rafter spans |
(ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 10-3 | 16-1 | 21-2 | 26-0 | 26-0 | 10-3 | 16-1 | 21-2 | 26-0 | 26-0 |
Southern Pine #1 | 9-10 | 15-6 | 20–5 | 26-0 | 26-0 | 9-10 | 15-6 | 19-10 | 23–2 | 26-0 |
Southern Pine #2 | 9-5 | 14-9 | 19-6 | 23–5 | 26-0 | 9-0 | 13-6 | 17-1 | 20–3 | 23–10 |
Southern Pine #3 | 8-0 | 11–9 | 14-10 | 18-0 | 21-4 | 6-11 | 10-2 | 12-10 | 15-7 | 18-6 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 9-4 | 14-7 | 19-3 | 24-7 | 26-0 | 9-4 | 14-7 | 19-3 | 24-7 | 26-0 |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-11 | 14-1 | 18-6 | 23–2 | 26-0 | 8-11 | 13-7 | 17-2 | 20–1 | 23–10 |
Southern Pine #2 | 8-7 | 13-5 | 17-1 | 20–3 | 23–10 | 7-9 | 11–8 | 14-9 | 17-6 | 20–8 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-11 | 10-2 | 12-10 | 15-7 | 18-6 | 6-0 | 8-10 | 11–2 | 13-6 | 16-0 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 8-9 | 13-9 | 18-2 | 23–1 | 26-0 | 8-9 | 13-9 | 18-2 | 23–1 | 26-0 |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-5 | 13-3 | 17-5 | 21-2 | 25-2 | 8-4 | 12-4 | 15-8 | 18-4 | 21-9 |
Southern Pine #2 | 8-1 | 12-3 | 15-7 | 16-6 | 21-9 | 7-1 | 10-8 | 13-6 | 16-0 | 18-10 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-4 | 9-4 | 11–9 | 14-3 | 16-10 | 5-6 | 8-1 | 10-2 | 12-4 | 14-7 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 8-1 | 12-9 | 16-10 | 21-6 | 26-0 | 8-1 | 12-9 | 16-10 | 20–10 | 24-8 |
Southern Pine #1 | 7-10 | 12-3 | 16-2 | 18-11 | 22-6 | 7-6 | 11–1 | 14-0 | 16-5 | 19-6 |
Southern Pine #2 | 7-4 | 11–0 | 13-11 | 16-6 | 19-6 | 6-4 | 9-6 | 12-1 | 14-4 | 16-10 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-8 | 8-4 | 10-6 | 12-9 | 15-1 | 4-11 | 7-3 | 9-1 | 11–0 | 13-1 |
J. Change the indicated rows of Table 2308.10.3(3) of the IBC to read:
Rafter Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 pounds per square foot | Dead Load = 20 pounds per square foot |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum rafter spans |
(ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 9-10 | 15-6 | 20–5 | 26-0 | 26-0 | 9-10 | 15-6 | 20–5 | 25-4 | 26-0 |
Southern Pine #1 | 9-6 | 14-10 | 19-0 | 22-3 | 26-0 | 9-0 | 13-5 | 17-0 | 19-11 | 23–7 |
Southern Pine #2 | 8-7 | 12-11 | 16-4 | 19-5 | 22-10 | 7-8 | 11–7 | 14-8 | 17-4 | 20–5 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-7 | 9-9 | 12-4 | 15-0 | 17-9 | 5-11 | 8-9 | 11–0 | 13-5 | 15-10 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 8-11 | 14-1 | 18-6 | 23–8 | 26-0 | 8-11 | 14-1 | 18-5 | 21-11 | 25-11 |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-7 | 13-0 | 16-6 | 19-3 | 22-10 | 7-10 | 11–7 | 14-9 | 17-3 | 20–5 |
Southern Pine #2 | 7-6 | 11–2 | 14-2 | 16-10 | 19-10 | 6-8 | 10-0 | 12-8 | 15-1 | 17-9 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-9 | 8-6 | 10-8 | 13-0 | 15-4 | 5-2 | 7-7 | 9-7 | 11–7 | 13-9 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 8-5 | 13-3 | 17-5 | 22-3 | 26-0 | 8-5 | 13-3 | 16-10 | 20–0 | 23–7 |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-0 | 11–10 | 15-1 | 17-7 | 20–11 | 7-1 | 10-7 | 13-5 | 15-9 | 18-8 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-10 | 10-2 | 12-11 | 15-4 | 18-1 | 6-1 | 9-2 | 11–7 | 13-9 | 16-2 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-3 | 7-9 | 9-9 | 11–10 | 14-0 | 4-8 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-7 | 12-6 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 7-10 | 12-3 | 16-2 | 20–0 | 23–7 | 7-10 | 11–10 | 15-0 | 17-11 | 21-2 |
Southern Pine #1 | 7-1 | 10-7 | 13-5 | 15-9 | 18-8 | 6-4 | 9-6 | 12-0 | 14-1 | 16-8 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-1 | 9-2 | 11–7 | 13-9 | 16-2 | 5-5 | 8-2 | 10-4 | 12-3 | 14-6 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-8 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-7 | 12-6 | 4-2 | 6-2 | 7-10 | 9-6 | 11–2 |
K. Change the indicated rows of Table 2308.10.3(4) of the IBC to read:
Rafter Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 pounds per square foot | Dead Load = 20 pounds per square foot |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum rafter spans |
(ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 8-4 | 13-1 | 17-2 | 21-11 | 26-0 | 8-4 | 13-1 | 17-2 | 21-5 | 25-3 |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-0 | 12-3 | 15-6 | 18-2 | 21-7 | 7-7 | 11–4 | 14-5 | 16-10 | 20–0 |
Southern Pine #2 | 7-0 | 10-6 | 13-4 | 15-10 | 18-8 | 6-6 | 9-9 | 12-4 | 14-8 | 17-3 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-5 | 8-0 | 10-1 | 12-3 | 14-6 | 5-0 | 7-5 | 9-4 | 11–4 | 13-5 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 7-6 | 11–10 | 15-7 | 19-11 | 23–7 | 7-6 | 11–10 | 15-7 | 18-6 | 21-10 |
Southern Pine #1 | 7-1 | 10-7 | 13-5 | 15-9 | 18-8 | 6-7 | 9-10 | 12-5 | 14-7 | 17-3 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-1 | 9-2 | 11–7 | 13-9 | 16-2 | 5-8 | 8-5 | 10-9 | 12-9 | 15-0 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-8 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-7 | 12-6 | 4-4 | 6-5 | 8-1 | 9-10 | 11–7 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 7-1 | 11–2 | 14-8 | 18-3 | 21-7 | 7-1 | 11–2 | 14-2 | 16-11 | 20–0 |
Southern Pine #1 | 6-6 | 9-8 | 12-3 | 14-4 | 17-1 | 6-0 | 9-0 | 11–4 | 13-4 | 15-9 |
Southern Pine #2 | 5-7 | 8-4 | 10-7 | 12-6 | 14-9 | 5-2 | 7-9 | 9-9 | 11–7 | 13-8 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-3 | 6-4 | 8-0 | 9-8 | 11–5 | 4-0 | 5-10 | 7-4 | 8-11 | 10-7 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 6-7 | 10-4 | 13-8 | 16-4 | 19-3 | 6-7 | 10-0 | 12-8 | 15-2 | 17-10 |
Southern Pine #1 | 5-10 | 8-8 | 11–0 | 12-10 | 15-3 | 5-5 | 8-0 | 10-2 | 11–11 | 14-1 |
Southern Pine #2 | 5-0 | 7-5 | 9-5 | 11–3 | 13-2 | 4-7 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-5 | 12-3 |
Southern Pine #3 | 3-10 | 5-8 | 7-1 | 8-8 | 10-3 | 3-6 | 5-3 | 6-7 | 8-0 | 9-6 |
L. Change the indicated rows of Table 2308.10.3(5) of the IBC to read:
Rafter Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 pounds per square foot | Dead Load = 20 pounds per square foot |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum rafter spans |
(ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 8-11 | 14-1 | 18-6 | 23–8 | 26-0 | 8-11 | 14-1 | 18-6 | 23–8 | 26-0 |
Southern Pine #1 | 8-7 | 13-6 | 17-10 | 22-3 | 26-0 | 8-7 | 13-5 | 17-0 | 19-11 | 23–7 |
Southern Pine #2 | 8-3 | 12-11 | 16-4 | 19-5 | 22-10 | 7-8 | 11–7 | 14-8 | 17-4 | 20–5 |
Southern Pine #3 | 6-7 | 9-9 | 12-4 | 15-0 | 17-9 | 5-11 | 8-9 | 11–0 | 13-5 | 15-10 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 8-1 | 12-9 | 16-10 | 21-6 | 26-0 | 8-1 | 12-9 | 16-10 | 21-6 | 25-11 |
Southern Pine #1 | 7-10 | 12-3 | 16-2 | 19-3 | 22-10 | 7-10 | 11–7 | 14-9 | 17-3 | 20–5 |
Southern Pine #2 | 7-6 | 11–2 | 14-2 | 16-10 | 19-10 | 6-8 | 10-0 | 12-8 | 15-1 | 17-9 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-9 | 8-6 | 10-8 | 13-0 | 15-4 | 5-2 | 7-7 | 9-7 | 11–7 | 13-9 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 7-8 | 12-0 | 15-10 | 20–2 | 24-7 | 7-8 | 12-0 | 15-10 | 20–0 | 23–7 |
Southern Pine #1 | 7-4 | 11–7 | 15-1 | 17-7 | 20–11 | 7-1 | 10-7 | 13-5 | 15-9 | 18-8 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-10 | 10-2 | 12-11 | 15-4 | 18-1 | 6-1 | 9-2 | 11–7 | 13-9 | 16-2 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-3 | 7-9 | 9-9 | 11–10 | 14-0 | 4-8 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-7 | 12-6 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 7-1 | 11–2 | 14-8 | 18-9 | 22-10 | 7-1 | 11–2 | 14-8 | 17-11 | 21-2 |
Southern Pine #1 | 6-10 | 10-7 | 13-5 | 15-9 | 18-8 | 6-4 | 9-6 | 12-0 | 14-1 | 16-8 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-1 | 9-2 | 11–7 | 13-9 | 16-2 | 5-5 | 8-2 | 10-4 | 12-3 | 14-6 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-8 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-7 | 12-6 | 4-2 | 6-2 | 7-10 | 9-6 | 11–2 |
M. Change the indicated rows of Table 2308.10.3(6) of the IBC to read:
Rafter Spacing (inches) | Species and Grade | Dead Load = 10 pounds per square foot | Dead Load = 20 pounds per square foot |
2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 | 2x4 | 2x6 | 2x8 | 2x10 | 2x12 |
Maximum rafter spans |
(ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) | (ft.-in.) |
12 | Southern Pine SS | 7-6 | 11–0 | 15-7 | 19-11 | 24-3 | 7-6 | 11–10 | 15-7 | 19-11 | 24-3 |
Southern Pine #1 | 7-3 | 11–5 | 15-0 | 18-2 | 21-7 | 7-3 | 11–4 | 14-5 | 16-10 | 20–0 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-11 | 10-6 | 13-4 | 15-10 | 18-8 | 6-6 | 9-9 | 12-4 | 14-8 | 17-3 |
Southern Pine #3 | 5-5 | 8-0 | 10-1 | 12-3 | 14-6 | 5-0 | 7-5 | 9-4 | 11–4 | 13-5 |
16 | Southern Pine SS | 6-10 | 10-9 | 14-2 | 18-1 | 22-0 | 6-10 | 10-9 | 14-2 | 18-1 | 21-10 |
Southern Pine #1 | 6-7 | 10-4 | 13-5 | 15-9 | 18-8 | 6-7 | 9-10 | 12-5 | 14-7 | 17-3 |
Southern Pine #2 | 6-1 | 9-2 | 11–7 | 13-9 | 16-2 | 5-8 | 8-5 | 10-9 | 12-9 | 15-0 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-8 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-7 | 12-6 | 4-4 | 6-5 | 8-1 | 9-10 | 11–7 |
19.2 | Southern Pine SS | 6-5 | 10-2 | 13-4 | 17-0 | 20–9 | 6-5 | 10-2 | 13-4 | 16-11 | 20–0 |
Southern Pine #1 | 6-2 | 9-8 | 12-3 | 14-4 | 17-1 | 6-0 | 9-0 | 11–4 | 13-4 | 15-9 |
Southern Pine #2 | 5-7 | 8-4 | 10-7 | 12-6 | 14-9 | 5-2 | 7-9 | 9-9 | 11–7 | 13-8 |
Southern Pine #3 | 4-3 | 6-4 | 8-0 | 9-8 | 11–5 | 4-0 | 5-10 | 7-4 | 8-11 | 10-7 |
24 | Southern Pine SS | 6-0 | 9-5 | 12-5 | 15-10 | 19-3 | 6-0 | 9-5 | 12-5 | 15-2 | 17-10 |
Southern Pine #1 | 5-9 | 8-8 | 11–0 | 12-10 | 15-3 | 5-5 | 8-0 | 10-2 | 11–11 | 14-1 |
Southern Pine #2 | 5-0 | 7-5 | 9-5 | 11–3 | 13-2 | 4-7 | 6-11 | 8-9 | 10-5 | 12-3 |
Southern Pine #3 | 3-10 | 5-8 | 7-1 | 8-8 | 10-3 | 3-6 | 5-3 | 6-7 | 8-0 | 9-6 |
B. Change Table 2308.4.1.1(1) of the IBC to read:
C. Change Table 2308.4.1.1(2) of the IBC to read:
Table 2308.4.1.1(2) Header and Girder Spansa, b for Interior Bearing Walls (Maximum spans for Douglas Fir-Larch, Hem-Fir, Southern Pine, and Spruce-Pine-Firb and required number of jack studs) |
Headers and Girders Supporting | Size | Building Widthc(feet) |
12 | 24 | 36 |
Spane | NJd | Spane | NJd | Spane | NJd |
One floor only | 2-2 x 4 | 4-1 | 1 | 2-10 | 1 | 2-4 | 1 |
2-2 x 6 | 6-1 | 1 | 4-4 | 1 | 3-6 | 1 |
2-2 x 8 | 7-9 | 1 | 5-5 | 1 | 4-5 | 2 |
2-2 x 10 | 9-2 | 1 | 6-6 | 2 | 5-3 | 2 |
2-2 x 12 | 10-9 | 1 | 7-7 | 2 | 6-3 | 2 |
3-2 x 8 | 9-8 | 1 | 6-10 | 1 | 5-7 | 1 |
3-2 x 10 | 11-5 | 1 | 8-1 | 1 | 6-7 | 2 |
3-2 x 12 | 13-6 | 1 | 9-6 | 2 | 7-9 | 2 |
4-2 x 8 | 11-2 | 1 | 7-11 | 1 | 6-5 | 1 |
4-2 x 10 | 13-3 | 1 | 9-4 | 1 | 7-8 | 1 |
4-2 x 12 | 15-7 | 1 | 11-0 | 1 | 9-0 | 2 |
Two floors | 2-2 x 4 | 2-7 | 1 | 1-11 | 1 | 1-7 | 1 |
2-2 x 6 | 3-11 | 1 | 2-11 | 2 | 2-5 | 2 |
2-2 x 8 | 5-0 | 1 | 3-8 | 2 | 3-1 | 2 |
2-2 x 10 | 5-11 | 2 | 4-4 | 2 | 3-7 | 2 |
2-2 x 12 | 6-11 | 2 | 5-2 | 2 | 4-3 | 3 |
3-2 x 8 | 6-3 | 1 | 4-7 | 2 | 3-10 | 2 |
3-2 x 10 | 7-5 | 1 | 5-6 | 2 | 4-6 | 2 |
3-2 x 12 | 8-8 | 2 | 6-5 | 2 | 5-4 | 2 |
4-2 x 8 | 7-2 | 1 | 5-4 | 1 | 4-5 | 2 |
4-2 x 10 | 8-6 | 1 | 6-4 | 2 | 5-3 | 2 |
4-2 x 12 | 10-1 | 1 | 7-5 | 2 | 6-2 | 2 |
a. Spans are given in feet and inches. b. Spans are based on the minimum design properties for No. 2 grade lumber of Douglas Fir-Larch, Hem-Fir, Southern Pine, and Spruce-Pine Fir. c. Building width is measured perpendicular to the ridge. For widths between those shown, spans are permitted to be interpolated. d. NJ - Number of jack studs required to support each end. Where the number of required jack studs equals one, the header is permitted to be supported by an approved framing anchor attached to the full-height wall stud and to the header. e. Spans are calculated assuming the top of the header or girder is laterally braced by perpendicular framing. Where the top of the header or girder is not laterally braced (e.g., cripple studs bearing on the header), tabulated spans for headers consisting of 2x8, 2x10, or 2x12 sizes shall be multiplied by 0.70 or the header shall be designed. |
13VAC5-63-298. Chapter 26 Plastic.
Change Section 2603.5.5 of the IBC to read:
2603.5.5 Vertical and lateral fire propagation. Exterior wall assemblies shall be tested in accordance with, and comply with, acceptance criteria of NFPA 285. Where noncombustible materials or combustible materials permitted by Sections 603, 803, 806 or 1406 differ from assembly to assembly or within an assembly, multiple tests shall not be required.
Exception Exceptions: Exterior wall assemblies are not required to be tested in accordance with, and comply with, acceptance criteria of NFPA 285 where any of the following conditions are met:
1. One-story buildings complying with Section 2603.4.1.4.
2. Wall assemblies where the foam plastic insulation is covered on each face by a minimum of not less than 1-inch (25 mm) thickness of masonry or concrete complying with either and meeting one of the following:
2.1. There is no air space between the insulation and the concrete or masonry; or.
2.2. The insulation has a flame spread index of not more than 25 as determined in accordance with ASTM E 84 or UL 723 and the maximum air space between the insulation and the concrete or masonry is not more than 1 inch (25 mm).
3. Buildings equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1.
13VAC5-63-300. Chapter 27 Electrical.
A. Change Section 2701.1 of the IBC to read:
2701.1 Scope. This chapter governs the electrical components, equipment and systems used in buildings and structures covered by this code. Electrical components, equipment and systems shall be designed and constructed in accordance with the provisions of this code and NFPA 70.
B. Add Section 2701.1.1 to the IBC to read:
2701.1.1 Changes to NFPA 70. The following change shall be made to NFPA 70:
1. Change Sections 334.10(2) and 334.10(3) of NFPA 70 to read:
(2) Multifamily dwellings not exceeding four floors above grade and multifamily dwellings of any height permitted to be of Types III, IV and V construction except in any case as prohibited in 334.12.
(3) Other structures not exceeding four floors above grade and other structures of any height permitted to be of Types III, IV and V construction except in any case as prohibited in 334.12. In structures exceeding four floors above grade, cables shall be concealed within walls, floors or ceilings that provide a thermal barrier of material that has at least a 15-minute finish rating as identified in listings of fire-rated assemblies.
For the purpose of Items 2 and 3 above, the first floor of a building shall be that floor that has 50% or more of the exterior wall surface area level with or above finished grade. One additional level that is the first level and not designed for human habitation and used only for vehicle parking, storage or similar use shall be permitted.
2. Change Exception 2 to Section 700.12(F) 700.12(F)(2)(6) of NFPA 70 to read:
Exception No. 2 (6) Where the normal power branch circuits that supply luminaires providing illumination immediately on the inside and outside of exit doors are supplied by the same service or feeder, the remote heads providing emergency illumination for the exterior of an exit door shall be permitted to be supplied by the unit equipment serving the area immediately inside the exit door.
C. Add Section 2701.1.2 to the IBC to read:
2701.1.2 Temporary connection to dwelling units. The building official shall give permission to energize the electrical service equipment of a one-family or two-family dwelling unit when all of the following requirements have been approved:
1. The service wiring and equipment, including the meter socket enclosure, shall be installed and the service wiring terminated.
2. The grounding electrode system shall be installed and terminated.
3. At least one receptacle outlet on a ground fault protected circuit shall be installed and the circuit wiring terminated.
4. Service equipment covers shall be installed.
5. The building roof covering shall be installed.
6. Temporary electrical service equipment shall be suitable for wet locations unless the interior is dry and protected from the weather.
D. Add Section 2701.1.3 to the IBC to read:
2701.1.3 Assisted living facility generator requirements. Generators installed to comply with regulations for assisted living facilities licensed by the Virginia Department of Social Services shall be permitted to be optional standby systems.
E. Change Section 2702.2.17 of the IBC to read:
2702.2.17 Group I-2 and I-3 occupancies. Emergency power shall be provided in accordance with Section 407.11 407.10 for Group I-2 occupancies licensed by the Virginia Department of Health as a hospital, nursing or hospice facility. Emergency power shall be provided for doors in Group I-3 occupancies in accordance with Section 408.4.2.
13VAC5-63-310. Chapter 28 Mechanical systems.
A. Change Section 2801.1 of the IBC to read:
2801.1 Scope. Mechanical appliances, equipment and systems shall be constructed and installed in accordance with this chapter, the IMC and the IFGC. Masonry chimneys, fireplaces and barbecues shall comply with the IMC and Chapter 21 of this code.
Exception: This code shall not govern the construction of water heaters, boilers and pressure vessels to the extent which they are regulated by the Virginia Boiler and Pressure Vessel Regulations (16VAC25-50). However, the building official may require the owner of a structure to submit documentation to substantiate compliance with those regulations.
B. Add Section 2801.1.1 to the IBC to read:
2801.1.1 Required heating in dwelling units. Heating facilities shall be required in every dwelling unit or portion thereof which is to be rented, leased or let on terms, either expressed or implied, to furnish heat to the occupants thereof. The heating facilities shall be capable of maintaining the room temperature at 65°F (18°C) during the period from October 15 to May 1 during the hours between 6:30 a.m. and 10:30 p.m. of each day and not less than 60°F (16°C) during other hours when measured at a point three feet (914 mm) above the floor and three feet (914 mm) from the exterior walls. The capability of the heating system shall be based on the outside design temperature required for the locality by this code.
C. Add Section 2801.1.2 to the IBC to read:
2801.1.2 Required heating in nonresidential structures. Heating facilities shall be required in every enclosed occupied space in nonresidential structures. The heating facilities shall be capable of producing sufficient heat during the period from October 1 to May 15 to maintain a temperature of not less than 65°F (18°C) during all working hours. The required room temperature shall be measured at a point three feet (914 mm) above the floor and three feet (914 mm) from the exterior walls.
Processing, storage and operation areas that require cooling or special temperature conditions and areas in which persons are primarily engaged in vigorous physical activities are exempt from these requirements.
D. Add Section 2801.1.3 to the IBC to read:
2801.1.3 Changes to the IMC. The following changes shall be made to the IMC:
1. Add the following definition to Section 202 of the IMC to read:
Pollution control unit. Manufactured equipment that is installed in a grease exhaust duct system for the purpose of extracting smoke, grease particles, and odors from the exhaust flow by means of a series of filters.
