Title of Regulation: 1VAC7-10. Regulations for Filing and Publishing Agency Regulations (adding 1VAC7-10-10 through 1VAC7-10-220).

Statutory Authority: § 2.2-4104 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: January 1, 2016.

Agency Contact: Karen W. Perrine, Assistant Registrar of Regulations, 201 North Ninth Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-3591 ext. 261, or email varegs@dls.virginia.gov.

Summary:

This regulatory action replaces existing regulations applicable to state agencies when filing and publishing state agency regulations and updates or establishes requirements to include (i) eliminating the filing of an entire regulation by description in lieu of filing any text; (ii) establishing a process when only a form associated with a regulation is being updated; (iii) addressing when an agency may incorporate one of its own documents by reference; (iv) adding several general rules of construction based on similar provisions for the Code of Virginia; (v) establishing a method for computation of time periods based on publication in the Virginia Register; (vi) clarifying that the PDF version of the Virginia Register is the official version; and (vii) making other updates to reflect statutory changes, current terminology, and current practices and technology.

CHAPTER 10
REGULATIONS FOR FILING AND PUBLISHING AGENCY REGULATIONS

Part I
General Provisions

1VAC7-10-10. Definitions.

The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

"Administrative Process Act" means Chapter 40 (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.

"Adopt textual matter by reference" means to include text from a document or publication in the regulation as a requirement or provision of the regulation.

"Agency" means any authority, instrumentality, officer, board, or other unit of the government of the Commonwealth empowered by the basic laws to adopt regulations or decide cases, except as exempted by the Virginia Register Act.

"Commission" means the Virginia Code Commission.

"File" means to submit to the registrar so that the registrar receives the regulation submission package, or required or requested information.

"Registrar" means the Registrar of Regulations, or his designee, as provided in § 2.2-4102 of the Code of Virginia.

"Regulation" means any statement of general application, having the force of law and affecting the rights or conduct of any person, promulgated by an agency in accordance with the authority conferred on it by applicable basic laws.

"Regulation submission package" means the regulation text and other information required to be submitted by the Administrative Process Act or the Virginia Register Act.

"Regulatory Information System" means the web-enabled application of the Office of the Registrar of Regulations that is used by an agency to file regulations, regulation submission packages, and related information and used by the Office of the Registrar to publish the Virginia Register of Regulations and update the Virginia Administrative Code.

"Virginia Administrative Code" or "VAC" means the codified publication of regulations under the provisions of Chapter 15 (§ 30-145 et seq.) of Title 30 of the Code of Virginia.

"Virginia Register Act" means Chapter 41 (§ 2.2-4100 et seq.) of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.

"Virginia Register of Regulations" or "Register" means the publication issued under the provisions of Article 6 (§ 2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process Act.

1VAC7-10-20. Computation of time.

When Article 2 (§ 2.2-4006 et seq.) or 6 (§ 2.2-4031 et seq.) of the Administrative Process Act or the Virginia Register Act prescribes a time period that is contingent upon publication in the Register, whether before, after, or upon publication, the day of publication shall not be counted as part of the required time period. This section shall not apply to the comment period designated in § 2.2-4007.06 of the Code of Virginia to begin on the date of publication of the notice in the Register.

1VAC7-10-30. General rules of construction.

This section shall be used in the construction of the Virginia Administrative Code.

1. Catchlines of sections. The catchline or title of a section following the section number is intended as a description to indicate the content of the section and does not constitute part of the regulation.

2. Gender. A word used in the masculine includes the feminine and neuter.

3. Number. A word used in the singular includes the plural, and a word used in the plural includes the singular unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.

4. The word "includes" means includes, but not limited to.

5. The word "or" means any one or all of the items listed or any combination thereof.

1VAC7-10-40. Form and style of regulations.

A. The registrar shall develop a manual to advise agencies regarding the form and style of regulations and the codification of regulations.

B. The registrar shall provide procedures stipulating how agencies shall prepare and file with the registrar's office (i) regulations, (ii) regulation submission packages and other information concerning regulatory actions, or (iii) other information requested by the registrar for publication in the Virginia Register of Regulations or the Virginia Administrative Code.

C. Pursuant to § 30-150 of the Code of Virginia, the registrar may omit from publication in the Virginia Register of Regulations or inclusion in the Virginia Administrative Code (i) effective date clauses, (ii) severability clauses, (iii) purpose statements, and (iv) provisions that are nonregulatory in nature, such as a defined word, term, or phrase that is not used in the regulatory text.

D. The registrar may accept any of the items or provisions listed in subsection C of this section if the agency establishes a need to the satisfaction of the registrar.

1VAC7-10-50. Method of filing.

An agency shall file regulations, regulation submissions packages, and requested information electronically through the Regulatory Information System, commonly known as "RIS," unless specifically approved by the registrar to file through other means.

1VAC7-10-60. Internet address; contact information; consequential changes.

A. If an agency includes an Internet address in the text of a regulation, the agency is responsible for maintaining the accuracy and currency of the Internet address.

B. If an agency includes contact information in the text of a regulation, the agency is responsible for maintaining the accuracy and currency of the contact information. Contact information includes a title, mailing address, telephone number, email address, or similar information.

C. The agency must (i) promptly notify the registrar's office when an Internet address or contact information changes and (ii) provide the correct Internet address or contact information. The agency shall file a request for amendment as directed by the registrar and provide the revised text of the regulation.

D. The registrar may correct an Internet address or contact information upon request by an agency. In addition, the registrar may, in his discretion, make other consequential corrections pursuant to §§ 2.2-4102 and 30-150 of the Code of Virginia.

E. The registrar will publish notice of the correction.

1VAC7-10-70. Waiver by registrar.

The registrar may waive a provision of this chapter, provided that the waiver is consistent with applicable state law.

1VAC7-10-80. Agency regulatory coordinator.

The head of each agency, or his designee, shall appoint or designate an individual as the agency regulatory coordinator who shall coordinate the regulatory activities of the agency with the Office of the Registrar of Regulations.

Part II
Filing Regulations and Regulation Submission Packages with the Registrar

1VAC7-10-90. Filing regulations.

A. An agency must file all regulations, including materials incorporated by reference and forms used in administering the regulation, with the registrar. The regulations shall be filed through the Regulatory Information System or as directed by the registrar.

B. The agency shall file the full text of a regulation with the registrar, except text that is incorporated by reference pursuant to § 2.2-4103 of the Code of Virginia shall be filed in accordance with Part III (1VAC7-10-140 et seq.) of this chapter.

C. No regulation, or amendment or repeal thereof, is effective until filed with the registrar pursuant to § 2.2-4103 of the Code of Virginia. If the regulation, or amendment or repeal thereof, is incomplete, the registrar may decline to publish the regulation.

1VAC7-10-100. Final agency action date; effective date; statutory authority.

A. An agency shall provide the date of final agency action and the effective date of a regulation when filing a regulation submission package for a fast-track or final regulatory action, or other equivalent action.

B. When Virginia law allows a regulation to be effective upon the filing of the regulation with the registrar, the agency ordinarily should select an effective date at least three business days after filing. This subsection does not apply to emergency regulations adopted pursuant to § 2.2-4011 of the Code of Virginia.

C. An agency shall provide the effective date and expiration date of an emergency regulation when filing the emergency regulation and accompanying regulation submission package. If the expiration date of the emergency regulation is extended, the agency shall notify the registrar within three business days of the Governor's approval of the extension.

D. Pursuant to § 2.2-4012 D of the Code of Virginia, a regulation shall contain the statutory authority for the regulation. An agency shall include in the regulatory submission package the complete citation for each statute or regulation that serves as the statutory authority, as follows:

1. For a codified Virginia statute, the citation shall be to the applicable section of the Code of Virginia.

2. For an uncodified Virginia statute, the citation shall be to the applicable chapter of the designated Act of Assembly.

3. When a regulation is required to conform with federal law or regulation, the agency shall provide a citation to the specific federal law or regulation to which conformity is required.

1VAC7-10-110. Supplemental information; exemption from Administrative Process Act.

A. Pursuant to § 2.2-4103 of the Code of Virginia, the registrar may request information in addition to the full text of a regulation for the purpose of publishing the Register and VAC.

B. An agency shall respond to a request from the registrar within three business days of the request, unless a different response time is approved by the registrar.

C. When claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act, an agency shall provide the specific statutory citation for the claimed exemption. Upon request of the registrar, an agency should provide confirmation from the Office of the Attorney General of the specific statute upon which the exemption is based.

1VAC7-10-120. Withdrawal of a final regulation; publication.

A. When an agency withdraws a final regulation pursuant to § 2.2-4016 of the Code of Virginia, the agency shall file a written notice of withdrawal with the registrar prior to the effective date of the regulation being withdrawn. The notice shall include:

1. The reason for the withdrawal of the regulation;

2. Agency contact information;

3. The publication information; and

4. The date of agency action.

B. The notice of withdrawal will be published in the Register.

1VAC7-10-130. Omissions and errors.

A. An agency shall notify the registrar of all omissions or errors that the agency becomes aware of in any of the information (i) submitted for publication or (ii) published in the Register or the Virginia Administrative Code.

B. The notification shall be filed with the registrar within seven business days of the date that the agency becomes aware of the omission or error.

Part III
Adoption of Textual Matter by Incorporation by Reference

1VAC7-10-140. Incorporation by reference permitted.

A. A regulation may adopt textual matter by reference to all or any part of a publication or document. For the purposes of this part, a publication and a document are interchangeable. The material in the document becomes the text of the regulation and an enforceable part of the regulation.

B. The agency must comply with the provisions of 1VAC7-10-150 and 1VAC7-10-160 when incorporating a document by reference except as provided in 1VAC7-10-170.

C. Effective January 1, 2016, an agency may not adopt prospective changes to an incorporated document by referring to a future edition or revision of the document or by using "as updated," "as may be amended," "future editions," or similar language. When a document that an agency has incorporated by reference subsequently is modified by the publisher, the agency may adopt the modification but shall do so through a regulatory action. However, when an agency incorporates by reference provisions of the Code of Virginia, the Virginia Acts of Assembly, or the Virginia Administrative Code into a regulation, future amendments to the incorporated provisions are included unless other intent is specifically stated in the regulation.

D. Effective January 1, 2016, an agency may not incorporate one of its own documents by reference unless the agency establishes that the documents or circumstances are unique and highly unusual.

1VAC7-10-150. Filing requirements.

A. When an agency adopts textual matter in a regulation by reference to a document, the agency shall file a copy of the referenced document with the regulation submission package. The document shall be filed in its entirety, unless the registrar has approved a request for the document to be filed by descriptive statement as provided in 1VAC7-10-170. The agency shall also provide information as to where copies of the incorporated publications may be procured.

B. When an agency adopts textual matter by reference to Internet content, the agency shall file the Internet content with the registrar. The agency shall file a read-only electronic copy or a printed copy of the Internet content.

1VAC7-10-160. Regulation text.

When incorporating material by reference, an agency shall include in the regulatory text (i) a statement that the document is incorporated by reference; (ii) the complete name of the document; (iii) the effective, issue, revision, or publication date; (iv) the version or edition, if any; and (v) the publisher or entity that produced the document.

1VAC7-10-170. Exemptions from filing of documents adopted or incorporated by reference; requirements.

A. The requirements established in 1VAC7-10-150 and 1VAC7-10-160 do not apply to incorporation of textual matter by reference to material published in the Federal Register or the Code of Federal Regulations, or by reference to regulations of other Virginia agencies. Where such references are made, the regulatory text must contain a citation sufficient for accurate identification of the referenced material.

1. Where the material has been published in the Code of Federal Regulations, the agency must:

a. Include in the regulatory text the title, part or section, and the date of publication. Example: 40 CFR Part 260 (July 1, 2014 update) or 40 CFR §§ 260.1 through 260.11 (July 1, 2014 update); or

b. Include a section listing the applicability of the cited CFR text and stating that when a federal regulation is incorporated in the chapter, that regulation shall be as it exists and has been published on a certain date.

2. Where the referenced material has not been published in the Code of Federal Regulations but appears in the Federal Register, the agency must include in the regulatory text the volume, page, and date of the Federal Register. Example: 79 FR 264, January 2, 2014.

B. The registrar may exempt an agency from the requirement of filing the incorporated document in its entirety if such filing would be impractical or cause an undue hardship on the agency. The document shall be filed as directed by the registrar.

C. The agency shall request an exemption from this filing requirement by submitting a request to the registrar. The registrar will notify the agency whether the exemption is approved.

D. Even if exempted under subsections A and B of this section, an agency must maintain on file and make available to the public the full text of all materials adopted by reference.

Part IV
Forms

1VAC7-10-180. Filing requirements.

A. An agency shall file any form that the agency intends to incorporate into or use in administering the regulation with the proposed or final, including fast-track, regulation submission package for publication in the Register pursuant to § 2.2-4031 A of the Code of Virginia. The agency shall include on the face of the form (i) the date of issuance or revision and (ii) a form number.

B. A form is not a substitute for regulation text and may not contain requirements that are not in the Code of Virginia or VAC.

1VAC7-10-190. Exemption from filing a form.

A. An agency may request an exemption from filing a form if the form (i) may be completed only online or electronically or (ii) is not in a printable format.

B. The agency shall make a request for an exemption from filing by submitting a request to the registrar. The registrar will notify the agency whether the exemption is approved.

C. If an exemption is approved, the Internet address for the form will be included in VAC.

D. The agency shall notify the registrar in writing if an Internet address for the form changes. Under the authority of § 30-150 of the Code of Virginia, the registrar may correct the Internet address in the Virginia Administrative Code.

E. The granting of an exemption under this section does not relieve an agency from maintaining the forms on file and making the forms available to the public.

1VAC7-10-200. Modification of forms in the Virginia Administrative Code.

A. The provisions of this section apply when a form for a regulation is added, amended, or removed, provided that (i) the regulatory text is not changing and (ii) the change to the form is not making a substantive change to the regulation.

B. An agency shall file form changes as directed by the registrar.

C. Notice of revised forms will be published in the Register, and forms will be updated in the Virginia Administrative Code online on the date of publication of the volume and issue of the Register in which it appears.

1VAC7-10-210. Publication.

A. For the purposes of § 2.2-4031 of the Code of Virginia, a form shall be considered to be published in the Virginia Register of Regulations if (i) the form is published in full, (ii) a hyperlink to the form is published, or (iii) a notice identifying where the form may be obtained is published.

B. The registrar shall determine how a form will be published.

Part V
Virginia Register of Regulations

1VAC7-10-220. Availability and official version.

As provided in § 2.2-4031 of the Code of Virginia, the Virginia Register of Regulations is published by posting the Register on the Virginia Code Commission's website. The portable document format (PDF) file is the official version of the Register.

Title of Regulation: 4VAC5-36. Standard Fees for Use of Department of Conservation and Recreation Facilities, Programs, and Services (amending 4VAC5-36-50, 4VAC5-36-60, 4VAC5-36-70, 4VAC5-36-90, 4VAC5-36-100, 4VAC5-36-110, 4VAC5-36-120, 4VAC5-36-140 through 4VAC5-36-170, 4VAC5-36-200, 4VAC5-36-210).

Statutory Authority: § 10.1-104 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: January 28, 2016.

Agency Contact: Lisa McGee, Policy and Planning Director, Department of Conservation and Recreation, 600 East Main Street, 24th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-2291, FAX (804) 786-6141, or email lisa.mcgee@dcr.virginia.gov.

Summary:

This regulatory action establishes, removes, or increases fees for use of the Department of Conservation and Recreation facilities, programs, and services as follows: parking and launch; admission; swimming; camping; cabin; picnic shelters and event tents; amphitheater and gazebo; interpretive canoe, boat, and paddleboat; interpretive and educational tour and program; outdoor skill program; hunting; miscellaneous rental; and conference center and meeting facility.

The amendments to the State Park System standard rates and prices represent (i) revisions to maintain fair market value and demand for services; (ii) the addition of new facilities and offerings; (iii) updates to ensure consistency with the private sector; (iv) the deletion of fees that have become obsolete as there is no longer demand for a service; (v) revisions to reflect private concessionaires' new seasonal prices; and (vi) updates to ensure formatting consistency.

4VAC5-36-50. Parking and launch fees.

Notes on parking fees:

1. Weekend rates apply on Memorial Day, Fourth of July, and Labor Day holidays.

2. Except as otherwise noted, boat launching shall be free for up to one boat per vehicle (maximum of two vehicles) per campsite, cabin, lodge, camping cabin, travel trailer, or camping lodge.

3. Parking fees are waived for any vehicle displaying disabled license plates or temporary disabled parking identification issued by any state or the federal government. However, the fee for any additional types of trailers, the boat launch fee or the portion of any combined parking-launching fee that applies to boat launching shall be collected from such vehicles. Additionally, the price for annual passes and lifetime passes that include boat launching for qualified disabled individuals shall be calculated by subtracting the applicable parking pass fee from the park/launch pass fee.

4. Parking fees are waived for any vehicle occupied solely by students and/or teachers and/or assisting personnel participating in an official activity of a bona fide school, home school, or institution of higher learning. Parks may require that individuals in vehicles other than those marked as a school bus verify their official activity by letter from the school or approved field trip form, or in the case of home school groups, proof of home school status such as current ID card from a state or national home school organization (HEAV, HSLDA, etc.) or a copy of the letter from the school district that acknowledges "Notice of Intent" to home school for that school year.

5. Parking fees are waived for official vehicles of federal, state, and local governments while on official business; vehicles making deliveries to the park; contractor and business vehicles performing work in the park; and emergency vehicles while conducting official business, including training.

6. Parking fees are waived for park employees during time of employment, including family and household members of staff occupying staff residences, visitors to staff residences, and park volunteers entering the park to perform volunteer duties.

7. Parking fees may be waived for vehicles conducting research or collecting activities provided such waiver is included in the language of the Research and Collection Permit as required in 4VAC5-30-50.

8. The period covered by a daily parking fee shall be midnight to midnight. Park guests utilizing overnight parking when and where available (e.g., backpackers, overnight fishermen, etc.) will be required to pay the applicable daily parking fee for each calendar day that their vehicle is in the parking lot (partial days included).

9. Annual permits shall be valid for 12 months from the date of purchase, unless otherwise noted.

10. Parking fees are waived for visitors entering the park for the sole purpose of dining at the park restaurant at Douthat and Hungry Mother State Parks.

11. Parking fees are waived at state parks for participants in Walk for Parks, Fall River Renaissance, Envirothons, March for Parks, Operation Spruce-Up Day, Stewardship Virginia, National Trails Day, and other park-sanctioned public service events as approved by the director.

12. Daily parking fees are reduced to $1.00 for vehicles occupied by participants in fund-raising events sponsored by nonprofit organizations (Walk-A-Thons, etc.) provided the sponsor has obtained a special use permit from the park that contains provisions for the identification of participants in the event.

13. Parking fees shall be waived for persons using park roads to gain legal access to their private residence and guests to such residences and for vehicles passing through, but not stopping in, a park on a public roadway.

14. Revenue collected from special event parking and/or admission fees may be divided between the park and the event sponsor if so designated and approved in the special event permit following a determination made by the director that the revenue split is in the benefit of the Commonwealth.

15. Annual Park/Launch/Equestrian passes cover the park entrance or parking fee for up to two horses in the same horse trailer or other allowable trailers. Annual and Lifetime parking-only passes do not include trailers.

16. Parking fees are waived for service vehicles such as tow trucks when entering the park to service a visitor vehicle.

17. Parking fees are waived for visitors entering the park to attend a performance by a U.S. military band if this is a required condition for the band's performance.

18. Parking fees are included in the rental fees for meeting facilities, up to the capacity of the facility and provided that this waiver of fee is included in the rental agreement for the facility.

19. Parking fees are waived for a period of up to 15 minutes for persons entering the park to deposit materials in community recycling collection containers.

20. Parking fees are waived for vehicles occupied entirely by persons attending fee interpretive programs.

21. Annual parking passes that do not include boat launch require payment of daily launch fee if launching a boat at any park or for all vehicles using Croaker Landing/Pier Area at York River State Park.

22. Annual parking pass holders are not guaranteed the parking privileges of the pass should parking places be unavailable.

23. Parking fees are waived at Mason Neck during the park's annual Elizabeth Hartwell Eagle Festival.

24. The payment of a parking fee at one park shall be applied to parking at any state park on the same day provided that the visitor supplies evidence of the paid parking fee.

25. Annual passes are issued to the purchaser and members of the same household and may not be transferred. Improper transfer or use may result in revocation of the pass without refund.

26. Parking fees are waived at all state parks for veterans on Veterans Day, November 11, of each year.

27. Parking fees are waived at all state parks on January 1 of each year.

28. Holidays are defined as Memorial Day, Fourth of July, and Labor Day, and prime season is the Saturday immediately prior to Memorial Day through the Sunday immediately prior to Labor Day.

4VAC5-36-60. Admission fees.

Notes on admission/entrance fees:

1. Fees are waived at Natural Tunnel for use of the chairlift on one designated "Customer Appreciation Day" per year.

2. Museum entrance fees are waived at the Southwest Virginia Museum during the "Festival of Trees" event for members of groups who submitted trees for the display.

3. For park museums and historic features that charge an entrance fee, visitors participating in the Time Travelers program of the Virginia Association of Museums shall be charged the existing per person group rate for that facility.

4. Entrance fees are waived at the Southwest Virginia Museum on Veteran's Day, November 11, of each year.

4VAC5-36-70. Swimming fees.

