Title of Regulation: 2VAC5-315. Virginia Imported Fire Ant Quarantine for Enforcement of the Virginia Pest Law (adding 2VAC5-315-10, 2VAC5-315-20, 2VAC5-315-30, 2VAC5-315-40, 2VAC5-315-50, 2VAC5-315-60, 2VAC5-315-70, 2VAC5-315-80, 2VAC5-315-90, 2VAC5-315-100, 2VAC5-315-110, 2VAC5-315-120, 2VAC5-315-130).

Statutory Authority: §§ 3.2-703 and 3.2-704 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: August 31, 2009.

Agency Contact: Frank Fulgham, Program Manager, Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, P.O. Box 1163, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 786-0440, FAX (804) 371-7793, TTY (800) 828-1120, or email frank.fulgham@vdacs.virginia.gov.

Summary:

This action establishes regulated areas under the Virginia Imported Fire Ant Quarantine due to the detection of permanently established and naturally spreading colonies of imported fire ants in the cities of Chesapeake, Hampton, Newport News, Norfolk, Poquoson, Portsmouth, Suffolk, Virginia Beach, and Williamsburg, as well as the counties of James City and York. The quarantine restricts the movement of regulated articles from regulated localities to nonregulated localities. The regulated articles, which include soil, plants with roots and soil attached, grass sod, used farm equipment and soil-moving equipment, honey bee hives and logs, pulpwood, and stumpwood with soil attached, as well as hay, straw, and pine straw that has been stored on the ground, pose a significant risk of transporting imported fire ants. These regulated articles may move freely within the regulated areas. The state quarantine is necessary to prevent the United States Department of Agriculture from imposing a federal quarantine regulating the entire state of Virginia. It is currently anticipated that a federal quarantine covering only Virginia's regulated localities will be implemented to prevent the spread of this pest from Virginia to noninfested states.

CHAPTER 315
VIRGINIA IMPORTED FIRE ANT QUARANTINE FOR ENFORCEMENT OF THE VIRGINIA PEST LAW

2VAC5-315-10. Declaration of quarantine.

A quarantine is hereby established to restrict the movement of certain articles capable of transporting the imported fire ant into unregulated areas of the state unless such articles comply with the conditions specified herein.

2VAC5-315-20. Purpose of quarantine.

The imported fire ant is an introduced species that is notorious for its aggressive behavior, ferocious sting, and the damage it causes to several agricultural commodities. The imported fire ant has become established in portions of the Commonwealth, and has the potential to spread to uninfested areas by natural means or through the movement of infested articles. The purpose of this quarantine is to prevent the artificial spread of the imported fire ant to uninfested areas of the state by regulating the movement of those articles that pose a significant threat of transporting the imported fire ant.

2VAC5-315-30. Definitions.

The following words and terms shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

"Board" means the Virginia Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services.

"Certificate" means a document issued by an inspector or person operating in accordance with a compliance agreement to allow the movement of regulated articles to any destination.

"Commissioner" means the Commissioner of the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services.

"Compliance agreement" means a written agreement between a person engaged in growing, handling, receiving, or moving regulated articles and the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, the United States Department of Agriculture, or both, wherein the former agrees to comply with the requirements of the compliance agreement and comply with the provisions of this regulation.

"Department" means the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services.

"Imported fire ant" means the live insect, in any life stage, known as the imported fire ant, Solenopsis invicta Buren (commonly known as Red Imported Fire Ant) and Solenopsis richteri Forel (commonly known as Black Imported Fire Ant), and hybrids of these species.

"Infestation" means the presence of the imported fire ant or the existence of circumstances that make it reasonable to believe that the imported fire ant is present.

"Inspector" means an employee of the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services or other person authorized by the Commissioner of the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services to enforce the provisions of this quarantine or regulation.

"Limited permit" or "permit" means a document issued by an inspector to allow the movement of regulated articles to a specific destination.

"Moved," "move," or "movement" means shipped, offered for shipment, received for transportation, transported, carried, or allowed to be moved, shipped, transported, or carried.

"Noncompacted soil" means soil that can be removed from an article by brisk brushing or washing.

"Person" means the term as defined in § 1-230 of the Code of Virginia.

"Regulated area" means the locality or area listed in 2VAC5-315-50 of this quarantine.

"Soil" means, for the purpose of this regulation, any nonliquid combination of organic or inorganic material, or both, in which plants can grow.

"Soil-moving equipment" means any equipment used for moving or transporting soil, including, but not limited to, bulldozers, backhoes, dump trucks, or road scrapers.

"Virginia Pest Law" means the statute set forth in Chapter 7 (§ 3.2-700 et seq.) of Title 3.2 of the Code of Virginia.

2VAC5-315-40. Regulated articles.

The following articles are regulated under the provisions of this quarantine and shall not be moved out of any regulated area in Virginia, except in compliance with the conditions prescribed in this quarantine:

1. Any life stage of imported fire ant.

2. Soil, except potting soil that is shipped in original containers after commercial preparation, and soil samples shipped to approved laboratories.

3. Plants with roots with soil attached, or roots and rhizomes of plants with soil attached, except plants maintained indoors in a home or office environment and not for sale.

4. Grass sod.

5. Used soil-moving equipment unless free of all noncompacted soil.

6. Used farm equipment unless free of all noncompacted soil.

7. Hay and straw, including pine straw, that has been stored in direct contact with the ground.

8. Honey bee hives that have been in direct contact with the ground, including hive stands containing soil.

9. Logs, pulpwood and stump wood with soil attached.

10. Any other article or means of conveyance when it is determined by an inspector that it presents a risk of spread of the imported fire ant.

2VAC5-315-50. Regulated areas.

The following areas in Virginia are quarantined for imported fire ant:

The entire counties of:

James City

York

The entire cities of:

Chesapeake

Hampton

Newport News

Norfolk

Poquoson

Portsmouth

Suffolk

Virginia Beach

Williamsburg

2VAC5-315-60. Conditions governing the intrastate movement of regulated articles.

A. Movement within regulated areas - movement of a regulated article solely within the quarantined areas is allowed without restriction.

B. Movement from regulated areas to nonregulated areas - movement of a regulated article that originates from within the quarantined areas to an area outside of the quarantined areas is allowed only if the regulated article is accompanied by a certificate or limited permit issued in accordance with 2VAC5-315-70 and attached in accordance with 2VAC5-315-100.

C. Movement from nonregulated areas through regulated areas - regulated articles that originate outside of the quarantined areas may move through the quarantined areas under the following conditions:

1. With a certificate or limited permit issued in accordance with 2VAC5-315-70 and attached in accordance with 2VAC5-315-100, or

2. Without a certificate or limited permit if:

a. Accompanied by a waybill that indicates the point of origin of the regulated article;

b. The regulated article is moved directly through the regulated area without stopping, except for refueling or due to traffic conditions; or has been stored, packed, or handled at locations approved by an inspector as not posing a risk of infestation by the imported fire ant; and

c. The regulated article has not been combined or commingled with other articles so as to lose its individual identity.

D. Movement from regulated areas through nonregulated areas - regulated articles that originate from within the quarantined areas may travel through the nonquarantined areas to a destination that is quarantined under the following conditions:

1. With a certificate or limited permit issued in accordance with 2VAC5-315-70 and attached in accordance with 2VAC5-315-100, or

2. Without a certificate or limited permit if:

a. Accompanied by a waybill that indicates the point of origin of the regulated article;

b. The regulated article is moved directly through the nonregulated area without stopping, except for refueling or due to traffic conditions; or has been stored, packed, or handled at locations approved by an inspector as not posing a risk of infestation by the imported fire ant; and

c. The regulated article has not been combined or commingled with other articles so as to lose its individual identity.

2VAC5-315-70. Issuance and cancellation of certificates and limited permits.

A. Certificates and limited permits may be issued by an inspector for the movement of regulated articles to any destination within Virginia when:

1. The regulated articles have been examined by the inspector and found to be apparently free of the imported fire ant;

2. The regulated articles have been grown, produced, manufactured, stored, or handled in such a manner that, in the judgment of the inspector, would prevent an infestation or destroy all life stages of imported fire ant;

3. The regulated articles are to be moved in compliance with any additional conditions deemed necessary under the Virginia Pest Law to prevent the spread of the imported fire ant; and

4. The regulated articles are eligible for unrestricted movement under all other domestic plant quarantines and regulations applicable to the regulated articles.

B. Certificates may be issued by any person operating under a compliance agreement for the movement of regulated articles to any destination within Virginia when:

1. The regulated articles have been examined by any person operating under a compliance agreement and found to be apparently free of the imported fire ant;

2. The regulated articles have been grown, produced, manufactured, stored, or handled in such a manner, and following all requirements of the compliance agreement, that would prevent an infestation or destroy all life stages of imported fire ant;

3. The regulated articles are to be moved in compliance with any additional conditions deemed necessary under the Virginia Pest Law to prevent the spread of the imported fire ant; and

4. The regulated articles are eligible for unrestricted movement under all other domestic plant quarantines and regulations applicable to the regulated articles.

C. Any certificate or limited permit that has been issued or authorized may be withdrawn by the inspector orally or in writing if the inspector determines that the holder of the certificate or limited permit has not complied with all conditions for the use of the certificate or limited permit or with any applicable compliance agreement. If the withdrawal is oral, the withdrawal and the reasons for the withdrawal shall be confirmed in writing and communicated to the certificate or limited permit holder as promptly as circumstances allow.

2VAC5-315-80. Compliance agreements and cancellation.

A. Any person engaged in growing, handling, or moving regulated articles may enter into a compliance agreement when an inspector determines that the person understands that person's requirements and obligations under this quarantine. The agreement shall stipulate safeguards that must be maintained against the establishment and spread of imported fire ants and the conditions governing the movement of regulated articles.

B. Any compliance agreement may be canceled orally or in writing by an inspector whenever the inspector finds that the person who has entered into the compliance agreement has failed to comply with this quarantine. If the cancellation is oral, the cancellation and the reasons for the cancellation shall be confirmed in writing and communicated to the person who entered into such compliance agreement as promptly as circumstances allow.

2VAC5-315-90. Assembly and inspection of regulated articles.

A. Any person, other than a person authorized to issue certificates under 2VAC5-315-70, who desires to move a regulated article intrastate and is seeking a certificate or limited permit shall apply for inspection of the regulated article as far in advance as practical, but no less than five business days before the regulated articles are to be moved.

B. The regulated articles must be assembled at the place and in the manner the inspector designates as necessary to facilitate inspection and shall be safeguarded from infestation.

2VAC5-315-100. Attachment and disposition of certificates and limited permits.

A. During the intrastate movement, a certificate or limited permit must be attached at all times to the outside of the container that contains the regulated article or to the regulated article itself. The requirements of this section may also be met by attaching the certificate or limited permit to the consignee's copy of the waybill, provided the regulated article is sufficiently described on the certificate or limited permit and on the waybill to facilitate the identification of the regulated article.

B. The certificate or the limited permit for the intrastate movement of a regulated article must be furnished by the carrier to the consignee at the destination of the regulated article. A copy of the certificate or the limited permit must be retained by the sender of the regulated article at the place of shipment.

2VAC5-315-110. Inspection and disposal of regulated articles and pests.

Upon presentation of official credentials, an inspector is authorized to stop and inspect, and to seize, destroy, or otherwise dispose of or require disposal of regulated articles as provided in the Virginia Pest Law.

2VAC5-315-120. Nonliability of the department.

The department shall not be liable for any costs incurred by third parties whose costs result from, or are incidental to, inspections required under the provisions of the quarantine.

2VAC5-315-130. Revocation of this regulation.

This regulation may be revoked by the board when such party is satisfied that the need for this quarantine no longer exists. Such revocation shall take place upon the date specified by the board in the order that revokes this regulation.

Title of Regulation: 2VAC5-620. Regulations Pertaining to the Establishment of the Dangerous Dog Registry.

FORMS (2VAC5-620)

Dangerous Dog Verification of Compliance and Registration Form, VDACS-DDR-01 (eff. 07/07) (eff. 07/09).

Dangerous Dog Verification of Compliance and Registration Supplemental Owner Information Form, VDACS-DDR-02 (eff. 07/07) (eff. 07/09).

Dangerous Dog Renewal Registration Form, VDACS-DDR-03 (eff. 07/07) (eff. 07/09).

Dangerous Dog Registration Change of Address Form, VDACS-DDR-04 (eff. 07/07) (eff. 07/09).

Dangerous Dog Registration Change of Address Supplemental Owner Information Form, VDACS-DDR-05 (eff. 07/07) (eff. 07/09).

Dangerous Dog Registration Remittance Form, VDACS-DDR-06 (eff. 07/07) (eff. 07/09).

Title of Regulation: 4VAC25-150. Virginia Gas and Oil Regulation (amending 4VAC25-150-10, 4VAC25-150-60, 4VAC25-150-80, 4VAC25-150-90, 4VAC25-150-100, 4VAC25-150-110, 4VAC25-150-120, 4VAC25-150-135, 4VAC25-150-140, 4VAC25-150-150, 4VAC25-150-160, 4VAC25-150-180, 4VAC25-150-190, 4VAC25-150-200, 4VAC25-150-210, 4VAC25-150-220, 4VAC25-150-230, 4VAC25-150-240, 4VAC25-150-250, 4VAC25-150-260, 4VAC25-150-280, 4VAC25-150-300, 4VAC25-150-310, 4VAC25-150-340, 4VAC25-150-360, 4VAC25-150-380, 4VAC25-150-390, 4VAC25-150-420, 4VAC25-150-460, 4VAC25-150-490, 4VAC25-150-500, 4VAC25-150-510, 4VAC25-150-520, 4VAC25-150-530, 4VAC25-150-550, 4VAC25-150-560, 4VAC25-150-590, 4VAC25-150-600, 4VAC25-150-610, 4VAC25-150-620, 4VAC25-150-630, 4VAC25-150-650, 4VAC25-150-660, 4VAC25-150-670, 4VAC25-150-680, 4VAC25-150-690, 4VAC25-150-700, 4VAC25-150-711, 4VAC25-150-720, 4VAC25-150-730, 4VAC25-150-740, 4VAC25-150-750).

Statutory Authority: §§ 45.1-161.3 and 45.1-361.27 of the Code of Virginia.

Public Hearing Information:

October 23, 2009 - 1 p.m. - Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy, 3405 Mountain Empire Road, Buchanan-Smith Building, Conference Room 219, Big Stone Gap, VA

Public Comments: Public comments may be submitted until 5 p.m. on October 30, 2009.

Agency Contact: Tabitha Hibbitts Peace, Policy Analyst, Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy, 3405 Mountain Empire Road, P.O. Drawer 900, Big Stone Gap, VA 24219, telephone (276) 523-8212, FAX (276) 523-8148, TTY (800) 828-1120, or email tabitha.peace@dmme.virginia.gov.

Basis: The Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy (DMME) has authority to promulgate this regulation under the authority found in §§ 45.1-161.3 and 45.1-361.27 of the Code of Virginia.

Section 45.1-161.3 of the Code of Virginia empowers DMME, with the approval of the director, to promulgate regulations necessary or incidental to the performance of duties or execution of powers under Title 45.1 of the Code of Virginia.

Section 45.1-361.27 of the Code of Virginia empowers the director to promulgate and enforce rules, regulations, and orders necessary to ensure the safe and efficient development and production of gas and oil resources located in the Commonwealth.

Purpose: The Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy has determined the proposed regulatory amendments to various sections of 4VAC25-150 are necessary to protect the health, welfare, and safety of citizens, reduce workload, and increase efficiency for permit applicants. Technical corrections are necessary for accuracy and to provide clear language consistent with state law. These amendments will aid the gas and oil industry and the Virginia Gas and Oil Board in the approval and regulation of gas and oil permits.

Substance: As a result of periodic review, the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy is amending 4VAC25-150, Virginia Gas and Oil Regulation. Sections of 4VAC25-150 will be amended to correct technical areas for accuracy, improve worker safety, and provide clarity. These amendments will aid the gas and oil industry and the Gas and Oil Board in the review and regulation of gas and oil permits.

Amending parts of 4VAC25-150-150 will reduce workload and increase efficiency for applicants by providing flexibility and economy to the permit process. 4VAC25-150-90 will be updated to include symbols that are consistent with current industry usage and available CAD technology.

Amendments to 4VAC25-150-80, 4VAC25-150-260, 4VAC25-150-300, 4VAC25-150-380, and 4VAC25-150-630 will protect the safety and health of oil and gas industry employees.

An amendment to 4VAC25-150-90 is being made to bring consistency to data submission requirements for the Division of Gas and Oil. The use of latitude and longitude and the Virginia Coordinate System of 1927 have been replaced by the Virginia Coordinate System of 1983 in other Division of Gas and Oil regulations. Current industry practice to use the more modern 1983 coordinate system for describing the locations of wells and core holes. Applicants for permits under this chapter must currently convert their coordinates back to the 1927 system, as required by the regulation, in order to submit them to the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy’s Division of Gas and Oil. The amendment will allow applicants to use the updated 1983 coordinate system.

Issues: These regulatory actions are expected to provide technical corrections, improve clarity, increase efficiency, and to restore consistency with other chapters of regulation. These amendments regarding process will aid the gas and oil industry, as well as the Gas and Oil Board in the review and regulation of gas and oil permits. Reduced workload and increased efficiency for applicants will occur by providing flexibility and economy in the permit process.

The Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:

Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. As a result of periodic review, the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy (DMME) proposes numerous amendments to the Virginia Gas & Oil Regulations, including: 1) adding a definition for "red zone," 2) updating required symbols to the current industry standard CAD template, 3) adding a requirement that operations plan specify "red zone" areas, 4) increasing the application fee for transfer of permit rights from $65 to $75, 5) eliminating the requirement to mail pemit approvals to all persons given notice of the hearing, but maintaining the requirement to mail pemit denials to all persons given notice of the hearing, 6) extending reporting deadlines from 30 or 45 days to 90 days, 7) changing required notification of ground-disturbing activity from at least two working days prior to commencing ground-disturbing activity to at least 48 hours prior, 8) adding requirement for posting red zone signs, 9) reduce specificity of topsoil requirement so that any soil suitable for stabilizing the site with vegetation can be used, 10) allowing any form of variance request, 11) changing the specific circumstances under which an inclination survey must be performed, 12) adding a requirement that all pits be reclaimed within 90 days unless a variance is granted by the field inspector, and 13) adding a new section defining the length of time wells can remain shut in without a requirement for plugging.

Result of Analysis. The benefits exceed the costs for one or more proposed changes. There is insufficient data to accurately compare the magnitude of the benefits versus the costs for other changes.

Estimated Economic Impact. DMME proposes several amendments to these regulations merely reflect modern usage such as GPS, electronic communication, and the use of the current industry standard CAD template. Virginia’s gas and oil industry through the representation of the Virginia Gas and Oil Association (VGOA) has expressed approval of these changes and generally agrees that these types of changes are beneficial.

The proposed regulations define "red zone" as a zone in or contiguous to a permitted area that could have potential hazards to workers or to the public. Further, the proposed regulations require that operation plans identify red zone areas and that red zone signs be posted to alert the public and workers of the hazards in the area. VGOA estimates that this proposed requirement will add $1,000 to $2,000 of cost per plan and approximately $100 per sign, but agrees that it will potentially significantly reduce safety risks. Thus, these proposed changes likely produce a net benefit.

DMME proposes to increase the application fee for transfer of permit rights from $65 to $75. According to the agency even the proposed higher fee falls far short of covering their regulating expenses. VGOA does not oppose the fee increase.

Under the current regulations, in hearings on objections to permit applications the DMME director must mail his decision to all parties given notice of the hearing. DMME proposes to eliminate the requirement to mail pemit approvals to all persons given notice of the hearing, but to continue to require that pemit denials be sent to all persons given notice of the hearing. Parties directly involved would still be notified of permit approvals of course. The proposed change would reduce some small costs in time for DMME staff, but it is unclear whether the small reduction in time cost exceeds the reduced benefit in informing interested members of the public.

The current regulations include various reporting deadlines of either 30 days or 45 days which DMME proposes to extend to 90 days. The extra time will be beneficial for firms and DMME states that the extra time for reporting is unlikely to significantly affect health and safety. Thus, these proposed longer deadlines will likely produce a net benefit.

The agency proposes to change the required notification of ground-disturbing activity from at least two working days prior to commencing ground-disturbing activity to at least 48 hours prior. According to DMME, staff is available to receive notification on the weekends and 48 hours notice is sufficient to ensure safety. This proposed change allows firms to not have to proceed with work one or two days sooner at times without negatively affected safety. Consequently, this proposed change produces a net benefit for the Commonwealth.

DMME also proposes some additional options for satisfying requirements that will reduce costs for firms without compromising safety or the environment. Under the current regulations during construction topsoil sufficient to provide a suitable growth medium for permanent stabilization with vegetation must be used to stabilize the site. The agency proposes to permit the use of soil that is not necessarily topsoil, but which still can provide a suitable growth medium for permanent stabilization with vegetation. Also the timing for acceptance of variances is less restrictive under the proposed regulations.

The current regulations require that an inclination survey be performed prior to drilling into a coal seam where active mining is being conducted. DMME proposes to instead require that an inclination survey be performed prior to drilling within 500 feet of a coal seam where workers are assigned travel, etc. According to DMME their definition of active mining includes where coal workers are not currently working; and thus under the proposed language there will be fewer instances where inclination surveys are required. VGOA estimates that inclination surveys cost $2,000 to $3,000 per well. Since only instances where coal workers are not present will be eliminated from when an inclination survey is required, the proposed change should not negatively affect safety while saving $2,000 to $3,000 per instance where the inclination survey is no longer required.

The regulations state that "Pits are to be temporary in nature and are to be reclaimed when the operations using the pit are complete. DMME proposes to add that "All pits shall be reclaimed within 90 days unless a variance is granted by the field inspector." Reclamation concerns meeting water quality standards. According to VGOA, mandatory reclamation within 90 days can significantly add to costs. VGOA states that drought conditions can cause pits to not meet water quality standards that would meet the standards under non-drought conditions, causing firms to spend thousands of dollars which they could have avoided if they were not required to act within 90 days. The counter argument would be that there are environmental costs to the pits not meeting water quality standards and perhaps the benefits of improved environment are worth those costs.

Abandoned wells are required to be plugged to prevent environmental damage and safety risks from leaks. DMME proposes to require that permittees submit either a well plugging plan or a future well production plan for wells that have been in non-producing status for two years. Further, the agency proposes that "In no circumstance shall a non-producing well remain un-plugged for more than a three year period unless approved by the director (of DMME)." The intent of this proposal is to limit the existence of non-producing wells that may be producing environmental damage through leaks.

The proposed plugging requirement may produce large costs and could discourage natural gas production. According to VGOA it costs approximately $20,000 to plug a well, and from $350,000 to $500,000 to drill a new well. VGOA states that it is essentially not feasible to unplug a plugged well, and thus would cost another $350,000 to $500,000 to re-drill a well at the site of a plugged well. The proposed plugging requirement would discourage some natural gas production (according to VGOA) in that the time frame that a well could be used would be reduced and thus the potential benefits of drilling in new locations would be reduced. Thus it is not clear that the potential environmental benefits of requiring plugging within three years would exceed the costs.

Businesses and Entities Affected. According to the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy, four companies drill most oil and gas wells in Virginia and an unknown number of other companies may also undertake such activities from time to time. None of these would be defined as small businesses.

Localities Particularly Affected. The proposed regulations particularly affect the City of Norton and the following counties: Buchanan, Dickenson, Lee, Russell, Scott, Tazewell, Washington and Wise.

Projected Impact on Employment. Most of the proposed amendments would not significantly affect employment. The proposal to require plugging for wells not used for three years might discourage some natural gas drilling and might have some negative impact on employment.

Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. Several of the proposed amendments add moderate costs for oil and gas firms in order to improve public safety and the environment. These changes may have some moderate positive affect on the value of neighboring properties. Some of the proposed amendments reduce costs foe firms without compromising safety or the environment. These changes will provide some counterbalance to the aforementioned increased costs. The proposal to requiring plugging for wells not in use for three years may produce larger costs for private firms.

Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. According to DMME, none of the firms directly affected by the proposed regulations are small businesses. Small businesses that serve the large firms may be indirectly affected.

Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. According to DMME, none of the firms directly affected by the proposed regulations are small businesses.

Real Estate Development Costs. This regulation concerns the use of land for gas and oil acquisition. Several proposed changes that increase public safety or reduce environmental risk, such as requiring red zone signs, add moderate costs. Some proposed changes, such as permitting the use of soil that is not necessarily topsoil, but which still can provide a suitable growth medium for permanent stabilization with vegetation, moderately reduce land use costs.

Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number 36 (06). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property. Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB’s best estimate of these economic impacts.

Agency's Response to the Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis: The agency concurs with Department of Planning and Budget's economic impact analysis.

Summary:

As a result of periodic review, the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy is amending 4VAC25-150, Virginia Gas and Oil Regulation. Sections within 4VAC25-150 will be amended to correct technical areas for accuracy, improve worker safety, and provide clarity. These amendments will aid the gas and oil industry and the Gas and Oil Board in the review and regulation of gas and oil permits. Amending 4VAC25-150-150 will reduce workload and increase efficiency for applicants by providing flexibility and economy to the permit process. 4VAC25-150-90 will be updated to include symbols that are consistent with current industry usage and available CAD technology. Amendments to 4VAC25-150-80, 4VAC25-150-260, 4VAC25-150-300, 4VAC25-150-380, and 4VAC25-150-630 will protect the safety and health of oil and gas industry employees. An amendment to 4VAC25-150-90 is being made to bring consistency to data submission requirements for the Division of Gas and Oil.

Part I
Standards of General Applicability

Article 1
General Information

4VAC25-150-10. Definitions.

The following words and terms, when used in this chapter, shall have the following meaning unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

"Act" means the Virginia Gas and Oil Act of 1990, Chapter 22.1 (§ 45.1-361.1 et seq.) of Title 45.1 of the Code of Virginia.

"Adequate channel" means a watercourse that will convey the designated frequency storm event without overtopping its banks or causing erosive damage to the bed, banks and overbank sections.

"Applicant" means any person or business who files an application with the Division of Gas and Oil.

"Approved" means accepted as suitable for its intended purpose when included in a permit issued by the director or determined to be suitable in writing by the director.

"Berm" means a ridge of soil or other material constructed along an active earthen fill to divert runoff away from the unprotected slope of the fill to a stabilized outlet or sediment trapping facility.

"Board" means the Virginia Gas and Oil Board.

"Bridge plug" means an obstruction intentionally placed in a well at a specified depth.

"Cased completion" means a technique used to make a well capable of production in which production casing is set through the productive zones.

"Cased/open hole completion" means a technique used to make a well capable of production in which at least one zone is completed through casing and at least one zone is completed open hole.

"Casing" means all pipe set in wells except conductor pipe and tubing.

"Causeway" means a temporary structural span constructed across a flowing watercourse or wetland to allow construction traffic to access the area without causing erosion damage.

"Cement" means hydraulic cement properly mixed with water.

"Channel" means a natural stream or man-made waterway.

"Chief" means the Chief of the Division of Mines of the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy.

"Coal-protection string" means a casing designed to protect a coal seam by excluding all fluids, oil, gas or gas pressure from the seam, except such as may be found in the coal seam itself.

"Cofferdam" means a temporary structure in a river, lake or other waterway for keeping the water from an enclosed area that has been pumped dry so that bridge foundations, pipelines, etc., may be constructed.

"Completion" means the process which results in a well being capable of producing gas or oil.

"Conductor pipe" means the short, large diameter string used primarily to control caving and washing out of unconsolidated surface formations.

"Corehole" means any shaft or hole sunk, drilled, bored or dug, that breaks or disturbs the surface of the earth as part of a geophysical operation solely for the purpose of obtaining rock samples or other information to be used in the exploration for coal, gas, or oil. The term shall not include a borehole used solely for the placement of an explosive charge or other energy source for generating seismic waves.

"Days" means calendar days.

"Denuded area" means land that has been cleared of vegetative cover.

"Department" means the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy.

"Detention basin" means a stormwater management facility which temporarily impounds and discharges runoff through an outlet to a downstream channel. Infiltration is negligible when compared to the outlet structure discharge rates. The facility is normally dry during periods of no rainfall.

"Dike" means an earthen embankment constructed to confine or control fluids.

"Directional survey" means a well survey that measures the degree of deviation of a hole, or distance from the vertical and the direction of deviation from true vertical, and the distance and direction of points in the hole from vertical.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy or his authorized agent.

"Diversion" means a channel constructed for the purpose of intercepting surface runoff.

"Diverter" or "diverter system" means an assembly of valves and piping attached to a gas or oil well's casing for controlling flow and pressure from a well.

"Division" means the Division of Gas and Oil of the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy.

"Erosion and sediment control plan" means a document containing a description of materials and methods to be used for the conservation of soil and the protection of water resources in or on a unit or group of units of land. It may include appropriate maps, an appropriate soil and water plan inventory and management information with needed interpretations, and a record of decisions contributing to conservation treatment. The plan shall contain a record of all major conservation decisions to ensure that the entire unit or units of land will be so treated to achieve the conservation objectives.

"Expanding cement" means any cement approved by the director which expands during the hardening process, including but not limited to regular oil field cements with the proper additives.

"Form prescribed by the director" means a form issued by the division, or an equivalent facsimile, for use in meeting the requirements of the Act or this chapter.

"Firewall" means an earthen dike or fire resistant structure built around a tank or tank battery to contain the oil in the event a tank ruptures or catches fire.

"Flume" means a constructed device lined with erosion-resistant materials intended to convey water on steep grades.

"Flyrock" means any material propelled by a blast that would be actually or potentially hazardous to persons or property.