2. Change Section 403.3 403.3.1.1 of the IMC to read:
403.3 403.3.1.1 Outdoor airflow rate. Ventilation systems shall be designed to have the capacity to supply the minimum outdoor airflow rate determined in accordance with this section. In each occupiable space, the ventilation system shall be designed to deliver the required rate of outdoor airflow to the breathing zone. The occupant load utilized for design of the ventilation system shall not be less than the number determined from the estimated maximum occupant load rate indicated in Table 403.3 403.3.1.1. Ventilation rates for occupancies not represented in Table 403.3 403.3.1.1 shall be those for a listed occupancy classification that is most similar in terms of occupant density, activities and building construction; or shall be determined by an approved engineering analysis. The ventilation system shall be designed to supply the required rate of ventilation air continuously during the period the building is occupied, except as otherwise stated in other provisions of the code.
With the exception of smoking lounges and other designated areas where smoking is permitted, the ventilation rates in Table 403.3 403.3.1.1 are based on the absence of smoking in occupiable spaces.
Exception: The occupant load is not required to be determined based on the estimated maximum occupant load rate indicated in Table 403.3 403.3.1.1 where approved statistical data document the accuracy of an alternate anticipated occupant density.
2. 3. Add the following areas to Table 403.3 403.3.1.1 of the IMC in the occupancy classifications shown:
OCCUPANCY CLASSIFICA-TION | Occupant Density #/1000 ft2 a | People Outdoor Airflow Rate in Breathing Zone, Rp cfm/person | Area Outdoor Airflow Rate in Breathing Zone, Ra cfm/ft2a | Exhaust Airflow Rate Cfm/ft2a |
Food and beverage service | | | | |
Bars or cocktail lounges designated as an area where smoking is permittedb | 100 | 30 | -- | -- |
Cafeteria or fast food designated as an area where smoking is permittedb | 100 | 20 | -- | -- |
Dining rooms designated as an area where smoking is permittedb | 70 | 20 | -- | -- |
Public spaces | | | | |
Lounges designated as an area where smoking is permittedb | 100 | 30 | -- | -- |
4. Change Section 504.8.2 of the IMC to read:
504.8.2 Duct installation. Exhaust ducts shall be supported at 4-foot (1219 mm) intervals and secured in place. The insert end of the duct shall extend into the adjoining duct or fitting in the direction of airflow. Ducts shall not be joined with screws or similar fasteners that protrude into the inside of the duct.
3. 5. Change Section 505.1 of the IMC to read:
505.1 Domestic systems. Where domestic range hoods and domestic appliances equipped with downdraft exhaust are provided, such hoods and appliances shall discharge to the outdoors through sheet metal ducts constructed of galvanized steel, stainless steel, aluminum, or copper. Such ducts shall have smooth inner walls, shall be air tight, shall be equipped with a backdraft damper, and shall be independent of all other exhaust systems.
Exceptions:
1. In Group R buildings, where installed in accordance with the manufacturer's installation instructions and where mechanical or natural ventilation is otherwise provided in accordance with Chapter 4, listed and labeled ductless range hoods shall not be required to discharge to the outdoors.
2. Ducts for domestic kitchen cooking appliances equipped with downdraft exhaust systems shall be permitted to be constructed of Schedule 40 PVC pipe and fittings provided that the installation complies with all of the following:
2.1. The PVC duct shall be installed under a concrete slab poured on grade.
2.2. The underfloor trench in which the PVC duct is installed shall be completely backfilled with sand or gravel.
2.3. The PVC duct shall extend not more than 1 inch (25 mm) above the indoor concrete floor surface.
2.4. The PVC duct shall extend not more than 1 inch (25 mm) above grade outside of the building.
2.5. The PVC duct shall be solvent cemented.
4. Add 6. Change Section 505.3 505.4 to the IMC to read:
505.3 505.4 Other than Group R. In other than Group R occupancies, where electric domestic cooking appliances are utilized for domestic purposes, such appliances shall be provided with domestic range hoods. Hoods and exhaust systems for such electric domestic cooking appliances shall be in accordance with Sections 505.1 and 505.2. In other than Group R occupancies, where fuel-fired domestic cooking appliances are utilized for domestic purposes, a Type I or Type II hood shall be provided as required for the type of appliances and processes in accordance with Section 507.2 507.1.
5. Change Section 507.2.3 of the IMC to read:
507.2.3 Domestic cooking appliances used for commercial purposes. Domestic cooking appliances utilized for commercial purposes shall be provided with a Type I or Type II hood as required for the type of appliances and processes in accordance with Sections 507.2, 507.2.1, and 507.2.2. Domestic cooking appliances utilized for domestic purposes shall comply with Section 505.
6. Change Section 908.5 of the IMC to read:
908.5 Water supply. Cooling towers, evaporative coolers, and fluid coolers shall be provided with an approved water supply and sized for peak demand. The quality of the water shall be provided in accordance the equipment manufacturer's recommendations. The piping system and protection of the potable water supply shall be installed as required by the IPC.
7. Change Item 4 of Section 928.1 of the IMC to read:
4. Be provided with an approved water supply and sized for peak demand. The quality of the water shall be provided in accordance the equipment manufacturer's recommendations. The piping system and protection of the potable water supply shall be installed as required by the IPC.
7. Change Section 506.5 of the IMC to read:
506.5 Exhaust equipment. Exhaust equipment, including fans and grease reservoirs, shall comply with Sections 506.5.1 through 506.5.6 and shall be of an approved design or shall be listed for the application.
8. Add Section 506.5.6 to the IMC to read:
505.5.6 Pollution control units. The installation of pollution control units shall be in accordance with the manufacturer's installation instructions and all of the following:
1. Pollution control units shall be listed and labeled in accordance with UL 1978.
2. Fans serving pollution control units shall be listed and labeled in accordance with UL 762.
3. Pollution control units shall be mounted and secured in accordance with the manufacturer's installation instructions and the International Building Code.
4. Pollution control units located indoors shall be listed and labeled for such use. Where enclosed duct systems, as required by Section 506.3.11, are connected to a pollution control unit, such unit shall be located in a room or space having the same fire-resistance rating as the duct enclosure. Access shall be provided for serving and cleaning of the unit. The space or enclosure shall be ventilated in accordance with the manufacturer's installation instructions.
5. A clearance of not less than 18 inches (457 mm) shall be maintained between the pollution control unit and combustible material.
6. Roof mounted pollution control units shall be listed for exterior installation and shall be mounted not less than 18 inches (457 mm) above the roof.
7. Exhaust outlets for pollution control units shall be in accordance with Section 506.3.13.
8. An airflow differential pressure control shall be provided to monitor the pressure drop across the filter sections of a pollution control unit. When the airflow is reduced below the design velocity, the airflow differential pressure control shall activate a visual alarm located in the area where cooking operations occur.
9. Pollution control units shall be provided with a factory installed fire suppression system.
10. Service space shall be provided in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions for the pollution control unit and the requirements of Section 306.
11. Wash down drains shall discharge through a grease interceptor and shall be sized for the flow. Drains shall be sealed with a trap or other approved means to prevent air bypass. Where a trap is utilized it shall have a seal depth that accounts for the system pressurization and evaporation between cleanings.
12. Protection from freezing shall be provided for the water supply and fire suppression systems where such systems are subject to freezing.
13. Duct connections to pollution control units shall be in accordance with Section 506.3.2.3. Where water splash or carryover can occur in the transition duct as a result of a washing operation, the transition duct shall slope downward toward the cabinet drain pan for a length not less than 18 inches (457 mm). Ducts shall transition to the full size of the unit inlet and outlet openings.
14. Extra heavy duty appliance exhaust systems shall not be connected to pollution control units except where such units are specifically designed and listed for use with solid fuels.
15. Pollution control units shall be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.
9. Change Section 607.5.5 of the IMC to read:
607.5.5 Shaft enclosures. Shaft enclosures that are permitted to be penetrated by ducts and air transfer openings shall be protected with approved fire and smoke dampers installed in accordance with their listing.
Exceptions:
1. Fire and smoke dampers are not required where steel exhaust subducts extend at least 22 inches (559 mm) vertically in exhaust shafts, provided there is a continuous airflow upward to the outside.
2. Fire dampers are not required where penetrations are tested in accordance with ASTM E119 as part of the fire-resistance-rated assembly.
3. Fire and smoke dampers are not required where ducts are used as part of an approved smoke control system in accordance with Section 909 of the International Building Code.
4. Fire and smoke dampers are not required where the penetrations are in parking garage exhaust or supply shafts that are separated from other building shafts by not less than two-hour fire-resistance-rated construction.
5. Smoke dampers are not required where the building is equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 of the International Building Code.
10. Add Section 607.6.2.2 to the IMC to read:
607.6.2.2 Equipment shutdown. Where ceiling radiation dampers are listed as static dampers, the HVAC equipment shall be effectively shut down to stop the airflow prior to the damper closing using one of the following methods:
1. A duct detector installed in the return duct.
2. An area smoke detector interlocked with the HVAC equipment.
3. A listed heat sensor installed in the return duct.
E. Add Section 2801.1.4 to the IBC to read:
2801.1.4 Changes to the IFGC. The following changes shall be made to the IFGC:
1. Change Section 301.1 of the IFGC to read:
301.1 Scope. This code shall apply to the installation of fuel gas piping systems, fuel gas utilization equipment, and related accessories as follows:
1. Coverage of piping systems shall extend from the point of delivery to the connections with gas utilization equipment. (See "point of delivery.")
2. Systems with an operating pressure of 125 psig (862 kPa gauge) or less.
Piping systems for gas-air mixtures within the flammable range with an operating pressure of 10 psig (69 kPa gauge) or less.
LP-Gas piping systems with an operating pressure of 20 psig (140 kPa gauge) or less.
3. Piping systems requirements shall include design, materials, components, fabrication, assembly, installation, testing and inspection.
4. Requirements for gas utilization equipment and related accessories shall include installation, combustion and ventilation air and venting.
This code shall not apply to the following:
1. Portable LP-Gas equipment of all types that are not connected to a fixed fuel piping system.
2. Installation of farm equipment such as brooders, dehydrators, dryers, and irrigation equipment.
3. Raw material (feedstock) applications except for piping to special atmosphere generators.
4. Oxygen-fuel gas cutting and welding systems.
5. Industrial gas applications using gases such as acetylene and acetylenic compounds, hydrogen, ammonia, carbon monoxide, oxygen, and nitrogen.
6. Petroleum refineries, pipeline compressor or pumping stations, loading terminals, compounding plants, refinery tank farms, and natural gas processing plants.
7. Integrated chemical plants or portions of such plants where flammable or combustible liquids or gases are produced by chemical reactions or used in chemical reactions.
8. LP-Gas installations at utility gas plants.
9. Liquefied natural gas (LNG) installations.
10. Fuel gas piping in power and atomic energy plants.
11. Proprietary items of equipment, apparatus, or instruments such as gas generating sets, compressors, and calorimeters.
12. LP-Gas equipment for vaporization, gas mixing, and gas manufacturing.
13. Temporary LP-Gas piping for buildings under construction or renovation that is not to become part of the permanent piping system.
14. Installation of LP-Gas systems for railroad switch heating.
15. Installation of LP-Gas and compressed natural gas (CNG) systems on vehicles.
16. Except as provided in Section 401.1.1, gas piping, meters, gas pressure regulators, and other appurtenances used by the serving gas supplier in the distribution of gas, other than undiluted LP-Gas.
17. Building design and construction, except as specified herein.
2. Change Sections 310.1 and 310.1.1 of the IFGC to read:
310.1 Pipe and tubing. Each above-group portion of a gas piping system that is likely to become energized shall be electrically continuous and bonded to an effective ground-fault current path. Gas piping shall be considered to be bonded where it is connected to appliances that are connected to the equipment grounding conductor of the circuit supplying that appliance. Corrugated stainless steel tubing (CSST) piping systems listed with an arc resistant jacket or coating system in accordance with ANSI LC 1/CSA 6.26 shall comply with this section. Where any CSST segments of a piping system are not listed with an arc resistant jacket or coating system in accordance with ANSI LC 1/CSA 6.26, Section 310.1.1 shall apply.
310.1.1 CSST without arc resistant jacket or coating system. CSST gas piping systems and piping systems containing one or more segments of CSST not listed with an arc resistant jacket or coating system in accordance with ANSI LC 1/CSA 6.26 shall be bonded to the electrical service grounding electrode system or, where provided, the lightning protection electrode system and shall comply with Sections 310.1.1.1 through 310.1.1.5.
3. Add Section 404.11.3 to the IFGC to read:
404.11.3 Coating application. Joints in gas piping systems shall not be coated prior to testing and approval.
4. Change Section 614.8.2 of the IFGC to read:
614.8.2 Duct installation. Exhaust ducts shall be supported at 4-foot (1219 mm) intervals and secured in place. The insert end of the duct shall extend into the adjoining duct or fitting in the direction of airflow. Ducts shall not be joined with screws or similar fasteners that protrude into the inside of the duct.
5. Change the following referenced standard in Chapter 8 of the IFGC:
Standard Reference Number | Title | Referenced in Code Section Number |
ANSI LC1/CSA 6.26-14 | Fuel Gas Piping Systems Using Corrugated Stainless Steel Tubing (CSST) | 310.1, 310.1.1, 403.5.4 |
13VAC5-63-320. Chapter 29 Plumbing systems.
A. Change Section 2901.1 of the IBC to read:
2901.1 Scope. The provisions of this chapter and the IPC shall govern the design and installation of all plumbing systems and equipment, except that as provided for in Section 103.10 for functional design, water supply sources and sewage disposal systems are regulated and approved by the Virginia Department of Health and the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality. The approval of pumping and electrical equipment associated with such water supply sources and sewage disposal systems shall, however, be the responsibility of the building official.
Note: See also the Memorandum of Agreement in the "Related Laws Package," which is available from DHCD.
B. Add Section 2901.1.1 to the IBC to read:
2901.1.1 Changes to the IPC. The following changes shall be made to the IPC:
1. Add the following definitions to the IPC to read:
Nonpotable fixtures and outlets. Fixtures and outlets that are not dependent on potable water for the safe operation to perform their intended use. Such fixtures and outlets may include, but are not limited to water closets, urinals, irrigation, mechanical equipment, and hose connections to perform operations, such as vehicle washing and lawn maintenance.
Nonpotable water systems. Water systems for the collection, treatment, storage, distribution, and use or reuse of nonpotable water. Nonpotable systems include reclaimed water, rainwater, and gray water systems.
Rainwater. Natural precipitation, including snow melt, from roof surfaces only.
Reclaimed water. Reclaimed water means water resulting from the treatment of domestic, municipal, or industrial wastewater that is suitable for a water reuse that would not otherwise occur. Specifically excluded from this definition is "gray water."
Stormwater. Precipitation that is discharged across the land surface or through conveyances to one or more waterways and that may include stormwater runoff, snow melt runoff, and surface runoff and drainage.
2. Change the following definition definitions in the IPC to read:
Gray water. Water discharged from lavatories, bathtubs, showers, clothes washers, and laundry trays.
Rainwater. Natural precipitation, including snow melt, from roof surfaces only.
Reclaimed water. Reclaimed water means water resulting from the treatment of domestic, municipal, or industrial wastewater that is suitable for a water reuse that would not otherwise occur. Specifically excluded from this definition is "gray water."
3. Change the exception to Section 301.3 of the IPC to read:
Exception: Bathtubs, showers, lavatories, clothes washers and laundry trays shall not be required to discharge to the sanitary drainage system where such fixtures discharge to an approved nonpotable gray water system in accordance with the applicable provisions of Chapter 13.
4. Delete Sections 311 and 311.1 of the IPC.
5. Modify the Group A-5 "Description" category of Table 403.1 of the IPC to read:
Stadiums, amusement parks, pools, bleachers, and grandstands for outdoor sporting events and activitiesh |
6. Add footnote "h" "f" to Table 403.1 of the IPC to read:
h. f. The occupant load for pools shall be in accordance with the "Skating rinks, swimming pools" category of Table 1004.1.2 of the IBC.
7. Add Section 403.1.3 and Table 403.1.3 to the IPC to read:
403.1.3 Marina fixtures. Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary, plumbing fixtures shall be provided for marinas in the minimum number shown in Table 403.1.3. Fixtures shall be located within 500 feet walking distance from the shore end of any dock they serve. Separate facilities shall be provided for each sex with an equal number of fixtures of each type in each facility, except that separate facilities are not required where the number of slips is less than 25. Urinals may be substituted for up to 50% of water closets.
Table 403.1.3 Minimum Number of Required Plumbing Fixtures for Marinas |
Number of Slips | Plumbing Fixtures |
Water Closets | Lavatories | Showers |
1 - 24 | 1 | 1 | 1 |
25 - 49 | 4 | 4 | 2 |
50 - 99 | 6 | 4 | 2 |
100 - 149 | 8 | 6 | 4 |
150 - 199 | 10 | 8 | 4 |
200 - 249 | 12 | 10 | 6 |
250 or greater | Two additional fixtures of each type for each 100 additional slips. |
8. Change Section 403.3.3 of the IPC to read:
403.3.3 Location of toilet facilities in occupancies other than malls. In occupancies other than covered and open mall buildings, the required public and employee toilet facilities shall be located not more than one story above or below the space required to be provided with toilet facilities, and the path of travel to such facilities shall not exceed a distance of 500 feet (152 m).
Exceptions:
1. The location and maximum travel distances of travel to required employee facilities in factory and industrial occupancies are permitted to exceed that required by this section, provided that the location and maximum travel distance are approved.
2. The location and maximum travel distances of travel to the required public facilities located on cemetery property are permitted to exceed that required by this section, provided that the location and maximum travel distance are located on the same property and approved.
9. Change Section 405.3.2 of the IPC to read:
405.3.2 Public lavatories. In employee and public toilet rooms, the required lavatory shall be located in the same room as the required water closet.
Exception: In educational use occupancies, the required lavatory shall be permitted to be located adjacent to the room or space containing the water closet provided that not more than one operational door is between the water closet and the lavatory.
10. Add Section 602.2.1 to the IPC to read:
602.2.1 Nonpotable fixtures and outlets. Nonpotable water shall be permitted to serve nonpotable type fixtures and outlets in accordance with Chapter 13.
11. Add Section 603.3 to the IPC to read:
603.3 Tracer wire. Nonmetallic water service piping that connects to public systems shall be locatable. An insulated copper tracer wire, 18 AWG minimum in size and suitable for direct burial or an equivalent product, shall be utilized. The wire shall be installed in the same trench as the water service piping and within 12 inches (305 mm) of the pipe and shall be installed to within five feet (1524 mm) of the building wall to the point where the building water service pipe intersects with the public water supply. At a minimum, one end of the wire shall terminate above grade to provide access to the wire in a location that is resistant to physical damage, such as with a meter vault or at the building wall.
12. Change Section 608.16.10 of the IPC to read:
608.16.10 Coffee machines and noncarbonated beverage dispensers. The water supply connection to coffee machines and noncarbonated beverage dispensers shall be protected against backflow by a backflow preventer conforming to ASSE 1022 or 1024, or by an air gap.
12. 13. Delete Section 701.9 701.8 of the IPC.
13. 14. Add Section 703.6 to 703.7 of the IPC to read:
703.6 703.7 Tracer wire. Nonmetallic sanitary sewer piping that discharges to public systems shall be locatable. An insulated copper tracer wire, 18 AWG minimum in size and suitable for direct burial or an equivalent product, shall be utilized. The wire shall be installed in the same trench as the sewer within 12 inches (305 mm) of the pipe and shall be installed to within five feet (1524 mm) of the building wall to the point where the building sewer intersects with the public system. At a minimum, one end of the wire shall terminate above grade in an accessible location that is resistant to physical damage, such as with a cleanout or at the building wall.
14. 15. Add an exception to Section 1101.2 of the IPC to read:
Exception. Rainwater nonpotable water systems shall be permitted in accordance with Chapter 13.
15. Change the title of Chapter 13 of the IPC to "Nonpotable Water Systems."
16. Change Sections 1301.1 through 1301.12 and add Sections 1301.13 through 1301.18, including subsections, to the IPC to read:
1301.1 Scope. The provisions of Chapter 13 shall govern the materials, design, construction, and installation of nonpotable water systems subject to this code. In addition to the applicable provision of this section, reclaimed water shall comply with the requirements of Section 1304.
1301.1.1 Design of nonpotable water systems. All portions of nonpotable water systems subject to this code shall be constructed using the same standards and requirements for the potable water systems or drainage systems as provided for in this code unless otherwise specified in this chapter.
1301.2 Makeup water. Makeup water shall be provided for all nonpotable water supply systems. The makeup water system shall be designed and installed to provide supply of water in the amounts and at the pressures specified in this code. The makeup water supply shall be potable and be protected against backflow in accordance with the applicable requirements of Section 608.
1301.2.1 Makeup water sources. Potable water shall be provided as makeup water for reclaimed water systems. Nonpotable water shall be permitted to serve as makeup water for gray water and rainwater systems.
1301.2.2 Makeup water supply valve. A full-open valve shall be provided on the makeup water supply line.
1301.2.3 Control valve alarm. Makeup water systems shall be fitted with a warning mechanism that alerts the user to a failure of the inlet control valve to close correctly. The alarm shall activate before the water within the storage tank begins to discharge into the overflow system.
1301.3 Sizing. Nonpotable water distribution systems shall be designed and sized for peak demand in accordance with approved engineering practice methods that comply with the applicable provisions of Chapter 6.
1301.4 Signage required. All nonpotable water outlets, other than water closets and urinals, such as hose connections, open-ended pipes, and faucets shall be identified at the point of use for each outlet with signage that reads as follows: "Nonpotable water is utilized for (insert application name). Caution: nonpotable water. DO NOT DRINK." The words shall be legibly and indelibly printed on a tag or sign constructed of corrosion-resistant waterproof material or shall be indelibly printed on the fixture. The letters of the words shall be not less than 0.5 inches (12.7 mm) in height and in colors in contrast to the background on which they are applied. The pictograph shown in Figure 1301.4 shall appear on the signage required by this section.
1301.5 Potable water supply system connections. Where a potable water supply system is connected to a nonpotable water system, the potable water supply shall be protected against backflow in accordance with the applicable provisions of Section 608.
1301.6 Nonpotable water system connections. Where a nonpotable water system is connected and supplies water to another nonpotable water system, the nonpotable water system that supplies water shall be protected against backflow in accordance with the applicable provisions of Section 608.
1301.7 Approved components and materials. Piping, plumbing components, and materials used in the nonpotable water drainage and distribution systems shall be approved for the intended application and compatible with the water and any disinfection or treatment systems used.
1301.8 Insect and vermin control. Nonpotable water systems shall be protected to prevent the entrance of insects and vermin into storage and piping systems. Screen materials shall be compatible with system material and shall not promote corrosion of system components.
1301.9 Freeze protection. Nonpotable water systems shall be protected from freezing in accordance with the applicable provisions of Chapter 3.
1301.10 Nonpotable water storage tanks. Nonpotable water storage tanks shall be approved for the intended application and comply with Sections 1301.10.1 through 1301.10.12.
1301.10.1 Sizing. The holding capacity of storage tanks shall be sized for the intended use.
1301.10.2 Inlets. Storage tank inlets shall be designed to introduce water into the tank and avoid agitating the contents of the storage tank. The water supply to storage tanks shall be controlled by fill valves or other automatic supply valves designed to stop the flow of incoming water before the tank contents reach the overflow pipes.
1301.10.3 Outlets. Outlets shall be located at least 4 inches (102 mm) above the bottom of the storage tank and shall not skim water from the surface.