Notes on swimming fees:

1. Nonswimming adults in street clothes admitted to swimming areas free when supervising children age 12 and under.

2. Rain check Policy for Swimming: All state parks will issue a rain check, good for a period of 12 months from the date of issue, to any paying customer (does not apply to free swimming vouchers) if the swimming area is forced to close for 40 minutes or more due to inclement weather. Rain checks may be issued only to patrons present at the swimming area at the time of closure.

3. A full refund is available for a group reservation only if the park or swimming area contractor is notified three days in advance of the time of the reservation. In the event that the group is unable to complete their reservation due to inclement weather, rain checks will be issued to the individual members of the group in the same manner as other park patrons.

4. All Season Swimming Permits include parking during the swimming season only.

5. Weekend rates apply on Memorial Day, Fourth of July, and Labor Day holidays.

4VAC5-36-90. Camping fees.

Notes on camping:

1. Check-out time is 3 p.m. and check-in time is 4 p.m.

2. Camping Transfer/Cancellation/Early Departure Policy.

a. Any fees to be refunded are calculated less the applicable cancellation fee(s) fee or fees.

b. Fees paid to the reservation center by credit card will be refunded to the original credit card charged.

c. Fees paid by check or money order to the reservation center, or by any method at the park, will be refunded by state check.

d. A customer may move a camping reservation to another date or park, referred to as a transfer, through the reservation center only, and prior to 4 p.m. on the scheduled date of arrival. If the reservation center will not be open again prior to the start date of the reservation, transferring is not an option. There is a fee to transfer.

e. A camping reservation may be canceled until 4 p.m. on the scheduled date of arrival but campers will be charged the cancellation fee. This cancellation fee applies to each separate reservation made.

f. Once the 4 p.m. check-in time is reached on the scheduled day of arrival, any adjustment to a reservation is considered an early departure.

g. After the check-in time is reached, the first night is considered used whether the site is occupied or not.

h. There is a one-night penalty, deducted from any amount available for refund, for early departure.

3. Campers are allowed two vehicles per campsite per day without charge of a parking fee. Additional vehicles, beyond two, must pay the prevailing parking fee in effect at the park for each day that the vehicle(s) is vehicle or vehicles are parked in the park. The number of vehicles allowed to park on the campsite varies according to site design and size of other camping equipment. No vehicles shall park on a campsite in other than the designated area for this purpose. Camper vehicles that do not fit on the site, whether or not they require the special camper vehicle fee, must park in the designated overflow parking area.

4. Each member of the camping party, except in primitive group areas, up to the maximum allowable per site, may receive an entrance pass to the park's swimming facility on the basis of one pass per night of camping. Passes are only issued during days and seasons of operation of the swimming facility and are only good during the member's registered stay.

5. Damage to campsites, not considered normal wear and tear, will be billed to the person registered for the campsite on an itemized cost basis.

6. At honor collection sites, the stated camping fees on this list shall be considered as having tax included. Honor collection is defined as the payment of the camping fee on-site at the park at a nonelectronic collection point at which the payment is placed in a box or safe provided for that purpose.

7. Horse stalls may only be rented in conjunction with the rental of a campsite in the equestrian campground and a person must occupy the campsite. All horses brought to the park by overnight guests must be kept in rental stalls except in primitive equestrian areas at New River Trail and James River State Parks.

4VAC5-36-100. Cabin fees.

Notes on Pocahontas Group Cabins:

Pocahontas Group Cabins: Reservations of $200 or more require a 25% prepayment, due within 14 days of making the reservation. Balance of fees is due 60 days prior to the reservation start date. Reservations of less than $200 require payment in full to confirm the reservation, due within 14 days of making the reservation. Cancellations made 30 days or more prior to the first day of the reservation shall receive a refund less a $30 per unit cancellation fee. Cancellations made less than 30 days prior to the first date of the reservation receive no refund unless the units are subsequently rented, in which case the refund shall be full price minus $30 per unit.

Notes on cabins and lodges:

1. Seasonal cabin and lodge rates shall be in effect according to the following schedule, except for camping cabins, camping lodges, yurts, and travel trailers, which operate on the same schedule and season as the campground at that particular park. In the event that a weekly rental period includes two seasonal rates, the higher rate will apply for the entire weekly rental period.

2. All dates refer to the night of the stay; checkout time is 10 a.m. and check-in time is 3 p.m.

3. The following holiday periods are charged prime season weekend rates: the Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, and Saturday period that includes Thanksgiving Day; Christmas Eve and Christmas Day; and New Year's Eve and New Year's Day.

4. Cabins and lodges require a two-night minimum stay.

5. Cabin guests are allowed two vehicles for a one or two bedroom cabin, and three vehicles for a three bedroom cabin per day without charge of parking fee. Additional vehicles must pay the prevailing parking fee for each day that the vehicle is parked in the park. The number of vehicles allowed to park at the cabin varies according to site design and other factors. All vehicles must park in designated parking areas, either at the cabin or in the designated overflow parking area.

6. Six-bedroom lodge guests are allowed six vehicles per lodge per day without charge of parking fee. Additional vehicles must pay the prevailing vehicle parking fee for each day the vehicle is parked in the park. The number of vehicles allowed to park at the lodge varies according to site design and other factors. All vehicles must park in designated parking areas, either at the lodge or in the designated overflow parking area.

7. Damage to cabins and other rental units under this section, not considered normal wear and tear, may be billed to the person registered for the cabin or rental unit on an itemized cost basis.

8. Each member of the rental party, up to the maximum allowable for the rented unit, may receive an entrance pass to the park's swimming facility on the basis of one pass per night of rental. Passes are only issued during days and seasons of operation of the swimming facility and are only good during the member's registered stay.

9. Employees of DCR and the members of committees and boards of DCR shall receive a discount of 50% on applicable cabin or lodge rates for any season, when the rental of such cabins or lodge is in connection with the official business of DCR or its committees or boards.

Notes on cabin or lodge transfer/cancellation/early departure policy:

1. Any fees to be refunded are calculated less the applicable cancellation fees listed in this section.

2. Fees paid to the reservation center by credit card will be refunded to the original credit card charged.

3. Fees paid by check or money order to the reservation center, or by any method at the park, will be refunded by state check.

4. A customer may move a cabin or lodge reservation to another date or park, referred to as a transfer, through the reservation center only, and prior to 5 p.m. on the Monday before the scheduled date of arrival. There is an associated transfer fee. After 5 p.m. on the Monday before the scheduled date of arrival, cancellation is the only option (see note 5 below) except that transfers to a different cabin or lodge for the same rental nights shall be allowed, subject to availability, up to the check-in time for the original reservation.

5. Once the reservation is paid for, a customer may cancel in full with payment of the required cancellation fee if there are more than 30 days before the scheduled arrival date. As long as the reservation is not during the one-week minimum stay requirement period, the length of stay may be reduced without a fee as long as there are more than 30 days before the scheduled arrival. However, the length of stay cannot be less than two nights. During the 30 days prior to the scheduled arrival date, the cancellation fee is charged for each night canceled or reduced from the stay. Once the official check-in time on the scheduled arrival date is reached, the cancellation policy is no longer in effect and the early departure policy applies.

6. Once the 3 p.m. check-in time is reached on the scheduled day of arrival, any adjustment to a reservation is considered an early departure. There is a two-night minimum charge associated with all cabin, lodge, camping cabin, travel trailer, and camping lodge stays. Reducing the total nights stayed will incur a $20 per night fee. If the original reservation was for a week, the weekly discount will no longer be valid and the fee will be adjusted to the nightly rate before any refunds are calculated.

4VAC5-36-110. Picnic shelters and event tents fees.

4VAC5-36-120. Amphitheater and gazebo fees.

4VAC5-36-140. Interpretive canoe, boat, and paddleboat fees.

Notes on interpretive canoe, boat, and paddleboat programs:

1. Cancellation Policy for group reservations: Guest must cancel four days prior to the tour date in order to receive a refund. Any guest canceling less than four days before the start of the reservation will not be eligible for a refund. A one-time $10 cancellation fee will apply per reservation regardless of number of boats reserved. In the event of inclement weather where the park must cancel, the guest will be offered either a complete refund or reservation transfer to another date.

2. Additional costs for supplies and materials may apply.

4VAC5-36-150. Interpretive and educational tours and program fees.

Notes on interpretive and educational tours and programs:

Additional costs for supplies and materials may apply.

4VAC5-36-160. Outdoor skill program fees.

4VAC5-36-170. Hunting fees.

Notes on hunting fees:

At parks where there is a "standby" process, no additional daily fee for that hunting season shall be charged if the hunter has already paid at least one previous daily hunting fee for that park's hunting season.

4VAC5-36-200. Miscellaneous rental fees.

4VAC5-36-210. Conference center and meeting facility fees.

Notes on conference and meeting facilities fees:

1. Conference and meeting facilities require a 30% prepayment due 10 days after making reservation, and payment of the full balance prior to or on the first day of the reservation. Cancellations made 14 or more days prior to the first day of the reservation shall be charged the lesser of 10% of the total fee or $100. Cancellations made less than 14 days prior to the first date of the reservation shall be charged 30% of the total fee.

2. Alcohol use during weddings at the Southwest Virginia Museum: Weddings held during public operating hours of the museum will not be allowed to serve alcohol. Weddings held after regular operating hours of the museum must comply with ABC permit laws and have alcohol in the designated reception areas.

Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-140. Pertaining to Identification of Crab Pots, Peeler Pots and Fish Pots (amending 4VAC20-140-10, 4VAC20-140-20; adding 4VAC20-140-15).

Statutory Authority: § 28.2-201 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: January 1, 2016.

Agency Contact: Jennifer Farmer, Regulatory Coordinator, Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor, Newport News, VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248 or email jennifer.farmer@mrc.virginia.gov.

Summary:

The amendments (i) require an eel pot fisherman to use his Marine Resources Commission identification number preceded by the letter "E" on each buoy or stake attached to each eel pot and (ii) require a fish pot fisherman to use his Marine Resources Commission identification number
preceded by the letter "F" on each buoy or stake attached to each fish pot.

CHAPTER 140
PERTAINING TO IDENTIFICATION OF CRAB POTS, PEELER POTS AND, EEL POTS, AND FISH POTS

4VAC20-140-10. Purpose.

The purpose of this chapter is to describe the lawful methods an individual shall use to identify his licensed crab pots, peeler pots or, fish pots, or eel pots.

4VAC20-140-15. Identification of eel pots.

Any person owning or using an eel pot, for which a commercial license is prescribed by law, shall display his Marine Resources Commission identification number preceded by the letter "E" on each floating buoy or stake attached to each such eel pot, in a legible and visible manner.

4VAC20-140-20. Identification of fish pots.

Any person owning or using a fish pot, for which a license is prescribed by law, shall display and maintain his current identification number, assigned by the Marine Resources Commission, preceded by the letter "F" on each floating buoy or stake attached to each such fish pot, in a legible and visible manner.

Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-620. Pertaining to Summer Flounder (amending 4VAC20-620-40).

Statutory Authority: §§ 28.201 and 28.210 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Dates: December 8, 2015, through January 7, 2016.

Agency Contact: Jennifer Farmer, Regulatory Coordinator, Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor, Newport News, VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248 or email jennifer.farmer@mrc.virginia.gov.

Preamble:

This emergency regulation increases to 7,500 pounds the landing limit in Virginia during the second 30-day period beginning December 1.

4VAC20-620-40. Commercial vessel possession and landing limitations.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person harvesting Summer Flounder outside of Virginia's waters to do any of the following, except as described in subsections B, C, and D of this section:

1. Possess aboard any vessel in Virginia waters any amount of Summer Flounder in excess of 10% by weight of Atlantic croaker or the combined landings, on board a vessel, of black sea bass, scup, squid, scallops and Atlantic mackerel.

2. Possess aboard any vessel in Virginia waters any amount of Summer Flounder in excess of 1,500 pounds landed in combination with Atlantic croaker.

3. Fail to sell the vessel's entire harvest of all species at the point of landing.

B. From the second Wednesday in March through April 19, it shall be unlawful for any person harvesting Summer Flounder outside of Virginia waters to do any of the following:

1. Possess aboard any vessel in Virginia waters any amount of Summer Flounder in excess of the combined total of the Virginia landing limit described in subdivision 3 of this subsection and the amount of the legal North Carolina landing limit or trip limit.

2. Land Summer Flounder in Virginia for commercial purposes more than twice during each consecutive 20-day period, with the first 20-day period beginning on the second Wednesday in March.

3. Land in Virginia more than 7,500 pounds of Summer Flounder during each consecutive 20-day period, with the first 20-day period beginning on the second Wednesday in March.

4. Land in Virginia any amount of Summer Flounder more than once in any consecutive five-day period.

C. From November 1 through December 31 of each year, or until it has been projected and announced that 85% of the allowable landings have been taken, it shall be unlawful for any person harvesting Summer Flounder outside of Virginia waters to do any of the following:

1. Possess aboard any vessel in Virginia waters any amount of Summer Flounder in excess of the combined total of the Virginia landing limit described in subdivisions 3 and 4 of this subsection and the amount of the legal North Carolina landing limit or trip limit.

2. Land Summer Flounder in Virginia for commercial purposes more than twice during each consecutive 30-day period, with the first 30-day period beginning on November 1.

3. Land in Virginia more than a total of 10,000 pounds of Summer Flounder during the first 30-day period, with the first 30-day period beginning on November 1.

4. Land in Virginia more than a total of 5,000 7,500 pounds of Summer Flounder during the second 30-day period with the second 30-day period beginning on December 1.

5. Land in Virginia any amount of Summer Flounder more than once in any consecutive five-day period.

D. From January 1 through December 31 of each year, any boat or vessel issued a valid federal Summer Flounder moratorium permit and owned and operated by a legal Virginia Commercial Hook-and-Line Licensee that possesses a Restricted Summer Flounder Endorsement shall be restricted to a possession and landing limit of 200 pounds of Summer Flounder, except as described in 4VAC20-620-30 F.

E. Upon request by a marine police officer, the seafood buyer or processor shall offload and accurately determine the total weight of all Summer Flounder aboard any vessel landing Summer Flounder in Virginia.

F. Any possession limit described in this section shall be determined by the weight in pounds of Summer Flounder as customarily packed, boxed and weighed by the seafood buyer or processor. The weight of any Summer Flounder in pounds found in excess of any possession limit described in this section shall be prima facie evidence of violation of this chapter. Persons in possession of Summer Flounder aboard any vessel in excess of the possession limit shall be in violation of this chapter unless that vessel has requested and been granted safe harbor. Any buyer or processor offloading or accepting any quantity of Summer Flounder from any vessel in excess of the possession limit shall be in violation of this chapter, except as described by subsection I of this section. A buyer or processor may accept or buy Summer Flounder from a vessel that has secured safe harbor, provided that vessel has satisfied the requirements described in subsection I of this section.

G. If a person violates the possession limits described in this section, the entire amount of Summer Flounder in that person's possession shall be confiscated. Any confiscated Summer Flounder shall be considered as a removal from the appropriate commercial harvest or landings quota. Upon confiscation, the marine police officer shall inventory the confiscated Summer Flounder and, at a minimum, secure two bids for purchase of the confiscated Summer Flounder from approved and licensed seafood buyers. The confiscated fish will be sold to the highest bidder and all funds derived from such sale shall be deposited for the Commonwealth pending court resolution of the charge of violating the possession limits established by this chapter. All of the collected funds will be returned to the accused upon a finding of innocence or forfeited to the Commonwealth upon a finding of guilty.

H. It shall be unlawful for a licensed seafood buyer or federally permitted seafood buyer to fail to contact the Marine Resources Commission Operation Station prior to a vessel offloading Summer Flounder harvested outside of Virginia. The buyer shall provide to the Marine Resources Commission the name of the vessel, its captain, an estimate of the amount in pounds of Summer Flounder on board that vessel, and the anticipated or approximate offloading time. Once offloading of any vessel is complete and the weight of the landed Summer Flounder has been determined, the buyer shall contact the Marine Resources Commission Operations Station and report the vessel name and corresponding weight of Summer Flounder landed. It shall be unlawful for any person to offload from a boat or vessel for commercial purposes any Summer Flounder during the period of 9 p.m. to 7 a.m.

I. Any boat or vessel that has entered Virginia waters for safe harbor shall only offload Summer Flounder when the state that licenses that vessel requests to transfer quota to Virginia, in the amount that corresponds to that vessel's possession limit, and the commissioner agrees to accept that transfer of quota.

J. After any commercial harvest or landing quota as described in 4VAC20-620-30 has been attained and announced as such, any boat or vessel possessing Summer Flounder on board may enter Virginia waters for safe harbor but shall contact the Marine Resources Commission Operation Center in advance of such entry into Virginia waters.

K. It shall be unlawful for any person harvesting Summer Flounder outside of Virginia waters to possess aboard any vessel, in Virginia, any amount of Summer Flounder, once it has been projected and announced that 100% of the quota described in 4VAC20-620-30 A has been taken.

Final Regulation

Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-720. Pertaining to Restrictions on Oyster Harvest (amending 4VAC20-720-20, 4VAC20-720-70, 4VAC20-720-75, 4VAC20-720-80).

Statutory Authority: § 28.2-201 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: January 1, 2016.

Agency Contact: Jennifer Farmer, Regulatory Coordinator, Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor, Newport News, VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248 or email jennifer.farmer@mrc.virginia.gov.

Summary:

The amendments (i) remove Public Ground 2 of Mathews County, known as Pultz Bar, from the definition of the Mobjack Bay Area, (ii) permit the use of hand tongs to harvest oysters from the seaside of the Eastern Shore with a valid oyster hand tong license, and (iii) establish a vessel limit for hand tonging on the seaside of the Eastern Shore.

4VAC20-720-20. Definitions.

The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

"Aid to navigation" means any public or private day beacon, lighted channel marker, channel buoy, lighted channel buoy, or lighthouse that may be at, or adjacent to, any latitude and longitude used in area descriptions.

"Clean culled oyster" means any oyster taken from natural public beds, rocks, or shoals that is three inches or greater in shell length.

"Coan River Area" means that area of the Coan River inside of Public Grounds 77 and 78 of Northumberland County.

Public Ground 77 of Northumberland County is located near the mouth of the Coan River, beginning at a point approximately 2,300 feet northeast of Honest Point and 1,300 feet southwest of Travis Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 37° 59.5257207' N., Longitude 76° 27.8810639' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 59.3710259' N., Longitude 76° 27.9962148' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 37° 59.2953830' N., Longitude 76° 28.0468953' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 4, Latitude 37° 59.3350863' N., Longitude 76° 28.0968837' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 5, Latitude 37° 59.3965161' N., Longitude 76° 28.0287342' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 6, Latitude 37° 59.4758507' N., Longitude 76° 28.1112280' W.; thence north-northwesterly to Corner 7, Latitude 37° 59.5079401' N., Longitude 76° 28.1230058' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 8, Latitude 37° 59.5579153' N., Longitude 76° 27.9889429' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

Public Ground 78 of Northumberland County is located near the mouth of the Coan River, beginning at a point approximately 3,420 feet southeast of Travis Point and 3,260 feet northwest of Great Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 37° 59.4822275' N., Longitude 76° 27.1878637' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 59.3824046' N., Longitude 76° 27.1088650' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 37° 59.2283287' N., Longitude 76° 27.8632901' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 4, Latitude 37° 59.4368502' N., Longitude 76° 27.6868001' W.; thence continuing northeasterly to Corner 5, Latitude 37° 59.5949216' N., Longitude 76° 27.5399436' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

"Deep Rock Area" means all public grounds and unassigned grounds, in that area of the Chesapeake Bay near Gwynn Island, beginning at Cherry Point at the western-most point of the eastern headland of Kibble Pond located at Latitude 37° 30.9802148' N., Longitude 76° 17.6764393' W.; thence northeasterly to the Piankatank River, Flashing Green Channel Light "3", Latitude 37° 32.3671325' N., Longitude 76° 16.7038334' W.; thence east-southeasterly to the Rappahannock River Entrance Lighted Buoy G"1R", Latitude 37° 32.2712833' N., Longitude 76° 11.4813666' W.; thence southwesterly to the southern-most point of Sandy Point, the northern headland of "The Hole in the Wall", Latitude 37° 28.1475258' N., Longitude 76° 15.8185670' W.; thence northwesterly along the Chesapeake Bay mean low water line of the barrier islands of Milford Haven, connecting headland to headland at their eastern-most points, and of Gwynn Island to the western-most point of the eastern headland of Kibble Pond on Cherry Point, said point being the point of beginning.