"Gas well" means any well which produces or appears capable of producing a ratio of 6,000 cubic feet (6 Mcf) of gas or more to each barrel of oil, on the basis of a gas-oil ratio test.

"Gob well" means a coalbed methane gas well which is capable of producing coalbed methane gas from the de-stressed zone associated with any full-seam extraction of coal that extends above and below the mined-out coal seam.

"Groundwater" means all water under the ground, wholly or partially within or bordering the Commonwealth or within its jurisdiction, which has the potential for being used for domestic, industrial, commercial or agricultural use or otherwise affects the public welfare.

"Highway" means any public street, public alley, or public road.

"Inclination survey" means a well or corehole survey, using the surface location of the well or corehole as the apex, to determine the deviation of the well or corehole from the true vertical beneath the apex on the same horizontal subsurface plane survey taken inside a wellbore that measures the degree of deviation of the point of the survey from true vertical.

"Inhabited building" means a building, regularly occupied in whole or in part by human beings, including, but not limited to, a private residence, church, school, store, public building or other structure where people are accustomed to assemble except for a building being used on a temporary basis, on a permitted site, for gas, oil, or geophysical operations.

"Intermediate string" means a string of casing that prevents caving, shuts off connate water in strata below the water-protection string, and protects strata from exposure to lower zone pressures.

"Live watercourse" means a definite channel with bed and banks within which water flows continuously.

"Mcf" means, when used with reference to natural gas, 1,000 cubic feet of gas at a pressure base of 14.73 pounds per square inch gauge and a temperature base of 60°F.

"Mud" means any mixture of water and clay or other material as the term is commonly used in the industry a mixture of materials that creates a weighted fluid to be circulated down hole during drilling operations for the purpose of lubricating and cooling the bit, removing cuttings, and controlling formation pressures and fluid.

"Natural channel" or "natural stream" means nontidal waterways that are part of the natural topography. They usually maintain a continuous or seasonal flow during the year, and are characterized as being irregular in cross section with a meandering course.

"Nonerodible" means a material such as riprap, concrete or plastic that will not experience surface wear due to natural forces.

"Oil well" means any well which produces or appears capable of producing a ratio of less than 6,000 cubic feet (6 Mcf) of gas to each barrel of oil, on the basis of a gas-oil ratio test.

"Open hole completion" means a technique used to make a well capable of production in which no production casing is set through the productive zones.

"Person" means any individual, corporation, partnership, association, company, business, trust, joint venture or other legal entity.

"Petitioner" means any person or business who files a petition, appeal, or other request for action with the Division of Gas and Oil or the Virginia Gas and Oil Board.

"Plug" means the stopping sealing of, or a device or material used for the stopping sealing of, the flow of water, a gas or oil wellbore or casing to prevent the migration of water, gas, or oil from one stratum to another.

"Pre-development" means the land use and site conditions that exist at the time that the operations plan is submitted to the division.

"Produced waters" means water or fluids produced from a gas well, oil well, coalbed methane gas well or gob well as a byproduct of producing gas, oil or coalbed methane gas.

"Producer" means a permittee operating a well in Virginia that is producing or is capable of producing gas or oil.

"Production string" means a string of casing or tubing through which the well is completed and may be produced and controlled.

"Red shales" means the undifferentiated shaley portion of the bluestone Bluestone formation normally found above the Pride Shale Member of the formation, and extending upward to the base of the Pennsylvanian strata, which red shales are predominantly red and green in color but may occasionally be gray, grayish green and grayish red.

"Red zone" is a zone in or contiguous to a permitted area that could have potential hazards to workers or to the public.

"Retention basin" means a stormwater management facility which, similar to a detention basin, temporarily impounds runoff and discharges its outflow through an outlet to a downstream channel. A retention basin is a permanent impoundment.

"Sediment basin" means a depression formed from the construction of a barrier or dam built to retain sediment and debris.

"Sheet flow," also called overland flow, means shallow, unconcentrated and irregular flow down a slope. The length of strip for sheet flow usually does not exceed 200 feet under natural conditions.

"Slope drain" means tubing or conduit made of nonerosive material extending from the top to the bottom of a cut or fill slope.

"Special diligence" means the activity and skill exercised by a good businessman businessperson in his a particular specialty, which must be commensurate with the duty to be performed and the individual circumstances of the case; not merely the diligence of an ordinary person or nonspecialist.

"Stabilized" means able to withstand normal exposure to air and water flows without incurring erosion damage.

"Stemming" means the inert material placed in a borehole after an explosive charge for the purpose of confining the explosion gases in the borehole or the inert material used to separate the explosive charges (decks) in decked holes.

"Storm sewer inlet" means any structure through which stormwater is introduced into an underground conveyance system.

"Stormwater management facility" means a device that controls stormwater runoff and changes the characteristics of that runoff, including but not limited to, the quantity, quality, the period of release or the velocity of flow.

"String of pipe" or "string" means the total footage of pipe of uniform size set in a well. The term embraces conductor pipe, casing and tubing. When the casing consists of segments of different size, each segment constitutes a separate string. A string may serve more than one purpose.

"Sulfide stress cracking" means embrittlement of the steel grain structure to reduce ductility and cause extreme brittleness or cracking by hydrogen sulfide.

"Surface mine" means an area containing an open pit excavation, surface operations incident to an underground mine, or associated activities adjacent to the excavation or surface operations, from which coal or other minerals are produced for sale, exchange, or commercial use; and includes all buildings and equipment above the surface of the ground used in connection with such mining.

"Target formation" means the geologic gas or oil formation identified by the well operator in his application for a gas, oil or geophysical drilling permit.

"Temporary stream crossing" means a temporary span installed across a flowing watercourse for use by construction traffic. Structures may include bridges, round pipes or pipe arches constructed on or through nonerodible material.

"Ten-year storm" means a storm that is capable of producing rainfall expected to be equaled or exceeded on the average of once in 10 years. It may also be expressed as an exceedance probability with a 10% chance of being equaled or exceeded in any given year.

"Tubing" means the small diameter string set after the well has been drilled from the surface to the total depth and through which the gas or oil or other substance is produced or injected.

"Two-year storm" means a storm that is capable of producing rainfall expected to be equaled or exceeded on the average of once in two years. It may also be expressed as an exceedance probability with a 50% chance of being equaled or exceeded in any given year.

"Vertical ventilation hole" means any hole drilled from the surface to the coal seam used only for the safety purpose of removing gas from the underlying coal seam and the adjacent strata, thus, removing the gas that would normally be in the mine ventilation system.

"Water bar" means a small obstruction constructed across the surface of a road, pipeline right-of-way, or other area of ground disturbance in order to interrupt and divert the flow of water down the on a grade of the road and divert the water to provide for sediment control for the purpose of controlling erosion and sediment migration.

"Water-protection string" means a string of casing designed to protect groundwater-bearing strata.

4VAC25-150-60. Due dates for reports and decisions.

A. Where the last day fixed for (i) submitting a request for a hearing, holding a hearing or issuing a decision in an enforcement action under Article 3 (4VAC25-150-170 et seq.) of this part, (ii) submitting a monthly or annual report under Article 4 (4VAC25-150-210 et seq.) of this part, (iii) submitting a report of commencement of activity under 4VAC25-150-230, (iv) submitting a drilling report, a completion report or other report under 4VAC25-150-360, or (v) submitting a plugging affidavit under 4VAC25-150-460 or any required report falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or any day on which the Division of Gas and Oil office is closed as authorized by the Code of Virginia or the Governor, the required action may be done on the next day that the office is open.

B. All submittals to or notifications of the Division of Gas and Oil identified in subsection A of this section shall be made to the division office no later than 5 p.m. on the day required by the Act or by this chapter.

Article 2
Permitting

4VAC25-150-80. Application for a permit.

A. Applicability.

1. Persons required in § 45.1-361.29 of the Code of Virginia to obtain a permit or permit modification shall apply to the division on the forms prescribed by the director. All lands on which gas, oil or geophysical operations are to be conducted shall be included in a permit application.

2. In addition to specific requirements for variances in other sections of this chapter, any applicant for a variance shall, in writing, document the need for the variance and describe the alternate measures or practices to be used.

B. The application for a permit shall, as applicable, be accompanied by the fee in accordance with § 45.1-361.29 of the Code of Virginia, the bond in accordance with § 45.1-361.31 of the Code of Virginia, and the fee for the Orphaned Well Fund in accordance with § 45.1-361.40 of the Code of Virginia.

C. Each application for a permit shall include information on all activities, including those involving associated facilities, to be conducted on the permitted site. This shall include the following:

1. The name and address of:

a. The gas, oil or geophysical applicant;

b. The agent required to be designated under § 45.1-361.37 of the Code of Virginia; and

c. Each person whom the applicant must notify under § 45.1-361.30 of the Code of Virginia;

2. The certifications required in § 45.1-361.29 E of the Code of Virginia;

3. The proof of notice to affected parties required in § 45.1-361.29 E of the Code of Virginia, which shall be:

a. A copy of a signed receipt or electronic return receipt of delivery of notice by certified mail;

b. A copy of a signed receipt acknowledging delivery of notice by hand; or

c. If all copies of receipt of delivery of notice by certified mail have not been signed and returned within 15 days of mailing, a copy of the mailing log or other proof of the date the notice was sent by certified mail, return receipt requested;

4. If the application is for a permit modification, proof of notice to affected parties, as specified in subdivision C 3 of this section;

4. 5. Identification of the type of well or other gas, oil or geophysical operation being proposed;

5. 6. The plat in accordance with 4VAC25-150-90;

6. 7. The operations plan in accordance with 4VAC25-150-100;

7. 8. The information required for operations involving hydrogen sulfide in accordance with 4VAC25-150-350;

8. 9. The location where the Spill Prevention Control and Countermeasure (SPCC) plan is available, if one is required;

9. 10. The Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy, Division of Mined Land Reclamation's permit number for any area included in a Division of Mined Land Reclamation permit on which a proposed gas, oil or geophysical operation is to be located;

10. 11. For an application for a conventional well, the information required in 4VAC25-150-500;

11. 12. For an application for a coalbed methane gas well, the information required in 4VAC25-150-560;

12. 13. For an application for a geophysical operation, the information required in 4VAC25-150-670; and

13. 14. For an application for a permit to drill for gas or oil in Tidewater Virginia, the environmental impact assessment meeting the requirements of § 62.1-195.1 B of the Code of Virginia.

D. After July 1, 2009, all permit applications and plats submitted to the division shall be in electronic form or a format prescribed by the director.

4VAC25-150-90. Plats.

A. When filing an application for a permit for a well or corehole, the applicant also shall file an accurate plat certified by a licensed professional engineer or licensed land surveyor on a scale, to be stated thereon, of 1 inch equals 400 feet (1:4800). The scope of the plat shall be large enough to show the board approved unit and all areas within the greater of 750 feet or one half of the distance specified in § 45.1-361.17 of the Code of Virginia from the proposed well or corehole, or within a unit established by the board for the subject well. The plat shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the director.

B. The known courses and distances of all property lines and lines connecting the permanent points, landmarks or corners within the scope of the plat shall be shown thereon. All lines actually surveyed shall be shown as solid lines. Lines taken from deed or chain of title descriptions only shall be shown by broken lines. All property lines shown on a plat shall agree with surveys, deed descriptions, or acreages used in county records for tax assessment purposes.

C. A north and south line shall be given and shown on the plat, and point to the top of the plat.

D. Wells or coreholes shall be located on the plat as follows:

1. The proposed or actual surface elevation of the subject well or corehole shall be shown on the plat, within an accuracy of one vertical foot. The surface elevation shall be tied to either a government benchmark or other point of proven elevation by differential or aerial survey, or by trigonometric leveling, or by Global Positioning System (GPS) survey. The location of the government benchmark or the point of proven elevation and the method used to determine the surface elevation of the subject well or corehole shall be noted and described on the plat.

2. The proposed or actual horizontal location of the subject well or corehole determined by survey shall be shown on the plat. The proposed or actual well or corehole location shall be shown in accordance with the Virginia Coordinate System of 1983, as defined in Chapter 17 (§ 55-287 et seq.) of Title 55 of the Code of Virginia, also known as the State Plane Coordinate System.

3. The courses and distances of the well or corehole location from two permanent points or landmarks on the tract shall be shown; such landmarks shall be set stones, iron pipes, T-rails or other manufactured monuments, including mine coordinate monuments, and operating or abandoned wells which are platted to the accuracy standards of this section and on file with the division. If temporary points are to be used to locate the actual well or corehole location as provided for in 4VAC25-150-290, the courses and distances of the well or corehole location from the two temporary points shall be shown.

4. Any other well, permitted or drilled, within the distance specified in § 45.1-361.17 of the Code of Virginia or the distance to the nearest well completed in the same pool, whichever is less, or within the boundaries of a drilling unit established by the board around the subject well shall be shown on the plat or located by notation. The type of each well shall be designated by the following symbols as described in the Federal Geographic Data Committee (FGDC) Digital Cartographic Standard for Geologic Map Symbolization:

Title of Regulation: 4VAC25-160. Virginia Gas and Oil Board Regulations (amending 4VAC25-160-10, 4VAC25-160-30, 4VAC25-160-40, 4VAC25-160-50, 4VAC25-160-60, 4VAC25-160-70, 4VAC25-160-130, 4VAC25-160-190, 4VAC25-160-200).

Statutory Authority: § 45.1-361.15 of the Code of Virginia.

Public Hearing Information:

October 23, 2009 - 9 a.m. - Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy, 3405 Mountain Empire Road, Buchanan-Smith Building, Conference Room 219, Big Stone Gap, VA

Public Comments: Public comments may be submitted until 5 p.m. on October 30, 2009.

Agency Contact: Tabitha Hibbitts Peace, Policy Analyst, Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy, 3405 Mountain Empire Road, P.O. Drawer 900, Big Stone Gap, VA 24219, telephone (276) 523-8212, FAX (276) 523-8148, TTY (800) 828-1120, or email tabitha.peace@dmme.virginia.gov.

Basis: The Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy (DMME) has authority to promulgate this regulation under authority found in §§ 45.1-161.3, 45.1-361.4, and 45.1-361.15 of the Code of Virginia.

Section 45.1-161.3 of the Code of Virginia empowers DMME, with the approval of the director, to promulgate regulations necessary or incidental to the performance of duties or execution of powers under Title 45.1 of the Code of Virginia.

Section 45.1-361.4 of the Code of Virginia empowers the director with the power and duty to regulate gas, oil, or geophysical operations, collect fees, and perform other responsibilities as may be prescribed in regulations promulgated by the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy, or the Virginia Gas & Oil Board.

Section 45.1-361.15 of the Code of Virginia empowers the Virginia Gas and Oil Board to have the specific authority to issue rules, regulations, or orders pursuant to the provisions of the Administrative Process Act.

Purpose: The Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy and the Virginia Gas and Oil Board have determined the proposed regulatory amendments to various sections of 4VAC25-160 (4VAC25-160-30; 4VAC-25-160-40; 4VAC25-160-50; 4VAC25-160-70) are necessary to protect the health, welfare, and safety of citizens, reduce workload, and increase efficiency for applicants. The proposed regulatory actions to 4VAC25-160-200 will update references to external technical documents.

The proposed amendments to various sections of 4VAC25-160 are also essential to protect the health and welfare of citizens by providing clear language that is consistent with state law and regulation.

Substance: As a result of periodic review, the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy and the Virginia Gas and Oil Board is amending 4VAC25-160, Virginia Gas and Oil Board Regulations, to make technical corrections, improve clarity, increase efficiency, and restore consistency with other chapters.

4VAC25-160-30, 4VAC25-160-40, 4VAC25-160-50, 4VAC25-160-60, 4VAC25-160-70, and 4VAC25-160-200 will be amended to correct several technical areas for accuracy, and provide clarity. These amendments regarding process will aid the gas and oil industry, as well as the Gas and Oil Board in the approval and regulation of gas and oil permits.

Amending 4VAC25-160-30 will reduce workload and increase efficiency for applicants by providing flexibility and economy in the permit process.

Amendments to 4VAC25-160-40, 4VAC25-160-50, and 4VAC25-160-70 are being made to bring consistency to data submission requirements for the Division of Gas and Oil. The use of latitude and longitude and the Virginia Coordinate System of 1927 have been replaced by the Virginia Coordinate System of 1983 in other Division of Gas and Oil regulations. Current industry practice is to use the more modern 1983 coordinate system for describing the locations of wells and core holes. Applicants for permits under this chapter must currently convert their coordinates back to the 1927 system, as required by the regulation, in order to submit them to the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy's Division of Gas and Oil. The amendment will allow applicants to use the updated 1983 coordinate system.

Issues: These regulatory actions are expected to provide technical corrections, improve clarity, increase efficiency, and restore consistency with other chapters of regulation. These amendments regarding process will aid the gas and oil industry, as well as the Gas and Oil Board in the approval and regulation of gas and oil permits. Reduced workload and increased efficiency for applicants will occur by providing flexibility and economy in the permit process.

The Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:

Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Virginia Gas and Oil Board (Board) proposes to make several clarifications and to update technical language to reflect current conditions. Additionally, the Board proposes two small changes to paperwork requirements.

Result of Analysis. The benefits likely exceed the costs for all proposed changes.

Estimated Economic Impact. Under the current regulations applicants must submit 10 sets of each application and accompanying exhibits. The proposed regulations only require that 8 sets are submitted. This will result in a small amount of savings in time and resources.

The current regulations also require that "Each person offering exhibits into evidence shall also have available a reasonably sufficient number of exhibits for other persons who are subject to the provisions of §§ 45.1-361.19 and 45.1-361.23 of the Code of Virginia and are expected to be in attendance at the hearing." The Board proposes to amend this to “Each person offering exhibits into evidence shall also have available a reasonably sufficient number of exhibits for other persons who are subject to the provisions of §§ 45.1-361.19 and 45.1-361.23 of the Code of Virginia, who have notified the division by certified mail notice of their request for copies of exhibits, and are expected to be in attendance at the hearing. This proposed change will help applicants avoid spending time and resources on producing more copies than are needed. Similar to above though, the expected savings are small.

Businesses and Entities Affected. According to the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy, four large firms drill most oil and gas wells in Virginia. An unknown number of other companies may also undertake such activities from time to time. None of these would be defined as small businesses. Interested citizens and localities are also potentially affected.

Localities Particularly Affected. Oil and gas wells in Virginia are predominately located in Buchanan, Dickenson, Lee, Russell, Scott, Tazewell, & Wise Counties.¹

Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal amendments do not significantly affect employment.

Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposal amendments do not significantly affect the use and value of private property.

Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendments do not significantly affect small businesses.

Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed amendments do not significantly affect small businesses.

Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments do not significantly affect real estate development costs.

Legal Mandate. The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Administrative Process Act and Executive Order Number 36 (06). Section 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include, but need not be limited to, the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom the regulation would apply, the identity of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation, and the impact on the use and value of private property. Further, if the proposed regulation has adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include (i) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the regulation; (ii) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other documents; (iii) a statement of the probable effect of the regulation on affected small businesses; and (iv) a description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the regulation. The analysis presented above represents DPB's best estimate of these economic impacts.

________________________

¹ Source: Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy

Agency's Response to the Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis: The agency concurs with Department of Planning and Budget's economic impact analysis.

Summary:

As a result of periodic review, the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy and the Virginia Gas and Oil Board are amending 4VAC25-160, Virginia Gas and Oil Board Regulations, to make technical corrections, improve clarity, increase efficiency, and to restore consistency with other chapters. 4VAC25-160-30, 4VAC25-160-40, 4VAC25-160-50, 4VAC25-160-60, 4VAC25-160-70, and 4VAC25-160-200 will be amended to correct several technical areas for accuracy, and provide clarity. Amending 4VAC25-160-30 will reduce workload and increase efficiency for applicants by providing flexibility and economy in the permit process. Amendments to 4VAC25-160-40, 4VAC25-160-50, and 4VAC25-160-70 are being made to bring consistency to data submission requirements for the Division of Gas and Oil.

4VAC25-160-10. Definitions.

The following words and terms, when used in this chapter, shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

"Act" means the Virginia Gas and Oil Act of 1990, Chapter 22.1 (§ 45.1-361.1 et seq.) of Title 45.1 of the Code of Virginia.

"Applicant" or "petitioner" means a person or business who files an application, petition, appeal or other request for board action with the Division of Gas and Oil.

"Board" means the Virginia Gas and Oil Board.

"Complete application" means all the materials required to be filed by the applicant under this chapter.

"Department" means the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy or his authorized agent.

"Directional survey" means a well survey that measures the degree of deviation of a hole, or distance, from the vertical and the direction of departure.

"Division" means the Division of Gas and Oil of the Department of Mines, Minerals and Energy.

"Division Director" means the Director of the Division of Gas and Oil.

"Election" means the performance of an act within the time established or required by statute, order or regulation. An election required to be made by board order or regulation must be in writing and (i) be personally delivered to the person or agent of the person described in the order or regulation by the date established or required, or (ii) be mailed to the person or agent of the person described in the order or regulation at the address stated therein and be postmarked by the United States Postal Service before midnight on the date established or required.

"Field" means the general area underlain by one or more pools.

"Gas/oil ratio" means the product of the number of Mcf of natural gas produced from a well divided by the number of barrels of oil produced from the well as determined by a gas/oil ratio test.

"Gas well" means any well which produces or appears capable of producing a ratio of 6,000 cubic feet (6 Mcf) of gas or more to each barrel of oil, on the basis of a gas-oil ratio test.

"Inclination survey" means a well survey to determine the deviation, using the surface location of the well as the apex, of a well bore from the true vertical beneath the apex on the same horizontal subsurface plane.

"Mcf" means, when used with reference to natural gas, 1,000 cubic feet of gas at a pressure base of 14.73 pounds per square inch gauge and a temperature base of 60°F.

"Mine development plan" means a permit or license application filed with the Division of Mines or Mined Land Reclamation for legal permission to engage in extraction of coal resources.

"Oil well" means any well which produces or appears capable of producing a ratio of less than 6,000 cubic feet (6 Mcf) of gas to each barrel of oil, on the basis of a gas-oil ratio test.

"Petitioner" means any person or business who files a petition, appeal, or other request for action with the Division of Gas and Oil or the Virginia Gas and Oil Board.

"Pooling" means the combining of all interests or estates in a gas, oil or coalbed methane drilling unit for the development and operations thereof. Pooling may be accomplished either through voluntary agreement or through a compulsory order of the board.

"Respondent" means a person named in an application, petition, appeal or other request for board action and against whom relief is sought by the applicant, or a person who under the terms of a board order, is required to make an election.

"Unit operator" means the gas or oil owner designated by the board to operate in or on a pooled unit.

4VAC25-160-30. Administrative provisions.

A. The Virginia Gas and Oil Board shall meet on the third Tuesday of each calendar month unless no action is required by the board or unless otherwise scheduled by the board. All hearings shall be scheduled in accordance with the requirements for notice by publication in § 45.1-361.19 of the Code of Virginia. Except where otherwise established by the Act, the board may establish deadlines for filing materials for meetings or hearings scheduled on other than the third Tuesday of each month.

B. Applications to the board must be filed by the following deadlines:

1. All applications, petitions, appeals or other requests for board action must be received by the division at least 30 calendar days prior to the regularly scheduled meeting of the board. If the 30th day falls on a weekend or a legal holiday, the deadline shall be the prior business day.

2. When required, two copies of the following material must be filed with the division at least seven calendar days prior to the regularly scheduled meeting of the board in order for the application to be considered a complete application:

a. The affidavit demonstrating that due diligence was used to locate and serve persons in accordance with § 45.1-361.19 of the Code of Virginia and 4VAC25-160-40; and

b. Proof of notice by publication in accordance with 4VAC25-160-40 D.

C. A complete application that is not filed by the deadlines of this subsection shall be carried over to the next scheduled meeting of the board. A submission that does not contain a complete application shall not be considered by the board until the application is complete.

D. The division shall assign a docket number to each application or petition at the time of payment receipt and filing, and. The division shall notify the applicant of the completed filing and assigned docket number. The docket number shall be referenced when submitting material regarding the application or petition.

E. In addition to the other requirements of this chapter, applications to the board shall meet the following standards:

1. Each application for a hearing before the board shall be headed by a caption which shall contain a heading including:

a. "Before the Virginia Gas and Oil board Board";

b. The name of the applicant;

c. The relief sought; and

d. The docket number assigned by the division.

2. Each application shall be signed by the applicant, an authorized agent of the applicant, or an attorney for the applicant, certifying that, "The foregoing application to the best of my knowledge, information, and belief is true and correct."

3. Exhibits shall be identified by the docket number and an exhibit number and may be introduced as part of a person's presentation.

4. Persons Applicants shall submit 10 eight sets of each application and exhibit exhibits. Each person offering exhibits into evidence shall also have available a reasonably sufficient number of exhibits for other persons who are subject to the provisions of §§ 45.1-361.19 and 45.1-361.23 of the Code of Virginia, who have notified the division by certified mail notice of their request for copies of exhibits, and are expected to be in attendance at the hearing.

F. Applications for the establishment and modification of units, spacing or pooling shall be accompanied by a $130 nonrefundable fee, payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.

G. All parties in any proceeding before the board are entitled to appear in person or be represented by counsel or other qualified representative, as provided for in the Administrative Process Act, § 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia.

4VAC25-160-40. Notice of hearings.

A. Each applicant for a hearing to establish an exception to statewide spacing under § 45.1-361.17 of the Code of Virginia shall provide notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, to all gas, oil, coal or mineral owners having an interest underlying any tract located within the distances provided in § 45.1-361.17 of the Code of Virginia or the distance to the nearest well completed in the same pool, whichever is less. Each applicant for a hearing to establish an exception to a well location provided for in a drilling unit established by an order of the board shall provide notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, to all gas, oil, coal or mineral owners having an interest underlying the unit where the exception is requested.

B. Each applicant shall include, in or with the mailed notice of the hearing required under § 45.1-361.19 of the Code of Virginia, the following information:

1. The name and address of the applicant and the applicant's counsel, if any;

2. In the case of an application to vacate or amend an order, identification of the order to be vacated or amended;

3. A statement of the relief sought and proposed provisions of the order or proposed order;

4. Citations of statutes, rules, orders and decided cases supporting the relief sought;

5. A statement of the type of well or wells (gas, oil or coalbed methane gas);

6. a. For a pooling order, the notice should include: a plat showing the size and shape of the proposed unit and boundaries of tracts within the unit. The location of the proposed unit shall be shown in accordance with the Virginia Coordinate System of 1927 1983, as defined in Chapter 17 (§ 55-287 et seq.) of Title 55 of the Code of Virginia, also known as the State Plane Coordinate System. The proposed unit shall also be located by taking the measured distance in feet from the unit to the nearest 2.5 minute longitude line to the east and the nearest 2.5 minute latitude line to the north on the 7.5 minute (1:24,000) topographic map, with a notation of the 7.5 minute topographic map name and series. The plat containing shall include property lines taken from (i) deed descriptions and chain of title, (ii) county courthouse records, or (iii) a physical survey for each land track in the unit. The location of the well and the percentage of acreage in each tract in the unit shall be certified by a licensed land surveyor or a licensed professional engineer and attested by the applicant as to its conformity to existing orders issued by the board;

b. For a field rule, the notice should include: a description of the pool or pools in the field, the boundaries of the field, information on the acreage and boundaries of the units proposed to be in the field and any proposed allowable production rates; or

c. For a location exception, the notice should include: a description of the proposed well location in relation to other wells within statewide spacing limits or in relation to the allowable area for drilling within a unit;

7. A description of the interest or claim of the respondent being notified;

8. A description of the formation or formations to be produced;

9. An estimate of the amount of reserves of the unit;

10. An estimate of the allowable costs in accordance with 4VAC25-160-100; and

11. How interested persons may obtain additional information or a complete copy of the application.

C. When after a diligent search the identity or location of any person to whom notice is required to be given in accordance with subsection A or B of this section is unknown at the time the applicant applies for a hearing before the board, the applicant for the hearing shall cause a notice to be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the county, counties, city, or cities where the land or the major portion thereof which is the subject of the application is located. The notice shall include:

1. The name and address of the applicant;

2. A description of the action to be considered by the board;

3. A map showing the general location of the area which that would be affected by the proposed action or and a description which that clearly describes the location or boundaries of the area which that would be affected by the proposed action sufficient to enable local residents to identify the area;

4. The date, time and location of the hearing at which the application is scheduled to be heard; and

5. How interested persons may obtain additional information or a complete copy of the application.

D. Notice of a hearing made in accordance with § 45.1-361.19 of the Code of Virginia or this section shall be sufficient, and no additional notice is required to be made by the applicant upon a postponement or continuance of the hearing.

E. Each applicant for a hearing to modify an order established under § 45.1-361.21 or § 45.1-361.22 of the Code of Virginia shall provide notice in accordance with § 45.1-361.19 of the Code of Virginia to each person having an interest underlying the tract or tracts to be affected by the proposed modification.

F. An applicant filing a petition to modify a forced pooling order established under § 45.1-361.21 or § 45.1-361.22 of the Code of Virginia to change the unit operator based on a change in the corporate name of the unit operator; a change in the corporate structure of the unit operator; or a transfer of the unit operator's interests to any single subsidiary, parent or successor by merger or consolidation is not required to provide notice. Other applicants for a hearing to modify a forced pooling order shall provide notice in accordance with § 45.1-361.19 of the Code of Virginia to each respondent named in the order to be modified whose interest may be affected by the proposed modification.

4VAC25-160-50. Applications for field rules.