1301.10.4 Materials and location. Storage tanks shall be constructed of material compatible with treatment systems used to treat water. Above grade storage vessels shall be constructed using opaque, UV-resistant materials such as tinted plastic, lined metal, concrete, or wood or painted to prevent algae growth. Above grade storage tanks shall be protected from direct sunlight unless their design specifically incorporates the use of the sunlight heat transfer. Wooden storage tanks shall be provided with a flexible liner. Storage tanks and their manholes shall not be located directly under soil or waste piping or sources of contamination.
1301.10.5 Foundation and supports. Storage tanks shall be supported on a firm base capable of withstanding the storage tank's weight when filled to capacity. Storage tanks shall be supported in accordance with the applicable provisions of the IBC.
1301.10.5.1 Ballast. Where the soil can become saturated, an underground storage tank shall be ballasted, or otherwise secured, to prevent the effects of buoyancy. The combined weight of the tank and hold down ballast shall meet or exceed the buoyancy force of the tank. Where the installation requires a foundation, the foundation shall be flat and shall be designed to support the storage tank weight when full, consistent with the bearing capability of adjacent soil.
1301.10.5.2 Structural support. Where installed below grade, storage tank installations shall be designed to withstand earth and surface structural loads without damage.
1301.10.6 Overflow. The storage tank shall be equipped with an overflow pipe having a diameter not less than that shown in Table 606.5.4. The overflow outlet shall discharge at a point not less than 6 inches (152 mm) above the roof or roof drain, floor or floor drain, or over an open water-supplied fixture. The overflow outlet shall terminate through a check valve. Overflow pipes shall not be directed on walkways. The overflow drain shall not be equipped with a shutoff valve. A minimum of one cleanout shall be provided on each overflow pipe in accordance with the applicable provisions of Section 708.
1301.10.7 Access. A minimum of one access opening shall be provided to allow inspection and cleaning of the tank interior. Access openings shall have an approved locking device or other approved method of securing access. Below grade storage tanks, located outside of the building, shall be provided with either a manhole not less than 24 inches (610 mm) square or a manhole with an inside diameter not less than 24 inches (610 mm). The design and installation of access openings shall prohibit surface water from entering the tank. Each manhole cover shall have an approved locking device or other approved method of securing access.
Exception: Storage tanks under 800 gallons (3028 L) in volume installed below grade shall not be required to be equipped with a manhole, but shall have an access opening not less than 8 inches (203 mm) in diameter to allow inspection and cleaning of the tank interior.
1301.10.8 Venting. Storage tanks shall be vented. Vents shall not be connected to sanitary drainage system. Vents shall be at least equal in size to the internal diameter of the drainage inlet pipe or pipes connected to the tank. Where installed at grade, vents shall be protected from contamination by means of a U-bend installed with the opening directed downward. Vent outlets shall extend a minimum of 12 inches (304.8 mm) above grade, or as necessary to prevent surface water from entering the storage tank. Vent openings shall be protected against the entrance of vermin and insects. Vents serving gray water tanks shall terminate in accordance with the applicable provisions of Sections 903 and 1301.8.
1301.10.9 Drain. Where drains are provided they shall be located at the lowest point of the storage tank. The tank drain pipe shall discharge as required for overflow pipes and shall not be smaller in size than specified in Table 606.5.7. A minimum of one cleanout shall be provided on each drain pipe in accordance with Section 708.
1301.10.10 Labeling and signage. Each nonpotable water storage tank shall be labeled with its rated capacity and the location of the upstream bypass valve. Underground and otherwise concealed storage tanks shall be labeled at all access points. The label shall read: "CAUTION: NONPOTABLE WATER – DO NOT DRINK." Where an opening is provided that could allow the entry of personnel, the opening shall be marked with the words: "DANGER – CONFINED SPACE." Markings shall be indelibly printed on a tag or sign constructed of corrosion-resistant waterproof material mounted on the tank or shall be indelibly printed on the tank. The letters of the words shall be not less than 0.5 inches (12.7 mm) in height and shall be of a color in contrast with the background on which they are applied.
1301.10.11 Storage tank tests. Storage tanks shall be tested in accordance with the following:
1. Storage tanks shall be filled with water to the overflow line prior to and during inspection. All seams and joints shall be left exposed and the tank shall remain watertight without leakage for a period of 24 hours.
2. After 24 hours, supplemental water shall be introduced for a period of 15 minutes to verify proper drainage of the overflow system and verify that there are no leaks.
3. Following a successful test of the overflow, the water level in the tank shall be reduced to a level that is at 2 inches (50.8 mm) below the makeup water offset point. The tank drain shall be observed for proper operation. The makeup water system shall be observed for proper operation, and successful automatic shutoff of the system at the refill threshold shall be verified. Water shall not be drained from the overflow at any time during the refill test.
4. Air tests shall be permitted in lieu of water testing as recommended by the tank manufacturer or the tank standard.
1301.10.12 Structural strength. Storage tanks shall meet the applicable structural strength requirements of the IBC.
1301.11 Trenching requirements for nonpotable water system piping. Underground nonpotable water system piping shall be horizontally separated from the building sewer and potable water piping by 5 feet (1524 m) of undisturbed or compacted earth. Nonpotable water system piping shall not be located in, under, or above sewage systems cesspools, septic tanks, septic tank drainage fields, or seepage pits. Buried nonpotable system piping shall comply with the requirements of this code for the piping material installed.
Exceptions:
1. The required separation distance shall not apply where the bottom of the nonpotable water pipe within 5 feet (1524 mm) of the sewer is equal to or greater than 12 inches (305 mm) above the top of the highest point of the sewer and the pipe materials conforms to Table 702.3.
2. The required separation distance shall not apply where the bottom of the potable water service pipe within 5 feet (1524 mm) of the nonpotable water pipe is a minimum of 12 inches (305 mm) above the top of the highest point of the nonpotable water pipe and the pipe materials comply with the requirements of Table 605.4.
3. Nonpotable water pipe is permitted to be located in the same trench with building sewer piping, provided that such sewer piping is constructed of materials that comply with the requirements of Table 702.2.
4. The required separation distance shall not apply where a nonpotable water pipe crosses a sewer pipe, provided that the pipe is sleeved to at least 5 feet (1524 mm) horizontally from the sewer pipe centerline on both sides of such crossing with pipe materials that comply with Table 702.2.
5. The required separation distance shall not apply where a potable water service pipe crosses a nonpotable water pipe provided that the potable water service pipe is sleeved for a distance of at least 5 feet (1524 mm) horizontally from the centerline of the nonpotable pipe on both sides of such crossing with pipe materials that comply with Table 702.2.
1301.12 Outdoor outlet access. Sillcocks, hose bibs, wall hydrants, yard hydrants, and other outdoor outlets that are supplied by nonpotable water shall be located in a locked vault or shall be operable only by means of a removable key.
1301.13 Drainage and vent piping and fittings. Nonpotable drainage and vent pipe and fittings shall comply with the applicable material standards and installation requirements in accordance with provisions of Chapter 7.
1301.13.1. Labeling and marking. Identification of nonpotable drainage and vent piping shall not be required.
1301.14 Pumping and control system. Mechanical equipment, including pumps, valves, and filters, shall be accessible and removable in order to perform repair, maintenance, and cleaning. The minimum flow rate and flow pressure delivered by the pumping system shall be designed for the intended application in accordance with the applicable provisions of Section 604.
1301.15 Water-pressure reducing valve or regulator. Where the water pressure supplied by the pumping system exceeds 80 psi (552 kPa) static, a pressure-reducing valve shall be installed to reduce the pressure in the nonpotable water distribution system piping to 80 psi (552 kPa) static or less. Pressure-reducing valves shall be specified and installed in accordance with the applicable provisions of Section 604.8.
1301.16 Distribution pipe. Distribution piping utilized in nonpotable water stems shall comply with Sections 1301.16.1 through 1301.16.4.
1301.16.1 Materials, joints, and connections. Distribution piping and fittings shall comply with the applicable material standards and installation requirements in accordance with applicable provisions of Chapter 6.
1301.16.2 Design. Distribution piping shall be designed and sized in accordance with the applicable provisions of Chapter 6.
1301.16.3 Labeling and marking. Distribution piping labeling and marking shall comply with Section 608.8.
1301.16.4 Backflow prevention. Backflow preventers shall be installed in accordance with the applicable provisions of Section 608.
1301.17 Tests and inspections. Tests and inspections shall be performed in accordance with Sections 1301.17.1 through 1301.17.5.
1301.17.1 Drainage and vent pipe test. Drain, waste, and vent piping used for gray water and rainwater nonpotable water systems shall be tested in accordance with the applicable provisions of Section 312.
1301.17.2 Storage tank test. Storage tanks shall be tested in accordance with the Section 1301.10.11.
1301.17.3 Water supply system test. Nonpotable distribution piping shall be tested in accordance with Section 312.5.
1301.17.4 Inspection and testing of backflow prevention assemblies. The testing of backflow preventers and backwater valves shall be conducted in accordance with Section 312.10.
1301.17.5 Inspection of vermin and insect protection. Inlets and vent terminations shall be visually inspected to verify that each termination is installed in accordance with Section 1301.10.8.
1301.18 Operation and maintenance manuals. Operations and maintenance materials for nonpotable water systems shall be provided as prescribed by the system component manufacturers and supplied to the owner to be kept in a readily accessible location.
17. Change the title of Section 1302 of the IPC to "Gray Water Nonpotable Water Systems."
18. Change Sections 1302.1 through 1302.6, including subsections, of the IPC to read as follows and delete Sections 1302.7 through 1302.13:
1302.1 Gray water nonpotable water systems. This code is applicable to the plumbing fixtures, piping or piping systems, storage tanks, drains, appurtenances, and appliances that are part of the distribution system for gray water within buildings and to storage tanks and associated piping that are part of the distribution system for gray water outside of buildings. This code does not regulate equipment used for, or the methods of, processing, filtering, or treating gray water, that may be regulated by the Virginia Department of Health or the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality.
1302.1.1 Separate systems. Gray water nonpotable water systems, unless approved otherwise under the permit from the Virginia Department of Health, shall be separate from the potable water system of a building with no cross connections between the two systems except as permitted by the Virginia Department of Health.
1302.2 Water quality. Each application of gray water reuse shall meet the minimum water quality requirements set forth in Sections 1302.2.1 through 1302.2.4 unless otherwise superseded by other state agencies.
1302.2.1 Disinfection. Where the intended use or reuse application for nonpotable water requires disinfection or other treatment or both, it shall be disinfected as needed to ensure that the required water quality is delivered at the point of use or reuse.
1302.2.2 Residual disinfectants. Where chlorine is used for disinfection, the nonpotable water shall contain not more than 4 parts per million (4 mg/L) of free chlorine, combined chlorine, or total chlorine. Where ozone is used for disinfection, the nonpotable water shall not exceed 0.1 parts per million (by volume) of ozone at the point of use.
1302.2.3 Filtration. Water collected for reuse shall be filtered as required for the intended end use. Filters shall be accessible for inspection and maintenance. Filters shall utilize a pressure gauge or other approved method to indicate when a filter requires servicing or replacement. Shutoff valves installed immediately upstream and downstream of the filter shall be included to allow for isolation during maintenance.
1302.2.4 Filtration required. Gray water utilized for water closet and urinal flushing applications shall be filtered by a 100 micron or finer filter.
1302.3 Storage tanks. Storage tanks utilized in gray water nonpotable water systems shall comply with Section 1301.10.
1302.4 Retention time limits. Untreated gray water shall be retained in storage tanks for a maximum of 24 hours.
1302.5 Tank Location. Storage tanks shall be located with a minimum horizontal distance between various elements as indicated in Table 1302.5.1.
Table 1302.5.1 Location of Nonpotable Gray Water Reuse Storage Tanks |
Element | Minimum Horizontal Distance from Storage Tank (feet) |
Lot line adjoining private lots | 5 |
Sewage systems | 5 |
Septic tanks | 5 |
Water wells | 50 |
Streams and lakes | 50 |
Water service | 5 |
Public water main | 10 |
1302.6 Valves. Valves shall be supplied on gray water nonpotable water drainage systems in accordance with Sections 1302.6.1 and 1302.6.2.
1302.6.1 Bypass valve. One three-way diverter valve certified to NSF 50 or other approved device shall be installed on collection piping upstream of each storage tank, or drainfield, as applicable, to divert untreated gray water to the sanitary sewer to allow servicing and inspection of the system. Bypass valves shall be installed downstream of fixture traps and vent connections. Bypass valves shall be labeled to indicate the direction of flow, connection, and storage tank or drainfield connection. Bypass valves shall be provided with access for operation and maintenance. Two shutoff valves shall not be installed to serve as a bypass valve.
1302.6.2 Backwater valve. Backwater valves shall be installed on each overflow and tank drain pipe to prevent unwanted water from draining back into the storage tank. If the overflow and drain piping arrangement is installed to physically not allow water to drain back into the tank, such as in the form of an air gap, backwater valves shall not be required. Backwater valves shall be constructed and installed in accordance with Section 715.
19. Change the title of Section 1303 of the IPC to "Rainwater Nonpotable Water Systems."
20. Change Sections 1303.1 through 1303.10, including subsections, of the IPC to read as follows and delete Sections 1303.11 through 1303.16:
1303.1 General. The provisions of this section shall govern the design, construction, installation, alteration, and repair of rainwater nonpotable water systems for the collection, storage, treatment, and distribution of rainwater for nonpotable applications.
1303.2 Water quality. Each application of rainwater reuse shall meet the minimum water quality requirements set forth in Sections 1303.2.1 through 1303.2.4 unless otherwise superseded by other state agencies.
1303.2.1 Disinfection. Where the intended use or reuse application for nonpotable water requires disinfection or other treatment or both, it shall be disinfected as needed to ensure that the required water quality is delivered at the point of use or reuse.
1303.2.2 Residual disinfectants. Where chlorine is used for disinfection, the nonpotable water shall contain not more than 4 parts per million (4 mg/L) of free chlorine, combined chlorine, or total chlorine. Where ozone is used for disinfection, the nonpotable water shall not exceed 0.1 parts per million (by volume) of ozone at the point of use.
1303.2.3 Filtration. Water collected for reuse shall be filtered as required for the intended end use. Filters shall be accessible for inspection and maintenance. Filters shall utilize a pressure gauge or other approved method to indicate when a filter requires servicing or replacement. Shutoff valves installed immediately upstream and downstream of the filter shall be included to allow for isolation during maintenance.
1303.2.4 Filtration required. Rainwater utilized for water closet and urinal flushing applications shall be filtered by a 100 micron or finer filter.
1303.3 Collection surface. Rainwater shall be collected only from aboveground impervious roofing surfaces constructed from approved materials. Overflow or discharge piping from appliances or equipment, or both, including but not limited to evaporative coolers, water heaters, and solar water heaters shall not discharge onto rainwater collection surfaces.
1303.4 Collection surface diversion. At a minimum, the first 0.04 inches (1.016 mm) of each rain event of 25 gallons (94.6 L) per 1000 square feet (92.9 m2) shall be diverted from the storage tank by automatic means and not require the operation of manually operated valves or devices. Diverted water shall not drain onto other collection surfaces that are discharging to the rainwater system or to the sanitary sewer. Such water shall be diverted from the storage tank and discharged in an approved location.
1303.5 Pre-tank filtration. Downspouts, conductors, and leaders shall be connected to a pre-tank filtration device. The filtration device shall not permit materials larger than 0.015 inches (0.4 mm).
1303.6 Roof gutters and downspouts. Gutters and downspouts shall be constructed of materials that are compatible with the collection surface and the rainwater quality for the desired end use. Joints shall be made watertight.
1303.6.1 Slope. Roof gutters, leaders, and rainwater collection piping shall slope continuously toward collection inlets. Gutters and downspouts shall have a slope of not less than 1 unit in 96 units along their entire length and shall not permit the collection or pooling of water at any point.
Exception: Siphonic roof drainage systems installed in accordance with Chapter 11 shall not be required to have slope.
1303.6.2 Size. Gutters and downspouts shall be installed and sized in accordance with Section 1106.6 and local rainfall rates.
1303.6.3 Cleanouts. Cleanouts or other approved openings shall be provided to permit access to all filters, flushes, pipes, and downspouts.
1303.7 Storage tanks. Storage tanks utilized in rainwater nonpotable water systems shall comply with Section 1301.10.
1303.8 Location. Storage tanks shall be located with a minimum horizontal distance between various elements as indicated in Table 1303.8.1.
Table 1303.8.1 Location of Rainwater Storage Tanks |
Element | Minimum Horizontal Distance from Storage Tank (feet) |
Lot line adjoining private lots | 5 |
Sewage systems | 5 |
Septic tanks | 5 |
1303.9 Valves. Valves shall be installed in collection and conveyance drainage piping of rainwater nonpotable water systems in accordance with Sections 1303.9.1 and 1303.9.2.
1303.9.1 Influent diversion. A means shall be provided to divert storage tank influent to allow maintenance and repair of the storage tank system.
1303.9.2 Backwater valve. Backwater valves shall be installed on each overflow and tank drain pipe to prevent unwanted water from draining back into the storage tank. If the overflow and drain piping arrangement is installed to physically not allow water to drain back into the tank, such as in the form of an air gap, backwater valves shall not be required. Backwater valves shall be constructed and installed in accordance with Section 715.
1303.10 Tests and inspections. Tests and inspections shall be performed in accordance with Sections 1303.10.1 through 1303.10.2.
1303.10.1 Roof gutter inspection and test. Roof gutters shall be inspected to verify that the installation and slope is in accordance with Section 1303.6.1. Gutters shall be tested by pouring a minimum of one gallon of water into the end of the gutter opposite the collection point. The gutter being tested shall not leak and shall not retain standing water.
1303.10.2 Collection surface diversion test. A collection surface diversion test shall be performed by introducing water into the gutters or onto the collection surface area. Diversion of the first quantity of water in accordance with the requirements of Section 1303.4 shall be verified.
21. Add Section 1304 entitled "Reclaimed Water Systems" to the IPC.
22. Add Change Sections 1304.1 and 1304.2 to the IPC to read as follows and delete Sections 1304.3 and 1304.4:
1304.1 General. Reclaimed water, water reclamation systems, reclaimed water distribution systems, and allowable nonpotable reuses of reclaimed water are as defined or specified in and governed by the Virginia Water Reclamation and Reuse Regulation (9VAC25-740). Permits from the Virginia State Water Control Board are required for such systems and reuses. The provisions of Section 1304 shall govern the design, construction, installation, alterations, and repair of plumbing fixtures, piping or piping systems, storage tanks, drains, appurtenances, and appliances that are part of the distribution system for reclaimed water within buildings and to storage tanks for reclaimed water as defined in the Virginia Water Reclamation and Reuse Regulation (9VAC25-740) and associated piping outside of buildings that deliver reclaimed water into buildings. Where conflicts occur between this code and the Virginia Water Reclamation and Reuse Regulation (9VAC25-740), the provisions of the Virginia Water Reclamation and Reuse Regulation (9VAC25-740) shall apply unless determined otherwise by the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality and DHCD through a memorandum of agreement.
1304.2 Design of reclaimed water systems. The design of reclaimed water systems shall conform to applicable requirements of Section 1301.
Exception: The design of reclaimed water systems shall conform to applicable requirements of the Virginia Water Reclamation and Reuse Regulation (9VAC25-740) for the following:
1. Identification, labeling, and posting of signage for reclaimed water systems in lieu of signage requirements described in Section 1301.4.
2. Sizing of system storage as defined in the Virginia Water Reclamation and Reuse Regulation (9VAC25-740), in addition to storage sizing requirements described in Section 1301.10.1.
3. Signage and labeling for reclaimed water storage in addition to labeling and signage requirements described in Section 1301.10.10.
4. Minimum separation distances and configurations for in-ground reclaimed water distribution piping in lieu of trenching requirements for nonpotable water systems described in Section 1301.11.
23. Add the following referenced standard to Chapter 14 of the IPC:
Standard Reference Number | Title | Referenced in Code Section Number |
NSF 50-09 | Equipment for Swimming Pools, Spas, Hot Tubs and Other Recreational Water Facilities | 1302.6.1 |
C. Modify the Group A-5 "Description" category of Table 2902.1 of the IBC to read:
Stadiums, amusement parks, pools, bleachers, and grandstands for outdoor sporting events and activitiesh |
D. Add footnote "h" to Table 2902.1 of the IBC to read:
h. The occupant load for pools shall be in accordance with the "Skating rinks, swimming pools" category of Table 1004.1.2.
13VAC5-63-330. Chapter 30 Elevators and conveying systems.
A. Change Section 3002.4 of the IBC to read:
3002.4 Elevator car to accommodate ambulance stretcher. Where elevators are provided in buildings four or more stories above, or four or more stories below, grade plane, at least one elevator shall be provided for fire department emergency access to all floors. The elevator car shall be of such a size and arrangement to accommodate an ambulance stretcher 24 inches by 84 inches (610 mm by 2134 mm) with not less than five-inch (127 mm) radius corners, in the horizontal, open position and shall be identified by the international symbol for emergency medical services (star of life). The symbol shall not be less than three inches (76 mm) high and shall be placed inside on both sides of the hoistway door frame on the designated and alternate landing floors required to be established by ASME A17.1.
Exception: Elevators in multistory dwelling units or guest rooms.
B. Change Section 3003.3 of the IBC to read:
3003.3 Fire service elevator keys. All elevators shall be equipped to operate with either a standardized or non-standardized fire service elevator key in accordance with the IFC.
C. Change Section 3006.4 3005.4 of the IBC to read:
3006.4 3005.4 Machine and control rooms, control spaces, and machinery spaces. Elevator machine rooms, rooms and spaces housing elevator controllers, and machinery spaces shall be enclosed with fire barriers constructed in accordance with Section 707 or horizontal assemblies constructed in accordance with Section 711, or both. The fire-resistance rating shall not be less than the required rating of the hoistway enclosure. Openings in the fire barriers shall be protected with assemblies having a fire protection rating not less than that required for the hoistway enclosure doors.
Exception: In buildings four stories or less above grade plane when elevator machine rooms, rooms and spaces housing elevator controllers, and machinery spaces do not abut and have no openings to the hoistway enclosure they serve, the elevator machine rooms, rooms and spaces housing elevator controllers, and machinery spaces are not required to be fire-resistance rated.
D. Add Section 3006.7 3005.7 to the IBC to read:
3006.7 3005.7 Machine-room-less designs. Where machine-room-less designs are utilized they shall comply with the provisions of ASME A17.1 and incorporate the following:
1. Where the elevator car-top will be used as a work platform, it shall be equipped with permanently installed guards on all open sides. Guards shall be permitted to be of collapsible design, but otherwise must conform to all applicable requirements of this code for guards.
2. Where the equipment manufacturer's procedures for machinery removal and replacement depend on overhead structural support or lifting points, such supports or lifting points shall be permanently installed at the time of initial equipment installation.
3. Where the structure that the elevator will be located in is required to be fully sprinklered by this code, the hoistway that the elevator machine is located in shall be equipped with a fire suppression system as a machine room in accordance with NFPA 13. Smoke detectors for the automatic initiation of Phase I Emergency Recall Operation, and heat detectors or other approved devices that automatically disconnect the main line power supply to the elevators, shall be installed within the hoistway.
E. Delete Section 3006 of the IBC in its entirety.
F. Change Section 3008.1 of the IBC to read:
3008.1 General. Where elevators in buildings greater than 420 feet (128 016 mm) in building height are to be used for occupant self-evacuation during fires, all passenger elevators for general public use shall comply with this section.