"Deep Water Shoal State Replenishment Seed Area" or "DWS" means that area in the James River near Mulberry Island, beginning at a point approximately 530 feet west of Deep Water Shoal Light, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 37° 08.9433287' N., Longitude 76° 38.3213007' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 09.5734380' N., Longitude 76° 37.8300582' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 37° 08.9265524' N., Longitude 76° 37.0574269' W.; thence westerly to Corner 4, Latitude 37° 08.4466039 N., Longitude 76° 37.4523346' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 5, Latitude 37° 08.4491489' N., Longitude 76° 38.0215553' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

"Great Wicomico River Area" means all public grounds and unassigned grounds, in that area of the Great Wicomico River, Ingram Bay, and the Chesapeake Bay, beginning at a point on Sandy Point, Latitude 37° 49.3269652' N., Longitude 76° 18.3821766' W.; thence easterly to the southern-most point of Cockrell Point, Latitude 37° 49.2664838' N., Longitude 76° 17.3454434' W.; thence easterly following the mean low water line of Cockrell Point to a point on the boundary of Public Ground 115 at Cash Point, Latitude 37° 49.2695619' N., Longitude 76° 17.2804046' W.; thence southeasterly to the gazebo on the pierhead at Fleets Point, Latitude 37° 48.7855824' N., Longitude 76° 16.9609311' W.; thence southeasterly to the Great Wicomico Lighthouse; thence due south to a point due east of the southern-most point of Dameron Marsh, Latitude 37° 46.6610003' N., Longitude 76° 16.0570007' W.; thence due west to the southern-most point of Dameron Marsh, Latitude 37° 46.6609070' N., Longitude 76° 17.2670707' W.; thence along the mean low water line of Dameron Marsh, north and west to Garden Point, Latitude 37° 47.2519872' N., Longitude 76° 18.4028142' W.; thence northwesterly to Windmill Point, Latitude 37° 47.5194547' N., Longitude 76° 18.7132194' W.; thence northerly along the mean low water to the western headland of Harveys Creek, Latitude 37° 47.7923573' N., Longitude 76° 18.6881450' W.; thence east-southeasterly to the eastern headland of Harveys Creek, Latitude 37° 47.7826936' N., Longitude 76° 18.5469879' W.; thence northerly along the mean low water line, crossing the entrance to Towels Creek at the offshore ends of the jetties and continuing to Bussel Point, Latitude 37° 48.6879208' N., Longitude 76° 18.4670860' W.; thence northwesterly to the northern headland of Cranes Creek, Latitude 37° 48.8329168' N., Longitude 76° 18.7308073' W.; thence following the mean low water line northerly to a point on Sandy Point, said point being the point of beginning.

"Hand scrape" means any device or instrument with a catching bar having an inside measurement of no more than 22 inches, which is used or usable for the purpose of extracting or removing shellfish from a water bottom or the bed of a body of water.

"Hand tong" or "ordinary tong" means any pincers, nippers, tongs, or similar device used in catching oysters, which consist of two shafts or handles attached to opposable and complementary pincers, baskets, or containers operated entirely by hand, from the surface of the water and has no external or internal power source.

"James River Area" means those public grounds of the James River and Nansemond River west of the Monitor Merrimac Memorial Bridge Tunnel (Route I-664), northeast of the Mills E. Godwin, Jr. Bridge (U.S. Route 17) on the Nansemond River, and south of the James River Bridge (U.S. Route 17).

"James River Seed Area" means all public grounds and unassigned grounds in that area of the James River and its tributaries with a southeastern boundary beginning at a point on the shore on the south side of the river at Rainbow Farm Point in Isle of Wight County located at Latitude 37° 00.1965862' N., Longitude 76° 34.0712010' W.; thence north-northeasterly to a VMRC Marker "STH", Latitude 37° 00.9815328 N., Longitude 76° 33.5955842' W.; thence to a VMRC Marker "SMT", at Latitude 37° 01.3228160' N., Longitude 76° 33.3887351' W.; thence to the Flashing Green Channel Light #5, at Latitude 37° 02.3449949' N., Longitude 76° 32.7689936' W.; thence northeasterly to a VMRC Marker "NMT", Latitude 37° 02.7740540' N., Longitude 76° 32.0960864' W.; thence to a VMRC Marker "NTH" located at Latitude 37° 03.2030055' N., Longitude 76° 31.4231211' W.; thence to a point on the north shore of the river at Blunt (Blount) Point, in the City of Newport News, located at Latitude 37° 03.3805862' N., Longitude 76° 31.1444562' W.; the northern boundary, being a straight line, beginning at a point on the shore on the east side of the river in the City of Newport News, at Latitude 37° 08.4458787' N., Longitude 76° 37.2855533' W.; thence westerly to the southeast corner of the Deep Water Shoal State Replenishment Seed Area, Latitude 37° 08.4466039' N., Longitude 76° 37.4523346' W.; thence westerly to the southwest corner of the Deep Water Shoal State Replenishment Seed Area, Latitude 37° 08.4490472' N., Longitude 76° 38.0215554' W.; thence westerly to a point on the shore on the west side of the river at the mouth of Lawnes Creek in Isle of Wight County, Latitude 37° 08.4582990' N., Longitude 76° 40.2816023' W.

"Latitude and longitude" means values that are based upon a geodetic reference system of the North American Datum of 1983 (NAD83). When latitude and longitude are used in any area description, in conjunction with any physical landmark, to include aids to navigation, the latitude and longitude value is the legal point defining the boundary.

"Little Wicomico River" means that area of the Little Wicomico River inside of Public Ground 43 of Northumberland County, located in the Little Wicomico River near Bridge Creek, beginning at a point approximately 150 feet north of Peachtree Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 37° 53.2910650' N., Longitude 76° 16.7312926' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 53.2601877' N., Longitude 76° 16.8662408' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 37° 53.2678470' N., Longitude 76°16.8902408' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 4, Latitude 37° 53.3113148' N., Longitude 76° 16.8211543' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

"Milford Haven" means that area of Milford Haven inside of Public Ground 7 of Mathews County, beginning at a point approximately 1,380 feet east of Point Breeze, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 37° 28.3500000' N., Longitude 76° 16.5000000' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 28.3700000' N., Longitude 76° 16.4700000' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 3, Latitude 37° 28.3500000' N., Longitude 76° 16.4200000' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 4, Latitude 37° 28.3200000' N., Longitude 76° 16.4500000' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

"Mobjack Bay Area" means those areas that area of Mobjack Bay consisting of Public Ground 25 of Gloucester County (Tow Stake) and that portion of Public Ground 2 of Mathews County known as Pultz Bar described as:

Public Ground 25 of Gloucester County, known as Tow Stake, is located in Mobjack Bay, near the mouth of the Severn River, beginning at a point approximately 2,880 feet east-northeast of Tow Stake Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 37° 20.3883888' N., Longitude 76° 23.5883836' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 30.5910482' N., Longitude 76° 23.2372184' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 3, Latitude 37° 20.3786971' N., Longitude 76° 22.7241180' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 4, Latitude 37° 19.8616759' N., Longitude 76° 23.5914937' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 5, Latitude 37° 20.0284019' N., Longitude 76° 23.7717423' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

Public Ground 2 of Mathews County, known as Pultz Bar, is located in Mobjack Bay, beginning at a point approximately 5,420 feet south of Minter Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 37° 21.2500000' N., Longitude 76° 21.3700000' W.; thence easterly to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 21.2700000' N., Longitude 76° 20.9600000' W.; thence southerly to Corner 3, Latitude 37° 21.0200000' N., Longitude 76° 20.9400000' W.; thence westerly to Corner 4, Latitude 37° 21.0500000' N., Longitude 76° 21.3300000' W.; thence northerly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

"Nomini Creek Area" means that area of Nomini Creek inside of Public Grounds 26 and 28 of Westmoreland County.

Public Ground 26 of Westmoreland County is located in Nomini Creek, north of Beales Wharf and east of Barnes Point, beginning at a point approximately 1,400 feet north of Barnes Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 38° 07.2690219' N., Longitude 76° 42.6784210' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 38° 07.0924060' N., Longitude 76° 42.4745767' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 38° 06.8394053' N., Longitude 76° 42.6704025, W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 4, Latitude 38° 06.8743004' N., Longitude 76° 42.7552151' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 5, Latitude 38° 07.0569717' N., Longitude 76° 42.5603535' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

Public Ground 28 of Westmoreland County is located at the mouth of Nomini Creek, beginning at a point approximately 50 feet west of White Oak Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 38° 07.6429987' N., Longitude 76° 43.0337082' W.; thence south-southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 38° 07.2987193' N., Longitude 76° 43.1101420' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 38° 07.7029267' N., Longitude 76° 43.3337762' W.; thence west to the mean low water line, Latitude 38° 07.7031535' N., Longitude 76° 43.3378345' W.; thence northerly and westerly along the mean low water line of Nomini Creek to a point southwest of Cedar Island, Latitude 38° 07.8986449' N., Longitude 76° 43.6329097' W.; thence northeasterly to a point on the mean low water line at the southern-most point of Cedar Island, Latitude 38° 07.8986449' N., Longitude 76° 43.6329097' W.; thence following the mean low water line of the southern and eastern sides of Cedar Island to a point, Latitude 38° 08.0164430' N., Longitude 76° 43.4773169' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 4, Latitude 38° 08.0712849' N., Longitude 76° 43.4416606' W.; thence northeasterly to a point on the northern headland of Nomini Creek at the mean low water line, said point being Corner 5, Latitude 38° 08.2729626' N., Longitude 76° 43.3105315' W.; thence following the mean low water line of White Point to a point northwest of Snake Island, Corner 6, Latitude 38° 08.4066960' N., Longitude 76° 42.9105565' W.; thence southeast, crossing the mouth of Buckner Creek, to a point on the mean low water line of Snake Island, Corner 7, Latitude 38° 08.3698254' N., Longitude 76° 42.8939656' W.; thence southeasterly following the mean low water line of Snake Island to Corner 8, Latitude 38° 08.2333798' N., Longitude 76° 42.7778877' W.; thence south-southwesterly, crossing the mouth of Buckner Creek, to Corner 9, Latitude 38° 08.2134371' N., Longitude 76° 42.7886409' W.; thence southeasterly to a point on the mean low water line of the southern headland of Buckner Creek, Corner 10, Latitude 38° 08.1956281' N., Longitude 76° 42.7679625' W.; thence southwesterly following the mean low water line of Nomini Creek, crossing the mouth of an un-named cove at the narrowest point between the headlands and continuing to follow the mean low water line to a point on White Oak Point, Latitude 38° 07.6428228' N., Longitude 76° 43.0233530' W.; thence west to Corner 1, said point being the point of beginning.

"Oyster" means any shellfish of the species Crassostrea virginica.

"Oyster dredge" means any device having a maximum weight of 150 pounds with attachments, maximum width of 50 inches, and maximum tooth length of four inches.

"Oyster patent tong" means any patent tong not exceeding 100 pounds in gross weight, including any attachment other than rope and with the teeth not to exceed four inches in length.

"Oyster resource user fee" means a fee that must be paid each calendar year by anyone who grows, harvests, shucks, packs, or ships oysters for commercial purposes.

"Pocomoke Sound Area" means that area of Pocomoke Sound inside of Public Grounds 9 and 10 of Accomack County.

Public Ground 9 of Accomack County is located in the Pocomoke Sound, beginning at a corner on the Maryland-Virginia state line, located in the Pocomoke Sound approximately 1.06 nautical miles north-northeast of the northern-most point of North End Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 37° 57.2711566' N., Longitude 75° 42.2870790' W. (NAD83); thence east-northeasterly along the Maryland-Virginia state line to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 57.2896577' N., Longitude 75° 41.9790727' W.; thence southerly to Corner 3, Latitude 37° 57.2574850' N., Longitude 75° 41.9790730' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 4, Latitude 37° 57.2288700' N., Longitude 75° 42.0077287' W.; thence west-southwesterly to Corner 5, Latitude 37° 57.2034533' N., Longitude 75° 42.1511250' W.; thence south-southwesterly to Corner 6, Latitude 37° 57.0940590' N., Longitude 75° 42.1935214' W.; thence south-southeasterly to Corner 7, Latitude 37° 57.0551726' N., Longitude 75° 42.1814457' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 8, Latitude 37° 56.9408327' N., Longitude 75° 42.2957912' W.; thence south-southwesterly to Corner 9, Latitude 37° 56.6574947' N., Longitude 75° 42.3790819' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 10, Latitude 37° 56.5790952' N., Longitude 75° 42.5228752' W.; thence west-southwesterly to Corner 11, Latitude 37° 56.5712564' N., Longitude 75° 42.5915437' W.; thence south-southeasterly to Corner 12, Latitude 37° 56.5441067' N., Longitude 75° 42.5869894' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 13, Latitude 37° 56.4575045' N., Longitude 75° 42.7458050' W.; thence west-southwesterly to Corner 14, Latitude 37° 56.2575123' N., Longitude 75° 43.3791097' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 15, Latitude 37° 55.7408688' N., Longitude 75° 43.7957804' W.; thence westerly to Corner 16, Latitude 37° 55.7575327' N., Longitude 75° 43.9458298' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 17, Latitude 37° 55.8908661' N., Longitude 75° 44.1291309' W.; thence north-northeasterly to Corner 18, Latitude 37° 55.9908639' N., Longitude 75° 44.0791266' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 19, Latitude 37° 56.1241858' N., Longitude 75° 43.8791328' W.; thence north-northeasterly to Corner 20, Latitude 37° 56.4075136' N., Longitude 75° 43.7291361' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 21, Latitude 37° 56.8241664' N., Longitude 75° 43.2624601' W.; thence north-northeasterly to Corner 22, Latitude 37° 57.0706006' N., Longitude 75° 43.1480402' W.; thence east-northeasterly along the Maryland-Virginia state line to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

Public Ground 10 of Accomack County is located in the Pocomoke Sound, beginning at a corner on the Maryland-Virginia state line, located in the Pocomoke Sound approximately 2.3 nautical miles westerly of the northern-most point of North End Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 37° 56.4741881' N., Longitude 75° 45.7051676' W. (NAD83); thence east-northeasterly along the Maryland-Virginia state line to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 56.9261140' N., Longitude 75° 43.7679786' W.; thence south-southwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 37° 56.1241948' N., Longitude 75° 44.3624962' W.; thence west-southwesterly to Corner 4, Latitude 37° 56.0820561' N., Longitude 75° 44.5826292' W.; thence northerly to Corner 5, Latitude 37° 56.1377309' N., Longitude 75° 44.5817745' W.; thence west-southwesterly to Corner 6, Latitude 37° 56.1259751' N., Longitude 75° 44.6226859' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 7, Latitude 37° 56.1039335' N., Longitude 75° 44.6692334' W.; thence southerly to Corner 8, Latitude 37° 56.0643616' N., Longitude 75° 44.6750106' W.; thence west-southwesterly to Corner 9, Latitude 37° 55.9742005' N., Longitude 75° 45.1458109' W.; thence west-northwesterly to Corner 10, Latitude 37° 56.0741973' N., Longitude 75° 45.8958329' W.; thence north-northwesterly to Corner 11, Latitude 37° 56.2565760' N., Longitude 75° 46.0000557' W.; thence northeasterly along the Maryland-Virginia state line to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

"Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds Management Area" or "PTSMA" means the area as defined in § 28.2-524 of the Code of Virginia.

"Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 1" means all public grounds and unassigned grounds, within an area of the PTSMA, in Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds, bounded by a line beginning at a point on the Maryland-Virginia state line, located at Latitude 37° 54.6136000' N., Longitude 75° 53.9739600' W.; thence south to the house on Great Fox Island, Latitude 37° 53.6946500' N., Longitude 75° 53.8898800' W.; thence westerly to a point, Latitude 37° 53.3633500' N., Longitude 75° 56.5589600' W.; thence south to a point, Latitude 37° 48.4429100' N., Longitude 75° 56.4883600' W.; thence easterly to the north end of Watts Island, Latitude 37° 48.7757800' N., Longitude 75° 53.5994100' W.; thence northerly to the house on Great Fox Island, Latitude 37° 53.6946500' N., Longitude 75° 53.8898800' W.; thence southeasterly to Pocomoke Sound Shoal Flashing Light Red "8", Latitude 37° 52.4583300' N., Longitude 75° 49.4000000' W.; thence southeasterly to Messongo Creek Entrance Buoy Green Can "1", Latitude 37° 52.1000000' N., Longitude 75° 47.8083300' W.; thence southeast to Guilford Flats Junction Light Flashing 2+1 Red "GF", Latitude 37° 50.9533300' N., Longitude 75° 46.6416700' W.; thence southerly to a point on a line from Guilford Flats Junction Light to the northern-most point of Russell Island, where said line intersects the PTSMA boundary, Latitude 37° 48.4715943' N., Longitude 75° 46.9955932' W.; thence clockwise following the PTSMA boundary to a point on the Maryland-Virginia state line, said point being the point of beginning.

"Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 2" means all public grounds and unassigned grounds, within an area of the PTSMA, in Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds, bounded by a line beginning at the house on Great Fox Island, located at Latitude 37° 53.6946500' N., Longitude 75° 53.8898800' W.; thence southerly to the north end of Watts Island, Latitude 37° 48.7757800' N., Longitude 75° 53.5994100' W.; thence westerly to a point, Latitude 37° 48.4429100' N., Longitude 75° 56.4883600' W.; thence northerly to a point, Latitude 37° 53.3633500' N., Longitude 75° 56.5589600' W.; thence easterly to the house on Great Fox Island, said house being the point of beginning. Also, Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 2 shall include all public grounds and unassigned grounds in the PTSMA in Pocomoke Sound bounded by a line beginning at a point on the Maryland-Virginia state line, Latitude 37° 54.6136000' N., Longitude 75° 53.9739600' W.; thence following the PTSMA boundary clockwise to a point on the line from the northern-most point of Russell Island to Guilford Flats Junction Light Flashing 2+1 Red "GF", where said line intersects the PTSMA boundary, Latitude 37° 48.4715943' N., Longitude 75° 46.9955932' W.; thence northerly to Guilford Flats Junction Light Flashing 2+1 Red "GF", Latitude 37° 50.9533300' N., Longitude 75° 46.6416700' W.; thence northwesterly to Messongo Creek Entrance Buoy Green Can "1", Latitude 37° 52.1000000' N., Longitude 75° 47.8083300' W.; thence northwesterly to Pocomoke Sound Shoal Flashing Light Red "8", Latitude 37° 52.4583300' N., Longitude 75° 49.4000000' W.; thence northwesterly to the house on Great Fox Island, Latitude 37° 53.6946500' N., Longitude 75° 53.8898800' W.; thence northerly to a point on the Maryland-Virginia state line, said point being the point of beginning.

"Public oyster ground" means all those grounds defined in § 28.2-551 of the Code of Virginia or by any other acts of the General Assembly pertaining to those grounds, all those grounds set aside by court order, and all those grounds set aside by order of the Marine Resources Commission, and may be redefined by any of these legal authorities.

"Rappahannock River Area 7" means all public grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, bounded downstream by a line from Rogue Point, located at Latitude 37° 40.0400000' N., Longitude 76° 32.2530000' W.; thence west-northwesterly to Flashing Red Buoy "8", Latitude 37° 40.1580000' N., Longitude 76° 32.9390000' W.; thence southwesterly to Balls Point, Latitude 37° 39.3550000' N., Longitude 76° 34.4440000' W.; and bounded upstream by a line from Punchbowl Point, Latitude 37° 44.6750000' N., Longitude 76° 37.3250000' W.; thence southeasterly to Monaskon Point, Latitude 37° 44.0630000' N., Longitude 76° 34.1080000' W.

"Rappahannock River Area 8" means all public grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, bounded downstream by a line from Monaskon Point, located at Latitude 37° 44.0630000' N., Longitude 76° 34.1080000' W.; thence northwesterly to Punchbowl Point, Latitude 37° 44.6750000' N., Longitude 76° 37.3250000' W.; and bounded upstream by a line from Jones Point, Latitude 37° 46.7860000' N., Longitude 76° 40.8350000' W.; thence north-northwesterly to Sharps Point, Latitude 37° 49.3640000' N., Longitude 76° 42.0870000' W.

"Rappahannock River Area 9" means all public grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, bounded downstream by a line from Sharps Point, located at Latitude 37° 49.3640000' N., Longitude 76° 42.0870000' W.; thence south-southeasterly to Jones Point, Latitude 37° 46.7860000' N., Longitude 76° 40.8350000' W.; and bounded upstream by the Thomas J. Downing Bridge (U.S. Route 360).

"Rappahannock River Rotation Area 1" means all public grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River and Chesapeake Bay, bounded by a line offshore and across the mouth of the Rappahannock River from a point on the mean low water line of Windmill Point, located at Latitude 37° 36.8200000' N., Longitude 76° 16.9460000' W.; thence southeast to Windmill Point Light, Latitude 37° 35.7930000' N., Longitude 76° 14.1800000' W.; thence southwesterly to Stingray Point Light, Latitude 37° 33.6730000' N., Longitude 76° 16.3620000' W.; thence westerly to a point on the mean low water line of Stingray Point, Latitude 37° 33.6920000' N., Longitude 76° 17.9860000' W.; and bounded upstream by a line from the mean low water line west of Broad Creek, Latitude 37° 33.9520000' N., Longitude 76° 19.3090000' W.; thence northeasterly to a VMRC Buoy on the Baylor line, Latitude 37° 34.5310000' N., Longitude 76° 19.1430000' W.; thence northeasterly to a VMRC Buoy, Latitude 37° 34.6830000' N., Longitude 76° 19.1000000' W.; thence northwesterly to a VMRC Buoy, Latitude 37° 35.0170000' N., Longitude 76° 19.4500000' W.; thence northwesterly to Sturgeon Bar Light "7R", Latitude 37° 35.1500000' N., Longitude 76° 19.7330000' W.; thence continuing northwesterly to Mosquito Point Light "8R", Latitude 37° 36.1000000' N., Longitude 76° 21.3000000' W.; thence northwesterly to the southern-most corner of the house on Mosquito Point, Latitude 37° 36.5230000' N., Longitude 76° 21.5950000' W.

