TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT

VIRGINIA WASTE MANAGEMENT BOARD

Final Regulation

Title of Regulation: 9VAC20-60. Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations (amending 9VAC20-60-18).

Statutory Authority: § 10.1-1402 of the Code of Virginia; 42 USC § 6921; 40 CFR Parts 260 through 272.

Effective Date: September 23, 2026.

Agency Contact: Ashby Scott, Hazardous Waste Program Manager, Department of Environmental Quality, 1111 East Main Street, Suite 1400, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 350-5623, or email ashby.scott@deq.virginia.gov.

Summary:

The amendment updates the reference to U.S. Environmental Protection Agency regulations in Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations to the July 1, 2025, edition.

9VAC20-60-18. Applicability of incorporated references based on the dates on which they became effective.

Except as noted, when a regulation of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) set forth in Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is referenced and incorporated into this chapter, that regulation shall be as it exists and has been published in the July 1, 2024 2025, annual edition; however, the incorporation by reference of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations shall not include the requirements of EPA's Response to Vacatur of Certain Provisions of the Definition of Solid Waste Rule (83 FR 24664, May 30, 2018).

TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT

STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD

Final Regulation

Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-151. Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) General Permit Regulation for Discharges of Stormwater Associated with Industrial Activity (amending 9VAC25-151-400).

Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.15 of the Code of Virginia; § 402 of the Clean Water Act; 40 CFR Parts 122, 123, and 124.

Effective Date: September 23, 2026.

Agency Contact: Laura Galli, Department of Environmental Quality, 1111 East Main Street, Suite 1400, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 573-5674, or email laura.galli@deq.virginia.gov.

Summary:

Pursuant to Chapter 1080 of the 2026 Acts of Assembly, the amendments allow permittees under the Industrial Stormwater General Permit to use nutrient credits generated by point sources for the purpose of nutrient reduction compliance for calendar years 2025 and 2026 to comply with Chesapeake Bay total maximum daily loads if (i) the credits are generated and applied for purposes of compliance for the same calendar year; (ii) the credits are acquired no later than September 1, 2026, for calendar year 2025 or June 1, 2027, for calendar year 2026; (iii) the credits are generated in the same locality or tributary, except that permittees in the Eastern Coastal Basin may also acquire credits from the Potomac and Rappahannock tributaries; (iv) the credits are either point source nitrogen or point source phosphorus credits generated by point sources covered by the general permit issued pursuant to § 62.1-44.19:14 of the Code of Virginia; and (v) the permittee reports evidence of having obtained the credits to the Department of Environmental Quality within 30 days of September 1, 2026, for calendar year 2025 or June 1, 2027, for calendar year 2026.

9VAC25-151-400. Chesapeake Bay total maximum daily load compliance.

A. Chesapeake Bay TMDL Compliance. EPA's Chesapeake Bay TMDL (December 29, 2010) includes wasteload allocations for VPDES permitted industrial stormwater facilities as part of the regulated stormwater aggregate load. EPA used data submitted by Virginia with the Phase I Chesapeake Bay TMDL Watershed Implementation Plan, including the number of industrial stormwater permits per county and the number of urban acres regulated by industrial stormwater permits, as part of their development of the aggregate load. Aggregate loads for industrial stormwater facilities were appropriate because actual facility loading data were not available to develop individual facility wasteload allocations.

Virginia estimated the loadings from industrial stormwater facilities using actual and estimated facility acreage information and total phosphorus (TP) and total nitrogen (TN) loading rates from the Northern Virginia Planning District Commission (NVPDC) Guidebook for Screening Urban Nonpoint Pollution Management Strategies (Annandale, VA November 1979), prepared for the Metropolitan Washington Council of Governments. The loading rates used were as follows:

TP - High (80%) imperviousness industrial; 1.5 lb/ac/yr

TN - High (80%) imperviousness industrial; 12.3 lb/ac/yr

Actual facility area information and TP and TN data collected for facilities subject to Part V of this permit will be used by the department to quantify the nutrient and sediment loads from those VPDES permitted industrial stormwater facilities.

1. Facilities that obtained coverage under the 2019 industrial stormwater general permit that demonstrated compliance with the Chesapeake Bay TMDL loading rates.

Owners shall maintain documentation of their demonstration of compliance with the Chesapeake Bay TMDL loading rates with the SWPPP and shall continue implementing any BMPs that may have been developed as part of that demonstration.

Documentation may include:

a. Calculations submitted to the department indicating that reductions were not necessary;

b. A completed TMDL Action Plan, including a description of the means and methods, such as management practices and retrofit programs that were utilized to meet the required reductions;

c. Other means accepted by the department indicating compliance with the Chesapeake Bay TMDL loading rates.

2. Facilities that obtained coverage under the 2019 industrial stormwater general permit that did not demonstrate compliance with the Chesapeake Bay TMDL loading rates shall submit a demonstration to the department.

a. Owners of facilities that submitted a Chesapeake Bay TMDL action plan during the 2019 industrial stormwater general permit term that did not achieve reductions by the end of the 2019 permit term shall update and resubmit their action plan to the department for approval no later than 60 days following coverage under this general permit. Permittees shall achieve 10% of the remaining reductions by December 31, 2024, and all remaining reductions by December 31, 2025. An annual report shall be submitted to the department by June 30 of each year describing the progress in meeting the interim and final reductions. A final report to demonstrate compliance shall be submitted to the department no later than January 10, 2026. Documentation of compliance with the Chesapeake Bay TMDL loading rates shall be maintained with the SWPPP.

b. Owners of facilities that completed four samples for each outfall for TN and TP during the 2019 industrial stormwater general permit term that did not submit calculations by the end of the 2019 permit term shall utilize the procedures in Part V D to calculate their facility stormwater loads. The permittee shall submit a copy of the calculations, and a Chesapeake Bay TMDL action plan if required under Part V E, no later than 60 days following coverage under this general permit to the DEQ regional office serving the area where the industrial facility is located on a form provided by the department. Reductions, if applicable, shall be achieved by December 31, 2025, and an annual report shall be submitted to the department by June 30 of each year describing the progress in meeting the required reductions until such time that the demonstration is completed. The demonstration shall be submitted to the department no later than January 10, 2026. Documentation of compliance with the Chesapeake Bay TMDL loading rates shall be maintained with the SWPPP.

c. Owners of facilities registered prior to July 1, 2022, that did not complete four samples for each outfall for TN and TP by the end of the 2019 industrial stormwater general permit term shall monitor their discharges for TN and TP to characterize the contributions from their facility's specific industrial sector for these parameters. Total nitrogen is the sum of total Kjeldahl nitrogen (TKN) and nitrite + nitrate and shall be derived from the results of those tests. After the facility is granted coverage under the permit, samples shall be collected during each of the first four quarters of permit coverage. Samples shall be collected and analyzed in accordance with Part V B. Monitoring results shall be reported in accordance with Part V C and Part II C, and retained in accordance with Part II B. Calculations utilizing the procedures in Part V D, and a Chesapeake Bay TMDL action plan if required under Part V E, shall be submitted no later than 60 days following the completion of the fourth quarterly monitoring period to the DEQ regional office serving the area where the industrial facility is located on a form provided by the department. Reductions, if applicable, shall be achieved by December 31, 2025, and an annual report shall be submitted to the department by June 30 of each year describing the progress in meeting the required reductions until such time that the demonstration is completed. The demonstration shall be submitted to the department no later than January 10, 2026. Documentation of compliance with the Chesapeake Bay TMDL loading rates shall be maintained with the SWPPP.

Facilities may use the applicable sampling data collected during the 2019 industrial stormwater general permit term to satisfy all or part of the four monitoring periods requirement in accordance with Part V A 2 c.

d. Owners of facilities registered after June 30, 2022, that did not complete four samples for each outfall for TN and TP by the end of the 2019 industrial stormwater general permit term shall monitor their discharges in accordance with Part V A 3.

Facilities may use the applicable sampling data collected during the 2019 industrial stormwater general permit term to satisfy all or part of the four monitoring periods requirements in accordance with Part V A 3.

3. Facilities that obtain initial coverage under the 2024 industrial stormwater general permit, but are not newly constructed facilities as identified in 9VAC25-151-60 C 13.

Owners of facilities in the Chesapeake Bay watershed that obtain initial coverage under the 2024 industrial stormwater general permit shall monitor their discharges for TN and TP to characterize the contributions from their facility's specific industrial sector for these parameters. Total nitrogen is the sum of total Kjeldahl nitrogen (TKN) and nitrite + nitrate and shall be derived from the results of those tests. After the facility is granted coverage under the permit, samples shall be collected during each of the first four quarters of permit coverage. Samples shall be collected and analyzed in accordance with Part V B. Monitoring results shall be reported in accordance with Part V C and Part II C, and retained in accordance with Part II B. Calculations utilizing the procedures in Part V D and a Chesapeake Bay TMDL action plan if required under Part V E shall be submitted no later than 60 days following the completion of the fourth quarterly monitoring period to the DEQ regional office serving the area where the industrial facility is located on a form provided by the department. Reductions, if applicable, shall be achieved by two years following the end of the fourth quarterly monitoring period, and an annual report shall be submitted to the department by June 30 of each year describing the progress in meeting the required reductions until such time that the demonstration is completed. The demonstration shall be submitted to the department no later than the 10th of the month directly following the two year period. Documentation of compliance with the Chesapeake Bay TMDL loading rates shall be maintained with the SWPPP.

B. Monitoring instructions.

1. Collection and analysis of samples. Sampling requirements shall be assessed on an outfall by outfall basis. Samples shall be collected and analyzed in accordance with the requirements of Part II A.

2. When and how to sample. A minimum of one grab sample shall be taken from the discharge associated with industrial activity resulting from a storm event that results in a discharge from the site providing the interval from the preceding storm event discharge is at least 72 hours. The 72-hour storm interval is waived if the permittee is able to document that less than a 72-hour interval is representative for local storm events during the sampling period. In the case of snowmelt, the monitoring shall be performed at a time when a measurable discharge occurs at the site. For discharges from a stormwater management structure, the monitoring shall be performed at a time when a measurable discharge occurs from the structure.

The grab sample shall be taken during the first 30 minutes of the discharge. If it is not practicable to take the sample during the first 30 minutes, the sample may be taken during the first three hours of the discharge, provided that the permittee explains why a grab sample during the first 30 minutes was impracticable. This information shall be submitted in the department's electronic discharge monitoring report (e-DMR) system and maintained with the SWPPP. If the sampled discharge commingles with process or nonprocess water, the permittee shall attempt to sample the stormwater discharge before it mixes with the nonstormwater.

3. Storm event data. For each monitoring event, except snowmelt monitoring, along with the monitoring results, the permittee shall identify the date of the storm event sampled; rainfall total (in inches) of the storm event that generated the sampled runoff; and the interval between the storm event sampled and the end of the previous storm event discharge. For snowmelt monitoring, the permittee shall identify the date of the sampling event.

4. Monitoring periods. Quarterly monitoring shall be conducted in each of the following three-month periods: January through March, April through June, July through September, and October through December.

5. Documentation explaining a facility's inability to obtain a sample (including dates and times the outfalls were viewed or sampling was attempted), of no rain event, or of deviation from the 72-hour storm interval shall be submitted with the e-DMR and maintained with the SWPPP. Acceptable documentation includes National Climatic Data Center (NCDC) weather station data, local weather station data, facility rainfall logs, and other appropriate supporting data.

6. Representative outfalls may be used in accordance with Part I A 2 f.

C. Reporting monitoring results.

1. Reporting to the department. The permittee shall follow the reporting requirements and deadlines in Table 400-1 if required by Part V A 2 or A 3:

2. Permittees shall submit results for each outfall associated with industrial activity according to the requirements of Part II C.

3. Significant digits. The permittee shall report at least the same number of significant digits as a numeric effluent limitation or TMDL wasteload allocation for a given parameter; otherwise, at least two significant digits shall be reported for a given parameter. Regardless of the rounding convention used by the permittee (i.e., five always rounding up or to the nearest even number), the permittee shall use the convention consistently and shall ensure that consulting laboratories employed by the permittee use the same convention.

D. Calculation of facility loads.

Permittees required to collect nutrient and sediment data in accordance with Part V A 2 or A 3 shall analyze the data collected to determine if pollution reductions are required. The permittee shall average the data collected at the facility for each of the pollutants of concern (POC) (e.g., TP and TN) and compare the results to the loading rates for TP and TN presented in Part V A.

The following formula may be used to determine the loading rate:

L = 0.226 x P x Pj x (0.05 + (0.9 x Ia)) x C

where:

L = the POC loading rate (lb/acre/year)

P = the annual rainfall (inches/year) - The permittee may use either actual annual average rainfall data for the facility location (in inches/year), the Virginia annual average rainfall of 44.3 inches/year, or another method approved by the department.

Pj = the fraction of annual events that produce runoff - The permittee shall use 0.9 unless the department approves another rate.

Ia = the impervious fraction of the facility impervious area of industrial activity to the facility industrial activity area.

C = the POC average concentration of all facility samples (mg/L) - Facilities with multiple outfalls shall calculate a weighted average concentration for each outfall using the drainage area of each outfall.

For total phosphorus, all daily concentration data below the quantitation level (QL) for the analytical method used shall be treated as half the QL. All daily concentration data equal to or above the QL for the analytical method used shall be treated as it is reported.

For total nitrogen, if none of the daily concentration data for the respective species (i.e., TKN, nitrate, or nitrite) are equal to or above the QL for the respective analytical methods used, the daily TN concentration value reported shall equal one half of the largest QL used for the respective species. If one of the data is equal to or above the QL, the daily TN concentration value shall be treated as that data point is reported. If more than one of the data is above the QL, the daily TN concentration value shall equal the sum of the data points as reported.

Calculations shall be submitted to the department within 60 days from the end of the last monitoring period that satisfies the monitoring requirements in Part V A 2 or A 3. Calculations shall be submitted to the DEQ regional office serving the area where the industrial facility is located, on a form provided by the department, and maintained with the facility's SWPPP.

Alternative calculations may be accepted on a case by case basis by the department to accommodate facilities with outfalls that rarely discharge.

E. Chesapeake Bay TMDL action plan requirements. For permittees required to submit calculations in accordance with Part V D, if the calculated facility loading rate for TP or TN is above the loading rates for TP or TN presented in Part V A, then the permittee shall develop and submit a Chesapeake Bay TMDL action plan to the department.

The Chesapeake Bay TMDL action plan shall be submitted on a form provided by the department to the regional office serving the area where the industrial facility is located within 60 days following the completion of the fourth quarterly monitoring period. A copy of the current Chesapeake Bay TMDL action plan and all facility loading rate calculations shall be maintained with the facility's SWPPP. The Chesapeake Bay TMDL action plan shall include:

1. A determination of the total pollutant load reductions for TP and TN (as appropriate) necessary to reduce the annual loads from industrial activities. This shall be determined by multiplying the industrial average times the difference between the TMDL loading rates listed in Part V A and the actual facility loading rates calculated in accordance with Part V D. The reduction applies to the total difference calculated for each pollutant of concern; and

2. The means and methods, such as management practices and retrofit programs that will be utilized to meet the required reductions determined in Part V E 1 and a schedule to achieve those reductions by the applicable deadline set in Part V A 2 or A 3. Pollutant reductions may be achieved using a combination of the following alternatives:

a. Reductions provided by one or more of the BMPs found through the Virginia Stormwater BMP Clearinghouse at http://www.deq.virginia.gov/our-programs/water/stormwater/stormwater-construction/bmp-clearinghouse, or BMPs approved by the Chesapeake Bay Program. Any BMPs implemented to provide the required pollutant reductions shall be incorporated in the SWPPP and be permanently maintained by the permittee;

b. Implementation of site-specific BMPs followed by a minimum of four stormwater samples collected in accordance with sampling requirements in Part V B that demonstrate pollutant loadings have been reduced below those calculated under Part V D. Any BMPs implemented to provide the required pollutant reductions shall be incorporated in the SWPPP and be permanently maintained by the permittee; or

c. Acquisition of nonpoint source credits certified by the board as perpetual in accordance with § 62.1-44.19:20 of the Code of Virginia: or

d. Notwithstanding the applicable deadline set in Part V A 2 or A 3, to meet the required reductions determined in Part V E 1, for calendar years 2025 and 2026, the permittee may acquire and use nutrient credits generated by point sources in accordance with the requirements of Article 4.02 (§ 62.1-4419:12 et seq.) of Chapter 3.1 of Title 62.1 of the Code of Virginia for compliance purposes only if:

(1) Such point source credits are generated and applied for purposes of compliance for the same calendar year;

(2) Such point source credits are acquired no later than September 1, 2026, for calendar year 2025 or June 1, 2027, for calendar year 2026;

(3) Such point source credits are generated in the same locality or tributary, except that permittees located in the Eastern Coastal Basin may also acquire credits from the Potomac and Rappahannock tributaries;

(4) Such credits are either point source nitrogen or point source phosphorus credits generated by point sources covered by the general permit issued pursuant to § 62.1-44.19:14 of the Code of Virginia; and

(5) The permittee reports evidence of having obtained such credits to the department within 30 days of the deadlines specified in Part V E 2 d (2).

TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT

STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD

Final Regulation

Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-820. General Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) Watershed Permit Regulation for Total Nitrogen and Total Phosphorus Discharges and Nutrient Trading in the Chesapeake Bay Watershed in Virginia (amending 9VAC25-820-10, 9VAC25-820-15, 9VAC25-820-20, 9VAC25-820-40, 9VAC25-820-70, 9VAC25-820-80).

Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.15 of the Code of Virginia; § 402 of the Clean Water Act; 40 CFR Parts 122, 123, and 124.

Effective Date: January 1, 2027.

Agency Contact: Morgan Emanuel, Regulatory and Guidance Analyst, Department of Environmental Quality, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 494-9635, or email morgan.emanuel@deq.virginia.gov.

Background: This general permit regulation governs facilities holding a Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) individual permit or owners of facilities that otherwise meet the definition of an existing facility that discharge or propose to discharge total nitrogen or total phosphorus or both to the Chesapeake Bay or tributaries to the Chesapeake Bay. Facilities covered by the general permit regulation are authorized to discharge to surface waters and trade credits for total nitrogen and total phosphorus to offset discharges that exceed facility wasteload allocations. Nitrogen and phosphorus are both nutrients that contribute to pollution in the Chesapeake Bay. The primary issue that needs to be addressed in this action is that the existing general permit expires on December 31, 2026, and must be reissued to continue making it available after that date; the amendments extend the permit to December 31, 2031.

Summary:

The amendments include (i) updating the effective date of the Code of Federal Regulation reference to U.S. Environmental Protection Agency regulations referenced or adopted in the regulation; (ii) updating compliance and deadline dates throughout the regulation to accommodate the extension of the permit effective dates; (iii) clarifying consolidation versus aggregation of facilities and when and how wasteload allocations are terminated without transfer; (iv) removing language for completed compliance schedules; (v) adjusting monitoring requirements; (vi) clarifying monthly average reporting procedures and adding language regarding a new option to obtain point source credits through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange Association; and (vii) updating the cost of credits per pound of nitrogen to $9.23 and per pound of phosphorus to $20.26 based on the 2022 Pay-For-Outcomes Nonpoint Source Pollution Reduction Grant Program, which was adjusted for inflation using the Consumer Price Index (CPI) July 2022 - July 2025 CPI-U Washington-Arlington-Alexandria, DC-VA-MD-WV.

Changes to the proposed regulation (i) remove a provision that allowed owners of facilities discharging into different tributaries to transfer their wasteload allocations across tributaries and (ii) clarify the differences between the annual acquisition of point source credits and the acquisition of wasteload allocations.

Chapter 820

General Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) Watershed General Permit Regulation for Total Nitrogen and Total Phosphorus Discharges and Nutrient Discharges and Trading in the Chesapeake Bay Watershed in Virginia

9VAC25-820-10. Definitions.

Except as defined below in this section, the words and terms used in this chapter shall have the meanings defined in the Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) Permit Regulation (9VAC25-31).

"Annual mass load of total nitrogen" (expressed in pounds per year) means the sum of the total monthly loads for all of the months in one calendar year. See Part I E 4 of the general permit in 9VAC25-820-70 for calculating total monthly load.

"Annual mass load of total phosphorus" (expressed in pounds per year) means the sum of the total monthly loads for all of the months in one calendar year. See Part I E 4 of the general permit in 9VAC25-820-70 for calculating total monthly load.

"Association" means the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange Association authorized by § 62.1-44.19:17 of the Code of Virginia.

"Attenuation" means the rate at which nutrients are reduced through natural processes during transport in water.

"Board" means the Virginia State Water Control Board or State Water Control Board. When used outside the context of the promulgation of regulations, including regulations to establish general permits, "board" means the Department of Environmental Quality.

"Delivered total nitrogen load" means the discharged mass load of total nitrogen from a point source that is adjusted by the delivery factor for that point source.

"Delivered total phosphorus load" means the discharged mass load of total phosphorus from a point source that is adjusted by the delivery factor for that point source.

"Delivery factor" means an estimate of the number of pounds of total nitrogen or total phosphorus delivered to tidal waters for every pound discharged from a facility, as determined by the specific geographic location of the facility, to account for attenuation that occurs during riverine transport between the facility and tidal waters. Delivery factors shall be calculated using the Chesapeake Bay Program watershed model. For the purpose of this regulation, delivery factors with a value greater than 1.00 in the Chesapeake Bay Program watershed model shall be considered to be equal to 1.00.

"Department" or "DEQ" means the Department of Environmental Quality.

"Director" means the director of the Department of Environmental Quality.

"Eastern Shore trading ratio" means the ratio of pounds of point source credits from another tributary that can be acquired and applied by the owner of a facility in the Eastern Shore Basin for every pound of point source total nitrogen or total phosphorus discharged from the Eastern Shore Basin facility. Trading ratios are expressed in the form "credits supplied: credits received."

"Equivalent load" means:

2,300 pounds per year of total nitrogen or 300 pounds per year of total phosphorus discharged by an industrial facility are considered equivalent to the load discharged from sewage treatment works with a design capacity of 0.04 million gallons per day,

5,700 pounds per year of total nitrogen or 760 pounds per year of total phosphorus discharged by an industrial facility are considered equivalent to the load discharged from sewage treatment works with a design capacity of 0.1 million gallons per day, and

28,500 pounds per year of total nitrogen or 3,800 pounds per year of total phosphorus discharged by an industrial facility are considered equivalent to the load discharged from sewage treatment works with a design capacity of 0.5 million gallons per day.

"Existing facility" means a facility (i) subject to a current individual VPDES permit from which a discharge has commenced or for which its owner has received a Certificate to Construct (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent DEQ approval for discharges from industrial facilities) for the treatment works used to derive its wasteload allocation on or before July 1, 2005, or (ii) for which the owner has a wasteload allocation listed in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation. Existing facility shall also mean and include any facility, not subject to an individual VPDES permit, for which its owner holds a separate wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation.

"Expansion" or "expands" means (i) initiating construction at an existing treatment works after July 1, 2005, to increase design flow capacity, except that the term does not apply in those cases where a Certificate to Construct (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent DEQ approval for discharges from industrial facilities) was issued on or before July 1, 2005, or (ii) industrial production process changes or the use of new treatment products at industrial facilities that increase the annual mass load of total nitrogen or total phosphorus above the wasteload allocation.

"Facility" means a point source from which a discharge or proposed discharge of total nitrogen or total phosphorus to the Chesapeake Bay or its tributaries exists. This term does not include confined animal feeding operations, discharges of storm water, return flows from irrigated agriculture, or vessels.

"General permit" means this general permit authorized by § 62.1-44.19:14 of the Code of Virginia.

"Industrial facility" means any facility (as defined above) other than sewage treatment works.

"Local water quality-based limitations" means limitations intended to protect local water quality including applicable total maximum daily load (TMDL) allocations, applicable Virginia Pollution Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) permit limits, applicable limitations set forth in water quality standards established under § 62.1-44.15 (3a) of the Code of Virginia, or other limitations as established by the State Water Control Board.

"New discharge" means any discharge from a facility that did not commence prior to July 1, 2005, except that the term does not apply in those cases where a Certificate to Construct (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent DEQ approval for discharges from industrial facilities) was issued to the facility on or before July 1, 2005.

"Nonsignificant discharger" means (i) a sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed downstream of the fall line with a design capacity of less than 0.1 million gallons per day, or less than an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities, or (ii) a sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed upstream of the fall line with a design capacity of less than 0.5 million gallons per day, or less than an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities.

"Nutrient Offset Fund" means a special nonreverting fund as established under § 10.1-2128.2 of the Code of Virginia.

"Offset" means to acquire an annual wasteload allocation of total nitrogen or total phosphorus for a new or expanding facility to ensure that there is no net increase of nutrients into the affected tributary of the Chesapeake Bay.

"Permitted design capacity" or "permitted capacity" means the allowable load (pounds per year) assigned to an existing facility that is a nonsignificant discharger and that does not have a wasteload allocation listed in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation. The permitted design capacity is calculated based on the design flow and installed nutrient removal technology (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent discharge from industrial facilities) at a facility that has either commenced discharge, or for which an owner has received a Certificate to Construct (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent DEQ approval for discharges from industrial facilities) prior to July 1, 2005. This mass load is used for (i) determining whether the owner of the expanding facility must offset additional mass loading of nitrogen and phosphorus and (ii) determining whether the owner of the facility must acquire credits at the end of a calendar year. For the purpose of this chapter, owners of facilities that have installed secondary wastewater treatment (intended to achieve BOD and TSS monthly average concentrations equal to or less than 30 milligrams per liter) are assumed to achieve an annual average total nitrogen effluent concentration of 18.7 milligrams per liter and an annual average total phosphorus effluent concentration of 2.5 milligrams per liter. Permitted design capacities for facilities that, before July 1, 2005, were required to comply with more stringent nutrient limits shall be calculated using the more stringent values.