13VAC5-63-350. Chapter 34 Existing structures. (Repealed.)
Delete Chapter 34 of the IBC in its entirety.
13VAC5-63-360. Chapter 35 Referenced standards.
Change the referenced standards in Chapter 35 of the IBC as follows (standards not shown remain the same):
Standard reference number | Title | Referenced in code section number |
ASTM E329-02 | Standard Specification for Agencies Engaged in the Testing and/or Inspection of Materials Used in Construction | 1703.1, 1703.1.3 |
API 650-09 | Welded Steel Tanks for Oil Storage | 426.2 428.2 |
API 653-09 | Tank Inspection, Repair, Alteration and Reconstruction | 426.4 428.4, 426.5 428.5 |
ASME A17.1-2010/CSA B44 - 10 | Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators | 907.3.3, 911.1.5, 1007.4, 1607.9.1, 3001.2, 3001.4, 3002.5, 3003.2, 3007.1, 3007.2, 3008.2, 3008.2.1, 3008.7.6m, 3008.8.1 |
ASME A18.1-2011 | Safety Standard for Platform Lifts and Stairway Chairlifts | 1109.8, 2702.2.6 |
NFPA 91-15 | Standard for Exhaust Systems for Air Conveying of Vapors, Mists and Particulate Solids | 430.3.6 |
ISPSC-12 ISPSC-15 | International Swimming Pool and Spa Code | 202, 3109.1, 3109.1.1 |
TFI RMIP-09 | Aboveground Storage Tanks Containing Liquid Fertilizer, Recommended Mechanical Integrity Practices | 426.2 428.2, 426.4 428.4, 426.5 428.5 |
UL 294-10 | Access Control System Units | 1008.1.9.8 |
UL 2075-13 | Standard for Gas and Vapor Detectors and Sensors | 908.7.3 915.4 |
13VAC5-63-370. Appendix F Rodent proofing.
The following provisions of Appendix F of the IBC are part of this code:
F101.2 Foundation wall ventilation openings.
F101.6 Pier and wood construction. (Includes all provisions.)
Part II
Rehabilitation Existing Buildings
13VAC5-63-400. Chapter 1 Administration; Section 101 General.
A. Section 101.1 Short title. The Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code, Part II, Rehabilitation Existing Buildings, may be cited as the "Virginia Rehabilitation Code," "Virginia Existing Building Code" or as the "VRC." "VEBC."
B. Section 101.2 Incorporation by reference. Chapters 2 - 16 of the 2012 2015 International Existing Building Code, published by the International Code Council, Inc., are adopted and incorporated by reference to be an enforceable part of the VRC VEBC. The term "IEBC" means the 2012 2015 International Existing Building Code, published by the International Code Council, Inc. Any codes and standards referenced in the IEBC are also considered to be part of the incorporation by reference, except that such codes and standards are used only to the prescribed extent of each such reference.
C. Section 101.3 Numbering system. A dual numbering system is used in the VRC VEBC to correlate the numbering system of the Virginia Administrative Code with the numbering system of the IEBC. IEBC numbering system designations are provided in the catchlines of the Virginia Administrative Code sections and cross references between sections or chapters of the VRC VEBC use only the IEBC numbering system designations. The term "chapter" is used in the context of the numbering system of the IEBC and may mean a chapter in the VRC VEBC, a chapter in the IEBC or a chapter in a referenced code or standard, depending on the context of the use of the term. The term "chapter" is not used to designate a chapter of the Virginia Administrative Code, unless clearly indicated.
D. Section 101.4 Arrangement of code provisions. The VRC VEBC is comprised of the combination of (i) the provisions of Chapter 1, Administration, which are established herein, (ii) Chapters 2 - 16 of the IEBC, which are incorporated by reference in Section 101.2, and (iii) the changes to the text of the incorporated chapters of the IEBC that are specifically identified, including any new chapters added. The terminology "changes to the text of the incorporated chapters of the IEBC that are specifically identified, including any new chapters added" shall also be referred to as the "state amendments to the IEBC." Such state amendments to the IEBC are set out using corresponding chapter and section numbers of the IEBC numbering system. In addition, since Chapter 1 of the IEBC is not incorporated as part of the VRC VEBC, any reference to a provision of Chapter 1 of the IEBC in the provisions of Chapters 2 - 16 of the IEBC is generally invalid. However, where the purpose of such a reference would clearly correspond to a provision of Chapter 1 established herein, then the reference may be construed to be a valid reference to such corresponding Chapter 1 provision.
E. Section 101.5 Use of terminology and notes. The provisions of this code shall be used as follows:
1. The term "this code," or "the code," where used in the provisions of Chapter 1, in Chapters 2 - 16 of the IEBC, or in the state amendments to the IEBC, means the VRC VEBC, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
2. The term "this code," or "the code," where used in a code or standard referenced in the IEBC VEBC, means that code or standard, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
3. The term "USBC" where used in this code, means the VCC, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise. In addition, where the phrase "of the International Building Code under which the building was constructed" is used in the IEBC, it shall be construed to mean the USBC or other code that was in effect when the building was built. Further, the
4. The use of notes in Chapter 1 is to provide information only and shall not be construed as changing the meaning of any code provision.
5. Notes in the IEBC, in the codes and standards referenced in the IEBC and in the state amendments to the IEBC, may modify the content of a related provision and shall be considered to be a valid part of the provision, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
6. References to International Codes and standards, where used in this code, include state amendments made to those International Codes and standards in the VCC.
Note: See Section 101.2 of the VCC for a list of major codes and standards referenced in the VCC.
F. Section 101.6 Order of precedence. The provisions of this code shall be used as follows:
1. The provisions of Chapter 1 of this code supersede any provisions of Chapters 2 - 16 of the IEBC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
2. The provisions of Chapter 1 of this code supersede any provisions of the codes and standards referenced in the IEBC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
3. The state amendments to the IEBC supersede any provisions of Chapters 2 - 16 of the IEBC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
4. The state amendments to the IEBC supersede any provisions of the codes and standards referenced in the IEBC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
5. The provisions of Chapters 2 - 16 of the IEBC supersede any provisions of the codes and standards referenced in the IEBC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
G. Section 101.7 Administrative provisions. The provisions of Chapter 1 establish administrative requirements, which include but are not limited to provisions relating to the scope and enforcement of the code. Any provisions of Chapters 2 - 16 of the IEBC or any provisions of the codes and standards referenced in the IEBC that address the same subject matter to a lesser or greater extent are deleted and replaced by the provisions of Chapter 1. Further, any administrative requirements contained in the state amendments to the IEBC shall be given the same precedence as the provisions of Chapter 1. Notwithstanding the above, where administrative requirements of Chapters 2 - 16 of the IEBC or of the codes and standards referenced in the IEBC are specifically identified as valid administrative requirements in Chapter 1 of this code or in the state amendments to the IEBC, then such requirements are not deleted and replaced.
Note: The purpose of this provision is to eliminate overlap, conflicts and duplication by providing a single standard for administrative, procedural and enforcement requirements of this code.
H. Section 101.8 Definitions. The definitions of terms used in this code are contained in Chapter 2 along with specific provisions addressing the use of definitions. Terms may be defined in other chapters or provisions of the code and such definitions are also valid.
13VAC5-63-410. Section 102 Purpose and scope.
A. Section 102.1 Purpose. In accordance with § 36-99.01 of the Code of Virginia, the General Assembly of Virginia has declared that (i) there is an urgent need to improve the housing conditions of low and moderate income individuals and families, many of whom live in substandard housing, particularly in the older cities of the Commonwealth; (ii) there are large numbers of older residential buildings in the Commonwealth, both occupied and vacant, which are in urgent need of rehabilitation and must be rehabilitated if the state's citizens are to be housed in decent, sound, and sanitary conditions; and (iii) the application of those building code requirements currently in force to housing rehabilitation has sometimes led to the imposition of costly and time-consuming requirements that result in a significant reduction in the amount of rehabilitation activity taking place.
The General Assembly further declares that (i) there is an urgent need to improve the existing condition of many of the Commonwealth's stock of commercial properties, particularly in older cities; (ii) there are large numbers of older commercial buildings in the Commonwealth, both occupied and vacant, that are in urgent need of rehabilitation and that must be rehabilitated if the citizens of the Commonwealth are to be provided with decent, sound and sanitary work spaces; and (iii) the application of the existing building code to such rehabilitation has sometimes led to the imposition of costly and time-consuming requirements that result in a significant reduction in the amount of rehabilitation activity taking place.
B. Section 102.2 Scope. The provisions of this code shall control the:
1. The rehabilitation, reconstruction, alteration, and repair, and change of occupancy of existing buildings and structures in occupancies other than Group R-5 and shall be permitted to be used as an alternative to compliance with the VCC for additions or portions thereof.
Exception: The use of the VCC for occupancies classified as Group R-5.
2. Additions to existing buildings in any occupancy classification and for reconstruction, alteration or repair in Group R-5 occupancies and structures or portions thereof.
Exception: The use of this code the VCC shall not be permitted for.
3. The change of occupancy involving to other than occupancies classified as Group I-2 or I-3.
Exception: The use of the VCC for change of occupancy to occupancies classified as Group R-5 shall be permitted.
4. Retrofit provisions provided in Chapter 17.
13VAC5-63-430. Chapter 2 Definitions.
A. Change Section 201.3 of the IEBC to read:
201.3 Terms defined in other codes. Where terms are not defined in this code and are defined in the other International Codes, such terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them in those codes, except that terms that are not defined in this code and that are defined in the VCC shall take precedence over other definitions.
B. Change the following definition definitions in Section 202 of the IEBC to read:
Alteration. Any construction or renovation to an existing structure other than a repair or addition.
Change of occupancy. A change in the use or occupancy of any building or structure that would place the building or structure in a different division of the same group of occupancies or in a different group of occupancies or a change in the purpose or level of activity within a building or structure that involves a change in application of the requirements of this code.
Existing building. A building for which a legal certificate of occupancy has been issued under any edition of the USBC or approved by the building official when no legal certificate of occupancy exists, and that has been occupied for its intended use; or, a building built prior to the initial edition of the USBC.
Substantial improvement. For the purpose of determining compliance with the flood provisions of this code, any improvement, including repair, reconstruction, rehabilitation, alteration, or addition, or other improvement of a building or structure or a portion thereof, the cost of which equals or exceeds 50% of the market value of the building or structure before the improvement or repair is started. If the building or structure or portion thereof has sustained substantial damage, any improvements are considered substantial improvement regardless of the actual improvement performed. The term does not, however, include either:
1. Any project for improvement of a building or structure or portion thereof required to correct existing health, sanitary, or safety code violations identified by the building official and that is the minimum necessary to assure safe living conditions; or
2. Any alteration of a historic structure, provided that the alteration will not preclude the building or structure's continued designation as a historic building or structure.
Work area. That intended room, space, or portion of a building or structure where a wall or walls are added, relocated, or removed. Work area excludes (i) the addition or elimination of any door or window; (ii) the reconfiguration or extension of any system; (iii) the installation of any additional equipment; (iv) the removal of finished flooring or ceiling materials; (v) adjacent rooms or other rooms, spaces, or portions of the building or structure where incidental work entailed by the intended work must be performed; and (vi) portions of the building or structure where work not initially intended is specifically required by this code.
C. Add the following definitions to Section 202 of the IEBC to read:
Existing structure. A structure (i) for which a legal building permit has been issued under any edition of the USBC, (ii) which has been previously approved, or (iii) which was built prior to the initial edition of the USBC. For application of provisions in flood hazard areas, an existing structure is any building or structure for which the start of construction commenced before the effective date of the community's first flood plain management code, ordinance, or standard.
D. Delete the following definitions from Section 202 of the IEBC:
Approved
Dangerous
Deferred submittal
Facility
Flood hazard area
Registered design professional in responsible charge
Relocatable building
Unsafe
13VAC5-63-431. Chapter 3 Provisions for all compliance methods.
A. Change Section 301.1 of the IEBC to read:
301.1 General. The repair, alteration, change of occupancy, or addition of all existing buildings shall comply with one of the methods listed in Section 301.1.05, 301.1.1, 301.1.2, or 301.1.3, as selected by the applicant. Sections 301.1.05, 301.1.1, 301.1.2, and 301.1.3 shall not be applied in combination with each other. Moved buildings and structures shall comply with Chapter 13 of this code. Where this code requires consideration of the seismic force-resisting system of an existing building subject to repair, alteration, change of occupancy, addition, or relocation of existing buildings, the seismic evaluation and design shall be based on Section 301.1.4 regardless of which compliance method is used.
B. Add Section 301.1.05 to the IEBC to read:
301.1.05 Previous code compliance method. Alterations and repairs complying with the requirements of the building code under which the building or structure or the affected portions thereof was built, or as previously approved by the building official, shall be considered in compliance with the provisions of this code, unless the building or structure or the affected portions thereof is undergoing a substantial structural alteration as described in Section 907.4.2. New structural members added as part of the alteration or repairs shall comply with the IBC. Alterations and repairs of existing buildings in flood hazard areas shall comply with Section 601.3 for repairs or Section 701.3 for alterations.
C. Change Sections 301.1.1 through 301.1.3 of the IEBC to read:
301.1.1 Prescriptive compliance method. Repairs, alterations, addition, and changes of occupancy complying with Chapter 4 of this code shall be considered in compliance with the provisions of this code.
301.1.2 Proportional compliance method. Repairs, alterations, additions, and changes of occupancy complying with the applicable requirements of Chapters 5 through 12 of this code shall be considered in compliance with the provisions of this code.
301.1.3 Performance compliance method. Repairs, alterations, additions, and changes of occupancy complying with Chapter 14 of this code shall be considered in compliance with the provisions of this code.
D. Add Section 302.6, including subsections and tables, to the IEBC to read:
302.6 Change of occupancy in existing Group B teaching and research laboratories. Where the use of new or different hazardous materials or a change in the amount of hazardous materials in existing Group B testing and research laboratories in educational occupancies above the 12th grade would constitute a change of occupancy, this section shall be permitted to be used as an acceptable alternative to compliance with change of occupancy requirements to permit the increased amounts of hazardous materials stipulated without the laboratories being classified as Group H. In addition, as set out in Section 5001.7 of the SFPC, approval under this section is contingent upon operational requirements in the SFPC being complied with and maintained.
302.6.1 Hazardous materials in existing Group B teaching and research laboratories. The percentage of maximum allowable quantities of hazardous materials per control area and the number of control areas permitted at each floor level within an existing building shall be permitted to comply with Table 302.6.1(1) in buildings equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 of the VCC or shall be permitted to comply with Table 302.6.1(2) in buildings not equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 of the VCC.
Table 302.6.1(1) Design and Number of Control Areas in Existing Buildings Equipped Throughout with an Automatic Sprinkler System in Accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 of the VCC with Group B Teaching and Research Laboratories in Educational Occupancies above the 12th Grade |
Floor Level | Percentage of the Maximum Allowable Quantity per Control Areaa | Number of Control Areas per Floor | Fire-Resistance Rating for Fire Barriers and Horizontal Assemblies in Hoursb |
Above Grade Plane | Higher than 20 | 5 | 1 | 2 |
10-20 | 10 | 1 | 2 |
7-9 | 25 | 2 | 2 |
4-6 | 50 | 2 | 2 |
3 | 75 | 2 | 1 |
2 | 100 | 3 | 1 |
1 | 100 | 4 | 1 |
Below Grade Plane | 1 | 75 | 3 | 1 |
2 | 50 | 2 | 1 |
Lower than 2 | Not Allowed | Not Allowed | Not Allowed |
a. Percentage shall be of the maximum allowable quantity per control area shown in Tables 307.1(1) and 307.1(2) of the VCC, with all increases allowed in the notes to those tables. b. Separation shall include fire barriers and horizontal assemblies as necessary to provide separation from other portions of the building. |
Table 302.6.1(2) Design and Number of Control Areas in Existing Buildings Not Equipped Throughout with an Automatic Sprinkler System in Accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 of the VCC with Group B Teaching and Research Laboratories in Educational Occupancies above the 12th Grade |
Floor Level | Percentage of the Maximum Allowable Quantity per Control Areaa | Number of Control Areas per Floor | Fire-Resistance Rating for Fire Barriers and Horizontal Assemblies in Hoursb |
Above Grade Plane | Higher than 9 | 5 | 1 | 2 |
7-9 | 10 | 2 | 2 |
4-6 | 25 | 2 | 2 |
3 | 75 | 2 | 1 |
2 | 100 | 3 | 1 |
1 | 100 | 4 | 1 |
Below Grade Plane | 1 | 75 | 3 | 1 |
2 | 50 | 2 | 1 |
Lower than 2 | Not Allowed | Not Allowed | Not Allowed |
a. Percentage shall be of the maximum allowable quantity per control area shown in Tables 307.1(1) and 307.1(2) of the VCC, with all increases allowed in the notes to those tables. b. Separation shall include fire barriers and horizontal assemblies as necessary to provide separation from other portions of the building. |
302.6.1.1 Automatic fire alarm and detection systems. An automatic fire alarm system shall be provided throughout the building in accordance with Section 907 of the VCC. An automatic fire detection system shall be provided in the control area in accordance with Section 907 of the VCC where pyrophics or Class 4 oxidizers are used and the building is not equipped throughout with an automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 903.3.1.1 of the VCC.
302.6.1.2 System supervision and monitoring. Automatic fire detection systems shall be electronically supervised and monitored by an approved supervising station or, where approved, shall initiate an audible and visual signal at a constantly attended onsite location.
E. Add IEBC Section 303 Reroofing and roof repair.
F. Add Sections 303.1 through 303.7, including subsections, to the IEBC to read:
303.1 Reroofing. Materials and methods of application used for recovering or replacing an existing roof covering shall comply with this section and the applicable requirements of Chapter 15 of the IBC.
Exceptions:
1. Roof replacement or roof recover of existing low-slope roof coverings shall not be required to meet the minimum design slope requirement of one-quarter unit vertical in 12 units horizontal (2% slope) in Section 1507 of the IBC for roofs that provide positive roof drainage.
2. Recovering or replacing an existing roof covering shall not be required to meet the requirement for secondary (emergency overflow) drains or scuppers in Section 1503.4 of the IBC for roofs that provide for positive roof drainage.
For the purposes of this exception, existing secondary drainage or scupper systems required in accordance with the IBC shall not be removed unless they are replaced by secondary drains or scuppers designed and installed in accordance with Section 1503.4 of the IBC.
303.2 Structural and construction loads. Structural roof components shall be capable of supporting the roof-covering system and the material and equipment loads that will be encountered during installation of the system.
303.3 Roof replacement. Roof replacement shall include the removal of all existing layers of roof coverings down to the roof deck.
Exception: Where the existing roof assembly includes an ice barrier membrane that is adhered to the roof deck, the existing ice barrier membrane shall be permitted to remain in place and covered with an additional layer of ice barrier membrane in accordance with Section 1507 of the IBC.
303.3.1 Roof recover. The installation of a new roof covering over an existing roof covering shall be permitted where any of the following conditions occur:
1. Complete and separate roofing systems, such as standing-seam metal roof systems, which are designed to transmit the roof loads directly to the building's structural system and do not rely on existing roofs and roof coverings for support, shall not require the removal of existing roof coverings.
2. Metal panel, metal shingle, and concrete and clay tile roof coverings shall be permitted to be installed over existing wood shake roofs when applied in accordance with Section 706.4.
3. The application of a new protective coating over an existing spray polyurethane foam roofing system shall be permitted without tear-off of existing roof coverings.
4. Where the new roof covering is installed in accordance with the roof covering manufacturer's approved instructions.
Exceptions. A roof recover shall not be permitted where any of the following conditions occur:
1. Where the existing roof or roof covering is water soaked or has deteriorated to the point that the existing roof or roof covering is not adequate as a base for additional roofing.
2. Where the existing roof covering is slate, clay, cement, or asbestos-cement tile.
3. Where the existing roof has two or more applications of any type of roof covering.
303.4 Roof recovering. Where the application of a new roof covering over wood shingle or shake roofs creates a combustible concealed space, the entire existing surface shall be covered with gypsum board, mineral fiber, glass fiber or other approved materials securely fastened in place.
303.5 Reinstallation of materials. Existing slate, clay, or cement tile shall be permitted for reinstallation, except that damaged, cracked, or broken slate or tile shall not be reinstalled. Existing vent flashing, metal edgings, drain outlets, collars, and metal counterflashings shall not be reinstalled where rusted, damaged, or deteriorated. Aggregate surfacing materials shall not be reinstalled.
303.6 Flashings. Flashings shall be reconstructed in accordance with approved manufacturer's installation instructions. Metal flashing to which bituminous materials are to be adhered shall be primed prior to installation.
303.7 Roof repair. Roof repairs shall comply with this section. Work on nondamaged components that is necessary for the required repair of damaged components shall be considered part of the roof repair and shall not be subject to the requirements of other parts of this code.
Exception: Routine maintenance required by this section, ordinary repairs exempt from permit in accordance with Section 108.2 of the VCC, and abatement of wear due to normal service conditions shall not be subject to the requirements for roof repairs in this section.
303.7.1 Building materials and systems. Building materials and systems shall comply with the requirements of Sections 303.7.1.1 and 303.7.1.2.
303.7.1.1 Existing materials. Materials already in use in a building in compliance with requirements or approvals in effect at the time of its erection or installation shall be permitted to remain in use unless determined by the building official to be unsafe.
303.7.1.2 New and replacement materials. Except as otherwise required or permitted by this code, materials permitted by the applicable code for new construction shall be used. Like materials shall be permitted for repairs, provided no hazard to life, health, or property is created. Hazardous materials shall not be used where the code for new construction would not permit their use in buildings of similar occupancy, purpose and location.
13VAC5-63-432.5. Chapter 4 Prescriptive compliance method.
Delete Section 409 of the IEBC in its entirety.
13VAC5-63-433. Chapter 5 Classification of work.
A. Change Section 501.1 of the IEBC to read:
501.1 Scope. The provisions of this chapter shall be used in conjunction with Chapters 6 through 12 and shall apply to the alteration, repair, addition and change of occupancy of existing structures, including historic structures, as referenced in Section 301.1.2. The work performed on an existing building shall be classified in accordance with this chapter.
B. Change Section 504.1 of the IEBC to read:
504.1 Scope. Level 2 alterations include the addition or elimination of any door or window, the reconfiguration or extension of any system, or the installation of any additional equipment and shall apply where the work area is less than 50% of the building area.
C. Add Section 505.1.1 to the IEBC to read:
505.1.1 Special provisions. A building separated horizontally in compliance with VCC Section 510.2 shall be considered as separate and distinct buildings for the purpose of determining building area used for application of this section.
D. Delete Section 509 of the IEBC in its entirety.
13VAC5-63-433.5. Chapter 7 Alterations -- Level 1.
A. Delete IEBC Section 706 Reroofing in its entirety.
B. Delete IEBC Sections 707.3, 707.3.1, and 707.3.2.
13VAC5-63-434. Chapter 8 Alterations -- Level 2.
A. Change the exception in Section 801.1 of the IEBC to read:
Exception: Buildings in which the alteration is exclusively the result of compliance with the accessibility requirements of Section 705.2 shall be permitted to comply with Chapter 7.