Each application filed under § 45.1-361.20 of the Code of Virginia to establish or modify a field rule, a drilling unit or drilling units shall contain:

1. The name and address of the applicant and the applicant's counsel, if any;

2. In the case of an application to vacate or amend an order, identification of the order to be vacated or amended;

3. A statement of the relief sought and the proposed provisions of the order or a proposed order;

4. Citations of statutes, rules, orders, and decided cases supporting the relief sought;

5. In the case where a field rule is proposed to be established or modified:

a. A statement of the type of field (gas, oil or coalbed methane gas);

b. A description of the proposed formation or formations subject to the petition; and

c. A description of the pool or pools included in the field, based on geological and technical data, including the boundaries of the pool or pools and field, shown in accordance with the Virginia Coordinate System of 1927 1983, as defined in Chapter 17 (§ 55-287 et seq.) of Title 55 of the Code of Virginia, also known as the State Plane Coordinate System. The boundaries of the pool or pools and field shall also be located by taking the measured distance in feet from the unit to the nearest 2.5 minute longitude line to the east and the nearest 2.5 minute latitude line to the north on the 7.5 minute (1:24,000) topographic map, with a notation of the 7.5 minute topographic map name and series;

6. In the case where a drilling unit or units are proposed to be established or modified:

a. A statement of the acreage to be embraced within each drilling unit;

b. A description of the formation or formations to be produced by the well or wells in the unit or units; and

c. The boundaries of the drilling unit or units shown in accordance with subdivision 5 c of this section;

7. A statement of the amount of acreage to be included in the order;

8. A statement of the proposed allowable production rate or rates and supporting documentation, if applicable;

9. Evidence that any proposal to establish or modify a unit or units for coalbed methane gas will meet the requirements of § 45.1-361.20 C of the Code of Virginia;

10. An affidavit demonstrating that due diligence was used to locate and serve persons in accordance with § 45.1-361.19 of the Code of Virginia and 4VAC25-160-40; and

11. When required, proof of notice by publication in accordance with 4VAC25-160-40 D C.

4VAC25-160-60. Applications for exceptions to minimum well spacing requirements.

Applications for an exception to statewide spacing under § 45.1-361.17 of the Code of Virginia or under a field rule issued by the board shall contain the following:

1. The name and address of the applicant and the applicant's counsel, if any;

2. In the case of an application for an exception to spacing established in a field rule, identification of the order governing spacing in the field;

3. A statement of the proposed location of the well in relation to wells permitted or for which a permit application is pending before the Division of Gas and Oil at the time of filing within the distances prescribed in § 45.1-361.17 of the Code of Virginia;

4. A description of the formation or formations to be produced by the well proposed for alternative spacing and the wells identified in subdivision 3 of this section;

5. A description of the conditions justifying the alternative spacing;

6. An affidavit demonstrating that due diligence was used to locate and serve persons in accordance with 4VAC25-160-40; and

7. When required, proof of notice by publication in accordance with 4VAC25-160-40 D C.

4VAC25-160-70. Applications to pool interests in a drilling unit: conventional gas or oil or no conflicting claims to coalbed methane gas ownership.

A. Applications filed under § 45.1-361.21 of the Code of Virginia to pool interests in a drilling unit for conventional gas or oil or for coalbed methane gas where there are no conflicting claims to ownership of the coalbed methane gas, except as provided for in subsection B of this section, shall contain the following:

1. The name and address of the applicant and the applicant's counsel, if any;

2. In the case of an application to vacate or amend an order, identification of the order to be vacated or amended;

3. A statement of the relief sought and proposed provisions of the order or a proposed order;

4. Citations of statutes, rules, orders, and decided cases supporting the relief sought;

5. A statement of the type of well or wells (gas, oil or coalbed methane gas);

6. The permit number or numbers, if any have been issued;

7. A plat showing the size and shape of the proposed unit and boundaries of tracts within the unit, shown in accordance with the Virginia Coordinate System of 1927 1983, as defined in Chapter 17 (§ 55-287 et seq.) of Title 55 of the Code of Virginia, also known as the State Plane Coordinate System. The proposed unit shall also be located by taking the measured distance in feet from the unit to the nearest 2.5 minute longitude line to the east and the nearest 2.5 minute latitude line to the north on the 7.5 minute (1:24,000) topographic map, with a notation of the 7.5 minute topographic map name and series. Also included shall be the names of owners of record of the tracts, and the percentage of acreage in each tract, certified by a licensed land surveyor or a licensed professional engineer and attested by the applicant as to its conformity to existing orders issued by the board;

8. A description of the status of interests to be pooled in the unit at the time the application is filed;

9. For an application to pool a coalbed methane gas unit, a statement of the percentage of the total interest held by the applicant in the proposed unit at the time the application for the hearing is filed;

10. A statement of the names of owners and the percentage of interests to be escrowed under § 45.1-361.21 D of the Code of Virginia for each owner whose location is unknown at the time the application for the hearing is filed;

11. A description of the formation or formations to be produced;

12. An estimate of production over the life of well or wells, and, if different, an estimate of the recoverable reserves of the unit;

13. An estimate of the allowable costs in accordance with 4VAC25-160-100;

14. An affidavit demonstrating that due diligence was used to locate and serve persons in accordance with § 45.1-361.19 of the Code of Virginia and 4VAC25-160-40 C; and

15. When required, proof of notice by publication in accordance with 4VAC25-160-40 D C.

B. Applications to amend an order pooling interests in a drilling unit may be filed by written stipulation of all persons affected. The application is not required to contain the information specified in subsection A of this section, but shall contain the proposed amended language to the order, shown by interlineation.

C. After Within 45 days after the time for election provided in any pooling order has expired, the unit operator shall file an affidavit with the board stating whether or not any elections were made. If any elections were made, the affidavit shall name each respondent making an election and describe the election made. The affidavit shall state if no elections were made or if any response was untimely. The affidavit shall be accompanied by a proposed supplemental order to be made and recorded to complete the record regarding elections. The affidavit and proposed supplemental order shall be filed by the unit operator within 45 days of the last day on which a timely election could have been delivered or mailed, or within 45 days of the last date for payment set forth in the pooling order, whichever occurs last. The applicant shall mail a true and correct copy of any supplemental order to all persons identified in the supplemental order.

4VAC25-160-130. Appeals of the director's decisions.

A. Appeals of the division director's decisions shall be filed in writing, at the office of the division, in accordance with §§ 45.1-361.23 and 45.1-361.36 of the Code of Virginia.

B. A petition to appeal a decision of the division director shall contain:

1. The name and address of the petitioner and the petitioner's counsel, if any;

2. Identification of the decision being appealed, and the date the decision was issued;

3. A statement identifying the standing of the petitioner to appeal;

4. A statement setting forth the reasons for the appeal, including errors alleged in the director's decision and the reasons why the decision is deemed contrary to law or regulation;

5. A statement that the issues on appeal were in fact raised as required by § 45.1-361.36 B of the Code of Virginia;

6. A statement setting forth the specific relief requested; and

7. When a stay to any proposed activity allowed as a result of the director's decision is desired, a request for the stay and the basis for granting the stay.

C. Upon receipt of an appeal containing a request for a stay, the division director shall decide on the request in accordance with § 45.1-361.23 D of the Code of Virginia.

4VAC25-160-190. Civil charges.

A. Civil charges shall be provided for in accordance with § 45.1-361.8 C of the Code of Virginia.

B. The division director, after finding any violation of the Act, a regulation promulgated under the Act, or order of the director or board, or upon direction from the board, may recommend a civil charge against a gas, oil or geophysical operator and shall base the recommendation on the Civil Charge Calculation Procedure established by order of the board.

4VAC25-160-200. Surveys and tests.

A. Deviation tests.

1. An inclination survey shall be made on all rotary drilled wells located in accordance with a field rule established by the board. An inclination survey is not required for wells drilled in accordance with the distance limitations of § 45.1-361.17 of the Code of Virginia.

2. The first shot point shall be at a depth not greater than the bottom of the surface casing or, for a well drilled through a coal seam, at a depth not greater than that of the bottom of the coal protection string. Succeeding shot points shall be no more than 1,000 feet apart, or as otherwise ordered by the director.

3. Inclination surveys conforming to these requirements may be made either during the normal course of drilling or after the well has reached total depth. Survey data shall be certified in writing as being true and correct by the designated agent or person in charge of a permittee's Virginia operations, or the drilling contractor, and shall indicate the resultant lateral deviation as the maximum calculated lateral displacement determined at any inclination survey point in a horizon approved for production, by an order of the board or a permit approved by the director, assuming that all displacement occurs in the direction of the nearest boundary of the unit. The resultant lateral deviation shall be recorded on the drilling or completion report filed by the permittee.

4. If a directional survey determining the location of the bottom of the hole is filed upon completion of the well, it shall not be necessary to file the inclination survey data.

5. A directional survey shall be made when:

a. A well is directionally controlled and is thereby intentionally deflected from vertical;

b. The resultant lateral deviation of any well, calculated from inclination survey data, is greater than the distance from the center of the surface location of the well bore to the nearest boundary of the area where drilling is allowed in a unit established by the board; or

c. A well is drilled as an exception location and a directional survey is ordered by the board.

6. The board or the director, on their own initiative or at the request of a gas or oil owner on a contiguous unit or tract, may require the permittee drilling any well to make a directional survey of the well if there is reasonable cause therefor. Whenever a survey is required by the board or the director at the request of a contiguous owner and the permittee of the well and contiguous owner are unable to agree as to the terms and conditions for making the directional survey, the permittee shall pay for the survey if the bottom hole location is found to be outside of the area approved for drilling, and the contiguous owner shall pay for the survey if the bottom hole location is found to be inside of the area approved for drilling.

7. Directional surveys shall be run from total depth to the base of the surface casing or coal protection string, unless otherwise approved by the board or the director. In the event that the proposed or final location of the producing interval or intervals of any well is not in accordance with this section or a board order, the unit operator shall apply to the board for an exception to spacing. However, directional surveys to total depth shall not be required in cases where the interval below the latest survey is less than 500 feet, and in such an instance, a projection of the latest survey shall be deemed to satisfy board requirements.

8. The results of each inclination or directional survey made in accordance with this section shall be filed by the permittee with the first drilling or completion report required by the department division.

B. Flow potential and gas/oil ratio tests: conventional gas or oil wells.

1. If a gas or oil well appears capable of producing gas or oil, the permittee shall conduct a potential flow test and a gas/oil ratio test within 10 14 days after the well is completed and capable of producing gas or oil. The permittee shall file the test results, electronically or in writing, with the director division. The director division director shall hold the test results confidential in accordance with § 45.1-361.6 of the Code of Virginia.

2. If a permittee deepens or stimulates a well after the initial potential flow test and gas/oil ratio test have been conducted, when determined to be necessary by the permittee or when requested by the board, the permittee shall conduct another potential flow test and gas/oil ratio test and, within 30 days after completing the test, file the results, in writing, with the director division.

3. A back-flow method of determining open flow shall be used, such as provided for in recommended by the Interstate Oil and Gas Compact Commission, "Manual of Back-Pressure Testing of Gas Wells," 1979 2000. However, when a back-flow method is believed not to be feasible, the permittee shall obtain prior approval from the director division, and test the well in accordance with, an alternate method approved by the director that does not entail excessive physical waste of gas.

C. Testing of coalbed methane gas wells. If a permittee cannot test the potential flow of a coalbed methane gas well by a back-flow method or complete the test within the time period required in subdivision B 1 of this section, the permittee may request approval from the director to perform a coalbed methane gas production test. Such a test shall only be made when the water production and the gas flow rates are stabilized for a period of not less than 10 14 days prior to the test. The test shall be conducted for a minimum of 24 hours in the manner approved by the director. The permittee shall file the test results, electronically or in writing, with the director division. The director division director shall hold the test results confidential in accordance with § 45.1-361.6 of the Code of Virginia.

D. The board may, by order and after notice and hearing, require a permittee to complete other tests on any well.

Titles of Regulations: 8VAC20-280. Jointly Owned and Operated Schools and Jointly Operated Programs (repealing 8VAC20-280-10, 8VAC20-280-20).

8VAC20-281. Regulations Governing Jointly Owned and Operated Schools and Jointly Operated Programs (adding 8VAC20-281-10, 8VAC20-281-20, 8VAC20-281-30).

Statutory Authority: § 22.1-16 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: October 19, 2009.

Agency Contact: Dr. Margaret N. Roberts, Office of Policy & Communications, Department of Education, P.O. Box 2120, 101 N. 14th St., 25th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 225-2540, FAX (804) 225-2524, or email margaret.roberts@doe.virginia.gov.

Summary:

The Regulations Governing Jointly Owned and Operated Schools and Jointly Operated Programs were adopted on or before September 1, 1980. These regulations have not been amended since then and do not address changes made in these programs since that time. Joint schools include academic-year Governor's schools, alternative education centers, career and technical centers, and special education centers. In a concurrent action, the Board of Education is repealing the text of the current regulations (8VAC20-280) and promulgating new regulations (8VAC20-281).

Significant changes are made to the original regulations. The first section is deleted because it is primarily aspirational; the second section is reorganized, revised, and streamlined; and a definitions section is added for clarity. The regulations also make membership requirements of the governing board of the joint school less restrictive and, in response to Chapter 45 of the 2007 Acts of Assembly, specify that the fiscal agent of the school board can be selected from any of the treasurers of the participating localities.

A new section is added to the final regulation pursuant to Chapter 49 of the 2008 Act of Assembly permitting any joint school already in operation to request a waiver from any new regulation requirements promulgated, effective July 1, 2008.

Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar of Regulations.

CHAPTER 281
REGULATIONS GOVERNING JOINTLY OWNED AND OPERATED SCHOOLS AND JOINTLY OPERATED PROGRAMS

8VAC20-281-10. Definitions.

The following words and terms apply only to these regulations and do not supersede those definitions used for federal reporting purposes or for the calculation of costs related to the Standards of Quality (§ 22.1-253.13:1 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). When used in these regulations, these words shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

[ "Alternative education program" means any program designed to offer instruction to students for whom the regular program of instruction may be inappropriate, as defined in § 22.1-276.01 of the Code of Virginia, and as prescribed in the Rules Governing Alternative Education (8VAC20-330).

"Classification of expenditures" means a system of accounting for all school funds, as prescribed in § 22.1-115 of the Code of Virginia.

"Finance officer" means fiscal agent for the joint school. ]

"Fiscal agent" means the treasurer of a county or city in which a joint school is physically located or the treasurer from one of the participating localities as selected by agreement of the participating local school boards with approval of the participating local governing bodies. (See [ also "finance officer" or ] "treasurer.")

"Joint board" means the governing board of the joint school. The joint board is composed of at least one member from each participating local school board.

"Joint school" means a [ program or school established by two or more local school boards, including a regional public charter school, as defined in § 22.1-212.5 of the Code of Virginia, or a comprehensive school offering part- or full-day programs joint or regional school or program established by two or more local school boards, pursuant to § 22.1-26 of the Code of Virginia, which may include but is not limited to a regional public charter school, a regional residential charter school, a regional academic year Governor's school, a regional career and technical center, a regional special education program, or a regional alternative education program as defined in § 22.1-209.1:2 of the Code of Virginia ].

"Operation and maintenance" means budget preparation, contracts for services, personnel matters, use of or construction of a school building and grounds and the operation and maintenance thereof, and the provision of any services, activity, or undertaking that the joint school is required to perform in order to carry out its educational program.

"Regional public charter school" means a public charter school operated by two or more school boards and chartered directly by the participating school boards, as defined in § 22.1-212.5 of the Code of Virginia.

"Treasurer" means the fiscal agent of the joint school, in accordance with § 58.1-3123 of the Code of Virginia.

8VAC20-281-20. Organization and operating procedures.

Two or more school boards, by individual resolution, may establish a joint board to manage and control schools or programs jointly owned and operated in accordance with the following requirements:

1. Membership. The membership of the joint board shall be composed of at least one member of each of the local school boards participating in the joint program. Each school board shall fill any vacancies in its membership on the joint board. If a member of the joint board ceases to be a member of the school board that elected him, the local school board shall appoint his successor to the joint board. If at any time the number of members of the joint board shall fall below a quorum, the local board shall appoint a member to fill the vacancy or vacancies within 30 calendar days.

Members of the joint board may receive compensation fixed by each of the participating school boards. This compensation shall be paid by the local boards and shall not exceed the amount paid for service on the local school boards.

The joint board shall adopt bylaws or rules of operation and shall establish the length and beginning dates or terms of its members and establish committees that might be needed to carry out its responsibilities. Such bylaws shall address the receipt, custody, and disbursement of funds and the payment of all claims related to the operation and maintenance of the joint facility, consistent with the state statutes and regulations of the Board of Education.

2. Organization. The joint board shall elect from its membership a chairman who shall preside at its meetings and a vice-chairman who shall preside in the absence of the chairman.

The joint board shall elect a clerk and, if desired, a deputy clerk. Neither the clerk nor the deputy clerk shall be a member of the joint board but shall keep record of the proceedings. The compensation of the clerk and the deputy clerk shall be fixed by the joint board. The clerk and the deputy clerk shall execute bond of at least $10,000, as provided by § 22.1-76 of the Code of Virginia.

[ The joint board also shall elect a finance officer, who shall have custody of its funds, fix the compensation, and provide for bond. All disbursements shall be by warrant signed by the clerk of the joint board and countersigned by the finance officer. Through its finance officer, the joint board shall arrange for the safe depository of the funds and, where necessary, see that sufficient collateral is posted to secure such funds. ]

3. Authority. The joint board shall be authorized to employ the staff required to operate the joint school and programs; purchase supplies; purchase, sell, or dispose of equipment or appliances; determine policies concerning instruction; approve the curriculum in keeping with the general laws, and with the regulations and requirements of the Virginia Board of Education; maintain jointly owned school buildings; and, in general, manage, operate, and conduct joint schools and programs.

The title to all property acquired for joint schools shall vest jointly in the participating school boards in such respective proportions as the participating school boards may determine, and the schools or programs shall be managed and controlled by the participating school boards jointly. With the approval of the participating school boards and the respective local governing bodies, title to property acquired for a joint school shall be vested in the governing body of such school.

Except as otherwise provided, all meetings and procedures of the joint board shall be in accordance with provisions of §§ 22.1-72 through 22.1-75 of the Code of Virginia. Any action by the joint board shall be deemed an action by the school boards jointly owning such school.

4. Authority of the division superintendent. The division superintendents representing the counties or cities of the school boards that form the joint board shall constitute a Committee of Superintendents and shall jointly exercise the same authority they have in the counties or cities for which they are appointed. With the approval of their respective school boards, the division superintendents may elect one of their members as executive officer in whom may be vested such authority as the superintendents may from time to time find advisable.

The Committee of Superintendents shall prepare, with the advice and approval of the joint board, an annual program plan, budget, and plan for financing the operation of the joint school that would include appropriate state and local funding from each participating school division. The financing plan shall include an estimate of the amount of money that will be needed from each participating school system during the next scholastic year for operation and maintenance of the joint school facility. The estimate shall clearly show all necessary details and be provided in a timely manner so that the participating school boards may be well-informed about every item included in the estimate.

In case of disagreement, all matters shall be referred to the joint board for resolution.

5. Budget and expenditures. Each participating school board shall review and approve the annual budget presented by the joint board and provide funds to cover its share of the cost of operating and maintaining the joint school facility. The amount provided by each participating school board shall be made available for expenditures by the joint board as follows:

a. Funds to be provided by participating school boards shall be made available to the joint board upon its requests.

b. Funds to be provided on a fee for service basis shall be paid to the joint board upon receipt of an appropriate invoice.

On a regular monthly basis, the clerk of the joint board shall transmit to the Committee of Superintendents of the participating school boards an itemized statement of receipts and disbursements during the preceding months, with a cumulative statement of all receipts and disbursements since the beginning of the current fiscal year.

[ 8VAC20-281-30. Waiver of regulations' requirements.

Effective July 1, 2008, a joint school or program in operation prior to October 19, 2009, may request a waiver of the new requirements of the regulations. This waiver request shall be submitted to the Board of Education in a manner prescribed by the board. If the Board of Education grants the waiver request, the approved school shall continue to operate under the previous version of the regulations. ]

Titles of Regulations: 8VAC20-280. Jointly Owned and Operated Schools and Jointly Operated Programs (repealing 8VAC20-280-10, 8VAC20-280-20).

8VAC20-281. Regulations Governing Jointly Owned and Operated Schools and Jointly Operated Programs (adding 8VAC20-281-10, 8VAC20-281-20, 8VAC20-281-30).

Statutory Authority: § 22.1-16 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: October 19, 2009.

Agency Contact: Dr. Margaret N. Roberts, Office of Policy & Communications, Department of Education, P.O. Box 2120, 101 N. 14th St., 25th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 225-2540, FAX (804) 225-2524, or email margaret.roberts@doe.virginia.gov.

Summary:

The Regulations Governing Jointly Owned and Operated Schools and Jointly Operated Programs were adopted on or before September 1, 1980. These regulations have not been amended since then and do not address changes made in these programs since that time. Joint schools include academic-year Governor's schools, alternative education centers, career and technical centers, and special education centers. In a concurrent action, the Board of Education is repealing the text of the current regulations (8VAC20-280) and promulgating new regulations (8VAC20-281).

Significant changes are made to the original regulations. The first section is deleted because it is primarily aspirational; the second section is reorganized, revised, and streamlined; and a definitions section is added for clarity. The regulations also make membership requirements of the governing board of the joint school less restrictive and, in response to Chapter 45 of the 2007 Acts of Assembly, specify that the fiscal agent of the school board can be selected from any of the treasurers of the participating localities.

A new section is added to the final regulation pursuant to Chapter 49 of the 2008 Act of Assembly permitting any joint school already in operation to request a waiver from any new regulation requirements promulgated, effective July 1, 2008.

Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar of Regulations.

CHAPTER 281
REGULATIONS GOVERNING JOINTLY OWNED AND OPERATED SCHOOLS AND JOINTLY OPERATED PROGRAMS

8VAC20-281-10. Definitions.

The following words and terms apply only to these regulations and do not supersede those definitions used for federal reporting purposes or for the calculation of costs related to the Standards of Quality (§ 22.1-253.13:1 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). When used in these regulations, these words shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

[ "Alternative education program" means any program designed to offer instruction to students for whom the regular program of instruction may be inappropriate, as defined in § 22.1-276.01 of the Code of Virginia, and as prescribed in the Rules Governing Alternative Education (8VAC20-330).

"Classification of expenditures" means a system of accounting for all school funds, as prescribed in § 22.1-115 of the Code of Virginia.

"Finance officer" means fiscal agent for the joint school. ]

"Fiscal agent" means the treasurer of a county or city in which a joint school is physically located or the treasurer from one of the participating localities as selected by agreement of the participating local school boards with approval of the participating local governing bodies. (See [ also "finance officer" or ] "treasurer.")

"Joint board" means the governing board of the joint school. The joint board is composed of at least one member from each participating local school board.

"Joint school" means a [ program or school established by two or more local school boards, including a regional public charter school, as defined in § 22.1-212.5 of the Code of Virginia, or a comprehensive school offering part- or full-day programs joint or regional school or program established by two or more local school boards, pursuant to § 22.1-26 of the Code of Virginia, which may include but is not limited to a regional public charter school, a regional residential charter school, a regional academic year Governor's school, a regional career and technical center, a regional special education program, or a regional alternative education program as defined in § 22.1-209.1:2 of the Code of Virginia ].

"Operation and maintenance" means budget preparation, contracts for services, personnel matters, use of or construction of a school building and grounds and the operation and maintenance thereof, and the provision of any services, activity, or undertaking that the joint school is required to perform in order to carry out its educational program.

"Regional public charter school" means a public charter school operated by two or more school boards and chartered directly by the participating school boards, as defined in § 22.1-212.5 of the Code of Virginia.

"Treasurer" means the fiscal agent of the joint school, in accordance with § 58.1-3123 of the Code of Virginia.

8VAC20-281-20. Organization and operating procedures.

Two or more school boards, by individual resolution, may establish a joint board to manage and control schools or programs jointly owned and operated in accordance with the following requirements:

1. Membership. The membership of the joint board shall be composed of at least one member of each of the local school boards participating in the joint program. Each school board shall fill any vacancies in its membership on the joint board. If a member of the joint board ceases to be a member of the school board that elected him, the local school board shall appoint his successor to the joint board. If at any time the number of members of the joint board shall fall below a quorum, the local board shall appoint a member to fill the vacancy or vacancies within 30 calendar days.

Members of the joint board may receive compensation fixed by each of the participating school boards. This compensation shall be paid by the local boards and shall not exceed the amount paid for service on the local school boards.

The joint board shall adopt bylaws or rules of operation and shall establish the length and beginning dates or terms of its members and establish committees that might be needed to carry out its responsibilities. Such bylaws shall address the receipt, custody, and disbursement of funds and the payment of all claims related to the operation and maintenance of the joint facility, consistent with the state statutes and regulations of the Board of Education.

2. Organization. The joint board shall elect from its membership a chairman who shall preside at its meetings and a vice-chairman who shall preside in the absence of the chairman.

The joint board shall elect a clerk and, if desired, a deputy clerk. Neither the clerk nor the deputy clerk shall be a member of the joint board but shall keep record of the proceedings. The compensation of the clerk and the deputy clerk shall be fixed by the joint board. The clerk and the deputy clerk shall execute bond of at least $10,000, as provided by § 22.1-76 of the Code of Virginia.

[ The joint board also shall elect a finance officer, who shall have custody of its funds, fix the compensation, and provide for bond. All disbursements shall be by warrant signed by the clerk of the joint board and countersigned by the finance officer. Through its finance officer, the joint board shall arrange for the safe depository of the funds and, where necessary, see that sufficient collateral is posted to secure such funds. ]

3. Authority. The joint board shall be authorized to employ the staff required to operate the joint school and programs; purchase supplies; purchase, sell, or dispose of equipment or appliances; determine policies concerning instruction; approve the curriculum in keeping with the general laws, and with the regulations and requirements of the Virginia Board of Education; maintain jointly owned school buildings; and, in general, manage, operate, and conduct joint schools and programs.

The title to all property acquired for joint schools shall vest jointly in the participating school boards in such respective proportions as the participating school boards may determine, and the schools or programs shall be managed and controlled by the participating school boards jointly. With the approval of the participating school boards and the respective local governing bodies, title to property acquired for a joint school shall be vested in the governing body of such school.

Except as otherwise provided, all meetings and procedures of the joint board shall be in accordance with provisions of §§ 22.1-72 through 22.1-75 of the Code of Virginia. Any action by the joint board shall be deemed an action by the school boards jointly owning such school.

4. Authority of the division superintendent. The division superintendents representing the counties or cities of the school boards that form the joint board shall constitute a Committee of Superintendents and shall jointly exercise the same authority they have in the counties or cities for which they are appointed. With the approval of their respective school boards, the division superintendents may elect one of their members as executive officer in whom may be vested such authority as the superintendents may from time to time find advisable.

The Committee of Superintendents shall prepare, with the advice and approval of the joint board, an annual program plan, budget, and plan for financing the operation of the joint school that would include appropriate state and local funding from each participating school division. The financing plan shall include an estimate of the amount of money that will be needed from each participating school system during the next scholastic year for operation and maintenance of the joint school facility. The estimate shall clearly show all necessary details and be provided in a timely manner so that the participating school boards may be well-informed about every item included in the estimate.

In case of disagreement, all matters shall be referred to the joint board for resolution.

5. Budget and expenditures. Each participating school board shall review and approve the annual budget presented by the joint board and provide funds to cover its share of the cost of operating and maintaining the joint school facility. The amount provided by each participating school board shall be made available for expenditures by the joint board as follows:

a. Funds to be provided by participating school boards shall be made available to the joint board upon its requests.

b. Funds to be provided on a fee for service basis shall be paid to the joint board upon receipt of an appropriate invoice.

On a regular monthly basis, the clerk of the joint board shall transmit to the Committee of Superintendents of the participating school boards an itemized statement of receipts and disbursements during the preceding months, with a cumulative statement of all receipts and disbursements since the beginning of the current fiscal year.

[ 8VAC20-281-30. Waiver of regulations' requirements.

Effective July 1, 2008, a joint school or program in operation prior to October 19, 2009, may request a waiver of the new requirements of the regulations. This waiver request shall be submitted to the Board of Education in a manner prescribed by the board. If the Board of Education grants the waiver request, the approved school shall continue to operate under the previous version of the regulations. ]

Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-31. Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) Permit Regulation (amending 9VAC25-31-100, 9VAC25-31-290).

Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.15 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: September 30, 2009.

Agency Contact: William K. Norris, Department of Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 698-4022, FAX (804) 698-4347, or email william.norris@deq.virginia.gov.

Summary:

This action implements the legislative changes to the State Water Control Law as a result of Chapter 42 of the 2009 Acts of Assembly. These changes clarify public notice requirements for permit applications for land application acreage increases of 50% or more and clarify when a permit for land application is issued in relation to the public meeting and public comment opportunity on the application. The resulting regulatory changes provide that an application for any permit amendments to increase the acreage authorized by the initial permit by 50% or more shall be treated as a new application for purposes of public notice and public hearings and provide that the board shall not issue the permit for land disposal until the public meeting has been held and comment has been received from the local governing body, or until 30 days have lapsed from the date of the public meeting.

Part II
Permit Applications and Special VPDES Permit Programs

9VAC25-31-100. Application for a permit.

A. Duty to apply. Any person who discharges or proposes to discharge pollutants or who owns or operates a sludge-only facility whose sewage sludge use or disposal practice is regulated by 9VAC25-31-420 through 9VAC25-31-720 and who does not have an effective permit, except persons covered by general permits, excluded from the requirement for a permit by this chapter, or a user of a privately owned treatment works unless the board requires otherwise, shall submit a complete application to the department in accordance with this section. All concentrated animal feeding operations have a duty to seek coverage under a VPDES permit.