"Permitted facility" means a facility whose owner is authorized by this general permit to discharge total nitrogen or total phosphorus. For the sole purpose of generating point source nitrogen credits or point source phosphorus credits, "permitted facility" shall also mean the Blue Plains wastewater treatment facility operated by the District of Columbia Water and Sewer Authority.

"Permittee" means a person authorized by this general permit to discharge total nitrogen or total phosphorus.

"Point source nitrogen credit" means the difference between (i) the wasteload allocation for a permitted facility specified as an annual mass load of total nitrogen and (ii) the monitored annual mass load of total nitrogen discharged from that facility, where clause (ii) is less than clause (i), and where the difference is adjusted by the applicable delivery factor and expressed as pounds per year of delivered total nitrogen load.

"Point source phosphorus credit" means the difference between (i) the wasteload allocation for a permitted facility specified as an annual mass load of total phosphorus and (ii) the monitored annual mass load of total phosphorus discharged from that facility, where clause (ii) is less than clause (i), and where the difference is adjusted by the applicable delivery factor and expressed as pounds per year of delivered total phosphorus load.

"Quantification level" or "QL" means the minimum levels, concentrations, or quantities of a target variable (e.g., target analyte) that can be reported with a specified degree of confidence in accordance with 1VAC30-45, Certification for Noncommercial Environmental Laboratories, or 1VAC30-46, Accreditation for Commercial Environmental Laboratories.

"Registration list" means a list maintained by the department indicating all facilities that are registered for coverage under this general permit, by tributary, including their wasteload allocations, permitted design capacities, and delivery factors as appropriate.

"Significant discharger" means the owner of (i) a sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed upstream of the fall line with a design capacity of 0.5 million gallons per day or greater, or an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities; (ii) a sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed downstream of the fall line with a design capacity of 0.1 million gallons per day or greater, or an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities; (iii) a planned or newly expanding sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed upstream of the fall line that was expected to be in operation by December 31, 2010, with a permitted design of 0.5 million gallons per day or greater, or an equivalent load to be discharged from industrial facilities; or (iv) a planned or newly expanding sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed downstream of the fall line that was expected to be in operation by December 31, 2010, with a design capacity of 0.1 million gallons per day or greater, or an equivalent load to be discharged from industrial facilities.

"State-of-the-art nutrient removal technology" means (i) technology that will achieve an annual average total nitrogen effluent concentration of three milligrams per liter and an annual average total phosphorus effluent concentration of 0.3 milligrams per liter or (ii) equivalent load reductions in total nitrogen and total phosphorus through recycle or reuse of wastewater as determined by the department.

"Tributaries" means those river basins listed in the Chesapeake Bay TMDL and includes the Potomac, Rappahannock, York, and James River Basins and the Eastern Shore Basin, which encompasses the creeks and rivers of the Eastern Shore of Virginia that are west of Route 13 and drain into the Chesapeake Bay.

"VPDES" means Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System.

"Wasteload allocation" means the most limiting of (i) the water quality-based annual mass load of total nitrogen or annual mass load of total phosphorus allocated to individual facilities pursuant to 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation or its successor, or permitted capacity in the case of nonsignificant dischargers; (ii) the water quality-based annual mass load of total nitrogen or annual mass load of total phosphorus acquired pursuant to § 62.1-44.19:15 of the Code of Virginia for new or expanded facilities; or (iii) applicable total nitrogen or total phosphorus wasteload allocations under the Chesapeake Bay total maximum daily loads (TMDLs) to restore or protect the water quality and beneficial uses of the Chesapeake Bay or its tidal tributaries.

9VAC25-820-15. Applicability of incorporated references based on the dates that they became effective.

Except as noted, when a regulation of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency set forth in Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) is referenced or adopted in this chapter and incorporated by reference, that regulation shall be as it exists and has been published as of July 1, 2014; however, references to 40 CFR Part 136 are incorporated as published in the July 1, 2024, update 2025.

9VAC25-820-20. Purpose, applicability.

A. This regulation fulfills the statutory requirement for the General VPDES Watershed General Permit for Total Nitrogen and Total Phosphorus discharges and nutrient trading Nutrient Discharges and Trading in the Chesapeake Bay watershed Watershed issued by the board State Water Control Board pursuant to the Clean Water Act (33 USC § 1251 et seq.) and § 62.1-44.19:14 of the Code of Virginia.

B. This general permit regulation governs owners of facilities holding individual VPDES permits or otherwise meeting the definition of "existing facility" that discharge or propose to discharge total nitrogen or total phosphorus to the Chesapeake Bay or its tributaries.

9VAC25-820-40. Compliance plans.

A. By February 1, 2023, every owner of a facility subject to reduced individual total nitrogen or total phosphorous wasteload allocations as identified in 9VAC25-820-80 shall either individually or through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange Association submit compliance plans to the department for approval.

1. For facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 A, compliance with reduced wasteload allocations established by the Enhanced Nutrient Removal Certainty Program shall be on the effective date of the reduced allocations as established in 9VAC25-720-60 and 9VAC25-720-120. For facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 B, compliance with chlorophyll-a based total phosphorus wasteload allocations shall be achieved as soon as possible, but no later than January 1, 2026. The compliance plans shall contain any capital projects and implementation schedules needed to achieve total nitrogen and phosphorus reductions sufficient to comply with the individual and combined wasteload allocations of all the permittees in the tributary. Permittees submitting individual plans are not required to account for other facilities' activities.

2. As part of the compliance plan development for facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 B, permittees shall either:

a. Demonstrate that the additional capital projects anticipated by subdivision 1 of this subsection are necessary to ensure continued compliance with these allocations by January 1, 2026, or

b. Request that their individual wasteload allocations become effective on January 1, 2023.

3. The compliance plans may rely on the exchange of point source credits in accordance with this general permit, but not the acquisition of credits through payments into the Nutrient Offset Fund (§ 10.1-2128.2 of the Code of Virginia), to achieve compliance with the individual and combined wasteload allocations in each tributary.

B. Every owner of a facility required to submit a registration statement shall either individually or through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange Association submit annual compliance plan updates to the department for approval as required by Part I D of the general permit.

9VAC25-820-70. General permit.

Any owner whose registration statement is accepted by the board department will receive the following general permit and shall comply with the requirements of the general permit.

General Permit No.: VAN000000
Effective Date: January 1, 2022 2027
Expiration Date: December 31, 2026 2031

GENERAL PERMIT FOR TOTAL NITROGEN AND TOTAL PHOSPHORUS NUTRIENT DISCHARGES AND NUTRIENT TRADING IN THE CHESAPEAKE BAY WATERSHED IN VIRGINIA
AUTHORIZATION TO DISCHARGE UNDER THE VIRGINIA POLLUTANT DISCHARGE ELIMINATION SYSTEM AND THE VIRGINIA STATE WATER CONTROL LAW

In compliance with the provisions of the Clean Water Act, as amended, and pursuant to the State Water Control Law and regulations adopted pursuant to it, owners of facilities holding a VPDES individual permit or owners of facilities that otherwise meet the definition of an existing facility, with total nitrogen or total phosphorus discharges, or both to the Chesapeake Bay or its tributaries, are authorized to discharge to surface waters and exchange credits for total nitrogen or total phosphorus, or both.

The authorized discharge shall be in accordance with the registration statement filed with DEQ, this cover page, Part I-Special Conditions Applicable to All Facilities, Part II-Special Conditions Applicable to New and Expanded Facilities, and Part III-Conditions Applicable to All VPDES Permits, as set forth herein.

PART I

SPECIAL CONDITIONS APPLICABLE TO ALL FACILITIES

A. Authorized activities.

1. Authorization to discharge for owners of facilities required to register.

a. Every owner of a facility required to submit a registration statement to the department by November 1, 2021 2026, and thereafter upon the reissuance of this general permit, shall be authorized to discharge total nitrogen and total phosphorus subject to the requirements of this general permit upon the department's approval of the registration statement.

b. Any owner of a facility required to submit a registration statement with the department at the time he makes application with the department for a new discharge or expansion that is subject to an offset or technology-based requirement in Part II of this general permit, shall be authorized to discharge total nitrogen and total phosphorus subject to the requirements of this general permit upon the department's approval of the registration statement.

c. Upon the department's approval of the registration statement, a facility will be included in the registration list maintained by the department.

2. Authorization to discharge for owners of facilities not required to register. Any owner of a facility authorized by a VPDES permit and not required by this general permit to submit a registration statement shall be deemed to be authorized to discharge total nitrogen and total phosphorus under this general permit at the time it is issued. Owners of facilities that are deemed to be permitted under this subsection shall have no obligation under this general permit prior to submitting a registration statement and securing coverage under this general permit based upon such registration statement.

3. Continuation of permit coverage.

a. Any owner authorized to discharge under this general permit and who submits a complete registration statement for the reissued general permit by November 1, 2026 2031, in accordance with Part III M or who is not required to register in accordance with Part I A 2 is authorized to continue to discharge under the terms of this general permit until such time as the board department either:

(1) Issues coverage to the owner under the reissued general permit, or

(2) Notifies the owner that the discharge is not eligible for coverage under this general permit.

b. When the owner that was covered under the expiring or expired general permit has violated or is violating the conditions of that permit, the board department may choose to do any or all of the following:

(1) Initiate enforcement action based upon the 2017 2022 general permit,

(2) Issue a notice of intent to deny coverage under the reissued general permit. If the general permit coverage is denied, the owner would then be required to cease the discharges authorized by the administratively continued coverage under the terms of the 2017 2022 general permit or be subject to enforcement action for operating without a permit, or

(3) Take other actions authorized by the State Water Control Law.

B. Wasteload allocations.

1. Wasteload allocations allocated to permitted facilities pursuant to 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation, or applicable TMDLs, or wasteload allocations acquired by owners of new and expanding facilities to offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads from a new discharge or expansion under Part II B of this general permit, and existing loads calculated from the permitted design capacity of expanding facilities not previously covered by this general permit, shall be incorporated into the registration list maintained by the department. The wasteload allocations contained in this list shall be enforceable as annual mass load limits in this general permit. Credits shall not be generated by facilities whose operations were previously authorized by a Virginia Pollution Abatement (VPA) permit that was issued before July 1, 2005.

2. Except as described in subdivisions 2 c and 2 d of this subsection, an owner of two or more facilities covered by this general permit and discharging to the same tributary may apply for and receive an aggregated mass load limit for delivered total nitrogen and an aggregated mass load limit for delivered total phosphorus reflecting the total of the water quality-based total nitrogen and total phosphorus wasteload allocations or permitted design capacities established for such facilities individually.

a. The permittee (and all of the individual facilities covered under a single registration) shall be deemed to be in compliance when the aggregate mass load discharged by the facilities is less than the aggregate mass load limit.

b. The permittee will be eligible to generate credits only if the aggregate mass load discharged by the facilities is less than the total of the wasteload allocations assigned to any of the affected facilities.

c. The aggregation of mass load limits shall not affect any requirement to comply with local water quality-based limitations.

d. Facilities whose operations were previously authorized by a Virginia Pollution Abatement (VPA) permit that was issued before July 1, 2005, cannot be aggregated with other facilities under common ownership or operation.

e. Operation under an aggregated mass load limit in accordance with this section shall not be deemed credit acquisition as described in Part I J 2 of this general permit.

3. An owner that consolidates two or more facilities discharging to the same tributary into a single regional facility may apply for and receive an aggregated a consolidated mass load limit for total nitrogen and an aggregated a consolidated mass load limit for total phosphorus, subject to the following conditions:

a. Aggregate Consolidated mass load limits will be calculated accounting for delivery factors in effect at the time of the consolidation.

b. If all of the affected facilities have wasteload allocations in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation, the aggregate consolidated mass load limit shall be calculated by adding the wasteload allocations of the affected facilities. The regional facility shall be eligible to generate credits Credits may be generated based on the consolidated wasteload allocation.

c. If any, but not all, of the affected facilities has a wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation, the aggregate consolidated mass load limit shall be calculated by adding:

(1) Wasteload allocations of those facilities that have wasteload allocations in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation;

(2) Permitted design capacities assigned to affected industrial facilities; and

(3) Loads from affected sewage treatment works that do not have a wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation, defined as the lesser of a previously calculated permitted design capacity, or the values calculated by the following formulae formulas:

Nitrogen Load (lbs/ year) = flow (MGD) x 8.0 mg/l x 8.345 x 365 days/year

Phosphorus Load (lbs/ year) = flow (MGD) x 1.0 mg/l x 8.345 x 365 days/year

Flows used in the preceding formulae formulas shall be the design flow of the treatment works from which the affected facility currently discharges.

The regional facility shall be eligible to generate credits Credits may be generated based on the consolidated wasteload allocation.

d. If none of the affected facilities have a wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation, the aggregate consolidated mass load limit shall be calculated by adding the respective permitted design capacities for the affected facilities.

e. Facilities whose operations were previously authorized by a Virginia Pollution Abatement (VPA) permit that was issued before July 1, 2005, may be consolidated with other facilities under common ownership or operation, but their allocations cannot be transferred to the regional facility.

f. Facilities whose operations were previously authorized by a VPA permit that was issued before July 1, 2005, can become regional receive effluent from other facilities, but they cannot receive additional allocations beyond those permitted in Part II B 1 d of this general permit.

4. [ An owner that consolidates two or more facilities discharging into different tributaries may apply for a consolidated mass load limit for total nitrogen and a consolidated mass load limit for total phosphorus. The department will evaluate the request on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the conditions set forth in Part I B 3 a through Part I B 3 d of this section and any additional conditions necessary and appropriate for water quality protection.

5. ] Termination of a wasteload allocation. If a facility's individual and general permit are terminated or expire with no consolidation of wasteload allocations, the following shall apply:

a. If a facility has wasteload allocations in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, [ and or ] 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation, the wasteload allocations shall be transferred to the Nutrient Offset Fund and the facility removed from the registration list.

b. If a facility has wasteload allocations based on permitted design capacity, the facility and the wasteload allocations shall be removed from the registration list.

4. [ 6. 5. ] Unless otherwise noted, the nitrogen and phosphorus wasteload allocations assigned to permitted facilities are considered total loads, including nutrients present in the intake water from the river, as applicable. On a case-by-case basis, an industrial discharger may demonstrate to the satisfaction of the board department that a portion of the nutrient load originates in its the industrial discharger's intake water. This demonstration shall be consistent with the assumptions and methods used to derive the allocations through the Chesapeake Bay models. In these cases, the board department may limit the permitted discharge to the net nutrient load portion of the assigned wasteload allocation.

5. [ 7. 6. ] Bioavailability. Unless otherwise noted, the entire nitrogen and phosphorus wasteload allocations assigned to permitted facilities are considered to be bioavailable to organisms in the receiving stream. On a case-by-case basis, a discharger may demonstrate to the satisfaction of the board department that a portion of the nutrient load is not bioavailable; this demonstration shall not be based on the ability of the nutrient to resist degradation at the wastewater treatment plant, but instead, on the ability of the nutrient to resist degradation within a natural environment for the amount of time that it is expected to remain in the Chesapeake Bay watershed. This demonstration shall also be consistent with the assumptions and methods used to derive the allocations through the Chesapeake Bay models. In these cases, the board department may limit the permitted discharge to the bioavailable portion of the assigned wasteload allocation.

C. Schedule of compliance.

1. For facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 [ A ], compliance with reduced wasteload allocations established by the Enhanced Nutrient Removal Certainty Program shall be on the effective date of the reduced allocations as established in 9VAC25-720-60 and 9VAC25-720-120. For facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 B, compliance with chlorophyll-a based total phosphorus wasteload allocations shall be achieved as soon as possible but no later than January 1, 2026.

2. Following submission of compliance plans and compliance plan updates required by 9VAC25-820-40, the board department shall reevaluate the schedule of compliance in subdivision 1 of this subsection, taking into account the information in the compliance plans and the factors in § 62.1-44.19:14 C 2 of the Code of Virginia. When warranted based on such information and factors, the board department shall adjust the schedule in subdivision 1 of this subsection as appropriate by modification or reissuance of this general permit.

3. The registration list shall contain individual dates for compliance with wasteload allocations for dischargers, as follows:

a. Owners of facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 B will have individual dates for compliance based on their respective compliance plans that may be earlier than the schedule listed in subdivision 1 of this subsection.

b. Owners of facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 B that waive their compliance schedules in accordance with 9VAC25-820-40 A 2 b shall have an individual compliance date of January 1, 2023.

c. Upon completion of the projects contained in their compliance plans, owners of facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 B may receive a revised individual compliance date of January 1 for the calendar year immediately following the year in which a Certificate to Operate was issued for the capital projects, but not later than January 1, 2026.

d. Owners of new and expanded facilities will have individual dates for compliance corresponding to the date that coverage under this general permit was extended to discharges from the facility.

D. Annual update of compliance plan. Every owner of a facility required to submit a registration statement shall either individually or through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange Association submit updated compliance plans to the department no later than February 1 of each year. The compliance plans shall contain sufficient information to document a plan to achieve and maintain compliance with applicable total nitrogen and total phosphorus individual wasteload allocations on the registration list and aggregate wasteload allocations in Part I C 3. Compliance plans for owners of facilities that were required to submit a registration statement with the department under Part I G 1 a may rely on the acquisition of point source credits in accordance with Part I J of this general permit to achieve compliance with the individual and combined wasteload allocations in each tributary. Annual compliance plan updates for facilities subject to reduced wasteload allocations and listed in 9VAC25-820-80 shall not rely on the acquisition of credits through payments into the Nutrient Offset Fund. Compliance plans for expansions or new discharges for owners of facilities that are required to submit a registration statement with the department under Part I G 1 b and c may rely on the acquisition of allocation in accordance with Part II B of this general permit to achieve compliance with the individual and combined wasteload allocations in each tributary.

E. Monitoring requirements.

1. Discharges shall be monitored by the permittee during weekdays as specified in the table below unless the department determines that weekday only sampling results in a non-representative load. Weekend monitoring or alternative monthly load calculations to address production schedules or seasonal flows shall be submitted to the department for review and approval on a case-by-case basis. Facilities that exhibit instantaneous discharge flows that vary from the daily average discharge flow by less than 10% may submit a proposal to the department to use an alternative sample type; such proposals shall be reviewed and approved by the department on a case-by-case basis.

2. Monitoring for compliance with effluent limitations shall be performed in a manner identical to that used to determine compliance with effluent limitations established in the individual VPDES permit unless specified otherwise in subdivisions 3, 4, and 5 of Part I E. Monitoring or sampling shall be conducted according to analytical laboratory methods approved under 40 CFR Part 136, unless other test or sample collection procedures have been requested by the permittee and approved by the department in writing. All analysis for compliance with effluent limitations shall be conducted in accordance with 1VAC30-45, Certification for Noncommercial Environmental Laboratories, or 1VAC30-46, Accreditation for Commercial Environmental Laboratories. Monitoring may be performed by the permittee at frequencies more stringent than listed in subdivision 1 of Part I E; however, the permittee shall report all results of such monitoring.

3. Loading values greater than or equal to 10 pounds reported in accordance with Part I E and F of this general permit shall be calculated and reported to the nearest pound without regard to mathematical rules of precision. Loading values of less than 10 pounds reported in accordance with Part I E and F of this general permit shall be calculated and reported to at least two significant digits with the exception that all complete calendar year annual loads shall be reported to the nearest pound.

4. Data shall be reported on a form provided by the department, by the same date each month as is required by the owner's individual VPDES permit. The total monthly load shall be calculated in accordance with the following formula:

where:

ML = total monthly load (lb/mo) = average daily load for the calendar month multiplied by the number of days of the calendar month on which a discharge occurred

DL = daily load = daily concentration (expressed as mg/l to the nearest 0.01 mg/l) multiplied by the flow volume of effluent discharged during the 24-hour period (expressed as MGD to at least the nearest 0.01 MGD and in no case less than two significant digits), multiplied by 8.345. Daily loads greater than or equal to 10 pounds may be rounded to the nearest whole number to convert to pounds per day (lbs/day). Daily loads less than or equal to 10 pounds may be rounded to no fewer than two significant figures.

s = number of days in the calendar month in which a sample was collected and analyzed

d = number of discharge days in the calendar month

For total phosphorus, all daily concentration data below the quantification level (QL) for the analytical method used shall be treated as half the QL (without rounding). All daily concentration data equal to or above the QL for the analytical method used shall be treated as it is reported. If all data are below the QL, then the average shall be reported as half the QL.

For total nitrogen (TN), if none of the daily concentration data for the respective species (i.e., TKN, nitrates/nitrites) are equal to or above the QL for the respective analytical methods used, the daily TN concentration value reported shall equal one half of the largest QL (without rounding) used for the respective species. If one of the data is equal to or above the QL, the daily TN concentration value shall be treated as that data point as reported. If more than one of the data is above the QL, the daily TN concentration value shall equal the sum of the data points as reported.

The quantification levels shall be less than or equal to the following concentrations:

Higher QLs may be approved on a case-by-case basis where a higher QL routinely results in reportable results of the species in question or is otherwise technically appropriate based on standard lab practices.

The total year-to-date mass load shall be calculated in accordance with the following formula:

where:

AL-YTD = calendar year-to-date annual load (lb/yr)

ML = total monthly load (lb/mo)

The total annual mass load shall be calculated in accordance with the following formula:

where:

AL = calendar year annual load (lb/yr)

ML = total monthly load (lb/mo)

5. The department may authorize a chemical usage evaluation as an alternative means of determining nutrient loading for outfalls where the only source of nutrients is that found in the surface water intake and chemical additives used by the facility. Such an evaluation shall be submitted to the department for review and approval on a case-by-case basis. Implementation of approved chemical usage evaluations shall satisfy the requirements specified under Part I E 1 and 2.

6. Monthly average concentration data reporting. For total phosphorus, TKN, and nitrite + nitrate monthly average concentration values. All concentration data below the QL used for the analysis shall be treated as one-half of the QL (without rounding). All concentration data equal to or above the QL used for the analysis shall be treated as it is reported to the nearest 0.01 mg/L. An arithmetic average shall be calculated using all reported data for the month. This arithmetic average shall be reported on the Discharge Monitoring Report (DMR) as calculated to the nearest 0.01 mg/L.

For nitrite + nitrate if tested separately, add the daily total nitrite and nitrate concentrations to obtain the daily nitrite + nitrate values. If none of the daily concentrations data for the respective species tested separately (nitrites, nitrates) are equal to or above the QL for the respective analytical methods used, the daily nitrite + nitrate concentration value shall equal one-half of the largest QL (without rounding) used for the respective species. If one of the data is equal or above the QL, the daily nitrite + nitrate concentration value shall be treated as that data point as reported. If more than one of the data is above the QL, the daily nitrite + nitrate concentration value shall equal the sum of the data points as reported. An arithmetic average shall be calculated using all reported data for the month. This arithmetic average shall be reported on the DMR as calculated to the nearest 0.01 mg/L.

F. Annual reporting. On or before February 1, annually, each permittee shall file a discharge monitoring report with the department identifying the annual mass load of total nitrogen and the annual mass load of total phosphorus discharged by the permitted facility during the previous calendar year.

G. Requirement to register; exclusions.

1. The following owners are required to register for coverage under this general permit:

a. Every owner of an existing facility authorized by a VPDES permit to discharge 100,000 gallons or more per day from a sewage treatment work, or an equivalent load from an industrial facility, directly into tidal waters, or 500,000 gallons or more per day from a sewage treatment works, or an equivalent load from an industrial facility, directly into nontidal waters shall submit a registration statement to the department by November 1, 2016 [ 2026 2031 ], and thereafter upon the reissuance of this general permit in accordance with Part III M. The conditions of this general permit will apply to such owner upon approval of a registration statement.

b. Any owner of a facility authorized by a Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System VPDES permit to discharge 40,000 gallons or more per day from a sewage treatment works, or an equivalent load from an industrial facility, directly into tidal or nontidal waters shall submit a registration statement with the department at the time he makes the owner submits an application for an individual permit with the department for a new discharge or expansion that is subject to an offset requirement in Part II of this general permit or to a technology-based requirement in 9VAC25-40-70, and thereafter upon the reissuance of this general permit in accordance with Part III M. The conditions of this general permit will apply to such owner beginning January 1 of the calendar year immediately following approval of a registration statement and issuance or modification of the individual permit.

c. Any owner of a facility treating domestic sewage authorized by a VPDES permit with a discharge greater than 1,000 gallons per day up to and including 39,999 gallons per day that did not commence the discharge of pollutants prior to January 1, 2011, and is subject to offset requirements in accordance with Part II A 1 c of this general permit shall submit a registration statement with the department at the time the owner makes application for an individual permit with the department or prior to commencing a discharge, whichever occurs first, and thereafter upon the reissuance of this general permit in accordance with Part III M.

2. All other categories of discharges are excluded from registration under this general permit.

H. Registration statement.

1. The registration statement shall contain the following information:

a. Name, mailing address, and telephone number, and email address, and fax number of the owner (and facility operator, if different from the owner) applying for permit coverage;

b. Name (or other identifier), address, city or county, contact name, phone number, and email address, and fax number for the facility for which the registration statement is submitted;

c. VPDES permit numbers for all permits assigned to the facility, or pursuant to which the discharge is authorized;

d. If applying for an aggregated wasteload allocation in accordance with Part I B 2 of this permit, a list of all affected facilities and the VPDES permit numbers assigned to these facilities;

e. For new and expanded facilities, a plan to offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads, including the amount of wasteload allocation acquired. Wasteload allocations or credits sufficient to offset projected nutrient loads must be provided for period of at least five years; and

f. For existing facilities, the amount of a facility's wasteload allocation transferred to or from another facility to offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads from a new discharge or expansion.