B. Change Exception 2 of Section 805.2 of the IEBC to read:
2. Means of egress conforming to the requirements of the building code under which the building was constructed shall be considered compliant means of egress.
B. C. Change Item 7 of Section 805.3.1.1 of the IEBC to read:
7. In Groups R-2, H-4, H-5 and I occupancies and in rooming houses and childcare centers, a single exit is permitted in a one-story building with a maximum occupant load of 10 and the exit access travel distance does not exceed 75 feet (22 860 mm). In dwelling units within Group R-2 buildings, an occupant load of 12 shall be permitted to be substituted for the occupant load established above and, in addition, staff of such family day homes shall not be counted for the purposes of establishing occupant loads.
D. Change Section 805.3.2 of the IEBC to read:
805.3.2 Mezzanines. Mezzanines in the work area and with an occupant load of more than 50 or in which the common path of egress travel distance to an exit or exit access doorway exceeds 75 feet (22 860 mm) shall have access to at least two independent means of egress.
Exception: Two independent means of egress are not required where the travel distance to an exit does not exceed 100 feet (30 480 mm) and the building is protected throughout with an automatic sprinkler system.
E. Delete Section 805.3.3 of the IEBC.
F. Change Section 805.4.1.1 of the IEBC to read:
805.4.1.1 Occupant load and travel distance. In any work area, all rooms and spaces having an occupant load greater than 50 or in which the common path of egress travel distance to an exit or exit access doorway exceeds 75 feet (22 860 mm) shall have a minimum of two egress doorways.
Exceptions:
1. Storage rooms having a maximum occupant load of 10.
2. Where the work area is served by a single exit in accordance with Section 805.3.1.1.
G. Change Section 808.3 of the IEBC to read:
808.3 Residential occupancies. In Groups R-2, R-3, R-4, and R-5 occupancies and buildings regulated by the IRC, the requirements of Sections 808.3.1 through 808.3.7 shall be applicable only to work areas located within a dwelling unit.
H. Change Section 809.1 of the IEBC to read:
809.1 Work areas or converted spaces. All work areas intended for occupancy and all spaces converted to habitable or occupiable space in any work area shall be provided with natural or mechanical ventilation in accordance with the International Mechanical Code.
Exception: Existing mechanical ventilation systems shall comply with the requirements of Section 809.2.
13VAC5-63-434.5. Chapter 9 Alterations -- Level 3.
A. Change Section 901.2 of the IEBC to read:
901.2 Compliance. In addition to the provisions of this chapter, work shall comply with all of the requirements of Chapters 7 and 8. The requirements of Sections 803, 804, and 805 shall apply within all work areas whether or not they include exits and corridors shared by more than one tenant and regardless of the occupant load.
Exception: Buildings in which the alteration affecting exits or shared egress access is exclusively the result of compliance with the accessibility requirements of Section 705.2 shall not be required to comply with this chapter.
B. Change Section 903.1 of the IEBC to read:
903.1 Existing stairways. Existing stairways that are part of the means of egress shall be enclosed in accordance with Section 803.2.1, and its exceptions if applicable, from the highest work area floor to and including the level of exit discharge and all floors below.
C. Change Section 904.2 of the IEBC to read:
904.2 Fire alarm and detection systems. Fire alarm and detection shall be provided throughout the work area in accordance with Section 907 of the IBC as required for new construction.
13VAC5-63-435. Chapter 10 Change of occupancy.
Add Group R-5 to the occupancy classifications listed under the fourth relative hazard level in Tables 1012.4 and 1012.5.
13VAC5-63-439. Chapter 13 Relocated or moved buildings.
A. Change the title of Chapter 13 of the IEBC to "Moved Buildings and Structures."
B. Change Section 1301.1 of the IEBC to read:
1301.1 Scope. This chapter provides requirements for moved buildings and structures.
13VAC5-63-440. Chapter 14 Performance compliance methods.
A. Change Section 1401.1 of the IEBC to read:
1401.1 Scope. The provisions of this chapter shall apply to the alteration, repair, addition, and change of occupancy of existing structures, including historic and moved structures, as referenced in Section 301.1.3. The provisions of this chapter are intended to maintain or increase the current degree of public safety, health, and general welfare in existing buildings while permitting repair, alteration, addition, and change of occupancy without requiring full compliance with Chapters 5 through 12, except where compliance with other provisions of this code is specifically required in this chapter.
B. Change Section 1401.2 of the IEBC to read:
1401.2 Applicability. Work involving rehabilitation, additions, alterations, or changes of occupancy shall be made to conform to the requirements of this chapter or the provisions of Chapters 5 through 13. The provisions in Sections 1401.2.1 through 1401.2.5 shall apply to existing occupancies that will continue to be, or are proposed to be, in Groups A, B, E, F, I-2, M, R, S, and U. These provisions shall not apply to buildings with occupancies in Group H or I I-1, I-3, or I-4.
Exception: The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to changes of occupancy involving Group I-2.
B. C. Add an exception to Section 1401.2.1 of the IEBC to read:
Exception: Plumbing, mechanical and electrical systems in buildings undergoing a change of occupancy shall be subject to any applicable requirements of Chapter 10.
C. Change Section 1401.2.5 of the IEBC to read:
1401.2.5 Accessibility requirements. All portions of the buildings proposed for change of occupancy and all alterations to existing buildings shall conform to the applicable accessibility provisions of Section 410.
Part III
Maintenance
13VAC5-63-450. Chapter 1 Administration; Section 101 General.
A. Section 101.1 Short title. The Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code, Part III, Maintenance, may be cited as the "Virginia Maintenance Code," or as the "VMC."
B. Section 101.2 Incorporation by reference. Chapters 2 - 8 of the 2012 2015 International Property Maintenance Code, published by the International Code Council, Inc., are adopted and incorporated by reference to be an enforceable part of the VMC. The term "IPMC" means the 2012 2015 International Property Maintenance Code, published by the International Code Council, Inc. Any codes and standards referenced in the IPMC are also considered to be part of the incorporation by reference, except that such codes and standards are used only to the prescribed extent of each such reference.
C. Section 101.3 Numbering system. A dual numbering system is used in the VMC to correlate the numbering system of the Virginia Administrative Code with the numbering system of the IPMC. IPMC numbering system designations are provided in the catchlines of the Virginia Administrative Code sections and cross references between sections or chapters of the Virginia Maintenance Code use only the IPMC numbering system designations. The term "chapter" is used in the context of the numbering system of the IPMC and may mean a chapter in the VMC, a chapter in the IPMC or a chapter in a referenced code or standard, depending on the context of the use of the term. The term "chapter" is not used to designate a chapter of the Virginia Administrative Code, unless clearly indicated.
D. Section 101.4 Arrangement of code provisions. The VMC is comprised of the combination of (i) the provisions of Chapter 1, Administration, which are established herein, (ii) Chapters 2 - 8 of the IPMC, which are incorporated by reference in Section 101.2, and (iii) the changes to the text of the incorporated chapters of the IPMC which are specifically identified. The terminology "changes to the text of the incorporated chapters of the IPMC which are specifically identified" shall also be referred to as the "state amendments to the IPMC." Such state amendments to the IPMC are set out using corresponding chapter and section numbers of the IPMC numbering system. In addition, since Chapter 1 of the IPMC is not incorporated as part of the VMC, any reference to a provision of Chapter 1 of the IPMC in the provisions of Chapters 2 - 8 of the IPMC is generally invalid. However, where the purpose of such a reference would clearly correspond to a provision of Chapter 1 established herein, then the reference may be construed to be a valid reference to such corresponding Chapter 1 provision.
E. Section 101.5 Use of terminology and notes. The term "this code," or "the code," where used in the provisions of Chapter 1, in Chapters 2 - 8 of the IPMC, or in the state amendments to the IPMC, means the VMC, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise. The term "this code," or "the code," where used in a code or standard referenced in the IPMC, means that code or standard, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise. The term "USBC" where used in this code means the VCC unless the context clearly indicates otherwise. In addition, the use of notes in Chapter 1 is to provide information only and shall not be construed as changing the meaning of any code provision. Notes in the IPMC, in the codes and standards referenced in the IPMC, and in the state amendments to the IPMC, may modify the content of a related provision and shall be considered to be a valid part of the provision, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
F. Section 101.6 Order of precedence. The provisions of this code shall be used as follows:
1. The provisions of Chapter 1 of this code supersede any provisions of Chapters 2 - 8 of the IPMC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
2. The provisions of Chapter 1 of this code supersede any provisions of the codes and standards referenced in the IPMC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
3. The state amendments to the IPMC supersede any provisions of Chapters 2 - 8 of the IPMC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
4. The state amendments to the IPMC supersede any provisions of the codes and standards referenced in the IPMC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
5. The provisions of Chapters 2 - 8 of the IPMC supersede any provisions of the codes and standards referenced in the IPMC that address the same subject matter and impose differing requirements.
G. Section 101.7 Administrative provisions. The provisions of Chapter 1 establish administrative requirements, which include but are not limited to provisions relating to the scope of the code, enforcement, fees, permits, inspections and disputes. Any provisions of Chapters 2 - 8 of the IPMC or any provisions of the codes and standards referenced in the IPMC which address the same subject matter to a lesser or greater extent are deleted and replaced by the provisions of Chapter 1. Further, any administrative requirements contained in the state amendments to the IPMC shall be given the same precedence as the provisions of Chapter 1. Notwithstanding the above, where administrative requirements of Chapters 2 - 8 of the IPMC or of the codes and standards referenced in the IPMC are specifically identified as valid administrative requirements in Chapter 1 of this code or in the state amendments to the IPMC, then such requirements are not deleted and replaced.
Note: The purpose of this provision is to eliminate overlap, conflicts and duplication by providing a single standard for administrative, procedural and enforcement requirements of this code.
H. Section 101.8 Definitions. The definitions of terms used in this code are contained in Chapter 2 along with specific provisions addressing the use of definitions. Terms may be defined in other chapters or provisions of the code and such definitions are also valid.
Note: The order of precedence outlined in Section 101.6 may be determinative in establishing how to apply the definitions in the IPMC and in the referenced codes and standards.
13VAC5-63-470. Section 103 Application of code.
A. Section 103.1 General. This code prescribes regulations for the maintenance of all existing buildings and structures and associated equipment, including regulations for unsafe buildings and structures.
B. Section 103.2 Maintenance requirements. Buildings and, structures and systems shall be maintained and kept in good repair in accordance with the requirements of this code and when applicable in accordance with the USBC under which such building or structure was constructed. No provision of this code shall require alterations to be made to an existing building or structure or to equipment unless conditions are present which meet the definition of an unsafe structure or a structure unfit for human occupancy.
C. 103.2.1 Maintenance of nonrequired components and systems. Nonrequired components and systems may be discontinued in use provided that no hazard results from such discontinuance of use.
C. D. 103.2.1 Maintenance of nonrequired fire protection systems. Nonrequired fire protection systems shall be maintained to function as originally installed. If any such systems are to be reduced in function or discontinued, approval shall be obtained from the building official in accordance with Section 103.8.1 of the VCC.
D. E. Section 103.3 Continued approval. Notwithstanding any provision of this code to the contrary, alterations shall not be required to be made to existing buildings or structures which are occupied in accordance with a certificate of occupancy issued under any edition of the USBC.
E. F. Section 103.4 Rental Inspections. In accordance with § 36-105.1:1 of the Code of Virginia, these provisions are applicable to rental inspection programs. For purposes of this section:
"Dwelling unit" means a building or structure or part thereof that is used for a home or residence by one or more persons who maintain a household.
"Owner" means the person shown on the current real estate assessment books or current real estate assessment records.
"Residential rental dwelling unit" means a dwelling unit that is leased or rented to one or more tenants. However, a dwelling unit occupied in part by the owner thereof shall not be construed to be a residential rental dwelling unit unless a tenant occupies a part of the dwelling unit that has its own cooking and sleeping areas, and a bathroom, unless otherwise provided in the zoning ordinance by the local governing body.
The local governing body may adopt an ordinance to inspect residential rental dwelling units for compliance with this code and to promote safe, decent and sanitary housing for its citizens, in accordance with the following:
1. Except as provided for in subdivision 3 of this subsection, the dwelling units shall be located in a rental inspection district established by the local governing body in accordance with this section; and
2. The rental inspection district is based upon a finding by the local governing body that (i) there is a need to protect the public health, safety and welfare of the occupants of dwelling units inside the designated rental inspection district; (ii) the residential rental dwelling units within the designated rental inspection district are either (a) blighted or in the process of deteriorating or (b) the residential rental dwelling units are in the need of inspection by the building department to prevent deterioration, taking into account the number, age and condition of residential dwelling rental units inside the proposed rental inspection district; and (iii) the inspection of residential rental dwelling units inside the proposed rental inspection district is necessary to maintain safe, decent and sanitary living conditions for tenants and other residents living in the proposed rental inspection district. Nothing in this section shall be construed to authorize one or more locality-wide rental inspection districts and a local governing body shall limit the boundaries of the proposed rental inspection districts to such areas of the locality that meet the criteria set out in this subsection; or
3. An individual residential rental dwelling unit outside of a designated rental inspection district is made subject to the rental inspection ordinance based upon a separate finding for each individual dwelling unit by the local governing body that (i) there is a need to protect the public health, welfare and safety of the occupants of that individual dwelling unit; (ii) the individual dwelling unit is either (a) blighted or (b) in the process of deteriorating; or (iii) there is evidence of violations of this code that affect the safe, decent and sanitary living conditions for tenants living in such individual dwelling unit.
For purposes of this section, the local governing body may designate a local government agency other than the building department to perform all or part of the duties contained in the enforcement authority granted to the building department by this section.
Before adopting a rental inspection ordinance and establishing a rental inspection district or an amendment to either, the governing body of the locality shall hold a public hearing on the proposed ordinance. Notice of the hearing shall be published once a week for two successive weeks in a newspaper published or having general circulation in the locality.
Upon adoption by the local governing body of a rental inspection ordinance, the building department shall make reasonable efforts to notify owners of residential rental dwelling units in the designated rental inspection district, or their designated managing agents, and to any individual dwelling units subject to the rental inspection ordinance, not located in a rental inspection district, of the adoption of such ordinance, and provide information and an explanation of the rental inspection ordinance and the responsibilities of the owner thereunder.
The rental inspection ordinance may include a provision that requires the owners of dwelling units in a rental inspection district to notify the building department in writing if the dwelling unit of the owner is used for residential rental purposes. The building department may develop a form for such purposes. The rental inspection ordinance shall not include a registration requirement or a fee of any kind associated with the written notification pursuant to this subdivision. A rental inspection ordinance may not require that the written notification from the owner of a dwelling unit subject to a rental inspection ordinance be provided to the building department in less than 60 days after the adoption of a rental inspection ordinance. However, there shall be no penalty for the failure of an owner of a residential rental dwelling unit to comply with the provisions of this subsection, unless and until the building department provides personal or written notice to the property owner, as provided in this section. In any event, the sole penalty for the willful failure of an owner of a dwelling unit who is using the dwelling unit for residential rental purposes to comply with the written notification requirement shall be a civil penalty of up to $50. For purposes of this subsection, notice sent by regular first-class mail to the last known address of the owner as shown on the current real estate tax assessment books or current real estate tax assessment records shall be deemed compliance with this requirement.
Upon establishment of a rental inspection district in accordance with this section, the building department may, in conjunction with the written notifications as provided for above, proceed to inspect dwelling units in the designated rental inspection district to determine if the dwelling units are being used as a residential rental property and for compliance with the provisions of this code that affect the safe, decent and sanitary living conditions for the tenants of such property.
If a multifamily development has more than 10 dwelling units, in the initial and periodic inspections, the building department shall inspect only a sampling of dwelling units, of not less than two and not more than 10% of the dwelling units, of a multifamily development, that includes all of the multifamily buildings that are part of that multifamily development. In no event, however, shall the building department charge a fee authorized by this section for inspection of more than 10 dwelling units. If the building department determines upon inspection of the sampling of dwelling units that there are violations of this code that affect the safe, decent and sanitary living conditions for the tenants of such multifamily development, the building department may inspect as many dwelling units as necessary to enforce these provisions, in which case, the fee shall be based upon a charge per dwelling unit inspected, as otherwise provided in the fee schedule established pursuant to this section.
Upon the initial or periodic inspection of a residential rental dwelling unit subject to a rental inspection ordinance, the building department has the authority under these provisions to require the owner of the dwelling unit to submit to such follow-up inspections of the dwelling unit as the building department deems necessary, until such time as the dwelling unit is brought into compliance with the provisions of this code that affect the safe, decent and sanitary living conditions for the tenants.
Except as provided for above, following the initial inspection of a residential rental dwelling unit subject to a rental inspection ordinance, the building department may inspect any residential rental dwelling unit in a rental inspection district, that is not otherwise exempted in accordance with this section, no more than once each calendar year.
Upon the initial or periodic inspection of a residential rental dwelling unit subject to a rental inspection ordinance for compliance with these provisions, provided that there are no violations of this code that affect the safe, decent and sanitary living conditions for the tenants of such residential rental dwelling unit, the building department shall provide, to the owner of such residential rental dwelling unit, an exemption from the rental inspection ordinance for a minimum of four years. Upon the sale of a residential rental dwelling unit, the building department may perform a periodic inspection as provided above, subsequent to such sale. If a residential rental dwelling unit has been issued a certificate of occupancy within the last four years, an exemption shall be granted for a minimum period of four years from the date of the issuance of the certificate of occupancy by the building department. If the residential rental dwelling unit becomes in violation of this code during the exemption period, the building department may revoke the exemption previously granted under this section.
A local governing body may establish a fee schedule for enforcement of these provisions, which includes a per dwelling unit fee for the initial inspections, follow-up inspections and periodic inspections under this section.
The provisions of this section shall not in any way alter the rights and obligations of landlords and tenants pursuant to the applicable provisions of Chapter 13 (§ 55-217 et seq.) or Chapter 13.2 (§ 55-248.2 et seq.) of Title 55 of the Code of Virginia.
The provisions of this section shall not alter the duties or responsibilities of the local building department under § 36-105 of the Code of Virginia to enforce the USBC.
Unless otherwise provided for in § 36-105.1:1 of the Code of Virginia, penalties for violation of this section shall be the same as the penalties provided for violations of other sections of the USBC.
13VAC5-63-480. Section 104 Enforcement, generally.
A. Section 104.1 Scope of enforcement. This section establishes the requirements for enforcement of this code in accordance with subdivision C 1 of § 36-105 of the Code of Virginia. The local governing body may also inspect and enforce the provisions of the USBC for existing buildings and structures, whether occupied or not. Such inspection and enforcement shall be carried out by an agency or department designated by the local governing body.
If In accordance with subdivision C 3 of § 36-105 of the Code of Virginia, if the local building department receives a complaint that a violation of this code exists that is an immediate and imminent threat to the health or safety of the owner, tenant, or occupants of any building or structure, or the owner, occupant, or tenant of any nearby building or structure, and the owner, occupant, or tenant of the building or structure that is the subject of the complaint has refused to allow the code official or his agent to have access to the subject building or structure, the code official or his agent may present sworn testimony to make an affidavit under oath before a magistrate or a court of competent jurisdiction and request that the magistrate or court grant the code official or his agent an inspection warrant to enable the code official or his agent to enter the subject building or structure for the purpose of determining whether violations of this code exist. After issuing a warrant under this section, the magistrate or judge shall file the affidavit in a manner prescribed by § 19.2-54 of the Code of Virginia. After executing the warrant, the code official or his agents shall return the warrant to the clerk of the circuit court of the city or county wherein the inspection was made. The code official or his agent shall make a reasonable effort to obtain consent from the owner, occupant, or tenant of the subject building or structure prior to seeking the issuance of an inspection warrant under this section.
Note: Generally, official action must be taken by the local government to enforce the VMC. Consultation with the legal counsel of the jurisdiction when initiating or changing such action is advised.
B. Section 104.1.1 Transfer of ownership. In accordance with subdivision C 4 of § 36-105 of the Code of Virginia, if the local building department has initiated an enforcement action against the owner of a building or structure and such owner subsequently transfers the ownership of the building or structure to an entity in which the owner holds an ownership interest greater than 50%, the pending enforcement action shall continue to be enforced against the owner.
C. Section 104.2 Fees. In accordance with subdivision C 7 of § 36-105 of the Code of Virginia, fees may be levied by the local governing body in order to defray the cost of enforcement and appeals. For the purposes of this section, "defray the cost" may include the fair and reasonable costs incurred for such enforcement during normal business hours, but shall not include overtime costs unless conducted outside of the normal working hours established by the locality. A schedule of such costs shall be adopted by the local governing body in a local ordinance. A locality shall not charge overtime rate for inspections conducted during the normal business hours established by the locality. Nothing in this provision shall be construed to prohibit a private entity from conducting such inspections, provided the private entity has been approved to perform such inspections in accordance with the written policy of the code official for the locality.
D. Section 104.3 State buildings. In accordance with § 36-98.1 of the Code of Virginia, this code shall be applicable to state-owned buildings and structures. Acting through the Division of Engineering and Buildings, the Department of General Services shall function as the building official for state-owned buildings.
E. Section 104.3.1 Certification of state enforcement personnel. State enforcement personnel shall comply with the applicable requirements of Sections 104.4.2 through 104.4.4 and 104.4.3 for certification, periodic maintenance training, and continuing education.
Note: Continuing education and periodic training requirements for DHCD certifications are set out in the VCS.
F. Section 104.4 Local enforcing agency. In jurisdictions enforcing this code, the local governing body shall designate the agency within the local government responsible for such enforcement and appoint a code official. The local governing body may also utilize technical assistants to assist the code official in the enforcement of this code. A permanently appointed code official shall not be removed from office except for cause after having been afforded a full opportunity to be heard on specific and relevant charges by and before the appointing authority. DHCD shall be notified by the appointing authority within 30 days of the appointment or release of a permanent or acting code official and within 60 days after retaining or terminating a technical assistant.
Note: Code officials and technical assistants are subject to sanctions in accordance with the VCS.
G. Section 104.4.1 Qualifications of code official and technical assistants. The code official shall have at least five years of building experience as a licensed professional engineer or architect, building, fire or trade inspector, contractor, housing inspector or superintendent of building, fire or trade construction or at least five years of building experience after obtaining a degree in architecture or engineering, with at least three years in responsible charge of work. Any combination of education and experience that would confer equivalent knowledge and ability shall be deemed to satisfy this requirement. The code official shall have general knowledge of sound engineering practice in respect to the design and construction of structures, the basic principles of fire prevention, the accepted requirements for means of egress and the installation of elevators and other service equipment necessary for the health, safety and general welfare of the occupants and the public. The local governing body may establish additional qualification requirements.
A technical assistant shall have at least three years of experience and general knowledge in at least one of the following areas: building construction, building, fire or housing inspections, plumbing, electrical or mechanical trades, fire protection, elevators or property maintenance work. Any combination of education and experience which would confer equivalent knowledge and ability shall be deemed to satisfy this requirement. The locality may establish additional certification requirements.
H. Section 104.4.2 Certification of code official and technical assistants. An acting or permanent code official shall be certified as a code official in accordance with the VCS within one year after being appointed as acting or permanent code official. A technical assistant shall be certified in the appropriate subject area within 18 months after becoming a technical assistant. When required by a locality to have two or more certifications, a technical assistant shall obtain the additional certifications within three years from the date of such requirement.