"Rappahannock River Rotation Area 2" means all public grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, bounded downstream by a line from the southern-most corner of the house on Mosquito Point, located at Latitude 37° 36.5230000' N., Longitude 76° 21.5950000' W.; thence southeast to Mosquito Point Light "8R", Latitude 37° 36.1000000' N., Longitude 76° 21.3000000' W.; thence continuing southeasterly to Sturgeon Bar Beacon "7R", Latitude 37° 35.1500000' N., Longitude 76° 19.7330000' W.; thence west-southwesterly to a VMRC Buoy, Latitude 37° 34.9330000' N., Longitude 76° 21.0500000' W.; thence southwesterly to a VMRC Buoy, Latitude 37° 34.8830000' N., Longitude 76° 21.1000000' W.; thence southwesterly to a pier west of Hunting Creek at Grinels, Latitude 37° 34.4360000' N., Longitude 76° 26.2880000' W.; and bounded on the upstream by a line from Mill Creek Channel Marker "4", Latitude 37° 35.0830000' N., Longitude 76° 26.9500000' W.; thence northeasterly to Mill Creek Channel Marker "2", Latitude 37° 35.4830000' N., Longitude 76° 24.5670000' W.; thence northeasterly to the southern-most corner of the house on Mosquito Point, Latitude 37° 36.5230000' N., Longitude 76° 21.5950000'0 W.

"Rappahannock River Rotation Area 3" means all public grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, beginning from the north channel fender at the Robert O. Norris, Jr. Bridge, located at Latitude 37° 37.4830000' N., Longitude 76° 25.3450000' W.; thence southeast to the southern-most corner of the house on Mosquito Point, Latitude 37° 36.5230000' N., Longitude 76° 21.5950000' W.; thence southwest to Mill Creek Channel Marker "2", Latitude 37° 35.4830000' N., Longitude 76° 24.5670000' W.; thence southwesterly to Mill Creek Channel Marker "4", Latitude 37° 35.0830000' N., Longitude 76° 24.9500000' W.; thence northeasterly to Parrotts Creek Channel Marker "1", Latitude 37° 36.0330000' N., Longitude 76° 25.4170000' W.; thence northerly to VMRC Buoy, Latitude 37° 36.3330000' N., Longitude 76° 25.2000000' W.; thence northerly to the north channel fender of the Robert O. Norris, Jr. Bridge, said point being the point of beginning.

"Rappahannock River Rotation Area 4" means all public grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, Corrotoman River and Carter Creek, beginning at the White Stone end of the Robert O. Norris, Jr. Bridge (State Route 3), located at Latitude 37° 38.1290000' N., Longitude 76° 24.7220000' W.; thence along said bridge to the north channel fender, Latitude 37° 37.4830000' N., Longitude 76° 25.3450000' W.; thence westerly to the VMRC Buoy "5-4", Latitude 37° 38.0050000' N., Longitude 76° 30.0280000' W.; thence northerly to Old House Point, Latitude 37° 39.1390000' N., Longitude 76° 29.6850000' W.; thence northeasterly to Ball Point, Latitude 37° 41.6600000' N., Longitude 76° 28.6320000' W.; thence southeasterly to VMRC reef marker "Ferry Bar – North", Latitude 37° 40.3000000' N., Longitude 76° 28.5000000' W.; thence southwesterly to VMRC reef marker "Ferry Bar – South", Latitude 37° 40.1670000' N., Longitude 76° 28.5830000' W.; thence southeasterly to a duck blind west of Corrotoman Point, Latitude 37° 39.8760000' N., Longitude 76° 28.4200000' W.; thence southerly to VMRC Buoy "543", Latitude 37° 39.2670000' N., Longitude 76° 27.8500000' W.; thence southerly to VMRC Buoy "Drumming-West", Latitude 37° 38.8830000' N., Longitude 76° 27.6830000' W.; thence southerly to VMRC Buoy "Drumming-East", Latitude 37° 38.8330000' N., Longitude 76° 27.5670000' W.; thence northeasterly to Orchard Point, Latitude 37° 38.9240000' N., Longitude 76° 27.1260000' W.

"Rappahannock River Rotation Area 5" means all public grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, beginning at the Greys Point end of the Robert O. Norris, Jr. Bridge (State Route 3), located at Latitude 37° 36.8330000' N., Longitude 76° 25.9990000' W.; thence northeasterly along the bridge to the north channel fender, Latitude 37° 37.4830000' N., Longitude 76° 25.3450000' W.; thence west-northwesterly to VMRC Buoy "5-4", Latitude 37° 38.0050000' N., Longitude 76° 30.0280000' W.; thence westerly to Buoy "R6", Latitude 37° 38.0330000' N., Longitude 76° 30.2830000' W.; thence south to the eastern headland of Whiting Creek, Latitude 37° 36.6580000' N., Longitude 76° 30.3120000' W.

"Rappahannock River Rotation Area 6" means all public grounds, in that area of the Rappahannock River, beginning on the eastern headland of Whiting Creek, located at Latitude 37° 36.6580000' N., Longitude 76° 30.3120000' W.; thence north to Buoy "R6", Latitude 37° 38.0330000' N., Longitude 76° 30.2830000' W.; thence northwesterly to VMRC White House Sanctuary Buoy, Latitude 37° 38.1500000' N., Longitude 76° 30.5330000' W.; thence northwesterly to VMRC Towles Point Area Buoy, Latitude 37° 38.8330000' N., Longitude 76° 31.5360000' W.; thence northwesterly to Flashing Red Buoy "8" off Rogue Point, Latitude 37° 40.1580000' N., Longitude 76° 32.9390000' W.; thence southwesterly to Balls Point, Latitude 37° 39.3550000' N., Longitude 76° 34.4440000' W.

"Seed oyster" means any oyster taken by any person from natural beds, rocks, or shoals that is more than 30 days from harvest for human consumption.

"Thomas Rock Area" means all public grounds and unassigned grounds, in that area of the James River, with an eastern boundary being the upstream side of the James River Bridge (U.S. Route 17), and a western boundary being a line drawn from the south side of the river at Rainbow Farm Point, a point on the shore, in line with VMRC Markers "STH" and "SMT", located at Latitude 37° 00.1965862' N., Longitude 76° 34.0712010' W.; thence north-northeasterly to a VMRC Marker "STH", Latitude 37° 00.9815328 N., Longitude 76° 33.5955842' W.; thence to a VMRC Marker "SMT", at Latitude 37° 01.3228160' N., Longitude 76° 33.3887351' W.; thence to the Flashing Green Channel Light #5, at Latitude 37° 02.3449949' N., Longitude 76° 32.7689936' W.; thence northeasterly to a VMRC Marker "NMT", Latitude 37° 02.7740540' N., Longitude 76° 32.0960864' W.; thence to a VMRC Marker "NTH" located at Latitude 37° 03.2030055' N., Longitude 76° 31.4231211' W.; thence to a point on the north shore of the river at Blunt (Blount) Point, said point being in line with VMRC Markers "NMT" and "NTH" and located at Latitude 37° 03.3805862' N., Longitude 76° 31.1444562' W.

"Unassigned ground" means all those grounds defined by any other acts of the General Assembly pertaining to those grounds, all those grounds set aside by court order, and all those grounds set aside by order of the Marine Resources Commission, and may be redefined by any of these legal authorities.

"Upper Chesapeake Bay - Blackberry Hangs Area" means all public grounds and unassigned grounds, in that area of the Chesapeake Bay, bounded by a line, beginning at a point approximately 300 feet east of the mean low water line of the Chesapeake Bay and approximately 1,230 feet southwest of the end of the southern-most stone jetty at the mouth of the Little Wicomico River, said point being Corner 1, Latitude 37° 53.1811193' N., Longitude 76° 14.1740146' W.; thence east-southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 37° 52.9050025' N., Longitude 76° 11.9357257' W.; thence easterly to Corner 3, Latitude 37° 52.9076552' N., Longitude 76° 11.6098145' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 4, Latitude 37° 52.8684955' N., Longitude 76° 11.6402444' W.; thence east-southeasterly to Corner 5, Latitude 37° 52.7924853' N., Longitude 76° 11.0253352' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 6, Latitude 37° 49.4327736' N., Longitude 76° 13.2409959' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 7, Latitude 37° 50.0560555' N., Longitude 76° 15.0023234' W.; thence north-northeasterly to Corner 8, Latitude 37° 50.5581183' N., Longitude 76° 14.8772805' W.; thence north-northeasterly to Corner 9, Latitude 37° 52.0260950' N., Longitude 76° 14.5768550' W.; thence northeasterly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

"Yeocomico River Area" means that area of the North West Yeocomico River, inside Public Ground 8 of Westmoreland County and those areas of the South Yeocomico River inside Public Grounds 102, 104, and 107 of Northumberland County.

Public Ground 8 of Westmoreland County is located in the North West Yeocomico River, beginning at a point approximately 1,455 feet northeast of Crow Bar and 1,850 feet northwest of White Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 38° 02.7468214' N., Longitude 76° 33.0775726' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 38° 02.7397202' N., Longitude 76° 33.0186286' W.; thence southerly to Corner 3, Latitude 38° 02.6021644' N., Longitude 76° 33.0234175' W.; thence westerly to Corner 4, Latitude 38° 02.6006669' N., Longitude 76° 33.0824799' W.; thence northerly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

Public Ground 102 of Northumberland County is located in the South Yeocomico River, beginning at a point approximately 630 feet south of Mundy Point and 1,745 feet southwest of Tom Jones Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 38° 01.2138059' N., Longitude 76° 32.5577201' W.; thence east-northeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 38° 01.2268644' N., Longitude 76° 32.4497849' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 38° 01.1091209' N., Longitude 76° 32.5591101' W.; thence northerly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

Public Ground 104 of Northumberland County is located in the South Yeocomico River, beginning at a point approximately 670 feet north of Walker Point and 1,900 feet northwest of Palmer Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Latitude 38° 00.8841841' N., Longitude 76° 32.6106215' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 38° 00.8609163' N., Longitude 76° 32.5296302' W.; thence southeasterly to Corner 3, Latitude 38° 00.6693092' N., Longitude 76° 32.4161866' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 4, Latitude 38° 00.6418466' N., Longitude 76° 32.5394849' W.; thence northwesterly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

Public Ground 107 of Northumberland County is located in the South Yeocomico River, beginning at a point approximately 1,000 feet southwest of Barn Point and 1,300 feet northwest of Tom Jones Point, said point being Corner 1, located at Longitude 38° 01.1389367' N., Latitude 76° 32.3425617' W.; thence east-southeasterly to Corner 2, Latitude 38° 01.4106421' N., Longitude 76° 32.1077962' W.; thence southwesterly to Corner 3, Latitude 38° 01.2717197' N., Longitude 76° 32.2917989' W.; thence north-northwesterly to Corner 1, said corner being the point of beginning.

"York River Rotation Area 1" means all public grounds in the York River, within Gloucester County, between a line from Upper York River Flashing Red Channel Marker "8", Latitude 37° 17.8863666' N., Longitude 76° 34.6534166' W.; thence northeasterly to Red Day Marker "2" at the mouth of Cedar Bush Creek, Latitude 37° 18.6422166' N., Longitude 76° 33.8216000' W.; upstream to a line from the Flashing Yellow VIMS Data Buoy "CB", Latitude 37° 20.4670000' N., Longitude 76° 37.4830000' W.; thence northeasterly to the inshore end of the wharf at Clay Bank.

"York River Rotation Area 2" means all public grounds in the York River, within Gloucester County, from the George P. Coleman Memorial Bridge (U.S. Route 17), upstream to a line from Upper York River Flashing Red Channel Marker "8", Latitude 37° 17.8863666' N., Longitude 76° 34.6534166' W.; thence northeasterly to Red Day Marker "2" at the mouth of Cedar Bush Creek, Latitude 37° 18.6422166' N., Longitude 76° 33.8216000' W.

4VAC20-720-70. Gear restrictions.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest oysters in the James River Seed Area, including the Deep Water Shoal State Replenishment Seed Area, the Rappahannock River Area 9, Milford Haven, Little Wicomico River, Coan River, Nomini Creek and Yeocomico River, except by hand tong. It shall be unlawful for any person to have a hand scrape on board a boat that is harvesting or attempting to harvest oysters from public grounds by hand tong.

B. It shall be unlawful to harvest oysters from the seaside of the Eastern Shore area by any gear, except by hand or hand tong.

C. It shall be unlawful to harvest oysters in the Rappahannock River Rotation Areas 3 and 5, James River Area, Thomas Rock Area, Upper Chesapeake Bay Blackberry Hangs Area, Mobjack Bay Area, Great Wicomico River Area, and Pocomoke Sound Area - Public Ground 9 and 10, by any gear except by hand scrape.

D. It shall be unlawful for any person to have more than one hand scrape on board any boat that is harvesting oysters or attempting to harvest oysters from public grounds. It shall be unlawful for any person to have a hand tong on board a boat that is harvesting or attempting to harvest oysters from public grounds by hand scrape.

E. It shall be unlawful to harvest oysters from the Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 1, except by an oyster dredge.

F. It shall be unlawful to harvest oysters from the Deep Rock Area, except by an oyster patent tong.

4VAC20-720-75. Gear license.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest shellfish, from the hand scrape areas in the Rappahannock River, James River, Upper Chesapeake Bay, Mobjack Bay Area, Great Wicomico River, and Pocomoke Sound Area - Public Ground 9 and 10, unless that person has first obtained a valid hand scrape license.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest shellfish with an oyster dredge from the public oyster grounds in the Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 1, unless that person has first obtained a valid oyster dredge license.

C. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest shellfish with a patent tong from the public oyster grounds in the Deep Rock Area, unless that person has first obtained a valid oyster patent tong license.

D. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest shellfish with a hand tong from the public oyster grounds, as described in 4VAC20-720-70 A, unless that person has first obtained a valid hand tong license.

E. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest shellfish by hand from the public oyster grounds on the Seaside seaside of the Eastern Shore, as described in 4VAC20-720-40 4VAC20-720-70 B 18, unless that person has first obtained a valid oyster by hand license. It shall be unlawful for any person to harvest shellfish from the public oyster grounds on the seaside of the Eastern Shore by hand tong, as described in 4VAC20-720-70 B, unless that person has first obtained a valid oyster hand tong license.

4VAC20-720-80. Quotas and harvest limits.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a valid commercial fisherman's registration license and a valid gear license required by harvest area, as described in 4VAC20-720-75, and has not paid the current year's oyster resource user fee to harvest or possess any oysters for commercial purposes. Any individual who possesses the valid licenses and has paid the oyster resource user fee as described in this subsection shall be limited to a maximum harvest of eight bushels per day. It shall be unlawful for any vessel to exceed a daily vessel limit of 24 bushels clean cull oysters harvested from the areas described in 4VAC20-720-40 B 8 through 16.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a valid commercial fisherman's registration license and a valid gear license required by harvest area, as described in 4VAC20-720-75, and has not paid the current year's oyster resource user fee to harvest or possess any oysters for commercial purposes. Any individual who possesses the valid licenses and has paid the oyster resource user fee as described in this subsection shall be limited to a maximum harvest of eight bushels per day. It shall be unlawful for any vessel to exceed a daily vessel limit for clean cull oysters harvested from the areas described in 4VAC20-720-40 B 2 through 7 and 17, whereby that vessel limit shall equal the number of registered commercial fisherman licensees on board the vessel who hold a valid gear license and who have paid the oyster resource user fee multiplied by eight.

C. It shall be unlawful for any vessel to exceed a daily vessel limit for clean cull oysters harvested from the areas described in 4VAC20-720-40 B 1, whereby that vessel limit shall equal the number of registered commercial fisherman licensees on board the vessel who hold a valid gear license and who have paid the oyster resource user fee multiplied by 12. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a valid commercial fisherman's registration license and hold a valid gear license required by harvest area, as described in 4VAC20-720-75, and has not paid the current year's oyster resource user fee to harvest or possess any oysters for commercial purposes. Any individual who possesses the valid licenses and has paid the oyster resource user fee as described in this subsection shall be limited to a maximum harvest of 12 bushels per day.

D. It shall be unlawful for any vessel to exceed a daily vessel limit for clean cull oysters harvested from the areas described in 4VAC20-720-40 B 18, whereby that vessel limit shall equal the number of registered commercial fisherman licensees on board the vessel who are licensed by a valid gear license and have paid the oyster resource user fee, multiplied by eight. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a valid commercial fisherman's registration license and a valid gear license required by harvest area, as described in 4VAC20-720-75, and has not paid the current year's oyster resource user fee to harvest or possess any oysters for commercial purposes. Any individual who possesses the valid licenses and has paid the oyster resource user fee, as described in this subsection, shall be limited to a maximum harvest of eight bushels per day.

D. E. In the Pocomoke and Tangier Sounds Rotation Area 1, no blue crab bycatch is allowed. It shall be unlawful to possess on board any vessel more than 250 hard clams.

Title of Regulation: 4VAC20-950. Pertaining to Black Sea Bass (amending 4VAC20-950-47).

Statutory Authority: § 28.2-201 of the Code of Virginia.

Effective Date: January 1, 2016.

Agency Contact: Jennifer Farmer, Regulatory Coordinator, Marine Resources Commission, 2600 Washington Avenue, 3rd Floor, Newport News, VA 23607, telephone (757) 247-2248 or email jennifer.farmer@mrc.virginia.gov.

Summary:

The amendment increases the commercial black sea bass directed fishery quota to 502,000 pounds beginning January 1, 2016.

4VAC20-950-47. Commercial harvest quotas.

A. The annual commercial black sea bass directed fishery quota is 402,584 502,000 pounds. When it has been announced that the directed fishery quota has been projected as reached and the directed fishery has been closed, it shall be unlawful for any directed commercial black sea bass fishery permittee to possess aboard any vessel or land in Virginia any black sea bass.

B. The annual commercial black sea bass bycatch fishery quota is 40,000 pounds. When it has been announced that the bycatch fishery quota has been projected as reached and the bycatch fishery has been closed, it shall be unlawful for any bycatch commercial black sea bass fishery permittee to possess aboard any vessel or land in Virginia any black sea bass. In the event the bycatch fishery quota is exceeded, the amount of the quota overage shall be deducted from the following year's bycatch fishing quota.

Title of Regulation: 6VAC35-170. Minimum Standards for Research Involving Human Subjects or Records of the Department of Juvenile Justice (amending 6VAC35-170-10, 6VAC35-170-30, 6VAC35-170-40, 6VAC35-170-50, 6VAC35-170-80, 6VAC35-170-100, 6VAC35-170-140, 6VAC35-170-170, 6VAC35-170-190, 6VAC35-170-200, 6VAC35-170-220; adding 6VAC35-170-62, 6VAC35-170-65, 6VAC35-170-185; repealing 6VAC35-170-120).

Statutory Authority: §§ 66-10 and 66-10.1 of the Code of Virginia.

Public Hearing Information: No public hearings are scheduled.

Public Comment Deadline: February 28, 2016.

Agency Contact: Janet P. Van Cuyk, Legislative and Research Manager, Department of Juvenile Justice, 600 East Main Street, 20th Floor, P.O. Box 1110, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 588-3879, FAX (804) 371-6490, or email janet.vancuyk@djj.virginia.gov.

Basis: Section 66-10.1 of the Code of Virginia directs the Department of Juvenile Justice's State Board of Juvenile Justice to promulgate regulations pursuant to the Administrative Process Act to effectuate the provisions of Chapter 5.1 (§ 32.1-162.16 et seq.) of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia for human research to be conducted or authorized by the department. Thus, the regulation is mandatory.

The board is empowered with general authority to promulgate regulations by § 66-10 of the Code of Virginia that states the board may "promulgate such regulations as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this title and other laws of the Commonwealth administered by the Director or the Department."

Purpose: The Minimum Standards for Research Involving Human Subjects or Records of the Department of Juvenile Justice (6VAC35-170) establishes the regulatory requirements and minimum standards for research on human subjects who are under the care or supervision of department or other board regulated programs or facilities. The regulation became effective February 1, 2005, and is intended to protect the safety, rights, and confidentiality of human research subjects.

The board approved the submission of a Notice of Intended Regulatory Action (NOIRA) for 6VAC35-170, Minimum Standards for Research Involving Human Subjects or Records of the Department of Juvenile Justice, on September 13, 2013, and it was submitted on February 18, 2014. The Executive Branch review for this stage was completed on March 13, 2014. The NOIRA was published in the Virginia Register of Regulations on April 21, 2014. The public comment period ended on May 21, 2014. The board approved the proposed amendments to the regulatory language on November 12, 2014.

The proposed amendments to the regulation provide the public information on the requirements and the decision process for research proposals involving only data requests. Additionally, the proposed amendments require researchers to report noncompliance with the conditions of the signed research agreements and authorize the department and Human Research Review Committee to prohibit further research or restrict the publication and use of the data research results.

Substance: The proposed language describes how all external data requests and research proposals within the Commonwealth's juvenile justice system will be coordinated, reviewed, and approved or denied. The proposed language provides the process for the review and approval of two new types of external data requests. These are (1) external aggregate data requests (new section: 6VAC35-170-62) and (2) external case-specific data requests (new section: 6VAC35-170-65). Proposed language also addresses researcher noncompliance (new section: 6VAC35-170-185). Additional revisions have been proposed to bring the current language in the regulation related to human research in line with the requirements of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia.

Issues: The primary advantage of the proposed amendment to the public is providing the public with the requirements and decision process for research proposals involving only data requests. Additionally, language has been proposed requiring an additional layer of review to ensure juvenile information is adequately protected when providing de-identified data. The current timeline for the decision process for research proposals not involving human research is 40 days. The proposed timeline for the decision process for aggregate data requests has been shortened to 20 days. The primary advantage to the department and the Commonwealth is proposed language allowing the department the discretion to approve or deny research projects to ensure selected projects align with the current department needs and priorities. Finally, proposed language allows the department or the Human Research Review Committee to restrict or terminate the work of researchers who fail to comply with the approved conditions of a research proposal. There are no disadvantages to the public, the department, or the Commonwealth in adopting the proposed changes to the regulation.