B. Who applies. When a facility or activity is owned by one person but is operated by another person, it is the operator's duty to obtain a permit.

C. Time to apply.

1. Any person proposing a new discharge, shall submit an application at least 180 days before the date on which the discharge is to commence, unless permission for a later date has been granted by the board. Facilities proposing a new discharge of storm water associated with industrial activity shall submit an application 180 days before that facility commences industrial activity which may result in a discharge of storm water associated with that industrial activity. Different submittal dates may be required under the terms of applicable general permits. Persons proposing a new discharge are encouraged to submit their applications well in advance of the 90 or 180 day requirements to avoid delay. New discharges composed entirely of storm water, other than those dischargers identified in 9VAC25-31-120 A 1, shall apply for and obtain a permit according to the application requirements in 9VAC25-31-120 B.

2. All TWTDS whose sewage sludge use or disposal practices are regulated by 9VAC25-31-420 through 9VAC25-31-720 must submit permit applications according to the applicable schedule in subdivision 2 a or b of this subsection.

a. A TWTDS with a currently effective VPDES permit must submit a permit application at the time of its next VPDES permit renewal application. Such information must be submitted in accordance with subsection D of this section.

b. Any other TWTDS not addressed under subdivision 2 a of this subsection must submit the information listed in subdivisions 2 b (1) through (5) of this subsection to the department within one year after publication of a standard applicable to its sewage sludge use or disposal practice(s), using a form provided by the department. The board will determine when such TWTDS must submit a full permit application.

(1) The TWTDS's name, mailing address, location, and status as federal, state, private, public or other entity;

(2) The applicant's name, address, telephone number, and ownership status;

(3) A description of the sewage sludge use or disposal practices. Unless the sewage sludge meets the requirements of subdivision P 8 d of this section, the description must include the name and address of any facility where sewage sludge is sent for treatment or disposal and the location of any land application sites;

(4) Annual amount of sewage sludge generated, treated, used or disposed (estimated dry weight basis); and

(5) The most recent data the TWTDS may have on the quality of the sewage sludge.

c. Notwithstanding subdivision 2 a or b of this subsection, the board may require permit applications from any TWTDS at any time if the board determines that a permit is necessary to protect public health and the environment from any potential adverse effects that may occur from toxic pollutants in sewage sludge.

d. Any TWTDS that commences operations after promulgation of an applicable standard for sewage sludge use or disposal shall submit an application to the department at least 180 days prior to the date proposed for commencing operations.

D. Duty to reapply. All permittees with a currently effective permit shall submit a new application at least 180 days before the expiration date of the existing permit, unless permission for a later date has been granted by the board. The board shall not grant permission for applications to be submitted later than the expiration date of the existing permit.

E. Completeness.

1. The board shall not issue a permit before receiving a complete application for a permit except for VPDES general permits. An application for a permit is complete when the board receives an application form and any supplemental information which are completed to its satisfaction. The completeness of any application for a permit shall be judged independently of the status of any other permit application or permit for the same facility or activity.

2. No application for a VPDES permit to discharge sewage into or adjacent to state waters from a privately owned treatment works serving, or designed to serve, 50 or more residences shall be considered complete unless the applicant has provided the department with notification from the State Corporation Commission that the applicant is incorporated in the Commonwealth and is in compliance with all regulations and relevant orders of the State Corporation Commission.

3. No application for a new individual VPDES permit authorizing a new discharge of sewage, industrial wastes, or other wastes shall be considered complete unless it contains notification from the county, city, or town in which the discharge is to take place that the location and operation of the discharging facility are consistent with applicable ordinances adopted pursuant to Chapter 22 (§ 15.2-2200 et seq.) of Title 15.2 of the Code of Virginia. The county, city or town shall inform in writing the applicant and the board of the discharging facility's compliance or noncompliance not more than 30 days from receipt by the chief administrative officer, or his agent, of a request from the applicant. Should the county, city or town fail to provide such written notification within 30 days, the requirement for such notification is waived. The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to any discharge for which a valid VPDES permit had been issued prior to March 10, 2000.

4. A permit application shall not be considered complete if the board has waived application requirements under subsection J or P of this section and the EPA has disapproved the waiver application. If a waiver request has been submitted to the EPA more than 210 days prior to permit expiration and the EPA has not disapproved the waiver application 181 days prior to permit expiration, the permit application lacking the information subject to the waiver application shall be considered complete.

5. In accordance with § 62.1-44.19:3 A of the Code of Virginia, no application for a permit or variance to authorize the storage of sewage sludge shall be complete unless it contains certification from the governing body of the locality in which the sewage sludge is to be stored that the storage site is consistent with all applicable ordinances. The governing body shall confirm or deny consistency within 30 days of receiving a request for certification. If the governing body does not so respond, the site shall be deemed consistent.

F. Information requirements. All applicants for VPDES permits, other than POTWs and other TWTDS, shall provide the following information to the department, using the application form provided by the department (additional information required of applicants is set forth in subsections G through K of this section).

1. The activities conducted by the applicant which require it to obtain a VPDES permit;

2. Name, mailing address, and location of the facility for which the application is submitted;

3. Up to four SIC codes which best reflect the principal products or services provided by the facility;

4. The operator's name, address, telephone number, ownership status, and status as federal, state, private, public, or other entity;

5. Whether the facility is located on Indian lands;

6. A listing of all permits or construction approvals received or applied for under any of the following programs:

a. Hazardous Waste Management program under RCRA (42 USC § 6921);

b. UIC program under SDWA (42 USC § 300h);

c. VPDES program under the CWA and the law;

d. Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) program under the Clean Air Act (42 USC § 4701 et seq.);

e. Nonattainment program under the Clean Air Act (42 USC § 4701 et seq.);

f. National Emission Standards for Hazardous Pollutants (NESHAPS) preconstruction approval under the Clean Air Act (42 USC § 4701 et seq.);

g. Ocean dumping permits under the Marine Protection Research and Sanctuaries Act (33 USC § 14 et seq.);

h. Dredge or fill permits under § 404 of the CWA; and

i. Other relevant environmental permits, including state permits.

7. A topographic map (or other map if a topographic map is unavailable) extending one mile beyond the property boundaries of the source, depicting the facility and each of its intake and discharge structures; each of its hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities; each well where fluids from the facility are injected underground; and those wells, springs, other surface water bodies, and drinking water wells listed in public records or otherwise known to the applicant in the map area; and

8. A brief description of the nature of the business.

G. Application requirements for existing manufacturing, commercial, mining, and silvicultural dischargers. Existing manufacturing, commercial mining, and silvicultural dischargers applying for VPDES permits, except for those facilities subject to the requirements of 9VAC25-31-100 H, shall provide the following information to the department, using application forms provided by the department.

1. The latitude and longitude of each outfall to the nearest 15 seconds and the name of the receiving water.

2. A line drawing of the water flow through the facility with a water balance, showing operations contributing wastewater to the effluent and treatment units. Similar processes, operations, or production areas may be indicated as a single unit, labeled to correspond to the more detailed identification under subdivision 3 of this subsection. The water balance must show approximate average flows at intake and discharge points and between units, including treatment units. If a water balance cannot be determined (for example, for certain mining activities), the applicant may provide instead a pictorial description of the nature and amount of any sources of water and any collection and treatment measures.

3. A narrative identification of each type of process, operation, or production area which contributes wastewater to the effluent for each outfall, including process wastewater, cooling water, and storm water run-off; the average flow which each process contributes; and a description of the treatment the wastewater receives, including the ultimate disposal of any solid or fluid wastes other than by discharge. Processes, operations, or production areas may be described in general terms (for example, dye-making reactor, distillation tower). For a privately owned treatment works, this information shall include the identity of each user of the treatment works. The average flow of point sources composed of storm water may be estimated. The basis for the rainfall event and the method of estimation must be indicated.

4. If any of the discharges described in subdivision 3 of this subsection are intermittent or seasonal, a description of the frequency, duration and flow rate of each discharge occurrence (except for storm water run-off, spillage or leaks).

5. If an effluent guideline promulgated under § 304 of the CWA applies to the applicant and is expressed in terms of production (or other measure of operation), a reasonable measure of the applicant's actual production reported in the units used in the applicable effluent guideline. The reported measure must reflect the actual production of the facility.

6. If the applicant is subject to any present requirements or compliance schedules for construction, upgrading or operation of waste treatment equipment, an identification of the abatement requirement, a description of the abatement project, and a listing of the required and projected final compliance dates.

7. a. Information on the discharge of pollutants specified in this subdivision (except information on storm water discharges which is to be provided as specified in 9VAC25-31-120). When quantitative data for a pollutant are required, the applicant must collect a sample of effluent and analyze it for the pollutant in accordance with analytical methods approved under 40 CFR Part 136 (2005). When no analytical method is approved the applicant may use any suitable method but must provide a description of the method. When an applicant has two or more outfalls with substantially identical effluents, the board may allow the applicant to test only one outfall and report that the quantitative data also apply to the substantially identical outfalls. The requirements in e and f of this subdivision that an applicant must provide quantitative data for certain pollutants known or believed to be present do not apply to pollutants present in a discharge solely as the result of their presence in intake water; however, an applicant must report such pollutants as present. Grab samples must be used for pH, temperature, cyanide, total phenols, residual chlorine, oil and grease, fecal coliform, and fecal streptococcus. For all other pollutants, 24-hour composite samples must be used. However, a minimum of one grab sample may be taken for effluents from holding ponds or other impoundments with a retention period greater than 24 hours. In addition, for discharges other than storm water discharges, the board may waive composite sampling for any outfall for which the applicant demonstrates that the use of an automatic sampler is infeasible and that the minimum of four grab samples will be a representative sample of the effluent being discharged.

b. For storm water discharges, all samples shall be collected from the discharge resulting from a storm event that is greater than 0.1 inch and at least 72 hours from the previously measurable (greater than 0.1 inch rainfall) storm event. Where feasible, the variance in the duration of the event and the total rainfall of the event should not exceed 50% from the average or median rainfall event in that area. For all applicants, a flow-weighted composite shall be taken for either the entire discharge or for the first three hours of the discharge. The flow-weighted composite sample for a storm water discharge may be taken with a continuous sampler or as a combination of a minimum of three sample aliquots taken in each hour of discharge for the entire discharge or for the first three hours of the discharge, with each aliquot being separated by a minimum period of 15 minutes (applicants submitting permit applications for storm water discharges under 9VAC25-31-120 C may collect flow-weighted composite samples using different protocols with respect to the time duration between the collection of sample aliquots, subject to the approval of the board). However, a minimum of one grab sample may be taken for storm water discharges from holding ponds or other impoundments with a retention period greater than 24 hours. For a flow-weighted composite sample, only one analysis of the composite of aliquots is required. For storm water discharge samples taken from discharges associated with industrial activities, quantitative data must be reported for the grab sample taken during the first 30 minutes (or as soon thereafter as practicable) of the discharge for all pollutants specified in 9VAC25-31-120 B 1. For all storm water permit applicants taking flow-weighted composites, quantitative data must be reported for all pollutants specified in 9VAC25-31-120 except pH, temperature, cyanide, total phenols, residual chlorine, oil and grease, fecal coliform, and fecal streptococcus. The board may allow or establish appropriate site-specific sampling procedures or requirements, including sampling locations, the season in which the sampling takes place, the minimum duration between the previous measurable storm event and the storm event sampled, the minimum or maximum level of precipitation required for an appropriate storm event, the form of precipitation sampled (snow melt or rain fall), protocols for collecting samples under 40 CFR Part 136 (2005), and additional time for submitting data on a case-by-case basis. An applicant is expected to know or have reason to believe that a pollutant is present in an effluent based on an evaluation of the expected use, production, or storage of the pollutant, or on any previous analyses for the pollutant. (For example, any pesticide manufactured by a facility may be expected to be present in contaminated storm water run-off from the facility.)

c. Every applicant must report quantitative data for every outfall for the following pollutants:

Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD₅)

Chemical oxygen demand

Total organic carbon

Total suspended solids

Ammonia (as N)

Temperature (both winter and summer)

pH

d. The board may waive the reporting requirements for individual point sources or for a particular industry category for one or more of the pollutants listed in subdivision 7 c of this subsection if the applicant has demonstrated that such a waiver is appropriate because information adequate to support issuance of a permit can be obtained with less stringent requirements.

e. Each applicant with processes in one or more primary industry category (see 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix A (2005)) contributing to a discharge must report quantitative data for the following pollutants in each outfall containing process wastewater:

(1) The organic toxic pollutants in the fractions designated in Table I of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) for the applicant's industrial category or categories unless the applicant qualifies as a small business under subdivision 8 of this subsection. Table II of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) lists the organic toxic pollutants in each fraction. The fractions result from the sample preparation required by the analytical procedure which uses gas chromatography/mass spectrometry. A determination that an applicant falls within a particular industrial category for the purposes of selecting fractions for testing is not conclusive as to the applicant's inclusion in that category for any other purposes; and

(2) The pollutants listed in Table III of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (the toxic metals, cyanide, and total phenols).

f. (1) Each applicant must indicate whether it knows or has reason to believe that any of the pollutants in Table IV of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (certain conventional and nonconventional pollutants) is discharged from each outfall. If an applicable effluent limitations guideline either directly limits the pollutant or, by its express terms, indirectly limits the pollutant through limitations on an indicator, the applicant must report quantitative data. For every pollutant discharged which is not so limited in an effluent limitations guideline, the applicant must either report quantitative data or briefly describe the reasons the pollutant is expected to be discharged.

(2) Each applicant must indicate whether it knows or has reason to believe that any of the pollutants listed in Table II or Table III of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (the toxic pollutants and total phenols) for which quantitative data are not otherwise required under subdivision 7 e of this subsection, is discharged from each outfall. For every pollutant expected to be discharged in concentrations of 10 ppb or greater the applicant must report quantitative data. For acrolein, acrylonitrile, 2,4 dinitrophenol, and 2-methyl-4,6 dinitrophenol, where any of these four pollutants are expected to be discharged in concentrations of 100 ppb or greater the applicant must report quantitative data. For every pollutant expected to be discharged in concentrations less than 10 ppb, or in the case of acrolein, acrylonitrile, 2,4 dinitrophenol, and 2-methyl-4,6 dinitrophenol, in concentrations less than 100 ppb, the applicant must either submit quantitative data or briefly describe the reasons the pollutant is expected to be discharged. An applicant qualifying as a small business under subdivision 8 of this subsection is not required to analyze for pollutants listed in Table II of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (the organic toxic pollutants).

g. Each applicant must indicate whether it knows or has reason to believe that any of the pollutants in Table V of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (certain hazardous substances and asbestos) are discharged from each outfall. For every pollutant expected to be discharged, the applicant must briefly describe the reasons the pollutant is expected to be discharged, and report any quantitative data it has for any pollutant.

h. Each applicant must report qualitative data, generated using a screening procedure not calibrated with analytical standards, for 2,3,7,8-tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (TCDD) if it:

(1) Uses or manufactures 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4,5,-T); 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy) propanoic acid (Silvex, 2,4,5,-TP); 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy) ethyl, 2,2-dichloropropionate (Erbon); O,O-dimethyl O-(2,4,5-trichlorophenyl) phosphorothioate (Ronnel); 2,4,5-trichlorophenol (TCP); or hexachlorophene (HCP); or

(2) Knows or has reason to believe that TCDD is or may be present in an effluent.

8. An applicant which qualifies as a small business under one of the following criteria is exempt from the requirements in subdivision 7 e (1) or 7 f (1) of this subsection to submit quantitative data for the pollutants listed in Table II of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (the organic toxic pollutants):

a. For coal mines, a probable total annual production of less than 100,000 tons per year; or

b. For all other applicants, gross total annual sales averaging less than $100,000 per year (in second quarter 1980 dollars).

9. A listing of any toxic pollutant which the applicant currently uses or manufactures as an intermediate or final product or by-product. The board may waive or modify this requirement for any applicant if the applicant demonstrates that it would be unduly burdensome to identify each toxic pollutant and the board has adequate information to issue the permit.

10. Reserved.

11. An identification of any biological toxicity tests which the applicant knows or has reason to believe have been made within the last three years on any of the applicant's discharges or on a receiving water in relation to a discharge.

12. If a contract laboratory or consulting firm performed any of the analyses required by subdivision 7 of this subsection, the identity of each laboratory or firm and the analyses performed.

13. In addition to the information reported on the application form, applicants shall provide to the board, at its request, such other information, including pertinent plans, specifications, maps and such other relevant information as may be required, in scope and details satisfactory to the board, as the board may reasonably require to assess the discharges of the facility and to determine whether to issue a VPDES permit. The additional information may include additional quantitative data and bioassays to assess the relative toxicity of discharges to aquatic life and requirements to determine the cause of the toxicity.

H. Application requirements for manufacturing, commercial, mining and silvicultural facilities which discharge only nonprocess wastewater. Except for storm water discharges, all manufacturing, commercial, mining and silvicultural dischargers applying for VPDES permits which discharge only nonprocess wastewater not regulated by an effluent limitations guideline or new source performance standard shall provide the following information to the department using application forms provided by the department:

1. Outfall number, latitude and longitude to the nearest 15 seconds, and the name of the receiving water;

2. Date of expected commencement of discharge;

3. An identification of the general type of waste discharged, or expected to be discharged upon commencement of operations, including sanitary wastes, restaurant or cafeteria wastes, or noncontact cooling water. An identification of cooling water additives (if any) that are used or expected to be used upon commencement of operations, along with their composition if existing composition is available;

4. a. Quantitative data for the pollutants or parameters listed below, unless testing is waived by the board. The quantitative data may be data collected over the past 365 days, if they remain representative of current operations, and must include maximum daily value, average daily value, and number of measurements taken. The applicant must collect and analyze samples in accordance with 40 CFR Part 136 (2005). Grab samples must be used for pH, temperature, oil and grease, total residual chlorine, and fecal coliform. For all other pollutants, 24-hour composite samples must be used. New dischargers must include estimates for the pollutants or parameters listed below instead of actual sampling data, along with the source of each estimate. All levels must be reported or estimated as concentration and as total mass, except for flow, pH, and temperature.

(1) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD₅).

(2) Total suspended solids (TSS).

(3) Fecal coliform (if believed present or if sanitary waste is or will be discharged).

(4) Total residual chlorine (if chlorine is used).

(5) Oil and grease.

(6) Chemical oxygen demand (COD) (if noncontact cooling water is or will be discharged).

(7) Total organic carbon (TOC) (if noncontact cooling water is or will be discharged).

(8) Ammonia (as N).

(9) Discharge flow.

(10) pH.

(11) Temperature (winter and summer).

b. The board may waive the testing and reporting requirements for any of the pollutants or flow listed in subdivision 4 a of this subsection if the applicant submits a request for such a waiver before or with his application which demonstrates that information adequate to support issuance of a permit can be obtained through less stringent requirements.

c. If the applicant is a new discharger, he must submit the information required in subdivision 4 a of this subsection by providing quantitative data in accordance with that section no later than two years after commencement of discharge. However, the applicant need not submit testing results which he has already performed and reported under the discharge monitoring requirements of his VPDES permit.

d. The requirements of subdivisions 4 a and 4 c of this subsection that an applicant must provide quantitative data or estimates of certain pollutants do not apply to pollutants present in a discharge solely as a result of their presence in intake water. However, an applicant must report such pollutants as present. Net credit may be provided for the presence of pollutants in intake water if the requirements of 9VAC25-31-230 G are met;

5. A description of the frequency of flow and duration of any seasonal or intermittent discharge (except for storm water run-off, leaks, or spills);

6. A brief description of any treatment system used or to be used;

7. Any additional information the applicant wishes to be considered, such as influent data for the purpose of obtaining net credits pursuant to 9VAC25-31-230 G;

8. Signature of certifying official under 9VAC25-31-110; and

9. Pertinent plans, specifications, maps and such other relevant information as may be required, in scope and details satisfactory to the board.

I. Application requirements for new and existing concentrated animal feeding operations and aquatic animal production facilities. New and existing concentrated animal feeding operations and concentrated aquatic animal production facilities shall provide the following information to the department, using the application form provided by the department:

1. For concentrated animal feeding operations:

a. The name of the owner or operator;

b. The facility location and mailing address;

c. Latitude and longitude of the production area (entrance to the production area);

d. A topographic map of the geographic area in which the CAFO is located showing the specific location of the production area, in lieu of the requirements of subdivision F 7 of this section;

e. Specific information about the number and type of animals, whether in open confinement or housed under roof (beef cattle, broilers, layers, swine weighing 55 pounds or more, swine weighing less than 55 pounds, mature dairy cows, dairy heifers, veal calves, sheep and lambs, horses, ducks, turkeys, other);

f. The type of containment and storage (anaerobic lagoon, roofed storage shed, storage ponds, underfloor pits, above ground storage tanks, below ground storage tanks, concrete pad, impervious soil pad, other) and total capacity for manure, litter, and process wastewater storage (tons/gallons);

g. The total number of acres under control of the applicant available for land application of manure, litter, or process wastewater;

h. Estimated amounts of manure, litter, and process wastewater generated per year (tons/gallons); and

i. For CAFOs that must seek coverage under a permit after December 31, 2006, certification that a nutrient management plan has been completed and will be implemented upon the date of coverage.

2. For concentrated aquatic animal production facilities:

a. The maximum daily and average monthly flow from each outfall;

b. The number of ponds, raceways, and similar structures;

c. The name of the receiving water and the source of intake water;

d. For each species of aquatic animals, the total yearly and maximum harvestable weight;

e. The calendar month of maximum feeding and the total mass of food fed during that month; and

f. Pertinent plans, specifications, maps and such other relevant information as may be required, in scope and details satisfactory to the board.

J. Application requirements for new and existing POTWs and treatment works treating domestic sewage. Unless otherwise indicated, all POTWs and other dischargers designated by the board must provide to the department, at a minimum, the information in this subsection using an application form provided by the department. Permit applicants must submit all information available at the time of permit application. The information may be provided by referencing information previously submitted to the department. The board may waive any requirement of this subsection if it has access to substantially identical information. The board may also waive any requirement of this subsection that is not of material concern for a specific permit, if approved by the regional administrator. The waiver request to the regional administrator must include the board's justification for the waiver. A regional administrator's disapproval of the board's proposed waiver does not constitute final agency action but does provide notice to the board and permit applicant(s) that the EPA may object to any board-issued permit issued in the absence of the required information.

1. All applicants must provide the following information:

a. Name, mailing address, and location of the facility for which the application is submitted;

b. Name, mailing address, and telephone number of the applicant and indication as to whether the applicant is the facility's owner, operator, or both;

c. Identification of all environmental permits or construction approvals received or applied for (including dates) under any of the following programs:

(1) Hazardous Waste Management program under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), Subpart C;

(2) Underground Injection Control program under the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA);

(3) NPDES program under the Clean Water Act (CWA);

(4) Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) program under the Clean Air Act;

(5) Nonattainment program under the Clean Air Act;

(6) National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPS) preconstruction approval under the Clean Air Act;

(7) Ocean dumping permits under the Marine Protection Research and Sanctuaries Act;

(8) Dredge or fill permits under § 404 of the CWA; and

(9) Other relevant environmental permits, including state permits;

d. The name and population of each municipal entity served by the facility, including unincorporated connector districts. Indicate whether each municipal entity owns or maintains the collection system and whether the collection system is separate sanitary or combined storm and sanitary, if known;

e. Information concerning whether the facility is located in Indian country and whether the facility discharges to a receiving stream that flows through Indian country;

f. The facility's design flow rate (the wastewater flow rate the plant was built to handle), annual average daily flow rate, and maximum daily flow rate for each of the previous three years;

g. Identification of type(s) of collection system(s) used by the treatment works (i.e., separate sanitary sewers or combined storm and sanitary sewers) and an estimate of the percent of sewer line that each type comprises; and

h. The following information for outfalls to surface waters and other discharge or disposal methods:

(1) For effluent discharges to surface waters, the total number and types of outfalls (e.g., treated effluent, combined sewer overflows, bypasses, constructed emergency overflows);

(2) For wastewater discharged to surface impoundments:

(a) The location of each surface impoundment;

(b) The average daily volume discharged to each surface impoundment; and

(c) Whether the discharge is continuous or intermittent;

(3) For wastewater applied to the land:

(a) The location of each land application site;

(b) The size of each land application site, in acres;

(c) The average daily volume applied to each land application site, in gallons per day; and

(d) Whether land application is continuous or intermittent;

(4) For effluent sent to another facility for treatment prior to discharge:

(a) The means by which the effluent is transported;

(b) The name, mailing address, contact person, and phone number of the organization transporting the discharge, if the transport is provided by a party other than the applicant;

(c) The name, mailing address, contact person, phone number, and VPDES permit number (if any) of the receiving facility; and

(d) The average daily flow rate from this facility into the receiving facility, in millions of gallons per day; and

(5) For wastewater disposed of in a manner not included in subdivisions 1 h (1) through (4) of this subsection (e.g., underground percolation, underground injection):

(a) A description of the disposal method, including the location and size of each disposal site, if applicable;

(b) The annual average daily volume disposed of by this method, in gallons per day; and

(c) Whether disposal through this method is continuous or intermittent;

2. All applicants with a design flow greater than or equal to 0.1 mgd must provide the following information:

a. The current average daily volume of inflow and infiltration, in gallons per day, and steps the facility is taking to minimize inflow and infiltration;

b. A topographic map (or other map if a topographic map is unavailable) extending at least one mile beyond property boundaries of the treatment plant, including all unit processes, and showing:

(1) Treatment plant area and unit processes;

(2) The major pipes or other structures through which wastewater enters the treatment plant and the pipes or other structures through which treated wastewater is discharged from the treatment plant. Include outfalls from bypass piping, if applicable;

(3) Each well where fluids from the treatment plant are injected underground;

(4) Wells, springs, and other surface water bodies listed in public records or otherwise known to the applicant within 1/4 mile of the treatment works' property boundaries;

(5) Sewage sludge management facilities (including on-site treatment, storage, and disposal sites); and

(6) Location at which waste classified as hazardous under RCRA enters the treatment plant by truck, rail, or dedicated pipe;

c. Process flow diagram or schematic.

(1) A diagram showing the processes of the treatment plant, including all bypass piping and all backup power sources or redundancy in the system. This includes a water balance showing all treatment units, including disinfection, and showing daily average flow rates at influent and discharge points, and approximate daily flow rates between treatment units; and

(2) A narrative description of the diagram; and

d. The following information regarding scheduled improvements:

(1) The outfall number of each outfall affected;

(2) A narrative description of each required improvement;

(3) Scheduled or actual dates of completion for the following:

(a) Commencement of construction;

(b) Completion of construction;

(c) Commencement of discharge; and

(d) Attainment of operational level; and

(4) A description of permits and clearances concerning other federal or state requirements;

3. Each applicant must provide the following information for each outfall, including bypass points, through which effluent is discharged, as applicable:

a. The following information about each outfall:

(1) Outfall number;

(2) State, county, and city or town in which outfall is located;

(3) Latitude and longitude, to the nearest second;

(4) Distance from shore and depth below surface;

(5) Average daily flow rate, in million gallons per day;

(6) The following information for each outfall with a seasonal or periodic discharge:

(a) Number of times per year the discharge occurs;

(b) Duration of each discharge;

(c) Flow of each discharge; and

(d) Months in which discharge occurs; and

(7) Whether the outfall is equipped with a diffuser and the type (e.g., high-rate) of diffuser used.

b. The following information, if known, for each outfall through which effluent is discharged to surface waters:

(1) Name of receiving water;

(2) Name of watershed/river/stream system and United States Soil Conservation Service 14-digit watershed code;

(3) Name of State Management/River Basin and United States Geological Survey 8-digit hydrologic cataloging unit code; and

(4) Critical flow of receiving stream and total hardness of receiving stream at critical low flow (if applicable).

c. The following information describing the treatment provided for discharges from each outfall to surface waters:

(1) The highest level of treatment (e.g., primary, equivalent to secondary, secondary, advanced, other) that is provided for the discharge for each outfall and:

(a) Design biochemical oxygen demand (BOD₅ or CBOD₅) removal (percent);

(b) Design suspended solids (SS) removal (percent); and, where applicable;

(c) Design phosphorus (P) removal (percent);

(d) Design nitrogen (N) removal (percent); and

(e) Any other removals that an advanced treatment system is designed to achieve.

(2) A description of the type of disinfection used, and whether the treatment plant dechlorinates (if disinfection is accomplished through chlorination).

4. Effluent monitoring for specific parameters.

a. As provided in subdivisions 4 b through j of this subsection, all applicants must submit to the department effluent monitoring information for samples taken from each outfall through which effluent is discharged to surface waters, except for CSOs. The board may allow applicants to submit sampling data for only one outfall on a case-by-case basis, where the applicant has two or more outfalls with substantially identical effluent. The board may also allow applicants to composite samples from one or more outfalls that discharge into the same mixing zone.

b. All applicants must sample and analyze for the following pollutants:

(1) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD₅ or CBOD₅);

(2) Fecal coliform;

(3) Design flow rate;

(4) pH;

(5) Temperature; and

(6) Total suspended solids.

c. All applicants with a design flow greater than or equal to 0.1 mgd must sample and analyze for the following pollutants:

(1) Ammonia (as N);

(2) Chlorine (total residual, TRC);

(3) Dissolved oxygen;

(4) Nitrate/Nitrite;

(5) Kjeldahl nitrogen;

(6) Oil and grease;

(7) Phosphorus; and

(8) Total dissolved solids.

