TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
STATE BOARD OF ELECTIONS
Proposed Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The
State Board of Elections is claiming an exemption from the Administrative
Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 B 8 of the Code of Virginia, which
exempts agency action relating to the conduct of elections or eligibility to
vote.
Title of Regulation: 1VAC20-50. Candidate
Qualification (amending 1VAC20-50-20).
Statutory Authority: §§ 24.2-103 and 24.2-506 of the Code
of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information:
December 18, 2018 - 11:30 a.m. - Virginia State Capitol
Building, 1000 Bank Street, Senate Room 3, Richmond, VA 23219
Public Comment Deadline: December 17, 2018.
Agency Contact: David Nichols, Director of Election
Services, Department of Elections, 1100 Bank Street, Richmond, VA 23219,
telephone (804) 864-8952, or email david.nichols@elections.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The proposed amendments (i) make the candidate's petition
invalid if the candidate's residence address provided on the petition does not
match the candidate's voter registration record at the time of the petition's
circulation and (ii) permit the petition or signature to be determined valid
even if the signer fails to provide the year when signing the petition. The
proposed amendments add to the circumstances in which an omission will be
considered nonmaterial and will not render the petition or signature invalid.
The general registrar must still be able to independently and reasonably verify
the validity of the petition or signature.
1VAC20-50-20. Material omissions from candidate petitions and
petition signature qualifications.
A. Pursuant to the requirements of §§ 24.2-506,
24.2-521, and 24.2-543 of the Code of Virginia, a petition or a petition signature
should not be rendered invalid if it contains an error or omission not material
to its proper processing.
B. The following omissions are always material and any
petition containing such omissions shall be rendered invalid if:
1. The petition submitted is not the double-sided document, or
a double-sided copy thereof, provided by the State Board of Elections;
2. The petition does not have the name, or some variation of
the name, and address of the candidate on the front of the form;
3. The petition fails to identify the office sought on the
front of the form;
4. The petition fails to identify the applicable election
district in which the candidate is running for office;
5. The candidate's residence address provided on the
petition does not match the candidate's voter registration record at the time
of the petition's circulation;
6. The circulator has not signed the petition affidavit
and provided his current address;
6. 7. The circulator is a minor or a felon whose
voting rights have not been restored;
7. 8. The circulator has not signed the petition
he circulated in the presence of a notary;
8. 9. The circulator has not had a notary sign
the affidavit for each petition submitted;
9. 10. A person other than the circulator signed
the petition affidavit;
10. 11. The notary has not affixed a
photographically reproducible seal;
11. 12. The notary has not included his
registration number and commission expiration date; or
12. 13. Any combination of the scenarios of this
subsection exists.
C. The following omissions related to individual petition
signatures are always material and any petition signature containing such
omission shall be rendered invalid if:
1. The signer is not qualified to cast a ballot for the office
for which the petition was circulated;
2. The signer is also the circulator of the petition;
3. The signer provided an accompanying date that is subsequent
to the date upon which the notary signed the petition;
4. The signer did not sign the petition; or
5. The signer provided an address that does not match the
petition signer's address in the Virginia voter registration system, unless the
signer provided an address that is within the same precinct where a voter is
currently registered in the Virginia voter registration system, and the signer
can be reasonably identified as the same registered voter.
D. The following omissions shall be treated as nonmaterial
provided the general registrar can independently and reasonably verify the
validity of the petition or signature:
1. An older version of the petition is used (provided that the
information presented complies with current laws, regulations, and guidelines);
2. The "election information" including (i) county,
city, or town in which the election will be held; (ii) election type; and (iii)
date of election are omitted;
3. The name of the candidate and office sought are omitted
from the back of the petition;
4. The circulator has not provided the last four digits of his
social security number in the affidavit;
5. The signer omits his first name, provided he provides a
combination of his first or middle initials or a middle name and last name and
address that matches a qualified voter within the Virginia voter registration
system;
6. The signer provided a derivative of his legal name as his
first or middle name (e.g., "Bob" instead of "Robert");
7. The signer prints his name on the "Print" line
and prints his name on the "Sign" line; or
8. The signer fails to provide the date but a period of time
that qualifies can affirmatively be established with previous and subsequent
dates provided by other signers upon the petition page; or
9. The signer fails to provide the year when signing the
petition.
E. A signature upon a petition shall be included in the count
toward meeting the petition signature requirements only if:
1. The petition signer is a qualified voter who is maintained
on the Virginia voter registration system either (i) with active status or (ii)
with inactive status and qualified to vote for the office for which the
petition was circulated;
2. The signer provides his name; and
3. The signer provides an address that matches the petition
signer's address in the Virginia voter registration system, or the signer provided
an address that is within the same precinct where a voter is currently
registered in the Virginia voter registration system, and the signer can be
reasonably identified as the same registered voter.
VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5732; Filed October 25, 2018, 11:38 a.m.
TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
OFFICE OF THE STATE INSPECTOR GENERAL
Proposed Regulation
Title of Regulation: 1VAC42-30. Fraud and Abuse
Whistle Blower Reward Fund (adding 1VAC42-30-10 through 1VAC42-30-100).
Statutory Authority: § 2.2-3014 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: January 25, 2019.
Agency Contact: Mark Courtney, Regulatory Coordinator,
Office of the State Inspector General, 101 North 14th Street, 7th Floor,
Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 625-3255, FAX (804) 371-0165, or email
mark.courtney@osig.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 2.2-309 of the Code of Virginia outlines
the powers and duties of the State Inspector General, and subsection E of
§ 2.2-3014 of the Code of Virginia requires the Office of the State
Inspector General (OSIG) to promulgate regulations for the administration of
the Fraud and Abuse Whistle Blower Reward Fund.
Purpose: The proposed regulations (i) provide direction
to state agency employees and citizens for reporting instances of fraud or
abuse within executive branch agencies; (ii) encourage state agency employees
and citizens of the Commonwealth to report instances of fraud, abuse, or other
wrongdoing committed within executive branch agencies and nonstate agencies or
by independent contractors of state agencies; (iii) provide resources to pay
monetary rewards to state agency employees and citizens who provide relevant
information to the OSIG that results in recovery of funds on behalf of the
Commonwealth; and (iv) provide statutory protection for state employees and
citizens who report instances of abuse or wrongdoing from discrimination or
retaliation by state agencies.
Substance: The proposed regulation defines the Fraud and
Abuse Whistle Blower Reward Fund and its administration by the Office of the
State Inspector General, including fund eligibility requirements, fund amount,
fund distribution, process for leftover fund moneys at the end of the fiscal
year, and the establishment of the fund on the books of the Comptroller,
including:
Providing information on the Whistle Blower Protection Act and
Whistle Blower Reward Fund; definitions for technical terms in regulations and
how technical terms apply to Whistle Blower Reward Fund; and guidelines for
reporting instances of alleged fraud, waste, or other wrongdoing in state
government executive branch agencies.
Explaining OSIG's role in administering the Whistle Blower
Protection Act (WBPA) Program and the Whistle Blower Reward Fund and how OSIG
will communicate information about and advertise the WBPA Program and the
Whistle Blower Reward Fund.
Explaining the process OSIG staff follows when a whistle blower
allegation under the WBPA Program is received and when investigating a whistle
blower allegation.
Explaining the structure of the Whistle Blower Reward Fund and
what happens to its moneys; how payments from the Whistle Blower Reward Fund are
made to whistle blowers and defining those payments; what legal protections
whistle blowers have as a result of the WBPA, including antiretaliation
provisions; and the annual report OSIG must provide the General Assembly and
the Governor concerning the WBPA Program and the Whistle Blower Reward Fund.
Issues: The advantages of the proposed regulation is
that it will provide direction to all citizens of the Commonwealth of Virginia,
including state employees, for reporting instances of fraud or abuse within
executive branch agencies.
All moneys recovered by the State Inspector General as the
result of whistle blower activity and alerts originating with OSIG shall be
deposited in the fund (85% of all sums recovered shall be remitted to the
institutions or governmental agencies on whose behalf the recovery was secured
unless otherwise directed by a court of law). Interest earned on moneys in the
fund shall remain in the fund and be credited to it. Any moneys remaining in
the fund, including interest thereon, at the end of each fiscal year shall not
revert to the general fund but shall remain in the fund.
Moneys in the fund shall be used solely to (i) provide monetary
rewards to persons who have disclosed information of wrongdoing or abuse and
the disclosure results in a recovery of at least $5,000 or (ii) support the
administration of the fund, defray fund advertising costs, or subsidize the
operation of the Fraud, Waste and Abuse Hotline.
There are no anticipated disadvantages to the public or the
Commonwealth.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to
Virginia Code § 2.2-3014, the Office of the State Inspector General (OSIG)
proposes to promulgate this regulation in order to set out administrative
procedures and rules for the Fraud and Abuse Whistle Blower Reward Fund (Fund).
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. The Fraud and Abuse Whistle Blower
Protection Act (Act)1 was enacted in 2009 in order to protect
executive branch state employee whistle blowers from discrimination or
retaliation by their employing agency, other state agencies, or independent
contractors of state agencies. The Act also established the Fund in order to
provide monetary rewards to whistle blowers who have disclosed information of
wrongdoing or abuse described under the Act. Chapter 403 of the 2014 Acts of
Assembly2 expanded the protections of the Fraud and Abuse Whistle
Blower Protection Act to all Virginia citizens, and made Virginian whistle
blowers not employed by the Commonwealth eligible for an award from the Fund.
Chapter 316 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly3 added independent state
agencies as agencies covered by the Act. Finally, Chapter 292 of the 2016 Acts
of Assembly4 made the Act applicable to local government and public
school divisions as well.
The promulgation of this regulation is beneficial in that it
makes procedures and requirements more transparent for potential whistle blowers
and employers. The regulation does not introduce new costs. Thus, the proposed
regulation will create a net benefit.
If the primary purpose of the Fund is to increase the
likelihood that instances of fraud, abuse, or other wrongdoing is reported, then
it may be advisable to eliminate the residency requirement. Individuals may be
reluctant to report their superiors within an agency while working there but be
more willing to report once they leave that job for one perhaps out of state.
Additionally, employees of an out-of-state firm that has a contract with a
Virginia agency could potentially be encouraged to report fraud if they were
eligible for a reward. The 2014 legislation does limit fund awards to
Commonwealth residents. Therefore, OSIG does not have discretion to change that
in this regulation.
Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed regulation
potentially affects all executive branch and independent state agencies, local
governments, public school divisions, and independent contractors of these
entities.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed regulation does
not disproportionately affect particular localities.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed regulation is
unlikely to significantly affect total employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
regulation is unlikely to significantly affect the use and value of private
property.
Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed regulation is
unlikely to affect real estate development costs.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The proposed regulation is unlikely to
significantly affect costs for small businesses.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed
regulation does not adversely affect small businesses.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. The proposed regulation does not adversely affect
businesses.
Localities. The proposed regulation does not adversely affect
localities.
Other Entities. The proposed regulation does not adversely
affect other entities.
_______________________________
1See http://lis.virginia.gov/cgi-bin/legp604.exe?091+ful+CHAP0340
2See http://leg1.state.va.us/cgi-bin/legp504.exe?141+ful+CHAP0403
3See http://lis.virginia.gov/cgi-bin/legp604.exe?151+ful+CHAP0316
4See http://lis.virginia.gov/cgi-bin/legp604.exe?161+ful+CHAP0292
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
Office of the State Inspector General concurs with the economic impact
analysis.
Summary:
The proposed regulation defines the Fraud and Abuse Whistle
Blower Reward Fund and its administration by the Office of the State Inspector
General, including (i) eligibility requirements, (ii) amount and distribution,
(iii) process for leftover moneys at the end of the fiscal year, and (iv) the
fund's establishment on the books of the Comptroller.
CHAPTER 30
FRAUD AND ABUSE WHISTLE BLOWER
REWARD FUND
1VAC42-30-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter
shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates
otherwise:
"Abuse" means an employer's or employee's
conduct or omissions that result in substantial misuse, destruction, waste, or
loss of funds or resources belonging to or derived from federal, state, or
local government sources.
"Commonwealth" means the Commonwealth of
Virginia.
"Disclosure" means a voluntary formal or
informal communication or transmission of (i) any violation of any law, rule,
or regulation; (ii) gross mismanagement; (iii) a gross waste of funds; (iv) an
abuse of authority; or (v) a substantial and specific danger to public health
or safety.
"Employee" means any individual who is employed
on either a salaried or wage basis, whose tenure is not restricted as to temporary
or provisional appointment, in the service of and whose compensation is payable
no more often than biweekly in whole or in part by a Virginia governmental
agency.
"Employer" means a person supervising one or
more employees, including the employee filing a good faith report, a superior
of that supervisor, or an agent of the governmental agency.
"Executive branch agency" or "agency"
means any agency, institution, board, bureau, commission, council, public
institution of higher education, or instrumentality of state government in the
executive department listed in the appropriation act.
"Fraud" means the intentional deception
perpetrated by an individual or an organization, either internal or external to
state government, that could result in a tangible or intangible benefit to
themselves, others, or the Commonwealth, including local government, or could
cause detriment to others or the Commonwealth. Fraud includes a false
representation of the facts, whether by words or by conduct. Fraud also includes
false or misleading statements, the concealment of essential information, or
information or actions that deceive or are intended to deceive.
"Fraud and Abuse Whistle Blower Protection Act
Program" or "WBPA Program" means the policy of the Commonwealth
that Commonwealth citizens and employees of state government are freely able to
report instances of wrongdoing or abuse committed by their employing agency,
other state agencies, or independent contractors of state agencies.
"Fraud and Abuse Whistle Blower Reward Fund" or
"fund" means the fund used solely to provide monetary rewards to
Commonwealth citizens who have disclosed information of wrongdoing or abuse
under the WBPA Program that results in a recovery of at least $5,000.
"Good faith report" means a reported incident of
possible wrongdoing or abuse made without malice, for which the person
reporting has reasonable cause to believe wrongdoing or abuse occurred.
"Governmental agency" means (i) any agency,
institution, board, bureau, commission, council, or instrumentality of state
government in the executive branch listed in the appropriation act and any
independent agency; (ii) any county, city, town, or local or regional
governmental authority; and (iii) any local school division as defined in § 22.1-280.2:2
of the Code of Virginia.