Department of Planning and Budget's Economic Impact Analysis:

Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of Juvenile Justice proposes 1) to reduce the time allotted for decisions for aggregate data requests and 2) to require researchers to submit an annual progress report.

Result of Analysis. There is insufficient data to accurately compare the magnitude of the benefits versus the costs.

Estimated Economic Impact. These regulations establish procedures for coordination, review, approval, and denial of data requests and research proposals involving juveniles within the Commonwealth's juvenile justice system.

One of the proposed changes will reduce the time to make decisions for aggregate data requests from 30 days to 20 days. With this change, researchers will be informed of a decision regarding their request sooner than it is currently.

Another proposed change will require researchers to submit an annual progress report to the Department of Juvenile Justice (DJJ). DJJ reports that the majority of projects are completed within one year and expects to receive only 3-4 annual reports from researchers. Furthermore, DJJ states that the type of information that will be included in the annual report is already required by the Institutional Review Boards and should require minimal to no extra work on the researchers part to comply.

The remaining proposed changes are formatting and clarifying changes reflecting the practices currently followed and are not expected to create any significant economic impact other than improving the clarity of the regulations.

Businesses and Entities Affected. These regulations primarily apply to researchers wishing to analyze data involving juveniles within the Commonwealth's juvenile justice system. In fiscal year 2014, DJJ received six research proposals and approved five of those proposals. In the same timeframe, the average daily population in three juvenile correctional centers was 599 and the average daily population in 25 juvenile detention centers was 735. There were also 1,366 placements in 19 juvenile group homes/shelter care facilities.

Localities Particularly Affected. The regulations apply throughout the Commonwealth.

Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments are not expected to significantly affect employment.

Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed amendments are not expected to affect the use and value of private property.

Small Businesses: Costs and Other Effects. The proposed amendments are not expected to affect small businesses.

Small Businesses: Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact. The proposed amendments are not expected to adversely affect small businesses.

Real Estate Development Costs. The proposed amendments are not expected to affect real estate development costs.

Agency's Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The responsible Virginia Board of Juvenile Justice agency representatives have reviewed the Department of Planning and Budget's (DPB) economic impact analysis of 6VAC35-170, Minimum Standards for Research Involving Human Subjects or Records of the Department of Juvenile Justice. The agency is in agreement with DPB's analysis.

Summary:

The proposed action addresses how all external data requests and research proposals within the Commonwealth's juvenile justice system will be coordinated, reviewed, and approved or denied. The proposed amendments provide the process for the review and approval of (i) external aggregate data requests, (ii) external case specific data requests, and (iii) human research proposals. The proposed amendments also require researchers to report noncompliance with the conditions of the signed research agreements and authorize the Department of Juvenile Justice and the Human Research Review Committee to prohibit further research or restrict the publication and use of the data research results.

CHAPTER 170
REGULATION GOVERNING MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR JUVENILE INFORMATION REQUESTS FROM AND RESEARCH INVOLVING HUMAN SUBJECTS OR RECORDS OF WITHIN THE DEPARTMENT OF JUVENILE JUSTICE

6VAC35-170-10. Definitions.

Unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, the following words and terms when used in this regulation chapter shall have the following meanings, consistent with the definitions offered in § 32.1-162.16 of the Code of Virginia:

"Aggregate data" means statistics that relate to broad classes, groups, or categories so that it is not possible to distinguish the properties of individuals within those classes, groups, or categories.

"Case-specific data" means nonaggregated data that provides information about individuals within a group.

"Coordinator of external research" is the department employee designated by the director to receive research proposals from external entities and ensure that the proposals are reviewed in accordance with this regulation chapter and related department procedures.

"De-identified data" means data with common identifiers, such as names, phone numbers, social security numbers, addresses, etc., removed in order to eliminate the ability of an individual viewing the data to determine the identity of an individual.

"Department" means the Department of Juvenile Justice.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Juvenile Justice, or his designee.

"Encrypted" means the transformation of data through the use of an algorithmic process into a form in which there is a low probability of assigning meaning without the use of a confidential process or key or the securing of the information by another method that renders the data elements unreadable or unusable.

"External research" means research conducted at or using the resources of a facility, program, or organization that is owned, operated, or regulated by the department or the Board of Juvenile Justice by researchers who are not part of the department or under contract to the department, or who are not employees of another state agency conducting a study at the direction of the General Assembly.

"Human subject" means any individual who is under the department's care, custody or supervision, or a member of the family of such an individual, who is or who is proposed to be a subject of human research.

"Human research" means any systematic investigation using human subjects, that may expose those subjects to physical or psychological injury, and that departs from the application of established and accepted therapeutic methods appropriate to meet the subject's needs including research development, testing and evaluation, utilizing human subjects that is designed to develop or contribute to generalized knowledge. Human research shall not be deemed to include research exempt from federal research regulation pursuant to 45 CFR 46.101(b).

"Human Research Review Committee" means the committee established by the department to oversee human research proposals and activities in accordance with 6VAC35-170-130 and § 32.1-162.19 of the Code of Virginia.

"Human subject" means any individual who is under the department's care, custody, or supervision, or a member of the family of such an individual, who is, or who is proposed to be, a subject of human research.

"Informed consent" means the knowing and voluntary agreement without undue inducement or any element of force, fraud, deceit, duress, or other form of constraint or coercion of a person who is capable of exercising free choice. The basic elements necessary for informed consent regarding human research include:

1. A reasonable and comprehensible explanation to the person of the proposed procedures and protocols to be followed, their purposes, including descriptions of any attendant discomforts, and risks and benefits reasonably to be expected;

2. A disclosure of any alternative procedures or therapies that might be helpful to the person;

3. An instruction that the person may withdraw his consent and stop participating in the human research at any time without prejudice to him;

4. An explanation of any costs or compensation that may accrue to the person and whether third party reimbursement is available for the proposed procedures or protocols; and

5. An offer to answer, and answers to, any questions by the person about the procedures and protocols.

"Legally authorized representative" means the parent or parents having custody of a prospective subject; the legal guardian of a prospective subject; or any person or judicial or other body authorized by law to consent on behalf of a prospective subject to such subject's participation in the particular human research, including an attorney in fact appointed under a durable power of attorney, provided the power grants the authority to make such a decision and the attorney in fact is not employed by the person, institution, or agency conducting the human research. No official or employee of the institution or agency conducting or authorizing the research shall act as a legally authorized representative.

"Minimal risk" means that the risks of harm anticipated in the proposed research are not greater, considering probability and magnitude, than those ordinarily encountered in daily life or during the performance of routine physical or psychological examinations or tests.

"Nontherapeutic research" means human research in which there is no reasonable expectation of direct benefit to the physical or mental condition of the human subject.

"Organizational unit head" means the person in charge of a juvenile correctional center, halfway house, court service unit, regional office or other organizational unit of the department.

"Principal researcher" means the individual who is responsible for the research design, the conduct of research, supervision of any research staff, and the research findings.

"Research" means the systematic development of knowledge essential to effective planning and rational decision-making. It involves the assessment of current knowledge on conceptual problems selected, statement of those problems in researchable format, design of methodologies appropriate to the problems, and the application of statistical techniques to organize and analyze data. Research findings should provide valuable information to management for policy options.

"Researcher" means an individual conducting research.

"Research project" means the systematic collection of information, analysis of the data, and the preparation of a report of findings.

"Written" means the required information is communicated in writing. Such writing may be available in either hard copy or electronic form.

6VAC35-170-30. Professional ethics.

The All research shall conform to the standards of ethics of professional societies such as the American Correctional Association, the American Psychological Association, the American Sociological Association, the National Association of Social Workers, the American Evaluation Association, or their equivalent.

6VAC35-170-40. Confidentiality requirements of all research.

A. Research findings shall not identify individual subjects.

B. All records and all information given by research subjects or employees of the department shall be kept confidential in accordance with § 16.1-300 of the Code of Virginia, and applicable rules and regulations regarding confidentiality of juvenile records.

C. Persons who breach confidentiality shall be subject to sanctions in accordance with applicable laws, regulations, policies, and procedures.

D. Confidentiality does not preclude reporting results in a consolidated form that protects the identity of individuals, utilizing de-identified data or giving raw data to the department for possible further analysis.

6VAC35-170-50. Conditions for department approval of external research.

The department will may approve research projects only when it determines, in its sole discretion, that the following conditions have been met:

1. The department has sufficient financial resources and staff to support the research project, and that on balance the benefits of the research justify the department's involvement;

2. The proposed research will not interfere significantly with department programs or operations, particularly those of the operating units that would participate in the proposed research; and

3. The proposed research is compatible with the purposes and goals of the juvenile justice system and with the department's organization, operations, and resources; and

4. The proposed research requests for aggregate data or de-identified data, and the human research proposals, comply with all department procedures, which shall be posted on the department's website.

6VAC35-170-62. Review and approval of aggregate data requests.

A. Aggregate data requests shall be submitted to the department in accordance with procedures posted on the department's website.

B. The coordinator of external research shall determine the following prior to approving the request:

1. The request meets the conditions for department approval of research identified in 6VAC35-170-30 and 6VAC35-170-50;

2. The data requested is accessible;

3. An estimate of the time required to process the data request; and

4. Based on staff workload, if staff resources are available to process the data request.

C. The coordinator of external research may approve and coordinate the provision of data.

D. The principal researcher shall be notified in writing of the approval or denial of the data request within 20 business days of the department receiving the proposal.

1. The department shall provide the principal researcher with documentation of the rationale for the denial of the request when applicable.

2. The department shall provide the principal researcher with a written estimated timeline for receipt of the data when applicable.

6VAC35-170-65. External case-specific data requests.

A. External case-specific data requests shall be submitted to the department via the Research Proposal Form, the Research Agreement Form, and any attachment required by department procedures.

B. The Research Agreement Form shall be signed by the principal researcher and the student researcher, if applicable, at the time of submission.

C. The coordinator of external research shall determine the following within 10 business days of receiving the research proposal:

1. The request meets the conditions for department approval of research identified in 6VAC35-170-30 and 6VAC35-170-50;

2. The proposal is not a human research proposal and is not required to be reviewed by the Human Research Review Committee;

3. The principal researcher has appropriate academic or professional standing or job-related experience in the area to be studied;

4. The proposal is in the required format and includes all required information;

5. The proposal complies with basic research standards and applicable laws;

6. The data requested is accessible;

7. Department staff and resources are available to process the data request; and

8. An estimate of the time required to compile the data request.

D. The following identifiers shall be removed from the data provided to researchers:

1. Names;

2. Dates (date of birth, date of admission, date of release, etc.);

3. Postal address information, other than town or city, state, and zip code;

4. Telephone numbers;

5. Social security numbers;

6. Medical record numbers;

7. Account numbers (Juvenile Tracking System, Direct Care, etc.);

8. Biometric identifiers, including finger and voice prints; and

9. Full face photographic images and any comparable image.

E. The director or his designee may on a case-by-case basis approve the dissemination of data containing a limited number of the identifiers listed in subsection D of this section for research benefiting the department.

F. The human research review process shall be followed when the data requested by a researcher are such that a reasonable person could identify the research participants.

G. Industry standard levels of encryption shall be required to protect all juvenile record information provided to researchers.

H. Upon determining the requirements in subsection C of this section are met, the director or his designee shall designate a committee to meet within 20 business days of receiving the proposal. The committee shall:

1. Review the data requested and determine if it is necessary to restrict the scope of the information provided. The scope of information may be restricted for any reason.

2. Determine the research is beneficial to the department.

3. Ensure juvenile confidential information will be adequately protected.

4. Make a recommendation to the director or his designee to approve or disapprove the request.

I. The director shall approve or deny the proposal within 10 business days of receiving the recommendation.

J. The department shall notify the researcher of the director's decision within five business days of the director making the decision.

K. Notification of the denial of a proposal shall include a written rationale.

L. Notification of the approval of a proposal shall include the research agreement. The research agreement shall outline the respective responsibilities of the parties and will specify:

1. When progress reports shall be required. If the external research also involves human research, this schedule of progress reports shall be developed in consultation with the Human Research Review Committee;

2. The department shall have unrestricted permission to use the research findings in accordance with professional standards of research;

3. A final report shall be submitted electronically to the department;

4. Unless waived by the director or designee, all external articles, reports, and presentations made from the data collected shall be submitted electronically to the department and shall include the statement, "The findings of this study are the responsibility of the researchers, and cooperation by the Virginia Department of Juvenile Justice in facilitating this research should not be construed as an endorsement of the conclusions drawn by the researchers."; and

5. The research agreement is not effective until signed by both the principal researcher and the director or his designee.

M. The department shall provide a final signed copy of the research agreement to the principal researcher by first class mail, electronic mail, or facsimile.

6VAC35-170-80. Informed consent required for human research (see (§ 32.1-162.18 of the Code of Virginia).

A. If a human subject is competent, informed consent shall be given in writing by the subject and witnessed.

B. If a human subject is not competent, informed consent shall be given in writing by the subject's legally authorized representative and witnessed.

C. If a human subject is a minor who is otherwise capable of giving informed consent, informed consent shall be given in writing by both the minor and his legally authorized representative.

D. If two or more persons who qualify as legally authorized representatives with decision-making authority inform the researcher that they disagree as to participation of the prospective subject in human research, the subject shall not be enrolled in the human research that is the subject of the consent.

D. E. Notwithstanding consent by a legally authorized representative, no person who is otherwise capable of giving informed consent shall be forced to participate in any human research.

E. F. A legally authorized representative may not consent to nontherapeutic research unless the Human Research Review Committee determines that such nontherapeutic research will present no more than a minimal risk to the human subject.

F. G. No informed consent form shall include any language through which the human subject waives or appears to waive any legal rights right, including any release of any individual, institution, or agency or any agents agent thereof from liability for negligence (see § 32.1-162.18 of the Code of Virginia).

6VAC35-170-100. Proposal for external research.

A. If the research is proposed to take place in a particular organizational unit, the principal researcher shall present a preliminary research proposal to the head of that organizational unit and get the organizational unit head's endorsement of the proposal, in accordance with procedures established by the department.

B. The principal researcher shall submit to the coordinator of external research a complete research proposal describing the research project, and containing:

1. Name, address, telephone numbers, title and affiliation of the principal researcher;

2. Name of the person who will immediately supervise the project, if different from the principal researcher;

3. Funding source, if any;

4. Date of the proposal's submission to the department;

5. Title or descriptive name of the proposed research project;

6. Statement of the specific purpose or purposes of the proposed research project with anticipated results, including benefit to the department;

7. A concise description of the research design and techniques for data collection and analysis, and of the likely effects of the research methodology on existing programs and institutional operations;

8. Time frames Timeframes indicating proposed beginning and ending dates for (i) data collection, (ii) analysis, (iii) preliminary report, and (iv) final report;

9. A listing of any resources the researcher will require from the department or its units, such as staff, supplies, materials, equipment, work spaces, or access to clients and files;

10. Endorsement A written endorsement from the head of the organizational unit where the research will be conducted, if applicable;

11. For student research, endorsement from the researcher's academic advisor or other appropriate persons;

12. For research involving records of juveniles at state and local court service units, a written endorsement from the appropriate juvenile and domestic relations judge or judges;

13. For human research, a written endorsement from the institutional review board of the institution or organization with which the researcher is affiliated; and

14. For all research projects, a signed and dated statement that the principal researcher and research staff have read, understand, and agree to abide by these regulations.

6VAC35-170-120. Research proposals not involving human research. (Repealed.)

Designated department staff shall review research proposals that do not involve human research and make a recommendation to the director within 20 days of receiving the proposal. The director shall approve or deny proposals within 10 days of receiving the staff recommendation.

6VAC35-170-140. Timeline for review of human research proposals.

A. The human research review committee Human Research Review Committee will review proposals involving human research within 30 business days of receiving a complete research proposal.

B. At the request of the researcher, the committee Human Research Review Committee may conduct an expedited review when the proposed research involves no more than minimal risk to the human subjects and:

1. The proposal has been reviewed and approved by another agency's human research review committee; or

2. The review involves only minor changes to a research project that was previously approved.

6VAC35-170-170. Recommendation to director and final action.

A. The committee Human Research Review Committee shall make a recommendation to the director to deny, approve, or conditionally approve the proposed human research.

B. The director shall approve or deny the proposal within 10 business days of receiving the committee's recommendation.

C. The research agreement shall become effective only after all reviews required by this regulation and department procedures are completed and the director signs the agreement on behalf of the department. The coordinator of external research must send a copy of the signed Research Agreement research agreement to the researcher before the project may begin.

6VAC35-170-185. Researcher noncompliance.

A. The researcher shall report noncompliance with the approved research proposal to the Human Research Review Committee and the institutional review board.

B. Research activities identified by the department or the Human Research Review Committee as failing to comply with the approved proposal or in violation of the Code of Virginia or the Virginia Administrative Code may result in the department restricting or terminating further research and the department may prohibit the researcher from presenting or publishing the research results.

6VAC35-170-190. Committee reports required.

A. In accordance with § 66-10.1 of the Code of Virginia, the committee Human Research Review Committee shall submit to the Governor, the General Assembly, and the director at least annually a report on human research projects approved by the committee, and the status of such research, including any significant deviations deviation from the proposals as approved.

B. The committee Human Research Review Committee shall also annually submit to the Board of Juvenile Justice the same report as required by subsection A of this section. The report to the board shall also include a summary of human research proposals that were not approved.

6VAC35-170-200. Progress reports.

A. The department may require periodic reports on the progress of any research project. The principal researcher shall be responsible for providing such reports, and any supplementary information requested by the department, in a timely manner.

B. The researcher shall submit an annual progress report to coordinator of external research when the research is not completed within one year of approval.

6VAC35-170-220. Final report.

A. The department shall require that a formal final report be submitted to the coordinator of external research, and may require up to 10 copies of the report.

B. The report shall, unless waived by the director or designee, contain the following statement:

"The findings of this study are the responsibility of the researchers, and cooperation by the Virginia Department of Juvenile Justice in facilitating this research should not be construed as an endorsement of the conclusions drawn by the researchers."

FORMS (6VAC35-170)

Research Proposal Summary (undated; filed 12/2015)

Research Agreement (undated; filed 12/2015)

Title of Regulation: 9VAC20-60. Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations (amending 9VAC20-60-18, 9VAC20-60-260, 9VAC20-60-261, 9VAC20-60-1390, 9VAC20-60-1420).

Statutory Authority: § 10.1-1402 of the Code of Virginia; 42 USC § 6921; 40 CFR Parts 260 through 272.

Effective Date: January 27, 2016.

Agency Contact: Leslie A. Romanchik, Department of Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 698-4129, FAX (804) 698-4234, TTY (804) 698-4021, or email leslie.romanchik@deq.virginia.gov.

Summary:

The Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations, 9VAC20-60, include citations and requirements in the form of incorporated federal regulatory text at Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). This regulatory amendment will bring these citations up to date and incorporate the latest Title 40 of the CFR to the one as published in the July 1, 2015, update.

As part of this regulatory action, the Virginia Waste Management Board is adopting the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency's Definition of Solid Waste (DSW) as promulgated on October 30, 2008, and subsequently updated by the Revisions to the Definition of Solid Waste Rule promulgated on January 13, 2015 (80 FR 1694). The purpose of the DSW rule is to ensure that the hazardous secondary materials recycling regulations, as implemented, encourage reclamation in a way that does not result in increased risk to human health and the environment from discarded hazardous secondary material. However, this regulatory action does not incorporate the conditional exclusion for hazardous secondary materials that are managed in land-based units. This regulatory action amends the definition of "contained" to add condition (5), which clarifies that land-based units managing hazardous secondary materials will continue to be required to comply with the applicable provisions of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations for hazardous waste land-based units.

9VAC20-60-18. Applicability of incorporated references based on the dates on which they became effective.

Except as noted, when a regulation of the United States Environmental Protection Agency set forth in Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations is referenced and incorporated herein, that regulation shall be as it exists and has been published in the July 1, 2014, 2015 update.

9VAC20-60-260. Adoption of 40 CFR Part 260 by reference.

A. Except as otherwise provided, the regulations of the United States Environmental Protection Agency set forth in 40 CFR Part 260 are hereby incorporated as part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations. Except as otherwise provided, all material definitions, reference materials and other ancillaries that are a part of 40 CFR Part 260 are also hereby incorporated as part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations.

B. In all locations in these regulations where 40 CFR Part 260 is incorporated by reference, the following additions, modifications and exceptions shall amend the incorporated text for the purpose of its incorporation into these regulations:

1. In 40 CFR 260.10, the term "Administrator" shall mean the administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency or his designee.

2. In 40 CFR 260.10, the term "contained" shall be appended by adding the following: (5) Hazardous secondary materials managed under the exclusion provided in 40 CFR 261.4(a)(23) or (a)(24) shall not be managed in a land-based unit unless the land-based unit meets the applicable standards of 40 CFR Parts 260 through 270, as incorporated by reference, for management of hazardous waste.

3. In 40 CFR 260.10, the term "EPA" shall mean the United States Environmental Protection Agency.

3. 4. In 40 CFR 260.10 the term "new tank system" and "existing tank system," the reference to July 14, 1986, applies only to tank regulations promulgated pursuant to federal Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendment (HSWA) requirements. HSWA requirement categories include:

a. Interim status and permitting requirements applicable to tank systems owned and operated by small quantity generators;

b. Leak detection requirements for all underground tank systems for which construction commenced after July 14, 1986; and

c. Permitting standards for underground tanks that cannot be entered for inspection.