Facilities that do not use chlorine for disinfection, do not use chlorine elsewhere in the treatment process, and have no reasonable potential to discharge chlorine in their effluent may delete chlorine.

d. All POTWs with a design flow rate equal to or greater than one million gallons per day, all POTWs with approved pretreatment programs or POTWs required to develop a pretreatment program, and other POTWs, as required by the board must sample and analyze for the pollutants listed in Table 2 of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix J (2005), and for any other pollutants for which the board or EPA have established water quality standards applicable to the receiving waters.

e. The board may require sampling for additional pollutants, as appropriate, on a case-by-case basis.

f. Applicants must provide data from a minimum of three samples taken within 4-1/2 years prior to the date of the permit application. Samples must be representative of the seasonal variation in the discharge from each outfall. Existing data may be used, if available, in lieu of sampling done solely for the purpose of this application. The board may require additional samples, as appropriate, on a case-by-case basis.

g. All existing data for pollutants specified in subdivisions 4 b through e of this subsection that is collected within 4-1/2 years of the application must be included in the pollutant data summary submitted by the applicant. If, however, the applicant samples for a specific pollutant on a monthly or more frequent basis, it is only necessary, for such pollutant, to summarize all data collected within one year of the application.

h. Applicants must collect samples of effluent and analyze such samples for pollutants in accordance with analytical methods approved under 40 CFR Part 136 (2005) unless an alternative is specified in the existing VPDES permit. Grab samples must be used for pH, temperature, cyanide, total phenols, residual chlorine, oil and grease, and fecal coliform. For all other pollutants, 24-hour composite samples must be used. For a composite sample, only one analysis of the composite of aliquots is required.

i. The effluent monitoring data provided must include at least the following information for each parameter:

(1) Maximum daily discharge, expressed as concentration or mass, based upon actual sample values;

(2) Average daily discharge for all samples, expressed as concentration or mass, and the number of samples used to obtain this value;

(3) The analytical method used; and

(4) The threshold level (i.e., method detection limit, minimum level, or other designated method endpoints) for the analytical method used.

j. Unless otherwise required by the board, metals must be reported as total recoverable.

5. Effluent monitoring for whole effluent toxicity.

a. All applicants must provide an identification of any whole effluent toxicity tests conducted during the 4-1/2 years prior to the date of the application on any of the applicant's discharges or on any receiving water near the discharge.

b. As provided in subdivisions 5 c through i of this subsection, the following applicants must submit to the department the results of valid whole effluent toxicity tests for acute or chronic toxicity for samples taken from each outfall through which effluent is discharged to surface waters, except for combined sewer overflows:

(1) All POTWs with design flow rates greater than or equal to one million gallons per day;

(2) All POTWs with approved pretreatment programs or POTWs required to develop a pretreatment program;

(3) Other POTWs, as required by the board, based on consideration of the following factors:

(a) The variability of the pollutants or pollutant parameters in the POTW effluent (based on chemical-specific information, the type of treatment plant, and types of industrial contributors);

(b) The ratio of effluent flow to receiving stream flow;

(c) Existing controls on point or nonpoint sources, including total maximum daily load calculations for the receiving stream segment and the relative contribution of the POTW;

(d) Receiving stream characteristics, including possible or known water quality impairment, and whether the POTW discharges to a coastal water, or a water designated as an outstanding natural resource water; or

(e) Other considerations (including, but not limited to, the history of toxic impacts and compliance problems at the POTW) that the board determines could cause or contribute to adverse water quality impacts.

c. Where the POTW has two or more outfalls with substantially identical effluent discharging to the same receiving stream segment, the board may allow applicants to submit whole effluent toxicity data for only one outfall on a case-by-case basis. The board may also allow applicants to composite samples from one or more outfalls that discharge into the same mixing zone.

d. Each applicant required to perform whole effluent toxicity testing pursuant to subdivision 5 b of this subsection must provide:

(1) Results of a minimum of four quarterly tests for a year, from the year preceding the permit application; or

(2) Results from four tests performed at least annually in the 4-1/2 year period prior to the application, provided the results show no appreciable toxicity using a safety factor determined by the board.

e. Applicants must conduct tests with multiple species (no less than two species, e.g., fish, invertebrate, plant) and test for acute or chronic toxicity, depending on the range of receiving water dilution. The board recommends that applicants conduct acute or chronic testing based on the following dilutions: (i) acute toxicity testing if the dilution of the effluent is greater than 100:1 at the edge of the mixing zone or (ii) chronic toxicity testing if the dilution of the effluent is less than or equal to 100:1 at the edge of the mixing zone.

f. Each applicant required to perform whole effluent toxicity testing pursuant to subdivision 5 b of this subsection must provide the number of chronic or acute whole effluent toxicity tests that have been conducted since the last permit reissuance.

g. Applicants must provide the results using the form provided by the department, or test summaries if available and comprehensive, for each whole effluent toxicity test conducted pursuant to subdivision 5 b of this subsection for which such information has not been reported previously to the department.

h. Whole effluent toxicity testing conducted pursuant to subdivision 5 b of this subsection must be conducted using methods approved under 40 CFR Part 136 (2005), as directed by the board.

i. For whole effluent toxicity data submitted to the department within 4-1/2 years prior to the date of the application, applicants must provide the dates on which the data were submitted and a summary of the results.

j. Each POTW required to perform whole effluent toxicity testing pursuant to subdivision 5 b of this subsection must provide any information on the cause of toxicity and written details of any toxicity reduction evaluation conducted, if any whole effluent toxicity test conducted within the past 4-1/2 years revealed toxicity.

6. Applicants must submit the following information about industrial discharges to the POTW:

a. Number of significant industrial users (SIUs) and categorical industrial users (CIUs) discharging to the POTW; and

b. POTWs with one or more SIUs shall provide the following information for each SIU, as defined in 9VAC25-31-10, that discharges to the POTW:

(1) Name and mailing address;

(2) Description of all industrial processes that affect or contribute to the SIU's discharge;

(3) Principal products and raw materials of the SIU that affect or contribute to the SIU's discharge;

(4) Average daily volume of wastewater discharged, indicating the amount attributable to process flow and nonprocess flow;

(5) Whether the SIU is subject to local limits;

(6) Whether the SIU is subject to categorical standards and, if so, under which category and subcategory; and

(7) Whether any problems at the POTW (e.g., upsets, pass through, interference) have been attributed to the SIU in the past 4-1/2 years.

c. The information required in subdivisions 6 a and b of this subsection may be waived by the board for POTWs with pretreatment programs if the applicant has submitted either of the following that contain information substantially identical to that required in subdivisions 6 a and b of this subsection:

(1) An annual report submitted within one year of the application; or

(2) A pretreatment program.

7. Discharges from hazardous waste generators and from waste cleanup or remediation sites. POTWs receiving Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA), or RCRA Corrective Action wastes or wastes generated at another type of cleanup or remediation site must provide the following information:

a. If the POTW receives, or has been notified that it will receive, by truck, rail, or dedicated pipe any wastes that are regulated as RCRA hazardous wastes pursuant to 40 CFR Part 261 (2005), the applicant must report the following:

(1) The method by which the waste is received (i.e., whether by truck, rail, or dedicated pipe); and

(2) The hazardous waste number and amount received annually of each hazardous waste.

b. If the POTW receives, or has been notified that it will receive, wastewaters that originate from remedial activities, including those undertaken pursuant to CERCLA and § 3004(u) or 3008(h) of RCRA, the applicant must report the following:

(1) The identity and description of the site or facility at which the wastewater originates;

(2) The identities of the wastewater's hazardous constituents, as listed in Appendix VIII of 40 CFR Part 261 (2005), if known; and

(3) The extent of treatment, if any, the wastewater receives or will receive before entering the POTW.

c. Applicants are exempt from the requirements of subdivision 7 b of this subsection if they receive no more than 15 kilograms per month of hazardous wastes, unless the wastes are acute hazardous wastes as specified in 40 CFR 261.30(d) and 261.33(e) (2005).

8. Each applicant with combined sewer systems must provide the following information:

a. The following information regarding the combined sewer system:

(1) A map indicating the location of the following:

(a) All CSO discharge points;

(b) Sensitive use areas potentially affected by CSOs (e.g., beaches, drinking water supplies, shellfish beds, sensitive aquatic ecosystems, and outstanding national resource waters); and

(c) Waters supporting threatened and endangered species potentially affected by CSOs; and

(2) A diagram of the combined sewer collection system that includes the following information:

(a) The location of major sewer trunk lines, both combined and separate sanitary;

(b) The locations of points where separate sanitary sewers feed into the combined sewer system;

(c) In-line and off-line storage structures;

(d) The locations of flow-regulating devices; and

(e) The locations of pump stations.

b. The following information for each CSO discharge point covered by the permit application:

(1) The following information on each outfall:

(a) Outfall number;

(b) State, county, and city or town in which outfall is located;

(c) Latitude and longitude, to the nearest second;

(d) Distance from shore and depth below surface;

(e) Whether the applicant monitored any of the following in the past year for this CSO: (i) rainfall, (ii) CSO flow volume, (iii) CSO pollutant concentrations, (iv) receiving water quality, or (v) CSO frequency; and

(f) The number of storm events monitored in the past year;

(2) The following information about CSO overflows from each outfall:

(a) The number of events in the past year;

(b) The average duration per event, if available;

(c) The average volume per CSO event, if available; and

(d) The minimum rainfall that caused a CSO event, if available, in the last year;

(3) The following information about receiving waters:

(a) Name of receiving water;

(b) Name of watershed/stream system and the United States Soil Conservation Service watershed (14-digit) code, if known; and

(c) Name of State Management/River Basin and the United States Geological Survey hydrologic cataloging unit (8-digit) code, if known; and

(4) A description of any known water quality impacts on the receiving water caused by the CSO (e.g., permanent or intermittent beach closings, permanent or intermittent shellfish bed closings, fish kills, fish advisories, other recreational loss, or exceedance of any applicable state water quality standard).

9. All applicants must provide the name, mailing address, telephone number, and responsibilities of all contractors responsible for any operational or maintenance aspects of the facility.

10. All applications must be signed by a certifying official in compliance with 9VAC25-31-110.

11. Pertinent plans, specifications, maps and such other relevant information as may be required, in scope and details satisfactory to the board.

K. Application requirements for new sources and new discharges. New manufacturing, commercial, mining and silvicultural dischargers applying for VPDES permits (except for new discharges of facilities subject to the requirements of subsection H of this section or new discharges of storm water associated with industrial activity which are subject to the requirements of 9VAC25-31-120 B 1 and this subsection) shall provide the following information to the department, using the application forms provided by the department:

1. The expected outfall location in latitude and longitude to the nearest 15 seconds and the name of the receiving water;

2. The expected date of commencement of discharge;

3. a. Description of the treatment that the wastewater will receive, along with all operations contributing wastewater to the effluent, average flow contributed by each operation, and the ultimate disposal of any solid or liquid wastes not discharged;

b. A line drawing of the water flow through the facility with a water balance as described in subdivision G 2;

c. If any of the expected discharges will be intermittent or seasonal, a description of the frequency, duration and maximum daily flow rate of each discharge occurrence (except for storm water run-off, spillage, or leaks); and

4. If a new source performance standard promulgated under § 306 of the CWA or an effluent limitation guideline applies to the applicant and is expressed in terms of production (or other measure of operation), a reasonable measure of the applicant's expected actual production reported in the units used in the applicable effluent guideline or new source performance standard for each of the first three years. Alternative estimates may also be submitted if production is likely to vary;

5. The requirements in subdivisions H 4 a, b, and c of this section that an applicant must provide estimates of certain pollutants expected to be present do not apply to pollutants present in a discharge solely as a result of their presence in intake water; however, an applicant must report such pollutants as present. Net credits may be provided for the presence of pollutants in intake water if the requirements of 9VAC25-31-230 G are met. All levels (except for discharge flow, temperature, and pH) must be estimated as concentration and as total mass.

a. Each applicant must report estimated daily maximum, daily average, and source of information for each outfall for the following pollutants or parameters. The board may waive the reporting requirements for any of these pollutants and parameters if the applicant submits a request for such a waiver before or with his application which demonstrates that information adequate to support issuance of the permit can be obtained through less stringent reporting requirements.

(1) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD).

(2) Chemical oxygen demand (COD).

(3) Total organic carbon (TOC).

(4) Total suspended solids (TSS).

(5) Flow.

(6) Ammonia (as N).

(7) Temperature (winter and summer).

(8) pH.

b. Each applicant must report estimated daily maximum, daily average, and source of information for each outfall for the following pollutants, if the applicant knows or has reason to believe they will be present or if they are limited by an effluent limitation guideline or new source performance standard either directly or indirectly through limitations on an indicator pollutant: all pollutants in Table IV of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (certain conventional and nonconventional pollutants).

c. Each applicant must report estimated daily maximum, daily average and source of information for the following pollutants if he knows or has reason to believe that they will be present in the discharges from any outfall:

(1) The pollutants listed in Table III of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (the toxic metals, in the discharge from any outfall, Total cyanide, and total phenols);

(2) The organic toxic pollutants in Table II of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (except bis (chloromethyl) ether, dichlorofluoromethane and trichlorofluoromethane). This requirement is waived for applicants with expected gross sales of less than $100,000 per year for the next three years, and for coal mines with expected average production of less than 100,000 tons of coal per year.

d. The applicant is required to report that 2,3,7,8 Tetrachlorodibenzo-P-Dioxin (TCDD) may be discharged if he uses or manufactures one of the following compounds, or if he knows or has reason to believe that TCDD will or may be present in an effluent:

(1) 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4,5-T) (CAS #93-76-5);

(2) (2) 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy) propanoic acid (Silvex, 2,4,5-TP) (CAS #93-72-1);

(3) 2-(2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy) ethyl 2,2-dichloropropionate (Erbon) (CAS #136-25-4);

(4) 0,0-dimethyl 0-(2,4,5-trichlorophenyl) phosphorothioate (Ronnel) (CAS #299-84-3);

(5) 2,4,5-trichlorophenol (TCP) (CAS #95-95-4); or

(6) Hexachlorophene (HCP) (CAS #70-30-4);

e. Each applicant must report any pollutants listed in Table V of 40 CFR Part 122 Appendix D (2005) (certain hazardous substances) if he believes they will be present in any outfall (no quantitative estimates are required unless they are already available).

f. No later than two years after the commencement of discharge from the proposed facility, the applicant is required to submit the information required in subsection G of this section. However, the applicant need not complete those portions of subsection G of this section requiring tests which he has already performed and reported under the discharge monitoring requirements of his VPDES permit;

6. Each applicant must report the existence of any technical evaluation concerning his wastewater treatment, along with the name and location of similar plants of which he has knowledge;

7. Any optional information the permittee wishes to have considered;

8. Signature of certifying official under 9VAC25-31-110; and

9. Pertinent plans, specifications, maps and such other relevant information as may be required, in scope and details satisfactory to the board.

L. Variance requests by non-POTWs. A discharger which is not a publicly owned treatment works (POTW) may request a variance from otherwise applicable effluent limitations under any of the following statutory or regulatory provisions within the times specified in this subsection:

1. Fundamentally different factors.

a. A request for a variance based on the presence of fundamentally different factors from those on which the effluent limitations guideline was based shall be filed as follows:

(1) For a request from best practicable control technology currently available (BPT), by the close of the public comment period for the draft permit; or

(2) For a request from best available technology economically achievable (BAT) and/or best conventional pollutant control technology (BCT), by no later than:

(a) July 3, 1989, for a request based on an effluent limitation guideline promulgated before February 4, 1987, to the extent July 3, 1989, is not later than that provided under previously promulgated regulations; or

(b) 180 days after the date on which an effluent limitation guideline is published in the Federal Register for a request based on an effluent limitation guideline promulgated on or after February 4, 1987.

b. The request shall explain how the requirements of the applicable regulatory or statutory criteria have been met.

2. A request for a variance from the BAT requirements for CWA § 301(b)(2)(F) pollutants (commonly called nonconventional pollutants) pursuant to § 301(c) of the CWA because of the economic capability of the owner or operator, or pursuant to § 301(g) of the CWA (provided however that a § 301(g) variance may only be requested for ammonia; chlorine; color; iron; total phenols (when determined by the Administrator to be a pollutant covered by § 301(b)(2)(F) of the CWA) and any other pollutant which the administrator lists under § 301(g)(4) of the CWA) must be made as follows:

a. For those requests for a variance from an effluent limitation based upon an effluent limitation guideline by:

(1) Submitting an initial request to the regional administrator, as well as to the department, stating the name of the discharger, the permit number, the outfall number(s), the applicable effluent guideline, and whether the discharger is requesting a §§ 301(c) or 301(g) of the CWA modification, or both. This request must have been filed not later than 270 days after promulgation of an applicable effluent limitation guideline; and

(2) Submitting a completed request no later than the close of the public comment period for the draft permit demonstrating that: (i) all reasonable ascertainable issues have been raised and all reasonably available arguments and materials supporting their position have been submitted; and (ii) that the applicable requirements of 40 CFR Part 125 (2005) have been met. Notwithstanding this provision, the complete application for a request under § 301(g) of the CWA shall be filed 180 days before EPA must make a decision (unless the Regional Division Director establishes a shorter or longer period); or

b. For those requests for a variance from effluent limitations not based on effluent limitation guidelines, the request need only comply with subdivision 2 a (2) of this subsection and need not be preceded by an initial request under subdivision 2 a (1) of this subsection.

3. A modification under § 302(b)(2) of the CWA of requirements under § 302(a) of the CWA for achieving water quality related effluent limitations may be requested no later than the close of the public comment period for the draft permit on the permit from which the modification is sought.

4. A variance for alternate effluent limitations for the thermal component of any discharge must be filed with a timely application for a permit under this section, except that if thermal effluent limitations are established on a case-by-case basis or are based on water quality standards the request for a variance may be filed by the close of the public comment period for the draft permit. A copy of the request shall be sent simultaneously to the department.

M. Variance requests by POTWs. A discharger which is a publicly owned treatment works (POTW) may request a variance from otherwise applicable effluent limitations under any of the following statutory provisions as specified in this paragraph:

1. A request for a modification under § 301(h) of the CWA of requirements of § 301(b)(1)(B) of the CWA for discharges into marine waters must be filed in accordance with the requirements of 40 CFR Part 125, Subpart G (2005).

2. A modification under § 302(b)(2) of the CWA of the requirements under § 302(a) of the CWA for achieving water quality based effluent limitations shall be requested no later than the close of the public comment period for the draft permit on the permit from which the modification is sought.

N. Expedited variance procedures and time extensions.

1. Notwithstanding the time requirements in subsections L and M of this section, the board may notify a permit applicant before a draft permit is issued that the draft permit will likely contain limitations which are eligible for variances. In the notice the board may require the applicant as a condition of consideration of any potential variance request to submit a request explaining how the requirements of 40 CFR Part 125 (2005) applicable to the variance have been met and may require its submission within a specified reasonable time after receipt of the notice. The notice may be sent before the permit application has been submitted. The draft or final permit may contain the alternative limitations which may become effective upon final grant of the variance.

2. A discharger who cannot file a timely complete request required under subdivisions L 2 a (2) or L 2 b of this section may request an extension. The extension may be granted or denied at the discretion of the board. Extensions shall be no more than six months in duration.

O. Recordkeeping. Except for information required by subdivision C 2 of this section, which shall be retained for a period of at least five years from the date the application is signed (or longer as required by Part VI (9VAC25-31-420 et seq.) of this chapter), applicants shall keep records of all data used to complete permit applications and any supplemental information submitted under this section for a period of at least three years from the date the application is signed.

P. Sewage sludge management. All TWTDS subject to subdivision C 2 a of this section must provide the information in this subsection to the department using an application form approved by the department. New applicants must submit all information available at the time of permit application. The information may be provided by referencing information previously submitted to the department. The board may waive any requirement of this subsection if it has access to substantially identical information. The board may also waive any requirement of this subsection that is not of material concern for a specific permit, if approved by the regional administrator. The waiver request to the regional administrator must include the board's justification for the waiver. A regional administrator's disapproval of the board's proposed waiver does not constitute final agency action, but does provide notice to the board and the permit applicant that the EPA may object to any board issued permit issued in the absence of the required information.

1. All applicants must submit the following information:

a. The name, mailing address, and location of the TWTDS for which the application is submitted;

b. Whether the facility is a Class I Sludge Management Facility;

c. The design flow rate (in million gallons per day);

d. The total population served;

e. The TWTDS's status as federal, state, private, public, or other entity;

f. The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the applicant; and

g. Indication whether the applicant is the owner, operator, or both.

2. All applicants must submit the facility's VPDES permit number, if applicable, and a listing of all other federal, state, and local permits or construction approvals received or applied for under any of the following programs:

a. Hazardous Waste Management program under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA);

b. UIC program under the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA);

c. NPDES program under the Clean Water Act (CWA);

d. Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) program under the Clean Air Act;

e. Nonattainment program under the Clean Air Act;

f. National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAPS) preconstruction approval under the Clean Air Act;

g. Dredge or fill permits under § 404 of the CWA;

h. Other relevant environmental permits, including state or local permits.

3. All applicants must identify any generation, treatment, storage, land application, or disposal of sewage sludge that occurs in Indian country.

4. All applicants must submit a topographic map (or other map if a topographic map is unavailable) extending one mile beyond property boundaries of the facility and showing the following information:

a. All sewage sludge management facilities, including on-site treatment, storage, and disposal sites; and

b. Wells, springs, and other surface water bodies that are within 1/4 mile of the property boundaries and listed in public records or otherwise known to the applicant.

5. All applicants must submit a line drawing and/or a narrative description that identifies all sewage sludge management practices employed during the term of the permit, including all units used for collecting, dewatering, storing, or treating sewage sludge; the destination(s) of all liquids and solids leaving each such unit; and all processes used for pathogen reduction and vector attraction reduction.

6. The applicant must submit sewage sludge monitoring data for the pollutants for which limits in sewage sludge have been established in Part VI (9VAC25-31-420 et seq.) of this chapter for the applicant's use or disposal practices on the date of permit application with the following conditions:

a. The board may require sampling for additional pollutants, as appropriate, on a case-by-case basis.

b. Applicants must provide data from a minimum of three samples taken within 4-1/2 years prior to the date of the permit application. Samples must be representative of the sewage sludge and should be taken at least one month apart. Existing data may be used in lieu of sampling done solely for the purpose of this application.

c. Applicants must collect and analyze samples in accordance with analytical methods specified in 9VAC25-31-490 unless an alternative has been specified in an existing sewage sludge permit.

d. The monitoring data provided must include at least the following information for each parameter:

(1) Average monthly concentration for all samples (mg/kg dry weight), based upon actual sample values;

(2) The analytical method used; and

(3) The method detection level.

7. If the applicant is a person who prepares sewage sludge, as defined in 9VAC25-31-500, the applicant must provide the following information:

a. If the applicant's facility generates sewage sludge, the total dry metric tons per 365-day period generated at the facility.

b. If the applicant's facility receives sewage sludge from another facility, the following information for each facility from which sewage sludge is received:

(1) The name, mailing address, and location of the other facility;

(2) The total dry metric tons per 365-day period received from the other facility; and

(3) A description of any treatment processes occurring at the other facility, including blending activities and treatment to reduce pathogens or vector attraction characteristics.

c. If the applicant's facility changes the quality of sewage sludge through blending, treatment, or other activities, the following information:

(1) Whether the Class A pathogen reduction requirements in 9VAC25-31-710 A or the Class B pathogen reduction requirements in 9VAC25-31-710 B are met, and a description of any treatment processes used to reduce pathogens in sewage sludge;

(2) Whether any of the vector attraction reduction options of 9VAC25-31-720 B 1 through 8 are met, and a description of any treatment processes used to reduce vector attraction properties in sewage sludge; and

(3) A description of any other blending, treatment, or other activities that change the quality of sewage sludge.

d. If sewage sludge from the applicant's facility meets the ceiling concentrations in 9VAC25-31-540 B 1, the pollutant concentrations in 9VAC25-31-540 B 3, the Class A pathogen requirements in 9VAC25-31-710 A, and one of the vector attraction reduction requirements in 9VAC25-31-720 B 1 through 8, and if the sewage sludge is applied to the land, the applicant must provide the total dry metric tons per 365-day period of sewage sludge subject to this subsection that is applied to the land.

e. If sewage sludge from the applicant's facility is sold or given away in a bag or other container for application to the land, and the sewage sludge is not subject to subdivision 7 d of this subsection, the applicant must provide the following information:

(1) The total dry metric tons per 365-day period of sewage sludge subject to this subsection that is sold or given away in a bag or other container for application to the land; and

(2) A copy of all labels or notices that accompany the sewage sludge being sold or given away.

f. If sewage sludge from the applicant's facility is provided to another person who prepares sewage sludge, as defined in 9VAC25-31-500, and the sewage sludge is not subject to subdivision 7 d of this subsection, the applicant must provide the following information for each facility receiving the sewage sludge:

(1) The name and mailing address of the receiving facility;

(2) The total dry metric tons per 365-day period of sewage sludge subject to this subsection that the applicant provides to the receiving facility;

(3) A description of any treatment processes occurring at the receiving facility, including blending activities and treatment to reduce pathogens or vector attraction characteristic;

(4) A copy of the notice and necessary information that the applicant is required to provide the receiving facility under 9VAC25-31-530 G; and

(5) If the receiving facility places sewage sludge in bags or containers for sale or give-away to application to the land, a copy of any labels or notices that accompany the sewage sludge.

8. If sewage sludge from the applicant's facility is applied to the land in bulk form and is not subject to subdivision 7 d, e or f of this subsection, the applicant must provide the following information:

a. The total dry metric tons per 365-day period of sewage sludge subject to this subsection that is applied to the land.

b. If any land application sites are located in states other than the state where the sewage sludge is prepared, a description of how the applicant will notify the permitting authority for the state(s) where the land application sites are located.

c. The following information for each land application site that has been identified at the time of permit application:

(1) The name (if any), and location for the land application site;

(2) The site's latitude and longitude to the nearest second, and method of determination;

(3) A topographic map (or other map if a topographic map is unavailable) that shows the site's location;

(4) The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the site owner, if different from the applicant;

(5) The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the person who applies sewage sludge to the site, if different from the applicant;

(6) Whether the site is agricultural land, forest, a public contact site, or a reclamation site, as such site types are defined in 9VAC25-31-500;

(7) The type of vegetation grown on the site, if known, and the nitrogen requirement for this vegetation;

(8) Whether either of the vector attraction reduction options of 9VAC25-31-720 B 9 or 10 is met at the site, and a description of any procedures employed at the time of use to reduce vector attraction properties in sewage sludge; and

(9) Other information that describes how the site will be managed, as specified by the board.

d. The following information for each land application site that has been identified at the time of permit application, if the applicant intends to apply bulk sewage sludge subject to the cumulative pollutant loading rates in 9VAC25-31-540 B 2 to the site:

(1) Whether the applicant has contacted the permitting authority in the state where the bulk sewage sludge subject to 9VAC25-31-540 B 2 will be applied, to ascertain whether bulk sewage sludge subject to 9VAC25-31-540 B 2 has been applied to the site on or since July 20, 1993, and if so, the name of the permitting authority and the name and phone number of a contact person at the permitting authority;

(2) Identification of facilities other than the applicant's facility that have sent, or are sending, sewage sludge subject to the cumulative pollutant loading rates in 9VAC25-31-540 B 2 to the site since July 20, 1993, if, based on the inquiry in subdivision 8 d (1) of this subsection, bulk sewage sludge subject to cumulative pollutant loading rates in 9VAC25-31-540 B 2 has been applied to the site since July 20, 1993.

e. If not all land application sites have been identified at the time of permit application, the applicant must submit a land application plan that, at a minimum:

(1) Describes the geographical area covered by the plan;

(2) Identifies the site selection criteria;

(3) Describes how the site(s) will be managed;

(4) Provides for advance notice to the board of specific land application sites and reasonable time for the board to object prior to land application of the sewage sludge and to notify persons residing on property bordering such sites for the purpose of receiving written comments from those persons for a period not to exceed 30 days. The department shall, based upon these comments, determine whether additional site-specific requirements should be included in the authorization for land application at the site; and

(5) Provides for advance public notice of land application sites in a newspaper of general circulation in the area of the land application site.

A request to increase the acreage authorized by the initial permit by 50% or more shall be treated as a new application for purposes of public notice and public hearings.

9. An applicant for a permit authorizing the land application of sewage sludge shall provide to the department, and to each locality in which the applicant proposes to land apply sewage sludge, written evidence of financial responsibility, including both current liability and pollution insurance, or such other evidence of financial responsibility as the board may establish by regulation in an amount not less than $1 million per occurrence, which shall be available to pay claims for cleanup costs, personal injury, bodily injury and property damage resulting from the transport, storage and land application of sewage sludge in Virginia. The aggregate amount of financial liability to be maintained by the applicant shall be $1 million for companies with less than $5 million in annual gross revenue and shall be $2 million for companies with $5 million or more in annual gross revenue.