Exception: A code official or technical assistant in place prior to April 1, 1995, shall not be required to meet the certification requirements in this section while continuing to serve in the same capacity in the same locality.
I. Section 104.4.3 Noncertified code official. Except for a code official exempt from certification under the exception to Section 104.4.2, any acting or permanent code official who is not certified as a code official in accordance with the VCS shall attend the core module of the Virginia Building Code Academy or an equivalent course in an individual or regional code academy accredited by DHCD within 180 days of appointment. This requirement is in addition to meeting the certification requirement in Section 104.4.2.
Note: Continuing education and periodic training requirements for DHCD certifications are set out in the VCS.
J. Section 104.4.4 Requirements for periodic maintenance training and education. Code officials and technical assistants shall attend periodic maintenance training as designated by DHCD. In addition to the periodic maintenance training required above, code officials and technical assistants shall attend 16 hours of continuing education every two years as approved by DHCD. If a code official or technical assistant possesses more than one BHCD certificate, the 16 hours shall satisfy the continuing education requirement for all BHCD certificates.
K. Section 104.4.5 Conflict of interest. The standards of conduct for code officials and technical assistants shall be in accordance with the provisions of the State and Local Government Conflict of Interests Act, Chapter 31 (§ 2.2-3100 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
L. K. Section 104.4.6 Records. The local enforcing agency shall retain a record of applications received, permits, certificates, notices and orders issued, fees collected and reports of inspections in accordance with The Library of Virginia's General Schedule Number Six.
M. L. Section 104.5 Powers and duties, generally. The code official shall enforce this code as set out herein and as interpreted by the State Review Board and shall issue all necessary notices or orders to ensure compliance with the code.
N. M. Section 104.5.1 Delegation of authority. The code official may delegate powers and duties except where such authority is limited by the local government. When such delegations are made, the code official shall be responsible for assuring that they are carried out in accordance with the provisions of this code.
O. N. Section 104.5.2 Issuance of modifications. Upon written application by an owner or an owner's agent, the code official may approve a modification of any provision of this code provided the spirit and intent of the code are observed and public health, welfare and safety are assured. The decision of the code official concerning a modification shall be made in writing and the application for a modification and the decision of the code official concerning such modification shall be retained in the permanent records of the local enforcing agency.
P. O. Section 104.5.2.1 Substantiation of modification. The code official may require or may consider a statement from a professional engineer, architect or other person competent in the subject area of the application as to the equivalency of the proposed modification.
Q. P. Section 104.5.3 Inspections. The code official may inspect buildings or structures to determine compliance with this code and shall carry proper credentials when performing such inspections. The code official is authorized to engage such expert opinion as deemed necessary to report upon unusual, detailed, or complex technical issues in accordance with local policies.
R. Q. Section 104.5.3.1 Observations. When, during an inspection, the code official or authorized representative observes an apparent or actual violation of another law, ordinance, or code not within the official's authority to enforce, such official shall report the findings to the official having jurisdiction in order that such official may institute the necessary measures.
S. R. Section 104.5.3.2 Approved inspection agencies and individuals. The code official may accept reports of inspections or tests from individuals or inspection agencies approved in accordance with the code official's written policy required by Section 104.5.3.3. The individual or inspection agency shall meet the qualifications and reliability requirements established by the written policy. Reports of inspections by approved individuals or agencies shall be in writing, shall indicate if compliance with the applicable provisions of this code have been met, and shall be certified by the individual inspector or by the responsible officer when the report is from an agency. The code official shall review and approve the report unless there is cause to reject it. Failure to approve a report shall be in writing within five working days of receiving it, stating the reasons for rejection.
T. S. Section 104.5.3.3 Third-party inspectors. Each code official charged with the enforcement of this code and who accepts third-party reports shall have a written policy establishing the minimum acceptable qualifications for third-party inspectors. The policy shall include the format and time frame required for submission of reports, any prequalification or preapproval requirements before conducting a third-party inspection, and any other requirements and procedures established by the code official.
U. T. Section 104.5.3.4 Qualifications. In determining third-party qualifications, the code official may consider such items as DHCD inspector certification, other state or national certifications, state professional registrations, related experience, education, and any other factors that would demonstrate competency and reliability to conduct inspections.
V. U. Section 104.5.4 Notices, reports and orders. Upon findings by the code official that violations of this code exist, the code official shall issue a correction notice or notice of violation to the owner or the person responsible for the maintenance of the structure. Work done to correct violations of this code subject to the permit, inspection and approval provisions of the VCC shall not be construed as authorization to extend the time limits established for compliance with this code.
W. V. Section 104.5.4.1 Correction notice. The correction notice shall be a written notice of the defective conditions. The correction notice shall require correction of the violation or violations within a reasonable time unless an emergency condition exists as provided under the unsafe building provisions of Section 105. Upon request, the correction notice shall reference the code section that serves as the basis for the defects and shall state that such defects shall be corrected and reinspected in a reasonable time designated by the code official.
X. W. Section 104.5.4.2 Notice of violation. If the code official determines there are violations of this code other than those for unsafe structures, unsafe equipment or structures unfit for human occupancy under Section 105, the code official may issue a notice of violation to be communicated promptly in writing to the owner or the person responsible for the maintenance or use of the building or structure in lieu of a correction notice as provided for in Section 104.5.4.1. In addition, the code official shall issue a notice of violation for any uncorrected violation remaining from a correction notice established in Section 104.5.4.1. A notice of violation shall be issued by the code official before initiating legal proceedings unless the conditions violate the unsafe building conditions of Section 105 and the provisions established therein are followed. The code official shall provide the section numbers to the owner for any code provision cited in the notice of violation. The notice shall require correction of the violation or violations within a reasonable time unless an emergency condition exists as provided under the building provisions of Section 105. The owner or person to whom the notice of violation has been issued shall be responsible for contacting the code official within the time frame established for any reinspections to assure the violations have been corrected. The code official will be responsible for making such inspection and verifying the violations have been corrected. In addition, the notice of violation shall indicate the right of appeal by referencing the appeals section of this code.
Y. X. Section 104.5.5 Coordination of inspections. The code official shall coordinate inspections and administrative orders with any other state or local agencies having related inspection authority and shall coordinate those inspections required by the Virginia Statewide Fire Prevention Code (13VAC5-51) for maintenance of fire protection devices, equipment and assemblies so that the owners and occupants will not be subjected to numerous inspections or conflicting orders.
Note: The Fire Prevention Code requires the fire official to coordinate such inspections with the code official.
Z. Y. Section 104.5.6 Further action when violation not corrected. If the responsible party has not complied with the notice of violation, the code official shall submit a written request to the legal counsel of the locality to institute the appropriate legal proceedings to restrain, correct or abate the violation or to require the removal or termination of the use of the building or structure involved. In cases where the locality so authorizes, the code official may issue or obtain a summons or warrant.
AA. Z. Section 104.5.7 Penalties and abatement. Penalties for violations of this code shall be as set out in § 36-106 of the Code of Virginia. The successful prosecution of a violation of the code shall not preclude the institution of appropriate legal action to require correction or abatement of a violation.
13VAC5-63-490. Section 105 Unsafe structures or structures unfit for human occupancy.
A. Section 105.1 General. This section shall apply to existing structures which are classified as unsafe or unfit for human occupancy. All conditions causing such structures to be classified as unsafe or unfit for human occupancy shall be remedied or as an alternative to correcting such conditions, the structure may be vacated and secured against public entry or razed and removed. Vacant and secured structures shall still be subject to other applicable requirements of this code. Notwithstanding the above, when the code official determines that an unsafe structure or a structure unfit for human occupancy constitutes such a hazard that it should be razed or removed, then the code official shall be permitted to order the demolition of such structures in accordance with applicable requirements of this code.
Note: Structures which become unsafe during construction are regulated under the VCC.
B. Section 105.2 Inspection of unsafe or unfit structures. The code official shall inspect any structure reported or discovered as unsafe or unfit for human habitation and shall prepare a report to be filed in the records of the local enforcing agency and a copy issued to the owner. The report shall include the use of the structure and a description of the nature and extent of any conditions found.
C. Section 105.3 Unsafe conditions not related to maintenance. When the code official finds a condition that constitutes a serious and dangerous hazard to life or health in a structure constructed prior to the initial edition of the USBC and when that condition is of a cause other than improper maintenance or failure to comply with state or local building codes that were in effect when the structure was constructed, then the code official shall be permitted to order those minimum changes to the design or construction of the structure to remedy the condition.
D. Section 105.3.1 Limitation to requirements for retrofitting. In accordance with Section 103.2, this code does not generally provide for requiring the retrofitting of any structure. However, conditions may exist in structures constructed prior to the initial edition of the USBC because of faulty design or equipment that constitute a danger to life or health or a serious hazard. Any changes to the design or construction required by the code official under this section shall be only to remedy the serious hazard or danger to life or health and such changes shall not be required to fully comply with the requirements of the VCC applicable to newly constructed buildings or structures.
E. Section 105.4 Notice of unsafe structure or structure unfit for human occupancy. When a structure is determined to be unsafe or unfit for human occupancy by the code official, a written notice of unsafe structure or structure unfit for human occupancy shall be issued by personal service to the owner, the owner's agent or the person in control of such structure. The notice shall specify the corrections necessary to comply with this code, or if the structure is required to be demolished, the notice shall specify the time period within which the demolition must occur. Requirements in Section 104.5.4 for notices of violation are also applicable to notices issued under this section to the extent that any such requirements are not in conflict with the requirements of this section.
Note: Whenever possible, the notice should also be given to any tenants of the affected structure.
F. Section 105.4.1 Vacating unsafe structure. If the code official determines there is actual and immediate danger to the occupants or public, or when life is endangered by the occupancy of an unsafe structure, the code official shall be authorized to order the occupants to immediately vacate the unsafe structure. When an unsafe structure is ordered to be vacated, the code official shall post a notice with the following wording at each entrance: "THIS STRUCTURE IS UNSAFE AND ITS OCCUPANCY (OR USE) IS PROHIBITED BY THE CODE OFFICIAL." After posting, occupancy or use of the unsafe structure shall be prohibited except when authorized to enter to conduct inspections, make required repairs or as necessary to demolish the structure.
G. Section 105.5 Posting of notice. If the notice is unable to be issued by personal service as required by Section 105.4, then the notice shall be sent by registered or certified mail to the last known address of the responsible party and a copy of the notice shall be posted in a conspicuous place on the premises.
H. Section 105.6 Posting of placard. In the case of a structure unfit for human habitation, at the time the notice is issued, a placard with the following wording shall be posted at the entrance to the structure: "THIS STRUCTURE IS UNFIT FOR HABITATION AND ITS USE OR OCCUPANCY HAS BEEN PROHIBITED BY THE CODE OFFICIAL." In the case of an unsafe structure, if the notice is not complied with, a placard with the above wording shall be posted at the entrance to the structure. After a structure is placarded, entering the structure shall be prohibited except as authorized by the code official to make inspections, to perform required repairs or to demolish the structure. In addition, the placard shall not be removed until the structure is determined by the code official to be safe to occupy, nor shall the placard be defaced.
I. Section 105.7 Revocation of certificate of occupancy. If a notice of unsafe structure or structure unfit for human habitation is not complied with within the time period stipulated on the notice, the code official shall be permitted to request the local building department to revoke the certificate of occupancy issued under the VCC.
J. Section 105.8 Vacant and open structures. When an unsafe structure or a structure unfit for human habitation is open for public entry at the time a placard is issued under Section 105.6, the code official shall be permitted to authorize the necessary work to make such structure secure against public entry whether or not legal action to compel compliance has been instituted.
K. Section 105.9 Emergency repairs and demolition. To the extent permitted by the locality, the code official may authorize emergency repairs to unsafe structures or structures unfit for human habitation when it is determined that there is an immediate danger of any portion of the unsafe structure or structure unfit for human habitation collapsing or falling and when life is endangered. Emergency repairs may also be authorized where there is a code violation resulting in the immediate serious and imminent threat to the life and safety of the occupants. The code official shall be permitted to authorize the necessary work to make the structure temporarily safe whether or not legal action to compel compliance has been instituted. In addition, whenever an owner of an unsafe structure or structure unfit for human habitation fails to comply with a notice to demolish issued under Section 105.4 in the time period stipulated, the code official shall be permitted to cause the structure to be demolished. In accordance with §§ 15.2-906 and 15.2-1115 of the Code of Virginia, the legal counsel of the locality may be requested to institute appropriate action against the property owner to recover the costs associated with any such emergency repairs or demolition and every such charge that remains unpaid shall constitute a lien against the property on which the emergency repairs or demolition were made and shall be enforceable in the same manner as provided in Articles 3 (§ 58.1-3490 et seq.) (§ 58.1-3940 et seq.) and 4 (§ 58.1-3965 et seq.) of Chapter 39 of Title 58.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Note: Code officials and local governing bodies should be aware that other statutes and court decisions may impact on matters relating to demolition, in particular whether newspaper publication is required if the owner cannot be located and whether the demolition order must be delayed until the owner has been given the opportunity for a hearing. In addition, historic building demolition may be prevented by authority granted to local historic review boards in accordance with § 15.2-2306 of the Code of Virginia unless determined necessary by the code official.
L. Section 105.10 Closing of streets. When necessary for public safety, the code official shall be permitted to order the temporary closing of sidewalks, streets, public ways or premises adjacent to unsafe or unfit structures and prohibit the use of such spaces.
13VAC5-63-510. Chapter 2 Definitions.
A. Change Section 201.3 of the IPMC to read:
201.3 Terms defined in other codes. Where terms are not defined in this code and are defined in the IBC, IFC, IFGC, IPC, IMC, International Existing Building Code, IRC, International Zoning Code or NFPA 70, such terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them as stated in those codes, except that terms defined in the VCC shall be used for this code and shall take precedence over other definitions.
B. Change Section 201.5 of the IPMC to read:
201.5 Parts. Whenever the words "dwelling unit," "dwelling," "premises," "building," "rooming unit," "housekeeping unit," or "story" are stated in this code, they shall be construed as though they were followed by the words "or part thereof."
B. C. Add the following definitions to Section 202 of the IPMC to read:
Structure unfit for human occupancy. An existing structure determined by the code official to be dangerous to the health, safety and welfare of the occupants of the structure or the public because (i) of the degree to which the structure is in disrepair or lacks maintenance, ventilation, illumination, sanitary or heating facilities or other essential equipment, or (ii) the required plumbing and sanitary facilities are inoperable.
Unsafe equipment. Unsafe equipment includes any boiler, heating equipment, elevator, moving stairway, electrical wiring or device, flammable liquid containers or other equipment that is in such disrepair or condition that such equipment is determined by the code official to be dangerous to the health, safety and welfare of the occupants of a structure or the public.
Unsafe structure. An existing structure (i) determined by the code official to be dangerous to the health, safety and welfare of the occupants of the structure or the public, (ii) that contains unsafe equipment, or (iii) that is so damaged, decayed, dilapidated, structurally unsafe or of such faulty construction or unstable foundation that partial or complete collapse is likely. A vacant existing structure unsecured or open shall be deemed to be an unsafe structure.
D. Delete the following definitions from Section 202 of the IEBC:
Condemn
Cost of such demolition of emergency repairs
Equipment support
Imminent danger
Inoperable motor vehicle
Labeled
Neglect
Openable area
Pest elimination
Strict liability offense
Ultimate deformation
Workmanlike
13VAC5-63-520. Chapter 3 General requirements.
A. Delete Section 302.1 of the IPMC.
B. Change Section 302.2 of the IPMC to read:
302.2 Grading and drainage. All premises shall be graded and maintained to protect the foundation walls or slab of the structure from the accumulation and drainage of surface or stagnant water in accordance with the VCC.
C. Change Section 302.3 of the IPMC to read:
302.3 Sidewalks and driveways. All sidewalks, walkways, stairs, driveways, parking spaces and similar spaces regulated under the VCC shall be kept in a proper state of repair, and maintained free from hazardous conditions. Stairs shall comply with the requirements of Sections 305 and 702.
D. Delete Section 302.4 of the IPMC.
E. Change Section 302.5 of the IPMC to read:
302.5 Rodent harborage. All structures and adjacent premises shall be kept free from rodent harborage and infestation where such harborage or infestation adversely affects the structures.
F. Delete Sections 302.8 and 302.9 of the IPMC.
G. Delete Section 304.1.1 of the IPMC.
H. Change Section 304.7 of the IPMC to read:
304.7 Roofs and drainage. The roof and flashing shall be sound, tight and not have defects that admit rain. Roof drainage shall be adequate to prevent dampness or deterioration in the walls or interior portion of the structure. Roof drains, gutters and downspouts shall be maintained in good repair and free from obstructions. Roof water shall be discharged in a manner to protect the foundation or slab of buildings and structures from the accumulation of roof drainage.
I. Change Section 304.14 of the IPMC to read:
304.14 Insect screens. During the period from April 1 to December 1, every door, window and other outside opening required for ventilation of habitable rooms, food preparation areas, food service areas or any areas where products to be included or utilized in food for human consumption are processed, manufactured, packaged or stored, shall be supplied with approved tightly fitting screens of not less than 16 mesh per inch (16 mesh per 25 mm) and every screen door used for insect control shall have a self-closing device in good working condition.
Exception: Screens shall not be required where other approved means, such as mechanical ventilation, air curtains or insect repellant fans, are used.
J. Delete Sections 304.18, 304.18.1, 304.18.2 and 304.18.3 of the IPMC.
K. Delete Section 305.1.1 of the IPMC.
L. Add Section 305.7 to the IPMC to read:
305.7 Carbon monoxide alarms. Carbon monoxide alarms shall be maintained as approved.
M. Delete Section 306 of the IPMC in its entirety.
N. Change Section 308.1 of the IPMC to read as follows and delete the remaining provisions of Section 308:
308.1 Accumulation of rubbish and garbage. The interior of every structure shall be free from excessive accumulation of rubbish or garbage.
O. Change Section 309.1 of the IPMC to read:
309.1 Infestation. This section shall apply to the extent that insect and rodent infestation adversely affects a structure. All structures shall be kept free from insect and rodent infestation. All structures in which insects or rodents are found shall be promptly exterminated by approved processes that will not be injurious to human health. After extermination, proper precautions shall be taken to prevent reinfestation.
P. Add IPMC Section 310 Lead-Based Paint.
Q. Add Section 310.1 to the IPMC to read:
310.1 General. Interior and exterior painted surfaces of dwellings and child care facilities, including fences and outbuildings, that contain lead levels equal to or greater than 1.0 milligram per square centimeter or in excess of 0.50% lead by weight shall be maintained in a condition free from peeling, chipping and flaking paint or removed or covered in an approved manner. Any surface to be covered shall first be identified by an approved warning as to the lead content of such surface.
R. Add IPMC Section 311 Aboveground Liquid Fertilizer Storage Tanks (ALFSTs).
S. Add Section 311.1 to the IPMC to read:
311.1 General. ALFSTs shall be maintained in accordance with the requirements of Section 1701.16 of the VRC and the requirements of the VCC applicable to such ALFSTs when newly constructed and the requirements of the VRC when undergoing a change of occupancy to an ALFST and when repaired, altered or reconstructed, including the requirements for inspections and for a secondary containment system.
A. Delete the following sections from Chapter 3 of the IPMC:
1. Section 301.2 Responsibility.
2. Section 302.1 Sanitation.
3. Section 302.4 Weeds.
4. Section 302.6 Exhaust vents.
5. Section 302.8 Motor vehicles.
6. Section 302.9 Defacement of property.
7. Section 303.2 Enclosures.
8. Section 304.1.1 Unsafe conditions.
9. Section 304.18.1 Doors.
10. Section 304.18.2 Windows.
11. Section 304.18.3 Basement hatchways.
12. Section 305.1.1 Unsafe conditions.
13. Section 306 Component serviceability (all provisions).
14. Section 308.2 Disposal of rubbish.
15. Section 308.2.1 Rubbish storage facilities.
16. Section 308.2.2 Refrigerators.
17. Section 308.3 Disposal of garbage.
18. Section 308.3.1 Garbage facilities.
19. Section 308.3.2 Containers.
20. Section 309.2 Owner.
21. Section 309.3 Single occupant.
22. Section 309.4 Multiple occupancy.
23. Section 309.5 Occupant.
B. Change the following sections in Chapter 3 of the IPMC to read:
1. Section 301.1 Scope. The provisions of this chapter shall govern the minimum conditions for the maintenance of structures and equipment and for the maintenance of exterior property to the extent that this code is applicable.
2. Section 301.3 Vacant structures. Vacant structures shall be maintained in a clean, safe, secure, and sanitary condition as provided for in this code.
3. Section 302.2 Grading and drainage. All premises shall be graded and maintained to protect the foundation walls or slab of the structure from the accumulation and drainage of surface or stagnant water in accordance with the VCC.
4. Section 302.3 Sidewalks and driveways. All sidewalks, walkways, stairs, driveways, parking spaces, and similar spaces regulated under the VCC shall be kept in a proper state of repair and maintained free from hazardous conditions.
5. Section 302.5 Rodent harborage. All structures and adjacent premises shall be kept free from rodent harborage and infestation where such harborage or infestation adversely affects the structures.
6. Section 303.2 Enclosures. Swimming pool, hot tub, and spa barriers shall be maintained as required by the code or ordinance under which such barriers were constructed.
7. Section 304.1 General. The exterior of a structure shall be maintained in good repair, structurally sound, and sanitary so as not to pose a threat to the health, safety, or welfare.
8. Section 304.3 Premises identification. Address numbers of buildings shall be maintained when required by the code under which such buildings were constructed or when required by ordinance.
9. Section 304.7 Roofs and drainage. The roof and flashing shall be sound, tight, and not have defects that admit rain. Roof drainage shall be adequate to prevent dampness or deterioration in the walls or interior portion of the structure. Roof water shall be discharged in a manner to protect the foundation or slab of buildings and structures from the accumulation of roof drainage.
10. Section 304.14 Insect screens. During the period from April 1 to December 1, every door, window, and other outside opening required for ventilation of habitable rooms, food preparation areas, food service areas, or any areas where products to be included or utilized in food for human consumption are processed, manufactured, packaged, or stored shall be supplied with an approved tightly fitting screens of not less than 16 mesh per inch (16 mesh per 25 mm) and every screen door used for insect control shall have a self-closing device in good working condition.
Exception: Screens shall not be required where other approved means, such as mechanical ventilation, air curtains, or insect repellant fans, are used.
11. Section 304.18 Building security. Devices designed to provide security for the occupants and property within, when required by the code under which a building was constructed, or when provided, shall be maintained unless their removal is approved by the building official under the VCC.
12. Section 304.19 Gates. To the extent required by the code under which constructed or to the extent provided when constructed, exterior gates, gate assemblies, operator systems if provided, and hardware shall be maintained in good condition. Latches at all entrances shall tightly secure the gates.
13. Section 305.1 General. The interior of a structure and equipment therein shall be maintained in good repair, structurally sound, and in a sanitary condition.
14. Section 307.1 General. Handrails and guards required by the code under which a building was constructed or which were provided when a building was constructed shall be maintained.
15. Section 308.1 Accumulation of rubbish or garbage. The interior of every structure shall be free from excessive accumulation of rubbish or garbage.