For non-HSWA regulations, the reference date shall be January 1, 1998.

4. 5. In 40 CFR 260.10, the term "Regional Administrator" shall mean the regional administrator of Region III of the United States Environmental Protection Agency or his designee.

5. 6. In 40 CFR 260.10 definitions of the terms "Person," "State," and "United States," the term "state" shall have the meaning originally intended by the Code of Federal Regulations and not be supplanted by "Commonwealth of Virginia."

6. 7. In 40 CFR 260.10 and wherever elsewhere in Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations the term "universal waste" appears, it shall be amended by addition of the following sentence: "In addition to the hazardous wastes listed herein, the term "universal waste" shall include those hazardous wastes listed in Part XVI (9VAC20-60-1495 et seq.) of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations as universal wastes, under such terms and requirements as shall therein be ascribed."

7. 8. Throughout 40 CFR 260.11(a), the terms "EPA" and "U.S. Environmental Protection Agency" shall not be supplanted with the term "Commonwealth of Virginia."

8. 9. In Part XIV (9VAC20-60-1370 et seq.), the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations contain provisions analogous to 40 CFR 260.30, 40 CFR 260.31, 40 CFR 260.32, 40 CFR 260.33, 40 CFR 260.34, 40 CFR 260.40, and 40 CFR 260.41. These sections of 40 CFR Part 260 are not incorporated by reference and are not a part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations.

9. 10. Sections 40 CFR 260.2, 40 CFR 260.20, 40 CFR 260.21, 40 CFR 260.22, and 40 CFR 260.23 are not included in the incorporation of 40 CFR Part 260 by reference and are not a part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations.

10. 11. Appendix I to 40 CFR Part 260 is not incorporated by reference and is not a part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations.

11. Regardless of the provisions of 9VAC20-60-18, the revisions to 40 CFR Part 260 as promulgated by U.S. EPA on October 30, 2008, (73 FR 64757 - 64788) (definition of solid waste rule) are not adopted herein.

9VAC20-60-261. Adoption of 40 CFR Part 261 by reference.

A. Except as otherwise provided, the regulations of the United States Environmental Protection Agency set forth in 40 CFR Part 261 are hereby incorporated as part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations. Except as otherwise provided, all material definitions, reference materials and other ancillaries that are a part of 40 CFR Part 261 are also hereby incorporated as part of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations.

B. In all locations in these regulations where 40 CFR Part 261 is incorporated by reference, the following additions, modifications and exceptions shall amend the incorporated text for the purpose of its incorporation into these regulations:

1. Any agreements required by 40 CFR 261.4(b)(11)(ii) shall be sent to the United States Environmental Protection Agency at the address shown and to the Department of Environmental Quality, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, Virginia 23218.

2. In 40 CFR 261.4(e)(3)(iii), the text "in the Region where the sample is collected" shall be deleted.

3. In 40 CFR 261.4(f)(1), the term "Regional Administrator" shall mean the regional administrator of Region III of the United States Environmental Protection Agency or his designee.

4. In 40 CFR 261.6(a)(2), recyclable materials shall be subject to the requirements of 9VAC20-60-270 and Part XII (9VAC20-60-1260 et seq.) of this chapter.

5. No hazardous waste from a conditionally exempt small quantity generator shall be managed as described in 40 CFR 261.5(g)(3)(iv) or 40 CFR 261.5(g)(3)(v) unless such waste management is in full compliance with all requirements of the Solid Waste Management Regulations (9VAC20-81).

6. In 40 CFR 261.9 and wherever elsewhere in Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations there is a listing of universal wastes or a listing of hazardous wastes that are the subject of provisions set out in 40 CFR Part 273 as universal wastes, it shall be amended by addition of the following sentence: "In addition to the hazardous wastes listed herein, the term "universal waste" and all lists of universal waste or waste subject to provisions of 40 CFR Part 273 shall include those hazardous wastes listed in Part XVI (9VAC20-60-1495 et seq.) of the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations as universal wastes, under such terms and requirements as shall therein be ascribed."

7. In Subparts B and D of 40 CFR Part 261, the term "Administrator" shall mean the administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency, and the term "Director" shall not supplant "Administrator" throughout Subparts B and D.

8. Regardless of the provisions of 9VAC20-60-18, the revisions to 40 CFR Part 261 as promulgated by U.S. EPA on October 30, 2008, (73 FR 64757 - 64788) (definition of solid waste rule) are not adopted herein.

9VAC20-60-1390. Changes in classifications as a solid waste.

A. Variances.

1. Applicability.

a. A person who recycles waste that is managed entirely within the Commonwealth may petition the director to exclude the waste at a particular site from the classification as the solid waste (Parts I (9VAC20-60-12 et seq.) and III (9VAC20-60-124 et seq.) of this chapter). The conditions under which a petition for a variance will be accepted are shown in subdivision 2 of this subsection. The wastes excluded under such petitions may still, however, remain classified as a solid waste for the purposes of other regulations issued by the Virginia Waste Management Board or other agencies of the Commonwealth.

b. A person who generated generates wastes at a generating site in Virginia and whose waste is subject to federal jurisdiction (e.g., the waste is transported across state boundaries) shall first obtain a favorable decision from the administrator in accordance with Subpart C, 40 CFR Part 260, before his waste may be considered for a variance by the director.

c. A person who recycles materials from a generating site outside the Commonwealth and who causes them to be brought into the Commonwealth for recycling shall first obtain a favorable decision from the administrator in accordance with Subpart C, 40 CFR Part 260, before the waste may be considered for a variance by the director.

d. A person who received a favorable decision from the administrator in the response to a petition for variance or nonwaste determination or a person whose wastes were delisted as a result of a successful petition to the administrator shall provide a notification to the department containing the following information: (i) the petitioner's name and address and (ii) a copy of the administrator's decision.

2. Conditions for a variance. In accordance with the standards and criteria in subsection B of this section and the procedures in 9VAC20-60-1420 A B, the director may determine on a case-by-case basis that the following recycled materials are not solid wastes:

a. Materials that are accumulated speculatively without sufficient amounts being recycled (as defined in Part I).

b. Materials that are reclaimed and then reused within the original primary production process in which they were generated; and

c. Materials that have been reclaimed but must be reclaimed further before the materials are completely recovered.

d. Hazardous secondary materials that are reclaimed in a continuous industrial process.

e. Hazardous secondary materials that are indistinguishable in all relevant aspects from a product or intermediate.

f. Hazardous secondary materials that are transferred for reclamation under 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24) and are managed at a verified reclamation facility or intermediate facility where the management of the hazardous secondary materials is not addressed under an RCRA Part B permit or interim status standards.

B. Standards and criteria for variances.

1. The director may grant requests for a variance from classifying as a solid waste those materials that are accumulated speculatively without sufficient amounts being recycled if the applicant demonstrates that sufficient amounts of the material will be recycled or transferred for recycling in the following year. If a variance is granted, it is valid only for the following year, but can be renewed on an annual basis by filing a new application. The director's decision will be based on the following criteria:

a. The manner in which the material is expected to be recycled, and when the material is expected to be recycled, and whether this expected disposition is likely to occur (for example, because of past practice, market factors, the nature of the material, or contractual arrangement for recycling);

b. The reason that the applicant has accumulated the material for one or more years without recycling 75% of the volume accumulated at the beginning of the year;

c. The quantity of material already accumulated and the quantity expected to be generated and accumulated before the material is recycled;

d. The extent to which the material is handled to minimize loss; and

e. Other relevant factors.

2. The director may grant requests for a variance from classifying as a solid waste those materials that are reclaimed and then reused as feedstock within the original production process in which the materials were generated if the reclamation operation is an essential part of the production process. This determination will be based on the following criteria:

a. How economically viable the production process would be if it were to use virgin materials, rather than reclaimed materials;

b. The prevalence of the practice on an industry-wide basis;

c. The extent to which the material is handled before reclamation to minimize loss;

d. The time periods between generating the material and its reclamation, and between reclamation and return to the original primary production process;

e. The location of the reclamation operation in relation to the production process;

f. Whether the reclaimed material is used for the purpose for which it was originally produced when it is returned to the original process, and whether it is returned to the process in substantially its original form;

g. Whether the person who generates the material also reclaims it; and

h. Other relevant factors.

3. The director may grant requests for a variance from classifying as a solid waste those hazardous secondary materials that have been partially reclaimed but must be reclaimed further before recovery is completed if, after initial reclamation, the resulting material is the partial reclamation has produced a commodity-like (even though it is not yet a commercial product, and has to be reclaimed further). This determination will be based on the following factors: material. A determination that a partially reclaimed material for which the variance is sought is commodity-like will be based on whether the hazardous secondary material is legitimately recycled as specified in 40 CFR 260.43 and on whether all of the following decision criteria are satisfied:

a. The degree of processing the material has undergone and the degree of further processing that is required;

b. The value of the material after it has been reclaimed;

c. The degree to which the reclaimed material is like an analogous raw material;

d. The extent to which an end market for the reclaimed material is guaranteed;

e. The extent to which the reclaimed material is handled to minimize loss; and

f. Other relevant factors.

a. Whether the degree of partial reclamation the material has undergone is substantial as demonstrated by using a partial reclamation process other than the process that generated the hazardous waste;

b. Whether the partially reclaimed material has sufficient economic value that it will be purchased for further reclamation;

c. Whether the partially reclaimed material is a viable substitute for a product or intermediate produced from virgin or raw materials that is used in subsequent production steps;

d. Whether there is a market for the partially reclaimed material as demonstrated by known customer or customers who are further reclaiming the material (e.g., records of sales or contracts and evidence of subsequent use, such as bills of lading); and

e. Whether the partially reclaimed material is handled to minimize loss.

4. The director may grant requests for a variance from classifying as a solid waste those hazardous secondary materials that are transferred for reclamation under 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24) and are managed at a verified reclamation facility or intermediate facility where the management of the hazardous secondary materials is not addressed under a RCRA Part B permit or interim status standards. The director's decision will be based on the following criteria:

a. The reclamation facility or intermediate facility must demonstrate that the reclamation process for the hazardous secondary materials is legitimate pursuant to 40 CFR 260.43;

b. The reclamation facility or intermediate facility must satisfy the financial assurance condition in 40 CFR 261.4(a)(24)(vi)(F);

c. The reclamation facility or intermediate facility must not be subject to a formal enforcement action in the previous three years and not be classified as a significant noncomplier under RCRA Subtitle C, or must provide credible evidence that the facility will manage the hazardous secondary materials properly. Credible evidence may include a demonstration that the facility has taken remedial steps to address the violations and prevent future violations, or that the violations are not relevant to the proper management of the hazardous secondary materials;

d. The intermediate or reclamation facility must have the equipment and trained personnel needed to safely manage the hazardous secondary material and must meet emergency preparedness and response requirements under 40 CFR Part 261 Subpart M;

e. If residuals are generated from the reclamation of the excluded hazardous secondary materials, the reclamation facility must have the permits required (if any) to manage the residuals, have a contract with an appropriately permitted facility to dispose of the residuals, or present credible evidence that the residuals will be managed in a manner that is protective of human health and the environment; and

f. The intermediate or reclamation facility must address the potential for risk to proximate populations from unpermitted releases of the hazardous secondary material to the environment (i.e., releases that are not covered by a permit, such as a permit to discharge to water or air), which may include, but are not limited to, potential releases through surface transport by precipitation runoff, releases to soil and groundwater, wind-blown dust, fugitive air emissions, and catastrophic unit failures, and must include consideration of potential cumulative risks from other nearby potential stressors.

5. An applicant may apply to the administrator for a formal determination that a hazardous secondary material is not discarded and therefore not a solid waste (i.e., nonwaste determination). The determinations will be based on the criteria contained in subdivision B 6 or B 7 of this section, as applicable. If an application is denied, the hazardous secondary material might still be eligible for a solid waste variance or exclusion (e.g., one of the solid waste variances under this section). Determinations may also be granted by the director if the state is either authorized for this provision or if the following conditions are met:

a. The director determines the hazardous secondary material meets the criteria in subdivision B 6 or B 7 of this section, as applicable;

b. The state requests that EPA review its determination; and

c. EPA approves the state determination.

6. The director may grant a nonwaste determination for hazardous secondary material that is reclaimed in a continuous industrial process if the applicant demonstrates that the hazardous secondary material is a part of the production process and is not discarded. The determination will be based on whether the hazardous secondary material is legitimately recycled as specified in 40 CFR 260.43 and on the following criteria:

a. The extent that the management of the hazardous secondary material is part of the continuous primary production process and is not waste treatment;

b. Whether the capacity of the production process would use the hazardous secondary material in a reasonable timeframe and ensure that the hazardous secondary material will not be abandoned (e.g., based on past practices, market factors, the nature of the hazardous secondary material, or any contractual arrangements);

c. Whether the hazardous constituents in the hazardous secondary material are reclaimed rather than released to the air, water, or land at significantly higher levels from either a statistical or from a health and environmental risk perspective than would otherwise be released by the production process; and

d. Other relevant factors that demonstrate the hazardous secondary material is not discarded, including why the hazardous secondary material cannot meet, or should not have to meet, the conditions of an exclusion under 40 CFR 261.2 or 40 CFR 261.4.

7. The director may grant a nonwaste determination for hazardous secondary material that is indistinguishable in all relevant aspects from a product or intermediate if the applicant demonstrates that the hazardous secondary material is comparable to a product or intermediate and is not discarded. The determination will be based on whether the hazardous secondary material is legitimately recycled as specified in 40 CFR 260.43 and on the following criteria:

a. Whether market participants treat the hazardous secondary material as a product or intermediate rather than a waste (e.g., based on the current positive value of the hazardous secondary material, stability of demand, or any contractual arrangements);

b. Whether the chemical and physical identity of the hazardous secondary material is comparable to commercial products or intermediates;

c. Whether the capacity of the market would use the hazardous secondary material in a reasonable timeframe and ensure that the hazardous secondary material will not be abandoned (e.g., based on past practices, market factors, the nature of the hazardous secondary material, or any contractual arrangements);

d. Whether the hazardous constituents in the hazardous secondary material are reclaimed rather than released to the air, water, or land at significantly higher levels from either a statistical or from a health and environmental risk perspective than would otherwise be released by the production process; and

e. Other relevant factors that demonstrate the hazardous secondary material is not discarded, including why the hazardous secondary material cannot meet, or should not have to meet, the conditions of an exclusion under 40 CFR 261.2 or 40 CFR 261.4.

9VAC20-60-1420. Administrative procedures.

A. Procedures for variances to be classified as a boiler. The director will use the following procedures in evaluating applications for variances to classify particular enclosed controlled flame combustion devices as boilers:

1. The applicant must apply to the department for the variance. The application must address the relevant criteria contained in 9VAC20-60-1400.

2. The director will evaluate the application and issue a draft notice tentatively granting or denying the application. Notification of this tentative decision will be provided by newspaper advertisement or radio broadcast in the locality where the applicant is located. The director will accept comment on the tentative decision for 30 days, and may also hold a public hearing upon request or at his discretion. The director will issue a final decision after receipt of comments and after the hearing (if any).

B. Variances. The director will use the following procedures in evaluating applications for variances submitted under 9VAC20-60-1380 B, 9VAC20-60-1390, and 9VAC20-60-1400.

1. The applicant shall apply to the department. The application shall address the relevant criteria contained in 9VAC20-60-1380 B, 9VAC20-60-1390, and 9VAC20-60-1400.

2. The director will evaluate the application and issue a draft notice tentatively granting or denying the application. Notification of this tentative decision will be provided by newspaper advertisement and radio broadcast in the locality where the applicant is located. The director will accept comment on the tentative decision for 30 days, and may also hold a public hearing upon request or at his discretion. The director will issue a final decision after receipt of comments and after the hearing (if any), and will publish it in the newspaper in the locality where the applicant is located.

3. In the event of a change in circumstances that affect how a hazardous secondary material meets the relevant criteria contained in 9VAC20-60-1390 upon which a variance or nonwaste determination has been based, the applicant must send a description of the change in circumstances to the director. The director may issue a determination that the hazardous secondary material continues to meet the relevant criteria of the variance or nonwaste determination or may require the facility to reapply for the variance or nonwaste determination.

4. Variances and nonwaste determinations shall be effective for a fixed term not to exceed 10 years. No later than six months prior to the end of this term, facilities must reapply for a variance or nonwaste determination. If a facility reapplies for a variance or nonwaste determination within six months, the facility may continue to operate under an expired variance or nonwaste determination until receiving a decision on their reapplication from the director.

5. Facilities receiving a variance or nonwaste determination must provide notification as required by 40 CFR 260.42 as incorporated by reference.

C. Changes in management procedures.

1. Recycling activities. In determining whether to regulate recycling activities in a manner differing from procedures described in 40 CFR 261.6(a)(2)(iii), the director will fulfill all the requirements of Article 3 (§ 2.2-4018 et seq.) of the Administrative Process Act. In addition to the process required by the APA, the director will:

a. If a generator is accumulating the waste, issue a notice setting forth the factual basis for the decision and stating that the person shall comply with applicable requirements of 9VAC20-60-262. The notice will become final within 30 days, unless the person served requests a public hearing to challenge the decision. Upon receiving such a request, the director will hold a public hearing. The director will provide notice of the hearing to the public and allow public participation at the hearing. The director will issue a final order after the hearing stating whether or not compliance with 9VAC20-60-262 is required. The order becomes effective in 30 days, unless the director specifies a later date or unless review under Article 5 (§ 2.2-4025 et seq.) of the Administrative Process Act is requested.

b. If the person is accumulating the recyclable material at a storage facility, issue a notice stating that the person shall obtain a permit in accordance with all applicable provisions of Part III (9VAC20-60-124 et seq.), 9VAC20-60-270, and Part XII (9VAC20-60-1260 et seq.) of this chapter. The owner or operator of the facility shall apply for a permit within no less than 60 days and no more than six months of notice, as specified in the notice. If the owner or operator of the facility wishes to challenge the director's decision, he may do so in his permit application, in a public hearing held on the draft permit, or in comments filed on the draft permit or on the notice of intent to deny the permit. The fact sheet accompanying the permit will specify the reasons for the director's determination. The questions of whether the director's decision was proper will remain open for consideration during the public comment period discussed under 9VAC20-60-1210 40 CFR 124.11 and in any subsequent hearing.

2. Variance from secondary containment. The following procedures shall be followed in order to request a variance from secondary containment:

a. The department shall be notified in writing by the owner or operator that he intends to conduct and submit a demonstration for a variance from secondary containment as allowed in 40 CFR 265.193(g), (or 40 CFR 264.195(g)), and 9VAC20-60-1410 B according to the following schedule:

(1) For existing tank systems, at least 24 months prior to the date that secondary containment shall be provided in accordance with 40 CFR 265.193(a) or 40 CFR 264.193(a); and

(2) For new tank systems, at least 30 days prior to entering into a contract for installation of the tank system.

b. As part of the notification, the owner or operator shall also submit to the department a description of the steps necessary to conduct the demonstration and a timetable for completing each of the steps. The demonstration shall address each of the factors listed in 9VAC20-60-1410 B 4 or 9VAC20-60-1410 B 5.

c. The demonstration for a variance shall be completed and submitted to the department within 180 days after notifying the department of intent to conduct the demonstration.

d. In case of facilities regulated under 9VAC20-60-265:

(1) The director will inform the public, through a newspaper notice, of the availability of the demonstration for a variance. The notice shall be placed in a daily or weekly major local newspaper of general circulation and shall provide at least 30 days from the date of the notice for the public to review and comment on the demonstration for a variance. The director also will hold a public hearing, in response to a request or at his own discretion, whenever such a hearing might clarify one or more issues concerning the demonstration for a variance. Public notice of the hearing will be given at least 30 days prior to the date of the hearing and may be given at the same time as notice of the opportunity for the public to review and comment on the demonstration. These two notices may be combined.

(2) The director will approve or disapprove the request for a variance within 90 days of receipt of the demonstration from the owner or operator and will notify in writing the owner or operator and each person who submitted written comments or requested notice of the variance decision. If the demonstration for a variance is incomplete or does not include sufficient information, the 90-day time period will begin when the department receives a complete demonstration, including all information necessary to make a final determination. If the public comment period in subdivision 2 d (1) of this subsection is extended, the 90-day time period will be similarly extended.

e. In case of facilities regulated under 9VAC20-60-264, if a variance is granted to the permittee, the director will require the permittee to construct and operate the tank system in the manner that was demonstrated to meet the requirements for the variance.

Title of Regulation: 9VAC20-81. Solid Waste Management Regulations (amending 9VAC20-81-10, 9VAC20-81-35, 9VAC20-81-45, 9VAC20-81-90, 9VAC20-81-95, 9VAC20-81-97, 9VAC20-81-110, 9VAC20-81-300, 9VAC20-81-310, 9VAC20-81-370, 9VAC20-81-450, 9VAC20-81-460, 9VAC20-81-470, 9VAC20-81-485, 9VAC20-81-550, 9VAC20-81-600, 9VAC20-81-610, 9VAC20-81-700; adding 9VAC20-81-475, 9VAC20-81-800, 9VAC20-81-810, 9VAC20-81-820).

Statutory Authority: § 10.1-1402 of the Code of Virginia; 42 USC § 6941 et seq.; 40 CFR Parts 257 and 258.

Effective Date: January 27, 2016.