10. If sewage sludge from the applicant's facility is placed on a surface disposal site, the applicant must provide the following information:

a. The total dry metric tons of sewage sludge from the applicant's facility that is placed on surface disposal sites per 365-day period.

b. The following information for each surface disposal site receiving sewage sludge from the applicant's facility that the applicant does not own or operate:

(1) The site name or number, contact person, mailing address, and telephone number for the surface disposal site; and

(2) The total dry metric tons from the applicant's facility per 365-day period placed on the surface disposal site.

c. The following information for each active sewage sludge unit at each surface disposal site that the applicant owns or operates:

(1) The name or number and the location of the active sewage sludge unit;

(2) The unit's latitude and longitude to the nearest second, and method of determination;

(3) If not already provided, a topographic map (or other map if a topographic map is unavailable) that shows the unit's location;

(4) The total dry metric tons placed on the active sewage sludge unit per 365-day period;

(5) The total dry metric tons placed on the active sewage sludge unit over the life of the unit;

(6) A description of any liner for the active sewage sludge unit, including whether it has a maximum permeability of 1 X 10^-7cm/sec;

(7) A description of any leachate collection system for the active sewage sludge unit, including the method used for leachate disposal, and any federal, state, and local permit number(s) for leachate disposal;

(8) If the active sewage sludge unit is less than 150 meters from the property line of the surface disposal site, the actual distance from the unit boundary to the site property line;

(9) The remaining capacity (dry metric tons) for the active sewage sludge unit;

(10) The date on which the active sewage sludge unit is expected to close, if such a date has been identified;

(11) The following information for any other facility that sends sewage sludge to the active sewage sludge unit:

(a) The name, contact person, and mailing address of the facility; and

(b) Available information regarding the quality of the sewage sludge received from the facility, including any treatment at the facility to reduce pathogens or vector attraction characteristics;

(12) Whether any of the vector attraction reduction options of 9VAC25-31-720 B 9 through 11 is met at the active sewage sludge unit, and a description of any procedures employed at the time of disposal to reduce vector attraction properties in sewage sludge;

(13) The following information, as applicable to any groundwater monitoring occurring at the active sewage sludge unit:

(a) A description of any groundwater monitoring occurring at the active sewage sludge unit;

(b) Any available groundwater monitoring data, with a description of the well locations and approximate depth to groundwater;

(c) A copy of any groundwater monitoring plan that has been prepared for the active sewage sludge unit;

(d) A copy of any certification that has been obtained from a qualified groundwater scientist that the aquifer has not been contaminated; and

(14) If site-specific pollutant limits are being sought for the sewage sludge placed on this active sewage sludge unit, information to support such a request.

11. If sewage sludge from the applicant's facility is fired in a sewage sludge incinerator, the applicant must provide the following information:

a. The total dry metric tons of sewage sludge from the applicant's facility that is fired in sewage sludge incinerators per 365-day period.

b. The following information for each sewage sludge incinerator firing the applicant's sewage sludge that the applicant does not own or operate:

(1) The name and/or number, contact person, mailing address, and telephone number of the sewage sludge incinerator; and

(2) The total dry metric tons from the applicant's facility per 365-day period fired in the sewage sludge incinerator.

12. If sewage sludge from the applicant's facility is sent to a municipal solid waste landfill (MSWLF), the applicant must provide the following information for each MSWLF to which sewage sludge is sent:

a. The name, contact person, mailing address, location, and all applicable permit numbers of the MSWLF;

b. The total dry metric tons per 365-day period sent from this facility to the MSWLF;

c. A determination of whether the sewage sludge meets applicable requirements for disposal of sewage sludge in a MSWLF, including the results of the paint filter liquids test and any additional requirements that apply on a site-specific basis; and

d. Information, if known, indicating whether the MSWLF complies with criteria set forth in the Virginia Solid Waste Management Regulations, 9VAC20-80.

13. All applicants must provide the name, mailing address, telephone number, and responsibilities of all contractors responsible for any operational or maintenance aspects of the facility related to sewage sludge generation, treatment, use, or disposal.

14. At the request of the board, the applicant must provide any other information necessary to determine the appropriate standards for permitting under Part VI (9VAC25-31-420 et seq.) of this chapter, and must provide any other information necessary to assess the sewage sludge use and disposal practices, determine whether to issue a permit, or identify appropriate permit requirements; and pertinent plans, specifications, maps and such other relevant information as may be required, in scope and details satisfactory to the board.

15. All applications must be signed by a certifying official in compliance with 9VAC25-31-110.

Q. Applications for facilities with cooling water intake structures.

1. Application requirements. New facilities with new or modified cooling water intake structures. New facilities with cooling water intake structures as defined in 9VAC25-31-165 must report the information required under subdivisions 2, 3, and 4 of this subsection and under 9VAC25-31-165. Requests for alternative requirements under 9VAC25-31-165 must be submitted with the permit application.

2. Source water physical data. These include:

a. A narrative description and scaled drawings showing the physical configuration of all source water bodies used by the facility, including area dimensions, depths, salinity and temperature regimes, and other documentation that supports the determination of the water body type where each cooling water intake structure is located;

b. Identification and characterization of the source water body's hydrological and geomorphologic features, as well as the methods used to conduct any physical studies to determine the intake's area of influence within the water body and the results of such studies; and

c. Location maps.

3. Cooling water intake structure data. These include:

a. A narrative description of the configuration of each cooling water intake structure and where it is located in the water body and in the water column;

b. Latitude and longitude in degrees, minutes, and seconds for each cooling water intake structure;

c. A narrative description of the operation of each cooling water intake structure, including design intake flow, daily hours of operation, number of days of the year in operation and seasonal changes, if applicable;

d. A flow distribution and water balance diagram that includes all sources of water to the facility, recirculation flows and discharges; and

e. Engineering drawings of the cooling water intake structure.

4. Source water baseline biological characterization data. This information is required to characterize the biological community in the vicinity of the cooling water intake structure and to characterize the operation of the cooling water intake structures. The department may also use this information in subsequent permit renewal proceedings to determine if the design and construction technology plan as required in 9VAC25-31-165 should be revised. This supporting information must include existing data if available. Existing data may be supplemented with data from newly conducted field studies. The information must include:

a. A list of the data in subdivisions 4 b through 4 f of this subsection that is not available and efforts made to identify sources of the data;

b. A list of species (or relevant taxa) for all life stages and their relative abundance in the vicinity of the cooling water intake structure;

c. Identification of the species and life stages that would be most susceptible to impingement and entrainment. Species evaluated should include the forage base as well as those most important in terms of significance to commercial and recreational fisheries;

d. Identification and evaluation of the primary period of reproduction, larval recruitment, and period of peak abundance for relevant taxa;

e. Data representative of the seasonal and daily activities (e.g., feeding and water column migration) of biological organisms in the vicinity of the cooling water intake structure;

f. Identification of all threatened, endangered, and other protected species that might be susceptible to impingement and entrainment at the cooling water intake structures;

g. Documentation of any public participation or consultation with federal or state agencies undertaken in development of the plan; and

h. If information requested in subdivision 4 of this subsection is supplemented with data collected using field studies, supporting documentation for the source water baseline biological characterization must include a description of all methods and quality assurance procedures for sampling, and data analysis including a description of the study area; taxonomic identification of sampled and evaluated biological assemblages (including all life stages of fish and shellfish); and sampling and data analysis methods. The sampling and/or data analysis methods used must be appropriate for a quantitative survey and based on consideration of methods used in other biological studies performed within the same source water body. The study area should include, at a minimum, the area of influence of the cooling water intake structure.

Note 1: Until further notice subdivision G 7 e (1) of this section and the corresponding portions of the VPDES application Form 2C are suspended as they apply to coal mines.

Note 2: Until further notice subdivision G 7 e (1) of this section and the corresponding portions of Item V-C of the VPDES application Form 2C are suspended as they apply to:

a. Testing and reporting for all four organic fractions in the Greige Mills Subcategory of the Textile Mills industry (subpart C-Low water use processing of 40 CFR Part 410 (2005)), and testing and reporting for the pesticide fraction in all other subcategories of this industrial category.

b. Testing and reporting for the volatile, base/neutral and pesticide fractions in the Base and Precious Metals Subcategory of the Ore Mining and Dressing industry (subpart B of 40 CFR Part 440 (2005)), and testing and reporting for all four fractions in all other subcategories of this industrial category.

c. Testing and reporting for all four GC/MS fractions in the Porcelain Enameling industry.

Note 3: Until further notice subdivision G 7 e (1) of this section and the corresponding portions of Item V-C of the VPDES application Form 2C are suspended as they apply to:

a. Testing and reporting for the pesticide fraction in the Tall Oil Rosin Subcategory (subpart D) and Rosin-Based Derivatives Subcategory (subpart F) of the Gum and Wood Chemicals industry (40 CFR Part 454 (2005)), and testing and reporting for the pesticide and base-neutral fractions in all other subcategories of this industrial category.

b. Testing and reporting for the pesticide fraction in the leather tanning and finishing, paint and ink formulation, and photographic supplies industrial categories.

c. Testing and reporting for the acid, base/neutral and pesticide fractions in the petroleum refining industrial category.

d. Testing and reporting for the pesticide fraction in the Papergrade Sulfite Subcategories (subparts J and U) of the Pulp and Paper industry (40 CFR Part 430 (2005)); testing and reporting for the base/neutral and pesticide fractions in the following subcategories: Deink (subpart Q), Dissolving Kraft (subpart F), and Paperboard from Waste Paper (subpart E); testing and reporting for the volatile, base/neutral and pesticide fractions in the following subcategories: BCT Bleached Kraft (subpart H), Semi-Chemical (subparts B and C), and Nonintegrated-Fine Papers (subpart R); and testing and reporting for the acid, base/neutral, and pesticide fractions in the following subcategories: Fine Bleached Kraft (subpart I), Dissolving Sulfite Pulp (subpart K), Groundwood-Fine Papers (subpart O), Market Bleached Kraft (subpart G), Tissue from Wastepaper (subpart T), and Nonintegrated-Tissue Papers (subpart S).

e. Testing and reporting for the base/neutral fraction in the Once-Through Cooling Water, Fly Ash and Bottom Ash Transport Water process wastestreams of the Steam Electric Power Plant industrial category.

9VAC25-31-290. Public notice of permit actions and public comment period.

A. Scope.

1. The board shall give public notice that the following actions have occurred:

a. A draft permit has been prepared under 9VAC25-31-260 D;

b. A public hearing has been scheduled under 9VAC25-31-310; or

c. A VPDES new source determination has been made under 9VAC25-31-180.

2. No public notice is required when a request for permit modification, revocation and reissuance, or termination is denied under 9VAC25-31-370 B. Written notice of that denial shall be given to the requester and to the permittee. Public notice shall not be required for submission or approval of plans and specifications or conceptual engineering reports not required to be submitted as part of the application.

3. Public notices may describe more than one permit or permit actions.

B. Timing.

1. Public notice of the preparation of a draft permit required under subsection A of this section shall allow at least 30 days for public comment.

2. Public notice of a public hearing shall be given at least 30 days before the hearing. (Public notice of the hearing may be given at the same time as public notice of the draft permit and the two notices may be combined.)

C. Methods. Public notice of activities described in subdivision A 1 of this section shall be given by the following methods:

1. By mailing a copy of a notice to the following persons (any person otherwise entitled to receive notice under this subdivision may waive his or her rights to receive notice for any classes and categories of permits):

a. The applicant (except for VPDES general permits when there is no applicant);

b. Any other agency which the board knows has issued or is required to issue a VPDES, sludge management permit;

c. Federal and state agencies with jurisdiction over fish, shellfish, and wildlife resources and over coastal zone management plans, the Advisory Council on Historic Preservation, State Historic Preservation Officers, including any affected states (Indian Tribes);

d. Any state agency responsible for plan development under § 208(b)(2), 208(b)(4) or § 303(e) of the CWA and the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service and the National Marine Fisheries Service;

e. Any user identified in the permit application of a privately owned treatment works;

f. Persons on a mailing list developed by:

(1) Including those who request in writing to be on the list;

(2) Soliciting persons for area lists from participants in past permit proceedings in that area; and

(3) Notifying the public of the opportunity to be put on the mailing list through periodic publication in the public press and in such publications as EPA regional and state funded newsletters, environmental bulletins, or state law journals. (The board may update the mailing list from time to time by requesting written indication of continued interest from those listed. The board may delete from the list the name of any person who fails to respond to such a request.);

g. (1) Any unit of local government having jurisdiction over the area where the facility is proposed to be located; and

(2) Each state agency having any authority under state law with respect to the construction or operation of such facility;

2. By publication once a week for two successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the area affected by the discharge. The cost of public notice shall be paid by the owner; and

3. Any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice of the action in question to the persons potentially affected by it, including press releases or any other forum or medium to elicit public participation.

D. Contents.

1. All public notices issued under this part shall contain the following minimum information:

a. Name and address of the office processing the permit action for which notice is being given;

b. Name and address of the permittee or permit applicant and, if different, of the facility or activity regulated by the permit, except in the case of VPDES draft general permits;

c. A brief description of the business conducted at the facility or activity described in the permit application or the draft permit, for VPDES general permits when there is no application;

d. Name, address and telephone number of a person from whom interested persons may obtain further information, including copies of the draft permit or draft general permit, as the case may be, statement of basis or fact sheet, and the application;

e. A brief description of the procedures for submitting comments and the time and place of any public hearing that will be held, including a statement of procedures to request a public hearing (unless a hearing has already been scheduled) and other procedures by which the public may participate in the final permit decision;

f. A general description of the location of each existing or proposed discharge point and the name of the receiving water and the sludge use and disposal practice or practices and the location of each sludge treatment works treating domestic sewage and use or disposal sites known at the time of permit application. For draft general permits, this requirement will be satisfied by a map or description of the permit area;

g. Requirements applicable to cooling water intake structures under § 316 of the CWA, in accordance with 9VAC25-31-165; and

h. Any additional information considered necessary or proper.

2. In addition to the general public notice described in subdivision 1 of this subsection, the public notice of a public hearing under 9VAC25-31-310 shall contain the following information:

a. Reference to the date of previous public notices relating to the permit;

b. Date, time, and place of the public hearing;

c. A brief description of the nature and purpose of the public hearing, including the applicable rules and procedures; and

d. A concise statement of the issues raised by the persons requesting the public hearing.

3. Public notice of a VPDES draft permit for a discharge where a request for alternate thermal effluent limitations has been filed shall include:

a. A statement that the thermal component of the discharge is subject to effluent limitations incorporated in 9VAC25-31-30 and a brief description, including a quantitative statement, of the thermal effluent limitations proposed under § 301 or § 306 of the CWA;

b. A statement that an alternate thermal effluent limitation request has been filed and that alternative less stringent effluent limitations may be imposed on the thermal component of the discharge under the law and § 316(a) of the CWA and a brief description, including a quantitative statement, of the alternative effluent limitations, if any, included in the request; and

c. If the applicant has filed an early screening request for a CWA § 316(a) variance, a statement that the applicant has submitted such a plan.

E. In addition to the general public notice described in subdivision D 1 of this section, all persons identified in subdivisions C 1 a, b, c, and d of this section shall be mailed a copy of the fact sheet or statement of basis, the permit application (if any) and the draft permit (if any).

F. Upon receipt of an application for the issuance of a new or modified permit other than those for agricultural production or aquacultural production activities, the board shall :

1. Notify, in writing, the locality wherein the discharge or, as applicable, the associated land application of sewage sludge, or land disposal of treated sewage, stabilized sewage sludge or stabilized septage does or is proposed to take place of, at a minimum:

a. The name of the applicant;

b. The nature of the application and proposed discharge;

c. The availability and timing of any comment period; and

d. Upon request, any other information known to, or in the possession of, the board or the department regarding the applicant not required to be held confidential by this chapter.

2. Establish a date for a public meeting to discuss technical issues relating to proposals for land application of sewage sludge, or land disposal of treated sewage, stabilized sewage sludge or stabilized septage. The department shall give notice of the date, time, and place of the public meeting and a description of the proposal by publication in a newspaper of general circulation in the city or county where the proposal is to take place. Public notice of the scheduled meeting shall occur no fewer than seven or more than 14 days prior to the meeting. The board shall not consider the application for the proposal to be complete issue the permit until the public meeting has been held and comment has been received from the local governing body, or until 30 days have lapsed from the date of the public meeting.

3. Except for land application of sewage sludge or land disposal of treated sewage, stabilized sewage sludge or stabilized septage, make a good faith effort to provide this same notice and information to (i) each locality and riparian property owner to a distance one-quarter mile downstream and one-quarter mile upstream or to the fall line whichever is closer on tidal waters and (ii) each locality and riparian property owner to a distance one-half mile downstream on nontidal waters. Distances shall be measured from the point, or proposed point, of discharge. If the receiving river at the point or proposed point of discharge is two miles wide or greater, the riparian property owners on the opposite shore need not be notified. Notice to property owners shall be based on names and addresses taken from local tax rolls. Such names and addresses shall be provided by the commissioners of the revenue or the tax assessor's office of the affected jurisdictions upon request by the board.

4. For a site that is to be added to an existing permit authorizing land application of sewage sludge, notify persons residing on property bordering such site and receive written comments from those persons for a period not to exceed 30 days. Based upon the written comments, the department shall determine whether additional site-specific requirements should be included in the authorization for land application at the site.

G. Before issuing any permit, if the board finds that there are localities particularly affected by the permit, the board shall:

1. Publish, or require the applicant to publish, a notice in a local paper of general circulation in the localities affected at least 30 days prior to the close of any public comment period. Such notice shall contain a statement of the estimated local impact of the proposed permit, which at a minimum shall include information on the specific pollutants involved and the total quantity of each which may be discharged; and

2. Mail the notice to the chief elected official and chief administrative officer and planning district commission for those localities.

Written comments shall be accepted by the board for at least 15 days after any public hearing on the permit, unless the board votes to shorten the period. For the purposes of this section, the term "locality particularly affected" means any locality which bears any identified disproportionate material water quality impact which would not be experienced by other localities.

Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-32. Virginia Pollution Abatement (VPA) Permit Regulation (amending 9VAC25-32-140, 9VAC25-32-240).

Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.15 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: September 30, 2009.

Agency Contact: William K. Norris, Department of Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 698-4022, FAX (804) 698-4347, or email william.norris@deq.virginia.gov.

Summary:

This action implements the 2009 legislative changes to the State Water Control Law as a result of Chapter 42 of the 2009 Acts of Assembly. These changes clarify public notice requirements for permit applications for land application acreage increases of 50% or more and clarify when a permit for land application is issued in relation to the public meeting and public comment opportunity on the application. The resulting regulatory changes provide that an application for any permit amendments to increase the acreage authorized by the initial permit by 50% or more shall be treated as a new application for purposes of public notice and public hearings and provide that the board shall not issue the permit for land disposal until the public meeting has been held and comment has been received from the local governing body, or until 30 days have lapsed from the date of the public meeting.

Part III
Public Involvement

9VAC25-32-140. Public notice of VPA permit action and public comment period.

A. Every draft VPA permit shall be given public notice, paid for by the owner, by publication once a week for two successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the area affected by the pollutant management activity.

B. Interested persons shall have a period of at least 30 days following the date of the initial newspaper public notice to submit written comments on the tentative decision and to request a public hearing.

C. The contents of the public notice of an application for a VPA permit shall include:

1. The name and address of the applicant. If the location of the pollutant management activity differs from the address of the applicant the notice shall also state the location of the pollutant management activity including storage and land application sites;

2. A brief description of the business or activity conducted at the facility;

3. A statement of the tentative determination to issue or deny a VPA permit;

4. A brief description of the final determination procedure;

5. The address and phone number of a specific person at the state office from whom further information may be obtained; and

6. A brief description of how to submit comments and request a hearing.

D. Public notice shall not be required for submission or approval of plans and specifications or conceptual engineering reports not required to be submitted as part of the application.

E. Upon receipt of an application for a permit or for a modification of a permit, the board shall :

1. Cause to be notified, in writing, the locality wherein the pollutant management activity does or is proposed to take place. This notification shall, at a minimum, include:

a. The name of the applicant;

b. The nature of the application and proposed pollutant management activity; and

c. Upon request, any other information known to, or in the possession of, the board or the department regarding the application except as restricted by 9VAC25-32-150.

2. Establish a date for a public meeting to discuss technical issues relating to proposals for land application of biosolids or land disposal of treated sewage, stabilized sewage sludge or stabilized septage. The department shall give notice of the date, time, and place of the public meeting and a description of the proposal by publication in a newspaper of general circulation in the city or county where the proposal is to take place. Public notice of the scheduled meeting shall occur no fewer than seven or more than 14 days prior to the meeting. The board shall not consider the application for the proposal to be complete issue the permit until the public meeting has been held and comment has been received from the local governing body or until 30 days have lapsed from the date of the public meeting.

F. Before issuing any permit, if the board finds that there are localities particularly affected by the permit, the board shall:

1. Publish, or require the applicant to publish, a notice in a local paper of general circulation in the localities affected at least 30 days prior to the close of any public comment period. Such notice shall contain a statement of the estimated local impact of the proposed permit, which at a minimum shall include information on the specific pollutants involved and the total quantity of each which may be discharged; and

2. Mail the notice to the chief elected official and chief administrative officer and planning district commission for those localities.

Written comments shall be accepted by the board for at least 15 days after any public hearing on the permit, unless the board votes to shorten the period. For the purposes of this section, the term "locality particularly affected" means any locality which bears any identified disproportionate material water quality impact which would not be experienced by other localities.

G. When a site is to be added to an existing permit authorizing land application of biosolids, the department shall notify persons residing on property bordering such site, and shall receive written comments from those persons for a period not to exceed 30 days. Based upon the written comments, the department shall determine whether additional site-specific requirements should be included in the authorization for land application at the site.

9VAC25-32-240. Minor modification.

A. Upon request of the permittee, or upon board initiative with the consent of the permittee, minor modifications may be made in the VPA permit without following the public involvement procedures.

B. Minor modification may only:

1. Correct typographical errors;

2. Require reporting by the permittee at a frequency other than that required in the VPA permit;

3. Change an interim compliance date in a schedule of compliance to no more than 120 days from the original compliance date and provided it will not interfere with the final compliance date;

4. Allow for a change in name, ownership or operational control when the board determines that no other change in the VPA permit is necessary, provided that a written agreement containing a specific date for transfer of VPA permit responsibility, coverage and liability from the current to the new permittee has been submitted to the department;

5. Delete the listing of a land application site when the pollutant management activity is terminated and does not result in an increase of pollutants which would exceed VPA permit limitations;

6. Reduce VPA permit limitations to reflect a reduction in the permitted activity when such reduction results from a shutdown of processes or pollutant generating activities or from connection of the permitted activity to a POTW;

7. Change plans and specifications where no other changes in the VPA permit are required;

8. Authorize treatment facility expansions, production increases or process modifications which will not cause a significant change in the quantity of pollutants being managed or a significant change in the nature of the pollutant management activity; or

9. Delete VPA permit limitation or monitoring requirements for specific pollutants when the activities generating these pollutants are terminated.

C. An application for a any permit amendment amendments to increase the acreage authorized by the initial permit by 50% or more shall be treated as a new application for purposes of public notice and public hearings.

Title of Regulation: 10VAC5-200. Payday Lending (amending 10VAC5-200-100).

Statutory Authority: §§ 6.1-458 and 12.1-13 of the Code of Virginia.

Public Hearing Information: A public hearing will be scheduled upon request.

Public Comments: Public comments may be submitted until 5 p.m. on October 30, 2009.

Agency Contact: E. J. Face, Jr., Commissioner, Bureau of Financial Institutions, State Corporation Commission, P.O. Box 640, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9659, FAX (804) 371-9416, or email joe.face@scc.virginia.gov.

Summary:

The proposed changes incorporate certain provisions of Chapters 784 and 860 of the 2009 Acts of Assembly that relate to the conduct of open-end credit business from payday lending offices. The proposal also incorporates a provision of § 6.1-439 of the Code of Virginia by providing that a person registered or required to be registered as a check casher under Chapter 17 (§ 6.1-432 et seq.) of Title 6.1 of the Code of Virginia is prohibited from making loans unless the person is licensed under, and the loans are made in accordance with, the Payday Loan Act. Subsection B of 10VAC5-200-100 specifies additional findings that the State Corporation Commission (commission) would need to make before approving an application to conduct other business in a licensee's payday lending offices. Subsection E of 10VAC5-200-100 adds a set of uniform conditions that would generally be applicable to the conduct of other business in payday lending offices. Subsections F through K of 10VAC5-200-100 prescribe the conditions that would be attached to specific types of other businesses, such as making open-end auto title loans, acting as an agent of a money transmitter, and providing tax preparation services. Under subsection M of 10VAC5-200-100, the conditions set forth in the regulation would generally supersede the conditions established in the approval orders that were previously entered by the commission. Lastly, subsection O of 10VAC5-200-100 is added to expressly provide that failure to comply with applicable laws or conditions may result in revocation of a payday lender's other business authority, fines, suspension, or revocation of a payday lender's license, or other appropriate enforcement action.

AT RICHMOND, AUGUST 4, 2009

COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA

At the relation of the

STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION

CASE NO. BFI-2009-00344

Ex Parte: In the matter of adopting
rules for the conduct of other business
in payday lending offices

ORDER TO TAKE NOTICE

Section 12.1-13 of the Code of Virginia provides that the State Corporation Commission ("Commission") shall have the power to promulgate rules and regulations in the enforcement and administration of all laws within its jurisdiction. Section 6.1-458 of the Code of Virginia provides that the Commission shall promulgate such rules and regulations as it deems appropriate to effect the purposes of the Payday Loan Act ("Act"), § 6.1-444 et seq. of the Code of Virginia. The regulations issued by the Commission pursuant to the Act are set forth in Title 10 of the Virginia Administrative Code.

The Bureau of Financial Institutions ("Bureau") has submitted to the Commission proposed amendments to the regulation set forth at 10 VAC 5-200-100 of the Virginia Administrative Code, entitled "Other business in payday lending offices." The impetus for the proposed amendments was legislation enacted during the 2009 session of the Virginia General Assembly. Chapters 784 and 860 of the 2009 Acts of Assembly provide in pertinent part that licensed payday lenders are generally prohibited from engaging in the extension of credit under an open-end credit or similar plan described in § 6.1-330.78 of the Code of Virginia, and third parties are generally prohibited from engaging in the extension of credit under an open-end credit or similar plan described in § 6.1-330.78 at any office, suite, room, or place of business where a licensed payday lender conducts the business of making payday loans. The legislation does not prohibit an extension of credit under an open-end credit or similar plan if it is secured by a security interest in a motor vehicle.

Since the legislation enacted by the General Assembly impacts § 6.1-463 of the Code of Virginia and 10 VAC 5-200-100, the Bureau is proposing that the Commission modify its other business regulation by establishing a set of uniform conditions that would be applicable to licensed payday lenders and third parties making open-end loans secured by a security interest in a motor vehicle from one or more payday lending offices. The Bureau is also proposing that the Commission incorporate into its regulation the conditions that have been attached to other types of businesses that may be conducted from payday lending offices, such as acting as an agent of a money transmitter or providing tax preparation services. The conditions identified in the proposed regulation are derived from Commission orders approving the conduct of other business in payday lending offices. If adopted by the Commission, the conditions in the regulation would generally supersede the conditions set forth in the approval orders that were entered by the Commission prior to the effective date of the amended regulation.

Apart from setting forth by regulation the conditions applicable to the conduct of other business in payday lending offices, the Bureau is also proposing to amend 10 VAC 5-200-100 by specifying additional findings that the Commission would need to make before approving an application to conduct other business in a licensee's payday lending offices. The Bureau is also proposing to expressly provide that failure to comply with applicable laws or conditions may result in revocation of a licensee's other business authority, fines, suspension or revocation of a payday lender's license, or other appropriate enforcement action.

While interested persons may submit comments on any aspect of the proposed regulation, commenters addressing the provisions relating to open-end loans secured by a security interest in a motor vehicle are specifically requested to submit comments on (i) whether a licensee or third party making such loans should be required to record its security interest with the Department of Motor Vehicles, and (ii) whether a licensee or third party should be prohibited from entering into an open-end credit plan secured by a prospective borrower's motor vehicle if the motor vehicle is already subject to a purchase money security interest or other outstanding lien.

The Commission is of the opinion that the proposed amendments submitted by the Bureau should be considered for adoption with an effective date of December 1, 2009.

Accordingly, IT IS ORDERED THAT:

(1) The proposed regulation entitled "Other business in payday lending offices," which amends 10 VAC 5-200-100, be attached hereto and made a part hereof.

(2) All interested persons who desire to comment or request a hearing on the proposed regulation shall file such comments or hearing request on or before October 30, 2009, in writing with Joel H. Peck, Clerk, State Corporation Commission, c/o Document Control Center, P.O. Box 2118, Richmond, Virginia 23218-2118 and shall refer to Case No. BFI-2009-00344. Requests for a hearing shall state why a hearing is necessary and why the issues cannot be adequately addressed in written comments. Interested persons desiring to submit comments electronically may do so by following the instructions available at the Commission's website, http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.

(3) If no written request for a hearing on the proposed regulation is filed on or before October 30, 2009, the Commission, upon consideration of any comments submitted in support of or in opposition to the proposed regulation, may adopt the proposed regulation as submitted by the Bureau.

(4) The Commission's Division of Information Resources shall cause a copy of this Order, together with the proposed regulation, to be forwarded to the Virginia Registrar of Regulations for appropriate publication in the Virginia Register of Regulations and shall make this Order and the attached proposed regulation available on the Commission's website, http://www.scc.virginia.gov/case.

AN ATTESTED COPY hereof, together with a copy of the proposed regulation, shall be sent by the Clerk of the Commission to the Commission's Office of General Counsel and the Commissioner of Financial Institutions, who shall mail a copy of this Order, together with the proposed regulation, to all licensed payday lenders and other interested parties designated by the Bureau.

10VAC5-200-100. Other business in payday lending offices.

A. This section governs the conduct of any business other than payday lending where a licensed payday lending business is conducted. As used in this section, the term "other business operator" refers to a licensed payday lender or third party, including an affiliate of the licensed payday lender, who conducts or wants to conduct other business from one or more payday lending offices.