2. The registration statement shall be submitted to the DEQ Central Office, Office of VPDES Permits. Following notification from the department of the start date for the required electronic submission of Notices of Intent to Discharge forms (i.e., registration statements), as provided for in 9VAC25-31-1020, such form submitted after that date shall be electronically submitted to the department in compliance with this section and 9VAC25-31-1020. At least three months' notice shall be provided between the notification from the department and the date after which such forms must be submitted electronically.

3. An amended registration statement shall be submitted to DEQ immediately upon the acquisition or transfer of a facility's wasteload allocation to offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads from a new discharge or expansion.

I. Public notice for registration statements proposing modifications or incorporations of new wasteload allocations or delivery factors.

1. All public notices issued pursuant to a proposed modification or incorporation of a (i) new wasteload allocation to offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads from a new discharge or expansion or (ii) delivery factor shall be published once a week for two consecutive weeks in a local newspaper of general circulation serving the locality where the facility is located informing the public that the owner of the facility intends to apply for coverage under this general permit. At a minimum, the notice shall include:

a. A statement of the owner's intent to register for coverage under this general permit;

b. A brief description of the facility and its location;

c. The amount of wasteload allocation that will be acquired or transferred if applicable;

d. The delivery factor for a new discharge or expansion;

e. If applicable, any proposed nonpoint source to point source trading ratio less than 2:1 proposed under Part II B 1 b (1);

f. A statement that the purpose of the public participation is to acquaint the public with the technical aspects of the facility and how the standards and the requirements of this chapter will be met, to identify issues of concern, to facilitate communication, and to establish a dialogue between the owner and persons who may be affected by the discharge from the facility;

g. An announcement of a 30-day comment period and the name, telephone number, and address of the owner's representative who can be contacted by the interested persons to answer questions;

h. The name, telephone number, and address of the DEQ representative who can be contacted by the interested persons to answer questions, or where comments shall be sent; and

i. The location where copies of the documentation to be submitted to the department in support of this general permit notification and any supporting documents can be viewed and copied.

2. The owner shall place a copy of the documentation and support documents in a location accessible to the public in the vicinity of the proposed facility.

3. The public shall be provided 30 days to comment on the technical and the regulatory aspects of the proposal. The comment period will begin on the date the notice is published in the local newspaper.

J. Compliance with wasteload allocations.

1. Methods of compliance. The owner of the permitted facility shall comply with its wasteload allocation contained in the registration list maintained by the department. The owner of the permitted facility shall be in compliance with its wasteload allocation if:

a. The annual mass load is less than or equal to the applicable wasteload allocation assigned to the facility in this general permit (or permitted design capacity for expanded facilities without allocations);

b. The owner of the permitted facility acquires sufficient point source nitrogen or phosphorus credits in accordance with subdivision 2 of this subsection; provided, however, that the acquisition of nitrogen or phosphorus credits pursuant to this section shall not alter or otherwise affect the individual wasteload allocations for each permitted facility; or

c. In the event he is unable to meet the individual wasteload allocation pursuant to subdivision 1 a or 1 b of this subsection, the owner of the permitted facility acquires sufficient nitrogen or phosphorus credits through payments made into the Nutrient Offset Fund pursuant to subdivision 3 of this subsection; provided, however, that the acquisition of nitrogen or phosphorus credits pursuant to this section shall not alter or otherwise affect the individual wasteload allocations for each permitted facility.

2. Credit acquisition from owners of permitted facilities. A permittee may acquire point source nitrogen credits or point source phosphorus credits from one or more owners of permitted facilities only if:

a. The credits are generated and applied to a compliance obligation in the same calendar year;

b. The credits are generated by one or more permitted facilities in the same tributary, except that owners of permitted facilities in the Eastern Shore Basin may also acquire credits from owners of permitted facilities in the Potomac and Rappahannock tributaries. Owners of Eastern Shore Basin facilities may acquire credits from the owners of Potomac tributary facilities at a trading ratio of 1:1. A trading ratio of 1.3:1 shall apply to the acquisition of credits from the owners of a Rappahannock tributary facility by the owner of an Eastern Shore Basin facility;

c. The exchange or acquisition of credits does not affect any requirement to comply with local water quality-based limitations as determined by the board department;

d. The credits are acquired no later than June 1 immediately following the calendar year in which the credits are applied;

e. The credits are generated by a facility that has been constructed, and has discharged from treatment works whose design flow or equivalent industrial activity is the basis for the facility's wasteload allocations (until a facility is constructed and has commenced operation, such credits are held, and may be sold, by the Nutrient Offset Fund; and

f. No later than June 1 immediately following the calendar year in which the credits are applied, the permittee certifies on a credit exchange notification form supplied by the department that he has acquired sufficient credits to satisfy his compliance obligations. The permittee shall comply with the terms and conditions contained in the credit exchange notification form submitted to the department.

3. Credit acquisitions from the Nutrient Offset Fund. Until such time as the board department finds that no allocations are reasonably available in an individual tributary, permittees that cannot meet their total nitrogen or total phosphorus effluent limit may acquire nitrogen or phosphorus credits through payments made into the Nutrient Offset Fund established in § 10.1-2128.2 of the Code of Virginia only if, no later than June 1 immediately following the calendar year in which the credits are to be applied, the permittee certifies on a form supplied by the department that he has diligently sought, but has been unable to acquire, sufficient credits to satisfy his compliance obligations through the acquisition of point source nitrogen or phosphorus credits with other permitted facilities, and that he has acquired sufficient credits to satisfy his compliance obligations through one or more payments made in accordance with the terms of this general permit. Such certification may include providing a record of solicitation or demonstration that point source allocations are not available for sale in the tributary in which the permittee's facility is located. Payments to the Nutrient Offset Fund shall be in the amount of $5.08 $9.23 for each pound of nitrogen and $11.15 $20.26 for each pound of phosphorus and shall be subject to the following requirements:

a. The credits are generated and applied to a compliance obligation in the same calendar year.

b. The credits are generated in the same tributary, except that owners of permitted facilities in the Eastern Shore Basin may also acquire credits from the owners of facilities that discharge to the Potomac and Rappahannock tributaries. Owners of Eastern Shore Basin facilities may acquire credits from the owners of facilities that discharge to a Potomac tributary at a trading ratio of 1:1. A trading ratio of 1.3:1 shall apply to the acquisition of credits from owners of facilities that discharge to a Rappahannock tributary by the owners of an Eastern Shore Basin facility.

c. The acquisition of credits does not affect any requirement to comply with local water quality-based limitations, as determined by the board department.

4. This general permit neither requires nor prohibits a municipality or regional sewerage authority's development and implementation of trading programs among industrial users, which are consistent with the pretreatment regulatory requirements at 40 CFR Part 403 and the municipality's or authority's individual VPDES permit.

Part II

SPECIAL CONDITIONS APPLICABLE TO NEW AND EXPANDED FACILITIES

A. Offsetting mass loads discharged by new and expanded facilities.

1. An owner of a new or expanded facility shall comply with the applicable requirements of this section as a condition of the facility's coverage under this general permit.

a. An owner of a facility authorized by a VPDES permit first issued before July 1, 2005, that expands the facility to discharge 40,000 gallons or more per day, or an equivalent load, shall demonstrate to the department that he has acquired wasteload allocations sufficient to offset any increase in his delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads resulting from any expansion beyond his permitted capacity as of July 1, 2005.

b. An owner of a facility authorized by a VPDES permit first issued on or after July 1, 2005, to discharge 40,000 gallons or more per day, or an equivalent load, shall demonstrate to the department that he has acquired wasteload allocations sufficient to offset his delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads.

c. An owner of a facility treating domestic sewage authorized by a VPDES permit with a discharge greater than 1,000 gallons per day up to and including 39,999 gallons per day that did not commence the discharge of pollutants prior to January 1, 2011, shall demonstrate to the department that he has acquired wasteload allocations sufficient to offset his delivered total nitrogen and delivered phosphorus loads prior to commencing the discharge, except when the facility is for short-term temporary use only as determined by the department or when treatment of domestic sewage is not the primary purpose of the facility.

2. Offset calculations shall address the proposed discharge that exceeds:

a. The applicable wasteload allocation assigned to discharges from the facility in this general permit, for expanding significant dischargers with a wasteload allocation listed in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation;

b. The permitted design capacity, for all other expanding dischargers; and

c. Zero, for facilities with a new discharge.

3. An owner of multiple facilities that discharge into the same tributary, and assigned an aggregate mass load limit in accordance with Part I B 2 of this general permit, that undertakes construction of new or expanded facilities shall be required to acquire wasteload allocations sufficient to offset any increase in delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads resulting from any expansion beyond the aggregate mass load limit assigned these facilities.

B. Acquisition of wasteload allocations [ or annual point source credits ]. Wasteload allocations [ or annual point source credits ] required by this section to offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads shall be acquired in accordance with this section.

1. Such allocations [ or annual point source credits ] may be acquired from one or a combination of the following:

a. Acquisition of all or a portion of the wasteload allocations or point source nitrogen or point source phosphorus credits from the owners of one or more permitted facilities, either directly from the owner or, in the case of point source credits, through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange Association based on delivered pounds by the respective trading parties as listed by the department;

b. Acquisition of credits certified by the board department pursuant to § 62.1-44.19:20 of the Code of Virginia. Credits used to offset new or increased nutrient loads under this subdivision shall be:

(1) Subject to a trading ratio of two pounds reduced for every pound to be discharged if certified as a nonpoint source credit by the board department pursuant to § 62.1-44.19:20 of the Code of Virginia. On a case-by-case basis the board department may approve nonpoint source to source trading ratios of less than 2:1 (but not less than 1:1) when the applicant demonstrates factors that ameliorate the presumed 2:1 uncertainty ratio for credits generation by nonpoint sources such as:

(a) When direct and representative monitoring of the pollutant loadings from a nonpoint source is performed in a manner and at a frequency similar to that performed at VPDES point sources and there is consistency in the effectiveness of the operation of the nonpoint source best management practice (BMP) approaching that of a conventional point source.

(b) When nonpoint source credits are generated from land conservation that ensures permanent protection through a conservation easement or other instrument attached to the deed and when load reductions can be reliably determined;

(2) Calculated using best management practices efficiency rates and attenuation rates, as established by the latest science and relevant technical information, and approved by the board department;

(3) Based on appropriate delivery factors, as established by the latest science and relevant technical information, and approved by the board department;

(4) Demonstrated to have achieved reductions beyond those already required by or funded under federal or state law, or by Virginia's Chesapeake Bay TMDL Watershed Implementation Plan;

(5) Generated in accordance with conditions of the facility's individual VPDES permit; and

(6) In the case of credits generated by land use conversions and urban source reduction controls (BMPs), the credits shall represent nutrient reductions beyond those in place as of July 1, 2005;

c. Until such time as the board department finds that no allocations are reasonably available in an individual tributary, acquisition of allocations through payments made into the Nutrient Offset Fund established in § 10.1-2128.2 of the Code of Virginia; or

d. Acquisition of allocations through such other means as may be approved by the department on a case-by-case basis. This includes allocations granted by the board department to an owner of a facility that is authorized by a VPA permit to land apply domestic sewage if:

(1) The VPA permit was issued before July 1, 2005;

(2) The allocation does not exceed the facility's permitted design capacity as of July 1, 2005;

(3) The waste treated by the facility that is covered under the VPA permit will be treated and discharged pursuant to a VPDES permit for a new discharge; and

(4) The owner installs state-of-the-art nutrient removal technology at such a facility.

2. Acquisition of allocations or point source nitrogen or point source phosphorus credits is subject to the following conditions:

a. The allocations or credits shall be generated and applied to an offset obligation in the same calendar year in which the credit is generated;

b. The allocations or credits shall be generated in the same tributary;

c. Such acquisition does not affect any requirement to comply with local water quality-based limitations, as determined by the board department;

d. The allocations are authenticated (i.e., verified to have been generated) by the permittee as required by the facility's individual VPDES permit, utilizing procedures approved by the board department, no later than February 1 immediately following the calendar year in which the allocations are applied; and

e. If obtained from the owner of a permitted point source, the allocations shall be generated by a facility that has been constructed, and has discharged from treatment works whose design flow or equivalent industrial activity is the basis for the facility's wasteload allocations.

f. Such allocations or credits shall be secured for a period of five years with each registration under the general permit.

3. Priority of options. The board department shall give priority to allocations or credits acquired in accordance with subdivisions 1 a, b, and d of this subsection. The board department shall approve allocations acquired in accordance with subdivision 1 c of this subsection only after the owner has demonstrated that he has made a good faith effort to acquire sufficient allocations in accordance with subdivisions 1 a and 1 b of this subsection, and that such allocations are not reasonably available taking into account timing, cost and other relevant factors. Such demonstration may include providing a record of solicitation, or other demonstration that point source allocations or nonpoint source allocations are not available for sale in the tributary in which the permittee's facility discharge is located.

4. Annual allocation acquisitions from the Nutrient Offset Fund. The cost for each pound of nitrogen and each pound of phosphorus shall be determined at the time payment is made to the Nutrient Offset Fund, based on the higher of (i) the estimated cost of achieving a reduction of one pound of nitrogen or phosphorus at the facility that is securing the allocation, or comparable facility, for each pound of allocation acquired; or (ii) the average cost, as determined by the department on an annual basis, of reducing two pounds of nitrogen or phosphorus from nonpoint sources in the same tributary for each pound of allocation acquired.

Part III

CONDITIONS APPLICABLE TO ALL VPDES PERMITS

A. Monitoring.

1. Samples and measurements taken as required by this permit shall be representative of the monitored activity.

2. Monitoring shall be conducted according to procedures approved under 40 CFR Part 136 or alternative methods approved by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, unless other procedures have been specified in this permit.

3. The permittee shall periodically calibrate and perform maintenance procedures on all monitoring and analytical instrumentation at intervals that will ensure accuracy of measurements.

4. Samples taken as required by this permit shall be analyzed in accordance with 1VAC30-45 (Certification for Noncommercial Environmental Laboratories) or 1VAC30-46 (Accreditation for Commercial Environmental Laboratories).

B. Records.

1. Records of monitoring information shall include:

a. The date, exact place, and time of sampling or measurements;

b. The individuals who performed the sampling or measurements;

c. The dates and times analyses were performed;

d. The individuals who performed the analyses;

e. The analytical techniques or methods used; and

f. The results of such analyses.

2. Except for records of monitoring information required by this permit related to the permittee's sewage sludge use and disposal activities, which shall be retained for a period of at least five years, the permittee shall retain records of all monitoring information, including all calibration and maintenance records and all original strip chart recordings for continuous monitoring instrumentation, copies of all reports required by this permit, and records of all data used to complete the registration statement for this permit, for a period of at least three years from the date of the sample, measurement, report, or request for coverage. This period of retention shall be extended automatically during the course of any unresolved litigation regarding the regulated activity or regarding control standards applicable to the permittee or as requested by the board department.

C. Reporting monitoring results.

1. The permittee shall submit the results of the monitoring required by this permit not later than the 10th day of the month after monitoring takes place, unless another reporting schedule is specified elsewhere in this permit. Monitoring results shall be submitted to the department's regional office.

2. Monitoring results shall be reported on a Discharge Monitoring Report (DMR) or on forms provided, approved, or specified by the department.

3. If the permittee monitors any pollutant specifically addressed by this permit more frequently than required by this permit using test procedures approved under 40 CFR Part 136 or using other test procedures approved by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency or using procedures specified in this permit, the results of this monitoring shall be included in the calculation and reporting of the data submitted on the DMR or reporting form specified by the department.

4. Calculations for all limitations that require averaging of measurements shall utilize an arithmetic mean unless otherwise specified in this permit.

D. Duty to provide information. The permittee shall furnish to the department, within a reasonable time, any information that the board department may request to determine whether cause exists for modifying, revoking and reissuing, or terminating coverage under this permit or to determine compliance with this permit. The board department may require the permittee to furnish, upon request, such plans, specifications, and other pertinent information as may be necessary to determine the effect of the wastes from the discharge on the quality of state waters or such other information as may be necessary to accomplish the purposes of the State Water Control Law. The permittee shall also furnish to the department, upon request, copies of records required to be kept by this permit.

E. Compliance schedule reports. Reports of compliance or noncompliance with, or any progress reports on, interim and final requirements contained in any compliance schedule of this permit shall be submitted no later than 14 days following each schedule date.

F. Unauthorized discharges. Except in compliance with this permit or another permit issued by the board department, it shall be unlawful for any person to:

1. Discharge into state waters sewage, industrial wastes, other wastes, or any noxious or deleterious substances; or

2. Otherwise alter the physical, chemical, or biological properties of such state waters and make them detrimental to the public health, to animal or aquatic life, or to the use of such waters for domestic or industrial consumption, for recreation, or for other uses.

G. Reports of unauthorized discharges. Any permittee that discharges or causes or allows a discharge of sewage, industrial waste, other wastes, or any noxious or deleterious substance into or upon state waters in violation of Part III F, or that discharges or causes or allows a discharge that may reasonably be expected to enter state waters in violation of Part III F, shall notify the department of the discharge immediately upon discovery of the discharge, but in no case later than 24 hours after said discovery. A written report of the unauthorized discharge shall be submitted to the department within five days of discovery of the discharge. The written report shall contain:

1. A description of the nature and location of the discharge;

2. The cause of the discharge;

3. The date on which the discharge occurred;

4. The length of time that the discharge continued;

5. The volume of the discharge;

6. If the discharge is continuing, how long it is expected to continue;

7. If the discharge is continuing, what the expected total volume of the discharge will be; and

8. Any steps planned or taken to reduce, eliminate, and prevent a recurrence of the present discharge or any future discharge not authorized by this permit.

Discharges reportable to the department under the immediate reporting requirements of other regulations are exempted from this requirement.

H. Reports of unusual or extraordinary discharges. If any unusual or extraordinary discharge including a bypass or upset should occur from a treatment works and the discharge enters or could be expected to enter state waters, the permittee shall promptly notify, in no case later than 24 hours, the department by telephone after the discovery of the discharge. This notification shall provide all available details of the incident, including any adverse effects on aquatic life and the known number of fish killed. The permittee shall reduce the report to writing and shall submit it to the department within five days of discovery of the discharge in accordance with Part III I 2. Unusual and extraordinary discharges include, but are not limited to, any discharge resulting from:

1. Unusual spillage of materials resulting directly or indirectly from processing operations;

2. Breakdown of processing or accessory equipment;

3. Failure or taking out of service some or all of the treatment works; and

4. Flooding or other acts of nature.

I. Reports of noncompliance. The permittee shall report any noncompliance that may adversely affect state waters or may endanger public health.

1. An oral or online report shall be provided within 24 hours from the time the permittee becomes aware of the circumstances. The following shall be included as information that shall be reported within 24 hours under this paragraph:

a. Any unanticipated bypass; and

b. Any upset that causes a discharge to surface waters.

2. A written report shall be submitted within five days and shall contain:

a. A description of the noncompliance and its cause;

b. The period of noncompliance, including exact dates and times, and if the noncompliance has not been corrected, the anticipated time it is expected to continue; and

c. Steps taken or planned to reduce, eliminate, and prevent reoccurrence of the noncompliance.

The board department may waive the written report on a case-by-case basis for reports of noncompliance under Part III I if the oral or online report has been received within 24 hours and no adverse impact on state waters has been reported.

3. The permittee shall report all instances of noncompliance not reported under Part III I 1 or 2, in writing, at the time the next monitoring reports are submitted. The reports shall contain the information listed in Part III I 2.

NOTE: The immediate (within 24 hours) reports required in Part III G, H, and I may shall be made to the department's regional office. Reports may be made by telephone or online at https://www.deq.virginia.gov/land-waste/pollution-response (online reporting is preferred). For reports outside normal working hours, a message may be left and this shall fulfill the immediate reporting requirement the online portal shall be used. For emergencies, call the Virginia Department of Emergency Management maintains a 24-hour telephone service Operations Center (24 hours) at 804-750-8845.

4. When the permittee becomes aware that it failed to submit any relevant facts in a permit registration statement or submitted incorrect information in a permit registration statement or in any report to the department, the permittee shall promptly submit such facts or information.

J. Notice of planned changes.

1. The permittee shall give notice to the department as soon as possible of any planned physical alterations or additions to the permitted facility. Notice is required only when:

a. The permittee plans alteration or addition to any building, structure, facility, or installation from which there is or may be a discharge of pollutants, the construction of which commenced:

(1) After promulgation of standards of performance under § 306 of the Clean Water Act (33 USC § 1251 et seq.) that are applicable to such source; or

(2) After proposal of standards of performance in accordance with § 306 of the Clean Water Act that are applicable to such source, but only if the standards are promulgated in accordance with § 306 of the Clean Water Act within 120 days of their proposal;

b. The alteration or addition could significantly change the nature or increase the quantity of pollutants discharged. This notification applies to pollutants that are subject neither to effluent limitations nor to notification requirements specified elsewhere in this permit; or

c. The alteration or addition results in a significant change in the permittee's sludge use or of disposal practices, and such alteration, addition, or change may justify the application of permit conditions that are different from or absent in the existing permit, including notification of additional use or of disposal sites not reported during the permit application process or not reported pursuant to an approved land application plan.

2. The permittee shall give advance notice to the department of any planned changes in the permitted facility or activity that may result in noncompliance with permit requirements.

K. Signatory requirements.

1. Registration statement. All registration statements shall be signed as follows:

a. For a corporation: by a responsible corporate officer. For the purpose of this section, a responsible corporate officer means (i) a president, secretary, treasurer, or vice-president of the corporation in charge of a principal business function, or any other person who performs similar policy-making or decision-making functions for the corporation or (ii) the manager of one or more manufacturing, production, or operating facilities, provided the manager is authorized to make management decisions that govern the operation of the regulated facility including having the explicit or implicit duty of making major capital investment recommendations and initiating and directing other comprehensive measures to assure long-term environmental compliance with environmental laws and regulations; the manager can ensure that the necessary systems are established or other actions taken to gather complete and accurate information for permit registration requirements; and where authority to sign documents has been assigned or delegated to the manager in accordance with corporate procedures;

b. For a partnership or sole proprietorship: by a general partner or the proprietor, respectively; or

c. For a municipality, state, federal, or other public agency: by either a principal executive officer or ranking elected official. For purposes of this section, a principal executive officer of a public agency includes (i) the chief executive officer of the agency or (ii) a senior executive officer having responsibility for the overall operations of a principal geographic unit of the agency.

2. Reports, etc. All reports required by permits and other information requested by the board department shall be signed by a person described in Part III K 1 or by a duly authorized representative of that person. A person is a duly authorized representative only if:

a. The authorization is made in writing by a person described in Part III K 1;

b. The authorization specifies either an individual or a position having responsibility for the overall operation of the regulated facility or activity such as the position of plant manager, operator of a well or a well field, superintendent, position of equivalent responsibility, or an individual or position having overall responsibility for environmental matters for the company. A duly authorized representative may thus be either a named individual or any individual occupying a named position; and

c. The written authorization is submitted to the department.

3. Changes to authorization. If an authorization under Part III K 2 is no longer accurate because a different individual or position has responsibility for the overall operation of the facility, a new authorization satisfying the requirements of Part III K 2 shall be submitted to the department prior to or together with any reports, or information to be signed by an authorized representative.

4. Certification. Any person signing a document under Part III K 1 or 2 shall make the following certification:

"I certify under penalty of law that this document and all attachments were prepared under my direction or supervision in accordance with a system designed to assure that qualified personnel properly gather and evaluate the information submitted. Based on my inquiry of the person or persons who manage the system, or those persons directly responsible for gathering the information, the information submitted is, to the best of my knowledge and belief, true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment for knowing violations."

L. Duty to comply. The permittee shall comply with all conditions of this permit. Any permit noncompliance constitutes a violation of the State Water Control Law and the Clean Water Act, except that noncompliance with certain provisions of this permit may constitute a violation of the State Water Control Law but not the Clean Water Act. Permit noncompliance is grounds for enforcement action, permit coverage termination, or denial of a permit coverage renewal application.

The permittee shall comply with effluent standards or prohibitions established under § 307(a) of the Clean Water Act for toxic pollutants and with standards for sewage sludge use or disposal established under § 405(d) of the Clean Water Act within the time provided in the regulations that establish these standards or prohibitions or standards for sewage sludge use or disposal, even if this permit has not yet been modified to incorporate the requirement.

M. Duty to reapply. If the permittee wishes to continue an activity regulated by this permit after the expiration date of this permit, the permittee shall submit a new registration statement at least 60 days before the expiration date of the existing permit, unless permission for a later date has been granted by the board department. The board department shall not grant permission for registration statements to be submitted later than the expiration date of the existing permit.

N. Effect of a permit. This permit does not convey any property rights in either real or personal property or any exclusive privileges, nor does it authorize any injury to private property or invasion of personal rights or any infringement of federal, state, or local law or regulations.

O. State law. Nothing in this permit shall be construed to preclude the institution of any legal action under, or relieve the permittee from any responsibilities, liabilities, or penalties established pursuant to, any other state law or regulation or under authority preserved by § 510 of the Clean Water Act. Except as provided in permit conditions on "bypassing" (Part III U) and "upset" (Part III V), nothing in this permit shall be construed to relieve the permittee from civil and criminal penalties for noncompliance.