Agency Contact: Justin L. Williams, Department of Environmental Quality, 629 East Main Street, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 698-4185, FAX (804) 698-4234, TTY (804) 698-4021, or email justin.williams@deq.virginia.gov.

Summary:

On April 17, 2015, the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency published a final rule in the Federal Register titled "Disposal of Coal Combustion Residuals from Electric Utilities." The federal rule became effective October 19, 2015. This regulatory action amends Virginia's Solid Waste Management Regulations to incorporate the recently adopted federal standards concerning coal combustion residuals. The federal rule establishes standards for the disposal of coal combustion residuals from electric utilities in landfills and surface impoundments. The rule contains locational restrictions, design criteria, operating criteria, groundwater monitoring and corrective action requirements, closure and post-closure care requirements, and recordkeeping requirements. These requirements are being incorporated by reference into Virginia's Solid Waste Management Regulations. Solid waste permits will be issued for coal combustion residual landfills and surface impoundments operating in Virginia.

The federal rule also modified 40 CFR 261.4(b), which identifies materials excluded from being hazardous waste. The Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations incorporate 40 CFR 261.4 by reference. The Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations will be updated as part of a separate rulemaking process to include the revisions made to 40 CFR 261.4(b)(4) (Bevill exclusion).

Part I
Definitions

9VAC20-81-10. Definitions.

The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

"Active life" means the period of operation beginning with the initial receipt of solid waste and ending at completion of closure activities required by this chapter.

"Active portion" means that part of a facility or unit that has received or is receiving wastes and that has not been closed in accordance with this chapter.

"Agricultural waste" means all solid waste produced from farming operations.

"Airport" means, for the purpose of this chapter, a military airfield or a public-use airport open to the public without prior permission and without restrictions within the physical capacities of available facilities.

"Aquifer" means a geologic formation, group of formations, or a portion of a formation capable of yielding significant quantities of groundwater to wells or springs.

"Ash" means the fly ash or bottom ash residual waste material produced from incineration or burning of solid waste or from any fuel combustion.

"Base flood" see "Hundred-year flood."

"Bedrock" means the rock that underlies soil or other unconsolidated, superficial material at a site.

"Benchmark" means a permanent monument constructed of concrete and set in the ground surface below the frostline with identifying information clearly affixed to it. Identifying information will include the designation of the benchmark as well as the elevation and coordinates on the local or Virginia state grid system.

"Beneficial use" means a use that is of benefit as a substitute for natural or commercial products and does not contribute to adverse effects on health or environment.

"Beneficial use of CCR" means the CCR meet all of the following conditions:

1. The CCR must provide a functional benefit;

2. The CCR must substitute for the use of a virgin material, conserving natural resources that would otherwise need to be obtained through practices, such as extraction;

3. The use of the CCR must meet relevant product specifications, regulatory standards, or design standards when available, and when such standards are not available, the CCR is not used in excess quantities; and

4. When unencapsulated use of CCR involving placement on the land of 12,400 tons or more in nonroadway applications, the user must demonstrate and keep records, and provide such documentation upon request, that environmental releases to groundwater, surface water, soil, and air are comparable to or lower than those from analogous products made without CCR, or that environmental releases to groundwater, surface water, soil, and air will be at or below relevant regulatory and health-based benchmarks for human and ecological receptors during use.

"Bioremediation" means remediation of contaminated media by the manipulation of biological organisms to enhance the degradation of contaminants.

"Bird hazard" means an increase in the likelihood of bird/aircraft collisions that may cause damage to the aircraft or injury to its occupants.

"Board" means the Virginia Waste Management Board.

"Bottom ash" means ash or slag that has been discharged from the bottom of the combustion unit after combustion.

"Capacity" means the maximum permitted volume of solid waste, inclusive of daily and intermediate cover, that can be disposed in a landfill. This volume is measured in cubic yards.

"Captive industrial landfill" means an industrial landfill that is located on property owned or controlled by the generator of the waste disposed of in that landfill.

"CCR landfill" means an area of land or an excavation that receives CCR and that is not a surface impoundment, an underground injection well, a salt dome formation, a salt bed formation, an underground or surface coal mine, or a cave. For purposes of this chapter, a CCR landfill also includes sand and gravel pits and quarries that receive CCR, CCR piles, and any practice that does not meet the definition of a beneficial use of CCR.

"CCR surface impoundment" means a natural topographic depression, man-made excavation, or diked area that is designed to hold an accumulation of CCR and liquids, and the unit treats, stores, or disposes of CCR.

"Clean wood" means solid waste consisting of untreated wood pieces and particles that do not contain paint, laminate, bonding agents, or chemical preservatives or are otherwise unadulterated.

"Closed facility" means a solid waste management facility that has been properly secured in accordance with the requirements of this chapter.

"Closure" means that point in time when a permitted landfill has been capped, certified as properly closed by a professional engineer, inspected by the department, and closure notification is performed by the department in accordance with 9VAC20-81-160 D.

"Coal combustion byproducts" or "CCB" means residuals, including fly ash, bottom ash, boiler slag, and flue gas emission control waste produced by burning coal. CCB includes both CCR and other non-CCR wastes identified in this definition.

"Coal combustion residuals" or "CCR" means fly ash, bottom ash, boiler slag, and flue gas desulfurization materials generated from burning coal for the purpose of generating electricity by electric utilities and independent power producers. CCR is a specific type of CCB.

"Combustion unit" means an incinerator, waste heat recovery unit, or boiler.

"Commercial waste" means all solid waste generated by establishments engaged in business operations other than manufacturing or construction. This category includes, but is not limited to, solid waste resulting from the operation of stores, markets, office buildings, restaurants, and shopping centers.

"Compliance schedule" means a time schedule for measures to be employed on a solid waste management facility that will ultimately upgrade it to conform to this chapter.

"Compost" means a stabilized organic product produced by a controlled aerobic decomposition process in such a manner that the product can be handled, stored, and/or or applied to the land without adversely affecting public health or the environment.

"Composting" means the manipulation of the natural process of decomposition of organic materials to increase the rate of decomposition.

"Conditionally exempt small quantity generator" means a generator of hazardous waste who has been so defined in 40 CFR 261.5, as amended. That section applies to the persons who generate in that calendar month no more than 100 kilograms of hazardous waste or one kilogram of acutely hazardous waste.

"Construction" means the initiation of permanent physical change at a property with the intent of establishing a solid waste management unit. This does not include land-clearing activities, excavation for borrow purposes, activities intended for infrastructure purposes, or activities necessary to obtain Part A siting approval (i.e., advancing of exploratory borings, digging of test pits, groundwater monitoring well installation, etc.).

"Construction/demolition/debris landfill" or "CDD landfill" means a land burial facility engineered, constructed and operated to contain and isolate construction waste, demolition waste, debris waste, split tires, and white goods or combinations of the above solid wastes.

"Construction waste" means solid waste that is produced or generated during construction, remodeling, or repair of pavements, houses, commercial buildings, and other structures. Construction wastes include, but are not limited to lumber, wire, sheetrock, broken brick, shingles, glass, pipes, concrete, paving materials, and metal and plastics if the metal or plastics are a part of the materials of construction or empty containers for such materials. Paints, coatings, solvents, asbestos, any liquid, compressed gases or semi-liquids and garbage are not construction wastes.

"Contaminated soil" means, for the purposes of this chapter, a soil that, as a result of a release or human usage, has absorbed or adsorbed physical, chemical, or radiological substances at concentrations above those consistent with nearby undisturbed soil or natural earth materials.

"Container" means any portable device in which a material is stored, transported, treated, or otherwise handled and includes transport vehicles that are containers themselves (e.g., tank trucks) and containers placed on or in a transport vehicle.

"Containment structure" means a closed vessel such as a tank or cylinder.

"Convenience center" means a collection point for the temporary storage of solid waste provided for individual solid waste generators who choose to transport solid waste generated on their own premises to an established centralized point, rather than directly to a disposal facility. To be classified as a convenience center, the collection point may not receive waste from collection vehicles that have collected waste from more than one real property owner. A convenience center shall be on a system of regularly scheduled collections.

"Cover material" means compactable soil or other approved material that is used to blanket solid waste in a landfill.

"Daily disposal limit" means the amount of solid waste that is permitted to be disposed at the facility and shall be computed on the amount of waste disposed during any operating day.

"Debris waste" means wastes resulting from land-clearing operations. Debris wastes include, but are not limited to stumps, wood, brush, leaves, soil, and road spoils.

"Decomposed vegetative waste" means a stabilized organic product produced from vegetative waste by a controlled natural decay process in such a manner that the product can be handled, stored, or applied to the land without adversely affecting public health or the environment.

"Demolition waste" means that solid waste that is produced by the destruction of structures and their foundations and includes the same materials as construction wastes.

"Department" means the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Environmental Quality. For purposes of submissions to the director as specified in the Waste Management Act, submissions may be made to the department.

"Discard" means to abandon, dispose of, burn, incinerate, accumulate, store, or treat before or instead of being abandoned, disposed of, burned, or incinerated.

"Discarded material" means a material that is:

1. Abandoned by being:

a. Disposed of;

b. Burned or incinerated; or

c. Accumulated, stored, or treated (but not used, reused, or reclaimed) before or in lieu of being abandoned by being disposed of, burned, or incinerated; or

2. Recycled used, reused, or reclaimed material as defined in this part.

"Disclosure statement" means a sworn statement or affirmation as required by § 10.1-1400 of the Code of Virginia. (see DEQ Form DISC-01 and 02 (Disclosure Statement)).

"Displacement" means the relative movement of any two sides of a fault measured in any direction.

"Disposal" means the discharge, deposit, injection, dumping, spilling, leaking, or placing of any solid waste into or on any land or water so that such solid waste or any constituent of it may enter the environment or be emitted into the air or discharged into any waters.

"Disposal unit boundary" or "DUB" means the vertical plane located at the edge of the waste disposal unit. This vertical plane extends down into the uppermost aquifer. The DUB must be positioned within or coincident to the waste management boundary.

"EPA" means the United States U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.

"Exempt management facility" means a site used for activities that are conditionally exempt from management as a solid waste under this chapter. The facility remains exempt from solid waste management requirements provided it complies with the applicable conditions set forth in Parts II (9VAC20-81-20 et seq.) and IV (9VAC20-81-300 et seq.) of this chapter.

"Existing CCR landfill" means a CCR landfill that receives CCR both before and after October 19, 2015, or for which construction commenced prior to October 19, 2015, and receives CCR on or after October 19, 2015. A CCR landfill has commenced construction if the owner or operator has obtained the federal, state, and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction and a continuous onsite, physical construction program had begun prior to October 19, 2015.

"Existing CCR surface impoundment" means a CCR surface impoundment that receives CCR both before and after October 19, 2015, or for which construction commenced prior to October 19, 2015, and receives CCR on or after October 19, 2015. A CCR surface impoundment has commenced construction if the owner or operator has obtained the federal, state, and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction and a continuous onsite, physical construction program had begun prior to October 19, 2015.

"Expansion" means a horizontal expansion of the waste management boundary as identified in the Part A application. If a facility's permit was issued prior to the establishment of the Part A process, an expansion is a horizontal expansion of the disposal unit boundary.

"Facility" means solid waste management facility unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.

"Facility boundary" means the boundary of the solid waste management facility. For landfills, this boundary encompasses the waste management boundary and all ancillary activities including, but not limited to scales, groundwater monitoring wells, gas monitoring probes, and maintenance facilities as identified in the facility's permit application. For facilities with a permit-by-rule (PBR) the facility boundary is the boundary of the property where the permit-by-rule activity occurs. For unpermitted solid waste management facilities, the facility boundary is the boundary of the property line where the solid waste is located.

"Facility structure" means any building, shed, or utility or drainage line on the facility.

"Fault" means a fracture or a zone of fractures in any material along which strata on one side have been displaced with respect to that on the other side.

"Floodplain" means the lowland and relatively flat areas adjoining inland and coastal waters, including low-lying areas of offshore islands where flooding occurs.

"Fly ash" means ash particulate collected from air pollution attenuation devices on combustion units.

"Food-chain crops" means crops grown for human consumption, tobacco, and crops grown for pasture and forage or feed for animals whose products are consumed by humans.

"Fossil fuel combustion products" means coal combustion byproducts as defined in this regulation, coal combustion byproducts generated at facilities with fluidized bed combustion technology, petroleum coke combustion byproducts, byproducts from the combustion of oil, byproducts from the combustion of natural gas, and byproducts from the combustion of mixtures of coal and "other fuels" (i.e., co-burning of coal with "other fuels" where coal is at least 50% of the total fuel). For purposes of this definition, "other fuels" means waste-derived fuel product, auto shredder fluff, wood wastes, coal mill rejects, peat, tall oil, tire-derived fuel, deionizer resins, and used oil.

"Free liquids" means liquids that readily separate from the solid portion of a waste under ambient temperature and pressure as determined by the Paint Filter Liquids Test, Method 9095, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Publication SW-846.

"Garbage" means readily putrescible discarded materials composed of animal, vegetable or other organic matter.

"Gas condensate" means the liquid generated as a result of gas control or recovery processes at the solid waste management facility.

"Governmental unit" means any department, institution, or commission of the Commonwealth and any public corporate instrumentality thereof, and any district, and shall include local governments.

"Ground rubber" means material processed from waste tires that is no larger than 1/4 inch in any dimension. This includes crumb rubber that is measured in mesh sizes.

"Groundwater" means water below the land surface in a zone of saturation.

"Hazardous constituent" means a constituent of solid waste found listed in Appendix VIII of 9VAC20-60-261.

"Hazardous waste" means a "hazardous waste" as described by the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations (9VAC20-60).

"Holocene" means the most recent epoch of the Quaternary period, extending from the end of the Pleistocene Epoch to the present.

"Home use" means the use of compost for growing plants that is produced and used on a privately owned residential site.

"Host agreement" means any lease, contract, agreement, or land use permit entered into or issued by the locality in which the landfill is situated that includes terms or conditions governing the operation of the landfill.

"Household hazardous waste" means any waste material derived from households (including single and multiple residences, hotels, motels, bunkhouses, ranger stations, crew quarters, campgrounds, picnic grounds, and day-use recreation areas) which, except for the fact that it is derived from a household, would otherwise be classified as a hazardous waste in accordance with 9VAC20-60.

"Household waste" means any waste material, including garbage, trash, and refuse, derived from households. Households include single and multiple residences, hotels and motels, bunkhouses, ranger stations, crew quarters, campgrounds, picnic grounds, and day-use recreation areas. Household wastes do not include sanitary waste in septic tanks (septage) that is regulated by other state agencies.

"Hundred-year flood" means a flood that has a 1.0% or greater chance of recurring in any given year or a flood of magnitude equaled or exceeded on the average only once in a hundred years on the average over a significantly long period.

"Inactive CCR surface impoundment" means a CCR surface impoundment that no longer receives CCR on or after October 19, 2015, and still contains both CCR and liquids on or after October 19, 2015.

"Incineration" means the controlled combustion of solid waste for disposal.

"Incinerator" means a facility or device designed for the treatment of solid waste by combustion.

"Industrial waste" means any solid waste generated by manufacturing or industrial process that is not a regulated hazardous waste. Such waste may include, but is not limited to, waste resulting from the following manufacturing processes: electric power generation; fertilizer/agricultural chemicals; food and related products/byproducts; inorganic chemicals; iron and steel manufacturing; leather and leather products; nonferrous metals manufacturing/foundries; organic chemicals; plastics and resins manufacturing; pulp and paper industry; rubber and miscellaneous plastic products; stone, glass, clay, and concrete products; textile manufacturing; transportation equipment; and water treatment. This term does not include mining waste or oil and gas waste.

"Industrial waste landfill" means a solid waste landfill used primarily for the disposal of a specific industrial waste or a waste that is a byproduct of a production process.

"Injection well" means, for the purposes of this chapter, a well or bore hole into which fluids are injected into selected geological horizons.

"Institutional waste" means all solid waste emanating from institutions such as, but not limited to, hospitals, nursing homes, orphanages, and public or private schools. It can include regulated medical waste from health care facilities and research facilities that must be managed as a regulated medical waste.

"Interim cover systems" means temporary cover systems applied to a landfill area when landfilling operations will be temporarily suspended for an extended period (typically, longer than one year). At the conclusion of the interim period, the interim cover system may be removed and landfilling operations resume or final cover is installed.

"Karst topography" means areas where karst terrane, with its characteristic surface and subterranean features, is developed as the result of dissolution of limestone, dolomite, or other soluble rock. Characteristic physiographic features present in karst terranes include, but are not limited to, sinkholes, sinking streams, caves, large springs, and blind valleys.

"Key personnel" means the applicant itself and any person employed by the applicant in a managerial capacity, or empowered to make discretionary decisions, with respect to the solid waste or hazardous waste operations of the applicant in Virginia, but shall not include employees exclusively engaged in the physical or mechanical collection, transportation, treatment, storage, or disposal of solid or hazardous waste and such other employees as the director may designate by regulation. If the applicant has not previously conducted solid waste or hazardous waste operations in Virginia, the term also includes any officer, director, partner of the applicant, or any holder of 5.0% or more of the equity or debt of the applicant. If any holder of 5.0% or more of the equity or debt of the applicant or of any key personnel is not a natural person, the term includes all key personnel of that entity, provided that where such entity is a chartered lending institution or a reporting company under the Federal Security and Exchange Act of 1934, the term does not include key personnel of such entity. Provided further that the term means the chief executive officer of any agency of the United States or of any agency or political subdivision of the Commonwealth, and all key personnel of any person, other than a natural person, that operates a landfill or other facility for the disposal, treatment, or storage of nonhazardous solid waste under contract with or for one of those governmental entities.

"Lagoon" means a body of water or surface impoundment designed to manage or treat waste water.

"Land-clearing activities" means the removal of flora from a parcel of land.

"Land-clearing debris" means vegetative waste resulting from land-clearing activities.

"Landfill" means a sanitary landfill, an industrial waste landfill, or a construction/demolition/debris landfill.

"Landfill gas" means gas generated as a byproduct of the decomposition of organic materials in a landfill. Landfill gas consists primarily of methane and carbon dioxide.

"Landfill mining" means the process of excavating solid waste from an existing landfill.

"Leachate" means a liquid that has passed through or emerged from solid waste and contains soluble, suspended, or miscible materials from such waste. Leachate and any material with which it is mixed is solid waste; except that leachate that is pumped from a collection tank for transportation to disposal in an off-site offsite facility is regulated as septage, leachate discharged into a waste water collection system is regulated as industrial waste water and leachate that has contaminated groundwater is regulated as contaminated groundwater.

"Lead acid battery" means, for the purposes of this chapter, any wet cell battery.

"Lift" means the daily landfill layer of compacted solid waste plus the cover material.

"Liquid waste" means any waste material that is determined to contain "free liquids" as defined by this chapter.

"Lithified earth material" means all rock, including all naturally occurring and naturally formed aggregates or masses of minerals or small particles of older rock, that formed by crystallization of magma or by induration of loose sediments. This term does not include manmade man-made materials, such as fill, concrete, and asphalt, or unconsolidated earth materials, soil, or regolith lying at or near the earth's surface.

"Litter" means, for purposes of this chapter, any solid waste that is discarded or scattered about a solid waste management facility outside the immediate working area.

"Lower explosive limit" means the lowest concentration by volume of a mixture of explosive gases in air that will propagate a flame at 25°C and at atmospheric pressure.

"Materials recovery facility" means a solid waste management facility for the collection, processing, and recovery of material such as metals from solid waste or for the production of a fuel from solid waste. This does not include the production of a waste-derived fuel product.

"Maximum horizontal acceleration in lithified earth material" means the maximum expected horizontal acceleration depicted on a seismic hazard map, with a 90% or greater probability that the acceleration will not be exceeded in 250 years, or the maximum expected horizontal acceleration based on a site-specific seismic risk assessment.

"Monitoring" means all methods, procedures, and techniques used to systematically analyze, inspect, and collect data on operational parameters of the facility or on the quality of air, groundwater, surface water, and soils.

"Monitoring well" means a well point below the ground surface for the purpose of obtaining periodic water samples from groundwater for quantitative and qualitative analysis.

"Mulch" means woody waste consisting of stumps, trees, limbs, branches, bark, leaves and other clean wood waste that has undergone size reduction by grinding, shredding, or chipping, and is distributed to the general public for landscaping purposes or other horticultural uses except composting as defined and regulated under this chapter.

"Municipal solid waste" means that waste that is normally composed of residential, commercial, and institutional solid waste and residues derived from combustion of these wastes.

"New CCR landfill" means a CCR landfill or lateral expansion of a CCR landfill that first receives CCR or commences construction after October 19, 2015. A new CCR landfill has commenced construction if the owner or operator has obtained the federal, state, and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction and a continuous onsite, physical construction program had begun after October 19, 2015. Overfills are also considered new CCR landfills.

"New CCR surface impoundment" means a CCR surface impoundment or lateral expansion of an existing or new CCR surface impoundment that first receives CCR or commences construction after October 19, 2015. A new CCR surface impoundment has commenced construction if the owner or operator has obtained the federal, state, and local approvals or permits necessary to begin physical construction and a continuous onsite, physical construction program had begun after October 19, 2015.

"New solid waste management facility" means a facility or a portion of a facility that was not included in a previous determination of site suitability (Part A approval).

"Nuisance" means an activity that unreasonably interferes with an individual's or the public's comfort, convenience or enjoyment such that it interferes with the rights of others by causing damage, annoyance, or inconvenience.

"Offsite" means any site that does not meet the definition of onsite as defined in this part.