16. Section 309 Pest Infestation and extermination.
17. Section 309.1 Infestation. This section shall apply to the extent that insect and rodent infestation adversely affects a structure. All structures shall be kept free from insect and rodent infestation. Structures in which insects or rodents are found shall be promptly exterminated by approved processes that will not be injurious to human health. After extermination, proper precautions shall be taken to prevent reinfestation.
C. Add the following sections to Chapter 3 of the IPMC:
1. Section 305.7 Carbon monoxide alarms. Carbon monoxide alarms shall be maintained as approved.
2. Section 310 Lead-based paint.
3. Section 310.1 General. Interior and exterior painted surfaces of dwellings and child care facilities, including fences and outbuildings, that contain lead levels equal to or greater than 1.0 milligram per square centimeter or in excess of 0.50% lead by weight shall be maintained in a condition free from peeling, chipping, and flaking paint or removed or covered in an approved manner. Any surface to be covered shall first be identified by an approved warning as to the lead content of such surface.
4. Section 311 Aboveground liquid fertilizer storage tanks (ALFST).
5. Section 311.1 General. ALFSTs shall be maintained in accordance with the requirements of Section 1701.16 of the VEBC and the requirements of the VCC applicable to such ALFSTs when newly constructed and the requirements of the VEBC when undergoing a change of occupancy to an ALFST and when repaired, altered, or reconstructed, including the requirements for inspections and for a secondary containment system.
13VAC5-63-524. Chapter 4 Light, ventilation, and occupancy limitations.
A. Delete the following sections from Chapter 4 of the IPMC:
1. Section 401.2 Responsibility.
2. Section 401.3 Alternative devices.
3. Section 402.2 Common halls and stairways.
4. Section 402.3 Other spaces.
5. Section 403.2 Bathrooms and toilet rooms.
6. Section 403.5 Clothes dryer exhaust.
B. Change the following sections in Chapter 4 of the IPMC to read:
1. Section 401.1 Scope. The provisions of this chapter shall govern the maintenance of structures for light, ventilation, and space for occupancy.
2. Section 402.1 Natural or artificial light. Every habitable space, hallway, stairway, bathroom, and other spaces shall be maintained to provide natural or artificial light to the extent required by the code under which a building was constructed or to the extent provided when such building was constructed.
3. Section 403.1 Natural or mechanical ventilation. Every habitable space, hallway, stairway, bathroom, and other spaces shall be maintained to provide natural or mechanical ventilation to the extent required by the code under which a building was constructed or to the extent provided when such building was constructed.
4. Section 403.4 Process ventilation. Local exhaust systems required by the code under which a building was constructed, or which are provided, that exhaust injurious, toxic, irritating, or noxious fumes, gases, dusts, or mists to the exterior of a building shall be maintained to prevent compromising the required ventilation system.
C. Add the following section to Chapter 4 of the IPMC:
Section 404.05 Limitation of application of section. The provisions of Section 404 that address construction aspects of occupancy limitations shall apply on the extent that such requirements were part of the code under which a building was constructed. Operational requirements such as the use of rooms or minimum areas per occupant are part of this code to the extent that they do not require alterations to be made to a building.
13VAC5-63-530. Chapter 5 Plumbing facilities and fixture requirements.
A. Add Section 505.5 to the IPMC to read:
505.5 Inspection and testing of backflow prevention assemblies. Inspection and testing shall comply with Sections 505.5.1 and 505.5.2.
B. Add Section 505.5.1 to the IPMC to read:
505.5.1 Inspections. Inspections shall be made of all backflow prevention assemblies and air gaps to determine whether they are operable.
C. Add Section 505.5.2 to the IMPC to read:
505.5.2 Testing. Reduced pressure principle backflow preventer assemblies, double check-valve assemblies, double-detector check valve assemblies and pressure vacuum breaker assemblies shall be tested at the time of installation, immediately after repairs or relocation and at least annually. The testing procedure shall be performed in accordance with one of the following standards: ASSE 5010-1013-1, Sections 1 and 2; ASSE 5010-1015-1, Sections 1 and 2; ASSE 5010-1015-2; ASSE 5010-1015-3, Sections 1 and 2; ASSE 5010-1015-4, Sections 1 and 2; ASSE 5010-1020-1, Sections 1 and 2; ASSE 5010-1047-1, Sections 1, 2, 3 and 4; ASSE 5010-1048-1, Sections 1, 2, 3 and 4; ASSE 5010-1048-2; ASSE 5010-1048-3, Sections 1, 2, 3 and 4; ASSE 5010-1048-4, Sections 1, 2, 3 and 4; or CAN/CSA B64.10.
D. Change Section 507.1 of the IPMC to read:
507.1 General. Drainage of roofs and paved areas, yards and courts, and other open areas on the premises shall be discharged in a manner to protect the buildings and structures from the accumulation of overland water runoff.
A. Change the title of Chapter 5 of the IPMC to "Plumbing Requirements."
B. Delete the following sections from Chapter 5 of the IPMC:
1. Section 501.2 Responsibility.
2. Section 502 Required facilities (all provisions).
3. Section 503 Toilet rooms (all provisions).
4. Section 505.3 Supply.
C. Change the following sections in Chapter 5 of the IPMC to read:
1. Section 501.1 General. The provisions of this chapter shall govern the maintenance of structures for plumbing systems, facilities, and fixtures.
2. Section 504.1 General. Required or provided plumbing systems and facilities shall be maintained in compliance with the code under which constructed.
3. Section 504.2 Plumbing fixtures. All plumbing fixtures shall be maintained in a safe, sanitary, and working condition. A kitchen sink shall not be used as a substitute for a required lavatory.
4. Section 504.3 Plumbing system hazards. Where it is found that a plumbing system in a structure constitutes a hazard to the public, the occupants, or the structure, the code official shall require the defects to be corrected to eliminate the hazard.
5. Section 505.1 Supply. Required or provided water supply systems shall be maintained in compliance with the code under which the systems were constructed. All water supply systems shall be free from obstructions, defects, and leaks.
6. Section 505.2 Protection of water supply systems. Protection of water supply systems shall be provided to the extent required by the code under which a building was constructed and shall be maintained.
7. Section 505.3 Inspection and testing of backflow prevention systems. Inspection and testing shall comply with Sections 505.3.1 and 505.3.2.
8. Section 505.4 Water heating facilities. Water heating facilities shall be maintained. Combination temperature and pressure-relief valves and relief valve discharge pipes shall be maintained on water heaters.
9. Section 506.1 Drainage and venting. Required or provided sanitary drainage and venting systems shall be maintained in compliance with the code under which the system was constructed.
10. Section 506.2 Maintenance. Every building drainage and sewer system shall function properly and be kept free from obstructions, leaks, and defects.
11. Section 507.1 General. Drainage of roofs and paved areas, yards and courts, and other open areas on the premises shall be discharged in a manner to protect the buildings and structures from the accumulation of overland water runoff.
D. Add the following sections to Chapter 5 of the IPMC:
1. Section 504.1.1 Public and employee facilities. Except for periodic maintenance or cleaning, access and use shall be provided to facilities at all times during occupancy of the premises in accordance with the code under which constructed.
2. Section 504.2.1 Fixture clearances. Adequate clearances for usage and cleaning of plumbing fixtures shall be maintained as approved when installed.
3. Section 505.1.1 Tempered water. Tempered water shall be supplied to fixtures and facilities when required by the code under which constructed.
4. Section 505.2.1 Attached hoses. Shampoo basin faucets, janitor sink faucets, and other hose bibs or faucets to which hoses are attached and left in place shall be protected by an approved atmospheric-type vacuum breaker or an approved permanently attached hose connection vacuum breaker.
5. Section 505.3.1 Inspections. Inspections shall be made of all backflow assemblies and air gaps to determine whether they are operable.
6. Section 505.3.2 Testing. Reduced pressure principle backflow preventer assemblies, double check-valve assemblies, double-detector check valve assemblies, and pressure vacuum breaker assemblies shall be tested at the time of installation, immediately after repairs or relocation and at least annually. The testing procedure shall be performed in accordance with one of the following standards: ASSE 5010-1013-1, Sections 1 and 2; ASSE 5010-1015-1, Sections 1 and 2; ASSE 5010-1015-2; ASSE 5010-1015-3, Sections 1 and 2; ASSE 5010-1015-4, Sections 1 and 2; ASSE 5010-1020-1, Sections 1 and 2; ASSE 5010-1047-1, Sections 1, 2, 3 and 4; ASSE 5010-1048-1, Sections 1, 2, 3 and 4; ASSE 5010-1048-2; ASSE 5010-1048-3, Sections 1, 2, 3 and 4; ASSE 5010-1048-4, Sections 1, 2, 3 and 4; or CAN/CSA B64.10.
13VAC5-63-540. Chapter 6 Mechanical and electrical requirements.
A. Change Section 602 of the IPMC to read:
Section 602 Heating and Cooling Facilities.
B. Change Section 602.1 of the IPMC to read:
602.1 Facilities required. Heating and cooling facilities shall be maintained and operated in structures as required by this section.
C. Change Section 602.2 of the IPMC to read:
602.2 Heat supply. Every owner and operator of a Group R-2 apartment building or other residential dwelling who rents, leases or lets one or more dwelling unit, rooming unit, dormitory or guestroom on terms, either expressed or implied, to furnish heat to the occupants thereof shall supply heat during the period from October 15 to May 1 to maintain a temperature of not less than 65°F (18°C) in all habitable rooms, bathrooms, and toilet rooms. The code official may also consider modifications as provided in Section 104.5.2 when requested for unusual circumstances or may issue notice approving building owners to convert shared heating and cooling piping HVAC systems 14 calendar days before or after the established dates when extended periods of unusual temperatures merit modifying these dates.
Exception: When the outdoor temperature is below the winter outdoor design temperature for the locality, maintenance of the minimum room temperature shall not be required provided that the heating system is operating at its full design capacity. The winter outdoor design temperature for the locality shall be as indicated in Appendix D of the IPC.
D. Add Section 602.2.1 to the IPMC to read:
602.2.1 Prohibited use. In dwelling units subject to Section 602.2, one or more unvented room heaters shall not be used as the sole source of comfort heat in a dwelling unit.
E. Change Section 602.3 of the IPMC to read:
602.3 Occupiable work spaces. Indoor occupiable work spaces shall be supplied with heat during the period from October 1 to May 15 to maintain a temperature of not less than 65°F (18°C) during the period the spaces are occupied.
Exceptions:
1. Processing, storage and operation areas that require cooling or special temperature conditions.
2. Areas in which persons are primarily engaged in vigorous physical activities.
F. Change Section 602.4 of the IPMC to read:
602.4 Cooling supply. Every owner and operator of a Group R-2 apartment building who rents, leases or lets one or more dwelling units, rooming units or guestrooms on terms, either expressed or implied, to furnish cooling to the occupants thereof shall supply cooling during the period from May 15 to October 1 to maintain a temperature of not more than 80°F (27°C) in all habitable rooms. The code official may also consider modifications as provided in Section 104.5.2 when requested for unusual circumstances or may issue notice approving building owners to convert shared heating and cooling piping HVAC systems 14 calendar days before or after the established dates when extended periods of unusual temperatures merit modifying these dates.
Exception: When the outdoor temperature is higher than the summer design temperature for the locality, maintenance of the room temperature shall not be required provided that the cooling system is operating at its full design capacity. The summer outdoor design temperature for the locality shall be as indicated in the IECC.
G. Change the exception to Section 604.3.1.1 of the IPMC to read:
Exception: The following equipment shall be allowed to be repaired or reused where an inspection report from the equipment manufacturer, an approved representative of the equipment manufacturer, a third party licensed or certified electrician, or an electrical engineer indicates that the exposed equipment has not sustained damage that requires replacement:
1. Enclosed switches, rated 600 volts or less;
2. Busway, rated 600 volts or less;
3. Panelboards, rated 600 volts or less;
4. Switchboards, rated 600 volts or less;
5. Fire pump controllers, rated 600 volts or less;
6. Manual and magnetic motor controllers;
7. Motor control centers;
8. Alternating current high-voltage circuit breakers;
9. Low-voltage power circuit breakers;
10. Protective relays, meters and current transformers;
11. Low-voltage and medium-voltage switchgear;
12. Liquid-filled transformers;
13. Cast-resin transformers;
14. Wire or cable that is suitable for wet locations and whose ends have not been exposed to water;
15. Wire or cable, not containing fillers, that is suitable for wet locations and whose ends have not been exposed to water;
16. Luminaires that are listed as submersible;
17. Motors;
18. Electronic control, signaling and communication equipment.
H. Change Section 606.1 to the IPMC to read:
606.1 General. Elevators, dumbwaiters and escalators shall be maintained in compliance with ASME A17.1. The most current certificate of inspection shall be on display at all times within the elevator or attached to the escalator or dumbwaiter, be available for public inspection in the office of the building operator or be posted in a publicly conspicuous location approved by the code official. An annual periodic inspection and test is required of elevators and escalators. A locality shall be permitted to require a six-month periodic inspection and test. All periodic inspections shall be performed in accordance with Section 8.11 of ASME A17.1. The code official may also provide for such inspection by an approved agency or through agreement with other local certified elevator inspectors. An approved agency includes any individual, partnership or corporation who has met the certification requirements established by the VCS.
A. Delete the following sections from Chapter 6 of the IPMC:
1. Section 601.2 Responsibility.
2. Section 603.6 Energy conservation devices.
3. Section 604.2 Service.
4. Section 604.3.2 Abatement of electrical hazards associated with fire exposure.
5. Section 604.3.2.1 Electrical equipment.
B. Change the following sections in Chapter 6 of the IPMC to read:
1. Section 601.1 General. The provisions of this chapter shall govern the maintenance of mechanical and electrical facilities and equipment.
2. Section 602 Heating and cooling facilities.
3. Section 602.2 Heat supply. Every owner and operator of a Group R-2 apartment building or other residential building who rents, leases, or lets one or more dwelling unit, rooming unit, dormitory, or guestroom on terms, either expressed or implied, to furnish heat to the occupants thereof shall supply heat during the period from October 15 to May 1 to maintain a temperature of not less than 68°F (20°C) in all habitable rooms, bathrooms, and toilet rooms. The code official may also consider modifications as provided in Section 104.5.2 when requested for unusual circumstances or may issue notice approving building owners to convert shared heating and cooling piping HVAC systems 14 calendar days before or after the established dates when extended periods of unusual temperatures merit modifying these dates.
Exception: When the outdoor temperature is below the winter outdoor design temperature for the locality, maintenance of the minimum room temperature shall not be required provided that the heating system is operating at its full design capacity. The winter outdoor design temperature for the locality shall be as indicated in Appendix D of the IPC.
4. Section 602.3 Occupiable work spaces. Indoor occupiable work spaces shall be supplied with heat during the period from October 1 to May 15 to maintain a minimum temperature of 65°F (18°C) during the period the spaces are occupied.
Exceptions:
1. Processing, storage, and operation areas that require cooling or special temperature conditions.
2. Areas in which persons are primarily engaged in vigorous physical activities.
5. Section 602.4 Cooling supply. Every owner and operator of a Group R-2 apartment building who rents, leases, or lets one or more dwelling units, rooming units, or guestrooms on terms, either expressed or implied, to furnish cooling to the occupants thereof shall supply cooling during the period from May 15 to October 1 to maintain a temperature of not more than 80°F (27°C) in all habitable rooms. The code official may also consider modifications as provided in Section 104.5.2 when requested for unusual circumstances or may issue notice approving building owners to convert shared heating and cooling piping HVAC systems 14 calendar days before or after the established dates when extended periods of unusual temperatures merit modifying these dates.
Exception: When the outdoor temperature is higher than the summer design temperature for the locality, maintenance of the room temperature shall not be required provided that the cooling system is operating at its full design capacity. The summer outdoor design temperature for the locality shall be as indicated in the IECC.
6. Section 603.1 Mechanical appliances. Required or provided mechanical appliances, fireplaces, solid fuel-burning appliances, cooking appliances, chimneys, vents, and water heating appliances shall be maintained in compliance with the code under which the appliances, system, or equipment was installed, kept in safe working condition, and capable of performing the intended function.
7. Section 603.2 Removal of combustion products. Where required by the code under which installed, fuel-burning equipment and appliances shall be connected to an approved chimney or vent.
8. Section 603.5 Combustion air. Where required by the code under which installed, a supply of air for complete combustion of the fuel shall be provided for the fuel-burning equipment.
9. Section 604.1 Electrical system. Required or provided electrical systems and facilities shall be maintained in compliance with the code under which the system or facility was constructed.
10. Section 604.3 Electrical system hazards. Where it is found that the electrical system in a structure constitutes a hazard to the occupants or the structure by reason of deterioration or damage or for similar reasons, the code official shall require the defects to be corrected to eliminate the hazard.
11. Section 604.3.1.1 Electrical equipment. Electrical distribution equipment, motor circuits, power equipment, transformers, wire, cable, flexible cords, wiring devices, ground fault circuit interrupters, surge protectors, molded case circuit breakers, low-voltage fuses, luminaires, ballasts, motors, and electronic control, signaling, and communication equipment that have been exposed to water shall be replaced in accordance with the provisions of the VCC.
Exception: The following equipment shall be allowed to be repaired or reused where an inspection report from the equipment manufacturer, an approved representative of the equipment manufacturer, a third party licensed or certified electrician, or an electrical engineer indicates that the exposed equipment has not sustained damage that requires replacement:
1. Enclosed switches, rated 600 volts or less;
2. Busway, rated 600 volts or less;
3. Panelboards, rated 600 volts or less;
4. Switchboards, rated 600 volts or less;
5. Fire pump controllers, rated 600 volts or less;
6. Manual and magnetic motor controllers;
7. Motor control centers;
8. Alternating current high-voltage circuit breakers;
9. Low-voltage power circuit breakers;
10. Protective relays, meters, and current transformers;
11. Low-voltage and medium-voltage switchgear;
12. Liquid-filled transformers;
13. Cast-resin transformers;
14. Wire or cable that is suitable for wet locations and whose ends have not been exposed to water;
15. Wire or cable, not containing fillers, that is suitable for wet locations and whose ends have not been exposed to water;
16. Luminaires that are listed as submersible;
17. Motors; or
18. Electronic control, signaling, and communication equipment.
12. Section 605.1 Electrical components. Electrical equipment, wiring, and appliances shall be maintained in compliance with the code under which constructed and in a safe manner.
13. Section 605.2 Power distribution and receptacles. Required or provided power circuits and receptacles shall be maintained in accordance with the code under which constructed and ground fault and arc-fault circuit interrupter protection shall be provided where required by the code in effect at the time of construction. All receptacle outlets shall have the appropriate faceplate cover for the location when required by the code under which constructed.
14. Section 605.3 Lighting distribution and luminaires. Required or provided lighting circuits and luminaires shall be maintained in compliance with the code under which constructed.
15. Section 605.4 Flexible cords. Flexible cords shall not be run through doors, windows, or cabinets or concealed within walls, floors, or ceilings.
16. Section 606.1 General. Elevators, dumbwaiters, and escalators shall be maintained in compliance with ASME A17.1. The most current certificate of inspection shall be on display at all times within the elevator or attached to the escalator or dumbwaiter, be available for public inspection in the office of the building operator, or be posted in a publicly conspicuous location approved by the code official. An annual periodic inspection and test is required of elevators and escalators. A locality shall be permitted to require a six-month periodic inspection and test. All periodic inspections shall be performed in accordance with Section 8.11 of ASME A17.1. The code official may also provide for such inspection by an approved agency or through agreement with other local certified elevator inspectors. An approved agency includes any individual, partnership, or corporation who has met the certification requirements established by the VCS.
C. Add the following sections to Chapter 6 of the IPMC:
1. Section 602.2.1 Prohibited use. In dwelling units subject to Section 602.2, one or more unvented room heaters shall not be used as the sole source of comfort heat in a dwelling unit.
2. Section 607.2 Clothes dryer exhaust duct. Required or provided clothes dryer exhaust systems shall be maintained in compliance with the code under which constructed.
13VAC5-63-545. Chapter 7 Fire safety requirements.
A. Delete the following sections from Chapter 7 of the IPMC:
1. Section 701.2 Responsibility.
2. Section 704.1.2 Fire department connection.
3. Section 704.2.1 Where required.
4. Section 704.2.1.1 Group R-1.
5. Section 704.2.1.2 Groups R-2, R-3, R-4, and I-1.
6. Section 704.2.1.3 Installation near cooking appliances.
7. Section 704.2.1.4 Installation near bathrooms.
8. Section 704.2.2 Interconnection.
9. Section 704.2.3 Power source.
10. Section 704.2.4 Smoke detection system.
B. Change the following sections in Chapter 7 of the IPMC:
1. Section 701.1 General. The provisions of this chapter shall govern the maintenance of fire safety facilities and equipment.
2. Section 702.2 Aisles. The required width of aisles shall be maintained in accordance with the code under which constructed.
3. Section 702.3 Doors. Means of egress doors shall be maintained and, to the extent required by the code in effect at the time of construction, shall be readily openable from the side from which egress is to be made without the need for keys, special knowledge, or effort.
4. Section 702.4 Emergency escape openings. Required emergency escape openings shall be maintained in accordance with the code in effect at the time of construction and to the extent required by the code in effect at the time of construction shall be operational from the inside of the room without the use of keys or tools. Bars, grilles, grates, or similar devices are permitted to be placed over emergency escape and rescue openings provided the minimum net clear opening size complies with the code that was in effect at the time of construction and such devices shall be releasable or removable from the inside without the use of a key, tool, or force greater than that which is required for normal operation of the escape and rescue opening.
5. Section 704.1 General. Systems, devices, and equipment to detect a fire, actuate an alarm, or suppress or control a fire or any combination thereof shall be maintained in an operable condition at all times.
6. Section 704.1.1 Automatic sprinkler systems. Inspection, testing, and maintenance of automatic sprinkler systems shall be in accordance with NFPA 25 for the purpose of operation and maintenance.
7. Section 704.2 Single-station and multiple-station smoke alarms. Required or provided single-station and multiple-station smoke alarms shall be maintained in compliance with the code under which they were constructed.
13VAC5-63-549. Chapter 8 Referenced standards.