P. Oil and hazardous substance liability. Nothing in this permit shall be construed to preclude the institution of any legal action or relieve the permittee from responsibilities, liabilities, or penalties to which the permittee is or may be subject under §§ 62.1-44.34:14 through 62.1-44.34:23 of the State Water Control Law.

Q. Proper operation and maintenance. The permittee shall at all times properly operate and maintain all facilities and systems of treatment and control (and related appurtenances) that are installed or used by the permittee to achieve compliance with the conditions of this permit. Proper operation and maintenance also include effective plant performance, adequate funding, adequate staffing, and adequate laboratory and process controls, including appropriate quality assurance procedures. This provision requires the operation of back-up or auxiliary facilities or similar systems that are installed by the permittee only when the operation is necessary to achieve compliance with the conditions of this permit.

R. Disposal of solids or sludges. Solids, sludges, or other pollutants removed in the course of treatment or management of pollutants shall be disposed of in a manner so as to prevent any pollutant from such materials from entering state waters.

S. Duty to mitigate. The permittee shall take all reasonable steps to minimize or prevent any discharge or sludge use or disposal in violation of this permit that has a reasonable likelihood of adversely affecting human health or the environment.

T. Need to halt or reduce activity not a defense. It shall not be a defense for a permittee in an enforcement action that it would have been necessary to halt or reduce the permitted activity in order to maintain compliance with the conditions of this permit.

U. Bypass.

1. "Bypass" means the intentional diversion of waste streams from any portion of a treatment facility. The permittee may allow any bypass to occur that does not cause effluent limitations to be exceeded, but only if it also is for essential maintenance to ensure efficient operation. These bypasses are not subject to the provisions of Part III U 2 and 3.

2. Notice.

a. Anticipated bypass. If the permittee knows in advance of the need for a bypass, prior notice shall be submitted, if possible, at least 10 days before the date of the bypass.

b. Unanticipated bypass. The permittee shall submit notice of an unanticipated bypass as required in Part III I.

3. Prohibition of bypass.

a. Bypass is prohibited, and the board department may take enforcement action against a permittee for bypass, unless:

(1) Bypass was unavoidable to prevent loss of life, personal injury, or severe property damage;

(2) There were no feasible alternatives to the bypass, such as the use of auxiliary treatment facilities, retention of untreated wastes, or maintenance during normal periods of equipment downtime. This condition is not satisfied if adequate back-up equipment should have been installed in the exercise of reasonable engineering judgment to prevent a bypass that occurred during normal periods of equipment downtime or preventive maintenance; and

(3) The permittee submitted notices as required under Part III U 2.

b. The board department may approve an anticipated bypass after considering its adverse effects of the anticipated bypass if the board department determines that it will meet the three conditions listed in Part III U 3 a.

V. Upset.

1. An upset, defined in 9VAC25-31-10, constitutes an affirmative defense to an action brought for noncompliance with technology-based permit effluent limitations if the requirements of Part III V 2 are met. A determination made during administrative review of claims that noncompliance was caused by upset, and before an action for noncompliance, is not a final administrative action subject to judicial review.

2. A permittee who wishes to establish the affirmative defense of upset shall demonstrate through properly signed, contemporaneous operating logs, or other relevant evidence that:

a. An upset occurred and that the permittee can identify the cause or causes of the upset;

b. The permitted facility was at the time being properly operated;

c. The permittee submitted notice of the upset as required in Part III I; and

d. The permittee complied with remedial measures required under Part III S.

3. In any enforcement proceeding the permittee seeking to establish the occurrence of an upset has the burden of proof.

W. Inspection and entry. The permittee shall allow the director, or an authorized representative (including an authorized contractor acting as a representative of the administrator) upon presentation of credentials and other documents as may be required by law, to:

1. Enter upon the permittee's premises where a regulated facility or activity is located or conducted, or where records must be kept under the conditions of this permit;

2. Have access to and copy, at reasonable times, any records that must be kept under the conditions of this permit;

3. Inspect at reasonable times facilities, equipment (including monitoring and control equipment), practices, or operations regulated or required under this permit; and

4. Sample or monitor at reasonable times, for the purposes of assuring permit compliance or as otherwise authorized by the Clean Water Act and the State Water Control Law, substances or parameters at any location.

For purposes of this section, the time for inspection shall be deemed reasonable during regular business hours or whenever the facility is discharging. Nothing contained herein shall make an inspection unreasonable during an emergency.

X. Permit actions. Permits may be modified, revoked and reissued, or terminated for cause. The filing of a request by the permittee for a permit modification, revocation and reissuance, termination, or notification of planned changes or anticipated noncompliance does not stay any permit condition.

Y. Transfer of permit coverage. Permit coverage is not transferable to any person except after notice to the department. Coverage under this permit may be automatically transferred to a new permittee if:

1. The current permittee notifies the department within 30 days of the transfer of the title to the facility or property, unless permission for a later date has been granted by the board department;

2. The notice includes a written agreement between the existing and new permittees containing a specific date for transfer of permit responsibility, coverage, and liability between them; and

3. The board department does not notify the existing permittee and the proposed new permittee of its intent to deny the new permittee coverage under the permit. If this notice is not received, the transfer is effective on the date specified in the agreement described in Part III Y 2.

Z. Severability. The provisions of this permit are severable, and if any provision of this permit or the application of any provision of this permit to any circumstance is held invalid, the application of such provision to other circumstances, and the remainder of this permit, shall not be affected thereby.

9VAC25-820-80. Facilities subject to reduced individual total nitrogen and total phosphorus wasteload allocations.

A. Enhanced Nutrient Removal Certainty Program facilities

B.Chlorophyll-a based total phosphorus wasteload allocations.

TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT

STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD

Final Regulation

Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-820. General Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) Watershed Permit Regulation for Total Nitrogen and Total Phosphorus Discharges and Nutrient Trading in the Chesapeake Bay Watershed in Virginia (amending 9VAC25-820-10, 9VAC25-820-15, 9VAC25-820-20, 9VAC25-820-40, 9VAC25-820-70, 9VAC25-820-80).

Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.15 of the Code of Virginia; § 402 of the Clean Water Act; 40 CFR Parts 122, 123, and 124.

Effective Date: January 1, 2027.

Agency Contact: Morgan Emanuel, Regulatory and Guidance Analyst, Department of Environmental Quality, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 494-9635, or email morgan.emanuel@deq.virginia.gov.

Background: This general permit regulation governs facilities holding a Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) individual permit or owners of facilities that otherwise meet the definition of an existing facility that discharge or propose to discharge total nitrogen or total phosphorus or both to the Chesapeake Bay or tributaries to the Chesapeake Bay. Facilities covered by the general permit regulation are authorized to discharge to surface waters and trade credits for total nitrogen and total phosphorus to offset discharges that exceed facility wasteload allocations. Nitrogen and phosphorus are both nutrients that contribute to pollution in the Chesapeake Bay. The primary issue that needs to be addressed in this action is that the existing general permit expires on December 31, 2026, and must be reissued to continue making it available after that date; the amendments extend the permit to December 31, 2031.

Summary:

The amendments include (i) updating the effective date of the Code of Federal Regulation reference to U.S. Environmental Protection Agency regulations referenced or adopted in the regulation; (ii) updating compliance and deadline dates throughout the regulation to accommodate the extension of the permit effective dates; (iii) clarifying consolidation versus aggregation of facilities and when and how wasteload allocations are terminated without transfer; (iv) removing language for completed compliance schedules; (v) adjusting monitoring requirements; (vi) clarifying monthly average reporting procedures and adding language regarding a new option to obtain point source credits through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange Association; and (vii) updating the cost of credits per pound of nitrogen to $9.23 and per pound of phosphorus to $20.26 based on the 2022 Pay-For-Outcomes Nonpoint Source Pollution Reduction Grant Program, which was adjusted for inflation using the Consumer Price Index (CPI) July 2022 - July 2025 CPI-U Washington-Arlington-Alexandria, DC-VA-MD-WV.

Changes to the proposed regulation (i) remove a provision that allowed owners of facilities discharging into different tributaries to transfer their wasteload allocations across tributaries and (ii) clarify the differences between the annual acquisition of point source credits and the acquisition of wasteload allocations.

Chapter 820

General Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) Watershed General Permit Regulation for Total Nitrogen and Total Phosphorus Discharges and Nutrient Discharges and Trading in the Chesapeake Bay Watershed in Virginia

9VAC25-820-10. Definitions.

Except as defined below in this section, the words and terms used in this chapter shall have the meanings defined in the Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) Permit Regulation (9VAC25-31).

"Annual mass load of total nitrogen" (expressed in pounds per year) means the sum of the total monthly loads for all of the months in one calendar year. See Part I E 4 of the general permit in 9VAC25-820-70 for calculating total monthly load.

"Annual mass load of total phosphorus" (expressed in pounds per year) means the sum of the total monthly loads for all of the months in one calendar year. See Part I E 4 of the general permit in 9VAC25-820-70 for calculating total monthly load.

"Association" means the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange Association authorized by § 62.1-44.19:17 of the Code of Virginia.

"Attenuation" means the rate at which nutrients are reduced through natural processes during transport in water.

"Board" means the Virginia State Water Control Board or State Water Control Board. When used outside the context of the promulgation of regulations, including regulations to establish general permits, "board" means the Department of Environmental Quality.

"Delivered total nitrogen load" means the discharged mass load of total nitrogen from a point source that is adjusted by the delivery factor for that point source.

"Delivered total phosphorus load" means the discharged mass load of total phosphorus from a point source that is adjusted by the delivery factor for that point source.

"Delivery factor" means an estimate of the number of pounds of total nitrogen or total phosphorus delivered to tidal waters for every pound discharged from a facility, as determined by the specific geographic location of the facility, to account for attenuation that occurs during riverine transport between the facility and tidal waters. Delivery factors shall be calculated using the Chesapeake Bay Program watershed model. For the purpose of this regulation, delivery factors with a value greater than 1.00 in the Chesapeake Bay Program watershed model shall be considered to be equal to 1.00.

"Department" or "DEQ" means the Department of Environmental Quality.

"Director" means the director of the Department of Environmental Quality.

"Eastern Shore trading ratio" means the ratio of pounds of point source credits from another tributary that can be acquired and applied by the owner of a facility in the Eastern Shore Basin for every pound of point source total nitrogen or total phosphorus discharged from the Eastern Shore Basin facility. Trading ratios are expressed in the form "credits supplied: credits received."

"Equivalent load" means:

2,300 pounds per year of total nitrogen or 300 pounds per year of total phosphorus discharged by an industrial facility are considered equivalent to the load discharged from sewage treatment works with a design capacity of 0.04 million gallons per day,

5,700 pounds per year of total nitrogen or 760 pounds per year of total phosphorus discharged by an industrial facility are considered equivalent to the load discharged from sewage treatment works with a design capacity of 0.1 million gallons per day, and

28,500 pounds per year of total nitrogen or 3,800 pounds per year of total phosphorus discharged by an industrial facility are considered equivalent to the load discharged from sewage treatment works with a design capacity of 0.5 million gallons per day.

"Existing facility" means a facility (i) subject to a current individual VPDES permit from which a discharge has commenced or for which its owner has received a Certificate to Construct (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent DEQ approval for discharges from industrial facilities) for the treatment works used to derive its wasteload allocation on or before July 1, 2005, or (ii) for which the owner has a wasteload allocation listed in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation. Existing facility shall also mean and include any facility, not subject to an individual VPDES permit, for which its owner holds a separate wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation.

"Expansion" or "expands" means (i) initiating construction at an existing treatment works after July 1, 2005, to increase design flow capacity, except that the term does not apply in those cases where a Certificate to Construct (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent DEQ approval for discharges from industrial facilities) was issued on or before July 1, 2005, or (ii) industrial production process changes or the use of new treatment products at industrial facilities that increase the annual mass load of total nitrogen or total phosphorus above the wasteload allocation.

"Facility" means a point source from which a discharge or proposed discharge of total nitrogen or total phosphorus to the Chesapeake Bay or its tributaries exists. This term does not include confined animal feeding operations, discharges of storm water, return flows from irrigated agriculture, or vessels.

"General permit" means this general permit authorized by § 62.1-44.19:14 of the Code of Virginia.

"Industrial facility" means any facility (as defined above) other than sewage treatment works.

"Local water quality-based limitations" means limitations intended to protect local water quality including applicable total maximum daily load (TMDL) allocations, applicable Virginia Pollution Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) permit limits, applicable limitations set forth in water quality standards established under § 62.1-44.15 (3a) of the Code of Virginia, or other limitations as established by the State Water Control Board.

"New discharge" means any discharge from a facility that did not commence prior to July 1, 2005, except that the term does not apply in those cases where a Certificate to Construct (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent DEQ approval for discharges from industrial facilities) was issued to the facility on or before July 1, 2005.

"Nonsignificant discharger" means (i) a sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed downstream of the fall line with a design capacity of less than 0.1 million gallons per day, or less than an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities, or (ii) a sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed upstream of the fall line with a design capacity of less than 0.5 million gallons per day, or less than an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities.

"Nutrient Offset Fund" means a special nonreverting fund as established under § 10.1-2128.2 of the Code of Virginia.

"Offset" means to acquire an annual wasteload allocation of total nitrogen or total phosphorus for a new or expanding facility to ensure that there is no net increase of nutrients into the affected tributary of the Chesapeake Bay.

"Permitted design capacity" or "permitted capacity" means the allowable load (pounds per year) assigned to an existing facility that is a nonsignificant discharger and that does not have a wasteload allocation listed in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation. The permitted design capacity is calculated based on the design flow and installed nutrient removal technology (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent discharge from industrial facilities) at a facility that has either commenced discharge, or for which an owner has received a Certificate to Construct (for sewage treatment works, or equivalent DEQ approval for discharges from industrial facilities) prior to July 1, 2005. This mass load is used for (i) determining whether the owner of the expanding facility must offset additional mass loading of nitrogen and phosphorus and (ii) determining whether the owner of the facility must acquire credits at the end of a calendar year. For the purpose of this chapter, owners of facilities that have installed secondary wastewater treatment (intended to achieve BOD and TSS monthly average concentrations equal to or less than 30 milligrams per liter) are assumed to achieve an annual average total nitrogen effluent concentration of 18.7 milligrams per liter and an annual average total phosphorus effluent concentration of 2.5 milligrams per liter. Permitted design capacities for facilities that, before July 1, 2005, were required to comply with more stringent nutrient limits shall be calculated using the more stringent values.

"Permitted facility" means a facility whose owner is authorized by this general permit to discharge total nitrogen or total phosphorus. For the sole purpose of generating point source nitrogen credits or point source phosphorus credits, "permitted facility" shall also mean the Blue Plains wastewater treatment facility operated by the District of Columbia Water and Sewer Authority.

"Permittee" means a person authorized by this general permit to discharge total nitrogen or total phosphorus.

"Point source nitrogen credit" means the difference between (i) the wasteload allocation for a permitted facility specified as an annual mass load of total nitrogen and (ii) the monitored annual mass load of total nitrogen discharged from that facility, where clause (ii) is less than clause (i), and where the difference is adjusted by the applicable delivery factor and expressed as pounds per year of delivered total nitrogen load.

"Point source phosphorus credit" means the difference between (i) the wasteload allocation for a permitted facility specified as an annual mass load of total phosphorus and (ii) the monitored annual mass load of total phosphorus discharged from that facility, where clause (ii) is less than clause (i), and where the difference is adjusted by the applicable delivery factor and expressed as pounds per year of delivered total phosphorus load.

"Quantification level" or "QL" means the minimum levels, concentrations, or quantities of a target variable (e.g., target analyte) that can be reported with a specified degree of confidence in accordance with 1VAC30-45, Certification for Noncommercial Environmental Laboratories, or 1VAC30-46, Accreditation for Commercial Environmental Laboratories.

"Registration list" means a list maintained by the department indicating all facilities that are registered for coverage under this general permit, by tributary, including their wasteload allocations, permitted design capacities, and delivery factors as appropriate.

"Significant discharger" means the owner of (i) a sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed upstream of the fall line with a design capacity of 0.5 million gallons per day or greater, or an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities; (ii) a sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed downstream of the fall line with a design capacity of 0.1 million gallons per day or greater, or an equivalent load discharged from industrial facilities; (iii) a planned or newly expanding sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed upstream of the fall line that was expected to be in operation by December 31, 2010, with a permitted design of 0.5 million gallons per day or greater, or an equivalent load to be discharged from industrial facilities; or (iv) a planned or newly expanding sewage treatment works discharging to the Chesapeake Bay watershed downstream of the fall line that was expected to be in operation by December 31, 2010, with a design capacity of 0.1 million gallons per day or greater, or an equivalent load to be discharged from industrial facilities.

"State-of-the-art nutrient removal technology" means (i) technology that will achieve an annual average total nitrogen effluent concentration of three milligrams per liter and an annual average total phosphorus effluent concentration of 0.3 milligrams per liter or (ii) equivalent load reductions in total nitrogen and total phosphorus through recycle or reuse of wastewater as determined by the department.

"Tributaries" means those river basins listed in the Chesapeake Bay TMDL and includes the Potomac, Rappahannock, York, and James River Basins and the Eastern Shore Basin, which encompasses the creeks and rivers of the Eastern Shore of Virginia that are west of Route 13 and drain into the Chesapeake Bay.

"VPDES" means Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System.

"Wasteload allocation" means the most limiting of (i) the water quality-based annual mass load of total nitrogen or annual mass load of total phosphorus allocated to individual facilities pursuant to 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation or its successor, or permitted capacity in the case of nonsignificant dischargers; (ii) the water quality-based annual mass load of total nitrogen or annual mass load of total phosphorus acquired pursuant to § 62.1-44.19:15 of the Code of Virginia for new or expanded facilities; or (iii) applicable total nitrogen or total phosphorus wasteload allocations under the Chesapeake Bay total maximum daily loads (TMDLs) to restore or protect the water quality and beneficial uses of the Chesapeake Bay or its tidal tributaries.

9VAC25-820-15. Applicability of incorporated references based on the dates that they became effective.

Except as noted, when a regulation of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency set forth in Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) is referenced or adopted in this chapter and incorporated by reference, that regulation shall be as it exists and has been published as of July 1, 2014; however, references to 40 CFR Part 136 are incorporated as published in the July 1, 2024, update 2025.

9VAC25-820-20. Purpose, applicability.

A. This regulation fulfills the statutory requirement for the General VPDES Watershed General Permit for Total Nitrogen and Total Phosphorus discharges and nutrient trading Nutrient Discharges and Trading in the Chesapeake Bay watershed Watershed issued by the board State Water Control Board pursuant to the Clean Water Act (33 USC § 1251 et seq.) and § 62.1-44.19:14 of the Code of Virginia.

B. This general permit regulation governs owners of facilities holding individual VPDES permits or otherwise meeting the definition of "existing facility" that discharge or propose to discharge total nitrogen or total phosphorus to the Chesapeake Bay or its tributaries.

9VAC25-820-40. Compliance plans.

A. By February 1, 2023, every owner of a facility subject to reduced individual total nitrogen or total phosphorous wasteload allocations as identified in 9VAC25-820-80 shall either individually or through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange Association submit compliance plans to the department for approval.

1. For facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 A, compliance with reduced wasteload allocations established by the Enhanced Nutrient Removal Certainty Program shall be on the effective date of the reduced allocations as established in 9VAC25-720-60 and 9VAC25-720-120. For facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 B, compliance with chlorophyll-a based total phosphorus wasteload allocations shall be achieved as soon as possible, but no later than January 1, 2026. The compliance plans shall contain any capital projects and implementation schedules needed to achieve total nitrogen and phosphorus reductions sufficient to comply with the individual and combined wasteload allocations of all the permittees in the tributary. Permittees submitting individual plans are not required to account for other facilities' activities.

2. As part of the compliance plan development for facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 B, permittees shall either:

a. Demonstrate that the additional capital projects anticipated by subdivision 1 of this subsection are necessary to ensure continued compliance with these allocations by January 1, 2026, or

b. Request that their individual wasteload allocations become effective on January 1, 2023.

3. The compliance plans may rely on the exchange of point source credits in accordance with this general permit, but not the acquisition of credits through payments into the Nutrient Offset Fund (§ 10.1-2128.2 of the Code of Virginia), to achieve compliance with the individual and combined wasteload allocations in each tributary.

B. Every owner of a facility required to submit a registration statement shall either individually or through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange Association submit annual compliance plan updates to the department for approval as required by Part I D of the general permit.

9VAC25-820-70. General permit.

Any owner whose registration statement is accepted by the board department will receive the following general permit and shall comply with the requirements of the general permit.

General Permit No.: VAN000000
Effective Date: January 1, 2022 2027
Expiration Date: December 31, 2026 2031

GENERAL PERMIT FOR TOTAL NITROGEN AND TOTAL PHOSPHORUS NUTRIENT DISCHARGES AND NUTRIENT TRADING IN THE CHESAPEAKE BAY WATERSHED IN VIRGINIA
AUTHORIZATION TO DISCHARGE UNDER THE VIRGINIA POLLUTANT DISCHARGE ELIMINATION SYSTEM AND THE VIRGINIA STATE WATER CONTROL LAW

In compliance with the provisions of the Clean Water Act, as amended, and pursuant to the State Water Control Law and regulations adopted pursuant to it, owners of facilities holding a VPDES individual permit or owners of facilities that otherwise meet the definition of an existing facility, with total nitrogen or total phosphorus discharges, or both to the Chesapeake Bay or its tributaries, are authorized to discharge to surface waters and exchange credits for total nitrogen or total phosphorus, or both.

The authorized discharge shall be in accordance with the registration statement filed with DEQ, this cover page, Part I-Special Conditions Applicable to All Facilities, Part II-Special Conditions Applicable to New and Expanded Facilities, and Part III-Conditions Applicable to All VPDES Permits, as set forth herein.

PART I

SPECIAL CONDITIONS APPLICABLE TO ALL FACILITIES

A. Authorized activities.

1. Authorization to discharge for owners of facilities required to register.

a. Every owner of a facility required to submit a registration statement to the department by November 1, 2021 2026, and thereafter upon the reissuance of this general permit, shall be authorized to discharge total nitrogen and total phosphorus subject to the requirements of this general permit upon the department's approval of the registration statement.

b. Any owner of a facility required to submit a registration statement with the department at the time he makes application with the department for a new discharge or expansion that is subject to an offset or technology-based requirement in Part II of this general permit, shall be authorized to discharge total nitrogen and total phosphorus subject to the requirements of this general permit upon the department's approval of the registration statement.

c. Upon the department's approval of the registration statement, a facility will be included in the registration list maintained by the department.

2. Authorization to discharge for owners of facilities not required to register. Any owner of a facility authorized by a VPDES permit and not required by this general permit to submit a registration statement shall be deemed to be authorized to discharge total nitrogen and total phosphorus under this general permit at the time it is issued. Owners of facilities that are deemed to be permitted under this subsection shall have no obligation under this general permit prior to submitting a registration statement and securing coverage under this general permit based upon such registration statement.

3. Continuation of permit coverage.

a. Any owner authorized to discharge under this general permit and who submits a complete registration statement for the reissued general permit by November 1, 2026 2031, in accordance with Part III M or who is not required to register in accordance with Part I A 2 is authorized to continue to discharge under the terms of this general permit until such time as the board department either:

(1) Issues coverage to the owner under the reissued general permit, or

(2) Notifies the owner that the discharge is not eligible for coverage under this general permit.

b. When the owner that was covered under the expiring or expired general permit has violated or is violating the conditions of that permit, the board department may choose to do any or all of the following:

(1) Initiate enforcement action based upon the 2017 2022 general permit,

(2) Issue a notice of intent to deny coverage under the reissued general permit. If the general permit coverage is denied, the owner would then be required to cease the discharges authorized by the administratively continued coverage under the terms of the 2017 2022 general permit or be subject to enforcement action for operating without a permit, or

(3) Take other actions authorized by the State Water Control Law.

B. Wasteload allocations.

1. Wasteload allocations allocated to permitted facilities pursuant to 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation, or applicable TMDLs, or wasteload allocations acquired by owners of new and expanding facilities to offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads from a new discharge or expansion under Part II B of this general permit, and existing loads calculated from the permitted design capacity of expanding facilities not previously covered by this general permit, shall be incorporated into the registration list maintained by the department. The wasteload allocations contained in this list shall be enforceable as annual mass load limits in this general permit. Credits shall not be generated by facilities whose operations were previously authorized by a Virginia Pollution Abatement (VPA) permit that was issued before July 1, 2005.

2. Except as described in subdivisions 2 c and 2 d of this subsection, an owner of two or more facilities covered by this general permit and discharging to the same tributary may apply for and receive an aggregated mass load limit for delivered total nitrogen and an aggregated mass load limit for delivered total phosphorus reflecting the total of the water quality-based total nitrogen and total phosphorus wasteload allocations or permitted design capacities established for such facilities individually.

a. The permittee (and all of the individual facilities covered under a single registration) shall be deemed to be in compliance when the aggregate mass load discharged by the facilities is less than the aggregate mass load limit.

b. The permittee will be eligible to generate credits only if the aggregate mass load discharged by the facilities is less than the total of the wasteload allocations assigned to any of the affected facilities.

c. The aggregation of mass load limits shall not affect any requirement to comply with local water quality-based limitations.

d. Facilities whose operations were previously authorized by a Virginia Pollution Abatement (VPA) permit that was issued before July 1, 2005, cannot be aggregated with other facilities under common ownership or operation.

e. Operation under an aggregated mass load limit in accordance with this section shall not be deemed credit acquisition as described in Part I J 2 of this general permit.