1. Pursuant to § 6.1-463 of the Code of Virginia, a licensee shall not conduct the business of making payday loans at any office, suite, room, or place of business where any other business is solicited or conducted, except a registered check cashing business or such other business as the commission determines should be permitted, and subject to such conditions as the commission deems necessary and in the public interest.

2. Notwithstanding any provision of this section or order entered by the commission prior to December 1, 2009, the following other businesses shall not be conducted from any office, suite, room, or place of business where a licensed payday lending business is conducted:

a. Selling insurance or enrolling borrowers under group insurance policies.

b. Making loans under an open-end credit or similar plan as described in § 6.1-330.78 of the Code of Virginia unless the loans are secured by a security interest in a motor vehicle as this term is defined in § 46.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.

3. Pursuant to § 6.1-439 of the Code of Virginia, no person registered or required to be registered as a check casher under Chapter 17 (§ 6.1-432 et seq.) of Title 6.1 of the Code of Virginia shall make loans from any location, including an office, suite, room, or place of business where a licensed payday lending business is conducted, unless the person is licensed under the Act and the loans are made in accordance with the Act.

B. Upon the filing of a written application, provision of any information relating to the application as the Commissioner of Financial Institutions may require, and payment of the fee required by law, and subject to approval by the commission and the imposition of such conditions as the commission deems necessary and in the public interest, other business may be conducted in a location where a licensed payday lending business is conducted if the commission determines finds that such (i) the proposed other business is financial in nature, except the selling of insurance or the enrolling of borrowers under group insurance policies; (ii) the proposed other business is in the public interest; (iii) the other business operator has the general fitness to warrant belief that the business will be operated in accordance with law; and (iv) the applicant has been operating its payday lending business in accordance with the Act and this chapter. The commission shall in its discretion determine whether a proposed other business is "financial in nature," and shall not be obliged to consider the meaning of this term under federal law. A business is financial in nature if it primarily deals with the offering of debt, money or credit, or services directly related thereto.

C. Nothing contained herein shall apply to any nonfinancial Nonfinancial other business may be conducted pursuant to any order of the commission entered on or before June 15, 2004. However, this subsection shall not be construed to authorize any person to begin engaging in such other business at payday lending locations where such other business was not conducted as of June 15, 2004.

D. Written evidence of commission approval of each other business conducted by any payday lender licensee an other business operator should be maintained at each location where such other business is conducted.

E. Except as otherwise provided in subsection N of this section, all approved other businesses in payday lending offices shall be conducted in accordance with the following conditions:

1. The licensee shall not make a payday loan to a borrower to enable the borrower to purchase or pay any amount owed in connection with the (i) goods or services sold, or (ii) loans offered, facilitated, or made by the other business operator at the licensee's payday lending offices.

2. The other business operator shall comply with all federal and state laws and regulations applicable to its other business, including any applicable licensing requirements.

3. The other business operator shall not use or cause to be published any advertisement or other information that contains any false, misleading, or deceptive statement or representation concerning its other business, including the rates, terms, or conditions of the products, services, or loans that it offers. The other business operator shall not make or cause to be made any misrepresentation as to (i) its being licensed to conduct the other business, or (ii) the extent to which it is subject to supervision or regulation.

4. The licensee shall not make a payday loan or vary the terms of a payday loan on the condition or requirement that a person also (i) purchase a good or service from, or (ii) obtain a loan from or through, the other business operator. The other business operator shall not (a) sell its goods or services, (b) offer, facilitate, or make loans, or (c) vary the terms of its goods, services, or loans, on the condition or requirement that a person also obtain a payday loan from the licensee.

5. The other business operator shall maintain books and records for its other business separate and apart from the licensee's payday lending business and in a different location within the licensee's payday lending offices. The bureau shall be given access to all such books and records and be furnished with any information and records that it may require in order to determine compliance with all applicable conditions, laws, and regulations.

F. If a licensee (i) received commission authority for an other business operator to conduct open-end credit business from the licensee's payday lending offices, or (ii) receives commission authority for an other business operator to conduct open-end auto title lending business from the licensee's payday lending offices, the following additional conditions shall be applicable:

1. Any loan made by the other business operator pursuant to an open-end credit agreement shall be secured by a security interest in a motor vehicle, as defined in § 46.2-100 of the Code of Virginia.

2. The licensee shall not make a payday loan to a person if (i) the person has an outstanding open-end loan from the other business operator, or (ii) on the same day the person repaid or satisfied in full an open-end loan from the other business operator.

3. The other business operator shall not make an open-end loan to a person pursuant to an open-end credit agreement if (i) the person has an outstanding payday loan from the licensee, or (ii) on the same day the person repaid or satisfied in full a payday loan from the licensee.

4. The other business operator and the licensee shall not make an open-end loan and a payday loan contemporaneously or in response to a single request for a loan or credit.

5. The licensee and other business operator shall provide each applicant for a payday loan or open-end credit plan with a separate disclosure, signed by the applicant, that clearly identifies all of the loan products available in the licensee's payday lending offices along with the corresponding annual percentage rate, interest rate, and other costs associated with each loan product.

G. If a licensee received or receives commission authority for an other business operator to conduct business as an authorized delegate or agent of a money order seller or money transmitter from the licensee's payday lending offices, the other business operator shall be and remain a party to a written agreement to act as an authorized delegate or agent of a person licensed or exempt from licensing as a money order seller or money transmitter under Chapter 12 (§ 6.1-370 et seq.) of Title 6.1 of the Code of Virginia. The other business operator shall not engage in money order sales or money transmission services on its own behalf or on behalf of any person other than a licensed or exempt money order seller or money transmitter with whom it has a written agreement.

H. If a licensee received or receives commission authority for an other business operator to conduct the business of (i) tax preparation and electronic tax filing services, or (ii) facilitating third party tax preparation and electronic tax filing services, from the licensee's payday lending offices, the following additional conditions shall be applicable:

1. The licensee shall not make, arrange, or broker a payday loan that is secured by an interest in a borrower's tax refund, or in whole or in part by (i) any other assignment of income payable to a borrower, or (ii) any assignment of an interest in a borrower's account at a depository institution. This condition shall not be construed to prohibit the licensee from making a payday loan that is secured solely by a check payable to the licensee drawn on a borrower's account at a depository institution.

2. The other business operator shall not engage in the business of (i) accepting funds for transmission to the Internal Revenue Service or other government instrumentalities, or (ii) receiving tax refunds for delivery to individuals, unless licensed or exempt from licensing under Chapter 12 (§ 6.1-370 et seq.) of Title 6.1 of the Code of Virginia.

I. If a licensee received or receives commission authority for an other business operator to conduct the business of facilitating or arranging tax refund anticipation loans or tax refund payments from the licensee's payday lending offices, the following additional conditions shall be applicable:

1. The other business operator shall not facilitate or arrange a tax refund anticipation loan or tax refund payment to enable a person to pay any amount owed to the licensee as a result of a payday loan transaction.

2. The other business operator and the licensee shall not facilitate or arrange a tax refund anticipation loan or tax refund payment and make a payday loan contemporaneously or in response to a single request for a loan or credit.

3. The licensee shall not make, arrange, or broker a payday loan that is secured by an interest in a borrower's tax refund, or in whole or in part by (i) any other assignment of income payable to a borrower, or (ii) any assignment of an interest in a borrower's account at a depository institution. This condition shall not be construed to prohibit the licensee from making a payday loan that is secured solely by a check payable to the licensee drawn on a borrower's account at a depository institution.

4. The other business operator shall not engage in the business of receiving tax refunds or tax refund payments for delivery to individuals unless licensed or exempt from licensing under Chapter 12 (§ 6.1-370 et seq.) of Title 6.1 of the Code of Virginia.

5. The licensee and other business operator shall provide each applicant for a payday loan or tax refund anticipation loan with a separate disclosure, signed by the applicant, that clearly identifies all of the loan products available in the licensee's payday lending offices along with the corresponding annual percentage rate, interest rate, and other costs associated with each loan product.

J. If a licensee received or receives commission authority for an other business operator to conduct a consumer finance business from the licensee's payday lending offices, the following additional conditions shall be applicable:

1. The licensee shall not make a payday loan to a person if (i) the person has an outstanding consumer finance loan from the other business operator, or (ii) on the same day the person repaid or satisfied in full a consumer finance loan from the other business operator.

2. The other business operator shall not make a consumer finance loan to a person if (i) the person has an outstanding payday loan from the licensee, or (ii) on the same day the person repaid or satisfied in full a payday loan from the licensee.

3. The licensee and other business operator shall not make a payday loan and a consumer finance loan contemporaneously or in response to a single request for a loan or credit.

4. The licensee and other business operator shall provide each applicant for a payday loan or consumer finance loan with a separate disclosure, signed by the applicant, that clearly identifies all of the loan products available in the licensee's payday lending offices along with the corresponding annual percentage rate, interest rate, and other costs associated with each loan product.

K. If a licensee received or receives commission authority for an other business operator to conduct the business of operating an automated teller machine from the licensee's payday lending offices, the other business operator shall not charge a fee or receive other compensation in connection with the use of its automated teller machine by a person when the person is withdrawing funds in order to make a payment on a payday loan from the licensee.

L. The commission may impose any additional conditions upon the conduct of other business in payday lending offices that it deems necessary and in the public interest.

M. Except as otherwise provided in subsection N of this section, the conditions set forth or referred to in subsections E through L of this section shall supersede the conditions set forth in the commission's approval orders entered prior to December 1, 2009.

N. If prior to December 1, 2009, a licensee received commission authority for an other business operator to conduct a business not identified in subsections F through K of this section, the conditions that were imposed by the commission at the time of the approval shall remain in full force and effect.

O. Failure by a licensee or other business operator to comply with any provision of this section or any condition imposed by the commission, or failure by a licensee to comply with the Act, this chapter, or any other law or regulation applicable to the conduct of the licensee's business, may result in the revocation of the authority to conduct other business, fines, license suspension, license revocation, or other appropriate enforcement action.

Title of Regulation: 12VAC5-421. Food Regulations (amending 12VAC5-421-10, 12VAC5-421-50, 12VAC5-421-60, 12VAC5-421-70, 12VAC5-421-80, 12VAC5-421-90, 12VAC5-421-100, 12VAC5-421-140, 12VAC5-421-180, 12VAC5-421-360, 12VAC5-421-370, 12VAC5-421-400, 12VAC5-421-410, 12VAC5-421-430, 12VAC5-421-440, 12VAC5-421-450, 12VAC5-421-490, 12VAC5-421-500, 12VAC5-421-540, 12VAC5-421-570, 12VAC5-421-680, 12VAC5-421-700, 12VAC5-421-730, 12VAC5-421-740, 12VAC5-421-760, 12VAC5-421-780, 12VAC5-421-790, 12VAC5-421-800, 12VAC5-421-820, 12VAC5-421-830, 12VAC5-421-850, 12VAC5-421-860, 12VAC5-421-870, 12VAC5-421-900, 12VAC5-421-950, 12VAC5-421-980, 12VAC5-421-1200, 12VAC5-421-1230, 12VAC5-421-1260, 12VAC5-421-1310, 12VAC5-421-1420, 12VAC5-421-1550, 12VAC5-421-1560, 12VAC5-421-1690, 12VAC5-421-1890, 12VAC5-421-1980, 12VAC5-421-2040, 12VAC5-421-2190, 12VAC5-421-2230, 12VAC5-421-2280, 12VAC5-421-2310, 12VAC5-421-2520, 12VAC5-421-2600, 12VAC5-421-2630, 12VAC5-421-2790, 12VAC5-421-2810, 12VAC5-421-2920, 12VAC5-421-2950, 12VAC5-421-2960, 12VAC5-421-3020, 12VAC5-421-3030, 12VAC5-421-3040, 12VAC5-421-3045, 12VAC5-421-3080, 12VAC5-421-3130, 12VAC5-421-3180, 12VAC5-421-3240, 12VAC5-421-3460, 12VAC5-421-3750, 12VAC5-421-3815, 12VAC5-421-3860, 12VAC5-421-4040, 12VAC5-421-4050, 12VAC5-421-4070; repealing 12VAC5-421-110, 12VAC5-421-120, 12VAC5-421-150, 12VAC5-421-750, 12VAC5-421-1020, 12VAC5-421-1030, 12VAC5-421-1440, 12VAC5-421-1880, 12VAC5-421-2510, 12VAC5-421-2590, 12VAC5-421-3010, 12VAC5-421-3050, 12VAC5-421-3060, 12VAC5-421-3110, 12VAC5-421-3120, 12VAC5-421-3160).

Statutory Authority: §§ 35.1-11 and 35.1-14 of the Code of Virginia.

Public Hearing Information:

October 21, 2009 - 2 p.m. - Virginia Department of Health, James Madison Building, 109 Governor Street, Fifth Floor Conference Room, Richmond, VA

Public Comments: Public comments may be submitted until 5 p.m. on October 30, 2009.

Agency Contact: Gary L. Hagy, Director of Food and General Environmental Services, Department of Health, 109 Governor St., Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 864-7455, TTY (800) 828-1120, or email gary.hagy@vdh.virginia.gov.

Summary:

The Food Regulations establish minimum sanitary standards for operating restaurants. Those standards include the safe and sanitary maintenance, storage, operation, and use of equipment; the safe preparation, handling, protection, and preservation of food, including necessary refrigeration or heating methods; procedures for vector and pest control; requirements for toilet and cleansing facilities for employees and customers; requirements for appropriate lighting and ventilation not otherwise provided for in the Uniform Statewide Building Code; requirements for an approved water supply and sewage disposal system; personal hygiene standards for employees, particularly those engaged in food handling; and the appropriate use of precautions to prevent the transmission of communicable diseases. The regulations also inform potential restaurant owners or operators how to obtain a permit to operate a restaurant from the department. The regulations are being amended to be consistent with the current 2007 supplement to the 2005 Food and Drug Administration's (FDA) Food Code. The current Food Regulations are based on the 2003 Supplement to the 2001 FDA Food Code. These changes are also being proposed concurrently with the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services (VDACS) adoption of the 2007 Supplement to the 2005 FDA Food Code. Pursuant to § 35.1-14 C and E of the Code of Virginia, this action is exempt from portions of the Administrative Process Act (APA), provided VDACS adopts the same version and both agency’s regulations have the same effective date. Both agencies are working toward that end. Both VDH and VDACS previously adopted the 2003 supplement to the 2001 FDA Food Code with an effective date of October 16, 2007.

Part I
Definitions, Purpose and Administration

12VAC5-421-10. Definitions.

The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.

"Accredited program" means a food protection manager certification program that has been evaluated and listed by an accrediting agency as conforming to national standards that certify individuals. "Accredited program" refers to the certification process and is a designation based upon an independent evaluation of factors such as the sponsor's mission; organizational structure; staff resources; revenue sources; policies; public information regarding program scope, eligibility requirements, recertification, discipline and grievance procedures; and test development and administration. "Accredited program" does not refer to training functions or educational programs.

"Additive" means either a (i) "food additive" having the meaning stated in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, § 201(s) and 21 CFR Part 170 or (ii) "color additive" having the meaning stated in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, § 201(t) and 21 CFR Part 70.

"Adulterated" has the meaning stated in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, § 402.

"Agent" means a legally authorized representative of the owner.

"Agent of the commissioner" means the district or local health director, unless otherwise stipulated.

"Approved" means acceptable to the department based on a determination of conformity with principles, practices, and generally recognized standards that protect public health.

"Approved water supply" means a waterworks which has a valid waterworks operation permit from the department or a nonpublic water supply which is evaluated, tested and if found in reasonable compliance with the construction standards of the Private Well Regulations (12VAC5-630) and the bacteriological water quality standards of the Virginia Waterworks Regulations (12VAC5-590), accepted and approved by the director or the director's designee.

"Asymptomatic" means without obvious symptoms; not showing or producing indication of a disease or other medical condition, such as an individual infected with a pathogen but not exhibiting or producing any signs or symptoms of vomiting, diarrhea, or jaundice. Asymptomatic includes not showing symptoms because symptoms have resolved or subsided, or because symptoms never manifested.

"a_w" means water activity which is a measure of the free moisture in a food, is the quotient of the water vapor pressure of the substance divided by the vapor pressure of pure water at the same temperature, and is indicated by the symbol a_w.

"Balut" means an embryo inside a fertile egg that has been incubated for a period sufficient for the embryo to reach a specific stage of development after which it is removed from incubation before hatching.

"Bed and breakfast" means a tourist home that serves meals.

"Beverage" means a liquid for drinking, including water.

"Board" means the State Board of Health.

"Bottled drinking water" means water that is sealed in bottles, packages, or other containers and offered for sale for human consumption.

"Building official" means a representative of the Department of Housing and Community Development.

"Casing" means a tubular container for sausage products made of either natural or artificial (synthetic) material.

"Certification number" means a unique combination of letters and numbers assigned by a shellfish control authority to a molluscan shellfish dealer according to the provisions of the National Shellfish Sanitation Program.

"CIP" means cleaned in place by the circulation or flowing by mechanical means through a piping system of a detergent solution, water rinse, and sanitizing solution onto or over equipment surfaces that require cleaning, such as the method used, in part, to clean and sanitize a frozen dessert machine. CIP does not include the cleaning of equipment such as band saws, slicers or mixers that are subjected to in-place manual cleaning without the use of a CIP system.

"CFR" means Code of Federal Regulations. Citations in these regulations to the CFR refer sequentially to the title, part, and section numbers, such as 21 CFR 178.1010 refers to Title 21, Part 178, Section 1010.

"Code of Federal Regulations" means the compilation of the general and permanent rules published in the Federal Register by the executive departments and agencies of the federal government which:

1. Is published annually by the U.S. Government Printing Office; and

2. Contains FDA rules in 21 CFR, USDA rules in 7 CFR and 9 CFR, EPA rules in 40 CFR, and Wildlife and Fisheries Rules in 50 CFR.

"Commingle" means:

1. To combine shellstock harvested on different days or from different growing areas as identified on the tag or label; or

2. To combine shucked shellfish from containers with different container codes or different shucking dates.

"Comminuted" means reduced in size by methods including chopping, flaking, grinding, or mincing. "Comminuted" includes fish or meat products that are reduced in size and restructured or reformulated such as gefilte fish, gyros, ground beef, and sausage; and a mixture of two or more types of meat that have been reduced in size and combined, such as sausages made from two or more meats.

"Commissary" means a catering establishment, restaurant, or any other place in which food, food containers or supplies are kept, handled, prepared, packaged or stored for distribution to satellite operations.

"Commissioner" means the State Health Commissioner, his duly designated officer or his agent.

"Conditional employee" means a potential food employee to whom a job offer is made, conditional on responses to subsequent medical questions or examinations designed to identify potential food employees who may be suffering from a disease that can be transmitted through food and done in compliance with Title 1 of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990.

"Confirmed disease outbreak" means a foodborne disease outbreak in which laboratory analysis of appropriate specimens identifies a causative organism or chemical and epidemiological analysis implicates the food as the source of the illness.

"Consumer" means a person who is a member of the public, takes possession of food, is not functioning in the capacity of an operator of a food establishment or food processing plant, and does not offer the food for resale.

"Corrosion-resistant materials" means a material that maintains acceptable surface cleanability characteristics under prolonged influence of the food to be contacted, the normal use of cleaning compounds and sanitizing solutions, and other conditions of the use environment.

"Counter-mounted equipment" means equipment that is not easily movable and is designed to be mounted off the floor on a table, counter, or shelf.

"Critical control point" means a point or procedure in a specific food system where loss of control may result in an unacceptable health risk.

"Critical item" means a provision of these regulations that, if in noncompliance, is more likely than other violations to contribute to food contamination, illness, or environmental degradation.

"Critical limit" means the maximum or minimum value to which a physical, biological, or chemical parameter must be controlled at a critical control point to minimize the risk that the identified food safety hazard may occur.

"Dealer" means a person who is authorized by a shellfish control authority for the activities of a shellstock shipper, shucker-packer, repacker, reshipper, or depuration processor of molluscan shellfish according to the provisions of the National Shellfish Sanitation Program.

"Delicatessen" means a store where ready to eat products such as cooked meats, prepared salads, etc. are sold for off-premises consumption.

"Department" means the State Health Department.

"Director" means the district or local health director.

"Disclosure" means a written statement that clearly identifies the animal foods that are, or can be ordered, raw, undercooked, or without otherwise being processed to eliminate pathogens in their entirety, or items that contain an ingredient that is raw, undercooked, or otherwise being processed to eliminate pathogens.

"Drinking water" means water that meets the water quality standards for bacteria of the Virginia Waterworks Regulations (12VAC5-590). Drinking water is traditionally known as "potable water." Drinking water includes the term water except where the term used connotes that the water is not potable, such as "boiler water," "mop water," "rainwater," "wastewater," and "nondrinking" water.

"Dry storage area" means a room or area designated for the storage of packaged or containerized bulk food that is not potentially hazardous and dry goods such as single-service items.

"Easily cleanable" means a characteristic of a surface that:

1. Allows effective removal of soil by normal cleaning methods;

2. Is dependent on the material, design, construction, and installation of the surface; and

3. Varies with the likelihood of the surface's role in introducing pathogenic or toxigenic agents or other contaminants into food based on the surface's approved placement, purpose, and use.

"Easily cleanable" includes a tiered application of the criteria that qualify the surface as easily cleanable as specified above to different situations in which varying degrees of cleanability are required such as:

1. The appropriateness of stainless steel for a food preparation surface as opposed to the lack of need for stainless steel to be used for floors or for tables used for consumer dining; or

2. The need for a different degree of cleanability for a utilitarian attachment or accessory in the kitchen as opposed to a decorative attachment or accessory in the consumer dining area.

"Easily movable" means:

1. Portable (weighing 30 pounds or less); mounted on casters, gliders, or rollers; or provided with a mechanical means to safely tilt a unit of equipment for cleaning; and

2. Having no utility connection, a utility connection that disconnects quickly, or a flexible utility connection line of sufficient length to allow the equipment to be moved for cleaning of the equipment and adjacent area.

"Egg" means the shell egg of the domesticated chicken, turkey, duck, goose, or guinea. avian species such as chicken, duck, goose, guinea, quail, ratites, or turkey. Egg does not include a balut; egg of the reptile species such as alligator; or an egg product.

"Egg product" means all, or a portion of, the contents found inside eggs separated from the shell and pasteurized in a food processing plant, with or without added ingredients, intended for human consumption, such as dried, frozen, or liquid eggs. Egg product does not include food that contains eggs only in a relatively small proportion such as cake mixes.

"Employee" means the permit holder, person in charge, food employee, person having supervisory or management duties, person on the payroll, family member, volunteer, person performing work under contractual agreement, or other person working in a food establishment.

"Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)" means E.coli that cause hemorrhagic colitis, meaning bleeding enterically or bleeding from the intestine. The term is typically used in association with E.coli that have the capacity to produce Shiga toxins and to cause attaching and effacing lesion in the intestine. EHEC is a subset of STEC, whose members produce additional virulence factors. Infections with EHEC may be asymptomatic but are classically associated with bloody diarrhea (hemorrhagic colitis) and hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Examples of serotypes of EHEC include: E.coli O157:H7; E.coli O157:NM; E.coli O26:H11; E.coli O145:NM; E.coli O103:H2; or E.coli O111:NM. Also see Shiga toxin-producing E.coli.

"EPA" means the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.

"Equipment" means an article that is used in the operation of a food establishment. "Equipment" includes, but is not limited to, items such as a freezer, grinder, hood, ice maker, meat block, mixer, oven, reach-in refrigerator, scale, sink, slicer, stove, table, temperature measuring device for ambient air, vending machine, or warewashing machine.

"Exclude" means to prevent a person from working as a food employee in a food establishment or entering a food establishment except for those areas open to the general public as an employee.

"F" means degrees Fahrenheit.

"FDA" means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"Fish" means: fresh or saltwater finfish, crustaceans, and other forms of aquatic life (including alligator, frog, aquatic turtle, jellyfish, sea cucumber, and sea urchin and the roe of such animals) other than birds or mammals; all mollusks, if such animal life is intended for human consumption; and, includes any edible human food product derived in whole or in part from fish, including fish that has been processed in any manner.

"Food" means a raw, cooked, or processed edible substance, ice, beverage, or ingredient used or intended for use or for sale in whole or in part for human consumption.

"Foodborne disease outbreak" means the occurrence of two or more cases of a similar illness resulting from the ingestion of a common food.

"Food-contact surface" means a surface of equipment or a utensil with which food normally comes into contact, or a surface of equipment or a utensil from which food may drain, drip, or splash into a food, or onto a surface normally in contact with food.

"Food employee" means an individual working with unpackaged food, food equipment or utensils, or food-contact surfaces.

"Food establishment" means an operation that stores, prepares, packages, serves, vends, or otherwise provides food for human consumption (i) such as a restaurant; satellite or catered feeding location; catering operation if the operation provides food directly to a consumer or to a conveyance used to transport people; market; vending location; conveyance used to transport people; institution; or food bank; and (ii) that relinquishes possession of food to a consumer directly, or indirectly through a delivery service such as home delivery of grocery orders or restaurant takeout orders, or delivery service that is provided by common carriers.

"Food establishment" includes (a) an element of the operation such as a transportation vehicle or a central preparation facility that supplies a vending location or satellite feeding location; (b) an operation that is conducted in a mobile, stationary, temporary, or permanent facility or location; where consumption is on or off the premises; and regardless of whether there is a charge for the food; and (c) a facility that does not meet the exemption criteria identified in subdivision 6 of this definition or a facility that meets the exemption requirements but chooses to be regulated under these regulations.

"Food establishment" does not include:

1. An establishment that offers only prepackaged foods that are not potentially hazardous;

2. A produce stand that only offers whole, uncut fresh fruits and vegetables;

3. A food processing plant; including those that are located on the premises of a food establishment;

4. A kitchen in a private home if only food that is not potentially hazardous is prepared for sale or service at a function such as a religious or charitable organization's bake sale if allowed by law and if the consumer is informed by a clearly visible placard at the sales or service location that the food is prepared in a kitchen that is not subject to regulation and inspection by the regulatory authority;

5. An area where food that is prepared as specified in subdivision 4 above is sold or offered for human consumption;

6. A kitchen in a private home, such as, but not limited to, a family day-care provider or a home for adults, serving 12 or fewer recipients; or a bed-and-breakfast operation that prepares and offers food only to guests if the home is owner occupied, the number of available guest bedrooms does not exceed six, breakfast is the only meal offered, the number of guests served does not exceed 18, and the consumer is informed by statements contained in published advertisements, mailed brochures, and placards posted at the registration area that the food is prepared in a kitchen that is, by these regulations, exempt from this chapter; or

7. A private home that receives catered or home-delivered food.

For the purpose of implementing this chapter, the following are also exempt from the definition of a "food establishment" in this chapter, as defined in §§ 35.1-25 and 35.1-26 of the Code of Virginia:

1. Boarding houses that do not accommodate transients;

2. Cafeterias operated by industrial plants for employees only;

3. Churches, fraternal, school and social organizations and volunteer fire departments and rescue squads that hold dinners and bazaars not more than one time per week and not in excess of two days duration at which food prepared in homes of members or in the kitchen of the church or organization and is offered for sale to the public;

4. Grocery stores, including the delicatessen that is a part of a grocery store, selling exclusively for off-premises consumption and places manufacturing or selling packaged or canned goods;

5. Churches that serve meals for their members as a regular part of their religious observance; and

6. Convenience stores or gas stations that are subject to the State Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services' Retail Food Establishment Regulations (2VAC5-585) or any regulations subsequently adopted and that (i) have 15 or fewer seats at which food is served to the public on the premises of the convenience store or gas station and (ii) are not associated with a national or regional restaurant chain. Notwithstanding this exemption, such convenience stores or gas stations shall remain responsible for collecting any applicable local meals tax.

"Food processing plant" means a commercial operation that manufactures, packages, labels, or stores food for human consumption and does not provide food directly to a consumer provides food for sale or distribution to other business entities such as food processing plants or food establishments. Food processing plant does not include a food establishment.

"Game animal" means an animal, the products of which are food, that is not classified as: cattle, sheep, swine, goat, horse, mule, or other equine in 9 CFR Part 301 Definitions, as poultry in 9 CFR Part 381 Poultry Products Inspection Regulations, or as Fish as defined in this section.

"Game animal" includes mammals such as reindeer, elk, deer, antelope, water buffalo, bison, rabbit, squirrel, opossum, raccoon, nutria, or muskrat and nonaquatic reptiles such as land snakes.

"Game animal" does not include ratites such as ostrich, emu, and rhea.

"General use pesticide" means a pesticide that is not classified by EPA for restricted use as specified in 40 CFR 152.175.

"Grade A standards" means the requirements of the USPHS/FDA "Grade A Pasteurized Milk Ordinance" and "Grade A Condensed and Dry Milk Ordinance" with which certain fluid and dry milk and milk products comply.

"HACCP Plan" means a written document that delineates the formal procedures for following the Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point principles developed by The National Advisory Committee on Microbiological Criteria for Foods.

"Handwashing sink" means a lavatory, a basin or vessel for washing, a wash basin, or a plumbing fixture especially placed for use in personal hygiene and designed for the washing of hands. Handwashing sink includes an automatic handwashing facility.

"Hazard" means a biological, chemical, or physical property that may cause an unacceptable consumer health risk.

"Health practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice medicine, or if allowed by law, a nurse practitioner, physician assistant, or similar medical profession.

"Hermetically sealed container" means a container that is designed and intended to be secure against the entry of microorganisms and, in the case of low acid canned foods, to maintain the commercial sterility of its contents after processing.