"Hotline coordinator" means a qualified
employee, designated by a governmental agency director or chief administrator,
responsible for conducting State Fraud, Waste and Abuse Hotline investigations
referred to the agency by OSIG.
"Internal audit director" means a director of a
governmental agency internal audit program.
"Misconduct" means conduct or behavior by an
employee that is inconsistent with state, local, or agency standards for which
specific corrective or disciplinary action is warranted.
"Nonstate agency" means any public or private
foundation, authority, institute, museum, corporation, or similar organization
that is (i) not a unit of state government or a political subdivision of the
Commonwealth as established by general law or special act and (ii) wholly or
principally supported by state funds. "Nonstate agency" shall not
include any such entity that receives state funds (a) as a subgrantee of a
state agency; (b) through a state grant-in-aid program authorized by law; (c)
as a result of an award of a competitive grant or a public contract for the
procurement of goods, services, or construction; or (d) pursuant to a lease of
real property as described in subdivision 5 of § 2.2-1149 of the Code of
Virginia.
"Office of the State Inspector General" or
"OSIG" means the governmental agency that conducts independent
investigations, performance audits, and other services designed to provide
objective and useful information to the Commonwealth and those charged with its
governance and promotes efficiency and effectiveness in state government
executive branch agencies in accordance with Article 1 (§ 2.2-307 et seq.)
of Chapter 13.2 of the Code of Virginia.
"Public body" means any legislative body; any
authority, board, bureau, commission, district, agency, or political
subdivision of the Commonwealth, including counties, cities, towns, city
councils, boards of supervisors, school boards, planning commissions, and
boards of visitors of institutions of higher education; and other
organizations, corporations, or agencies in the Commonwealth supported wholly
or principally by public funds. "Public body" includes any committee,
subcommittee, or other entity however designated of the public body or formed
to advise the public body, including those with private sector or citizen
members and corporations organized by the Virginia Retirement System. For the
purposes of this chapter, the term "public body" does not include the
courts of the Commonwealth.
"Reward" means a monetary benefit payable from
the fund by OSIG to an eligible whistle blower.
"Screening process" means OSIG's internal review
to ensure reports of information or disclosures of wrongdoing fall within the
authority of the WBPA Program.
"State Fraud, Waste and Abuse Hotline" or
"hotline" means the program (i) that provides Commonwealth citizens
with a confidential and anonymous method to report suspected occurrences of
fraud, waste, and abuse in state agencies and institutions and (ii) that
provides the Commonwealth a way to investigate such occurrences to determine
their validity and make appropriate recommendations to address deficiencies.
"Whistle blower" means a Commonwealth employee
or citizen who witnesses or has evidence of wrongdoing or abuse and who makes a
good faith, open, and public report of the wrongdoing or abuse to one of the
employee's superiors, an agent of the employer, or an appropriate authority.
"Wrongdoing" means a violation, which is not of
a merely technical or minimal nature, of a federal or state law or regulation
or a formally adopted code of conduct or ethics of a professional organization
designed to protect the interests of the public or an employee.
"Wrongdoing" includes (i) any violation of any law, rule, or
regulation; (ii) gross mismanagement; (iii) a gross waste of funds; (iv) an
abuse of authority; or (v) a substantial and specific danger to public health
or safety.
1VAC42-30-20. Office of the State Inspector General
responsibilities.
A. OSIG is responsible for administering the WBPA Program
and fund and the following tasks:
1. Notifying annually Commonwealth employees, citizens, and
governmental bodies, including state agencies, of the WBPA Program and fund
regulations and procedures for submitting information regarding wrongdoing or abuse.
2. Protecting the identity of Commonwealth employees and
citizens who make allegations of wrongdoing or abuse through the WBPA Program.
OSIG will keep this information confidential to the extent allowed by law.
3. Conducting appropriate investigations and preparing
official reports.
4. Receiving and evaluating fund claims.
5. Ensuring payment of approved fund moneys to whistle
blowers.
6. Submitting an annual report on WBPA Program activities
to the Governor and General Assembly.
7. Notifying individuals making allegations of the possible
incentives as a result of moneys recovered and available through the fund.
B. OSIG is responsible for assigning, coordinating, and
investigating alleged wrongdoing or abuse reported to OSIG under the WBPA
Program. OSIG may work with executive branch agency internal audit directors,
executive branch agency hotline coordinators, or representatives of public
bodies when performing WBPA Program investigations.
1VAC42-30-30. Fraud and Abuse Whistle Blower Protection Act
Program and Reward Fund notification.
A. Annually, the State Inspector General will communicate
with all state agency heads. The communication will:
1. Publicize the WBPA Program and fund.
2. Explain the protections afforded to individuals who
report instances of wrongdoing or abuse committed within executive branch
agencies and nonstate agencies.
3. Notify state agency heads of relevant statutory
amendments or program changes.
4. Contain the requirements for reporting allegations to
OSIG and the incentives under the WBPA Program.
5. Clarify pertinent differences between the WBPA Program
and the hotline regarding the rules governing anonymity and confidentiality.
6. Provide available materials to assist agency heads in
promoting the WBPA Program and fund, as well as available training for
Commonwealth employees regarding the WBPA Program and fund.
B. Annually, OSIG will publicize the WBPA Program and fund
on the OSIG website and to Commonwealth citizens through the distribution of a
news release to Virginia media, as well as to state employees through an
electronic communication in partnership with the Department of Human Resource
Management. The communication will:
1. Contain the requirements for reporting allegations to
OSIG and the incentives under the WBPA Program.
2. Clarify pertinent differences between the WBPA Program
and the hotline regarding the rules governing anonymity and confidentiality.
1VAC42-30-40. Reporting alleged fraud, abuse, or wrongdoing.
A. A Commonwealth employee or citizen with an allegation
of wrongdoing or abuse under the WBPA Program may contact OSIG by phone, email,
online complaint form, United States Postal Service, or FAX.
B. OSIG staff is available to advise citizens on what to
report that meets the definition of wrongdoing or abuse.
C. If an investigation results in recoverable funds, and
the whistle blower seeks to file a fund claim under the WBPA Program, the
whistle blower will be required to provide his name and lawful residence.
While not anonymous, OSIG will keep this information
confidential to the extent allowed by law.
1VAC42-30-50. Office of the State Inspector General receipt
of an allegation.
A. Allegations of wrongdoing or abuse received by OSIG
undergo the hotline screening process.
B. Allegations submitted by an individual who is not a
Commonwealth employee or citizen will be referred to the appropriate
governmental agency or organization.
C. If the agency or organization reported is not an
executive branch or independent state agency or entity or a local governmental
agency or entity or school division, the information will be forwarded to that
entity where possible for informational purposes only.
1VAC42-30-60. Allegation investigative process.
A. OSIG will prepare a detailed written summary that
describes the allegation of wrongdoing or abuse submitted through the WBPA
Program.
B. The hotline manager or designee will create a
confidential tracking number for each case and assign it for formal
investigation.
C. OSIG will monitor the progress of each investigation
and provide the State Inspector General with regular status updates of the
assignment.
D. Upon completion of an investigation, the investigator
will prepare and submit a case report for management review and approval. When
appropriate, recommendations for corrective action to address procedural
deficiencies disclosed during the investigation will be included in the case
report.
E. Formal case reports will describe all financial
recovery realized on behalf of the Commonwealth as a result of the information
received from the whistle blower and the subsequent investigation.
F. Case reports will be forwarded to the State Inspector
General for review. Upon authorization by the State Inspector General, the
investigator will prepare an executive summary that recaps the findings of the
investigation, the recommendations, the recovery of funds, and the status of
applicable fund claims. Upon signature approval of the State Inspector General,
the executive summary will be forwarded to the subject state executive branch
agency head, respective secretariat, and the Chief of Staff of the Governor.
1VAC42-30-70. Nonreverting fund.
A. OSIG will coordinate with the State Comptroller to
establish a special nonreverting fund.
B. The fund will be established on the books of the State
Comptroller and administered by the State Inspector General.
C. All moneys recovered by an OSIG investigation as a
result of whistle blower activity shall be deposited in the fund.
D. Except for the moneys described in subsection F of this
section, moneys remaining in the fund at the end of each fiscal year, including
interest, shall not revert to the general fund, but shall remain in the fund.
E. Moneys in the fund shall solely be used to:
1. Provide monetary rewards to Commonwealth employees and
citizens who have disclosed information of wrongdoing or abuse under the WBPA
Program (§ 2.2-3009 et seq. of the Code of Virginia), and the disclosure
resulted in a recovery of at least $5,000.
2. Support the administration of the fund, defray fund
advertising costs, or subsidize the operation of the hotline.
F. Per the State Inspector General's authorization by the
end of each calendar quarter, 85% of all sums recovered by an OSIG
investigation will be remitted to the institutions or agencies concerned,
unless otherwise directed by a court of law.
1VAC42-30-80. Fund payments to whistle blowers.
A. Within 10 working days, excluding state holidays and
weekends, of the closing of a WBPA Program investigation that verifies a final
recovery and deposit in the fund of $5,000 or more, the State Inspector General
will review and certify the fund claim. Within five working days after the
State Inspector General's verification, the whistle blower will be notified of
the award amount he is eligible to receive. Upon approval of the fund claim,
the State Inspector General will submit a written request to the State
Comptroller to make a reward payment from the fund to the whistle blower.
B. The State Treasurer will make reward payments from the
fund based on a warrant issued by the State Comptroller and a written request
signed by the State Inspector General.
C. Award amounts.
1. The amount of the fund reward shall be up to 10% of the
actual sums recovered by the Commonwealth as a result of the disclosure of the
wrongdoing or abuse.
2. OSIG will consider many factors in determining the
amount of an award based on the unique facts and circumstances of each case.
OSIG may increase the award percentage up to the maximum allowed based on the
following factors: (i) the significance of the information provided to OSIG to
the success of any proceeding brought against wrongdoers; (ii) the extent of
the assistance provided to OSIG in its investigation and any resulting
findings; (iii) OSIG's law-enforcement interest in deterring violations of the
applicable laws by making awards to whistle blowers who provide information
that leads to the successful enforcement of these laws; and (iv) whether and
the extent to which the whistle blower participated in his agency's internal
compliance systems, such as, for example, reporting the possible violations
through internal whistle blower, legal, or compliance procedures, before or at
the same time the possible violations were reported to OSIG.
3. OSIG may reduce the amount of an award based on the
following: (i) if the whistle blower was a participant in or culpable for the
violations reported; (ii) if the whistle blower unreasonably delayed reporting
the violations to OSIG; and (iii) if the whistle blower interfered with his
agency's internal compliance and reporting systems, such as, for example,
making false statements to the compliance department that hindered its efforts
to investigate possible wrongdoing or abuse.
4. The amount of the reward will not exceed the balance of
the fund, regardless of the sums recovered.
5. In the event that multiple whistle blowers have
simultaneously reported the same fund-eligible occurrence of wrongdoing or
abuse, the fund moneys may be split up to 10% among the whistle blowers at the
State Inspector General's discretion. The State Inspector General's decision regarding
the allocation of fund moneys is final and binding upon all parties and cannot
be appealed.
6. The request for payment will include the name and
address of the whistle blower and the payment amount. OSIG will provide
documentation supporting the amount of the payment to the State Comptroller.
7. Once approved, the State Comptroller shall forward the
request to Finance and Administration of the Department of Accounts (DOA) with
a request that Finance and Administration process the payment to the whistle
blower.
8. DOA will ensure the amount of the fund reward is
properly included in the whistle blower's federal and state tax records (i.e.,
W-2 for employees; 1099 for Commonwealth citizens).
9. OSIG will confirm that DOA processes the fund request
and that the reward payment is made to the whistle blower for the amount
approved by the State Inspector General.
D. Five percent of all sums recovered on behalf of the
Commonwealth will be retained in the fund to support the administration of the
fund, defray advertising costs, and subsidize the operation of the hotline.
Expenditures for administrative costs for management of the fund will be
approved by the State Inspector General.
1VAC42-30-90. Whistle blower protections.
A. Employee protections.
1. No employer may discharge, threaten, or otherwise
discriminate or retaliate against a whistle blower, whether acting individually
or under the direction of another individual.
2. No employer may discharge, threaten, or otherwise
discriminate or retaliate against a whistle blower who is requested or
subpoenaed by an appropriate authority to participate in an investigation,
hearing, or inquiry.
3. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit an employer from
disciplining or discharging a whistle blower for misconduct or violation of
criminal law.
4. If an employee has, in good faith, exhausted existing
internal procedures for reporting and seeking recovery of falsely claimed sums
through official channels, and if the Commonwealth failed to act on the
information provided in a reasonable period of time, no court shall have
jurisdiction over an action brought under § 8.01-216.5 of the Code of Virginia
based on information discovered by a present or former employee of the
Commonwealth during the course of his employment.
5. Any whistle blower covered by the state grievance
procedure may initiate a grievance alleging retaliation for reporting
wrongdoing or abuse through the WBPA Program and may request relief throughout
that procedure.
B. Commonwealth citizen protections.
1. No governmental agency may threaten or otherwise
discriminate or retaliate against a citizen whistle blower because the whistle
blower is requested or subpoenaed by an appropriate authority to participate in
an investigation, hearing, or inquiry.
2. Except for the provisions of § 2.2-3011 E of the Code of
Virginia, the WBPA Program does not limit the remedies provided by the Virginia
Fraud Against Taxpayers Act (§ 8.01-216.1 et seq. of the Code of
Virginia).
C. Protection against discrimination and retaliation -
good faith required.
1. To be protected by the provisions of this chapter, an
employee or Commonwealth citizen who discloses information about suspected
wrongdoing or abuse shall do so in good faith and upon a reasonable belief
information provided is accurate.
2. Reckless disclosures or disclosures the employee or
citizen knows or should have known were false, confidential by law, or
malicious are not deemed good faith reports and are not protected.
1VAC42-30-100. Whistle Blower Protection Act Program and
Reward Fund annual report.
A. OSIG shall submit an annual report to the Governor and
the General Assembly of Virginia summarizing the activities of the fund.