3. An owner that consolidates two or more facilities discharging to the same tributary into a single regional facility may apply for and receive an aggregated a consolidated mass load limit for total nitrogen and an aggregated a consolidated mass load limit for total phosphorus, subject to the following conditions:

a. Aggregate Consolidated mass load limits will be calculated accounting for delivery factors in effect at the time of the consolidation.

b. If all of the affected facilities have wasteload allocations in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation, the aggregate consolidated mass load limit shall be calculated by adding the wasteload allocations of the affected facilities. The regional facility shall be eligible to generate credits Credits may be generated based on the consolidated wasteload allocation.

c. If any, but not all, of the affected facilities has a wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation, the aggregate consolidated mass load limit shall be calculated by adding:

(1) Wasteload allocations of those facilities that have wasteload allocations in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation;

(2) Permitted design capacities assigned to affected industrial facilities; and

(3) Loads from affected sewage treatment works that do not have a wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation, defined as the lesser of a previously calculated permitted design capacity, or the values calculated by the following formulae formulas:

Nitrogen Load (lbs/ year) = flow (MGD) x 8.0 mg/l x 8.345 x 365 days/year

Phosphorus Load (lbs/ year) = flow (MGD) x 1.0 mg/l x 8.345 x 365 days/year

Flows used in the preceding formulae formulas shall be the design flow of the treatment works from which the affected facility currently discharges.

The regional facility shall be eligible to generate credits Credits may be generated based on the consolidated wasteload allocation.

d. If none of the affected facilities have a wasteload allocation in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation, the aggregate consolidated mass load limit shall be calculated by adding the respective permitted design capacities for the affected facilities.

e. Facilities whose operations were previously authorized by a Virginia Pollution Abatement (VPA) permit that was issued before July 1, 2005, may be consolidated with other facilities under common ownership or operation, but their allocations cannot be transferred to the regional facility.

f. Facilities whose operations were previously authorized by a VPA permit that was issued before July 1, 2005, can become regional receive effluent from other facilities, but they cannot receive additional allocations beyond those permitted in Part II B 1 d of this general permit.

4. [ An owner that consolidates two or more facilities discharging into different tributaries may apply for a consolidated mass load limit for total nitrogen and a consolidated mass load limit for total phosphorus. The department will evaluate the request on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the conditions set forth in Part I B 3 a through Part I B 3 d of this section and any additional conditions necessary and appropriate for water quality protection.

5. ] Termination of a wasteload allocation. If a facility's individual and general permit are terminated or expire with no consolidation of wasteload allocations, the following shall apply:

a. If a facility has wasteload allocations in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, [ and or ] 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation, the wasteload allocations shall be transferred to the Nutrient Offset Fund and the facility removed from the registration list.

b. If a facility has wasteload allocations based on permitted design capacity, the facility and the wasteload allocations shall be removed from the registration list.

4. [ 6. 5. ] Unless otherwise noted, the nitrogen and phosphorus wasteload allocations assigned to permitted facilities are considered total loads, including nutrients present in the intake water from the river, as applicable. On a case-by-case basis, an industrial discharger may demonstrate to the satisfaction of the board department that a portion of the nutrient load originates in its the industrial discharger's intake water. This demonstration shall be consistent with the assumptions and methods used to derive the allocations through the Chesapeake Bay models. In these cases, the board department may limit the permitted discharge to the net nutrient load portion of the assigned wasteload allocation.

5. [ 7. 6. ] Bioavailability. Unless otherwise noted, the entire nitrogen and phosphorus wasteload allocations assigned to permitted facilities are considered to be bioavailable to organisms in the receiving stream. On a case-by-case basis, a discharger may demonstrate to the satisfaction of the board department that a portion of the nutrient load is not bioavailable; this demonstration shall not be based on the ability of the nutrient to resist degradation at the wastewater treatment plant, but instead, on the ability of the nutrient to resist degradation within a natural environment for the amount of time that it is expected to remain in the Chesapeake Bay watershed. This demonstration shall also be consistent with the assumptions and methods used to derive the allocations through the Chesapeake Bay models. In these cases, the board department may limit the permitted discharge to the bioavailable portion of the assigned wasteload allocation.

C. Schedule of compliance.

1. For facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 [ A ], compliance with reduced wasteload allocations established by the Enhanced Nutrient Removal Certainty Program shall be on the effective date of the reduced allocations as established in 9VAC25-720-60 and 9VAC25-720-120. For facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 B, compliance with chlorophyll-a based total phosphorus wasteload allocations shall be achieved as soon as possible but no later than January 1, 2026.

2. Following submission of compliance plans and compliance plan updates required by 9VAC25-820-40, the board department shall reevaluate the schedule of compliance in subdivision 1 of this subsection, taking into account the information in the compliance plans and the factors in § 62.1-44.19:14 C 2 of the Code of Virginia. When warranted based on such information and factors, the board department shall adjust the schedule in subdivision 1 of this subsection as appropriate by modification or reissuance of this general permit.

3. The registration list shall contain individual dates for compliance with wasteload allocations for dischargers, as follows:

a. Owners of facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 B will have individual dates for compliance based on their respective compliance plans that may be earlier than the schedule listed in subdivision 1 of this subsection.

b. Owners of facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 B that waive their compliance schedules in accordance with 9VAC25-820-40 A 2 b shall have an individual compliance date of January 1, 2023.

c. Upon completion of the projects contained in their compliance plans, owners of facilities listed in 9VAC25-820-80 B may receive a revised individual compliance date of January 1 for the calendar year immediately following the year in which a Certificate to Operate was issued for the capital projects, but not later than January 1, 2026.

d. Owners of new and expanded facilities will have individual dates for compliance corresponding to the date that coverage under this general permit was extended to discharges from the facility.

D. Annual update of compliance plan. Every owner of a facility required to submit a registration statement shall either individually or through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange Association submit updated compliance plans to the department no later than February 1 of each year. The compliance plans shall contain sufficient information to document a plan to achieve and maintain compliance with applicable total nitrogen and total phosphorus individual wasteload allocations on the registration list and aggregate wasteload allocations in Part I C 3. Compliance plans for owners of facilities that were required to submit a registration statement with the department under Part I G 1 a may rely on the acquisition of point source credits in accordance with Part I J of this general permit to achieve compliance with the individual and combined wasteload allocations in each tributary. Annual compliance plan updates for facilities subject to reduced wasteload allocations and listed in 9VAC25-820-80 shall not rely on the acquisition of credits through payments into the Nutrient Offset Fund. Compliance plans for expansions or new discharges for owners of facilities that are required to submit a registration statement with the department under Part I G 1 b and c may rely on the acquisition of allocation in accordance with Part II B of this general permit to achieve compliance with the individual and combined wasteload allocations in each tributary.

E. Monitoring requirements.

1. Discharges shall be monitored by the permittee during weekdays as specified in the table below unless the department determines that weekday only sampling results in a non-representative load. Weekend monitoring or alternative monthly load calculations to address production schedules or seasonal flows shall be submitted to the department for review and approval on a case-by-case basis. Facilities that exhibit instantaneous discharge flows that vary from the daily average discharge flow by less than 10% may submit a proposal to the department to use an alternative sample type; such proposals shall be reviewed and approved by the department on a case-by-case basis.

2. Monitoring for compliance with effluent limitations shall be performed in a manner identical to that used to determine compliance with effluent limitations established in the individual VPDES permit unless specified otherwise in subdivisions 3, 4, and 5 of Part I E. Monitoring or sampling shall be conducted according to analytical laboratory methods approved under 40 CFR Part 136, unless other test or sample collection procedures have been requested by the permittee and approved by the department in writing. All analysis for compliance with effluent limitations shall be conducted in accordance with 1VAC30-45, Certification for Noncommercial Environmental Laboratories, or 1VAC30-46, Accreditation for Commercial Environmental Laboratories. Monitoring may be performed by the permittee at frequencies more stringent than listed in subdivision 1 of Part I E; however, the permittee shall report all results of such monitoring.

3. Loading values greater than or equal to 10 pounds reported in accordance with Part I E and F of this general permit shall be calculated and reported to the nearest pound without regard to mathematical rules of precision. Loading values of less than 10 pounds reported in accordance with Part I E and F of this general permit shall be calculated and reported to at least two significant digits with the exception that all complete calendar year annual loads shall be reported to the nearest pound.

4. Data shall be reported on a form provided by the department, by the same date each month as is required by the owner's individual VPDES permit. The total monthly load shall be calculated in accordance with the following formula:

where:

ML = total monthly load (lb/mo) = average daily load for the calendar month multiplied by the number of days of the calendar month on which a discharge occurred

DL = daily load = daily concentration (expressed as mg/l to the nearest 0.01 mg/l) multiplied by the flow volume of effluent discharged during the 24-hour period (expressed as MGD to at least the nearest 0.01 MGD and in no case less than two significant digits), multiplied by 8.345. Daily loads greater than or equal to 10 pounds may be rounded to the nearest whole number to convert to pounds per day (lbs/day). Daily loads less than or equal to 10 pounds may be rounded to no fewer than two significant figures.

s = number of days in the calendar month in which a sample was collected and analyzed

d = number of discharge days in the calendar month

For total phosphorus, all daily concentration data below the quantification level (QL) for the analytical method used shall be treated as half the QL (without rounding). All daily concentration data equal to or above the QL for the analytical method used shall be treated as it is reported. If all data are below the QL, then the average shall be reported as half the QL.

For total nitrogen (TN), if none of the daily concentration data for the respective species (i.e., TKN, nitrates/nitrites) are equal to or above the QL for the respective analytical methods used, the daily TN concentration value reported shall equal one half of the largest QL (without rounding) used for the respective species. If one of the data is equal to or above the QL, the daily TN concentration value shall be treated as that data point as reported. If more than one of the data is above the QL, the daily TN concentration value shall equal the sum of the data points as reported.

The quantification levels shall be less than or equal to the following concentrations:

Higher QLs may be approved on a case-by-case basis where a higher QL routinely results in reportable results of the species in question or is otherwise technically appropriate based on standard lab practices.

The total year-to-date mass load shall be calculated in accordance with the following formula:

where:

AL-YTD = calendar year-to-date annual load (lb/yr)

ML = total monthly load (lb/mo)

The total annual mass load shall be calculated in accordance with the following formula:

where:

AL = calendar year annual load (lb/yr)

ML = total monthly load (lb/mo)

5. The department may authorize a chemical usage evaluation as an alternative means of determining nutrient loading for outfalls where the only source of nutrients is that found in the surface water intake and chemical additives used by the facility. Such an evaluation shall be submitted to the department for review and approval on a case-by-case basis. Implementation of approved chemical usage evaluations shall satisfy the requirements specified under Part I E 1 and 2.

6. Monthly average concentration data reporting. For total phosphorus, TKN, and nitrite + nitrate monthly average concentration values. All concentration data below the QL used for the analysis shall be treated as one-half of the QL (without rounding). All concentration data equal to or above the QL used for the analysis shall be treated as it is reported to the nearest 0.01 mg/L. An arithmetic average shall be calculated using all reported data for the month. This arithmetic average shall be reported on the Discharge Monitoring Report (DMR) as calculated to the nearest 0.01 mg/L.

For nitrite + nitrate if tested separately, add the daily total nitrite and nitrate concentrations to obtain the daily nitrite + nitrate values. If none of the daily concentrations data for the respective species tested separately (nitrites, nitrates) are equal to or above the QL for the respective analytical methods used, the daily nitrite + nitrate concentration value shall equal one-half of the largest QL (without rounding) used for the respective species. If one of the data is equal or above the QL, the daily nitrite + nitrate concentration value shall be treated as that data point as reported. If more than one of the data is above the QL, the daily nitrite + nitrate concentration value shall equal the sum of the data points as reported. An arithmetic average shall be calculated using all reported data for the month. This arithmetic average shall be reported on the DMR as calculated to the nearest 0.01 mg/L.

F. Annual reporting. On or before February 1, annually, each permittee shall file a discharge monitoring report with the department identifying the annual mass load of total nitrogen and the annual mass load of total phosphorus discharged by the permitted facility during the previous calendar year.

G. Requirement to register; exclusions.

1. The following owners are required to register for coverage under this general permit:

a. Every owner of an existing facility authorized by a VPDES permit to discharge 100,000 gallons or more per day from a sewage treatment work, or an equivalent load from an industrial facility, directly into tidal waters, or 500,000 gallons or more per day from a sewage treatment works, or an equivalent load from an industrial facility, directly into nontidal waters shall submit a registration statement to the department by November 1, 2016 [ 2026 2031 ], and thereafter upon the reissuance of this general permit in accordance with Part III M. The conditions of this general permit will apply to such owner upon approval of a registration statement.

b. Any owner of a facility authorized by a Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System VPDES permit to discharge 40,000 gallons or more per day from a sewage treatment works, or an equivalent load from an industrial facility, directly into tidal or nontidal waters shall submit a registration statement with the department at the time he makes the owner submits an application for an individual permit with the department for a new discharge or expansion that is subject to an offset requirement in Part II of this general permit or to a technology-based requirement in 9VAC25-40-70, and thereafter upon the reissuance of this general permit in accordance with Part III M. The conditions of this general permit will apply to such owner beginning January 1 of the calendar year immediately following approval of a registration statement and issuance or modification of the individual permit.

c. Any owner of a facility treating domestic sewage authorized by a VPDES permit with a discharge greater than 1,000 gallons per day up to and including 39,999 gallons per day that did not commence the discharge of pollutants prior to January 1, 2011, and is subject to offset requirements in accordance with Part II A 1 c of this general permit shall submit a registration statement with the department at the time the owner makes application for an individual permit with the department or prior to commencing a discharge, whichever occurs first, and thereafter upon the reissuance of this general permit in accordance with Part III M.

2. All other categories of discharges are excluded from registration under this general permit.

H. Registration statement.

1. The registration statement shall contain the following information:

a. Name, mailing address, and telephone number, and email address, and fax number of the owner (and facility operator, if different from the owner) applying for permit coverage;

b. Name (or other identifier), address, city or county, contact name, phone number, and email address, and fax number for the facility for which the registration statement is submitted;

c. VPDES permit numbers for all permits assigned to the facility, or pursuant to which the discharge is authorized;

d. If applying for an aggregated wasteload allocation in accordance with Part I B 2 of this permit, a list of all affected facilities and the VPDES permit numbers assigned to these facilities;

e. For new and expanded facilities, a plan to offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads, including the amount of wasteload allocation acquired. Wasteload allocations or credits sufficient to offset projected nutrient loads must be provided for period of at least five years; and

f. For existing facilities, the amount of a facility's wasteload allocation transferred to or from another facility to offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads from a new discharge or expansion.

2. The registration statement shall be submitted to the DEQ Central Office, Office of VPDES Permits. Following notification from the department of the start date for the required electronic submission of Notices of Intent to Discharge forms (i.e., registration statements), as provided for in 9VAC25-31-1020, such form submitted after that date shall be electronically submitted to the department in compliance with this section and 9VAC25-31-1020. At least three months' notice shall be provided between the notification from the department and the date after which such forms must be submitted electronically.

3. An amended registration statement shall be submitted to DEQ immediately upon the acquisition or transfer of a facility's wasteload allocation to offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads from a new discharge or expansion.

I. Public notice for registration statements proposing modifications or incorporations of new wasteload allocations or delivery factors.

1. All public notices issued pursuant to a proposed modification or incorporation of a (i) new wasteload allocation to offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads from a new discharge or expansion or (ii) delivery factor shall be published once a week for two consecutive weeks in a local newspaper of general circulation serving the locality where the facility is located informing the public that the owner of the facility intends to apply for coverage under this general permit. At a minimum, the notice shall include:

a. A statement of the owner's intent to register for coverage under this general permit;

b. A brief description of the facility and its location;

c. The amount of wasteload allocation that will be acquired or transferred if applicable;

d. The delivery factor for a new discharge or expansion;

e. If applicable, any proposed nonpoint source to point source trading ratio less than 2:1 proposed under Part II B 1 b (1);

f. A statement that the purpose of the public participation is to acquaint the public with the technical aspects of the facility and how the standards and the requirements of this chapter will be met, to identify issues of concern, to facilitate communication, and to establish a dialogue between the owner and persons who may be affected by the discharge from the facility;

g. An announcement of a 30-day comment period and the name, telephone number, and address of the owner's representative who can be contacted by the interested persons to answer questions;

h. The name, telephone number, and address of the DEQ representative who can be contacted by the interested persons to answer questions, or where comments shall be sent; and

i. The location where copies of the documentation to be submitted to the department in support of this general permit notification and any supporting documents can be viewed and copied.

2. The owner shall place a copy of the documentation and support documents in a location accessible to the public in the vicinity of the proposed facility.

3. The public shall be provided 30 days to comment on the technical and the regulatory aspects of the proposal. The comment period will begin on the date the notice is published in the local newspaper.

J. Compliance with wasteload allocations.

1. Methods of compliance. The owner of the permitted facility shall comply with its wasteload allocation contained in the registration list maintained by the department. The owner of the permitted facility shall be in compliance with its wasteload allocation if:

a. The annual mass load is less than or equal to the applicable wasteload allocation assigned to the facility in this general permit (or permitted design capacity for expanded facilities without allocations);

b. The owner of the permitted facility acquires sufficient point source nitrogen or phosphorus credits in accordance with subdivision 2 of this subsection; provided, however, that the acquisition of nitrogen or phosphorus credits pursuant to this section shall not alter or otherwise affect the individual wasteload allocations for each permitted facility; or

c. In the event he is unable to meet the individual wasteload allocation pursuant to subdivision 1 a or 1 b of this subsection, the owner of the permitted facility acquires sufficient nitrogen or phosphorus credits through payments made into the Nutrient Offset Fund pursuant to subdivision 3 of this subsection; provided, however, that the acquisition of nitrogen or phosphorus credits pursuant to this section shall not alter or otherwise affect the individual wasteload allocations for each permitted facility.

2. Credit acquisition from owners of permitted facilities. A permittee may acquire point source nitrogen credits or point source phosphorus credits from one or more owners of permitted facilities only if:

a. The credits are generated and applied to a compliance obligation in the same calendar year;

b. The credits are generated by one or more permitted facilities in the same tributary, except that owners of permitted facilities in the Eastern Shore Basin may also acquire credits from owners of permitted facilities in the Potomac and Rappahannock tributaries. Owners of Eastern Shore Basin facilities may acquire credits from the owners of Potomac tributary facilities at a trading ratio of 1:1. A trading ratio of 1.3:1 shall apply to the acquisition of credits from the owners of a Rappahannock tributary facility by the owner of an Eastern Shore Basin facility;

c. The exchange or acquisition of credits does not affect any requirement to comply with local water quality-based limitations as determined by the board department;

d. The credits are acquired no later than June 1 immediately following the calendar year in which the credits are applied;

e. The credits are generated by a facility that has been constructed, and has discharged from treatment works whose design flow or equivalent industrial activity is the basis for the facility's wasteload allocations (until a facility is constructed and has commenced operation, such credits are held, and may be sold, by the Nutrient Offset Fund; and

f. No later than June 1 immediately following the calendar year in which the credits are applied, the permittee certifies on a credit exchange notification form supplied by the department that he has acquired sufficient credits to satisfy his compliance obligations. The permittee shall comply with the terms and conditions contained in the credit exchange notification form submitted to the department.

3. Credit acquisitions from the Nutrient Offset Fund. Until such time as the board department finds that no allocations are reasonably available in an individual tributary, permittees that cannot meet their total nitrogen or total phosphorus effluent limit may acquire nitrogen or phosphorus credits through payments made into the Nutrient Offset Fund established in § 10.1-2128.2 of the Code of Virginia only if, no later than June 1 immediately following the calendar year in which the credits are to be applied, the permittee certifies on a form supplied by the department that he has diligently sought, but has been unable to acquire, sufficient credits to satisfy his compliance obligations through the acquisition of point source nitrogen or phosphorus credits with other permitted facilities, and that he has acquired sufficient credits to satisfy his compliance obligations through one or more payments made in accordance with the terms of this general permit. Such certification may include providing a record of solicitation or demonstration that point source allocations are not available for sale in the tributary in which the permittee's facility is located. Payments to the Nutrient Offset Fund shall be in the amount of $5.08 $9.23 for each pound of nitrogen and $11.15 $20.26 for each pound of phosphorus and shall be subject to the following requirements:

a. The credits are generated and applied to a compliance obligation in the same calendar year.

b. The credits are generated in the same tributary, except that owners of permitted facilities in the Eastern Shore Basin may also acquire credits from the owners of facilities that discharge to the Potomac and Rappahannock tributaries. Owners of Eastern Shore Basin facilities may acquire credits from the owners of facilities that discharge to a Potomac tributary at a trading ratio of 1:1. A trading ratio of 1.3:1 shall apply to the acquisition of credits from owners of facilities that discharge to a Rappahannock tributary by the owners of an Eastern Shore Basin facility.

c. The acquisition of credits does not affect any requirement to comply with local water quality-based limitations, as determined by the board department.

4. This general permit neither requires nor prohibits a municipality or regional sewerage authority's development and implementation of trading programs among industrial users, which are consistent with the pretreatment regulatory requirements at 40 CFR Part 403 and the municipality's or authority's individual VPDES permit.

Part II

SPECIAL CONDITIONS APPLICABLE TO NEW AND EXPANDED FACILITIES

A. Offsetting mass loads discharged by new and expanded facilities.

1. An owner of a new or expanded facility shall comply with the applicable requirements of this section as a condition of the facility's coverage under this general permit.

a. An owner of a facility authorized by a VPDES permit first issued before July 1, 2005, that expands the facility to discharge 40,000 gallons or more per day, or an equivalent load, shall demonstrate to the department that he has acquired wasteload allocations sufficient to offset any increase in his delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads resulting from any expansion beyond his permitted capacity as of July 1, 2005.

b. An owner of a facility authorized by a VPDES permit first issued on or after July 1, 2005, to discharge 40,000 gallons or more per day, or an equivalent load, shall demonstrate to the department that he has acquired wasteload allocations sufficient to offset his delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads.

c. An owner of a facility treating domestic sewage authorized by a VPDES permit with a discharge greater than 1,000 gallons per day up to and including 39,999 gallons per day that did not commence the discharge of pollutants prior to January 1, 2011, shall demonstrate to the department that he has acquired wasteload allocations sufficient to offset his delivered total nitrogen and delivered phosphorus loads prior to commencing the discharge, except when the facility is for short-term temporary use only as determined by the department or when treatment of domestic sewage is not the primary purpose of the facility.

2. Offset calculations shall address the proposed discharge that exceeds:

a. The applicable wasteload allocation assigned to discharges from the facility in this general permit, for expanding significant dischargers with a wasteload allocation listed in 9VAC25-720-50 C, 9VAC25-720-60 C, 9VAC25-720-70 C, 9VAC25-720-110 C, and 9VAC25-720-120 C of the Water Quality Management Planning Regulation;

b. The permitted design capacity, for all other expanding dischargers; and

c. Zero, for facilities with a new discharge.

3. An owner of multiple facilities that discharge into the same tributary, and assigned an aggregate mass load limit in accordance with Part I B 2 of this general permit, that undertakes construction of new or expanded facilities shall be required to acquire wasteload allocations sufficient to offset any increase in delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads resulting from any expansion beyond the aggregate mass load limit assigned these facilities.

B. Acquisition of wasteload allocations [ or annual point source credits ]. Wasteload allocations [ or annual point source credits ] required by this section to offset new or increased delivered total nitrogen and delivered total phosphorus loads shall be acquired in accordance with this section.

1. Such allocations [ or annual point source credits ] may be acquired from one or a combination of the following:

a. Acquisition of all or a portion of the wasteload allocations or point source nitrogen or point source phosphorus credits from the owners of one or more permitted facilities, either directly from the owner or, in the case of point source credits, through the Virginia Nutrient Credit Exchange Association based on delivered pounds by the respective trading parties as listed by the department;

b. Acquisition of credits certified by the board department pursuant to § 62.1-44.19:20 of the Code of Virginia. Credits used to offset new or increased nutrient loads under this subdivision shall be:

(1) Subject to a trading ratio of two pounds reduced for every pound to be discharged if certified as a nonpoint source credit by the board department pursuant to § 62.1-44.19:20 of the Code of Virginia. On a case-by-case basis the board department may approve nonpoint source to source trading ratios of less than 2:1 (but not less than 1:1) when the applicant demonstrates factors that ameliorate the presumed 2:1 uncertainty ratio for credits generation by nonpoint sources such as:

(a) When direct and representative monitoring of the pollutant loadings from a nonpoint source is performed in a manner and at a frequency similar to that performed at VPDES point sources and there is consistency in the effectiveness of the operation of the nonpoint source best management practice (BMP) approaching that of a conventional point source.

(b) When nonpoint source credits are generated from land conservation that ensures permanent protection through a conservation easement or other instrument attached to the deed and when load reductions can be reliably determined;

(2) Calculated using best management practices efficiency rates and attenuation rates, as established by the latest science and relevant technical information, and approved by the board department;

(3) Based on appropriate delivery factors, as established by the latest science and relevant technical information, and approved by the board department;

(4) Demonstrated to have achieved reductions beyond those already required by or funded under federal or state law, or by Virginia's Chesapeake Bay TMDL Watershed Implementation Plan;

(5) Generated in accordance with conditions of the facility's individual VPDES permit; and

(6) In the case of credits generated by land use conversions and urban source reduction controls (BMPs), the credits shall represent nutrient reductions beyond those in place as of July 1, 2005;

c. Until such time as the board department finds that no allocations are reasonably available in an individual tributary, acquisition of allocations through payments made into the Nutrient Offset Fund established in § 10.1-2128.2 of the Code of Virginia; or

d. Acquisition of allocations through such other means as may be approved by the department on a case-by-case basis. This includes allocations granted by the board department to an owner of a facility that is authorized by a VPA permit to land apply domestic sewage if:

(1) The VPA permit was issued before July 1, 2005;

(2) The allocation does not exceed the facility's permitted design capacity as of July 1, 2005;

(3) The waste treated by the facility that is covered under the VPA permit will be treated and discharged pursuant to a VPDES permit for a new discharge; and

(4) The owner installs state-of-the-art nutrient removal technology at such a facility.