"Onsite" means the same or geographically contiguous property, which may be divided by public or private right-of-way, provided the entrance and exit to the facility are controlled by the owner or the operator of the facility. Noncontiguous properties owned by the same person, but connected by a right-of-way that he controls and to which the public does not have access, are also considered onsite property.

"Open burning" means the combustion of solid waste without:

1. Control of combustion air to maintain adequate temperature for efficient combustion;

2. Containment of the combustion reaction in an enclosed device to provide sufficient residence time and mixing for complete combustion; and

3. Control of the combustion products' emission.

"Open dump" means a site on which any solid waste is placed, discharged, deposited, injected, dumped, or spilled so as to present a threat of a release of harmful substances into the environment or present a hazard to human health. Such a site is subject to the Open Dump Criteria in 9VAC20-81-45.

"Operating record" means records required to be maintained in accordance with the facility permit or this part (see 9VAC20-81-530).

"Operation" means all waste management activities at a solid waste management facility beginning with the initial receipt of solid waste for treatment, storage, disposal, or transfer and ceasing with the initiation of final closure activities at the solid waste management facility subsequent to the final receipt of waste.

"Operator" means the person responsible for the overall operation and site management of a solid waste management facility.

"Owner" means the person who owns a solid waste management facility or part of a solid waste management facility.

"PCB" means any chemical substance that is limited to the biphenyl molecule that has been chlorinated to varying degrees or any combination of substances that contain such substance (see 40 CFR 761.3, as amended).

"Perennial stream" means a well-defined channel that contains water year round during a year of normal rainfall. Generally, the water table is located above the streambed for most of the year and groundwater is the primary source for stream flow. A perennial stream exhibits the typical biological, hydrological, and physical characteristics commonly associated with the continuous conveyance of water.

"Permit" means the written permission of the director to own, operate, or construct a solid waste management facility.

"Person" means an individual, corporation, partnership, association, a governmental body, a municipal corporation, or any other legal entity.

"Point source" means any discernible, confined, and discrete conveyance, including but not limited to any pipe, ditch, channel, tunnel, conduit, well, discrete fissure, container, rolling stock, vessel, or other floating craft, from which pollutants are or may be discharged. Return flows from irrigated agriculture are not included.

"Pollutant" means any substance that causes or contributes to, or may cause or contribute to, environmental degradation when discharged into the environment.

"Poor foundation conditions" means those areas where features exist that indicate that a natural or man-induced event may result in inadequate foundation support for the structural components of a solid waste management facility.

"Postclosure" means the requirements placed upon solid waste disposal facilities after closure to ensure environmental and public health safety for a specified number of years after closure.

"Process rate" means the maximum rate of waste acceptance that a solid waste management facility can process for treatment and/or and storage. This rate is limited by the capabilities of equipment, personnel, and infrastructure.

"Processing" means preparation, treatment, or conversion of waste by a series of actions, changes, or functions that bring about a desired end result.

"Professional engineer" means an engineer licensed to practice engineering in the Commonwealth as defined by the rules and regulations set forth by the Board of for Architects, Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, Certified Interior Designers and Landscape Architects (18VAC10-20).

"Professional geologist" means a geologist licensed to practice geology in the Commonwealth as defined by the rules and regulations set forth by the Board for Geology (18VAC70-20) Professional Soil Scientists, Wetland Professionals, and Geologists (18VAC145-40).

"Progressive cover" means cover material placed over the working face of a solid waste disposal facility advancing over the deposited waste as new wastes are added keeping the exposed area to a minimum.

"Putrescible waste" means solid waste that contains organic material capable of being decomposed by micro-organisms and cause odors.

"Qualified groundwater scientist" means a scientist or engineer who has received a baccalaureate or postgraduate degree in the natural sciences or engineering and has sufficient training and experience in groundwater hydrology and related fields as may be demonstrated by professional certifications, or completion of accredited university programs that enable that individual to make sound professional judgments regarding groundwater monitoring, contaminant fate and transport, and corrective action.

"RCRA" means the Solid Waste Disposal Act, as amended by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (42 USC § 6901 et seq.), the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984, and any other applicable amendments to these laws.

"Reclaimed material" means a material that is processed or reprocessed to recover a usable product or is regenerated to a usable form.

"Refuse" means all solid waste products having the character of solids rather than liquids and that are composed wholly or partially of materials such as garbage, trash, rubbish, litter, residues from clean up of spills or contamination, or other discarded materials.

"Refuse-derived fuel (RDF)" means a type of municipal solid waste produced by processing municipal solid waste through shredding and size classification. This includes all classes of refuse-derived fuel including low-density fluff refuse-derived fuel through densified refuse-derived fuel and pelletized refuse-derived fuel.

"Regulated hazardous waste" means a solid waste that is a hazardous waste, as defined in the Virginia Hazardous Waste Management Regulations (9VAC20-60), that is not excluded from those regulations as a hazardous waste.

"Regulated medical waste" means solid wastes so defined by the Regulated Medical Waste Management Regulations (9VAC20-120) as promulgated by the Virginia Waste Management Board.

"Release" means, for the purpose of this chapter, any spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, discharging, injection, escaping, leaching, dumping, or disposing into the environment solid wastes or hazardous constituents of solid wastes (including the abandonment or discarding of barrels, containers, and other closed receptacles containing solid waste). This definition does not include any release that results in exposure to persons solely within a workplace; release of source, byproduct, or special nuclear material from a nuclear incident, as those terms are defined in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (68 Stat. 923); and the normal application of fertilizer. For the purpose of this chapter, release also means substantial threat of release.

"Remediation waste" means all solid waste, including all media (groundwater, surface water, soils, and sediments) and debris, that are managed for the purpose of remediating a site in accordance with 9VAC20-81-45 or Part III (9VAC20-81-100 et seq.) of this chapter or under the Voluntary Remediation Regulations (9VAC20-160) or other regulated remediation program under DEQ oversight. For a given facility, remediation wastes may originate only from within the boundary of that facility, and may include wastes managed as a result of remediation beyond the boundary of the facility. Hazardous wastes as defined in 9VAC20-60, as well as "new" or "as generated" wastes, are excluded from this definition.

"Remediation waste management unit" or "RWMU" means an area within a facility that is designated by the director for the purpose of implementing remedial activities required under this chapter or otherwise approved by the director. An RWMU shall only be used for the management of remediation wastes pursuant to implementing such remedial activities at the facility.

"Responsible official" means one of the following:

1. For a business entity, such as a corporation, association, limited liability company, or cooperative: a duly authorized representative of such business entity if the representative is responsible for the overall operation of one or more operating facilities applying for or subject to a permit. The authority to sign documents must be assigned or delegated to such representative in accordance with procedures of the business entity;

2. For a partnership or sole proprietorship: a general partner or the proprietor, respectively; or

3. For a municipality, state, federal, or other public agency: a duly authorized representative of the locality if the representative is responsible for the overall operation of one or more operating facilities applying for or subject to a permit. The authority to sign documents must be assigned or delegated to such representative in accordance with procedures of the locality.

"Rubbish" means combustible or slowly putrescible discarded materials that include but are not limited to trees, wood, leaves, trimmings from shrubs or trees, printed matter, plastic and paper products, grass, rags and other combustible or slowly putrescible materials not included under the term "garbage."

"Runoff" means any rainwater, leachate, or other liquid that drains over land from any part of a solid waste management facility.

"Run-on" means any rainwater, wastewater, leachate, or other liquid that drains over land onto any part of the solid waste management facility.

"Salvage" means the authorized, controlled removal of waste materials from a solid waste management facility.

"Sanitary landfill" means an engineered land burial facility for the disposal of household waste that is so located, designed, constructed, and operated to contain and isolate the waste so that it does not pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment. A sanitary landfill also may receive other types of solid wastes, such as commercial solid waste, nonhazardous sludge, hazardous waste from conditionally exempt small quantity generators, construction demolition debris, and nonhazardous industrial solid waste.

"Saturated zone" means that part of the earth's crust in which all voids are filled with water.

"Scavenging" means the unauthorized or uncontrolled removal of waste materials from a solid waste management facility.

"Scrap metal" means metal parts such as bars, rods, wire, empty containers, or metal pieces that are discarded material and can be used, reused, or reclaimed.

"Secondary containment" means an enclosure into which a container or tank is placed for the purpose of preventing discharge of wastes to the environment.

"Seismic impact zone" means an area with a 10% or greater probability that the maximum horizontal acceleration in lithified earth material, expressed as a percentage of the earth's gravitational pull (g), will exceed 0.10g in 250 years.

"Semiannual" means an interval corresponding to approximately 180 days. For the purposes of scheduling monitoring activities, sampling within 30 days of the 180-day interval will be considered semiannual.

"Site" means all land and structures, other appurtenances, and improvements on them used for treating, storing, and disposing of solid waste. This term includes adjacent land within the facility boundary used for the utility systems such as repair, storage, shipping or processing areas, or other areas incident to the management of solid waste.

"Sludge" means any solid, semi-solid or liquid waste generated from a municipal, commercial or industrial wastewater treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air pollution control facility exclusive of treated effluent from a wastewater treatment plant.

"Small landfill" means a landfill that disposed of 100 tons/day or less of solid waste during a representative period prior to October 9, 1993, and did not dispose of more than an average of 100 tons/day of solid waste each month between October 9, 1993, and April 9, 1994.

"Solid waste" means any of those materials defined as "solid waste" in 9VAC20-81-95.

"Solid waste disposal facility" means a solid waste management facility at which solid waste will remain after closure.

"Solid waste management facility" or "SWMF" means a site used for planned treating, storing, or disposing of solid waste. A facility may consist of several treatment, storage, or disposal units.

"Special wastes" means solid wastes that are difficult to handle, require special precautions because of hazardous properties, or the nature of the waste creates waste management problems in normal operations. (See Part VI (9VAC20-81-610 et seq.) of this chapter.)

"Speculatively accumulated material" means any material that is accumulated before being used, reused, or reclaimed or in anticipation of potential use, reuse, or reclamation. Materials are not being accumulated speculatively when they can be used, reused, or reclaimed, have a feasible means of use, reuse, or reclamation available and 75% of the materials accumulated are being removed from the facility annually.

"State waters" means all water, on the surface and under the ground, wholly or partially within, or bordering the Commonwealth, or within its jurisdiction.

"Storage" means the holding of waste, at the end of which the waste is treated, disposed, or stored elsewhere.

"Structural fill" means an engineered fill with a projected beneficial end use, constructed using soil or fossil fuel combustion products, when done in accordance with this chapter, spread and compacted with proper equipment, and covered with a vegetated soil cap.

"Sudden event" means a one-time, single event such as a sudden collapse or a sudden, quick release of contaminants to the environment. An example would be the sudden loss of leachate from an impoundment into a surface stream caused by failure of a containment structure.

"Surface impoundment" or "impoundment" means a facility or part of a facility that is a natural topographic depression, manmade man-made excavation, or diked area formed primarily of earthen materials (although it may be lined with manmade man-made materials), that is designed to hold an accumulation of liquid wastes or wastes containing free liquids and that is not an injection well.

"Surface waters" means all state waters that are not groundwater as defined in § 62.1-255 of the Code of Virginia.

"SW-846" means Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods, EPA Publication SW-846, Second Edition, 1982 as amended by Update I (April, 1984), and Update II (April, 1985) and the third edition, November, 1986, as amended.

"Tank" means a stationary device, designed to contain an accumulation of liquid or semi-liquid components of solid waste that is constructed primarily of nonearthen materials that provide structural support.

"TEF" or "Toxicity Equivalency Factor" means a factor developed to account for different toxicities of structural isomers of polychlorinated dibenzodioxins and dibenzofurans and to relate them to the toxicity of 2,3,7,8-tetrachloro dibenzo-p-dioxin.

"Terminal" means the location of transportation facilities such as classification yards, docks, airports, management offices, storage sheds, and freight or passenger stations, where solid waste that is being transported may be loaded, unloaded, transferred, or temporarily stored.

"Thermal treatment" means the treatment of solid waste in a device that uses elevated temperature as the primary means to change the chemical, physical, or biological character, or composition of the solid waste.

"Tire chip" means a material processed from waste tires that is a nominal two square inches in size, and ranges from 1/4 inch to four inches in any dimension. Tire chips contain no wire protruding more than 1/4 inch.

"Tire shred" means a material processed from waste tires that is a nominal 40 square inches in size, and ranges from 4 four inches to 10 inches in any dimension.

"Transfer station" means any solid waste storage or collection facility at which solid waste is transferred from collection vehicles to haulage vehicles for transportation to a central solid waste management facility for disposal, incineration, or resource recovery.

"Trash" means combustible and noncombustible discarded materials and is used interchangeably with the term rubbish.

"Treatment" means, for the purpose of this chapter, any method, technique, or process, including but not limited to incineration, designed to change the physical, chemical, or biological character or composition of any waste to render it more stable, safer for transport, or more amenable to use, reuse, reclamation, recovery, or disposal.

"Underground source of drinking water" means an aquifer or its portion:

1. Which contains water suitable for human consumption; or

2. In which the groundwater contains less than 10,000 mg/liter total dissolved solids.

"Unit" means a discrete area of land used for the disposal of solid waste.

"Unstable area" means a location that is susceptible to natural or human-induced events or forces capable of impairing the integrity of some or all of the landfill structural components responsible for preventing releases from a landfill. Unstable areas can include poor foundation conditions, areas susceptible to mass movements, and karst terranes.

"Uppermost aquifer" means the geologic formation nearest the natural ground surface that is an aquifer, as well as, lower aquifers that are hydraulically interconnected with this aquifer within the facility boundary.

"Used or reused material" means a material that is either:

1. Employed as an ingredient (including use as an intermediate) in a process to make a product, excepting those materials possessing distinct components that are recovered as separate end products; or

2. Employed in a particular function or application as an effective substitute for a commercial product or natural resources.

"Vector" means a living animal, insect, or other arthropod that transmits an infectious disease from one organism to another.

"Vegetative waste" means decomposable materials generated by yard and lawn care or land-clearing activities and includes, but is not limited to, leaves, grass trimmings, woody wastes such as shrub and tree prunings, bark, limbs, roots, and stumps.

"Vermicomposting" means the controlled and managed process by which live worms convert organic residues into fertile excrement.

"Vertical design capacity" means the maximum design elevation specified in the facility's permit or if none is specified in the permit, the maximum elevation based on a 3:1 slope from the waste disposal unit boundary.

"VPDES" (Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System) means the Virginia system for the issuance of permits pursuant to the Permit Regulation (9VAC25-31), the State Water Control Law (§ 62.1-44.2 et seq. of the Code of Virginia), and § 402 of the Clean Water Act (33 USC § 1251 et seq.).

"Washout" means carrying away of solid waste by waters of the base flood.

"Waste-derived fuel product" means a solid waste or combination of solid wastes that have been treated (altered physically, chemically, or biologically) to produce a fuel product with a minimum heating value of 5,000 BTU/lb. Solid wastes used to produce a waste-derived fuel product must have a heating value, or act as binders, and may not be added to the fuel for the purpose of disposal. Waste ingredients may not be listed or characteristic hazardous wastes. The fuel product must be stable at ambient temperature, and not degraded by exposure to the elements. This material may not be "refuse derived fuel (RDF)" as defined in 9VAC5-40-890.

"Waste management boundary" means the vertical plane located at the boundary line of the area approved in the Part A application for the disposal of solid waste and storage of leachate. This vertical plane extends down into the uppermost aquifer and is within the facility boundary.

"Waste pile" means any noncontainerized accumulation of nonflowing, solid waste that is used for treatment or storage.

"Waste tire" means a tire that has been discarded because it is no longer suitable for its original intended purpose because of wear, damage or defect. (See 9VAC20-150 for other definitions dealing with the waste tire program.)

"Wastewaters" means, for the purpose of this chapter, wastes that contain less than 1.0% by weight total organic carbon (TOC) and less than 1.0% by weight total suspended solids (TSS).

"Water pollution" means such alteration of the physical, chemical, or biological properties of any state water as will or is likely to create a nuisance or render such waters:

1. Harmful or detrimental or injurious to the public health, safety, or welfare, or to the health of animals, fish, or aquatic life or plants;

2. Unsuitable, with reasonable treatment, for use as present or possible future sources of public water supply; or

3. Unsuitable for recreational, commercial, industrial, agricultural, or other reasonable uses, provided that:

a. An alteration of the physical, chemical, or biological properties of state waters or a discharge or deposit of sewage, industrial wastes, or other wastes to state waters by any owner that by itself is not sufficient to cause pollution but which in combination with such alteration or discharge or deposit to state waters by other persons is sufficient to cause pollution;

b. The discharge of untreated sewage by any person into state waters; and

c. The contribution to the degradation of water quality standards duly established by the State Water Control Board, are "pollution" for the terms and purposes of this chapter.

"Water table" means the upper surface of the zone of saturation in groundwaters in which the hydrostatic pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure.

"Waters of the United States" or "waters of the U.S." means:

1. All waters that are currently used, were used in the past, or may be susceptible to use in interstate or foreign commerce, including all waters that are subject to the ebb and flow of the tide;

2. All interstate waters, including interstate "wetlands";

3. All other waters such as intrastate lakes, rivers, streams (including intermittent streams), mud flats, sand flats, "wetlands," sloughs, prairie potholes, wet meadows, playa lakes, or natural ponds the use, degradation, or destruction of which would affect or could affect interstate or foreign commerce including:

a. Any such waters that are or could be used by interstate or foreign travelers for recreational or other purposes;

b. Any such waters from which fish or shellfish are or could be taken and sold in interstate or foreign commerce;

c. Any such waters that are used or could be used for industrial purposes by industries in interstate commerce;

d. All impoundments of waters otherwise defined as waters of the United States under this definition;

e. Tributaries of waters identified in subdivisions 3 a through d of this definition;

f. The territorial sea; and

g. Wetlands adjacent to waters (other than waters that are themselves wetlands) identified in subdivisions 3 a through f of this definition.

"Wetlands" means those areas that are defined by the federal regulations under 33 CFR Part 328, as amended.

"White goods" means any stoves, washers, hot water heaters, and other large appliances.

"Working face" means that area within a landfill that is actively receiving solid waste for compaction and cover.

"Yard waste" means a subset of vegetative waste and means decomposable waste materials generated by yard and lawn care and includes leaves, grass trimmings, brush, wood chips, and shrub and tree trimmings. Yard waste shall not include roots or stumps that exceed 12 inches in diameter.

9VAC20-81-35. Applicability of chapter.

A. This chapter applies to all persons who treat, store, dispose, or otherwise manage solid wastes as defined in 9VAC20-81-95.

B. All facilities that were permitted prior to March 15, 1993, and upon which solid waste has been disposed of prior to October 9, 1993, may continue to receive solid waste until they have reached their vertical design capacity or until the closure date established pursuant to § 10.1-1413.2 of the Code of Virginia, in Table 2.1 provided:

1. The facility is in compliance with the requirements for liners and leachate control in effect at the time of permit issuance.

2. On or before October 9, 1993, the owner or operator of the solid waste management facility submitted to the director:

a. An acknowledgment that the owner or operator is familiar with state and federal law and regulations pertaining to solid waste management facilities operating after October 9, 1993, including postclosure care, corrective action, and financial responsibility requirements;

b. A statement signed by a professional engineer that he has reviewed the regulations established by the department for solid waste management facilities, including the open dump criteria contained therein, that he has inspected the facility and examined the monitoring data compiled for the facility in accordance with applicable regulations and that, on the basis of his inspection and review, he has concluded:

(1) That the facility is not an open dump;

(2) That the facility does not pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health and the environment; and

(3) That the leachate or residues from the facility do not pose a threat of contamination or pollution of the air, surface water, or groundwater in a manner constituting an open dump or resulting in a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment; and

c. A statement signed by the owner or operator:

(1) That the facility complies with applicable financial assurance regulations; and

(2) Estimating when the facility will reach its vertical design capacity.

3. Enlargement or closure of these facilities shall conform with the following subconditions:

a. The facility may not be enlarged prematurely to avoid compliance with this chapter when such enlargement is not consistent with past operating practices, the permit, or modified operating practices to ensure good management.

b. The facility shall not dispose of solid waste in any portion of a landfill disposal area that has received final cover or has not received waste for a period of one year, in accordance with 9VAC20-81-160 C. The facility shall notify the department, in writing, within 30 days, when an area has received final cover or has not received waste for a one-year period, in accordance with 9VAC20-81-160 C. However, a facility may apply for a permit, and if approved, can construct and operate a new cell that overlays ("piggybacks") over a closed area in accordance with the permit requirements of this chapter.

c. The facilities subject to the restrictions in this subsection are listed in Table 2.1. The closure dates were established in: Final Prioritization and Closure Schedule for HB 1205 Disposal Areas (DEQ, September 2001). The publication of these tables is for the convenience of the regulated community and does not change established dates. Any facility, including, but not limited to those listed in Table 2.1, must cease operation if that facility meets any of the open dump criteria listed in 9VAC20-81-45 A 1.

d. Those facilities assigned a closure date in accordance with § 10.1-1413.2 of the Code of Virginia shall designate on a map, plat, diagram, or other engineered drawing, areas in which waste will be disposed of in accordance with Table 2.1 until the latest cessation of waste acceptance date as listed in Table 2.1 is achieved. This map or plat shall be placed in the operating record and a copy shall be submitted upon request to the department in order to track the progress of closure of these facilities. If the facility already has provided this information under 9VAC20-81-160, then the facility may refer to that information.