B. OSIG will provide a copy
of the WBPA Program annual report to the Chief of Staff to the Governor, the
Secretary of Finance, and the State Comptroller.
VA.R. Doc. No. R16-4186; Filed November 6, 2018, 1:11 p.m.
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
MARINE RESOURCES COMMISSION
Emergency Regulation
Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-720. Pertaining to
Restrictions on Oyster Harvest (amending 4VAC20-720-40, 4VAC20-720-70,
4VAC20-720-80).
Statutory Authority: §§ 28.2-201 and 28.2-210 of the
Code of Virginia.
Effective Dates: November 12, 2018, through December 11,
2018.
Agency Contact: Jennifer Farmer, Regulatory Coordinator,
Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor, Newport News,
VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248, or email jennifer.farmer@mrc.virginia.gov.
Preamble:
The amendments (i) adjust the open dates of Rappahannock
River Rotation Area 3 to close harvest by patent tong on November 11, 2018, and
open harvest by hand scrape from November 12, 2018, through January 10, 2019;
and (ii) lower the limit in the patent tong areas to eight bushels per licensed
harvester per day and 16 bushels per vessel per day.
4VAC20-720-40. Open oyster harvest season and areas.
A. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest oysters
from public and unassigned grounds outside of the seasons and areas set forth
in this section.
B. It shall be unlawful to harvest clean cull oysters from
the public oyster grounds and unassigned grounds except during the lawful
seasons and from the lawful areas as described in the following subdivisions
of this subsection.
1. James River Seed Area, including the Deep Water Shoal State
Replenishment Seed Area: October 1, 2018, through April 30, 2019.
2. Milford Haven: December 1, 2018, through February 28, 2019.
3. Rappahannock River Area 9: November 1, 2018, through
December 31, 2018.
4. Little Wicomico River: October 1, 2018, through December
31, 2018.
5. Coan River Area: October 1, 2018, through December 31,
2018.
6. Yeocomico River Area: October 1, 2018, through December 31,
2018.
7. Nomini Creek Area: October 1, 2018, through December 31,
2018.
8. Mobjack Bay Area: February 1, 2019, through February 28,
2019.
9. Rappahannock River Rotation Area 3: November 1, 2018,
through November 30 11, 2018 (patent tong only), and January
1, 2019, through February 28 November 12, 2018, through January 10,
2019 (hand scrape only).
10. Rappahannock River Rotation Area 5: October 1, 2018,
through November 30, 2018.
11. Great Wicomico River Rotation Area 2: December 1, 2018,
through December 31, 2018, and February 1, 2019, through February 28, 2019.
12. Upper Chesapeake Bay - Blackberry Hangs Area: December 1,
2018, through December 31, 2018, and February 1, 2019, through February 28,
2019.
13. James River Hand Scrape Areas 1 and 3: November 1, 2018,
through January 31, 2019.
14. James River Hand Scrape Area 2: October 1, 2018, through
December 31, 2018.
15. Pocomoke Sound Rotation Area 2: December 1, 2018, through
January 31, 2019.
16. Tangier Sound Rotation Area 2: December 1, 2018, through
February 28, 2019.
17. Pocomoke Sound Area: November 1, 2018, through November
30, 2018.
18. Rappahannock River Area 8: October 1, 2018, through
October 31, 2018 (patent tong only), and December 1, 2018, through December 31,
2018 (hand scrape only).
19. Deep Rock Area: December 1, 2018, through February 28,
2019.
20. Seaside of the Eastern Shore (for clean cull oysters
only): November 1, 2018, through March 31, 2019.
C. It shall be unlawful to harvest seed oysters from the
public oyster grounds or unassigned grounds, except during the lawful seasons.
The harvest of seed oysters from the lawful areas is described in the
following subdivisions of this subsection.
1. James River Seed Area: October 1, 2018, through May 31,
2019.
2. Deep Water Shoal State Replenishment Seed Area: October 1,
2018, through May 31, 2019.
4VAC20-720-70. Gear restrictions.
A. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest oysters in
the James River Seed Area, including the Deep Water Shoal State Replenishment
Seed Area, the Rappahannock River Area 9, Milford Haven, Little Wicomico River,
Coan River Area, Nomini Creek Area and Yeocomico River Area, except by hand
tong. It shall be unlawful for any person to have a hand scrape on board a boat
that is harvesting or attempting to harvest oysters from public grounds by hand
tong.
B. It shall be unlawful to harvest oysters by any gear from
the seaside of the Eastern Shore except by hand or hand tong. It shall be
unlawful to harvest oysters that are not submerged at mean low water by any
gear other than by hand.
C. It shall be unlawful to harvest oysters in the following
areas by any gear except by hand scrape: Rappahannock River Rotation Area 3,
from January 1 November 12, 2018, through February 28 January
10, 2019; Rappahannock River Area 5, from October 1, 2018, through November
30, 2018; James River Hand Scrape Areas 1 and 3, from November 1, 2018, through
January 31, 2019; James River Hand Scrape Area 2, from October 1, 2018, through
December 31, 2018; Upper Chesapeake Bay - Blackberry Hangs Area, from December
1, 2018, through December 31, 2018, and February 1, 2019, through February 28,
2019; Mobjack Bay Area, from February 1, 2019, through February 28, 2019;
Pocomoke Sound Area, from November 1, 2018, through November 30, 2018; and
Great Wicomico River Areas, from December 1, 2018, through December 31, 2018
and February 1, 2019, through February 28, 2019.
D. It shall be unlawful to harvest oysters from the following
areas by any gear except an oyster patent tong: Rappahannock River Rotation
Area 3, from November 1, 2018, through November 30 11, 2018, and
Rappahannock River Rotation Area 8, from October 1, 2018, through October 31,
2018.
E. It shall be unlawful for any person to have more than one
hand scrape on board his vessel while he is harvesting oysters or attempting to
harvest oysters from public grounds. It shall be unlawful for any person to
have a hand tong on board his vessel while he is harvesting or attempting to
harvest oysters from public grounds by hand scrape.
F. It shall be unlawful to harvest oysters from the Pocomoke
and Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 2, except by an oyster dredge.
G. It shall be unlawful to harvest oysters from the Deep Rock
Area, except by an oyster patent tong.
4VAC20-720-80. Quotas and harvest limits.
A. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a
valid commercial fisherman's registration license and a valid gear license
required for any harvest area, as described in 4VAC20-720-75, and has not paid
the current year's oyster resource user fee to harvest or possess any oysters
for commercial purposes. Any individual who possesses a valid hand scrape or
dredge license and has paid the oyster resource user fee as described in this
subsection shall be limited to a maximum harvest of eight bushels per day. It
shall be unlawful for any vessel to exceed a daily vessel limit of 16 bushels
clean cull oysters harvested from the areas described in 4VAC20-720-40 B 8
through 18 when the vessel is using the hand scrape or oyster dredge.
B. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a
valid commercial fisherman's registration license and a valid gear license
required for any harvest area, as described in 4VAC20-720-75, and has not paid
the current year's oyster resource user fee to harvest or possess any oysters
for commercial purposes. Any individual who possesses a valid hand or hand tong
license and has paid the oyster resource user fee as described in this
subsection shall be limited to a maximum harvest of 12 bushels per day. It
shall be unlawful for any vessel to exceed a daily vessel limit for clean cull
oysters harvested from the areas described in 4VAC20-720-40 B 2 through 7 and
20, whereby that vessel limit shall equal the number of registered commercial
fisherman licensees on board the vessel who hold a valid gear license and have
paid the oyster resource user fee multiplied by 12.
C. It shall be unlawful for any vessel to exceed a daily
vessel limit for clean cull oysters harvested from the areas described in
4VAC20-720-40 B 1, whereby that vessel limit shall equal the number of
registered commercial fisherman licensees on board the vessel who hold a valid
gear license and who have paid the oyster resource user fee multiplied by 12.
It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a valid commercial
fisherman's registration license and hold a valid gear license required for any
harvest area, as described in 4VAC20-720-75, and has not paid the current
year's oyster resource user fee to harvest or possess any oysters for
commercial purposes. Any individual who possesses the valid licenses and has
paid the oyster resource user fee as described in this subsection shall be
limited to a maximum harvest of 12 bushels per day.
D. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a
valid commercial fisherman's registration license and a valid gear license
required for any harvest area as described in 4VAC20-720-75 and has not paid
the current year's oyster resource user fee to harvest or possess any oysters
for commercial purposes. Any individual who possesses a valid patent tong
license and has paid the oyster resource user fee as described in this
subsection shall be limited to a maximum harvest of 10 eight
bushels per day. It shall be unlawful for any vessel to exceed a daily vessel
limit of 20 16 bushels of clean cull oysters harvested from the
areas described in 4VAC20-720-40 B when the vessel is using patent tongs.
E. In the Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 2, no
blue crab bycatch is allowed. It shall be unlawful to possess on board any
vessel more than 250 hard clams.
VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5738; Filed November 1, 2018, 12:48 p.m.
TITLE 6. CRIMINAL JUSTICE AND CORRECTIONS
BOARD OF CORRECTIONS
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 6VAC15-40. Minimum Standards for
Jails and Lockups (amending 6VAC15-40-770).
Statutory Authority: §§ 53.1-5, 53.1-68, and 53.1-131 of
the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: December 26, 2018.
Effective Date: January 10, 2019.
Agency Contact: Emmanuel Fontenot, Compliance and Accreditation
Manager, Department of Corrections, 6900 Atmore Drive, Richmond, VA 23225,
telephone (804) 887-7923, or email emmanuel.fontenot@vadoc.virginia.gov.
Basis: Sections 53.1-5 and 53.1-68 of the Code of
Virginia mandate that the Board of Corrections prescribe regulations to govern
the administration and operation of local correctional facilities.
Purpose: The current regulation requires that feminine
hygiene items (as defined by facility policy) be provided upon reasonable
request to each female inmate assigned to the general population. The proposed
change to this regulation will mandate that feminine hygiene items be provided
at no charge to female inmates. The purpose of this revision to the regulation
is to provide for the public health and welfare of female inmates incarcerated
in local and regional jails by providing them tampons and sanitary napkins at
no cost to the inmate.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: The
amendments are minor, noncontroversial changes to current regulatory
requirements mandated by Chapter 815 of the 2018 Acts of Assembly.
Substance: This revision clearly mandates that jails and
lockups provide feminine hygiene products to female inmates at no charge.
Issues: The primary advantage of this revision is that
it ensures that feminine hygiene items are provided to all female inmates
regardless of their financial situation at no cost to the inmate and with
minimum financial impact to jails and lockups as this is the current general
practice. There is no known disadvantage to the public, individual private
citizens, or businesses and no significant disadvantage to the Commonwealth as
most local and regional jails are already providing feminine hygiene products.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to
Chapter 815 of the 2018 Acts of Assembly, the Board of Corrections (Board)
proposes to specify in regulation that jails and lockups must provide feminine
hygiene products to female inmates without charge.
Result of Analysis. The benefits exceed the costs for all
proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. Chapter 815 of the 2018 Acts of
Assembly states that "The State Board of Corrections shall adopt and
implement a standard to ensure the provision of feminine hygiene products to
female inmates without charge." The Board proposes to specify in this
regulation that "Feminine hygiene items (as defined by facility policy)
shall be provided upon reasonable request to each female inmate without
charge." Since this requirement is already part of the Code of Virginia,
adding it to the regulation would have no impact beyond improving clarity for
readers of the regulation.
Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendment
affects jails and lockups in the Commonwealth.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendment does
not disproportionately affect particular localities.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendment does not
affect employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
amendment does not affect the use and value of private property.
Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendment does not
affect real estate development costs.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendment does not affect
costs for small businesses.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed
amendment does not adversely affect small businesses.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. The proposed amendment does not adversely affect
businesses.
Localities. The proposed amendment does not adversely affect
localities.
Other Entities. The proposed amendment does not adversely
affect other entities.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Board
of Corrections concurs with the economic impact analysis prepared by the
Virginia Department of Planning and Budget.
Summary:
Pursuant to Chapter 815 of the the 2018 Acts of Assembly,
the amendment requires that a facility provide feminine hygiene items without
charge to each female inmate.
6VAC15-40-770. Provision of hygiene items.
The facility shall provide soap, a toothbrush, and toothpaste
or toothpowder to each inmate upon admission to the general population.
Feminine hygiene items (as defined by facility policy), including
sanitary napkins and tampons, shall be provided upon reasonable
request to each female inmate assigned to the general population without
charge. Notwithstanding security considerations, shaving equipment,
including a mirror, and haircuts shall be made available, and the hygiene needs
of all inmates shall be met.
VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5570; Filed October 29, 2018, 2:08 p.m.
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
VIRGINIA WASTE MANAGEMENT BOARD
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 9VAC20-11. Public Participation
Guidelines (amending 9VAC20-11-50).
Statutory Authority: § 10.1-1402 of the Code of
Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: December 26, 2018.
Effective Date: January 10, 2019.
Agency Contact: Melissa Porterfield, Department of
Environmental Quality, 1111 East Main Street, Suite 1400, P.O. Box 1105,
Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 698-4238, FAX (804) 698-4019, or email
melissa.porterfield@deq.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 2.2-4007.02 of the Administrative Process
Act requires agencies to develop and adopt public participation guidelines to
solicit input from interested parties during the development of regulations.
The Virginia Waste Management Board previously adopted regulations concerning
public participation guidelines during the regulatory development process.
Purpose: State law requires the Virginia Waste
Management Board to adopt public participation guidelines to solicit input
during the development of regulations. Chapter 795 of the 2012 Acts of Assembly
revised § 2.2-4007.02 B of the Code of Virginia to allow interested parties the
right to be accompanied by or represented by counsel during the formulation of
a regulation. Participation by the public in the regulatory process is
essential to assist the board in the promulgation of regulations that will
protect the public health and safety.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: The
amendments are expected to be noncontroversial and appropriate for using the
fast-track rulemaking process. The amendments make the regulations consistent
with the Code of Virginia and the model public participation guidelines
developed by the Department of Planning and Budget.
Substance: The Code of Virginia allows interested
parties the right to be accompanied by or represented by counsel during the
formulation of a regulation. This language has been added to the regulation.
Issues: This regulatory change will benefit the public
and the agency. The regulatory change amends the regulation to be consistent
with the Code of Virginia. The regulatory change does not place any additional
requirements on the public or the agency; therefore, there are no disadvantages
to the public or the agency.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to
Chapter 795 of the 2012 Acts of Assembly,1 the Virginia Waste
Management Board (Board) proposes to specify in this regulation that interested
persons shall be afforded an opportunity to be accompanied by and represented
by counsel or other representative when submitting data, views, and arguments,
either orally or in writing, to the agency.
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. The current Public Participation
Guidelines state that: "In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt
regulatory action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to
submit data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the
agency." The Board proposes to append "and (ii) be accompanied by and
represented by counsel or other representative."
Chapter 795 of the 2012 Acts of Assembly added to the Code of
Virginia § 2.2-4007.02. "Public participation guidelines" that
interested persons also be afforded an opportunity to be accompanied by and
represented by counsel or other representative. Since the Code of Virginia
already specifies that interested persons shall be afforded an opportunity to
be accompanied by and represented by counsel or other representative, the
Board's proposal to add this language to the regulation will not change the law
in effect, but will be beneficial in that it will inform interested parties who
read this regulation but not the statute of their legal rights concerning
representation.
Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed amendment
potentially affects all individuals who comment on pending regulatory changes.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendment does
not disproportionately affect particular localities.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendment does not
significantly affect employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
amendment does not affect the use and value of private property.
Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendment does not
affect real estate development costs.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendment does not affect
costs for small businesses.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed
amendment does not adversely affect small businesses.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. The proposed amendment does not adversely affect
businesses.
Localities. The proposed amendment does not adversely affect
localities.
Other Entities. The proposed amendment does not adversely
affect other entities.
_________________________
1See http://leg1.state.va.us/cgi-bin/legp504.exe?121+ful+CHAP0795+hil
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
department has reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department
of Planning and Budget and has no comment.
Summary:
Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.02 of the Code of Virginia, the
amendment provides that interested persons submitting data, views, and
arguments on a regulatory action may be accompanied by and represented by
counsel or another representative.
Part III
Public Participation Procedures
9VAC20-11-50. Public comment.
A. In considering any nonemergency, nonexempt regulatory
action, the agency shall afford interested persons an opportunity to (i)
submit data, views, and arguments, either orally or in writing, to the agency;
and (ii) be accompanied by and represented by counsel or other representative.
Such opportunity to comment shall include an online public comment forum on the
Town Hall.
1. To any requesting person, the agency shall provide copies
of the statement of basis, purpose, substance, and issues; the economic impact
analysis of the proposed or fast-track regulatory action; and the agency's
response to public comments received.
2. The agency may begin crafting a regulatory action prior to
or during any opportunities it provides to the public to submit comments.
B. The agency shall accept public comments in writing after
the publication of a regulatory action in the Virginia Register as follows:
1. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the publication
of the notice of intended regulatory action (NOIRA).
2. For a minimum of 60 calendar days following the publication
of a proposed regulation.
3. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the publication
of a reproposed regulation.
4. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the publication
of a final adopted regulation.
5. For a minimum of 30 calendar days following the publication
of a fast-track regulation.
6. For a minimum of 21 calendar days following the publication
of a notice of periodic review.
7. Not later than 21 calendar days following the publication
of a petition for rulemaking.
C. The agency may determine if any of the comment periods
listed in subsection B of this section shall be extended.
D. If the Governor finds that one or more changes with
substantial impact have been made to a proposed regulation, he may require the
agency to provide an additional 30 calendar days to solicit additional public
comment on the changes in accordance with § 2.2-4013 C of the Code of
Virginia.
E. The agency shall send a draft of the agency's summary
description of public comment to all public commenters on the proposed
regulation at least five days before final adoption of the regulation pursuant
to § 2.2-4012 E of the Code of Virginia.
VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5106; Filed November 2, 2018, 12:50 p.m.
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
VIRGINIA WASTE MANAGEMENT BOARD
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 9VAC20-200. Mercury Switch
Regulations (repealing 9VAC20-200-10 through
9VAC20-200-70).
Statutory Authority: § 10.1-1402 of the Code of
Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: December 26, 2018.
Effective Date: January 10, 2019.
Agency Contact: Melissa Porterfield, Department of
Environmental Quality, 1111 East Main Street, Suite 1400, P.O. Box 1105,
Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 698-4238, FAX (804) 698-4019, TTY (804)
698-4021, or email melissa.porterfield@deq.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 10.1-1402 of the Code of Virginia, the
statutory authority that allowed the Virginia Waste Management Board to adopt
this regulation, has expired, and this regulation is being repealed.
Purpose: The statutory authority that allowed the board
to adopt this regulation has expired, and this regulation is being repealed.
Since the statutory authority for the regulation expired in 2015, the
requirements in the regulation are no longer applicable. Repealing the
regulation is essential to protect the welfare of citizens because it will
ensure there is no confusion between the statute and the regulations as to what
rules are in effect.
Rationale for Using Fast Track Rulemaking Process: This
regulatory action is expected to be noncontroversial. The statutory authority
that allowed the board to adopt this regulation has expired, and this
regulation is being repealed.
Substance: The regulation is being repealed.
Issues: The statutory authority that allowed the board
to adopt this regulation has expired, and this regulation is being repealed.
Repealing this regulation will benefit both the public and the department since
this action removes regulatory requirements that are no longer applicable.
There are no disadvantages to the public of the department.
Collectively, automobile manufacturers have implemented a
voluntary national automotive mercury switch removal program managed by End of
Life Vehicle Solutions. End of Life Vehicle Solutions collects, transports,
retorts, recycles, or disposes of elemental mercury from automotive switches.
This national initiative will continue to facilitate the removal of mercury
from vehicles prior to vehicles being recycled, and repeal of this regulation
will not impact Virginia vehicle recyclers participating in this national
program.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Virginia
Waste Management Board (Board) proposes to repeal the Mercury Switch
Regulations.
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. The Mercury Switch Regulations were
adopted in response to Chapters 16 and 163 of the 2006 Acts of Assembly. The
purpose of the regulation was to reduce the quantity of mercury released into
the environment by establishing standards and procedures for the removal of
mercury switches from end-of-life vehicles demolished in the Commonwealth. The
provisions of Chapters 16 and 163 of the 2006 Acts of Assembly were to expire
on July 1, 2012. Chapter 793 of the 2011 Acts of Assembly extended the
provisions of these Chapters to July 1, 2015. The provisions of these Acts of
Assembly have expired and § 10.1-1402 of the Code of Virginia no longer
authorizes the Waste Management Board to "adopt regulations concerning the
criteria and standards for removal of mercury switches by vehicle
demolishers." Consequently, the Board proposes to repeal this regulation.
Since the statutory authority for the regulation expired in
2015, the requirements in the regulation are no longer applicable. Repealing
the regulation will create a moderate benefit in that the possibility that
members of the public will mistakenly believe that the rules in the regulation
are currently in effect will be eliminated.
Businesses and Entities Affected. The proposed repeal of this
obsolete regulation will only affect members of the public who may have been
misled into believing that the rules of the regulation currently apply.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed repeal of the
regulation does not disproportionately affect particular localities.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed repeal of the
regulation does not affect employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
repeal of the regulation does not affect the use and value of private property.
Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed repeal of the
regulation does not affect real estate development costs.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The proposed repeal of the regulation
does not significantly affect small business.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed
repeal of the regulation does not adversely affect small businesses.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. The proposed repeal of the regulation does not
adversely affect businesses.
Localities. The proposed repeal of the regulation does not
adversely affect localities.
Other Entities. The proposed repeal of the regulation does not
adversely affect other entities.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The
department has reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department
of Planning and Budget and has no comment.
Summary:
This action repeals the Mercury Switch Regulations because
the provisions of § 10.1-1402 of the Code of Virginia authorizing
the Virginia Waste Management Board to adopt regulations concerning the
criteria and standards for removal of mercury switches by vehicle demolishers
have expired.
VA.R. Doc. No. R19-4635; Filed November 2, 2018, 12:58 p.m.
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-260. Water Quality Standards (amending 9VAC25-260-185).
Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.15 of the Code of Virginia; Clean Water Act (33 USC § 1251 et seq.); 40 CFR Part 131.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: December 26, 2018.
Effective Date: January 10, 2019.
Agency Contact: Tish Robertson, Department of Environmental Quality, 1111 East Main Street, Suite 1400, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 698-4309, FAX (804) 698-4116, or email tish.robertson@deq.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 62.1-44.15 of the Code of Virginia mandates and authorizes the State Water Control Board to establish water quality standards and policies for any state waters consistent with the purpose and general policy of the State Water Control Law and to modify, amend, or cancel any such standards or policies established. Section 303(c) of the federal Clean Water Act mandates the State Water Control Board to review and, as appropriate, modify and adopt water quality standards. The corresponding federal water quality standards regulation at 40 CFR 131.6 describes the minimum requirements for water quality standards. The minimum requirements are use designations, water quality criteria to protect the designated uses, and an antidegradation policy. These are all mandates for water quality standards.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) Water Quality Standards regulation (40 CFR 131. 11) is the regulatory basis for the EPA requiring the states to establish water quality criteria to protect designated uses, and the criteria are used to assess whether or not a waterbody is meeting those uses.
Purpose: The department has concluded that the proposed amendments to the regulation are essential to protecting the health, safety, and welfare of the citizens of the Commonwealth by protecting the water quality and living resources of the Chesapeake Bay and its tidal rivers. EPA has continued to refine the assessment procedures as scientific research and management applications reveal new insights and knowledge about the Chesapeake Bay. The EPA's procedure documents being incorporated into Virginia's regulation by this action replace or otherwise supersede similar criteria assessment procedures published in earlier documents, but not all of them. Therefore, it is necessary for the Virginia water quality standards to refer to each of the addenda published by EPA.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: The proposed amendment to 9VAC25-260-185 B references assessment protocol documents published by EPA. These protocols have been developed by EPA through a collaborative process within the Chesapeake Bay Program. There have been several other similar technical addenda incorporated into Virginia's Water Quality Standards Regulation using the fast-track rulemaking procedure without opposition due to their noncontroversial nature since the Chesapeake Bay water quality criteria were originally adopted by the State Water Control Board in 2005.
Substance: The proposed substantive amendment to 9VAC25-260-185 B of the Water Quality Standards is a reference to the November 2017 Chesapeake Bay Criteria Assessment Protocols Addendum. These recently published protocols direct how Chesapeake Bay dissolved oxygen criteria should be assessed. Therefore, it is necessary for the Virginia Water Quality Standards to refer to this document.
Issues: There are no primary advantages or disadvantages to the public. The primary advantage to the agency and the Commonwealth is having improved methods for assessing attainment of designated uses in the Chesapeake Bay. There is no disadvantage to the agency or the Commonwealth that will result from the adoption of this amendment.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The State Water Control Board (Board) proposes to incorporate by reference the most recent U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) assessment methodology for the Chesapeake Bay nutrient criteria.1
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. This regulation incorporates by reference the procedures to be followed when assessing the nutrient criteria in the Chesapeake Bay. These assessment procedures are frequently refined by the EPA as scientific research and management applications reveal new insights and knowledge about the Chesapeake Bay. According to the Department of Environmental Quality, there is no substantive difference between what is currently followed in practice and what is being prescribed in the updated procedures document proposed for incorporation by reference. However, the updated document contains procedures for assessment of short-duration dissolved oxygen criteria, which did not exist before. Currently, due to lack of resources, there is nothing being done in Virginia to assess the short-duration dissolved oxygen criteria. Therefore, the incorporation of the new assessment procedures would not have any immediate impact but would be beneficial when and if Virginia moves forward to assess short-duration dissolved oxygen criteria.
Businesses and Entities Affected. Currently, there are 139 point sources this regulation applies to. All but three are water treatment plants.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendment does not affect any particular locality more than others.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendment does not have any effect on employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed amendment does not have any effect on the use and value of private property.
Real Estate Development Costs. No impact on real estate development costs is expected.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia, small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendment applies to only three small businesses, but no effect on them is expected.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed amendment does not have adverse effects on small businesses.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. The proposed amendment does not have adverse impacts on businesses.
Localities. The proposed amendment will not adversely affect localities.
Other Entities. The proposed amendment will not adversely affect other entities.
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1See Ambient Water Quality Criteria for Dissolved Oxygen, Water Clarity and Chlorophyll a for the Chesapeake Bay and Its Tidal Tributaries - 2017 Technical Addendum, EPA 903-R-17-002, CB/TRS 320-17, November 2017, U.S. EPA Region III Chesapeake Bay Office. Accessed online at www.chesapeakebay.net/documents/2017_Nov_ChesBayWQ_Criteria_Addendum_Final.pdf on May 17, 2018.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The department has reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of Planning and Budget and has no comment.
Summary:
The amendment incorporates by reference the Chesapeake Bay Criteria Assessment Protocols Addendum published in November 2017 by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency on behalf of the Chesapeake Bay Program partnership.
9VAC25-260-185. Criteria to protect designated uses from the impacts of nutrients and suspended sediment in the Chesapeake Bay and its tidal tributaries.
A. Dissolved oxygen. The dissolved oxygen criteria in the below following table apply to all Chesapeake Bay waters according to their specified designated use and supersede the dissolved oxygen criteria in 9VAC25-260-50.
Designated Use | Criteria Concentration/Duration | Temporal Application |
Migratory fish spawning and nursery | 7-day mean ≥ 6 mg/l (tidal habitats with 0-0.5 ppt salinity) | February 1 - May 31 |
Instantaneous minimum ≥ 5 mg/l |
Open water1 | 30-day mean ≥ 5.5 mg/l (tidal habitats with 0-0.5 ppt salinity) | year-round2 |
30-day mean ≥ 5 mg/l (tidal habitats with > 0.5 ppt salinity) |
7-day mean ≥ 4 mg/l |
Instantaneous minimum ≥ 3.2 mg/l at temperatures < 29°C Instantaneous minimum ≥ 4.3 mg/lat temperatures ≥ 29°C |
Deep water | 30-day mean ≥ 3 mg/l | June 1 - September 30 |
1-day mean ≥ 2.3 mg/l |
Instantaneous minimum ≥ 1.7 mg/l |
Deep channel | Instantaneous minimum ≥ 1 mg/l | June 1 - September 30 |
1In applying this open water instantaneous criterion to the Chesapeake Bay and its tidal tributaries where the existing water quality for dissolved oxygen exceeds an instantaneous minimum of 3.2 mg/l, that higher water quality for dissolved oxygen shall be provided antidegradation protection in accordance with 9VAC25-260-30 A 2. 2Open-water dissolved oxygen criteria attainment is assessed separately over two time periods: summer (June 1- September 30) and nonsummer (October 1-May 31) months. |
B. Submerged aquatic vegetation (SAV) and water clarity. Attainment of the shallow-water submerged aquatic vegetation designated use shall be determined using any one of the following criteria:
Designated Use | Chesapeake Bay Program Segment | SAV Acres1 | Percent Light-Through-Water2 | Water Clarity Acres1 | Temporal Application |
Shallow water submerged aquatic vegetation use | CB5MH | 7,633 | 22% | 14,514 | April 1 - October 31 |
CB6PH | 1,267 | 22% | 3,168 | March 1 - November 30 |
CB7PH | 15,107 | 22% | 34,085 | March 1 - November 30 |
CB8PH | 11 | 22% | 28 | March 1 - November 30 |
POTTF | 2,093 | 13% | 5,233 | April 1 - October 31 |
POTOH | 1,503 | 13% | 3,758 | April 1 - October 31 |
POTMH | 4,250 | 22% | 10,625 | April 1 - October 31 |
RPPTF | 66 | 13% | 165 | April 1 - October 31 |
RPPOH | 4 | 13% | 10 | April 1 - October 31 |
RPPMH | 1700 | 22% | 5000 | April 1 - October 31 |
CRRMH | 768 | 22% | 1,920 | April 1 - October 31 |
PIAMH | 3,479 | 22% | 8,014 | April 1 - October 31 |
MPNTF | 85 | 13% | 213 | April 1 - October 31 |
MPNOH | - | - | - | - |
PMKTF | 187 | 13% | 468 | April 1 - October 31 |
PMKOH | - | - | - | - |
YRKMH | 239 | 22% | 598 | April 1 - October 31 |
YRKPH | 2,793 | 22% | 6,982 | March 1 - November 30 |
MOBPH | 15,901 | 22% | 33,990 | March 1 - November 30 |
JMSTF2 | 200 | 13% | 500 | April 1 - October 31 |
JMSTF1 | 1000 | 13% | 2500 | April 1 - October 31 |
APPTF | 379 | 13% | 948 | April 1 - October 31 |
JMSOH | 15 | 13% | 38 | April 1 - October 31 |
CHKOH | 535 | 13% | 1,338 | April 1 - October 31 |
JMSMH | 200 | 22% | 500 | April 1 - October 31 |
JMSPH | 300 | 22% | 750 | March 1 - November 30 |
WBEMH | - | - | - | - |
SBEMH | - | - | - | - |
EBEMH | - | - | - | - |
ELIPH | - | - | - | - |
LYNPH | 107 | 22% | 268 | March 1 - November 30 |
POCOH | - | - | - | - |
POCMH | 4,066 | 22% | 9,368 | April 1 - October 31 |
TANMH | 13,579 | 22% | 22,064 | April 1 - October 31 |
1The assessment period for SAV and water clarity acres shall be the single best year in the most recent three consecutive years. When three consecutive years of data are not available, a minimum of three years within the data assessment window shall be used. |
2Percent light-through-water = 100e(-KdZ) where Kd is water column light attenuation coefficient and can be measured directly or converted from a measured secchi depth where Kd = 1.45/secchi depth. Z = depth at location of measurement of Kd. |
C. Chlorophyll a.
Designated Use | Chlorophyll a Narrative Criterion | Temporal Application |
Open water | Concentrations of chlorophyll a in free-floating microscopic aquatic plants (algae) shall not exceed levels that result in undesirable or nuisance aquatic plant life, or render tidal waters unsuitable for the propagation and growth of a balanced, indigenous population of aquatic life or otherwise result in ecologically undesirable water quality conditions such as reduced water clarity, low dissolved oxygen, food supply imbalances, proliferation of species deemed potentially harmful to aquatic life or humans, or aesthetically objectionable conditions. | March 1 - September 30 |
*See 9VAC25-260-310 special standard bb for numerical chlorophyll criteria for the tidal James River.
|
D. Implementation.
1. Chesapeake Bay program segmentation scheme as described in Chesapeake Bay Program, 2004 Chesapeake Bay Program Analytical Segmentation Scheme-Revisions, Decisions and Rationales: 1983–2003, CBP/TRS 268/04, EPA 903‑R‑04‑008, Chesapeake Bay Program, Annapolis, Maryland, and the Chesapeake Bay Program published 2005 addendum (CBP/TRS 278‑06; EPA 903‑R‑05‑004) is listed below in the following table and shall be used as the spatial assessment unit to determine attainment of the criteria in this section for each designated use.
Chesapeake Bay Segment Description | Segment Name1 | Chesapeake Bay Segment Description | Segment Name1 |
Lower Central Chesapeake Bay | CB5MH | Mobjack Bay | MOBPH |
Western Lower Chesapeake Bay | CB6PH | Upper Tidal Fresh James River | JMSTF2 |
Eastern Lower Chesapeake Bay | CB7PH | Lower Tidal Fresh James River | JMSTF1 |
Mouth of the Chesapeake Bay | CB8PH | Appomattox River | APPTF |
Upper Potomac River | POTTF | Middle James River | JMSOH |
Middle Potomac River | POTOH | Chickahominy River | CHKOH |
Lower Potomac River | POTMH | Lower James River | JMSMH |
Upper Rappahannock River | RPPTF | Mouth of the James River | JMSPH |
Middle Rappahannock River | RPPOH | Western Branch Elizabeth River | WBEMH |
Lower Rappahannock River | RPPMH | Southern Branch Elizabeth River | SBEMH |
Corrotoman River | CRRMH | Eastern Branch Elizabeth River | EBEMH |
Piankatank River | PIAMH | Lafayette River | LAFMH |
Upper Mattaponi River | MPNTF | Mouth of the Elizabeth River | ELIPH |
Lower Mattaponi River | MPNOH | Lynnhaven River | LYNPH |
Upper Pamunkey River | PMKTF | Middle Pocomoke River | POCOH |
Lower Pamunkey River | PMKOH | Lower Pocomoke River | POCMH |
Middle York River | YRKMH | Tangier Sound | TANMH |
Lower York River | YRKPH | | |
1First three letters of segment name represent Chesapeake Bay segment description, letters four and five represent the salinity regime of that segment (TF = Tidal Fresh, OH = Oligohaline, MH = Mesohaline, and PH = Polyhaline) and a sixth space is reserved for subdivisions of that segment. |
2. The assessment period shall be the most recent three consecutive years. When three consecutive years of data are not available, a minimum of three years within the data assessment window shall be used.
3. Attainment of these criteria shall be assessed through comparison of the generated cumulative frequency distribution of the monitoring data to the applicable criteria reference curve for each designated use. If the monitoring data cumulative frequency curve is completely contained inside the reference curve, then the segment is in attainment of the designated use. The reference curves and procedures to be followed are published in the USEPA, Ambient Water Quality Criteria for Dissolved Oxygen, Water Clarity and Chlorophyll a for the Chesapeake Bay and Its Tidal Tributaries, EPA 903‑R‑03‑002, April 2003 and the 2004 (EPA 903‑R‑03‑002 October 2004), 2007 (CBP/TRS 285‑07 285/07, EPA 903‑R‑07‑003), 2007 (CBP/TRS 288/07, EPA 903‑R‑07‑005), 2008 (CBP/TRS 290‑08, EPA 903‑R‑08‑001), and 2010 (CBP/TRS 301‑10, EPA 903‑R‑10‑002), and 2017 (CBP/TRS 320‑17, EPA 903‑R‑17‑002) addenda. An exception to this requirement is in measuring attainment of the SAV and water clarity acres, which are compared directly to the criteria.
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (9VAC25-260)
Chesapeake Bay Program Analytical Segmentation Scheme - Revisions, Decisions and Rationales 1983‑2003, EPA 903‑R‑04‑008, CBP/TRS 268/04, October 2004, US EPA Region III Chesapeake Bay Office.
Chesapeake Bay Program Analytical Segmentation Scheme - Revisions, Decisions and Rationales 1983‑2003, EPA 903‑R‑05‑004, CBP/TRS 278‑06, 2005 Addendum, December 2005, US EPA Region III Chesapeake Bay Office.
Ambient Water Quality Criteria for Dissolved Oxygen, Water Clarity and Chlorophyll a for the Chesapeake Bay and Its Tidal Tributaries, EPA 903‑R‑03‑002, April 2003 and 2004 Addendum, October 2004, US EPA Region III Chesapeake Bay Office
Ambient Water Quality Criteria for Dissolved Oxygen, Water Clarity and Chlorophyll a for the Chesapeake Bay and Its Tidal Tributaries, EPA 903‑R‑07‑003, CBP/TRS 285/07 2007 Addendum, July 2007, US EPA Region III Chesapeake Bay Office.
Technical Support Document for Identification of Chesapeake Bay Designated Uses and Attainability, EPA 903‑R‑03‑004, October 2003 and 2004 Addendum, October 2004, US EPA Region III Chesapeake Bay Office.
Ambient Water Quality Criteria for Dissolved Oxygen, Water Clarity and Chlorophyll a for the Chesapeake Bay and its Tidal Tributaries - 2007 Chlorophyll Criteria Addendum, EPA 903‑R‑07‑005, CBP/TRS 288/07, November 2007, U.S. EPA Region III Chesapeake Bay Office.
Ambient Water Quality Criteria for Dissolved Oxygen, Water Clarity and Chlorophyll a for the Chesapeake Bay and its Tidal Tributaries - 2008 Technical Support for Criteria Assessment Protocols Addendum, EPA 903‑R‑08‑001, CBP/TRS 290‑08, September 2008, U.S. EPA Region III Chesapeake Bay Office.
Ambient Water Quality Criteria for Dissolved Oxygen, Water Clarity and Chlorophyll a for the Chesapeake Bay and its Tidal Tributaries - 2010 Technical Support for Criteria Assessment Protocols Addendum, EPA 903‑R‑10‑002, CBP/TRS 301‑10, May 2010, U.S. EPA Region III Chesapeake Bay Office.
Ambient Water Quality Criteria for Dissolved Oxygen, Water Clarity and Chlorophyll a for the Chesapeake Bay and Its Tidal Tributaries - 2017 Technical Addendum, EPA 903‑R‑17‑002, CBP/TRS 320‑17, November 2017, U.S. EPA Region III Chesapeake Bay Office
VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5476; Filed November 2, 2018, 1:07 p.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR BARBERS AND COSMETOLOGY
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board for Barbers and Cosmetology is claiming an exemption from Article 2 of the Administrative Process Act in accordance § 2.2-4006 A 3 of the Code of Virginia, which excludes regulations that consist only of changes in style or form or corrections of technical errors. The Board for Barbers and Cosmetology will receive, consider, and respond to petitions by any interested person at any time with respect to reconsideration or revision.
Title of Regulation: 18VAC41-70. Esthetics Regulations (amending 18VAC41-70-80, 18VAC41-70-90, 18VAC41-70-280).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-201 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2019.
Agency Contact: Stephen Kirschner, Regulatory Operations Administrator, Board for Barbers and Cosmetology, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-8590, FAX (866) 245-9693, or email barbercosmo@dpor.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments correct technical errors by replacing references to barber-specific or cosmetology-specific terms with appropriate esthetics terminology.
18VAC41-70-80. General requirements for a spa license.
A. Any firm wishing to operate an esthetics spa shall obtain a spa license in compliance with § 54.1-704.1 of the Code of Virginia, and shall meet the following qualifications in order to receive a license:
1. The applicant, and all members of the responsible management, shall be in good standing as a licensed spa in Virginia and all other jurisdictions where licensed. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure, any disciplinary action taken in Virginia and all other jurisdictions in connection with the applicant's operation of any esthetics spa or practice of the profession. This includes monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure if the applicant or any member of responsible management has been previously licensed in Virginia as an esthetics spa.
Upon review of the applicant's and all members of the responsible management's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein it deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the operation of an esthetics spa. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this section. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action.
2. The applicant shall disclose his physical address. A post office box is not acceptable.
3. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia esthetics license laws and this chapter.
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall disclose the following information about the firm and all members of the responsible management regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury within two years of the date of the application; and
b. All felony convictions within 20 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subsection. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall disclose the firm's responsible management.
B. Shop or salon Spa licenses are issued to firms as defined in this chapter and shall not be transferable and shall bear the same name and address of the business. Any changes in the name or address of the spa shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of such changes. The board shall not be responsible for the licensee's, certificate holder's, or permit holder's failure to receive notices, communications, and correspondence caused by the licensee's, certificate holder's, or permit holder's failure to promptly notify the board in writing of any change of name or address or for any other reason beyond the control of the board.
C. Whenever the legal business entity holding the license is dissolved or altered to form a new business entity, the original license becomes void and shall be returned to the board within 30 days of the change. Additionally, the firm shall apply for a new license, within 30 days of the change in the business entity. Such changes include:
1. Death of a sole proprietor;
2. Death or withdrawal of a general partner in a general partnership or the managing partner in a limited partnership; and
3. Conversion, formation, or dissolution of a corporation, a limited liability company, or association, or any other business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
D. Any change in the officers of a corporation, managers of a limited liability company, or officers or directors of an association shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of the change.
E. The board or any of its agents shall be allowed to inspect during reasonable hours any licensed shop or salon spa for compliance with provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or this chapter. For purposes of a board inspection, "reasonable hours" means the hours between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m.; however, if the licensee generally is not open to the public substantially during the same hours, "reasonable hours" shall mean the business hours when the licensee is open to the public.
18VAC41-70-90. General requirements for a school license.
A. Any firm wishing to operate an esthetics school shall submit an application to the board at least 60 days prior to the date for which approval is sought, obtain a school license in compliance with § 54.1-704.2 of the Code of Virginia, and meet the following qualifications in order to receive a license:
1. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall be in good standing as a licensed school in Virginia and all other jurisdictions where licensed. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure, any disciplinary action taken in Virginia and all other jurisdictions in connection with the applicant's operation of any esthetics school or practice of the profession. This includes monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure if the applicant or any member of the responsible management has been previously licensed in Virginia as an esthetics school.