2. Acquisition of allocations or point source nitrogen or point source phosphorus credits is subject to the following conditions:

a. The allocations or credits shall be generated and applied to an offset obligation in the same calendar year in which the credit is generated;

b. The allocations or credits shall be generated in the same tributary;

c. Such acquisition does not affect any requirement to comply with local water quality-based limitations, as determined by the board department;

d. The allocations are authenticated (i.e., verified to have been generated) by the permittee as required by the facility's individual VPDES permit, utilizing procedures approved by the board department, no later than February 1 immediately following the calendar year in which the allocations are applied; and

e. If obtained from the owner of a permitted point source, the allocations shall be generated by a facility that has been constructed, and has discharged from treatment works whose design flow or equivalent industrial activity is the basis for the facility's wasteload allocations.

f. Such allocations or credits shall be secured for a period of five years with each registration under the general permit.

3. Priority of options. The board department shall give priority to allocations or credits acquired in accordance with subdivisions 1 a, b, and d of this subsection. The board department shall approve allocations acquired in accordance with subdivision 1 c of this subsection only after the owner has demonstrated that he has made a good faith effort to acquire sufficient allocations in accordance with subdivisions 1 a and 1 b of this subsection, and that such allocations are not reasonably available taking into account timing, cost and other relevant factors. Such demonstration may include providing a record of solicitation, or other demonstration that point source allocations or nonpoint source allocations are not available for sale in the tributary in which the permittee's facility discharge is located.

4. Annual allocation acquisitions from the Nutrient Offset Fund. The cost for each pound of nitrogen and each pound of phosphorus shall be determined at the time payment is made to the Nutrient Offset Fund, based on the higher of (i) the estimated cost of achieving a reduction of one pound of nitrogen or phosphorus at the facility that is securing the allocation, or comparable facility, for each pound of allocation acquired; or (ii) the average cost, as determined by the department on an annual basis, of reducing two pounds of nitrogen or phosphorus from nonpoint sources in the same tributary for each pound of allocation acquired.

Part III

CONDITIONS APPLICABLE TO ALL VPDES PERMITS

A. Monitoring.

1. Samples and measurements taken as required by this permit shall be representative of the monitored activity.

2. Monitoring shall be conducted according to procedures approved under 40 CFR Part 136 or alternative methods approved by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, unless other procedures have been specified in this permit.

3. The permittee shall periodically calibrate and perform maintenance procedures on all monitoring and analytical instrumentation at intervals that will ensure accuracy of measurements.

4. Samples taken as required by this permit shall be analyzed in accordance with 1VAC30-45 (Certification for Noncommercial Environmental Laboratories) or 1VAC30-46 (Accreditation for Commercial Environmental Laboratories).

B. Records.

1. Records of monitoring information shall include:

a. The date, exact place, and time of sampling or measurements;

b. The individuals who performed the sampling or measurements;

c. The dates and times analyses were performed;

d. The individuals who performed the analyses;

e. The analytical techniques or methods used; and

f. The results of such analyses.

2. Except for records of monitoring information required by this permit related to the permittee's sewage sludge use and disposal activities, which shall be retained for a period of at least five years, the permittee shall retain records of all monitoring information, including all calibration and maintenance records and all original strip chart recordings for continuous monitoring instrumentation, copies of all reports required by this permit, and records of all data used to complete the registration statement for this permit, for a period of at least three years from the date of the sample, measurement, report, or request for coverage. This period of retention shall be extended automatically during the course of any unresolved litigation regarding the regulated activity or regarding control standards applicable to the permittee or as requested by the board department.

C. Reporting monitoring results.

1. The permittee shall submit the results of the monitoring required by this permit not later than the 10th day of the month after monitoring takes place, unless another reporting schedule is specified elsewhere in this permit. Monitoring results shall be submitted to the department's regional office.

2. Monitoring results shall be reported on a Discharge Monitoring Report (DMR) or on forms provided, approved, or specified by the department.

3. If the permittee monitors any pollutant specifically addressed by this permit more frequently than required by this permit using test procedures approved under 40 CFR Part 136 or using other test procedures approved by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency or using procedures specified in this permit, the results of this monitoring shall be included in the calculation and reporting of the data submitted on the DMR or reporting form specified by the department.

4. Calculations for all limitations that require averaging of measurements shall utilize an arithmetic mean unless otherwise specified in this permit.

D. Duty to provide information. The permittee shall furnish to the department, within a reasonable time, any information that the board department may request to determine whether cause exists for modifying, revoking and reissuing, or terminating coverage under this permit or to determine compliance with this permit. The board department may require the permittee to furnish, upon request, such plans, specifications, and other pertinent information as may be necessary to determine the effect of the wastes from the discharge on the quality of state waters or such other information as may be necessary to accomplish the purposes of the State Water Control Law. The permittee shall also furnish to the department, upon request, copies of records required to be kept by this permit.

E. Compliance schedule reports. Reports of compliance or noncompliance with, or any progress reports on, interim and final requirements contained in any compliance schedule of this permit shall be submitted no later than 14 days following each schedule date.

F. Unauthorized discharges. Except in compliance with this permit or another permit issued by the board department, it shall be unlawful for any person to:

1. Discharge into state waters sewage, industrial wastes, other wastes, or any noxious or deleterious substances; or

2. Otherwise alter the physical, chemical, or biological properties of such state waters and make them detrimental to the public health, to animal or aquatic life, or to the use of such waters for domestic or industrial consumption, for recreation, or for other uses.

G. Reports of unauthorized discharges. Any permittee that discharges or causes or allows a discharge of sewage, industrial waste, other wastes, or any noxious or deleterious substance into or upon state waters in violation of Part III F, or that discharges or causes or allows a discharge that may reasonably be expected to enter state waters in violation of Part III F, shall notify the department of the discharge immediately upon discovery of the discharge, but in no case later than 24 hours after said discovery. A written report of the unauthorized discharge shall be submitted to the department within five days of discovery of the discharge. The written report shall contain:

1. A description of the nature and location of the discharge;

2. The cause of the discharge;

3. The date on which the discharge occurred;

4. The length of time that the discharge continued;

5. The volume of the discharge;

6. If the discharge is continuing, how long it is expected to continue;

7. If the discharge is continuing, what the expected total volume of the discharge will be; and

8. Any steps planned or taken to reduce, eliminate, and prevent a recurrence of the present discharge or any future discharge not authorized by this permit.

Discharges reportable to the department under the immediate reporting requirements of other regulations are exempted from this requirement.

H. Reports of unusual or extraordinary discharges. If any unusual or extraordinary discharge including a bypass or upset should occur from a treatment works and the discharge enters or could be expected to enter state waters, the permittee shall promptly notify, in no case later than 24 hours, the department by telephone after the discovery of the discharge. This notification shall provide all available details of the incident, including any adverse effects on aquatic life and the known number of fish killed. The permittee shall reduce the report to writing and shall submit it to the department within five days of discovery of the discharge in accordance with Part III I 2. Unusual and extraordinary discharges include, but are not limited to, any discharge resulting from:

1. Unusual spillage of materials resulting directly or indirectly from processing operations;

2. Breakdown of processing or accessory equipment;

3. Failure or taking out of service some or all of the treatment works; and

4. Flooding or other acts of nature.

I. Reports of noncompliance. The permittee shall report any noncompliance that may adversely affect state waters or may endanger public health.

1. An oral or online report shall be provided within 24 hours from the time the permittee becomes aware of the circumstances. The following shall be included as information that shall be reported within 24 hours under this paragraph:

a. Any unanticipated bypass; and

b. Any upset that causes a discharge to surface waters.

2. A written report shall be submitted within five days and shall contain:

a. A description of the noncompliance and its cause;

b. The period of noncompliance, including exact dates and times, and if the noncompliance has not been corrected, the anticipated time it is expected to continue; and

c. Steps taken or planned to reduce, eliminate, and prevent reoccurrence of the noncompliance.

The board department may waive the written report on a case-by-case basis for reports of noncompliance under Part III I if the oral or online report has been received within 24 hours and no adverse impact on state waters has been reported.

3. The permittee shall report all instances of noncompliance not reported under Part III I 1 or 2, in writing, at the time the next monitoring reports are submitted. The reports shall contain the information listed in Part III I 2.

NOTE: The immediate (within 24 hours) reports required in Part III G, H, and I may shall be made to the department's regional office. Reports may be made by telephone or online at https://www.deq.virginia.gov/land-waste/pollution-response (online reporting is preferred). For reports outside normal working hours, a message may be left and this shall fulfill the immediate reporting requirement the online portal shall be used. For emergencies, call the Virginia Department of Emergency Management maintains a 24-hour telephone service Operations Center (24 hours) at 804-750-8845.

4. When the permittee becomes aware that it failed to submit any relevant facts in a permit registration statement or submitted incorrect information in a permit registration statement or in any report to the department, the permittee shall promptly submit such facts or information.

J. Notice of planned changes.

1. The permittee shall give notice to the department as soon as possible of any planned physical alterations or additions to the permitted facility. Notice is required only when:

a. The permittee plans alteration or addition to any building, structure, facility, or installation from which there is or may be a discharge of pollutants, the construction of which commenced:

(1) After promulgation of standards of performance under § 306 of the Clean Water Act (33 USC § 1251 et seq.) that are applicable to such source; or

(2) After proposal of standards of performance in accordance with § 306 of the Clean Water Act that are applicable to such source, but only if the standards are promulgated in accordance with § 306 of the Clean Water Act within 120 days of their proposal;

b. The alteration or addition could significantly change the nature or increase the quantity of pollutants discharged. This notification applies to pollutants that are subject neither to effluent limitations nor to notification requirements specified elsewhere in this permit; or

c. The alteration or addition results in a significant change in the permittee's sludge use or of disposal practices, and such alteration, addition, or change may justify the application of permit conditions that are different from or absent in the existing permit, including notification of additional use or of disposal sites not reported during the permit application process or not reported pursuant to an approved land application plan.

2. The permittee shall give advance notice to the department of any planned changes in the permitted facility or activity that may result in noncompliance with permit requirements.

K. Signatory requirements.

1. Registration statement. All registration statements shall be signed as follows:

a. For a corporation: by a responsible corporate officer. For the purpose of this section, a responsible corporate officer means (i) a president, secretary, treasurer, or vice-president of the corporation in charge of a principal business function, or any other person who performs similar policy-making or decision-making functions for the corporation or (ii) the manager of one or more manufacturing, production, or operating facilities, provided the manager is authorized to make management decisions that govern the operation of the regulated facility including having the explicit or implicit duty of making major capital investment recommendations and initiating and directing other comprehensive measures to assure long-term environmental compliance with environmental laws and regulations; the manager can ensure that the necessary systems are established or other actions taken to gather complete and accurate information for permit registration requirements; and where authority to sign documents has been assigned or delegated to the manager in accordance with corporate procedures;

b. For a partnership or sole proprietorship: by a general partner or the proprietor, respectively; or

c. For a municipality, state, federal, or other public agency: by either a principal executive officer or ranking elected official. For purposes of this section, a principal executive officer of a public agency includes (i) the chief executive officer of the agency or (ii) a senior executive officer having responsibility for the overall operations of a principal geographic unit of the agency.

2. Reports, etc. All reports required by permits and other information requested by the board department shall be signed by a person described in Part III K 1 or by a duly authorized representative of that person. A person is a duly authorized representative only if:

a. The authorization is made in writing by a person described in Part III K 1;

b. The authorization specifies either an individual or a position having responsibility for the overall operation of the regulated facility or activity such as the position of plant manager, operator of a well or a well field, superintendent, position of equivalent responsibility, or an individual or position having overall responsibility for environmental matters for the company. A duly authorized representative may thus be either a named individual or any individual occupying a named position; and

c. The written authorization is submitted to the department.

3. Changes to authorization. If an authorization under Part III K 2 is no longer accurate because a different individual or position has responsibility for the overall operation of the facility, a new authorization satisfying the requirements of Part III K 2 shall be submitted to the department prior to or together with any reports, or information to be signed by an authorized representative.

4. Certification. Any person signing a document under Part III K 1 or 2 shall make the following certification:

"I certify under penalty of law that this document and all attachments were prepared under my direction or supervision in accordance with a system designed to assure that qualified personnel properly gather and evaluate the information submitted. Based on my inquiry of the person or persons who manage the system, or those persons directly responsible for gathering the information, the information submitted is, to the best of my knowledge and belief, true, accurate, and complete. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting false information, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment for knowing violations."

L. Duty to comply. The permittee shall comply with all conditions of this permit. Any permit noncompliance constitutes a violation of the State Water Control Law and the Clean Water Act, except that noncompliance with certain provisions of this permit may constitute a violation of the State Water Control Law but not the Clean Water Act. Permit noncompliance is grounds for enforcement action, permit coverage termination, or denial of a permit coverage renewal application.

The permittee shall comply with effluent standards or prohibitions established under § 307(a) of the Clean Water Act for toxic pollutants and with standards for sewage sludge use or disposal established under § 405(d) of the Clean Water Act within the time provided in the regulations that establish these standards or prohibitions or standards for sewage sludge use or disposal, even if this permit has not yet been modified to incorporate the requirement.

M. Duty to reapply. If the permittee wishes to continue an activity regulated by this permit after the expiration date of this permit, the permittee shall submit a new registration statement at least 60 days before the expiration date of the existing permit, unless permission for a later date has been granted by the board department. The board department shall not grant permission for registration statements to be submitted later than the expiration date of the existing permit.

N. Effect of a permit. This permit does not convey any property rights in either real or personal property or any exclusive privileges, nor does it authorize any injury to private property or invasion of personal rights or any infringement of federal, state, or local law or regulations.

O. State law. Nothing in this permit shall be construed to preclude the institution of any legal action under, or relieve the permittee from any responsibilities, liabilities, or penalties established pursuant to, any other state law or regulation or under authority preserved by § 510 of the Clean Water Act. Except as provided in permit conditions on "bypassing" (Part III U) and "upset" (Part III V), nothing in this permit shall be construed to relieve the permittee from civil and criminal penalties for noncompliance.

P. Oil and hazardous substance liability. Nothing in this permit shall be construed to preclude the institution of any legal action or relieve the permittee from responsibilities, liabilities, or penalties to which the permittee is or may be subject under §§ 62.1-44.34:14 through 62.1-44.34:23 of the State Water Control Law.

Q. Proper operation and maintenance. The permittee shall at all times properly operate and maintain all facilities and systems of treatment and control (and related appurtenances) that are installed or used by the permittee to achieve compliance with the conditions of this permit. Proper operation and maintenance also include effective plant performance, adequate funding, adequate staffing, and adequate laboratory and process controls, including appropriate quality assurance procedures. This provision requires the operation of back-up or auxiliary facilities or similar systems that are installed by the permittee only when the operation is necessary to achieve compliance with the conditions of this permit.

R. Disposal of solids or sludges. Solids, sludges, or other pollutants removed in the course of treatment or management of pollutants shall be disposed of in a manner so as to prevent any pollutant from such materials from entering state waters.

S. Duty to mitigate. The permittee shall take all reasonable steps to minimize or prevent any discharge or sludge use or disposal in violation of this permit that has a reasonable likelihood of adversely affecting human health or the environment.

T. Need to halt or reduce activity not a defense. It shall not be a defense for a permittee in an enforcement action that it would have been necessary to halt or reduce the permitted activity in order to maintain compliance with the conditions of this permit.

U. Bypass.

1. "Bypass" means the intentional diversion of waste streams from any portion of a treatment facility. The permittee may allow any bypass to occur that does not cause effluent limitations to be exceeded, but only if it also is for essential maintenance to ensure efficient operation. These bypasses are not subject to the provisions of Part III U 2 and 3.

2. Notice.

a. Anticipated bypass. If the permittee knows in advance of the need for a bypass, prior notice shall be submitted, if possible, at least 10 days before the date of the bypass.

b. Unanticipated bypass. The permittee shall submit notice of an unanticipated bypass as required in Part III I.

3. Prohibition of bypass.

a. Bypass is prohibited, and the board department may take enforcement action against a permittee for bypass, unless:

(1) Bypass was unavoidable to prevent loss of life, personal injury, or severe property damage;

(2) There were no feasible alternatives to the bypass, such as the use of auxiliary treatment facilities, retention of untreated wastes, or maintenance during normal periods of equipment downtime. This condition is not satisfied if adequate back-up equipment should have been installed in the exercise of reasonable engineering judgment to prevent a bypass that occurred during normal periods of equipment downtime or preventive maintenance; and

(3) The permittee submitted notices as required under Part III U 2.

b. The board department may approve an anticipated bypass after considering its adverse effects of the anticipated bypass if the board department determines that it will meet the three conditions listed in Part III U 3 a.

V. Upset.

1. An upset, defined in 9VAC25-31-10, constitutes an affirmative defense to an action brought for noncompliance with technology-based permit effluent limitations if the requirements of Part III V 2 are met. A determination made during administrative review of claims that noncompliance was caused by upset, and before an action for noncompliance, is not a final administrative action subject to judicial review.

2. A permittee who wishes to establish the affirmative defense of upset shall demonstrate through properly signed, contemporaneous operating logs, or other relevant evidence that:

a. An upset occurred and that the permittee can identify the cause or causes of the upset;

b. The permitted facility was at the time being properly operated;

c. The permittee submitted notice of the upset as required in Part III I; and

d. The permittee complied with remedial measures required under Part III S.

3. In any enforcement proceeding the permittee seeking to establish the occurrence of an upset has the burden of proof.

W. Inspection and entry. The permittee shall allow the director, or an authorized representative (including an authorized contractor acting as a representative of the administrator) upon presentation of credentials and other documents as may be required by law, to:

1. Enter upon the permittee's premises where a regulated facility or activity is located or conducted, or where records must be kept under the conditions of this permit;

2. Have access to and copy, at reasonable times, any records that must be kept under the conditions of this permit;

3. Inspect at reasonable times facilities, equipment (including monitoring and control equipment), practices, or operations regulated or required under this permit; and

4. Sample or monitor at reasonable times, for the purposes of assuring permit compliance or as otherwise authorized by the Clean Water Act and the State Water Control Law, substances or parameters at any location.

For purposes of this section, the time for inspection shall be deemed reasonable during regular business hours or whenever the facility is discharging. Nothing contained herein shall make an inspection unreasonable during an emergency.

X. Permit actions. Permits may be modified, revoked and reissued, or terminated for cause. The filing of a request by the permittee for a permit modification, revocation and reissuance, termination, or notification of planned changes or anticipated noncompliance does not stay any permit condition.

Y. Transfer of permit coverage. Permit coverage is not transferable to any person except after notice to the department. Coverage under this permit may be automatically transferred to a new permittee if:

1. The current permittee notifies the department within 30 days of the transfer of the title to the facility or property, unless permission for a later date has been granted by the board department;

2. The notice includes a written agreement between the existing and new permittees containing a specific date for transfer of permit responsibility, coverage, and liability between them; and

3. The board department does not notify the existing permittee and the proposed new permittee of its intent to deny the new permittee coverage under the permit. If this notice is not received, the transfer is effective on the date specified in the agreement described in Part III Y 2.

Z. Severability. The provisions of this permit are severable, and if any provision of this permit or the application of any provision of this permit to any circumstance is held invalid, the application of such provision to other circumstances, and the remainder of this permit, shall not be affected thereby.

9VAC25-820-80. Facilities subject to reduced individual total nitrogen and total phosphorus wasteload allocations.

A. Enhanced Nutrient Removal Certainty Program facilities

B.Chlorophyll-a based total phosphorus wasteload allocations.

TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING

CEMETERY BOARD

Forms

Title of Regulation: 18VAC47-20. Cemetery Board Rules and Regulations.

Agency Contact: Christina Dumas, Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, 9960 Mayland Drive, Perimeter Center, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-2177, or email christina.dumas1@dpor.virginia.gov.

FORMS (18VAC47-20)

Cemetery Company and Personnel Forms

Cemetery Company License Application, A462-4901LIC-v6 (eff. 12/2025)

Cemetery Company Renewal or Reinstatement Application, A462-4901RENREI-v13 (eff. 12/2025)

Sales Personnel Registration Form, A462-4903REG-v6 (eff. 12/2025)

Compliance Agent Designee Application, A462-49CAD-v4 (eff. 12/2025)

Compliance Agent, Officer, or Director Change Form, A462-49ADO_CHG-v4 (eff. 12/2025)

Cemetery Addition Form, 4901ADD-v3 (rev. 1/2014)

Cemetery Salesperson Personnel Transfer Application, A462-4903SPTR-v1 (eff. 12/2025)

Perpetual Care Forms

Perpetual Care Fidelity Bond Form, 49PCFBND-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Perpetual Care Trust Fund Financial Report, 49PCTFR-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Perpetual Care Trust Fund Financial Report Instructions, 49PCTINS-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Perpetual Care Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule A (Statement of Receipts and Expenses), 49PCTFRA-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Perpetual Care Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule B (Statement of Required Deposits), 49PCTFRB-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Perpetual Care Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule C (Statement of Expenses Incurred for the General Care, Maintenance, Embellishment, and Administration of Cemeteries), 49PCTFRC-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Perpetual Care Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule D (Statement of Investment Securities), 49PCTFRD-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Perpetual Care Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule E (Cemeteries Covered by Trust Fund), 49PCTFRE-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Total Return Distribution Method Procedures Supplement (eff. 7/2026)

Perpetual Care Trust Fund - Notice of Conversion, A462-49NOC-v2 (eff. 7/2026)

Total Return Distribution Form, A462-49TRD-v1 (eff. 7/2026)

Perpetual Care Trust Fund - Schedule A - Total Return Distribution, A463-49TRDFRA-v1 (eff. 7/2026)

Perpetual Care Trust Fund - Schedule B - Total Return Distribution, A463-49TRDFRB-v1 (eff. 7/2026)

Perpetual Care Trust Fund - Schedule C - Total Return Distribution, A463-49TRDFRC-v1 (eff. 7/2026)

Perpetual Care Trust Fund - Schedule D - Total Return Distribution, A463-49TRDFRD-v1 (eff. 7/2026)

Perpetual Care Trust Fund - Schedule E - Total Return Distribution, A463-49TRDFRE-v1 (eff. 7/2026)

Preneed Forms

Preneed Burial Contract (undated)

Preneed Fidelity Bond Form, 49PFBND-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Preneed Trust Fund Financial Report, 49PTFR-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Preneed Trust Fund Financial Report Instructions, 49PTINS-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Preneed Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule A (Statement of Receipts and Expenses), 49PTFRA-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Preneed Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule B (Statement of Financial Deposits), 49PTFRB-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Preneed Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule C (Statement of Investment Securities), 49PTFRC-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Trustee Forms

Perpetual Care Trust Fund Trustee Verification, 49TRVER-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

Trustee Approval Application, A462-49TRAPP-v4 (eff.12/2025)

New Trustee Transfer of Funds Notification Form, 4901NEWTR-v1 (rev. 9/2013)

TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING

BOARD OF MEDICINE

Final Regulation

Title of Regulation: 18VAC85-21. Regulations Governing Prescribing of Opioids and Buprenorphine (amending 18VAC85-21-130).

Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-2928.2 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: September 23, 2026.

Agency Contact: Erin Barrett, Director of Legislative and Regulatory Affairs, Department of Health Professions, Perimeter Center, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Henrico, VA 23233, telephone (804) 750-3912, fax (804) 915-0382, or email erin.barrett@dhp.virginia.gov.

Summary:

Pursuant to Chapters 207 and 208 of the 2026 Acts of Assembly, the amendments (i) allow practitioners prescribing buprenorphine for opioid use disorder to offer appropriate counseling to a patient in addition to referring the patient to counseling, (ii) require that such counseling or referral to counseling be documented in the patient's medical record, and (iii) stipulate that a patient's refusal of such counseling or referral to counseling does not preclude the patient from receiving office-based buprenorphine treatment for opioid use disorder.

18VAC85-21-130. General provisions pertaining to prescribing of buprenorphine for opioid use disorder.

A. Practitioners shall abide by all federal and state laws and regulations governing the prescribing of buprenorphine for the treatment of opioid use disorder.

B. Physician assistants shall prescribe buprenorphine for opioid use disorder pursuant to a practice agreement with a patient care team doctor of medicine or doctor of osteopathic medicine.

C. Practitioners engaged in medication-assisted treatment shall either provide offer counseling in their practice or refer the patient to a mental health service provider, as defined in § 54.1-2400.1 of the Code of Virginia, who has the education and experience to provide substance misuse counseling or provide a referral for counseling to each patient as clinically indicated. The practitioner shall document the provision of counseling or a referral for counseling in the medical record. A patient's refusal to receive counseling does not preclude the patient from receiving office-based buprenorphine treatment for opioid use disorder.

TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING

BOARD OF PHARMACY

Final Regulation

Title of Regulation: 18VAC110-20. Regulations Governing the Practice of Pharmacy (amending 18VAC110-20-322).

Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: September 23, 2026.

Agency Contact: Caroline Juran, RPh, Executive Director, Board of Pharmacy, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4456, fax (804) 527-4472, or email caroline.juran@dhp.virginia.gov.

Summary:

The amendments remove from regulatory text compounds placed in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) by Chapter 171 of the 2026 Acts of Assembly.