Change the referenced standards in Chapter 8 of the IPMC as follows (standards not shown remain the same):
Standard reference number | Title | Referenced in code section number |
ASSE 5010-1013-1 | Field Test Procedure for a Reduced Pressure Principle Assembly Using a Differential Pressure Gauge, 1991 | 505.3.2 |
ASSE 5010-1015-1 | Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Valve Assembly Using a Duplex Gauge, 1991 | 505.3.2 |
ASSE 5010-1015-2 | Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Valve Assembly Using a Differential Pressure Gauge - High- and Low-Pressure Hose Method, 1991 | 505.3.2 |
ASSE 5010-1015-3 | Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Valve Assembly Using a Differential Pressure Gauge - High Pressure Hose Method, 1991 | 505.3.2 |
ASSE 5010-1015-4 | Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Valve Assembly Using a Site Tube, 1991 | 505.3.2 |
ASSE 5010-1020-1 | Field Test Procedures for a Pressure Vacuum Breaker Assembly, 1991 | 505.3.2 |
ASSE 5010-1047-1 | Field Test Procedure for a Reduced Pressure Detector Assembly Using a Differential Pressure Gauge, 1991 | 505.3.2 |
ASSE 5010-1048-1 | Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Detector Assembly Using a Duplex Gauge, 1991 | 505.3.2 |
ASSE 5010-1048-2 | Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Detector Assembly Using a Differential Pressure Gauge - High- and Low-Pressure Hose Method, 1991 | 505.3.2 |
ASSE 5010-1048-3 | Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Detector Assembly Using a Differential Pressure Gauge - High-Pressure Hose Method, 1991 | 505.3.2 |
ASSE 5010-1048-4 | Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Detector Assembly Using a Site Tube, 1991 | 505.3.2 |
CAN/CSA-B64.10-01 | Manual for the Selection and Installation of Backflow Prevention Devices/Manual for the Maintenance and Field Testing of Backflow Prevention Devices | 505.3.2 |
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (13VAC5-63)
International Code Council, Inc., 500 New Jersey Avenue, NW, 6th Floor, Washington, DC 20001-2070 (http://www.iccsafe.org/):
International Building Code - 2012 2015 Edition
International Energy Conservation Code - 2012 2015 Edition
International Existing Building Code - 2012 2015 Edition
International Fire Code - 2012 2015 Edition
International Fuel Gas Code - 2012 2015 Edition
International Mechanical Code - 2012 2015 Edition
International Property Maintenance Code - 2012 2015 Edition
International Plumbing Code - 2012 2015 Edition
International Residential Code for One- and Two-Family Dwellings - 2012 2015 Edition
International Swimming Pool and Spa Code - 2012 2015 Edition
International Zoning Code - 2015 Edition
ICC/ANSI A117.1‑09, Accessible and Usable Buildings and Facilities, Approved November 26, 2003
Air Conditioning Contractors of America, 2800 Shirlington Road, Suite 300, Arlington, VA 22206 (https://www.acca.org/):
Manual J-11, Residential Load Calculation, Eighth Edition
Manual S-04 S-13, Residential Equipment Selection
ACI 318-11 318-14, Building Code Requirements for Structural Concrete, American Concrete Institute, 38800 Country Club Drive, Farmington Hills, MI 48331 (http://www.concrete.org/)
American Petroleum Institute, 1220 L Street, NW, Washington, DC 20005-4070 (http://www.api.org/):
API 650-09, Welded Tanks for Oil Storage, Eleventh Edition, June 2007 (Addendum 1, November 2008, Addendum 2, November 2009, effective May 1, 2010)
API 653-09, Tank Inspection, Repair, Alteration, and Reconstruction
ANSI LC1/CSA 6.26-14, Fuel Gas Piping Systems Using Corrugated Stainless Steel Tubing (CSST), American National Standards Institute, 25 West 43rd Street, Fourth Floor, New York, NY 10036
ASHRAE 193-2010, Method of Test for Determining the Airtightness of HVAC Equipment, American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers, Inc., 1791 Tullie Circle, NE, Atlanta, GA 30329-2305 (https://www.ashrae.org/)
American Society of Testing Materials International, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshocken, PA 19428-2959 (http://www.astm.org/):
ASTM C199-84(2005) C199-84(2011), Standard Test Method for Pier Test for Refractory Mortar
ASTM C315-07 C315-07(2011), Standard Specification for Clay Flue Liners and Chimney Pots
ASTM C1261-07 C1261-10, Standard Specification for Firebox Brick for Residential Fireplaces
ASTM D1557-07 D1557-12, Standard Test Methods for Laboratory Compaction Characteristics of Soil Using Modified Effort (56,000 ft-lbf/ft3(2700 kN-m/m3))
ASTM E84-2013A, Test Methods for Surface Burning Characteristics of Building Materials
ASTM E90-90, Standard Test Method for Laboratory Measurement of Airborne Sound Transmission Loss of Building Partitions
ASTM E283-04, Standard Test Method for Determining Rate of Air Leakage Through Exterior Windows, Curtain Walls, and Doors Under Specified Pressure Differences Across the Specimen
ASTM E119-2012A, Standard Test Methods for Fire Tests of Building Construction and Materials
ASTM E329-02, Standard Specification for Agencies Engaged in the Testing and/or Inspection of Materials Used in Construction
ASTM F2006-10, Standard Safety Specification for Window Fall Prevention Devices for Nonemergency Escape (Egress) and Rescue (Ingress) Windows
ASTM F2090-08 F2090-10, Standard Specification for Window Fall Prevention Devices with Emergency Escape (Egress) Release Mechanisms
CAN/CSA-B64.10-01, Manual for the Selection and Installation of Backflow Prevention Devices/Manual for the Maintenance and Field Testing of Backflow Prevention Devices, June 2003, National Standards of Canada, 5060 Spectrum Way, Suite 100, Mississauga, Ontario, Canada L4W5N6 (http://www.csa.ca)
American Society of Mechanical Engineers, Three Park Avenue, New York, NY 10016-5990 (https://www.asme.org/):
ASME A17.1/CSA B44-2007 Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators
ASME A17.1/CSA B44-2010 A17.1/CSA B44-13, Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators
ASME A18.1-2011, Safety Standard for Platform Lifts and Stairway Chairlifts
American Society of Sanitary Engineering, 901 Canterbury Road, Suite A, Westlake, OH 44145 (http://www.asse-plumbing.org/):
ASSE 1010-2004, Performance Requirements for Water Hammer Arrestors
ASSE 1022-03, Performance Requirements for Backflow Preventer for Beverage Dispensing Equipment
ASSE 1024-04, Performance Requirements for Dual Check Valve Type Backflow Preventers (for Residential Supply Service or Individual Outlets)
ASSE 5010-1013-1, Field Test Procedure for a Reduced Pressure Principle Assembly Using a Differential Pressure Gauge, 1991
ASSE 5010-1015-1, Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Valve Assembly Using a Duplex Gauge, 1991
ASSE 5010-1015-2, Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Valve Assembly Using a Differential Pressure Gauge - High- and Low-Pressure Hose Method, 1991
ASSE 5010-1015-3, Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Valve Assembly Using a Differential Pressure Gauge - High Pressure Hose Method, 1991
ASSE 5010-1015-4, Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Valve Assembly Using a Site Tube, 1991
ASSE 5010-1020-1, Field Test Procedures for a Pressure Vacuum Breaker Assembly, 1991
ASSE 5010-1047-1, Field Test Procedure for a Reduced Pressure Detector Assembly Using a Differential Pressure Gauge, 1991
ASSE 5010-1048-1, Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Detector Assembly Using a Duplex Gauge, 1991
ASSE 5010-1048-2, Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Detector Assembly Using a Differential Pressure Gauge - High- and Low-Pressure Hose Method, 1991
ASSE 5010-1048-3, Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Detector Assembly Using a Differential Pressure Gauge - High-Pressure Hose Method, 1991
ASSE 5010-1048-4, Field Test Procedure for a Double Check Detector Assembly Using a Site Tube, 1991
ASCE/SEI 7-10, Minimum Design Loads for Buildings and Other Structures, American Society of Civil Engineers/Structural Engineering Institute, 1801 Alexander Bell Drive, Reston, VA 20191-4400 (http://www.asce.org/sei/)
National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park, Quincy, MA 02169-7471 (http://www.nfpa.org/):
NFPA 13-10 13-13, Installation of Sprinkler Systems
NFPA 13R-10 13R-13, Installation of Sprinkler Systems in Residential Occupancies Up to and Including Four Stories in Height
NFPA 13D-10, Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems in One- and Two-Family Dwellings and Manufactured Homes
NFPA 25-14, Standard for the Inspection, Testing and Maintenance of Water-Based Fire Protection Systems
NFPA 70-11 70-14, National Electrical Code
NFPA 72-10, National Fire Alarm Code
NFPA 91-15, Standard for Exhaust Systems for Air Conveying of Vapors, Mists and Particulate Solids
NFPA 105-10 105-13, Standard for the Installation of Smoke Door Assemblies
NFPA 285-06 285-12, Standard Method of Test for the Evaluation of Flammability Characteristics of Exterior Nonload-bearing Wall Assemblies Containing Combustible Components
NFPA 495-01 495-13, Explosive Materials Code
NFPA 701-10, Standard Methods of Fire Tests for Flame-propagation of Textiles and Films
NFPA 704-12, Standard System for the Identification of the Hazards of Materials for Emergency Response
NFPA 720-09 720-15, Standard for the Installation of Carbon Monoxide (CO) Detection and Warning Equipment
NSF 50-2009a, Equipment for Swimming Pools, Spas, Hot Tubs and Other Recreational Water Facilities, NSF International, 789 Dixboro Road, P.O. Box 130140, Ann Arbor, MI 48113 (http://nsf.org)
TFI RMIP-09, Aboveground Storage Tanks Containing Liquid Fertilizer, Recommended Mechanical Integrity Practices, December 2009, The Fertilizer Institute, 820 First Street, NE, Suite 430, Washington, DC 20002
Underwriters Laboratories, Inc., 333 Pfingsten Road, Northbrook, IL 60062 (http://www.ul.com):
UL 87A-12, Outline of Investigation for Power-Operated Dispensing Devices for Gasoline and Gasoline/ethanol Blends with Nominal Ethanol Concentrations up to 85 Percent
UL 294-2010, Access Control System Units (Fifth Edition-with revisions through September 17, 2010)
UL 217-06, Single- and Multiple-station Smoke Alarms-with revisions through April 2012
UL 723-2008, Standard for Test of Surface Burning Characteristics of Building Materials-with Revisions through September 2010
UL 762-2010, Outline of Investigation for Power Ventilators for Restaurant Exhaust Appliances
UL 1784-01, Air Leakage Tests of Door Assemblies, revised July 2009
UL 1978-2010, Grease Ducts
UL 2034-2008, Standard for Single and Multiple Station Carbon Monoxide Alarms, revised February 2009
UL 2075-2013, Gas and Vapor Detectors and Sensors (Second Edition, March 5, 2013)
Interim Remediation Guidance for Homes with Corrosion from Problem Drywall, April 2, 2010, Joint Report, Consumer Products Safety Commission and Department of Housing and Urban Development
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4664; Filed January 20, 2017, 2:39 p.m.
TITLE 13. HOUSING
BOARD OF HOUSING AND COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT
Proposed Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board
of Housing and Community Development is claiming an exemption from Article 2 of
the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4006 A 12 of the Code of
Virginia, which excludes regulations adopted by the Board of Housing and
Community Development pursuant to the Statewide Fire Prevention Code
(§ 27-94 et seq.), the Industrialized Building Safety Law (§ 36-70 et
seq.), the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.), and
§ 36-98.3 of the Code of Virginia, provided the board (i) provides a
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action in conformance with the provisions of
§ 2.2-4007.01, (ii) publishes the proposed regulation and provides an
opportunity for oral and written comments as provided in § 2.2-4007.03, and
(iii) conducts at least one public hearing as provided in §§ 2.2-4009 and
36-100 prior to the publishing of the proposed regulations.
Title of Regulation: 13VAC5-91. Virginia
Industrialized Building Safety Regulations (amending 13VAC5-91-160, 13VAC5-91-180,
13VAC5-91-200, 13VAC5-91-240, 13VAC5-91-260, 13VAC5-91-270).
Statutory Authority: § 36-73 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information:
May 15, 2017 - 10 a.m. - Virginia Housing Development
Authority Virginia Housing Center, 4224 Cox Road, Glen Allen, VA 23060
Public Comment Deadline: April 21, 2017.
Agency Contact: Elizabeth O. Rafferty, Policy and
Legislative Director, Department of Housing and Community Development, Main
Street Centre, 600 East Main Street, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone
(804) 371-7011, FAX (804) 371-7090, TTY (804) 371-7089, or email
elizabeth.rafferty@dhcd.virginia.gov.
Background: The Virginia Industrialized Building Safety
Regulations (IBSR) governs the in-factory construction of industrialized
buildings, which are also known as modular buildings. The regulations provide
the same standards for construction as those buildings constructed on site and
regulated by the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63). Both
regulations utilize nationally recognized model building codes and standards to
provide the technical requirements for the actual construction of the regulated
buildings. Every three years, new editions of the model codes become available.
At that time, the Board of Housing and Community Development initiates a
regulatory action to incorporate the newest editions of the model codes into
the regulation and accepts proposals for changes to the regulation from affected
client groups and the public. The Department of Housing and Community
Development staff maintains mailing lists for workgroups involving different
subject areas of regulation and conducts workgroup meetings to develop
consensus recommendations, when possible, concerning submitted proposals. The
department uses an online program incorporating the provisions of the
regulation and the model codes and standards to facilitate the submittal of
proposals. A public hearing is held during the workgroup meeting stage of the
process and a comment period established. Once workgroup meetings are
completed, the board holds a series of meetings to consider each proposal, and
the approved proposals are incorporated into the proposed regulation. After
publication of the proposed regulation, the board establishes a comment period
for the acceptance of comments on amendments reflected in the proposed
regulation, and an additional public hearing is held. The board then meets to
consider proposals and public comments and develops a final regulation to
complete the regulatory process.
Summary:
The proposed amendments to the IBSR are as follows:
13VAC5-91-160: Update the referenced model codes and
standards to the most recent editions available.
13VAC5-91-180: Remove a re-approval provision for
compliance assurance agencies that do the inspection and approval of
construction of industrialized buildings in the plants. Added in the last
update of the regulation, this requirement has proven to be burdensome and
unnecessary. The department, which administers the regulation, already has the
authority in other provisions of these subsections to review compliance
assurance agencies for continued compliance with all requirements applicable to
compliance assurance agencies and may revoke or suspend approvals if warranted.
13VAC5-91-200: Delete language authorizing the department's
administrator to consider whether the services provided by compliance assurance
agencies have been accepted by other jurisdictions. The phase "and by
other jurisdictions" is unclear since this is a state-administered
program.
13VAC5-91-240: Add language to permit a manufacturer to
apply an approval label on an industrialized building when authorized to do so
by a compliance assurance agency. The manufacturers and compliance assurance
agencies may work together to assure whatever process works best for them may
be used. The administrator has the authority to monitor the activities of both
the manufacturers and compliance assurance agencies and audit records to assure
that labels are not inappropriately handled.
13VAC5-91-260 E: Add language addressing the refunding of
fees for unused registration seals to clarify the process.
13VAC5-91-160. Use of model codes and standards.
A. Industrialized buildings produced entering the
production assembly line after the effective date of the 2012 2015
edition of this chapter shall comply with all applicable requirements of the
codes and standards listed in subsection B of this section except that the
following codes and standards may be used for one year industrialized
buildings entering the assembly line during a one-year period after the
effective date of the 2012 2015 edition of this chapter:
1. ICC International Building Code - 2009 2012
Edition
2. ICC International Plumbing Code - 2009 2012
Edition
3. ICC International Mechanical Code - 2009 2012
Edition
4. National Fire Protection Association Standard Number 70
(National Electrical Code) - 2008 2011 Edition
5. ICC International Fuel Gas Code - 2009 2012
Edition
6. ICC International Energy Conservation Code - 2009 2012
Edition
7. ICC International Residential Code - 2009 2012
Edition
B. The following documents are adopted and incorporated by
reference to be an enforceable part of this chapter:
1. ICC International Building Code - 2012 2015
Edition
2. ICC International Plumbing Code - 2012 2015
Edition
3. ICC International Mechanical Code - 2012 2015
Edition
4. National Electrical Code - 2011 2014 Edition
5. ICC International Fuel Gas Code - 2012 2015
Edition
6. ICC International Energy Conservation Code - 2012 2015
Edition
7. ICC International Residential Code - 2012 2015
Edition
Note: As the 2012 2015 editions of the
International Codes are incorporated by reference as the construction standards
for use with these regulations, this chapter is also referred to as the 2012
2015 edition of the Virginia Industrialized Building Safety Regulations
or the 2012 2015 edition of this chapter.
The codes and standards referenced above may be procured
from:
International Code Council, Inc.
500 New Jersey Avenue, NW, 6th Floor
Washington, DC 20001-2070
|
13VAC5-91-180. Compliance assurance agencies.
A. Application shall be made to the SBCO for acceptance as a
compliance assurance agency. Application shall be made under oath and shall be
accompanied by information and evidence that is adequate for the SBCO to
determine whether the applicant is specially qualified by reason of facilities,
personnel, experience, and demonstrated reliability to investigate, test,
and evaluate industrialized buildings for compliance with this chapter,
and to provide adequate follow-up and compliance assurance services at the
point of manufacture.
B. Following a determination by the SBCO that an application
is complete, the information contained in the application and any other
information deemed necessary by the SBCO will be reviewed for approval or
disapproval. If the application is approved, the applicant will be notified
with an approval letter for a two-year period from the date of the approval
letter. If the application is disapproved, the applicant will be notified
in writing of the reasons for the disapproval. The applicant may then resubmit
the application within 30 days of the receipt of the notification of
disapproval for reconsideration of approval.
C. Compliance assurance agencies that are already approved
by the SBCO at the time of the effective date of this provision shall have 90
days from the effective date of this provision to apply for reapproval in
accordance with subsections A and B of this section. Such agencies shall
continue to be approved while the SBCO evaluates the reapplication. Compliance
assurance agencies receiving an approval letter from the SBCO after the
effective date of this provision shall apply for reapproval within 90 days
prior to the expiration of the two-year approval period if continued approval
as a compliance assurance agency is desired.
D. The SBCO may suspend or revoke the approval of a
compliance assurance agency upon a determination that (i) approval or
reapproval was based upon fraudulent or inaccurate information, (ii) a change
in facts or circumstances renders the agency incapable of meeting its duties
and responsibilities as a compliance assurance agency in a satisfactory manner,
or (iii) the agency failed to discharge its duties and responsibilities as a
compliance assurance agency in a satisfactory manner. In such cases, the SBCO
will issue a suspension or revocation notice to the agency outlining the
reasons for the actions and the terms, if any, for reinstatement.
13VAC5-91-200. Information required by the administrator.
All of the following information and criteria will be
considered by the administrator in designating initial approval and
re-approval of compliance assurance agencies:
1. Names of officers and location of offices.
2. Specification and description of services proposed to be
furnished under this chapter.
3. Description of qualifications of personnel and their
responsibilities, including an assurance that personnel involved in system
analysis, design and plans review, and compliance assurance inspections,
and their supervisors comply with the requirements of the American Society for
Testing and Material (ASTM) Standard Number E541-08 - Standard Specification
for Agencies Engaged in System Analysis and Compliance Assurance for
Manufactured Building or shall obtain ICC or DHCD certifications in the
appropriate subject area within 18 months of employment and maintain such
certifications in an active status.
4. Summary of experience within the organization.
5. General description of procedures and facilities to be used
in proposed services, including evaluation of the model, factory follow-up,
quality assurance, labeling of production buildings, and specific information
to be furnished on or with labels.
6. Procedures to deal with any defective buildings resulting
from oversight.
7. Acceptance of these services by independent accrediting
organizations and by other jurisdictions.
8. Proof of independence and absence of conflict of interest.
The ASTM Standard Number
E541-08 may be procured from:
American Society for Testing
and Materials
100 Barr Harbor Drive
West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959
|
13VAC5-91-240. Control of compliance assurance agency
certification label.
The labels shall be under direct control of the compliance
assurance agency until and shall be applied by the
manufacturer to buildings that comply fully with this chapter. The
labels shall be applied by the compliance assurance agency or by the
manufacturer when authorized to do so by the compliance assurance agency.
The manufacturer shall place its order for labels with the compliance assurance
agency. The manufacturer is not permitted to acquire labels from any other
source. Each compliance assurance agency shall keep a list of the serial numbers
of labels issued to each manufacturer's plant in such manner that a copy of the
record can be submitted to the administrator upon request.
13VAC5-91-260. Registration seal for industrialized buildings.
A. Registered industrialized buildings shall be marked with
approved registration seals issued by the SBCO. The seals shall be applied to a
registered industrialized building intended for sale or use in Virginia prior
to the shipment of the building from the place of manufacture. The seals shall
be applied by the compliance assurance agency or by the manufacturer when
authorized to do so by the compliance assurance agency.
B. Registered industrialized buildings shall bear one
registration seal on each manufactured section or module, or, as an
alternative, the registration seal for each manufactured section or module may
be placed in one location in the completed building.
C. Approved registration seals shall be purchased by the
compliance assurance agency from the SBCO in advance of use. The fee for each registration
seal shall be $75, except that the fee for each registration seal for buildings
constructed as Group R-5 under Part I of the USBC shall be $50. Fees shall be
submitted by checks made payable to "Treasurer of Virginia" or shall
be submitted by electronic means. Payment for the seals must be received by the
SBCO before the seals can be sent to the user. The compliance assurance agency
shall maintain permanent records of seals purchased, including a record of any
manufacturers receiving such seals.
D. To the extent practicable, the registration seal shall be
installed so that it cannot be removed without destroying it. The seal shall be
applied in the vicinity of the electrical distribution panel or in another
location that is readily accessible for inspection and shall be installed near
the certification label.
E. Refunds of seals shall be in In accordance
with § 36-85.1 of the Code of Virginia, any person or corporation having
paid the fee for an approved registration seal that it will not use may, unless
and except as otherwise specifically provided, within one year from the date of
the payment of any such fee, apply to the administrator for a refund, in whole
or in part, of the fee paid; provided that no payment shall be recovered unless
the approved registration seal is returned unused and in good condition to the
administrator. An Additionally, as a requirement of this chapter,
an administrative and processing fee of 25% of the amount of the refund due
shall be deducted from the refund; however, such deduction shall not exceed
$250.
13VAC5-91-270. Manufacturer's installation instructions and
responsibilities of installers.
A. The manufacturer of each industrialized building shall
provide specifications or instructions, or both, with each building for
handling, installing, or erecting the building. Such instructions may be
included as part of the label from the compliance assurance agency or may be
furnished separately by the manufacturer of the building. The manufacturer
shall not be required to provide the foundation and anchoring equipment for the
industrialized building.
B. Persons or firms installing or erecting registered
industrialized buildings shall install or erect the building in accordance with
the manufacturer's instructions.
C. Where the installation or erection of an industrialized
building utilizes components that are to be concealed, the installer shall
notify and obtain approval from the building official prior to concealment of
such components unless the building official has agreed to an alternative
method of verification.
Note: The Virginia Department of Professional and
Occupational Regulation's Board for Contractors requires licenses for certain
activities related to the industrialized building industry. For more
information, contact the Board for Contractors at 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite
400, Richmond, VA 23233; (804) 367-8511.
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (13VAC5-91)
International Code Council, 500 New Jersey Avenue, NW, 6th
Floor, Washington, DC 20001-2070 (http://shop.iccsafe.org/codes.html):
ICC International Plumbing Code -- 2009 and 2012 and
2015 Editions
ICC International Mechanical Code -- 2009 and 2012 and
2015 Editions
ICC International Building Code -- 2009 and 2012 and
2015 Editions
ICC International Residential Code -- 2009 and 2012 and
2015 Editions
ICC International Fuel Gas Code -- 2009 and 2012 and
2015 Editions
ICC International Energy Conservation Code -- 2009 and
2012 and 2015 Editions
NFPA 70, National Electrical Code -- 2008 and 2011 and
2014 Editions, National Fire Protection Association, 1 Batterymarch Park,
Quincy, MA 02169-7471 (http://www.nfpa.org/)
ASTM Standard Number E541-08 -- Standard Specification for
Agencies Engaged in System Analysis and Compliance Assurance for Manufactured
Building, American Society for Testing and Materials, 100 Barr Harbor Drive,
West Conshohocken, PA 19428-2959 (http://www.astm.org/)
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4666; Filed January 20, 2017, 2:41 p.m.