Upon review of the applicant's and all members of the responsible management's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein it deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the operation of an esthetics school. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this section. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action.
2. The applicant shall disclose his physical address. A post office box is not acceptable.
3. The applicant shall sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia esthetics license laws and this chapter.
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall disclose the following information about the firm and all members of the responsible management regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury within two years of the date of the application; and
b. All felony convictions within 20 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subsection. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall disclose the firm's responsible management.
B. Esthetics school licenses are issued to firms as defined in this chapter and shall not be transferable and shall bear the same name and address as the school. Any changes in the name or the address of record or principal place of business of the school shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of such change. The board shall not be responsible for the licensee's, certificate holder's, or permit holder's failure to receive notices, communications, and correspondence caused by the licensee's, certificate holder's, or permit holder's failure to promptly notify the board in writing of any change of name or address or for any other reason beyond the control of the board. The name of the school must indicate that it is an educational institution. All signs or other advertisements must reflect the name as indicated on the license issued by the board and contain language indicating it is an educational institution.
C. Whenever the legal business entity holding the license is dissolved or altered to form a new business entity, the original license becomes void and shall be returned to the board within 30 days of the change. Additionally, the firm shall apply for a new license within 30 days of the change in business entity. Such changes include:
1. Death of a sole proprietor;
2. Death or withdrawal of a general partner in a general partnership or the managing partner in a limited partnership; and
3. Conversion, formation, or dissolution of a corporation, a limited liability company, an association, or any other business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
D. Any change in the officers of a corporation, managers of a limited liability company, or officers or directors of an association shall be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of the change.
E. Barber schools, cosmetology schools, nail schools, or waxing Esthetics schools under the Virginia Department of Education shall be exempted from licensure requirements.
F. The board or any of its agents shall be allowed to inspect during reasonable hours any licensed school for compliance with provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or this chapter. For purposes of a board inspection, "reasonable hours" means the hours between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m.; however, if the licensee generally is not open to the public substantially during the same hours, "reasonable hours" shall mean the business hours when the licensee is open to the public.
18VAC41-70-280. Grounds for license revocation, probation, or suspension; denial of application, renewal or reinstatement; or imposition of a monetary penalty.
The board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, fine any licensee, certificate holder, or temporary license holder, and; suspend, place on probation, or revoke, or refuse to renew or reinstate any license, certificate, or temporary license,; or deny any application issued under the provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and this chapter if the board finds that the licensee, certificate holder, permit holder, or applicant:
1. Is incompetent, negligent, or incapable mentally or physically, as those terms are generally understood in the profession, to practice as an esthetician;
2. Is convicted of fraud or deceit in the practice or teaching of esthetics, fails to teach in accordance with the board-approved curriculum, or fails to comply with 18VAC41-70-190 D when making an assessment of credit hours awarded;
3. Attempts to obtain, obtained, renewed, or reinstated a license, certificate, or temporary license by false or fraudulent representation;
4. Violates or, induces others to violate, or cooperates with others in violating, any of the provisions of this chapter or Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or any local ordinance or regulation governing standards of health and sanitation of the establishment in which any esthetician may practice or offer to practice;
5. Offers, gives, or promises anything of value or benefit to any federal, state, or local employee for the purpose of influencing that employee to circumvent, in the performance of his duties, any federal, state, or local law, regulation, or ordinance governing esthetics or master esthetics;
6. Fails to respond to the board or any of its agents or provides false, misleading, or incomplete information to an inquiry by the board or any of its agents;
7. Fails or refuses to allow the board or any of its agents to inspect during reasonable hours any licensed shop, salon, spa or school for compliance with provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or this chapter;
8. Fails to produce, upon request or demand of the board or any of its agents, any document, book, record, or copy thereof in a licensee's, certificate holder's, temporary license holder's, applicant's, or owner's possession or maintained in accordance with this chapter;
9. Fails to notify the board of a change of name or address in writing within 30 days of the change for each and every license, certificate, or temporary license;
10. Makes any misrepresentation or publishes or causes to be published any advertisement that is false, deceptive, or misleading;
11. Fails to notify the board in writing within 30 days of the suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license or temporary license in connection with a disciplinary action in any jurisdiction or of any license or temporary license that has been the subject of disciplinary action in any jurisdiction;
12. Has been convicted or found guilty, regardless of the manner of adjudication, in Virginia or any other jurisdiction of the United States of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, drug distribution, or physical injury or any felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time for appeal having elapsed. Review of convictions shall be subject to the requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction or guilt;
13. Fails to inform the board in writing within 30 days of pleading guilty or nolo contendere or being convicted or found guilty regardless of adjudication of convictions as stated in subdivision 12 of this section;
14. Allows, as responsible management of a spa or school, a person who has not obtained a license or a temporary permit to practice unless the person is duly enrolled as a registered apprentice;
15. Allows, as responsible management of a school, a person who has not obtained an instructor certificate to practice as an esthetics or a master esthetics instructor;
16. Fails to take sufficient measures to prevent transmission of communicable or infectious diseases or fails to comply with sanitary requirements provided for in this chapter or any local, state, or federal law or regulation governing the standards of health and sanitation for the practices of esthetics or master esthetics, or the operation of esthetics spas; or
17. Fails to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at any board examination.
VA.R. Doc. No. R19-5617; Filed November 1, 2018, 10:44 a.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF FUNERAL DIRECTORS AND EMBALMERS
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC65-20. Regulations of the
Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers (amending 18VAC65-20-510; adding
18VAC65-20-581).
Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-2803 of the
Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: December 26, 2018.
Agency Contact: Corie Tillman Wolf, Executive Director,
Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300,
Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-4479, FAX (804) 527-4471, or email
fanbd@dhp.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments clarify requirements for the express
permission needed to embalm a body and for the proper refrigeration of a human
body.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A
summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be
obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar
of Regulations.
Part VII
Standards for Embalming and Refrigeration
18VAC65-20-510. Embalming report.
A. In accordance with the provisions of subdivision 26 of
§ 54.1-2806 and subsection B of § 54.1-2811.1 of the Code of Virginia,
express permission by a next of kin for embalming means written authorization
to embalm as a specific and separate statement on a document or contract
provided by the funeral establishment. Express permission may include direct,
verbal authorization to embalm, provided it is followed as soon as possible by
a written document or statement signed by the next of kin confirming the verbal
authorization to embalm and including the time, date, and name of the person
who gave verbal authorization.
B. Every funeral establishment shall record and
maintain a separate, identifiable report for each embalming procedure
conducted, which shall at a minimum include the following information:
1. The name of the deceased and the date of death;
2. The date and location of the embalming;
3. The name and signature of the embalmer and the Virginia
license number of the embalmer; and
4. If the embalming was performed by a funeral service intern,
the name and signature of the supervisor.
18VAC65-20-581. Refrigeration requirements.
A. If a dead human body is to be in the possession of a
funeral establishment or crematory for more than 48 hours from the time the
funeral establishment or crematory takes physical possession of the body until
embalming, cremation, or burial, the body shall be placed and maintained in
refrigeration in a mechanical refrigeration unit suitable for storing human
remains in accordance with subsection B of § 54.1-2811.1 of the Code of
Virginia.
B. The mechanical refrigeration unit may be located in the
funeral establishment or crematory, or the funeral establishment or crematory
may enter into an agreement or contract with another funeral establishment,
crematory, or other licensed entity for refrigeration in a mechanical
refrigeration unit.
C. Evidence of compliance with the requirement for
refrigeration shall be maintained as a log entry or other documentation
indicating times of placement in and removal of a body [ in
from ] refrigeration.
VA.R. Doc. No. R17-5042; Filed November 3, 2018, 8:14 a.m.
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
STATE BOARD OF SOCIAL SERVICES
Proposed Regulation
Title of Regulation: 22VAC40-201. Permanency Services
- Prevention, Foster Care, Adoption and Independent Living (amending 22VAC40-201-10, 22VAC40-201-100,
22VAC40-201-190).
Statutory Authority: §§ 63.2-217 and 63.2-319 of
the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: January 25, 2019.
Agency Contact: Em Parente, Department of Social
Services, 801 East Main Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 726-7895,
FAX (804) 726-7538, or email em.parente@dss.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 63.2-217 of the Code of Virginia requires
the State Board of Social Services to adopt such regulations as may be
necessary to carry out the purpose of Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia. This
regulatory action is to comply with Chapters 187, 200, and 203 of the 2017 Acts
of Assembly
Purpose: The proposed action updates the regulation to
incorporate the name change to the Virginia Birth Father Registry throughout
Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia and to include the process of registration
for the putative father (Chapter 200 of the 2017 Acts of Assembly). This
regulatory action is integral to compliance with current state laws. Changing
the name to the Virginia Birth Father Registry will eliminate confusion and
better represent the purpose of the registry, which protects the rights of a
putative father by providing notification of court proceedings for termination
of parental rights and adoption regarding a child that he may have fathered and
potentially giving him an opportunity to be in his child's life.
Health insurance is integral in providing for the health,
safety, and welfare of youth aging out of foster care. A proposed revision to
the regulation will ensure compliance with Chapter 203 of the 2017 Acts of
Assembly and direct local departments of social services to enroll youth in
foster care into Medicaid when the youth turns 18 years old. Additionally, the
feedback from the survey of youth aging out of foster care will be used to
strengthen and improve the state's foster care program (Chapter 187 of the 2017
Acts of Assembly).
Substance: This proposed regulatory action incorporates
technical corrections to language and processes necessary to ensure consistency
with the Code of Virginia and requirements that have become law since the
introduction of the current permanency services regulation. The proposed
amendments (i) change the name from the Putative Father Registry to the
Virginia Birth Father Registry; (ii) require that youth turning 18 years old in
foster care shall be enrolled in Medicaid, provided they are eligible and do
not object; and (iii) require that youth turning 18 years old in foster care be
given the opportunity to participate in a survey to provide feedback on their
experiences in foster care.
Issues: The proposed regulatory action protects the
rights of birth fathers by clarifying the registration timeline for the
Virginia Birth Father Registry. The primary advantage of the action to the
public, agency, and Commonwealth is that the regulation will be consistent with
statutory and federal requirements that seek to protect the safety and
well-being of vulnerable children. This regulatory action poses no
disadvantages to the public or the Commonwealth as the amendments provide for
the safety of children who turn 18 years old while in foster care by ensuring
that they are enrolled in Medicaid and are provided an opportunity to give
feedback about their experience in foster care through a survey.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The State
Board of Social Services (Board) proposes to incorporate three recent
legislative changes into the regulation: Chapters 187, 200, and 203 of the 2017
Acts of Assembly.
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. This permanency regulation provides
standards for Local Departments of Social Services (LDSS) for prevention,
foster care, adoption, and independent living services. The proposed action
incorporates three recent legislative changes as they apply to such services.
Chapter 187 of the 2017 Acts of Assembly1 mandated
that a youth aging out of foster care (e.g. youth turning 18) be given the
opportunity to participate in a survey to provide feedback regarding his or her
experience while in foster care. In a given year, there are approximately 500
youth in foster care who turn 18. Of the 500, how many may choose to
participate in the survey is not known, but the Virginia Department of Social
Services (VDSS) considers more than a 30% response rate as unlikely. VDSS plans
to have about 30 questions on the survey. The purpose of the survey is to
receive feedback from the youth, identify areas for improvement, and improve
experiences while in foster care. VDSS estimates that one-half of a full-time
position to analyze the survey results on an ongoing basis would be needed.
However, the additional staff support needed to analyze the survey data will be
absorbed within existing resources.
Additionally, Chapter 200 of the 2017 Acts of Assembly2
changed the name of the Putative Father Registry to Virginia Birth Father
Registry and added new language on what is considered to be a timely
registration. The Board proposes to replace all instances of "Putative
Father Registry" with "Virginia Birth Father Registry" in the
regulation and add new language to incorporate what is considered a timely
registration. The consistency between the regulation and the legislation should
be beneficial.
Finally, Chapter 203 of the 2017 Acts of Assembly3
requires youth who turn 18 years old in foster care to be enrolled in Medicaid.
When the adolescents in foster care transition to adulthood, they lose Medicaid
eligibility as children but continue to be eligible under other categories. The
legislation requires the LDSS to ensure that such youth are enrolled in
Medicaid, unless they object or are otherwise ineligible for Medicaid services.
The main impact of this change is to increase the likelihood of continued
Medicaid coverage of such youth in foster care.
Businesses and Entities Affected. There are approximately 500
youth in foster or adoptive care that turn 18 in a given year. There are 2,411
individuals who are currently registered in the Virginia Birth Father Registry.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed amendments do
not affect any particular locality more than others.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed survey requirement
is estimated to require one-half of full-time position on an ongoing basis but
will be absorbed by the existing employees. The other proposed amendments
should not have any significant effect on employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed
amendments should not have any significant effect on the use and value of
private property.
Real Estate Development Costs. No impact on real estate
development costs is expected.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendments do not affect
small businesses.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact
The proposed amendments do not have adverse effects on small
businesses.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. The proposed amendments do not have adverse impacts
on businesses.
Localities. The proposed amendments will not adversely affect
localities.
Other Entities. The proposed amendments will not adversely
affect other entities.
__________________________
1http://lis.virginia.gov/cgi-bin/legp604.exe?171+ful+CHAP0187
2http://lis.virginia.gov/cgi-bin/legp604.exe?171+ful+CHAP0200
3http://lis.virginia.gov/cgi-bin/legp604.exe?171+ful+CHAP0203
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Department
of Social Services concurs with the economic impact analysis prepared by the
Department of Planning and Budget.
Summary:
The proposed amendments conform the permanency regulation
to three acts of the 2017 Session of the General Assembly by (i) changing the
name of the Putative Father Registry to the Virginia Birth Father Registry
(Chapter 200 of the 2017 Acts of Assembly); (ii) requiring that youth turning
18 years old in foster care be enrolled in Medicaid, provided they are eligible
and do not object (Chapter 203 of the 2017 Acts of Assembly); and (iii)
requiring that youth turning 18 years old in foster care be given the
opportunity to participate in a survey to provide feedback on their experience
in foster care (Chapter 187 of the 2017 Acts of Assembly).
22VAC40-201-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall
have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Administrative panel review" means a review of a
child in foster care that the local board conducts on a planned basis pursuant
to § 63.2-907 of the Code of Virginia to evaluate the current status and
effectiveness of the objectives in the service plan and the services being
provided for the immediate care of the child and the plan to achieve a
permanent home for the child. The administrative review may be attended by the
birth parents or prior custodians and other interested individuals significant
to the child and family as appropriate.
"Adoption" means a legal process that entitles the
person being adopted to all of the rights and privileges, and subjects the
person to all of the obligations of a birth child.
"Adoption assistance" means a money payment
provided to adoptive parents or other persons on behalf of a child with special
needs who meets federal or state requirements to receive such payments.
"Adoption assistance agreement" means a written
agreement between the local board and the adoptive parents of a child with
special needs or in cases in which the child is in the custody of a licensed
child-placing agency, an agreement between the local board, the licensed
child-placing agency, and the adoptive parents that sets out the payment and
services that will be provided to benefit the child in accordance with Chapter
13 (§ 63.2-1300 et seq.) of Title 63.2 of the Code of Virginia.
"Adoption Progress Report" means a report filed
with the juvenile court on the progress being made to place the child in an
adoptive home. Section 16.1-283 of the Code of Virginia requires that an Adoption
Progress Report be submitted to the juvenile court every six months following
termination of parental rights until the adoption is final.
"Adoptive home" means any family home selected and
approved by a parent, local board, or a licensed child-placing agency for the
placement of a child with the intent of adoption.
"Adoptive home study" means an assessment of a
family completed by a child-placing agency to determine the family's
suitability for adoption.
"Adoptive parent" means any provider selected and
approved by a parent or a child-placing agency for the placement of a child
with the intent of adoption.
"Adoptive placement" means arranging for the care
of a child who is in the custody of a child-placing agency in an approved home
for the purpose of adoption.
"Adult adoption" means the adoption of any person
18 years of age or older, carried out in accordance with § 63.2-1243 of
the Code of Virginia.
"Agency placement adoption" means an adoption in
which a child is placed in an adoptive home by a child-placing agency that has
custody of the child.
"AREVA" means the Adoption Resource Exchange of
Virginia that maintains a registry and photo-listing of children waiting for
adoption and families seeking to adopt.
"Assessment" means an evaluation of the situation
of the child and family to identify strengths and services needed.
"Birth family" means the child's biological family.
"Birth parent" means the child's biological parent
and for purposes of adoptive placement means a parent by previous adoption.
"Birth sibling" means the child's biological
sibling.
"Board" means the State Board of Social Services.
"Child" means any natural person under younger
than 18 years of age.
"Child-placing agency" means any person who places
children in foster homes, adoptive homes, or independent living arrangements
pursuant to § 63.2-1819 of the Code of Virginia or a local board that
places children in foster homes or adoptive homes pursuant to §§ 63.2-900,
63.2-903, and 63.2-1221 of the Code of Virginia. Officers, employees, or agents
of the Commonwealth, or any locality acting within the scope of their authority
as such, who serve as or maintain a child-placing agency, shall not be required
to be licensed.
"Child with special needs" as it relates to
adoption assistance means a child who meets the definition of a child with
special needs set forth in §§ § 63.2-1300 or 63.2-1301 B of
the Code of Virginia.
"Children's Services Act" or "CSA" means
a collaborative system of services and funding that is child centered, family
focused, and community based when addressing the strengths and needs of
troubled and at-risk youth and their families in the Commonwealth.
"Claim for benefits," as used in § 63.2-915 of
the Code of Virginia and 22VAC40-201-115, means (i) foster care maintenance,
including enhanced maintenance; (ii) the services set forth in a court approved
foster care service plan, the foster care services identified in an individual
family service plan developed by a family assessment and planning team or other
multi-disciplinary team pursuant to the Children's Services Act
(§ 2.2-5200 et seq. of the Code of Virginia), or a transitional living
plan for independent living services; (iii) the placement of a child through an
agreement with the child's parents or guardians, where legal custody remains
with the parents or guardians; (iv) foster care prevention services as set out
in a prevention service plan; or (v) placement of a child for adoption when an
approved family is outside the locality with the legal custody of the child, in
accordance with 42 USC § 671(a)(23).
"Close relative" means a grandparent,
great-grandparent, adult nephew or niece, adult brother or sister, adult uncle
or aunt, or adult great uncle or great aunt.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of the
department, his designee, or his authorized representative.
"Community Policy and Management Team" or
"CPMT" means a team appointed by the local governing body pursuant to
Chapter 52 (§ 2.2-5200 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia. The
powers and duties of the CPMT are set out in § 2.2-5206 of the Code of
Virginia.
"Concurrent permanency planning" means utilizing a
structured case management approach in which reasonable efforts are made to
achieve a permanency goal, usually a reunification with the family,
simultaneously with an established alternative permanent plan for the child.
"Department" means the state Department of Social
Services.
"Denied," as used in § 63.2-915 of the Code of
Virginia and 22VAC40-201-115, means the refusal to provide a claim for
benefits.
"Dually approved" means applicants have met the
required standards to be approved as a foster and adoptive family home
provider.
"Entrustment agreement" means an agreement that the
local board enters into with the parent, parents, or guardian to place
the child in foster care either to terminate parental rights or for the
temporary care and placement of the child. The agreement specifies the
conditions for the care of the child.
"Family assessment and planning team" or
"FAPT" means the local team created by the CPMT (i) to assess the
strengths and needs of troubled youths and families who are approved for
referral to the team and (ii) to identify and determine the complement of
services required to meet their unique needs. The powers and duties of the FAPT
are set out in § 2.2-5208 of the Code of Virginia.
"Foster care" means 24-hour substitute care
for children in the custody of the local board or who remain in the custody of
their parents, but are placed away from their parents or guardians and for whom
the local board has placement and care responsibility through a noncustodial
agreement.
"Foster care maintenance payments" means payments
to cover those expenses made on behalf of a child in foster care including the
cost of, and the cost of providing, food, clothing, shelter, daily supervision,
school supplies, a child's incidentals, reasonable travel to the child's home
for visitation, and reasonable travel to remain in the school in which the
child is enrolled at the time of the placement. The term also includes costs
for children in institutional care and costs related to the child of a child in
foster care as set out in 42 USC § 675.
"Foster care plan" means a written document filed
with the court in accordance with § 16.1-281 of the Code of Virginia that
describes the programs, care, services, and other support that will be offered
to the child and his parents and other prior custodians. The foster care plan
defined in this definition is the case plan referenced in 42 USC § 675.
"Foster care prevention" means the provision of
services to a child and family to prevent the need for foster care placement.
"Foster care services" means the provision of a
full range of casework, treatment, and community services, including
independent living services, for a planned period of time to a child meeting
the requirements as set forth in § 63.2-905 of the Code of Virginia.
"Foster child" means a child for whom the local
board has assumed placement and care responsibilities through a noncustodial
foster care agreement, entrustment, or court commitment before 18 years of age.
"Foster home" means the place of residence of any
natural person in which any child, other than a child by birth or adoption of
such person, resides as a member of the household.
"Foster parent" means an approved provider who
gives 24-hour substitute family care, room and board, and services for children
or youth committed or entrusted to a child-placing agency.
"Independent living arrangement" means placement of
a child at least 16 years of age who is in the custody of a local board or
licensed child-placing agency and has been placed by the local board or
licensed child-placing agency in a living arrangement in which he the
child does not have daily substitute parental supervision.
"Independent living services" means services and
activities provided to a child in foster care 14 years of age or older who was
committed or entrusted to a local board of social services, child welfare
agency, or private child-placing agency. "Independent living
services" may also mean services and activities provided to a
person who (i) was in foster care on his 18th birthday and has not yet reached
the age of 21 years or (ii) is at least 18 years of age and who, immediately
prior to his commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice, was in the
custody of a local department of social services. Such services shall include
counseling, education, housing, employment, and money management skills
development, access to essential documents, and other appropriate services to
help children or persons prepare for self-sufficiency.
"Individual family service plan" or
"IFSP" means the plan for services developed by the FAPT in accordance
with § 2.2-5208 of the Code of Virginia.
"Intercountry placement" means the arrangement for
the care of a child in an adoptive home or foster care placement into or out of
the Commonwealth by a licensed child-placing agency, court, or other entity
authorized to make such placements in accordance with the laws of the foreign
country under which it operates.
"Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children"
or "ICPC" means a uniform law that has been enacted by all 50 states,
the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands which
that establishes orderly procedures for the interstate placement of
children and sets responsibility for those involved in placing those children.
"Interstate placement" means the arrangement for
the care of a child in an adoptive home, foster care placement, or in the home
of the child's parent or with a relative or nonagency guardian, into or out of
the Commonwealth, by a child-placing agency or court when the full legal right
of the child's parent or nonagency guardian to plan for the child has been
voluntarily terminated or limited or severed by the action of any court.
"Investigation" means the process by which the
child-placing agency obtains information required by § 63.2-1208 of the
Code of Virginia about the placement and the suitability of the adoption. The
findings of the investigation are compiled into a written report for the
circuit court containing a recommendation on the action to be taken by the
court.
"Local board" means the local board of social
services in each county and city in the Commonwealth required by § 63.2-300
of the Code of Virginia.
"Local department" means the local department of
social services of any county or city in the Commonwealth.
"Nonagency placement adoption" means an adoption in
which the child is not in the custody of a child-placing agency and is placed
in the adoptive home directly by the birth parent or legal guardian.
"Noncustodial foster care agreement" means an
agreement that the local department enters into with the parent or guardian of
a child to place the child in foster care when the parent or guardian retains
custody of the child. The agreement specifies the conditions for placement and
care of the child.
"Nonrecurring expenses" means expenses of adoptive
parents directly related to the adoption of a child with special needs as set
out in § 63.2-1301 D of the Code of Virginia.
"Parental placement" means locating or effecting
the placement of a child or the placing of a child in a family home by the
child's parent or legal guardian for the purpose of foster care or adoption.
"Permanency" means establishing family connections
and placement options for a child to provide a lifetime of commitment,
continuity of care, a sense of belonging, and a legal and social status that go
beyond a child's temporary foster care placements.
"Permanency planning" means a social work practice
philosophy that promotes establishing a permanent living situation for every
child with an adult with whom the child has a continuous, reciprocal
relationship within a minimum amount of time after the child enters the foster
care system.
"Prior custodian" means the person who had custody
of the child and with whom the child resided, other than the birth parent,
before custody was transferred to or placement made with the child-placing
agency when that person had custody of the child.
"Putative Father Registry" means a confidential
database designed to protect the rights of a putative father who wants to be
notified in the event of a proceeding related to termination of parental rights
or adoption for a child he may have fathered.
"Residential placement" means a placement in a
licensed publicly or privately owned facility, other than a private family
home, where 24-hour care is provided to children separated from their families.
A residential placement includes placements in children's residential
facilities as defined in § 63.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.
"Reunification" means the return of the child to
his home after removal for reasons of child abuse and neglect, abandonment,
child in need of services, parental request for relief of custody, noncustodial
agreement, entrustment, or any other court-ordered removal.
"Service worker" means a worker responsible for
case management or service coordination for prevention, foster care, or
adoption cases.
"SSI" means Supplemental Security Income.
"State pool funds" means the pooled state and local
funds administered by CSA and used to pay for services authorized by the CPMT.
"Step-parent adoption" means the adoption of a
child by a spouse or the adoption of a child by a former spouse of the birth or
adoptive parent in accordance with § 63.2-1201.1 of the Code of Virginia.
"Title IV-E" means the title of the Social Security
Act that authorizes federal funds for foster care and adoption assistance.
"Virginia Birth Father Registry" means the
established confidential database designed to protect the rights of a putative
father who wants to be notified in the event of a proceeding related to
termination of parental rights or adoption for a child he may have fathered.
"Visitation and report" means the visits conducted
pursuant to § 63.2-1212 of the Code of Virginia and the written report of
the findings made in the course of the visitation. The report is filed in the
circuit court in accordance with § 63.2-1212 of the Code of Virginia.
"Wrap around services" means an individually
designed set of services and supports provided to a child and his family that
includes treatment services, personal support services or any other supports
necessary to achieve the desired outcome. Wrap around services are developed
through a team approach.
"Youth" means any child in foster care between 16
and 18 years of age or any person 18 to 21 years of age transitioning out of foster
care and receiving independent living services pursuant to § 63.2-905.1 of
the Code of Virginia. "Youth" may also mean an individual older than
the age of 16 years who is the subject of an adoption assistance agreement.
22VAC40-201-100. Providing independent living services.
A. Independent living services shall be identified by the
youth; foster or adoptive family; local department; service providers; legal
community; and other interested individuals and shall be included in the
service plan. Input from the youth in assembling these individuals and
developing the services is required.
B. Independent living services shall be provided to all youth
ages 14 to 18 years and shall be offered to any person between 18 and 21 years
of age who is in the process of transitioning from foster care to
self-sufficiency.
C. Independent living services include education, vocational
training, employment, mental and physical health services, transportation,
housing, financial support, daily living skills, counseling, and development of
permanent connections with adults.
D. Local departments shall assess the youth's independent
living skills and needs and incorporate the assessment results into the youth's
service plan.
E. A youth placed in foster care before the age of 18 years
may continue to receive independent living services from the local department
between the ages of 18 and 21 years if:
1. The youth is making progress in an educational or
vocational program, has employment, or is in a treatment or training program;
and
2. The youth agrees to participate with the local department in
(i) in developing a service agreement and (ii) by signing the
service agreement. The service agreement shall require, at a minimum, that the
youth's living arrangement shall be approved by the local department and that
the youth shall cooperate with all services; or
3. The youth is in permanent foster care and is making
progress in an educational or vocational program, has employment, or is in a
treatment or training program.
F. A youth age 16 years and older is eligible to live in an
independent living arrangement provided the local department utilizes the
independent living arrangement placement criteria developed by the department
to determine that such an arrangement is in the youth's best interest. An
eligible youth may receive an independent living stipend to assist him with the
costs of maintenance. The eligibility criteria for receiving an independent
living stipend will be developed by the department.
G. Any person who was committed or entrusted to a local
department and chooses to discontinue receiving independent living services
after age 18 years may request a resumption of independent living services
provided that (i) the person has not yet reached 21 years of age and (ii) the
person has entered into a written agreement, less than 60 days after
independent living services have been discontinued, with the local board
regarding the terms and conditions of his receipt of independent living
services. Local departments shall provide any person who chooses to leave
foster care or terminate independent living services before his 21st birthday
written notice of his right to request restoration of independent living
services in accordance with § 63.2-905.1 of the Code of Virginia by
including such written notice in the person's transition plan.
H. Local departments shall assist eligible youth in applying for
educational and vocational financial assistance. Educational and vocational
specific funding sources shall be used prior to using other sources.
I. Local departments shall provide independent living
services to any person between 18 and 21 years of age who:
1. Was in the custody of the local board immediately prior to
his commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice;
2. Is in the process of transitioning from a commitment to the
Department of Juvenile Justice to self-sufficiency; and
3. Provides written notice of his intent to receive
independent living services and enters into a written agreement which that
sets forth the terms and conditions for the provision of independent living
services with the local board within 60 days of his release from commitment.
J. Every six months a supervisory review of service plans for
youth receiving independent living services after age 18 shall be conducted to
assure the effectiveness of service provision.
K. The local department shall ensure that any youth in foster
care on the youth's 18th birthday is enrolled in Medicaid, unless the youth
objects or is otherwise ineligible.
L. The local department shall ensure that any youth who
turns 18 years of age while in foster care is given the opportunity to complete
a survey to provide feedback regarding the youth's experience in foster care.
22VAC40-201-190. Virginia Putative Birth Father
Registry.
A. The department shall establish and maintain a putative
father registry which that is a confidential database.
B. A search of the Virginia Putative Birth
Father Registry shall be conducted for all adoptions except when the child has
been adopted according to the laws of a foreign country or when the child was
placed in Virginia from a foreign country for the purpose of adoption in
accordance with § 63.2-1104 of the Code of Virginia.
C. Any petitioner who files a petition for termination of
parental rights or for an adoption proceeding shall request a search of the
Virginia Putative Birth Father Registry. The certificate of search
and finding must be filed with the court before an adoption or termination of
parental rights proceeding can be concluded.
D. Any man who desires to be notified of an adoption
proceeding or termination of parental rights regarding a child that he may have
fathered shall register with the Virginia Birth Father Registry.
E. A registration is timely when it is received by the
department within:
1. 10 days of the child's birth;
2. 10 days of the date of personal service of the written
notice required under subsection F of § 63.2-1250 or within 13 days of the
certified mailing date of such written notice; or
3. 10 days upon the registrant's discovery of
misrepresentation by the birth mother that led him to believe that (i) the
pregnancy was terminated or the mother miscarried when in fact the baby was
born or (ii) the child died when in fact the child is alive.
D. F. The department may require additional
information to determine that the individual requesting information from the Putative
Virginia Birth Father Registry is eligible to receive information in
accordance with § 63.2-1251 of the Code of Virginia.
VA.R. Doc. No. R18-5305; Filed October 26, 2018, 11:59 a.m.
TITLE 23. TAXATION
DEPARTMENT OF TAXATION
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 23VAC10-390. Virginia Soft Drink
Excise Tax Regulations (amending 23VAC10-390-40).
Statutory Authority: §§ 58.1-203 and 58.1-1703 of
the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are
scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: January 25, 2019.
Effective Date: February 11, 2019.
Agency Contact: Joe Mayer, Lead Policy Analyst,
Department of Taxation, P.O. Box 27185, Richmond, VA 23261-7185, telephone
(804) 371-2299, FAX (804) 371-2355, or email joseph.mayer@tax.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 58.1-203 of the Code of Virginia
authorizes the Tax Commissioner to issue regulations relating to the
interpretation and enforcement of the laws governing taxes administered by the
Department of Taxation. The authority for the current regulatory action is
discretionary.
Purpose: As a result of a periodic review of the
Virginia Soft Drink Excise Tax Regulations initiated by the department on June
27, 2016, and completed July 18, 2016, the department has determined that
23VAC10-390-40, relating to collection of the soft drink excise tax, should be
amended. This regulatory action is necessary to reflect legislative changes and
administrative procedures affecting the collection of the soft drink excise
tax. In addition, some existing regulatory language is unnecessary because it
provides no additional guidance regarding clear and unambiguous statutes.
Therefore, this regulatory action will update the regulation to conform to
legislative changes and administrative procedures. It will also repeal language
that is duplicative or outdated. The amendment of this regulation does not
reflect a change in existing tax policy and will have no impact on the administration
of the tax.
As this regulatory action does not reflect a change in existing
departmental policy, it will have no effect on the health, safety, and welfare
of citizens.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: The
fast-track rulemaking process is intended for regulations that are expected to
be noncontroversial. As the regulation is being amended to reflect current law
and will not make any changes to the department's current policy regarding the
soft drink excise tax, this action is not expected to be controversial.
Substance: The amendments relate to collection of the
soft drink excise tax. Virginia imposes an annual excise tax on wholesalers and
distributors of carbonated soft drinks. The tax is based on the gross receipts
of each wholesaler and distributor from the sale of such soft drinks during the
year. The Code of Virginia requires that this tax be collected by the
department in the same manner as the income tax is collected.
This regulatory action will amend 23VAC10-390-40 of the Virginia
Soft Drink Excise Tax Regulations to conform to current law and existing
administrative procedures regarding the collection of the tax and to strike
provisions that are no longer accurate due to changes in the law. The affected
provisions deal with the collection of the soft drink excise tax; return due
dates; and extensions, penalties, and interest that may apply for failure to
timely file or pay the amount of tax due.
During the 2005, 1999, 1991, and 1989 Sessions of the General
Assembly, several modifications were made to the way the Virginia income tax is
collected:
• Chapter 100 of the 2005 Acts of Assembly eliminated the
requirement for income taxpayers to file an extension form with the department
before they could elect to file their income tax return on extension.
• Chapters 146 and 180 of the 1999 Acts of Assembly modified §
58.1-15 of the Code of Virginia by equalizing the rate of interest charged on
assessments and the rate of interest paid on refunds.
• Chapter 316 of the 1991 Acts of Assembly modified § 58.1-15
of the Code of Virginia relating to the rate of interest charged on assessments
or paid on refunds. This legislation also increased the penalty for late-filed
income tax returns and the penalty for late payment of the income tax from 5.0%
to 6.0%.
• Chapter 629 of the 1989 Acts of Assembly modified the penalty
for late-filed income tax returns from 10% to 5.0% per month for up to five
months for individuals and from $100 to the greater of $100 or 5.0% per month
for up to five months for corporations. This legislation also modified the
penalty for late paying an income tax liability from 5.0% to 5.0% per month for
up to five months.
Because this regulation was promulgated prior to the enactment
of this legislation, it is inconsistent with these legislative changes. Other
amendments in this action include removing language that is unnecessary because
it provides no additional guidance to clear and unambiguous statutes.
Therefore, this regulatory action will update language to conform to statute
and current administrative procedures, and it will repeal other language that
is duplicative or outdated. Amending this section does not reflect any change
in existing tax policy and will have no impact on the administration of tax.
Because of this, the amendment of this section is not expected to be
controversial.
Issues: This regulatory action will ease voluntary
taxpayer compliance and the department's administration of the state tax laws
by amending a regulation section that currently does not conform to statute and
current administrative procedures and by striking obsolete language. Therefore,
the amendments will result in no disadvantage to the public or the
Commonwealth.
Small Business Impact Review Report of Findings: This
fast-track regulatory action serves as the report of the findings of the
regulatory review pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact
Analysis:
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. As a result
of a periodic review,1 the Department of Taxation proposes to repeal
provisions that are no longer accurate due to statutory changes or are
duplicative of the statutory language.
Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for
all proposed changes.
Estimated Economic Impact. This regulation contains general
provisions applicable to the Soft Drink Excise Tax. Numerous statutory changes
in the 1989, 1991, 1999, and 2005 Virginia General Assembly Sessions amended
the Soft Drink Excise Tax and rendered the current regulatory language
inaccurate.2 In addition, some of the current regulatory provisions
are unnecessary because they are duplicative of information provided in the
statute. The proposed changes will update the regulation so that it is
consistent with the statute. Since this regulatory action does not reflect any
change in current tax policy or on the administration of the soft drink excise
tax, no economic effect is expected other than potentially reducing confusion
by eliminating conflicting information between the Code of Virginia and the
regulation.
Businesses and Entities Affected. This regulation applies to
approximately 70 taxpayers who file a Soft Drink Excise Tax return.
Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed changes do not disproportionately
affect particular localities.
Projected Impact on Employment. No impact on employment is
expected.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. No impact on
the use and value of private property is expected.
Real Estate Development Costs. No impact on real estate
development costs is expected.
Small Businesses:
Definition. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia,
small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates,
that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500
full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
Costs and Other Effects. Of the 70 taxpayers that file Soft
Drink Excise Tax returns, approximately 22 are estimated to be small
businesses. The proposed regulation does not impose costs on small businesses,
but is expected to benefit them by eliminating potentially confusing language
between the regulation and the statute.
Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. No adverse
impact on small businesses is expected.
Adverse Impacts:
Businesses. No adverse effects are expected on small
businesses.
Localities. The proposed amendments will not adversely affect
localities.
Other Entities. The proposed amendments will not adversely
affect other entities.
__________________________
1See
http://townhall.virginia.gov/l/ViewPReview.cfm?PRid=1510.
2See 1989 Acts of Assembly, Chapter 629,
1991 Acts of Assembly, Chapter
316,
http://lis.virginia.gov/cgi-bin/legp604.exe?991+ful+CHAP0180,
http://lis.virginia.gov/cgi-bin/legp604.exe?051+ful+CHAP0100.
Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The Department
of Taxation agrees with the Department of Planning and Budget's economic impact
analysis.
Summary:
The amendments conform the Virginia Soft Drink Excise Tax
Regulations to current law and existing administrative procedures regarding the
collection of the tax and strike provisions that are no longer accurate due to
changes in law and procedures, including affecting provisions for (i)
collection of the soft drink excise tax; (ii) return due dates; and (iii)
extensions, penalties, and interest charged for failure to timely file or pay
the amount of tax due. This regulatory action does not reflect any change in
current tax policy.
23VAC10-390-40. Collection.
A. The soft drink excise tax is collected annually by the
Department of Taxation. A check payment for the amount of tax,
and if applicable, penalty and interest, should shall be made payable
to the Department of Taxation and submitted with the properly filed return
no later than the due date prescribed in subsection B of this section.
B. Returns are required to shall be filed with
the Department of Taxation, P.O. Box 1880, Richmond, Virginia 23282-1880,
on or before the statutory original due date (without
extension) for filing Virginia individual income tax returns under
§ 58.1-341 of the Code of Virginia, or if the taxpayer is a corporation, for
filing Virginia corporate income tax returns under § 58.1-441 of the Code of
Virginia.
1. If taxpayer has an extension of time for filing his
income tax return from the Internal Revenue Service, the filing date for the
soft drink excise tax may be extended to the same as the federal date plus 30
days. In order to receive an extension of time for filing the return, a request
for extension must be made to the Department of Taxation prior to the original
due date of the return.
2. If an extension of filing time is granted, interest at
the rate established pursuant to Section 6621 of the Internal Revenue Code of
1954, as amended, accrues from the date the return was originally due to be
filed to the date of payment.
C. A taxpayer may elect an extension of time within which
to file the soft drink excise tax return to the extended due date set forth and
in the manner prescribed for filing Virginia individual income tax returns on
extension under § 58.1-344 of the Code of Virginia, or if the taxpayer is
a corporation, for filing Virginia corporate income tax returns on extension
under § 58.1-453 of the Code of Virginia.
1. If the full amount is not paid on or before the original
due date, the penalty imposed by subsection D of this section for failure to
pay when due the full amount shall apply regardless of whether the taxpayer
properly elected to utilize an extension. Interest at the rate established
pursuant to § 58.1-15 of the Code of Virginia accrues from the date the
return was originally due to be filed to the date of payment.
2. If the return is not filed or the full amount of the tax
due is not paid on or before the extended due date elected pursuant to this
subsection, the penalty imposed by subsection D of this section for failure to
file a return and for late filing shall apply as if no extension had been
elected.
D. Subject to the provisions of subdivisions B 1
and 2 subsection C of this section, penalties and interest
are imposed for failure to file a return, for late filing, for filing a false
or fraudulent return, and for failure to pay when due the full amount of tax
as shown on the face of the return and are assessed in the same manner as the
income tax penalties imposed under Chapter 3 of Title 58.1 of the Code of
Virginia make full payment of the taxpayer's actual tax liability on or
before the original return due date.
1. Penalty for failure to pay when due shall be 5.0% of the
amount of unpaid tax and assessed in accordance with §§ 58.1-351 and
58.1-455.
2. Penalty for failure to file the return when due is $100
for corporations and 10% of the amount of tax assessable on the return for all
others. The penalties shall be assessed in accordance with Sections 58.1-347
and 58.1-450.
3. Penalty for fraud is assessed in accordance with §§
58.1-348, 58.1-451 and 58.1-452.
4. 1. If the taxpayer is not a corporation, the
nature and amount of the penalties imposed by this subsection shall be
determined as if the comparable individual income tax penalties under
§§ 58.1-347, 58.1-348, and 58.1-351 of the Code of Virginia apply to the
soft drink excise tax rather than the individual income tax.
2. If the taxpayer is a corporation, the nature and amount
of the penalties imposed by this subsection shall be determined as if the
comparable corporate income tax penalties under §§ 58.1-450, 58.1-451,
58.1-452, and 58.1-455 of the Code of Virginia apply to the soft drink excise
tax rather than the corporate income tax.
3. Interest is assessed on tax and applicable penalties
in accordance with § 58.1-15 of the Code of Virginia.
VA.R. Doc. No. R19-4928; Filed October 24, 2018, 2:46 p.m.