18VAC110-20-322. Placement of chemicals in Schedule I.

A. Pursuant to subsection D of § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia, the Board of Pharmacy places the following in Schedule I of the Drug Control Act:

1. Compound expected to have depressant properties. 7-Bromo-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one (other name: phenazepam), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

2. Cannabimimetic agent. Methyl N-[(5-methyl-1H-indazol-3-yl)carbonyl]-3-methyl-valinate (other name: MDMB-5Me-INACA), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

The placement of drugs listed in this subsection shall remain in effect until November 21, 2026, unless enacted into law in the Drug Control Act.

B. Pursuant to subsection D of § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia, the Board of Pharmacy places the following in Schedule I of the Drug Control Act:

1. The following compounds classified as synthetic opioids:

a. 2-[(4-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-5-nitro-1-(2-pyrrolidin-1-ylethyl)benzimidazole (other names: metonitazepyne, N-pyrrolidino metonitazene), its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation.

b. 2-[2-[(4-ethoxyphenyl)methyl]-5-nitrobenzimidazol-1-yl]-N-ethylethanamine (other name: N-desethyl etonitazene), its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation.

c. N-(2-methylphenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)piperidin-4-yl]propanamide (other name: ortho-methylfentanyl), its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation.

2. The following compounds expected to have hallucinogenic properties:

a. [3-[2-(diethylamino)ethyl]-1H-indol-4-yl] acetate (other names: 4-acetoxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine; 4-acetoxy DET; 4-AcO-DET; ethacetin), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

b. 3-[2-(diethylamino)ethyl]-1H-indol-4-ol (other names: 4-hydroxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine; 4-hydroxy DET; ethocin), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

c. 3-methylmethcathinone (other names: 3-MMC; metaphedrone; 2-(methylamino)-1-(3-methylphenyl)propan-1-one), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

3. The following compounds classified as cannabimimetic agents:

a. N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: ADB-INACA), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

b. N-cyclohexyl-2-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)acetamide (other names: cyclohexyl-PIATA, CH-PIACA, CH-PIATA), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

The placement of drugs listed in this subsection shall remain in effect until November 21, 2026, unless enacted into law in the Drug Control Act.

C. Pursuant to subsection E of § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia, the Board of Pharmacy places the following compounds into Schedule I of the Drug Control Act to conform to federal scheduling changes:

1. Meta-fluorofentanyl (other name: N-(3-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide);

2. Meta-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl (other name: N-(3-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide);

3. Para-methoxyfuranyl fentanyl (other name: N-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide);

4. 3-furanyl fentanyl (other name: N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylfuran-3-carboxamide);

5. 2′,5′-dimethoxyfentanyl (other name: N-(1-(2,5-dimethoxyphenethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylpropionamide);

6. Isovaleryl fentanyl (other name: 3-methyl-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbutanamide);

7. Ortho-fluorofuranyl fentanyl (other name: N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide);

8. Para-methylcyclopropyl fentanyl (other name: N-(4-methylphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)cyclopropanecarboxamide);

9. Methyl 2-[[1-(4-fluorobutyl)indole-3-carbonyl]amino]-3,3-dimethyl-butanoate (other names: 4F-MDMB-BUTICA; 4F-MDMB-BICA);

10. 5-Pentyl-2-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)pyrido[4,3-b]indol-1-one (other names: CUMYL-PEGACLONE; SGT-151);

11. Ethyl 2-[[1-(5-fluoropentyl)indole-3-carbonyl]amino]-3,3-dimethyl-butanoate (other names: 5F-EDMB-PICA; 5F-EDMB-2201); and

12. 2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(piperidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1H-benzimidazole (other names: N-piperidinyl etonitazene; etonitazepipne).

D. Pursuant to subsection D of § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia, the Board of Pharmacy places the following in Schedule I of the Drug Control Act:

1. The following compound expected to have hallucinogenic properties: N,N-dipropyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine (other names: Dipropyltryptamine; N,N-DPT), its salts, isomers (optical, position, and geometric), and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation; and

2. The following cannabimimetic agent: N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-3-(dimethylsulfamoyl)-4-methylbenzamide (other name: AB-MDMSBA), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

The placement of drugs listed in this subsection shall remain in effect until April 8, 2027, unless enacted into law in the Drug Control Act.

E. A. Pursuant to subsection D of § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia, the Board of Pharmacy places the following in Schedule I of the Drug Control Act:

1. The following compound classified as a synthetic opioid: N-(2-methylphenyl)-1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-amine (other name: Despropionyl o-methylfentanyl), its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation.

2. The following compounds expected to have hallucinogenic properties:

a. [3-[2-(dimethylamino)ethyl]-1H-indol-4-yl] propanoate (other names: 4-propionoyloxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine, 4-propanoyloxy DMT, 4-ProO DMT), its salts, isomers (optical, position, and geometric), and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

b. 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(2-methylpropylamino)propan-1-one (other names: 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-isobutylcathinone; N-isobutyl methylone; 3,4-methylenedioxy-α-isobutylaminopropiophenone), its salts, isomers (optical, position, and geometric), and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

c. 2-bromo-Deschloroketamine (other name: 2-(2-bromophenyl)-2-(methylamino)-cyclohexanone), its salts, isomers (optical, position, and geometric), and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

3. The following compound expected to have depressant properties: 1-methyl-8-nitro-6-phenyl-4H-[1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]benzodiazepine (other name: Nitrazolam), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

4. The following compounds classified as cannabimimetic agents:

a. Naphthalen-1-yl 3-(dimethylsulfamoyl)-4-methylbenzoate (other names: NMDMSB; 1-naphthyl 3-(dimethylsulfamoyl)-4-methylbenzoate), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

b. N-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-2-hydroxyindol-3-yl]iminobenzamide (other names: 5-fluoro BZO-POXIZID, 5-fluoropentyl MDA 19), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

The placement of drugs listed in this subsection shall remain in effect until September 11, 2027, unless enacted into law in the Drug Control Act.

F. B. Pursuant to subsection D of § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia, the Board of Pharmacy places the following compounds expected to have depressant properties in Schedule I of the Drug Control Act:

1. 5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-1-methyl-7-nitro-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one (other name: Methylclonazepam), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation; and

2. 8-bromo-1-ethyl-6-phenyl-4H-[1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]benzodiazepine (other name: Ethylbromazolam), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

The placement of drugs listed in this subsection shall remain in effect until January 29, 2028, unless enacted into law in the Drug Control Act.

TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING

BOARD OF PHARMACY

Final Regulation

Title of Regulation: 18VAC110-20. Regulations Governing the Practice of Pharmacy (amending 18VAC110-20-323).

Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: September 23, 2026.

Agency Contact: Caroline Juran, RPh, Executive Director, Board of Pharmacy, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4456, fax (804) 527-4472, or email caroline.juran@dhp.virginia.gov.

Summary:

The amendments add chemicals to Schedule I of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) pursuant to § 54.1-3443 of Code of Virginia to conform Virginia scheduled drugs with federal scheduling actions. The amendments represent changes made by the federal government from September 2025 to May 2026.

18VAC110-20-323. Scheduling for conformity with federal law or rule.

Pursuant to subsection E of § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia and in order to conform the Drug Control Act to recent scheduling changes enacted in federal law or rule, the board:

1. Replaces 4-anilino-N-phenethyl-4-piperidine (CASRN 21409-26-7) in Schedule II with 4-anilino-N-phenethylpiperidine (ANPP);

2. Deletes Samidorphan from Schedule II; and

3. Adds the following chemicals into Schedule I:

a. Unless specifically exempted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of a fentanyl-related substance or that contains the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers of a fentanyl-related substance whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

b. For purposes of subdivision 3 a of this section, except as provided in subdivision 3 c of this section, the term "fentanyl-related substance" means any substance that is structurally related to fentanyl by one or more of the following modifications:

(1) By replacement of the phenyl portion of the phenethyl group by any monocycle, whether or not further substituted in or on the monocycle;

(2) By substitution in or on the phenethyl group with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino, or nitro groups;

(3) By substitution in or on the piperidine ring with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, ester, ether, hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino, or nitro groups;

(4) By replacement of the aniline ring with any aromatic monocycle, whether or not further substituted in or on the aromatic monocycle; or

(5) By replacement of the N-propionyl group with another acyl group.

c. A substance that satisfies the definition of the term "fentanyl-related substance" in subdivision 3 b of this section shall not be treated as a fentanyl-related substance subject to Schedule I if the substance is expressly listed in a schedule other than Schedule I.

d. The absence of a substance from Schedule I in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq of the Code of Virginia) or board regulation does not negate the control status of the substance under Schedule I if the substance satisfies the definition of the term "fentanyl-related substance" in subdivision 3 b of this section and does not meet the exception requirement of subdivision 3 c of this section;

4. Adds the following chemicals to Schedule I, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:

a. Ortho-chlorofentanyl (N-(2-chlorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide).

b. Meta-fluorofuranyl fentanyl (N-(3-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide).

c. Ortho-methylcyclopropyl fentanyl (N-(2-methylphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)cyclopropanecarboxamide).

d. Beta-methylacetyl fentanyl (N-phenyl-N-(1-(2-phenylpropyl)piperidin-4-yl)acetamide).

e. Tetrahydrothiofuranyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenyltetrahydrothiophene-2-carboxamide);

5. Adds the following benzimidazole-opioid substances to Schedule I, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible:

a. 2-(2-((2,3-dihydrobenzofuran-5-yl)methyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)-N,N-diethylethan-1-amine (commonly known as, ethyleneoxynitazene).

b. 2-(2-(benzodioxol-5-ylmethyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)-N,N-diethylethan-1-amine (commonly known as, methylenedioxynitazene or 3′,4′-methylenedioxynitazene).

c. 2-(2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-methyl-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)-N,N-diethylethan-1-amine (commonly known as, 5-methyl etodesnitazene).

d. N-ethyl-2-(5-nitro-2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine (commonly known as, N-desethyl protonitazene).

e. 2-(2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)-N,N-dimethylethan-1-amine (commonly known as, N,N-dimethylamino etonitazene);

6. Adds the following cannabimimetic agents to Schedule I:

a.(4-ethylnaphthalen-1-yl)(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone (EAM-2201).

b. (4-methoxynaphthalen-1-yl)(2-methyl-1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone (JWH-098).

c. 3-((4-methylnaphthalen-1-yl)methyl)-1-pentyl-1H-indole (JWH-184).

d. (4-methylnaphthalen-1-yl)(1-(2-morpholinoethyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone (JWH-193).

e. (2-methyl-1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (JWH-007).

f. naphthalen-1-yl(1-(pent-4-en-1-yl)-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone (JWH-022).

g. (1-hexyl-5-phenyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (JWH-147).

h. 2-(3-methoxyphenyl)-1-(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)ethan-1-one (JWH-302).

i. (5-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-pentyl-1H-pyrrol-3-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (JWH-307).

j. (4-fluoronaphthalen-1-yl)(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methanone (JWH-412).

k. (5-methyl-3-(morpholinomethyl)-2,3-dihydro-[1,4]oxazino[2,3,4- hi]indol-6-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (WIN 55,212-2).

l. 2-(5-hydroxy-2-(3-hydroxypropyl)cyclohexyl)-5-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)phenol (CP-55,940); and

7. Adds the following hallucinogenic substance to Schedule I: 6,6,9-trimethyl-3-pentyl-6a,7,8,9,10,10a-hexahydro-6 H -benzo[ c]chromen-1-ol (also known as hexahydrocannabinol and HHC).

TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING

BOARD OF PHARMACY

Final Regulation

Title of Regulation: 18VAC110-20. Regulations Governing the Practice of Pharmacy (amending 18VAC110-20-322).

Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: September 23, 2026.

Agency Contact: Caroline Juran, RPh, Executive Director, Board of Pharmacy, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Richmond, VA 23233-1463, telephone (804) 367-4456, fax (804) 527-4472, or email caroline.juran@dhp.virginia.gov.

Summary:

The amendments add six compounds into Schedule I of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) as recommended by the Department of Forensic Science pursuant to § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia. The placement of these compounds will remain in effect for 18 months or until the compounds are placed in Schedule I by legislative action of the General Assembly.

18VAC110-20-322. Placement of chemicals in Schedule I.

A. Pursuant to subsection D of § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia, the Board of Pharmacy places the following in Schedule I of the Drug Control Act:

1. Compound expected to have depressant properties. 7-Bromo-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one (other name: phenazepam), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

2. Cannabimimetic agent. Methyl N-[(5-methyl-1H-indazol-3-yl)carbonyl]-3-methyl-valinate (other name: MDMB-5Me-INACA), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

The placement of drugs listed in this subsection shall remain in effect until November 21, 2026, unless enacted into law in the Drug Control Act.

B. Pursuant to subsection D of § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia, the Board of Pharmacy places the following in Schedule I of the Drug Control Act:

1. The following compounds classified as synthetic opioids:

a. 2-[(4-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-5-nitro-1-(2-pyrrolidin-1-ylethyl)benzimidazole (other names: metonitazepyne, N-pyrrolidino metonitazene), its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation.

b. 2-[2-[(4-ethoxyphenyl)methyl]-5-nitrobenzimidazol-1-yl]-N-ethylethanamine (other name: N-desethyl etonitazene), its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation.

c. N-(2-methylphenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)piperidin-4-yl]propanamide (other name: ortho-methylfentanyl), its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation.

2. The following compounds expected to have hallucinogenic properties:

a. [3-[2-(diethylamino)ethyl]-1H-indol-4-yl] acetate (other names: 4-acetoxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine; 4-acetoxy DET; 4-AcO-DET; ethacetin), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

b. 3-[2-(diethylamino)ethyl]-1H-indol-4-ol (other names: 4-hydroxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine; 4-hydroxy DET; ethocin), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

c. 3-methylmethcathinone (other names: 3-MMC; metaphedrone; 2-(methylamino)-1-(3-methylphenyl)propan-1-one), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

3. The following compounds classified as cannabimimetic agents:

a. N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: ADB-INACA), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

b. N-cyclohexyl-2-(1-pentylindol-3-yl)acetamide (other names: cyclohexyl-PIATA, CH-PIACA, CH-PIATA), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

The placement of drugs listed in this subsection shall remain in effect until November 21, 2026, unless enacted into law in the Drug Control Act.

C. Pursuant to subsection E of § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia, the Board of Pharmacy places the following compounds into Schedule I of the Drug Control Act to conform to federal scheduling changes:

1. Meta-fluorofentanyl (other name: N-(3-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide);

2. Meta-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl (other name: N-(3-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide);

3. Para-methoxyfuranyl fentanyl (other name: N-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide);

4. 3-furanyl fentanyl (other name: N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylfuran-3-carboxamide);

5. 2′,5′-dimethoxyfentanyl (other name: N-(1-(2,5-dimethoxyphenethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylpropionamide);

6. Isovaleryl fentanyl (other name: 3-methyl-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbutanamide);

7. Ortho-fluorofuranyl fentanyl (other name: N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide);

8. Para-methylcyclopropyl fentanyl (other name: N-(4-methylphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)cyclopropanecarboxamide);

9. Methyl 2-[[1-(4-fluorobutyl)indole-3-carbonyl]amino]-3,3-dimethyl-butanoate (other names: 4F-MDMB-BUTICA; 4F-MDMB-BICA);

10. 5-Pentyl-2-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)pyrido[4,3-b]indol-1-one (other names: CUMYL-PEGACLONE; SGT-151);

11. Ethyl 2-[[1-(5-fluoropentyl)indole-3-carbonyl]amino]-3,3-dimethyl-butanoate (other names: 5F-EDMB-PICA; 5F-EDMB-2201); and

12. 2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(piperidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1H-benzimidazole (other names: N-piperidinyl etonitazene; etonitazepipne).

D. Pursuant to subsection D of § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia, the Board of Pharmacy places the following in Schedule I of the Drug Control Act:

1. The following compound expected to have hallucinogenic properties: N,N-dipropyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine (other names: Dipropyltryptamine; N,N-DPT), its salts, isomers (optical, position, and geometric), and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation; and

2. The following cannabimimetic agent: N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-3-(dimethylsulfamoyl)-4-methylbenzamide (other name: AB-MDMSBA), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

The placement of drugs listed in this subsection shall remain in effect until April 8, 2027, unless enacted into law in the Drug Control Act.

E. Pursuant to subsection D of § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia, the Board of Pharmacy places the following in Schedule I of the Drug Control Act:

1. The following compound classified as a synthetic opioid: N-(2-methylphenyl)-1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-amine (other name: Despropionyl o-methylfentanyl), its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation.

2. The following compounds expected to have hallucinogenic properties:

a. [3-[2-(dimethylamino)ethyl]-1H-indol-4-yl] propanoate (other names: 4-propionoyloxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine, 4-propanoyloxy DMT, 4-ProO DMT), its salts, isomers (optical, position, and geometric), and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

b. 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(2-methylpropylamino)propan-1-one (other names: 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-isobutylcathinone; N-isobutyl methylone; 3,4-methylenedioxy-α-isobutylaminopropiophenone), its salts, isomers (optical, position, and geometric), and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

c. 2-bromo-Deschloroketamine (other name: 2-(2-bromophenyl)-2-(methylamino)-cyclohexanone), its salts, isomers (optical, position, and geometric), and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

3. The following compound expected to have depressant properties: 1-methyl-8-nitro-6-phenyl-4H-[1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]benzodiazepine (other name: Nitrazolam), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

4. The following compounds classified as cannabimimetic agents:

a. Naphthalen-1-yl 3-(dimethylsulfamoyl)-4-methylbenzoate (other names: NMDMSB; 1-naphthyl 3-(dimethylsulfamoyl)-4-methylbenzoate), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

b. N-[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-2-hydroxyindol-3-yl]iminobenzamide (other names: 5-fluoro BZO-POXIZID, 5-fluoropentyl MDA 19), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

The placement of drugs listed in this subsection shall remain in effect until September 11, 2027, unless enacted into law in the Drug Control Act.

F. Pursuant to subsection D of § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia, the Board of Pharmacy places the following compounds expected to have depressant properties in Schedule I of the Drug Control Act:

1. 5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-1-methyl-7-nitro-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one (other name: Methylclonazepam), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation; and

2. 8-bromo-1-ethyl-6-phenyl-4H-[1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]benzodiazepine (other name: Ethylbromazolam), its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

The placement of drugs listed in this subsection shall remain in effect until January 29, 2028, unless enacted into law in the Drug Control Act.

G. Pursuant to subsection D of § 54.1-3443 of the Code of Virginia, the Board of Pharmacy places the following in Schedule I of the Drug Control Act:

1. The following compounds classified as synthetic opioids:

a. 3-[2-[(dimethylamino)methyl]-1-hydroxycyclohexyl]phenol (other names: O-desmethyltramadol, ODMT), its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation.

b. 3-[1-[1-(4-chlorophenyl)ethyl]piperidin-4-yl]-1H-benzimidazol-2-one (other names: chlorphine; 1-[1-[1-(4-chlorophenyl)ethyl]-4-piperidinyl]-1,3-dihydro-2H-benzimidazol-2-one), its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation.

c. 3-[3-[1-[1-(4-chlorophenyl)ethyl]piperidin-4-yl]-2-oxobenzimidazol-1-yl]propanenitrile (other names: cychlorphine; N-propionitrile chlorphine), its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation; and

2. The following compounds expected to have hallucinogenic properties:

a. [3-[2-[ethyl(methyl)amino]ethyl]-1H-indol-4-yl] acetate (other names: 4-acetoxy-N-methyl-N-ethyltryptamine, 4-acetoxy-MET, 4-AcO-MET), its salts, isomers (optical, position, and geometric), and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

b. 1-(4-bromophenyl)-2-pyrrolidin-1-ylpentan-1-one (other names: 4-bromo-alpha-pyrrolidinovalerophenone, 4-bromo-alpha-PVP), its salts, isomers (optical, position, and geometric), and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

c. 1-[1-(3-methylphenyl)cyclohexyl]piperidine (other names: 3-methyl phencyclidine, 3-methyl PCP), its salts, isomers (optical, position, and geometric), and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation.

The placement of drugs listed in this subsection shall remain in effect until March 23, 2028, unless enacted into law in the Drug Control Act.

TITLE 19. PUBLIC SAFETY

DEPARTMENT OF STATE POLICE

Final Regulation

Title of Regulation: 19VAC30-20. Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (amending 19VAC30-20-80).

Statutory Authority: § 52-8.4 of the Code of Virginia; 49 CFR Part 390.

Effective Date: October 1, 2026.

Agency Contact: Thomas Lambert, Director, Office of Legal Affairs, Department of State Police, Virginia State Police Headquarters, 7700 Midlothian Turnpike, Suite 1200, North Chesterfield, VA 232358, telephone (804) 674-6722, fax (804) 968-0322, or email tom.lambert@vsp.virginia.gov.

Summary:

The amendment updates the effective date of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations promulgated by the U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration that are incorporated for compliance and enforcement purposes.

19VAC30-20-80. Compliance.

Every person and commercial motor vehicle subject to this chapter operating in interstate or intrastate commerce within or through the Commonwealth of Virginia shall comply with the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations promulgated by the U.S. Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, with amendments promulgated and in effect as of October 1, 2025 2026, pursuant to the United States Motor Carrier Safety Act found in 49 CFR Parts 366, 370 through 376, 379, 380 Subparts E and F, 382, 385, 386 Subpart G, 387, 390 through 397, and 399, which are incorporated in this chapter by reference, with certain exceptions.

TITLE 21. SECURITIES AND RETAIL FRANCHISING

STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION

Final Regulation

Title of Regulation: 21VAC5-80. Investment Advisors (amending 21VAC5-80-200).

Statutory Authority: §§ 12.1-13 and 13.1-523 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: September 1, 2026.

Agency Contact: Ashley Vick, Manager of Audit, Division of Securities and Retail Franchising, State Corporation Commission, Tyler Building, Ninth Floor, P.O. Box 1197, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 786-8431, fax (804) 371-9911, or email ashley.vick@scc.virginia.gov.

Summary:

The amendments (i) remove the existing prohibition against client testimonials, which will be permitted under § 13.1-515 B of the Code of Virginia, as amended by Chapter 622 of the 2026 Virginia Acts of Assembly, and (ii) adopt the federal Securities and Exchange Commission Rule at 17 CFR 275.206(4)-1 under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 USC § 80b-1 et seq.).

AT RICHMOND, JULY 28, 2026

COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA, ex rel.

STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION

CASE NO. SEC-2026-00018

Ex Parte: In the matter of

Adopting Revisions to the Rules

Governing the Virginia Securities Act

ORDER ADOPTING REGULATIONS

On May 12, 2026, the State Corporation Commission (Commission) entered an Order Establishing Proceeding regarding a proposal by the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising (Division) to revise Chapter 80 of Title 21 of the Virginia Administrative Code (Chapter 80), which provides the Commission's Rules Governing Investment Advisors, 21 VAC 5-80-10 et seq. (Rules).¹

The Division recommended revisions to Chapter 80 to: (a) remove the prohibition against client testimonials in Rule 21VAC5-80-200, which are now permitted following recent legislative changes to § 13.1-515 B of the Virginia Securities Act (Act),² § 13.1-501 et seq. of the Code of Virginia; and (b) adopt the SEC Marketing Rule, § 206(4)-1 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. § 80b-1 et seq.), by reference in Rule 21VAC5-80-200. Collectively, these revisions are referred to in the Commission's Order Establishing Proceeding as the Proposed Revisions.

The Order Establishing Proceeding and Proposed Revisions were posted on the Commission's website, sent to interested persons, and published in the Virginia Register of Regulations on June 15, 2026. The Order Establishing Proceeding invited any interested persons to participate and required that any comments or requests for a hearing on the Proposed Revisions be submitted in writing on or before July 13, 2026.

No comments were filed nor were any requests for hearing made in this matter.

The Division has not recommended that the Commission further amend the Proposed Revisions following the entry of the Order Establishing Proceeding.

NOW THE COMMISSION, having considered this matter, finds that the Proposed Revisions should be adopted effective September 1, 2026.

Accordingly, IT IS ORDERED THAT:

(1) The Proposed Revisions, attached hereto and made a part hereof, are ADOPTED effective September 1, 2026.

(2) This Order Adopting Regulations (Order) and the attached adopted revisions shall be made available on the Commission's website: scc.virginia.gov/case-information.

(3) The Commission's Office of General Counsel shall provide a copy of this Order and the adopted revisions to Chapter 80 to the Virginia Registrar of Regulations for publication in the Virginia Register of Regulations.

(4) This case is dismissed.

A COPY of this Order and the attached regulation shall be sent by the Clerk of the Commission to: John Farmer, Jr., Senior Assistant Attorney General, at JFarmer@oag.state.va.us, Office of the Attorney General, Division of Consumer Counsel, 202 N. 9th Street, 8th Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219-3424; and the Commission's Office of General Counsel and the Director of the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising.

_____________________________

21VAC5-80-200. Dishonest or unethical practices.

A. An investment advisor or federal covered advisor is a fiduciary and has a duty to act primarily for the benefit of his the advisor's clients. While the extent and nature of this duty varies according to the nature of the relationship between an investment advisor or federal covered advisor and his the advisor's clients and the circumstances of each case, an investment advisor or federal covered advisor who is registered or required to be registered shall not engage in unethical practices, including the following:

1. Recommending to a client to whom investment supervisory, management, or consulting services are provided the purchase, sale, or exchange of any security without reasonable grounds to believe that the recommendation is suitable for the client on the basis of information furnished by the client after reasonable inquiry concerning the client's investment objectives, financial situation, risk tolerance and needs, and any other information known or acquired by the investment advisor or federal covered advisor after reasonable examination of the client's financial records.

2. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the account of a client without written authority to do so.

3. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the account of a client upon instruction of a third party without first having obtained a written third-party authorization from the client.

4. Exercising any discretionary power in placing an order for the purchase or sale of securities for a client without obtaining written discretionary authority from the client within 10 business days after the date of the first transaction placed pursuant to oral discretionary authority, unless the discretionary power relates solely to the price at which, or the time when, an order involving a definite amount of a specified security shall be executed, or both.

5. Inducing trading in a client's account that is excessive in size or frequency in view of the financial resources, investment objectives, and character of the account.

6. Borrowing money or securities from a client unless the client is a broker-dealer, an affiliate of the investment advisor or federal covered advisor, or a financial institution engaged in the business of loaning funds or securities.

7. Loaning money to a client unless the investment advisor or federal covered advisor is a financial institution engaged in the business of loaning funds or the client is an affiliate of the investment advisor or federal covered advisor.

8. Misrepresenting to any advisory client, or prospective advisory client, the qualifications of the investment advisor or federal covered advisor, or misrepresenting the nature of the advisory services being offered or fees to be charged for the services, or omission to state a material fact necessary to make the statements made regarding qualifications services or fees, in light of the circumstances under which they the statements are made, not misleading.

9. Providing a report or recommendation to any advisory client prepared by someone other than the investment advisor or federal covered advisor without disclosing that fact. This prohibition does not apply to a situation where the advisor uses published research reports or statistical analyses to render advice or where an advisor orders such a report in the normal course of providing service.

10. Charging a client an unreasonable advisory fee in light of the fees charged by other investment advisors or federal covered advisors providing essentially the same services.

11. Failing to disclose to clients in writing before any advice is rendered any material conflict of interest relating to the investment advisor or federal covered advisor or any of his the advisor's employees which that could reasonably be expected to impair the rendering of unbiased and objective advice, including:

a. Compensation arrangements connected with advisory services to clients which that are in addition to compensation from such clients for such services; or

b. Charging a client an advisory fee for rendering advice when a commission for executing securities transactions pursuant to such advice will be received by the advisor or his the advisor's employees.

12. Guaranteeing a client that a specific result will be achieved as a result of the advice which that will be rendered.

13. Directly or indirectly using any advertisement that does not comply with SEC Rule 206(4)-1 under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 or does any one of the following:

a. Refers to any testimonial of any kind concerning the investment advisor or investment advisor representative or concerning any advice, analysis, report, or other service rendered by the investment advisor or investment advisor representative;

b. a. Refers to past specific recommendations of the investment advisor or investment advisor representative that were or would have been profitable to any person; except that an investment advisor or investment advisor representative may furnish or offer to furnish a list of all recommendations made by the investment advisor or investment advisor representative within the immediately preceding period of not less than one year if the advertisement or list also includes both of the following:

(1) The name of each security recommended, the date and nature of each recommendation, the market price at that time, the price at which the recommendation was to be acted upon, and the most recently available market price of each security; and

(2) A legend on the first page in prominent print or type that states that the reader should not assume that recommendations made in the future will be profitable or will equal the performance of the securities in the list;

c. b. Represents that any graph, chart, formula, or other device being offered can be used to determine which securities to buy or sell, or when to buy or sell them; or which that represents, directly or indirectly, that any graph, chart, formula, or other device being offered will assist any person in making that person's own decisions as to which securities to buy or sell, or when to buy or sell them, without prominently disclosing in the advertisement the limitations thereof and the risks associated to its use;

d. c. Represents that any report, analysis, or other service will be furnished for free or without charge, unless the report, analysis, or other service actually is or will be furnished entirely free and without any direct or indirect condition or obligation;

e. d. Represents that the commission has approved any advertisement; or

f. e. Contains any untrue statement of a material fact, or that is otherwise false or misleading.

For the purposes of this section, the term "advertisement" includes any notice, circular, letter, or other written communication addressed to more than one person, or any notice or other announcement in any electronic or paper publication, by radio or television, or by any medium, that offers any one of the following:(i) Any analysis, report, or publication concerning securities;(ii) Any analysis, report, or publication that is to be used in making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security or which security to buy or sell;(iii) Any graph, chart, formula, or other device to be used in making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security, or which security to buy or sell; or(iv) Any other investment advisory service with regard to securities has the same meaning as in Rule 206(4)-1(e)(1) under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.

14. Disclosing the identity, affairs, or investments of any client to any third party unless required by law or an order of a court or a regulatory agency to do so, or unless consented to by the client.

15. Taking any action, directly or indirectly, with respect to those securities or funds in which any client has any beneficial interest, where the investment advisor has custody or possession of such securities or funds, when the investment advisor's action is subject to and does not comply with the safekeeping requirements of 21VAC5-80-146.

16. Entering into, extending, or renewing any investment advisory contract unless the contract is in writing and discloses, in substance, the services to be provided, the term of the contract, the advisory fee, the formula for computing the fee, the amount of prepaid fee to be returned in the event of contract termination or nonperformance, whether the contract grants discretionary power to the investment advisor or federal covered advisor, and that no assignment of such contract shall be made by the investment advisor or federal covered advisor without the consent of the other party to the contract.

17. Failing to clearly and separately disclose to its customer, prior to any security transaction, providing investment advice for compensation or any materially related transaction that the customer's funds or securities will be in the custody of an investment advisor or contracted custodian in a manner that does not provide Securities Investor Protection Corporation protection, or equivalent third-party coverage over the customer's assets.

18. Using a certification or professional designation in connection with the provision of advice as to the value of or the advisability of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities, either directly or indirectly or through publications or writings, or by issuing or promulgating analyses or reports relating to securities that indicates or implies that the user has special certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees in such a way as to mislead any person.

a. The use of such certification or professional designation includes the following:

(1) Use of a certification or designation by a person who has not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or designation;

(2) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or professional designation;

(3) Use of a certification or professional designation that indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through education, training, or experience that the person using the certification or professional designation does not have; or

(4) Use of a certification or professional designation that was obtained from a designating or certifying organization that:

(a) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in sales or marketing;

(b) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for assuring ensuring the competency of its designees or certificants;

(c) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for monitoring and disciplining its designees or certificants for improper or unethical conduct; or

(d) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements for its designees or certificants in order to maintain the designation or certificate.

b. There is a rebuttable presumption that a designating or certifying organization is not disqualified solely for purposes of subdivision 18 a (4) of this subsection, when the organization has been accredited by:

(1) The American National Standards Institute;

(2) The Institute for Credentialing Excellence (formerly the National Commission for Certifying Agencies); or

(3) An organization that is on the United States Department of Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV Purposes" and the designation or credential issued therefrom does not primarily apply to sales or marketing.

c. In determining whether a combination of words (or an acronym standing for a combination of words) constitutes a certification or professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees, factors to be considered shall include:

(1) Use of one or more words such as "senior," "retirement," "elder," or like words, combined with one or more words such as "certified," "chartered," "adviser," "specialist," "consultant," "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or professional designation; and

(2) The manner in which those words are combined.

d. For purposes of this section, a certification or professional designation does not include a job title within an organization that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services regulatory agency, when that job title:

(1) Indicates seniority within the organization; or

(2) Specifies an individual's area of specialization within the organization.

For purposes of this subdivision d, "financial services regulatory agency" includes an agency that regulates broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as defined under § 3 (a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 USC § 80a-3(a)(1)).

e. Nothing in this regulation shall limit the commission's authority to enforce existing provisions of the law.

B. An investment advisor representative is a fiduciary and has a duty to act primarily for the benefit of his the representative's clients. While the extent and nature of this duty varies according to the nature of the relationship between an investment advisor representative and his the representative's clients and the circumstances of each case, an investment advisor representative who is registered or required to be registered shall not engage in unethical practices, including the following:

1. Recommending to a client to whom investment supervisory, management, or consulting services are provided the purchase, sale, or exchange of any security without reasonable grounds to believe that the recommendation is suitable for the client on the basis of information furnished by the client after reasonable inquiry concerning the client's investment objectives, financial situation and needs, and any other information known or acquired by the investment advisor representative after reasonable examination of the client's financial records.

2. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the account of a client without written authority to do so.

3. Placing an order to purchase or sell a security for the account of a client upon instruction of a third party without first having obtained a written third-party authorization from the client.

4. Exercising any discretionary power in placing an order for the purchase or sale of securities for a client without obtaining written discretionary authority from the client within 10 business days after the date of the first transaction placed pursuant to oral discretionary authority, unless the discretionary power relates solely to the price at which, or the time when, an order involving a definite amount of a specified security shall be executed, or both.

5. Inducing trading in a client's account that is excessive in size or frequency in view of the financial resources, investment objectives, and character of the account.

6. Borrowing money or securities from a client unless the client is a broker-dealer, an affiliate of the investment advisor representative, or a financial institution engaged in the business of loaning funds or securities.

7. Loaning money to a client unless the investment advisor representative is engaged in the business of loaning funds or the client is an affiliate of the investment advisor representative.

8. Misrepresenting to any advisory client, or prospective advisory client, the qualifications of the investment advisor representative, or misrepresenting the nature of the advisory services being offered or fees to be charged for the services, or omission to state a material fact necessary to make the statements made regarding qualifications, services or fees, in light of the circumstances under which they the statements are made, not misleading.

9. Providing a report or recommendation to any advisory client prepared by someone other than the investment advisor or federal covered advisor who the investment advisor representative is employed by or associated with without disclosing that fact. This prohibition does not apply to a situation where the investment advisor or federal covered advisor uses published research reports or statistical analyses to render advice or where an investment advisor or federal covered advisor orders such a report in the normal course of providing service.

10. Charging a client an unreasonable advisory fee in light of the fees charged by other investment advisor representatives providing essentially the same services.

11. Failing to disclose to clients in writing before any advice is rendered any material conflict of interest relating to the investment advisor representative which that could reasonably be expected to impair the rendering of unbiased and objective advice, including:

a. Compensation arrangements connected with advisory services to clients which that are in addition to compensation from such clients for such services; or

b. Charging a client an advisory fee for rendering advice when a commission for executing securities transactions pursuant to such advice will be received by the investment advisor representative.

12. Guaranteeing a client that a specific result will be achieved as a result of the advice which that will be rendered.

13. Directly or indirectly using any advertisement that does not comply with SEC Rule 206(4)-1 under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 or does any one of the following:

a. Refers to any testimonial of any kind concerning the investment advisor or investment advisor representative or concerning any advice, analysis, report, or other service rendered by the investment advisor or investment advisor representative;

b. a. Refers to past specific recommendations of the investment advisor or investment advisor representative that were or would have been profitable to any person; except that an investment advisor or investment advisor representative may furnish or offer to furnish a list of all recommendations made by the investment advisor or investment advisor representative within the immediately preceding period of not less than one year if the advertisement or list also includes both of the following:

(1) The name of each security recommended, the date and nature of each recommendation, the market price at that time, the price at which the recommendation was to be acted upon, and the most recently available market price of each security; and

(2) A legend on the first page in prominent print or type that states that the reader should not assume that recommendations made in the future will be profitable or will equal the performance of the securities in the list;

c. b. Represents that any graph, chart, formula, or other device being offered can be used to determine which securities to buy or sell, or when to buy or sell them; or which that represents, directly or indirectly, that any graph, chart, formula, or other device being offered will assist any person in making that person's own decisions as to which securities to buy or sell, or when to buy or sell them, without prominently disclosing in the advertisement the limitations thereof and the risks associated with its use;

d. c. Represents that any report, analysis, or other service will be furnished for free or without charge, unless the report, analysis, or other service actually is or will be furnished entirely free and without any direct or indirect condition or obligation;

e. d. Represents that the commission has approved any advertisement; or

f. e. Contains any untrue statement of a material fact, or that is otherwise false or misleading.

For the purposes of this section, the term "advertisement" includes any notice, circular, letter, or other written communication addressed to more than one person, or any notice or other announcement in any electronic or paper publication, by radio or television, or by any medium, that offers any one of the following: (i) Any analysis, report, or publication concerning securities; (ii) Any analysis, report, or publication that is to be used in making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security or which security to buy or sell; (iii) Any graph, chart, formula, or other device to be used in making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security, or which security to buy or sell; or (iv) Any other investment advisory service with regard to securities has the same meaning as in Rule 206(4)-1(e)(1) under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.

14. Disclosing the identity, affairs, or investments of any client to any third party unless required by law or an order of a court or a regulatory agency to do so, or unless consented to by the client.

15. Taking any action, directly or indirectly, with respect to those securities or funds in which any client has any beneficial interest, where the investment advisor representative other than a person associated with a federal covered advisor has custody or possession of such securities or funds, when the investment advisor representative's action is subject to and does not comply with the safekeeping requirements of 21VAC5-80-146.

16. Entering into, extending, or renewing any investment advisory or federal covered advisory contract unless such contract is in writing and discloses, in substance, the services to be provided, the term of the contract, the advisory fee, the formula for computing the fee, the amount of prepaid fee to be returned in the event of contract termination or nonperformance, whether the contract grants discretionary power to the investment advisor representative, and that no assignment of such contract shall be made by the investment advisor representative without the consent of the other party to the contract.

17. Failing to clearly and separately disclose to its customer, prior to any security transaction, providing investment advice for compensation or any materially related transaction that the customer's funds or securities will be in the custody of an investment advisor or contracted custodian in a manner that does not provide Securities Investor Protection Corporation protection, or equivalent third-party coverage over the customer's assets.

18. Using a certification or professional designation in connection with the provision of advice as to the value of or the advisability of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities, either directly or indirectly or through publications or writings, or by issuing or promulgating analyses or reports relating to securities that indicates or implies that the user has special certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees in such a way as to mislead any person.

a. The use of such certification or professional designation includes the following:

(1) Use of a certification or designation by a person who has not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or designation;

(2) Use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or professional designation;

(3) Use of a certification or professional designation that indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through education, training, or experience that the person using the certification or professional designation does not have; or

(4) Use of a certification or professional designation that was obtained from a designating or certifying organization that:

(a) Is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in sales or marketing;

(b) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for assuring ensuring the competency of its designees or certificants;

(c) Does not have reasonable standards or procedures for monitoring and disciplining its designees or certificants for improper or unethical conduct; or

(d) Does not have reasonable continuing education requirements for its designees or certificants in order to maintain the designation or certificate.

b. There is a rebuttable presumption that a designating or certifying organization is not disqualified solely for purposes of subdivision 18 a (4) of this subsection, when the organization has been accredited by:

(1) The American National Standards Institute;

(2) The Institute for Credentialing Excellence (formerly the National Commission for Certifying Agencies); or

(3) An organization that is on the United States Department of Education's list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV Purposes" and the designation or credential issued therefrom does not primarily apply to sales or marketing.

c. In determining whether a combination of words (or an acronym standing for a combination of words) constitutes a certification or professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special certification or training in advising or servicing senior citizens or retirees, factors to be considered shall include:

(1) Use of one or more words such as "senior," "retirement," "elder," or like words, combined with one or more words such as "certified," "chartered," "adviser," "specialist," "consultant," "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or professional designation; and

(2) The manner in which those words are combined.

d. For purposes of this section, a certification or professional designation does not include a job title within an organization that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services regulatory agency, when that job title:

(1) Indicates seniority within the organization; or

(2) Specifies an individual's area of specialization within the organization.

For purposes of this subdivision d, "financial services regulatory agency" includes an agency that regulates broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as defined under § 3(a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 USC § 80a-3(a)(1).

e. Nothing in this regulation shall limit the commission's authority to enforce existing provisions of law.

C. The conduct set forth in subsections A and B of this section is not all inclusive. Engaging in other conduct such as nondisclosure, incomplete disclosure, or deceptive practices may be deemed an unethical business practice except to the extent permitted by the National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996 (Pub. L. No. 104-290 (96)).

D. The provisions of this section shall apply to federal covered advisors to the extent that fraud or deceit is involved, or as otherwise permitted by the National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996 (Pub. L. No. 104-290 (96)).

E. An investment advisor or investment advisor representative may delay or refuse to place an order or to disburse funds that may involve or result in the financial exploitation of an individual pursuant to § 63.2-1606 L of the Code of Virginia.

F. For purposes of this section, any mandatory arbitration provision in an advisory contract shall be prohibited.

G. The investment advisor or investment advisor representative shall notify the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising, State Corporation Commission and the client of an unauthorized access to records that may expose a client's identity or investments to a third party within three business days of the discovery of the unauthorized access.

TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES

STATE BOARD OF SOCIAL SERVICES

Final Regulation

Title of Regulation: 22VAC40-73. Standards for Licensed Assisted Living Facilities (amending 22VAC40-73-45, 22VAC40-73-50, 22VAC40-73-390).

Statutory Authority: §§ 63.2-217, 63.2-1732, 63.2-1802, 63.2-1805, and 63.2-1808 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: September 23, 2026.

Agency Contact: Daniella Halbleib, Licensing Consultant, Department of Social Services, 5600 Cox Road, Glen Allen, VA 23060, telephone (804) 718-1184, fax (804) 726-7132, or email daniella.halbleib@dss.virginia.gov.

Summary:

Pursuant to Chapter 580 of the 2023 Acts of Assembly, the amendments require every assisted living facility (ALF) to maintain a minimum amount of liability insurance, as determined by the State Board of Social Services on the basis of the number of residents for which the ALF is licensed, and provide notice of such insurance, upon request, to any resident or prospective resident.

Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No public comments were received by the promulgating agency.

22VAC40-73-45. Minimum amount for liability Liability insurance disclosure.

A. The minimum amount of liability insurance coverage to be maintained by an assisted living facility for purposes of disclosure in the statement required by 22VAC40-73-50 and the resident agreement required by 22VAC40-73-390 is as follows: Assisted living facilities shall maintain liability insurance coverage per occurrence according to the following licensed capacity tiers:

1. $500,000 per occurrence to compensate residents or other individuals for injuries and losses from the negligent acts of the facility; and Tier I: A minimum of $250,000 for facilities licensed for 25 residents or fewer;

2. $500,000 aggregate to compensate residents or other individuals for injuries and losses from the negligent acts of the facility. Tier II: A minimum of $400,000 for facilities licensed for more than 25 but no more than 75 residents;

3. Tier III: A minimum of $500,000 for facilities licensed for more than 75 but no more than 150 residents; or

4. Tier IV: A minimum of $1,000,000 for facilities licensed for 151 or more residents.

B. No facility shall state that liability insurance is in place unless the insurance provides the minimum amount of coverage established in subsection A of this section. Each facility shall prepare and provide, upon request of the prospective resident or resident and resident's legal representative, if any, a statement that the facility maintains liability insurance in force to compensate residents or other individuals for injuries and losses from the negligent acts of the facility. The statement shall be made on the liability insurance statement form provided by the department.

22VAC40-73-50. Disclosure.

A. The assisted living facility shall prepare and provide a statement to the prospective resident and his the prospective resident's legal representative, if any, that discloses information about the facility. The statement shall be on a form developed by the department and shall:

1. Disclose information fully and accurately in plain language;

2. Be provided in advance of admission and prior to signing an admission agreement or contract;

3. Be provided upon request; and

4. Disclose the following information, which shall be kept current:

a. Name of the facility;

b. Name of the licensee;

c. Ownership structure of the facility (e.g., individual, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, unincorporated association, or public agency);

d. Description of all accommodations, services, and care that the facility offers;

e. Fees charged for accommodations, services, and care, including clear information about what is included in the base fee and all fees for additional accommodations, services, and care;

f. Criteria for admission to the facility and restrictions on admission;

g. Criteria for transfer to a different living area within the same facility, including transfer to another level or type of care within the same facility or complex;

h. Criteria for discharge;

i. Categories, frequency, and number of activities provided for residents;

j. General number, position types, and qualifications of staff on each shift;

k. Whether or not the facility maintains liability insurance that provides at least the minimum amount of coverage established by the board for disclosure purposes set forth in 22VAC40-73-45 to compensate residents or other individuals for injuries and losses from negligent acts of the facility. The facility shall state in the disclosure statement the minimum amount of coverage established by the board in 22VAC40-73-45;

l. k. Whether or not the facility has an onsite emergency electrical power source for the provision of electricity during an interruption of the normal electric power supply. If the facility does have an onsite emergency electrical power source, the statement must include (i) the items for which the source will supply power and (ii) whether or not staff of the facility have been trained to maintain and operate the power source. For the purposes of this subdivision k, an onsite emergency electrical power supply shall include both permanent emergency electrical power sources and portable emergency electrical power sources, provided that such temporary electrical power supply source remains on the premises of the facility at all times. Written acknowledgment of the disclosure shall be evidenced by the signature or initials of the resident or his the resident's legal representative immediately following the onsite emergency electrical power source disclosure statement;

m. l. Notation that additional information about the facility that is included in the resident agreement is available upon request; and

n. m. The department's website address, with a note that additional information about the facility may be obtained from the website.

B. Written acknowledgment of the receipt of the disclosure by the resident or his the resident's legal representative shall be retained in the resident's record.

C. The disclosure statement shall also be available to the general public, upon request.

22VAC40-73-390. Resident agreement with facility.

A. At or prior to the time of admission, there shall be a written agreement/acknowledgment agreement or acknowledgment of notification dated and signed by the resident or applicant for admission or the appropriate legal representative, and by the licensee or administrator. This document shall include the following:

1. Financial arrangement for accommodations, services, and care that specifies:

a. Listing of specific charges for accommodations, services, and care to be made to the individual resident signing the agreement, the frequency of payment, and any rules relating to nonpayment;

b. Description of all accommodations, services, and care that the facility offers and any related charges;

c. For an auxiliary grant recipient, a list of services included under the auxiliary grant rate;

d. The amount and purpose of an advance payment or deposit payment and the refund policy for such payment, except that recipients of auxiliary grants may not be charged an advance payment or deposit payment;

e. The policy with respect to increases in charges and length of time for advance notice of intent to increase charges;

f. If the ownership of any personal property, real estate, money, or financial investments is to be transferred to the facility at the time of admission or at some future date, it shall be stipulated in the agreement; and

g. The refund policy to apply when transfer of ownership, closing of facility, or resident transfer or discharge occurs.

2. Requirements or rules to be imposed regarding resident conduct and other restrictions or special conditions.

3. Those actions, circumstances, or conditions that would result or might result in the resident's discharge from the facility.

4. Specific acknowledgments that:

a. Requirements or rules regarding resident conduct, other restrictions, or special conditions have been reviewed by the resident or his the resident's legal representative;

b. The resident or his the resident's legal representative has been informed of the policy regarding the amount of notice required when a resident wishes to move from the facility;

c. The resident has been informed of the policy required by 22VAC40-73-840 regarding pets living in the facility;

d. The resident has been informed of the policy required by 22VAC40-73-860 K regarding weapons;

e. The resident or his the resident's legal representative or responsible individual, as stipulated in 22VAC40-73-550 H, has reviewed § 63.2-1808 of the Code of Virginia, Rights and Responsibilities of Residents of Assisted Living Facilities, and that the provisions of this statute have been explained to him;

f. The resident or his the resident's legal representative or responsible individual, as stipulated in 22VAC40-73-550 H, has reviewed and had explained to him the facility's policies and procedures for implementing § 63.2-1808 of the Code of Virginia;

g. The resident has been informed and had explained to him that he that the resident may refuse release of information regarding his the resident's personal affairs and records to any individual outside the facility, except as otherwise provided in law and except in case of his the resident's transfer to another caregiving facility, notwithstanding any requirements of this chapter;

h. The resident has been informed that interested residents may establish and maintain a resident council, that the facility is responsible for providing assistance with the formation and maintenance of the council, whether or not such a council currently exists in the facility, and the general purpose of a resident council (See 22VAC40-73-830);

i. The resident has been informed of the bed hold policy in case of temporary transfer or movement from the facility, if the facility has such a policy (See 22VAC40-73-420 B);

j. The resident has been informed of the policy or guidelines regarding visiting in the facility, if the facility has such a policy or guidelines (See 22VAC40-73-540 C);

k. The resident has been informed of the rules and restrictions regarding smoking on the premises of the facility, including that which is those required by 22VAC40-73-820;

l. The resident has been informed of the policy regarding the administration and storage of medications and dietary supplements;

m. The resident, upon request, has been notified in writing whether or not that the facility maintains liability insurance that provides at least the minimum amount of coverage established by the board for disclosure purposes set forth in 22VAC40-73-45 to compensate residents or other individuals for injuries and losses from negligent acts of the facility. The facility shall state in the notification the minimum amount of coverage established by the board in 22VAC40-73-45. The written notification must be on a form developed by the department; and

n. The resident has received written assurance that the facility has the appropriate license to meet his the resident's care needs at the time of admission, as required by 22VAC40-73-310 D.

B. Copies of the signed agreement/acknowledgment agreement or acknowledgment and any updates as noted in subsection C of this section shall be provided to the resident and, as appropriate, his the resident's legal representative and shall be retained in the resident's record.

C. The original agreement/acknowledgment agreement or acknowledgment shall be updated whenever there are changes to any of the policies or information referenced or identified in the agreement/acknowledgment agreement or acknowledgment and dated and signed by the licensee or administrator and the resident or his the resident's legal representative.

FORMS (22VAC40-73)

Report of Tuberculosis Screening (eff. 10/2011)

Virginia Department of Health Report of Tuberculosis Screening Form (undated)

Virginia Department of Health TB Control Program Risk Assessment Form, TB 512 (eff. 9/2016)

Assisted Living Facility Liability Insurance Statement, 032-05-0600-02-eng (eff. 4/2025)