"Highly susceptible population" means persons who are more likely than other people in the general population to experience foodborne disease because they are:

1. Immunocompromised, preschool age children, or older adults; and

2. Obtaining food at a facility that provides services such as custodial care, health care, or assisted living, such as a child or adult day care center, kidney dialysis center, hospital or nursing home, or nutritional or socialization services such as a senior center.

"Hot water" means water at a temperature of 100°F or higher unless otherwise stated.

"Imminent health hazard" means a significant threat or danger to health that is considered to exist when there is evidence sufficient to show that a product, practice, circumstance, or event creates a situation that requires immediate correction or cessation of operation to prevent injury based on the number of potential injuries, and the nature, severity, and duration of the anticipated injury.

"Injected" means tenderizing a meat with deep penetration or injecting the meat such as with juices which may be referred to as "injecting," "pinning," or "stitch pumping." During injection infectious or toxigenic microorganisms may be introduced from its surface to its interior.

"Juice," when used in the context of food safety, means the aqueous liquid expressed or extracted from one or more fruits or vegetables, puries purées of the edible portions of one or more fruits or vegetables, purées of the edible portions of one or more fruits or vegetables, or any concentrate of such liquid or purée. Juice includes juice as a whole beverage, an ingredient of a beverage and a purée as an ingredient of a beverage. Juice does not include, for purposes of HACCP, liquids, purées, or concentrates that are not used as beverages or ingredients of beverages.

"Kitchenware" means food preparation and storage utensils.

"Law" means applicable local, state, and federal statutes, regulations, and ordinances.

"Linens" means fabric items such as cloth hampers, cloth napkins, table cloths, wiping cloths, and work garments including cloth gloves.

"Major food allergen" means milk, egg, fish (such as bass, flounder, cod, and including crustacean shellfish such as crab, lobster, or shrimp), tree nuts (such as almonds, pecans, or walnuts), wheat, peanuts, and soybeans; or a food ingredient that contains protein derived from one of these foods. Major food allergen does not include any highly refined oil derived from a major food allergen in this definition and any ingredient derived from such highly refined oil; or any ingredient that is exempt under the petition or notification process specified in the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004 (P. L. 108-282).

"Meat" means the flesh of animals used as food including the dressed flesh of cattle, swine, sheep, or goats and other edible animals, except fish, poultry, and wild game animals as specified under 12VAC5-421-330 A 3 and 4.

"mg/L" means milligrams per liter, which is the metric equivalent of parts per million (ppm).

"Mobile food unit" means a food establishment that is mounted on wheels that is readily moveable from place to place and shall include pushcarts, trailers, trucks, or vans. There is no size limit to mobile food units but they must be mobile at all times during operation and must be on wheels (excluding boats in the water) at all times. The unit, all operations, and all equipment must be integral to and be within or attached to the unit.

"Molluscan shellfish" means any edible species of fresh or frozen oysters, clams, mussels, and scallops or edible portions thereof, except when the scallop product consists only of the shucked adductor muscle.

"Occasional" means not more than one time per week, and not in excess of two days duration.

"Organization" means any one of the following:

1. A volunteer fire department or rescue squad or auxiliary unit thereof which has been recognized in accordance with § 15.2-955 of the Code of Virginia by an ordinance or resolution of the political subdivision where the volunteer fire department or rescue squad is located as being a part of the safety program of such political subdivision;

2. An organization operated exclusively for religious, charitable, community or educational purposes;

3. An association of war veterans or auxiliary units thereof organized in the United States;

4. A fraternal association or corporation operating under the lodge system;

5. A local chamber of commerce; or

6. A nonprofit organization that raises funds by conducting raffles which generate annual gross receipts of less than $75,000, provided such gross receipts from the raffle, less expenses and prizes, are used exclusively for charitable, educational, religious or community purposes.

"Packaged" means bottled, canned, cartoned, securely bagged, or securely wrapped, whether packaged in a food establishment or a food processing plant.

"Permit" means a license issued by the regulatory authority that authorizes a person to operate a food establishment.

"Permit holder" means the entity that is legally responsible for the operation of the food establishment such as the owner, the owner's agent, or other person, and possesses a valid permit to operate a food establishment.

"Person" means an association, a corporation, individual, partnership, other legal entity, government, or governmental subdivision or agency.

"Person in charge" means the individual present at a food establishment who is responsible for the operation at the time of inspection.

"Personal care items" means items or substances that may be poisonous, toxic, or a source of contamination and are used to maintain or enhance a person's health, hygiene, or appearance. Personal care items include items such as medicines; first aid supplies; and other items such as cosmetics, and toiletries such as toothpaste and mouthwash.

"pH" means the symbol for the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration, which is a measure of the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a solution.

"Physical facilities" means the structure and interior surfaces of a food establishment including accessories such as soap and towel dispensers and attachments such as light fixtures and heating or air conditioning system vents.

"Plumbing fixture" means a receptacle or device that is permanently or temporarily connected to the water distribution system of the premises and demands a supply of water from the system or discharges used water, waste materials, or sewage directly or indirectly to the drainage system of the premises.

"Plumbing system" means the water supply and distribution pipes; plumbing fixtures and traps; soil, waste, and vent pipes; sanitary and storm sewers and building drains, including their respective connections, devices, and appurtenances within the premises; and water-treating equipment.

"Poisonous or toxic materials" means substances that are not intended for ingestion and are included in four categories:

1. Cleaners and sanitizers, which include cleaning and sanitizing agents and agents such as caustics, acids, drying agents, polishes, and other chemicals;

2. Pesticides which include substances such as insecticides and rodenticides;

3. Substances necessary for the operation and maintenance of the establishment such as nonfood grade lubricants, paints, and personal care items that may be deleterious to health; and

4. Substances that are not necessary for the operation and maintenance of the establishment and are on the premises for retail sale, such as petroleum products and paints.

"Potentially hazardous food" means a food that is natural or synthetic and that requires temperature control because it is in a form capable of supporting:

1. The rapid and progressive growth of infectious or toxigenic microorganisms;

2. The growth and toxin production of Clostridium botulinum; or

3. In raw shell eggs, the growth of Salmonella enteritidis.

"Potentially hazardous food" includes an animal food (a food of animal origin) that is raw or heat-treated; a food of plant origin that is heat-treated or consists of raw seed sprouts; cut melons; and garlic-in-oil mixtures that are not acidified or otherwise modified at a food processing plant in a way that results in mixtures that do not support growth as specified above in this definition.

Potentially hazardous food does not include:

1. An air-cooled hard-boiled egg with shell intact or a shell egg that is not hard boiled, but has been treated to destroy all viable Salmonellae;

2. A food with an a_w value of 0.85 or less;

3. A food with a pH level of 4.6 or below when measured at 24°C (75°F);

4. A food, in an unopened hermetically sealed container, that is commercially processed to achieve and maintain commercial sterility under conditions of nonrefrigerated storage and distribution;

5. A food for which a laboratory evidence demonstrates that the rapid and progressive growth of infectious and toxigenic microorganisms or the growth of Salmonella enteritidis in eggs or Clostridium botulinum cannot occur, such as a food that has an a_w and a pH that are above the levels specified in this definition and that may contain a preservative, other barrier to the growth of microorganism, or a combination of barriers that inhibit the growth of microorganisms; and

6. A food that does not support the growth of microorganisms as specified above in this definition even though the food may contain an infectious or toxigenic microorganism or chemical or physical contaminant at a level sufficient to cause illness.

"Potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food)" means a food that requires time/temperature control for safety (TCS) to limit pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation:

1. Potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) includes an animal food that is raw or heat-treated; a plant food that is heat-treated or consists of raw seed sprouts, cut melons, cut tomatoes, or mixtures of cut tomatoes that are not modified in a way so that they are unable to support pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation, or garlic-in-oil mixtures that are not modified in a way that results in mixtures that do not support pathogenic microorganism growth or toxin formation; and except as specified in subdivision 2 of this definition, a food that because of the interaction of its A_w and pH values is designated as Product Assessment Required (PA) in Table A or B of this definition:

	Table A. Interaction of pH and Aw for control of spores in food heat-treated to destroy vegetative cells and subsequently packaged.
	Aw values	pH values
		4.6 or less	>4.6-5.6	>5.6
	<0.92	non-PHF*/non-TCS food**	non-PHF/non-TCS food	non-PHF/non-TCS food
	> 0.92-0.95	non-PHF/non-TCS food	non-PHF/non-TCS food	PA***
	>0.95	non-PHF/non-TCS food	PA	PA
	*PHF means Potentially Hazardous Food **TCS means Time/Temperature Control for Safety Food ***PA means Product Assessment required

	Table B. Interaction of pH and Aw for control of vegetative cells and spores in food not heat-treated or heat-treated but not packaged.
	Aw values	pH values
		< 4.2	4.2 - 4.6	> 4.6 - 5.0	> 5.0
	<0.88	non-PHF*/non-TCS food**	non-PHF/non-TCS food	non-PHF/non-TCS food	non-PHF/non-TCS food
	0.88-0.90	non-PHF/non-TCS food	non-PHF/non-TCS food	non-PHF/non-TCS food	PA***
	>0.90-0.92	non-PHF/non-TCS food	non-PHF/non-TCS food	PA	PA
	>0.92	non-PHF/non-TCS food	PA	PA	PA
	*PHF means Potentially Hazardous Food **TCS means Time/Temperature Control for Safety Food ***PA means Product Assessment required

2. Potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) does not include:

a. An air-cooled hard-boiled egg with shell intact, or an egg with shell intact that is not hard-boiled, but has been pasteurized to destroy all viable Salmonellae;

b. A food in an unopened hermetically sealed container that is commercially processed to achieve and maintain commercial sterility under conditions of nonrefrigerated storage and distribution;

c. A food that because of its pH or A_w value, or interaction of A_w and pH values, is designated as a non-PHF/non-TCS food in Table A or B of this definition;

d. A food that is designated as Product Assessment required (PA) in Table A or B of this definition and has undergone a Product Assessment showing that the growth or toxin formation of pathogenic microorganisms that are reasonably likely to occur in that food is precluded due to:

(1) Intrinsic factors including added or natural characteristics of the food such as preservatives, antimicrobials, humectants, acidulants, or nutrients,

(2) Extrinsic factors including environmental or operational factors that affect the food such as packaging, modified atmosphere such as reduced oxygen packaging, shelf-life and use, or temperature range of storage and use, or

(3) A combination of intrinsic and extrinsic factors; or

e. A food that does not support the growth or toxin formation of pathogenic microorganisms in accordance with one of the subdivisions 2 a through 2 d of this definition even though the food may contain a pathogenic microorganism or chemical or physical contaminant at a level sufficient to cause illness or injury.

"Poultry" means any domesticated bird (chickens, turkeys, ducks, geese, or guineas), whether live or dead, as defined in 9 CFR Part 381, Poultry Products Inspection Regulations, and any migratory waterfowl, game bird, or squab such as pheasant, partridge, quail, grouse, guineas, or pigeon or squab whether live or dead, as defined in 9 CFR Part 362, Voluntary Poultry Inspection Regulations. "Poultry" does not include ratites.

"Premises" means the physical facility, its contents, and the contiguous land or property under the control of the permit holder; or the physical facility, its contents, and the land or property which are under the control of the permit holder and may impact food establishment personnel, facilities, or operations, if a food establishment is only one component of a larger operation such as a health care facility, hotel, motel, school, recreational camp, or prison.

"Primal cut" means a basic major cut into which carcasses and sides of meat are separated, such as a beef round, pork loin, lamb flank or veal breast.

"Public water system" has the meaning stated in 40 CFR Part 141, National Primary Drinking Water Regulations.

"Pushcart" means any wheeled vehicle or device other than a motor vehicle or trailer that may be moved with or without the assistance of a motor and that does not require registration by the department of motor vehicles. A pushcart is limited to the sale and/or service of hot dogs and frankfurter-like foods.

"Ratite" means a flightless bird such as an emu, ostrich, or rhea.

"Ready-to-eat food" means food that:

1. Is in a form that is edible without additional preparation to achieve food safety, as specified under 12VAC5-421-700 A through C, 12VAC5-421-710, or 12VAC5-421-730;

2. Is a raw or partially cooked animal food and the consumer is advised as specified under 12VAC5-421- 700 D 1 and 2; or

3. Is prepared in accordance with a variance that is granted as specified under 12VAC5-421-700 D 1 and 2.

Ready-to-eat food may receive additional preparation for palatability or aesthetic, epicurean, gastronomic, or culinary purposes.

"Ready-to-eat food" includes:

1. Raw animal food that is cooked as specified under 12VAC5-421-700, or frozen as specified under 12VAC5-421-730;

2. Raw fruits and vegetables that are washed as specified under 12VAC5-421-510;

3. Fruits and vegetables that are cooked for hot holding as specified under 12VAC5-421-720;

4. All potentially hazardous food that is cooked to the temperature and time required for the specific food under 12VAC5-421-700 and cooled as specified in 12VAC5-421-800;

5. Plant food for which further washing, cooking, or other processing is not required for food safety, and from which rinds, peels, husks, or shells, if naturally present, are removed;

6. Substances derived from plants such as spices, seasonings, and sugar;

7. A bakery item such as bread, cakes, pies, fillings, or icing for which further cooking is not required for food safety;

8. The following products that are produced in accordance with USDA guidelines and that have received a lethality treatment for pathogen: dry, fermented sausages, such as dry salami or pepperoni; salt-cured meat and poultry products, such as prosciutto, country cured ham, and Parma ham; and dried meat and poultry products, such as jerky or beef sticks; and

9. Food manufactured according to 21 CFR Part 113, Thermally Processed Low-Acid Foods Packaged in Hermetically Sealed Containers.

"Reduced oxygen packaging" means the reduction of the amount of oxygen in a package by removing oxygen; displacing oxygen and replacing it with another gas or combination of gases; or otherwise controlling the oxygen content to a level below that normally found in the surrounding 21% oxygen atmosphere atmosphere (approximately 21% at sea level); and a process as specified in this definition that involves a food for which Clostridium botulinum is identified as a microbiological hazard in the final packaged form. the hazards Clostridium botulinum or Listeria monocytogenes require control in the final packaged form. Reduced oxygen packaging includes:

1. Vacuum packaging, in which air is removed from a package of food and the package is hermetically sealed so that a vacuum remains inside the package;

2. Modified atmosphere packaging, in which the atmosphere of a package of food is modified so that its composition is different from air but the atmosphere may change over time due to the permeability of the packaging material or the respiration of the food. Modified atmosphere packaging includes reduction in the proportion of oxygen, total replacement of oxygen, or an increase in the proportion of other gases such as carbon dioxide or nitrogen;

3. Controlled atmosphere packaging, in which the atmosphere of a package of food is modified so that until the package is opened, its composition is different from air, and continuous control of that atmosphere is maintained, such as by using oxygen scavengers or a combination of total replacement oxygen, nonrespiring food, and impermeable packaging material;

4. Cook chill packaging, in which cooked food is hot filled into impermeable bags that have the air expelled and are then sealed or crimped closed. The bagged food is rapidly chilled and refrigerated at temperatures that inhibit the growth of psychrotrophic pathogens; or

5. Sous vide packaging, in which raw or partially cooked food is placed in a hermetically sealed, impermeable bag, cooked in the bag, rapidly chilled, and refrigerated at temperatures that inhibit the growth of psychrotrophic pathogens.

"Refuse" means solid waste not carried by water through the sewage system.

"Regulatory authority" means the Virginia Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services, the Virginia Department of Health or their authorized representative having jurisdiction over the food establishment.

"Reminder" means a written statement concerning the health risk of consuming animal foods raw, undercooked, or without being processed to eliminate pathogens.

"Reservice" means the transfer of food that is unused and returned by a consumer after being served or sold and in the possession of the consumer, to another person.

"Restrict" means to limit the activities of a food employee so that there is no risk of transmitting a disease that is transmissible through food and the food employee does not work with exposed food, clean equipment, utensils, linens, and unwrapped single-service or single-use articles.

"Restricted egg" means any check, dirty egg, incubator reject, inedible, leaker, or loss as defined in 9 CFR Part 590.

"Restricted use pesticide" means a pesticide product that contains the active ingredients specified in 40 CFR 152.175 (pesticides classified for restricted use) and that is limited to use by or under the direct supervision of a certified applicator.

"Risk" means the likelihood that an adverse health effect will occur within a population as a result of a hazard in a food.

"Safe material" means an article manufactured from or composed of materials that shall not reasonably be expected to result, directly or indirectly, in their becoming a component or otherwise affecting the characteristics of any food; an additive that is used as specified in § 409 or 706 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act; or other materials that are not additives and that are used in conformity with applicable regulations of the Food and Drug Administration.

"Sanitization" means the application of cumulative heat or chemicals on cleaned food contact surfaces that, when evaluated for efficacy, yield a reduction of five logs, which is equal to a 99.999% reduction, of representative disease microorganisms of public health importance.

"Sealed" means free of cracks or other openings that permit the entry or passage of moisture.

"Service animal" means an animal such as a guide dog, signal dog, or other animal individually trained to provide assistance to an individual with a disability.

"Servicing area" means an operating base location to which a mobile food establishment or transportation vehicle returns regularly for such things as vehicle and equipment cleaning, discharging liquid or solid wastes, refilling water tanks and ice bins, and boarding food.

"Sewage" means liquid waste containing animal or vegetable matter in suspension or solution and may include liquids containing chemicals in solution.

"Shellfish control authority" means a state, federal, foreign, or other government entity legally responsible for administering a program that includes certification of molluscan shellfish harvesters and dealers for interstate commerce such as the Virginia Department of Health Division of Shellfish Sanitation.

"Shellstock" means raw, in-shell molluscan shellfish.

"Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli" (STEC) means any E. coli capable of producing Shiga toxins (also called verocytotoxins or "Shiga-like" toxins). This includes, but is not limited to, E. coli reported as serotype O157:H7, O157:NM, and O157:H-. Examples of serotypes of STEC include both O157 and non-O157 E.coli. Also see Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli.

"Shucked shellfish" means molluscan shellfish that have one or both shells removed.

"Single-service articles" means tableware, carry-out utensils, and other items such as bags, containers, placemats, stirrers, straws, toothpicks, and wrappers that are designed and constructed for one time, one person use after which they are intended for discard.

"Single-use articles" means utensils and bulk food containers designed and constructed to be used once and discarded. Single-use articles includes items such as wax paper, butcher paper, plastic wrap, formed aluminum food containers, jars, plastic tubs or buckets, bread wrappers, pickle barrels, ketchup bottles, and number 10 cans which do not meet the materials, durability, strength and cleanability specifications contained in 12VAC5-421-960, 12VAC5-421-1080, and 12VAC5-421-1100 for multiuse utensils.

"Slacking" means the process of moderating the temperature of a food such as allowing a food to gradually increase from a temperature of -10°F (-23°C) to 25°F (-4°C) in preparation for deep-fat frying or to facilitate even heat penetration during the cooking of previously block-frozen food such as spinach.

"Smooth" means a food-contact surface having a surface free of pits and inclusions with a cleanability equal to or exceeding that of (100 grit) number three stainless steel; a nonfood-contact surface of equipment having a surface equal to that of commercial grade hot-rolled steel free of visible scale; and a floor, wall, or ceiling having an even or level surface with no roughness or projections that render it difficult to clean.

"Substantial compliance" shall mean that details of equipment or structure design or construction and/or food preparation, handling, storage, transportation and/or cleaning procedures will not substantially affect health consideration or performance of the facility or its employees.

"Table-mounted equipment" means equipment that is not easily movable and is designed to be mounted off the floor on a table, counter, or shelf.

"Tableware" means eating, drinking, and serving utensils for table use such as flatware including forks, knives, and spoons; hollowware including bowls, cups, serving dishes, tumblers; and plates.

"Temperature measuring device" means a thermometer, thermocouple, thermistor, or other device that indicates the temperature of food, air, or water.

"Temporary food establishment" means a food establishment that operates for a period of no more than 14 consecutive days in conjunction with a single event or celebration.

"USDA" means the U.S. Department of Agriculture.

"Utensil" means a food-contact implement or container used in the storage, preparation, transportation, dispensing, sale, or service of food, such as kitchenware or tableware that is multiuse, single service, or single use; gloves used in contact with food; temperature sensing probes of food temperature measuring devices and probe-type price or identification tags used in contact with food.

"Variance" means a written document issued by the regulatory authority that authorizes a modification or waiver of one or more requirements of this chapter if, in the opinion of the regulatory authority, a health hazard or nuisance will not result from the modification or waiver.

"Vending machine" means a self-service device that, upon insertion of a coin, paper currency, token, card, or key, or by optional manual operation, dispenses unit servings of food in bulk or in packages without the necessity of replenishing the device between each vending operation.

"Vending machine location" means the room, enclosure, space, or area where one or more vending machines are installed and operated and includes the storage and servicing areas on the premises that are used in conjunction with the vending machines.

"Warewashing" means the cleaning and sanitizing of food-contact surfaces of equipment and utensils.

"Whole-muscle, intact beef" means whole muscle beef that is not injected, mechanically tenderized, reconstructed, or scored and marinated, from which beef steaks may be cut.

Part II
Management and Personnel

Article 1
Supervision

12VAC5-421-50. Assignment of responsibility.

The 1. Except as specified in subdivision 2 of this section, the permit holder shall be the person in charge or shall designate a person in charge and shall ensure that a person in charge is present at the food establishment during all hours of operation.

2. In a food establishment with two or more separately permitted departments that are the legal responsibility of the same permit holder and that are located on the same premises, the permit holder may, during specific time periods when food is not being prepared, packaged, or served, designate a single person in charge who is present on the premises during all hours of operation, and who is responsible for each separately permitted food establishment on the premises.

12VAC5-421-60. Demonstration of knowledge.

Based on the risks of foodborne illness inherent to the food operation, during inspections and upon request the person in charge shall demonstrate to the regulatory authority knowledge of foodborne disease prevention, and the requirements of these regulations. The person in charge shall demonstrate this knowledge by: being a certified food protection manager who has shown proficiency of required information through passing a test that is part of an accredited program, or by responding correctly to the environmental health specialist's questions as they relate to the specific food operation. The areas of knowledge may include:

1. Complying with the Food Regulations by having no violations of critical items during the current inspection;

2. Being a certified food protection manager who has shown proficiency of required information through passing a test that is part of an accredited program; or

3. Responding correctly to the environmental specialist's questions as they relate to the specific food operation. The areas of operation may include:

1. a. Describing the relationship between the prevention of foodborne disease and the personal hygiene of a food employee;

2. b. Explaining the responsibility of the person in charge for preventing the transmission of foodborne disease by a food employee who has a disease or medical condition that may cause foodborne disease;

3. c. Describing the symptoms associated with the diseases that are transmissible through food;

4. d. Explaining the significance of the relationship between maintaining the time and temperature of potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) and the prevention of foodborne illness;

5. e. Explaining the hazards involved in the consumption of raw or undercooked meat, poultry, eggs, and fish;

6. f. Stating the required food temperatures and times for safe cooking of potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food) including meat, poultry, eggs, and fish;

7. g. Stating the required temperatures and times for the safe refrigerated storage, hot holding, cooling, and reheating of potentially hazardous food (time/temperature control for safety food);

8. h. Describing the relationship between the prevention of foodborne illness and the management and control of the following:

a. (1) Cross contamination,

b. (2) Hand contact with ready-to-eat foods,

c. (3) Handwashing, and

d. (4) Maintaining the food establishment in a clean condition and in good repair;

i. Describing the foods identified as major food allergens and the symptoms that a major food allergen could cause in a sensitive individual who has an allergic reaction;

9. j. Explaining the relationship between food safety and providing equipment that is:

a. (1) Sufficient in number and capacity, and

b. (2) Properly designed, constructed, located, installed, operated, maintained, and cleaned;

10. k. Explaining correct procedures for cleaning and sanitizing utensils and food-contact surfaces of equipment;

11. l. Identifying the source of water used and measures taken to ensure that it remains protected from contamination such as providing protection from backflow and precluding the creation of cross connections;

12. m. Identifying poisonous or toxic materials in the food establishment and the procedures necessary to ensure that they are safely stored, dispensed, used, and disposed of according to law;

13. n. Identifying control points in the operation from purchasing through sale or service that may contribute to the transmission of foodborne illness and explaining steps taken to ensure that the points are controlled in accordance with the requirements of this chapter;

14. o. Explaining the details of how the person in charge and food employees comply with a HACCP plan if such a plan is a voluntary agreement between the regulatory authority and the establishment; and

15. p. Explaining the responsibilities, rights, and authorities assigned by this chapter to the:

a. (1) Food employee,

b. (2) Person in charge, and

c. (3) Regulatory authority.; and

q. Explaining how the person in charge, food employees, and conditional employees comply with reporting responsibilities and the exclusion or restriction of food employees.

12VAC5-421-70. Person Duties of person in charge.

The person in charge shall ensure that:

1. Food establishment operations are not conducted in a private home or in a room used as living or sleeping quarters as specified under 12VAC5-421-2990;

2. Persons unnecessary to the food establishment operation are not allowed in the food preparation, food storage, or warewashing areas, except that brief visits and tours may be authorized by the person in charge if steps are taken to ensure that exposed food; clean equipment, utensils, and linens; and unwrapped single-service and single-use articles are protected from contamination;

3. Employees and other persons such as delivery and maintenance persons and pesticide applicators entering the food preparation, food storage, and warewashing areas comply with these regulations;

4. Employees are effectively cleaning their hands, by routinely monitoring the employees' handwashing;

5. Employees are visibly observing foods as they are received to determine that they are from approved sources, delivered at the required temperatures, protected from contamination, unadulterated, and accurately presented, by routinely monitoring the employees' observations and periodically evaluating foods upon their receipt;

6. Employees are properly cooking potentially hazardous food, being particularly careful in cooking those foods known to cause severe foodborne illness and death, such as eggs and comminuted meats, through daily oversight of the employees' routine monitoring of the cooking temperatures;

7. Employees are using proper methods to rapidly cool potentially hazardous foods that are not held hot or are not for consumption within four hours, through daily oversight of the employees' routine monitoring of food temperatures during cooling;

8. (Reserved); Consumers who order raw or partially cooked ready-to-eat foods of animal origin are informed as specified under 12VAC5-421-930 that the food is not cooked sufficiently to ensure its safety;

9. Employees are properly sanitizing cleaned multiuse equipment and utensils before they are reused, through routine monitoring of solution temperature and exposure time for hot water sanitizing, and chemical concentration, pH, temperature, and exposure time for chemical sanitizing;

10. Consumers are notified that clean tableware is to be used when they return to self-service areas such as salad bars and buffets;

11. Employees Except when approval is obtained from the regulatory authority as specified in 12VAC5-421-450 B, employees are preventing cross-contamination of ready-to-eat food with bare hands by properly using suitable utensils such as deli tissue, spatulas, tongs, single-use gloves, or dispensing equipment; and

12. Employees are properly trained in food safety as it relates to their assigned duties.; and

13. Food employees and conditional employees are informed of their responsibility to report in accordance with law, to the person in charge, information about their health and activities as they relate to diseases that are transmissible through food, as specified under 12VAC5-421-80.

Article 2
Employee Health

12VAC5-421-80. Responsibility of the permit holder, person in charge to require reporting by food employees and applicants, and conditional employees.

The permit holder shall require food employee applicants to whom a conditional offer of employment is made and food employees to report to the person in charge, information about their health and activities as they relate to diseases that are transmissible through food. A food employee or applicant shall report the information in a manner that allows the person in charge to prevent the likelihood of foodborne disease transmission, including the date of onset of jaundice or of an illness specified in subdivision 2 of this section, if the food employee or applicant:

1. Is diagnosed with an illness due to:

a. Salmonella typhi,

b. Shigella spp.,

c. Escherichia coli O157:H7, or

d. Hepatitis A virus;

2. Has a symptom caused by illness, infection, or other source that is:

a. Associated with an acute gastrointestinal illness such as (i) diarrhea; (ii) fever; (iii) vomiting; (iv) jaundice; or (v) sore throat with fever; or

b. A lesion containing pus such as a boil or infected wound that is open or draining and is:

(1) On the hands or wrists, unless an impermeable cover such as a finger cot or stall protects the lesion and a single-use glove is worn over the impermeable cover;

(2) On exposed portions of the arms, unless the lesion is protected by an impermeable cover; or

(3) On other parts of the body, unless the lesion is covered by a dry, durable, tight-fitting bandage;

3. Had a past illness from an infectious agent specified in subsection A of this section; or

4. Meets one or more of the following high-risk conditions:

a. Is suspected of causing, or being exposed to, a confirmed disease outbreak caused by S. typhi, Shigella spp., E. coli O157:H7, or hepatitis A virus including an outbreak at an event such as a family meal, church supper, or festival because the food employee or applicant:

(1) Prepared food implicated in the outbreak,

(2) Consumed food implicated in the outbreak, or

(3) Consumed food at the event prepared by a person who is infected or ill with the infectious agent that caused the outbreak or who is suspected of being a shedder of the infectious agent, or

b. Lives in the same household as a person who is diagnosed with a disease caused by S. typhi, Shigella spp., E. coli O157:H7, or hepatitis A virus, or

c. Lives in the same household as a person who attends or works in a setting where there is a confirmed disease outbreak caused by S. typhi, Shigella spp., E. coli O157:H7, or hepatitis A virus.

A. The permit holder shall require food employees and conditional employees to report to the person in charge information about their health and activities as they relate to diseases that are transmissible through food. A food employee or conditional employee shall report the information in a manner that allows the person in charge to reduce the risk of foodborne disease transmission, including providing necessary additional information, such as the date of onset of symptoms and an illness, or of a diagnosis without symptoms, if the food employee or conditional employee: