THE VIRGINIA REGISTER OF REGULATIONS is an official state publication issued every other week throughout the year. Indexes are published quarterly, and are cumulative for the year. The Virginia Register has several functions. The new and amended sections of regulations, both as proposed and as finally adopted, are required by law to be published in the Virginia Register. In addition, the Virginia Register is a source of other information about state government, including petitions for rulemaking, emergency regulations, executive orders issued by the Governor, and notices of public hearings on regulations.
ADOPTION, AMENDMENT, AND REPEAL OF REGULATIONS
Unless exempted by law, an agency wishing to adopt, amend, or repeal regulations must follow the procedures in the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Typically, this includes first publishing in the Virginia Register a notice of intended regulatory action; a basis, purpose, substance and issues statement; an economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of Planning and Budget; the agency’s response to the economic impact analysis; a summary; a notice giving the public an opportunity to comment on the proposal; and the text of the proposed regulation.
Following publication of the proposed regulation in the Virginia Register, the promulgating agency receives public comments for a minimum of 60 days. The Governor reviews the proposed regulation to determine if it is necessary to protect the public health, safety, and welfare, and if it is clearly written and easily understandable. If the Governor chooses to comment on the proposed regulation, his comments must be transmitted to the agency and the Registrar of Regulations no later than 15 days following the completion of the 60-day public comment period. The Governor’s comments, if any, will be published in the Virginia Register. Not less than 15 days following the completion of the 60-day public comment period, the agency may adopt the proposed regulation.
The Joint Commission on Administrative Rules or the appropriate standing committee of each house of the General Assembly may meet during the promulgation or final adoption process and file an objection with the Registrar and the promulgating agency. The objection will be published in the Virginia Register. Within 21 days after receipt by the agency of a legislative objection, the agency shall file a response with the Registrar, the objecting legislative body, and the Governor.
When final action is taken, the agency again publishes the text of the regulation as adopted, highlighting all changes made to the proposed regulation and explaining any substantial changes made since publication of the proposal. A 30-day final adoption period begins upon final publication in the Virginia Register.
The Governor may review the final regulation during this time and, if he objects, forward his objection to the Registrar and the agency. In addition to or in lieu of filing a formal objection, the Governor may suspend the effective date of a portion or all of a regulation until the end of the next regular General Assembly session by issuing a directive signed by a majority of the members of the appropriate legislative body and the Governor. The Governor’s objection or suspension of the regulation, or both, will be published in the Virginia Register.
If the Governor finds that the final regulation contains changes made after publication of the proposed regulation that have substantial impact, he may require the agency to provide an additional 30-day public comment period on the changes. Notice of the additional public comment period required by the Governor will be published in the Virginia Register. Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.06 of the Code of Virginia, any person may request that the agency solicit additional public comment on certain changes made after publication of the proposed regulation. The agency shall suspend the regulatory process for 30 days upon such request from 25 or more individuals, unless the agency determines that the changes have minor or inconsequen111tial impact.
A regulation becomes effective at the conclusion of the 30-day final adoption period, or at any other later date specified by the promulgating agency, unless (i) a legislative objection has been filed, in which event the regulation, unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after the expiration of the 21-day objection period; (ii) the Governor exercises his authority to require the agency to provide for additional public comment, in which event the regulation, unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after the expiration of the period for which the Governor has provided for additional public comment; (iii) the Governor and the General Assembly exercise their authority to suspend the effective date of a regulation until the end of the next regular legislative session; or (iv) the agency suspends the regulatory process, in which event the regulation, unless withdrawn, becomes effective on the date specified, which shall be after the expiration of the 30-day public comment period and no earlier than 15 days from publication of the readopted action.
A regulatory action may be withdrawn by the promulgating agency at any time before the regulation becomes final.
FAST-TRACK RULEMAKING PROCESS
Section 2.2-4012.1 of the Code of Virginia provides an alternative to the standard process set forth in the Administrative Process Act for regulations deemed by the Governor to be noncontroversial. To use this process, the Governor's concurrence is required and advance notice must be provided to certain legislative committees. Fast-track regulations become effective on the date noted in the regulatory action if fewer than 10 persons object to using the process in accordance with § 2.2-4012.1.
EMERGENCY REGULATIONS
Pursuant to § 2.2-4011 of the Code of Virginia, an agency may adopt emergency regulations if necessitated by an emergency situation or when Virginia statutory law or the appropriation act or federal law or federal regulation requires that a regulation be effective in 280 days or fewer from its enactment. In either situation, approval of the Governor is required. The emergency regulation is effective upon its filing with the Registrar of Regulations, unless a later date is specified per § 2.2-4012 of the Code of Virginia. Emergency regulations are limited to no more than 18 months in duration; however, may be extended for six months under the circumstances noted in § 2.2-4011 D. Emergency regulations are published as soon as possible in the Virginia Register and are on the Register of Regulations website at register.dls.virginia.gov.
During the time the emergency regulation is in effect, the agency may proceed with the adoption of permanent regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process Act. If the agency chooses not to adopt the regulations, the emergency status ends when the prescribed time limit expires.
STATEMENT
The foregoing constitutes a generalized statement of the procedures to be followed. For specific statutory language, it is suggested that Article 2 (§ 2.2-4006 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia be examined carefully.
CITATION TO THE VIRGINIA REGISTER
The Virginia Register is cited by volume, issue, page number, and date. 34:8 VA.R. 763-832 December 11, 2017, refers to Volume 34, Issue 8, pages 763 through 832 of the Virginia Register issued on December 11, 2017.
The Virginia Register of Regulations is published pursuant to Article 6 (§ 2.2-4031 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
Members of the Virginia Code Commission: Marcus B. Simon, Chair; Russet W. Perry, Vice Chair; Katrina E. Callsen; Nicole Cheuk; Richard E. Gardiner; Ryan T. McDougle; Michael Mullin; Christopher R. Nolen; Steven Popps; Charles S. Sharp; Malfourd W. Trumbo; Amigo R. Wade.
Staff of the Virginia Register: Holly Trice, Registrar of Regulations; Anne Bloomsburg, Assistant Registrar; Nikki Clemons, Managing Editor; Erin Comerford, Regulations Analyst.
PUBLICATION SCHEDULE AND DEADLINES
Vol. 42 Iss. 8 - December 01, 2025
December 2025 through December 2026
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Volume: Issue
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Material Submitted By Noon*
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Will Be Published On
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42:9
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November 24, 2025 (Monday)
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December 15, 2025
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42:10
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December 9, 2025 (Tuesday)
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December 29, 2025
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42:11
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December 22, 2025 (Monday)
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January 12, 2026
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42:12
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January 6, 2026 (Tuesday)
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January 26, 2026
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42:13
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January 21, 2026
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February 9, 2026
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42:14
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February 4, 2026
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February 23, 2026
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42:15
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February 18, 2026
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March 9, 2026
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42:16
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March 4, 2026
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March 23, 2026
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42:17
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March 18, 2026
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April 6, 2026
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42:18
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April 1, 2026
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April 20, 2026
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42:19
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April 15, 2026
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May 4, 2026
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42:20
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April 29, 2026
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May 18, 2026
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42:21
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May 13, 2026
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June 1, 2026
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42:22
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May 27, 2026
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June 15, 2026
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42:23
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June 10, 2026
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June 29, 2026
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42:24
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June 24, 2026
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July 13, 2026
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42:25
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July 8, 2026
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July 27, 2026
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42:26
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July 22, 2026
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August 10, 2026
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43:1
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August 5, 2026
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August 24, 2026
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43:2
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August 19, 2026
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September 7, 2026
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43:3
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September 2, 2026
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September 21, 2026
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43:4
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September 16, 2026
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October 5, 2026
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43:5
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September 30, 2026
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October 19, 2026
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43:6
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October 14, 2026
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November 2, 2026
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43:7
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October 28, 2026
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November 16, 2026
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43:8
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November 11, 2026
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November 30, 2026
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43:9
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November 25, 2026
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December 14, 2026
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43:10
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December 9, 2026
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December 28, 2026
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*Filing deadlines are Wednesdays unless otherwise specified.
PETITIONS FOR RULEMAKING
Vol. 42 Iss. 8 - December 01, 2025
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF MEDICINE
Agency Decision
Title of Regulation: 18VAC85-20. Regulations Governing the Practice of Medicine, Osteopathic Medicine, Podiatry, and Chiropractic.
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia.
Name of Petitioner: Joseph Foley, DC.
Nature of Petitioner's Request: The petitioner requests that the Board of Medicine amend 18VAC85-20-235 to (i) remove the requirement that doctors of chiropractic obtain clinical continuing education hours and (ii) require 24 of the 30 annual hours be in person, face-to-face.
Agency Decision: Request denied.
Statement of Reason for Decision: The Board of Medicine denied the petition because the petitioner requested that the petition be withdrawn.
Agency Contact: Erin Barrett, Director of Legislative and Regulatory Affairs, Department of Health Professions, Perimeter Center, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Henrico, VA 23233, telephone (804)750-3912, or email erin.barrett@dhp.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. PFR26-13; Filed July 31, 2025, 8:34 a.m.
PERIODIC REVIEWS AND SMALL BUSINESS IMPACT REVIEWS
Vol. 42 Iss. 8 - December 01, 2025
TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
STATE BOARD OF ELECTIONS
Agency Notice
Pursuant to §§ 2.2-4007.1 and 2.2-4017 of the Code of Virginia, the following regulations are undergoing a periodic review and a small business impact review: 1VAC20-10, Public Participation Guidelines; 1VAC20-20, General Administration; 1VAC20-40, Voter Registration; 1VAC20-45, Absent Military and Overseas Voters; 1VAC20-50, Candidate Qualification; 1VAC20-60, Election Administration; 1VAC20-70, Absentee Voting; 1VAC20-90, Campaign Finance and Political Advertisements; and 1VAC20-100, Ranked Choice Voting. The reviews will be guided by the principles in Executive Order 19 (2022). The purpose of these reviews is to determine whether the regulations should be repealed, amended, or retained in their current forms. Public comment is sought on the review of any issue relating to the regulations, including whether each regulation (i) is necessary for the protection of public health, safety, and welfare or for the economical performance of important governmental functions; (ii) minimizes the economic impact on small businesses in a manner consistent with the stated objectives of applicable law; and (iii) is clearly written and easily understandable.
Public comment period begins December 1, 2025, and ends December 21, 2025.
Comments must include the commenter's name and address (physical or email) in order to receive a response to the comment from the agency.
Following the close of the public comment period, a report of both reviews will be posted on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and published in the Virginia Register of Regulations.
Contact Information: Nathan W. Joyner, Administrative Program Specialist, Department of Elections, 1100 Bank Street, First Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 864-8901, or email nathan.joyner@elections.virginia.gov.
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TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Report of Findings
Pursuant to §§ 2.2-4007.1 and 2.2-4017 of the Code of Virginia, the State Board of Health conducted a periodic review and a small business impact review of 12VAC5-590, Waterworks Regulations, and determined that this regulation should be amended. The board is publishing its report of findings dated June 8, 2025, to support this decision.
The Protected Safe Waters List (PWSL) was enacted to help ensure that all Virginians have access to an adequate and safe supply of drinking water and to adapt to emerging health concerns in drinking water treatment and distribution systems. It also requires the enactment of a simple and effective regulatory system for waterworks to achieve this mission and to create a way to improve waterworks through compliance and enforcement of the PWSL, Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA), and the National Primary Drinking Water Regulation (NPDWR) through 12VAC5-590. The regulation is necessary to comply with the requirements to retain primacy and to regulate water sources, site and construction of waterworks, water treatment techniques, distribution, monitoring and sampling for existing and emerging contaminants such as lead, bacteria, and viruses, radioactive substances, chemicals, and other substances known to cause health problems. This regulation also helps ensure that people served by waterworks are notified of any potential health risks that arise during monitoring and sampling and that waterworks are provided with technical assistance to aid them in complying with state and federal law.
As required by the PWSL, the regulation is clearly written and understandable by the regulants. The regulation needs to be amended to recognize improvements in technology that enable waterworks to operate more efficiently and with reduced costs, to respond to suggestions from external and internal stakeholders, and to improve clarity and style.
The regulation is required to conform to Virginia's PWSL and the federal SDWA and NPDWR to help ensure that Virginians have a safe and adequate supply of drinking water and to maintain Virginia's primacy for enforcement of the SDWA. No public comments were received. The regulation is written to minimize complexity. The regulation does not overlap, duplicate, or conflict with federal or state law or regulations other than to be at least as stringent as the NPDWR. As required by the Office of Drinking Water's state primacy agreement with the Environmental Protection Agency, this regulation is at least as stringent as the NPDWR. This regulation was last reviewed and amended June 21, 2021. The types of amendments that are contemplated following the periodic review will help account for changes in regulations and guidance made by other agencies that impact the drinking water program and will enable small businesses to use newer and improved technology in their waterworks operations with the likely result of lower costs and greater efficiencies.
Contact Information: Grant Kronenberg, Director of Compliance and Enforcement, Office of Drinking Water, Virginia Department of Health, James Madison Building, 109 Governor Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 629-0989, or email grant.kronenberg@vdh.virginia.gov.
NOTICES OF INTENDED REGULATORY ACTION
Vol. 42 Iss. 8 - December 01, 2025
TITLE 12. HEALTH
Regulations for the Licensure of Nursing Facilities
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
Notice is hereby given in accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the Code of Virginia that the State Board of Health intends to consider amending 12VAC5-371, Regulations for the Licensure of Nursing Facilities. Chapters 166 and 180 of the 2025 Acts of Assembly (i) authorize the State Health Commissioner to impose sanctions on nursing homes licensed in Virginia pursuant to the laws regulating medical care facilities and services and (ii) require the State Board of Health to promulgate regulations implementing the provisions of the act. The purpose of the proposed action is to establish requirements for the licensure of nursing facilities, including provisions regarding design, construction, and maintenance of such facilities; operation, equipping, staffing and staffing qualifications; service standards; infection prevention; disaster preparedness; facility security; and matters of administration. Chapters 166 and 180 specify the forms of sanctions that the commissioner may impose, the nursing home's continued responsibility for persons under its care, the use of funds remunerated in accordance with such sanctions, the process for the imposition of such sanctions, and the commissioner's ability to revoke such nursing home's license. The proposed action establishes the procedures to implement the act. Revisions to the regulation may also include input from public comment.
The agency intends to hold a public hearing on the proposed action after publication in the Virginia Register.
Statutory Authority: §§ 32.1-12 and 32.1-127 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Comment Deadline: December 31, 2025.
Agency Contact: Val Hornsby, Policy Analyst, Virginia Department of Health, 9960 Mayland Drive, Henrico, VA 23233, telephone (804) 875-1089, or email val.hornsby@vdh.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8523; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 14. INSURANCE
Rules Governing Balance Billing for Out-of-Network Health Care Services
Notice of Intended Regulatory Action
TITLE 14. INSURANCE
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Notice of Extension of Public Comment Period
Title of Regulation: 14VAC5-405. Rules Governing Balance Billing for Out-of-Network Health Care Services (amending 14VAC5-405-20, 14VAC5-405-30, 14VAC5-405-40).
Notice is hereby given that the State Corporation Commission is extending the public comment period regarding the Proposed regulation published in 42:3 VA.R. 430-435 September 22, 2025. In accordance with § 2.2-4007.01 of the Code of Virginia, the commission amended 14VAC5-405, Rules Governing Balance Billing for Out-of-Network Health Care Services. The proposed amendments (i) add definitions of "general business practice" and "good faith negotiation period"; (ii) require a health carrier to provide instructions regarding the claim payment dispute process and to develop and implement processes to analyze the outcome of arbitration decisions involving the same provider, CPT code, and geographic area in determining a commercially reasonable payment amount; (iii) clarify requirements related to the good faith negotiation period and the ability for the health carrier and the out-of-network provider to continue to negotiate after the good faith negotiation period; (iv) prohibit health carriers or providers from initiating arbitration with such frequency as to indicate a general business practice; and (v) clarify that any payment due from the health carrier to the provider is subject to the applicable interest provisions stipulated in the Code of Virginia. The commission is publishing an amending order seeking comments on the proposed regulation.
Statutory Authority: §§ 12.1-13 and 38.2-223 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Comment Deadline: December 31, 2025.
Agency Contact: Julie Blauvelt, Deputy Commissioner, Bureau of Insurance, State Corporation Commission, P.O. Box 1157, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9515, or email julie.blauvelt@scc.virginia.gov.
AT RICHMOND, NOVEMBER 6, 2025
COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA, ex rel.
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
CASE NO. INS-2025-00072
Ex Parte: In the matter of amending
Rules Governing Balance Billing for
Out-of-Network Health Care Services
AMENDING ORDER
By Order Establishing Proceeding ("Order") entered August 25, 2025, the State Corporation Commission ("Commission") gave notice of the Bureau of Insurance's ("Bureau") proposed amendments to the Rules Governing Balance Billing for Out-of-Network Health Care Services1 ("Amended Rules"). The Order, together with the proposed Amended Rules, were subsequently forwarded to the Virginia Registrar of Regulations and published in the Virginia Register of Regulations.
In the Order, the Commission directed that "any interested person may comment on, propose modifications or supplements to, or request a hearing on the proposed Amended Rules by following the instructions on the Commission's website: scc.virginia.gov/case-information/submit-public-comments" on or before October 31, 2025 ("Comment Period"). The Commission further directed that "those unable, as a practical matter, to submit such documents electronically may file such comments by U.S. mail to the Clerk of the State Corporation Commission."
Prior to expiration of the Comment Period, the Bureau discovered that the link on the Commission's website for the submission of comments in this case was not active. In order to ensure that the public has the full opportunity to participate in this proceeding, the Bureau has recommended to the Commission that the Comment Period be extended; that the deadline for the Bureau to respond to comments submitted in this proceeding likewise be extended; and that the proposed Amended Rules be considered for adoption with an effective date of March 1, 2026.
NOW THE COMMISSION, upon consideration of this matter, is of the opinion and finds that the Order be modified to give interested persons additional time to comment on, propose modifications or supplements to, or request a hearing on the proposed Amended Rules, and to extend the Bureau's attendant timeframe to submit its response to comments.
Accordingly, IT IS ORDERED THAT:
(1) The Commission's Order Establishing Proceeding dated August 25, 2025, is modified to allow all interested persons to comment on, propose modifications or supplements to, or request a hearing on the proposed Amended Rules to file such comments or hearing request on or before December 31, 2025, and to direct the Bureau to file its response to any comments filed on or before January 30, 2026. Any interested person may comment on, propose modifications or supplements to, or request a hearing on the proposed Amended Rules by following the instructions on the Commission's website: scc.virginia.gov/case-information/submit-public-comments.
Those unable, as a practical matter, to submit such documents electronically may file such comments by U.S. mail to the Clerk of the State Corporation Commission, c/o Document Control Center, P.O. Box 2118, Richmond, Virginia 23218-2118. All documents shall refer to Case No. INS-2025-00072. Any request for hearing shall state why a hearing is necessary and why the issues raised in the request for hearing cannot be adequately addressed in written comments.
(2) The Bureau shall provide notice of this Amending Order to all carriers licensed in Virginia to write accident and sickness insurance and to any other interested persons as the Bureau may designate.
(3) The Commission's Office of General Counsel shall provide a copy of this Amending Order, together with the proposed Amended Rules, to the Virginia Registrar of Regulations for publication in the Virginia Register of Regulations.
(4) Interested persons may download unofficial copies of the Amending Order and the proposed Amended Rules from the Commission's website: scc.virginia.gov/pages/case-information.
(5) This matter is continued.
A COPY hereof shall be sent by the Clerk of the Commission to: C. Meade Browder, Jr., Senior Assistant Attorney General, at MBrowder@oag.state.va.us, Office of Attorney General, Division of Consumer Counsel, 202 North 9th Street, 8th floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219-3424; and to the Commission's Office of General Counsel and the Bureau of Insurance in care of Deputy Commissioner Julie Blauvelt.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8396; Filed November 06, 2025
REGULATIONS
Vol. 42 Iss. 8 - December 01, 2025
TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
COMMISSION ON LOCAL GOVERNMENT
Final
TITLE 1. ADMINISTRATION
COMMISSION ON LOCAL GOVERNMENT
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 1VAC50-20. Organization and Regulations of Procedure (amending 1VAC50-20-40, 1VAC50-20-142 through 1VAC50-20-382, 1VAC50-20-390 through 1VAC50-20-612, 1VAC50-20-616 through 1VAC50-20-650).
Statutory Authority: § 15.2-2903 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: December 31, 2025.
Agency Contact: LeGrand Northcutt, Senior Policy Analyst, Department of Housing and Community Development, Main Street Center, 600 East Main Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 310-7151, fax (804) 371-7090, or email legrand.northcutt@dhcd.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) remove the requirement that a fax number be included in the notice of a proposed action to the commission; (ii) reduce, and in most cases eliminate, the discretionary requirements for notification of other local governments in certain types of cases and instead rely on statutory notification requirements throughout the regulation; (iii) reduce the amount of material that must be included in notifications to the commission and other parties; and (iv) eliminate the current process for requesting filings and other documents from the other parties or the commission that is allowed under commission discretion and instead utilize the process described under the Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No public comments were received by the promulgating agency.
1VAC50-20-40. Officers.
The commission shall elect from its membership at the end of its regular January November meeting, or as soon thereafter as possible, a chair and a vice chair, who shall serve terms of one year, or until their successors are elected. In the event of a vacancy occurring in the office of chair or vice chair, for any cause, the commission shall fill the same vacancy by election for the unexpired term. The chair shall preside at all meetings, presentations, and public hearings held by the commission unless absent. In the absence of the chair, the vice chair shall preside at any meeting or other assembly of the commission and shall exercise all powers and duties of the chair. In the event that the chair and vice chair are absent for a meeting or other assembly of the commission, the remaining members of the commission shall elect a temporary chair who shall exercise all powers and duties of the chair for the duration of the meeting or assembly.
1VAC50-20-142. Special meetings.
Special meetings of the commission may be called by any member on such occasions as may be reasonably necessary to carry out the duties of the commission. Except in instances where a special meeting is scheduled at a regular meeting, the chair shall cause to be mailed - including by electronic means - send by electronic means to all members, at least five days in advance of a special meeting, a written notice specifying the time, place, and purpose of the special meeting. Notice of special meetings shall be announced appropriately on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and on a calendar maintained by the Commonwealth.
1VAC50-20-150. Minutes of meetings and hearings.
Minutes shall be recorded for each public meeting held by the commission. The minutes shall include a brief summary of comments on major issues under consideration and concise and specific statements of all action taken by the commission. The minutes shall be provided to each commission member for reading and editing prior to approval at a subsequent commission meeting. There need be no actual reading of the minutes at the meeting, but a vote shall be taken for the formal approval of the minutes as written or amended. Copies of the minutes of public meetings shall be made available to any interested party at a price sufficient to cover the expense incurred or on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and the commission's Internet webpage in accordance with the Department of Housing and Community Development's Virginia Freedom of Information Act policies.
1VAC50-20-160. Executive sessions or meetings Closed statutorily mandated proceedings exempt from the Virginia Freedom of Information Act.
A. The commission, along with its panels, or its committees, subcommittees, members, and staff, may hold and conduct executive sessions or meetings closed statutorily mandated proceedings as may be necessary for mediation and negotiations, for deliberations, for meeting with local governing bodies or members thereof, or for other lawful and appropriate purposes allowed by § 15.2-2907 D of the Code of Virginia. Closed statutorily mandated proceedings shall be exempt from the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) in accordance with § 15.2-2907 D of the Code of Virginia.
B. The following rules shall apply to closed statutorily mandated proceedings:
1. Closed statutorily mandated proceedings may be called with notice given by the chair at the chair's discretion and held in any location, in person or virtually.
2. A quorum of commissioners must be present to conduct a closed statutorily mandated proceeding.
3. No action of the commission taken during a closed statutorily mandated proceeding that would be considered at a regular meeting or would otherwise require a public vote shall be binding unless the commission takes a vote on such action at a subsequent regular meeting of the commission.
4. The commission may permit a nonmember to attend a closed statutorily mandated proceeding if such person is deemed necessary by the commission, if the person's presence will reasonably aid the commission in its consideration of a topic that is a subject of the proceeding, or as required by law.
5. Minutes and recordings may be taken during a closed statutorily mandated proceeding but shall not be required. Pursuant to 1VAC50-20-170 and other applicable laws, such minutes and recordings shall be confidential.
C. The commission reserves the right to meet in a closed meeting as allowed by §§ 2.2-3711 and 2.2-3712 of the Code of Virginia.
1VAC50-20-170. Confidentiality of proceedings and submissions.
All testimony, statements, exhibits, documents, or other evidence submitted to the commission by the parties in conjunction with its the commission's legally prescribed public meetings, presentations, or hearings shall be subject to disclosure by the commission under the provisions of the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). All other materials, including the testimony, statements, exhibits, documents, or other evidence submitted to the commission pursuant to executive during closed statutorily mandated proceedings allowed under 1VAC50-20-160, along with other deliberations, negotiations, or mediation which that the commission is authorized by law to conduct, under § 15.2-2907 D of the Code of Virginia shall be treated as confidential and shall not neither be subject to disclosure by the commission nor by the parties involved in executive proceedings closed statutorily mandated proceedings, except by agreement of the commission and all parties to the proceedings.
1VAC50-20-180. Notice to commission of proposed action as required by § 15.2-2907 of the Code of Virginia.
A. Notice of a proposed action to the commission as required by § 15.2-2907 of the Code of Virginia to the commission shall be accompanied by resolution of the governing body of the locality providing the notice evidencing its support of such action. Notice to the commission shall indicate the name, title, address, phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address of the individual who shall serve as designated contact with the commission regarding the issue presented. All notices required to be given the commission under the provisions of § 15.2-2907 of the Code of Virginia shall also indicate the other local governments given notice of the proposed action pursuant to subsection C of this section.
1. Notice of a proposed annexation initiated by voters or property owners shall be accompanied by the original or certified petition signed by 51% of the voters of any territory adjacent to any municipality or 51% of the owners of real estate in number and land area in a designated area. Notice to the commission shall indicate the name, title, address, and phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address of the individual who shall serve as designated contact with the commission regarding the issue presented. All notices required to be given to the commission under the provisions of § 15.2-2907 of the Code of Virginia shall also indicate the other local governments given notice of the proposed action pursuant to subsection C of this section.
2. Notice of a petition for the proposed transition of a city to town status that has been referred to the commission pursuant to § 15.2-4102 of the Code of Virginia shall indicate the name, title, address, phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address of the individual who shall serve as designated contact with the commission regarding the issue referred. All notices required to be given the commission under the provisions of § 15.2-2907 of the Code of Virginia shall also indicate the other local governments given notice of the proposed action pursuant to subsection C of this section.
3. Notice to the commission by a committee of citizens that has been appointed by the circuit court to act for and in lieu of a governing body to perfect a consolidation agreement pursuant to § 15.2-3531 of the Code of Virginia shall indicate the name, title, address, phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address of the individual who shall serve as designated contact with the commission regarding the proposed consolidation. All notices required to be given to the commission under the provisions of § 15.2-2907 of the Code of Virginia shall also indicate the other local governments given notice of the proposed action pursuant to subsection C of this section.
B. Any party giving notice to the commission of a proposed action pursuant to § 15.2-2907 of the Code of Virginia may submit with the notice as much data, exhibits, documents, or other supporting materials as it deems appropriate; however, the submissions should be fully responsive to all relevant elements of the applicable section of Part IV (1VAC50-20-540 et seq.) of this chapter.
C. Any party giving notice to the commission of a proposed action as required by § 15.2-2907 of the Code of Virginia shall also give notice to each Virginia local government located within or contiguous to, or sharing functions, revenue, or tax sources with the local government proposing the action. All notices to the local governments shall include an annotated listing of all documents, exhibits, and other material submitted to the commission in support of the proposed action contact information for the commission's staff with instructions to contact the commission or the locality's Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) officer, as applicable, for copies of additional documents and exhibits submitted to the commission.
1. Any voters or property owners giving notice to the commission of a proposed annexation as required by § 15.2-2907 of the Code of Virginia shall also give notice to each Virginia local government located within or contiguous to, or sharing functions, revenue, or tax sources with the municipality to which annexation is sought. All notices to the immediately affected local governments shall include contact information for the commission's staff with instructions to contact the commission for copies of all additional documents, and exhibits, and other material submitted to the commission in support of the proposed action, and notice to other localities may include, in lieu of copies of the submissions, an annotated listing of the material.
2. Any voters whose petition for the proposed transition of a city to town status that has been referred to the commission pursuant to § 15.2-4102 of the Code of Virginia shall also give notice to each Virginia local government located within or contiguous to, or sharing functions, revenue, or tax sources with the city proposed for town status. All notices to the immediately affected local governments shall include contact information for the commission's staff with instructions to contact the commission for copies of all additional documents, and exhibits, and other material submitted to the commission in support of the proposed action, and notice to other localities may include, in lieu of copies of the submissions, an annotated listing of the material.
3. A committee of citizens that has been appointed by the circuit court to act for and in lieu of a governing body to perfect a consolidation agreement pursuant to § 15.2-3531 of the Code of Virginia shall also give notice to each Virginia local government located within or contiguous to, or sharing functions, revenue, or tax sources with the local governments that are proposed to be consolidated. All notices to the immediately affected local governments shall include contact information for the commission's staff with instructions to contact the commission for copies of all additional documents, and exhibits, and other material submitted to the commission in support of the proposed action, and notice to other localities may include, in lieu of copies of the submissions, an annotated listing of the material.
D. Any local government receiving notice pursuant to subsection C of this section or any other affected party may submit data, exhibits, documents, or other material for commission review and consideration as it deems appropriate. The submissions should, however, be responsive to all relevant elements of the applicable section of Part IV (1VAC50-20-540 et seq.) of this chapter. Any party submitting material to the commission for review pursuant to this section shall also designate an individual as principal contact for the commission and shall furnish the individual's name, title, address, phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address. An annotated listing of all documents, exhibits, or other material submitted to the commission pursuant to this section The submitting party shall be provided to notify the party initiating the proceeding before the commission. Such notification shall include contact information for the commission's staff with instructions to contact the commission for copies of the documents submitted to the commission. The commission may establish a time by which all submissions by respondent parties must be received.
E. Upon its receipt of notice of a proposed action pursuant to subsection A of this section, the commission shall, subsequent to discussion with representatives of the party submitting the notice and other appropriate parties, schedule a review of the proposed action. The commission shall also concurrently extend the services of its office to the parties in an endeavor to promote a negotiated settlement of the issue and, further, may designate, with the agreement of the parties, an independent mediator to assist in the negotiations.
The commission's review of a notice of a proposed annexation as required by § 15.2-2907 of the Code of Virginia filed by voters or property owners shall be terminated upon receipt of an ordinance, duly adopted by a majority of the elected members of the governing body of the affected city or town, rejecting the annexation proposed by the notice.
1VAC50-20-230. Referral to commission of proposed voluntary settlement agreements.
A. Referral of a proposed voluntary settlement agreement to the commission under the provisions of § 15.2-3400 of the Code of Virginia shall be accompanied by resolutions, joint or separate, of the governing bodies of the localities that are parties to the proposed agreement requesting the commission to review the agreement. The resolutions shall also state the intention of the governing bodies to adopt the agreement subsequent to the commission's review and shall indicate the name, title, address, phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address of the individual who shall serve as each locality's principal contact with the commission during the period of its the commission's review. Referrals to the commission pursuant to § 15.2-3400 of the Code of Virginia shall also be accompanied by a listing of local governments receiving notice of the referral under subsection C of this section.
B. Any party referring a proposed voluntary settlement agreement to the commission for review pursuant to § 15.2-3400 of the Code of Virginia may submit with the proposed agreement as much data, exhibits, documents, or other supporting materials as deemed appropriate; however, the submissions should be fully responsive to all relevant elements of 1VAC50-20-610.
C. Whenever a proposed voluntary settlement agreement is referred to the commission for review pursuant to subsection A of this section, the parties to the proposed agreement shall concurrently give notice of the referral to each Virginia local government with which any of the parties is contiguous, or with which any of the parties shares any function, revenue, or tax source. All such notices of referral shall be accompanied by a copy of the proposed voluntary settlement agreement, or a descriptive summary thereof, and an annotated listing of all contact information for the commission's staff with instructions to contact the commission for copies of the documents, exhibits, and other materials submitted to the commission in support of the proposed agreement.
D. Any local government receiving notice of referral pursuant to subsection C of this section, or any other party, may submit data, exhibits, documents, or other supporting materials relevant to the commission's review as it deems appropriate; however, the submissions should be responsive to all relevant elements of 1VAC50-20-610. Any party submitting materials to the commission pursuant to this chapter shall also designate an individual who shall serve as principal contact with the commission during the period of its the commission's review and shall furnish the individual's name, title, address, phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address. The commission may establish a time by which all submissions by respondent parties must be received. Any party submitting materials to the commission pursuant to this chapter shall also provide an annotated listing of the material to the parties to the proposed voluntary settlement agreement notify the parties to the voluntary settlement agreement of the submission. Such notification shall include contact information for the commission's staff with instructions to contact the commission for copies of the documents submitted to the commission.
1VAC50-20-270. Referral to commission of proposed town-county agreement defining annexation rights.
A. Referral to the commission of a proposed town-county agreement defining annexation rights pursuant to § 15.2-3231 of the Code of Virginia shall be accompanied by resolutions, joint or separate, of the governing bodies of the town and county requesting the commission to review the agreement. The resolutions shall also state the intention of the governing bodies to adopt the agreement subsequent to the commission's review and shall indicate the name, title, address, phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address of the individual who shall serve as each locality's principal contact with the commission during the period of its review. Referrals to the commission pursuant to § 15.2-3231 of the Code of Virginia shall also be accompanied by a listing of local governments receiving notice of such referral under subsection C of this section.
B. Any affidavit made pursuant to § 15.2-3232 B of the Code of Virginia shall be filed with the commission within five business days of execution.
C. Any notice given under § 15.2-3232 B of the Code of Virginia shall include contact information for the commission's staff with instructions to contact the commission for copies of the documents submitted to the commission.
D. Any party referring a proposed agreement to the commission for review pursuant to § 15.2-3231 of the Code of Virginia may submit with the proposed agreement as much data, exhibits, documents, or other supporting materials as deemed appropriate; however, submissions should be fully responsive to all relevant elements of 1VAC50-20-560.
C. Whenever a proposed agreement is referred to the commission for review pursuant to subsection A of this section, the parties to the proposed agreement shall concurrently give notice of the referral to each Virginia local government with which either party is contiguous or with which either party shares any function, revenue, or tax source. All notices of referral shall be accompanied by a copy of the proposed agreement, or a descriptive summary thereof, and an annotated listing of all documents, exhibits, and other materials submitted to the commission in support of the proposed agreement.
D. E. Any person or local government receiving notice of referral pursuant to subsection C of this section, or any other party, may submit data, exhibits, documents, or other supporting materials relevant to the commission's review as they deem the person or local government deems appropriate; however, the submissions should be responsive to all relevant elements of 1VAC50-20-560. Any party submitting materials to the commission pursuant to this chapter shall also designate an individual who shall serve as principal contact with the commission during the period of its the commission's review and shall furnish the individual's name, title, address, phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address. The commission may establish a time by which all submissions by respondent parties must be received. Any party submitting materials to the commission pursuant to this chapter shall also provide an annotated listing of the material to the parties to the proposed agreement notify the parties to the agreement defining annexation rights of the submission. Such notification shall include contact information for the commission's staff with instructions to contact the commission for copies of the documents submitted to the commission.
1VAC50-20-310. Referral to commission of town petition for order establishing annexation rights.
A. Any town unable to reach an agreement with its county as to future annexation rights may, pursuant to § 15.2-3234 of the Code of Virginia, adopt an ordinance petitioning the commission for an order establishing its rights to annex territory in such county. The petition to the commission shall include the terms of a proposed order establishing the town's annexation rights and shall indicate the name, title, address, phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address of the individual who shall serve as the town's principal contact with the commission. Petitions to the commission pursuant to § 15.2-3234 of the Code of Virginia shall also be accompanied by a copy of the ordinance and by a listing of all local governments being served or receiving notice of the town's petition pursuant to subsection C of this section.
B. Any town petitioning the commission under the authority of § 15.2-3234 of the Code of Virginia may submit with the petition as much data, exhibits, documents, or other supporting materials as deemed appropriate; however, the submissions should be fully responsive to all relevant elements of 1VAC50-20-616.
C. Any town petitioning for an order establishing its annexation rights under the authority of § 15.2-3234 of the Code of Virginia shall serve a copy of the petition and ordinance on the Commonwealth's attorney, or the county attorney if there be is one, and on the chairman chair of the board of supervisors of the county whose territory would be affected by the town's proposed annexation order. The town shall also give notice of its petition to all other towns located within the affected county and to each Virginia local government adjoining such county. The service in the county and the notice to other localities shall be accompanied by an annotated listing of all materials must include contact information for the commission's staff with instructions to contact the commission for copies of additional documents and exhibits submitted to the commission pursuant to subsection B of this section.
D. A county served with a copy of a town's petition pursuant to subsection C of this section shall file its response to such petition with the commission within 60 days after receipt of the service. Any other party receiving notice pursuant to subsection C of this section, with an interest in the proceedings may also submit materials to the commission for consideration with respect to the town's petition within 60 days of their receipt of the notice. The commission may establish a time by which all submissions by respondent parties must be received, so long as the time is no earlier than the county's response date. Responses and submissions to the commission pursuant to this chapter may include data, exhibits, documents, or other materials as the submitting party deems appropriate; however, such responses and submissions should be responsive to all relevant elements of 1VAC50-20-616. Any party submitting materials to the commission for review pursuant to this chapter shall also designate an individual who shall serve as principal contact with the commission and shall furnish the individual's name, title, address, phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address. Any party submitting materials to the commission pursuant to this chapter shall also provide an annotated listing of the material to the town petitioning the commission notify the town that they have submitted materials to the commission.
1VAC50-20-350. Referral to commission of boundary line adjustment.
A. Whenever a court refers a proposed boundary line adjustment to the commission pursuant to § 15.2-3109 of the Code of Virginia, the localities proposing the boundary line adjustment shall, upon receipt of notification of the referral, provide the commission with a copy of their the petition to the court and shall designate an individual for each locality who shall serve as principal contact with the commission and shall furnish the individual's name, title, address, phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address. Referrals to the commission pursuant to § 15.2-3109 of the Code of Virginia shall also be accompanied by a listing of local governments receiving notice of the referral under subsection C of this section.
B. The two localities proposing a boundary line adjustment pursuant to § 15.2-3109 of the Code of Virginia may, jointly or independently, submit to the commission with their the petition as much data, exhibits, documents, or other supporting materials as they the localities deem appropriate; however, such submissions should be fully responsive to all relevant elements of 1VAC50-20-600.
C. Whenever a proposed boundary line adjustment is referred to the commission for review pursuant to § 15.2-3109 of the Code of Virginia, the localities proposing the adjustment shall concurrently give notice of the proposed adjustment as well as notice of the referral of the issue to the commission to each Virginia local government with which either party is contiguous and to any other Virginia local government deemed by the localities proposing the adjustment to be potentially affected by the proposed adjustment. The notice shall include a copy of the petition requesting the boundary line adjustment, or an informative summary thereof, and an annotated listing of all documents, exhibits, and other materials submitted to the commission for review pursuant to subsection B of this section.
D. C. Any person or local government receiving notice of a proposed boundary line adjustment pursuant to subsection C of this section, or any other party, may submit data, exhibits, documents, or other supporting materials relevant to the commission's review as they deem the person or local government deems appropriate; however, such submissions should be responsive to all relevant elements of 1VAC50-20-600. Any party submitting materials to the commission pursuant to this chapter shall also designate an individual who shall serve as principal contact with the commission during the period of its the commission's review and shall furnish the individual's name, title, address, phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address. The commission may establish a time by which all submissions by respondent parties must be received. Any party submitting materials to the commission pursuant to this chapter shall also provide an annotated listing of the materials to the localities proposing the boundary line adjustment notify the localities proposing the boundary line adjustment that the party has submitted evidence to the commission.
1VAC50-20-382. Referral to commission of proposed economic growth-sharing agreements.
A. Referral of a proposed economic growth-sharing agreement to the commission under the provisions of § 15.2-1301 of the Code of Virginia shall be accompanied by resolution, joint or separate, of the governing bodies of the localities that are parties to the proposed agreement requesting the commission to review the agreement. The resolutions shall also state the intention of the governing bodies to adopt the agreement subsequent to the commission's review and shall indicate the name, title, address, phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address of the individual who shall serve as each locality's principal contact with the commission during the period of its the commission's review. Referrals to the commission pursuant to § 15.2-1301 of the Code of Virginia shall also be accompanied by a listing of local governments receiving notice of the referral under subsection C of this section.
B. Any party referring a proposed economic growth-sharing agreement to the commission for review pursuant to § 15.2-1301 of the Code of Virginia may submit with the proposed agreement as much data, exhibits, documents, or other supporting materials as deemed appropriate; however, the submissions should be fully responsive to all relevant elements of 1VAC50-20-612.
C. Whenever a proposed economic growth-sharing agreement is referred to the commission for review pursuant to subsection A of this section, the parties to the proposed agreement shall concurrently give notice of the referral to each Virginia local government with which any of the parties is contiguous, or with which any of the parties shares any function, revenue, or tax source. All notices of referral shall be accompanied by a copy of the proposed agreement, or a descriptive summary thereof, and an annotated listing of all documents, exhibits, and other materials submitted to the commission in support of the proposed agreement include contact information for the commission's staff with instructions to contact the commission for copies of the additional documents and exhibits submitted to the commission.
D. Any local government receiving notice of referral pursuant to subsection C of this section, or any other party, may submit data, exhibits, documents, or other supporting materials relevant to the commission's review as it deems appropriate; however, the submissions should be responsive to all relevant elements of 1VAC50-20-612. Any party submitting materials to the commission pursuant to this chapter shall also designate an individual who shall serve as principal contact with the commission during the period of its the commission's review, and shall furnish the individual's name, title, address, phone telephone number, and, where available, fax number and email address. Any party submitting materials to the commission pursuant to this chapter shall also provide an annotated listing of the material to the parties to the proposed agreement notify the parties to the economic growth-sharing agreement that they have submitted materials to the commission. The commission may establish a time by which all submissions by respondent parties must be received.
1VAC50-20-390. General provisions applicable to mandatory commission reviews.
A. Any local government or other party appearing before the commission relative to any mandatory review may be represented by counsel.
B. The commission shall generally schedule for consideration issues in the order in which received; however, the commission reserves the right to consider issues in other sequence where it deems appropriate. Where notices are received of related or competitive actions affecting the same localities, the commission may, where appropriate, consider the issues and render the reports or a consolidated report concurrently.
C. Subsequent to its receipt of an issue for a mandatory review, the commission or the commission's staff shall meet, or otherwise converse, with representatives of the principally affected parties for purposes of establishing a schedule for its review of the issue. The schedule shall include dates for (i) for the submission of responsive materials from affected jurisdictions, (ii) for tours of affected areas and oral presentations if any are desired by the commission, (iii) for a public hearing, and (iv) for the issuance of the commission's report, as well as other dates the commission deems appropriate.
D. The commission may continue or defer its proceedings with respect to an issue at any time it deems appropriate; however, no continuance or deferral shall result in an extension of the commission's reporting deadline beyond any time limit imposed by law, except by agreement of the parties or in accordance with other statutory procedures. The commission shall also accept requests for continuances or deferrals from any party at any time during its proceedings but shall not grant or deny any such requests until all parties have had an opportunity to comment on the requests. In any instance where the commission grants a continuance or a deferral, the continuance or deferral may be conditioned upon an appropriate extension of the commission's reporting deadline with respect to the issue under review.
E. The commission may confront the necessity of continuing or deferring its proceedings as a result of statutory requirement or court order. In such instances, the commission shall reschedule its proceedings, upon consultation with the parties, in a manner that permits an expeditious conclusion of its review. The parties should anticipate, however, that the duration of the continuance or stay shall result in a commensurate delay in the issuance of the commission's report.
F. In addition to any meeting, presentation, public hearing, or other gathering of the parties specified by this chapter, the commission may, where it deems necessary for an analysis of material or for a discussion or clarification of the issues before it, schedule other meetings of appropriate parties.
G. No party to a proceeding before the commission for mandatory review shall communicate in any manner with any member of the commission with respect to the merits of the issue under review except as is authorized by this chapter, or as may be otherwise authorized by the commission or its chair.
H. In addition to the submissions authorized by 1VAC50-20-180 through 1VAC50-20-384, the commission may allow supplemental submissions deemed necessary or appropriate by the commission for the provision of current and complete data. Where supplemental submissions are authorized pursuant to this subsection, copies of all submissions shall be provided by the submitting party to all principal parties. The commission shall endeavor to establish dates for the filing of all supplemental submissions which that will allow an opportunity for their review and critical analysis by other affected parties. However, the commission may accept supplemental submissions filed after any established dates if, in the commission's judgment, the submissions assist the commission in the discharge of its statutory responsibilities.
I. Any material submitted to the commission by the parties in conjunction with or relative to any notice filed pursuant to any mandatory review covered by 1VAC50-20-180 through 1VAC50-20-384, except materials presented in the context of negotiations or mediation of a confidential nature as authorized by law, shall be considered public documents and made available by the submitting party commission for review by any other interested party or by the public. Any interested party or member of the public may request copies of any such material which shall be provided promptly by the party submitting the material to the commission at a price sufficient to cover the expense incurred from the commission or its staff in accordance with the Department of Housing and Community Development's Freedom of Information Act policies. In addition, the commission will post all public documents, as defined in this subsection, on its website.
J. Each document, exhibit, or other material submitted to the commission shall bear a title, the date of preparation, a detailed citation of the sources from which all data are obtained, and the name of the entity which that submitted the document, exhibit, or other material. All material submitted to the commission by a local government shall be, as nearly as practicable, in the same form as the material would subsequently be submitted to the courts. The commission may refuse to accept for review and consideration any exhibit, document, or other material unless the person preparing it, or a representative of the entity responsible for its submission, shall be is willing to appear before the commission for purposes of answering questions concerning the material.
K. Unless otherwise requested, wherever the regulations of the commission call for the projection of data, the projections should be made for a 10-year period. In each instance where projections are given, the method and bases of the projections should be indicated.
L. All data, exhibits, documents, or other material submitted to the commission on the initiative of a party or pursuant to a request from the commission shall be certified by the submitting party as to (i) as to source and (ii) as to the fact that the material is correct within the knowledge of the submitting party.
M. Any party filing notice or making submissions to the commission shall provide at least eight copies of all submissions, unless the commission agrees that a lesser number would be sufficient for its review and analysis. The commission may make provisions for the electronic filing of submissions, including facsimile.
N. At any time during the course of the commission's review of any issue, the commission's staff may solicit additional data, documents, records, or other materials from the parties as is deemed necessary for proper analysis of any issue. Where such materials are solicited from a party, the commission's staff, where practicable, shall make the request in writing, with copies of the request being provided to other principal parties. Copies of all materials submitted to the commission pursuant to this chapter shall concurrently be provided to each principal party or shall be made available to the parties in a manner acceptable to the commission. The commission shall be given written notification by the submitting party of each principal party provided a copy of the material or of arrangements proposed for making the material available to the principal parties.
O. The commission shall not be limited in its analysis of any issue to the materials submitted by the parties but shall undertake independent research as it deems appropriate in order to assure ensure a full and complete investigation of each issue.
P. The commission shall request all parties to cooperate fully in the development and timely sharing of data relative to the issue under review. The commission considers the cooperation among parties vital to the discharge of its responsibilities.
Q. The commission may allow the parties to correct the data, exhibits, documents, or other material submitted to the commission prior to the date established for the closing of the record pursuant to 1VAC50-20-640 B. Where corrections are authorized pursuant to this chapter, copies of all corrections shall be provided by the submitting party to all principal parties. If, in the commission's judgment, the corrections are of a substantive nature as to significantly alter the scope or character of the issue under review, the commission may delay its proceedings for an appropriate amount of time to provide an opportunity for other parties to respond to the corrected data, exhibits, documents, or other material.
R. Following the receipt of a notice, the commission may request the party initiating the proposed action to prepare and file testimony in support of the proposed action. The testimony of the party initiating the proposed action may refer to all data, exhibits, documents, or other material previously submitted to the commission or filed with the testimony. In all proceedings in which the initiating party files testimony, the affected party shall be permitted and may be requested by the commission to file, on or before a date established by the commission, testimony in response to the proposed action. The testimony of the affected party may refer to all data, exhibits, documents, or other material previously submitted to the commission or filed with the testimony. Any affected party who that chooses not to file testimony by the date established by the commission may not thereafter present testimony except by permission of the commission, but may otherwise fully participate in the proceeding and engage only in cross-examination of the testimony of other parties. Failure to comply with the directions of the commission, without good cause shown, may result in rejection of the testimony by the commission. The commission may permit the parties to correct or supplement any prepared testimony before or during the oral presentations as called for in 1VAC50-20-620. Eight copies of prepared testimony shall be filed unless otherwise specified by the commission.
1VAC50-20-540. Annexation.
In developing its findings of fact and recommendations with respect to a proposed annexation, the commission shall consider the relevant information, data, and factors listed in this section. Any city or town filing notice with the commission that it proposes to annex territory shall submit with the notice data and other evidence responsive to each element listed in this section that it the city or town deems relevant to the proposed annexation. Any voters or property owners filing notice pursuant to § 15.2-2907 of the Code of Virginia with the commission seeking annexation to a municipality shall submit with the notice data and other evidence responsive to each element listed in this section that they those parties deem relevant to the proposed annexation, except that subdivision 1 of this section is required to be included in the notice filed with the commission.
1. A written metes and bounds description of the boundaries of the area proposed for annexation having, as a minimum, sufficient certainty to enable a layman layperson to identify the proposed new boundary. The description may make reference to readily identifiable monuments, such as public roads, rivers, streams, railroad rights of way, and similar discernible physical features.
2. A map showing (i) the boundaries of the area proposed for annexation and their geographic relationship to existing political boundaries; (ii) identifiable unincorporated communities; (iii) major streets, highways, schools, and other major public facilities; (iv) significant geographic features, including mountains and bodies of water; (v) existing uses of the land, including residential, commercial, industrial, and agricultural; and (vi) information deemed relevant as to the possible future use of the property within the area sought for annexation.
3. A land-use table showing both the acreage and percentage of land currently devoted to the various categories of land use in the municipality, the county, and the area proposed for annexation.
4. The past, the estimated current, and the projected population of the municipality, the county affected by the proposed annexation, and the area of the county proposed for annexation.
5. The past, the estimated current, and the projected future number of public school students enrolled in the public schools and the number of school-age children living in the municipality, the county affected by the proposed annexation, and the area of the county proposed for annexation.
6. The assessed property values, by major classification, and if appropriate, the ratios of assessed values to true values for real property, personal property, machinery and tools, merchants' capital, and public service corporation property for the current year and the preceding 10 years for the municipality and the county affected by the proposed annexation, and similar data for the current year for the area of the county proposed for annexation.
7. The current local property and nonproperty tax rates and the tax rates for the preceding 10 years, applicable within the municipality, the county affected by the proposed annexation, and the area of the county proposed for annexation.
8. The estimated current local revenue collections and intergovernmental aid, the collections and aid for the previous 10 years, and projections of the collections and aid (including tax receipts from real property, personal property, machinery and tools, merchants' capital, business and professional license, consumer utility, and sales taxes) within the municipality, and the county affected by the proposed annexation, and similar data for the past year for the area of the county proposed for annexation.
9. The amount of long-term indebtedness and the purposes for which all long-term debt has been incurred by the municipality and the county affected by the proposed annexation.
10. The need in the area proposed for annexation for urban services, including those listed in this subdivision, the level of services provided by the municipality and by the county affected by the proposed annexation, and the ability of the municipality and the county to provide the services in the area proposed for annexation:
a. Sewage treatment;
b. Water;
c. Solid waste collection and disposal;
d. Public planning;
e. Subdivision regulation and zoning;
f. Crime prevention and detection;
g. Fire prevention and protection;
h. Public recreational facilities;
i. Library facilities;
j. Curbs, gutters, and sidewalks;
k. Storm drains;
l. Street lighting;
m. Snow removal;
n. Street maintenance;
o. Schools;
p. Housing; and
q. Public transportation.
11. Efforts made by the municipality and the county affected by the proposed annexation to comply with applicable state policies with respect to environmental protection, public planning, education, public transportation, housing, and other state service policies promulgated by the General Assembly.
12. The community of interest which that may exist (i) may exist between the municipality and the area proposed for annexation and its citizens and or (ii) may exist between that area and its citizens and the rest of the county; the. The term "community of interest" may include consideration of natural neighborhoods, natural and manmade boundaries, the similarity of service needs, and economic and social bonds.
13. Any arbitrary prior refusal to cooperate by the governing body of the municipality or of the county affected by the proposed annexation, if such has occurred, to enter into cooperative agreements providing for joint activities that would have benefited citizens of both localities.
14. The need for the municipality to expand its tax resources, including its real estate and personal property tax base.
15. The need of the municipality to obtain land for industrial, commercial, and residential development.
16. The adverse effect on the county affected by the proposed annexation resulting from the loss of areas suitable and developable for industrial, commercial, or residential use.
17. The adverse effect on the county of the loss of tax resources and public facilities necessary to provide services to those persons in the remaining areas of the county after the proposed annexation.
18. The adverse impact of the proposed annexation on agricultural operations located in the area proposed for annexation.
19. The terms and conditions upon which the municipality proposes to annex, its plans for the improvement of the annexed territory during the 10-year period following annexation, including the extension of public utilities and other services, and the means by which the municipality shall finance the improvements and extension of services.
20. Data pertinent to a determination of the appropriate financial settlement between the municipality and the affected county as required by § 15.2-3211 of the Code of Virginia and other applicable provisions of the Code of Virginia.
21. The commission's staff shall endeavor to assist parties contemplating or involved in annexation proceedings by identifying additional data elements considered by the commission to be relevant in the disposition of annexation issues.
1VAC50-20-550. Partial county immunity.
In developing its findings of fact and recommendations with respect to a proposed petition for partial immunity, the commission shall consider the relevant information, data, and factors listed in this section. Any county filing notice with the commission that it proposes to seek immunity for a portion of its territory shall submit with the notice data and other evidence responsive to each element listed in this section that it the county deems relevant to the proposed petition for partial immunity.
1. A written metes and bounds description of the area for which immunity is sought having, as a minimum, sufficient certainty to enable a layman layperson to identify the proposed immunity areas. The description may make reference to readily identifiable monuments, such as public roads, rivers, streams, railroad rights of way, and similar discernible physical features.
2. A map or maps showing: (i) the boundaries of the area proposed for immunity and their geographic relationship to existing political boundaries; (ii) identifiable unincorporated communities; (iii) major streets, highways, schools, and other major public facilities; (iv) significant geographic features, including mountains and bodies of water; (v) existing uses of the land, including residential, commercial, industrial, and agricultural; and (vi) information deemed relevant as to the possible future use of the property within the area for which immunity is sought.
3. A land-use table showing both the acreage and percentage of land currently devoted to the various categories of land use in the county, the affected city, and the area proposed for immunity.
4. The estimated current and projected population and population density of the areas for which immunity is sought.
5. The urban services, including but not limited to those listed below in this subdivision, provided in the area for which immunity is sought and the type and level of services in relation to those furnished by the city from which immunity is sought:
a. Sewage treatment;
b. Water;
c. Solid waste collection and disposal;
d. Public planning;
e. Subdivision regulation and zoning;
f. Crime prevention and detection;
g. Fire prevention and protection;
h. Public recreational facilities;
i. Library facilities;
j. Curbs, gutters, sidewalks;
k. Storm drains;
l. Street lighting;
m. Snow removal;
n. Street maintenance;
o. Schools;
p. Housing; and
q. Public transportation.
6. Efforts made by the county to comply with applicable state policies with respect to environmental protection, public planning, education, public transportation, housing, and other state service policies promulgated by the General Assembly.
7. The community of interest that: (i) may exist between the area for which immunity is sought and the remainder of the county; (ii) the community of interest which that may exist between that area and the city from which immunity is sought; and (iii) the relative strength of the community of interests.
8. Any instance in which either the county or the affected city has arbitrarily refused to cooperate in the joint provision of services.
9. Whether the proposed grant of immunity would substantially foreclose a city of 100,000 population or less from expanding its boundaries by annexation.
10. The commission's staff shall endeavor to assist localities contemplating or involved in partial immunity proceedings by identifying the additional data elements considered by the commission to be relevant in the disposition of partial immunity issues.
1VAC50-20-560. Town-county agreements defining annexation rights.
In developing its findings of fact and recommendations with respect to a proposed town-county annexation agreement, the commission shall consider the relevant information, data, and factors listed in this section. Any town or county presenting proposed annexation agreements to the commission under the provisions of § 15.2-3231 of the Code of Virginia shall submit with the proposed agreement data and other evidence responsive to each element listed in this section that it the town or county deems relevant.
1. A written metes and bounds description of those areas of the county made eligible for annexation under the proposed agreement having as a minimum, sufficient certainty to enable a layman layperson to identify those areas. The description may make reference to readily identifiable monuments such as public roads, rivers, streams, railroad rights of way, and similar discernible physical features.
2. A map showing (i) the boundaries of the various areas eligible for annexation under the proposed agreement and their relationship to existing political boundaries; (ii) identifiable unincorporated communities; (iii) major streets, highways, schools, and other major public facilities; (iv) significant geographic features, including mountains and bodies of water; (v) existing uses of the land, including residential, commercial, industrial, and agricultural; and (vi) information deemed relevant as to the possible future use of the property in the areas affected by the proposed agreement.
3. A land-use table showing both the acreage and percentage of land currently devoted to the various categories of land use in the town, the county, and the areas of the county affected by the agreement.
4. The past, the estimated current, and the projected population of the town, the county, and those areas of the county affected by the proposed agreement.
5. The past, the estimated current, and the projected number of public school students enrolled in the public schools and the number of school-age children living in the town, the county, and those areas of the county affected by the proposed agreement.
6. The assessed property values, by major classification and, if appropriate, the ratios of assessed values to true values for real property, personal property, machinery and tools, merchants' capital, and public service corporation property for the current and preceding 10 years for the town, and the county, and similar data for the current year in those areas of the county affected by the proposed agreement.
7. The need of the municipality to expand its tax resources, including its real estate and personal property tax base.
8. The need of the municipality to obtain land for industrial, commercial, and residential development.
9. The current and prospective need for additional urban services in the areas of its county subject to annexation under the agreement.
10. Plans for the immediate and future improvement of areas annexed under the terms of the agreement, including the extension of public utilities and other services.
11. The commission's staff shall endeavor to assist localities contemplating or involved in town-county agreements defining annexation rights by identifying additional data elements considered by the commission to be relevant in the disposition of the issues.
1VAC50-20-570. Town incorporation.
In developing its findings of fact and recommendations with respect to a proposed town incorporation, the commission shall consider the relevant information, data, and factors listed in this section. Parties Any party filing notice with the commission that they propose the party proposes to have a community incorporated as a town, or whose petition for incorporation has been referred to the commission by the court pursuant to § 15.2-3601 of the Code of Virginia, shall submit with such notice or subsequent to the court referral data and other evidence responsive to each element listed in this section that they deem the party deems relevant to the proposed incorporation.
1. A petition signed by not fewer than 100 duly qualified voters residing within the boundaries of the proposed town supporting the proposed incorporation.
2. A written metes and bounds description of the area proposed for incorporation as a town having, as a minimum, sufficient certainty to enable a layman layperson to identify the proposed town boundary. The description may make reference to readily identifiable monuments, such as public roads, rivers, streams, railroad rights of way, and similar discernible physical features.
3. A map showing (i) the boundaries of the proposed town and their relationship to existing political boundaries; (ii) identifiable unincorporated communities; (iii) major streets, highways, schools, and other major public facilities; (iv) significant geographic features, including mountains and bodies of water; and (v) existing uses of the land, including residential, commercial, industrial, and agricultural.
4. A land-use table showing both the acreage and percentage of land currently devoted to the various categories of land use in the area proposed for incorporation.
5. The past, the estimated current, and the projected population of the area proposed for incorporation and the county within which the town would be situated.
6. Information indicating (i) why the proposed incorporation is desired and in the interest of the inhabitants; (ii) how the general good of the community is served by the incorporation; and (iii) why the services needed within the proposed town cannot be provided by the establishment of a sanitary district, through the extension of existing county services, or by other arrangements provided by law.
7. The commission shall endeavor to assist communities contemplating or involved in proposed town incorporations by identifying additional data elements considered by the commission to be relevant in the disposition of incorporation issues.
1VAC50-20-580. Town-city transitions.
In developing its findings of fact and recommendations with respect to a proposed town to city transition, the commission shall consider the relevant information, data, and factors listed in this section. Any town filing notice with the commission that it proposes to become a city shall submit with the notice data and other evidence responsive to each element listed in this section that it the town deems relevant to the proposed transition.
1. A written metes and bounds description of the boundaries of the proposed city having, as a minimum, sufficient certainty to enable a layman layperson to identify the proposed city boundary. The description may make reference to readily identifiable monuments, such as public roads, rivers, streams, railroad rights of way, and similar discernible physical features.
2. A map or maps showing: (i) the boundaries of the proposed city and their geographic relationship to existing political boundaries; (ii) identifiable unincorporated communities; (iii) major streets, highways, schools, and other major public facilities; (iv) significant geographic features, including mountains and bodies of water; (v) existing uses of the land, including residential, commercial, industrial, and agricultural; and (vi) information deemed relevant as to the possible future use of the property within the proposed city.
3. A land-use table showing both the acreage and percentage of land currently devoted to the various categories of land use in the proposed city.
4. The past, the estimated current, and the projected population of the proposed city and the county affected by the proposed transition.
5. The past, the estimated current, and the projected future number of public school students enrolled in the public schools and the number of school-age children living in the proposed city and the county affected by the proposed transition.
6. The assessed values, by major classification and, if appropriate, the ratios of assessed values to true values for real property, personal property, machinery and tools, merchants' capital, and public service corporation property for the current year and the preceding 10 years for the county and within the proposed city.
7. The current local property and nonproperty tax rates, and the tax rates for the preceding 10 years, applicable within the county and the proposed city.
8. The estimated current local revenue collections and intergovernmental aid, the collections and aid for the previous 10 years, and projections of the collections and aid, including tax receipts from real property, personal property, machinery and tools, merchants' capital, business and professional license, consumer utility, and sales taxes, within the county and the proposed city.
9. The amount of long-term indebtedness and the purposes for which that long-term debt has been incurred by the municipality and the county affected by the proposed transition.
10. The current type and level of urban services provided by the town, the additional services to be provided and the additional costs to be borne by the proposed city, and the means by which the proposed city shall finance the additional services and costs.
11. The fiscal capacity of the town to function as an independent city and to provide appropriate urban services.
12. The effect and impact of the proposed transition on the ability of the county to meet the service needs of its remaining population and the means by which any substantial impairment of the county's ability to meet those needs shall be offset.
13. The effect of the proposed transition on compliance with and the promotion of applicable state policies with respect to environmental protection, public planning, education, public transportation, housing, and other state service policies declared by the General Assembly.
14. Data pertinent to a determination of the appropriate financial settlement as required by § 15.2-3829 and other applicable provisions of the Code of Virginia.
15. The commission's staff shall endeavor to assist localities contemplating or involved in town-city transition proceedings by identifying additional data elements considered by the commission to be relevant in disposition of town to city transition issues.
1VAC50-20-590. County-city transitions.
In developing its findings of fact and recommendations with respect to a proposed county to city transition, the commission shall consider the relevant information, data, and factors listed in this section. Any county filing notice with the commission that it proposes to become a city shall submit with the notice data and other evidence responsive to each element listed in this section that it the county deems relevant to the proposed transition.
1. A map showing (i) the location of all towns situated within the county; (ii) all adjoining and adjacent localities; (iii) identifiable unincorporated communities within the county; (iv) the population density of the various areas of the county; (v) the areas of the county served by urban services; (vi) major streets, highways, schools, and other major public facilities; (vii) significant geographic features, including mountains and bodies of water; (viii) existing uses of the land, including residential, commercial, industrial, and agricultural; and (ix) information deemed relevant as to the possible future use of the property within the county.
2. A land-use table showing both the acreage and percentage of land currently devoted to the various categories of land use in the county.
3. The past, the estimated current, and the projected future population of the county, each town within the county, and of the major densely populated unincorporated communities within the county.
4. The past, the estimated current, and the projected future number of public school students enrolled in the public schools and the number of school-age children living in the county and in each town within the county.
5. The assessed values, by major classification and, if appropriate, the ratios of assessed values to true values for real property, personal property, machinery and tools, merchants' capital, and public service corporation property for the current year and the preceding 10 years for the county and each town within the county.
6. The current local property and nonproperty tax rates, and the tax rates for the preceding 10 years, within the county and all towns within the county.
7. The estimated current local revenue collections and intergovernmental aid, the collections and aid for the previous 10 years, and projections of the collections and aid (including tax receipts from real property, personal property, machinery and tools, merchants' capital, business and professional license, consumer utility, and sales taxes) within the county and within each town within the county.
8. The amount of long-term indebtedness of the county and each town within the county and the amount and purpose for which that debt has been incurred.
9. Data regarding (i) the urban-type services presently provided by the county; (ii) the level of those services; (iii) the areas of the county served by those services; (iv) the additional services to be provided and the additional cost to be borne by the proposed city; and (v) the means by which the proposed city shall finance the additional services and costs.
10. The fiscal capacity of the county to function as an independent city and to provide appropriate services.
11. The impact of the proposed transition on compliance with and the promotion of applicable state policies with respect to environmental protection, public planning, education, public transportation, housing, and other state service policies declared by the General Assembly.
12. The commission's staff shall endeavor to assist localities contemplating or involved in proposed county-city transitions by identifying additional data elements considered by the commission to be relevant in the disposition of county to city transition issues.
1VAC50-20-600. Boundary line adjustment.
In developing its findings of fact and recommendations with respect to a proposed boundary line adjustment, the commission shall consider the relevant information, data, and factors listed in this section. The localities petitioning for a boundary line adjustment under the provisions of § 15.2-3109 of the Code of Virginia shall, separately or jointly, at the time they the localities initiate such petition to the court, submit to the commission data and other evidence responsive to each element listed in this section that is relevant to the boundary line adjustment.
1. A written metes and bounds description of the precise segment of the boundary for which an adjustment is sought having, as a minimum, sufficient certainty to enable a layman layperson to identify the boundary segment in question. The description may make reference to readily identifiable monuments, such as public roads, rivers, streams, railroad rights of way, and similar discernible physical features.
2. A map or maps showing: (i) the precise segment of the boundary that the parties agree should be adjusted; (ii) identifiable unincorporated communities; (iii) major streets, highways, schools, and other major public facilities; (iv) significant geographic features, including mountains and bodies of water; (v) existing uses of the land, including residential, commercial, industrial, and agricultural; and (vi) information deemed relevant as to the possible future use of the land.
3. The estimated past, the estimated current, and the projected future population and population density of all areas adjacent to the segment of the boundary proposed for adjustment and of other areas possibly affected by the proposed boundary line adjustment.
4. A land-use table showing both the acreage and percentage of land currently devoted to the various categories of land use in all areas adjacent to the segment of the boundary proposed for adjustment and in other areas possibly affected by the proposed boundary line adjustment.
5. The past, the estimated current, and the projected future number of public school students enrolled in the public schools and the number of school-age children living in all areas adjacent to the segment of the boundary proposed for adjustment and in other areas possibly affected by the proposed boundary line adjustment.
6. The assessed and true real property values, by major classification of those areas adjacent to the segment of the boundary proposed for adjustment and of any other area possibly affected by the proposed adjustment and other fiscal data relative to the issue.
7. Maps indicating the principal alternative boundary line adjustments which that have been considered by the parties and a brief statement as to how each alternative adjustment would promote the effective and efficient provision of public services.
8. Information as to why the proposed boundary line adjustment is sought by the parties.
9. The commission's staff shall endeavor to assist localities contemplating or involved in proposed boundary line adjustments by identifying additional data elements considered by the commission to be relevant in the disposition of boundary line adjustment issues.
1VAC50-20-601. City-town transitions.
In developing its findings of fact and recommendations with respect to a proposed transition of a city to town status, the commission shall consider the relevant information, data, and factors listed in this section. Any city filing notice with the commission that it proposes to become a town or any petition for the transition of a city to town status that has been referred to the commission by the court pursuant to § 15.2-4104 of the Code of Virginia should be accompanied by data and other evidence responsive to each element listed in this section that is relevant to the proposed transition.
1. Map or maps A map showing (i) the boundaries of the city proposed for transition and their geographic relationship to other political boundaries; (ii) identifiable unincorporated communities; (iii) major streets, highways, schools, and other major public facilities; (iv) significant geographic features, including mountains and bodies of water; (v) existing uses of the land within the city, including residential, commercial, industrial, and agricultural; and (vi) information deemed relevant as to the possible future use of the land within the city.
2. The past, the estimated current, and the projected future population and population of the city and the county affected by the proposed transition, and the estimated density of the city and the affected county.
3. A land-use table showing both the acreage and percentage of land currently devoted to the various categories of land use in the city and the county affected by the proposed transition.
4. The past, the estimated current, and a five-year projection of the future number of public school students enrolled in the public schools and the number of school-age children living in the city and the county affected by the proposed transition.
5. The assessed values, by major classification for real property, personal property, machinery and tools, merchants' capital, and public service corporation property for the current year and the preceding 10 years for the city and for the county affected by the proposed transition.
6. The current local property and nonproperty tax rates, and the rates for the preceding 10 years, applicable within the city and the county affected by the proposed transition.
7. The estimated current local revenue collections (including receipts from real property, personal property, machinery and tools, consumer utility, sales taxes, etc., and receipts from nontax sources) and intergovernmental aid, and the collections and aid for the preceding 10 years, for the city and the county affected by the proposed transition.
8. The identification of those services performed by the city that are proposed for assumption by the county as a result of the proposed transition, the number of customers or recipients of each service within the city that would be served by the county subsequent to the transition, and the aggregate annual cost to the county for the provision of services within the city.
9. The identification of those services that would be provided by the town subsequent to the proposed reversion, the number of recipients of each service within the municipality, and the aggregate annual cost to the proposed town for the provision of services.
10. The identification of those city-owned facilities that are proposed for transfer to the county, the identification of those that would be retained by the proposed town, and the current fair market value and the outstanding city debt attributable to each facility.
11. The current outstanding debt of the city, the applicable portion of debt stated as a percentage of the city's constitutional debt limit, and the current schedule for the retirement of all municipal debt.
12. The identification of that portion of the city's indebtedness that is proposed for transfer to the county and the purposes for which the debt has been incurred.
13. Estimates of the annual amount of tax and nontax revenues to be collected by the county within the municipality subsequent to the proposed transition.
14. Estimates of the annual additional amount of intergovernmental aid to be received by the county as a result of the proposed transition.
15. An estimate of the net aggregate fiscal impact of the proposed transition on the county during the initial year subsequent to the transition and during each of the ensuing five years.
16. An estimate of the adjustment required in the county's real property tax rate, assuming that the net aggregate fiscal impact on the county resulting from the transition is addressed solely by an adjustment in the rate.
17. An estimate of the net aggregate fiscal impact of the proposed transition on the city during the initial year subsequent to the transition and during each of the ensuing five years.
18. An estimate of the adjustment required in the municipality's real property tax rate, assuming that the net aggregate fiscal impact on the city resulting from the transition is addressed solely by an adjustment in the rate.
19. The effect of the proposed transition on compliance with and the promotion of applicable state policies with respect to environmental protection, public planning, education, public transportation, housing, and other state service policies declared by the General Assembly.
20. Specification of the terms and conditions that should be established by the court to balance the equities between the city and the county; protect the best interests of the affected localities, their residents, and the Commonwealth; and ensure an orderly transition of the city to town status.
21. The commission's staff shall endeavor to assist the parties involved in proceedings for the transition of a city to town status by identifying additional data elements considered by the commission to be relevant in the disposition of city to town transition issues.
1VAC50-20-605. County-city consolidations.
In developing its findings of fact and recommendations with respect to a proposed consolidation of a county and a city that would establish an independent city, the commission shall consider the relevant information, data, and factors listed in this section. Local governments Any local government filing notice proposing the consolidation of a city and a county to establish an independent city, or any committee of citizens that has been appointed by the circuit court to act for and in lieu of a governing body to perfect a consolidation agreement pursuant to § 15.2-3531 of the Code of Virginia shall, separately or jointly, submit to the commission data and other evidence responsive to each element listed in this section that they deem the local government or committee deems relevant to the proposed consolidation.
1. Copy of the consolidation agreement.
2. A map showing (i) the location of all municipalities situated within the proposed consolidated city; (ii) all adjoining and adjacent localities; (iii) identifiable unincorporated communities within the proposed consolidated city; (iv) major streets, highways, schools, and other major public facilities; (v) significant geographic features, including mountains and bodies of water; (vi) existing uses of the land, including residential, commercial, industrial, and agricultural; and (vii) information deemed relevant as to the possible future use of the property within the proposed consolidated city and as to its future viability.
3. The past, the estimated current, and the projected population of each locality proposing to consolidate.
4. The population density of the proposed consolidated city based on the most recent United States decennial census or as estimated by the Weldon Cooper Center for Public Service at the University of Virginia.
5. A land-use table showing both the acreage and percentage of land currently devoted to the various categories of land use in the proposed consolidated city.
6. The estimated current and a five-year projection of the future number of public school students enrolled in the public schools in each locality proposing to consolidate and the number of school-age children living in the proposed consolidated city.
7. The assessed values, by major classification for real property, personal property, machinery and tools, merchants' capital, and public service corporation property for the current year and the preceding 10 years for the county and the city proposing to consolidate and the proposed consolidated city.
8. The estimated local property and nonproperty tax rates that will be applicable within the proposed consolidated city.
9. The estimated local revenue collections, including tax receipts from real property, personal property, machinery and tools, merchants' capital, business and professional license, consumer utility, and sales taxes and intergovernmental aid, such collections and aid for the preceding 10 years, and projections of the collections and aid within each of the localities proposing to consolidate.
10. The amount of long-term indebtedness of each of the localities proposing to consolidate and the amount and purpose for which that debt has been incurred.
11. Data regarding (i) the urban-type services presently provided by each of the localities proposing to consolidate, (ii) the level of those services to be provided in the proposed consolidated city, (iii) the additional services to be provided and the additional cost to be borne by the proposed consolidated city, and (iv) the means by which the proposed consolidated city shall finance the additional services and costs.
12. The fiscal capacity of the proposed consolidated city to function as an independent city and to provide appropriate services.
13. The impact of the proposed consolidation on compliance with and the promotion of applicable state policies with respect to environmental protection, public planning, education, public transportation, housing, and other state service policies declared by the General Assembly.
14. The impact of the proposed consolidation on the interest of the Commonwealth in promoting strong and viable units of government in the area.
15. The commission's staff shall endeavor to assist the parties involved in proceedings for the consolidation of a county and a city that would establish an independent city by identifying additional data elements considered by the commission to be relevant in the disposition of city-county consolidation issues.
1VAC50-20-610. Voluntary settlement agreements.
In developing its findings of fact and recommendations with respect to a proposed agreement developed under the authority of § 15.2-3400 of the Code of Virginia, the commission shall consider the relevant information, data, and factors listed in this section. Local governments submitting a proposed agreement for review shall, separately or jointly, submit to the commission data and other evidence responsive to each element listed in this section that they the local governments deem relevant to the proposed voluntary settlement agreement.
1. If the agreement proposes a municipal boundary expansion, submissions should include data and evidence responsive to the relevant provisions of 1VAC50-20-540.
2. If the agreement proposes the immunization of areas of a county from annexation or the incorporation of new cities, submissions should include data and evidence responsive to the relevant provisions of 1VAC50-20-550.
3. If the agreement proposes the incorporation of a town, submissions should include data and evidence responsive to the relevant provisions of 1VAC50-20-570.
4. If the agreement proposes the transition of a town to city status, submissions should include data and evidence responsive to the relevant provisions of 1VAC50-20-580.
5. If the agreement proposes the transition of a county to city status, submissions should include data and evidence responsive to the relevant provisions of 1VAC50-20-590.
6. If the agreement proposes the transition of a city to town status, submissions should include data and evidence responsive to the relevant provisions of 1VAC50-20-601.
7. If the agreement proposes a revenue-sharing plan or similar arrangement by which jurisdictions will share the tax or revenue sources of an area, submissions should include:
a. A description of the plan;
b. Calculations indicating for each locality the projected future contributions to the plan for the next five-year period;
c. Each locality's projected net annual receipts or net annual contributions to the plan for the next five-year period;
d. Each locality's annual expenditures for the past five years and its projected annual expenditures for the next five years by general operating, school, and debt service categories;
e. Each locality's real estate and public service corporation property assessed values for the past five years and projected for the next five-year period;
f. Each locality's annual revenue for the past five years and projected for the next five-year period (exclusive of receipts from or payments to the economic growth sharing plan) by source and type;
g. Each locality's anticipated major capital needs for the next five-year period; and
h. Other information indicating the general equity of the proposed plan for each participating locality.
8. The commission's staff shall endeavor to assist localities contemplating or involved in the development of voluntary settlement agreements under the authority of § 15.2-3400 of the Code of Virginia by identifying additional data elements considered by the commission to be relevant to the commission's review of such agreements.
1VAC50-20-612. Voluntary economic growth-sharing agreements.
In developing its findings of fact and recommendations with respect to a proposed voluntary economic growth-sharing agreement developed under the authority of § 15.2-1301 of the Code of Virginia, the commission shall consider the relevant information, data, and factors listed in this section. Local governments submitting such a proposed agreement for review shall, separately or jointly, submit to the commission data and other evidence responsive to each element listed in this section that they the local governments deem relevant to the proposed agreement.
1. A copy of the proposed agreement and a description of the economic growth-sharing plan.
2. A description of the financial investment or other contributions which that each participating locality will make to the project(s) project envisaged under the agreement.
3. Projections of each participating locality's net annual receipts or net annual contributions to the project(s) project specified in the agreement for the next 10-year period, or for a lesser or greater period as deemed appropriate.
4. A description of any dedication or restriction on the use of funds generated by the project(s) project specified in the agreement for the participating localities.
5. Calculations indicating the estimated impact of the project(s) project proposed in the agreement on the annual operating expenditures of each participating jurisdiction for the next 10-year period, or for a lesser or greater period as deemed appropriate.
6. Calculations indicating the estimated impact of the project(s) project proposed in the agreement on the current and prospective capital expenditures of each participating jurisdiction over the course of the next 10-year period, or over a lesser or greater period as deemed appropriate.
7. Calculations indicating the estimated impact of the project(s) project proposed in the agreement on the debt and annual debt service of each participating jurisdiction over the course of the next ten 10-year period, or over the course of a lesser or greater period as deemed appropriate.
8. Information indicating the general equity of the proposed plan for each participating locality.
9. Other information which that would assist the commission in analyzing the "probable effect on the people" in the participating jurisdictions of the proposed agreement.
10. The commission's staff shall endeavor to assist localities contemplating or involved in the development of voluntary economic growth-sharing agreements under the authority of § 15.2-1301 of the Code of Virginia by identifying additional data elements considered by the commission to be relevant to the commission's review of such agreements.
1VAC50-20-616. Order defining a town's future annexation rights.
In developing its order defining the future annexation rights of a town pursuant to § 15.2-3234 of the Code of Virginia, the commission shall consider the relevant information, data, and factors listed in this section. Any petition referred to the commission requesting an order establishing a town's future annexation rights should be accompanied by data and other evidence responsive to each element listed in this section that the town deems relevant to the issue.
1. Information regarding the inability of the town and the county to reach a voluntary agreement as to the future annexation rights of the town.
2. Terms and conditions of a proposed order establishing the town's future annexation rights.
3. Data and evidence responsive to the relevant provisions of 1VAC50-20-540.
4. The commission's staff shall endeavor to assist localities involved in proceedings concerning an order defining a town's future annexation rights by identifying additional data elements considered by the commission to be relevant in the disposition of such issues.
1VAC50-20-620. Oral presentations by parties.
A. In the course of its analysis of any issue, the commission may schedule oral presentations for purposes of permitting the parties to amplify their submissions, to critique and to offer comment upon the submissions and evidence offered by other parties, and to respond to questions relative to the issue from the commission. The presentations, if scheduled, shall extend for a period of time as the commission may deem appropriate.
B. If oral presentations are scheduled by the commission, the chair shall select, subsequent to the receipt of recommendations from the parties, an appropriate site for the presentations. Recommendations by the parties regarding the sites should be based upon the adequacy of space for the display and movement of exhibits; the adequacy of seating arrangements for the commission, its the commission's staff, representatives of the parties, a court reporter, and the public; the adequacy of security at the site to permit materials to be left unattended during recesses; and the adequacy of the acoustical acoustic characteristics of the site to facilitate communications or the availability of a public address system.
C. Local governments or other parties desiring to present exhibits or data requiring special equipment should be prepared to provide such special equipment.
D. The commission may, where it deems appropriate, consolidate two or more interlocal issues before it for purpose of oral presentations.
E. The commission shall, within the requirements of law, conduct the oral presentations in the manner it considers best suited for reaching a decision in the best interest of the parties and in the best interest of the Commonwealth.
F. The chair, or other member the commission designated to preside during any oral presentations, may allocate time to the various parties as the chair or presiding member deems appropriate. The allocation of time shall be based upon the needs of the commission to review data, to examine witnesses, and to obtain an understanding of the relevant factors affecting the issue under review.
G. The sequence in which testimony will be received by the commission during any oral presentations shall be established by the chair or presiding member, but shall generally be as follows:
1. A brief opening statement by each party, if desired;
2. Presentation by the party initiating the issue before the commission;
3. Presentations by the local governments immediately affected by the action proposed by the initiating party, in an order established by the chair or presiding member;
4. Presentations by other parties, in an order established by the chair or presiding member;
5. Rebuttal where requested by a party and agreed to by the chair or presiding member.
H. The chair or presiding member may, to the extent the chair or presiding member deems appropriate, permit parties to question witnesses regarding submissions, their testimony, or other facts relevant to the issues before the commission. Where a party is represented by counsel, such questioning may be conducted by counsel.
Where the parties have prefiled testimony at the commission's request pursuant to 1VAC50-20-390 R, the questioning of individuals whose testimony has been prefiled shall be limited to a cross-examination of such testimony. The commission may accept additional oral testimony from individuals whose testimony has been prefiled during the presentations where good cause is shown. Where additional oral testimony is accepted by the commission, the commission shall provide an opportunity for other parties to respond to the testimony and to cross-examine the individual offering such testimony.
I. The chair or presiding member may, during or at the conclusion of the oral presentations, permit or request oral argument on the issues before the commission.
J. The commission, and its staff, may question any witness or representative of any party during the oral presentations regarding any submission, testimony, or other fact which that the commission considers relevant to the issues before it. The chair or presiding member shall endeavor to call for commission questioning in a manner designed to expedite the presentations.
K. The commission may accept depositions from persons unable to attend an oral presentation. Depositions shall only be accepted under conditions deemed acceptable by the commission, including conditions assuring ensuring an opportunity for all affected local governments to be present and to examine adequately examine the witness during the taking of depositions.
L. The parties or their counsel shall be expected to confer in advance of the time and date set for presentations in order to inform one another of their prospective witnesses and the order of their the anticipated appearance of the witnesses. All material, data, or exhibits proposed for presentation to the commission during the oral presentations and not previously will be made available to the other parties shall be exchanged or made available to the parties prior to presentation to the commission, subject to the qualifications in subsection M of this section and the public and on the commission's website whenever possible.
M. The commission requires that all materials, data, and exhibits be presented to it and made available to other parties in advance of the commencement of the onsite component of the commission's review. The commission may accept additional materials, data, and exhibits during the onsite component of its review upon unanimous consent of the members present. Where late submissions are accepted by the commission, the commission shall provide an opportunity for other parties to respond to the filings.
N. The commission may record by mechanical device, unless other recording arrangements are made by the parties, all testimony given during the oral presentations, but shall prepare a transcript of the recording only when deemed appropriate. The commission shall provide, upon request, any party a duplicate copy of the transcript or recording, if made, at a price sufficient to cover the expense incurred in accordance with the Department of Housing and Community Development's Freedom of Information Act policies. In lieu of recording by the commission, the parties may arrange to provide a court reporter at their the expense of the parties. Where a court reporter is utilized, the commission shall receive one copy of the transcript.
1VAC50-20-630. Public hearing.
A. In all cases where a public hearing is required by law, the commission shall conduct the public hearing at which any interested person or party may testify. The commission shall generally schedule the public hearing in conjunction with the oral presentations held, if any, with respect to the issue; however, public hearings regarding proposed town incorporations required pursuant to § 15.2-3601 of the Code of Virginia shall be held no sooner than 30 days after receipt of the court request for commission review.
B. Prior to holding the public hearing, the commission shall publish notice of the pending hearing as required by law.
In addition to the notice of public hearing required by this subsection, a town that is a party to an agreement defining annexation rights negotiated pursuant to § 15.2-3231 of the Code of Virginia shall give written notice of the commission's hearing at least 10 days before the hearing to the owners owner or their the owner's agent of each parcel of land included in the area proposed for annexation under the terms of the agreement. One notice sent by first-class mail to the last known address of the owners owner or their the owner's agent as shown on the current county real estate tax assessment books or current county real estate tax assessment records shall be deemed adequate compliance with this requirement, provided that the clerk of the town shall make an affidavit that the mailings have been made and file the affidavit with the commission.
C. The commission shall request the party initiating the issue before it and the other principally affected parties to place on public display in or adjacent to the office of the chief administrative officer of each principally affected local government copies of all materials which that are available to them the party and which that have been submitted to the commission for consideration with respect to the issue. The material should be made conveniently available to the public during normal working hours. The commission also encourages the parties to make available to the public other copies of the material at libraries, educational facilities, or available on their websites or at other public places in order that the public might have ample opportunity to study the material prior to the public hearing. The commission's advertisements published under subsection B of this section shall announce the availability of the material at the offices of the administrators and at other facilities as may be selected by the parties for display purposes.
D. The commission shall request the chief administrative officer (or other official) of each jurisdiction principally affected by the issue before the commission to make suitable arrangements in or adjacent to their offices the official's office for the registration of speakers at the public hearing. The commission shall furnish appropriate registration forms for that purpose. The commission's advertisements under subsection B of this section shall advise the public that registration to speak at the public hearing may be accomplished at the offices of the local administrators or, alternatively, through the offices of the commission in Richmond. The commission may also permit speakers to register at the site and at the time of the public hearing and shall request the assistance of the local administrative officers in making suitable arrangements for such registration.
E. The chair or other member of the commission designated to preside over the proceedings shall select the site for the public hearing subsequent to the receipt of recommendations from the parties. Recommendations from the parties should be based upon a site's accessibility to residents of the areas and jurisdictions principally affected, its seating capacity, the adequacy of parking facilities, the availability of a public address system, and seating arrangements permitting the commission to have proper visual contact with the public.
F. The commission shall request the parties to cooperate in the preparation of the site for the public hearing and shall request that a minimum number of maps and exhibits be placed on display at the site in order that persons any person testifying may identify their that person's residences, property, businesses, or other concerns in relation to the proposed issue.
G. The commission shall request the local jurisdiction within which the site for the public hearing is situated to make appropriate arrangements in order to assure ensure the security and the orderliness of the proceedings.
H. The chair or the presiding member shall determine the sequence of speakers at a public hearing, but the sequence shall ordinarily conform to the sequence of their the registration of speakers. The chair or presiding member may, however, vary the sequence of speakers in order that persons from all affected jurisdictions and areas, and those representing different perspectives, might have equal opportunity for the timely presentation of their comments.
I. The commission shall endeavor to allow any person or party wishing to speak at a public hearing an opportunity to do so. The chair or presiding member may establish time limits for the presentation of testimony as the chair or presiding member deems appropriate. The chair or presiding member may also rule testimony irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious. Proponents and opponents of a proposed action are encouraged to designate a chief spokesman for economy of time and for the avoidance of repetitious comment.
J. Any person or party testifying before the commission at the public hearing may extend their remarks in written form for subsequent submission. During the course of the public hearing, the commission shall establish a date by which the extended written comment must be received for consideration.
K. The commission may record by mechanical device, unless other arrangements are made, all testimony given during the public hearing but shall prepare a transcript of the recording only when it deems appropriate. The commission shall provide any person or party with a copy of the transcript or recording, if made, at a price sufficient to cover the expense incurred in accordance with the Department of Housing and Community Development's Freedom of Information Act policies. The parties may arrange to provide a court reporter, at their expense. Where a court reporter is utilized, the commission shall receive one copy of the transcript.
L. The commission may, where it deems appropriate, consolidate two or more interlocal issues for purposes of a public hearing.
1VAC50-20-640. Conclusion of mandatory reviews.
A. The commission may request or authorize the parties to an issue to submit, at a time established by the commission, a written concluding argument with proposed findings and recommendations.
B. The commission shall not accept for consideration or for inclusion in the record of a case any document, exhibit, or other material submitted after the date established by it for the close of the record. This regulation shall not preclude the commission's acceptance of data or information from any party at any time which that has been solicited by the commission or its staff.
C. The commission shall prepare an official record of all proceedings before it of such a nature and in such a manner as it deems appropriate.
D. C. The commission shall submit a written report on the issues presented to it in the manner and at such time as provided by law. The reports shall set forth findings of fact and recommendations on both the merits of a proposed action and, where appropriate and feasible, the financial aspects thereof. Copies of reports shall be made available to the parties and to members of the public requesting such that request a copy. The commission may charge a fee for copies of its reports in an amount sufficient to cover the cost of duplication, shipping, and handling accordance with the Department of Housing and Community Development's Freedom of Information Act policies and applicable law.
E. D. Subsequent to its review of a petition submitted by a town under the authority of § 15.2-3234 of the Code of Virginia, and based upon the applicable statutory standards, the commission shall enter an order granting annexation rights to the town. The order may grant the town annexation rights upon the terms proposed by the town in its petition or upon some other basis as the commission deems appropriate and consistent with law. The order shall in no event grant the town the right to annex county territory by ordinance more frequently than once every five years.
1VAC50-20-650. Statutorily invoked mediation in annexation immunity issues.
A. For purposes of this section, as the requirements in this section pertain to § 15.2-2907 E of the Code of Virginia, the following definitions shall apply:
"Initial notice" means the notice sent to the commission by a locality proposing an action pursuant to § 15.2-2907 A of the Code of Virginia.
"Annexation or partial immunity suit" or "suit" means a court proceeding intended to resolve an annexation or partial immunity dispute that is filed after the commission has issued its advisory report pursuant to § 15.2-2907 of the Code of Virginia.
B. When any county, city, or town seeks to negotiate an agreement with one or more localities relative to annexation or partial immunity under the authority granted by § 15.2-2907 E of the Code of Virginia, it shall notify the commission, and copies of the notice shall be served on all adjacent localities. The notice to the commission shall be accompanied by satisfactory evidence that the governing body of the locality giving notice supports the negotiation. Local governments negotiating under the above referenced provision of law § 15.2-2907 E of the Code of Virginia shall keep the commission advised of progress in the negotiations. If, after a hearing, the commission finds that none of the parties is willing to continue to negotiate, or if it finds, based on progress reports and with or without a hearing, that three months have elapsed with no substantial progress, it shall declare the negotiations to be terminated. Unless the parties agree otherwise, negotiations shall in any event terminate 12 months from the date the initial notice was first given to the commission of the desire to negotiate. Once the commission has declared negotiations terminated, or upon the expiration of the 12 month negotiating term or any agreed extension thereof 12 months after the commission's receipt of the initial notice, or upon any extension of the 12-month deadline agreed to by both parties, whichever comes first, no new notice to negotiate shall be filed by any party. Upon the request of the local governments negotiating under the authority of § 15.2-2907 E of the Code of Virginia, the commission, or its designee, may be requested to serve as mediator, and, in addition, the commission's staff and resources shall be available to assist the negotiating local governments. All expenses incurred by the commission and its staff in assisting with negotiations shall be borne by the parties initiating the negotiations unless otherwise agreed.
C. The commission will neither accept a notice filed under the authority granted by § 15.2-2907 E of the Code of Virginia before the initial notice is filed nor accept a notice after 12 months has passed since receipt of the initial notice, unless both parties agree to an extension.
VA.R. Doc. No. R24-7771; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Wildlife Resources is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-20. Definitions and Miscellaneous: In General (amending 4VAC15-20-100, 4VAC15-20-155, 4VAC15-20-160, 4VAC15-20-210; repealing 4VAC15-20-110).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Policy Manager, Department of Wildlife Resources, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 801-8199, or email aaron.proctor@dwr.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) remove a mandate describing motor vehicle use on department-owned lands; (ii) repeal a section providing requirements for paper licenses and records; and (iii) remove redundant text and text that restates statute.
4VAC15-20-100. Prohibited use of vehicles on department-owned lands.
It shall be unlawful on department-owned lands to drive through or around gates designed to prevent entry with any type of motorized vehicle or to use such vehicles to travel anywhere on such lands except on roads open to vehicular traffic. Any motor-driven vehicle shall conform with all state laws for highway travel; provided, that this requirement shall not apply to the operation of motor vehicles for administrative purposes by department-authorized personnel on department-owned lands. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the use of Class one or Class two electric power-assisted bicycles as defined in § 46.2-100 of the Code of Virginia where traditional bicycles are allowed. Class three electric power-assisted bicycles as defined in § 46.2-100 are prohibited. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the department from allowing the use of wheelchairs or other power-driven mobility devices by individuals with mobility disabilities in accordance with the federal Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (P.L. 101-336, 104 Stat. 327).
For the purposes of this section, the term "wheelchair" means a manually operated or power-driven device designed primarily for use by an individual with a mobility disability for the main purpose of indoor, or of both indoor and outdoor, locomotion. "Other power-driven mobility device" means any mobility device powered by batteries, fuel, or other engines, whether or not designed primarily for use by individuals with mobility disabilities, that is used by individuals with mobility disabilities for the purpose of locomotion, including golf cars, electronic personal assistive mobility devices, or any mobility device designed to operate in areas without defined pedestrian routes, but that is not a wheelchair within the meaning of this section.
4VAC15-20-110. Refusal to surrender licenses, permits, stamps, or records to department representatives. (Repealed.)
No agent, or any other person for him, in possession of issued or unissued hunting, fishing or trapping licenses, permits, stamps, or records pertaining to them, shall refuse to surrender upon demand such licenses, permits, stamps or records to department representatives authorized by the director to take such licenses, permits, stamps, and records into custody.
4VAC15-20-155. Camping on Wildlife Management Areas and other department-owned or department-managed lands.
A. Temporary dispersed camping, with no amenities provided, may only be performed on Wildlife Management Areas (WMAs) and other department-owned or managed lands when occupants are engaged in authorized activities and in strict compliance with established terms and conditions, including those listed in this section. Camping may be prohibited on certain portions or entire parcels of department-owned or managed lands, including certain WMAs.
B. A. Authorization. It shall be unlawful to camp without written authorization from the department. Written authorization to camp is required in addition to any and all other licenses, permits, or authorizations that may otherwise be required. Written authorization is obtained by completing and submitting a Camping Authorization Form. Only an individual 18 years of age or older who is a member of and accepts responsibility for the camp and camping group may be issued a camping authorization.
C. B. Camping periods. Unless otherwise posted or authorized, it shall be unlawful to camp for more than 14 consecutive nights, or more than 14 nights in a 28-day period on department-owned or controlled lands. At the end of the authorized camping period, all personal property and any refuse must be removed.
D. C. Allowed and prohibited locations. Back country camping is allowed. Adjacent to roadways, camping is allowed only in previously cleared areas. No vegetation may be cut, damaged, or removed to establish a campsite. Enclosed camping trailers or camping vehicles are allowed if they do not occupy the entire available parking area in that location. It shall be unlawful to camp within 300 feet of any department-owned lake, boat ramp, or other facility. It shall be unlawful to camp at other specific locations as posted. This section shall not prohibit active angling at night along shorelines where permitted.
E. D. Removal of personal property and refuse. Any person who establishes or occupies a camp shall be responsible for the complete removal of all personal property and refuse when the camping authorization has expired. Any personal property or refuse that remains after the camping authorization has expired shall be considered litter and punishable pursuant to § 33.2-802 of the Code of Virginia.
F. E. It shall be unlawful when camping on department-owned or managed department-managed lands to store or leave unattended any food (including food for pets and livestock), refuse, bear attractant, or other wildlife attractant unless it is (i) in a bear-resistant container; (ii) in a trunk of a vehicle or in a closed, locked, hard-sided motor vehicle with a solid top; (iii) in a closed, locked, hard-body trailer; or (iv) suspended at least 10 feet clear of the ground at all points and at least four feet horizontally from the supporting tree or pole and any other tree or pole. It shall be unlawful to discard, bury, or abandon any food, refuse, bear attractant, or other wildlife attractant unless it is disposed of by placing it inside an animal-resistant trash receptacle provided by the department.
G. F. Any violation of this section or other posted rules shall be punishable as a Class III misdemeanor, and the camping permit shall become null and void. The permittee shall be required to immediately vacate the property upon summons or notification. A second or subsequent offense may result in the loss of camping privileges on department-owned or managed properties.
4VAC15-20-160. Nuisance species designated.
A. The board hereby designates the following species as nuisance species pursuant to § 29.1-100 of the Code of Virginia.
1. Mammals.
a. House mouse (Mus musculus);
b. Norway rat (Rattus norvegicus);
c. Black rat (Rattus rattus);
d. Coyote (Canis latrans);
e. Feral hog (Sus scrofa; any swine that are wild or for which no proof of ownership can be made);
f. Nutria (Myocastor coypus); and
g. Woodchuck (Marmota monax).
2. Birds.
a. European starling (Sturnus vulgaris);
b. English (house) sparrow (Passer domesticus); and
c. Pigeon (Rock Dove) (Columba livia).; and
d. Other nonnative species as defined in the Migratory Bird Treaty Reform Act of 2004 and regulated under 50 CFR 10.13.
B. It shall be unlawful to take, possess, transport, or sell all other wildlife species not classified as game, furbearer or nuisance, or otherwise specifically permitted by law or regulation.
4VAC15-20-210. Definitions; nonindigenous aquatic nuisance species.
A. In addition to the species already listed in § 29.1-571 of the Code of Virginia, the board hereby designates the following species as nonindigenous aquatic nuisance species pursuant to § 29.1-100 of the Code of Virginia.
1. Fish.
a. Black carp (Mylopharyngodon piceus)
2. Invertebrates.
a. New Zealand mudsnail (Potamopyrgus antipodarum)
b. Rusty crayfish (Orconectes rusticus)
c. Chinese mitten crab (Eriocheir sinensis)
d. Marbled crayfish (Marmorkrebs – genus Procambarus)
B. It shall be unlawful to take, possess, transport, import, sell, or offer for sale within the Commonwealth any nonindigenous aquatic nuisance species except as authorized by law or regulation.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8431; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Wildlife Resources is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-30. Definitions and Miscellaneous: Importation, Possession, Sale, etc., of Animals (amending 4VAC15-30-40; repealing 4VAC15-30-10).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Policy Manager, Department of Wildlife Resources, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 801-8199, or email aaron.proctor@dwr.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) repeal 4VAC15-30-10 because the provisions contained in that section duplicate statute and (ii) remove an unnecessary provision regarding snakehead fish exemptions.
4VAC15-30-10. Possession, importation, sale, etc., of wild animals. (Repealed.)
Under the authority of §§ 29.1-103 and 29.1-521 of the Code of Virginia it shall be unlawful to take, possess, conduct research, import, cause to be imported, export, cause to be exported, buy, sell, offer for sale, or liberate within the Commonwealth any wild animal unless otherwise specifically permitted by law or regulation. Unless otherwise stated, for the purposes of identifying species regulated by the board, when both the scientific and common names are listed, the scientific reference to genus and species will take precedence over common names.
4VAC15-30-40. Importation requirements, possession, and sale of nonnative (exotic) animals.
A. Permit required. A special permit is required and may be issued by the department, if consistent with the department's fish and wildlife management program, to import, possess, or sell those nonnative (exotic) animals listed in the following table and in 4VAC15-20-210 that the board finds and declares to be predatory or undesirable within the meaning and intent of § 29.1-542 of the Code of Virginia, in that their introduction into the Commonwealth will be detrimental to the native fish and wildlife resources of Virginia.
EDITOR'S NOTE: The table in Subsection A of 4VAC15-3--40 is not amended; therefore, the table is not set out.
B. Temporary possession permit for certain animals. Notwithstanding the permitting requirements of subsection A of this section, a person, company, or corporation possessing any nonnative (exotic) animal designated with an asterisk (*) in subsection A of this section prior to July 1, 1992, must have proof that the animal was declared to the department in writing prior to January 1, 1993. This written declaration shall serve as a permit for possession only, is not transferable, and must be renewed every five years. This written declaration must include species name, common name, number of individuals, date or dates acquired, sex (if possible), estimated age, height or length, and other characteristics such as bands and band numbers, tattoos, registration numbers, coloration, and specific markings. Possession transfer will require a new permit according to the requirements of this subsection.
C. Exception for certain monk parakeets. No permit is required for monk parakeets (quakers) that have been captive bred and are closed-banded with a seamless band.
D. Exception for parts or products. No permit is required for parts or products of those nonnative (exotic) animals listed in subsection A of this section that may be used for personal use, in the manufacture of products, or in scientific research, provided that such parts or products are packaged outside the Commonwealth by any person, company, or corporation duly licensed by the state in which the parts originate. Such packages may be transported into the Commonwealth, consistent with other state laws and regulations, so long as the original package remains unbroken, unopened, and intact until its point of destination is reached. The person, business, or institution ordering such nonnative (exotic) animal parts shall keep documentation concerning the type and cost of the animal parts ordered, the purpose and date of the order, point and date of shipping, and date of receiving. Such documentation shall be open to inspection by a representative of the Department of Wildlife Resources.
E. Exception for snakehead fish. Anglers may legally harvest snakehead fish of the family Channidae, provided that they immediately kill such fish.
F. E. Exception for feral hogs. Anyone may legally trap feral hogs with written permission of the landowner, provided that any trapped hogs are not removed from the trap site alive and are killed immediately.
G. F. Exception for grass carp. Anglers may legally harvest grass carp of the family Cyprinidae only from public waters of the Commonwealth. It is unlawful to harvest grass carp from any public inland lake or reservoir. Anglers taking grass carp must ensure that harvested grass carp are dead.
H. G. Exception for Alabama bass. Anglers may possess live Alabama bass of the family Centrarchidae only on the body of water from which the fish were captured, provided that the angler does not live transport these fish outside of the body of water from which the fish were captured. Anglers may only release live Alabama bass back into the body of water from which the fish were captured. Anglers may legally harvest Alabama bass, provided that the anglers ensure all harvested Alabama bass are dead.
I. H. All other nonnative (exotic) animals. All other nonnative (exotic) animals not listed in subsection A of this section may be possessed, purchased, and sold, provided that such animals shall be subject to all applicable local, state, and federal laws and regulations, including those that apply to threatened and endangered species, and that no such animals shall be liberated within the Commonwealth.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8432; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Wildlife Resources is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-35. Birds: Incidental Take of Bird Species (amending 4VAC15-35-80).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Policy Manager, Department of Wildlife Resources, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 801-8199, or email aaron.proctor@dwr.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments remove general information required in the application for a permit authorizing incidental take of regulated bird species.
4VAC15-35-80. Permit procedures.
A. Required general information. A permit application must contain the following information: be completed and submitted to the department.
1. Applicant's full name and address, telephone number, and, if available, fax number and email address;
a. If the applicant resides or is located outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia, the name and address of an agent located in the Commonwealth of Virginia; and
b. If the applicant is an entity, a description of the type of entity and the name and title of an individual who will be responsible for the permit;
2. Location of the regulated activity;
3. Certification in the following language: "I hereby certify that the information submitted in this application is complete and accurate to the best of my knowledge and belief";
4. Desired effective date of the permit except where issuance date is fixed by the sector-specific plan under which the permit is issued;
5. Desired duration of the permit, if less than the default term for the sector-specific plan under which the general or individual incidental take permit is requested;
6. Date of application;
7. Signature or electronic signature of the applicant; and
8. Such other information or documentation as may be required by the applicable sector-specific plan.
B. Administrative procedures.
1. The department shall determine the completeness of an application and shall notify the applicant of any determination within 45 calendar days of receipt. Where available to the applicant, electronic communication may be considered communication in writing.
a. If, within those 45 calendar days, the application is deemed to be incomplete, the applicant shall be notified in writing of the reasons the application is deemed incomplete. If the application is resubmitted, all deadlines in this section shall apply from the date of receipt of the resubmitted application.
b. If a determination of completeness is made and the associated sector-specific plan does not require additional department review, the application is deemed approved and the applicant will be notified in writing.
c. If a determination of completeness is not made and communicated to the applicant within 45 calendar days of receipt, the application shall be deemed complete on the 46th day after receipt.
d. If the application is complete and the associated sector-specific plan requires additional department review, the department will take no more than 120 days to review. Bundled projects subject to prior approval of biennial standards and specifications as described in 4VAC15-35-90 may take up to 180 days. If, at the end of the designated review period, the department has not taken final action on the application or notified the applicant in writing of the need for an additional 60 days for review, the application shall be deemed approved.
2. During the review period, the application shall be approved or disapproved, and the decision communicated in writing to the applicant. If the application is not approved, the reasons for not approving the application shall be provided in writing. Approval or denial shall be based on the application's compliance with the requirements of this chapter and the applicable sector-specific plan.
a. If the application is not approved, the applicant shall have 45 calendar days to revise the permit application to bring it into compliance with the appropriate sector-specific plan or to appeal the decision to the director of the department under the department's dispute resolution and administrative appeals procedure. The applicant may request, in writing, an extension of the timeframe in which to submit a revised application, not to exceed an additional 60 calendar days. If the revised application is not submitted within the defined timeframe, the department will administratively close the application.
b. Upon submission of a revised application after denial, the department shall have 120 days to review and make a determination. If the application is denied again, the applicant will have 45 days after denial to appeal the decision to the director of the department under the department's dispute resolution and administrative appeal procedure. Any new revisions to the permit must be submitted as a new application.
3. Upon approval of an application for an individual incidental take permit, the department will provide the applicant with a permit, including terms and conditions. The applicant shall have 30 calendar days to appeal terms and conditions to the department director under the department's dispute resolution and administrative appeals procedures.
C. Permit issuance.
1. Denial. The department shall not issue a permit if:
a. The applicant has one or more of the disqualifying factors included in subdivision 2 of this subsection;
b. The applicant has failed to disclose material information or has made false statements as to any material fact in connection with the application; or
c. The department determines that the application fails to comply with the applicable sector-specific plan or any other applicable wildlife law, regulation, or ordinance.
2. Disqualifying factors. The department will provide written notice of any known disqualifying factors to the applicant. Any one of the following will disqualify an applicant from receiving or exercising a permit:
a. A conviction of, or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere by, the applicant or a representative of the applicant for a violation of the Lacey Act (16 USC § 3371 et seq.); the federal Migratory Bird Treaty Act (16 USC § 668 et seq.); the federal Bald and Golden Eagle Protection Act (16 USC § 668 et seq.); the federal Endangered Species Act (16 USC § 1531 et seq.); the Virginia Endangered Species Act (§ 29.1-563 et seq. of the Code of Virginia); or this chapter within the five-year period preceding the application, unless such disqualification has been expressly waived by the department in response to a request by the applicant.
b. The failure to pay any required fees.
c. The suspension of any other incidental take permit. The applicant is disqualified from receiving any additional incidental take permits as long as the suspension exists.
3. Fees. An application fee of $50 and a permit fee of $50 per year shall be due for each permit. The application fee shall be due at the time of application submittal, and no No application shall be processed until the fee is received. The full amount of the permit fee shall be based on the default duration of the permit and is due at the time of certification if no approval is required. If the department's approval is required, the full amount of the permit fee is due upon approval or issuance of a permit. The fees will be deposited into the Nongame Cash Fund and used for the conservation and management of regulated bird species consistent with § 58.1-344.3 of the Code of Virginia. No refund of any fees paid shall be made if a permit application is denied or if a permit is terminated prior to the expiration date.
4. Permit renewal. Applications for renewal shall meet and comply with all requirements for permit application and be submitted at least 90 calendar days prior to the expiration of an existing permit.
5. Modifications to permits. Permits may be modified with the department's approval in accordance with the following:
a. Applicant's request. Where circumstances have changed so that an applicant desires to have any condition of the permit modified, the applicant must submit a full written justification and supporting information to the department in conformity with the terms and conditions under which the permit was issued.
b. Department determination. The department may amend any permit during its term where circumstances have changed such that amendments to the permit are deemed necessary by the department. In such instances, the department will notify the applicant in writing 60 calendar days in advance of the effective date of any amendment. The applicant shall have 30 calendar days to appeal the decision to the department director under the department's dispute resolution and administrative appeals procedures.
6. Transfer of permits and scope of permit authorization.
a. Except as otherwise provided for in this subsection, permits issued under this part are not transferable or assignable.
b. a. Permits may be transferred in whole or in part through a joint submission by the applicant and the proposed transferee, or, in the case of a deceased applicant, the deceased applicant's legal representative and the proposed transferee. The department will review the submission and approve the transfer provided that:
(1) The proposed transferee meets all of the qualifications under this part for holding a permit; and
(2) The proposed transferee has provided adequate written assurances that it will implement the relevant terms and conditions of the permit; and
(3) The proposed transferee has provided other information that the department determines is relevant to the processing of the submission.
c. b. Except as otherwise stated on the face of the permit, any person who is under the direct control of the applicant or who is employed by or under contract to the applicant for purposes authorized by the permit may carry out the activity authorized by the permit. However, the applicant will remain responsible for ensuring compliance with all aspects of the permit.
7. Discontinuance of permit activity. When an applicant discontinues activities authorized by a permit, the applicant shall within 30 calendar days of the discontinuance notify the department of permit termination within 30 calendar days of the discontinuance.
8. Permit inspections. The department shall have the right to perform inspections of a permitted activity to ensure compliance with permit conditions. Written, including electronic, or verbal notice of such inspection shall be given on a business day, and the inspection shall not occur no less than one and no more than five business days from the date of the notice, except when the department determines that an emergency inspection is necessary.
9. Permit suspension and revocation.
a. Criteria for suspension. The privileges of exercising some or all of the permit authority may be suspended at any time if the applicant is not in compliance with the conditions of the permit, the sector-specific plan, or any applicable laws or regulations governing the conduct of the regulated activity. Such suspension shall remain in effect until the department determines that the applicant has corrected the deficiencies.
b. Criteria for revocation. A permit may be revoked for any of the following reasons:
(1) The applicant willfully violates any provision of the Virginia Endangered Species Act (§ 29.1-563 et seq. of the Code of Virginia); the federal Migratory Bird Treaty Act (16 USC § 703 et seq.); the federal Bald and Golden Eagle Protection Act (16 USC § 668 et seq.); the federal Endangered Species Act (16 USC § 1531 et seq.); or the conditions or a permit issued under those acts or this chapter; or
(2) The applicant fails within 60 calendar days to correct deficiencies that were the cause of a permit suspension.
c. Procedure for suspension and revocation.
(1) The applicant shall be notified in writing of the suspension or revocation by certified or registered mail. This notice shall identify the permit to be suspended, the reasons for such suspension, and the actions necessary to correct the deficiencies and inform the applicant of the right to appeal the suspension. The department may amend any notice of suspension or revocation at any time.
(2) The applicant shall be provided with an opportunity to appeal the suspension or revocation within 30 calendar days of mailing the suspension or revocation notice. Appeal may be requested by filing a written objection specifying the reasons the applicant objects to the suspension or revocation and may include supporting documentation. Amendment of a notice of suspension or revocation will allow the applicant another 30 calendar days to appeal the decision from the date of mailing notice of the amendment if they have the applicant has not already initiated an appeal.
(3) If, at the end of 30 calendar days, no appeal has been received by the department, a final order shall be issued suspending or revoking the permit.
(4) If the applicant timely submits an appeal, an informal fact-finding proceeding will be held within 30 calendar days, or at the option of the department or the applicant, a formal hearing may be scheduled as soon as may be practicable.
(5) Following an informal fact-finding proceeding or formal hearing, a final decision shall be made by the director within 30 calendar days of the informal fact-finding proceeding or receipt of a recommendation by any hearing officer.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8433; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Wildlife Resources is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-40. Game: In General (amending 4VAC15-40-200, 4VAC15-40-260, 4VAC15-40-280).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Policy Manager, Department of Wildlife Resources, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 801-8199, or email aaron.proctor@dwr.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) prohibit baited body-gripping traps on public lands; (ii) remove language prohibiting hunting of pen-raised game birds on Sunday; and (iii) remove a statement reiterating that in addition to an annual or lifetime hunting license and a big game tag, hunters who utilize Public Access Lands for Sportsmen must obtain a permit to hunt on lands managed by the department.
4VAC15-40-200. Restricted use of above ground body-gripping traps in excess of five inches.
It shall be unlawful to set above the ground any body-gripping trap with a jaw spread in excess of five inches when using any bait, lure, or scent;, provided, (i) that baited body gripping body-gripping traps with a jaw spread up to 7-1/2 inches may be used when the trap is within an enclosure with openings no greater than 60 square inches and the trap trigger is recessed at least 12 inches from all openings; provided further and (ii) that such traps must be staked to prevent them from turning over and may only not be used on private public lands with written permission of the landowner.
4VAC15-40-260. Sunday hunting on controlled shooting areas.
A. Except as otherwise provided in the sections appearing in this chapter, it shall be lawful to hunt pen-raised game birds seven days a week as provided by § 29.1-514 of the Code of Virginia. The length of the hunting season on such preserves and the size of the bag limit shall be in accordance with rules of the board. For the purpose of this chapter, controlled shooting areas shall be defined as licensed shooting preserves.
B. It shall be unlawful to hunt pen-raised game birds on Sunday on controlled shooting areas in Augusta County or in any county or city which prohibits Sunday operation by ordinance.
4VAC15-40-280. Department-owned, controlled, or managed lands; annual permit for hunting on lands managed by the department.
A. The open seasons for hunting and trapping, as well as hours, methods of taking, and bag limits for department-owned or department-controlled lands, or lands managed by the department under cooperative agreement, shall conform to the regulations of the board, unless excepted by posted rules established by the director or his the director's designee. Such posted rules shall be displayed at each recognized entrance to the land where the posted rules are in effect.
B. Department-owned lands shall be open to the public for wildlife observation and for hunting, fishing, trapping, and boating (as prescribed by 4VAC15-320-100) under the regulations of the board. Other activities deemed appropriate by the director or his the director's designee may be allowed by posted rules, by written authorization from the director or his the director's designee, or by special permit.
C. No person shall hunt on lands managed by the department through a lease agreement or other similar memorandum of agreement where the department issues an annual hunting permit without having purchased a valid annual hunting permit. The annual hunting permit shall be in addition to the required licenses to hunt, and the cost of such permit shall be the same as the cost of the annual state resident hunting license in § 29.1-303 of the Code of Virginia.
D. Activities that are not generally or specifically authorized in accordance with subsections A through C of this section are prohibited and shall constitute a violation of this regulation.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8434; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Wildlife Resources is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-90. Game: Deer (amending 4VAC15-90-280).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Policy Manager, Department of Wildlife Resources, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 801-8199, or email aaron.proctor@dwr.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendment removes unnecessary regulatory text requiring that muscle tissue not be attached to the saleable pieces of a cervid, which restates a prohibition in § 29.1-521 of the Code of Virginia.
4VAC15-90-280. Sale of cervid parts and cervid mounts.
Provided that no extraneous muscle tissue is attached, it It shall be lawful to purchase or sell the hair, hide, tail, sinew, skull, antlers, bones, and feet of a legally possessed cervid carcass or cervid carcass part, any products made from these deer parts, and cervid mounts.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8435; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Wildlife Resources is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-200. Game: Rabbit and Hares (amending 4VAC15-200-60).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Policy Manager, Department of Wildlife Resources, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 801-8199, or email aaron.proctor@dwr.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendment eliminates redundant language in the regulation.
4VAC15-200-60. Disposal of wild rabbit parts.
No wild rabbit carcasses or carcass parts may be discarded or disposed of directly on the ground. All such wild rabbit carcasses or carcass parts must be buried at least two feet below ground, incinerated, or securely bagged and discarded in household trash for ultimate disposal in a permitted landfill.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8436; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Wildlife Resources is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-240. Game: Turkey (amending 4VAC15-240-70).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: February 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Policy Manager, Department of Wildlife Resources, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 801-8199, or email aaron.proctor@dwr.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) remove the fall harvest cap of two turkeys and (ii) limit beardless (female) turkey harvest in a license year season to one in order to protect population numbers.
4VAC15-240-70. Bag limit.
The bag limit for hunting turkeys shall be one a day, three a license year, no more than two one of which may be taken in the fall beardless.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8442; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Wildlife Resources is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-275. Game: Hunter Education (amending 4VAC15-275-10 through 4VAC15-275-40, 4VAC15-275-60, 4VAC15-275-80; repealing 4VAC15-275-70, 4VAC15-275-90, 4VAC15-275-100).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Policy Manager, Department of Wildlife Resources, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 801-8199, or email aaron.proctor@dwr.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) consolidate recordkeeping requirements with certificate requirements; (ii) update the version of International Hunter Education Association (IHEA)-USA Standards, a document incorporated by reference, and a required form; (iii) remove test format and question number requirements; (iv) allow hunters to show proof of completion of a hunter education course instead of a certificate; and (v) eliminate language that is redundant to internal policy or IHEA-USA standards.
4VAC15-275-10. Application.
This chapter applies to any person who has never obtained a license to hunt in any state or country or any person who is younger than 16 years of age, unless such a person presents to the Department of Wildlife Resources or one of its authorized license vendors a certificate of completion or proof of completion in hunter education issued or authorized by the director or the director's representative under the hunter education program or proof that he the person holds the equivalent certificate obtained from an authorized agency or association of another state or country.
4VAC15-275-20. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly requires a different meaning:
"Accompanied and directly supervised" means, in the case of an apprentice hunter, that a licensed person older than 18 years of age maintains a close visual and verbal contact with, provides adequate direction to, and can immediately assume control of the firearm from the apprentice hunter. In the case of a hunter 12 years of age or younger, the term means that the licensed adult is within sight of the person the age of younger than 12 years of age.
"Adult" means the parent or legal guardian of the person age younger than 12 years of age, or such a person the age of older than 18 years of age designated by the parent or legal guardian.
"Approved course provider" is any individual, business, or organization that makes available to the hunting public a hunter education course that is approved by the International Hunter Education Association – United States (IHEA-USA) and is accepted by the department. An approved course provider shall have executed and have on file a valid cooperative agreement with the department. The department will make information regarding such approved courses and providers readily available for public access.
"Board" means the Board of Wildlife Resources.
"Department" means the Department of Wildlife Resources.
"Hunter education course" means a course offered in the classroom, through the Internet, or through an electronic format that provides course content and test questions that at a minimum meet the International Hunter Education Association-USA Education Standards, May 2, 2014 December 13, 2024, set forth by the International Hunter Education Association-USA (IHEA-USA) and are accepted by the department. A hunter education course shall include no less than 50 test questions, which shall include at least eight test questions specific to Virginia hunting laws.
"IHEA-USA" means the International Hunter Education Association-USA.
"Virginia Hunter Education Card" means a card authorized for issuance by the department to a person who has met the minimum standard of hunter education course competency. This card may be issued as an original or a replacement hunter education course card.
4VAC15-275-30. Provisions for compliance and minimum standards for hunter education course competency.
A. A person shall be considered in compliance with the requirements for hunter education if he the person meets one or more of the following provisions pursuant to § 29.1-300.2 of the Code of Virginia:
1. Completes and passes a hunter education course that is accepted by the department including a fully online course;
2. Is 16 years of age or older and has previously held a license to hunt in any state or country;
3. Is under the age of younger than 12 years of age and is accompanied and directly supervised by an adult who holds a valid Virginia hunting license; or
4. Holds a Virginia apprentice hunting license and is accompanied and directly supervised by a licensed adult hunter.
B. The minimum standards for hunter education course competency required by the department are: 1. Successful completion of a classroom-based hunter education course or through another format as determined by the department with a passing score of at least 80% on a closed-book written test administered closed book at the conclusion of the upon completion of an in-person classroom course by the designated course instructor or other designated course assistant as determined appropriate by the department; and 2. Successful completion of an Internet hunter education course that is approved by the department with a passing score of at least 90% on an open-book a self-administered test administered during the online in conjunction with the course material of a hunting safety education course delivered through the Internet.
4VAC15-275-40. Hunter education course provider requirements.
A. To be an approved course provider, any individual, business, or organization that instructs or provides a hunter education course shall execute and have on file a cooperative agreement with the department. It shall be the responsibility of the state hunter education program manager or his designee to develop and execute such agreements. A list of approved course providers and hunter education courses shall be kept by the department and made available to the public. Such list does not constitute any endorsement of any course or course provider by the department or the board.
B. A. As of January 1, 2016, any hunter education courses offered through the Internet and accepted by the department shall:
1. Meet the International Hunter Education Association-USA Education Standards, May 2, 2014 December 13, 2024, set by the IHEA-USA for course content; and
2. Be provided only by an approved course provider that has executed a valid cooperative agreement with the department. Such agreements may be amended at any time by the department and may be canceled with 30 days notice upon failure of the course provider to comply with the terms and conditions of the agreement or its amendments.
C. B. Any material or product to be used by an approved course provider that makes reference to the department must be approved by the department through the hunter education program manager or his the manager's designee before being published or distributed to the public.
D. C. Any fees charged by a course provider are set by the course provider, but must be clearly communicated to the student prior to the student taking the course. There will be no fees for Virginia hunter education courses provided by the department.
4VAC15-275-60. Hunter education course certificates, recordkeeping, and student records.
A. Upon successful completion of an online hunter education course, the approved course provider shall provide the student with a course certificate or wallet-size card. At a minimum, such certificate or card shall include the student's name and date of birth, the issuance date, the name of the course, and an indication of acceptance by the department. On a schedule and in a manner mutually agreed to through a cooperative agreement, each approved online course provider shall provide to the department a copy of the record of those students issued a course certificate or wallet-size card. Upon request by the student and subject to verification of successful course completion, it shall be the responsibility of each approved online course provider to issue a duplicate certificate or card.
B. Upon successful completion of the Virginia hunter education classroom-based course, the department shall issue a completion certificate or card, which shall include the person's name, date of birth, and the issuance date. Upon request by the person to whom the certificate or card was originally issued and subject to verification of successful completion, the department shall issue a duplicate certificate or card in accordance with its the department's policy.
C. The department shall maintain a database of all students who have successfully completed the department's classroom-based or online hunter education course. Such database shall include each student's name, address, date of birth, course or other compliance format approved by the department, and the specific name of the course.
D. Each approved course provider for hunter education courses offered over the Internet or through an electronic format shall maintain a database of all students successfully completing such course. The database shall include each student's name, address, date of birth, course completion date, and the specific name of the course.
4VAC15-275-70. Recordkeeping and student records. (Repealed.)
A. The department shall maintain a database of all students successfully completing the department's classroom-based or online hunter education course. Such database shall include, but not be limited to, student name, address, date of birth, course or other compliance format approved by the department, and the specific name of the course.
B. Each approved course provider for hunter education courses offered over the Internet or through an electronic format shall maintain a database of all students successfully completing such course. The database shall include, but not be limited to, student name, address, date of birth, course completion date, and the specific name of the course. On a schedule and in a manner mutually agreed to through a cooperative agreement, each approved course provider shall provide to the department a copy of the record of those students who successfully complete its course. Such record shall include the database information referenced in this section. It shall be the responsibility of each approved course provider to ensure that reasonable measures, such as the Payment Card Industry (PCI) data security measures, are taken to protect any acquired student data. Further, such data shall not be sold or otherwise used in any way except for the student's own completion of a hunter education course and issuance of course completion documents.
4VAC15-275-80. Instructor certification.
A. The department may designate as a hunter instructor any person found by it the department to be competent to give instruction in the courses required.
B. Volunteer instructors are designated to work on a voluntary basis and at the pleasure of the Department of Wildlife Resources department.
C. To be certified as a hunter education course instructor for the department's hunter education program, a person shall (i) have successfully completed a hunter education course and (ii) be certified as an instructor by the department or by a certification program accepted by the department.
D. Applicants for certified instructor shall submit an application to the department on a Volunteer Application form and in a manner determined by the hunter education program manager. At a minimum, the application shall include:
1. The applicant's name;
2. The applicant's street address;
3. The applicant's telephone number;
4. The applicant's email address, if any;
5. Information describing the applicant's experience and training in hunter and hunting and proof of completion of a hunter education course that is accepted by the department; and
6. Any other information deemed necessary after review of the initial application.
E. Applicants may be required to submit written consent for a criminal history background check in a manner determined by the department or an interview in a manner determined by the department and in accordance with state policy.
4VAC15-275-90. Virginia Hunter Education Card. (Repealed.)
A. The department may issue an optional long-lasting and durable Virginia Hunter Education Card to persons who can show that they have met the minimum standard of hunter education course competency pursuant to § 29.1-300.2 of the Code of Virginia.
B. Upon receipt by the applicant, the optional Virginia Hunter Education Card will serve in lieu of any other certificates or cards that have been issued to the bearer as a result of meeting the minimum standards for hunter education course competency. As such, the Virginia Hunter Education Card will not be transferable or revocable and will have no expiration date.
C. A person may apply for a replacement Virginia Hunter Education Card. A replacement card may be issued if (i) the original card is lost, stolen, or destroyed; (ii) misinformation is printed on the card; or (iii) if the bearer has legally changed his name. Supporting documentation may be required.
4VAC15-275-100. Fees. (Repealed.)
A. Pursuant to § 29.1-300.3 of the Code of Virginia, no fee shall be charged for the instructor's service.
B. Fees charged by an approved online course provider for hunter education courses other than the department's course are set by the course provider, but must be clearly communicated to the student prior to the student taking the course.
C. The fee for issuance of an optional Virginia Hunter Education Card, which will serve in lieu of a previously obtained hunter education course certificate or card, or a replacement Virginia Hunter Education Card shall be $10.
NOTICE: The following forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. Amended or added forms are reflected in the listing and are published following the listing. Online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may also click on the name to access a form. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 201 North Ninth Street, Fourth Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (4VAC15-275)
Volunteer Application (rev. 3/2015)
Volunteer Application for Hunter Safety Instructor (eff. 9/2025)
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (4VAC15-275)
International Hunter Education Association-USA Education Standards, Recommendations Submitted by the Standards and Evaluation Committee, May 2, 2014, International Hunter Education Association-USA, http://ihea-usa.org
International Hunter Education Association-USA Education Standards, Recommendations Submitted by the Standards and Evaluation Committee, December 13, 2024, International Hunter Education Association-USA, http://ihea-usa.org
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8437; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Wildlife Resources is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-290. Game: Permits (amending 4VAC15-290-80, 4VAC15-290-140).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Policy Manager, Department of Wildlife Resources, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 801-8199, or email aaron.proctor@dwr.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments remove (i) certain recordkeeping requirements for holders of a permit to stuff or mount birds and animals and (ii) requirements to carry and present a Harvest Information Program (HIP) registration.
4VAC15-290-80. Stuffing or mounting birds and animals - records; inspections.
A. A holder of a permit to stuff or mount birds and animals shall keep a complete record of all transactions. Such records shall include the species to be mounted or tanned; the date of receipt; the name, address and telephone number of the person for whom the work is being performed; the name of the person who killed the specimen (if different from above); the hunting license or Virginia driving license number of such person; the county where the specimen was taken or, if taken out-of-state, the state in which it was taken; and the date the completed work was returned to the customer. Such records shall be retained for three years. These records, and the premises where such business is conducted, shall be open to inspection by representatives of the department during normal business hours as required by the permit.
B. Upon receipt of any specimen of wildlife, a A holder of a permit shall immediately affix to such each specimen a tag bearing the designation of the species, the name and address of the customer, and the date the specimen was killed. Such tag shall remain affixed to the specimen, except when the specimen is actually in the process of being worked on, until it is delivered to the customer. A numbered tag, with numbers corresponding to the number of the line entry of the records required in subsection A of this section, may be used in lieu of that.
4VAC15-290-140. Possession and display of a harvest information program authorization to hunt migratory game birds.
Every person, whether licensed or exempt from being licensed, (i) must be registered with the Virginia Harvest Information Program (HIP) to hunt migratory game birds, including waterfowl, doves, woodcock, snipe, rails, gallinules, moorhens, and coots; (ii) must carry the HIP authorization on his person when hunting; and (iii) shall present it immediately upon demand of any officer whose duty it is to enforce the game and inland fish laws. The penalty for violation of this section is prescribed by § 29.1-505 of the Code of Virginia.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8438; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Wildlife Resources is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-320. Fish: Fishing Generally (amending 4VAC15-320-25).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Policy Manager, Department of Wildlife Resources, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 801-8199, or email aaron.proctor@dwr.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments remove creel limits for blue catfish on the tidal Rappahannock and York Rivers and in the portions of the James River below the freshwater-saltwater demarcation line.
4VAC15-320-25. Creel and length limits.
The creel limits, including live possession, and the length limits for the various species of fish shall be as follows, unless otherwise excepted by posted rules at department-owned or department-controlled waters (see 4VAC15-320-100 D).
EDITOR'S NOTE: The table in 4VAC15-320-25 is not amended since the proposed stage; therefore, the table is not set out. Find the proposed regulation at 42:4 VA.R. 491-492 October 6, 2025.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8443; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Wildlife Resources is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-330. Fish: Trout Fishing (amending 4VAC15-330-180, 4VAC15-330-190).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Policy Manager, Department of Wildlife Resources, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 801-8199, or email aaron.proctor@dwr.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments remove (i) bill of sale and record retention requirements for fishing pond operators; (ii) certain record retention requirements for persons raising brook, brown, or rainbow trout; and (iii) certain inspection requirements for trout aquaculture establishments.
4VAC15-330-180. Bills of sale for trout creeled in commercially operated fishing ponds.
The operator of a commercially operated fishing pond shall be required to furnish a receipt to each fisherman taking trout therein a bill of sale, which shall include the name of the fisherman, date, species and number of trout creeled from the pond. The fisherman shall retain this bill of sale receipt as long as the fish are in his possession and a duplicate of that shall remain with the operator of the commercially operated fishing pond and be made available for inspection by all authorized department personnel.
4VAC15-330-190. Trout artificially raised for sale.
A. Permit required. It shall be lawful to sell artificially raised brown trout, brook trout, or rainbow trout. Commercial aquaculture operations in Virginia that artificially raise and sell brown, brook, and rainbow trout must obtain a permit from the department.
B. Records. Any person who shall artificially raise brown trout, brook trout or rainbow trout for sale shall keep a record of the number and species, the number raised or, if imported, from whom purchased.
C. Inspection of premises or establishments. Any establishment raising trout or ordering, importing or possessing trout, as provided for in subsection A of this section, shall be open to inspection at all reasonable hours to any representative of the department.
D. B. Trout as bait. Artificially raised rainbow trout may be sold as bait for use in the James River and the New River, and in impoundments (ponds, lakes, and reservoirs), except impoundments listed as designated stocked trout waters, Lake Moomaw, and Philpott Reservoir. Persons possessing purchased rainbow trout for bait must have a valid invoice or bill of sale, specifying date of purchase, the number of trout purchased, and the name of an individual or business permitted to sell trout.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8439; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Wildlife Resources is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-340. Fish: Seines and Nets (amending 4VAC15-340-20, 4VAC15-340-40).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.1-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Policy Manager, Department of Wildlife Resources, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 801-8199, or email aaron.proctor@dwr.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments remove (i) the requirement that persons permitted to use a haul seine for personal use notify the regional law-enforcement office 48 hours prior to use and (ii) a provision regarding the inspection of dip nets by conservation police officers.
4VAC15-340-20. Haul seines to take fish for personal use.
A. Authorization to take fish for personal use. Pursuant to §§ 29.1-412 and 29.1-416 of the Code of Virginia, a permit to use a haul seine to take fish for personal use authorizes the holder of such permit to take nongame fish (except for those species listed in 4VAC15-20-130) with a haul seine for private table use, but not for sale in the counties of Franklin, Henry, and Patrick, and in those waters as specified in § 29.1-531 of the Code of Virginia in the county for which such permit is issued, except as otherwise prohibited in 4VAC15-320-100, 4VAC15-330-60, 4VAC15-330-20 (Repealed), and in waters listed in subsection F E of this chapter section.
B. Holder to be present when seine operated. The holder of a permit to take fish with a haul seine for personal use must be present when the seine is being operated but may have other persons to assist him who are not required to have a permit. However, those assisting the permittee or handling live fish or both must meet the fishing license requirements of the Commonwealth.
C. Length and size of haul seines. The length of a haul seine to take fish for personal use shall not be more than 60 feet in length. The minimum size of mesh shall be 1-1/2-inch bar mesh (3-inch stretch mesh).
D. Season to take fish with a haul seine. The season to take fish with a haul seine for personal use shall be from July 1 through September 30, both dates inclusive.
E. Department notification required to use a haul seine. Persons permitted to use a haul seine for personal use must notify the regional law-enforcement office a minimum of 48 hours prior to use.
F. E. Haul seine use restricted in certain areas. The use of haul seines for personal use is prohibited in the following stream sections of Franklin and Patrick counties:
FRANKLIN COUNTY
Roanoke River from County Route 634 crossing upstream to the Roanoke/Franklin County line.
PATRICK COUNTY
Smith River from Philpott Lake upstream including headwaters.
Rock Castle Creek from its confluence with Smith River upstream, including headwaters.
Dan River from VA/NC state line upstream to County Route 631 crossing.
Poorhouse Creek from its confluence with North Fork Mayo River upstream, including headwaters.
North Fork Mayo River from its confluence with Poorhouse Creek upstream.
4VAC15-340-40. Dip nets; generally.
A. Authorization to take fish with dip nets. A county dip net permit shall authorize the holder to take shad, herring, mullet, and suckers (daily creel (possession) limits for shad and herring are found in 4VAC15-320-25, there is no limit for mullet, and subsection D of this section provides limits for suckers), in the county named on the face of the permit with a dip net in inland waters, except where otherwise prohibited by local legislation or by the sections appearing in this chapter.
B. Persons required to have permit; inspection by conservation police officers. A dip net permit, or valid fishing license, shall be required for all persons using or assisting in the use of a dip net and permits, or licenses, shall be carried at all times while using such nets and shall be subject to inspection by conservation police officers.
C. Release of certain fish netted. All fish, except shad, herring, mullet, suckers, and carp, when taken with a dip net, shall be returned to the water alive with as little injury as possible.
D. Special provisions applicable only to suckers. The following special provisions shall apply only to the taking of suckers, with a dip net:
1. Not more than 20 may be taken by any person in one day;
2. The open season for taking same suckers with a dip net shall be from February 15 through May 15, both dates inclusive; and
3. Dip nets for taking such fish suckers shall not be more than six feet square.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8440; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD OF WILDLIFE RESOURCES
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The Board of Wildlife Resources is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act pursuant to § 2.2-4002 A 3 of the Code of Virginia when promulgating regulations regarding the management of wildlife.
Title of Regulation: 4VAC15-360. Fish: Aquatic Invertebrates, Amphibians, Reptiles, and Nongame Fish (amending 4VAC15-360-20).
Statutory Authority: §§ 29.2-103, 29.1-501, and 29.1-502 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Aaron Proctor, Policy Manager, Department of Wildlife Resources, 7870 Villa Park Drive, Suite 400, Henrico, VA 23228, telephone (804) 801-8199, or email aaron.proctor@dwr.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments remove an unnecessary definition of haul seine.
4VAC15-360-20. Taking minnows and chubs for sale.
A. "Haul seine," as used in this section, when used in the inland waters of the Commonwealth above where the tide ebbs and flows shall mean a haul seine not exceeding four feet in depth by 15 feet in length and when used in the public inland waters below where the tide ebbs and flows shall mean a haul seine not exceeding four feet in depth by 100 feet in length. Such a term shall be construed also to include umbrella type nets without limit as to size and also small minnow traps with throat openings no larger than one inch in diameter.
B. A. It shall be unlawful to take minnows and chubs (Cyprinidae) for sale from the inland waters of the Commonwealth.
C. B. Commercial bait operations must have a Permit to Hold or Sell Certain Wildlife or a Permit to Propagate and Sell Certain Wildlife. With the exception of those species listed in 4VAC15-20-130, these operations may possess and sell unlimited quantities of minnows and chubs (Cyprinidae), when possession is accompanied by a valid invoice or bill of sale from an individual permitted under subsection B of this section or from a properly permitted aquaculture facility in Virginia or out-of-state.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8441; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY
Fast-Track
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
DEPARTMENT OF ENERGY
Fast-Track Regulation
EDITOR'S NOTE: The Department of Energy submitted for publication on November 7, 2025, four regulatory actions amending Safety and Health Regulations for Mineral Mining (4VAC25-40). Each action removes a document incorporated by reference from the regulation. For clarity and concision, the actions have been combined for publication. Find, in the Basis, Purpose, Substance, and Issues statements and the Summary of the regulatory action, published pursuant to § 2.2-4007.05 of the Code of Virginia, consolidated agency statements. Find, in the economic impact analysis, all unique economic impact information prepared by the Department of Planning and Budget (duplicative analyses are consolidated).
Title of Regulation: 4VAC25-40. Safety and Health Regulations for Mineral Mining (amending 4VAC25-40-670, 4VAC25-40-4060, 4VAC25-40-4230).
Statutory Authority: § 45.2-103 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearing is currently scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: December 31, 2025.
Effective Date: January 15, 2026.
Agency Contact: Larry Corkey, Policy and Planning Manager, Department of Energy, 1100 Bank Street, Eighth Floor, Richmond, VA 23219-3402, telephone (804) 692-3239, or email larry.corkey@energy.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 45.2-103 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the Department of Energy to adopt regulations necessary or incidental to the performance of its duties or execution of its powers under Title 45.2 of the Code of Virginia or any other provision of law.
Purpose: These actions benefit public welfare by removing unnecessary documents incorporated by reference (DIBR) into the regulation. This action (i) improves clarity around mine safety regulation; (ii) removes redundancy in the regulatory catalog; (iii) provides a flexible, alternative pathway to protect the health, safety, and welfare of citizens and the regulated community through hands-on training incorporating up-to-date federal safety guidelines; and (iv) reflects current practice.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: This action is expected to be noncontroversial and therefore appropriate for the fast-track rulemaking process because it (i) removes duplicative, redundant, or obsolete requirements and (ii) provides alternative methods of compliance.
Substance: The action removes the following outdated DIBRs: (i) National Fire Protection Association 10: Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers; (ii) Bureau of Mines Instruction Guide 19, Mine Emergency Training; (iii) The American National Standard for Wire Rope for Miners; and (iv) Blasting Guidance Manual. In the case of Bureau of Mines Instruction Guide 19, Mine Emergency Training, a statement requiring training on emergency procedure replaces the incorporation, and for The American National Standard for Wire Rope for Miners, the statement "Nationally recognized standards" replaces the incorporation.
Issues: The primary advantage of this action is the removal of outdated and redundant regulations that are covered elsewhere in the chapter or are obsolete. The primary advantage for the agency or Commonwealth is improved clarity (i) through hands-on emergency training, (ii) around current mine safety and emergency trainings, (iii) around wire ropes and hoisting in mine operations, or (iv) around fire equipment safety in mine operations. There are no disadvantages to the Commonwealth.
Department of Planning and Budget Economic Impact Analyses:
The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order 19. The analysis presented represents DPB's best estimate of the potential economic impacts as of the date of this analysis.1
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Department of Energy (NRG) proposes to remove National Fire Protection Association 10: Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers, 2013 edition (Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers) from the list of Documents Incorporated by Reference (DIBR) and amend Section 670 of the regulation (Fire extinguishers).
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Department of Energy (NRG) proposes to remove Bureau of Mines Instruction Guide 19, Mine Emergency Training, U.S. Department of Labor, 1972 edition (Bureau of Mines Instruction Guide 19) from the list of Documents Incorporated by Reference (DIBR) and amend Section 4060 of the regulation (Mine emergency and self-rescue training).
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Department of Energy (NRG) proposes to remove The American National Standard for Wire Rope for Miners, M11.11980, published by the American National Standards Institute (American National Standard for Wire Rope for Miners) from the list of Documents Incorporated by Reference (DIBR) and amend Section 4230 of the regulation (Standards for wire ropes).
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Department of Energy (NRG) proposes to remove Blasting Guidance Manual, U.S. Department of Interior, Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, 1987 edition (Blasting Guidance Manual) from the list of Documents Incorporated by Reference (DIBR).
Background. This regulation sets out requirements for general safety at surface and underground mineral mines. In addition to the main regulatory text, the regulation includes several DIBRs, including the Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers. Per the regulations of the Virginia Code Commission, the material in a DIBR becomes the text of the regulation and an enforceable part of the regulation (1VAC7-10-140). 4VAC25-40-670 C currently states that All fire extinguishers required by this chapter shall meet the current standards established by the National Fire Prevention Association. In addition to removing the Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers from the list of DIBR, NRG proposes to eliminate 4VAC25-40-670 C. NRG states that 4VAC25-40-610 (Fire equipment) adequately addresses fire extinguishers. 4VAC25-40-610 in its entirety is as follows: Equipment and devices used for detection, warning, and extinguishing of fires shall be: 1. Suitable for the type of fire hazard that may be encountered; 2. Maintained in fire-ready condition as specified by manufacturer; 3. Strategically located, readily accessible, and plainly identified; 4. Of the type, size, and quantity that can extinguish fires of any class that may occur at the mine; and 5. Inspected at least monthly to ensure fire-ready condition.
Background. This regulation sets out requirements for general safety at surface and underground mineral mines. In addition to the main regulatory text, the regulation includes several DIBRs, including the Bureau of Mines Instruction Guide 19. Per the regulations of the Virginia Code Commission, the material in a DIBR becomes the text of the regulation and an enforceable part of the regulation (1VAC7-10-140). 4VAC25-40-4060 A currently states that On an annual basis all persons who are required to go underground shall be instructed in applicable sections of the Bureau of Mines Instruction Guide 19, Mine Emergency Training. In addition to removing Bureau of Mines Instruction Guide 19 from the list of DIBR, NRG proposes to amend 4VAC25-40-4060 A to On an annual basis all persons who are required to go underground shall receive applicable mine emergency training. Training shall include instruction on emergency procedures at the mine and mine emergency recognition.
Background. This regulation sets out requirements for general safety at surface and underground mineral mines. In addition to the main regulatory text, the regulation includes several DIBRs, including the American National Standard for Wire Rope for Miners. Per the regulations of the Virginia Code Commission, the material in a DIBR becomes the text of the regulation and an enforceable part of the regulation (1VAC7-10-140). 4VAC25-40-4230 currently states that The American National Standard for Wire Rope for Miners shall be used as a guide in the selection, installation, and maintenance of wire ropes used for hoisting, except in those instances where the recommendations cited herein are more stringent. In addition to removing the American National Standard for Wire Rope for Miners from the list of DIBR, NRG proposes to amend 4VAC25-40-4230 to say, Nationally recognized standards shall be used as a guide in the selection, installation, and maintenance of wire ropes used for hoisting, except in those instances where the recommendations cited herein are more stringent.
Background. This regulation sets out requirements for general safety at surface and underground mineral mines. In addition to the main regulatory text, the regulation includes several DIBRs, including the Blasting Guidance Manual. Per the regulations of the Virginia Code Commission, the material in a DIBR becomes the text of the regulation and an enforceable part of the regulation (1VAC7-10-140). Prior to 2018, the text of the regulation contained a requirement that ground vibration levels and airblast levels were to be taken from the Blasting Guidance Manual. This textual requirement was removed in 2018, but the Blasting Guidance Manual was not removed from the DIBR list. The department now proposes to remove the Blasting Guidance Manual from the list.
Estimated Benefits and Costs. NRG does not believe that the amendments would affect requirements in practice. Thus, there would be no substantive impact.
Estimated Benefits and Costs. The American National Standard for Wire Rope for Miners are American National Standard Institute (ANSI) standards. According to NRG, the proposed text would require compliance with a choice of different national recognized standards, which includes ANSI, Mine Safety and Health Administration standards, Occupational Safety and Health Administration standards, and manufacturers specifications. The agency believes following any of the national recognized standards would ensure safety. NRG does not believe that the increased choice of standards to follow would result in substantive cost savings for mineral mining operators.
Estimated Benefits and Costs. Removing the Blasting Guidance Manual from the DIBR list would have no impact beyond reducing the likelihood that readers of the regulation would be misled into believing the document was relevant for requirements.
Businesses and Other Entities Affected. The regulation pertains to the 432 mineral mining operations across the Commonwealth. The Code of Virginia requires DPB to assess whether an adverse impact may result from the proposed regulation.2 An adverse impact is indicated if there is any increase in net cost or reduction in net benefit for any entity, even if the benefits exceed the costs for all entities combined.3 As the proposed amendments neither increase net costs nor reduce net benefits, no adverse impact is indicated.
Businesses and Other Entities Affected. The proposed amendment could affect readers of the regulation. The Code of Virginia requires DPB to assess whether an adverse impact may result from the proposed regulation.2 An adverse impact is indicated if there is any increase in net cost or reduction in net benefit for any entity, even if the benefits exceed the costs for all entities combined.3 As the proposed amendment neither increases net costs nor reduces net benefits, no adverse impact is indicated.
Small Businesses4 Affected.5 The proposed amendments do not adversely affect small businesses.
Localities6 Affected.7 The proposed amendments neither disproportionately affect particular localities nor introduce costs for local governments. However, the proposed amendments of 4VAC25-404230 particularly affect localities with a greater amount of mineral mining. According to NRG, 91% of Virginia's counties have mineral mines. Costs for local governments are not affected.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments do not affect total employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed amendments neither affect the use and value of private property nor real estate development costs.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed amendments (in 8505) would not substantively affect the value of private property. The proposed amendments do not substantively affect real estate development costs.
_____________________________
1 Section 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia requires that such economic impact analyses determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the analysis should include but not be limited to: (1) the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom the proposed regulatory action would apply, (2) the identity of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, (3) the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, (4) the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation, and (5) the impact on the use and value of private property.
2 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 D: In the event this economic impact analysis reveals that the proposed regulation would have an adverse economic impact on businesses or would impose a significant adverse economic impact on a locality, business, or entity particularly affected, the Department of Planning and Budget shall advise the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules, the House Committee on Appropriations, and the Senate Committee on Finance. Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation.
3 Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation. As a result, DPB has adopted a definition of adverse impact that assesses changes in net costs and benefits for each affected Virginia entity that directly results from discretionary changes to the regulation.
4 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04, small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
5 If the proposed regulatory action may have an adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include: (1) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the proposed regulation, (2) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other documents, (3) a statement of the probable effect of the proposed regulation on affected small businesses, and (4) a description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia, if there is a finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules shall be notified.
6 "Locality" can refer to either local governments or the locations in the Commonwealth where the activities relevant to the regulatory change are most likely to occur.
7 Section 2.2-4007.04 defines "particularly affected" as bearing disproportionate material impact.
Agency Response to the Economic Impact Analysis: The Virginia Department of Energy concurs with the economic impact analysis conducted by the Department of Planning and Budget.
Summary:
The action removes (i) an outdated document incorporated by reference (DIBR), National Fire Protection Association 10: Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers, which is covered by Fire equipment (4VAC25-40-610), in order to remove redundancy while ensuring continued safety compliance and clear regulations regarding fire equipment; (ii) Bureau of Mines Instruction Guide 19 and replaces a reference to the document with a provision that training for those required to go underground must provide instruction on emergency procedures at the mine and mine emergency recognition; (iii) The American National Standard for Wire Rope for Miners and replaces a reference to the document with a requirement that nationally recognized standards be used in the selection, installation, and maintenance of wire ropes used for hoisting; and (iv) Blasting Guidance Manual, which is no longer referenced in the regulation.
4VAC25-40-670. Fire extinguishers.
A. Whenever a fire or its effects could impede escape from self-propelled equipment, a fire extinguisher shall be on the equipment.
B. Whenever a fire or its effects would not impede escape from the equipment but could affect the escape of other persons in the area, a fire extinguisher shall be on the equipment or within 100 feet of the equipment.
C. All fire extinguishers required by this chapter shall meet the current standards established by the National Fire Prevention Association.
4VAC25-40-4060. Mine emergency and self-rescue training.
A. On an annual basis, all persons who are required to go underground shall be instructed in applicable sections of the Bureau of Mines Instruction Guide 19, Mine Emergency Training receive applicable mine emergency training. Training shall include instruction on emergency procedures at the mine and mine emergency recognition.
B. On an annual basis, all persons who are required to go underground shall be instructed in the use of the individual self-rescue device provided to them. The instruction shall be given by a competent person using a training model of the same type as the self-rescue device provided to the employee.
4VAC25-40-4230. Standards for wire ropes.
The American National Standard for Wire Rope for Miners Nationally recognized standards shall be used as a guide in the selection, installation, and maintenance of wire ropes used for hoisting, except in those instances where the recommendations cited herein of this chapter are more stringent.
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (4VAC25-40)
1996 Threshold Limit Values and Biological Exposure Indices published by the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists
American Table of Distances, 1991 edition, published by the Institute of Makers of Explosives
National Fire Protection Association 10: Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers, 2013 edition
Bureau of Mines Instruction Guide 19, Mine Emergency Training, U.S. Department of Labor, 1972 edition
Blasting Guidance Manual, U.S. Department of Interior, Office of Surface Mining Reclamation and Enforcement, 1987 edition
The American National Standard for Wire Rope for Miners, M11.11980, published by the American National Standards Institute
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8504; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD ON CONSERVATION AND DEVELOPMENT OF PUBLIC BEACHES [REPEALED]
Fast-Track
TITLE 4. CONSERVATION AND NATURAL RESOURCES
BOARD ON CONSERVATION AND DEVELOPMENT OF PUBLIC BEACHES
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 4VAC45-10. Regulations Governing Application for and Use of Grant Funds to Localities (repealing 4VAC45-10-10 through 4VAC45-10-170).
Statutory Authority: § 10.1-107 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearing is currently scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: December 31, 2025.
Effective Date: January 15, 2026.
Agency Contact: Lisa McGee, Policy and Planning Director, Department of Conservation and Recreation, 600 East Main Street, 24th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 786-4378, fax (804) 786-6141, or email lisa.mcgee@dcr.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 10.1-107 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the Board of Conservation and Recreation to promulgate regulations necessary for the execution of the Public Beach Conservation and Development Act (Article 2 (§ 10.1-705 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 10.1 of the Code of Virginia). The third enactment of Chapter 89 of the 2003 Acts of Assembly provides that all rules and regulations adopted by the Board on Conservation and Development of Public Beaches shall remain in full force and effect until amended or rescinded by the Board of Conservation and Recreation and that the Board of Conservation and Recreation shall promulgate, as soon as practicable, any necessary changes to the regulations to complete the consolidation of the boards.
Purpose: This action will eliminate outdated and unnecessary regulatory provisions that no longer serve a purpose. The regulation governs the application for and use of grant funds to localities for public beach preservation, but the associated fund has not been replenished or used since before 2003. The repeal supports the public's health, safety, and welfare by promoting a clearer and more accurate regulatory framework, reducing confusion, and ensuring that the regulatory catalog reflects current governance structures and funding realities.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: This action is expected to be noncontroversial and is appropriate for the fast-track rulemaking process because it will promote transparency by providing a clearer regulatory environment for the public and localities by eliminating outdated provisions. In addition, this action will improve clarity by ensuring current regulations accurately reflect the existing governance structure.
Substance: The action repeals Regulations Governing Application for and Use of Grant Funds to Localities (4VAC45-10). The regulation outlines procedures and requirements for localities to apply for and use state grant funds for public beach preservation. However, the program has been inactive for over two decades, and the Board on Conservation and Development of Public Beaches, which originally promulgated the regulation, was dissolved in 2003.
Issues: Advantages to the public include improved transparency and clarity in the regulatory framework by removing outdated and unused provisions, which will ensure that citizens and localities are not misled by obsolete regulations. Advantages to the agency and the Commonwealth include reduced administrative burden and a more streamlined administrative code that accurately reflects current statutory authority and agency responsibilities. There are no known disadvantages to the public, the agency, or the Commonwealth.
Department of Planning and Budget Economic Impact Analysis:
The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order 19. The analysis presented represents DPB's best estimate of the potential economic impacts as of the date of this analysis.1
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of Conservation and Recreation proposes to repeal the Regulations Governing Application for and Use of Grant Funds to Localities (4VAC45-10).
Background. The Regulations Governing Application for and Use of Grant Funds to Localities (4VAC45-10) outline criteria for implementing a public beach grant program. However, funding for this program has not been available since prior to 2003, when the Board on Conservation and Development of Public Beaches was abolished. The Department of Conservation and Recreation believes it is highly unlikely that it would be funded in the future.
Estimated Benefits and Costs. The proposed repeal of 4VAC45-10 would have no impact beyond reducing the likelihood that some readers of regulations would be misled into believing that an extinct program still was active.
Businesses and Other Entities Affected. The regulation and program prior to 2003 affected localities that had beaches, but no entity (other than perhaps some readers of regulations) would be affected by repealing the regulation now. The Code requires DPB to assess whether an adverse impact may result from the proposed regulation.2 An adverse impact is indicated if there is any increase in net cost or reduction in net benefit for any entity, even if the benefits exceed the costs for all entities combined.3 Since the proposal neither increases costs nor reduces benefits, no adverse impact is indicated.
Small Businesses4 Affected.5 The proposal would not adversely affect small businesses.
Localities6 Affected.7 The proposed repeal of the regulation neither disproportionally affects particular localities nor affects costs for local governments.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal would not affect employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed repeal of the regulation does not affect the use and value of private property or real estate development costs.
_____________________________
1 Section 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia requires that such economic impact analyses determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the analysis should include but not be limited to: (1) the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom the proposed regulatory action would apply, (2) the identity of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, (3) the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, (4) the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation, and (5) the impact on the use and value of private property.
2 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 D: In the event this economic impact analysis reveals that the proposed regulation would have an adverse economic impact on businesses or would impose a significant adverse economic impact on a locality, business, or entity particularly affected, the Department of Planning and Budget shall advise the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules, the House Committee on Appropriations, and the Senate Committee on Finance. Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation.
3 Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation. As a result, DPB has adopted a definition of adverse impact that assesses changes in net costs and benefits for each affected Virginia entity that directly results from discretionary changes to the regulation.
4 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04, small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
5 If the proposed regulatory action may have an adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include: (1) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the proposed regulation, (2) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other documents, (3) a statement of the probable effect of the proposed regulation on affected small businesses, and (4) a description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia, if there is a finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules shall be notified.
6 "Locality" can refer to either local governments or the locations in the Commonwealth where the activities relevant to the regulatory change are most likely to occur.
7 Section 2.2-4007.04 defines "particularly affected" as bearing disproportionate material impact.
Agency Response to the Economic Impact Analysis: The Board for Conservation and Recreation concurs with the economic impact analysis performed by the Department of Planning and Budget.
Summary:
The action repeals Regulations Governing Application for and Use of Grant Funds to Localities (4VAC45-10), which is obsolete.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8411; Filed October 28, 2025
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Fast-Track
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 8VAC20-340. Regulations Governing Driver Education (amending 8VAC20-340-40).
Statutory Authority: §§ 22.1-16 and 22.1-205 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearing is currently scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: December 31, 2025.
Effective Date: January 15, 2026.
Agency Contact: Jim Chapman, Director of Board Relations, Department of Education, James Monroe Building, 101 North 14th Street, 25th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 750-8750, or email jim.chapman@doe.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 22.1-16 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the State Board of Education to promulgate regulations necessary to carry out its powers and duties and the provisions of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia. Section 22.1-205 of the Code of the Virginia requires the board to approve correspondence courses for the classroom training component of driver education.
Purpose: This action is essential to the public health, safety, and welfare because it ensures that the public is referencing the most up-to-date information available.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: This action is expected to be noncontroversial and therefore appropriate for the fast-track rulemaking process because it does not change underlying board policy, but instead refers back to underlying statute.
Substance: The action removes a Document Incorporated by Reference, Curriculum and Administrative Guide for Driver Education in Virginia, and replaces a reference to the guide with a reference to statutory requirements.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public is clarity regarding the most up-to-date material relevant to instructional programs for driver education provided by the Department of Education. The primary advantage to the agency is that users will be aware that they should refer to the most up-to-date material available. There are no disadvantages to the public or Commonwealth from the proposed regulatory change.
Department of Planning and Budget Economic Impact Analysis:
The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order 19. The analysis presented represents DPB's best estimate of the potential economic impacts as of the date of this analysis.1
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The State Board of Education (board) proposes to repeal obsolete documents incorporated by reference (DIBRs) pertaining to driver education correspondence courses that address program administration, classroom modules, and a resource list.
Background. This regulation sets out rules for approval of correspondence courses for driver education. In addition to the main regulatory text, the regulation includes several DIBRs: one DIBR addressing program administration, eleven DIBRs for classroom modules, and one for a resource list. Per the regulations of the Virginia Code Commission, the material in a DIBR becomes the text of the regulation and an enforceable part of the regulation (1VAC7-10-140). However, according to the Department of Education (DOE), the use of DIBRs is more prescriptive than the Code requires. Specifically, § 22.1-205 F of the Code of Virginia states that the "correspondence courses shall be consistent in quality with instructional programs developed by the Board for classroom training in the public schools." According to the agency, this mandate is currently met by the 2022 version of the Driver Education Standards of Learning (SOL) for Virginia Public Schools2 which the agency has been enforcing in practice in lieu of using the DIBRs in this regulation. (The agency adds that the Driver Education SOL may be supplemented by other documents that update the SOL or add content, as may be required by federal or state statute from time to time. This is a regular practice because the SOL are on a seven-year review cycle.) Accordingly, the Driver Education SOL may not, on its own, constitute the instructional programs developed by the board. In addition, DOE states that repealing the DIBRs will remove a restriction, noting that the time requirement of § 22.1-205 F allows correspondence courses to be innovative, and that correspondence courses are allowed to surpass the quality of the instructional programs developed by the board. The repeal will therefore allow innovation to occur, consistent with statute, that cannot occur if the DIBRs are in effect. Thus, in this action the board proposes to repeal the DIBRs that are not enforced in practice and are more restrictive than the statutory directive.
Estimated Benefits and Costs. The proposal to repeal DIBRs should not create any significant economic impact other than avoiding potential confusion for the readers of the regulation since they have not been enforced in practice.
Businesses and Other Entities Affected. According to DOE, there are eight approved correspondence courses, with one application currently under review. No correspondence course appears to be disproportionately affected. The Code of Virginia requires DPB to assess whether an adverse impact may result from the proposed regulation.3 An adverse impact is indicated if there is any increase in net cost or reduction in net benefit for any entity, even if the benefits exceed the costs for all entities combined.4 The proposal would not increase costs or reduce revenues of regulated entities. Thus, no adverse impact is indicated.
Small Businesses5 Affected.6 The proposed repeal of DIBRs does not adversely affect small businesses.
Localities7 Affected.8 The proposal does not introduce costs for localities, nor does it disproportionately affect any locality.
Projected Impact on Employment. No impact on employment is expected.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. No impact on the use and value of private property nor on real estate development costs is expected.
_____________________________
1 Section 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia requires that such economic impact analyses determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the analysis should include but not be limited to: (1) the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom the proposed regulatory action would apply, (2) the identity of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, (3) the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, (4) the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation, and (5) the impact on the use and value of private property.
2 https://www.doe.virginia.gov/teaching-learning-assessment/instruction/driver-education.
3 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 D: In the event this economic impact analysis reveals that the proposed regulation would have an adverse economic impact on businesses or would impose a significant adverse economic impact on a locality, business, or entity particularly affected, the Department of Planning and Budget shall advise the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules, the House Committee on Appropriations, and the Senate Committee on Finance. Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation.
4 Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation. As a result, DPB has adopted a definition of adverse impact that assesses changes in net costs and benefits for each affected Virginia entity that directly results from discretionary changes to the regulation.
5 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04, small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
6 If the proposed regulatory action may have an adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include: (1) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the proposed regulation, (2) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other documents, (3) a statement of the probable effect of the proposed regulation on affected small businesses, and (4) a description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia, if there is a finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules shall be notified.
7 "Locality" can refer to either local governments or the locations in the Commonwealth where the activities relevant to the regulatory change are most likely to occur.
8 Section 2.2-4007.04 defines "particularly affected" as bearing disproportionate material impact.
Agency Response to the Economic Impact Analysis: The State Board of Education thanks the Department of Planning and Budget for its thorough economic impact analysis concerning this action.
Summary:
The amendments (i) remove Curriculum and Administrative Guide for Driver Education in Virginia, a document incorporated by reference into the regulation and (ii) replace a reference to the guide with a reference to statutory requirements.
8VAC20-340-40. Approval of correspondence courses for driver education.
A. Required submissions. Schools seeking approval to offer the classroom portion of a driver education program to school-age children through a correspondence program or course in Virginia shall submit the following:
1. A signed and completed copy of the department's affidavit form.
2. A catalog or other documents containing the following information:
a. A statement of ownership or control of the institution;
b. Descriptions of the driver education courses offered by the institution;
c. A description of the method used to evaluate the students' student work;
d. A schedule of tuition and fees, including the school's refund policies; and
e. Copies of all application forms and enrollment agreements used by the school.
3. Verification of approval or exemption from regular oversight from the appropriate state or local government agency in the school's state of domicile.
4. Information regarding the school's accreditation status.
5. The name and publisher of the textbook required.
6. An estimate of the minimum amount of time (in hours) required to complete the course.
7. Such additional information as the board or department may deem necessary.
B. All schools must evaluate the students' student work at regular intervals specified by the department and maintain a permanent record of the work.
C. Each school meeting the criteria listed in this section is required to submit the required materials for review every year concurrent with the renewal affidavit.
D. Approval criteria. Driver education courses offered by schools submitting the materials required by this section shall be approved when the following criteria have been met:
1. The school is, in fact, a correspondence school as defined in 8VAC20-340-5;
2. The courses offered are consistent with state or federal laws or regulations, including § 22.1-205 F of the Code of Virginia; and
3. The school evaluates the students' student progress at regular intervals specified by the department and maintains a permanent record of that work; and
4. The content of each course is accurate and rigorous and meets the requirements of the Curriculum and Administrative Guide for Driver Education in Virginia, 2010 edition, which includes the Driver Education Standards of Learning.
The school must provide evidence that at least two subject matter experts have reviewed and validated the accuracy of online content and textbook materials.
E. An application shall be complete when all required information has been submitted in the form required by the department. If the department, on behalf of the board, determines the application to be incomplete, the department shall notify the applicant of the insufficiencies in writing within 45 days of receipt of the incomplete application. The applicant must submit the required items to complete the application, to be received by the department within 45 days from the notification. If the application is not completed within the 45-day period, the case file for the request for approval as a provider will be closed. At any time prior to closure, the applicant may withdraw the request for approval. The applicant may submit a new application at any time.
F. Approval, denial, and revocation.
1. The department, on behalf of the board, shall notify applicants in writing when an application is approved.
2. Applications that do not meet the criteria required by subsections A, B, and D of this section shall be denied. The department shall notify applicants in writing of the denial, stating the reasons the application was denied and including the applicant's right to request the board to reconsider the application, pursuant to subsection G of this section.
3. An approved application may be revoked for good cause, which includes, but is not limited to, the conviction of the applicant, or any employee thereof, of (i) any felony or (ii) any offense involving the sexual molestation, physical or sexual abuse, or rape of a child.
G. Reconsideration by the Board of Education when an application is denied or when approval is revoked. A school whose application has been denied or whose approval has been revoked for good cause may request reconsideration by letter to the board. The letter of request shall include the reasons that the school believes the denial or revocation was inappropriate and shall document how it the school has corrected any insufficiency identified in the letter of denial or revocation. The board's decision on reconsideration shall be final on that application; however, a denial of reconsideration shall not prevent the school from submitting a new application at a later time.
H. Determination of continued compliance. Approval of the academic courses shall be renewed annually on or before August 1, provided that the school verifies that it continues to meet the requirements of this section. Forms for this purpose shall be provided by the department.
I. Disclaimer. The Board of Education's approval of a correspondence course is not an endorsement of the program as a substitute for public school programs nor is it an endorsement of the educational or operational philosophy of the school. Additionally, the approval of courses is not intended as an endorsement of the quality of the courses nor is it a conclusion that these courses meet the educational needs of the student or the assessment required by § 22.1-254.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Parents who choose to educate their children at home through a driver education correspondence course are directly responsible for the educational progress of their those children and the adequacy of instruction. The board assumes no liability for damages or financial loss to parents using any of the approved driver education correspondence courses.
J. Restrictions. No school whose courses are approved as a driver education program shall advertise in any way that the courses have the endorsement, recommendation, accreditation, or recognition, or any other similar term, of the board, the department, or the Commonwealth of Virginia.
K. Transmitting the affidavit, documents, and other materials. The affidavit, related letters, forms, and other required application materials must be submitted to the Division of Instruction at the Virginia Department of Education by email to the Driver Education Specialist, whose contact information may be found at http://www.doe.virginia.gov/directories/index.shtml#vdoe.
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (8VAC20-340)
Curriculum and Administrative Guide for Driver Education in Virginia, 2010 Edition (includes Driver Education Standards of Learning, revised January 2008), Virginia Department of Education
Program Administration
Module One – Virginia Driver Responsibilities: Licensing Responsibilities
Module Two – Virginia Driver Responsibilities: Preparing to Operate a Vehicle
Module Three – Basic Maneuvering Tasks: Low Risk Environment
Module Four – Basic Maneuvering Tasks: Moderate Risk Driving Environment
Module Five – Information Processing: Moderate Risk Driving Environment
Module Six – Information Processing: Complex Risk Environments
Module Seven – Driver Performance: Personal Factors
Module Eight – Driver Responsibilities: Adverse Conditions
Module Nine – Driver Responsibilities: Vehicle Functions
Module Ten – Driver Responsibilities: Making Informed Choices
Module Eleven – Laboratory Instruction – Behind-the-Wheel and In-Car Observation
Resource List
No document is currently incorporated by reference into this regulation.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8342; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Fast-Track
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 8VAC20-450. Regulations Governing Professional Development (repealing 8VAC20-450-10 through 8VAC20-450-50).
Statutory Authority: § 22.1-16 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearing is currently scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: December 31, 2025.
Effective Date: January 15, 2026.
Agency Contact: Jim Chapman, Director of Board Relations, Department of Education, James Monroe Building, 101 North 14th Street, 25th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 750-8750, or email jim.chapman@doe.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 22.1-16 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the State Board of Education to promulgate regulations necessary to carry out its powers and duties and the provisions of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Purpose: This action is essential to protect the health, safety, and welfare of citizens because it removes outdated language that conflicts with other regulations.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: This action is expected to be noncontroversial and therefore appropriate for the fast-track rulemaking process because it removes language that is no longer in use.
Substance: The action repeals Regulations Governing Professional Development (8VAC20-450), which is obsolete.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public and the Commonwealth is that outdated, conflicting information will be removed from the board's regulatory catalog. There are no disadvantages to the public or Commonwealth.
Department of Planning and Budget Economic Impact Analysis:
The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order 19. The analysis presented represents DPB's best estimate of the potential economic impacts as of the date of this analysis.1
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The State Board of Education (board) proposes to repeal 8VAC20-450, Regulations Governing Professional Development.
Background. According to the Department of Education (DOE), the statutory authority for this regulation was derived from Chapter 13.1 of The Standards of Quality, which was repealed by Chapters 645 and 682 of the 1988 Acts of the Assembly. The agency states that the regulation is no longer current and conflicts with other regulatory chapters concerning professional development.
Estimated Benefits and Costs. Since the regulation is no longer current and conflicts with other regulatory chapters concerning professional development, its repeal would have no impact beyond reducing the likelihood that readers of regulations would be misled concerning the current professional development requirements.
Businesses and Other Entities Affected. The repeal of the regulation could affect readers of DOE regulations. The Code requires DPB to assess whether an adverse impact may result from the proposed regulation.2 An adverse impact is indicated if there is any increase in net cost or reduction in net benefit for any entity, even if the benefits exceed the costs for all entities combined.3 As the repeal of the regulation would neither increase costs nor reduce benefits for any entity, no adverse impact is indicated.
Small Businesses4 Affected.5 The proposed repeal does not adversely affect small businesses.
Localities6 Affected.7 The proposed repeal neither disproportionately affects particular localities nor introduces costs for local governments.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed repeal does not affect employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed repeal does not affect either the use and value of private property or real estate development costs.
_____________________________
1 Section 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia requires that such economic impact analyses determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the analysis should include but not be limited to: (1) the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom the proposed regulatory action would apply, (2) the identity of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, (3) the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, (4) the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation, and (5) the impact on the use and value of private property.
2 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 D: In the event this economic impact analysis reveals that the proposed regulation would have an adverse economic impact on businesses or would impose a significant adverse economic impact on a locality, business, or entity particularly affected, the Department of Planning and Budget shall advise the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules, the House Committee on Appropriations, and the Senate Committee on Finance. Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation.
3 Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation. As a result, DPB has adopted a definition of adverse impact that assesses changes in net costs and benefits for each affected Virginia entity that directly results from discretionary changes to the regulation.
4 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04, small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
5 If the proposed regulatory action may have an adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include: (1) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the proposed regulation, (2) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other documents, (3) a statement of the probable effect of the proposed regulation on affected small businesses, and (4) a description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia, if there is a finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules shall be notified.
6 "Locality" can refer to either local governments or the locations in the Commonwealth where the activities relevant to the regulatory change are most likely to occur.
7 Section 2.2-4007.04 defines "particularly affected" as bearing disproportionate material impact.
Agency Response to the Economic Impact Analysis: The State Board of Education thanks the Department of Planning and Budget for its thorough economic impact analysis concerning this action.
Summary:
The action repeals Regulations Governing Professional Development (8VAC20-450), which is obsolete.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8393; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Fast-Track
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Fast-Track Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 8VAC20-620. Regulations Regarding School Guidance and Counseling Programs in the Public Schools of Virginia (repealing 8VAC20-620-10).
8VAC20-720. Regulations Governing Local School Boards and School Divisions (adding 8VAC20-720-50).
Statutory Authority: § 22.1-16 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearing is currently scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: December 31, 2025.
Effective Date: January 15, 2026.
Agency Contact: Jim Chapman, Director of Board Relations, Department of Education, James Monroe Building, 101 North 14th Street, 25th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 750-8750, or email jim.chapman@doe.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 22.1-16 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the State Board of Education to promulgate regulations necessary to carry out its powers and duties and the provisions of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Purpose: This action is essential to protect the health, safety, or welfare of citizens because it (i) amends the language to match language used in statute, which better reflects the role and scope of responsibilities of school counselors, and (ii) streamlines the board's regulatory catalog.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: This action is expected to be noncontroversial and therefore appropriate for the fast-track rulemaking process because it aligns terminology with statute.
Substance: The amendments (i) repeal Regulations Regarding School Guidance and Counseling Programs in the Public Schools of Virginia (8VAC20-620); (ii) move the provisions of 8VAC20-620 to a new section in Regulations Governing Local School Boards and School Divisions (8VAC20-720), 8VAC20-720-50; and (iii) replace references to "guidance" with references to "counseling" pursuant to Chapter 139 of the 2019 Acts of Assembly.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public and the Commonwealth is that the regulation will use language consistent with statute and accurately reflect the role of a school counselor. There are no disadvantages to the Commonwealth or public.
Department of Planning and Budget Economic Impact Analysis:
The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order 19. The analysis presented represents DPB's best estimate of the potential economic impacts as of the date of this analysis.1
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Following a 2025 periodic review,2 the State Board of Education (board) proposes to move the underlying requirements in 8VAC20-620 to 8VAC20-720. Additionally, the board proposes to update terminology as a result of Chapter 139 of the 2019 Acts of Assembly.3
Background. According to the Department of Education (DOE), there is no reason for 8VAC20-620 (which consists of a single section) to be a standalone regulation. In addition, DOE states that Chapter 139 changed the terminology used from guidance counselor to school counselor. In this action, the Board proposes to move the regulatory requirements from 8VAC20-620 to 8VAC20-720 and simultaneously update the language to reflect the terminology change from guidance counselor to school counselor.
Estimated Benefits and Costs. According to DOE, the proposed changes would mainly relocate requirements from one chapter to another; align the regulatory language with Chapter 139; and would not introduce any new requirements. Consequently, no significant economic impact is expected other than clarifying the regulatory text for the readers of the regulation.
Businesses and Other Entities Affected. Although the proposed changes would not directly affect any entity, according to DOE, the regulation applies to 132 school divisions in the Commonwealth with a total enrollment of approximately 1.3 million as of the 2024-2025 school year. The Code of Virginia requires DPB to assess whether an adverse impact may result from the proposed regulation.4 An adverse impact is indicated if there is any increase in net cost or reduction in net benefit for any entity, even if the benefits exceed the costs for all entities combined.5 As noted above, the proposal would mainly clarify regulatory language and therefore is not expected to adversely affect any entity.
Small Businesses6 Affected.7 The proposed amendments do not adversely affect small businesses.
Localities8 Affected.9 The proposed regulatory amendments do not introduce costs for localities, nor do they affect any locality more than others.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments do not affect total employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. No effects on the use and value of private property nor on real estate development costs are expected.
_____________________________
1 Section 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia requires that such economic impact analyses determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the analysis should include but not be limited to: (1) the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom the proposed regulatory action would apply, (2) the identity of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, (3) the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, (4) the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation, and (5) the impact on the use and value of private property.
2 https://townhall.virginia.gov/L/ViewPReview.cfm?PRid=2574.
3 https://legacylis.virginia.gov/cgi-bin/legp604.exe?191+ful+CHAP0139.
4 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 D: In the event this economic impact analysis reveals that the proposed regulation would have an adverse economic impact on businesses or would impose a significant adverse economic impact on a locality, business, or entity particularly affected, the Department of Planning and Budget shall advise the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules, the House Committee on Appropriations, and the Senate Committee on Finance. Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation.
5 Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation. As a result, DPB has adopted a definition of adverse impact that assesses changes in net costs and benefits for each affected Virginia entity that directly results from discretionary changes to the regulation.
6 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04, small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
7 If the proposed regulatory action may have an adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include: (1) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the proposed regulation, (2) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other documents, (3) a statement of the probable effect of the proposed regulation on affected small businesses, and (4) a description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia, if there is a finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules shall be notified.
8 "Locality" can refer to either local governments or the locations in the Commonwealth where the activities relevant to the regulatory change are most likely to occur.
9 Section 2.2-4007.04 defines "particularly affected" as bearing disproportionate material impact.
Agency Response to the Economic Impact Analysis: The State Board of Education thanks the Department of Planning and Budget for its thorough economic impact analysis concerning this action.
Summary:
The amendments (i) repeal Regulations Regarding School Guidance and Counseling Programs in the Public Schools of Virginia (8VAC20-620); (ii) move the provisions of 8VAC20-620 to a new section in Regulations Governing Local School Boards and School Divisions (8VAC20-720), 8VAC20-720-50; and (iii) replace references to "guidance" with references to "counseling" pursuant to Chapter 139 of the 2019 Acts of Assembly.
8VAC20-720-50. School counseling services.
A. Pursuant to the Standards of Quality, each school shall make the following guidance and counseling services reasonably available, with all available resources, to all students:
1. Academic counseling that assists students and parents in acquiring knowledge of the curricula choices available to students, planning a program of studies, arranging and interpreting academic testing, and seeking postsecondary academic opportunities;
2. Career counseling that helps students acquire information and plan action about work, jobs, apprenticeships, and postsecondary educational and career opportunities;
3. Personal or social counseling that assists a student to develop self-understanding, the rights and needs of others, how to resolve conflict, and how to define individual goals that reflect the student's interests, abilities, and aptitudes. This counseling may be provided either (i) in groups (e.g., all fifth graders) in which generic issues of social development are addressed or (ii) through structured individual or small group multi-session counseling that focuses on the specific concerns of the participant (e.g., divorce, abuse, or aggressive behavior).
B. No student shall be required to participate in any counseling program to which the student's parent objects.
C. On or before July 1, 1996, each local school board in Virginia shall adopt a policy, consistent with subdivisions A and B of this section, concerning school guidance and counseling programs in the schools under the local school board's jurisdiction. At a minimum, each local school board policy shall contain the following:
1. A provision for written notification, at least annually, to parents about the academic and career guidance and personal or social counseling programs available to the child. The notification shall include the purpose and general description of the programs, information regarding ways the parent may review materials to be used in guidance and counseling programs at the child's school, and information about the procedures by which the parent may limit the child's participation in such programs.
2. A provision prohibiting the use of counseling techniques that are beyond the scope of the professional certification or training of counselors, including hypnosis or other psychotherapeutic techniques that are normally employed in medical or clinical settings and focus on mental illness or psychopathology.
3. A provision requiring that information and records of personal or social counseling be kept confidential and separate from a student's educational records and not disclosed to third parties without prior parental consent or as otherwise provided by law.
4. A provision with respect to personal or social counseling setting forth either (i) the procedures by which a parent can elect in writing to have the child not participate ("opt-out") or (ii) at the option of the local school board, if the local school board determines that affirmative parental consent is required to participate in such counseling ("opt-in"), the procedures by which such affirmative consent may be given and withdrawn. In issuing this policy, the local school board may distinguish between group and individual or small group counseling as defined in subdivision A 3 of this section. In no event shall a local board require affirmative parental consent for short duration personal or social counseling that is needed to maintain order, discipline, or a productive learning environment.
5. In the event that the local school board elects to require affirmative parental consent under subdivision 4 of this subsection, a provision setting forth the procedures, if any, under which school officials may permit personal or social counseling for children whom the officials believe would benefit from such counseling, but whose parents fail to respond either affirmatively or negatively to reasonable requests for consent.
6. Such other provisions as the local school board may deem appropriate.
D. Before adopting the policy described in subsection C of this section or any amendment to this policy, each local school board shall provide for public participation and comment.
VA.R. Doc. No. R25-8341; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Fast-Track
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Fast-Track Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 8VAC20-620. Regulations Regarding School Guidance and Counseling Programs in the Public Schools of Virginia (repealing 8VAC20-620-10).
8VAC20-720. Regulations Governing Local School Boards and School Divisions (adding 8VAC20-720-50).
Statutory Authority: § 22.1-16 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearing is currently scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: December 31, 2025.
Effective Date: January 15, 2026.
Agency Contact: Jim Chapman, Director of Board Relations, Department of Education, James Monroe Building, 101 North 14th Street, 25th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 750-8750, or email jim.chapman@doe.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 22.1-16 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the State Board of Education to promulgate regulations necessary to carry out its powers and duties and the provisions of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Purpose: This action is essential to protect the health, safety, or welfare of citizens because it (i) amends the language to match language used in statute, which better reflects the role and scope of responsibilities of school counselors, and (ii) streamlines the board's regulatory catalog.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: This action is expected to be noncontroversial and therefore appropriate for the fast-track rulemaking process because it aligns terminology with statute.
Substance: The amendments (i) repeal Regulations Regarding School Guidance and Counseling Programs in the Public Schools of Virginia (8VAC20-620); (ii) move the provisions of 8VAC20-620 to a new section in Regulations Governing Local School Boards and School Divisions (8VAC20-720), 8VAC20-720-50; and (iii) replace references to "guidance" with references to "counseling" pursuant to Chapter 139 of the 2019 Acts of Assembly.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public and the Commonwealth is that the regulation will use language consistent with statute and accurately reflect the role of a school counselor. There are no disadvantages to the Commonwealth or public.
Department of Planning and Budget Economic Impact Analysis:
The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order 19. The analysis presented represents DPB's best estimate of the potential economic impacts as of the date of this analysis.1
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Following a 2025 periodic review,2 the State Board of Education (board) proposes to move the underlying requirements in 8VAC20-620 to 8VAC20-720. Additionally, the board proposes to update terminology as a result of Chapter 139 of the 2019 Acts of Assembly.3
Background. According to the Department of Education (DOE), there is no reason for 8VAC20-620 (which consists of a single section) to be a standalone regulation. In addition, DOE states that Chapter 139 changed the terminology used from guidance counselor to school counselor. In this action, the Board proposes to move the regulatory requirements from 8VAC20-620 to 8VAC20-720 and simultaneously update the language to reflect the terminology change from guidance counselor to school counselor.
Estimated Benefits and Costs. According to DOE, the proposed changes would mainly relocate requirements from one chapter to another; align the regulatory language with Chapter 139; and would not introduce any new requirements. Consequently, no significant economic impact is expected other than clarifying the regulatory text for the readers of the regulation.
Businesses and Other Entities Affected. Although the proposed changes would not directly affect any entity, according to DOE, the regulation applies to 132 school divisions in the Commonwealth with a total enrollment of approximately 1.3 million as of the 2024-2025 school year. The Code of Virginia requires DPB to assess whether an adverse impact may result from the proposed regulation.4 An adverse impact is indicated if there is any increase in net cost or reduction in net benefit for any entity, even if the benefits exceed the costs for all entities combined.5 As noted above, the proposal would mainly clarify regulatory language and therefore is not expected to adversely affect any entity.
Small Businesses6 Affected.7 The proposed amendments do not adversely affect small businesses.
Localities8 Affected.9 The proposed regulatory amendments do not introduce costs for localities, nor do they affect any locality more than others.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments do not affect total employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. No effects on the use and value of private property nor on real estate development costs are expected.
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1 Section 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia requires that such economic impact analyses determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the analysis should include but not be limited to: (1) the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom the proposed regulatory action would apply, (2) the identity of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, (3) the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, (4) the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation, and (5) the impact on the use and value of private property.
2 https://townhall.virginia.gov/L/ViewPReview.cfm?PRid=2574.
3 https://legacylis.virginia.gov/cgi-bin/legp604.exe?191+ful+CHAP0139.
4 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 D: In the event this economic impact analysis reveals that the proposed regulation would have an adverse economic impact on businesses or would impose a significant adverse economic impact on a locality, business, or entity particularly affected, the Department of Planning and Budget shall advise the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules, the House Committee on Appropriations, and the Senate Committee on Finance. Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation.
5 Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation. As a result, DPB has adopted a definition of adverse impact that assesses changes in net costs and benefits for each affected Virginia entity that directly results from discretionary changes to the regulation.
6 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04, small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
7 If the proposed regulatory action may have an adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include: (1) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the proposed regulation, (2) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other documents, (3) a statement of the probable effect of the proposed regulation on affected small businesses, and (4) a description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia, if there is a finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules shall be notified.
8 "Locality" can refer to either local governments or the locations in the Commonwealth where the activities relevant to the regulatory change are most likely to occur.
9 Section 2.2-4007.04 defines "particularly affected" as bearing disproportionate material impact.
Agency Response to the Economic Impact Analysis: The State Board of Education thanks the Department of Planning and Budget for its thorough economic impact analysis concerning this action.
Summary:
The amendments (i) repeal Regulations Regarding School Guidance and Counseling Programs in the Public Schools of Virginia (8VAC20-620); (ii) move the provisions of 8VAC20-620 to a new section in Regulations Governing Local School Boards and School Divisions (8VAC20-720), 8VAC20-720-50; and (iii) replace references to "guidance" with references to "counseling" pursuant to Chapter 139 of the 2019 Acts of Assembly.
8VAC20-720-50. School counseling services.
A. Pursuant to the Standards of Quality, each school shall make the following guidance and counseling services reasonably available, with all available resources, to all students:
1. Academic counseling that assists students and parents in acquiring knowledge of the curricula choices available to students, planning a program of studies, arranging and interpreting academic testing, and seeking postsecondary academic opportunities;
2. Career counseling that helps students acquire information and plan action about work, jobs, apprenticeships, and postsecondary educational and career opportunities;
3. Personal or social counseling that assists a student to develop self-understanding, the rights and needs of others, how to resolve conflict, and how to define individual goals that reflect the student's interests, abilities, and aptitudes. This counseling may be provided either (i) in groups (e.g., all fifth graders) in which generic issues of social development are addressed or (ii) through structured individual or small group multi-session counseling that focuses on the specific concerns of the participant (e.g., divorce, abuse, or aggressive behavior).
B. No student shall be required to participate in any counseling program to which the student's parent objects.
C. On or before July 1, 1996, each local school board in Virginia shall adopt a policy, consistent with subdivisions A and B of this section, concerning school guidance and counseling programs in the schools under the local school board's jurisdiction. At a minimum, each local school board policy shall contain the following:
1. A provision for written notification, at least annually, to parents about the academic and career guidance and personal or social counseling programs available to the child. The notification shall include the purpose and general description of the programs, information regarding ways the parent may review materials to be used in guidance and counseling programs at the child's school, and information about the procedures by which the parent may limit the child's participation in such programs.
2. A provision prohibiting the use of counseling techniques that are beyond the scope of the professional certification or training of counselors, including hypnosis or other psychotherapeutic techniques that are normally employed in medical or clinical settings and focus on mental illness or psychopathology.
3. A provision requiring that information and records of personal or social counseling be kept confidential and separate from a student's educational records and not disclosed to third parties without prior parental consent or as otherwise provided by law.
4. A provision with respect to personal or social counseling setting forth either (i) the procedures by which a parent can elect in writing to have the child not participate ("opt-out") or (ii) at the option of the local school board, if the local school board determines that affirmative parental consent is required to participate in such counseling ("opt-in"), the procedures by which such affirmative consent may be given and withdrawn. In issuing this policy, the local school board may distinguish between group and individual or small group counseling as defined in subdivision A 3 of this section. In no event shall a local board require affirmative parental consent for short duration personal or social counseling that is needed to maintain order, discipline, or a productive learning environment.
5. In the event that the local school board elects to require affirmative parental consent under subdivision 4 of this subsection, a provision setting forth the procedures, if any, under which school officials may permit personal or social counseling for children whom the officials believe would benefit from such counseling, but whose parents fail to respond either affirmatively or negatively to reasonable requests for consent.
6. Such other provisions as the local school board may deem appropriate.
D. Before adopting the policy described in subsection C of this section or any amendment to this policy, each local school board shall provide for public participation and comment.
VA.R. Doc. No. R25-8341; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Proposed
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Proposed Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 8VAC20-780. Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers (repealing 8VAC20-780-10 through 8VAC20-780-610).
8VAC20-781. Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers (adding 8VAC20-781-10 through 8VAC20-781-750).
Statutory Authority: §§ 22.1-16 and 22.1-289.046 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearing is currently scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: January 16, 2026.
Agency Contact: Jim Chapman, Director of Board Relations, Department of Education, James Monroe Building, 101 North 14th Street, 25th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 750-8750, or email jim.chapman@doe.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 22.1-16 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the State Board of Education to promulgate regulations necessary to carry out its powers and duties and the provisions of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia. Section 22.1-289.046 of the Code of Virginia requires the board to adopt regulations for the activities, services, and facilities to be employed by persons and agencies required to be licensed under Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of the Code of Virginia, which shall be designed to ensure that such activities, services, and facilities are conducive to the welfare of the children under the control of such persons or agencies.
Purpose: This action is essential to enhancing the health, safety, and welfare of children in care. The purpose of the adoption of a new regulation is to (i) streamline regulatory requirements; (ii) improve understanding and interpretation leading to enhanced compliance and enforcement by adjusted structure, format, and simplified language; and (iii) incorporate updates to address ever-changing national health and safety guidelines and practices. In addition, it is the goal of the agency to ensure that parents have sufficient information to make informed decisions about placing children in licensed child day centers while ensuring the safety of children receiving care in licensed child day centers. Repeal of the existing regulation and adoption of a new regulation was determined by the agency to be the most efficient and effective way to make the necessary changes to achieve clarity, consistency, and to protect children.
Substance: The proposed action repeals Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers (8VAC20-780) and replaces it with a new chapter, also called Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers (8VAC20-781). Changes in the proposed new chapter include (i) restructuring and reformatting of content by subject matter; (ii) clarifying terms and requirements; (iii) removing duplicative requirements; (iv) condensing sections to incorporate more clear and concise language; (v) aligning the regulation with national health and safety standards; (vi) incorporating requirements based on consultation with and recommendations provided by state partners and agencies; (vii) addressing current and relevant child care challenges by increasing options for program director and lead teacher qualifications; (viii) clarifying and streamlining staff training requirements; (ix) aligning requirements and incorporating technical amendments to ensure consistency with the Code of Virginia; and (x) updating requirements to address ever-changing national health and safety guidelines and practices.
Specifically, the proposed amendments to the standards include (i) enhancing requirements around choking, handwashing, safe sleep practice, swim safety, and outdoor play areas; (ii) adding lead assessments in buildings built before 1978; (iii) enhancing training requirements by requiring all staff to receive training on emergency preparedness and response and child abuse and neglect, adding driver training requirements, and adding to orientation requirements for directors; (iv) enhancing orientation for staff on policies for (a) food service, safety, and storage; (b) inclusion of children with special needs; (c) stock epinephrine; (d) behavior guidance; and (e) emergency preparedness and response during a pandemic; (v) adding requirements for playground safety to include equipment and resilient surfacing; (vi) adding specific requirements to prohibit infants from sleeping in car seats or play equipment, restrictive clothing, and adaptive equipment without a signed statement from a physician, which aligns with updated American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) sleep guidelines; (vii) adding requirements to address children with special needs and to ensure that children with special needs receive care and activity opportunities appropriate to needs; (viii) adding requirements to strengthen parent involvement and require communication and notification regarding emergencies, behavior concerns, daily care of children, and transportation; (ix) enhancing safeguards for children during swimming and wading activities, including requirements for active supervision and accountability and that one lifeguard be on duty during swimming and wading activities for every 25 children; (x) enhancing requirements for safe handling of body fluids and handwashing; and (xi) adding requirements for the safe storage of medication and flexibility for self-administered medication.
The proposed action also removes requirements that are not directly specific to the safety of children and more related to business practice to provide relief of burdensome standards for child care providers and families. Specifically, the proposed amendments remove provisions relating to (i) enrollment procedures of therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs, (ii) physical and mental health of staff and volunteers, (iii) general qualifications, (iv) aides, and (v) independent contractors.
Issues: The primary advantage of this regulatory change to the public, the agency and Commonwealth, and licensed child day centers is that the Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers will be easier to read, better organized, clearer with respect to responsibilities, and more comprehensive in scope to ensure the health, safety, and well-being of children in care. There are no disadvantages to the public, the agency, the Commonwealth, or licensed child day centers.
Department of Planning and Budget Economic Impact Analysis:
The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order 19. The analysis presented represents DPB's best estimate of the potential economic impacts as of the date of this analysis.1
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of Education (board) proposes to repeal 8VAC20-780, Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers, and replace it with 8VAC20-781 using the same title. The regulation would be reorganized with the intent of making it more easily understood. Additionally, the board proposes changes that (i) establish epinephrine requirements, (ii) affect record requirements, (iii) affect the timing of health care examinations and tests, (iv) ease the qualification requirements for directors and lead teachers, (v) amend training requirements, (vi) amend requirements pertaining to sleeping, resting, and diapering, (vii) amend requirements pertaining to play areas, equipment and toys, (viii) change staffing requirements, (ix) require expanded planning for special needs children, and (x) increase safety requirements for swimming.
Background. Epinephrine: Pursuant to Chapters 695 and 696 of the 2022 Acts of Assembly, the board proposes to require that (i) child day centers possess and store weight-based dosages of undesignated or stock epinephrine in a locked or inaccessible container or area in the center; (ii) the undesignated or stock epinephrine is only administered by a nurse at the center, an employee of a local health department who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine, or staff at the center authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine, and (iii) at least one of the above individuals has the means to access the epinephrine at all times during regular facility hours. If the person administering the epinephrine is neither a nurse nor an employee of a local health department, the board proposes to require that their training be from (i) a program for this purpose developed by the Board of Nursing and taught by a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, nurse practitioner, physician assistant, doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or pharmacist, (ii) a course on this topic developed or approved by the Department of Education (DOE) in consultation with the Department of Health (VDH), or (iii) a course taught by a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, nurse practitioner, physician assistant, doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or pharmacist that includes the following: (a) recognizing signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis, (b) emergency procedures for responding to anaphylaxis, and (c) instructions and procedures for administering epinephrine. The board proposes to require that such individuals be retained in the administration of epinephrine three-year intervals.
Records: The current regulation requires the following in each child's records: A written care plan for each child with a diagnosed food allergy, to include instructions from a physician regarding the food to which the child is allergic and the steps to be taken in the event of a suspected or confirmed allergic reaction. The board proposes to also require an emergency care plan that has been developed in consultation with a physician or physician's designee for any health issues that are reasonably likely to result in a medical emergency. The current regulation requires the center to have documentation of immunizations and physical examinations for each child, unless (i) The center is located on the same premises where a child attends school; (ii) The child's record has a statement verifying the school's possession of the health record; and (iii) The school's records are accessible during the center's hours of operation. The board proposes to expand the exemption to include all children when a center assumes responsibility for the child directly from a school or transfers responsibility to the school. Additionally, the board proposes to remove the following requirements from children's records: information regarding parent employment; name and phone of child's physician; addresses of emergency contacts; and the requirement to store blanket permission slips and opt-out requests. For center staff records, the board proposes to eliminate contact information for an emergency contact and documentation of references as to character, reputation, and competency.
Health Provisions: Non-school age children must have documentation of a physical examination conducted either prior to attendance or within 30 days after the first day of attendance. Under the current regulation, if the child has had a physical examination prior to attendance, the timeframe to have obtained it varies based upon the child's age, as follows: (i) within two months prior to attendance for children six months of age and younger; (ii) within three months prior to attendance for children aged seven months through 18 months; (iii) within six months prior to attendance for children aged 19 months through 24 months; and (iv) Within 12 months prior to attendance for children two years of age through five years of age. The board proposes to standardize this timeframe for all ages by allowing up to 12 months before the date a child first attends the center regardless of age. The current regulation requires each staff member and individual from an independent contractor to submit documentation of a negative tuberculosis screening. It must have been completed within the last 30 calendar days of the date of employment. The proposed regulation would provide additional time, stating that it shall have been completed within 90 calendar days before coming in contact with children at the center.
Director qualifications and responsibilities: In both the current and proposed regulations, the "Director" is the individual responsible for supervising the day-to-day operations and staff of the center, and there are several pathways to qualify as a center director. The board proposes to reduce the educational and experience requirements for the various pathways. Lead teacher qualifications In both the current and proposed regulations, the lead teacher is the individual designated to be responsible for the direct supervision of children and for the implementation of the activities and services for a group of children, and there are several pathways to qualify as a lead teacher. The board proposes to add two more pathways:2 (i) a career studies certificate3 in a child-related field with a minimum of 12 total college credits and (ii) a Virginia endorsement4 in a child-related field approved by the Department of Education.
Training: Both the current and proposed regulations require that all staff who work with children complete at least 16 hours of ongoing training each year. Under the current regulation, the required 10-hour preservice orientation does not count toward the first year's 16 hours of required training. The board proposes to allow the ten hours to apply toward the 16 hours required the first year. Both the current and proposed regulations include orientation training requirements for new staff on numerous topics. The board proposes to add requirements for orientation on children's health issues, child development, and classroom management. Under the current regulation, volunteers who work more than six hours per week must receive training on the center's emergency procedures within the first week of volunteering annually thereafter. The board proposes to require this only for volunteers who work more than eight hours per week. Both the current and proposed regulations require that at least two staff members who have current certifications in both CPR and first aid be present on the premises whenever a child is in care, and at least one staff member in each classroom or area must also meet these requirements. In addition, the current regulation requires that there be at least two staff members currently certified in CPR and first aid present on field trips. The proposed regulation would only require one so certified staff member on field trips. The current regulation requires at least one person on duty to be trained in performing daily health observation, but there is no clear requirement for actual daily health checks. The proposed regulation addresses this, by requiring that a trained staff member conducts a daily health observation of each child as close to arrival as possible and whenever staff responsible for the care of a child notes a change in behavior or appearance. The board proposes to add required training for drivers on safety restraints, tracking children, behavioral issues, first aid supplies, emergency procedures, and applicable transportation policies prior to transporting children under the supervision of the center. These topics are not addressed in the current regulation.
Lead Testing: For those new applicants that use a building built before 1978, the board proposes to require that a written statement from a person licensed in Virginia as a lead risk assessor be submitted describing the results of an assessment stating either (i) no lead was detected; (ii) lead was detected and response actions to abate risks to human health have been completed; or (iii) lead was detected and response actions to abate risks to human health have been recommended in accordance with a specified schedule. This would address risks from lead-based paint. Pursuant to Chapters 1084 and 1085 of the 2020 Acts of Assembly, the board proposes to require that each center develop and implement a plan to test potable water for lead and remediate and retest if necessary.
Sleep, Rest, Restrooms, and Diapering: Both the current and proposed regulations state that For overnight care, beds with mattresses or cots with at least two inches of dense padding shall be used by children who are not required to sleep in cribs. The current regulation also states that For overnight care which occurs for a child on a weekly or more frequent basis, beds with mattresses shall be used. The board proposes to eliminate this last requirement. The board proposes to newly require that rest mats have at least one inch of cushioning. The board proposes to newly require that each toileting area provided for children is equipped with a lined waste container. Under the current regulation, the diapers, disposable training pants, and the underwear of children who are toilet training may only be changed on a diapering surface. The board proposes to expand this by also allowing such changes to occur in the bathroom. Also, the board proposes to add that staff shall check diapers and disposable training pants at least once every two hours.
Play Areas, Equipment and Toys: The current regulation requires that a shady area be provided on playgrounds during the months of June, July, and August. The board proposes to extend the shade requirement to May through September. The board proposes to add that washable toys and materials used by infants shall be cleaned and sanitized daily, or more often if necessary. Also, water play tables or tubs that are used must be cleaned and sanitized daily.
Staffing: Under the current regulation, when a center operates more than six hours per day a lead teacher is not required in each grouping of children during the first and last hour of operation and during the designated rest period, given specified conditions. Under the proposed regulation, when a center operates more than eight hours per day a lead teacher is not required in each grouping of children during the first and last 90 minutes of operation and during the designated rest period, given the same specified conditions. The board also proposes to add that a lead teacher is not required in each grouping of children during short breaks and special activities. Under the current regulation, the maximum number of school-age children per staff member is 18;. the board proposes to increase the maximum number to 20. In addition, there is no maximum group size for school-age children under the current regulation. To meet federal requirements,5 the board proposes a maximum of 100 school-age children per group.
Special needs: The board proposes a new requirement that the center work with the parent and the staff assigned to the child to develop a plan to ensure that a child with special needs receives care and activity opportunities appropriate to their individual needs, including specific care and activities recommended by a professional. The plan shall be documented and maintained in the child's record, and updated annually, or more frequently, as necessary.
Swimming: Both the current and proposed regulations require that a certified lifeguard holding a current certification be on duty supervising whenever a child is participating in swimming or wading activities if the pool, lake, or other swimming area has a water depth of more than two feet. The proposed regulation additionally states there be one lifeguard for every 25 children in the water. The current regulation does not require more than one lifeguard regardless of the number of children in the water. The board also proposes to newly require that there be separate staff to supervise children not participating in the swimming and wading (if there are any) regardless of the total number of participating and non-participating children.
First Aid: The current regulation requires that an activated charcoal preparation be at the center and be available on field trips. The board proposes to eliminate this requirement.
Estimated Benefits and Costs. Epinephrine: Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. It can happen seconds or minutes after a person has been exposed to an allergen. Immediate use of an epinephrine autoinjector can keep anaphylaxis from worsening and can be lifesaving. Thus, the proposed requirements that child day centers possess and store appropriate weight-based dosages of undesignated or stock epinephrine, and that at least one person qualified to administer epinephrine has access to the epinephrine at all times during regular facility hours, has the potential to save the lives of children with undiagnosed allergies in cases when exposure to the allergen may result in anaphylaxis. An EpiPen package comes with two auto-injectors of 0.3 mg and is approved for adults and children who weigh 66 lbs. or more. The EpiPen JR package comes with two auto-injectors of 0.15 mg and is approved for children who weigh 33 lbs. to 66 lbs.6 There are now also Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved epinephrine auto-injectors of 0.1 mg for infants and toddlers.7 FDA-authorized generic epinephrine is available from CVS at $109.99 per two-pack.8 Epinephrine autoinjectors have a shelf life of 12 to 18 months from the date of manufacture.9 For a child day center with children that fall into all three weight groups, and uses the FDA-authorized generic epinephrine from CVS, it would cost approximately $330 annually to maintain non-expired epinephrine on hand.10 DOE reports that it is already under contract with an outside entity that provides training in medication administration, including epinephrine administration. DOE is proposing a training program for staff at child day centers on the administration of epinephrine by this entity. If the training proposal is approved by VDH, the undesignated or stock epinephrine training would be developed. DOE's plan is for the training to be offered at no monetary cost to the child day centers. There would be staffing costs as those being trained cannot simultaneously take care of the children at the center.
Records: The proposal to require an emergency care plan that has been developed in consultation with a physician or physician's designee for any health issues that are reasonably likely to result in a medical emergency may enable staff to be better prepared to help children in the center when they have a medical emergency, which result in better health outcomes. It would also require additional staff time as well the time of the parent or guardian and a physician or physician's designee. The proposal to expand the exemption from the requirements that the center have documentation of immunizations and physical examinations to include all children when a center assumes responsibility for the child directly from a school or transfers responsibility to the school reduces administrative costs for centers that have such children and saves time for their parents or guardians in providing the documentation. Removing the requirements for the centers to maintain records regarding parent employment, the name and phone number of the child's physician, and addresses of emergency contacts also reduces administrative costs for centers and saves time for their parents or guardians in proving the information. For center staff records, the proposal to eliminate the requirements for emergency contact information and documentation of references saves time and administrative costs for staff and the center.
Health Provisions: The proposal to accept physical examinations for children that occurred up to 12 months before the date the child first attends the center (rather than within a much smaller timeframe) for all ages would likely in some cases eliminate the need for additional appointments for physical exams, saving the time and monetary cost associated with the additional examination. Similarly, the proposal to complete the tuberculosis screening within 90 calendar days before coming in contact with children at the center rather than within the last 30 calendar days of the date of employment may also prevent the need for repeated tests and save associated costs.
Director qualifications and responsibilities: The proposal to reduce the educational and experience requirements for the various pathways to qualify as a center director would reduce the time and tuition costs for at least some candidates to become qualified. This could increase the pool of qualified candidates from which centers could choose to hire a director.
Lead teacher qualifications: Adding two more educational options to qualify as a lead teacher may make it easier for some individuals to qualify and consequently could increase the pool of qualified candidates from which centers could choose to hire lead teachers.
Training: The proposal to allow the 10-hour preservice orientation to count toward the first year's 16 hours of required training could save staff time and the monetary cost of 10 hours of training. The proposal to add children's health issues, child development, and classroom management to the required orientation topics may help staff be better prepared to handle related issues. The proposal to require that a trained staff member conducts a daily health observation of each child and note a change in behavior or appearance may help identify illness or injury and may help reduce transmission of illness within the center. The board proposal to add required training for drivers on safety restraints, tracking children, behavioral issues, first aid supplies, emergency procedures, and applicable transportation policies prior to transporting children under the supervision of the center may help improve child safety during transportation. All of these proposed new requirements would entail additional staff time that could be used in other productive tasks. No longer requiring that volunteers who work more than six hours per week but not more than eight receive training on the center's emergency procedures reduces staff time burden. The proposal to only require one staff member certified in CPR and first aid present on field trips rather than two saves on training and certification costs. American Red Cross Adult and Pediatric First Aid/CPR training and certification costs $108 and takes two hours and 15 minutes, plus travel time11
Lead Testing: According to the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, exposure to lead can seriously harm a child's health, causing effects including damage to the brain and nervous system and slowed growth and development. Children may also have learning and behavior problems and hearing and speech problems.12 The proposal to require that each center develop and implement a plan to test potable water for lead and remediate and retest, if necessary, could help prevent children's exposure to lead with its associated health risks. Testing of potable water for lead would cost about $65 for each test.13 Some centers may need to do multiple tests. If remediation is necessary, it can be done using a filter that is certified to reduce lead in drinking water. Such filters are available for approximately $60.14 A separate filter would be needed for each sink, water fountain, etc. The proposal to require new applicants using a building built before 1978 to submit a written statement from a person licensed in Virginia as a lead risk assessor describing the results of an assessment stating either (i) no lead was detected; (ii) lead was detected and response actions to abate risks to human health have been completed; or (iii) lead was detected and response actions to abate risks to human health have been recommended in accordance with a specified schedule could help prevent children in center buildings built prior 1978 from being exposed to lead-based paint with its associated health risks. It would, according to a DOE estimate, cost approximately $1,200. If necessary, the cost of lead paint removal is on average $3,499.15 There would also be the cost of replacing the lead paint with new paint.
Sleep, Rest, Restrooms, and Diapering: The proposed elimination of the requirement that beds with mattresses be used for overnight care which occurs for a child on a weekly or more frequent basis, could save centers the cost of beds with mattresses. Children's beds with mattresses are available for about $95.16 The proposal to also allow the changing of diapers, disposable training pants, or underwear of children who are toilet training to occur in the bathroom, and not only on the diapering surface, may allow for quicker changing of such items, potentially reducing discomfort and the occurrences and severity of rashes. The proposal to require that staff check diapers and disposable training pants at least once every two hours may also reduce discomfort and the occurrences and severity of rashes. If a center is currently using rest mats that have less than one inch of cushioning, it would cost approximately $20 to replace each rest mat with one that has at least one inch of cushioning to meet the proposed minimum cushioning requirement.17 If a center's toileting areas provided for children do not already have a waste container, it would cost approximately $9 to purchase such a container.18 Multiple containers would need to be purchased if there are multiple toileting areas that do not already have waste containers. Garbage bags would also need to be purchased to line the containers.
Play Areas, Equipment, and Toys: The proposal to extend the shade requirement to May through September may help prevent some children from becoming overheated and potentially getting sunstroke or developing other sun-related concerns such as sunburn and the related risk of skin cancer later in life. The proposal may require the use of tents or other shade providing equipment in May and September that would not otherwise been used during those months, but it would not likely require the acquisition of additional equipment since it is already needed in June, July, and August. The proposed cleaning and sanitizing requirements for washable toys, materials used by infants, water play tables and tubs may reduce the spread of infectious diseases, but would also require additional staff time (if this is not already done) as well as additional cleaning supplies.
Staffing: The proposal to allow lead teachers to be able to temporarily step away from the group for short breaks, special activities, and the first and last 90 minutes of operation when a center operates more than eight hours allows additional flexibility in staffing. The proposal to newly require that a lead teacher be in each grouping of children during the first and last hour of operation when a center operates more than six hours per day but not more than eight would reduce flexibility. The proposal to increase the maximum number of school-age children per staff member from 18 to 20 allows centers to earn more revenue by potentially having two additional children paid for each staff member. DOE estimates that average annual tuition is $9,400 per school-age child. Thus, centers could potentially earn an additional $18,800 annually per staff member. If a center has a group or groups of over 100 school-age children, the proposal to have a maximum of 100 school-age children per group may necessitate the hiring of additional staff.
Special needs: The proposal to require that the center work with the parent and the staff assigned to the child to develop a plan for care and activity opportunities appropriate to the child's individual needs may result in enhanced care and protection of children with special needs and allow parents to have more involvement in determining what care and services are best for their child. It would also require additional staff time as well the time of the parent or guardian and possibly the professional expert.
Swimming: The proposal to require an additional lifeguard for each 25 children in the water would help ensure the safety of children participating in swimming and wading activities. Additionally, it would likely require the hiring of an additional lifeguard or lifeguards for centers that provide swimming and wading. The proposal to newly require that there be separate staff to supervise children not participating in the swimming and wading (if there are any), regardless of the total number of participating and non-participating children would also help ensure the safety of children participating in swimming and wading activities, but it may require that an additional staff member be present during swimming and wading activities.
First Aid: The proposal to eliminate the requirement that an activated charcoal preparation be at the center and be available on field trips would save centers about $26.19
Businesses and Other Entities Affected. The proposed amendments affects the 2,629 licensed child day centers in the Commonwealth, as well their staff and customers. The Code of Virginia requires DPB to assess whether an adverse impact may result from the proposed regulation.20 An adverse impact is indicated if there is any increase in net cost or reduction in net benefit for any entity, even if the benefits exceed the costs for all entities combined.21 There are benefits and costs for numerous proposed changes. Not all benefits and not all costs apply to each center. There may be some centers for whom the increased costs and/or reduced benefits for all the proposed changes combined outweigh the reduced costs and/or increased benefits. Such centers would be adversely affected.
Small Businesses22 Affected.23 Types and Estimated Number of Small Businesses Affected: DOE reports that the 2,629 licensed child day centers in Virginia are a combination of different size business entities, non-profit entities and governmental entities. The agency does not have an estimate for the number that are small businesses. Costs and Other Effects: The costs for small centers are as described above in the Estimated Benefits and Costs section. Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact: There are no clear alternative methods that both reduce adverse impact and meet the intended policy goals.
Localities24 Affected.25 The proposal does not disproportionally affect particular localities. Cost changes for centers run by local governments are described in the Estimated Benefits and Costs section.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal to require an additional lifeguard for each 25 children may modestly increase the demand for and employment of lifeguards. Though there are some proposed changes that reduce required staff time, it appears that overall, there are greater increases in required staff time. Thus, there may be a small increase in demand for center staff and associated employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. There are likely some centers for whom the reduced costs or increased benefits for all the proposed changes combined outweigh the increased costs or reduced benefits, and others for whom the increased costs or reduced benefits for all the proposed changes combined outweigh the reduced costs or increased benefits; the value of the former would likely moderately increase and the value of the latter would likely moderately decrease. The proposal does not affect costs related to the development of real estate.
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1 Section 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia requires that such economic impact analyses determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the analysis should include but not be limited to: (1) the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom the proposed regulatory action would apply, (2) the identity of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, (3) the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, (4) the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation, and (5) the impact on the use and value of private property.
2 Programmatic experience is required in addition to education.
3 The career studies certificate aligns with Virginia Community College System certifications in early childhood education.
4 The endorsement aligns with offerings by agencies contracted with the department to offer such coursework.
5 The Child Care and Development Fund, 45 CFR Part 98, requires that states have group size and ratio requirements for all age groups.
6 See https://www.goodrx.com/epinephrine-epipen/how-to-save-cost.
7 See https://www.fda.gov/media/127806/download.
8 See https://www.cvs.com/content/epipen-alternative.
9 See https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5720482/.
10 Average of $110 per epinephrine auto-injector package, and three separate packages for the three different weight groups.
11 Source: https://www.redcross.org accessed on October 1, 2025.
12 See https://www.cdc.gov/lead-prevention/risk-factors/children.html.
13 Source: https://specialtytesting.com accessed on October 1, 2025.
14 Source: www.amazon.com accessed on October 1, 2025.
15 Source: https://www.angi.com/articles/how-much-cost-removing-lead-paint.htm accessed on October 1, 2025.
16 Source: www.amazon.com accessed on October 1, 2025.
17 Source: www.amazon.com accessed on October 1, 2025.
18 Ibid.
19 Bottles of activated charcoal cost about $13, based on an October 1, 2025, www.amazon.com search. The cost estimate for centers assumes two bottles purchased, one to keep at the center and one for field trips.
20 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 D: In the event this economic impact analysis reveals that the proposed regulation would have an adverse economic impact on businesses or would impose a significant adverse economic impact on a locality, business, or entity particularly affected, the Department of Planning and Budget shall advise the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules, the House Committee on Appropriations, and the Senate Committee on Finance. Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation.
21 Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation. As a result, DPB has adopted a definition of adverse impact that assesses changes in net costs and benefits for each affected Virginia entity that directly results from discretionary changes to the regulation.
22 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04, small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
23 If the proposed regulatory action may have an adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include: (1) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the proposed regulation, (2) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other documents, (3) a statement of the probable effect of the proposed regulation on affected small businesses, and (4) a description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia, if there is a finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules shall be notified.
24 "Locality" can refer to either local governments or the locations in the Commonwealth where the activities relevant to the regulatory change are most likely to occur.
25 Section 2.2-4007.04 defines "particularly affected" as bearing disproportionate material impact.
Agency Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The State Board of Education thanks the Department of Planning and Budget for its thorough economic impact analysis.
Summary:
The proposed action repeals Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers (8VAC20-780) and replaces it with a new chapter, also called Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers (8VAC20-781). These standards provide criteria for licensing or evaluating the health and safety of care that children receive in licensed child day centers. The proposed amendments to the standards include (i) establishing epinephrine requirements; (ii) updating recordkeeping requirements; (iii) updating the timing of health care examinations and tests; (iv) reducing qualification requirements for directors and lead teachers; (v) enhancing training requirements; (vi) updating requirements pertaining to sleeping, resting, and diapering; (vii) updating requirements pertaining to play areas, equipment, and toys; (viii) changing staffing requirements; (ix) requiring expanded planning for children with special needs; and (x) increasing safety requirements for swimming.
Chapter 781
Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers
Part I
Introduction
8VAC20-781-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly states otherwise:
"Abusive head trauma" means a traumatic injury that is inflicted on the brain of a child, including Shaken Baby Syndrome.
"Age and stage appropriate" means the curriculum, environment, equipment, and adult-child interactions are suitable for the ages and the individual needs of children in care.
"Attendance" means the actual presence of an enrolled child.
"Balanced mixed-age grouping" means a program using a curriculum designed to meet the needs and interests of children in the group and is planned for children who enter the program at three through five years of age. The enrollment in the balanced mixed-age grouping comprises a relatively even allocation of children in each of the ages (three to six years of age) and is designed for children and staff to remain together with turnover planned only for the replacement of existing students with children of ages that maintain the class balance.
"Child" means an individual younger than 18 years of age.
"Child day center" or "center" means a child day program offered to (i) two or more children younger than 13 years of age in a facility that is not the residence of the provider or of any of the children in care or (ii) 13 or more children at any location.
"Child day program" means a regularly operating service arrangement for children where, during the absence of a parent or guardian, a person or organization has agreed to assume responsibility for the supervision, protection, and well-being of a child younger than 13 years of age for less than a 24-hour period.
"Child experiencing homelessness" means a child who is homeless as defined in § 725 of Subtitle VII-B of the McKinney-Vento Act (42 USC § 11434a).
"Child with special needs" means a child with developmental disabilities, intellectual disabilities, an emotional disability, sensory or motor impairment, or significant chronic illness who requires special health surveillance or specialized programs, interventions, technologies, or facilities.
"Cleaned" means to scrub and wash with (i) soap and water or (ii) detergent solution.
"Cooperative preschool center" means a center that is organized, administered, and maintained by parents of children in care, parent volunteers, or other persons who participate or volunteer on behalf of a child attending the center.
"Date of employment" means the date that an employee begins to perform services for the child day program, which includes orientation training.
"Department" means the Virginia Department of Education.
"Director" means the individual responsible for supervising the day-to-day operations and staff of the center.
"Enrolled" means that a regular service arrangement has been entered into between a parent and center, where the center has agreed to assume responsibility for the supervision, protection, and well-being of a child under the age of 13 for less than a 24-hour period during the absence of a parent or guardian.
"Evening care" means care provided between 7 p.m. and midnight.
"Experience in a supervisory capacity" means experience in an administrative position that includes supervising, orienting, training, and scheduling.
"Fall height" means the vertical distance between the highest elevated play surface on play equipment designed for standing, walking, crawling, sitting, or climbing and the protective surface beneath it.
"Field trip" means an activity away from the premises of the center during which children are under the supervision of the center.
"Group" means the group of children under the supervision of one staff member or team of staff members.
"Group size" means the number of children assigned to a staff member or team of staff members occupying an individual room or area.
"Individual service, recreation, education, or treatment plan" means a plan identifying the child's strengths, needs, general functioning, and plan for providing services to the child to include specific goals and objectives for services, accommodations, and intervention strategies. The individual service, recreation, education, or treatment plan clearly shows documentation and reassessment or evaluation strategies.
"Infant" means a child from birth up to 16 months.
"Lead teacher" means the individual designated to be responsible for the direct supervision of children and for the implementation of the activities and services for a group of children. The term lead teacher is used to interpret the term "program leader" in Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia.
"Licensee" means a person to whom a conditional license, license, or provisional license has been issued and who is legally responsible for compliance with the licensing standards related to the operation or maintenance of the center.
"Overnight care" means care provided after 7 p.m. and past midnight.
"Parent" means a parent, guardian, legal custodian, or other person that has control or charge of a child.
"Physician's designee" means an advanced practice registered nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed nurse (RN or LPN), or health assistant acting under the supervision of a physician.
"Play yard" means a framed enclosure that includes a floor and is primarily intended to provide an area for a child to play.
"Preschool age" means a child who is at least three years of age but has not reached five years of age by September 30 of the school year.
"Primitive camp" means a camp where places of abode, water supply system, or permanent toilet and cooking facilities are not usually provided.
"Programmatic experience" means the supervision of children in a structured setting. Experience shall be calculated based on full-time work (30 hours per week or more) or its part-time equivalent. Experience settings may include a child day program, family day home, child day center, boys and girls club, continuing education, field placement, elementary school, or a religious institution.
"Protective surfacing" means impact absorbing materials for indoor and outdoor use, under and around playground equipment.
"Sanitized" means treated to remove germs, bacteria, and viruses from inanimate surfaces. Sanitizing is accomplished in two steps following cleaning; first by using a sanitizing agent or physical agent (e.g., heat), and second, by allowing the sanitizing agent to air dry on the surface for a minimum of two minutes or according to the manufacturer's instructions.
"Sanitizing agent" means a solution or wipe approved by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency for sanitizing or disinfecting or a bleach solution made daily.
"School-age" means a child who will have reached the child's fifth birthday on or before September 30 of the school year. Children four or five years of age children may be considered school-age during the summer months if the children will be entering kindergarten that year.
"Short-term program" means a child day center that operates fewer than 12 weeks a year.
"Special needs child day program" means a program exclusively serving children with special needs.
"Staff" or "staff member" means an individual who is at least 16 years of age and (i) works with children at the facility or (ii) is involved in the day-to-day operation of the center.
"Superintendent" means the Superintendent of Public Instruction at the Department of Education and, except when prohibited by law, includes the superintendent's representatives.
"Therapeutic child day program" means a specialized program, including therapeutic recreation programs, exclusively serving children with special needs when an individual service, recreation, education, or treatment plan is developed and implemented with the goal of improving the functional abilities of the children in care.
"Toddler" means a child from 16 months of age up to 24 months of age.
"Twos" means a child from 24 months of age to 36 months of age.
"Use zone" means the surface under and around a piece of equipment onto which a child falling or exiting from the equipment would be expected to land. Use zone areas are also designated for unrestricted circulation around the equipment.
"Volunteer" means an individual who (i) is at least 13 years of age, (ii) works at a center without compensation, (iii) is not counted in the staff-to-child ratios, and (iv) is at all times within sight and sound supervision of a staff member when with a child. An unpaid individual not meeting this definition is considered "staff" and shall meet staff requirements.
"Wading" means a waterplay activity in which children stand, walk, or sit in water less than two feet deep.
8VAC20-781-20. Purpose and applicability.
A. The purpose of these standards is to protect children under the supervision of licensed child day centers by ensuring that the activities, services, and facilities of centers are conducive to the well-being of children.
B. This chapter applies to child day centers that are required to be licensed by Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Part II
Administration
8VAC20-781-30. Operational responsibilities.
A. The licensee shall ensure compliance with federal, state, or local laws and regulations.
B. The licensee shall maintain public liability insurance for bodily injury for each center premises with a minimum limit of at least $500,000 for each occurrence and with a minimum limit of $500,000 aggregate. A public sponsor may have equivalent self-insurance that is in compliance with the Code of Virginia.
C. The center shall maintain a written list, for each group of children, of important health conditions and dietary restrictions. The center shall inform staff about the list. The list shall only be accessible to staff and shall have the most recent date of revision clearly stated. This up-to-date list shall be in each room or area where children are present and kept confidential unless written permission is received from the parent to post, display, or share.
D. A hospital-operated center may temporarily exceed its license capacity during a natural disaster or emergency situation according to the center's emergency preparedness and response plan.
E. When children 13 years of age or older are in care of the program and receive supervision in the licensed program, those children shall be counted in the number of children receiving care and the center shall comply with this chapter in providing care for those children.
F. When children of staff are present at the facility and engaged in activities or under the supervision of staff, including the parent, who are supervising other children enrolled in the program, those children shall be considered enrolled for purposes of this chapter.
G. The center shall implement policies for the possession and administration of undesignated or stock epinephrine pursuant to § 22.1-289.059 of the Code of Virginia that ensure:
1. Undesignated or stock epinephrine is only administered by a nurse at the center, an employee of a local health department who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine, or staff at the center authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine pursuant to 8VAC20-781-170 C to a child believed to be having an anaphylactic reaction;
2. At least one nurse at the center or an employee of a local health department who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine, or staff at the center authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine pursuant to 8VAC20-781-170 C has the means to access at all times during regular facility hours appropriate weight-based dosages of undesignated or stock epinephrine based on the children in care at the center; and
3. Undesignated or stock epinephrine is stored in a locked or inaccessible container or area in the center.
8VAC20-781-40. Recordkeeping.
A. Staff and children's records shall be treated confidentially. A child's record required by this chapter shall be made available to the child's parent in accordance with § 20-124.6 of the Code of Virginia. Information in the child's record shall not be made public without the written consent of the parent.
B. Records and reports on children and staff required by this chapter shall be maintained and made accessible for two years after termination of services or separation from employment unless otherwise specified in this chapter.
C. The licensee shall keep all records required by 8VAC20-781-50 through 8VAC20-781-80 in locked files or a secure electronic file, except for those required to be accessible pursuant to 8VAC20-781-590, and access to the files should be restricted according to a principle of least privilege. Records shall remain accessible during power outages and emergencies.
D. Records required by this chapter shall be kept current and accurate.
8VAC20-781-50. Children's records.
A. Each center shall maintain and keep on the premises a separate record for each child enrolled.
B. Each enrolled child's record shall contain the following information before the first day of attendance, unless otherwise stated:
1. Name, preferred name (if any), sex, birth date of the child, and address;
2. Name, home address, and telephone number of each parent who has custody;
3. Name and telephone number of two designated people to call in an emergency if a parent cannot be reached;
4. Names of persons to whom the child may be released, including agencies with whom the parent has a contract in place to provide a specialized service to the child. Appropriate legal paperwork shall be on file when a custodial parent requests the center not to release the child to the other parent;
5. A list of health issues, including allergies, intolerances to medication or other substances, chronic physical or medical conditions, special needs, dietary restrictions, dietary preferences, pertinent behavioral or developmental information, and special accommodations needed;
6. For items in subdivision 5 of this section that are reasonably likely to result in a medical emergency, an emergency care plan that has been developed in consultation with a physician or a physician's designee;
7. Written agreements as required by 8VAC20-781-410;
8. Previous child day care and schools attended by the child, as well as any child day care or school concurrently attended by the child;
9. Documentation of viewing proof of the child's identity and age as outlined in § 22.1- 289.049 of the Code of Virginia;
10. Documentation of health information as required by 8VAC20-781-80. When a center assumes responsibility for the child directly from a school or the center transfers responsibility of the child directly to the school, the center is not required to maintain documentation required by 8VAC20-781-80 A and B of the school's records for that child;
11. Documentation of the enrollment of a child experiencing homelessness enrolled under the provision of 8VAC20-781-80 C; and
12. The date of initial attendance and the last day of attendance.
C. The center shall document annually that the parent has confirmed that information in the child's record is accurate.
8VAC20-781-60. Staff records.
The following records shall be kept for each staff member:
1. Name, address, verification of age requirement, current job title, and dates of employment or volunteering;
2. Background check information shall be maintained in accordance with the requirements in 8VAC20-770;
3. Documentation that the individual meets the appropriate qualifications and training in Part III (8VAC20-781-90 et seq.) of this chapter. The documentation of training shall include (i) the name of the staff member; (ii) the date of the training; (iii) the training topic; (iv) evidence that the training has been completed; (v) the person providing the training; and (vi) the number of training hours or credit hours received;
4. Health information as required by 8VAC20-781-80; and
5. Information, to be kept on the premises, about health problems that may interfere with fulfilling the job responsibilities.
8VAC20-781-70. Attendance records; reporting.
A. The center shall maintain a record of daily attendance that documents the arrival and departure times of each child as arrival and departure occur.
B. The licensee shall ensure that staff in each group of children maintains a list of children that accurately reflects the children in the licensee's care.
C. The center shall inform the superintendent as soon as practicable, but not to exceed one business day, of the circumstances surrounding the following incidents:
1. Death of a child while under the center's supervision;
2. Missing child when local authorities have been contacted for help;
3. The suspension or termination of all child care services for more than 24 hours as a result of an emergency situation and plans to resume child care; and
4. A situation in which a child's whereabouts was unknown, including a child left unattended or unsupervised, a lost or missing child, or a child who wandered away unattended from the facility.
D. The center shall inform the superintendent as soon as practicable but not to exceed two business days after learning about an injury while a child is under the supervision of the center that required professional medical attention outside of basic first aid.
E. If the center or a person employed by the center has reason to suspect that a child is an abused or neglected child, such person shall report the matter immediately in accordance with § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia.
F. A center shall immediately report an outbreak of disease as defined by the State Board of Health to the local health department, as required by § 32.1-37 of the Code of Virginia.
8VAC20-781-80. Health provisions.
A. Immunizations. The center shall comply with the health provisions of § 22.1-271.2 of the Code of Virginia.
B. Physical examinations.
1. The center shall obtain documentation of a report from a qualified licensed physician, or an advanced practice registered nurse or licensed physician assistant acting under the supervision of a licensed physician, of a comprehensive physical examination performed within (i) 12 months before the date a child first attends the center or (ii) 30 days after the first day of attendance.
2. A physical examination shall not be required of a child whose parent objects on religious grounds and who shows no visual evidence of sickness, provided that the parent shall state in writing that, to the best of the parent's knowledge, the child is in good health and free from a communicable or contagious disease.
C. If a child is experiencing homelessness and does not have documentation of the required immunizations and physical examination, the center shall allow the child to attend during a grace period of no more than 90 days to allow the parent time to obtain documentation of the required documents.
D. Tuberculosis.
1. Before a staff member's date of employment, the results of a screening assessment documenting the absence of tuberculosis in a communicable form shall be submitted to the center. The documentation shall contain the elements of the current tuberculosis screening form published by the Virginia Department of Health and shall have been completed within 90 calendar days before coming in contact with children at the center.
2. A staff member or volunteer who develops symptoms compatible with active tuberculosis disease, regardless of the date of the last tuberculosis screening or assessment, shall immediately obtain and submit a new tuberculosis screening form required in subdivision 1 of this subsection.
3. A staff member or volunteer who comes into contact with a known case of infectious tuberculosis shall immediately obtain and submit to the center a new tuberculosis screening form required in subdivision 1 of this subsection. Until a new screening form is issued that documents the absence of tuberculosis in a communicable form, the staff member shall not have contact with children.
Part III
Staff Qualifications and Training
8VAC20-781-90. Director qualifications.
A. Directors shall be at least 21 years of age and shall have a high school diploma or the equivalent.
B. The director shall meet one of the following education and experience qualification options, as well as three months of experience in a supervisory capacity:
1. A bachelor's or graduate degree in a child-related field, such as child development, early childhood education, elementary education, recreation, or nursing, and three months programmatic experience.
2. Forty-eight college credits with 12 college credits in child-related courses and six months of programmatic experience;
3. The requirement for a lead teacher in 8VAC20-781-110 B 1 and one year of programmatic experience; or
4. The requirement for a lead teacher in 8VAC20-781-110 B 2 and two years of programmatic experience.
C. Directors without experience in a supervisory capacity shall complete, within 10 business days of employment or promotion, 10 hours of management training that includes information on supervising, orienting, training, and scheduling.
D. Notwithstanding subsection A of this section, an individual who is at least 19 years of age may serve as a director at a short-term program.
E. A director employed before (insert effective date of regulation) who met the education and experience qualifications in effect immediately before (insert effective date of regulation), and who has been continuously employed as a child day center director is considered to have met the requirements of this section.
8VAC20-781-100. Director responsibilities.
A. The licensee shall ensure that the director or one or more staff designated to assume the director's responsibilities who meets the requirements of 8VAC20-781-90 and who has received orientation and training on operation in the director's absence is on the premises for at least 50% of the center's hours of operation each week.
B. When the director or designee is not on the premises, the licensee shall designate a staff member at least 18 years of age to be on the premises of the center to oversee the administration of the center during the center's hours of operation.
8VAC20-781-110. Lead teacher qualifications.
A. Lead teachers shall be at least 18 years of age and shall have a high school diploma or the equivalent.
B. Lead teachers shall meet a director qualification stated in 8VAC20-781-90 or one of the following education and experience requirements:
1. Three months of programmatic experience and one of the following:
a. A one-year community college certificate in a child-related field with a minimum of 30 total college credits;
b. A career studies certificate in a child-related field with a minimum of 12 total college credits;
c. A teaching diploma from an internationally or nationally recognized Montessori organization; or
d. A credential in a child-related field by an organization listed in § 22.1-289.048 of the Code of Virginia or an equivalent credential recognized by the department.
2. Six months of programmatic experience and:
a. A Virginia endorsement in a child-related field approved by the department; or
b. Twenty-four hours of training in the following topics: child development, behavior guidance, playground safety, and health and safety issues. This training shall be completed before being promoted or beginning work or within 60 days after being promoted or beginning work. Orientation training required by 8VAC20-781-130 B and C shall not be used to meet this qualification.
C. Lead teachers at short-term programs shall have a minimum of 200 hours of programmatic experience, of which up to 24 hours can be formal training.
D. A lead teacher employed before (insert effective date of regulation), who met the education and experience qualifications in effect immediately before (insert effective date of regulation), and who has been continuously employed as a child day center lead teacher is considered to have met the requirements of this section.
8VAC20-781-120. Driver qualifications and requirements.
A. An individual who drives a vehicle to transport children for the center shall (i) be at least 18 years of age; (ii) possess a valid driver's license that authorizes the driver to operate the vehicle being driven; and (iii) provide, before transporting children, a driving record obtained from the state department of motor vehicles that issued the current license.
B. Centers that have obtained insurance for all individuals who transport children shall not be required to provide a driving record as required in subsection A of this section.
8VAC20-781-130. Orientation training.
A. The licensee shall ensure that all staff who will work with children complete the preservice training sponsored by the department within 90 calendar days of their date of employment. A staff member who has documentation of completing the preservice training shall not be required to retake the course.
B. The center shall provide orientation training to all staff who will work with children. The orientation training shall be completed by staff before working alone with a child and within seven days of the staff member's date of employment. The orientation training shall include all the following facility specific topics relevant to the staff member’s job responsibilities:
1. Recognizing child abuse and neglect and the legal requirements for reporting suspected child abuse and neglect as required by § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia;
2. Introduction and orientation to each child assigned to staff, including health issues documented according to 8VAC20-781-50 B 5;
3. Child development;
4. Classroom management;
5. Abusive head trauma prevention and, if serving infants or toddlers, prevention of shaken baby syndrome, coping with crying babies and distraught children;
6. Safe sleeping practices and sudden infant death syndrome awareness;
7. Playground safety to include (i) how staff will engage in the active supervision of children and (ii) maintenance of equipment and protective surfacing;
8. The supervision of children and all the requirements of Part V (8VAC20-781-260 et seq.) of this chapter to include (i) methods of active supervision of children; (ii) how the center will ensure that each group of children receives care by consistent staff or team of staff members; (iii) how the center will identify where children are at all times, including during group transitions and field trips; (iv) actions to take when a child arrives after scheduled activities have begun, including field trips or when the group is off site or not in the assigned room when the child arrives; and (v) maintaining staff-to-child ratios;
9. Assuming and releasing care of children to include (i) the method of confirming the absence of a child when the child is scheduled to arrive from another program or from an agency responsible for transporting the child to the center; (ii) the method for verifying that children are released only to individuals authorized by the parents; and (iii) child pickup after normal hours, during emergencies, and when a child's class is off site or not in the assigned area;
10. Actions to take in case of a lost or missing child, ill or injured child, or when a child has a medical or other emergency;
11. Confidentiality, including how records will be kept confidential and secure and how the privacy of children will be maintained, including expectations for communications, use of technology, and social media;
12. Food service, storage, safety and preparation, and nutrition, according to the requirements of 8VAC20-781-610 and 8VAC20-781-620;
13. Emergency procedures and written safety rules according to requirements of 8VAC20-781-450 and 8VAC20-781-460;
14. Emergency preparedness and response according to the requirements of Part IX (8VAC20-781-580 et seq.) of this chapter;
15. The center's transportation policies according to the requirements of 8VAC20-781-630 and 8VAC20-781-640, including accounting for children before leaving for a field trip, upon arriving at a field trip site, before leaving a field trip site, upon returning to the center, and during any stops on the field trip;
16. The center's policies and procedures for medication according to the requirements of Part VIII (8VAC20-781-510 et seq.) of this chapter;
17. Behavior guidance according to the requirements of 8VAC20-781-370 and 8VAC20-781-380;
18. Parent engagement, communication, notification, and agreements according to the requirements of 8VAC20-781-390, 8VAC20-781-400, and 8VAC20-781-410;
19. Preventing the spread of disease and infection control according to the requirements of Part VII (8VAC20-781-470 et seq.) of this chapter; and
20. Prevention of and response to emergencies due to food and other allergies, including:
a. Recognizing the symptoms of an allergic reaction;
b. Responding to allergic reactions;
c. Preventing exposure to the specific foods and other substances to which a child is allergic; and
d. Preventing cross-contamination.
C. The licensee shall ensure that all staff who work with children, within 30 days of the staff member's date of employment, complete an overview of first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) skills.
D. The licensee shall ensure that the director completes the prelicensure orientation sponsored by the department within 60 days of the director's date of employment or promotion. A director who has documentation of completing the prelicensure orientation shall not be required to retake the orientation.
E. Volunteers who regularly work with children more than eight hours per week shall receive training on the center's emergency procedures within the first week of volunteering. The center shall document and maintain a record that the volunteer received the training.
F. Parents or other persons who participate in a cooperative preschool center on behalf of a child attending such cooperative preschool center, including such parents and persons who are counted for the purpose of determining staff-to-child ratios, shall be exempt from orientation and training requirements applicable to staff of child day programs by this section. This orientation and training exemption shall not apply to a parent or other person who participates in a cooperative preschool center that has entered into a contract to provide child care services funded by the Child Care and Development Block Grant.
8VAC20-781-140. Ongoing training.
A. The licensee shall ensure that all staff complete annual training on emergency preparedness and response, child abuse and neglect, and mandated reporter requirements.
B. The licensee shall ensure that all staff who work with children complete at least 16 hours of ongoing training each year. Of these 16 hours, three hours shall include the department's health and safety update course. The ongoing training shall not include the training required by 8VAC20-781-130 B or C. The ongoing training shall be relevant to the staff member's job responsibilities and appropriate to the age of children in care.
C. Notwithstanding the requirements of 8VAC20-781-140 B, a center that runs a short-term program shall ensure that all staff who work with children complete at least 10 hours of ongoing training each year.
D. Volunteers who regularly work with children more than eight hours per week shall be required to complete annual training on the center's emergency procedures. The center shall document and maintain a record that the volunteer received the training.
E. Parents or other persons who participate in a cooperative preschool center on behalf of a child attending such cooperative preschool center, including parents and persons who are counted for the purpose of determining staff-to-child ratios, shall only be required to complete four hours of ongoing training each year. A parent or other person who participates in a cooperative preschool center that has entered into a contract to provide child care services funded by the Child Care and Development Block Grant shall complete the training requirements applicable to all centers by this section.
8VAC20-781-150. First aid training and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
A. The licensee shall ensure that at least two staff members who have the following certifications are present on the premises whenever a child is in care:
1. Current certification in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) as appropriate to the age of the children in care from an individual or organization holding instructor certification. The training shall include an in-person competency demonstration; and
2. Current certification in first aid from an individual or organization holding instructor certification.
B. The licensee shall ensure that at least one staff member in each classroom, area, or in each group of children on field trips where children are present meets the qualifications in subsection A of this section.
C. A primitive camp shall have one staff member on the premises who has a current certification in emergency medical responder training whenever the primitive camp has assumed responsibility for supervising a child.
D. Medical professionals with a current license or certification shall not be required to obtain first aid certification.
8VAC20-781-160. Daily health observation training.
A. The licensee shall ensure that there is at least one staff member on the premises who has obtained instruction within the last three years in performing daily health observations of children whenever the center has assumed responsibility for supervision of a child.
B. Daily health observation training shall include the following:
1. Components of daily health check for children;
2. Inclusion and exclusion of the child from the class when the child is exhibiting physical symptoms that show possible illness;
3. Descriptions of how diseases are spread and the procedures or methods for reducing the spread of disease;
4. Information concerning the Virginia Department of Health Notification of Reportable Diseases pursuant to 12VAC5-90-80 and 12VAC5-90-90, also available from the local health department and the website of the Virginia Department of Health; and
5. Staff occupational health and safety practices in accordance with Occupational Safety and Health Administration's bloodborne pathogens regulation (29 CFR 1910.1030).
C. The licensee shall ensure that a trained staff member conducts a daily health observation of each child as close to arrival as possible and whenever staff responsible for the care of a child notes a change in behavior or appearance.
8VAC20-781-170. Medication administration training.
A. The licensee shall ensure that the administration of prescription medication is performed by a staff member who (i) is licensed by the Commonwealth of Virginia to administer such medications or (ii) is qualified under § 54.1-3408 O of the Code of Virginia to administer medication to a child in a child day program and has satisfactorily completed a training program approved by the Board of Nursing and taught by a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or pharmacist.
B. To safely perform medication administration practices listed in 8VAC20-781-530, whenever the center has agreed to administer over-the-counter medications other than topical skin gel, cream, or ointment, the administration shall be performed by a staff member who has satisfactorily completed a training course developed or approved by the department in consultation with the Virginia Department of Health and the Board of Nursing and taught by a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, an advance practice registered nurse, physician assistant, doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or pharmacist or by a staff member who is licensed by the Commonwealth to administer medications.
C. The administration of undesignated or stock epinephrine shall be performed by:
1. A nurse at the center or employee of a local health department authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine;
2. A staff member at the center who is authorized by a prescriber and meets the requirements of subsections A, B, and D of this section;
3. A staff member who has satisfactorily completed a training course developed or approved by the department in consultation with the Virginia Department of Health; or
4. A staff member who has satisfactorily completed a course taught by a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, an advance practice registered nurse, physician assistant, doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or pharmacist that includes the following:
a. Recognizing signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis;
b. Emergency procedures for responding to anaphylaxis; and
c. Instructions and procedures for administering epinephrine.
D. Staff required to have medication administration training and training in the administration of undesignated or stock epinephrine shall be retrained at three-year intervals.
8VAC20-781-180. Driver training requirements.
The licensee shall ensure that an individual who drives a vehicle to transport children has received the following training before transporting children under the supervision of the center:
1. Proper use of child safety restraints in accordance with Virginia state law;
2. Proper loading, unloading, and tracking of children per center policies;
3. Issues that may arise in transporting children with behavioral issues;
4. The location of first aid supplies;
5. The emergency procedures for the vehicle, including actions to be taken if an accident occurs, vehicle malfunction, and medical emergencies; and
6. The center's transportation policies according to the requirements of 8VAC20-781-630 and 8VAC20-781-640, including accounting for children before leaving for a field trip, upon arriving at a field trip site, before leaving a field trip site, upon returning to the center, and any stops on the field trip.
Part IV
Physical Plant
8VAC20-781-190. Initial approval from other agencies; requirements before initial licensure.
A. Before issuance of an initial license, the center shall submit to the superintendent written documentation of the following:
1. Inspection by the authority that has jurisdiction that each building is in compliance with applicable building and fire codes or that the authority has approved a plan of correction for areas of noncompliance; and
2. Inspection from the local health department that each building is in compliance with applicable health codes with regard to water supply, sewage disposal system, and food service, if applicable, or a plan of correction approved by the local health department for areas of noncompliance.
B. A building that is currently approved for school occupancy and houses a public or private school during the school year shall be considered to have met the requirements of subdivision A 1 of this section when housing a center only serving children two and a half years of age or older.
C. Asbestos.
1. For buildings built before 1978, the center shall submit the following before the initial license is issued:
a. A written statement from a person licensed in Virginia as an asbestos inspector and management planner as required by § 22.1-289.052 of the Code of Virginia and the requirements of the Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act (15 USC § 2641 et seq.); and
b. A written statement that the response actions to abate risks to human health have been or will be initiated in accordance with a specific schedule and plan as recommended by the asbestos management planner in accordance with § 22.1-289.052 of the Code of Virginia.
2. If the asbestos inspector determines that there is asbestos on the premises, the center shall post a notice that (i) identifies the presence and location of asbestos containing materials and (ii) advises that the asbestos inspection report and management plan are available for review.
D. Lead.
1. For buildings built before 1978, the center shall submit the following before the initial license is issued:
a. A written statement from a person licensed in Virginia as a lead risk assessor who meets the requirements of § 54.1-500 of the Code of Virginia; and
b. A written lead risk assessment shall state that either (i) no lead was detected, (ii) lead was detected and response actions to abate risks to human health have been completed, or (iii) lead was detected and response actions to abate risks to human health have been recommended in accordance with a specified schedule.
2. A notice regarding the presence and location of lead containing materials advising that the lead inspection report and management plan are available for review shall be posted.
3. The provisions of this subsection do not apply to centers licensed before (insert the effective date of this chapter).
E. The provisions of subsections C and D of this section do not apply to centers located in buildings required to be inspected according to Article 5 (§ 2.2-1162 et seq.) of Chapter 11 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
F. Before the first license is issued, primitive camps shall (i) notify the responsible fire department and emergency medical service of the primitive camp location and hours of operation and (ii) maintain documentation of the notifications.
8VAC20-781-200. Annual and renewal approval from other agencies; requirements after initial licensure.
A. Before use of newly constructed, renovated, remodeled, or altered buildings or sections of buildings, the center shall submit to the superintendent written documentation of the following:
1. Inspection by the authority that has jurisdiction that each building is in compliance with applicable building and fire codes or that the authority has approved a plan of correction for areas of noncompliance; and
2. Inspection from the local health department that each building is in compliance with applicable health codes with regard to water supply, sewage disposal system, and food service, if applicable, or a plan of correction approved by the local health department for areas of noncompliance.
B. A building that is currently approved for school occupancy and houses a public or private school during the school year shall be considered to have met the requirements of subdivision A 1 of this section when housing a center only serving children two and a half years of age or older.
C. The center shall provide to the superintendent an annual fire inspection report from the appropriate fire official that has jurisdiction.
D. If a center is located in a building currently housing a public or private school, the center shall provide the school's annual fire inspection report.
E. The center shall provide to the superintendent an annual inspection from the local health department that each building is in compliance with applicable health codes with regard to water supply, sewage disposal system, and food service, if applicable, or a plan of correction approved by the local health department for areas of noncompliance.
F. If a center is using a building where asbestos containing materials were detected and not removed, the center shall follow the recommendations of the management plan and ensure the following:
1. A signed, written statement that the center is following the recommendations of the management plan shall be submitted to the superintendent before a license is issued.
2. The notice regarding the presence and location of asbestos containing materials and advising that the asbestos inspection report and management plan are available for review shall continue to be posted.
3. The provisions of this subsection do not apply to child day centers located in buildings required to be inspected according to Article 5 (§ 2.2-1162 et seq.) of Chapter 11 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
G. Primitive camps shall (i) notify the responsible fire department and the responsible emergency medical service of changes in the primitive camp location and hours of operation and (ii) maintain documentation of the notifications.
H. For those buildings built before 1978 where lead is detected and not removed:
1. A signed, written statement that the center is following the recommendations of the management plan shall be submitted to the department before a license is issued.
2. A notice regarding the presence and location of lead advising that the lead inspection report and management plan are available for review shall continue to be posted.
3. The provisions of this subsection do not apply to child day centers located in buildings required to be inspected according to Article 5 (§ 2.2-1162 et seq.) of Chapter 11 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
4. The provisions of this subsection do not apply to centers licensed before (insert the effective date of this chapter).
8VAC20-781-210. Building maintenance.
A. The center shall maintain the areas and equipment of the center, inside and outside, in a clean, safe, and operable condition. Unsafe conditions include splintered, cracked, or otherwise deteriorating wood; peeling paint; visible cracks, bending, warping, rusting, or breakage of equipment; loose or unsecured cords within reach of children; and unstable heavy equipment, furniture, or other items that a child could pull down.
B. The licensee shall ensure the following:
1. Hot water accessible to children does not exceed 120°F.
2. The heating system shall (i) be installed to prevent accessibility of the system to children and (ii) have appropriate barriers to prevent children from being burned, shocked, or injured from heating equipment. In addition, proper supervision shall be available to prevent injury.
3. Portable heaters shall only be used to provide or supplement heat if a power failure or similar emergency occurs. The licensee shall ensure that portable heaters are inaccessible to children and have the seal of approval of a nationally recognized testing laboratory or are approved by the state or local fire official. Portable heaters shall not be used within three feet of combustible materials and shall be used in accordance with manufacturer instructions.
4. Portable camping equipment for heating or cooking that is not required to be approved by the building official shall bear the label of a nationally recognized inspection agency and be used in accordance with manufacturer specifications, except for charcoal and wood-burning cooking equipment.
5. Unvented fuel burning heaters are not used when children are in care.
6. Electrical outlets and surge protectors accessible to children who are preschool age and younger are tamper-resistant or have protective covers.
7. Electrical cords are not spliced, deteriorated, or damaged, and unsecured electrical cords are inaccessible to children preschool age and younger.
8. Extension cords have the seal of a nationally recognized testing laboratory, are not overloaded, and are not placed through doorways, under carpeting, or across water source areas.
9. When in use, fans shall be out of reach of children and cords shall be secured.
10. In inside areas occupied by children, the temperature shall be maintained no lower than 68°F.
11. When the temperature of indoor areas occupied by children exceeds 80°F, fans or other cooling systems are used.
12. Safe drinking water is available to children at all times.
13. Equipment shall include (i) outside lighting provided at entrances and exits used by children before sunrise or after sundown and (ii) an in-service telephone or cell phone that is operable and accessible to staff on premises during the center's hours of operation.
14. Hazardous mechanical or electrical equipment are inaccessible to children.
C. Pursuant to § 22.1-289.058 of the Code of Virginia, each building built before 2015 used to operate a licensed child day center shall be equipped with one carbon monoxide detector.
D. Pursuant to § 22.1-289.057 of the Code of Virginia, the license shall:
1. a. Develop and implement a plan to test potable water;
b. Remediate and retest if necessary; and
c. Submit results of initial testing and retesting to the superintendent and the Department of Health’s Office of Drinking Water; or
2. Use for human consumption, as defined by § 32.1-167, bottled water, water coolers, or other similar water source that meets the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) standards for bottled water. The licensee shall notify the superintendent, the Virginia Department of Health's Office of Drinking Water, and the parent of each child enrolled in the program if the water is not tested or if the program does not remediate when lead is present and instead chooses to use another water source that meets FDA standards for bottled water.
8VAC20-781-220. Hazardous substances and other harmful agents.
A. The licensee shall ensure that hazardous substances and chemicals, including cleaning products, sanitizing agents, pesticides, flammable and explosive materials, and substances labeled as keep out of reach of children, toxic, danger, caution, warning, flammable, harmful if swallowed, causes burns, harmful vapor, or poison are stored in the following manner:
1. Inaccessible to children in a location that is locked. If a key is used, the key shall be inaccessible to children;
2. In the original container or a substitute container with the contents clearly labeled; and
3. In areas physically separate from food and items used for food preparation or food service.
Cleaning supplies to clean and sanitize the diapering area or toilet chairs do not need to be kept locked during diapering or toilet training time if they are inaccessible to children.
B. Items such as cosmetics, personal care items, and air fresheners that are used exclusively by staff or volunteers shall be inaccessible to children but are not required to be locked.
C. The licensee shall ensure that smoking and the use of electronic smoking devices are prohibited in the interior of a center while children are in care, in vehicles when children are being transported, or outdoors in the presence of children.
D. Hazardous items.
1. Empty plastic bags large enough for a child's head to fit inside, disposable gloves, and rubber or latex balloons shall be inaccessible to children younger than three years of age;
2. Items with a diameter of less than 1-1/4 inch and a length of less than 2-1/4 inches shall be inaccessible to children younger than three years of age; and
3. Strings and cords long enough to encircle a child's neck, such as those found on window blinds or drapery cords, shall be inaccessible to children younger than six years of age.
8VAC20-781-230. Areas.
A. Indoor space shall be measured inside wall-to-wall, excluding spaces not routinely used by children. Areas not routinely used for children's activities, such as offices, hallways, restrooms, kitchens, storage rooms, or closets, shall not be calculated as available space.
B. Centers shall have 35 square feet of indoor space available for each child.
C. Licensees that were licensed before (insert the effective date of this regulation) and subsequent licensees that operate in buildings approved before June 1, 2008, shall have 25 square feet of indoor space available for each child 16 months of age and older.
D. The center shall designate a separate space for children who are ill or injured.
E. The licensee shall ensure that space utilized for an outside play area has at least 75 square feet of space per child.
F. For centers licensed for the care of infants or toddlers, at least 25 square feet of the 75 square feet required in subsection E of this section shall be an unpaved surface.
G. Infants and toddlers shall have a separate outdoor play area or shall not occupy the outdoor play area at the same time as preschool and school-age children.
8VAC20-781-240. Toileting areas and furnishings.
A. Centers shall have at least two toilets and two sinks.
B. The licensee shall ensure that each toileting area provided for children:
1. Is within a contained area, readily available, and within the building used by the children. Toilets used by children at primitive camps are not required to be located within the building.
2. Has flushable toilets.
3. Has sinks located near the toilets that are supplied with running water.
4. Is equipped with a lined waste container, soap, toilet paper, and disposable towels or an air dryer within reach of children.
C. Centers shall have at least one toilet and one sink per 20 preschool children and at least one standard-size toilet and one sink per 30 school-age children. When sharing restroom areas with other programs, the children in those programs shall be included in the toilet and sink ratio calculations. The toilet and sink ratio appropriate to the younger age group shall apply. Urinals shall not count for more than 50% of the number of toilets in the toileting area.
D. When child-size toilets, urinals, and low sinks are not available in restrooms used by children of preschool age and younger, one or more platforms or sets of steps shall be provided. Platform steps shall be anchored or broad based to prevent toppling and have a non-slip surface.
E. A toileting area used for school-age children shall have at least one toileting area enclosed.
8VAC20-781-250. Indoor and outdoor play areas and equipment.
A. Outdoor play areas shall be located and designed to protect children from hazards including bodies of water and vehicular traffic.
B. Indoor and outdoor playground and climbing equipment shall be age appropriate for the children using it.
C. For child day centers licensed before (insert the effective date of this regulation), where playground equipment is provided, protective surfacing shall comply with minimum safety standards when tested in accordance with the procedures described in the American Society for Testing and Materials standard F1292-99 as shown in Table 1 (Compressed Loose Fill Synthetic Materials Depth Chart) and Table 2 (Use Zones for Equipment) below and shall be under equipment with moving parts or climbing apparatus to create a use zone free of hazardous obstacles. A use zone shall encompass sufficient area to include the child's trajectory if a fall occurs while the equipment is in use. Where steps are used for accessibility, protective surfacing is not required.
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Table 1. Compressed Loose Fill Synthetic Materials Depth Chart
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Loose-fill Material Type
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Required Depth
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Maximum Equipment Fall Height
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Engineered wood fiber
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6 inches
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7 feet
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9 inches
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8 feet
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Pea gravel
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6 inches
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4 feet
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9 inches
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5 feet
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Recycled shredded rubber
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6 inches
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8 feet
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Sand
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6 inches
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8 feet
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Wood chips
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6 inches
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7 feet
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9 inches
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8 feet
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Wood mulch
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6 inches
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7 feet
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9 inches
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10 feet
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Wood mulch-double shredded
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6 inches
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6 feet
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9 inches
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10 feet
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D. Depth requirements in this section are required unless the facility has received documentation of third-party laboratory testing verifying that the type, depth of protective surfacing, or installation process used at the facility complies with the most recent recommendations by the U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission's (CPSC) Public Playground Safety Handbook.
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Table 2. Use Zones for Equipment
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Equipment
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Use Zone
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Stationary Equipment
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Six feet on all sides of the equipment.
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Slides
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Six feet on all sides. The use zone in front of the exit shall be a minimum of 6 feet and at least as long as the slide is high up to a maximum of 8 feet.
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Swings
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Six feet on each side. Twice the height of the swing beam in the front and back of the swing.
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E. For child day centers licensed after (insert the effective date of this regulation) where playground equipment is provided, protective surfacing and use zones shall comply with protective surfacing requirements in the most current U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission's (CPSC) Public Playground Safety Handbook.
F. Use zones shall be free of obstacles, including containment barriers for protective surfacing, and shall extend a minimum of six feet in all directions from the perimeter of the equipment.
G. Climbing equipment and swings shall not be installed over asphalt or concrete unless the asphalt or concrete is:
1. Covered with a properly installed unitary surfacing material; or
2. Covered with a loose-fill surfacing system (see Table 3). A loose-fill surfacing system shall include the following layers of protection:
a. Immediately over the hard surface there shall be a three- to six-inch base layer of loose-fill gravel for drainage;
b. The next layer shall be a geo-textile cloth;
c. On top of the geo-textile cloth there shall be a loose-fill layer meeting the requirements of Table 1 of this section; and
d. Impact attenuating mats shall be embedded in the top loose-fill layer in high traffic areas. High traffic areas include underneath swings, at slide exits, and other places where displacement is likely.
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Table 3. Loose-Fill Surfacing System Requirements for Use Over Asphalt or Concrete
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Layer 5: Impact mats- under swings and slide exits
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Layer 4: Loose-fill surface material- as required by 8VAC20-781-250 C
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Layer 3: Cloth barrier- geo-textile cloth
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Layer 2: Drainage layer- three to six inches of gravel
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Layer 1: Hard Surface of existing asphalt or concrete
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H. Ground supports shall be covered with materials that protect children from injury.
I. Swing seats shall be constructed with flexible material such as rubber, canvas, or nylon.
1. Nonflexible molded swing seats shall only be used in a separate infant or toddler play area.
2. Swings made specifically for a child with a special need is permitted if a staff member is positioned to see and protect other children who might walk into the path of the swing.
3. Multi-axis swings including tire swings (i) shall not use steel belted tires, and (ii) the minimum clearance between the seating surface of the swing and the uprights of the supporting structure shall be 30 inches when the seat is in a position closest to the support structure.
J. Sandboxes shall be covered when not in use.
K. A shady area shall be provided in outdoor play areas during the months of May through September.
L. Play equipment used by children shall meet the following requirements:
1. Openings above the ground or floor that allow a 3 ½ inch by 6 ¼ inch rectangle to fit through shall also allow a nine-inch circle to fit through to prevent entrapment of a child’s body or body part.
2. All hooks, such as S-hooks and C-hooks, shall be properly closed and shall not be open more than 0.04 inches and less than the thickness of a dime; and
3. Have no protrusions, sharp points, shearing points, or pinch points.
M. The maximum fall height of slides and climbing equipment installed before June 1, 2005, and used by toddlers, twos, and preschool children, shall be seven feet high when outdoors, and five feet high when indoors.
N. The maximum fall height of slides and climbing equipment installed after June 1, 2005, and used by toddlers, twos, and preschool children, shall be six feet high when outdoors, and five feet when indoors.
O. Indoor slides and climbing equipment with a fall height over 18 inches shall not be over bare flooring.
P. Indoor slides and climbing equipment with a fall height of 36 inches or more shall be located over protective surfacing.
Q. Slides shall not have spaces or gaps that could trap strings, clothing, or body parts between the platform and the start of the slide chute.
R. Trampolines shall not be used.
S. When inflatable equipment is used, the equipment shall be assembled, maintained, and used in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions.
T. The requirements of this section shall not prohibit child day programs providing care for preschool or school-age children at a location that is currently approved by the department or recognized as a private school by the State Board of Education for school occupancy and that houses a public or private school during the school year from permitting preschool or school-age children to use outdoor play equipment and areas approved for use by students of the school during school hours.
Part V
Staffing and Supervision
8VAC20-781-260. Supervision of children.
A. The licensee shall ensure that staff provide for the safety of children under the supervision of the center.
B. The licensee shall ensure that staff remain alert to the needs of the children in the care of the center.
C. Whenever a child is in the care of the center, there shall be on the premises at least (i) a lead teacher and (ii) a staff member or volunteer who has received training on how to contact appropriate authorities if an emergency occurs.
D. There shall be at least one staff member who meets the qualifications of a lead teacher in each group of children, except during short breaks and special activities.
E. A lead teacher is not required in each grouping of children during the first and last 90 minutes of operation when a center operates more than eight hours per day and during the designated rest period if the following are met:
1. There is a staff member in the group who is older than 18 years of age and has at least three months of programmatic experience;
2. There is an additional staff member on premises who meets lead teacher qualifications, is not counted in the staff-to-children ratios, and is immediately available to help if needed; and
3. There is a direct means for communicating between these two staff members.
F. For children younger than 10 years of age, the licensee shall ensure sight and sound supervision by staff who are always physically present without separation by a physical barrier, except that staff need only be able to hear a child who is using the restroom, provided that:
1. There is a system to ensure that individuals who are not staff members or persons allowed to pick up a child in care are not present in the restroom area while in use by children;
2. Staff check on a child who has not returned from the restroom after five minutes. Depending on the location and layout of the restroom, staff shall provide intermittent sight supervision of the children in the restroom area during this five-minute period to ensure the safety of children and to provide assistance to children as needed; and
3. Staff can hear or see the children. Video equipment, intercom systems, or other technological devices shall not substitute for staff being able to directly see or hear children.
G. Children 10 years of age and older shall be within sight and sound supervision of staff, except when the following requirements are met:
1. Staff can hear or see the children. Video equipment, intercom systems, or other technological devices shall not substitute for staff being able to directly see or hear children;
2. Staff are nearby to provide immediate intervention if needed;
3. There is a system to ensure that staff know where the children are and what they are doing;
4. There is a system to ensure that individuals who are not staff members or persons allowed to pick up children in care are not present in the areas where children are not under sight supervision; and
5. Staff provide sight and sound supervision of the children at variable and unpredictable intervals not to exceed 15 minutes.
H. When the outdoor activity area is not adjacent to the center, there shall be at least two staff members on the outdoor activity area whenever one or more children are present.
8VAC20-781-270. Staff-to-children ratio and group size requirements.
A. The maximum group size limitations specified in Table 1 shall be followed whenever children are in care.
Table 1. Maximum Group Size Requirements |
|
Age |
Maximum Group Size |
| 1. |
Birth to 16 months |
12 |
| 2. |
16 months to 24 months |
15 |
| 3. |
2 years of age |
24 |
| 4. |
3 years of age to school-age eligibility |
30 |
| 5. |
School-age eligible through 12 years of age |
100 |
B. The staff-to-children ratios specified in Table 2 are required whenever children are in care.
Table 2. Ratio Requirements |
|
Age |
Ratio (staff:children) |
| 1. |
Birth to 16 months |
1:4 |
| 2. |
16 months to 24 months |
1:5 |
| 3. |
2 years of age |
1:8 |
| 4. |
3 years of age to school-age eligibility |
1:10 |
| 5. |
School-age eligible through 12 years of age |
1:20 |
C. In accordance with Part V (8VAC20-820-220 et seq.) of 8VAC20-820 and with approval by the superintendent, a center may temporarily alter the staff-to-child ratios (i) by one child for groups of children from birth to school-age eligibility and (ii) by two children for groups of children school-age eligible through 12 years of age. Under this provision, group sizes three times the approved ratios may be implemented for children from birth to school-age eligibility. Group size for school-age children shall meet the requirements in subsection A of this section.
D. When a group includes children from different age groups, the age of the youngest child in the group shall be used to determine the staff-to-children ratio and group size for that group.
E. Group size limitations shall not apply during the following:
1. Designated rest periods as described in 8VAC20-781-280 and 8VAC20-781-290;
2. Outdoor activity as described in 8VAC20-781-320, 8VAC20-781-340, and 8VAC20-781-350;
3. Transportation and field trips as described in 8VAC20-781-630 and 8VAC20-781-640;
4. Meals and snacks served as described in 8VAC20-781-610; or
5. Special group activities, or during the first and last hour of operation when the center operates more than six hours per day.
F. Staff shall be counted in the required staff-to-children ratios only when they are directly supervising children.
G. A child volunteer 13 years of age or older not enrolled in the program shall not be counted as a child in the staff-to-children ratio requirements.
H. With a parent's written permission and a written assessment by the director and lead teacher, a center may choose to assign a child to a different age group if the age group is more appropriate for the child's developmental level and the staff-to-children ratio and group size shall be for the established age group. These assignments are intended to be a permanent new group and staff members for the child until it is determined the child's developmental level indicates a new assignment.
8VAC20-781-280. Ratios and group size for a balanced mixed-age grouping.
A. The ratio for a classroom of a balanced mixed-age grouping of children preschool to six years of age shall be one staff member for every 14 children, provided:
1. The center has additional staff who are readily accessible if there is an emergency to maintain a ratio of one staff member for every 10 children when children three years of age are included in the balanced mixed-age group; and
2. The lead teacher has received at least eight hours of training in classroom management of a balanced mixed-age grouping.
B. The staff-to-children ratio for a balanced mixed-age grouping during rest time shall be one staff member for every 28 children and the requirements 8VAC20-781-290 B, C, and D shall be met.
C. A maximum group size of 28 shall be followed whenever children in care are in a balanced mixed-age grouping.
8VAC20-781-290. Ratios during designated rest periods.
A. For children 16 months of age through preschool age, during the designated rest period, when children are resting or in an inactive state, the following rest period ratios are permitted if the requirements of subsections B, C, and D of this section are met:
1. Children 16 to 24 months of age: one staff member per 10 children.
2. Children two years of age: one staff member per 16 children.
3. Children of preschool age: one staff member per 20 children.
B. In addition to the staff required by rest period ratios, an additional staff member shall always be available on site to offer immediate assistance. The staff required by rest period ratios shall be able to summon the additional staff member without leaving the room or area of the sleeping or resting children.
C. Once at least half of the children in the resting room or area are awake and off their mats or cots, the staff-to-children ratio shall meet the ratios as required in 8VAC20-781-270 and 8VAC20-781-280.
D. The licensee shall ensure that one staff member shall not supervise more than one room or area during rest time.
E. Centers providing evening and overnight care shall meet the requirements of subsections A through D of this section during sleep periods.
8VAC20-781-300. Ratios and supervision during transportation and field trips.
A. The staff-to-children ratios of 8VAC20-781-270 and 8VAC20-781-280 A shall be followed on all field trips.
B. The staff-to-children ratio need not apply during transportation of school-age children to and from the center.
C. One staff member or adult is necessary in addition to the driver when 16 or more preschool age or younger children are being transported in the vehicle.
Part VI
Program Requirements and Equipment
8VAC20-781-310. Daily activities.
A. The center shall provide a variety of daily activities for all age groups that are age and stage appropriate and based on the physical, social, emotional, and intellectual needs of the children.
B. The center shall provide opportunities for staff-directed and self-directed activities, a balance of active and quiet activities, active outdoor play, and individual and group activities.
C. If the center uses media such as television, videos, video games, software, and computers, the following shall apply:
1. For infants, the use of visual media is prohibited.
2. For toddlers, media use up to two hours per day is permitted if the center operates more than six hours per day.
3. For children two years of age and older, no more than a total of two hours per day is permitted when content is not based on curriculum or educational content.
4. All media provided by the center shall be limited to age-appropriate programs and meet all the requirements in subsection A of this section.
D. Requirements in subdivision C 3 of this section do not apply to school-age children who attend educational programming that incorporates technology into curriculum learning activities.
E. Children shall be allowed to sleep or rest as individually needed.
8VAC20-781-320. Daily care and activities for infants.
A. The center shall post a flexible daily schedule for infants based on individual needs and the requirements of 8VAC20-781-310 B.
B. During the day, the licensee shall ensure that infants are provided with the following:
1. Food as specified in 8VAC20-781-610 and 8VAC20-781-620;
2. Outdoor time, unless weather or the Air Quality Color Code Chart as provided by the Department of Environmental Quality states that outdoor conditions are hazardous;
3. Comfort, as needed;
4. Stimulation and language development activities, including staff reading, talking to, showing pictures to, naming objects for, playing with, and engaging in positive interactions (e.g., smiling, cuddling, and making eye contact) with infants;
5. A variety of play spaces that offer:
a. Room for extensive movement (i.e., rolling, crawling, or walking) and exploration;
b. A diversity of sensory and perceptual experiences; and
c. Equipment and toys that support large and small motor development.
6. Frequent opportunities for infants to creep, crawl, toddle, and walk; and
7. Protection from older children.
C. The licensee shall ensure that staff respond promptly to infants who are crying or distraught.
D. The licensee shall ensure that, for an infant playing on the floor or ground who cannot move without help, staff ensure that the infant's position and the selection of toys accessible to the infant changes every 30 minutes or more often based on the infant's needs.
E. The licensee shall ensure that staff shall not confine infants who are awake and not actively eating in one piece of equipment, including swings, highchairs, cribs, play pens, or other similar pieces of equipment, for more than 30 consecutive minutes. Except when eating, the intervening time between confinements shall be at least 30 minutes.
F. The licensee shall ensure that for infants who are awake and unable to turn over alone, staff shall make a minimum of two attempts at supervised tummy time throughout the day.
G. The licensee shall ensure that infant car seats are only used for child transportation.
H. The licensee shall ensure that cribs are only used for rest and sleep.
8VAC20-781-330. Resting and sleeping infants.
A. The licensee shall ensure that staff allow infants to follow individual patterns of sleeping and eating.
B. The licensee shall ensure that staff place infants in cribs on their backs (i.e., supine) rather than on their bellies (i.e., prone), unless otherwise ordered by a written, signed statement by the child's physician or physician's designee.
C. The licensee shall ensure that when an infant is able to turn supine to the prone, staff place the infant supine but allow the infant to adopt the infant's preferred position unless otherwise directed in a written, signed statement by the child’s physician or physician's designee.
D. The licensee shall ensure that staff shall not use sleep-adaptive equipment unless otherwise directed in a written, signed statement by the child's physician or physician's designee.
E. The licensee shall ensure that each resting or sleeping infant is individually checked for breathing, the color of the infant's skin, signs of distress, and to ensure safe sleep conditions are still met every 15 to 20 minutes.
F. The licensee shall ensure that staff shall move an infant who falls asleep outside of the crib to the infant's assigned crib as soon as possible.
G. The licensee shall ensure that staff ensure that items that could restrict infant movement or breathing (e.g., swaddling, weighted blankets, bibs, necklaces, or garments with ties or hoods) or cover the infant's head or face are not included in the crib with sleeping infants.
8VAC20-781-340. Daily care and activities for toddlers, twos, and preschoolers.
A. The center shall develop, follow, and post a daily schedule that allows for flexibility as children's needs require and that meets the requirements of 8VAC20-781-310 B. The daily schedule need not apply on days occupied a majority of the time by a field trip or other special event. The outdoor activity time need not apply when the weather or the Air Quality Color Code Chart as provided by the Department of Environmental Quality states that outdoor conditions are hazardous. The daily schedule shall include opportunities for:
1. Outdoor activity for at least:
a. Fifteen minutes per day or session if the center operates up to three hours per day or session;
b. Thirty minutes per day or session if the center operates between three and five hours per day or session; or
c. One hour per day or session if the center operates more than five hours per day or session.
2. Sleep or rest. Centers operating five or more hours per day shall have a designated rest period for at least one hour but no more than two hours.
3. Meals and snacks as specified in 8VAC20-781-610.
4. Small and large motor activities, language and communication experiences, sensory experiences, art, or music activities, and play acting or social living.
B. After the first 30 minutes of a rest period, children not sleeping shall be permitted to engage in quiet activities.
C. A child who falls asleep in a place other than the child's designated sleeping location may remain in that space if comfortable and safe.
D. The licensee shall ensure that each sleeping toddler is individually checked for breathing, the color of the toddler's skin, signs of distress, and to ensure safe sleep conditions are still met every 30 minutes.
E. The licensee shall ensure that staff do not confine children who are awake and not actively eating in one piece of equipment, including swings, highchairs, cribs, play pens, or other similar pieces of equipment, for more than 30 consecutive minutes. Except when eating, the intervening time between confinements shall be at least one hour.
8VAC20-781-350. Daily care and activities for school-age children.
A. The center shall develop, follow, and post a daily schedule for school-age children that allows for flexibility based on individual needs and the requirements of 8VAC20-781-310 B. This schedule need not apply on field trip days or special events. The outdoor activity time need not apply when the weather or the Air Quality Color Code Chart as provided by the Department of Environmental Quality states that outdoor conditions are hazardous.
B. Before or after school, the center shall provide an opportunity for children to do homework, projects, hobbies, small motor activities, art activities, or music activities in a suitable area. In the afternoon, there shall be an opportunity for large motor activities at least 25% of the time.
C. On non-school days, the center shall provide opportunities for (i) large motor activities at least 25% of the time; (ii) small motor activities; (iii) projects, hobbies, or homework in a suitable place; (iv) art or music activities; (v) outdoor activity for at least one hour per day; and (vi) food as specified in 8VAC20-781-610.
8VAC20-781-360. Daily care and activities for children with special needs.
A. The center shall work with the parent and the staff assigned to the child to develop a plan to ensure that a child with special needs receives care and activity opportunities appropriate to the child's individual needs, including specific care and activities recommended by a professional. The plan shall be documented and maintained in the child's record and updated annually or more frequently, as necessary.
B. For a child who cannot move without assistance, staff shall change the place and position of the child at least every 30 minutes or according to the child's needs.
8VAC20-781-370. Behavioral guidance.
A. The center shall use positive methods of guiding behavior.
B. When a child is in the care of the center, the licensee shall ensure that staff interact with children and one another to provide needed help, comfort, support and:
1. Respect personal privacy;
2. Respect differences in cultural, ethnic, religious, and family backgrounds;
3. Encourage decision-making abilities;
4. Promote ways of getting along;
5. Encourage independence and self-direction; and
6. Use consistency in applying expectations.
C. The licensee shall ensure that behavioral guidance is constructive in nature, age and stage appropriate, and is intended to redirect children to appropriate behavior and resolve conflicts.
D. If time-out is used as a behavior guidance technique:
1. It shall be used sparingly and shall not exceed one minute for each year of the child's age;
2. It shall be appropriate to the child's developmental level and individual needs;
3. It shall not be used with infants or toddlers;
4. The child shall be in a safe, lighted, well-ventilated place, and within sight and sound of a staff member; and
5. The child shall not be left alone inside or outside the center.
8VAC20-781-380. Prohibited actions.
The following actions or threats are prohibited:
1. Physical punishment;
2. Striking a child, roughly handling or shaking a child, biting, pinching, restricting movement through binding or tying, forcing a child to assume an uncomfortable position, forced exercise, or action taken to cause pain or discomfort;
3. Enclosure in a small, confined space or a space that the child cannot freely exit; however, this does not apply to the use of equipment such as cribs, play yards, highchairs, and safety gates when used with children preschool age or younger for the intended purpose;
4. Permitting a child to discipline or punish other children;
5. Punitive separation from the group so that the child is away from the hearing and vision of a staff member;
6. Withholding or forcing of food, water, or rest;
7. Verbal remarks that are demeaning to the child or psychological punishment, including ridicule or humiliation;
8. Punishment for toileting accidents or withholding opportunities for toileting;
9. Punishment by applying unpleasant or harmful substances; and
10. Withholding outside activity time as punishment.
8VAC20-781-390. Parental engagement.
Before the child's first day of attending, parents shall be notified about how to access the following:
1. The center's philosophy and if applicable, religious affiliation;
2. Operating information, including the hours and days of operation and holidays or other times closed, and the contact information to communicate with staff;
3. Description of established lines of authority for staff;
4. A custodial parent's right to be admitted to the center as required by § 22.1-289.054 of the Code of Virginia;
5. The appropriate general daily schedule for the age of the enrolling child;
6. How the center will notify parents of emergency situations and send parent communication and notifications as required by 8VAC20-781-400;
7. The following information from the center's emergency procedures:
a. The relocation site;
b. Method of communication with parents and emergency responders; and
c. Procedure to reunite children with a parent or authorized person designated by the parent;
8. The center's transportation policy;
9. The center's policies for the arrival and departure of children, including procedures for verifying that only persons authorized by the parent are allowed to pick up the child, picking up children after closing, and when a child is not picked up for emergency situations, including inclement weather or natural or man-made disasters;
10. The center's policy regarding medication or medical procedures that will be given;
11. The center's policy regarding application of topical skin products;
12. The center's policy for reporting suspected child abuse and neglect as required by § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia;
13. The center's food policies;
14. Discipline policies, including acceptable and unacceptable discipline measures; and
15. Termination policies.
8VAC20-781-400. Parent communication and notification.
A. The center shall inform parents when a pattern of behavioral problems emerges or persists. Notification shall include actions taken in response.
B. The center shall maintain a written record and provide parents with a written report of each injury involving their child on the day of occurrence. The written report shall protect the confidentiality of other children involved, and shall include:
1. Date and time of incident or injury;
2. Child's name;
3. Type and circumstance of incident or injury;
4. Staff present and actions taken or treatment offered;
5. Date, time, and method used to notify parents;
6. Staff and parent signatures or two staff signatures; and
7. Future action to prevent reoccurrence.
C. The center shall notify the parent immediately and provide written documentation pursuant to subsection B of this section if the following incidents occur:
1. The child sustains an injury that may reasonably require medical or dental treatment.
2. The child has an adverse reaction to an administered medication or topical skin product, a medication error has occurred, or the center has administered an emergency medication.
3. The child has a confirmed or suspected allergic reaction or has ingested food identified in the written care plan required in 8VAC20-781-50 B 6 even if a reaction did not occur.
4. A situation in which the child's whereabouts is or was unknown, including a lost or missing child, a child left unattended in a vehicle or on the playground, or a child who wandered away unattended from the facility or assigned group.
D. When a child has been exposed to a communicable disease listed in the Virginia Department of Health's current communicable disease chart, the parents shall be notified within 24 hours or the next business day of the center's having been informed unless forbidden by law, except for life threatening diseases, which shall be reported to parents immediately.
E. Parents shall be informed in writing of a change to the center’s relocation site, the communication plan, and the reunification plan.
F. If an emergency evacuation or relocation is necessary, the parent shall be informed of the child's whereabouts as soon as possible as stated in the center’s emergency preparedness and response plan.
G. For each infant, the center shall maintain a daily record that can be easily accessed by both the parent and the staff working with the child. The record shall contain the following information:
1. The amount of time the infant slept;
2. The amount of food consumed and the time;
3. Record of diaper changes and the application of diaper ointment;
4. A description and time of bowel movements;
5. Developmental milestones and daily activities; and
6. For infants who are awake and cannot turn over by themselves, the number of attempts at tummy time.
H. Parents shall be informed of reasons for termination of services.
I. The center shall provide to parents of children at least semiannually or more frequently if needed:
1. Written information about the child's development and needs; and
2. Scheduled opportunities for parents to provide feedback on the child. This opportunity to provide feedback shall be documented.
J. Information on a child required by subsection I of this section shared between the child's parents and the center shall be documented in the child's record.
K. Requirements in subsection I of this section shall not apply to school-age children and children participating in short-term programs as defined in 8VAC20-781-10.
8VAC20-781-410. Parental agreements.
A written agreement between the parent and the center shall be in each child's record by the first day of the child's attendance. The agreement shall be signed by the parent and include:
1. An authorization for emergency medical care should an emergency occur when the parent cannot be located immediately, unless the parent states in writing an objection to the provision of emergency medical care on religious or other grounds;
2. A statement that the center will notify the parent when the child becomes ill and that the parent will arrange to have the child picked up as soon as possible if requested by the center;
3. A statement that the parent will inform the center within 24 hours or the next business day after his child or a member of the immediate household has developed a reportable communicable disease, as defined by the State Board of Health, except for life threatening diseases, which shall be reported immediately; and
4. Authorization for the center to transport the child if an emergency occurs, including needing medical care or facility relocation.
8VAC20-781-420. Play furnishings, equipment, materials, and toys.
A. Furnishings, equipment, and materials shall be (i) of an appropriate size for the child using the item and (ii) used in accordance with manufacturer instructions.
B. Materials and equipment shall be available, shall be age and stage appropriate for the children, and shall include an adequate supply, as appropriate for each age group, of arts and crafts materials, texture materials, construction materials, music and sound materials, books, social living equipment, and manipulative equipment.
1. Equipment used for play with a diameter of less than 1-1/4 inch and a length of less than 2-1/4 inches shall be inaccessible to children younger than three years of age; and
2. Toys and equipment with cords and strings shall only be accessible to children two years of age and older.
C. Washable toys and materials used by infants shall be cleaned and sanitized daily, or more often if necessary.
D. The following cloth items provided by the center shall be washable: stuffed animals, cloth dolls, and dress-up clothes. Floor pillows shall be washable or have removable covers that are machine washable. When used by children, the center shall wash stuffed animals, cloth dolls, dress-up clothes, and pillows or removable covers at least once a week or when soiled.
E. If water play tables or tubs are used, they shall be cleaned and sanitized daily.
F. If combs, toothbrushes, or other personal articles are used, they shall be individually assigned.
G. Disposable products not used for play, learning, or craft activities shall be used once and discarded.
H. Provision shall be made for an individual place for each child's personal belongings.
I. Infant walkers shall not be used.
J. Play yards where used shall:
1. Meet the current Juvenile Products Manufacturers Association (JPMA) and the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) requirements and shall retain the manufacturer label documenting product compliance with current safety standards at the time the play yard was manufactured;
2. Not use pillows or filled comforters;
3. Not be used for the designated sleeping area;
4. Not be occupied by more than one child; and
5. Be sanitized each day of use or more often as needed.
K. The licensee shall register to receive free recall alerts from the U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission and shall remove all recalled items from the center.
L. Portable water coolers shall be cleaned daily when in use, kept securely closed, and designed so that water may be withdrawn from the container only by tap.
8VAC20-781-430. Cribs, cots, rest mats, and beds.
A. Cribs, cots, rest mats, or beds shall be provided for children during the designated rest period and not be occupied by more than one child at a time.
B. Cribs shall not be used as a play space.
C. Cribs, cots, rest mats, and beds shall be identified for use by a specific child.
D. Double-decker cribs, cots, beds, or other sleeping equipment, when stacked, shall not be permitted to be used for children.
E. Occupied cribs, cots, rest mats, and beds shall be at least 2-1/2 feet from heat-producing appliances.
F. There shall be at least 12 inches of space between occupied cots, beds, and rest mats.
G. Twelve inches of space is not required where cots, beds, or rest mats are located adjacent to a wall or a divider if one side is open at all times to allow for passage.
H. Mattresses, cots, or rest mats shall be (i) nonabsorbent or covered with a waterproof material and (ii) sanitized on all sides weekly or before use by another child.
I. Rest mats shall have at least one inch of cushioning.
J. Cribs shall be used for children under 12 months of age.
K. Cribs shall meet the following requirements:
1. Meet the current Consumer Product Safety Commission Standards at the time the crib was manufactured;
2. Have no more than one inch between the mattress and the crib; and
3. Not have mesh sides.
L. Cribs shall be placed where objects outside the crib, such as cords from blinds or curtains, are not within reach of children in cribs.
M. There shall be at least:
1. Twelve inches of space between the sides and ends of occupied cribs, except where the crib touches the wall or solid barrier; and
2. Thirty inches of space between service sides of occupied cribs and other furniture where that space is the walkway for staff to gain access to occupied cribs.
N. If cribs with a swing-down safety gate on one side for easy access to a child are used, the hinged safety gates shall be up and the fastenings secured when a child is in the crib, except when a staff member is giving the child immediate attention.
O. No soft objects or loose bedding, including pillows, blankets, quilts, comforters, sheepskins, bumper pads, or stuffed toys, shall be used with infants under 12 months of age when sleeping or resting.
P. Toys or objects hung over an infant in a crib and crib gyms that are strung across the crib shall be out of reach of the infant and shall not be used for infants over five months of age or infants who are able to push up on their hands and knees.
8VAC20-781-440. Linens.
A. Cribs, when being used by infants, shall only have a tight-fitted bottom cover that does not make the mattress buckle or bend.
B. Cribs, cots, mats, and beds used by children other than infants during the designated rest period or during evening and overnight care shall have linens consisting of a top cover and a bottom cover or a one-piece covering that is open on three edges.
C. Linens and pillows used by children shall be (i) assigned for individual use and (ii) stored separately from the linens and pillows of other children.
D. Linens and pillows shall be changed when wet, soiled, or dirty and linens shall be washed at least weekly.
E. Pillows, when used, shall be covered with pillowcases.
8VAC20-781-450. Swimming and wading.
A. The center shall post written safety rules for swimming or wading in the swimming area when the pool is located on the premises of the center.
B. The center shall follow posted rules of public swimming areas when swimming activities are located off site.
C. Safety rules for swimming or wading shall be explained to children participating in swimming or wading activities.
D. Before a child is able to participate in swimming or wading activities, and annually thereafter, the center shall obtain (i) written permission from the parent of each child who participates in swimming or wading and (ii) a written assessment from a certified lifeguard or a written statement from the parent to identify if the child is a swimmer or nonswimmer before the child is allowed in water with a depth of more than two feet.
E. The licensee shall ensure that staff maintain active supervision when a child is in or around water by staff designated to supervise children in the water. Notwithstanding ratio requirements in 8VAC20-781-270 and 8VAC20-781-280 A, these staff shall only be responsible for the supervision of children participating in the water activity and additional staff shall be available to supervise children not participating.
F. The licensee shall ensure that staff have a system for accounting at all times for all children in the water and in the aquatic area.
G. The staff-to-children ratios required by 8VAC20-781-270 and 8VAC20-781-280 A shall be maintained while children are participating in swimming or wading activities. Notwithstanding the staff-to-children ratios already stated, at no time shall there be fewer than two staff members supervising the group.
H. If a pool, lake, or other swimming area has a water depth of more than two feet, a certified lifeguard holding a current certification shall be on duty supervising whenever a child is participating in swimming or wading activities.
1. One lifeguard for every 25 children in the water shall be on duty and supervising the children.
2. The designated certified lifeguard shall not be counted in the staff-to-children ratios.
3. The lifeguard certification shall (i) include an in-person competency demonstration and (ii) be obtained from an individual or organization holding instructor certification from an organization such as the American Red Cross.
I. Outdoor swimming activities shall occur only during daylight hours unless underwater and deck lighting is provided.
8VAC20-781-460. Pools and equipment.
A. When permanent swimming or wading pools are located on the premises of the center, the following shall apply:
1. The manufacturer specifications for operating the pool and applicable local ordinances and Virginia Department of Health requirements for swimming pools shall be followed;
2. Pools constructed, renovated, or remodeled after April 1, 1986, shall have a statement in writing of inspection and approval from the local building official when approval is required;
3. Outdoor swimming pools shall be enclosed by safety fences and gates that are in compliance with the applicable edition of the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63) and shall be kept locked when the pool is not in use;
4. Entrances to indoor swimming pools shall be locked when the pool is not in use; and
5. A whistle or other audible signaling device, a buoy or a lemon line, a reach pole, and a backboard shall be available at the swimming or wading site.
B. If children are allowed to swim in a lake or place other than a pool, safe swimming areas shall be clearly marked and there shall be appropriate water safety equipment.
C. Piers, floats, and platforms shall be in good repair and, where used for diving, the minimum water depth shall be stated on the deck or planking.
D. After use by a group of children, or more frequently as necessary, portable wading pools without an integrated filtration system shall be emptied, rinsed, and filled with fresh water.
E. After each day's use, portable wading pools shall be emptied, sanitized, and stored in a position to keep them clean and dry.
F. Children who are not toilet trained shall not use portable wading pools without an integrated filtration system.
Part VII
Preventing the Spread of Disease and Infection Control
8VAC20-781-470. Preventing the spread of disease.
A. Unless otherwise approved by a child's health care professional, a child shall be excluded from the center if the child has:
1. A fever, which means an oral or axillary temperature at or above 100.4°F;
2. Recurring vomiting or diarrhea not associated with diet change or medication; or
3. Symptoms of a communicable disease listed in the Virginia Department of Health's current communicable disease chart.
B. If a child needs to be excluded according to subsection A of this section, the following shall apply:
1. The center shall contact the parents or designated emergency contact immediately so that arrangements can be made to remove the child from the center as soon as possible; and
2. The child shall remain in a designated area as required by 8VAC20-781-230 D. The licensee shall ensure that the child is within sight and sound of a staff member at all times and shall ensure that staff respond to the needs of the child.
C. When a surface has been contaminated with body fluids, it shall be cleaned and sanitized immediately or restricted from use until cleaned and sanitized.
D. When a child's clothing has been contaminated with body fluids, it shall be separated, stored, and sealed in a leakproof storage bag until returned to the child's parent.
8VAC20-781-480. Hand washing.
A. The licensee shall ensure that staff ensure children's hands are washed with soap and running water:
1. After diapering or toileting;
2. After contact with body fluids;
3. After coming in from outdoors;
4. After handling or caring for animals;
5. Before and after playing with water used by more than one child;
6. When the child's hands are visibly dirty; and
7. Before eating.
B. The licensee shall ensure that children's hands are washed with soap and running water or disposable wipes after eating.
C. Until an infant is old enough to be safely raised to the sink and reach for the water, the infant's hands may be washed using disposable wipes.
D. The licensee shall ensure that staff wash their hands with soap and running water:
1. Before and after:
a. Helping a child use the toilet;
b. A diaper change;
c. Feeding or helping children with feeding;
d. Preparing or serving food or beverages; and
e. Administering medication or topical skin products when there is direct contact with the medication or product.
2. After:
a. Using the toilet;
b. Contact with body fluids;
c. Eating;
d. Handling garbage or cleaning materials;
e. Coming in from outdoors; and
f. Handling or caring for animals.
E. The licensee shall ensure that staff wash their hands with soap and running water when entering the facility before working with children and when hands are visibly dirty.
F. If running water is not available, a germicidal cleansing agent administered per manufacturer instruction may be used.
8VAC20-781-490. Diapering and toileting.
A. The diapering area shall be accessible and within the building used by children.
B. There shall be sight and sound supervision for all children when a child is being diapered.
C. The licensee shall ensure that staff do not leave a child unattended on the diapering surface.
D. The diapering area shall have the following:
1. A sink with running water not to exceed 120°F;
2. Soap, disposable towels, and single use gloves such as surgical or examination gloves;
3. A nonabsorbent surface for diapering or changing shall be used. For children younger than three years of age, this surface shall be a changing table or countertop designated for changing unless otherwise specified in this subsection; and
4. The appropriate disposal containers as required by this section.
E. When a child's clothing, diaper, or disposable training pants becomes wet or soiled, the child shall be wiped clean and changed immediately.
F. Staff shall check diapers and disposable training pants at least once every two hours.
G. Disposable diapers and disposable training pants shall be disposed in a covered leakproof or plastic-lined storage system that is either foot-operated or used in a way that the staff member's hand and the soiled diaper do not touch an exterior surface of the storage system during disposal.
H. When cloth diapers are used, a separate covered leakproof storage system as specified in subsection G of this section shall be used for each individual child.
I. Diapers, disposable training pants, or underwear of children who are toilet training may be changed in the bathroom and not on the diapering surface required in subdivision D 3 of this section, but the required procedures for handwashing in 8VAC20-781-480 and disposal of diapers or disposable training pants in subsections G and H of this section shall be followed.
J. The diapering surface shall (i) not be used for storage, (ii) be used only for diapering or wiping children clean, and (iii) be cleaned and sanitized after each use. Tables used for children's activities or meals shall not be used for changing diapers.
K. Staff shall ensure the immediate safety of a child during diapering.
8VAC20-781-500. Toilet training.
For every 10 children in the process of being toilet trained, there shall be at least one toilet chair or one child-sized toilet or at least one adult-sized toilet with a platform or steps and adapter seat.
1. The location of these items shall allow for sight and sound supervision of children in the classroom if necessary for the required staff-to-children ratios to be maintained.
2. Toilet chairs shall be emptied promptly and cleaned and sanitized after each use and located on non-carpeted areas when used.
Part VIII
Medication Administration and Topical Skin Products
8VAC20-781-510. Requirements for medication administration.
A. The decision to administer medicines at a facility may be limited by center policy to administer: (i) prescribed medications, (ii) nonprescription medications, or (iii) only those medications required for emergencies or by law.
B. Written parental authorization for medication shall be obtained before a medication is accepted, maintained, or stored at the center.
C. Medications accepted, maintained, or stored at the center shall (i) be labeled with the child's name and (ii) not be kept or used beyond the date of expiration or use by date on the medication container.
D. For a child for whom emergency medication, such as albuterol, glucagon, or epinephrine auto-injector, has been provided to the center by the parent, there shall always be a staff member who is immediately accessible and available and meets the requirements listed in 8VAC20-781-170.
E. Prescription and nonprescription medication shall be given to a child only with written authorization from the parent that has not expired. Medication shall be administered by a staff member who is 18 years of age or older.
F. The licensee shall ensure that written authorization from the child's parent for medication is only valid for 10 business days unless written authorization from the child's physician is on file.
G. Long-term prescription and nonprescription drug administration shall be allowed only with written authorization from the child's physician and parent and shall be renewed based on instructions from the child's physician.
H. Medication authorization shall be available to staff during the entire time it is effective.
I. When an authorization for medication expires, the center shall notify the parent with the intent to safely return the medication to the parent or receive an updated authorization form. If a parent has been non-responsive and has not retrieved the medication, the center shall safely dispose of the medication, but no later than 30 calendar days after the expiration date of the authorization. The expired medication authorization form shall be kept with the medication until the center can safely return the medication to the parent or dispose of the medication.
J. Undesignated or stock epinephrine kept at the center pursuant to § 22.1-289.059 shall be labeled with the name of the medication and the dosage amount.
8VAC20-781-520. Prescription medication.
The center may administer prescription medication, provided that:
1. The medication is administered by a staff member who meets the requirements in 8VAC20-781-170;
2. The center administers only those drugs that are dispensed from a pharmacy or health care provider and maintained in the original, labeled container; and
3. The center administers medications only to the child identified on the prescription label in accordance with the prescriber's instructions pertaining to dosage, frequency, and route of administration.
8VAC20-781-530. Non-prescription medication.
The center may administer nonprescription medication, provided the medication is:
1. Administered by a staff member who meets the requirements in 8VAC20-781-170;
2. Labeled with the child's name, the name of the medication, the dosage amount, and the times to be given;
3. In the original container with the manufacturer's direction label attached; and
4. Given only as specified on the manufacturer's label unless otherwise designated by written physician's order.
8VAC20-781-540. Storage of medication.
A. Unless designated otherwise by a written physician's order, medications, including refrigerated and staff's personal medications, shall be kept in a locked place using a safe locking method that prevents access by children.
B. If a key is used, the key shall be inaccessible to the children.
C. When needed, medication shall be refrigerated.
D. When medication is stored in a refrigerator used for food, the medications shall be stored together in a container or in a clearly defined area away from food.
8VAC20-781-550. Medication records.
The center shall keep a record of prescription and nonprescription medication given to children that shall include the following:
1. Name of the child to whom medication was administered;
2. The dose, the route, and the name of the medication administered to the child;
3. The date and time the medication was administered to the child;
4. Name of the staff member administering the medication;
5. Adverse reactions; and
6. Medication administration errors and action taken.
8VAC20-781-560. Self-administered medication.
A. When a school-age child self-administers medication while in care, the center shall:
1. Establish written safety procedures for self-administration of medication for school-age children that include direct supervision during the administration of the medication; and
2. Obtain (i) documentation of written authorization from the child's physician, (ii) a written request from the child's parent for the child's self-administration of medication, and (iii) written authorization from the parent to administer the medication if the child is unable to self-administer.
B. The center shall document medication self-administered by a child to include:
1. The child's name;
2. The dose, route, and name of the medication self-administered;
3. The date and time the medication was self-administered;
4. Adverse reactions; and
5. Medication administration errors and action taken.
C. If the written safety procedures required in this section are not followed, the center shall:
1. Notify the child's parent;
2. Assume responsibility for administration of the medication while the child is in care; and
3. Document in the child's record the discontinuation of the authorization to self-administer and the notification to the child's parent.
8VAC20-781-570. Topical skin products.
A. When topical skin products such as lip balm, hand lotion, sunscreen, diaper ointment and lotion, and insect repellent are administered by the center, the following requirements shall be met:
1. Written parent authorization noting known adverse reactions shall be obtained at least annually;
2. The product shall be in the original container and, if provided by the parent, labeled with the child's name; and
3. Manufacturer's instructions for application shall be followed.
B. When diaper ointment and insect repellent are administered by the center a record shall be kept that includes the child's name, the name of the product, the frequency of use and the approximate time given, adverse reactions, and application errors and action taken.
C. Caregivers without medication administration training may apply topical skin products unless the product is a prescription medication, in which case the requirements in 8VAC20-781-520 shall be met.
D. Children five years of age and older may have access to and may self-administer hand sanitizer, hand soap, sunscreen, lip balm and hand lotion labeled "Keep out of reach of children," provided that the label does not contain other warnings listed in 8VAC20-781-220 A and is used under adult supervision.
E. Sunscreen provided by the center shall have a minimum sunburn protection factor (SPF) of 15.
F. The product shall not be kept or used beyond the expiration date.
G. Topical skin products, except those referenced in subsection C of this section, do not need to be kept locked, but shall be inaccessible to children younger than five years of age.
Part IX
First Aid, Emergency Supplies, and Emergency Preparedness and Response
8VAC20-781-580. First aid and emergency supplies.
A. The center shall have a minimum of one working flashlight that does not require electricity on each floor of each building that is used by children.
B. The center shall have a minimum of one working radio that does not require electricity in each building used by children and a primitive camp location without a building.
C. The center shall have first aid supplies on each floor of the building, accessible from outdoor play areas, while on field trips, in vehicles when transporting children, and wherever children are in care. The first aid supplies shall be readily accessible to staff, inaccessible to children, and include the following:
1. An ice pack or instant cold pack;
2. A pair of scissors;
3. A pair of tweezers;
4. Gauze pads;
5. Adhesive tape;
6. Adhesive bandages of assorted sizes;
7. An antiseptic cleansing solution or pads;
8. An operable digital thermometer;
9. A minimum of two triangular bandages;
10. Single use gloves such as surgical or examination gloves; and
11. A first aid instructional manual.
8VAC20-781-590. Emergency preparedness and response plan.
A. The center shall have a written emergency preparedness and response plan developed in consultation with the local emergency manager or the state or local fire official. The plan shall include:
1. Emergency preparedness and response planning for emergencies resulting from a natural disaster or a human-caused event such as violence at or near the child care facility; and
2. Emergency evacuation, relocation, shelter-in-place, and lockdown procedures to include:
a. Scenario applicability with the most likely emergency scenarios including fire, severe storms, flooding, tornadoes, earthquakes, pandemic, loss of utilities, and other situations, including facility damage, that requires evacuation, lockdown, or shelter in place;
b. Emergency communication to alert staff and emergency responders;
c. Methods to account for all children and to ensure continued supervision of children;
d. Method of communication with staff, parents, and emergency responders;
e. Accommodations or special requirements for infants, toddlers, children with special needs, and children with chronic physical or medical conditions to ensure the child's safety during evacuation or relocation;
f. Procedure to reunite children with a parent or authorized person designated by the parent; and
g. Staff and volunteer training requirements and drill frequency.
B. The center's emergency preparedness and response plan shall also include the following additional requirements:
1. Evacuation and relocation procedures shall include:
a. Designated primary and secondary routes out of the building;
b. Designated assembly point away from the building;
c. Designated relocation site;
d. Methods to ensure essential documents, including attendance records, parent contact information, emergency contact information, and information on allergies and intolerance to food or medication, are taken to the assembly point or relocation site; and
e. Methods to ensure special health care needs, to include medications and care plans and supplies, are taken to the assembly point or relocation site.
2. Shelter-in-place procedures shall include:
a. Designated shelter-in-place areas within the center;
b. Designated primary and secondary routes to the shelter-in-place areas;
c. Methods to ensure essential documents, including attendance records, parent contact information, emergency contact information, and information on allergies and intolerance to food or medication, are taken to the assembly point or relocation site; and
d. Methods to ensure special health care needs, to include medications and care plans and supplies, are taken to the assembly point or relocation site.
3. Lockdown procedures shall include designated safe areas that the facility can contain using procedures such as closing or locking of doors or other barriers.
C. The center shall review the emergency preparedness and response plan at least annually and update as needed. The center shall document each review and update made to the emergency preparedness and response plan.
D. Emergency evacuation and shelter-in-place diagrams, 911 or local dial number for police, fire, and emergency medical services, and the number of the national poison control center hotline shall be posted in conspicuous locations in each room used by children or staff.
E. Continuity of operations shall be established to ensure that essential functions are maintained during an emergency.
8VAC20-781-600. Emergency response drills.
A. All emergency response drills shall be practiced:
1. In each building used by children;
2. With all staff, volunteers, and children present at the time of the drill;
3. At varying times during the center's hours of operation; and
4. For centers offering evening and overnight care, a separate drill shall be completed during the evening and overnight hours according to the same schedules specified in subsections B through D of this section.
B. Emergency evacuation procedures shall be practiced monthly.
C. Shelter-in-place procedures shall be practiced a minimum of twice per year.
D. Lockdown procedures shall be practiced a minimum of twice per year.
E. Documentation shall be maintained for one year of emergency evacuation, shelter-in-place, and lockdown drills that include:
1. The date and time of the drill;
2. The number of staff, volunteers, and children participating; and
3. The time it took to complete the drill.
Part X
Special Services
8VAC20-781-610. Nutrition and food services.
A. Centers shall schedule appropriate times for snacks or meals based on the hours of operation and time of the day (e.g., a center open only for after school care shall schedule an afternoon snack; a center open from 7 a.m. to 1 p.m. shall schedule a morning snack and midday meal).
B. The licensee shall ensure that children arriving from a half-day, morning program who have not yet eaten lunch receive a lunch.
C. The center shall schedule snacks or meals so that there is a period of at least 1-1/2 hours but no more than three hours between each meal or snack, unless there is a scheduled rest or sleep period for children between the meals and snacks.
D. Drinking water shall be offered at regular intervals to children.
E. In environments of 80°F or above, attention shall be given to the fluid needs of children at regular intervals. Children in such environments shall be encouraged to drink water as outlined in subsection D of this section.
F. When centers choose to provide meals or snacks, the following shall apply:
1. Centers shall follow the most recent, age-appropriate nutritional requirements of the Child and Adult Care Food Program administered by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).
2. Children shall be allowed second helpings of food listed in the Child and Adult Care Food Program.
3. Centers shall not serve small (i.e., marble-sized), round, sticky, or hard foods that are difficult to chew and easy to swallow whole to children younger than four years of age.
4. A menu listing food to be served for meals and snacks during the current one-week period shall:
a. Be dated;
b. Be posted in a location conspicuous to parents or given to parents;
c. Be kept on file for one week at the center; and
d. List substituted food by the end of the business day.
5. Powdered milk shall not be used except for cooking.
G. When food or beverage is brought from home, the following shall apply:
1. The food and beverage container shall be sealed and labeled in a way that identifies the owner by first and last name.
2. The center shall have extra food or shall have provisions to obtain food to serve to children so the child can have an appropriate snack or meal if the child forgets to bring food from home, brings an inadequate meal or snack, or brings perishable food.
3. Unused portions of opened food shall be discarded by the end of the day or returned to the parent.
H. If a catering service is used, it shall be approved by the local health department.
I. Contaminated or spoiled food shall not be served to children.
J. Tables and highchair trays shall be cleaned and sanitized before and after each use for feeding;
K. Staff shall be present in the feeding area with children whenever children are eating.
L. Children shall remain seated while eating or drinking and shall not eat while riding in vehicles.
M. Food and beverages shall be prepared, served, stored, and transported in a sanitary manner.
N. When food is prepared to which a child in care is allergic, staff shall take steps to avoid cross contamination to prevent an allergic reaction.
O. A child with a diagnosed food allergy shall not be served food identified in the emergency care plan required in 8VAC20-781-50 B 6.
P. Disposable products used for food or beverages shall be used once and discarded.
8VAC20-781-620. Special feeding needs.
A. Highchairs, infant seats, or feeding tables shall be used for children under 12 months of age who are not held while being fed.
1. Children shall be supervised during snacks and meals.
2. When a child is placed in a feeding table with protective belts, a highchair, or an infant seat, the protective belt shall be fastened securely.
B. Bottle-fed infants who cannot hold their own bottles shall be held when fed. Bottles shall not be propped or used while the child is in the child's designated sleeping location.
C. Each bottle-fed infant shall have a written feeding schedule on file that is updated as needed and contains:
1. Whether the child receives breast milk, formula, or milk; and
2. The brand name of formula, if applicable.
D. Infants shall be fed on demand or in accordance with parental instructions.
E. All prepared bottles or breast milk stored in other containers provided by parents shall be labeled with the child's name and date of receipt.
F. Breast milk shall be stored according to the center's policy for the storage of breast milk.
G. Infant formula prepared by the center shall be prepared according to manufacturer instructions and prepared infant formula or milk shall be (i) refrigerated and (ii) dated and labeled with the child's name.
H. Heated breast milk, formula, milk, and baby food shall be stirred or shaken and tested for temperature before serving to children.
I. Milk, formula, or breast milk and bottles or containers of infant foods shall be warmed under running warm tap water or by placing the food item in a container of water that is no warmer than 120°F if needed. Bottles shall not be heated or warmed in a microwave.
J. When a bottle warmer or slow-cooking device, such as a crock-pot, is used for warming breast milk, formula, milk, or bottles of infant food, the device and cord shall be out of children's reach and used according to manufacturer instructions.
K. Breast milk, formula, and milk shall not remain unrefrigerated at the center for more than two hours and shall not be reheated.
L. Prepared bottles shall be discarded or returned to the parent at the end of the day.
M. Prepared baby food not consumed during that feeding by an infant may be used by that same infant later in the same day, provided that the food is not served out of the infant food container and is dated and stored in the refrigerator; otherwise, it shall be discarded or returned to the parent at the end of the day.
N. The licensee shall maintain on the premises a one-day emergency supply of clean and empty or disposable bottles, nipples, and commercial formulas. Emergency supply bottles shall only be used for one feeding and shall be appropriate for the children in care. The center shall consult parents on special feeding needs, such as specific formula, breast milk, or other special accommodations.
O. The center shall not prohibit breastfeeding.
P. When bottles with breast milk, formula, or milk are prepared by the center, the milk or formula shall not be mixed with cereal unless a physician or physician's designee provides written documentation stating otherwise.
Q. When feeding semisolid food to a child, staff shall use a spoon unless written instructions from a physician or physician's designee state differently.
8VAC20-781-630. Field trips.
A. Written parental permission for field trips shall be secured before the scheduled activity.
B. If a blanket permission is used instead of a separate written permission, the following shall apply:
1. Parents shall be notified in advance of the field trip; and
2. Parents shall be given the opportunity to withdraw the child from the field trip.
C. Children shall cross streets at a corner or crosswalk or other designated safe crossing point if no corner or crosswalk is available.
D. Before leaving on a field trip, a schedule of the trip's events and locations shall be shared with parents.
E. The licensee shall ensure a method of communication for emergencies during field trips.
F. The center shall make provisions for providing children on field trips with adequate food and water.
8VAC20-781-640. Transportation.
A. Written parental permission for transportation shall be secured before transportation is provided.
B. Vehicles used by the center for the transportation of children shall meet the following requirements:
1. The vehicle shall meet the safety standards set by the Department of Motor Vehicles and shall be kept in satisfactory condition to ensure the safety of children.
2. The vehicle shall be manufactured for the purpose of transporting people.
3. The vehicle shall be insured with at least the minimum limits established by Virginia state statutes.
4. If staff or volunteers supply personal vehicles, the center is responsible for ensuring that the requirements of this subsection are met.
C. The licensee shall ensure that, during transportation of children:
1. Virginia state statutes about safety belts and child restraints are followed as required by §§ 46.2-1095 through 46.2-1100 of the Code of Virginia, and the stated maximum number of passengers in a given vehicle is not exceeded;
2. The children remain seated and each child's arms, legs, and head remain inside the vehicle;
3. Doors are closed and locked, unless the manufacturer prevents locking for emergency purposes;
4. At least one staff member or the driver always remains in the vehicle when one or more children are present; and
5. The following information is in transportation vehicles:
a. Emergency numbers as specified in 8VAC20-781-590 D;
b. The center's name, address, and telephone number;
c. A list of the names of the children being transported and each child's emergency contact information as required in 8VAC20-781-50 B 2 and B 3;
d. Emergency care plan and information as specified in 8VAC20-781-50 B 5 and B 6; and
e. A document containing local emergency contact information, potential shelters, hospitals, and evacuation routes that pertain to each site frequently visited or of routes frequently driven by center staff for center business, such as field trips, pick-up, and drop-off of children to or from home and local schools.
D. When entering and leaving vehicles, children shall enter and leave the vehicle from the curb side of the vehicle or in a protected parking area or driveway and cross streets at a corner or crosswalk or other designated safe crossing point if no corner or crosswalk is available.
E. The licensee shall ensure a method of communication for emergencies during transportation.
F. The licensee shall ensure that the driver verifies that all children have been removed from the vehicle at the conclusion of each trip by checking every seat.
8VAC20-781-650. Animals and pets.
A. Animals that are kept on the premises of the center or that interact with children at the center shall be vaccinated if applicable.
B. Animals that are, or are suspected of being, ill or infested with external lice, fleas, ticks, or internal worms shall be removed from contact with children.
C. No monkeys, bats, ferrets, poisonous or dangerous animals, reptiles, or psittacine birds (i.e., birds of the parrot family) shall be accessible to children during the hours children are in care, and the licensee shall ensure that children do not have direct physical contact with the animals. The licensee shall ensure that children do not come in physical contact with stray or wild animals.
D. No animals that have shown aggressive behavior shall be kept in the center or on the grounds.
E. All animal excrement shall be removed promptly, disposed of properly, and, if indoors, the soiled area cleaned and sanitized.
F. If a child is bitten by an animal while in care, the following procedures shall be followed:
1. The site of the bite shall be washed with soap and water immediately;
2. Appropriate first aid shall be administered immediately, including appropriate medical attention if necessary;
3. The child's parent and the local health department shall be notified immediately to report the animal bite incident; and
4. The incident shall be documented in the child's record as required by 8VAC20-781-50 and a written report shall be given to the parent as required by 8VAC20-781-400.
G. Manure shall be removed from barns, stables, and corrals at least once a day and stored and disposed of in a manner to prevent the breeding of flies.
Part XI
Evening and Overnight Care Programs
8VAC20-781-660. Evening and overnight care.
A. For evening care, beds with mattresses or cots with at least one inch of dense padding shall be used by children who sleep longer than two hours and are not required to sleep in cribs.
B. For overnight care, beds with mattresses or cots with at least two inches of dense padding shall be used by children who are not required to sleep in cribs.
C. In addition to the provisions of 8VAC20-781-440 regarding linens, bedding appropriate to the temperature and other conditions of the rest area shall be provided.
D. Centers providing evening care or overnight care on an occasional basis are not required to meet the requirements subsection A and B of this section if sleeping bags or cots are used.
E. If sleeping bags are used, the provisions of 8VAC20-781-430 A through H regarding cribs, cots, rest mats, and beds shall also apply to the use of sleeping bags.
F. In centers providing overnight care, an operational tub or shower with heated and cold water shall be provided.
G. Activities for children in evening or overnight care shall include, as time allows, age-appropriate activities as described in 8VAC20-781-310 through 8VAC20-781-350.
H. Quiet activities shall be available immediately before bedtime.
I. School-age children may use bunk beds for sleeping.
J. Primitive camps are not required to have a tub or shower.
Part XII
Therapeutic and Special Needs Programs
8VAC20-781-670. Applicability.
A child day center that meets the definition of a therapeutic child day program or special needs child day program shall also comply with all requirements of Parts I through XI of this chapter.
8VAC20-781-680. Assessments.
Therapeutic child day programs shall ensure that an individual assessment is:
1. Completed within six months before the child's attendance or 30 days after the first day of attendance and maintained for each child.
2. Reviewed and updated for each child no less than once every 12 months.
8VAC20-781-690. Individual service, recreation, education, or treatment plan.
Therapeutic child day programs shall ensure that an individual service, recreation, education, or treatment plan is:
1. Developed for each child by the director or the director's designee in consultation with primary staff responsible for plan implementation.
2. Implemented within 60 days after the first day of the child's attendance.
3. Reviewed every three months and revised if needed by the director or the director's designee in consultation with primary staff responsible for plan implementation. The review and revisions shall be done in partnership with the child's parent.
4. Maintained in the child's record, with a copy given to the child's parent.
8VAC20-781-700. Qualifications of staff.
Notwithstanding 8VAC20-781-90 and 8VAC20-781-110, therapeutic child day programs and special needs programs shall ensure that:
1. Directors have education and programmatic experience in the group care of children with special needs.
2. Lead teachers have at least three months of programmatic experience in the group care of children with special needs.
8VAC20-781-710. Staff training.
Therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs shall ensure that staff who work with children:
1. Receive training before assuming job responsibilities in:
a. Staff occupational health and safety practices in accordance with Occupational Safety and Health Administration's bloodborne pathogens regulation (29 CFR 1910.1030);
b. Activity adaptations;
c. Medication administration;
d. The special needs of the children in care, including functional abilities and accommodations;
e. Disabilities and health issues; and
f. Appropriate precautions and intervention strategies.
2. Annually complete eight additional hours of training on topics related to the care of children with special needs.
8VAC20-781-720. Staff-to-children ratio requirements.
A. For therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs, in each grouping of children of preschool age or younger, the following ratios of staff to children are required according to the special needs of the children in care:
1. For children with severe and profound disabilities, multiple special needs, serious medical need, or serious emotional disturbance: one staff member to three children.
2. For children diagnosed as having an intellectual disability with significant sub-average intellectual functioning and deficits in adaptive behavior, children with physical and sensory disabilities, or children with autism: one staff member to four children.
3. For children diagnosed as having an intellectual disability in the mild range of development, children with a developmental delay, or children diagnosed with attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD): one staff member to five children.
4. For children diagnosed with specific learning disabilities: one staff member to six children.
5. When children with varied special needs are included in a group, the staff-to-children ratio applicable to the child with the most significant special need in the group shall apply to the entire group.
6. Whenever 8VAC20-781-270 B requires more staff than subsection A of this section because of the children's ages, 8VAC20-781-270 B shall take precedence over subsection A of this section.
B. For therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs, in each grouping of school-age children, the following ratios of staff to children are required according to the special needs of the children in care:
1. For children with severe and profound disabilities, autism, multiple special needs, serious medical need, or serious emotional disturbance: one staff member to four children.
2. For children diagnosed as having an intellectual disability with significant sub-average intellectual functioning and deficits in adaptive behavior or with physical and sensory disabilities, ADHD, or other health impairments: one staff member to five children.
3. For children diagnosed as having an intellectual disability in the mild range of development or as developmentally delayed: one staff member to six children.
4. For children diagnosed with specific learning disabilities or speech or language impairments: one staff member to eight children.
5. When children with varied special needs are included in a group, the staff-to-children ratio applicable to the child with the most significant special need in the group shall apply to the entire group.
C. Group size requirements in 8VAC20-781-270 A do not apply to therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs.
8VAC20-781-730. Equipment and materials.
Therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs serving children who use wheelchairs shall provide appropriate positioning equipment and cushioned vinyl-covered floor mats for use when activities require children to be out of wheelchairs.
8VAC20-781-740. Special feeding needs.
A. For therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs, the consistency of food shall be appropriate to a child's special feeding needs.
B. Necessary and adaptive feeding equipment and feeding techniques shall be used for children with special feeding needs according to the information on file pursuant to 8VAC20-781-50 B 5.
8VAC20-781-750. Transportation for non-ambulatory children.
A. Therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs providing transportation to non-ambulatory children shall ensure children are transported in a vehicle that is equipped with a ramp or hydraulic lift to allow entry and exit.
B. Wheelchairs shall be equipped with restraining devices and shall be securely fastened to the floor when used to seat children in a vehicle.
C. Arrangements of wheelchairs in a vehicle shall not impede access to exits.
D. For therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs, when the center is responsible for providing transportation, the center shall develop and implement a plan based on the needs of the children in care to ensure safe supervision during on-loading, off-loading, and transporting.
E. When 16 or more children are being transported, there shall be at least one staff member or adult besides the driver for each group of 16 children.
F. For therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs, if a child who has a known seizure disorder or neurological, genetic, or physiological disability causing increased medical risk is being transported, one staff member or adult who is not the driver and who is trained in first aid and CPR shall be present in the vehicle.
NOTICE: The following forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. Amended or added forms are reflected in the listing and are published following the listing. Online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may also click on the name to access a form. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 201 North Ninth Street, Fourth Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (8VAC20-781)
Medication Authorization Form (rev. 11/2025)
Report of Tuberculosis Screening for Child Day Programs (eff. (insert effective date of regulation))
VA.R. Doc. No. R24-7610; Filed October 28, 2025
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Proposed
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Proposed Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 8VAC20-780. Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers (repealing 8VAC20-780-10 through 8VAC20-780-610).
8VAC20-781. Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers (adding 8VAC20-781-10 through 8VAC20-781-750).
Statutory Authority: §§ 22.1-16 and 22.1-289.046 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearing is currently scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: January 16, 2026.
Agency Contact: Jim Chapman, Director of Board Relations, Department of Education, James Monroe Building, 101 North 14th Street, 25th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 750-8750, or email jim.chapman@doe.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 22.1-16 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the State Board of Education to promulgate regulations necessary to carry out its powers and duties and the provisions of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia. Section 22.1-289.046 of the Code of Virginia requires the board to adopt regulations for the activities, services, and facilities to be employed by persons and agencies required to be licensed under Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of the Code of Virginia, which shall be designed to ensure that such activities, services, and facilities are conducive to the welfare of the children under the control of such persons or agencies.
Purpose: This action is essential to enhancing the health, safety, and welfare of children in care. The purpose of the adoption of a new regulation is to (i) streamline regulatory requirements; (ii) improve understanding and interpretation leading to enhanced compliance and enforcement by adjusted structure, format, and simplified language; and (iii) incorporate updates to address ever-changing national health and safety guidelines and practices. In addition, it is the goal of the agency to ensure that parents have sufficient information to make informed decisions about placing children in licensed child day centers while ensuring the safety of children receiving care in licensed child day centers. Repeal of the existing regulation and adoption of a new regulation was determined by the agency to be the most efficient and effective way to make the necessary changes to achieve clarity, consistency, and to protect children.
Substance: The proposed action repeals Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers (8VAC20-780) and replaces it with a new chapter, also called Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers (8VAC20-781). Changes in the proposed new chapter include (i) restructuring and reformatting of content by subject matter; (ii) clarifying terms and requirements; (iii) removing duplicative requirements; (iv) condensing sections to incorporate more clear and concise language; (v) aligning the regulation with national health and safety standards; (vi) incorporating requirements based on consultation with and recommendations provided by state partners and agencies; (vii) addressing current and relevant child care challenges by increasing options for program director and lead teacher qualifications; (viii) clarifying and streamlining staff training requirements; (ix) aligning requirements and incorporating technical amendments to ensure consistency with the Code of Virginia; and (x) updating requirements to address ever-changing national health and safety guidelines and practices.
Specifically, the proposed amendments to the standards include (i) enhancing requirements around choking, handwashing, safe sleep practice, swim safety, and outdoor play areas; (ii) adding lead assessments in buildings built before 1978; (iii) enhancing training requirements by requiring all staff to receive training on emergency preparedness and response and child abuse and neglect, adding driver training requirements, and adding to orientation requirements for directors; (iv) enhancing orientation for staff on policies for (a) food service, safety, and storage; (b) inclusion of children with special needs; (c) stock epinephrine; (d) behavior guidance; and (e) emergency preparedness and response during a pandemic; (v) adding requirements for playground safety to include equipment and resilient surfacing; (vi) adding specific requirements to prohibit infants from sleeping in car seats or play equipment, restrictive clothing, and adaptive equipment without a signed statement from a physician, which aligns with updated American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) sleep guidelines; (vii) adding requirements to address children with special needs and to ensure that children with special needs receive care and activity opportunities appropriate to needs; (viii) adding requirements to strengthen parent involvement and require communication and notification regarding emergencies, behavior concerns, daily care of children, and transportation; (ix) enhancing safeguards for children during swimming and wading activities, including requirements for active supervision and accountability and that one lifeguard be on duty during swimming and wading activities for every 25 children; (x) enhancing requirements for safe handling of body fluids and handwashing; and (xi) adding requirements for the safe storage of medication and flexibility for self-administered medication.
The proposed action also removes requirements that are not directly specific to the safety of children and more related to business practice to provide relief of burdensome standards for child care providers and families. Specifically, the proposed amendments remove provisions relating to (i) enrollment procedures of therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs, (ii) physical and mental health of staff and volunteers, (iii) general qualifications, (iv) aides, and (v) independent contractors.
Issues: The primary advantage of this regulatory change to the public, the agency and Commonwealth, and licensed child day centers is that the Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers will be easier to read, better organized, clearer with respect to responsibilities, and more comprehensive in scope to ensure the health, safety, and well-being of children in care. There are no disadvantages to the public, the agency, the Commonwealth, or licensed child day centers.
Department of Planning and Budget Economic Impact Analysis:
The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order 19. The analysis presented represents DPB's best estimate of the potential economic impacts as of the date of this analysis.1
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of Education (board) proposes to repeal 8VAC20-780, Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers, and replace it with 8VAC20-781 using the same title. The regulation would be reorganized with the intent of making it more easily understood. Additionally, the board proposes changes that (i) establish epinephrine requirements, (ii) affect record requirements, (iii) affect the timing of health care examinations and tests, (iv) ease the qualification requirements for directors and lead teachers, (v) amend training requirements, (vi) amend requirements pertaining to sleeping, resting, and diapering, (vii) amend requirements pertaining to play areas, equipment and toys, (viii) change staffing requirements, (ix) require expanded planning for special needs children, and (x) increase safety requirements for swimming.
Background. Epinephrine: Pursuant to Chapters 695 and 696 of the 2022 Acts of Assembly, the board proposes to require that (i) child day centers possess and store weight-based dosages of undesignated or stock epinephrine in a locked or inaccessible container or area in the center; (ii) the undesignated or stock epinephrine is only administered by a nurse at the center, an employee of a local health department who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine, or staff at the center authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine, and (iii) at least one of the above individuals has the means to access the epinephrine at all times during regular facility hours. If the person administering the epinephrine is neither a nurse nor an employee of a local health department, the board proposes to require that their training be from (i) a program for this purpose developed by the Board of Nursing and taught by a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, nurse practitioner, physician assistant, doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or pharmacist, (ii) a course on this topic developed or approved by the Department of Education (DOE) in consultation with the Department of Health (VDH), or (iii) a course taught by a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, nurse practitioner, physician assistant, doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or pharmacist that includes the following: (a) recognizing signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis, (b) emergency procedures for responding to anaphylaxis, and (c) instructions and procedures for administering epinephrine. The board proposes to require that such individuals be retained in the administration of epinephrine three-year intervals.
Records: The current regulation requires the following in each child's records: A written care plan for each child with a diagnosed food allergy, to include instructions from a physician regarding the food to which the child is allergic and the steps to be taken in the event of a suspected or confirmed allergic reaction. The board proposes to also require an emergency care plan that has been developed in consultation with a physician or physician's designee for any health issues that are reasonably likely to result in a medical emergency. The current regulation requires the center to have documentation of immunizations and physical examinations for each child, unless (i) The center is located on the same premises where a child attends school; (ii) The child's record has a statement verifying the school's possession of the health record; and (iii) The school's records are accessible during the center's hours of operation. The board proposes to expand the exemption to include all children when a center assumes responsibility for the child directly from a school or transfers responsibility to the school. Additionally, the board proposes to remove the following requirements from children's records: information regarding parent employment; name and phone of child's physician; addresses of emergency contacts; and the requirement to store blanket permission slips and opt-out requests. For center staff records, the board proposes to eliminate contact information for an emergency contact and documentation of references as to character, reputation, and competency.
Health Provisions: Non-school age children must have documentation of a physical examination conducted either prior to attendance or within 30 days after the first day of attendance. Under the current regulation, if the child has had a physical examination prior to attendance, the timeframe to have obtained it varies based upon the child's age, as follows: (i) within two months prior to attendance for children six months of age and younger; (ii) within three months prior to attendance for children aged seven months through 18 months; (iii) within six months prior to attendance for children aged 19 months through 24 months; and (iv) Within 12 months prior to attendance for children two years of age through five years of age. The board proposes to standardize this timeframe for all ages by allowing up to 12 months before the date a child first attends the center regardless of age. The current regulation requires each staff member and individual from an independent contractor to submit documentation of a negative tuberculosis screening. It must have been completed within the last 30 calendar days of the date of employment. The proposed regulation would provide additional time, stating that it shall have been completed within 90 calendar days before coming in contact with children at the center.
Director qualifications and responsibilities: In both the current and proposed regulations, the "Director" is the individual responsible for supervising the day-to-day operations and staff of the center, and there are several pathways to qualify as a center director. The board proposes to reduce the educational and experience requirements for the various pathways. Lead teacher qualifications In both the current and proposed regulations, the lead teacher is the individual designated to be responsible for the direct supervision of children and for the implementation of the activities and services for a group of children, and there are several pathways to qualify as a lead teacher. The board proposes to add two more pathways:2 (i) a career studies certificate3 in a child-related field with a minimum of 12 total college credits and (ii) a Virginia endorsement4 in a child-related field approved by the Department of Education.
Training: Both the current and proposed regulations require that all staff who work with children complete at least 16 hours of ongoing training each year. Under the current regulation, the required 10-hour preservice orientation does not count toward the first year's 16 hours of required training. The board proposes to allow the ten hours to apply toward the 16 hours required the first year. Both the current and proposed regulations include orientation training requirements for new staff on numerous topics. The board proposes to add requirements for orientation on children's health issues, child development, and classroom management. Under the current regulation, volunteers who work more than six hours per week must receive training on the center's emergency procedures within the first week of volunteering annually thereafter. The board proposes to require this only for volunteers who work more than eight hours per week. Both the current and proposed regulations require that at least two staff members who have current certifications in both CPR and first aid be present on the premises whenever a child is in care, and at least one staff member in each classroom or area must also meet these requirements. In addition, the current regulation requires that there be at least two staff members currently certified in CPR and first aid present on field trips. The proposed regulation would only require one so certified staff member on field trips. The current regulation requires at least one person on duty to be trained in performing daily health observation, but there is no clear requirement for actual daily health checks. The proposed regulation addresses this, by requiring that a trained staff member conducts a daily health observation of each child as close to arrival as possible and whenever staff responsible for the care of a child notes a change in behavior or appearance. The board proposes to add required training for drivers on safety restraints, tracking children, behavioral issues, first aid supplies, emergency procedures, and applicable transportation policies prior to transporting children under the supervision of the center. These topics are not addressed in the current regulation.
Lead Testing: For those new applicants that use a building built before 1978, the board proposes to require that a written statement from a person licensed in Virginia as a lead risk assessor be submitted describing the results of an assessment stating either (i) no lead was detected; (ii) lead was detected and response actions to abate risks to human health have been completed; or (iii) lead was detected and response actions to abate risks to human health have been recommended in accordance with a specified schedule. This would address risks from lead-based paint. Pursuant to Chapters 1084 and 1085 of the 2020 Acts of Assembly, the board proposes to require that each center develop and implement a plan to test potable water for lead and remediate and retest if necessary.
Sleep, Rest, Restrooms, and Diapering: Both the current and proposed regulations state that For overnight care, beds with mattresses or cots with at least two inches of dense padding shall be used by children who are not required to sleep in cribs. The current regulation also states that For overnight care which occurs for a child on a weekly or more frequent basis, beds with mattresses shall be used. The board proposes to eliminate this last requirement. The board proposes to newly require that rest mats have at least one inch of cushioning. The board proposes to newly require that each toileting area provided for children is equipped with a lined waste container. Under the current regulation, the diapers, disposable training pants, and the underwear of children who are toilet training may only be changed on a diapering surface. The board proposes to expand this by also allowing such changes to occur in the bathroom. Also, the board proposes to add that staff shall check diapers and disposable training pants at least once every two hours.
Play Areas, Equipment and Toys: The current regulation requires that a shady area be provided on playgrounds during the months of June, July, and August. The board proposes to extend the shade requirement to May through September. The board proposes to add that washable toys and materials used by infants shall be cleaned and sanitized daily, or more often if necessary. Also, water play tables or tubs that are used must be cleaned and sanitized daily.
Staffing: Under the current regulation, when a center operates more than six hours per day a lead teacher is not required in each grouping of children during the first and last hour of operation and during the designated rest period, given specified conditions. Under the proposed regulation, when a center operates more than eight hours per day a lead teacher is not required in each grouping of children during the first and last 90 minutes of operation and during the designated rest period, given the same specified conditions. The board also proposes to add that a lead teacher is not required in each grouping of children during short breaks and special activities. Under the current regulation, the maximum number of school-age children per staff member is 18;. the board proposes to increase the maximum number to 20. In addition, there is no maximum group size for school-age children under the current regulation. To meet federal requirements,5 the board proposes a maximum of 100 school-age children per group.
Special needs: The board proposes a new requirement that the center work with the parent and the staff assigned to the child to develop a plan to ensure that a child with special needs receives care and activity opportunities appropriate to their individual needs, including specific care and activities recommended by a professional. The plan shall be documented and maintained in the child's record, and updated annually, or more frequently, as necessary.
Swimming: Both the current and proposed regulations require that a certified lifeguard holding a current certification be on duty supervising whenever a child is participating in swimming or wading activities if the pool, lake, or other swimming area has a water depth of more than two feet. The proposed regulation additionally states there be one lifeguard for every 25 children in the water. The current regulation does not require more than one lifeguard regardless of the number of children in the water. The board also proposes to newly require that there be separate staff to supervise children not participating in the swimming and wading (if there are any) regardless of the total number of participating and non-participating children.
First Aid: The current regulation requires that an activated charcoal preparation be at the center and be available on field trips. The board proposes to eliminate this requirement.
Estimated Benefits and Costs. Epinephrine: Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. It can happen seconds or minutes after a person has been exposed to an allergen. Immediate use of an epinephrine autoinjector can keep anaphylaxis from worsening and can be lifesaving. Thus, the proposed requirements that child day centers possess and store appropriate weight-based dosages of undesignated or stock epinephrine, and that at least one person qualified to administer epinephrine has access to the epinephrine at all times during regular facility hours, has the potential to save the lives of children with undiagnosed allergies in cases when exposure to the allergen may result in anaphylaxis. An EpiPen package comes with two auto-injectors of 0.3 mg and is approved for adults and children who weigh 66 lbs. or more. The EpiPen JR package comes with two auto-injectors of 0.15 mg and is approved for children who weigh 33 lbs. to 66 lbs.6 There are now also Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved epinephrine auto-injectors of 0.1 mg for infants and toddlers.7 FDA-authorized generic epinephrine is available from CVS at $109.99 per two-pack.8 Epinephrine autoinjectors have a shelf life of 12 to 18 months from the date of manufacture.9 For a child day center with children that fall into all three weight groups, and uses the FDA-authorized generic epinephrine from CVS, it would cost approximately $330 annually to maintain non-expired epinephrine on hand.10 DOE reports that it is already under contract with an outside entity that provides training in medication administration, including epinephrine administration. DOE is proposing a training program for staff at child day centers on the administration of epinephrine by this entity. If the training proposal is approved by VDH, the undesignated or stock epinephrine training would be developed. DOE's plan is for the training to be offered at no monetary cost to the child day centers. There would be staffing costs as those being trained cannot simultaneously take care of the children at the center.
Records: The proposal to require an emergency care plan that has been developed in consultation with a physician or physician's designee for any health issues that are reasonably likely to result in a medical emergency may enable staff to be better prepared to help children in the center when they have a medical emergency, which result in better health outcomes. It would also require additional staff time as well the time of the parent or guardian and a physician or physician's designee. The proposal to expand the exemption from the requirements that the center have documentation of immunizations and physical examinations to include all children when a center assumes responsibility for the child directly from a school or transfers responsibility to the school reduces administrative costs for centers that have such children and saves time for their parents or guardians in providing the documentation. Removing the requirements for the centers to maintain records regarding parent employment, the name and phone number of the child's physician, and addresses of emergency contacts also reduces administrative costs for centers and saves time for their parents or guardians in proving the information. For center staff records, the proposal to eliminate the requirements for emergency contact information and documentation of references saves time and administrative costs for staff and the center.
Health Provisions: The proposal to accept physical examinations for children that occurred up to 12 months before the date the child first attends the center (rather than within a much smaller timeframe) for all ages would likely in some cases eliminate the need for additional appointments for physical exams, saving the time and monetary cost associated with the additional examination. Similarly, the proposal to complete the tuberculosis screening within 90 calendar days before coming in contact with children at the center rather than within the last 30 calendar days of the date of employment may also prevent the need for repeated tests and save associated costs.
Director qualifications and responsibilities: The proposal to reduce the educational and experience requirements for the various pathways to qualify as a center director would reduce the time and tuition costs for at least some candidates to become qualified. This could increase the pool of qualified candidates from which centers could choose to hire a director.
Lead teacher qualifications: Adding two more educational options to qualify as a lead teacher may make it easier for some individuals to qualify and consequently could increase the pool of qualified candidates from which centers could choose to hire lead teachers.
Training: The proposal to allow the 10-hour preservice orientation to count toward the first year's 16 hours of required training could save staff time and the monetary cost of 10 hours of training. The proposal to add children's health issues, child development, and classroom management to the required orientation topics may help staff be better prepared to handle related issues. The proposal to require that a trained staff member conducts a daily health observation of each child and note a change in behavior or appearance may help identify illness or injury and may help reduce transmission of illness within the center. The board proposal to add required training for drivers on safety restraints, tracking children, behavioral issues, first aid supplies, emergency procedures, and applicable transportation policies prior to transporting children under the supervision of the center may help improve child safety during transportation. All of these proposed new requirements would entail additional staff time that could be used in other productive tasks. No longer requiring that volunteers who work more than six hours per week but not more than eight receive training on the center's emergency procedures reduces staff time burden. The proposal to only require one staff member certified in CPR and first aid present on field trips rather than two saves on training and certification costs. American Red Cross Adult and Pediatric First Aid/CPR training and certification costs $108 and takes two hours and 15 minutes, plus travel time11
Lead Testing: According to the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, exposure to lead can seriously harm a child's health, causing effects including damage to the brain and nervous system and slowed growth and development. Children may also have learning and behavior problems and hearing and speech problems.12 The proposal to require that each center develop and implement a plan to test potable water for lead and remediate and retest, if necessary, could help prevent children's exposure to lead with its associated health risks. Testing of potable water for lead would cost about $65 for each test.13 Some centers may need to do multiple tests. If remediation is necessary, it can be done using a filter that is certified to reduce lead in drinking water. Such filters are available for approximately $60.14 A separate filter would be needed for each sink, water fountain, etc. The proposal to require new applicants using a building built before 1978 to submit a written statement from a person licensed in Virginia as a lead risk assessor describing the results of an assessment stating either (i) no lead was detected; (ii) lead was detected and response actions to abate risks to human health have been completed; or (iii) lead was detected and response actions to abate risks to human health have been recommended in accordance with a specified schedule could help prevent children in center buildings built prior 1978 from being exposed to lead-based paint with its associated health risks. It would, according to a DOE estimate, cost approximately $1,200. If necessary, the cost of lead paint removal is on average $3,499.15 There would also be the cost of replacing the lead paint with new paint.
Sleep, Rest, Restrooms, and Diapering: The proposed elimination of the requirement that beds with mattresses be used for overnight care which occurs for a child on a weekly or more frequent basis, could save centers the cost of beds with mattresses. Children's beds with mattresses are available for about $95.16 The proposal to also allow the changing of diapers, disposable training pants, or underwear of children who are toilet training to occur in the bathroom, and not only on the diapering surface, may allow for quicker changing of such items, potentially reducing discomfort and the occurrences and severity of rashes. The proposal to require that staff check diapers and disposable training pants at least once every two hours may also reduce discomfort and the occurrences and severity of rashes. If a center is currently using rest mats that have less than one inch of cushioning, it would cost approximately $20 to replace each rest mat with one that has at least one inch of cushioning to meet the proposed minimum cushioning requirement.17 If a center's toileting areas provided for children do not already have a waste container, it would cost approximately $9 to purchase such a container.18 Multiple containers would need to be purchased if there are multiple toileting areas that do not already have waste containers. Garbage bags would also need to be purchased to line the containers.
Play Areas, Equipment, and Toys: The proposal to extend the shade requirement to May through September may help prevent some children from becoming overheated and potentially getting sunstroke or developing other sun-related concerns such as sunburn and the related risk of skin cancer later in life. The proposal may require the use of tents or other shade providing equipment in May and September that would not otherwise been used during those months, but it would not likely require the acquisition of additional equipment since it is already needed in June, July, and August. The proposed cleaning and sanitizing requirements for washable toys, materials used by infants, water play tables and tubs may reduce the spread of infectious diseases, but would also require additional staff time (if this is not already done) as well as additional cleaning supplies.
Staffing: The proposal to allow lead teachers to be able to temporarily step away from the group for short breaks, special activities, and the first and last 90 minutes of operation when a center operates more than eight hours allows additional flexibility in staffing. The proposal to newly require that a lead teacher be in each grouping of children during the first and last hour of operation when a center operates more than six hours per day but not more than eight would reduce flexibility. The proposal to increase the maximum number of school-age children per staff member from 18 to 20 allows centers to earn more revenue by potentially having two additional children paid for each staff member. DOE estimates that average annual tuition is $9,400 per school-age child. Thus, centers could potentially earn an additional $18,800 annually per staff member. If a center has a group or groups of over 100 school-age children, the proposal to have a maximum of 100 school-age children per group may necessitate the hiring of additional staff.
Special needs: The proposal to require that the center work with the parent and the staff assigned to the child to develop a plan for care and activity opportunities appropriate to the child's individual needs may result in enhanced care and protection of children with special needs and allow parents to have more involvement in determining what care and services are best for their child. It would also require additional staff time as well the time of the parent or guardian and possibly the professional expert.
Swimming: The proposal to require an additional lifeguard for each 25 children in the water would help ensure the safety of children participating in swimming and wading activities. Additionally, it would likely require the hiring of an additional lifeguard or lifeguards for centers that provide swimming and wading. The proposal to newly require that there be separate staff to supervise children not participating in the swimming and wading (if there are any), regardless of the total number of participating and non-participating children would also help ensure the safety of children participating in swimming and wading activities, but it may require that an additional staff member be present during swimming and wading activities.
First Aid: The proposal to eliminate the requirement that an activated charcoal preparation be at the center and be available on field trips would save centers about $26.19
Businesses and Other Entities Affected. The proposed amendments affects the 2,629 licensed child day centers in the Commonwealth, as well their staff and customers. The Code of Virginia requires DPB to assess whether an adverse impact may result from the proposed regulation.20 An adverse impact is indicated if there is any increase in net cost or reduction in net benefit for any entity, even if the benefits exceed the costs for all entities combined.21 There are benefits and costs for numerous proposed changes. Not all benefits and not all costs apply to each center. There may be some centers for whom the increased costs and/or reduced benefits for all the proposed changes combined outweigh the reduced costs and/or increased benefits. Such centers would be adversely affected.
Small Businesses22 Affected.23 Types and Estimated Number of Small Businesses Affected: DOE reports that the 2,629 licensed child day centers in Virginia are a combination of different size business entities, non-profit entities and governmental entities. The agency does not have an estimate for the number that are small businesses. Costs and Other Effects: The costs for small centers are as described above in the Estimated Benefits and Costs section. Alternative Method that Minimizes Adverse Impact: There are no clear alternative methods that both reduce adverse impact and meet the intended policy goals.
Localities24 Affected.25 The proposal does not disproportionally affect particular localities. Cost changes for centers run by local governments are described in the Estimated Benefits and Costs section.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposal to require an additional lifeguard for each 25 children may modestly increase the demand for and employment of lifeguards. Though there are some proposed changes that reduce required staff time, it appears that overall, there are greater increases in required staff time. Thus, there may be a small increase in demand for center staff and associated employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. There are likely some centers for whom the reduced costs or increased benefits for all the proposed changes combined outweigh the increased costs or reduced benefits, and others for whom the increased costs or reduced benefits for all the proposed changes combined outweigh the reduced costs or increased benefits; the value of the former would likely moderately increase and the value of the latter would likely moderately decrease. The proposal does not affect costs related to the development of real estate.
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1 Section 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia requires that such economic impact analyses determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the analysis should include but not be limited to: (1) the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom the proposed regulatory action would apply, (2) the identity of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, (3) the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, (4) the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation, and (5) the impact on the use and value of private property.
2 Programmatic experience is required in addition to education.
3 The career studies certificate aligns with Virginia Community College System certifications in early childhood education.
4 The endorsement aligns with offerings by agencies contracted with the department to offer such coursework.
5 The Child Care and Development Fund, 45 CFR Part 98, requires that states have group size and ratio requirements for all age groups.
6 See https://www.goodrx.com/epinephrine-epipen/how-to-save-cost.
7 See https://www.fda.gov/media/127806/download.
8 See https://www.cvs.com/content/epipen-alternative.
9 See https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5720482/.
10 Average of $110 per epinephrine auto-injector package, and three separate packages for the three different weight groups.
11 Source: https://www.redcross.org accessed on October 1, 2025.
12 See https://www.cdc.gov/lead-prevention/risk-factors/children.html.
13 Source: https://specialtytesting.com accessed on October 1, 2025.
14 Source: www.amazon.com accessed on October 1, 2025.
15 Source: https://www.angi.com/articles/how-much-cost-removing-lead-paint.htm accessed on October 1, 2025.
16 Source: www.amazon.com accessed on October 1, 2025.
17 Source: www.amazon.com accessed on October 1, 2025.
18 Ibid.
19 Bottles of activated charcoal cost about $13, based on an October 1, 2025, www.amazon.com search. The cost estimate for centers assumes two bottles purchased, one to keep at the center and one for field trips.
20 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 D: In the event this economic impact analysis reveals that the proposed regulation would have an adverse economic impact on businesses or would impose a significant adverse economic impact on a locality, business, or entity particularly affected, the Department of Planning and Budget shall advise the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules, the House Committee on Appropriations, and the Senate Committee on Finance. Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation.
21 Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation. As a result, DPB has adopted a definition of adverse impact that assesses changes in net costs and benefits for each affected Virginia entity that directly results from discretionary changes to the regulation.
22 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04, small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
23 If the proposed regulatory action may have an adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include: (1) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the proposed regulation, (2) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other documents, (3) a statement of the probable effect of the proposed regulation on affected small businesses, and (4) a description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia, if there is a finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules shall be notified.
24 "Locality" can refer to either local governments or the locations in the Commonwealth where the activities relevant to the regulatory change are most likely to occur.
25 Section 2.2-4007.04 defines "particularly affected" as bearing disproportionate material impact.
Agency Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The State Board of Education thanks the Department of Planning and Budget for its thorough economic impact analysis.
Summary:
The proposed action repeals Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers (8VAC20-780) and replaces it with a new chapter, also called Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers (8VAC20-781). These standards provide criteria for licensing or evaluating the health and safety of care that children receive in licensed child day centers. The proposed amendments to the standards include (i) establishing epinephrine requirements; (ii) updating recordkeeping requirements; (iii) updating the timing of health care examinations and tests; (iv) reducing qualification requirements for directors and lead teachers; (v) enhancing training requirements; (vi) updating requirements pertaining to sleeping, resting, and diapering; (vii) updating requirements pertaining to play areas, equipment, and toys; (viii) changing staffing requirements; (ix) requiring expanded planning for children with special needs; and (x) increasing safety requirements for swimming.
Chapter 781
Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers
Part I
Introduction
8VAC20-781-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly states otherwise:
"Abusive head trauma" means a traumatic injury that is inflicted on the brain of a child, including Shaken Baby Syndrome.
"Age and stage appropriate" means the curriculum, environment, equipment, and adult-child interactions are suitable for the ages and the individual needs of children in care.
"Attendance" means the actual presence of an enrolled child.
"Balanced mixed-age grouping" means a program using a curriculum designed to meet the needs and interests of children in the group and is planned for children who enter the program at three through five years of age. The enrollment in the balanced mixed-age grouping comprises a relatively even allocation of children in each of the ages (three to six years of age) and is designed for children and staff to remain together with turnover planned only for the replacement of existing students with children of ages that maintain the class balance.
"Child" means an individual younger than 18 years of age.
"Child day center" or "center" means a child day program offered to (i) two or more children younger than 13 years of age in a facility that is not the residence of the provider or of any of the children in care or (ii) 13 or more children at any location.
"Child day program" means a regularly operating service arrangement for children where, during the absence of a parent or guardian, a person or organization has agreed to assume responsibility for the supervision, protection, and well-being of a child younger than 13 years of age for less than a 24-hour period.
"Child experiencing homelessness" means a child who is homeless as defined in § 725 of Subtitle VII-B of the McKinney-Vento Act (42 USC § 11434a).
"Child with special needs" means a child with developmental disabilities, intellectual disabilities, an emotional disability, sensory or motor impairment, or significant chronic illness who requires special health surveillance or specialized programs, interventions, technologies, or facilities.
"Cleaned" means to scrub and wash with (i) soap and water or (ii) detergent solution.
"Cooperative preschool center" means a center that is organized, administered, and maintained by parents of children in care, parent volunteers, or other persons who participate or volunteer on behalf of a child attending the center.
"Date of employment" means the date that an employee begins to perform services for the child day program, which includes orientation training.
"Department" means the Virginia Department of Education.
"Director" means the individual responsible for supervising the day-to-day operations and staff of the center.
"Enrolled" means that a regular service arrangement has been entered into between a parent and center, where the center has agreed to assume responsibility for the supervision, protection, and well-being of a child under the age of 13 for less than a 24-hour period during the absence of a parent or guardian.
"Evening care" means care provided between 7 p.m. and midnight.
"Experience in a supervisory capacity" means experience in an administrative position that includes supervising, orienting, training, and scheduling.
"Fall height" means the vertical distance between the highest elevated play surface on play equipment designed for standing, walking, crawling, sitting, or climbing and the protective surface beneath it.
"Field trip" means an activity away from the premises of the center during which children are under the supervision of the center.
"Group" means the group of children under the supervision of one staff member or team of staff members.
"Group size" means the number of children assigned to a staff member or team of staff members occupying an individual room or area.
"Individual service, recreation, education, or treatment plan" means a plan identifying the child's strengths, needs, general functioning, and plan for providing services to the child to include specific goals and objectives for services, accommodations, and intervention strategies. The individual service, recreation, education, or treatment plan clearly shows documentation and reassessment or evaluation strategies.
"Infant" means a child from birth up to 16 months.
"Lead teacher" means the individual designated to be responsible for the direct supervision of children and for the implementation of the activities and services for a group of children. The term lead teacher is used to interpret the term "program leader" in Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia.
"Licensee" means a person to whom a conditional license, license, or provisional license has been issued and who is legally responsible for compliance with the licensing standards related to the operation or maintenance of the center.
"Overnight care" means care provided after 7 p.m. and past midnight.
"Parent" means a parent, guardian, legal custodian, or other person that has control or charge of a child.
"Physician's designee" means an advanced practice registered nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed nurse (RN or LPN), or health assistant acting under the supervision of a physician.
"Play yard" means a framed enclosure that includes a floor and is primarily intended to provide an area for a child to play.
"Preschool age" means a child who is at least three years of age but has not reached five years of age by September 30 of the school year.
"Primitive camp" means a camp where places of abode, water supply system, or permanent toilet and cooking facilities are not usually provided.
"Programmatic experience" means the supervision of children in a structured setting. Experience shall be calculated based on full-time work (30 hours per week or more) or its part-time equivalent. Experience settings may include a child day program, family day home, child day center, boys and girls club, continuing education, field placement, elementary school, or a religious institution.
"Protective surfacing" means impact absorbing materials for indoor and outdoor use, under and around playground equipment.
"Sanitized" means treated to remove germs, bacteria, and viruses from inanimate surfaces. Sanitizing is accomplished in two steps following cleaning; first by using a sanitizing agent or physical agent (e.g., heat), and second, by allowing the sanitizing agent to air dry on the surface for a minimum of two minutes or according to the manufacturer's instructions.
"Sanitizing agent" means a solution or wipe approved by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency for sanitizing or disinfecting or a bleach solution made daily.
"School-age" means a child who will have reached the child's fifth birthday on or before September 30 of the school year. Children four or five years of age children may be considered school-age during the summer months if the children will be entering kindergarten that year.
"Short-term program" means a child day center that operates fewer than 12 weeks a year.
"Special needs child day program" means a program exclusively serving children with special needs.
"Staff" or "staff member" means an individual who is at least 16 years of age and (i) works with children at the facility or (ii) is involved in the day-to-day operation of the center.
"Superintendent" means the Superintendent of Public Instruction at the Department of Education and, except when prohibited by law, includes the superintendent's representatives.
"Therapeutic child day program" means a specialized program, including therapeutic recreation programs, exclusively serving children with special needs when an individual service, recreation, education, or treatment plan is developed and implemented with the goal of improving the functional abilities of the children in care.
"Toddler" means a child from 16 months of age up to 24 months of age.
"Twos" means a child from 24 months of age to 36 months of age.
"Use zone" means the surface under and around a piece of equipment onto which a child falling or exiting from the equipment would be expected to land. Use zone areas are also designated for unrestricted circulation around the equipment.
"Volunteer" means an individual who (i) is at least 13 years of age, (ii) works at a center without compensation, (iii) is not counted in the staff-to-child ratios, and (iv) is at all times within sight and sound supervision of a staff member when with a child. An unpaid individual not meeting this definition is considered "staff" and shall meet staff requirements.
"Wading" means a waterplay activity in which children stand, walk, or sit in water less than two feet deep.
8VAC20-781-20. Purpose and applicability.
A. The purpose of these standards is to protect children under the supervision of licensed child day centers by ensuring that the activities, services, and facilities of centers are conducive to the well-being of children.
B. This chapter applies to child day centers that are required to be licensed by Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Part II
Administration
8VAC20-781-30. Operational responsibilities.
A. The licensee shall ensure compliance with federal, state, or local laws and regulations.
B. The licensee shall maintain public liability insurance for bodily injury for each center premises with a minimum limit of at least $500,000 for each occurrence and with a minimum limit of $500,000 aggregate. A public sponsor may have equivalent self-insurance that is in compliance with the Code of Virginia.
C. The center shall maintain a written list, for each group of children, of important health conditions and dietary restrictions. The center shall inform staff about the list. The list shall only be accessible to staff and shall have the most recent date of revision clearly stated. This up-to-date list shall be in each room or area where children are present and kept confidential unless written permission is received from the parent to post, display, or share.
D. A hospital-operated center may temporarily exceed its license capacity during a natural disaster or emergency situation according to the center's emergency preparedness and response plan.
E. When children 13 years of age or older are in care of the program and receive supervision in the licensed program, those children shall be counted in the number of children receiving care and the center shall comply with this chapter in providing care for those children.
F. When children of staff are present at the facility and engaged in activities or under the supervision of staff, including the parent, who are supervising other children enrolled in the program, those children shall be considered enrolled for purposes of this chapter.
G. The center shall implement policies for the possession and administration of undesignated or stock epinephrine pursuant to § 22.1-289.059 of the Code of Virginia that ensure:
1. Undesignated or stock epinephrine is only administered by a nurse at the center, an employee of a local health department who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine, or staff at the center authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine pursuant to 8VAC20-781-170 C to a child believed to be having an anaphylactic reaction;
2. At least one nurse at the center or an employee of a local health department who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine, or staff at the center authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine pursuant to 8VAC20-781-170 C has the means to access at all times during regular facility hours appropriate weight-based dosages of undesignated or stock epinephrine based on the children in care at the center; and
3. Undesignated or stock epinephrine is stored in a locked or inaccessible container or area in the center.
8VAC20-781-40. Recordkeeping.
A. Staff and children's records shall be treated confidentially. A child's record required by this chapter shall be made available to the child's parent in accordance with § 20-124.6 of the Code of Virginia. Information in the child's record shall not be made public without the written consent of the parent.
B. Records and reports on children and staff required by this chapter shall be maintained and made accessible for two years after termination of services or separation from employment unless otherwise specified in this chapter.
C. The licensee shall keep all records required by 8VAC20-781-50 through 8VAC20-781-80 in locked files or a secure electronic file, except for those required to be accessible pursuant to 8VAC20-781-590, and access to the files should be restricted according to a principle of least privilege. Records shall remain accessible during power outages and emergencies.
D. Records required by this chapter shall be kept current and accurate.
8VAC20-781-50. Children's records.
A. Each center shall maintain and keep on the premises a separate record for each child enrolled.
B. Each enrolled child's record shall contain the following information before the first day of attendance, unless otherwise stated:
1. Name, preferred name (if any), sex, birth date of the child, and address;
2. Name, home address, and telephone number of each parent who has custody;
3. Name and telephone number of two designated people to call in an emergency if a parent cannot be reached;
4. Names of persons to whom the child may be released, including agencies with whom the parent has a contract in place to provide a specialized service to the child. Appropriate legal paperwork shall be on file when a custodial parent requests the center not to release the child to the other parent;
5. A list of health issues, including allergies, intolerances to medication or other substances, chronic physical or medical conditions, special needs, dietary restrictions, dietary preferences, pertinent behavioral or developmental information, and special accommodations needed;
6. For items in subdivision 5 of this section that are reasonably likely to result in a medical emergency, an emergency care plan that has been developed in consultation with a physician or a physician's designee;
7. Written agreements as required by 8VAC20-781-410;
8. Previous child day care and schools attended by the child, as well as any child day care or school concurrently attended by the child;
9. Documentation of viewing proof of the child's identity and age as outlined in § 22.1- 289.049 of the Code of Virginia;
10. Documentation of health information as required by 8VAC20-781-80. When a center assumes responsibility for the child directly from a school or the center transfers responsibility of the child directly to the school, the center is not required to maintain documentation required by 8VAC20-781-80 A and B of the school's records for that child;
11. Documentation of the enrollment of a child experiencing homelessness enrolled under the provision of 8VAC20-781-80 C; and
12. The date of initial attendance and the last day of attendance.
C. The center shall document annually that the parent has confirmed that information in the child's record is accurate.
8VAC20-781-60. Staff records.
The following records shall be kept for each staff member:
1. Name, address, verification of age requirement, current job title, and dates of employment or volunteering;
2. Background check information shall be maintained in accordance with the requirements in 8VAC20-770;
3. Documentation that the individual meets the appropriate qualifications and training in Part III (8VAC20-781-90 et seq.) of this chapter. The documentation of training shall include (i) the name of the staff member; (ii) the date of the training; (iii) the training topic; (iv) evidence that the training has been completed; (v) the person providing the training; and (vi) the number of training hours or credit hours received;
4. Health information as required by 8VAC20-781-80; and
5. Information, to be kept on the premises, about health problems that may interfere with fulfilling the job responsibilities.
8VAC20-781-70. Attendance records; reporting.
A. The center shall maintain a record of daily attendance that documents the arrival and departure times of each child as arrival and departure occur.
B. The licensee shall ensure that staff in each group of children maintains a list of children that accurately reflects the children in the licensee's care.
C. The center shall inform the superintendent as soon as practicable, but not to exceed one business day, of the circumstances surrounding the following incidents:
1. Death of a child while under the center's supervision;
2. Missing child when local authorities have been contacted for help;
3. The suspension or termination of all child care services for more than 24 hours as a result of an emergency situation and plans to resume child care; and
4. A situation in which a child's whereabouts was unknown, including a child left unattended or unsupervised, a lost or missing child, or a child who wandered away unattended from the facility.
D. The center shall inform the superintendent as soon as practicable but not to exceed two business days after learning about an injury while a child is under the supervision of the center that required professional medical attention outside of basic first aid.
E. If the center or a person employed by the center has reason to suspect that a child is an abused or neglected child, such person shall report the matter immediately in accordance with § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia.
F. A center shall immediately report an outbreak of disease as defined by the State Board of Health to the local health department, as required by § 32.1-37 of the Code of Virginia.
8VAC20-781-80. Health provisions.
A. Immunizations. The center shall comply with the health provisions of § 22.1-271.2 of the Code of Virginia.
B. Physical examinations.
1. The center shall obtain documentation of a report from a qualified licensed physician, or an advanced practice registered nurse or licensed physician assistant acting under the supervision of a licensed physician, of a comprehensive physical examination performed within (i) 12 months before the date a child first attends the center or (ii) 30 days after the first day of attendance.
2. A physical examination shall not be required of a child whose parent objects on religious grounds and who shows no visual evidence of sickness, provided that the parent shall state in writing that, to the best of the parent's knowledge, the child is in good health and free from a communicable or contagious disease.
C. If a child is experiencing homelessness and does not have documentation of the required immunizations and physical examination, the center shall allow the child to attend during a grace period of no more than 90 days to allow the parent time to obtain documentation of the required documents.
D. Tuberculosis.
1. Before a staff member's date of employment, the results of a screening assessment documenting the absence of tuberculosis in a communicable form shall be submitted to the center. The documentation shall contain the elements of the current tuberculosis screening form published by the Virginia Department of Health and shall have been completed within 90 calendar days before coming in contact with children at the center.
2. A staff member or volunteer who develops symptoms compatible with active tuberculosis disease, regardless of the date of the last tuberculosis screening or assessment, shall immediately obtain and submit a new tuberculosis screening form required in subdivision 1 of this subsection.
3. A staff member or volunteer who comes into contact with a known case of infectious tuberculosis shall immediately obtain and submit to the center a new tuberculosis screening form required in subdivision 1 of this subsection. Until a new screening form is issued that documents the absence of tuberculosis in a communicable form, the staff member shall not have contact with children.
Part III
Staff Qualifications and Training
8VAC20-781-90. Director qualifications.
A. Directors shall be at least 21 years of age and shall have a high school diploma or the equivalent.
B. The director shall meet one of the following education and experience qualification options, as well as three months of experience in a supervisory capacity:
1. A bachelor's or graduate degree in a child-related field, such as child development, early childhood education, elementary education, recreation, or nursing, and three months programmatic experience.
2. Forty-eight college credits with 12 college credits in child-related courses and six months of programmatic experience;
3. The requirement for a lead teacher in 8VAC20-781-110 B 1 and one year of programmatic experience; or
4. The requirement for a lead teacher in 8VAC20-781-110 B 2 and two years of programmatic experience.
C. Directors without experience in a supervisory capacity shall complete, within 10 business days of employment or promotion, 10 hours of management training that includes information on supervising, orienting, training, and scheduling.
D. Notwithstanding subsection A of this section, an individual who is at least 19 years of age may serve as a director at a short-term program.
E. A director employed before (insert effective date of regulation) who met the education and experience qualifications in effect immediately before (insert effective date of regulation), and who has been continuously employed as a child day center director is considered to have met the requirements of this section.
8VAC20-781-100. Director responsibilities.
A. The licensee shall ensure that the director or one or more staff designated to assume the director's responsibilities who meets the requirements of 8VAC20-781-90 and who has received orientation and training on operation in the director's absence is on the premises for at least 50% of the center's hours of operation each week.
B. When the director or designee is not on the premises, the licensee shall designate a staff member at least 18 years of age to be on the premises of the center to oversee the administration of the center during the center's hours of operation.
8VAC20-781-110. Lead teacher qualifications.
A. Lead teachers shall be at least 18 years of age and shall have a high school diploma or the equivalent.
B. Lead teachers shall meet a director qualification stated in 8VAC20-781-90 or one of the following education and experience requirements:
1. Three months of programmatic experience and one of the following:
a. A one-year community college certificate in a child-related field with a minimum of 30 total college credits;
b. A career studies certificate in a child-related field with a minimum of 12 total college credits;
c. A teaching diploma from an internationally or nationally recognized Montessori organization; or
d. A credential in a child-related field by an organization listed in § 22.1-289.048 of the Code of Virginia or an equivalent credential recognized by the department.
2. Six months of programmatic experience and:
a. A Virginia endorsement in a child-related field approved by the department; or
b. Twenty-four hours of training in the following topics: child development, behavior guidance, playground safety, and health and safety issues. This training shall be completed before being promoted or beginning work or within 60 days after being promoted or beginning work. Orientation training required by 8VAC20-781-130 B and C shall not be used to meet this qualification.
C. Lead teachers at short-term programs shall have a minimum of 200 hours of programmatic experience, of which up to 24 hours can be formal training.
D. A lead teacher employed before (insert effective date of regulation), who met the education and experience qualifications in effect immediately before (insert effective date of regulation), and who has been continuously employed as a child day center lead teacher is considered to have met the requirements of this section.
8VAC20-781-120. Driver qualifications and requirements.
A. An individual who drives a vehicle to transport children for the center shall (i) be at least 18 years of age; (ii) possess a valid driver's license that authorizes the driver to operate the vehicle being driven; and (iii) provide, before transporting children, a driving record obtained from the state department of motor vehicles that issued the current license.
B. Centers that have obtained insurance for all individuals who transport children shall not be required to provide a driving record as required in subsection A of this section.
8VAC20-781-130. Orientation training.
A. The licensee shall ensure that all staff who will work with children complete the preservice training sponsored by the department within 90 calendar days of their date of employment. A staff member who has documentation of completing the preservice training shall not be required to retake the course.
B. The center shall provide orientation training to all staff who will work with children. The orientation training shall be completed by staff before working alone with a child and within seven days of the staff member's date of employment. The orientation training shall include all the following facility specific topics relevant to the staff member’s job responsibilities:
1. Recognizing child abuse and neglect and the legal requirements for reporting suspected child abuse and neglect as required by § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia;
2. Introduction and orientation to each child assigned to staff, including health issues documented according to 8VAC20-781-50 B 5;
3. Child development;
4. Classroom management;
5. Abusive head trauma prevention and, if serving infants or toddlers, prevention of shaken baby syndrome, coping with crying babies and distraught children;
6. Safe sleeping practices and sudden infant death syndrome awareness;
7. Playground safety to include (i) how staff will engage in the active supervision of children and (ii) maintenance of equipment and protective surfacing;
8. The supervision of children and all the requirements of Part V (8VAC20-781-260 et seq.) of this chapter to include (i) methods of active supervision of children; (ii) how the center will ensure that each group of children receives care by consistent staff or team of staff members; (iii) how the center will identify where children are at all times, including during group transitions and field trips; (iv) actions to take when a child arrives after scheduled activities have begun, including field trips or when the group is off site or not in the assigned room when the child arrives; and (v) maintaining staff-to-child ratios;
9. Assuming and releasing care of children to include (i) the method of confirming the absence of a child when the child is scheduled to arrive from another program or from an agency responsible for transporting the child to the center; (ii) the method for verifying that children are released only to individuals authorized by the parents; and (iii) child pickup after normal hours, during emergencies, and when a child's class is off site or not in the assigned area;
10. Actions to take in case of a lost or missing child, ill or injured child, or when a child has a medical or other emergency;
11. Confidentiality, including how records will be kept confidential and secure and how the privacy of children will be maintained, including expectations for communications, use of technology, and social media;
12. Food service, storage, safety and preparation, and nutrition, according to the requirements of 8VAC20-781-610 and 8VAC20-781-620;
13. Emergency procedures and written safety rules according to requirements of 8VAC20-781-450 and 8VAC20-781-460;
14. Emergency preparedness and response according to the requirements of Part IX (8VAC20-781-580 et seq.) of this chapter;
15. The center's transportation policies according to the requirements of 8VAC20-781-630 and 8VAC20-781-640, including accounting for children before leaving for a field trip, upon arriving at a field trip site, before leaving a field trip site, upon returning to the center, and during any stops on the field trip;
16. The center's policies and procedures for medication according to the requirements of Part VIII (8VAC20-781-510 et seq.) of this chapter;
17. Behavior guidance according to the requirements of 8VAC20-781-370 and 8VAC20-781-380;
18. Parent engagement, communication, notification, and agreements according to the requirements of 8VAC20-781-390, 8VAC20-781-400, and 8VAC20-781-410;
19. Preventing the spread of disease and infection control according to the requirements of Part VII (8VAC20-781-470 et seq.) of this chapter; and
20. Prevention of and response to emergencies due to food and other allergies, including:
a. Recognizing the symptoms of an allergic reaction;
b. Responding to allergic reactions;
c. Preventing exposure to the specific foods and other substances to which a child is allergic; and
d. Preventing cross-contamination.
C. The licensee shall ensure that all staff who work with children, within 30 days of the staff member's date of employment, complete an overview of first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) skills.
D. The licensee shall ensure that the director completes the prelicensure orientation sponsored by the department within 60 days of the director's date of employment or promotion. A director who has documentation of completing the prelicensure orientation shall not be required to retake the orientation.
E. Volunteers who regularly work with children more than eight hours per week shall receive training on the center's emergency procedures within the first week of volunteering. The center shall document and maintain a record that the volunteer received the training.
F. Parents or other persons who participate in a cooperative preschool center on behalf of a child attending such cooperative preschool center, including such parents and persons who are counted for the purpose of determining staff-to-child ratios, shall be exempt from orientation and training requirements applicable to staff of child day programs by this section. This orientation and training exemption shall not apply to a parent or other person who participates in a cooperative preschool center that has entered into a contract to provide child care services funded by the Child Care and Development Block Grant.
8VAC20-781-140. Ongoing training.
A. The licensee shall ensure that all staff complete annual training on emergency preparedness and response, child abuse and neglect, and mandated reporter requirements.
B. The licensee shall ensure that all staff who work with children complete at least 16 hours of ongoing training each year. Of these 16 hours, three hours shall include the department's health and safety update course. The ongoing training shall not include the training required by 8VAC20-781-130 B or C. The ongoing training shall be relevant to the staff member's job responsibilities and appropriate to the age of children in care.
C. Notwithstanding the requirements of 8VAC20-781-140 B, a center that runs a short-term program shall ensure that all staff who work with children complete at least 10 hours of ongoing training each year.
D. Volunteers who regularly work with children more than eight hours per week shall be required to complete annual training on the center's emergency procedures. The center shall document and maintain a record that the volunteer received the training.
E. Parents or other persons who participate in a cooperative preschool center on behalf of a child attending such cooperative preschool center, including parents and persons who are counted for the purpose of determining staff-to-child ratios, shall only be required to complete four hours of ongoing training each year. A parent or other person who participates in a cooperative preschool center that has entered into a contract to provide child care services funded by the Child Care and Development Block Grant shall complete the training requirements applicable to all centers by this section.
8VAC20-781-150. First aid training and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
A. The licensee shall ensure that at least two staff members who have the following certifications are present on the premises whenever a child is in care:
1. Current certification in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) as appropriate to the age of the children in care from an individual or organization holding instructor certification. The training shall include an in-person competency demonstration; and
2. Current certification in first aid from an individual or organization holding instructor certification.
B. The licensee shall ensure that at least one staff member in each classroom, area, or in each group of children on field trips where children are present meets the qualifications in subsection A of this section.
C. A primitive camp shall have one staff member on the premises who has a current certification in emergency medical responder training whenever the primitive camp has assumed responsibility for supervising a child.
D. Medical professionals with a current license or certification shall not be required to obtain first aid certification.
8VAC20-781-160. Daily health observation training.
A. The licensee shall ensure that there is at least one staff member on the premises who has obtained instruction within the last three years in performing daily health observations of children whenever the center has assumed responsibility for supervision of a child.
B. Daily health observation training shall include the following:
1. Components of daily health check for children;
2. Inclusion and exclusion of the child from the class when the child is exhibiting physical symptoms that show possible illness;
3. Descriptions of how diseases are spread and the procedures or methods for reducing the spread of disease;
4. Information concerning the Virginia Department of Health Notification of Reportable Diseases pursuant to 12VAC5-90-80 and 12VAC5-90-90, also available from the local health department and the website of the Virginia Department of Health; and
5. Staff occupational health and safety practices in accordance with Occupational Safety and Health Administration's bloodborne pathogens regulation (29 CFR 1910.1030).
C. The licensee shall ensure that a trained staff member conducts a daily health observation of each child as close to arrival as possible and whenever staff responsible for the care of a child notes a change in behavior or appearance.
8VAC20-781-170. Medication administration training.
A. The licensee shall ensure that the administration of prescription medication is performed by a staff member who (i) is licensed by the Commonwealth of Virginia to administer such medications or (ii) is qualified under § 54.1-3408 O of the Code of Virginia to administer medication to a child in a child day program and has satisfactorily completed a training program approved by the Board of Nursing and taught by a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or pharmacist.
B. To safely perform medication administration practices listed in 8VAC20-781-530, whenever the center has agreed to administer over-the-counter medications other than topical skin gel, cream, or ointment, the administration shall be performed by a staff member who has satisfactorily completed a training course developed or approved by the department in consultation with the Virginia Department of Health and the Board of Nursing and taught by a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, an advance practice registered nurse, physician assistant, doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or pharmacist or by a staff member who is licensed by the Commonwealth to administer medications.
C. The administration of undesignated or stock epinephrine shall be performed by:
1. A nurse at the center or employee of a local health department authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine;
2. A staff member at the center who is authorized by a prescriber and meets the requirements of subsections A, B, and D of this section;
3. A staff member who has satisfactorily completed a training course developed or approved by the department in consultation with the Virginia Department of Health; or
4. A staff member who has satisfactorily completed a course taught by a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, an advance practice registered nurse, physician assistant, doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or pharmacist that includes the following:
a. Recognizing signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis;
b. Emergency procedures for responding to anaphylaxis; and
c. Instructions and procedures for administering epinephrine.
D. Staff required to have medication administration training and training in the administration of undesignated or stock epinephrine shall be retrained at three-year intervals.
8VAC20-781-180. Driver training requirements.
The licensee shall ensure that an individual who drives a vehicle to transport children has received the following training before transporting children under the supervision of the center:
1. Proper use of child safety restraints in accordance with Virginia state law;
2. Proper loading, unloading, and tracking of children per center policies;
3. Issues that may arise in transporting children with behavioral issues;
4. The location of first aid supplies;
5. The emergency procedures for the vehicle, including actions to be taken if an accident occurs, vehicle malfunction, and medical emergencies; and
6. The center's transportation policies according to the requirements of 8VAC20-781-630 and 8VAC20-781-640, including accounting for children before leaving for a field trip, upon arriving at a field trip site, before leaving a field trip site, upon returning to the center, and any stops on the field trip.
Part IV
Physical Plant
8VAC20-781-190. Initial approval from other agencies; requirements before initial licensure.
A. Before issuance of an initial license, the center shall submit to the superintendent written documentation of the following:
1. Inspection by the authority that has jurisdiction that each building is in compliance with applicable building and fire codes or that the authority has approved a plan of correction for areas of noncompliance; and
2. Inspection from the local health department that each building is in compliance with applicable health codes with regard to water supply, sewage disposal system, and food service, if applicable, or a plan of correction approved by the local health department for areas of noncompliance.
B. A building that is currently approved for school occupancy and houses a public or private school during the school year shall be considered to have met the requirements of subdivision A 1 of this section when housing a center only serving children two and a half years of age or older.
C. Asbestos.
1. For buildings built before 1978, the center shall submit the following before the initial license is issued:
a. A written statement from a person licensed in Virginia as an asbestos inspector and management planner as required by § 22.1-289.052 of the Code of Virginia and the requirements of the Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act (15 USC § 2641 et seq.); and
b. A written statement that the response actions to abate risks to human health have been or will be initiated in accordance with a specific schedule and plan as recommended by the asbestos management planner in accordance with § 22.1-289.052 of the Code of Virginia.
2. If the asbestos inspector determines that there is asbestos on the premises, the center shall post a notice that (i) identifies the presence and location of asbestos containing materials and (ii) advises that the asbestos inspection report and management plan are available for review.
D. Lead.
1. For buildings built before 1978, the center shall submit the following before the initial license is issued:
a. A written statement from a person licensed in Virginia as a lead risk assessor who meets the requirements of § 54.1-500 of the Code of Virginia; and
b. A written lead risk assessment shall state that either (i) no lead was detected, (ii) lead was detected and response actions to abate risks to human health have been completed, or (iii) lead was detected and response actions to abate risks to human health have been recommended in accordance with a specified schedule.
2. A notice regarding the presence and location of lead containing materials advising that the lead inspection report and management plan are available for review shall be posted.
3. The provisions of this subsection do not apply to centers licensed before (insert the effective date of this chapter).
E. The provisions of subsections C and D of this section do not apply to centers located in buildings required to be inspected according to Article 5 (§ 2.2-1162 et seq.) of Chapter 11 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
F. Before the first license is issued, primitive camps shall (i) notify the responsible fire department and emergency medical service of the primitive camp location and hours of operation and (ii) maintain documentation of the notifications.
8VAC20-781-200. Annual and renewal approval from other agencies; requirements after initial licensure.
A. Before use of newly constructed, renovated, remodeled, or altered buildings or sections of buildings, the center shall submit to the superintendent written documentation of the following:
1. Inspection by the authority that has jurisdiction that each building is in compliance with applicable building and fire codes or that the authority has approved a plan of correction for areas of noncompliance; and
2. Inspection from the local health department that each building is in compliance with applicable health codes with regard to water supply, sewage disposal system, and food service, if applicable, or a plan of correction approved by the local health department for areas of noncompliance.
B. A building that is currently approved for school occupancy and houses a public or private school during the school year shall be considered to have met the requirements of subdivision A 1 of this section when housing a center only serving children two and a half years of age or older.
C. The center shall provide to the superintendent an annual fire inspection report from the appropriate fire official that has jurisdiction.
D. If a center is located in a building currently housing a public or private school, the center shall provide the school's annual fire inspection report.
E. The center shall provide to the superintendent an annual inspection from the local health department that each building is in compliance with applicable health codes with regard to water supply, sewage disposal system, and food service, if applicable, or a plan of correction approved by the local health department for areas of noncompliance.
F. If a center is using a building where asbestos containing materials were detected and not removed, the center shall follow the recommendations of the management plan and ensure the following:
1. A signed, written statement that the center is following the recommendations of the management plan shall be submitted to the superintendent before a license is issued.
2. The notice regarding the presence and location of asbestos containing materials and advising that the asbestos inspection report and management plan are available for review shall continue to be posted.
3. The provisions of this subsection do not apply to child day centers located in buildings required to be inspected according to Article 5 (§ 2.2-1162 et seq.) of Chapter 11 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
G. Primitive camps shall (i) notify the responsible fire department and the responsible emergency medical service of changes in the primitive camp location and hours of operation and (ii) maintain documentation of the notifications.
H. For those buildings built before 1978 where lead is detected and not removed:
1. A signed, written statement that the center is following the recommendations of the management plan shall be submitted to the department before a license is issued.
2. A notice regarding the presence and location of lead advising that the lead inspection report and management plan are available for review shall continue to be posted.
3. The provisions of this subsection do not apply to child day centers located in buildings required to be inspected according to Article 5 (§ 2.2-1162 et seq.) of Chapter 11 of Title 2.2 of the Code of Virginia.
4. The provisions of this subsection do not apply to centers licensed before (insert the effective date of this chapter).
8VAC20-781-210. Building maintenance.
A. The center shall maintain the areas and equipment of the center, inside and outside, in a clean, safe, and operable condition. Unsafe conditions include splintered, cracked, or otherwise deteriorating wood; peeling paint; visible cracks, bending, warping, rusting, or breakage of equipment; loose or unsecured cords within reach of children; and unstable heavy equipment, furniture, or other items that a child could pull down.
B. The licensee shall ensure the following:
1. Hot water accessible to children does not exceed 120°F.
2. The heating system shall (i) be installed to prevent accessibility of the system to children and (ii) have appropriate barriers to prevent children from being burned, shocked, or injured from heating equipment. In addition, proper supervision shall be available to prevent injury.
3. Portable heaters shall only be used to provide or supplement heat if a power failure or similar emergency occurs. The licensee shall ensure that portable heaters are inaccessible to children and have the seal of approval of a nationally recognized testing laboratory or are approved by the state or local fire official. Portable heaters shall not be used within three feet of combustible materials and shall be used in accordance with manufacturer instructions.
4. Portable camping equipment for heating or cooking that is not required to be approved by the building official shall bear the label of a nationally recognized inspection agency and be used in accordance with manufacturer specifications, except for charcoal and wood-burning cooking equipment.
5. Unvented fuel burning heaters are not used when children are in care.
6. Electrical outlets and surge protectors accessible to children who are preschool age and younger are tamper-resistant or have protective covers.
7. Electrical cords are not spliced, deteriorated, or damaged, and unsecured electrical cords are inaccessible to children preschool age and younger.
8. Extension cords have the seal of a nationally recognized testing laboratory, are not overloaded, and are not placed through doorways, under carpeting, or across water source areas.
9. When in use, fans shall be out of reach of children and cords shall be secured.
10. In inside areas occupied by children, the temperature shall be maintained no lower than 68°F.
11. When the temperature of indoor areas occupied by children exceeds 80°F, fans or other cooling systems are used.
12. Safe drinking water is available to children at all times.
13. Equipment shall include (i) outside lighting provided at entrances and exits used by children before sunrise or after sundown and (ii) an in-service telephone or cell phone that is operable and accessible to staff on premises during the center's hours of operation.
14. Hazardous mechanical or electrical equipment are inaccessible to children.
C. Pursuant to § 22.1-289.058 of the Code of Virginia, each building built before 2015 used to operate a licensed child day center shall be equipped with one carbon monoxide detector.
D. Pursuant to § 22.1-289.057 of the Code of Virginia, the license shall:
1. a. Develop and implement a plan to test potable water;
b. Remediate and retest if necessary; and
c. Submit results of initial testing and retesting to the superintendent and the Department of Health’s Office of Drinking Water; or
2. Use for human consumption, as defined by § 32.1-167, bottled water, water coolers, or other similar water source that meets the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) standards for bottled water. The licensee shall notify the superintendent, the Virginia Department of Health's Office of Drinking Water, and the parent of each child enrolled in the program if the water is not tested or if the program does not remediate when lead is present and instead chooses to use another water source that meets FDA standards for bottled water.
8VAC20-781-220. Hazardous substances and other harmful agents.
A. The licensee shall ensure that hazardous substances and chemicals, including cleaning products, sanitizing agents, pesticides, flammable and explosive materials, and substances labeled as keep out of reach of children, toxic, danger, caution, warning, flammable, harmful if swallowed, causes burns, harmful vapor, or poison are stored in the following manner:
1. Inaccessible to children in a location that is locked. If a key is used, the key shall be inaccessible to children;
2. In the original container or a substitute container with the contents clearly labeled; and
3. In areas physically separate from food and items used for food preparation or food service.
Cleaning supplies to clean and sanitize the diapering area or toilet chairs do not need to be kept locked during diapering or toilet training time if they are inaccessible to children.
B. Items such as cosmetics, personal care items, and air fresheners that are used exclusively by staff or volunteers shall be inaccessible to children but are not required to be locked.
C. The licensee shall ensure that smoking and the use of electronic smoking devices are prohibited in the interior of a center while children are in care, in vehicles when children are being transported, or outdoors in the presence of children.
D. Hazardous items.
1. Empty plastic bags large enough for a child's head to fit inside, disposable gloves, and rubber or latex balloons shall be inaccessible to children younger than three years of age;
2. Items with a diameter of less than 1-1/4 inch and a length of less than 2-1/4 inches shall be inaccessible to children younger than three years of age; and
3. Strings and cords long enough to encircle a child's neck, such as those found on window blinds or drapery cords, shall be inaccessible to children younger than six years of age.
8VAC20-781-230. Areas.
A. Indoor space shall be measured inside wall-to-wall, excluding spaces not routinely used by children. Areas not routinely used for children's activities, such as offices, hallways, restrooms, kitchens, storage rooms, or closets, shall not be calculated as available space.
B. Centers shall have 35 square feet of indoor space available for each child.
C. Licensees that were licensed before (insert the effective date of this regulation) and subsequent licensees that operate in buildings approved before June 1, 2008, shall have 25 square feet of indoor space available for each child 16 months of age and older.
D. The center shall designate a separate space for children who are ill or injured.
E. The licensee shall ensure that space utilized for an outside play area has at least 75 square feet of space per child.
F. For centers licensed for the care of infants or toddlers, at least 25 square feet of the 75 square feet required in subsection E of this section shall be an unpaved surface.
G. Infants and toddlers shall have a separate outdoor play area or shall not occupy the outdoor play area at the same time as preschool and school-age children.
8VAC20-781-240. Toileting areas and furnishings.
A. Centers shall have at least two toilets and two sinks.
B. The licensee shall ensure that each toileting area provided for children:
1. Is within a contained area, readily available, and within the building used by the children. Toilets used by children at primitive camps are not required to be located within the building.
2. Has flushable toilets.
3. Has sinks located near the toilets that are supplied with running water.
4. Is equipped with a lined waste container, soap, toilet paper, and disposable towels or an air dryer within reach of children.
C. Centers shall have at least one toilet and one sink per 20 preschool children and at least one standard-size toilet and one sink per 30 school-age children. When sharing restroom areas with other programs, the children in those programs shall be included in the toilet and sink ratio calculations. The toilet and sink ratio appropriate to the younger age group shall apply. Urinals shall not count for more than 50% of the number of toilets in the toileting area.
D. When child-size toilets, urinals, and low sinks are not available in restrooms used by children of preschool age and younger, one or more platforms or sets of steps shall be provided. Platform steps shall be anchored or broad based to prevent toppling and have a non-slip surface.
E. A toileting area used for school-age children shall have at least one toileting area enclosed.
8VAC20-781-250. Indoor and outdoor play areas and equipment.
A. Outdoor play areas shall be located and designed to protect children from hazards including bodies of water and vehicular traffic.
B. Indoor and outdoor playground and climbing equipment shall be age appropriate for the children using it.
C. For child day centers licensed before (insert the effective date of this regulation), where playground equipment is provided, protective surfacing shall comply with minimum safety standards when tested in accordance with the procedures described in the American Society for Testing and Materials standard F1292-99 as shown in Table 1 (Compressed Loose Fill Synthetic Materials Depth Chart) and Table 2 (Use Zones for Equipment) below and shall be under equipment with moving parts or climbing apparatus to create a use zone free of hazardous obstacles. A use zone shall encompass sufficient area to include the child's trajectory if a fall occurs while the equipment is in use. Where steps are used for accessibility, protective surfacing is not required.
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Table 1. Compressed Loose Fill Synthetic Materials Depth Chart
|
|
Loose-fill Material Type
|
Required Depth
|
Maximum Equipment Fall Height
|
|
Engineered wood fiber
|
6 inches
|
7 feet
|
|
9 inches
|
8 feet
|
|
Pea gravel
|
6 inches
|
4 feet
|
|
9 inches
|
5 feet
|
|
Recycled shredded rubber
|
6 inches
|
8 feet
|
|
Sand
|
6 inches
|
8 feet
|
|
Wood chips
|
6 inches
|
7 feet
|
|
9 inches
|
8 feet
|
|
Wood mulch
|
6 inches
|
7 feet
|
|
9 inches
|
10 feet
|
|
Wood mulch-double shredded
|
6 inches
|
6 feet
|
|
9 inches
|
10 feet
|
D. Depth requirements in this section are required unless the facility has received documentation of third-party laboratory testing verifying that the type, depth of protective surfacing, or installation process used at the facility complies with the most recent recommendations by the U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission's (CPSC) Public Playground Safety Handbook.
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Table 2. Use Zones for Equipment
|
|
Equipment
|
Use Zone
|
|
Stationary Equipment
|
Six feet on all sides of the equipment.
|
|
Slides
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Six feet on all sides. The use zone in front of the exit shall be a minimum of 6 feet and at least as long as the slide is high up to a maximum of 8 feet.
|
|
Swings
|
Six feet on each side. Twice the height of the swing beam in the front and back of the swing.
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E. For child day centers licensed after (insert the effective date of this regulation) where playground equipment is provided, protective surfacing and use zones shall comply with protective surfacing requirements in the most current U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission's (CPSC) Public Playground Safety Handbook.
F. Use zones shall be free of obstacles, including containment barriers for protective surfacing, and shall extend a minimum of six feet in all directions from the perimeter of the equipment.
G. Climbing equipment and swings shall not be installed over asphalt or concrete unless the asphalt or concrete is:
1. Covered with a properly installed unitary surfacing material; or
2. Covered with a loose-fill surfacing system (see Table 3). A loose-fill surfacing system shall include the following layers of protection:
a. Immediately over the hard surface there shall be a three- to six-inch base layer of loose-fill gravel for drainage;
b. The next layer shall be a geo-textile cloth;
c. On top of the geo-textile cloth there shall be a loose-fill layer meeting the requirements of Table 1 of this section; and
d. Impact attenuating mats shall be embedded in the top loose-fill layer in high traffic areas. High traffic areas include underneath swings, at slide exits, and other places where displacement is likely.
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Table 3. Loose-Fill Surfacing System Requirements for Use Over Asphalt or Concrete
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|
Layer 5: Impact mats- under swings and slide exits
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Layer 4: Loose-fill surface material- as required by 8VAC20-781-250 C
|
|
Layer 3: Cloth barrier- geo-textile cloth
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Layer 2: Drainage layer- three to six inches of gravel
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Layer 1: Hard Surface of existing asphalt or concrete
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H. Ground supports shall be covered with materials that protect children from injury.
I. Swing seats shall be constructed with flexible material such as rubber, canvas, or nylon.
1. Nonflexible molded swing seats shall only be used in a separate infant or toddler play area.
2. Swings made specifically for a child with a special need is permitted if a staff member is positioned to see and protect other children who might walk into the path of the swing.
3. Multi-axis swings including tire swings (i) shall not use steel belted tires, and (ii) the minimum clearance between the seating surface of the swing and the uprights of the supporting structure shall be 30 inches when the seat is in a position closest to the support structure.
J. Sandboxes shall be covered when not in use.
K. A shady area shall be provided in outdoor play areas during the months of May through September.
L. Play equipment used by children shall meet the following requirements:
1. Openings above the ground or floor that allow a 3 ½ inch by 6 ¼ inch rectangle to fit through shall also allow a nine-inch circle to fit through to prevent entrapment of a child’s body or body part.
2. All hooks, such as S-hooks and C-hooks, shall be properly closed and shall not be open more than 0.04 inches and less than the thickness of a dime; and
3. Have no protrusions, sharp points, shearing points, or pinch points.
M. The maximum fall height of slides and climbing equipment installed before June 1, 2005, and used by toddlers, twos, and preschool children, shall be seven feet high when outdoors, and five feet high when indoors.
N. The maximum fall height of slides and climbing equipment installed after June 1, 2005, and used by toddlers, twos, and preschool children, shall be six feet high when outdoors, and five feet when indoors.
O. Indoor slides and climbing equipment with a fall height over 18 inches shall not be over bare flooring.
P. Indoor slides and climbing equipment with a fall height of 36 inches or more shall be located over protective surfacing.
Q. Slides shall not have spaces or gaps that could trap strings, clothing, or body parts between the platform and the start of the slide chute.
R. Trampolines shall not be used.
S. When inflatable equipment is used, the equipment shall be assembled, maintained, and used in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions.
T. The requirements of this section shall not prohibit child day programs providing care for preschool or school-age children at a location that is currently approved by the department or recognized as a private school by the State Board of Education for school occupancy and that houses a public or private school during the school year from permitting preschool or school-age children to use outdoor play equipment and areas approved for use by students of the school during school hours.
Part V
Staffing and Supervision
8VAC20-781-260. Supervision of children.
A. The licensee shall ensure that staff provide for the safety of children under the supervision of the center.
B. The licensee shall ensure that staff remain alert to the needs of the children in the care of the center.
C. Whenever a child is in the care of the center, there shall be on the premises at least (i) a lead teacher and (ii) a staff member or volunteer who has received training on how to contact appropriate authorities if an emergency occurs.
D. There shall be at least one staff member who meets the qualifications of a lead teacher in each group of children, except during short breaks and special activities.
E. A lead teacher is not required in each grouping of children during the first and last 90 minutes of operation when a center operates more than eight hours per day and during the designated rest period if the following are met:
1. There is a staff member in the group who is older than 18 years of age and has at least three months of programmatic experience;
2. There is an additional staff member on premises who meets lead teacher qualifications, is not counted in the staff-to-children ratios, and is immediately available to help if needed; and
3. There is a direct means for communicating between these two staff members.
F. For children younger than 10 years of age, the licensee shall ensure sight and sound supervision by staff who are always physically present without separation by a physical barrier, except that staff need only be able to hear a child who is using the restroom, provided that:
1. There is a system to ensure that individuals who are not staff members or persons allowed to pick up a child in care are not present in the restroom area while in use by children;
2. Staff check on a child who has not returned from the restroom after five minutes. Depending on the location and layout of the restroom, staff shall provide intermittent sight supervision of the children in the restroom area during this five-minute period to ensure the safety of children and to provide assistance to children as needed; and
3. Staff can hear or see the children. Video equipment, intercom systems, or other technological devices shall not substitute for staff being able to directly see or hear children.
G. Children 10 years of age and older shall be within sight and sound supervision of staff, except when the following requirements are met:
1. Staff can hear or see the children. Video equipment, intercom systems, or other technological devices shall not substitute for staff being able to directly see or hear children;
2. Staff are nearby to provide immediate intervention if needed;
3. There is a system to ensure that staff know where the children are and what they are doing;
4. There is a system to ensure that individuals who are not staff members or persons allowed to pick up children in care are not present in the areas where children are not under sight supervision; and
5. Staff provide sight and sound supervision of the children at variable and unpredictable intervals not to exceed 15 minutes.
H. When the outdoor activity area is not adjacent to the center, there shall be at least two staff members on the outdoor activity area whenever one or more children are present.
8VAC20-781-270. Staff-to-children ratio and group size requirements.
A. The maximum group size limitations specified in Table 1 shall be followed whenever children are in care.
Table 1. Maximum Group Size Requirements |
|
Age |
Maximum Group Size |
| 1. |
Birth to 16 months |
12 |
| 2. |
16 months to 24 months |
15 |
| 3. |
2 years of age |
24 |
| 4. |
3 years of age to school-age eligibility |
30 |
| 5. |
School-age eligible through 12 years of age |
100 |
B. The staff-to-children ratios specified in Table 2 are required whenever children are in care.
Table 2. Ratio Requirements |
|
Age |
Ratio (staff:children) |
| 1. |
Birth to 16 months |
1:4 |
| 2. |
16 months to 24 months |
1:5 |
| 3. |
2 years of age |
1:8 |
| 4. |
3 years of age to school-age eligibility |
1:10 |
| 5. |
School-age eligible through 12 years of age |
1:20 |
C. In accordance with Part V (8VAC20-820-220 et seq.) of 8VAC20-820 and with approval by the superintendent, a center may temporarily alter the staff-to-child ratios (i) by one child for groups of children from birth to school-age eligibility and (ii) by two children for groups of children school-age eligible through 12 years of age. Under this provision, group sizes three times the approved ratios may be implemented for children from birth to school-age eligibility. Group size for school-age children shall meet the requirements in subsection A of this section.
D. When a group includes children from different age groups, the age of the youngest child in the group shall be used to determine the staff-to-children ratio and group size for that group.
E. Group size limitations shall not apply during the following:
1. Designated rest periods as described in 8VAC20-781-280 and 8VAC20-781-290;
2. Outdoor activity as described in 8VAC20-781-320, 8VAC20-781-340, and 8VAC20-781-350;
3. Transportation and field trips as described in 8VAC20-781-630 and 8VAC20-781-640;
4. Meals and snacks served as described in 8VAC20-781-610; or
5. Special group activities, or during the first and last hour of operation when the center operates more than six hours per day.
F. Staff shall be counted in the required staff-to-children ratios only when they are directly supervising children.
G. A child volunteer 13 years of age or older not enrolled in the program shall not be counted as a child in the staff-to-children ratio requirements.
H. With a parent's written permission and a written assessment by the director and lead teacher, a center may choose to assign a child to a different age group if the age group is more appropriate for the child's developmental level and the staff-to-children ratio and group size shall be for the established age group. These assignments are intended to be a permanent new group and staff members for the child until it is determined the child's developmental level indicates a new assignment.
8VAC20-781-280. Ratios and group size for a balanced mixed-age grouping.
A. The ratio for a classroom of a balanced mixed-age grouping of children preschool to six years of age shall be one staff member for every 14 children, provided:
1. The center has additional staff who are readily accessible if there is an emergency to maintain a ratio of one staff member for every 10 children when children three years of age are included in the balanced mixed-age group; and
2. The lead teacher has received at least eight hours of training in classroom management of a balanced mixed-age grouping.
B. The staff-to-children ratio for a balanced mixed-age grouping during rest time shall be one staff member for every 28 children and the requirements 8VAC20-781-290 B, C, and D shall be met.
C. A maximum group size of 28 shall be followed whenever children in care are in a balanced mixed-age grouping.
8VAC20-781-290. Ratios during designated rest periods.
A. For children 16 months of age through preschool age, during the designated rest period, when children are resting or in an inactive state, the following rest period ratios are permitted if the requirements of subsections B, C, and D of this section are met:
1. Children 16 to 24 months of age: one staff member per 10 children.
2. Children two years of age: one staff member per 16 children.
3. Children of preschool age: one staff member per 20 children.
B. In addition to the staff required by rest period ratios, an additional staff member shall always be available on site to offer immediate assistance. The staff required by rest period ratios shall be able to summon the additional staff member without leaving the room or area of the sleeping or resting children.
C. Once at least half of the children in the resting room or area are awake and off their mats or cots, the staff-to-children ratio shall meet the ratios as required in 8VAC20-781-270 and 8VAC20-781-280.
D. The licensee shall ensure that one staff member shall not supervise more than one room or area during rest time.
E. Centers providing evening and overnight care shall meet the requirements of subsections A through D of this section during sleep periods.
8VAC20-781-300. Ratios and supervision during transportation and field trips.
A. The staff-to-children ratios of 8VAC20-781-270 and 8VAC20-781-280 A shall be followed on all field trips.
B. The staff-to-children ratio need not apply during transportation of school-age children to and from the center.
C. One staff member or adult is necessary in addition to the driver when 16 or more preschool age or younger children are being transported in the vehicle.
Part VI
Program Requirements and Equipment
8VAC20-781-310. Daily activities.
A. The center shall provide a variety of daily activities for all age groups that are age and stage appropriate and based on the physical, social, emotional, and intellectual needs of the children.
B. The center shall provide opportunities for staff-directed and self-directed activities, a balance of active and quiet activities, active outdoor play, and individual and group activities.
C. If the center uses media such as television, videos, video games, software, and computers, the following shall apply:
1. For infants, the use of visual media is prohibited.
2. For toddlers, media use up to two hours per day is permitted if the center operates more than six hours per day.
3. For children two years of age and older, no more than a total of two hours per day is permitted when content is not based on curriculum or educational content.
4. All media provided by the center shall be limited to age-appropriate programs and meet all the requirements in subsection A of this section.
D. Requirements in subdivision C 3 of this section do not apply to school-age children who attend educational programming that incorporates technology into curriculum learning activities.
E. Children shall be allowed to sleep or rest as individually needed.
8VAC20-781-320. Daily care and activities for infants.
A. The center shall post a flexible daily schedule for infants based on individual needs and the requirements of 8VAC20-781-310 B.
B. During the day, the licensee shall ensure that infants are provided with the following:
1. Food as specified in 8VAC20-781-610 and 8VAC20-781-620;
2. Outdoor time, unless weather or the Air Quality Color Code Chart as provided by the Department of Environmental Quality states that outdoor conditions are hazardous;
3. Comfort, as needed;
4. Stimulation and language development activities, including staff reading, talking to, showing pictures to, naming objects for, playing with, and engaging in positive interactions (e.g., smiling, cuddling, and making eye contact) with infants;
5. A variety of play spaces that offer:
a. Room for extensive movement (i.e., rolling, crawling, or walking) and exploration;
b. A diversity of sensory and perceptual experiences; and
c. Equipment and toys that support large and small motor development.
6. Frequent opportunities for infants to creep, crawl, toddle, and walk; and
7. Protection from older children.
C. The licensee shall ensure that staff respond promptly to infants who are crying or distraught.
D. The licensee shall ensure that, for an infant playing on the floor or ground who cannot move without help, staff ensure that the infant's position and the selection of toys accessible to the infant changes every 30 minutes or more often based on the infant's needs.
E. The licensee shall ensure that staff shall not confine infants who are awake and not actively eating in one piece of equipment, including swings, highchairs, cribs, play pens, or other similar pieces of equipment, for more than 30 consecutive minutes. Except when eating, the intervening time between confinements shall be at least 30 minutes.
F. The licensee shall ensure that for infants who are awake and unable to turn over alone, staff shall make a minimum of two attempts at supervised tummy time throughout the day.
G. The licensee shall ensure that infant car seats are only used for child transportation.
H. The licensee shall ensure that cribs are only used for rest and sleep.
8VAC20-781-330. Resting and sleeping infants.
A. The licensee shall ensure that staff allow infants to follow individual patterns of sleeping and eating.
B. The licensee shall ensure that staff place infants in cribs on their backs (i.e., supine) rather than on their bellies (i.e., prone), unless otherwise ordered by a written, signed statement by the child's physician or physician's designee.
C. The licensee shall ensure that when an infant is able to turn supine to the prone, staff place the infant supine but allow the infant to adopt the infant's preferred position unless otherwise directed in a written, signed statement by the child’s physician or physician's designee.
D. The licensee shall ensure that staff shall not use sleep-adaptive equipment unless otherwise directed in a written, signed statement by the child's physician or physician's designee.
E. The licensee shall ensure that each resting or sleeping infant is individually checked for breathing, the color of the infant's skin, signs of distress, and to ensure safe sleep conditions are still met every 15 to 20 minutes.
F. The licensee shall ensure that staff shall move an infant who falls asleep outside of the crib to the infant's assigned crib as soon as possible.
G. The licensee shall ensure that staff ensure that items that could restrict infant movement or breathing (e.g., swaddling, weighted blankets, bibs, necklaces, or garments with ties or hoods) or cover the infant's head or face are not included in the crib with sleeping infants.
8VAC20-781-340. Daily care and activities for toddlers, twos, and preschoolers.
A. The center shall develop, follow, and post a daily schedule that allows for flexibility as children's needs require and that meets the requirements of 8VAC20-781-310 B. The daily schedule need not apply on days occupied a majority of the time by a field trip or other special event. The outdoor activity time need not apply when the weather or the Air Quality Color Code Chart as provided by the Department of Environmental Quality states that outdoor conditions are hazardous. The daily schedule shall include opportunities for:
1. Outdoor activity for at least:
a. Fifteen minutes per day or session if the center operates up to three hours per day or session;
b. Thirty minutes per day or session if the center operates between three and five hours per day or session; or
c. One hour per day or session if the center operates more than five hours per day or session.
2. Sleep or rest. Centers operating five or more hours per day shall have a designated rest period for at least one hour but no more than two hours.
3. Meals and snacks as specified in 8VAC20-781-610.
4. Small and large motor activities, language and communication experiences, sensory experiences, art, or music activities, and play acting or social living.
B. After the first 30 minutes of a rest period, children not sleeping shall be permitted to engage in quiet activities.
C. A child who falls asleep in a place other than the child's designated sleeping location may remain in that space if comfortable and safe.
D. The licensee shall ensure that each sleeping toddler is individually checked for breathing, the color of the toddler's skin, signs of distress, and to ensure safe sleep conditions are still met every 30 minutes.
E. The licensee shall ensure that staff do not confine children who are awake and not actively eating in one piece of equipment, including swings, highchairs, cribs, play pens, or other similar pieces of equipment, for more than 30 consecutive minutes. Except when eating, the intervening time between confinements shall be at least one hour.
8VAC20-781-350. Daily care and activities for school-age children.
A. The center shall develop, follow, and post a daily schedule for school-age children that allows for flexibility based on individual needs and the requirements of 8VAC20-781-310 B. This schedule need not apply on field trip days or special events. The outdoor activity time need not apply when the weather or the Air Quality Color Code Chart as provided by the Department of Environmental Quality states that outdoor conditions are hazardous.
B. Before or after school, the center shall provide an opportunity for children to do homework, projects, hobbies, small motor activities, art activities, or music activities in a suitable area. In the afternoon, there shall be an opportunity for large motor activities at least 25% of the time.
C. On non-school days, the center shall provide opportunities for (i) large motor activities at least 25% of the time; (ii) small motor activities; (iii) projects, hobbies, or homework in a suitable place; (iv) art or music activities; (v) outdoor activity for at least one hour per day; and (vi) food as specified in 8VAC20-781-610.
8VAC20-781-360. Daily care and activities for children with special needs.
A. The center shall work with the parent and the staff assigned to the child to develop a plan to ensure that a child with special needs receives care and activity opportunities appropriate to the child's individual needs, including specific care and activities recommended by a professional. The plan shall be documented and maintained in the child's record and updated annually or more frequently, as necessary.
B. For a child who cannot move without assistance, staff shall change the place and position of the child at least every 30 minutes or according to the child's needs.
8VAC20-781-370. Behavioral guidance.
A. The center shall use positive methods of guiding behavior.
B. When a child is in the care of the center, the licensee shall ensure that staff interact with children and one another to provide needed help, comfort, support and:
1. Respect personal privacy;
2. Respect differences in cultural, ethnic, religious, and family backgrounds;
3. Encourage decision-making abilities;
4. Promote ways of getting along;
5. Encourage independence and self-direction; and
6. Use consistency in applying expectations.
C. The licensee shall ensure that behavioral guidance is constructive in nature, age and stage appropriate, and is intended to redirect children to appropriate behavior and resolve conflicts.
D. If time-out is used as a behavior guidance technique:
1. It shall be used sparingly and shall not exceed one minute for each year of the child's age;
2. It shall be appropriate to the child's developmental level and individual needs;
3. It shall not be used with infants or toddlers;
4. The child shall be in a safe, lighted, well-ventilated place, and within sight and sound of a staff member; and
5. The child shall not be left alone inside or outside the center.
8VAC20-781-380. Prohibited actions.
The following actions or threats are prohibited:
1. Physical punishment;
2. Striking a child, roughly handling or shaking a child, biting, pinching, restricting movement through binding or tying, forcing a child to assume an uncomfortable position, forced exercise, or action taken to cause pain or discomfort;
3. Enclosure in a small, confined space or a space that the child cannot freely exit; however, this does not apply to the use of equipment such as cribs, play yards, highchairs, and safety gates when used with children preschool age or younger for the intended purpose;
4. Permitting a child to discipline or punish other children;
5. Punitive separation from the group so that the child is away from the hearing and vision of a staff member;
6. Withholding or forcing of food, water, or rest;
7. Verbal remarks that are demeaning to the child or psychological punishment, including ridicule or humiliation;
8. Punishment for toileting accidents or withholding opportunities for toileting;
9. Punishment by applying unpleasant or harmful substances; and
10. Withholding outside activity time as punishment.
8VAC20-781-390. Parental engagement.
Before the child's first day of attending, parents shall be notified about how to access the following:
1. The center's philosophy and if applicable, religious affiliation;
2. Operating information, including the hours and days of operation and holidays or other times closed, and the contact information to communicate with staff;
3. Description of established lines of authority for staff;
4. A custodial parent's right to be admitted to the center as required by § 22.1-289.054 of the Code of Virginia;
5. The appropriate general daily schedule for the age of the enrolling child;
6. How the center will notify parents of emergency situations and send parent communication and notifications as required by 8VAC20-781-400;
7. The following information from the center's emergency procedures:
a. The relocation site;
b. Method of communication with parents and emergency responders; and
c. Procedure to reunite children with a parent or authorized person designated by the parent;
8. The center's transportation policy;
9. The center's policies for the arrival and departure of children, including procedures for verifying that only persons authorized by the parent are allowed to pick up the child, picking up children after closing, and when a child is not picked up for emergency situations, including inclement weather or natural or man-made disasters;
10. The center's policy regarding medication or medical procedures that will be given;
11. The center's policy regarding application of topical skin products;
12. The center's policy for reporting suspected child abuse and neglect as required by § 63.2-1509 of the Code of Virginia;
13. The center's food policies;
14. Discipline policies, including acceptable and unacceptable discipline measures; and
15. Termination policies.
8VAC20-781-400. Parent communication and notification.
A. The center shall inform parents when a pattern of behavioral problems emerges or persists. Notification shall include actions taken in response.
B. The center shall maintain a written record and provide parents with a written report of each injury involving their child on the day of occurrence. The written report shall protect the confidentiality of other children involved, and shall include:
1. Date and time of incident or injury;
2. Child's name;
3. Type and circumstance of incident or injury;
4. Staff present and actions taken or treatment offered;
5. Date, time, and method used to notify parents;
6. Staff and parent signatures or two staff signatures; and
7. Future action to prevent reoccurrence.
C. The center shall notify the parent immediately and provide written documentation pursuant to subsection B of this section if the following incidents occur:
1. The child sustains an injury that may reasonably require medical or dental treatment.
2. The child has an adverse reaction to an administered medication or topical skin product, a medication error has occurred, or the center has administered an emergency medication.
3. The child has a confirmed or suspected allergic reaction or has ingested food identified in the written care plan required in 8VAC20-781-50 B 6 even if a reaction did not occur.
4. A situation in which the child's whereabouts is or was unknown, including a lost or missing child, a child left unattended in a vehicle or on the playground, or a child who wandered away unattended from the facility or assigned group.
D. When a child has been exposed to a communicable disease listed in the Virginia Department of Health's current communicable disease chart, the parents shall be notified within 24 hours or the next business day of the center's having been informed unless forbidden by law, except for life threatening diseases, which shall be reported to parents immediately.
E. Parents shall be informed in writing of a change to the center’s relocation site, the communication plan, and the reunification plan.
F. If an emergency evacuation or relocation is necessary, the parent shall be informed of the child's whereabouts as soon as possible as stated in the center’s emergency preparedness and response plan.
G. For each infant, the center shall maintain a daily record that can be easily accessed by both the parent and the staff working with the child. The record shall contain the following information:
1. The amount of time the infant slept;
2. The amount of food consumed and the time;
3. Record of diaper changes and the application of diaper ointment;
4. A description and time of bowel movements;
5. Developmental milestones and daily activities; and
6. For infants who are awake and cannot turn over by themselves, the number of attempts at tummy time.
H. Parents shall be informed of reasons for termination of services.
I. The center shall provide to parents of children at least semiannually or more frequently if needed:
1. Written information about the child's development and needs; and
2. Scheduled opportunities for parents to provide feedback on the child. This opportunity to provide feedback shall be documented.
J. Information on a child required by subsection I of this section shared between the child's parents and the center shall be documented in the child's record.
K. Requirements in subsection I of this section shall not apply to school-age children and children participating in short-term programs as defined in 8VAC20-781-10.
8VAC20-781-410. Parental agreements.
A written agreement between the parent and the center shall be in each child's record by the first day of the child's attendance. The agreement shall be signed by the parent and include:
1. An authorization for emergency medical care should an emergency occur when the parent cannot be located immediately, unless the parent states in writing an objection to the provision of emergency medical care on religious or other grounds;
2. A statement that the center will notify the parent when the child becomes ill and that the parent will arrange to have the child picked up as soon as possible if requested by the center;
3. A statement that the parent will inform the center within 24 hours or the next business day after his child or a member of the immediate household has developed a reportable communicable disease, as defined by the State Board of Health, except for life threatening diseases, which shall be reported immediately; and
4. Authorization for the center to transport the child if an emergency occurs, including needing medical care or facility relocation.
8VAC20-781-420. Play furnishings, equipment, materials, and toys.
A. Furnishings, equipment, and materials shall be (i) of an appropriate size for the child using the item and (ii) used in accordance with manufacturer instructions.
B. Materials and equipment shall be available, shall be age and stage appropriate for the children, and shall include an adequate supply, as appropriate for each age group, of arts and crafts materials, texture materials, construction materials, music and sound materials, books, social living equipment, and manipulative equipment.
1. Equipment used for play with a diameter of less than 1-1/4 inch and a length of less than 2-1/4 inches shall be inaccessible to children younger than three years of age; and
2. Toys and equipment with cords and strings shall only be accessible to children two years of age and older.
C. Washable toys and materials used by infants shall be cleaned and sanitized daily, or more often if necessary.
D. The following cloth items provided by the center shall be washable: stuffed animals, cloth dolls, and dress-up clothes. Floor pillows shall be washable or have removable covers that are machine washable. When used by children, the center shall wash stuffed animals, cloth dolls, dress-up clothes, and pillows or removable covers at least once a week or when soiled.
E. If water play tables or tubs are used, they shall be cleaned and sanitized daily.
F. If combs, toothbrushes, or other personal articles are used, they shall be individually assigned.
G. Disposable products not used for play, learning, or craft activities shall be used once and discarded.
H. Provision shall be made for an individual place for each child's personal belongings.
I. Infant walkers shall not be used.
J. Play yards where used shall:
1. Meet the current Juvenile Products Manufacturers Association (JPMA) and the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) requirements and shall retain the manufacturer label documenting product compliance with current safety standards at the time the play yard was manufactured;
2. Not use pillows or filled comforters;
3. Not be used for the designated sleeping area;
4. Not be occupied by more than one child; and
5. Be sanitized each day of use or more often as needed.
K. The licensee shall register to receive free recall alerts from the U.S. Consumer Product Safety Commission and shall remove all recalled items from the center.
L. Portable water coolers shall be cleaned daily when in use, kept securely closed, and designed so that water may be withdrawn from the container only by tap.
8VAC20-781-430. Cribs, cots, rest mats, and beds.
A. Cribs, cots, rest mats, or beds shall be provided for children during the designated rest period and not be occupied by more than one child at a time.
B. Cribs shall not be used as a play space.
C. Cribs, cots, rest mats, and beds shall be identified for use by a specific child.
D. Double-decker cribs, cots, beds, or other sleeping equipment, when stacked, shall not be permitted to be used for children.
E. Occupied cribs, cots, rest mats, and beds shall be at least 2-1/2 feet from heat-producing appliances.
F. There shall be at least 12 inches of space between occupied cots, beds, and rest mats.
G. Twelve inches of space is not required where cots, beds, or rest mats are located adjacent to a wall or a divider if one side is open at all times to allow for passage.
H. Mattresses, cots, or rest mats shall be (i) nonabsorbent or covered with a waterproof material and (ii) sanitized on all sides weekly or before use by another child.
I. Rest mats shall have at least one inch of cushioning.
J. Cribs shall be used for children under 12 months of age.
K. Cribs shall meet the following requirements:
1. Meet the current Consumer Product Safety Commission Standards at the time the crib was manufactured;
2. Have no more than one inch between the mattress and the crib; and
3. Not have mesh sides.
L. Cribs shall be placed where objects outside the crib, such as cords from blinds or curtains, are not within reach of children in cribs.
M. There shall be at least:
1. Twelve inches of space between the sides and ends of occupied cribs, except where the crib touches the wall or solid barrier; and
2. Thirty inches of space between service sides of occupied cribs and other furniture where that space is the walkway for staff to gain access to occupied cribs.
N. If cribs with a swing-down safety gate on one side for easy access to a child are used, the hinged safety gates shall be up and the fastenings secured when a child is in the crib, except when a staff member is giving the child immediate attention.
O. No soft objects or loose bedding, including pillows, blankets, quilts, comforters, sheepskins, bumper pads, or stuffed toys, shall be used with infants under 12 months of age when sleeping or resting.
P. Toys or objects hung over an infant in a crib and crib gyms that are strung across the crib shall be out of reach of the infant and shall not be used for infants over five months of age or infants who are able to push up on their hands and knees.
8VAC20-781-440. Linens.
A. Cribs, when being used by infants, shall only have a tight-fitted bottom cover that does not make the mattress buckle or bend.
B. Cribs, cots, mats, and beds used by children other than infants during the designated rest period or during evening and overnight care shall have linens consisting of a top cover and a bottom cover or a one-piece covering that is open on three edges.
C. Linens and pillows used by children shall be (i) assigned for individual use and (ii) stored separately from the linens and pillows of other children.
D. Linens and pillows shall be changed when wet, soiled, or dirty and linens shall be washed at least weekly.
E. Pillows, when used, shall be covered with pillowcases.
8VAC20-781-450. Swimming and wading.
A. The center shall post written safety rules for swimming or wading in the swimming area when the pool is located on the premises of the center.
B. The center shall follow posted rules of public swimming areas when swimming activities are located off site.
C. Safety rules for swimming or wading shall be explained to children participating in swimming or wading activities.
D. Before a child is able to participate in swimming or wading activities, and annually thereafter, the center shall obtain (i) written permission from the parent of each child who participates in swimming or wading and (ii) a written assessment from a certified lifeguard or a written statement from the parent to identify if the child is a swimmer or nonswimmer before the child is allowed in water with a depth of more than two feet.
E. The licensee shall ensure that staff maintain active supervision when a child is in or around water by staff designated to supervise children in the water. Notwithstanding ratio requirements in 8VAC20-781-270 and 8VAC20-781-280 A, these staff shall only be responsible for the supervision of children participating in the water activity and additional staff shall be available to supervise children not participating.
F. The licensee shall ensure that staff have a system for accounting at all times for all children in the water and in the aquatic area.
G. The staff-to-children ratios required by 8VAC20-781-270 and 8VAC20-781-280 A shall be maintained while children are participating in swimming or wading activities. Notwithstanding the staff-to-children ratios already stated, at no time shall there be fewer than two staff members supervising the group.
H. If a pool, lake, or other swimming area has a water depth of more than two feet, a certified lifeguard holding a current certification shall be on duty supervising whenever a child is participating in swimming or wading activities.
1. One lifeguard for every 25 children in the water shall be on duty and supervising the children.
2. The designated certified lifeguard shall not be counted in the staff-to-children ratios.
3. The lifeguard certification shall (i) include an in-person competency demonstration and (ii) be obtained from an individual or organization holding instructor certification from an organization such as the American Red Cross.
I. Outdoor swimming activities shall occur only during daylight hours unless underwater and deck lighting is provided.
8VAC20-781-460. Pools and equipment.
A. When permanent swimming or wading pools are located on the premises of the center, the following shall apply:
1. The manufacturer specifications for operating the pool and applicable local ordinances and Virginia Department of Health requirements for swimming pools shall be followed;
2. Pools constructed, renovated, or remodeled after April 1, 1986, shall have a statement in writing of inspection and approval from the local building official when approval is required;
3. Outdoor swimming pools shall be enclosed by safety fences and gates that are in compliance with the applicable edition of the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63) and shall be kept locked when the pool is not in use;
4. Entrances to indoor swimming pools shall be locked when the pool is not in use; and
5. A whistle or other audible signaling device, a buoy or a lemon line, a reach pole, and a backboard shall be available at the swimming or wading site.
B. If children are allowed to swim in a lake or place other than a pool, safe swimming areas shall be clearly marked and there shall be appropriate water safety equipment.
C. Piers, floats, and platforms shall be in good repair and, where used for diving, the minimum water depth shall be stated on the deck or planking.
D. After use by a group of children, or more frequently as necessary, portable wading pools without an integrated filtration system shall be emptied, rinsed, and filled with fresh water.
E. After each day's use, portable wading pools shall be emptied, sanitized, and stored in a position to keep them clean and dry.
F. Children who are not toilet trained shall not use portable wading pools without an integrated filtration system.
Part VII
Preventing the Spread of Disease and Infection Control
8VAC20-781-470. Preventing the spread of disease.
A. Unless otherwise approved by a child's health care professional, a child shall be excluded from the center if the child has:
1. A fever, which means an oral or axillary temperature at or above 100.4°F;
2. Recurring vomiting or diarrhea not associated with diet change or medication; or
3. Symptoms of a communicable disease listed in the Virginia Department of Health's current communicable disease chart.
B. If a child needs to be excluded according to subsection A of this section, the following shall apply:
1. The center shall contact the parents or designated emergency contact immediately so that arrangements can be made to remove the child from the center as soon as possible; and
2. The child shall remain in a designated area as required by 8VAC20-781-230 D. The licensee shall ensure that the child is within sight and sound of a staff member at all times and shall ensure that staff respond to the needs of the child.
C. When a surface has been contaminated with body fluids, it shall be cleaned and sanitized immediately or restricted from use until cleaned and sanitized.
D. When a child's clothing has been contaminated with body fluids, it shall be separated, stored, and sealed in a leakproof storage bag until returned to the child's parent.
8VAC20-781-480. Hand washing.
A. The licensee shall ensure that staff ensure children's hands are washed with soap and running water:
1. After diapering or toileting;
2. After contact with body fluids;
3. After coming in from outdoors;
4. After handling or caring for animals;
5. Before and after playing with water used by more than one child;
6. When the child's hands are visibly dirty; and
7. Before eating.
B. The licensee shall ensure that children's hands are washed with soap and running water or disposable wipes after eating.
C. Until an infant is old enough to be safely raised to the sink and reach for the water, the infant's hands may be washed using disposable wipes.
D. The licensee shall ensure that staff wash their hands with soap and running water:
1. Before and after:
a. Helping a child use the toilet;
b. A diaper change;
c. Feeding or helping children with feeding;
d. Preparing or serving food or beverages; and
e. Administering medication or topical skin products when there is direct contact with the medication or product.
2. After:
a. Using the toilet;
b. Contact with body fluids;
c. Eating;
d. Handling garbage or cleaning materials;
e. Coming in from outdoors; and
f. Handling or caring for animals.
E. The licensee shall ensure that staff wash their hands with soap and running water when entering the facility before working with children and when hands are visibly dirty.
F. If running water is not available, a germicidal cleansing agent administered per manufacturer instruction may be used.
8VAC20-781-490. Diapering and toileting.
A. The diapering area shall be accessible and within the building used by children.
B. There shall be sight and sound supervision for all children when a child is being diapered.
C. The licensee shall ensure that staff do not leave a child unattended on the diapering surface.
D. The diapering area shall have the following:
1. A sink with running water not to exceed 120°F;
2. Soap, disposable towels, and single use gloves such as surgical or examination gloves;
3. A nonabsorbent surface for diapering or changing shall be used. For children younger than three years of age, this surface shall be a changing table or countertop designated for changing unless otherwise specified in this subsection; and
4. The appropriate disposal containers as required by this section.
E. When a child's clothing, diaper, or disposable training pants becomes wet or soiled, the child shall be wiped clean and changed immediately.
F. Staff shall check diapers and disposable training pants at least once every two hours.
G. Disposable diapers and disposable training pants shall be disposed in a covered leakproof or plastic-lined storage system that is either foot-operated or used in a way that the staff member's hand and the soiled diaper do not touch an exterior surface of the storage system during disposal.
H. When cloth diapers are used, a separate covered leakproof storage system as specified in subsection G of this section shall be used for each individual child.
I. Diapers, disposable training pants, or underwear of children who are toilet training may be changed in the bathroom and not on the diapering surface required in subdivision D 3 of this section, but the required procedures for handwashing in 8VAC20-781-480 and disposal of diapers or disposable training pants in subsections G and H of this section shall be followed.
J. The diapering surface shall (i) not be used for storage, (ii) be used only for diapering or wiping children clean, and (iii) be cleaned and sanitized after each use. Tables used for children's activities or meals shall not be used for changing diapers.
K. Staff shall ensure the immediate safety of a child during diapering.
8VAC20-781-500. Toilet training.
For every 10 children in the process of being toilet trained, there shall be at least one toilet chair or one child-sized toilet or at least one adult-sized toilet with a platform or steps and adapter seat.
1. The location of these items shall allow for sight and sound supervision of children in the classroom if necessary for the required staff-to-children ratios to be maintained.
2. Toilet chairs shall be emptied promptly and cleaned and sanitized after each use and located on non-carpeted areas when used.
Part VIII
Medication Administration and Topical Skin Products
8VAC20-781-510. Requirements for medication administration.
A. The decision to administer medicines at a facility may be limited by center policy to administer: (i) prescribed medications, (ii) nonprescription medications, or (iii) only those medications required for emergencies or by law.
B. Written parental authorization for medication shall be obtained before a medication is accepted, maintained, or stored at the center.
C. Medications accepted, maintained, or stored at the center shall (i) be labeled with the child's name and (ii) not be kept or used beyond the date of expiration or use by date on the medication container.
D. For a child for whom emergency medication, such as albuterol, glucagon, or epinephrine auto-injector, has been provided to the center by the parent, there shall always be a staff member who is immediately accessible and available and meets the requirements listed in 8VAC20-781-170.
E. Prescription and nonprescription medication shall be given to a child only with written authorization from the parent that has not expired. Medication shall be administered by a staff member who is 18 years of age or older.
F. The licensee shall ensure that written authorization from the child's parent for medication is only valid for 10 business days unless written authorization from the child's physician is on file.
G. Long-term prescription and nonprescription drug administration shall be allowed only with written authorization from the child's physician and parent and shall be renewed based on instructions from the child's physician.
H. Medication authorization shall be available to staff during the entire time it is effective.
I. When an authorization for medication expires, the center shall notify the parent with the intent to safely return the medication to the parent or receive an updated authorization form. If a parent has been non-responsive and has not retrieved the medication, the center shall safely dispose of the medication, but no later than 30 calendar days after the expiration date of the authorization. The expired medication authorization form shall be kept with the medication until the center can safely return the medication to the parent or dispose of the medication.
J. Undesignated or stock epinephrine kept at the center pursuant to § 22.1-289.059 shall be labeled with the name of the medication and the dosage amount.
8VAC20-781-520. Prescription medication.
The center may administer prescription medication, provided that:
1. The medication is administered by a staff member who meets the requirements in 8VAC20-781-170;
2. The center administers only those drugs that are dispensed from a pharmacy or health care provider and maintained in the original, labeled container; and
3. The center administers medications only to the child identified on the prescription label in accordance with the prescriber's instructions pertaining to dosage, frequency, and route of administration.
8VAC20-781-530. Non-prescription medication.
The center may administer nonprescription medication, provided the medication is:
1. Administered by a staff member who meets the requirements in 8VAC20-781-170;
2. Labeled with the child's name, the name of the medication, the dosage amount, and the times to be given;
3. In the original container with the manufacturer's direction label attached; and
4. Given only as specified on the manufacturer's label unless otherwise designated by written physician's order.
8VAC20-781-540. Storage of medication.
A. Unless designated otherwise by a written physician's order, medications, including refrigerated and staff's personal medications, shall be kept in a locked place using a safe locking method that prevents access by children.
B. If a key is used, the key shall be inaccessible to the children.
C. When needed, medication shall be refrigerated.
D. When medication is stored in a refrigerator used for food, the medications shall be stored together in a container or in a clearly defined area away from food.
8VAC20-781-550. Medication records.
The center shall keep a record of prescription and nonprescription medication given to children that shall include the following:
1. Name of the child to whom medication was administered;
2. The dose, the route, and the name of the medication administered to the child;
3. The date and time the medication was administered to the child;
4. Name of the staff member administering the medication;
5. Adverse reactions; and
6. Medication administration errors and action taken.
8VAC20-781-560. Self-administered medication.
A. When a school-age child self-administers medication while in care, the center shall:
1. Establish written safety procedures for self-administration of medication for school-age children that include direct supervision during the administration of the medication; and
2. Obtain (i) documentation of written authorization from the child's physician, (ii) a written request from the child's parent for the child's self-administration of medication, and (iii) written authorization from the parent to administer the medication if the child is unable to self-administer.
B. The center shall document medication self-administered by a child to include:
1. The child's name;
2. The dose, route, and name of the medication self-administered;
3. The date and time the medication was self-administered;
4. Adverse reactions; and
5. Medication administration errors and action taken.
C. If the written safety procedures required in this section are not followed, the center shall:
1. Notify the child's parent;
2. Assume responsibility for administration of the medication while the child is in care; and
3. Document in the child's record the discontinuation of the authorization to self-administer and the notification to the child's parent.
8VAC20-781-570. Topical skin products.
A. When topical skin products such as lip balm, hand lotion, sunscreen, diaper ointment and lotion, and insect repellent are administered by the center, the following requirements shall be met:
1. Written parent authorization noting known adverse reactions shall be obtained at least annually;
2. The product shall be in the original container and, if provided by the parent, labeled with the child's name; and
3. Manufacturer's instructions for application shall be followed.
B. When diaper ointment and insect repellent are administered by the center a record shall be kept that includes the child's name, the name of the product, the frequency of use and the approximate time given, adverse reactions, and application errors and action taken.
C. Caregivers without medication administration training may apply topical skin products unless the product is a prescription medication, in which case the requirements in 8VAC20-781-520 shall be met.
D. Children five years of age and older may have access to and may self-administer hand sanitizer, hand soap, sunscreen, lip balm and hand lotion labeled "Keep out of reach of children," provided that the label does not contain other warnings listed in 8VAC20-781-220 A and is used under adult supervision.
E. Sunscreen provided by the center shall have a minimum sunburn protection factor (SPF) of 15.
F. The product shall not be kept or used beyond the expiration date.
G. Topical skin products, except those referenced in subsection C of this section, do not need to be kept locked, but shall be inaccessible to children younger than five years of age.
Part IX
First Aid, Emergency Supplies, and Emergency Preparedness and Response
8VAC20-781-580. First aid and emergency supplies.
A. The center shall have a minimum of one working flashlight that does not require electricity on each floor of each building that is used by children.
B. The center shall have a minimum of one working radio that does not require electricity in each building used by children and a primitive camp location without a building.
C. The center shall have first aid supplies on each floor of the building, accessible from outdoor play areas, while on field trips, in vehicles when transporting children, and wherever children are in care. The first aid supplies shall be readily accessible to staff, inaccessible to children, and include the following:
1. An ice pack or instant cold pack;
2. A pair of scissors;
3. A pair of tweezers;
4. Gauze pads;
5. Adhesive tape;
6. Adhesive bandages of assorted sizes;
7. An antiseptic cleansing solution or pads;
8. An operable digital thermometer;
9. A minimum of two triangular bandages;
10. Single use gloves such as surgical or examination gloves; and
11. A first aid instructional manual.
8VAC20-781-590. Emergency preparedness and response plan.
A. The center shall have a written emergency preparedness and response plan developed in consultation with the local emergency manager or the state or local fire official. The plan shall include:
1. Emergency preparedness and response planning for emergencies resulting from a natural disaster or a human-caused event such as violence at or near the child care facility; and
2. Emergency evacuation, relocation, shelter-in-place, and lockdown procedures to include:
a. Scenario applicability with the most likely emergency scenarios including fire, severe storms, flooding, tornadoes, earthquakes, pandemic, loss of utilities, and other situations, including facility damage, that requires evacuation, lockdown, or shelter in place;
b. Emergency communication to alert staff and emergency responders;
c. Methods to account for all children and to ensure continued supervision of children;
d. Method of communication with staff, parents, and emergency responders;
e. Accommodations or special requirements for infants, toddlers, children with special needs, and children with chronic physical or medical conditions to ensure the child's safety during evacuation or relocation;
f. Procedure to reunite children with a parent or authorized person designated by the parent; and
g. Staff and volunteer training requirements and drill frequency.
B. The center's emergency preparedness and response plan shall also include the following additional requirements:
1. Evacuation and relocation procedures shall include:
a. Designated primary and secondary routes out of the building;
b. Designated assembly point away from the building;
c. Designated relocation site;
d. Methods to ensure essential documents, including attendance records, parent contact information, emergency contact information, and information on allergies and intolerance to food or medication, are taken to the assembly point or relocation site; and
e. Methods to ensure special health care needs, to include medications and care plans and supplies, are taken to the assembly point or relocation site.
2. Shelter-in-place procedures shall include:
a. Designated shelter-in-place areas within the center;
b. Designated primary and secondary routes to the shelter-in-place areas;
c. Methods to ensure essential documents, including attendance records, parent contact information, emergency contact information, and information on allergies and intolerance to food or medication, are taken to the assembly point or relocation site; and
d. Methods to ensure special health care needs, to include medications and care plans and supplies, are taken to the assembly point or relocation site.
3. Lockdown procedures shall include designated safe areas that the facility can contain using procedures such as closing or locking of doors or other barriers.
C. The center shall review the emergency preparedness and response plan at least annually and update as needed. The center shall document each review and update made to the emergency preparedness and response plan.
D. Emergency evacuation and shelter-in-place diagrams, 911 or local dial number for police, fire, and emergency medical services, and the number of the national poison control center hotline shall be posted in conspicuous locations in each room used by children or staff.
E. Continuity of operations shall be established to ensure that essential functions are maintained during an emergency.
8VAC20-781-600. Emergency response drills.
A. All emergency response drills shall be practiced:
1. In each building used by children;
2. With all staff, volunteers, and children present at the time of the drill;
3. At varying times during the center's hours of operation; and
4. For centers offering evening and overnight care, a separate drill shall be completed during the evening and overnight hours according to the same schedules specified in subsections B through D of this section.
B. Emergency evacuation procedures shall be practiced monthly.
C. Shelter-in-place procedures shall be practiced a minimum of twice per year.
D. Lockdown procedures shall be practiced a minimum of twice per year.
E. Documentation shall be maintained for one year of emergency evacuation, shelter-in-place, and lockdown drills that include:
1. The date and time of the drill;
2. The number of staff, volunteers, and children participating; and
3. The time it took to complete the drill.
Part X
Special Services
8VAC20-781-610. Nutrition and food services.
A. Centers shall schedule appropriate times for snacks or meals based on the hours of operation and time of the day (e.g., a center open only for after school care shall schedule an afternoon snack; a center open from 7 a.m. to 1 p.m. shall schedule a morning snack and midday meal).
B. The licensee shall ensure that children arriving from a half-day, morning program who have not yet eaten lunch receive a lunch.
C. The center shall schedule snacks or meals so that there is a period of at least 1-1/2 hours but no more than three hours between each meal or snack, unless there is a scheduled rest or sleep period for children between the meals and snacks.
D. Drinking water shall be offered at regular intervals to children.
E. In environments of 80°F or above, attention shall be given to the fluid needs of children at regular intervals. Children in such environments shall be encouraged to drink water as outlined in subsection D of this section.
F. When centers choose to provide meals or snacks, the following shall apply:
1. Centers shall follow the most recent, age-appropriate nutritional requirements of the Child and Adult Care Food Program administered by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA).
2. Children shall be allowed second helpings of food listed in the Child and Adult Care Food Program.
3. Centers shall not serve small (i.e., marble-sized), round, sticky, or hard foods that are difficult to chew and easy to swallow whole to children younger than four years of age.
4. A menu listing food to be served for meals and snacks during the current one-week period shall:
a. Be dated;
b. Be posted in a location conspicuous to parents or given to parents;
c. Be kept on file for one week at the center; and
d. List substituted food by the end of the business day.
5. Powdered milk shall not be used except for cooking.
G. When food or beverage is brought from home, the following shall apply:
1. The food and beverage container shall be sealed and labeled in a way that identifies the owner by first and last name.
2. The center shall have extra food or shall have provisions to obtain food to serve to children so the child can have an appropriate snack or meal if the child forgets to bring food from home, brings an inadequate meal or snack, or brings perishable food.
3. Unused portions of opened food shall be discarded by the end of the day or returned to the parent.
H. If a catering service is used, it shall be approved by the local health department.
I. Contaminated or spoiled food shall not be served to children.
J. Tables and highchair trays shall be cleaned and sanitized before and after each use for feeding;
K. Staff shall be present in the feeding area with children whenever children are eating.
L. Children shall remain seated while eating or drinking and shall not eat while riding in vehicles.
M. Food and beverages shall be prepared, served, stored, and transported in a sanitary manner.
N. When food is prepared to which a child in care is allergic, staff shall take steps to avoid cross contamination to prevent an allergic reaction.
O. A child with a diagnosed food allergy shall not be served food identified in the emergency care plan required in 8VAC20-781-50 B 6.
P. Disposable products used for food or beverages shall be used once and discarded.
8VAC20-781-620. Special feeding needs.
A. Highchairs, infant seats, or feeding tables shall be used for children under 12 months of age who are not held while being fed.
1. Children shall be supervised during snacks and meals.
2. When a child is placed in a feeding table with protective belts, a highchair, or an infant seat, the protective belt shall be fastened securely.
B. Bottle-fed infants who cannot hold their own bottles shall be held when fed. Bottles shall not be propped or used while the child is in the child's designated sleeping location.
C. Each bottle-fed infant shall have a written feeding schedule on file that is updated as needed and contains:
1. Whether the child receives breast milk, formula, or milk; and
2. The brand name of formula, if applicable.
D. Infants shall be fed on demand or in accordance with parental instructions.
E. All prepared bottles or breast milk stored in other containers provided by parents shall be labeled with the child's name and date of receipt.
F. Breast milk shall be stored according to the center's policy for the storage of breast milk.
G. Infant formula prepared by the center shall be prepared according to manufacturer instructions and prepared infant formula or milk shall be (i) refrigerated and (ii) dated and labeled with the child's name.
H. Heated breast milk, formula, milk, and baby food shall be stirred or shaken and tested for temperature before serving to children.
I. Milk, formula, or breast milk and bottles or containers of infant foods shall be warmed under running warm tap water or by placing the food item in a container of water that is no warmer than 120°F if needed. Bottles shall not be heated or warmed in a microwave.
J. When a bottle warmer or slow-cooking device, such as a crock-pot, is used for warming breast milk, formula, milk, or bottles of infant food, the device and cord shall be out of children's reach and used according to manufacturer instructions.
K. Breast milk, formula, and milk shall not remain unrefrigerated at the center for more than two hours and shall not be reheated.
L. Prepared bottles shall be discarded or returned to the parent at the end of the day.
M. Prepared baby food not consumed during that feeding by an infant may be used by that same infant later in the same day, provided that the food is not served out of the infant food container and is dated and stored in the refrigerator; otherwise, it shall be discarded or returned to the parent at the end of the day.
N. The licensee shall maintain on the premises a one-day emergency supply of clean and empty or disposable bottles, nipples, and commercial formulas. Emergency supply bottles shall only be used for one feeding and shall be appropriate for the children in care. The center shall consult parents on special feeding needs, such as specific formula, breast milk, or other special accommodations.
O. The center shall not prohibit breastfeeding.
P. When bottles with breast milk, formula, or milk are prepared by the center, the milk or formula shall not be mixed with cereal unless a physician or physician's designee provides written documentation stating otherwise.
Q. When feeding semisolid food to a child, staff shall use a spoon unless written instructions from a physician or physician's designee state differently.
8VAC20-781-630. Field trips.
A. Written parental permission for field trips shall be secured before the scheduled activity.
B. If a blanket permission is used instead of a separate written permission, the following shall apply:
1. Parents shall be notified in advance of the field trip; and
2. Parents shall be given the opportunity to withdraw the child from the field trip.
C. Children shall cross streets at a corner or crosswalk or other designated safe crossing point if no corner or crosswalk is available.
D. Before leaving on a field trip, a schedule of the trip's events and locations shall be shared with parents.
E. The licensee shall ensure a method of communication for emergencies during field trips.
F. The center shall make provisions for providing children on field trips with adequate food and water.
8VAC20-781-640. Transportation.
A. Written parental permission for transportation shall be secured before transportation is provided.
B. Vehicles used by the center for the transportation of children shall meet the following requirements:
1. The vehicle shall meet the safety standards set by the Department of Motor Vehicles and shall be kept in satisfactory condition to ensure the safety of children.
2. The vehicle shall be manufactured for the purpose of transporting people.
3. The vehicle shall be insured with at least the minimum limits established by Virginia state statutes.
4. If staff or volunteers supply personal vehicles, the center is responsible for ensuring that the requirements of this subsection are met.
C. The licensee shall ensure that, during transportation of children:
1. Virginia state statutes about safety belts and child restraints are followed as required by §§ 46.2-1095 through 46.2-1100 of the Code of Virginia, and the stated maximum number of passengers in a given vehicle is not exceeded;
2. The children remain seated and each child's arms, legs, and head remain inside the vehicle;
3. Doors are closed and locked, unless the manufacturer prevents locking for emergency purposes;
4. At least one staff member or the driver always remains in the vehicle when one or more children are present; and
5. The following information is in transportation vehicles:
a. Emergency numbers as specified in 8VAC20-781-590 D;
b. The center's name, address, and telephone number;
c. A list of the names of the children being transported and each child's emergency contact information as required in 8VAC20-781-50 B 2 and B 3;
d. Emergency care plan and information as specified in 8VAC20-781-50 B 5 and B 6; and
e. A document containing local emergency contact information, potential shelters, hospitals, and evacuation routes that pertain to each site frequently visited or of routes frequently driven by center staff for center business, such as field trips, pick-up, and drop-off of children to or from home and local schools.
D. When entering and leaving vehicles, children shall enter and leave the vehicle from the curb side of the vehicle or in a protected parking area or driveway and cross streets at a corner or crosswalk or other designated safe crossing point if no corner or crosswalk is available.
E. The licensee shall ensure a method of communication for emergencies during transportation.
F. The licensee shall ensure that the driver verifies that all children have been removed from the vehicle at the conclusion of each trip by checking every seat.
8VAC20-781-650. Animals and pets.
A. Animals that are kept on the premises of the center or that interact with children at the center shall be vaccinated if applicable.
B. Animals that are, or are suspected of being, ill or infested with external lice, fleas, ticks, or internal worms shall be removed from contact with children.
C. No monkeys, bats, ferrets, poisonous or dangerous animals, reptiles, or psittacine birds (i.e., birds of the parrot family) shall be accessible to children during the hours children are in care, and the licensee shall ensure that children do not have direct physical contact with the animals. The licensee shall ensure that children do not come in physical contact with stray or wild animals.
D. No animals that have shown aggressive behavior shall be kept in the center or on the grounds.
E. All animal excrement shall be removed promptly, disposed of properly, and, if indoors, the soiled area cleaned and sanitized.
F. If a child is bitten by an animal while in care, the following procedures shall be followed:
1. The site of the bite shall be washed with soap and water immediately;
2. Appropriate first aid shall be administered immediately, including appropriate medical attention if necessary;
3. The child's parent and the local health department shall be notified immediately to report the animal bite incident; and
4. The incident shall be documented in the child's record as required by 8VAC20-781-50 and a written report shall be given to the parent as required by 8VAC20-781-400.
G. Manure shall be removed from barns, stables, and corrals at least once a day and stored and disposed of in a manner to prevent the breeding of flies.
Part XI
Evening and Overnight Care Programs
8VAC20-781-660. Evening and overnight care.
A. For evening care, beds with mattresses or cots with at least one inch of dense padding shall be used by children who sleep longer than two hours and are not required to sleep in cribs.
B. For overnight care, beds with mattresses or cots with at least two inches of dense padding shall be used by children who are not required to sleep in cribs.
C. In addition to the provisions of 8VAC20-781-440 regarding linens, bedding appropriate to the temperature and other conditions of the rest area shall be provided.
D. Centers providing evening care or overnight care on an occasional basis are not required to meet the requirements subsection A and B of this section if sleeping bags or cots are used.
E. If sleeping bags are used, the provisions of 8VAC20-781-430 A through H regarding cribs, cots, rest mats, and beds shall also apply to the use of sleeping bags.
F. In centers providing overnight care, an operational tub or shower with heated and cold water shall be provided.
G. Activities for children in evening or overnight care shall include, as time allows, age-appropriate activities as described in 8VAC20-781-310 through 8VAC20-781-350.
H. Quiet activities shall be available immediately before bedtime.
I. School-age children may use bunk beds for sleeping.
J. Primitive camps are not required to have a tub or shower.
Part XII
Therapeutic and Special Needs Programs
8VAC20-781-670. Applicability.
A child day center that meets the definition of a therapeutic child day program or special needs child day program shall also comply with all requirements of Parts I through XI of this chapter.
8VAC20-781-680. Assessments.
Therapeutic child day programs shall ensure that an individual assessment is:
1. Completed within six months before the child's attendance or 30 days after the first day of attendance and maintained for each child.
2. Reviewed and updated for each child no less than once every 12 months.
8VAC20-781-690. Individual service, recreation, education, or treatment plan.
Therapeutic child day programs shall ensure that an individual service, recreation, education, or treatment plan is:
1. Developed for each child by the director or the director's designee in consultation with primary staff responsible for plan implementation.
2. Implemented within 60 days after the first day of the child's attendance.
3. Reviewed every three months and revised if needed by the director or the director's designee in consultation with primary staff responsible for plan implementation. The review and revisions shall be done in partnership with the child's parent.
4. Maintained in the child's record, with a copy given to the child's parent.
8VAC20-781-700. Qualifications of staff.
Notwithstanding 8VAC20-781-90 and 8VAC20-781-110, therapeutic child day programs and special needs programs shall ensure that:
1. Directors have education and programmatic experience in the group care of children with special needs.
2. Lead teachers have at least three months of programmatic experience in the group care of children with special needs.
8VAC20-781-710. Staff training.
Therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs shall ensure that staff who work with children:
1. Receive training before assuming job responsibilities in:
a. Staff occupational health and safety practices in accordance with Occupational Safety and Health Administration's bloodborne pathogens regulation (29 CFR 1910.1030);
b. Activity adaptations;
c. Medication administration;
d. The special needs of the children in care, including functional abilities and accommodations;
e. Disabilities and health issues; and
f. Appropriate precautions and intervention strategies.
2. Annually complete eight additional hours of training on topics related to the care of children with special needs.
8VAC20-781-720. Staff-to-children ratio requirements.
A. For therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs, in each grouping of children of preschool age or younger, the following ratios of staff to children are required according to the special needs of the children in care:
1. For children with severe and profound disabilities, multiple special needs, serious medical need, or serious emotional disturbance: one staff member to three children.
2. For children diagnosed as having an intellectual disability with significant sub-average intellectual functioning and deficits in adaptive behavior, children with physical and sensory disabilities, or children with autism: one staff member to four children.
3. For children diagnosed as having an intellectual disability in the mild range of development, children with a developmental delay, or children diagnosed with attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD): one staff member to five children.
4. For children diagnosed with specific learning disabilities: one staff member to six children.
5. When children with varied special needs are included in a group, the staff-to-children ratio applicable to the child with the most significant special need in the group shall apply to the entire group.
6. Whenever 8VAC20-781-270 B requires more staff than subsection A of this section because of the children's ages, 8VAC20-781-270 B shall take precedence over subsection A of this section.
B. For therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs, in each grouping of school-age children, the following ratios of staff to children are required according to the special needs of the children in care:
1. For children with severe and profound disabilities, autism, multiple special needs, serious medical need, or serious emotional disturbance: one staff member to four children.
2. For children diagnosed as having an intellectual disability with significant sub-average intellectual functioning and deficits in adaptive behavior or with physical and sensory disabilities, ADHD, or other health impairments: one staff member to five children.
3. For children diagnosed as having an intellectual disability in the mild range of development or as developmentally delayed: one staff member to six children.
4. For children diagnosed with specific learning disabilities or speech or language impairments: one staff member to eight children.
5. When children with varied special needs are included in a group, the staff-to-children ratio applicable to the child with the most significant special need in the group shall apply to the entire group.
C. Group size requirements in 8VAC20-781-270 A do not apply to therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs.
8VAC20-781-730. Equipment and materials.
Therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs serving children who use wheelchairs shall provide appropriate positioning equipment and cushioned vinyl-covered floor mats for use when activities require children to be out of wheelchairs.
8VAC20-781-740. Special feeding needs.
A. For therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs, the consistency of food shall be appropriate to a child's special feeding needs.
B. Necessary and adaptive feeding equipment and feeding techniques shall be used for children with special feeding needs according to the information on file pursuant to 8VAC20-781-50 B 5.
8VAC20-781-750. Transportation for non-ambulatory children.
A. Therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs providing transportation to non-ambulatory children shall ensure children are transported in a vehicle that is equipped with a ramp or hydraulic lift to allow entry and exit.
B. Wheelchairs shall be equipped with restraining devices and shall be securely fastened to the floor when used to seat children in a vehicle.
C. Arrangements of wheelchairs in a vehicle shall not impede access to exits.
D. For therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs, when the center is responsible for providing transportation, the center shall develop and implement a plan based on the needs of the children in care to ensure safe supervision during on-loading, off-loading, and transporting.
E. When 16 or more children are being transported, there shall be at least one staff member or adult besides the driver for each group of 16 children.
F. For therapeutic child day programs and special needs child day programs, if a child who has a known seizure disorder or neurological, genetic, or physiological disability causing increased medical risk is being transported, one staff member or adult who is not the driver and who is trained in first aid and CPR shall be present in the vehicle.
NOTICE: The following forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. Amended or added forms are reflected in the listing and are published following the listing. Online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may also click on the name to access a form. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 201 North Ninth Street, Fourth Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (8VAC20-781)
Medication Authorization Form (rev. 11/2025)
Report of Tuberculosis Screening for Child Day Programs (eff. (insert effective date of regulation))
VA.R. Doc. No. R24-7610; Filed October 28, 2025
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Final
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 8VAC20-820. General Procedures and Information for Licensure (repealing 8VAC20-820-10 through 8VAC20-820-500).
8VAC20-821. General Procedures for the Licensure of Child Day Programs and Family Day Systems and Background Checks (adding 8VAC20-821-10 through 8VAC20-821-330).
Statutory Authority: §§ 22.1-16 and 22.1-289.046 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: February 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Tatanishia Armstrong, Legislative Consultant, Department of Education, James Monroe Building, 16th Floor, 101 North 14th Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 382-5047, or email tatanishia.armstrong@doe.virginia.gov.
Summary:
This action repeals General Procedures and Information for Licensure (8VAC20-820) and replaces it with a new chapter, General Procedures for the Licensure of Child Day Programs and Family Day Systems and Background Checks (8VAC20-821), which, in addition to implementing statutory requirements, clarifying existing requirements, and updating practices and procedures, also establishes requirements for initial licensure and renewal, application fees, background checks, standards of conduct, and how violations of such standards will be reviewed, sanctions levied, and appeals processed. Changes to the proposed regulation include adding definitions and technical edits to clarify requirements.
Chapter 821
General Procedures for [ the ] Licensure [ of Child Day Programs and Family Day Systems and Background Checks ]
Part I
General
8VAC20-821-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Applicant" means any person that has applied for any license to operate or maintain a child day program or family day system.
"Background check" means (i) a sworn statement or affirmation; (ii) a fingerprint-based national criminal background check; (iii) a Virginia child protective services central registry check; and (iv) a check of the child abuse and neglect registry [ and, ] criminal history record report [ , and sex offender registry ] for any state an individual has resided in within the past five years.
"Barrier crime" means a conviction defined as a barrier crime in § 19.2-392.02 of the Code of Virginia and shall include prior adult convictions and juvenile convictions or adjudications of delinquency based on a crime that would be a felony if committed by an adult within or outside the Commonwealth.
"Board" means the Virginia Board of Education.
"Child day center" means a child day program offered to (i) two or more children 13 years of age or younger in a facility that is not the residence of the provider or any of the children in care or (ii) 13 or more children at any location.
"Child day program" means a regularly operating service arrangement for children where, during the absence of a parent or guardian, a person or organization has agreed to assume responsibility for the supervision, protection, and well-being of a child 13 years of age or younger for less than a 24-hour period.
"Conditional license" means a license that may be issued to a new facility to operate in order to permit the applicant to demonstrate compliance with licensing standards.
"Consent agreement" means a written agreement between an applicant or licensee and the department that the applicant or licensee will perform specific actions for the purpose of correcting violations to come into compliance with licensing standards or laws.
"Day" means a calendar day, unless otherwise specified.
"Denial" means the act of refusing to approve an initial application for license or a license renewal application for violations of any provision of Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia or failure to comply with the limitations and licensing standards set forth in a license.
"Department" means the Virginia Department of Education.
"Family day home" means a child day program offered in the residence of the provider or the home of any of the children in care for at least one but no more than 12 children 13 years of age or younger, exclusive of the provider's own children and any children who reside in the home, when at least one child receives care for compensation. The provider of a licensed family day home shall disclose to the parents or guardians of children in the provider's care the percentage of time per week that persons other than the provider will care for the children. Family day homes serving at least five but no more than 12 children, exclusive of the provider's own children and any children who reside in the home, shall be licensed. However, no family day home shall care for more than four children younger than two years of age, including the provider's own children and any children who reside in the home, unless the family day home is licensed or voluntarily registered. A family day home where the children in care are all related to the provider by blood or marriage shall not be required to be licensed.
"Family day system" means any person who approves family day homes as members of its system; who refers children to available family day homes in that system; and who, through contractual arrangements, may provide central administrative functions, including training of operators of family day homes; technical assistance and consultation to operators of member homes; inspection, supervision, monitoring, and evaluation of member homes; and referral of children to available health and social services.
[ "Final order" means a notification to a provider or facility of the department's final case decision to deny or revoke a license, exemption, or registration for child day programs or to summarily suspend part or all operations during an appeal of denial or revocation. ]
"Functional design" means the design features of buildings and grounds not regulated by the building code that are subject to licensing standards.
"Good character and reputation" or "good moral character and reputation" means a determination by the superintendent that an individual (i) maintains business or professional, family, and community relationships that are characterized by honesty, fairness, truthfulness, and dependability and (ii) is able to transact business in the Commonwealth and suitable to administer a program for the care, supervision, and protection of children.
"License" means a license that is issued pursuant to § 22.1-289.011 of the Code of Virginia to any person who constitutes, or who operates or maintains, a child day program or family day system.
"Licensee" means any person to whom a conditional license, a license, or a provisional license has been issued and who is legally responsible for compliance with the licensing standards related to the operation or maintenance of the child day program or family day system.
"Licensing standards" or "standards" means the standards of care and safety for operation of a child day program or family day system as set forth in this chapter, Chapter 14.1 of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia, the Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers (8VAC20-780), the Standards for Licensed Family Day Homes (8VAC20-800), or the Minimum Standards for Licensed Family Day Systems (8VAC20-810).
"Living in" means staying at a child day center or family day home for more than 30 days out of a 45-day period.
"Person" means any individual; corporation; partnership; association; limited liability company; local government; state agency, including any department, institution, authority, instrumentality, board, or other administrative agency of the Commonwealth; or other legal or commercial entity that operates or maintains a child day program or family day system.
"Provisional license" means a license that may be issued when a licensee is temporarily unable to comply substantially with all of the requirements of the licensing standards.
"Registered" means a family day home that has met the standards for voluntary registration set forth in Voluntary Registration of Family Day Homes (8VAC20-850).
"Revocation" means the act of terminating a license during its effective dates for violations of any provision of Chapter 14.1 of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia or failure to comply with the limitations and standards set forth in a license.
[ "Special order" means an order imposing an administrative sanction issued to any party licensed pursuant to Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia by the superintendent that has a stated duration of not more than 12 months. A special order is considered a case decision as defined in § 2.2-4001 of the Code of Virginia. The 12-month period begins 30 days after notification of the issuance of a special order or at the conclusion of all appeal steps. ]
"Superintendent" means the Superintendent of Public Instruction at the Department of Education and, except when prohibited by law, includes the superintendent's representatives.
"Sworn statement or affirmation" means a signed statement completed by a person attesting to whether the person has ever been (i) convicted of or the subject of pending charges of any crime within or outside the Commonwealth or an equivalent offense outside the Commonwealth or (ii) the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect within or outside the Commonwealth.
"Variance" means a written determination by the superintendent that (i) a licensee or applicant for licensure as a child day program or family day system has demonstrated that implementation of a regulation promulgated by the board would impose a substantial financial or programmatic hardship and (ii) the suspension or modified implementation of [ such the ] regulation would not adversely affect the safety and well-being of children in care.
Part II
Licensure Requirements
8VAC20-821-20. Necessity for license.
Every person that constitutes or that operates or maintains a child day program or family day system [ as defined in Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia ] shall obtain the appropriate license from the superintendent, which may be renewed.
8VAC20-821-30. License.
A. A license is issued to a specific person. A license is not transferable from one person to another.
B. A license issued under this chapter shall expire two years from the effective date of the license. The superintendent may extend or shorten the duration of licensure periods for a child day program or family day system whenever, at the superintendent's sole discretion, it is administratively necessary to redistribute the workload for greater efficiency in staff utilization.
C. A license shall be issued on a form prescribed by the superintendent.
D. The license and any other documents required by the superintendent shall be posted in a conspicuous place on the licensed premises.
E. A license shall be issued with the following terms:
1. The name of the person to whom the license is issued;
2. The date the license is effective and the date the license expires;
3. The name in which the licensee is doing business;
4. The physical location of the facility;
5. The maximum number of children who may be in care at any time;
6. The age range of children for whom care may be provided; and
7. Any other stipulations or conditions that the superintendent may prescribe within the context of the licensing standards or laws.
F. Any administrative sanction imposed by a special order or any sanction imposed by a final order shall be considered a term of the license.
8VAC20-821-40. Qualifications for licensure.
A. Each application for licensure shall be made to the superintendent [ , in such on the ] form [ as the superintendent may prescribe prescribed by the superintendent ], and shall include the following information:
1. The name and address of the applicant;
2. If the applicant is an association, partnership, limited liability company, or corporation, the [ name and address of the business entity and the ] names [ and addresses ] of its partners, members, officers, directors, or agents;
3. A description of the activities proposed to be engaged in;
4. A description of the facilities and services to be employed; and
5. Additional information as required by the superintendent [ as part of the application process ].
B. The applicant shall submit a completed application, including all required documentation, and fee to the superintendent. No applicant may begin operations for which a license is required [ prior to before ] being issued a license or a conditional license by the superintendent.
C. Every applicant for licensure as a child day program [ , family day home, ] or family day system shall have the following qualifications:
1. The applicant and any of the applicant's partners, members, officers, directors, or agents shall be of good character and reputation.
2. The applicant and any of the applicant's partners, members, officers, directors, or agents shall submit to a background check in accordance with licensing standards.
3. The applicant shall disclose whether the applicant or any of the applicant's partners, members, officers, directors, or agents has ever had a license issued by any local, state, or national regulatory body that has been revoked, suspended, denied, or surrendered [ in lieu instead ] of an adverse action.
4. The applicant and any of the applicant's partners, members, officers, directors, or agents shall be at least 18 years of age.
5. The applicant shall demonstrate financial responsibility.
6. The applicant shall have completed a prelicensure orientation offered through or approved by the superintendent that focuses on health and safety standards, application processes, background check requirements, and general licensure requirements.
a. The superintendent may, at the superintendent's discretion, waive the prelicensure orientation requirement or issue a license conditioned upon the applicant's completion of the prelicensure orientation program.
b. Applicants who have previously completed the prelicensure orientation program training and have not been subject to a license denial or revocation shall not be required to complete the prelicensure orientation program a second time.
7. The applicant shall demonstrate compliance with all applicable licensing standards.
D. Applicants for licensure as a child day center shall meet the requirements of 8VAC20-821-50 regarding buildings and functional design.
E. The applicant shall at all times allow the superintendent reasonable access and opportunity to make on-site inspection of the facility in order to determine compliance with applicable licensing standards.
F. The applicant shall allow the superintendent reasonable opportunity to inspect the applicant's records. Records that contain confidential proprietary information furnished to the department pursuant to this section shall be exempt from disclosure pursuant to subdivision 4 of § 2.2-3705.5 of the Code of Virginia.
G. The applicant shall allow the superintendent to interview the applicant's agents and employees and any person living or participating in the applicant's facilities or under the applicant's custody, control, direction, or supervision in accordance with subsection A of § 22.1-289.018 of the Code of Virginia.
H. It is the responsibility of the applicant to demonstrate qualifications for licensure and compliance with licensing standards. All [ such ] determinations of qualification and compliance shall be at the discretion of the superintendent. Failure to demonstrate qualifications and compliance for licensure may constitute grounds for denying a license.
I. [ No ] A license shall [ not ] be issued to an applicant who does not constitute [ or who does not operate or maintain ] a child day program or family day system [ as defined in Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia ].
8VAC20-821-50. Buildings and functional design.
A. Buildings for applicants as child day programs or family day systems shall be classified by and meet the specifications for the proper Use Group as required by the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63).
B. An applicant for licensure as a child day center shall submit inspection reports from state or local fire authorities, as applicable, to determine compliance of the building with the Virginia Statewide Fire Prevention Code (13VAC5-51).
C. An applicant for licensure as a child day center shall submit inspection reports from state or local health authorities that shall include [ approval an inspection ] of general sanitation and, if applicable, water supply, sewage disposal systems, and food service operations for the building in which the facility is operated.
D. The building used by an applicant as a child day center shall meet all functional design requirements [ before approval for licensure ].
E. Applicants are encouraged to consult as early as possible with the department regarding building plans and licensing standards in order to avoid noncompliance.
8VAC20-821-60. Modification of the terms of the license.
A. A licensee may submit a written request to the superintendent for a modification of the terms of the license at any time during the license period.
B. If the superintendent grants a modification, the department will issue a modified license reflecting the changes.
C. No modification shall be granted to change or replace the person to whom the license was granted.
8VAC20-821-70. Variances.
A. Any [ demonstration of hardship or ] request for a variance shall be made to the superintendent and shall be in writing on a form prescribed by the superintendent. The request for a variance shall include the following:
1. The specific [ requirements standard ] for which the applicant or licensee is requesting a variance;
2. A detailed description of the substantial programmatic or financial hardship that will be caused by the applicant or licensee's compliance with the [ requirements standard ] for which the variance is requested; and
3. The proposed alternative to the [ requirement standard ] that will protect the safety and well-being of the children in care.
B. When requested by the superintendent, the applicant or licensee requesting the variance shall obtain additional information to substantiate either (i) that compliance with the [ requirements standard ] will cause substantial programmatic or financial hardship or (ii) that the proposed alternative to the [ requirement standard ] will protect the safety and well-being of the children in care. [ Such The ] additional information may include the opinions of professionals in the field, research, or studies.
C. The superintendent may attach conditions to a variance upon approval.
D. A variance may be rescinded or modified upon a change in the facts [ upon on ] which the superintendent relied in granting the variance.
E. A variance is not transferable between persons.
F. The superintendent shall review each approved variance at least annually.
G. An applicant or licensee shall not make the programmatic change for which the variance was requested [ prior to before ] receiving written approval from the superintendent. Initiating the programmatic change [ prior to before ] receiving approval for the [ requested ] variance [ shall may ] be grounds for denying the request for the variance and [ shall may ] constitute grounds for adverse action.
8VAC20-821-80. Conditional license.
A. The superintendent may issue a conditional license to an applicant in order to permit the applicant to demonstrate compliance with the requirements for licensure. A conditional license may be issued for a term not to exceed six months. A conditional license may be renewed, but a conditional license may not be held for longer than six months from the original issuance of the conditional license.
B. If, at the end of the conditional license, the applicant is still unable to demonstrate compliance with all of the licensure requirements, the application for [ initial ] licensure shall be denied [ unless a provisional license is issued ].
C. A conditional license may be voided and a license issued if the superintendent determines that the applicant meets the qualifications for licensure.
8VAC20-821-90. Refusal of license issuance.
When issuance of a license for a child day program or family day system has been refused by the superintendent, the applicant shall not thereafter for a period of six months apply again for [ such the ] license, unless the superintendent in the superintendent's sole discretion believes that there has been [ such ] a change in the conditions on account of which the license was refused as to justify considering a new application. When an appeal is taken by the applicant pursuant to subsection A of § 22.1-289.024 of the Code of Virginia, the six-month period shall be extended until a final decision has been rendered on appeal.
Part III
Renewal
8VAC20-821-100. Renewal required.
Every person issued a license that has not been suspended or revoked shall renew [ such the ] license [ prior to before ] its expiration.
8VAC20-821-110. Qualifications for renewal.
A. [ Prior to Before ] the expiration date shown on the license, a licensee desiring to renew a license shall return to the superintendent a completed renewal application and appropriate fee. Failure to receive notices from the superintendent regarding license renewal does not relieve the licensee of the obligation to renew.
B. The renewal applicant shall have met the requirements of 8VAC20-821-50 regarding the approval of buildings and functional design.
C. The renewal applicant shall demonstrate compliance with licensing standards.
D. As required by Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia, the renewal applicant and any of the applicant's partners, members, officers, directors, or agents shall submit to a background check in accordance with licensing standards.
E. The renewal applicant shall at all times allow the superintendent reasonable access and opportunity to make on-site inspection of the proposed facility [ in order ] to determine compliance with licensing standards. [ Such The ] on-site inspections may occur at any time during the license term and may be unannounced.
F. The renewal applicant shall at all times allow the superintendent reasonable opportunity to inspect the renewal applicant's records. Records that contain confidential proprietary information furnished to the department pursuant to this section shall be exempt from disclosure pursuant to subdivision 4 of § 2.2-3705.5 of the Code of Virginia.
G. The renewal applicant shall at all times allow the superintendent to interview any person under the renewal applicant's custody, control, direction, or supervision. Interviews shall be (i) authorized by the person to be interviewed or the person's legally authorized representative and (ii) limited to discussion of issues related to the applicant's compliance with applicable laws and licensing standards.
H. It is the responsibility of the renewal applicant to demonstrate that the licensee meets all qualifications for renewal. All determinations of qualifications shall be at the discretion of the superintendent. Failure to demonstrate qualifications for licensure shall constitute grounds for denying a license renewal.
I. A license will not be renewed for a licensee who does not constitute [ or who does not operate or maintain ] a child day program or family day system [ as defined in Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia ] during the licensure period immediately preceding renewal.
8VAC20-821-120. Refusal of renewal.
A. The superintendent may refuse a renewal application for (i) failure to meet the qualifications for renewal or violation of licensing standards or (ii) failure to comply with the terms of [ an a special ] order [ or final order issued ] by the superintendent.
B. When renewal of a license for a child day program or family day system has been refused by the superintendent, the applicant shall not, for a period of six months, apply again for [ such the ] license, unless the superintendent in the superintendent's sole discretion believes that there has been [ such ] a change in the conditions on account of which the license was refused as to justify considering a new application. When an appeal is taken by the applicant pursuant to subsection A of § 22.1-289.024 of the Code of Virginia, the six-month period shall be extended until a final decision has been rendered on appeal.
8VAC20-821-130. Provisional license.
A. The superintendent may issue a provisional license to a renewal applicant when the applicant is temporarily unable to comply with all of the licensure requirements. A provisional license may be issued for a term not to exceed six months. A provisional license may be renewed, but a provisional license may not be held for longer than six months from the original issuance of the provisional license.
B. If, at the end of the provisional license, the renewal applicant is still unable to comply with all of the licensure requirements, the application for renewal shall be denied.
C. A provisional license may be voided and the license renewed if the superintendent determines that the renewal applicant meets the qualifications for renewal.
Part IV
Application Fees
8VAC20-821-140. Application fees nonrefundable; application date.
A. All application fees for licenses are nonrefundable.
B. The date that the application fee is received by the superintendent shall be the date that the application was received.
C. An applicant for initial licensure shall submit a completed application to the superintendent within six months of the date that the application was received. Applications that remain incomplete after six months of the date the application was received will be closed, and the applicant will be required to submit a new application with a new fee.
D. An applicant for license renewal shall submit a completed renewal application [ prior to before ] the date the applicant's license expires.
E. Application fees shall not be applicable to facilities, centers, or agencies operated by federal entities.
8VAC20-821-150. Application fees.
A. The fee required for each child day program will be based [ upon on ] its licensed capacity. The following fee schedule applies to child day programs that operate at least 12 weeks of a 12-month period:
|
Capacity
|
Two-year licensing fee
|
|
1-12
|
$28
|
|
13-25
|
$70
|
|
26-50
|
$140
|
|
51-75
|
$210
|
|
76-200
|
$280
|
|
201 or more
|
$400
|
B. The following fee schedule applies to child day programs that operate less than 12 weeks of a 12-month period:
|
Capacity
|
Two-year licensing fee
|
|
1-50
|
$50
|
|
51 or more
|
$110
|
C. Family day systems will be subject to a license fee of $140.
D. A fee will be charged for checks that must be returned to the applicant because of insufficient funds.
Part V
Background Checks
8VAC20-821-160. Scope of background check regulations.
This part applies to any person required to have a background check by Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia.
8VAC20-821-170. Background checks required.
A. Any person required to have a background check shall follow the provisions of Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia regarding background checks.
B. Any person 14 years of age or older living in the home of a licensed or registered family day home shall request a Virginia child protective services central registry check within seven days of reaching 14 years of age or beginning to live in the home.
8VAC20-821-180. Disqualifying background checks; prohibitions.
A. No child day center, family day home, or family day system licensed in accordance with the provisions of this chapter, child day center exempt from licensure pursuant to § 22.1-289.031 of the Code of Virginia, registered family day home, family day home approved by a family day system, or child day center, family day home, or child day program that enters into a contract with the department or its agents or designees to provide child care services funded by the Child Care and Development Block Grant shall hire for compensated employment, continue to employ, or permit to serve as a volunteer who will be alone with, in control of, or supervising children any person who (i) has been convicted of any barrier crime as defined in § 19.2-392.02 of the Code of Virginia or (ii) is the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect within or outside the Commonwealth.
B. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A of this section, a child day center may hire for compensated employment persons who have been convicted of not more than one misdemeanor offense under § 18.2-57 of the Code of Virginia, or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction, if 10 years have elapsed following the conviction, unless the person committed [ such the ] offense while employed in a child day center or the object of the offense was a minor.
C. If any person specified in subsection A of § 22.1-289.036 of the Code of Virginia (i) has been convicted of any barrier crime as defined in § 19.2-392.02 [ of the Code of Virginia ] or (ii) is the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect within or outside the Commonwealth, and [ such the ] person has not been granted a waiver by the superintendent pursuant to § 22.1-289.038 of the Code of Virginia, no license as a child day center, family day home, or family day system or registration as a family day home shall be granted by the superintendent and no approval as a family day home shall be granted by the family day system.
D. No person specified in subsection A of § 22.1-289.036 of the Code of Virginia shall be involved in the day-to-day operations of the child day center, family day home, or family day system, or shall be alone with, in control of, or supervising one or more children, without first having completed any required background check.
E. Dissemination of background check information is prohibited other than to the superintendent or a federal or state authority or court as may be required to comply with an express requirement of law for [ such ] further dissemination.
8VAC20-821-190.Out-of-state [ child abuse and neglect registry and criminal history record searches background checks ].
A. If any individual required to get a background check has lived in another state in the past five years and the results of the request [ to search the child abuse and neglect registry or criminal history record for any component of the background check ] maintained by that state has not been returned, the [ individual person responsible for obtaining the background check ] shall obtain the following before the background check may be considered complete:
1. Documentation [ of the refusal if no search was performed from the state on or after the date of the request if the state to which the request was made refuses to provide background check information due to the state's procedures for processing ]; or
2. Documentation showing that the [ individual person responsible for obtaining the background check ] contacted the state in writing to obtain the results of the [ child abuse and neglect registry or criminal record history background check ] at least 45 days after the [ initial first ] request.
B. Any documentation obtained pursuant to [ subsection A of ] this section shall be maintained as part of the background check record.
8VAC20-821-200. New background checks.
The child day program or family day system, the department, or the registering or approving authority may require a new background check if there is reason to suspect that a person required to have a background check has a disqualifying background.
8VAC20-821-210. Maintenance of background check records.
A. A child day program or family day system shall keep background check records at its place of business for at least two years after [ the an individual required to have a ] background check [ is required terminates duties with a facility or no longer resides in the home ], unless federal or state law or regulation requires the records to be kept for longer. If multiple child day programs are owned by the same entity, [ such the ] records may be kept at a single location and shall be made available to the superintendent upon request.
B. Background check records shall be kept in locked files or a secure electronic file, and access to [ such the ] files should be restricted according to a principle of least privilege.
C. Family day systems shall keep background check records for family day homes approved by the system.
8VAC20-821-220. Waiver of criminal convictions.
A. Any person who seeks to operate, volunteer, or work at a child day program or family day system and who is disqualified because of a criminal conviction or a criminal conviction in the background check of any other adult living in a family day home regulated by the department, pursuant to § 22.1-289.035, 22.1-289.036, or 22.1-289.039 of the Code of Virginia, may apply in writing for a waiver from the superintendent. The superintendent may grant a waiver if the superintendent determines that (i) the person is of good moral character and reputation and (ii) the waiver would not adversely affect the safety and well-being of children in the person's care.
B. The superintendent shall not grant a waiver to any person who has been convicted of any barrier crime.
C. The superintendent may grant a waiver to a family day home licensed or registered by the department if any other adult living in the home of the applicant or provider has been convicted of not more than one misdemeanor offense under § 18.2-57 or 18.2-57.2 of the Code of Virginia, or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction, provided that (i) five years have elapsed following the conviction and (ii) the department has conducted a home study that includes (a) an assessment of the safety of children placed in the home and (b) a determination that the offender is now a person of good moral character and reputation. The waiver shall not be granted if the adult living in the home is an assistant or substitute provider or if [ such the ] adult has been convicted of a misdemeanor offense under both §§ 18.2-57 and 18.2-57.2, or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction.
D. The request for a waiver shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the superintendent.
E. Waivers are granted at the discretion of the superintendent and are not subject to appeal.
F. A waiver is granted to a specific person and shall include the following:
1. The name of the individual who is the subject of the waiver;
2. The name and location of the child day program or family day system;
3. The effective date of the waiver;
4. Any stipulations or conditions upon which the waiver is granted;
5. The criminal conviction for which the waiver is granted;
6. The date of the criminal conviction; and
7. The signature of the superintendent.
G. A person to whom a waiver is granted shall notify the superintendent if any of the terms, stipulations, or conditions upon which the waiver was granted have changed and shall request a modification from the superintendent if appropriate.
H. The superintendent may rescind a waiver if the superintendent determines that (i) the waiver application contained materially false or misleading information, (ii) the stipulations or conditions upon which the waiver was granted have been violated, or (iii) the person no longer meets the criteria for a waiver.
I. A waiver automatically expires when the individual who is the subject of the waiver no longer lives in the home.
8VAC20-821-230. Public notification of waivers.
A. The child day program or family day system shall post any waiver granted by the superintendent in a conspicuous place at the location listed on the waiver.
B. Any waiver granted under this section shall be available for inspection by the public. The child day program or family day system shall notify in writing every parent of the children in its care of any waiver granted by the superintendent, as well as notify in writing the parent of any child [ subsequently ] enrolled [ for as long as after ] the waiver [ remains becomes ] effective.
Part VI
Standards of Conduct
8VAC20-821-240. Determination of continued compliance.
A. In order to determine continued compliance with licensing standards during the effective dates of the license, the superintendent will perform inspections in accordance with § 22.1-289.018 of the Code of Virginia.
B. The licensee is responsible for correcting any areas of noncompliance found during any inspection.
8VAC20-821-250. Maintenance of license.
A. An applicant or licensee shall at all times keep the superintendent informed of its current mailing address, telephone number, and email address.
B. An applicant or licensee shall notify the superintendent immediately of any change of ownership or business formation.
8VAC20-821-260. Provision of records to the superintendent.
An applicant or licensee shall produce any records to the superintendent during an inspection or within the timeframe specified by the superintendent if an extension is granted. Records produced for the superintendent pursuant to this section that contain confidential or proprietary information shall be exempt from disclosure pursuant to subdivision 4 of § 2.2-3705.5 of the Code of Virginia.
8VAC20-821-270. Prohibited acts.
The following are prohibited acts by an applicant or licensee and may be subject to enforcement and sanctions:
1. Furnishing substantially inaccurate or incomplete information to the superintendent in obtaining, renewing, reinstating, or maintaining a license;
2. Making any materially false or misleading statement to the superintendent with respect to the operation of any child day program or family day system;
3. Failure to operate within the terms of a license or variance;
4. Failure to obtain from the superintendent a modification pursuant to 8VAC20-821-60 or variance pursuant to 8VAC20-821-70 [ prior to before ] making programmatic or operational changes for which a modification or variance is required;
5. Failure to obtain a background check in accordance with Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia;
6. Failure to post the following documents in a conspicuous location on the premises of each facility:
a. The most recently issued license [ . Any conditional or provisional license shall be posted at each public entrance of the facility and a notice shall be prominently displayed next to the license that states that a description of specific violations of licensing standards to be corrected and the deadline for completion of such corrections is available for inspection at the facility or on the facility's website, if applicable ];
b. [ Any conditional or provisional license, which shall be posted at each public entrance of the facility, and a notice, which shall be prominently displayed next to the license, that states that a description of specific violations of licensing standards to be corrected and the deadline for completion of such corrections is available for inspection at the facility or on the facility's website, if applicable;
c. ] Notice of the superintendent's intent to revoke or deny renewal of the license of a child day program or family day system. [ Such The ] notice will be provided by the department and shall be posted in a prominent place at each public entrance of the facility to advise consumers of serious or persistent violations;
[ c. d. ] A copy of any final order of summary suspension of all or part of a license for a child day program or family day system operated by an agency of the Commonwealth shall be prominently displayed by the provider at each public entrance of the facility, or the provider may display a written statement summarizing the terms of the order, printed in clear and legible size and typeface, in a prominent location and identifying the location within the facility where the final order of summary suspension may be reviewed;
[ d. e. ] Any notice of the superintendent's intent to take any of the actions enumerated in subdivisions B 1 through B 6 of § 22.1-289.023 of the Code of Virginia. [ Such The ] notice will be provided by the department, and a copy of the notice shall be posted in a prominent place at each public entrance of the facility to advise consumers of serious or persistent violations;
[ e. f. ] A copy of any special order issued by the department shall be posted in a prominent place at each public entrance of the licensed premises to advise consumers of serious or persistent violations; and
[ f. g. ] Any other documents required by the superintendent;
7. Failure to correct any area of noncompliance found during any inspection;
8. Permitting, aiding, or abetting the commission of any illegal act in the licensed facility [ or agency ];
9. A licensee being convicted of any barrier crime as defined in § 19.2-392.02 of the Code of Virginia or being the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect within or outside the Commonwealth;
10. Hiring for compensated employment, continuing to employ, or permitting to serve as a volunteer who will be alone with, in control of, or supervising children any person who (i) has been convicted of any barrier crime as defined in § 19.2-392.02 of the Code of Virginia or (ii) is the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect within or outside the Commonwealth;
11. Failure to notify the superintendent that anyone required to have a background check under § 22.1-289.036 of the Code of Virginia has been convicted of a barrier crime as defined in § 19.2-392.02 of the Code of Virginia or is the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect within or outside the Commonwealth;
12. Engaging in conduct or practices that are in violation of laws or regulations relating to abuse, neglect, or exploitation of children;
13. Interfering with the superintendent in the discharge of the superintendent's licensing duties, which includes forbidding the superintendent access to a location when at least one child is in care; and
14. Failure to comply with the terms of [ an a special order or final ] order issued by the superintendent
Part VII
Violation Review
8VAC20-821-280. Review process.
A. If an applicant or licensee believes that a licensing standard has been applied or interpreted in a manner that is arbitrary or capricious, the applicant or licensee may request a review by program supervisory personnel.
B. A request for review shall be in writing and shall be made within five business days of receiving a notice of violation. The request shall contain the following information:
1. The date that the application of the licensing standard that is being challenged was made;
2. The reasons why the applicant or licensee believes that the application of the licensing standard was arbitrary or capricious; [ and ]
3. All relevant documentation supporting the rationale of the applicant or license that the application of the licensing standard was arbitrary or capricious.
C. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the superintendent from exercising the superintendent's responsibility and authority, including proceeding directly to the imposition of administrative sanctions, summary suspension, or recommending petitions for injunction.
Part VIII
Sanctions
8VAC20-821-290. Administrative sanctions.
A. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, following a proceeding as provided in § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia, the superintendent may issue a special order for [ (i) violation the following:
1. Violation ] of any of the provisions or any regulation adopted under the provisions of Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia or § 54.1-3408 of the Code of Virginia for which violation adversely affects or is an imminent and substantial threat to the health, safety, or welfare of the person [ being ] cared for [ ; ] or
[ (ii) permitting 2. Permitting ], aiding, or abetting the commission of any illegal act in a child day program or family day system.
[ B. ] Notice of the superintendent's intent to take any of the actions enumerated in subdivisions [ B C ] 1 through [ B C ] 6 of this section shall be provided by the department, and a copy of such notice shall be posted in a prominent place at each public entrance of the licensed premises to advise consumers of serious or persistent violations. The issuance of a special order shall be considered a case decision as defined in § 2.2-4001 of the Code of Virginia. Actions set forth in subsection [ B C ] of this section may be appealed by [ (a) (i) ] a child day program or family day system operated by an agency of the Commonwealth in accordance with § 22.1-289.025 of the Code of Virginia or [ (b) (ii) ] any other child day program or family day system in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). The superintendent shall not delegate the superintendent's authority to impose civil penalties in conjunction with the issuance of special orders.
[ B. C. ] The superintendent may take the following actions regarding child day programs and family day systems through the issuance of a special order and may require a copy of the special order provided by the department to be posted in a prominent place at each public entrance of the licensed premises to advise consumers of serious or persistent violations:
1. Place a licensee on probation upon finding that the licensee is substantially out of compliance with the terms of the license and that the health and safety of children is at risk;
2. Reduce the licensed capacity or prohibit new admissions when the superintendent concludes that the licensee cannot make necessary corrections to achieve compliance with regulations except by a temporary restriction of its scope of service;
3. Mandate training for the licensee or licensee's employees, with any costs to be borne by the licensee, when the superintendent concludes that the lack of [ such the ] training has led directly to violations of regulations;
4. Assess civil penalties of not more than $500 per inspection upon finding that the child day program or family day system is substantially out of compliance with the terms of its license and the health and safety of children is at risk; however, no civil penalty shall be imposed pursuant to this subdivision on any child day program or family day system operated by an agency of the Commonwealth;
5. Require licensees to contact parents, guardians, or other responsible persons in writing regarding health and safety violations; and
6. Prevent licensees who are substantially out of compliance with the licensure terms or in violation of the regulations from receiving public funds.
8VAC20-821-300. Revocation [ and denial ].
The superintendent may revoke [ or deny the renewal of ] the license of any child day program or family day system that violates any provision of this chapter, Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia, or fails to comply with the limitations and standards set forth in its license.
8VAC20-821-310. Summary suspension.
The superintendent may, in accordance with the provisions of § 22.1-289.022 of the Code of Virginia, issue a notice of summary suspension of the license of any child day program or family day system, in conjunction with any proceeding for revocation, denial, or other action, when conditions or practices exist in the child day program or family day system that pose an immediate and substantial threat to the health, safety, and welfare of the children receiving care, and the superintendent believes the operation of the child day program or family day system should be suspended during the pendency of [ such the ] proceeding.
8VAC20-821-320. Consent agreements.
[ A. ] Instead of an adverse action, an applicant or licensee may [ request to ] enter into a consent agreement with the superintendent. [ B. A If an applicant or licensee enters into a ] consent agreement [ between an applicant or licensee and with ] the superintendent [ , the consent agreement ] shall include the following:
1. Dates of key actions and events and the names of the parties;
2. An assertion that all violations detailed in the notice of intent have been corrected;
3. A description in detail of the case-specific systemic solution proposed that addresses the causes of the [ past ] history of violations, including the methods the licensee has in place to prevent violations and to monitor results;
4. A stipulation by the licensee to the validity of the violations enumerated in the specified correspondence and a waiver of all rights to an informal conference or hearing under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) related to those violations;
5. A statement by the licensee that all determinations as to whether the terms of the agreement are being implemented and the intended results achieved are at the sole discretion of the superintendent;
6. The duration of the consent agreement. The consent agreement will be effective once signed by both parties;
7. A statement that when the superintendent signs the agreement, signifying final acceptance, the superintendent is also agreeing to rescind the outstanding adverse action, and that the licensee is agreeing to withdraw all appeals to that action; and
8. A statement outlining conditions for termination of the consent agreement and the nature of the licensee's appeal rights in that event.
[ C. Throughout the duration of the consent agreement, licensing staff will make frequent inspections to determine (i) whether the terms of the consent agreement are being implemented and (ii) whether the intended results of the consent agreement are being achieved. ]
Part IX
Appeals
8VAC20-821-330. Appeal [ from renewal of refusal to issue a license ], denial of renewal, or revocation of license.
A. Whenever the superintendent refuses to issue a license or to renew a license or revokes a license for a child day program or family day system operated by an agency of the Commonwealth, the provisions of § 22.1-289.025 the Code of Virginia shall apply.
B. Whenever the superintendent refuses to issue a license or to renew a license or revokes a license for any child day program or family day system other than a child day program or family day system operated by an agency of the Commonwealth, the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) shall apply. [ Appeals from notice of the superintendent's intent to refuse to issue or renew or revoke a license shall be received in writing from the child day program or family day system operator within 15 days of the date of receipt of the notice. ]
C. [ However, those appeals from notice of the superintendent's intent to refuse to issue or renew or to revoke a license shall be received in writing from the child day program or family day system operator within 15 days of the date of receipt of the notice. ] Judicial review of a final review [ of the ] agency decision shall be in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Process Act and any applicable Rules of the Supreme Court of Virginia. No stay may be granted upon appeal to the Supreme Court or the Court of Appeals.
VA.R. Doc. No. R22-7028; Filed October 29, 2025
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Final
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 8VAC20-820. General Procedures and Information for Licensure (repealing 8VAC20-820-10 through 8VAC20-820-500).
8VAC20-821. General Procedures for the Licensure of Child Day Programs and Family Day Systems and Background Checks (adding 8VAC20-821-10 through 8VAC20-821-330).
Statutory Authority: §§ 22.1-16 and 22.1-289.046 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: February 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Tatanishia Armstrong, Legislative Consultant, Department of Education, James Monroe Building, 16th Floor, 101 North 14th Street, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 382-5047, or email tatanishia.armstrong@doe.virginia.gov.
Summary:
This action repeals General Procedures and Information for Licensure (8VAC20-820) and replaces it with a new chapter, General Procedures for the Licensure of Child Day Programs and Family Day Systems and Background Checks (8VAC20-821), which, in addition to implementing statutory requirements, clarifying existing requirements, and updating practices and procedures, also establishes requirements for initial licensure and renewal, application fees, background checks, standards of conduct, and how violations of such standards will be reviewed, sanctions levied, and appeals processed. Changes to the proposed regulation include adding definitions and technical edits to clarify requirements.
Chapter 821
General Procedures for [ the ] Licensure [ of Child Day Programs and Family Day Systems and Background Checks ]
Part I
General
8VAC20-821-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
"Applicant" means any person that has applied for any license to operate or maintain a child day program or family day system.
"Background check" means (i) a sworn statement or affirmation; (ii) a fingerprint-based national criminal background check; (iii) a Virginia child protective services central registry check; and (iv) a check of the child abuse and neglect registry [ and, ] criminal history record report [ , and sex offender registry ] for any state an individual has resided in within the past five years.
"Barrier crime" means a conviction defined as a barrier crime in § 19.2-392.02 of the Code of Virginia and shall include prior adult convictions and juvenile convictions or adjudications of delinquency based on a crime that would be a felony if committed by an adult within or outside the Commonwealth.
"Board" means the Virginia Board of Education.
"Child day center" means a child day program offered to (i) two or more children 13 years of age or younger in a facility that is not the residence of the provider or any of the children in care or (ii) 13 or more children at any location.
"Child day program" means a regularly operating service arrangement for children where, during the absence of a parent or guardian, a person or organization has agreed to assume responsibility for the supervision, protection, and well-being of a child 13 years of age or younger for less than a 24-hour period.
"Conditional license" means a license that may be issued to a new facility to operate in order to permit the applicant to demonstrate compliance with licensing standards.
"Consent agreement" means a written agreement between an applicant or licensee and the department that the applicant or licensee will perform specific actions for the purpose of correcting violations to come into compliance with licensing standards or laws.
"Day" means a calendar day, unless otherwise specified.
"Denial" means the act of refusing to approve an initial application for license or a license renewal application for violations of any provision of Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia or failure to comply with the limitations and licensing standards set forth in a license.
"Department" means the Virginia Department of Education.
"Family day home" means a child day program offered in the residence of the provider or the home of any of the children in care for at least one but no more than 12 children 13 years of age or younger, exclusive of the provider's own children and any children who reside in the home, when at least one child receives care for compensation. The provider of a licensed family day home shall disclose to the parents or guardians of children in the provider's care the percentage of time per week that persons other than the provider will care for the children. Family day homes serving at least five but no more than 12 children, exclusive of the provider's own children and any children who reside in the home, shall be licensed. However, no family day home shall care for more than four children younger than two years of age, including the provider's own children and any children who reside in the home, unless the family day home is licensed or voluntarily registered. A family day home where the children in care are all related to the provider by blood or marriage shall not be required to be licensed.
"Family day system" means any person who approves family day homes as members of its system; who refers children to available family day homes in that system; and who, through contractual arrangements, may provide central administrative functions, including training of operators of family day homes; technical assistance and consultation to operators of member homes; inspection, supervision, monitoring, and evaluation of member homes; and referral of children to available health and social services.
[ "Final order" means a notification to a provider or facility of the department's final case decision to deny or revoke a license, exemption, or registration for child day programs or to summarily suspend part or all operations during an appeal of denial or revocation. ]
"Functional design" means the design features of buildings and grounds not regulated by the building code that are subject to licensing standards.
"Good character and reputation" or "good moral character and reputation" means a determination by the superintendent that an individual (i) maintains business or professional, family, and community relationships that are characterized by honesty, fairness, truthfulness, and dependability and (ii) is able to transact business in the Commonwealth and suitable to administer a program for the care, supervision, and protection of children.
"License" means a license that is issued pursuant to § 22.1-289.011 of the Code of Virginia to any person who constitutes, or who operates or maintains, a child day program or family day system.
"Licensee" means any person to whom a conditional license, a license, or a provisional license has been issued and who is legally responsible for compliance with the licensing standards related to the operation or maintenance of the child day program or family day system.
"Licensing standards" or "standards" means the standards of care and safety for operation of a child day program or family day system as set forth in this chapter, Chapter 14.1 of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia, the Standards for Licensed Child Day Centers (8VAC20-780), the Standards for Licensed Family Day Homes (8VAC20-800), or the Minimum Standards for Licensed Family Day Systems (8VAC20-810).
"Living in" means staying at a child day center or family day home for more than 30 days out of a 45-day period.
"Person" means any individual; corporation; partnership; association; limited liability company; local government; state agency, including any department, institution, authority, instrumentality, board, or other administrative agency of the Commonwealth; or other legal or commercial entity that operates or maintains a child day program or family day system.
"Provisional license" means a license that may be issued when a licensee is temporarily unable to comply substantially with all of the requirements of the licensing standards.
"Registered" means a family day home that has met the standards for voluntary registration set forth in Voluntary Registration of Family Day Homes (8VAC20-850).
"Revocation" means the act of terminating a license during its effective dates for violations of any provision of Chapter 14.1 of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia or failure to comply with the limitations and standards set forth in a license.
[ "Special order" means an order imposing an administrative sanction issued to any party licensed pursuant to Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia by the superintendent that has a stated duration of not more than 12 months. A special order is considered a case decision as defined in § 2.2-4001 of the Code of Virginia. The 12-month period begins 30 days after notification of the issuance of a special order or at the conclusion of all appeal steps. ]
"Superintendent" means the Superintendent of Public Instruction at the Department of Education and, except when prohibited by law, includes the superintendent's representatives.
"Sworn statement or affirmation" means a signed statement completed by a person attesting to whether the person has ever been (i) convicted of or the subject of pending charges of any crime within or outside the Commonwealth or an equivalent offense outside the Commonwealth or (ii) the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect within or outside the Commonwealth.
"Variance" means a written determination by the superintendent that (i) a licensee or applicant for licensure as a child day program or family day system has demonstrated that implementation of a regulation promulgated by the board would impose a substantial financial or programmatic hardship and (ii) the suspension or modified implementation of [ such the ] regulation would not adversely affect the safety and well-being of children in care.
Part II
Licensure Requirements
8VAC20-821-20. Necessity for license.
Every person that constitutes or that operates or maintains a child day program or family day system [ as defined in Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia ] shall obtain the appropriate license from the superintendent, which may be renewed.
8VAC20-821-30. License.
A. A license is issued to a specific person. A license is not transferable from one person to another.
B. A license issued under this chapter shall expire two years from the effective date of the license. The superintendent may extend or shorten the duration of licensure periods for a child day program or family day system whenever, at the superintendent's sole discretion, it is administratively necessary to redistribute the workload for greater efficiency in staff utilization.
C. A license shall be issued on a form prescribed by the superintendent.
D. The license and any other documents required by the superintendent shall be posted in a conspicuous place on the licensed premises.
E. A license shall be issued with the following terms:
1. The name of the person to whom the license is issued;
2. The date the license is effective and the date the license expires;
3. The name in which the licensee is doing business;
4. The physical location of the facility;
5. The maximum number of children who may be in care at any time;
6. The age range of children for whom care may be provided; and
7. Any other stipulations or conditions that the superintendent may prescribe within the context of the licensing standards or laws.
F. Any administrative sanction imposed by a special order or any sanction imposed by a final order shall be considered a term of the license.
8VAC20-821-40. Qualifications for licensure.
A. Each application for licensure shall be made to the superintendent [ , in such on the ] form [ as the superintendent may prescribe prescribed by the superintendent ], and shall include the following information:
1. The name and address of the applicant;
2. If the applicant is an association, partnership, limited liability company, or corporation, the [ name and address of the business entity and the ] names [ and addresses ] of its partners, members, officers, directors, or agents;
3. A description of the activities proposed to be engaged in;
4. A description of the facilities and services to be employed; and
5. Additional information as required by the superintendent [ as part of the application process ].
B. The applicant shall submit a completed application, including all required documentation, and fee to the superintendent. No applicant may begin operations for which a license is required [ prior to before ] being issued a license or a conditional license by the superintendent.
C. Every applicant for licensure as a child day program [ , family day home, ] or family day system shall have the following qualifications:
1. The applicant and any of the applicant's partners, members, officers, directors, or agents shall be of good character and reputation.
2. The applicant and any of the applicant's partners, members, officers, directors, or agents shall submit to a background check in accordance with licensing standards.
3. The applicant shall disclose whether the applicant or any of the applicant's partners, members, officers, directors, or agents has ever had a license issued by any local, state, or national regulatory body that has been revoked, suspended, denied, or surrendered [ in lieu instead ] of an adverse action.
4. The applicant and any of the applicant's partners, members, officers, directors, or agents shall be at least 18 years of age.
5. The applicant shall demonstrate financial responsibility.
6. The applicant shall have completed a prelicensure orientation offered through or approved by the superintendent that focuses on health and safety standards, application processes, background check requirements, and general licensure requirements.
a. The superintendent may, at the superintendent's discretion, waive the prelicensure orientation requirement or issue a license conditioned upon the applicant's completion of the prelicensure orientation program.
b. Applicants who have previously completed the prelicensure orientation program training and have not been subject to a license denial or revocation shall not be required to complete the prelicensure orientation program a second time.
7. The applicant shall demonstrate compliance with all applicable licensing standards.
D. Applicants for licensure as a child day center shall meet the requirements of 8VAC20-821-50 regarding buildings and functional design.
E. The applicant shall at all times allow the superintendent reasonable access and opportunity to make on-site inspection of the facility in order to determine compliance with applicable licensing standards.
F. The applicant shall allow the superintendent reasonable opportunity to inspect the applicant's records. Records that contain confidential proprietary information furnished to the department pursuant to this section shall be exempt from disclosure pursuant to subdivision 4 of § 2.2-3705.5 of the Code of Virginia.
G. The applicant shall allow the superintendent to interview the applicant's agents and employees and any person living or participating in the applicant's facilities or under the applicant's custody, control, direction, or supervision in accordance with subsection A of § 22.1-289.018 of the Code of Virginia.
H. It is the responsibility of the applicant to demonstrate qualifications for licensure and compliance with licensing standards. All [ such ] determinations of qualification and compliance shall be at the discretion of the superintendent. Failure to demonstrate qualifications and compliance for licensure may constitute grounds for denying a license.
I. [ No ] A license shall [ not ] be issued to an applicant who does not constitute [ or who does not operate or maintain ] a child day program or family day system [ as defined in Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia ].
8VAC20-821-50. Buildings and functional design.
A. Buildings for applicants as child day programs or family day systems shall be classified by and meet the specifications for the proper Use Group as required by the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code (13VAC5-63).
B. An applicant for licensure as a child day center shall submit inspection reports from state or local fire authorities, as applicable, to determine compliance of the building with the Virginia Statewide Fire Prevention Code (13VAC5-51).
C. An applicant for licensure as a child day center shall submit inspection reports from state or local health authorities that shall include [ approval an inspection ] of general sanitation and, if applicable, water supply, sewage disposal systems, and food service operations for the building in which the facility is operated.
D. The building used by an applicant as a child day center shall meet all functional design requirements [ before approval for licensure ].
E. Applicants are encouraged to consult as early as possible with the department regarding building plans and licensing standards in order to avoid noncompliance.
8VAC20-821-60. Modification of the terms of the license.
A. A licensee may submit a written request to the superintendent for a modification of the terms of the license at any time during the license period.
B. If the superintendent grants a modification, the department will issue a modified license reflecting the changes.
C. No modification shall be granted to change or replace the person to whom the license was granted.
8VAC20-821-70. Variances.
A. Any [ demonstration of hardship or ] request for a variance shall be made to the superintendent and shall be in writing on a form prescribed by the superintendent. The request for a variance shall include the following:
1. The specific [ requirements standard ] for which the applicant or licensee is requesting a variance;
2. A detailed description of the substantial programmatic or financial hardship that will be caused by the applicant or licensee's compliance with the [ requirements standard ] for which the variance is requested; and
3. The proposed alternative to the [ requirement standard ] that will protect the safety and well-being of the children in care.
B. When requested by the superintendent, the applicant or licensee requesting the variance shall obtain additional information to substantiate either (i) that compliance with the [ requirements standard ] will cause substantial programmatic or financial hardship or (ii) that the proposed alternative to the [ requirement standard ] will protect the safety and well-being of the children in care. [ Such The ] additional information may include the opinions of professionals in the field, research, or studies.
C. The superintendent may attach conditions to a variance upon approval.
D. A variance may be rescinded or modified upon a change in the facts [ upon on ] which the superintendent relied in granting the variance.
E. A variance is not transferable between persons.
F. The superintendent shall review each approved variance at least annually.
G. An applicant or licensee shall not make the programmatic change for which the variance was requested [ prior to before ] receiving written approval from the superintendent. Initiating the programmatic change [ prior to before ] receiving approval for the [ requested ] variance [ shall may ] be grounds for denying the request for the variance and [ shall may ] constitute grounds for adverse action.
8VAC20-821-80. Conditional license.
A. The superintendent may issue a conditional license to an applicant in order to permit the applicant to demonstrate compliance with the requirements for licensure. A conditional license may be issued for a term not to exceed six months. A conditional license may be renewed, but a conditional license may not be held for longer than six months from the original issuance of the conditional license.
B. If, at the end of the conditional license, the applicant is still unable to demonstrate compliance with all of the licensure requirements, the application for [ initial ] licensure shall be denied [ unless a provisional license is issued ].
C. A conditional license may be voided and a license issued if the superintendent determines that the applicant meets the qualifications for licensure.
8VAC20-821-90. Refusal of license issuance.
When issuance of a license for a child day program or family day system has been refused by the superintendent, the applicant shall not thereafter for a period of six months apply again for [ such the ] license, unless the superintendent in the superintendent's sole discretion believes that there has been [ such ] a change in the conditions on account of which the license was refused as to justify considering a new application. When an appeal is taken by the applicant pursuant to subsection A of § 22.1-289.024 of the Code of Virginia, the six-month period shall be extended until a final decision has been rendered on appeal.
Part III
Renewal
8VAC20-821-100. Renewal required.
Every person issued a license that has not been suspended or revoked shall renew [ such the ] license [ prior to before ] its expiration.
8VAC20-821-110. Qualifications for renewal.
A. [ Prior to Before ] the expiration date shown on the license, a licensee desiring to renew a license shall return to the superintendent a completed renewal application and appropriate fee. Failure to receive notices from the superintendent regarding license renewal does not relieve the licensee of the obligation to renew.
B. The renewal applicant shall have met the requirements of 8VAC20-821-50 regarding the approval of buildings and functional design.
C. The renewal applicant shall demonstrate compliance with licensing standards.
D. As required by Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia, the renewal applicant and any of the applicant's partners, members, officers, directors, or agents shall submit to a background check in accordance with licensing standards.
E. The renewal applicant shall at all times allow the superintendent reasonable access and opportunity to make on-site inspection of the proposed facility [ in order ] to determine compliance with licensing standards. [ Such The ] on-site inspections may occur at any time during the license term and may be unannounced.
F. The renewal applicant shall at all times allow the superintendent reasonable opportunity to inspect the renewal applicant's records. Records that contain confidential proprietary information furnished to the department pursuant to this section shall be exempt from disclosure pursuant to subdivision 4 of § 2.2-3705.5 of the Code of Virginia.
G. The renewal applicant shall at all times allow the superintendent to interview any person under the renewal applicant's custody, control, direction, or supervision. Interviews shall be (i) authorized by the person to be interviewed or the person's legally authorized representative and (ii) limited to discussion of issues related to the applicant's compliance with applicable laws and licensing standards.
H. It is the responsibility of the renewal applicant to demonstrate that the licensee meets all qualifications for renewal. All determinations of qualifications shall be at the discretion of the superintendent. Failure to demonstrate qualifications for licensure shall constitute grounds for denying a license renewal.
I. A license will not be renewed for a licensee who does not constitute [ or who does not operate or maintain ] a child day program or family day system [ as defined in Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia ] during the licensure period immediately preceding renewal.
8VAC20-821-120. Refusal of renewal.
A. The superintendent may refuse a renewal application for (i) failure to meet the qualifications for renewal or violation of licensing standards or (ii) failure to comply with the terms of [ an a special ] order [ or final order issued ] by the superintendent.
B. When renewal of a license for a child day program or family day system has been refused by the superintendent, the applicant shall not, for a period of six months, apply again for [ such the ] license, unless the superintendent in the superintendent's sole discretion believes that there has been [ such ] a change in the conditions on account of which the license was refused as to justify considering a new application. When an appeal is taken by the applicant pursuant to subsection A of § 22.1-289.024 of the Code of Virginia, the six-month period shall be extended until a final decision has been rendered on appeal.
8VAC20-821-130. Provisional license.
A. The superintendent may issue a provisional license to a renewal applicant when the applicant is temporarily unable to comply with all of the licensure requirements. A provisional license may be issued for a term not to exceed six months. A provisional license may be renewed, but a provisional license may not be held for longer than six months from the original issuance of the provisional license.
B. If, at the end of the provisional license, the renewal applicant is still unable to comply with all of the licensure requirements, the application for renewal shall be denied.
C. A provisional license may be voided and the license renewed if the superintendent determines that the renewal applicant meets the qualifications for renewal.
Part IV
Application Fees
8VAC20-821-140. Application fees nonrefundable; application date.
A. All application fees for licenses are nonrefundable.
B. The date that the application fee is received by the superintendent shall be the date that the application was received.
C. An applicant for initial licensure shall submit a completed application to the superintendent within six months of the date that the application was received. Applications that remain incomplete after six months of the date the application was received will be closed, and the applicant will be required to submit a new application with a new fee.
D. An applicant for license renewal shall submit a completed renewal application [ prior to before ] the date the applicant's license expires.
E. Application fees shall not be applicable to facilities, centers, or agencies operated by federal entities.
8VAC20-821-150. Application fees.
A. The fee required for each child day program will be based [ upon on ] its licensed capacity. The following fee schedule applies to child day programs that operate at least 12 weeks of a 12-month period:
|
Capacity
|
Two-year licensing fee
|
|
1-12
|
$28
|
|
13-25
|
$70
|
|
26-50
|
$140
|
|
51-75
|
$210
|
|
76-200
|
$280
|
|
201 or more
|
$400
|
B. The following fee schedule applies to child day programs that operate less than 12 weeks of a 12-month period:
|
Capacity
|
Two-year licensing fee
|
|
1-50
|
$50
|
|
51 or more
|
$110
|
C. Family day systems will be subject to a license fee of $140.
D. A fee will be charged for checks that must be returned to the applicant because of insufficient funds.
Part V
Background Checks
8VAC20-821-160. Scope of background check regulations.
This part applies to any person required to have a background check by Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia.
8VAC20-821-170. Background checks required.
A. Any person required to have a background check shall follow the provisions of Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia regarding background checks.
B. Any person 14 years of age or older living in the home of a licensed or registered family day home shall request a Virginia child protective services central registry check within seven days of reaching 14 years of age or beginning to live in the home.
8VAC20-821-180. Disqualifying background checks; prohibitions.
A. No child day center, family day home, or family day system licensed in accordance with the provisions of this chapter, child day center exempt from licensure pursuant to § 22.1-289.031 of the Code of Virginia, registered family day home, family day home approved by a family day system, or child day center, family day home, or child day program that enters into a contract with the department or its agents or designees to provide child care services funded by the Child Care and Development Block Grant shall hire for compensated employment, continue to employ, or permit to serve as a volunteer who will be alone with, in control of, or supervising children any person who (i) has been convicted of any barrier crime as defined in § 19.2-392.02 of the Code of Virginia or (ii) is the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect within or outside the Commonwealth.
B. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A of this section, a child day center may hire for compensated employment persons who have been convicted of not more than one misdemeanor offense under § 18.2-57 of the Code of Virginia, or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction, if 10 years have elapsed following the conviction, unless the person committed [ such the ] offense while employed in a child day center or the object of the offense was a minor.
C. If any person specified in subsection A of § 22.1-289.036 of the Code of Virginia (i) has been convicted of any barrier crime as defined in § 19.2-392.02 [ of the Code of Virginia ] or (ii) is the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect within or outside the Commonwealth, and [ such the ] person has not been granted a waiver by the superintendent pursuant to § 22.1-289.038 of the Code of Virginia, no license as a child day center, family day home, or family day system or registration as a family day home shall be granted by the superintendent and no approval as a family day home shall be granted by the family day system.
D. No person specified in subsection A of § 22.1-289.036 of the Code of Virginia shall be involved in the day-to-day operations of the child day center, family day home, or family day system, or shall be alone with, in control of, or supervising one or more children, without first having completed any required background check.
E. Dissemination of background check information is prohibited other than to the superintendent or a federal or state authority or court as may be required to comply with an express requirement of law for [ such ] further dissemination.
8VAC20-821-190.Out-of-state [ child abuse and neglect registry and criminal history record searches background checks ].
A. If any individual required to get a background check has lived in another state in the past five years and the results of the request [ to search the child abuse and neglect registry or criminal history record for any component of the background check ] maintained by that state has not been returned, the [ individual person responsible for obtaining the background check ] shall obtain the following before the background check may be considered complete:
1. Documentation [ of the refusal if no search was performed from the state on or after the date of the request if the state to which the request was made refuses to provide background check information due to the state's procedures for processing ]; or
2. Documentation showing that the [ individual person responsible for obtaining the background check ] contacted the state in writing to obtain the results of the [ child abuse and neglect registry or criminal record history background check ] at least 45 days after the [ initial first ] request.
B. Any documentation obtained pursuant to [ subsection A of ] this section shall be maintained as part of the background check record.
8VAC20-821-200. New background checks.
The child day program or family day system, the department, or the registering or approving authority may require a new background check if there is reason to suspect that a person required to have a background check has a disqualifying background.
8VAC20-821-210. Maintenance of background check records.
A. A child day program or family day system shall keep background check records at its place of business for at least two years after [ the an individual required to have a ] background check [ is required terminates duties with a facility or no longer resides in the home ], unless federal or state law or regulation requires the records to be kept for longer. If multiple child day programs are owned by the same entity, [ such the ] records may be kept at a single location and shall be made available to the superintendent upon request.
B. Background check records shall be kept in locked files or a secure electronic file, and access to [ such the ] files should be restricted according to a principle of least privilege.
C. Family day systems shall keep background check records for family day homes approved by the system.
8VAC20-821-220. Waiver of criminal convictions.
A. Any person who seeks to operate, volunteer, or work at a child day program or family day system and who is disqualified because of a criminal conviction or a criminal conviction in the background check of any other adult living in a family day home regulated by the department, pursuant to § 22.1-289.035, 22.1-289.036, or 22.1-289.039 of the Code of Virginia, may apply in writing for a waiver from the superintendent. The superintendent may grant a waiver if the superintendent determines that (i) the person is of good moral character and reputation and (ii) the waiver would not adversely affect the safety and well-being of children in the person's care.
B. The superintendent shall not grant a waiver to any person who has been convicted of any barrier crime.
C. The superintendent may grant a waiver to a family day home licensed or registered by the department if any other adult living in the home of the applicant or provider has been convicted of not more than one misdemeanor offense under § 18.2-57 or 18.2-57.2 of the Code of Virginia, or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction, provided that (i) five years have elapsed following the conviction and (ii) the department has conducted a home study that includes (a) an assessment of the safety of children placed in the home and (b) a determination that the offender is now a person of good moral character and reputation. The waiver shall not be granted if the adult living in the home is an assistant or substitute provider or if [ such the ] adult has been convicted of a misdemeanor offense under both §§ 18.2-57 and 18.2-57.2, or any substantially similar offense under the laws of another jurisdiction.
D. The request for a waiver shall be submitted on a form prescribed by the superintendent.
E. Waivers are granted at the discretion of the superintendent and are not subject to appeal.
F. A waiver is granted to a specific person and shall include the following:
1. The name of the individual who is the subject of the waiver;
2. The name and location of the child day program or family day system;
3. The effective date of the waiver;
4. Any stipulations or conditions upon which the waiver is granted;
5. The criminal conviction for which the waiver is granted;
6. The date of the criminal conviction; and
7. The signature of the superintendent.
G. A person to whom a waiver is granted shall notify the superintendent if any of the terms, stipulations, or conditions upon which the waiver was granted have changed and shall request a modification from the superintendent if appropriate.
H. The superintendent may rescind a waiver if the superintendent determines that (i) the waiver application contained materially false or misleading information, (ii) the stipulations or conditions upon which the waiver was granted have been violated, or (iii) the person no longer meets the criteria for a waiver.
I. A waiver automatically expires when the individual who is the subject of the waiver no longer lives in the home.
8VAC20-821-230. Public notification of waivers.
A. The child day program or family day system shall post any waiver granted by the superintendent in a conspicuous place at the location listed on the waiver.
B. Any waiver granted under this section shall be available for inspection by the public. The child day program or family day system shall notify in writing every parent of the children in its care of any waiver granted by the superintendent, as well as notify in writing the parent of any child [ subsequently ] enrolled [ for as long as after ] the waiver [ remains becomes ] effective.
Part VI
Standards of Conduct
8VAC20-821-240. Determination of continued compliance.
A. In order to determine continued compliance with licensing standards during the effective dates of the license, the superintendent will perform inspections in accordance with § 22.1-289.018 of the Code of Virginia.
B. The licensee is responsible for correcting any areas of noncompliance found during any inspection.
8VAC20-821-250. Maintenance of license.
A. An applicant or licensee shall at all times keep the superintendent informed of its current mailing address, telephone number, and email address.
B. An applicant or licensee shall notify the superintendent immediately of any change of ownership or business formation.
8VAC20-821-260. Provision of records to the superintendent.
An applicant or licensee shall produce any records to the superintendent during an inspection or within the timeframe specified by the superintendent if an extension is granted. Records produced for the superintendent pursuant to this section that contain confidential or proprietary information shall be exempt from disclosure pursuant to subdivision 4 of § 2.2-3705.5 of the Code of Virginia.
8VAC20-821-270. Prohibited acts.
The following are prohibited acts by an applicant or licensee and may be subject to enforcement and sanctions:
1. Furnishing substantially inaccurate or incomplete information to the superintendent in obtaining, renewing, reinstating, or maintaining a license;
2. Making any materially false or misleading statement to the superintendent with respect to the operation of any child day program or family day system;
3. Failure to operate within the terms of a license or variance;
4. Failure to obtain from the superintendent a modification pursuant to 8VAC20-821-60 or variance pursuant to 8VAC20-821-70 [ prior to before ] making programmatic or operational changes for which a modification or variance is required;
5. Failure to obtain a background check in accordance with Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia;
6. Failure to post the following documents in a conspicuous location on the premises of each facility:
a. The most recently issued license [ . Any conditional or provisional license shall be posted at each public entrance of the facility and a notice shall be prominently displayed next to the license that states that a description of specific violations of licensing standards to be corrected and the deadline for completion of such corrections is available for inspection at the facility or on the facility's website, if applicable ];
b. [ Any conditional or provisional license, which shall be posted at each public entrance of the facility, and a notice, which shall be prominently displayed next to the license, that states that a description of specific violations of licensing standards to be corrected and the deadline for completion of such corrections is available for inspection at the facility or on the facility's website, if applicable;
c. ] Notice of the superintendent's intent to revoke or deny renewal of the license of a child day program or family day system. [ Such The ] notice will be provided by the department and shall be posted in a prominent place at each public entrance of the facility to advise consumers of serious or persistent violations;
[ c. d. ] A copy of any final order of summary suspension of all or part of a license for a child day program or family day system operated by an agency of the Commonwealth shall be prominently displayed by the provider at each public entrance of the facility, or the provider may display a written statement summarizing the terms of the order, printed in clear and legible size and typeface, in a prominent location and identifying the location within the facility where the final order of summary suspension may be reviewed;
[ d. e. ] Any notice of the superintendent's intent to take any of the actions enumerated in subdivisions B 1 through B 6 of § 22.1-289.023 of the Code of Virginia. [ Such The ] notice will be provided by the department, and a copy of the notice shall be posted in a prominent place at each public entrance of the facility to advise consumers of serious or persistent violations;
[ e. f. ] A copy of any special order issued by the department shall be posted in a prominent place at each public entrance of the licensed premises to advise consumers of serious or persistent violations; and
[ f. g. ] Any other documents required by the superintendent;
7. Failure to correct any area of noncompliance found during any inspection;
8. Permitting, aiding, or abetting the commission of any illegal act in the licensed facility [ or agency ];
9. A licensee being convicted of any barrier crime as defined in § 19.2-392.02 of the Code of Virginia or being the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect within or outside the Commonwealth;
10. Hiring for compensated employment, continuing to employ, or permitting to serve as a volunteer who will be alone with, in control of, or supervising children any person who (i) has been convicted of any barrier crime as defined in § 19.2-392.02 of the Code of Virginia or (ii) is the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect within or outside the Commonwealth;
11. Failure to notify the superintendent that anyone required to have a background check under § 22.1-289.036 of the Code of Virginia has been convicted of a barrier crime as defined in § 19.2-392.02 of the Code of Virginia or is the subject of a founded complaint of child abuse or neglect within or outside the Commonwealth;
12. Engaging in conduct or practices that are in violation of laws or regulations relating to abuse, neglect, or exploitation of children;
13. Interfering with the superintendent in the discharge of the superintendent's licensing duties, which includes forbidding the superintendent access to a location when at least one child is in care; and
14. Failure to comply with the terms of [ an a special order or final ] order issued by the superintendent
Part VII
Violation Review
8VAC20-821-280. Review process.
A. If an applicant or licensee believes that a licensing standard has been applied or interpreted in a manner that is arbitrary or capricious, the applicant or licensee may request a review by program supervisory personnel.
B. A request for review shall be in writing and shall be made within five business days of receiving a notice of violation. The request shall contain the following information:
1. The date that the application of the licensing standard that is being challenged was made;
2. The reasons why the applicant or licensee believes that the application of the licensing standard was arbitrary or capricious; [ and ]
3. All relevant documentation supporting the rationale of the applicant or license that the application of the licensing standard was arbitrary or capricious.
C. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the superintendent from exercising the superintendent's responsibility and authority, including proceeding directly to the imposition of administrative sanctions, summary suspension, or recommending petitions for injunction.
Part VIII
Sanctions
8VAC20-821-290. Administrative sanctions.
A. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, following a proceeding as provided in § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia, the superintendent may issue a special order for [ (i) violation the following:
1. Violation ] of any of the provisions or any regulation adopted under the provisions of Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia or § 54.1-3408 of the Code of Virginia for which violation adversely affects or is an imminent and substantial threat to the health, safety, or welfare of the person [ being ] cared for [ ; ] or
[ (ii) permitting 2. Permitting ], aiding, or abetting the commission of any illegal act in a child day program or family day system.
[ B. ] Notice of the superintendent's intent to take any of the actions enumerated in subdivisions [ B C ] 1 through [ B C ] 6 of this section shall be provided by the department, and a copy of such notice shall be posted in a prominent place at each public entrance of the licensed premises to advise consumers of serious or persistent violations. The issuance of a special order shall be considered a case decision as defined in § 2.2-4001 of the Code of Virginia. Actions set forth in subsection [ B C ] of this section may be appealed by [ (a) (i) ] a child day program or family day system operated by an agency of the Commonwealth in accordance with § 22.1-289.025 of the Code of Virginia or [ (b) (ii) ] any other child day program or family day system in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). The superintendent shall not delegate the superintendent's authority to impose civil penalties in conjunction with the issuance of special orders.
[ B. C. ] The superintendent may take the following actions regarding child day programs and family day systems through the issuance of a special order and may require a copy of the special order provided by the department to be posted in a prominent place at each public entrance of the licensed premises to advise consumers of serious or persistent violations:
1. Place a licensee on probation upon finding that the licensee is substantially out of compliance with the terms of the license and that the health and safety of children is at risk;
2. Reduce the licensed capacity or prohibit new admissions when the superintendent concludes that the licensee cannot make necessary corrections to achieve compliance with regulations except by a temporary restriction of its scope of service;
3. Mandate training for the licensee or licensee's employees, with any costs to be borne by the licensee, when the superintendent concludes that the lack of [ such the ] training has led directly to violations of regulations;
4. Assess civil penalties of not more than $500 per inspection upon finding that the child day program or family day system is substantially out of compliance with the terms of its license and the health and safety of children is at risk; however, no civil penalty shall be imposed pursuant to this subdivision on any child day program or family day system operated by an agency of the Commonwealth;
5. Require licensees to contact parents, guardians, or other responsible persons in writing regarding health and safety violations; and
6. Prevent licensees who are substantially out of compliance with the licensure terms or in violation of the regulations from receiving public funds.
8VAC20-821-300. Revocation [ and denial ].
The superintendent may revoke [ or deny the renewal of ] the license of any child day program or family day system that violates any provision of this chapter, Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia, or fails to comply with the limitations and standards set forth in its license.
8VAC20-821-310. Summary suspension.
The superintendent may, in accordance with the provisions of § 22.1-289.022 of the Code of Virginia, issue a notice of summary suspension of the license of any child day program or family day system, in conjunction with any proceeding for revocation, denial, or other action, when conditions or practices exist in the child day program or family day system that pose an immediate and substantial threat to the health, safety, and welfare of the children receiving care, and the superintendent believes the operation of the child day program or family day system should be suspended during the pendency of [ such the ] proceeding.
8VAC20-821-320. Consent agreements.
[ A. ] Instead of an adverse action, an applicant or licensee may [ request to ] enter into a consent agreement with the superintendent. [ B. A If an applicant or licensee enters into a ] consent agreement [ between an applicant or licensee and with ] the superintendent [ , the consent agreement ] shall include the following:
1. Dates of key actions and events and the names of the parties;
2. An assertion that all violations detailed in the notice of intent have been corrected;
3. A description in detail of the case-specific systemic solution proposed that addresses the causes of the [ past ] history of violations, including the methods the licensee has in place to prevent violations and to monitor results;
4. A stipulation by the licensee to the validity of the violations enumerated in the specified correspondence and a waiver of all rights to an informal conference or hearing under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) related to those violations;
5. A statement by the licensee that all determinations as to whether the terms of the agreement are being implemented and the intended results achieved are at the sole discretion of the superintendent;
6. The duration of the consent agreement. The consent agreement will be effective once signed by both parties;
7. A statement that when the superintendent signs the agreement, signifying final acceptance, the superintendent is also agreeing to rescind the outstanding adverse action, and that the licensee is agreeing to withdraw all appeals to that action; and
8. A statement outlining conditions for termination of the consent agreement and the nature of the licensee's appeal rights in that event.
[ C. Throughout the duration of the consent agreement, licensing staff will make frequent inspections to determine (i) whether the terms of the consent agreement are being implemented and (ii) whether the intended results of the consent agreement are being achieved. ]
Part IX
Appeals
8VAC20-821-330. Appeal [ from renewal of refusal to issue a license ], denial of renewal, or revocation of license.
A. Whenever the superintendent refuses to issue a license or to renew a license or revokes a license for a child day program or family day system operated by an agency of the Commonwealth, the provisions of § 22.1-289.025 the Code of Virginia shall apply.
B. Whenever the superintendent refuses to issue a license or to renew a license or revokes a license for any child day program or family day system other than a child day program or family day system operated by an agency of the Commonwealth, the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) shall apply. [ Appeals from notice of the superintendent's intent to refuse to issue or renew or revoke a license shall be received in writing from the child day program or family day system operator within 15 days of the date of receipt of the notice. ]
C. [ However, those appeals from notice of the superintendent's intent to refuse to issue or renew or to revoke a license shall be received in writing from the child day program or family day system operator within 15 days of the date of receipt of the notice. ] Judicial review of a final review [ of the ] agency decision shall be in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Process Act and any applicable Rules of the Supreme Court of Virginia. No stay may be granted upon appeal to the Supreme Court or the Court of Appeals.
VA.R. Doc. No. R22-7028; Filed October 29, 2025
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Fast-Track
TITLE 8. EDUCATION
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 8VAC20-840. Virginia Child Care Provider Scholarship Program (repealing 8VAC20-840-10 through 8VAC20-840-90).
Statutory Authority: § 22.1-16 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearing is currently scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: December 31, 2025.
Effective Date: January 15, 2026.
Agency Contact: Jim Chapman, Director of Board Relations, Department of Education, James Monroe Building, 101 North 14th Street, 25th Floor, Richmond, VA 23219, telephone (804) 750-8750, or email jim.chapman@doe.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 22.1-16 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the State Board of Education to promulgate regulations necessary to carry out its powers and duties and the provisions of Title 22.1 of the Code of Virginia.
Purpose: This action is essential to protect the health, safety, and welfare of citizens because it removes unnecessary language from the board's regulatory catalog that can be more efficiently managed as guidelines on the Department of Education's website, which is typically how scholarship programs are treated.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: This action is expected to be noncontroversial and therefore appropriate for the fast-track rulemaking process because it is removing a regulation that is not required. The guidelines for the scholarship program will continue to be available on the department's website.
Substance: The action repeals Virginia Child Care Provider Scholarship Program (8VAC20-840); the associated scholarship program will be posted to the Department of Education's website as guidelines.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public and the Commonwealth is that the board will no longer have regulations that are not required by statute. There are no disadvantages to the public or Commonwealth.
Department of Planning and Budget Economic Impact Analysis:
The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order 19. The analysis presented represents DPB's best estimate of the potential economic impacts as of the date of this analysis.1
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. The Board of Education (board) proposes to repeal 8VAC20-840, Virginia Child Care Provider Scholarship Program and then add the elements of the regulation, minus the appeals process, to a new guideline on the Department of Educations (DOE) website.
Background. The Virginia Child Care Provider Scholarship Program awards scholarships for undergraduate courses at Virginia community colleges and Montessori certification programs accredited by the State Council of Higher Education for Virginia. The courses eligible for this scholarship program focus on the care and education of young children. In order for an applicant to be eligible for the scholarship, he or she must (i) be an employee of a child care program located in the Commonwealth, (ii) live in Virginia and be employed in a child care program outside of the Commonwealth, or (iii) live in Virginia and declare an intent to become employed in child care. On average, DOE awards between 1,200 and 1,500 scholarships per academic year, with each scholarship award between $510 and $700. Funding for the program comes from the federal Child Care and Development Fund. The regulation consists of the application form and the following nine sections: 8VAC20-840-10 Definitions, 8VAC20-840-20 Purpose and intent, 8VAC20-840-30 Application process, 8VAC20-840-40 Selection and eligibility, 8VAC20-840-50 Appeal process, 8VAC20-840-60 College and university agreements, 8VAC20-840-70 Disbursement of funds, 8VAC20-840-80 Gathering and maintaining information, and 8VAC20-840-90 Recipient responsibilities. According to DOE, the guideline would not include the appeals process in the current 8VAC20-840-50 but otherwise would have minimal changes from the regulation.
Estimated Benefits and Costs. To the extent that the new guideline contains the same requirements and procedures as the regulation, the effect upon scholarship applicants and recipients would be minimal. As DOE relates, the guideline would not have an appeals process but the effect of this change depends upon the likelihood that it would have been used and the availability of an alternative process. In 8VAC20-840-50 the regulation states that:
Any person denied a scholarship who believes the denial was contrary to law or regulations may appeal the denial pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Section 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia provides the aggrieved party the right to request an informal conference. This request shall be made within 15 days of the date of denial. The informal conference is a factfinding process and gives the aggrieved party an opportunity to present information that the denial decision was based on factual error or misinterpretation of facts. The aggrieved party may be required to provide verification of facts. The department then has 90 days from the date of the informal conference to issue its official decision in writing, including information concerning the aggrieved party's right to continue the appeal process pursuant to the Administrative Process Act. The informal conference may be conducted by telephone if both parties consent.
If the regulation is repealed, persons denied a scholarship would not have the right to appeal. Instead, aggrieved individuals could sue the Commonwealth if they believe the denial was contrary to law or regulations. DOE notes that it has never had an appeal in the scholarship program. The scholarship program was transferred from the Board of Social Services to the Board of Education in 2021. It is not known if there were any appeals in the scholarship program prior to the transfer. Though it is not known if anyone has ever used the appeal process for the scholarship program, removing the appeal option could potentially be deleterious for some individuals who wish to challenge a denial of the scholarship. Although some individuals could represent themselves pro se, other individuals may require the assistance of an attorney. In contrast, the appeal process pursuant to the Administrative Process Act would not require the hiring of a lawyer. Consequently, the appeal process available with the regulation would likely be less costly than the alternative process of filing and pursuing a lawsuit for at least some potentially aggrieved individuals.
Businesses and Other Entities Affected. The regulation and the scholarship program pertain to individuals who are: an employee of a child care program located in the Commonwealth, a Virginia resident who is employed by a non-Commonwealth child care program, or a Virginia resident who intends to become employed in a Virginia child care program. On average, DOE awards between 1,200 and 1,500 such scholarships per academic year. Employers and potential employers of the scholarship applicants are indirectly affected. The Code requires DPB to assess whether an adverse impact may result from the proposed regulation.2 An adverse impact is indicated if there is any increase in net cost or reduction in net benefit for any entity, even if the benefits exceed the costs for all entities combined.3 An individual interested in appealing a denial of a scholarship application could be adversely affected by losing the right to appeal to the extent that the use of an alternative process is more costly or pro se representation takes more time.
Small Businesses4 Affected.5 The proposed repeal of the regulation does not appear to adversely affect small businesses.
Localities6 Affected.7 The proposed repeal neither disproportionately affects particular localities nor introduces costs for local governments.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed repeal does not substantively affect total employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed repeal does not substantively affect either the use and value of private property or real estate development costs.
_____________________________
1 Section 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia requires that such economic impact analyses determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the analysis should include but not be limited to: (1) the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom the proposed regulatory action would apply, (2) the identity of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, (3) the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, (4) the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation, and (5) the impact on the use and value of private property.
2 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 D: In the event this economic impact analysis reveals that the proposed regulation would have an adverse economic impact on businesses or would impose a significant adverse economic impact on a locality, business, or entity particularly affected, the Department of Planning and Budget shall advise the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules, the House Committee on Appropriations, and the Senate Committee on Finance. Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation.
3 Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation. As a result, DPB has adopted a definition of adverse impact that assesses changes in net costs and benefits for each affected Virginia entity that directly results from discretionary changes to the regulation.
4 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04, small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
5 If the proposed regulatory action may have an adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include: (1) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the proposed regulation, (2) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other documents, (3) a statement of the probable effect of the proposed regulation on affected small businesses, and (4) a description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia, if there is a finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules shall be notified.
6 "Locality" can refer to either local governments or the locations in the Commonwealth where the activities relevant to the regulatory change are most likely to occur.
7 Section 2.2-4007.04 defines "particularly affected" as bearing disproportionate material impact.
Agency Response to the Economic Impact Analysis: The State Board of Education thanks the Department of Planning and Budget for its thorough economic impact analysis concerning this action.
Summary:
The action repeals Virginia Child Care Provider Scholarship Program (8VAC20-840); the associated scholarship program will be posted to the Department of Education's website as guidelines.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8395; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD
Forms
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD
Forms
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: Forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. The forms are not being published; however, online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may click on the name of a form with a hyperlink to access it. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of the Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 201 North Ninth Street, Fourth Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-31. Virginia Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (VPDES) Permit Regulation.
Agency Contact: Azra Bilalagic, Guidance and Regulation Coordinator, Department of Environmental Quality, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 584-6674, or email azra.bilalagic@deq.virginia.gov.
FORMS (9VAC25-31)
VPDES Sewage Sludge Permit Application Form (rev. 9/2012)
VPDES Sewage Sludge Permit Application for Permit Reissuance (eff. 6/2025)
VPDES Sewage Sludge Permit Application for Permit Reissuance (rev. 10/2025)
Instructions for VPDES Sewage Sludge Permit Application Form (rev. 9/2012)
Application Form 1 - General Information, NPDES Permitting Program, EPA Form 3510-1 (rev. 3/2019)
Virginia State Water Control Board Fish Farm Questionnaire (rev. 4/2011)
Application Form 2A - New and Existing Publicly Owned Treatment Works, NPDES Permitting Program, EPA Form 3510-2A (rev. 3/2019)
Application Form 2B - Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations and Concentrated Aquatic Animal Production Facilities, NPDES Permitting Program, EPA Form 3510-2B (rev. 3/2019)
Application Form 2C - Existing Manufacturing, Commercial, Mining, and Silvicultural Operations, NPDES Permitting Program, EPA Form 3510-2C (rev. 3/2019)
Application Form 2D - New Manufacturing, Commercial, Mining, and Silvicultural Operations That Have Not Yet Commenced Discharge of Process Wastewater, NPDES Permitting Program, EPA Form 3510-2D (rev. 3/2019)
Application Form 2E - Manufacturing, Commercial, Mining, and Silvicultural Facilities Which Discharge Only Nonprocess Wastewater, NPDES Permitting Program, EPA Form 3510-2E (rev. 3/2019)
Application Form 2F - Stormwater Discharges Associated with Industrial Activity, NPDES Permitting Program, EPA Form 3510-2F (rev. 3/2019)
Local Government Ordinance Form (eff. 2000)
Local Government Certification Form for New Municipal Solid Waste Landfill Permits (eff. 2006)
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8514; Filed October 30, 2025
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD
Proposed
TITLE 9. ENVIRONMENT
STATE WATER CONTROL BOARD
Proposed Regulation
Title of Regulation: 9VAC25-32. Virginia Pollution Abatement (VPA) Permit Regulation (amending 9VAC25-32-410, 9VAC25-32-550).
Statutory Authority: § 62.1-44.19:3 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearing is currently scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: January 30, 2026.
Agency Contact: Jeanette Ruiz, Regulatory Analyst, Department of Environmental Quality, P.O. Box 1105, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 494-9636, or email jeanette.ruiz@deq.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 62.1-44.15 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the State Water Control Board to (i) issue, revoke, or amend certificates and land-disturbing permits under prescribed conditions for the discharge of treated sewage, stormwater, industrial wastes, and other waste into or adjacent to state waters; (ii) adopt rules governing the procedures of the board with respect to the issuance of permits; (iii) adopt such regulations as the board deems necessary to enforce the general water quality management program; and (iv) establish requirements for the treatment of sewage, industrial wastes, and other wastes. Section 62.1-44.16 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the board to regulate discharges of industrial wastes. Section 62.1-44.19:3 of the Code of Virginia requires the board to include in regulation certain requirements pertaining to the land application of biosolids. Section 62.1-44.20 of the Code of Virginia provides that agents of the board may have the right of entry to public or private property for the purpose of obtaining information or conducting necessary surveys or investigations. Section 62.1-44.21 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the board to require owners to furnish information necessary to determine the effect of the wastes from a discharge on the quality of state waters.
Purpose: From 2018 to 2019, a record year for precipitation in some parts of the Commonwealth, many biosolids storage facilities reached or exceeded capacity because biosolids could not be applied on saturated ground. This action is needed to establish procedures for addressing administrative, staging, signage, and additional onsite and alternative storage site requirements for biosolids when extreme weather conditions, over an extended period of time, affect routine and onsite storage facility capacity and holding times. This action will help prevent and protect against the release of biosolids into state waters and account for increased intensity, frequency, and duration of storm events.
Substance: This action establishes procedures for addressing administrative, staging, signage, and additional onsite and alternative storage site requirements when routine and onsite storage facility capacity and holding times are anticipated to be exceeded. Typically, wastewater treatment facilities and permitted biosolids land appliers have sufficient capacity to store biosolids for several months, allowing end-users to land-apply during optimal times for nutrient application and uptake; however, extended periods of precipitation affect the timing of land-application. The amendments provide permittees a way to plan in advance with regulatory certainty for alternative storage and handling solutions when extreme weather conditions result in long periods of time when biosolids cannot be land-applied, authorizing management actions that protect human health and the environment while providing more flexibility with storage and land application when the amount of biosolids exceeds normal storage facility capacity. The amendments provides an option for permittees that will reduce or eliminate the need to apply for a variance from the regulation and allow permittees to have an approved alternative that can be quickly implemented in the event acute weather-related storage issues arise.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public is improved readiness by regulated entities for severe weather events, reducing the risk of discharges from inadequately stored biosolids and thus improving protection of human health and the environment. Regulated entities will also benefit from improved operational continuity and additional regulatory certainty during periods when weather conditions pose challenges to routine biosolids management practices, as well as reduced staff time expended to resolve case-by-case issues with the Department of Environmental Quality. Disadvantages to the public may include reduced scope of notification for pending land-application activities if the permit holder chooses to cite reductions in the amount of time required for five-day land application notice signs to be placed. The primary advantage to the agency and the Commonwealth is reduced time spent on handling case-by-case issues of potential noncompliance and instead working with permit holders to pre-plan for weather emergencies through submittal of emergency management plans. There is a disadvantage in the staff time necessary to review plans; however, this is offset by the value of timely emergency preparedness.
Department of Planning and Budget Economic Impact Analysis:
The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order 19. The analysis presented represents DPB's best estimate of the potential economic impacts as of the date of this analysis.1
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. Pursuant to Chapter 209 of the 2024 Acts of Assembly,2 the State Water Control Board (board) proposes to adopt regulations that allow for, but do not require, biosolids management plans to include an emergency management plan as an optional component.
Background. Chapter 209 requires the board to adopt regulations that include procedures for addressing administrative, staging, signage, and additional on-site and alternative storage site requirements when routine and on-site storage facility capacity and holding times are anticipated to be exceeded for the purpose of protecting against the release of sewage sludge into state waters and to account for increased intensity, frequency, and duration of storm events. According to the Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ), Chapter 209 was prompted by biosolids stakeholder requests that aimed to reduce the uncertainty they faced during the excessive rainfall and extended periods of precipitation in 2018 to 2019, which resulted in saturated soils at many land application sites in Virginia. These conditions prevented the land application of biosolids and limited the use of landfills, which led to a constantly increasing need for permit holders to seek alternative means of holding (storing) biosolids until conditions were suitable for land application. DEQ reports that wastewater treatment facilities (biosolids generators) and land application companies both experienced issues with storage capacities, and during this period DEQ received requests to allow alternative storage methods until more typical storage volumes could be restored. With limited regulatory options, DEQ used enforcement discretion to evaluate emergency situations and help permittees maintain compliance with permit requirements. As conditions for land application improved throughout 2019, the amount of biosolids in storage returned to normal levels. However, to prepare for future extreme weather conditions the regulated community wanted to have more certainty about what DEQ would allow during an emergency via enforcement discretion and also obtain approval of alternative storage methods, ultimately prompting Chapter 209. As mandated, DEQ formed a regulatory advisory panel, which then recommended allowing biosolids applicators to develop and seek approval for an emergency management plan as part of the biosolids management plan currently required. In this action, the board proposes adopting panel recommendations. Use of the proposed emergency management plan is optional. If permit holders choose to develop an emergency management plan, they must seek approval of the plan from DEQ. Subsequently, during an extreme weather event permit holders would initiate their pre-approved emergency management plan, notify DEQ of its initiation, and then follow the procedures in the plan. The emergency management plan would provide information on routine storage capacity, stipulate the thresholds that would trigger initiation of the emergency plan, lay out alternative biosolids storage options to be used during the emergency, and the procedures to initiate and conclude use of the plan. Once the thresholds have been met, and the plan has been initiated, the permit holder would notify DEQ of its initiation and explain how the stipulated emergency conditions have been met, including the conditions that limit land application, documentation that landfills are limiting biosolids disposal, etc. During this active phase, permit holders would be allowed to use the alternative storage options in the plan so long as emergency conditions persist; permit holders would also send periodic reports to DEQ regarding the available biosolid storage capacity and to ascertain whether emergency conditions continue to be present. As noted by the regulation, the active phase of the emergency management plan will conclude when the conditions causing limitations to land application cease.
Estimated Benefits and Costs. The proposed optional emergency management plan would address two key issues: uncertainty and restrictions on the ability to act quickly when an emergency occurs. Without a pre-approved emergency plan, the alternatives a permit holder would have are limited and costly. For example, a permit holder could transport excess biosolids to a landfill or incinerate it. However, DEQ reports that the same kind of weather conditions that limit the application of biosolids on land also limit landfill capacity to accept biosolids, often forcing regulants to find a landfill far away or even out of state. In addition, sending biosolids to a landfill or incineration adds to facility operating costs. If the available options that would allow a permit holder to stay within the perimeters of their permit are economically not feasible, they can seek a variance. However, the variance procedure requires a case-by-case review of the conditions; this review takes time, which prevents a permit holder from acting in a timely fashion during an emergency. The last alternative available is the exercise of enforcement discretion by DEQ, but that option is beyond the control of the permit holder. Under the proposal, a permittee can be proactive and develop an emergency management plan for approval by DEQ that describes the conditions that would constitute an emergency and the additional storage options that would be used during an emergency. The development of the emergency management plan would introduce administrative or consultant costs but would have the benefit of providing certainty and the ability to act quickly during an emergency, while also helping to avoid the costly compliance options discussed above. DEQ does not have estimates on the cost or the range of the potential cost to develop such plans but notes that the costs could vary widely depending on the level of detail included in the plan, options chosen, and number of emergency storage sites identified. Similarly, there is no estimate on the benefits of an emergency management plan. Even though data are lacking on the magnitude of the costs and benefits to the applicant, we can reliably infer that the expected benefits to the applicant must exceed the expected costs since the development of the plan is optional. The presence of an emergency management plan is also expected to benefit DEQ as they would not have to review and make decisions on potential variance applications or discretionary enforcement decisions during an emergency. An emergency management plan would also provide pre-approved alternative storage options that should minimize negative environmental impacts and provide the public with transparency on what can be expected when emergency conditions arise. Finally, an emergency management plan can benefit wastewater treatment facilities to the extent it helps them improve their storage capacity management in extreme weather conditions.
Businesses and Other Entities Affected. According to DEQ, there are currently 10 owners of 92 individual permits for land application of biosolids who could potentially submit emergency management plans. It is anticipated that each owner would submit one plan that could apply to multiple permits. No permit holder appears to be disproportionately affected. The Code of Virginia requires DPB to assess whether an adverse impact may result from the proposed regulation.3 An adverse impact is indicated if there is any increase in net cost or reduction in net benefit for any entity, even if the benefits exceed the costs for all entities combined.4 The proposed biosolids emergency plan is voluntary. Thus, no adverse impact is indicated.
Small Businesses5 Affected.6 The proposed amendments do not appear to adversely affect small businesses.
Localities7 Affected.8 According to DEQ, localities, as part of their zoning ordinances, may designate or reasonably restrict the storage of biosolids based on criteria directly related to the public health, safety, and welfare of its citizens and the environment. (§ 62.1-44.19:3 of the Code of Virginia). The current limitations for onsite storage are intended to create a threshold below which storage would not be subject to a local ordinance. If onsite storage during a weather emergency were to extend beyond 45 days, or if stored material were to be land applied on farms other than where the on-site storage facility was located, the applicability of a local ordinance may come into play. However, the proposal does not directly introduce costs for localities.
Projected Impact on Employment. The development of a biosolids emergency plan would likely require some staff or consultant time for the land applicators but would also likely provide labor savings during emergencies by eliminating the need to transport biosolids long distances. Similarly, DEQ would spend time reviewing the plans submitted for approval but also would avoid spending time on potential variance requests during extreme weather conditions in the absence of an emergency plan. Thus, the net impact on labor demand and employment is unknown.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. Since the development of the biosolids emergency plan is optional we can infer that expected benefits to the land applicators must exceed the costs for plan development. Thus, a positive impact on asset values of land applicators may be expected. The proposed amendments do not affect real estate development costs.
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1 Section 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia requires that such economic impact analyses determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the analysis should include but not be limited to: (1) the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom the proposed regulatory action would apply, (2) the identity of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, (3) the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, (4) the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation, and (5) the impact on the use and value of private property.
2 https://legacylis.virginia.gov/cgi-bin/legp604.exe?241+ful+CHAP0209.
3 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 D: In the event this economic impact analysis reveals that the proposed regulation would have an adverse economic impact on businesses or would impose a significant adverse economic impact on a locality, business, or entity particularly affected, the Department of Planning and Budget shall advise the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules, the House Committee on Appropriations, and the Senate Committee on Finance. Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation.
4 Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation. As a result, DPB has adopted a definition of adverse impact that assesses changes in net costs and benefits for each affected Virginia entity that directly results from discretionary changes to the regulation.
5 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04, small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
6 If the proposed regulatory action may have an adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include: (1) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the proposed regulation, (2) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other documents, (3) a statement of the probable effect of the proposed regulation on affected small businesses, and (4) a description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia, if there is a finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules shall be notified.
7 "Locality" can refer to either local governments or the locations in the Commonwealth where the activities relevant to the regulatory change are most likely to occur.
8 Section 2.2-4007.04 defines "particularly affected" as bearing disproportionate material impact.
Agency Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The State Water Control Board has reviewed the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of Planning and Budget and has no comment.
Summary:
Pursuant to Chapter 209 of the 2024 Acts of Assembly, the amendments establish standards for additional onsite and alternative storage site requirements that the regulated community may include in permits to address situations when routine and onsite storage facility capacity and holding times are anticipated to be exceeded due to extended periods of precipitation. The standards will account for increased intensity, frequency, and duration of storm events and continue to protect against the release of biosolids (i.e., treated sewage sludge) into state waters. The inclusion of emergency action plans by the regulated community is optional.
9VAC25-32-410. Biosolids management plan.
A. The permit holder shall maintain and implement a Biosolids Management Plan that shall consist of three components:
1. The materials, including site booklets, developed and submitted at the time of permit application or permit modification adding a farm to the permit in accordance with 9VAC25-32-60 F;
2. Nutrient management plan developed for each site, prior to biosolids application; and
3. Operations and maintenance (O&M) manual, developed and submitted to the department within 90 days of the effective date of the permit.
B. The biosolids management plan and all of its components shall be incorporated as an enforceable part of may also include an emergency management plan, developed and submitted to the department for approval at any point during the permit term. The requirements for an emergency management plan are set out in subsection F of this section.
C. The biosolids management plan and all of its components shall be incorporated as an enforceable part of the permit.
D. Nutrient management plan:.
1. A nutrient management plan approved by the Department of Conservation and Recreation shall be required for application sites prior to department authorization under specific conditions, including but not limited to:
a. Sites operated by an owner or lessee of a confined animal feeding operation as defined in subsection A of § 62.1-44.17:1 of the Code of Virginia, or confined poultry feeding operation as defined in subsection A of § 62.1-44.17:1.1 of the Code of Virginia;
b. Sites where land application more frequently than once every three years at greater than 50% of the annual agronomic rate is proposed;
c. Mined or disturbed land sites where land application is proposed at greater than agronomic rates; and
d. Other sites based on site-specific conditions that increase the risk that land application may adversely impact state waters.
2. Where conditions at the land application site change so that it meets one or more of the specific conditions identified in subdivisions 1 a through d of this subsection, an approved nutrient management plan shall be submitted prior to any future land application at the site.
3. The nutrient management plan shall be available for review by the department at the land application site during biosolids land application.
4. Within 30 days after land application at the site has commenced, the permit holder shall provide a copy of the nutrient management plan to the farm operator of the site, the Department of Conservation and Recreation and the chief executive officer or designee for the local government unless they request in writing not to receive the nutrient management plan.
5. The nutrient management plan must be approved by the Department of Conservation and Recreation prior to land application for application sites where the soil test phosphorus levels exceed the values in Table 1 of this section. For purposes of approval, permittees should submit the nutrient management plan to the Department of Conservation and Recreation at least 30 days prior to the anticipated date of land application to ensure adequate time for the approval process.
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TABLE 1
SOIL PHOSPHORUS LEVELS REQUIRING NMP APPROVAL
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Region
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Soil Test P (ppm)
VPI & SU Test (Mehlich I)*
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Eastern Shore and Lower Coastal Plain
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135
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Middle and Upper Coastal Plain and Piedmont
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136
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Ridge and Valley
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162
|
|
*If results are from another laboratory, the Department of Conservation and Recreation approved conversion factors must be used.
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D. E. The O&M manual shall include, at a minimum:
1. Equipment maintenance and calibration procedures and schedules;
2. Storage facility maintenance procedures and schedules;
3. Sampling schedules for:
a. Required monitoring; and
b. Operational control testing;
4. Sample collection, preservation, and analysis procedures, including laboratories and methods used; and
5. Instructions for recording and reporting of all monitoring activities.
F. Emergency management plan. The emergency management plan specifies the procedures a permit holder will follow to address administrative, staging, signage, and additional onsite and emergency storage site requirements when routine and onsite storage facility capacity and holding times are anticipated to be exceeded. The purpose of the emergency management plan is to protect against the release of biosolids into state waters and to account for increased intensity, frequency, and duration of storm events.
1. The emergency management plan shall include the following:
a. An outline of existing routine storage capacity, onsite storage capacity, storage at generating facilities (as applicable), and any other storage capacity authorized and available to the permit holder;
b. Documentation of total volume of biosolids contracted or expected to be land applied annually;
c. Based on the information provided in subdivisions F 1 a and F 1 b of this section, a calculation of the estimated total number of days of storage available annually;
d. Procedures and thresholds for requesting the initiation of the emergency management plan;
e. Recordkeeping and reporting procedures when an emergency management plan is active; and
f. Procedures for concluding emergency management plan implementation.
2. The emergency management plan shall also include at least one of the following procedures:
a. Emergency storage locations that the permit holder may only use after the emergency management plan is initiated in accordance with 9VAC25-32-550 F;
b. Planned deviations from onsite storage requirements specified in the biosolids management plan, including:
(1) The application of biosolids at permitted sites other than those under the operational control of the same owner or operator of the site where the onsite storage is located as specified in 9VAC25-32-550 D;
(2) The amount of biosolids stored as specified in 9VAC25-32-550 D 3; or
(3) The storage time limitations as specified in 9VAC25-32-550 D;
c. Planned deviations from or reduction of sign posting requirements specified in 9VAC25-32-515 B; or
d. Planned deviations from procedures specified in the O&M manual.
3. Procedural deviations specified in the emergency management plan may not include additional deviations from permit requirements other than those listed in subdivisions F 2 a through F 2 d of this section.
4. The emergency management plan shall be kept current and updated within 30 days of changes in available storage sites or volume of biosolids managed. Changes to procedures or the addition of emergency storage sites shall be approved by the department prior to implementation.
5. A request to initiate the emergency management plan shall include:
a. A description of conditions causing limitations to land application that may include:
(1) Saturated land due to prolonged precipitation or flooding;
(2) Governor-issued emergency declarations related to the intensity, frequency, or duration of storm events;
(3) Measured, regional precipitation thresholds;
(4) Influx of additional biosolids to be managed due to the intensity, frequency, or duration of storm events; or
(5) Unreasonably burdensome geographic and transportation constraints. Unreasonably burdensome geographic and transportation constraints alone, without other conditions that are causing limitations to land application, are not sufficient cause to initiate an emergency management plan;
b. Efforts to utilize all available storage capacity, including the total capacity of storage available at the time of the request to initiate the emergency management plan;
c. Documentation that landfills are further limiting biosolids disposal and a description of landfill limitations at the time of the request to initiate the emergency management plan; and
d. Any additional information determining whether cause exists for initiating the emergency management plan.
6. Approval and implementation procedures.
a. A permit holder shall submit the emergency management plan to the department for approval and may not initiate the emergency management plan until it has been approved.
b. A permit holder may initiate the approved emergency management plan when the thresholds specified in the emergency management plan have been met.
c. Upon initiation of the emergency management plan, the permit holder shall notify the department in writing and follow the procedures described in the plan.
d. The active phase of an emergency management plan begins upon initiation and ends when the conditions causing limitations to land application cease.
e. During an active emergency management plan, a permit holder shall include an addendum to monthly reports required by the permit that includes the following:
(1) Date the permit holder initiated the emergency management plan;
(2) A description of the deviations authorized in the emergency management plan from permit requirements, and deviations in O&M manual procedures implemented;
(3) A description of efforts to phase out emergency management plan implementation, which may include emptying emergency storage, bringing onsite storage back into compliance with permit requirements, and other reductions in emergency procedures;
(4) An inventory for each storage location to include:
(a) Dates and amounts of each biosolids source placed and removed; and
(b) Destination permit and field identification for the sources removed;
(5) Any conditions or activities that deviated from the approved emergency management plan;
(6) Changes in availability of landfill disposal; and
(7) Date the permit holder concluded the emergency management plan implementation, when applicable.
f. The permit holder shall follow the procedures for concluding emergency management plan implementation as specified in the approved emergency management plan.
7. The active phase of the emergency management plan will conclude when the conditions causing limitations to land application cease.
9VAC25-32-550. Storage facilities.
A. No person shall apply to the department for a permit, a variance, or a permit modification authorizing storage of biosolids without first complying with all requirements adopted pursuant to § 62.1-44.19:3 R of the Code of Virginia.
B. Two Three types of storage may be integrated into a complete biosolids management plan:
1. On-site Onsite storage, or;
2. Routine storage. Only routine storage facilities shall be considered a facility under this regulation; and
3. Emergency storage.
C. All on-site onsite storage and routine storage facilities shall comply with the requirements of this section by 12 months from the effective date of this regulation.
D. On-site Onsite storage. On-site Onsite storage is the short-term storage of biosolids on a constructed surface within a site approved for land application at a location preapproved by the department. These stored biosolids shall be applied only to sites under the operational control of the same owner or operator of the site where the on-site onsite storage is located. Requirements for on-site onsite storage include the following:
1. The certified land applier shall notify the department within the same working day whenever it is necessary to implement on-site onsite storage. Notification shall include the source or sources, location, and amounts;
2. A surface shall be constructed with sufficient strength to support operational equipment and with a maximum permeability of 10-7 cm/sec;
3. Storage shall be limited to the amount of biosolids specified in the nutrient management plan to be applied at sites under the operational control of the same owner or operator of the site where the on-site onsite storage is located;
4. If malodors related to the stored biosolids are verified by the department at any occupied dwelling on surrounding property, the problem must be corrected within 48 hours. If the problem is not corrected within 48 hours, the biosolids must be removed from the storage site;
5. All biosolids stored on the on-site onsite storage pad shall be land applied by the 45th 45th day from the first day of on-site onsite storage;
6. Biosolids storage shall be located to provide minimum visibility from adjacent properties;
7. Best management practices shall be utilized as appropriate to prevent contact with storm water run on or runoff;
8. Stored biosolids are to be inspected by the certified land applier at least every seven days and after precipitation events of 0.1 inches or greater to ensure that runoff controls are in good working order. Observed excessive slumping, erosion, or movement of biosolids is to be corrected within 24 hours. Any ponding or malodor at the storage site is to be corrected. The certified land applier shall maintain documentation of inspections of stored biosolids;
9. The department may prohibit or require additional restrictions for on-site onsite storage in areas of Karst karst topography and environmentally sensitive sites; and
10. Storage of biosolids shall be managed so as to prevent adverse impacts to water quality or public health.
E. Routine storage. Routine storage is the long-term storage of biosolids at a facility not located at the site of the wastewater treatment plant, preapproved by the department and constructed specifically for the storage of biosolids to be applied at any permitted site. Routine storage facilities shall be provided for all land application projects if no alternative means of management is available during nonapplication periods. No person shall apply to the department for a permit, a variance, or a permit modification authorizing storage of biosolids without first complying with all requirements adopted pursuant to § 62.1-44.19:3 A 5 of the Code of Virginia. Plans and specifications for any surface storage facilities (e.g., pits, ponds, lagoons) or aboveground facilities (e.g., tanks, pads) shall be submitted as part of the minimum information requirements. The minimum information requirements include:
1. Location.
a. The facility shall be located at an elevation that is not subject to, or is otherwise protected against, inundation produced by the 100-year flood/wave action as defined by U.S. Geological Survey or equivalent information.
b. Storage facilities should be located to provide minimum visibility.
c. All storage facilities located offsite of property owned by the generator shall be provided with a minimum 750-feet setback area. The length of the setback area considered will be the distance measured from the perimeter of the storage facility. Residential uses, high-density human activities, and activities involving food preparation are prohibited within the setback area. The department may reduce the setback requirements based on site-specific factors, such as facility size, topography, prevailing wind direction, and the inclusion of an effective windbreak in the overall design.
2. Design capacity.
a. The design capacity for storage of liquid biosolids shall be sufficient to store a minimum volume equivalent to 60 days or more average production of biosolids and the incidental wastewater generated by operation of the treatment works plus sufficient capacity necessary for: (i) the 25 year-24 hour 25-year, 24-hour design storm (incident rainfall and any runoff as may be present); (ii) net precipitation excess during the storage period; and (iii) an additional one foot freeboard from the maximum water level (attributed to the sum of the above listed factors) to the top berm elevation. Storage capacity of less than that specified above in this subdivision will be considered on a case-by-case basis only if sufficient justification warrants such a reduction.
b. If alternative methods of management cannot be adequately verified, contractors shall provide for a minimum of 30 days of in-state routine storage capacity for the average quantity of biosolids transported into Virginia from out-of-state treatment works generating at least a Class B biosolids.
3. Facility design.
a. All drawings and specifications shall be submitted in accordance with 9VAC25-790-160.
b. The biosolids shall be stored on an engineered surface with a maximum permeability of 10-7 cm/sec and of sufficient strength to support operational equipment.
c. Storage facilities designed to hold dewatered biosolids shall be constructed with a cover to prevent contact with precipitation.
d. Existing facilities permitted as routine storage facilities and designed to contain liquid biosolids may be used to store dewatered biosolids. The supernatant shall be managed as liquid biosolids in accordance with 9VAC25-32-550 E 5 d. Freeboard shall be maintained in accordance with 9VAC25-32-550 E 5 c. The department may require additional monitoring prior to land application.
e. Storage facilities shall be of uniform shape (i.e., round, square, rectangular) with no narrow or elongated portions.
f. The facilities shall also be designed to permit access of equipment necessary for loading and unloading biosolids, and shall be designed with receiving facilities to allow for even distribution of biosolids into the facility.
g. The design shall also provide for truck cleaning facilities.
4. Monitoring. All biosolids storage facilities shall be monitored in accordance with the requirements of this regulation. Plans and specifications shall be provided for such a monitoring program in accordance with the minimum information specified in 9VAC25-32-60 F and 9VAC25-32-410.
5. Operation.
a. Only biosolids suitable for land application (Class A or B biosolids) shall be placed into permitted routine storage facilities.
b. Storage of biosolids located offsite or remote from the wastewater treatment works during the summer months shall be avoided whenever possible so that the routine storage facility remains as empty as possible during the summer months.
c. Storage facilities shall be operated in a manner such that sufficient freeboard is provided to ensure that the maximum anticipated high water elevation due to any and all design storm inputs is not less than one foot below the top berm elevation.
d. Complete plans for supernatant disposal shall be provided in accordance with 9VAC25-32-60 F. Plans for supernatant disposal may include transport to the sewage treatment works, mixing with the biosolids for land application, or land application separately. However, separate land application of supernatant will be regulated as liquid biosolids; additional testing, monitoring, and treatment (disinfection) may be required.
e. The facility site shall be fenced to a minimum height of five feet; gates and locks shall be provided to control access. The fence shall be posted with signs identifying the facility. The fence shall not be constructed closer than 10 feet to the outside edge of the facility or appurtenances, to allow adequate accessibility.
f. If malodors related to the stored biosolids are verified by the department at any occupied dwelling on surrounding property, the malodor must be corrected within 48 hours.
6. Closure. An appropriate plan of closure or abandonment shall be developed by the permittee when the facility ceases to be utilized and approved by the department. Such plans may also be reviewed by the Virginia Department of Health.
7. Recordkeeping. A manifest system shall be developed, implemented, and maintained and be available for inspection during operations as part of the overall daily recordkeeping for the project (9VAC25-32-60 F).
F. Emergency storage. Emergency storage is the short-term storage of biosolids at a location identified in an emergency management plan that has been approved by the department. Emergency storage sites may be added to an emergency management plan at any point during the permit term. Emergency storage sites may only be utilized after an emergency management plan has been initiated following the procedures in 9VAC25-32-410. Requirements for emergency storage include the following:
1. The permit holder shall notify or cause to be notified the locality in which the emergency storage site is located when the request to add the site to an emergency management plan is approved;
2. Prior to delivering biosolids to an emergency storage site, the permit holder shall obtain the written permission of the landowner authorizing placement of biosolids at the emergency storage site. The written permission shall include a legible map or tax parcel identification number specifying the location of the emergency storage site;
3. Not more than 24 hours prior to delivery of biosolids to an emergency storage site, the permit holder shall notify in writing the department and the chief executive officer or designee of the local government where the site is located. This notification shall include the site location and the source or sources of biosolids stored;
4. A certified land applier shall be present at the emergency storage site when biosolids are delivered. The certified land applier shall maintain documentation of the amount of each source of biosolids delivered and removed daily;
5. An emergency storage site shall include a surface with sufficient strength to support operational equipment;
6. If malodors related to the stored biosolids are verified by the department at any occupied dwelling on surrounding property, the permit holder shall correct the problem within 48 hours. If the problem is not corrected within 48 hours, the permit holder must remove the biosolids from the storage site;
7. All biosolids stored at the emergency storage site shall be prioritized for removal prior to biosolids stored at onsite or routine storage facilities;
8. Best management practices shall be utilized as appropriate to prevent contact with storm water run on or runoff;
9. Stored biosolids are to be inspected by the certified land applier at least every seven days and after precipitation events of 0.1 inches or greater to ensure that runoff controls are in good working order. Observed excessive slumping, erosion, or movement of biosolids is to be corrected within 24 hours. Any ponding or malodor at the storage site is to be corrected. The certified land applier shall maintain documentation of inspections of stored biosolids;
10. The department may prohibit or require additional restrictions, for emergency storage in areas, including karst topography and environmentally sensitive sites;
11. Storage of biosolids shall be managed so as to prevent adverse impacts to water quality or public health;
12. The certified land applier shall maintain documentation of any conditions or activities at the emergency storage site that are not in accordance with the approved emergency management plan; and
13. Upon presentation of credentials, any duly authorized agent of the department may, at reasonable times and under reasonable circumstances during the active phase of an emergency management plan, enter upon the property, public or private, where an emergency storage site is located, for the purpose of inspecting the emergency storage site for compliance with the conditions specified in this subsection.
VA.R. Doc. No. R25-8036; Filed October 30, 2025
TITLE 12. HEALTH
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH
Fast-Track
TITLE 12. HEALTH
STATE BOARD OF HEALTH
Fast-Track Regulation
Title of Regulation: 12VAC5-221. Regulations Governing Cooperative Agreements (amending 12VAC5-221-10, 12VAC5-221-30, 12VAC5-221-50 through 12VAC5-221-150; adding 12VAC5-221-65, 12VAC5-221-95, 12VAC5-221-115; repealing 12VAC5-221-20, 12VAC5-221-40).
Statutory Authority: §§ 15.2-5384.1 and 32.1-12 of the Code of Virginia.
Public Hearing Information: No public hearing is currently scheduled.
Public Comment Deadline: December 31, 2025.
Effective Date: January 15, 2026.
Agency Contact: Val Hornsby, Policy Analyst, Virginia Department of Health, 9960 Mayland Drive, Henrico, VA 23233, telephone (804) 875-1089, or email val.hornsby@vdh.virginia.gov.
Basis: Section 32.1-12 of the Code of Virginia authorizes the State Board of Health to make, adopt, promulgate, and enforce regulations necessary to carry out the provisions of Title 32.1 of the Code of Virginia. Section 15.2-5384.1 of the Code of Virginia sets forth the requirements governing the review and monitoring of cooperative agreements by the State Health Commissioner (commissioner).
Purpose: This action is necessary for the protection of public health, safety, and welfare because the regulation governs various types of arrangements among hospitals and health systems, including mergers and acquisitions, that otherwise might be anti-competitive within the meaning and intent of state and federal anti-trust laws.
Rationale for Using Fast-Track Rulemaking Process: This action is expected to be noncontroversial and therefore appropriate for the fast-track rulemaking process because the amendments are largely nondiscretionary, and the discretionary changes are intended to improve the organization and readability of the chapter.
Substance: The amendments (i) update definitions; (ii) repeal obsolete or unauthorized provisions and nonregulatory language; (iii) consolidate sections; (iv) clarify the application review mechanism for the commissioner; (v) allow the commissioner to hold a public hearing; (vi) extend to 30 days the allotted time for a member of the public to submit public comment regarding an application for an authorization letter; (vii) add a seven-day notice requirement on the commissioner prior to contracting with experts or consultants; (viii) add an allotted seven days for the parties to offer possible alternatives to the commissioner regarding the experts or consultants; (ix) allow the commissioner to designate the department to request and receive supplemental information; (x) remove the list of elements the commissioner is required to request, except the plan of separation; (xi) allow the commissioner to designate a representative from the department to request and receive additional information from the applicants; (xii) require the commissioner to notify applicants, within 45 days, whether the additional information satisfies the commissioner's request; (xiii) require the plan of separation be submitted if any updates are made by the parties; (xiv) authorize the commissioner to designate the department to conduct onsite inspections; and (xv) require parties to submit notice of voluntary termination of a cooperative agreement and to return the cooperative agreement to the commissioner instead of the department.
Issues: The primary advantage to the public is that the regulation will be more easily understood and clear. There are no disadvantages to the public. The primary advantages to the agency are that the regulation will be more easily understood and clear and that the changes will allow for more streamlined processes relating to this regulation. The primary disadvantage of the regulatory changes is that the Virginia Department of Health will experience a temporary reduction in fee revenue due to the removal of the $20,000 annual filing fee.
Department of Planning and Budget Economic Impact Analysis:
The Department of Planning and Budget (DPB) has analyzed the economic impact of this proposed regulation in accordance with § 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia and Executive Order 19. The analysis presented represents DPB's best estimate of the potential economic impacts as of the date of this analysis.1
Summary of the Proposed Amendments to Regulation. As a result of a 2023 periodic review,2 the State Board of Health (board) proposes to make a number of changes that would remove redundant or unnecessary requirements, add a requirement that aims to increase the benefits of cooperative agreements, adjust or specify certain timeframes, and update and clarify the regulatory text.
Background. Hospital mergers that consolidate market power in the hands of a single provider are liable to be blocked by the federal government for violating federal antitrust law. However, such mergers may be unavoidable in sparsely populated and underserved areas, because at least theoretically, only a monopoly could achieve the economies of scale necessary for financial sustainability. Thus, cooperative agreements (also called Certificate of Public Advantage, or COPA, in some states) are intended to insulate the resulting (merged) entity from federal and state antitrust enforcement. Importantly, cooperative agreements are legally predicated on strong regulatory oversight by the state to ensure that the resulting monopoly does not engage in conduct that antitrust enforcement would otherwise prevent because it hurts consumers. Section 15.2-5384.1 of the Code of Virginia, enacted by Chapter 741 of the 2015 Acts of Assembly, permits cooperative agreements that are deemed beneficial to citizens served by the Southwest Virginia Health Authority (authority). Only one cooperative agreement has been proposed and approved since then. That agreement began in 2017 when the State Health Commissioner (commissioner) approved a cooperative agreement between Mountain States Health Alliance and Wellmont Health System that resulted in the formation of Ballad Health, which also operates under a COPA in Tennessee. Section 15.2-5384.1 G of the Code of Virginia requires the parties to a cooperative agreement (currently only Ballad) to report annually to the commissioner on the extent of the benefits realized and compliance with other terms and conditions of the approval. The commissioner issues an annual written decision as to whether the cooperative agreement may continue based on whether the benefits of the cooperative agreement continue to outweigh the disadvantages associated with reduced competition.3 This regulation was promulgated in 2017, as required by Chapter 741, and subsequently amended to implement changes required by Chapter 371 of the 2018 Acts of Assembly. The proposed changes implement the results of a 2023 periodic review, and would almost entirely revise the regulation for clarity, while retaining much of its original content. The most substantive changes are summarized.
12VAC5-221-110 E currently requires parties to the agreement to pay the Virginia Department of Health (VDH) an annual fee of $20,000 and pay any additional actual cost incurred in preparing the annual report up to $75,000. This $75,000 limit was specified by Chapter 741 (2015 Acts) but subsequently repealed by Chapter 371 (2018 Acts), which inserted specific requirements and conditions in § 15.2-5384.1 J through M of the Code of Virginia that allow VDH to be reimbursed the entire actual cost of supervision, including the cost of retaining experts and consultants. Accordingly, the proposed changes would remove the annual $20,000 filing fee and replace it with requirements that (i) the commissioner request reimbursement of actual supervision costs within 30 days of the close of each quarter and (ii) the parties submit payment to VDH within 30 days of receiving the request. Proposed amendments in this section would also require the commissioner to provide seven days' notice to the parties prior to contracting with experts or consultants describing the scope of work and anticipated costs. During this time, the parties would be allowed to provide the commissioner with possible alternatives to the use of those experts or consultants.
12VAC5-221-65 covers the reimbursement process for initial applicants, would include the same language regarding the reimbursement of actual costs and the contracting with experts.
12VAC5-221-60 is amended to extend the public comment period for cooperative agreement applications from 14 to 30 days.
12VAC5-221-70 is amended to (i) remove everything except a plan of separation from the list of subjects on which the commissioner must request additional information, unless it is present in the initial application, and (ii) add that the commissioner may designate VDH to request and receive supplemental information from applicants. (In this regulation, a plan of separation is always accompanied by an independent opinion from a qualified organization verifying the [plan] can be operationally implemented without undue disruption to essential health services provided by the parties.
12VAC5-221-95 contains the conditions that the commissioner may optionally attach to the approval of a cooperative agreement. These conditions are currently in 12VAC5-221-90 and serve to restrict conduct that would be considered an exercise of monopoly power that harms consumers. An additional condition would be added to this list, requiring a commitment to reduce the total cost of care and improve the quality of care in the region served by the new entity. VDH reports that this is a new condition that may be attached to the initial approval of a cooperative agreement at the discretion of the commissioner and subject to acceptance by the applicants. Because Ballard Health already has an approved cooperative agreement, this change would not affect that agreement. This condition would address another critical aspect of limiting the cooperative agreement so that the benefits outweigh the disadvantages of decreased competition.
12VAC5-221-100 is amended to specify that upon receipt of any additional information, the Commissioner shall notify the parties within 45 days as to whether the additional information satisfies the request. This section would also specify that parties shall report updates to their plan of separation within 30 days of that update. This requirement would replace the current requirement in 12VAC5-221-110 that requires the plan of separation to be submitted annually. Lastly, other changes would reorganize sections in the regulation, update the text to align with the style manual, add cross-references to relevant Code of Virginia sections, and clarify existing requirements.
Estimated Benefits and Costs. The proposed amendments would largely serve to reduce the burden on parties to cooperative agreements, which currently only includes Ballad Health: (i) the list of required documents for applications would be significantly reduced, (ii) parties would be informed of any further information requests within 45 days of submitting additional information requested by VDH, (iii) parties would have seven days' notice if the Commissioner contracts any experts or consultants, including the scope of work and anticipated costs (which parties are required to reimburse) and an allotted seven days to provide possible alternatives, if they choose to, (iv) parties would only have to re-submit a plan of separation if they make changes to it, and (v) parties would not have to pay an upfront $20,000 annual fee, but would instead continue to reimburse actual costs on a quarterly basis. The regulation is intended to protect consumers in south-western Virginia, specifically the region under the purview of the Authority, which is described in more detail below. Allowing for a longer public comment period for new applications and adding a commitment to reduce the total cost of care and improve the quality of care in the region served by the new entity, to the list of conditions that the Commissioner may attach to the approval of a cooperative agreement could also increase the potential benefits of cooperative agreements for patients/consumers relative to the disadvantages arising from the lack of competition.
Businesses and Other Entities Affected. There is only one entity in Virginia that is party to a cooperative agreement, Ballad Health. The Code of Virginia requires DPB to assess whether an adverse impact may result from the proposed regulation.4 An adverse impact is indicated if there is any increase in net cost or reduction in net benefit for any entity, even if the benefits exceed the costs for all entities combined.5 Since the proposed changes would not require any changes to be made by Ballad Health, and are this not expected to create new costs, no adverse impact is indicated.
Small Businesses6 Affected.7 VDH reports that Ballad does not meet the definition for small businesses. It is extremely unlikely that any new applicants for a cooperative agreement would meet the definition for small businesses either. Thus, the proposed amendments do not adversely affect small businesses.
Localities8 Affected.9 The Southwest Virginia Health Authority serves the citizens of LENOWISCO (Lee County, Scott County, Wise County, and the City of Norton), the Cumberland Plateau Planning District Commission (Buchanan County, Dickenson County, Russell County, and Tazewell County), Smyth County, Washington County, and the City of Bristol. Thus, these localities would be particularly affected to the extent that the proposed changes lead to any changes in service provision by Ballad. The proposed amendments do not affect costs for local governments.
Projected Impact on Employment. The proposed amendments do not affect total employment.
Effects on the Use and Value of Private Property. The proposed amendments affect neither the use and value of private property nor real estate development costs.
_____________________________
1 Section 2.2-4007.04 of the Code of Virginia requires that such economic impact analyses determine the public benefits and costs of the proposed amendments. Further the analysis should include but not be limited to: (1) the projected number of businesses or other entities to whom the proposed regulatory action would apply, (2) the identity of any localities and types of businesses or other entities particularly affected, (3) the projected number of persons and employment positions to be affected, (4) the projected costs to affected businesses or entities to implement or comply with the regulation, and (5) the impact on the use and value of private property.
2 See https://townhall.virginia.gov/L/ViewPReview.cfm?PRid=2349.
3 See https://www.vdh.virginia.gov/content/uploads/sites/96/2025/04/Virginia-Annual-Decision-Regarding-the-Ballad-Health-Cooperative-Agreement.2023.pdf.
4 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04 D: In the event this economic impact analysis reveals that the proposed regulation would have an adverse economic impact on businesses or would impose a significant adverse economic impact on a locality, business, or entity particularly affected, the Department of Planning and Budget shall advise the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules, the House Committee on Appropriations, and the Senate Committee on Finance. Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation.
5 Statute does not define "adverse impact," state whether only Virginia entities should be considered, nor indicate whether an adverse impact results from regulatory requirements mandated by legislation. As a result, DPB has adopted a definition of adverse impact that assesses changes in net costs and benefits for each affected Virginia entity that directly results from discretionary changes to the regulation.
6 Pursuant to § 2.2-4007.04, small business is defined as "a business entity, including its affiliates, that (i) is independently owned and operated and (ii) employs fewer than 500 full-time employees or has gross annual sales of less than $6 million."
7 If the proposed regulatory action may have an adverse effect on small businesses, § 2.2-4007.04 requires that such economic impact analyses include: (1) an identification and estimate of the number of small businesses subject to the proposed regulation, (2) the projected reporting, recordkeeping, and other administrative costs required for small businesses to comply with the proposed regulation, including the type of professional skills necessary for preparing required reports and other documents, (3) a statement of the probable effect of the proposed regulation on affected small businesses, and (4) a description of any less intrusive or less costly alternative methods of achieving the purpose of the proposed regulation. Additionally, pursuant to § 2.2-4007.1 of the Code of Virginia, if there is a finding that a proposed regulation may have an adverse impact on small business, the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules shall be notified.
8 "Locality" can refer to either local governments or the locations in the Commonwealth where the activities relevant to the regulatory change are most likely to occur.
9 Section 2.2-4007.04 defines "particularly affected" as bearing disproportionate material impact.
Agency Response to Economic Impact Analysis: The State Board of Health concurs with the economic impact analysis prepared by the Department of Planning and Budget.
Summary:
As a result of periodic review, the action clarifies and reduces regulatory requirements governing cooperative agreements among hospitals. Specifically, the amendments repeal obsolete provisions, consolidate sections, and clarify (i) reimbursement requirements, (ii) conditioning requirements, (iii) the requirement for onsite inspections, and (iv) reporting requirements to the State Health Commissioner.
Part I
Definitions
12VAC5-221-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Applicant" means a party to a proposed cooperative agreement who that submits an application to the authority pursuant to § 15.2-5384.1 of the Code of Virginia.
"Application" means the written materials submitted by applicants to the authority and the department in accordance with § 15.2-5384.1 of the Code of Virginia.
"Attorney General" means the Attorney General for the Commonwealth of Virginia.
"Authority" means the political subdivision organized and operated pursuant to Chapter 53.1 (§ 15.2-5368 et seq.) of Title 15.2 of the Code of Virginia, or if such authority is abolished, the board, body, authority, department, or officer succeeding to the principal functions thereof or to whom the powers given by Chapter 53.1 of Title 15.2 of the Code of Virginia are given by law has the same meaning as ascribed to the term in § 15.2-5369 of the Code of Virginia.
"Commissioner" means the State Health Commissioner or the State Health Commissioner's designee as may be designated in this chapter.
"Cooperative agreement" means an agreement among two or more hospitals for the sharing, allocation, consolidation by merger or other combination of assets, or referral of patients, personnel, instructional programs, support services, and facilities or medical, diagnostic, or laboratory facilities or procedures or other services traditionally offered by hospitals has the same meaning as ascribed to the term in § 15.2-5369 of the Code of Virginia.
"Day" or "days" means calendar days day.
"Department" means the Virginia Department of Health.
"Hospital" includes any health center and health provider under common ownership with the hospital and means any and all providers of dental, medical, and mental health services, including all related facilities and approaches thereto and appurtenances thereof. Dental, medical, and mental health facilities includes any and all facilities suitable for providing hospital, dental, medical, and mental health care, including any and all structures, buildings, improvements, additions, extensions, replacements, appurtenances, lands, rights in lands, franchises, machinery, equipment, furnishing, landscaping, approaches, roadways, and other facilities necessary or desirable in connection therewith or incidental thereto (including hospitals; nursing homes; assisted living facilities; continuing care facilities; self-care facilities; mental health facilities; wellness and health maintenance centers; medical office facilities; clinics; outpatient surgical centers; alcohol, substance abuse, and drug treatment centers; dental care clinics; laboratories; research facilities; sanitariums; hospices; facilities for the residence or care of the elderly, the handicapped, or the chronically ill; residential facilities for nurses, interns, and physicians; and any other kind of facility for the diagnosis, treatment, rehabilitation, prevention, or palliation of any human illness, injury, disorder, or disability) together with all related and supporting facilities and equipment necessary and desirable in connection therewith or incidental thereto, or equipment alone, including kitchen, laundry, laboratory, wellness, pharmaceutical, administrative, communications, computer and recreational facilities and equipment, storage space, mobile medical facilities, vehicles, and other equipment necessary or desirable for the transportation of medical equipment or the transportation of patients. Dental, medical, and mental health facilities also includes facilities for graduate-level instruction in medicine or dentistry and clinics appurtenant thereto offering free or reduced rate dental, medical, or mental health services to the public has the same meaning as ascribed to the term in § 15.2-5369 of the Code of Virginia.
"Letter and order authorizing cooperative agreement" or "authorization letter" means a document that is issued by the commissioner approving a cooperative agreement.
"Measure" means some number of factors or benchmarks, which may be binary, a range, or continuous factors.
"Participating locality" means any county or city in the LENOWISCO or Cumberland Plateau Planning District Commissions and the Counties of Smyth and Washington and the City of Bristol with respect to which an authority may be organized and in which it is contemplated that the authority will function has the same meaning as ascribed to the term in § 15.2-5369 of the Code of Virginia.
"Party" means a hospital entering into a cooperative agreement.
"Plan of separation" means the a written proposal submitted with an application to return the parties to a preconsolidation state, which includes a plan for separation of any combined assets, offering, provision, operation, planning, funding, pricing, contracting, utilization review, or management of health services or any combined sharing, allocation, or referral of patients, personnel, employee benefits, instructional programs, support services, and facilities or medical, diagnostic, or laboratory facilities or procedures or other services traditionally offered by hospitals, including any parent or subsidiary at the time the consolidation occurs or thereafter.
"Primary service area" or "PSA" means the geographic area from which a hospital draws 75% of its patients as measured by the residential zip code of each patient.
"Secondary service area" or "SSA" means the geographic area from which a hospital draws an additional 15% of its patients, as measured by the residential zip code of each patient.
"TAP" means the technical advisory panel.
12VAC5-221-20. Separate applications. (Repealed.)
A party shall submit an application for a letter authorizing cooperative agreement for each cooperative agreement the party is applying to enter into. This provision applies even in the event that the parties have an existing letter authorizing cooperative agreement issued by the commissioner. An amendment to a cooperative agreement shall require submission of a new application.
Part II
Application
12VAC5-221-30. Application submission.
A. Parties within any For each cooperative agreement that the parties within a participating locality may intend to enter, the parties shall submit an application for a requesting an authorization letter authorizing cooperative agreement to the authority. Information regarding the requirements of an application for a This provision shall apply even in the event that the parties have an existing authorization letter authorizing cooperative agreement submitted to the authority should be obtained through issued by the authority commissioner.
B. At the time of submission to the authority, The parties shall submit a copy of the application and any additional requested information simultaneously submit a copy of the application to the commissioner and the Attorney General. C. If the authority requires the applicant to submit additional information before determining that the application is complete, the parties shall simultaneously submit a copy of the additional information to: (i) the authority, (ii) the commissioner, and (iii) the Attorney General.
D. C. If the applicants believe the materials submitted contain proprietary information that is required to remain confidential, such information must be clearly identified and the applicants shall submit duplicate applications, one with full information for the commissioner's use and one redacted application available for release to the public. Proprietary information that is clearly identified by the applicants will be kept confidential by the department pursuant to subdivision 3 of § 2.2-3705.6 of the Code of Virginia. the applicants shall:
1. Clearly identify the information; and
2. Submit duplicate applications, one with full information for the commissioner's use and one redacted application available for release to the public.
D. The commissioner and the department shall keep proprietary information that is clearly identified by the applicants confidential pursuant to subdivision 3 of § 2.2-3705.6 of the Code of Virginia.
E. Upon receipt of the authority's recommendation to approve an application for a cooperative agreement, the commissioner shall begin review.
12VAC5-221-40. Fee schedule. (Repealed.)
A. Fees shall be remitted only by certified check, cashier's check, bank money order, or other methods approved by the department. Fees shall be made payable to the department.
B. The application fee shall be $50,000 and shall be due to the department upon its receipt of a recommendation for approval from the authority.
C. If the commissioner should determine after review of the application that the actual cost incurred by the department is less than $50,000, the applicant shall be reimbursed the amount that is greater than the actual cost. If the commissioner should determine that the actual cost incurred by the department is greater than $50,000, the applicant shall pay any additional amounts due as instructed by the department.
D. The commissioner shall be reimbursed from applicants seeking approval of a cooperative agreement for all reasonable and actual costs incurred by the commissioner in the commissioner's review of the application, including costs of experts and consultants retained by the commissioner. The commissioner shall incur only those costs necessary to adequately review the application as determined in the commissioner's sole discretion. The commissioner shall maintain detailed records of all costs incurred for which reimbursement is sought.
E. The commissioner shall determine the activities needed to actively supervise an approved cooperative agreement and may incur only those expenses necessary for such supervision as determined in the commissioner's sole discretion. The commissioner shall be entitled to reimbursement from the parties for all reasonable and actual costs incurred by the commissioner in the supervision of an approved cooperative agreement, including costs of experts and consultants retained by the commissioner. Prior to contracting with experts or consultants, the commissioner shall provide reasonable notice to the parties describing the proposed scope of work and anticipated costs of such experts and consultants. The parties shall be given a reasonable time period to provide to the commissioner possible alternatives to the use of such experts and consultants. The commissioner shall consider information submitted by the parties in determining whether to retain an expert or consultant.
F. The commissioner shall maintain detailed records of all costs incurred for which the commissioner seeks reimbursement from the parties. The commissioner shall provide the parties a written quarterly report detailing all costs incurred by the commissioner related to the supervision of the cooperative agreement for which the commissioner seeks reimbursement. This report shall be provided to the parties within 30 days of the end of each quarter. Within 30 days of receipt of a request for reimbursement, the parties shall make payment to the department.
12VAC5-221-50. Public hearing.
A. The authority shall, in conjunction with the commissioner, schedule a public hearing for each completed application submitted. The hearing shall be held no later than 45 days after the receipt of a complete application by the authority.
B. The authority will publish and issue notice of the hearing in accordance with subsection C of § 15.2-5384.1 of the Code of Virginia.
C. A. In addition to the hearing held in accordance with § 15.2-5384.1 C of the Code of Virginia, the commissioner may hold a public hearing for each application submitted.
B. The public hearing shall be open to the public in accordance with the provisions of the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
D. The public hearing shall be recorded by the Virginia Department of Health.
12VAC5-221-60. Public Submission of public comment to the commissioner.
The A. A member of the public may submit written comments comment regarding the an application to the commissioner. To ensure consideration by the commissioner, written comments must be received no later than 14 days after the authority adopts its recommendation on the application.
B. The commissioner may not consider written comment from a member of the public submitted more than 30 days after the authority's recommendation has been made on an application.
12VAC5-221-65. Reimbursement.
A. For each application recommended for approval by the authority, a review deposit of $50,000 shall be paid by the applicants to the department.
B. The review deposit shall be:
1. Remitted only by certified check, cashier's check, bank money order, or other methods approved by the commissioner;
2. Made payable to the department; and
3. Due to the department upon the commissioner's receipt of a recommendation for approval from the authority.
C. If the commissioner determines, after review of the application, that the actual cost incurred by the department is less than $50,000, the department shall reimburse the applicant the amount that is greater than the actual cost.
D. If the commissioner determines that the actual cost incurred by the department is greater than $50,000, the applicant shall pay any additional amount to be:
1. Remitted only by certified check, cashier's check, bank money order, or other methods approved by the commissioner;
2. Made payable to the department; and
3. Due to the department 30 days after receipt of a request for payment from the commissioner.
E. The commissioner shall:
1. Incur only those costs necessary to adequately review the application as determined in the commissioner's sole discretion; and
2. Maintain detailed records of all costs incurred for which reimbursement is sought.
F. An applicant seeking approval of a cooperative agreement shall reimburse the commissioner for all reasonable and actual costs incurred by the commissioner in the commissioner's review of the application, including costs of experts and consultants retained by the commissioner.
G. The applicants shall make payment to the department within 30 days of receipt of a request for reimbursement.
H. Prior to contracting with experts or consultants, the commissioner shall provide a seven-day notice to the applicants describing the proposed scope of work and anticipated costs of those experts and consultants.
I. The applicants shall have seven days from the date of receipt of the commissioner's notice pursuant to subsection H of this section to provide to the commissioner possible alternatives to the use of those experts and consultants.
J. The commissioner shall consider information submitted by the applicants in determining whether to retain an expert or consultant.
K. All reimbursement requests by the commissioner shall be subject to the provisions of § 2.2-4805 of the Code of Virginia.
12VAC5-221-70. Commissioner's request for information.
A. Upon receipt of the authority's recommendation for approval, the commissioner and department may request supplemental information from the applicants.
B. To the extent the information is not present within the application, the commissioner shall request the following information: 1. A report or reports used for public information and education about the proposed cooperative agreement prior to the parties' submission of the application. The applicants shall document the efforts used to disseminate the report or reports. The report or reports shall include: a. A description of the proposed primary service area (PSA) and secondary service areas (SSA) and the services and facilities to be included in the cooperative agreement; b. A description of how health services will change if the letter authorizing cooperative agreement is issued; c. A description of improvements in patient access to health care including prevention services for all categories of payers and advantages patients will experience across the entire service area regarding costs, availability, and accessibility upon implementation of the cooperative agreement or findings from studies conducted by hospitals and other external entities, including health economists, and clinical services and population health experts, that describe how implementation of the proposed cooperative agreement will be effective with respect to resource allocation implications; efficient with respect to fostering cost containment, including eliminating duplicative services; and equitable with respect to maintaining quality and competition in health services within the service area and assuring patient access to and choice of insurers and providers within the health care system; d. A description of any plans by the parties regarding existing or planned facilities that will impact access for patients to the services currently offered by the parties at their respective facilities, including expansions, closures, reductions in capacity, consolidation, and reduction or elimination of any services; e. A description of the findings from community or population health assessments for the service areas regarding major health issues, trends, and health disparities, including comparisons to measures for the state and similar regional areas, and a description of how the health of the population will change if the letter authorizing cooperative agreement is issued; and f. A description of the impact on the health professions workforce, including long-term employment, wage levels, retirement, benefits, recruitment, and retention of health professionals. 2. A record of community stakeholder and consumer views of the proposed cooperative agreement collected through a public participatory process including meetings and correspondence. Transcripts or minutes of any meetings held during the public participatory process shall be included in the report. 3. A summary of the nature of the proposed cooperative agreement between the parties. 4. A signed copy of the cooperative agreement and a copy of the following: a. A description of any consideration passing to any party, individual, or entity under the cooperative agreement, including the amount, nature, source, and recipient; b. A detailed description of any merger, lease, operating or management contract, change of control or other acquisition or change, direct or indirect, in ownership of any party or of the assets of any party to the cooperative agreement; c. A list of all services and products and of all hospitals and other service locations that are a subject of the cooperative agreement, including those not located or provided within the boundaries of the Commonwealth of Virginia, and including hospitals or other inpatient facilities, insurance products, physician practices, pharmacies, accountable care organizations, psychiatric facilities, nursing homes, physical therapy and rehabilitation units, home care agencies, wellness centers or services, surgical centers or services, dialysis centers or services, cancer centers or services, imaging centers or services, support services, and any other product, facility, or service; and d. A description of each party's contribution of capital, equipment, labor, services, or other contribution of value to the transaction. 5. A detailed description of the current and proposed PSA and SSA for the parties, including the PSA and SSA of each party's hospitals, not limited to the boundaries of the Commonwealth of Virginia. If the proposed PSA and SSA differ from the service areas where the parties have conducted business over the five years preceding the application, a description of how and why the proposed PSA or SSA differs and why changes are proposed. 6. A description of the prior history of dealings between the parties for the last five years, including their relationship as competitors and any prior joint ventures, affiliations, or other collaborative agreements between the parties. 7. Documents sufficient to show the financial performance of each party to the transaction for each of the preceding five fiscal years, including tax returns, debt, bond rating, and debt service; and copies of offering materials, subsequent filings such as continuing disclosure agreements and material event disclosures, and financial statements prepared by external certified public accountants, including management reports. 8. A copy of the current annual budget and budgets for the last five years for each party to the cooperative agreement. The budgets shall be in sufficient detail so as to determine the fiscal impact of the cooperative agreement on each party. The budgets shall be prepared in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles and all assumptions used shall be documented. 9. Projected budgets, including projected costs, revenues, profit margins, and operating ratios, of each party for each year for a period of five years after a letter authorizing cooperative agreement is issued. The budgets shall be prepared in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles and all assumptions used shall be documented. 10. A detailed explanation of the projected effects, including expected change in volume, price, and revenue as a result of the cooperative agreement, including: a. Identification of all insurance contracts and payer agreements in place at the time of the application and a description of pending or anticipated changes that would require or enable the parties to amend their current insurance and payer agreements; b. A description of how pricing for provider insurance contracts are calculated and the financial advantages accruing to insurers, insured consumers, and the parties to the cooperative agreement if the letter authorizing cooperative agreement is issued, including changes in percentage of risk-bearing contracts; and c. Identification of existing and future business plans, reports, studies, or other documents of each party that: (1) Discuss each party's projected performance in the market, business strategies, capital investment plans, competitive analyses, and financial projections, including any documents prepared in anticipation of the cooperative agreement; and (2) Identify plans that will be altered, eliminated, or combined under the cooperative agreement. 11. A copy of the following policies under the proposed cooperative agreement: a. A policy that assures no restrictions to Medicare or Medicaid patients; b. Policies for free or reduced fee care for the uninsured and indigent; c. Policies for bad debt write-off; and d. Policies that require the parties to the cooperative agreement to maintain or exceed the existing level of charitable programs and services. 12. A description of the plan to systematically integrate health care and preventive health services among the parties to the cooperative agreement in the proposed geographic service area that addresses the following: a. A streamlined management structure, including a description of a single board of directors, centralized leadership, and operating structure; b. Alignment of the care delivery decisions of the system with the interests of the community; c. Clinical standardization; d. Alignment of the cultural identities of the parties to the cooperative agreement; e. Any planned expansions, closures, reductions in capacity, consolidation, and reduction or elimination of any services; f. Any plan for integration regarding health professions workforce development and the recruitment and retention of health professionals; and g. Any plan for implementation of innovative or value-based payment models. 13. A description of the plan, including economic metrics, that details anticipated efficiencies in operating costs and shared services that can be gained only through the cooperative agreement, including: a. Proposed use of any cost saving to reduce prices borne by insurers and consumers; b. Proposed use of cost savings to fund low-cost or no-cost services designed to achieve long-term population health improvements; and c. Other proposed uses of savings to benefit advancement of health and quality of care and outcomes. 14. A description of the market and the competitive dynamics for health care services in the parties' respective service areas, including at a minimum: a. The identity of any nonparty hospital located in the PSA and SSA and any nonparty hospital outside of the PSA and SSA that also serves patients in the parties' PSA and SSA; b. Estimates of the share of hospital services furnished by each of the parties and any nonparty hospitals; c. Identification of whether any services or products of the proposed cooperative agreement are currently being offered or capable of being offered by any nonparty hospitals in the PSA and SSA and a description of how the proposed cooperative agreement will not exclude such nonparty hospitals from continued competitive and independent operation in the PSA and SSA; d. A listing of the physicians employed by or under contract with each of the parties' hospitals in the PSA and SSA, including their specialties and office locations; e. The identity of any potential entrants in the parties' PSA and SSA and the basis for any belief that such entry is likely within the two calendar years immediately following the date of the letter authorizing cooperative agreement is issued by the department; and f. A list of each party's top 10 commercial insurance payers by revenue within the PSA and SSA. 15. A detailed description of each of the benefits that the parties propose will be achieved through the cooperative agreement. For each benefit include: a. A description specifically describing how the parties intend to achieve the benefit; b. A description of what the parties have done in the past with respect to achieving or attempting to achieve the benefits independently or through collaboration and how this may change if the cooperative agreement is granted; c. An explanation of why the benefit can only be achieved through a cooperative agreement and not through other less restrictive arrangements; and d. A description of how the parties propose that the commissioner measure and monitor achievement of the proposed benefit, including: (1) Proposed measures and suggested baseline values with rationale for each measure to be considered by the commissioner in developing a plan to monitor achievement of the benefit; (2) The current and projected levels and the trajectory for each measure that would be achieved over the next five years under the cooperative agreement; (3) The projected levels for each measure in five years in the absence of the cooperative agreement; and (4) A plan for how the requisite data for assessing the benefit will be obtained. 16. A description of any potential adverse impact of the proposed cooperative agreement on (i) population health or (ii) quality, availability, cost, or price of health care services to patients or payers. 17. A description of any commitments the parties are willing to make to address any potential adverse impacts resulting from the cooperative agreement. Each such commitment shall at a minimum include: a. The parties' proposed benchmarks and metrics to measure achievement of the proposed commitments; b. The parties' proposed plan to obtain and analyze data to evaluate the extent to which the commitments have been met, including how data shall be obtained from entities other than the parties; and c. The parties' proposed consequences if they do not meet a commitment. 18. A a plan of separation. The parties shall provide with an independent opinion from a qualified organization verifying the plan of separation can be operationally implemented without undue disruption to essential health services provided by the parties.
19. A statement regarding the requirements for any certificate or certificates of public need resulting from the cooperative agreement.
20. A detailed description of the total cost to the parties resulting from the application for the cooperative agreement. Cost estimates should include costs for consultant, legal, and professional services; capital costs; financing costs; and management costs. The description should identify costs associated with the implementation of the cooperative agreement, including documentation of the availability of necessary funds. The description should identify which costs will be borne by each party.
21. An explanation of the reasons for the exclusion of any information set forth in this section. If the parties exclude an item because it is not applicable to the proposed cooperative agreement, an explanation of why the item is not applicable shall be provided.
22. A timetable for implementing all components of the proposed cooperative agreement and contact information for the person or persons authorized to receive notices, reports, and communications with respect to the letter authorizing cooperative agreement.
23. Records, reports, and documentation to support the information submitted pursuant to this section, including any additional supplemental information requested by the commissioner.
C. The commissioner may designate the department to request and to receive supplemental information from the applicants.
D. All supplemental information submitted to the commissioner shall be accompanied by a verified statement signed by the chairperson of the board of directors and chief executive officer of each party;, or if one or more party is an individual, signed by the individual attesting to the accuracy and completeness of the enclosed information.
12VAC5-221-80. Commissioner's review.
A. The When reviewing an application, the commissioner shall consult with: (i) the Attorney General when reviewing an application and (ii) all other affected agencies of the Commonwealth.
B. The When reviewing an application, the commissioner may (i) consult with the Federal Trade Commission when reviewing an application.
C. The commissioner may and (ii) consult and coordinate with other affected jurisdictions when reviewing an application.
D. The commissioner shall consult with all other affected agencies of the Commonwealth when reviewing an application.
E. The C. During review of an application, the commissioner in his review shall examine (i) the record developed by the authority, (ii) the authority's recommendation for approval, and (iii) any additional information received from the parties. In addition, the commissioner may consider, and (iv) any other data, and information, or advice available to him.
F. D. The commissioner shall may not render a decision on the an application until all requested supplemental information requested has been is received.
G. E. The commissioner shall consider the following factors when conducting a review of an application: 1. Advantages. a. Enhancement of the quality of hospital and hospital-related care, including mental health services and treatment of substance abuse, provided to citizens served by the authority, resulting in improved patient satisfaction; b. Enhancement of population health status consistent with the regional health goals established by the authority; c. Preservation of hospital facilities in geographical proximity to the communities traditionally served by those facilities to ensure access to care; d. Gains in the cost-efficiency of services provided by the hospitals involved; e. Improvements in the utilization of hospital resources and equipment; f. Avoidance of duplication of hospital resources; g. Participation in the state Medicaid program; and h. Total cost of care. 2. Disadvantages. a. The extent of any likely adverse impact of the proposed cooperative agreement on the ability of health maintenance organizations, preferred provider organizations, managed health care organizations, or other health care payers to negotiate reasonable payment and service arrangements with hospitals, physicians, allied health care professionals, or other health care providers; b. The extent of any reduction in competition among physicians, allied health care professionals, other health care providers, or other persons furnishing goods or services to, or in competition with, hospitals that is likely to result directly or indirectly from the proposed cooperative agreement; c. The extent of any likely adverse impact on patients in the quality, availability, and price of health care services; and d. The availability of arrangements that are less restrictive to competition and achieve the same benefits or a more favorable balance of benefits over disadvantages attributable to any reduction in competition likely to result from the proposed cooperative agreement that the authority is required to consider pursuant to § 15.2-5384.1 E of the Code of Virginia when reviewing an application.
H. F. The commissioner shall approve the application if he finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the benefits likely to result from the proposed cooperative agreement outweigh the disadvantages likely to result from a reduction in competition from the proposed cooperative agreement.
I. In the selection and application of the measures for reviewing the proposed benefits of the cooperative agreement, as well as during the monitoring and active supervision of any approved cooperative agreement, the commissioner shall:
1. Draw from consensus health and health care metrics, such as those being developed pursuant to the Virginia state innovation model development initiative and state population health improvement plan, to ensure the validity and consistency of the measure;
2. Use historical actual experience in the region to establish baseline performance and evaluate progress over time;
3. Consider recommendations on the measures and goals from the technical advisory panel appointed pursuant to 12VAC5-221-120; and
4. Allow for flexibility, to the extent quantifiable goals or targets are specified, should environmental factors that are outside the control of the parties change significantly.
12VAC5-221-90. Action on an application.
A. The commissioner shall issue his a decision in writing within 45 days of receipt of the authority's recommendation. However, if the commissioner has requested supplemental information from the applicants, the commissioner shall have an additional 15 days, following receipt of the supplemental information, to issue a decision.
B. At the request of the applicants, the commissioner may delay issue of his the issuance of a decision to provide additional time to review the record.
C. The commissioner may condition approval of the letter authorizing cooperative agreement upon the applicants' commitment to achieving the improvements in population health, access to health care services, quality, and cost efficiencies identified by the applicants in support of their application. Such conditions may include:
1. A cap on the negotiated case-mix adjusted revenue per discharge by payer by product. The method for calculating such a case-mix shall be published on the Virginia Department of Health's Office of Licensure and Certification's website in a guidance document. The department may rely on third-party auditors to assist in determining the method for determining such caps, such caps' levels, and a plan for monitoring compliance;
2. A commitment to return a portion of the cost savings and efficiencies gained through the cooperative agreement to residents in the participating localities through specific proposed mechanisms;
3. An agreement that the parties shall not prevent or discourage health plans from directing or incentivizing patients to choose certain providers; the parties shall not have any contractual clauses or provisions that prevent health plans from directing or incentivizing patients;
4. An agreement that the parties shall not engage in the tying of sales of the health system's services with the health plan's purchase of other services from the health system;
5. An agreement that the parties shall not restrict a health plan's ability to make available to its health plan enrollees cost, quality, efficiency, and performance information to aid enrollees in evaluating and selecting providers in the health plan; and
6. A commitment that the parties shall not refuse to include certain provisions in contracts with health plans that have been utilized in health plan contracts in other parts of the Commonwealth in order to promote value-based health care, including bundled payments, pay for performance, utilization management, and other processes that reward improvements in quality and efficiency.
D. C. The commissioner's decision to approve or deny an application shall constitute a case decision pursuant to the Virginia Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
12VAC5-221-95. Conditions.
The commissioner may condition the approval of the authorization letter on the applicant's commitment to achieving improvements to population health, access to health care services, quality, and cost-effectiveness identified by the applicant in support of the application. The conditions may include:
1. A cap on the negotiated case-mix adjusted revenue per discharge by payer by product;
2. A commitment to return a portion of the cost savings and efficiencies gained through the cooperative agreement to residents in the participating localities through specific proposed mechanisms;
3. An agreement that the parties may not prevent or discourage health plans from directing or incentivizing patients to choose certain providers;
4. An agreement that the parties may not have any contractual clauses or provisions that prevent health plans from directing or incentivizing patients;
5. An agreement that the parties may not engage in the typing of sales of the health system's services with the health plan purchase of other services from the health system;
6. An agreement that the parties may not restrict a health plan's ability to make available to its health plan enrollees cost, quality, efficiency, and performance information to aid enrollees in evaluating and selecting providers in the health plan; and
7. A commitment that the parties may not refuse to include certain provisions in contracts with health plans that have been utilized in health plan contracts in other parts of the Commonwealth in order to promote value-based health care, including bundled payments, pay for performance, utilization management, and other processes that reward improvements in quality and efficiency.
8. A commitment to reduce the total cost of care and improve the quality of care in the region served by the new entity.
Part III
Monitoring
12VAC5-221-100. Ongoing and active supervision.
A. The commissioner shall maintain active and continuing supervision of the parties in accordance with the terms under this section and to ensure compliance with the cooperative agreement and the letter authorizing cooperative agreement.
B. Any party who receives a an authorization letter authorizing cooperative agreement shall submit any additional information that is requested by the department to establish benchmarks for ongoing monitoring and supervision. The department's request may include (i) information on patient satisfaction, (ii) information on employee satisfaction, (iii) a charge master, (iv) information reflecting the contracted rates negotiated with nonphysician providers, (v) information reflecting the noncontracted rates negotiated with allied health professionals, and (vi) information reflecting the noncontracted rates negotiated with other providers commissioner for ongoing monitoring and supervision. The commissioner may designate the department to request and to receive additional information from the parties.
C. In the selection of the measures for reviewing the proposed benefits of the cooperative agreement and during the monitoring and active supervision of any approved cooperative agreement, the commissioner shall:
1. Draw from consensus health and health care metrics, such as those being developed pursuant to the state health improvement plan to ensure validity and consistency of the measure;
2. Use historical, actual experience in the region to establish baseline performance and evaluate progress over time;
3. Consider recommendations on the measures and goals from the TAP appointed pursuant to 12VAC5-221-120; and
4. Allow for flexibility, to the extent quantifiable goals and targets are specified, should environmental factors that are outside the control of the parties change significantly.
D. The department commissioner shall establish benchmarks and quantitative measures that will be used to evaluate the proposed and continuing benefits of the cooperative agreement. 1. The quantitative measures shall include measures of the cognizable identifiable benefits from the cooperative agreement in at least the following categories:
a. 1. Population health;
b. 2. Access to health services;
c. 3. Economic;
d. 4. Patient safety;
e. 5. Patient satisfaction; and
f. Other cognizable benefits.
2. Each category may be comprised of measures for subcategories.
3. The technical advisory panel and the parties to the cooperative agreement may make recommendations for the creation and evaluation of quantitative measures, but the department shall have the exclusive authority to add, modify, accept, or reject recommendations when creating or interpreting the quantitative measures
6. Health outcomes.
E. The TAP and the parties of the cooperative agreement may make recommendations for the creation and evaluation of quantitative measures, but the commissioner shall have the exclusive authority to add, modify, accept, or reject recommendations when creating or interpreting the quantitative measures.
D. A department representative may make periodic unannounced onsite inspections of the parties' facilities as necessary. If the department finds, after inspection, noncompliance with any provision of this chapter, any applicable state regulations, or the elements of the cooperative agreement or the letter authorizing cooperative agreement, the commissioner shall begin enforcement procedures in accordance with 12VAC5-221-130.
E. The parties shall make available to the department representative requested records and shall allow access to interview the agents, employees, contractors, and any other person under control, direction, or supervision of the parties.
F. Complaints received by the department with regard to noncompliance with the cooperative agreement or the letter authorizing cooperative agreement shall be investigated. When the investigation is complete, the parties and the complainant, if known, shall be notified of the findings of the investigation.
F. Upon receipt of any requested additional information submitted pursuant to subsection B of this section, the commissioner shall notify the parties within 45 days regarding whether the additional information satisfies the commissioner's request.
G. The parties shall:
1. Report any update to the parties' plan of separation; and
2. Submit the updated plan of separation to the commissioner within 30 days of that update with an independent opinion from a qualified organization that states the plan of separation may be operationally implemented without undue disruption to essential health services provided by the parties.
H. The commissioner may (i) develop other mechanisms of monitoring the parties to determine compliance with the cooperative agreement and whether compliance continues to meet the requirements of § 15.2-5384.1 of the Code of Virginia. The commissioner may and (ii) modify the mechanisms of monitoring the parties upon notice to the parties.
12VAC5-221-110. Annual reporting.
A. The parties shall report annually to the commissioner on the extent of the benefits realized and compliance with any terms and conditions placed on their letter authorizing cooperative agreement. The report shall:
1. Describe the activities conducted pursuant to the cooperative agreement;
2. Include any actions taken in furtherance of commitments made by the parties or terms imposed by the commissioner as a condition for approval of the cooperative agreement;
3. Include information related to changes in price, cost, quality, access to care, and population health improvement;
4. Include actual costs, revenues, profit margins, and operating costs;
5. Include a charge master;
6. Include information reflecting the contracted rates negotiated with nonphysician providers, allied health professionals, and others;
7. Include any measures requested by the department based on the recommendations of the technical advisory panel appointed pursuant to 12VAC5-221-120; and
8. Include the current status of the quantitative measures established under subsection C of 12VAC5-221-100 and the information requested by the department for benchmarks established in subsection B of 12VAC5-221-100 D.
B. The parties shall be required to update the parties' plan of separation annually and submit the updated plan of separation to the department. The parties shall provide an independent opinion from a qualified organization that states the plan of separation may be operationally implemented without undue disruption to essential health services provided by the parties.
C. B. The commissioner may require the parties to supplement the annual report with additional information to the extent necessary to ensure compliance with the cooperative agreement and the letter authorizing cooperative agreement.
D. C. All annual reports submitted pursuant to this section shall be certified audited by a third-party auditor.
E. The fee due with the filing of the annual report shall be $20,000. If the commissioner should determine that the actual cost incurred by the department is greater than $20,000, the parties shall pay any additional amounts due as instructed by the department. The annual filing fee shall not exceed $75,000.
F. D. The parties shall reimburse the commissioner for all costs and expenses deemed necessary by the commissioner regarding the ongoing and active supervision of the cooperative agreement, including costs of experts and consultants retained by the commissioner.
E. The parties shall:
1. Remit payment only by certified check, cashier's check, bank money order, or other methods approved by the commissioner;
2. Make all payments payable to the department; and
3. Submit payment to the department 30 days after the receipt of a request for reimbursement from the commissioner.
F. The commissioner shall:
1. Maintain detailed records of all costs incurred for which reimbursement is sought;
2. Incur only those expenses necessary to actively supervise the cooperative agreement as determined in the commissioner's sole discretion; and
3. Provide the parties a written quarterly report detailing all costs incurred by the commissioner related to the supervision of the cooperative agreement for which the commissioner seeks reimbursement within 30 days of the end of each quarter.
G. Prior to contracting with experts or consultants, the commissioner shall provide a seven-day notice to the parties describing the proposed scope of work and anticipated costs of those experts and consultants.
H. The parties shall have seven days from the date of receipt of the commissioner's notice pursuant to subsection G of this section to provide to the commissioner possible alternatives to the use of those experts or consultants.
I. The commissioner shall consider information submitted by the parties in determining whether to retain an expert or consultant.
J. All reimbursement requests by the commissioner shall be subject to the provisions of § 2.2-4805 of the Code of Virginia.
K. The commissioner shall annually issue a written decision and the basis for the decision on an annual basis as to whether the benefits of the cooperative agreement continue to outweigh the disadvantages attributable to a reduction in competition that have resulted from the cooperative agreement.
12VAC5-221-115. Onsite inspection.
A. The commissioner may make periodic unannounced onsite inspections of the party's facilities as necessary.
B. The commissioner may designate the department to conduct onsite inspections or investigations of the party's facilities.
C. The party shall make available to the commissioner requested records and shall allow access to interview the agents, employees, contractors, and any other person under control, direction, or supervision of the party.
D. The commissioner shall investigate complaints received regarding noncompliance with the cooperative agreement or the authorization letter.
E. When the investigation is complete, the commissioner shall notify the party and the complainant, if known, of the findings of the investigation.
12VAC5-221-120. Technical advisory panel.
A. The commissioner shall appoint a technical advisory panel TAP to provide (i) initial recommendations to the commissioner as to the quality, cost, and access measures and benchmarks to be considered to objectively track the benefits and disadvantages of a cooperative agreement and (ii) ongoing input to the commissioner on the evolution of these and other new measures and the progress of the parties with respect to achievement of commitments with respect to these measures.
B. The technical advisory panel TAP shall consist of:
1. A representative of the Commissioner of Health commissioner who shall serve as chair of the panel TAP;
2. The chief medical or quality officer or officers of the parties;
3. A chief medical or quality officer of a hospital or health system from other state market areas with no affiliation with the parties;
4. A chief medical or quality officer of a health plan that has subscribers in the affected area;
5. Experts in the area of health quality measurement and performance;
6. A consumer and employer representative from the affected area;
7. A representative from the Bureau of Insurance of the State Corporation Commission;
8. The chief financial officer or officers of the parties;
9. A chief financial officer of a hospital or health system from other state market areas with no affiliation with the parties; and
10. A chief financial officer of a health plan that has subscribers in the affected area.
C. The technical advisory panel shall meet at least on an annual basis.
D. C. The technical advisory panel TAP shall identify evidence-based cost, quality, and access measures in areas, including population health, patient safety, health outcomes, patient satisfaction, access to care, and any other areas identified by the panel. The panel shall also make recommendations regarding how to best report performance on quality metrics. E. The technical advisory panel meetings shall be staffed by the Virginia Department of Health Office of Licensure and Certification.:
1. Meet at least on an annual basis;
2. Identify evidence-based cost, quality, and access measures in areas including population health, patient safety, health outcomes, patient satisfaction, access to care, and any other areas identified by the TAP; and
3. Make recommendations regarding how to best report performance on quality metrics.
12VAC5-221-130. Enforcement procedures.
A. If the commissioner has reason to believe that compliance with a cooperative agreement no longer meets the requirements of § 15.2-5384.1 of the Code of Virginia or this chapter, the commissioner shall initiate a proceeding pursuant to § 2.2-4019 of the Code of Virginia to determine whether compliance with the cooperative agreement no longer meets the those requirements of § 15.2-5384.1 of the Code of Virginia or this chapter.
B. In the course of such a During the proceeding, the commissioner is authorized to may seek reasonable modifications to a letter authorizing cooperative agreement. Such modifications shall be with the consent of the parties.
C. The commissioner may revoke a letter authorizing cooperative agreement upon a finding that:
1. The parties are not complying with the terms or conditions of the cooperative agreement or the letter authorizing cooperative agreement;
2. The cooperative agreement is not in substantial compliance with the terms of the parties' application or the letter authorizing cooperative agreement;
3. The benefits resulting from the cooperative agreement no longer outweigh the disadvantages attributable to the reduction in competition resulting from the cooperative agreement;
4. The commissioner's approval was obtained as a result of intentional material misrepresentation to the commissioner or as the result of coercion, threats, or intimidation toward any party to the cooperative agreement; or
5. The parties have failed to pay any required fee required by the department or the authority.
D. The proceeding initiated by the commissioner under this section, and any judicial review thereof, shall be held in accordance with and governed by the Virginia Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
12VAC5-221-140. Voluntary termination of cooperative agreement.
A. Any A party shall file notice with the department within in writing to the commissioner no later than 30 days after terminating its participation in a cooperative agreement. The notice shall be sent in writing to the attention of the director of the department's Office of Licensure and Certification.
B. In the event of a termination of a cooperative agreement, the parties shall return the authorization letter authorizing cooperative agreement to the department's Office of Licensure and Certification commissioner.
12VAC5-221-150. Official records.
A. The commissioner shall maintain on file all cooperative agreements that the commissioner has approved.
B. All records collected pursuant to this chapter shall be maintained in accordance with the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq. of the Code of Virginia) and the Library of Virginia's record management program (§ 42.1-85 of the Code of Virginia).
C. All approved cooperative agreements and letters authorizing cooperative agreement shall be published on the Virginia Department of Health Office of Licensure and Certification website.
D. The department shall make available on its website:
1. All authorization letters of the approved cooperative agreements;
2. All reports collected pursuant to 12VAC5-221-110 shall be published on the Virginia Department of Health Office of Licensure and Certification website. E. The commissioner shall make public his annual determination of compliance with a letter authorizing the cooperative agreement; and
3. The commissioner's annual determination of compliance with the authorization letter.
VA.R. Doc. No. R24-7854; Filed October 29, 2025
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
VIRGINIA BOARD FOR ASBESTOS, LEAD, AND HOME INSPECTORS
Final
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
VIRGINIA BOARD FOR ASBESTOS, LEAD, AND HOME INSPECTORS
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 18VAC15-20. Virginia Asbestos Licensing Regulations (repealing 18VAC15-20-10 through 18VAC15-20-880).
18VAC15-21. Asbestos Licensing Regulations (adding 18VAC15-21-10 through 18VAC15-21-600).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-501 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 2, 2026.
Agency Contact: Cameron Parris, Regulatory Operations Administrator, Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-9183, fax (866) 350-5354, or email cameron.parris@dpor.virginia.gov.
Summary:
This action repeals Virginia Asbestos Licensing Regulations (18VAC15-20) and promulgates Asbestos Licensing Regulations (18VAC15-21). The new regulation (i) establishes the entry requirements for licensure as an asbestos worker, supervisor, inspector, management planner, project designer, project monitor, asbestos contractor, and analytical laboratory; (ii) requires a high school diploma or equivalent requirement as a minimum education qualification for asbestos supervisor and asbestos project monitor applicants and at least three months of experience for asbestos supervisor applicants; (iii) reduces fees for asbestos contracting firms; (iv) reduces experience requirements by 50% for asbestos inspector, management planner, project designer, and project monitor asbestos licenses; (v) reduces the look-back period for disclosure of criminal convictions and expands the scope of such convictions; (vi) makes reporting requirements slightly less stringent for individual licensees and laboratories and more stringent for training providers; (vii) increases to $2,000 the threshold value to determine if a financial interest exists; (viii) establishes requirements for maintaining and renewing licenses; (ix) outlines requirements for approval of accredited asbestos training programs; (x) establishes standards of practice and conduct for licensees and accredited training programs; and (xi) makes numerous editorial and formatting changes.
Changes to the proposed regulation include (i) adding a provision requiring applicants to provide an email address in order to facilitate a paperless licensing process; (ii) requiring that applicants only have at least 16 hours each of experience in Occupational Safety and Health Administration Class I and Class II asbestos activities; (iii) restoring initial licensure, renewal, and late renewal fees for asbestos contractors that were proposed to be removed; (iv) removing a provision stipulating that license fees be made payable to the Treasurer of Virginia; (v) removing expired provisions pertaining to temporary renewal and late renewal fees; (vi) updating forms; and (vi) adding provisions addressing the situation where licensed individuals who are training managers and principal instructors of asbestos training programs take refresher training courses at their own approved programs.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar of Regulations.
Chapter 21
Asbestos Licensing Regulations
Part I
Definitions
18VAC15-21-10. Definitions.
A. Section 54.1-500 of the Code of Virginia provides definitions of the following terms and phrases used in this chapter:
"Accredited asbestos training program"
"Asbestos"
"Asbestos analytical laboratory license"
"Asbestos-containing materials" or "ACM"
"Asbestos management plan"
"Asbestos project" or "asbestos abatement project"
"Asbestos supervisor"
"Board"
"Friable"
"Person"
"Principal instructor"
"Training manager"
B. The following words and terms when used in this chapter will have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"AAR" means the Asbestos Analysts Registry program offered by the AIHA Registry Programs.
"AAT" means Asbestos Analyst Testing.
"Accredited training program" means a profession-specific asbestos training program or course that is approved by the board and designated as either initial or refresher and is required under the MAP as issued under the Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act of 1986, 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart E; or an approved training course that has been approved by EPA or another state that has an EPA-approved MAP program.
"Address of record" means the [ mailing ] address [ or email address ] designated by the regulant to receive notices and correspondence from the board.
"AHERA" means Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act, 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart E.
"AIHA" means American Industrial Hygiene Association.
"Applicant" means a person who has submitted an application to the board, but has not been granted a license or accreditation by the board.
"Application" means a completed board-prescribed form submitted with the appropriate fee and other required documentation.
"Approval letter" means a written notice confirming the firm or individual applicant's licensure or accreditation of a training program by the board.
"Asbestos contractor" means a person who contracts with another person for compensation to carry out an asbestos project or to perform any work on an asbestos project.
"Asbestos inspector" means an individual who conducts an asbestos inspection.
"Asbestos inspection" means an onsite investigation to determine the potential presence or exposure of ACM.
"Asbestos management planner" means any individual preparing or updating an asbestos management plan.
"Asbestos project design" means any work plan describing the construction of an asbestos abatement area, response action, or work practices to be utilized on an asbestos abatement project.
"Asbestos project designer" means an individual who designs or develops a design for an asbestos abatement project.
"Asbestos project monitor" means an individual who monitors or acts as a monitor of an asbestos abatement project.
"Asbestos worker" means an individual who works on an asbestos abatement project.
"ASHARA" means Asbestos School Hazard Abatement Reauthorization Act, 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart E.
"BAPAT" means the Bulk Asbestos Proficiency Analytical Testing Program of the AIHA Proficiency Analytical Testing Programs.
"Board-approved training course" means a training course that has been approved by the board to provide training for individuals who act as a project monitor.
"Department" means the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.
"Direct supervision" means exercising oversight, direction of, and control over the work of another.
"Employee" means an individual who has an employment relationship acknowledged by both the individual and the firm and is treated as an employee for the purposes of compliance with federal income tax laws.
"Encapsulation" means the treatment of ACM with a material that surrounds or embeds asbestos fibers in an adhesive matrix to prevent the release of fibers as the encapsulant creates a membrane over the surface (i.e., bridging encapsulant) or penetrates the material and binds its components together (i.e., penetrating encapsulant).
"Encasement" means any process by which an ACM is sprayed with an insulating sealer that is then mechanically fastened to the asbestos-covered substrate. The insulating sealer is then covered with a sealer to give structural strength and durability.
"Enclosure" means the construction or installation over or around the ACM of any leak-tight solid or flexible coverings that will not deteriorate or decompose for an extended period of time so as to conceal the ACM, contain ACM fibers, and render the ACM inaccessible.
"Environmental remediation activity" means any activity planned or carried out for the purpose of reducing or eliminating any environmental hazard, including activities necessary to train individuals in the proper or lawful conduct of such activities that are regulated by federal or state law or regulation.
"EPA" means U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.
"Financial interest" means financial benefit accruing to an individual or to a member of the individual's immediate family. Such interest exists by reason of (i) ownership in a business if the ownership exceeds 3.0% of the total equity of the business; (ii) annual gross income that exceeds or may be reasonably anticipated to exceed $2,000 from ownership in real or personal property or a business; (iii) salary, other compensation, fringe benefits, or benefits from the use of property paid or provided by a business that exceeds or may be reasonably expected to exceed $2,000 annually; or (iv) ownership of real or personal property if the interest exceeds $2,000 in value and excluding ownership in business, income, salary, other compensation, fringe benefits, or benefits from the use of property.
"Firm" means a sole proprietorship, association, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or any other form of business organization recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth.
"Guest instructor" means an instructor who is invited to instruct a specific topic in an accredited asbestos training program and whose instruction is limited to two hours per day.
"Hands-on training" means the physical participation of students in an accredited asbestos training program. Physical participation includes mock activities specific to the license discipline.
"IHLAP" means the Industrial Hygiene Laboratory Accreditation Program of the AIHA Laboratory Accreditation Programs LLC.
"IHPAT" means the Industrial Hygiene Proficiency Analytical Testing Program of the AIHA Proficiency Analytical Testing Programs LLC.
"Immediate family" means (i) a spouse, (ii) a sibling or stepsibling, (iii) a parent or stepparent, (iv) a child or stepchild, or (v) any other person residing in the same household as the individual.
"Inspection" means an activity undertaken to determine the presence or location or to access the condition of friable or nonfriable ACM or suspected ACM, whether by visual or physical examination or by collecting samples of such material. This term includes reinspections of friable and nonfriable known or assumed ACM that has been previously identified. Inspection does not include the following:
1. Periodic surveillance of the type described in 40 CFR 763.92(b) solely for the purpose of recording or reporting a change in the condition of known or assumed ACM;
2. Inspections performed by employees or agents of federal, state, or local governments solely for the purpose of determining compliance with applicable statutes or regulations; or
3. Visual inspections solely for the purpose of determining completion of response actions.
"Instructor" means a person who instructs one or more accredited asbestos training programs, including the principal instructor, but excluding guest instructors.
"MAP" means the EPA Asbestos Model Accreditation Plan (Appendix C of 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart E).
"Monitor" means observing and reviewing the activities of an asbestos contractor on an asbestos abatement project, as required by this chapter, to determine whether proper work practices are used and compliance with all asbestos laws and regulations is maintained.
"NIOSH" means National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health.
"NVLAP" means the Asbestos Fiber Analysis Program of the National Institute of Standards and Technology National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program.
"Occupied" means any area of any building designed or intended for human occupancy for any purpose.
"OSHA" means the U.S. Department of Labor Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
"PCM" means phase-contrast microscopy.
"PLM" means polarized light microscopy.
"Regulant" means an asbestos worker, asbestos supervisor, asbestos inspector, asbestos management planner, asbestos project designer, asbestos project monitor, asbestos contractor, or asbestos analytical laboratory that holds a license issued by the board, or an asbestos training program that has been accredited by the board.
"Removal" means the physical removal of ACM in accordance with all applicable regulations.
"Renovation" means altering in any way one or more facility components.
"Repair" means returning damaged ACM to an undamaged condition or to an intact state so as to prevent fiber release.
"Residential buildings" means site-built homes, modular homes, condominium units, mobile homes, manufactured housing, and duplexes or other multi-unit dwellings consisting of four units or fewer that are currently in use or intended for use only for residential purposes.
"Response action" means any method, including removal, encapsulation, enclosure, encasement, or operation and maintenance, that protects human health and the environment from ACM.
"Responsible individual" means the employee, officer, manager, owner, or principal of the firm who is designated by each firm to ensure compliance with Chapter 5 (§ 54.1-500 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and all regulations of the board and to receive communications and notices from the board that may affect the firm.
[ "Substantial change" means a change in overall asbestos training program, materials, principal instructors, training managers, directors, ownership, facilities, equipment, examinations, or certificates of completion. The addition of updated regulations, exam questions, or news articles will not be considered a substantial change. ]
"TEM" means transmission electron microscopy.
"Visual inspection" means a process of looking for conditions that, if not corrected during an asbestos abatement project, could result in residual asbestos-containing dust or debris. Visual inspection includes examination of an asbestos abatement project area prior to clearance air monitoring for evidence that the project has been successfully completed as indicated by the absence of residue, dust, and debris.
Part II
Entry
18VAC15-21-20. Application procedures.
A. All applicants seeking licensure must submit an application with the appropriate fee specified in 18VAC15-21-180. Application must be made on forms provided by the board or the board's agent.
1. By submitting the application to the department, the applicant certifies that the applicant has read and understands the applicable statutes and the board’s regulations.
2. The receipt of an application and the deposit of fees by the department does not indicate approval of the application by the board.
B. The board may make further inquiries and investigations with respect to the applicant's qualifications to confirm or amplify information supplied. All applications must be completed in accordance with the instructions contained in this chapter and on the application. Applications will not be considered complete until all required documents are received by the board.
C. The applicant will be notified if the application is incomplete. A person who fails to complete the application process within 12 months after the date the department receives the application must submit a new application and fee.
D. The applicant must immediately report all changes in information supplied with the application, if applicable, prior to issuance of the license or expiration of the application.
18VAC15-21-30. General requirements for licensure: individuals.
A. In addition to the specific qualifications for each license type, each applicant for individual licensure must meet the requirements provided in this section.
B. The applicant must disclose the applicant's full legal name.
C. The applicant must be at least 18 years of age.
D. The applicant must disclose the applicant's mailing address [ and email address ]. A post office box is only acceptable as a mailing address when a physical address is also provided.
E. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant must disclose the following information:
1. All felony convictions.
2. All misdemeanor convictions related to environmental remediation activity.
3. All misdemeanor convictions, excluding marijuana convictions, that occurred within three years of the date of application.
The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
F. The applicant must report any action taken by any board or administrative body in any jurisdiction against a professional or occupational license, certification, or registration issued to the applicant, to include any suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license, certification, or registration; imposition of a monetary penalty; or requirement to take remedial education or other corrective action. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant for any prior action taken by any board or administrative body in any jurisdiction.
G. Applicants must be in compliance with the standards of practice and conduct set forth in Part VI (18VAC15-21-380 et seq.) and Part VII (18VAC15-21-460 et seq.) of this chapter at the time of application to the board, while the application is under review by the board, and at all times when the license is in effect.
18VAC15-21-40. Application denial.
A. The board may refuse initial licensure or accreditation due to an applicant's failure to comply with entry requirements or for any of the reasons for which the board may discipline a regulant.
B. The applicant has the right to request further review of any such action by the board under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
18VAC15-21-50. Qualifications for asbestos worker license.
Each individual applying for an asbestos worker license must provide proof of successful completion of (i) an EPA-approved or board-approved initial accredited asbestos worker training program and all subsequent EPA-approved or board-approved accredited asbestos worker refresher training programs or (ii) an EPA-approved or board-approved initial accredited supervisor training program and all subsequent EPA-approved or board-approved accredited asbestos supervisor refresher training programs. The training certificate must indicate that the training was taken within 12 months preceding the date the department receives the application.
18VAC15-21-60. Qualifications for asbestos supervisor license.
A. Each individual applying for an asbestos supervisor license must:
1. Have a high school diploma or equivalent;
2. Provide proof of successful completion of an EPA-approved or board-approved initial accredited supervisor training program and all subsequent EPA-approved or board-approved accredited asbestos supervisor refresher training programs. The training certificate must indicate that the training was taken within 12 months preceding the date the department receives the application; and
3. Furnish acceptable documentation of three months of experience in asbestos abatement work.
B. The experience submitted pursuant to subsection A of this section must meet the requirements of 18VAC15-21-120.
18VAC15-21-70. Qualifications for asbestos inspector license.
A. Each individual applying for an asbestos inspector license must provide:
1. Proof of successful completion of an EPA-approved or board-approved initial accredited inspector training program and all subsequent EPA-approved or board-approved accredited asbestos inspector refresher training programs; and
2. Evidence of experience in performing asbestos inspections in buildings or industrial facilities, including collecting bulk samples, categorizing ACM, assessing ACM, and preparing inspection reports. The applicant must furnish acceptable documentation that one of the following qualifications has been met:
|
Education
|
Experience
|
|
Acceptable master's or bachelor's degree program
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Three months or performed a minimum of seven inspections
|
|
Acceptable associate's degree program
|
Six months or performed a minimum of 10 inspections
|
|
High school diploma or equivalent
|
12 months or performed a minimum of 15 inspections
|
B. The education submitted pursuant to subsection A of this section must meet the requirements of 18VAC15-21-110. The experience submitted pursuant to subsection A of this section must [ comply with meet the requirements of ] 18VAC15-21-120.
18VAC15-21-80. Qualifications for asbestos management planner license.
A. Each individual applying for an asbestos management planner license must provide:
1. Proof of successful completion of (i) an EPA-approved or board-approved initial accredited management planner training program and all subsequent EPA-approved or board-approved accredited asbestos management planner refresher training programs and (ii) an EPA-approved or board-approved initial accredited inspector training program and all subsequent EPA-approved or board-approved accredited asbestos inspector refresher training programs; and
2. Evidence of experience evaluating inspection reports, selecting response actions, analyzing the cost of response actions, ranking response actions, preparing operations and maintenance plans, and preparing management plans. The applicant must furnish acceptable documentation that one of the following qualifications has been met:
|
Education
|
Experience
|
|
Acceptable master's or bachelor's degree program
|
Three months or prepared a minimum of three management plans
|
|
Acceptable associate's degree program
|
Six months or prepared a minimum of five management plans
|
|
High school diploma or equivalent
|
12 months or prepared a minimum of seven management plans
|
B. The education submitted pursuant to subsection A of this section must meet the requirements of 18VAC15-21-110. The experience submitted pursuant to subsection A of this section must [ comply with meet the requirements of ] 18VAC15-21-120.
18VAC15-21-90. Qualifications for asbestos project designer license.
A. Each individual applying for an asbestos project designer license must provide:
1. Proof of successful completion of an EPA-approved or board-approved initial accredited project designer training program and all subsequent EPA-approved or board-approved accredited asbestos project designer refresher training programs; and
2. Evidence of experience in the preparation of project designs or project specifications. The applicant must furnish acceptable documentation that one of the following qualifications has been met:
|
Education
|
Experience
|
|
Acceptable master's or bachelor's degree program
|
Three months or completed a minimum of five project designs
|
|
Acceptable associate's degree program
|
Six months or completed a minimum of seven project designs
|
|
High school diploma or equivalent
|
12 months or completed a minimum of 10 project designs
|
B. The education submitted pursuant to subsection A of this section must meet the requirements of 18VAC15-21-110. The experience submitted pursuant to subsection A of this section must [ comply with meet the requirements of ] 18VAC15-21-120.
18VAC15-21-100. Qualifications for asbestos project monitor license.
A. Each individual applying for an asbestos project monitor license must have a high school diploma or equivalent and provide:
1. Proof of (i) a current certification by EPA as an asbestos project designer or asbestos supervisor and successful completion of a board-approved asbestos project monitor training program of 16 hours, including the examination, or (ii) successful completion of a board-approved asbestos project monitor training program of 40 hours, including examination. Only project monitor training programs that are board approved will be accepted for meeting the training requirement; and
2. Evidence of 80 hours of experience in performing asbestos project monitoring through field work on project sites, of which at least [ 40 16 ] hours must be from OSHA Class I asbestos activities and at least [ 40 16 ] hours must be from OSHA Class II asbestos activities. This includes evaluating and monitoring asbestos work practices, collecting environmental asbestos air samples during abatement, performing visual inspections, and taking final air samples to grant clearance for asbestos abatement projects.
B. The experience submitted pursuant to subdivision A 2 of this section must [ comply with meet the requirements of ] 18VAC15-21-120.
18VAC15-21-110. Acceptable degree programs.
A. Applicants seeking to qualify for licensure based on completion of an associate's, bachelor's, or master's degree must submit an official transcript from the school where the applicable degree was obtained. Only degrees from an accredited college or university that is approved or accredited by the Commission on Colleges of the Southern Association of Colleges and Schools, a regional or national accreditation association, or by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education will be considered.
B. The following degrees will be considered to qualify in accordance with 18VAC15-21-70 A 2, 18VAC15-21-80 A 2, or 18VAC15-21-90 A 2:
1. Bachelor's or master's degree in engineering, architecture, industrial hygiene, environmental science or studies, or physical science;
2. Bachelor's degree in a related field that includes a minimum of 40 semester credit hours in any combination of science, technology, engineering and math;
3. Master's degree in a related field and a bachelor's degree in any major such that the combined degrees include a minimum of 40 semester credit hours in any combination of science, technology, engineering, and math; or
4. Associate's degree in engineering, architecture, industrial hygiene, environmental science or studies, or physical science, or a related field that includes a minimum of 20 credit hours in any combination of science, technology, engineering, and math.
18VAC15-21-120. Experience used to qualify for licensure.
A. Experience used to qualify for licensure in accordance with 18VAC15-21-60 A 3, 18VAC15-21-70 A 2, 18VAC15-21-80 A 2, 18VAC15-21-90 A 2, or 18VAC15-21-100 A 2 may be obtained by:
1. Working in the applicable profession in another state, provided such work complied with all federal, state, and local statutes.
2. Working in the applicable profession under the direct supervision of a properly licensed individual or EPA-certified individual where no license is required. All reports prepared by the unlicensed individual must be signed by the licensed or EPA-certified individual. The licensed or EPA-certified individual assumes responsibility for all work conducted and reports prepared, as applicable, by the unlicensed individual.
B. Experience used to qualify for licensure must be verified by a supervisor on a board-approved experience verification form signed by a supervisor verifying the applicant's experience. An applicant who is self-employed or otherwise unable to obtain a verifying signature for experience must submit five copies of the completed inspections, management plans, project designs, or project monitor reports, as applicable to the license sought.
18VAC15-21-130. Individuals certified or licensed in another jurisdiction.
A. The board may issue a license to an applicant who holds an equivalent and valid license or certificate in another state, the District of Columbia, or any other territory or possession of the United States, provided the requirements and standards under which the license or certificate was issued are substantially equivalent to those established in this chapter and related statutes. The applicant will only need to provide the most recent, current asbestos training program for the applicable license type.
B. In order to qualify in accordance with this section, the applicant must provide proof of a valid license or certificate in the other state acceptable to the board and must be in good standing by the issuing license or certification authority.
18VAC15-21-140. Qualifications for asbestos contractor license.
A firm that holds a valid contractor license issued by the Board for Contractors with an asbestos contracting specialty service designation in accordance with Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and the regulations of the Board for Contractors is deemed qualified for an asbestos contractor license pursuant to Chapter 5 (§ 54.1-500 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and this chapter. Upon verification of the firm's licensure with the Board for Contractors, the board will issue an asbestos contractor license to such firm for a license term that coincides with the license issued by the Board for Contractors.
18VAC15-21-150. General qualifications for an asbestos analytical laboratory license.
A. Each firm applying for an asbestos analytical laboratory license must meet the requirements of this section.
B. The applicant must disclose the name under which the firm conducts business and holds itself out to the public. In accordance with Chapter 5 (§ 59.1-69 et seq.) of Title 59.1 of the Code of Virginia, the firm must register any trade or fictitious names, when applicable, with the State Corporation Commission before submitting an application to the board.
C. The applicant must disclose the firm's mailing address [ and, ] the firm's physical address [ , and the firm's email address ].
D. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, the applicant must disclose the following information about the firm and its owners, officers, managers, members, and directors, as applicable:
1. All felony convictions;
2. All misdemeanor convictions, except marijuana convictions, within the last three years; and
3. Any conviction involving environmental remediation activity that resulted in the significant harm or the imminent and substantial threat of significant harm to human health or the environment.
E. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. The applicant has the right to request further review of any such action by the board under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2- 4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
F. The applicant must report any disciplinary action taken by any board or administrative body in any jurisdiction against a professional or occupational license, certification, or registration issued to the firm, its owners, officers, managers, members, or directors and, as applicable, any reprimand, suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license, certification, or registration, imposition of a monetary penalty, or requirement to take remedial education or other corrective action. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant based on disciplinary action taken by any board or administrative body in any jurisdiction.
G. The board may deny the application of an applicant who is shown to have a substantial identity of interest with a person whose license or certificate has been revoked or not renewed by the board. A substantial identity of interest includes (i) a controlling financial interest by the individual or corporate principals of the person whose license or certificate has been revoked or has not been renewed or (ii) substantially identical owners, officers, managers, members, or directors, as applicable.
18VAC15-21-160. Qualifications for asbestos analytical laboratory analysis type.
A. In addition to the requirements of 18VAC15-21-150, each applicant for an asbestos analytical laboratory license must submit evidence of meeting the standards to perform PLM, PCM, or TEM analysis.
1. For PLM analysis, one of the following:
a. Current NVLAP accreditation demonstrated by submittal of a copy of the most recent Certificate of Accreditation and Scope of Accreditation;
b. The asbestos analytical laboratory is currently rated "proficient" in the BAPAT Program; or
c. The asbestos analytical laboratory is currently accredited under the IHLAP.
2. For PCM analysis, each analyst must have completed the NIOSH 582 or NIOSH 582 Equivalency course. In addition, at least one of the following must be satisfied:
a. At fixed laboratory sites, one of the following qualifications must be met:
(1) The asbestos analytical laboratory is currently accredited under the IHLAP;
(2) The asbestos analytical laboratory is currently rated "proficient" in the IHPAT Program; or
(3) Each analyst is listed in the AAR and has a performance rating of "acceptable" for the most recent AAT round.
b. For onsite analysis, one of the following qualifications must be met:
(1) The asbestos analytical laboratory is currently rated "proficient" in the IHPAT Program;
(2) The asbestos analytical laboratory is currently accredited under the IHLAP; or
(3) Each analyst is listed in the AAR and has a performance rating of "acceptable" for the most recent AAT round.
3. For TEM analysis, a current accreditation by NVLAP to analyze asbestos airborne fibers using TEM as demonstrated by submitting a copy of the NVLAP Certificate of Accreditation and Scope of Accreditation.
B. The applicant must name a responsible individual for the asbestos analytical laboratory.
C. Any branch office of an asbestos analytical laboratory must complete a branch office application from the board. Each branch office will name a resident responsible individual at each branch office.
D. The branch office application must provide the information contained in subsection A of this section for the applicable branch office.
E. Any training and quality control documentation required to be maintained pursuant to this section must be provided to the board upon request.
Part III
Fees
18VAC15-21-170. General fee requirements.
All fees are nonrefundable and will not be prorated. The date on which the fee is received by the department or the department's agent will determine whether the fee is on time. [ Checks or money orders must be made payable to the Treasurer of Virginia. ]
18VAC15-21-180. Application fees.
Application fees are set out in this section.
|
Fee Type
|
Fee Amount
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When Due
|
|
Application for worker, supervisor, inspector, management planner, project designer, or project monitor license
|
$80
|
With application
|
|
Application for asbestos analytical laboratory license
|
$120
|
With application
|
|
Application for asbestos analytical laboratory branch office
|
$100
|
With application
|
|
[ Application for an asbestos contractor license
|
$110
|
With application ]
|
|
Application for accredited asbestos training program approval
|
$500 per day of training
|
With application
|
18VAC15-21-190. Renewal and late renewal fees.
[ A. ] Renewal and late renewal fees are set out in this section.
|
Fee Type
|
Fee Amount
|
When Due
|
|
Renewal for worker, supervisor, inspector, management planner, project designer, or project monitor license
|
$45
|
With renewal application
|
|
Renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory license
|
$75
|
With renewal application
|
|
Renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory branch office
|
$55
|
With renewal application
|
|
[ Renewal for asbestos contractor license
|
$70
|
With renewal application ]
|
|
Renewal for accredited asbestos training program approval
|
$125
|
With renewal application
|
|
Late renewal for worker, supervisor, inspector, management planner, project designer, or project monitor license (includes a $35 late renewal fee in addition to the regular $45 renewal fee)
|
$80
|
With renewal application
|
|
Late renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory license (includes a $35 late renewal fee in addition to the regular $75 renewal fee)
|
$110
|
With renewal application
|
|
Late renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory branch office (includes $35 late renewal fee in addition to the regular $55 renewal fee)
|
$90
|
With renewal application
|
|
[ Late renewal for asbestos contractor license (includes $35 late renewal fee in addition to the regular $70 renewal fee)
|
$105
|
With renewal application ]
|
|
Late renewal for accredited asbestos training program approval (includes a $35 late renewal fee in addition to the regular $125 renewal fee)
|
$160
|
With renewal application
|
[ B. For licenses expiring after February 1, 2023, and before February 1, 2025, the renewal fees will be as follows:
|
Renewal for worker, supervisor, inspector, management planner,
project designer, or project monitor license
|
$25
|
|
Renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory license
|
$40
|
|
Renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory branch office
|
$40
|
|
Renewal for accredited asbestos training program approval
|
$40
|
For late renewals received after March 1, 2023, and on or before February 28, 2025, the late renewal fees will be as follows:
|
Late renewal for worker, supervisor, inspector, management planner, project designer, or project monitor license
|
$60
|
|
Late renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory license
|
$75
|
|
Late renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory branch office
|
$75
|
|
Late renewal for accredited asbestos training program approval
|
$75 ]
|
Part IV
Renewal
18VAC15-21-200. Renewal required.
A. Each individual asbestos license issued under this chapter will expire 12 months from the last day of the month in which it was issued.
B. Each asbestos analytical laboratory license issued under this chapter will expire 12 months from the last day of the month in which it was issued.
C. Each accredited asbestos training program [ approval issued under this chapter ] will expire 24 months from the last day of the month in which it was approved.
D. Each asbestos contractor license will expire on the expiration date of the corresponding contractor license issued by the Board for Contractors.
18VAC15-21-210. Procedures for renewal.
A. The department will send a renewal notice to each regulant at the address of record. Failure to receive the notice does not relieve the licensee or the accredited asbestos training program of the obligation to renew.
B. Prior to the license expiration, each licensed asbestos analytical laboratory desiring to renew the license must submit the appropriate fee specified in 18VAC15-21-190 to the department. A licensed asbestos analytical laboratory must also submit documentation that the laboratory continues to meet the requirements specified in 18VAC15-21-160 for the type of analysis the laboratory is licensed to perform.
C. Prior to the license expiration date, each licensed individual desiring to renew a license must provide evidence of meeting the annual refresher training requirement for license renewal and the appropriate fee specified in 18VAC15-21-190. The board will accept any asbestos training programs that are approved by EPA or the board. A copy of the training certificate documenting the successful completion of the refresher training for the license type being renewed and meeting the requirements outlined in this chapter must accompany the fee.
1. For renewal of an asbestos worker license, the board will accept evidence of completion of asbestos supervisor refresher training to satisfy the refresher training requirement.
2. For renewal of an asbestos management planner license, a management planner must complete both a management planner refresher training program and an inspector refresher training program.
3. For renewal of an asbestos project monitor license, the board will accept evidence of the following to satisfy the refresher training requirement:
a. For project monitors who also hold a valid Virginia asbestos supervisor or project designer license, completion of a supervisor refresher or project designer refresher, as is applicable to the EPA certification submitted for initial licensure as specified in 18VAC15-21-90; or
b. For project monitors who hold only a project monitor license, completion of a board-approved asbestos project monitor refresher training program to meet renewal requirements.
D. Prior to the approval letter expiration date, each accredited asbestos training program desiring to renew the approval must submit the appropriate fee specified in 18VAC-15-21-190.
E. Annual refresher training certificates will only be used once to renew an individual license.
F. Each license and each accredited asbestos training program approval that is not renewed within 30 days of the expiration date on the license or approval letter will be subject to late renewal fees as established in 18VAC15-21-190.
G. A firm with an asbestos contractor license must provide documentation that the corresponding contractor license issued by the Board for Contractors is current and valid. Upon verification of the firm's licensure with the Board for Contractors, the board will renew the asbestos contractor license for a license term that coincides with the license issued by the Board for Contractors.
H. Each license and each approved accredited asbestos training program that is not renewed within 12 months after the expiration date will not be renewed. The individual or firm must apply for a new license or approval and meet entry requirements current at the time the new application is submitted.
Part V
Approval of Training Programs and Courses
18VAC15-21-220. Application procedures for accredited asbestos training program approval.
A. Training programs desiring board approval must meet the minimum requirements established in this chapter. Persons requesting approval as an accredited asbestos training program to prepare training program participants for licensure requirements must submit the appropriate application form along with the following:
1. Training provider's business name, physical address, mailing address, and telephone number.
2. Copies of documentation of approval of the asbestos training program issued by EPA or other states, if applicable.
3. Applicable fee specified in 18VAC15-21-180.
4. The training program curriculum.
5. A narrative explaining how the training program meets the requirements for approval in the following areas:
a. Length of training in hours.
b. Amount and type of hands-on training.
c. Examinations (length, format, and passing score).
d. Topics covered in the training program.
e. Assurances of test security and how exams are administered.
6. A copy of all training program materials, including student manuals, instructor notebooks, handouts, and training aids.
7. A copy of the examination used and applicable answer sheets.
8. The name and documentation of the qualifications of the training manager. The training manager employed by the applicant must meet the requirements of 18VAC15-21-230.
9. The names and documentation of the qualifications of each principal instructor and subject areas that each principal instructor will teach. Principal instructors must meet the requirements of 18VAC15-21-240.
10. An example of the completion certificate that will be issued to students who successfully complete the accredited asbestos training program.
11. A proposed training program date for auditing purposes. The proposed date will be confirmed or an alternate date will be proposed within 10 business days after receipt of a complete asbestos training program application.
B. An application must contain all information required by this section.
C. An application must be received by the department no less than 45 days prior to the requested audit date.
D. Upon receipt of an application, a preliminary review will be conducted to ensure compliance with this chapter. The applicant will be notified if the application is incomplete or is deficient. All deficiencies must be corrected prior to the onsite audit.
E. Upon completion of the preliminary review, the board will conduct an onsite audit. The applicant will be notified of any deficiencies identified during the audit. All deficiencies must be corrected prior to approval of the application.
F. Onsite audits are not required for final approval of asbestos courses with a primary location that is out of state, to be conducted solely out of state, so long as the course is currently approved by a MAP state. Proof of MAP state approval must be submitted with the application.
G. All training programs must have a monitored, final written examination.
18VAC15-21-230. Training manager qualifications.
An accredited asbestos training program must employ a training manager who:
1. Has a minimum of two years of experience in teaching adults; or
2. Has a minimum of three years of experience in the asbestos abatement industry.
18VAC15-21-240. Principal instructor qualifications.
A. An accredited asbestos training program must use principal instructors who:
1. Have a minimum of 24 hours of asbestos-specific training; and
2. Have a minimum of two years of experience in the asbestos abatement industry or a minimum of two years of experience in teaching adults.
B. Guest instructors are exempt from instructor qualifications and are limited to no more than two hours of training per day.
18VAC15-21-250. Accredited asbestos training program requirements.
In all of the accredited asbestos training program requirements, one day is equal to eight hours, inclusive of lunch and breaks.
18VAC15-21-260. Initial worker training.
A. An initial worker training program must last a minimum of four days. The worker training program must include lectures, demonstrations, at least 14 hours of hands-on training, a training program review, and an examination.
B. The worker training program must address the following topics:
1. Physical characteristics of asbestos.
a. Identification of asbestos.
b. Aerodynamic characteristics.
c. Typical uses and physical appearance.
d. A summary of abatement control options.
2. Potential health effects related to asbestos exposure.
a. The nature of asbestos-related diseases.
b. Routes of exposure, dose-response relationships, and the lack of a safe exposure level.
c. Synergism between cigarette smoking and asbestos exposure.
d. Latency period for disease.
3. Employee personal protective equipment.
a. Classes and characteristics of respirator types.
b. Limitations of respirators and proper selection, inspection, donning, use, maintenance, and storage procedures.
c. Methods for field testing of the facepiece-to-face seal (e.g., positive and negative pressure fitting tests).
d. Qualitative and quantitative fit testing procedures.
e. Variability between field and laboratory protection factors.
f. Factors that alter respirator fit (e.g., facial hair).
g. The components of a proper respiratory protection program.
h. Selection and use of personal protective clothing and use, storage, and handling of nondisposable clothing.
i. Regulations covering personal protective equipment.
4. State-of-the-art work practices.
a. Asbestos abatement activities, including descriptions of construction and maintenance of barriers and decontamination enclosure systems.
b. Positioning of warning signs.
c. Electrical and ventilation system lock-out.
d. Working techniques for minimizing fiber release, use of wet methods, use of negative pressure ventilation equipment, and use of high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) vacuums.
e. Clean-up and disposal procedures.
f. Work practices for removal, encapsulation, enclosure, and repair.
g. Emergency procedures for sudden releases.
h. Potential exposure situations and transport and disposal procedures.
i. Recommended and prohibited work practices.
5. Personal hygiene.
a. Entry and exit procedures for the work area, use of showers, avoidance of eating, drinking, smoking, and chewing (gum or tobacco) in the work area.
b. Potential exposures, including family exposure.
6. Additional safety hazards.
a. Hazards encountered during abatement activities, including electrical hazards, heat stress, air contaminants other than asbestos, fire, and explosion hazards, and how to deal with them.
b. Scaffold and ladder hazards.
c. Slips, trips, and falls.
d. Confined spaces.
7. Medical monitoring.
a. OSHA requirements for a pulmonary function test.
b. Chest X-rays and a medical history for each employee.
8. Air monitoring.
a. Procedures to determine airborne concentrations of asbestos fibers.
b. Focusing on how personal air sampling is performed and the reasons for it.
9. Relevant federal, state, and local regulatory requirements, procedures, and standards, with particular attention directed at relevant EPA, OSHA, and state regulations concerning asbestos abatement workers and Department of Transportation regulations (49 CFR 172 Subpart H), with emphasis on packaging requirements and marking of containers of ACM waste.
10. Establishment of respiratory protection programs.
11. Training program review. A review of key aspects of the accredited asbestos training program.
C. Upon completion of the worker training program, the training program must administer a closed-book examination. Each examination must cover the topics required by this section.
1. Each examination must have 50 multiple choice questions.
2. The passing score on the examination must be 70%.
18VAC15-21-270. Worker refresher training program.
A. A worker refresher training program must be at least one day. The worker refresher training program must review federal and state regulations and discuss changes to the regulations, if applicable, and developments in state-of-the-art procedures. A review of the following topics from the initial worker training program must be included in the worker refresher training program:
1. Potential health effects related to asbestos exposure;
2. Employee personal protective equipment;
3. Personal hygiene; and
4. Additional safety hazards.
B. A written closed-book examination must be included in the refresher training program. The examination will consist of no fewer than 50 questions. The passing score will be 70% correct. Persons who pass the examination and fulfill the training program requirements will receive a certificate of completion as specified in this chapter.
18VAC15-21-280. Initial supervisor training.
A. An initial supervisor training program must last a minimum of five days. The supervisor training program must include lectures; demonstrations; at least 14 hours of hands-on training, which must permit supervisors to have actual experience performing tasks associated with asbestos abatement; a training program review; and an examination.
B. The supervisor training program must address the following topics:
1. The role of the supervisor in the asbestos abatement process.
2. The physical characteristics of asbestos and asbestos-containing materials.
a. Identification of asbestos.
b. Aerodynamic characteristics.
c. Typical uses and physical appearance.
d. A review of hazard assessment considerations.
e. A summary of abatement control options.
3. Potential health effects related to asbestos exposure.
a. The nature of asbestos-related diseases.
b. Routes of exposure, dose-response relationships, and the lack of a safe exposure level.
c. Synergism between cigarette smoking and asbestos exposure.
d. Latency period for disease.
4. Employee personal protective equipment.
a. Classes and characteristics of respirator types.
b. Limitations of respirators and proper selection, inspection, donning, use, maintenance, and storage procedures.
c. Methods for field testing of the facepiece-to-face seal (e.g., positive and negative pressure fitting tests).
d. Qualitative and quantitative fit testing procedures.
e. Variability between field and laboratory protection factors.
f. Factors that alter respirator fit (e.g., facial hair).
g. The components of a proper respiratory protection program.
h. Selection and use of personal protective clothing and use, storage, and handling of nondisposable clothing.
i. Regulations covering personal protective equipment.
5. State-of-the-art work practices.
a. Work practices for asbestos abatement activities, including descriptions of proper construction and maintenance of barriers and decontamination enclosure systems.
b. Positioning of warning signs.
c. Electrical and ventilation system lock-out.
d. Working techniques for minimizing fiber release, use of wet methods, use of negative pressure ventilation equipment, and use of high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) vacuums.
e. Clean-up and disposal procedures.
f. Work practices for removal, encapsulation, encasement, enclosure, and repair.
g. Emergency procedures for sudden releases.
h. Potential exposure situations.
i. Transport and disposal procedures.
j. Recommended and prohibited work practices.
k. Discussion of new abatement-related techniques and methodologies.
6. Personal hygiene.
a. Entry and exit procedures for the work area; use of showers; and avoidance of eating, drinking, smoking, and chewing (gum or tobacco) in the work area.
b. Potential exposures, such as family exposure, must also be included.
7. Additional safety hazards.
a. Hazards encountered during abatement activities, including electrical hazards, heat stress, air contaminants other than asbestos, fire, and explosion hazards, and how to deal with them.
b. Scaffold and ladder hazards.
c. Slips, trips, and falls.
d. Confined spaces.
8. Medical monitoring. OSHA requirements for a pulmonary function test, chest X-rays, and a medical history for each employee.
9. Air monitoring.
a. Procedures to determine airborne concentration of asbestos fibers, including a description of aggressive sampling, sampling equipment, and methods.
b. Reasons for air monitoring.
c. Types of samples and interpretation of results, specifically from analysis performed by polarized light, phase-contrast, and electron microscopy analyses.
10. Relevant federal, state, and local regulatory requirements, procedures, and standards, including:
a. Requirements of Title II (§ 2641 et seq.) of the Toxic Substance Control Act (15 USC § 2601 et seq.);
b. 40 CFR Part 61, National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants, Subparts A (General Provisions) and M (National Emission Standards for Asbestos);
c. OSHA Standards for Respiratory Protection (29 CFR 1910.134);
d. OSHA Asbestos Construction Standard (29 CFR 1926.1101);
e. EPA Worker Protection Rule, 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart G;
f. Requirements for Asbestos-Containing Waste Materials, 9VAC20-81-620; and
g. Department of Transportation regulations (49 CFR Part 172, Subpart H) covering packaging, proper marking of shipping containers, and shipping papers.
11. A review of NESHAP guidance documents.
a. Common Questions on the asbestos NESHAP.
b. Asbestos NESHAP: Regulated Asbestos Containing Materials Guidance (EPA 340/1-90-018).
c. Asbestos NESHAP: Adequately Wet Guidance (EPA 340/1-90-019).
d. Reporting and Record Keeping Requirements for Waste Disposal: A Field Guide (EPA 340/1-90-016).
12. Respiratory protection programs and medical surveillance programs.
13. Insurance and liability issues.
a. Contractor issues, workers' compensation coverage, and exclusions.
b. Third-party liabilities and defenses.
c. Insurance coverage and exclusions.
14. Recordkeeping for asbestos abatement projects:
a. Records required by federal, state, and local regulations.
b. Records recommended for legal and insurance purposes.
15. Supervisory techniques for asbestos abatement activities. Supervisory practices to enforce and reinforce the required work practices and to discourage unsafe work practices.
16. Contract specifications. Discussions of key elements that are included in contract specifications.
17. Training program review. A review of key aspects of the accredited asbestos training program.
C. Upon completion of the supervisor training program, the training program must administer a closed-book examination. Each examination must cover the topics required by this section.
1. Each examination must have 100 multiple choice questions.
2. The passing score on the examination must be 70%.
18VAC15-21-290. Supervisor refresher training program.
A. A supervisor refresher training program must be one day. The supervisor refresher training program must review federal and state regulations, discuss changes to the regulations, if applicable, and developments in state-of-the-art procedures. A review of the following topics from the initial accredited asbestos training program must be included in the asbestos supervisor refresher training program:
1. Potential health effects related to asbestos exposure;
2. Employee personal protective equipment, including medical monitoring and respiratory protection program;
3. Additional safety hazards and medical monitoring;
4. Review of the asbestos NESHAP, OSHA, and Department of Transportation requirements; and
5. Review of Virginia regulations concerning asbestos licensing, removal, and disposal.
B. A written closed-book examination must be included in the refresher training program. The examination will consist of no fewer than 50 questions. The passing score will be 70% correct. Persons who pass the refresher training program examination will receive a certificate of completion as specified in this chapter.
18VAC15-21-300. Initial inspector training.
A. An initial inspector training program must last a minimum of three days. The inspector training program must include lectures, demonstrations, at least four hours of hands-on training, a training program review, and an examination.
B. The inspector training program must address the following topics:
1. Training program overview.
a. The role of the inspector in the asbestos abatement industry.
b. A discussion of inspection requirements and criteria for AHERA, NESHAP, and state agencies.
2. Background information on asbestos.
a. Identification of asbestos and examples and discussion of the uses and locations of asbestos in buildings.
b. Physical appearance of asbestos.
3. Potential health effects related to asbestos exposure.
a. The nature of asbestos-related diseases.
b. Routes of exposure, dose-response relationships, and the lack of a safe exposure level.
c. The synergism between cigarette smoking and asbestos exposure.
d. Latency period for asbestos-related diseases and a discussion of the relationship of asbestos exposure to asbestosis, lung cancer, mesothelioma, and cancer of other organs.
4. Functions of and qualifications for inspectors.
a. Discussions of prior experience and qualifications for inspectors and management planners.
b. Discussions of the functions of an accredited inspector as compared to those of an accredited management planner.
c. Discussion of the inspection process, including inventory of ACM and physical assessment.
5. Legal liabilities and defenses.
a. Responsibilities of the inspector, a discussion of comprehensive general liability policies, claims made and occurrence policies, environment and pollution liability policy clauses; state liability insurance requirements.
b. Bonding and relationship of insurance availability to bond availability.
6. Understanding building systems.
a. The relationship between building systems, including an overview of common building physical plan layout; heat, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) system types; physical organization; and where asbestos is found on HVAC components.
b. Building mechanical systems, including types and organization and where to look for asbestos on such systems.
c. Inspecting electrical systems, including appropriate safety precautions.
d. Reading building plans and as-built drawings.
7. Public, employee, and building occupant relations.
a. Notification of employee organizations about the inspection.
b. Signs to warn building occupants.
c. Tactics in dealing with occupants and the press.
d. Scheduling inspections to minimize disruptions.
e. Education of building occupants about actions being taken.
8. Pre-inspection planning and review of previous inspection records.
a. Scheduling the inspection and obtaining access.
b. Building record review and identification of probable homogeneous areas from building plans or as-built drawings.
c. Consultation with maintenance or building personnel.
d. Review of previous inspection, sampling, and abatement records of a building.
e. The role of the inspector in exclusions for previously performed inspections.
9. Inspection for friable and nonfriable ACM and assessment of the condition of friable ACM.
a. Procedures to follow in conducting visual inspections for friable and nonfriable ACM.
b. Types of building materials that may contain asbestos.
c. Touching materials to determine friability.
d. Open return air plenums and their importance in HVAC systems.
e. Assessing damage, significant damage, potential damage, and potential significant damage.
f. Amount of suspected ACM, both in total quantity and as a percentage of the total area.
g. Type of damage.
h. Accessibility.
i. Material's potential for disturbance.
j. Known or suspected causes of damage or significant damage, and deterioration as assessment factors.
10. Bulk sampling and documentation of asbestos in schools.
a. Detailed discussion of the "Simplified Sampling Scheme for Friable Surfacing Materials" (EPA 560/5-85-030a October 1985).
b. Techniques to ensure sampling in a randomly distributed manner for other than friable surfacing materials.
c. Techniques for bulk sampling.
d. Sampling equipment the inspector should use.
e. Patching or repair of damage done in sampling; an inspector's repair kit.
f. Discussion of polarized light microscopy.
g. Choosing an accredited laboratory to analyze bulk samples.
h. Quality control and quality assurance procedures.
11. Inspector respiratory protection and equipment.
a. Classes and characteristics of respirator types.
b. Limitations of respirators.
c. Selection, inspection, donning, use, maintenance, and storage procedures for respirators.
d. Methods for field testing of the facepiece-to-face seal (e.g., positive and negative pressure fitting tests); qualitative and quantitative fit testing procedures.
e. Variability between field and laboratory protection factors.
f. Factors that alter respirator fit (e.g., facial hair).
g. The components of a proper respiratory protection program.
h. Selection and use of personal protective clothing.
i. Use, storage, and handling of nondisposable clothing.
12. Recordkeeping and writing the inspection report.
a. Labeling of samples and keying sample identification to sampling location.
b. Recommendations on sample labeling.
c. Detailing of ACM inventory.
d. Photographs of selected sampling areas and examples of ACM condition.
e. Information required for inclusion in the management plan by § 203(i)(1) of the Toxic Substance Control Act (15 USC § 2601 et seq.).
13. Regulatory review.
a. EPA Worker Protection Rule found at 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart G.
b. Title II (§ 2641 et seq.) of the Toxic Substances Control Act.
c. OSHA Asbestos Construction Standard (29 CFR 1926.1101).
d. OSHA respirator requirements (29 CFR 1910.134).
e. The friable ACM in Schools Rule found at 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart F.
f. Applicable state and local regulations.
g. Differences in federal and state requirements, where they apply, and the effects, if any, on public and nonpublic schools and commercial and public buildings.
14. Field trip.
a. Field exercise with a walk-through inspection.
b. Onsite discussion of information gathering and determination of sampling locations.
c. Onsite practice in physical assessment.
d. Classroom discussion of field exercise.
15. Training program review. A review of key aspects of the accredited asbestos training program.
C. Upon completion of the inspector training program, the training program must administer a closed-book examination. Each examination must cover the topics required by this section.
1. Each examination must have 100 multiple choice questions.
2. The passing score on the examination must be 70%.
18VAC15-21-310. Inspector refresher training program.
A. An inspector refresher training program must be one-half day. The inspector refresher training program must review federal and state regulations, discuss changes to the regulations, if applicable, and review developments in state-of-the-art procedures. A review of the following topics from the initial accredited asbestos training program must be included in the accredited asbestos inspector refresher training program:
1. Inspection for friable and nonfriable ACM and assessment of the condition of friable ACM;
2. Bulk sampling and documentation of asbestos in schools; and
3. Reinspection and reassessment techniques.
B. A written closed-book examination will be administered covering the topics included in the asbestos inspector refresher training program. The examination will consist of no fewer than 50 questions. The passing score will be 70% correct. Persons who pass the asbestos inspector refresher training program examination will receive a certificate of completion as specified in this chapter.
18VAC15-21-320. Initial management planner training.
A. An initial management planner training program must last a minimum of two days. The management planner training program must include lectures, demonstrations, a training program review, and an examination.
B. The management planner training program must address the following topics:
1. Training program overview.
a. The role of the management planner.
b. Operations and maintenance programs.
c. Setting work priorities; protection of building occupants.
2. Evaluation and interpretation of survey results.
a. Review of Title II (§ 2641 et seq.) of the Toxic Substances Control Act (15 USC § 2601 et seq.) requirements for inspection and management plans as given in § 203(i)(1) of the Toxic Substances Control Act.
b. Summarized field data and laboratory results; comparison between field inspector's data sheet with laboratory results and site survey.
3. Hazard assessment.
a. Amplification of the difference between physical assessment and hazard assessment.
b. The role of the management planner in hazard assessment.
c. Explanation of significant damage, damage, potential damage, and potential significant damage and use of a description or decision tree code for assessment of ACM; assessment of friable ACM.
d. Relationship of accessibility, vibration sources, use of adjoining space, air plenums, and other factors to hazard assessment.
4. Legal implications.
a. Liability; insurance issues specific to management planners.
b. Liabilities associated with interim control measures, in-house maintenance, repair, and removal.
c. Use of results from previous inspections.
5. Evaluation and selection of control options.
a. Overview of encapsulation, enclosure, interim operations and maintenance, and removal; advantages and disadvantages of each method.
b. Response actions described via a decision tree or other appropriate method; work practices for each response action.
c. Staging and prioritizing of work in both vacant and occupied buildings.
d. The need for containment barriers and decontamination in response actions.
6. Role of other professionals.
a. Use of industrial hygienists, engineers, and architects in developing technical specifications for response actions.
b. Any requirements that may exist for an architect to sign off on plans.
c. Team approach to the design of high-quality job specifications.
7. Developing an operations and maintenance (O&M) plan.
a. Purpose of the plan.
b. Discussion of applicable EPA guidance documents.
c. What actions should be taken by custodial staff; proper cleaning procedures; steam cleaning and high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) vacuuming.
d. Reducing disturbance of ACM.
e. Scheduling O&M for off-hours; rescheduling or canceling renovation in areas with ACM.
f. Boiler room maintenance.
g. Disposal of ACM.
h. In-house procedures for ACM, including bridging and penetrating encapsulants, pipe fittings, metal sleeves, polyvinyl chloride (PVC), canvas, and wet wraps; muslin with straps; fiber mesh cloth; mineral wool; and insulating cement.
i. Discussion of employee protection programs and staff training.
j. Case study in developing an O&M plan (development, implementation process, and problems that have been experienced).
8. Recordkeeping for the management planner.
a. Use of field inspector's data sheet along with laboratory results.
b. Ongoing recordkeeping as a means to track asbestos disturbance.
c. Procedures for recordkeeping.
9. Assembling and submitting the management plan.
a. Plan requirements in § 203(i)(1) of the of the Toxic Substances Control Act.
b. The management plan as a planning tool.
10. Financing abatement actions.
a. Economic analysis and cost estimates.
b. Development of cost estimates.
c. Present costs of abatement versus future operations and maintenance costs.
d. Asbestos School Hazard Abatement Act grants and loans.
11. A review of key aspects of the accredited asbestos training program.
C. Upon completion of the management planner training program, the training program must administer a closed-book examination. Each examination must cover the topics required by this section.
1. Each examination must have 100 multiple choice questions.
2. The passing score on the examination must be 70%.
18VAC15-21-330. Management planner refresher training program.
A. A management planner refresher training program must be one-half day and review federal and state regulations, discuss changes, if applicable, and review developments in state-of-the-art procedures. A review of the following topics from the initial accredited asbestos management planner training program must be included in the asbestos management planner refresher training program:
1. Evaluation and interpretation of survey results;
2. Hazard assessment;
3. Evaluation and selection of control options; and
4. Developing an operations and maintenance plan.
B. A written closed-book examination will be administered covering the topics included in the asbestos management planner refresher training program. The examination will consist of no fewer than 50 questions. The passing score will be 70% correct. Persons who pass the asbestos management planner refresher training program examination will receive a certificate of completion as specified in this chapter.
18VAC15-21-340. Initial project designer training.
A. An initial project designer training program must last a minimum of three days. The project designer training program must include lectures, demonstrations, a field trip, a training program review, and an examination.
B. The project designer training program must address the following topics:
1. Training program overview.
a. The role of the project designer in the asbestos abatement industry.
b. Discussion of what a project design is.
2. Background information on asbestos.
a. Identification of asbestos and examples and discussion of the uses and locations of asbestos in buildings.
b. Physical appearance of asbestos.
3. Potential health effects related to asbestos exposure.
a. Nature of asbestos-related diseases.
b. Routes of exposure, dose-response relationships, and the lack of a safe exposure level.
c. The synergistic effect between cigarette smoking and asbestos exposure.
d. The latency period of asbestos-related diseases; discussion of the relationship between asbestos exposure and asbestosis, lung cancer, mesothelioma, and cancer of other organs.
4. Overview of abatement construction projects.
a. Abatement as a portion of a renovation project.
b. OSHA requirements for notification of other contractors on a multi-employer site (29 CFR 1926.1101).
5. Safety system design specifications.
a. Construction and maintenance of containment barriers and decontamination enclosure systems.
b. Positioning of warning signs.
c. Electrical and ventilation system lock-out.
d. Proper working techniques for minimizing fiber release.
e. Entry and exit procedures for the work area, use of wet methods, use of negative pressure exhaust ventilation equipment, use of high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) vacuums, proper clean-up and disposal of asbestos, work practices as they apply to encapsulation, enclosure, and repair, use of glove bags, and a demonstration of glove bag use.
6. Field trip.
a. Visit a proposed abatement site or other suitable building site, including onsite discussions of abatement design.
b. Building walk-through inspection, and discussion following the walk-through.
7. Employee personal protective equipment.
a. Classes and characteristics of respirator types.
b. Limitations of respirators, proper selection, inspection, donning, use, maintenance, and storage procedures.
c. Methods for field testing of the facepiece-to-face seal (e.g., positive and negative pressure fitting tests).
d. Qualitative and quantitative fit testing procedures.
e. Variability between field and laboratory protection factors and factors that alter respirator fit (e.g., facial hair).
f. Components of a proper respiratory protection program.
g. Selection and use of personal protective clothing and use, storage, and handling of nondisposable clothing.
h. Regulations covering personal protective equipment.
8. Additional safety hazards.
a. Hazards encountered during abatement activities and how to deal with them.
b. Electrical hazards, heat stress, air contaminants other than asbestos, fire, and explosion hazards.
9. Fiber aerodynamics and control.
a. Aerodynamic characteristics of asbestos fibers.
b. Importance of proper containment barriers.
c. Settling time for asbestos fibers.
d. Wet methods in abatement.
e. Aggressive air monitoring following abatement.
f. Aggressive air movement and negative pressure exhaust ventilation as a clean-up method.
10. Designing abatement solutions.
a. Discussions of removal, enclosure, and encapsulation methods.
b. Asbestos waste disposal.
11. Budgeting and cost estimation.
a. Development of cost estimates.
b. Present costs of abatement versus future operations and maintenance costs.
c. Setting priorities for abatement jobs to reduce cost.
12. Writing abatement specifications.
a. Means and methods specifications versus performance specifications.
b. Design of abatement in occupied buildings.
c. Modification of guide specifications to a particular building.
d. Worker and building occupant health and medical considerations.
e. Replacement of ACM with non-asbestos substitutes.
f. Clearance of work area after abatement.
g. Air monitoring for clearance.
13. Preparing abatement drawings.
a. Use of as-built drawings.
b. Use of inspection photographs and onsite reports.
c. Particular problems in abatement drawings.
14. Contract preparation and administration.
15. Legal, liabilities, and defenses.
a. Insurance considerations, bonding, hold harmless clauses, and use of abatement contractor's liability insurance.
b. Claims-made versus occurrence policies.
16. Replacement of asbestos with asbestos-free substitutes.
17. Role of other consultants.
a. Development of technical specification sections by industrial hygienists or engineers.
b. The multi-disciplinary team approach to abatement design.
c. The use and responsibilities of a project monitor on the abatement site.
18. Occupied buildings.
a. Special design procedures required in occupied buildings.
b. Education of occupants.
c. Extra monitoring recommendations.
d. Staging of work to minimize occupant exposure.
e. Scheduling of renovation to minimize exposure.
19. Relevant federal, state, and local regulatory requirements. Procedures and standards including:
a. Requirements of Title II (§ 2641 et seq.) of the Toxic Substances Control Act (15 USC § 2601 et seq.);
b. 40 CFR Part 61, National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants, Subparts A (General Provisions) and M (National Emission Standard for Asbestos);
c. OSHA standards for respiratory protection (29 CFR 1910.134);
d. EPA Worker Protection Rule, found at 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart G;
e. OSHA Asbestos Construction Standard found at 29 CFR 1926.1101; and
f. OSHA Hazard Communication Standard found in 29 CFR 1926.59.
20. A review of key aspects of the accredited asbestos training program.
C. Upon completion of the project designer training program, the training program must administer a closed-book examination. Each examination must cover the topics required by this section.
1. Each examination must have 100 multiple choice questions.
2. The passing score on the examination must be 70%.
18VAC15-21-350. Project designer refresher training program.
A. A project designer refresher training program must be one day. The project designer refresher training program must review federal and state regulations, discuss changes to the regulations, if applicable, and review developments in state-of-the-art procedures. A review of the following topics from the initial project designer training program must be included in the accredited asbestos project designer refresher training program:
1. Safety system design specifications;
2. Writing abatement specifications; and
3. Employee personal protective equipment.
B. A written closed-book examination will be administered covering the topics included in the asbestos project designer refresher training program. The examination will consist of no fewer than 50 questions. The passing score will be 70% correct. Persons who pass the asbestos project designer refresher training program will receive a certificate of completion as specified in this chapter.
18VAC15-21-360. Initial project monitor training.
A. An initial comprehensive project monitor training program must last a minimum of five days. The project monitor training program must include lectures; demonstrations; at least six hours of hands-on training, which must permit project monitors the experience of performing actual tasks associated with asbestos project monitoring; a field trip; a training program review; and an examination.
B. A comprehensive initial project monitor training program must address the following topics:
1. The physical characteristics of asbestos and asbestos-containing materials.
a. Identification of asbestos.
b. Typical uses and locations in buildings and physical appearance.
c. A review of hazard assessment control options.
d. A summary of abatement control options.
2. Potential health effects related to asbestos exposure.
a. The nature of asbestos-related diseases.
b. Routes of exposure, dose-response relationships, and the lack of a safe exposure level.
c. Synergism between cigarette smoking and asbestos exposure.
d. Latency period for disease; discussion of the relationship between asbestos exposure and asbestosis, lung cancer, mesothelioma, and cancer of the other organs.
3. Employee personal protective equipment.
a. Classes and characteristics of respirator types.
b. Limitations of respirators and proper selection, inspection, donning, use, maintenance, and storage procedures.
c. Methods for field testing of the facepiece-to-face seal (e.g., positive and negative pressure fitting tests).
d. Qualitative and quantitative fit testing procedures.
e. Variability between field and laboratory protection factors.
f. Factors that alter respirator fit (e.g., facial hair).
g. The components of a proper respiratory protection program.
h. Selection and uses of personal protective clothing; use, storage, and handling of nondisposable clothing.
i. Regulations covering personal protection equipment.
4. State of the art work practices.
a. Work practices for asbestos abatement activities, including description of proper construction and maintenance barriers and decontamination enclosure systems.
b. Positioning of warning signs.
c. Electrical and ventilation system lock-out.
d. Working techniques for minimizing fiber release, use of wet methods, use of negative pressure ventilation equipment, and use of high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) vacuums. Entry and exit procedures for work area.
e. Clean-up and disposal procedures.
f. Work practices for removal, encapsulation, enclosure, and repair. Use of glove bags and a demonstration of glove bag use.
g. Emergency procedures for sudden release.
h. Potential exposure situations.
i. Transport and disposal procedures.
j. Recommended and prohibited work practices.
k. Discussion of new abatement related techniques and methodologies.
5. Personal hygiene.
a. Entry and exit procedures for the work area; use of showers; avoidance of eating, drinking, smoking, and chewing (gum or tobacco) in the work area.
b. Potential exposures, such as family exposure, must also be included.
6. Additional safety hazards as covered in 29 CFR Parts 1910 and 1926 to include:
a. Hazards encountered during the abatement activities and how to deal with them, including electrical hazards, heat stress, air contaminants other than asbestos, fire, and explosion hazards;
b. Scaffold and ladder hazards;
c. Slips, trips, and falls; and
d. Confined spaces.
7. Medical monitoring. OSHA requirements for a pulmonary function test, chest X-rays, and a medical history for each employee.
8. Respiratory protection programs and medical surveillance programs.
9. Insurance and liability issues:
a. Contractor issues, workers' compensation coverage, and exclusions.
b. Third-party liabilities and defenses.
c. Insurance coverage and exclusions.
10. Relevant federal, state, and local regulatory requirements, procedures, and standards, including:
a. Requirements of Title II (§ 2641 et seq.) of the Toxic Substances Control Act (15 USC § 2601 et seq.);
b. 40 CFR Part 61 National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants, Subparts A (General Provisions) and M (National Emission Standards for Asbestos);
c. OSHA Standards for respiratory protection (29 CFR 1910.134);
d. OSHA Asbestos Construction Standard (29 CFR 1926.1101);
e. OSHA Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1926.59);
f. EPA Worker Protection Rule, 40 CFR Part 763;
g. Requirements of Asbestos-Containing Waste Materials, 9VAC20-81-620;
h. Department of Transportation 49 CFR Parts 171 and 172 Subpart H; and
i. Virginia asbestos licensing regulations.
11. Air monitoring.
a. NIOSH asbestos monitoring procedure. Procedures to determine airborne concentration of asbestos fibers, including a description of aggressive sampling, sampling equipment, and methods.
(1) Explanation of analytical methods, measures of precision, control of errors, collecting samples, fiber counts, sampling and calibration equipment, statistics, and quality control techniques in sampling.
(2) Review of 29 CFR Part 1926, Subpart F, §§ 1926.150 through 1926.155.
b. Sampling strategy.
(1) Why samples are taken.
(2) Sampling inside and outside of containment area.
(3) Placement of pumps.
c. Reasons for air monitoring.
d. Types of samples and interpretation of results, specifically from analysis performed by polarized light, phase-contrast, and electron microscopy analyses.
e. Final clearance.
12. Overview of supervisory techniques for asbestos abatement activities, to include the information covered in the accredited asbestos supervisor training program. A review of the required work practices and safety considerations.
13. Field trip.
a. Visit a proposed abatement site or other suitable building site, including onsite discussions of abatement design.
b. Building walk-through inspection and discussion following the walk-through.
14. Fiber aerodynamics and control.
a. Aerodynamic characteristics of asbestos fibers.
b. Importance of proper containment barriers.
c. Settling time for asbestos fibers.
d. Wet methods in abatement.
e. Aggressive air monitoring following abatement.
f. Aggressive air movement and negative pressure exhaust ventilation as a clean-up method.
15. Project specifications. Discussion of key elements that are included in contract specifications.
a. Means and methods specifications versus performance specifications.
b. Considerations for design of abatement in occupied buildings.
c. Worker and building occupant health and medical considerations.
d. Replacement of ACM with non-asbestos substitutes.
e. Clearance of work area after abatement.
f. Use of as-built drawings.
g. Use of inspection photographs and onsite reports.
h. Particular problems in abatement drawings.
16. Conducting inspections.
a. Inspection prior to containment to ensure condition of items and proper precleaning.
b. Inspection of containment prior to commencement of abatement to ensure that containment is complete and proper.
c. Daily work and containment inspections.
d. Final visual inspection and a discussion of the ASTM E1368 method.
17. Recordkeeping and documentation.
a. Project logs.
b. Inspection reports.
c. Waste shipment record requirements (WSR).
d. Recordkeeping required by federal, state, or local regulations.
e. Recordkeeping required for insurance purposes.
18. Role of project monitor in relation to:
a. Building owner;
b. Building occupants;
c. Abatement contractor; and
d. Other consultants.
19. Occupied buildings.
a. Special procedures recommended in occupied buildings.
b. Extra monitoring recommendations.
20. A review of NESHAP guidance documents.
21. A review of key aspects of the accredited asbestos training program.
22. Examination.
C. Applicants who are currently accredited by EPA as an asbestos supervisor or asbestos project designer may complete a 16-hour initial project monitor training program. A 16-hour initial project monitor program must include lectures; demonstrations; a least six hours of hands-on training, which must permit project monitors the experience of performing actual tasks associated with asbestos project monitoring; a training program review; and an examination. The 16-hour project monitor training program must cover the topics required by subdivisions B 11 through B 22 of this section.
D. Upon completion of the project monitor training program, the training program must administer a closed-book examination. The examination for the comprehensive initial project monitor training program must cover the topics required by subsection B of this section. The examination for the 16-hour initial project monitor training program must cover the topics required by subdivisions B 11 through B 22 of this section.
1. Each examination must have 100 multiple choice questions.
2. The passing score on the examination must be 70%.
18VAC15-21-370. Project monitor refresher training program.
A. A project monitor refresher training program must be one day. The training program must review federal and state regulations, discuss changes to the regulations, if applicable, and review developments in state-of-the-art procedures. A review of the following topics from the initial accredited asbestos project monitor training program must be included in the asbestos project monitor refresher training program:
1. Occupied buildings;
2. Personal protective equipment;
3. Fiber aerodynamics and control; and
4. Recordkeeping and documentation.
B. A written closed-book examination will be administered covering the topics included in the asbestos project monitor refresher training program. The examination will consist of no fewer than 50 questions. The passing score will be 70% correct. Persons who pass the asbestos project monitor refresher training program examination will receive a certificate of completion as specified in this chapter.
Part VI
General Standards of Practice and Conduct
18VAC15-21-380. Grounds for disciplinary action.
A. The board has the power to reprimand, fine, suspend, or revoke the license or training program approval of any regulant in accordance with § 54.1-516 of the Code of Virginia or this chapter when the regulant has been found to have violated or cooperated with others in violating any provision of Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), 3 (§ 54.1-300 et seq.), or 5 (§ 54.1-500 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or this chapter.
B. Any regulant whose license or training program approval is revoked under this section will not be eligible to reapply for a period of 12 months from the effective date of the order of revocation.
C. Any unlawful act or violation of any provision of Chapter 5 of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or of the regulations of the board by any asbestos supervisor or asbestos worker may be cause for disciplinary action against the asbestos contractor for whom the asbestos supervisor or worker works if it appears to the satisfaction of the board that the asbestos contractor knew or should have known of the unlawful act or violation.
18VAC15-21-390. Prohibited acts.
The following acts are prohibited and any violation may result in disciplinary action by the board:
1. Violating, including inducing another to violate, cooperating with another to violate, or combining or conspiring with or acting as agent, partner, or associate for another to violate any of the provisions of Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), 3 (§ 54.1-300 et seq.), or 5 (§ 54.1-500 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or any of the regulations of the board.
2. Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license or training program approval by false or fraudulent representation; maintaining, renewing, or reinstating a license or training program approval by false or fraudulent representation; or furnishing substantially inaccurate or incomplete information to the board in obtaining, renewing, reinstating, or maintaining a license or training program approval.
3. Failing to notify the board in writing within 30 days after any change in address or name.
4. Having been convicted, found guilty, or disciplined in any jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in 18VAC15-21-30 or 18VAC15-21-150. Review of convictions will be subject to the requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. Failing to notify the board in writing within 30 days of being convicted or found guilty of any felony or of any misdemeanor enumerated in 18VAC15-21-30 E or 18VAC15-21-150 D. Review of convictions will be subject to the requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
6. Failing to notify the board in writing no later than 30 days after final disciplinary action against an asbestos abatement license or asbestos training program accreditation has been taken by another jurisdiction.
7. Violating any provision of AHERA or ASHARA or any federal or state regulation pertinent to asbestos abatement activity.
8. Actions constituting negligence, misconduct, or incompetence in the practice of the profession, including:
a. Having undertaken to perform or performed a professional assignment that the licensee is not qualified to perform by education, experience, training, or appropriate licensure.
b. Not demonstrating reasonable care, judgment, or application of the required knowledge, skill, and ability in the performance of the licensee's duties.
c. Failing to act in providing professional services in a manner that safeguards the interests of the public.
9. Actions constituting engaging in improper, fraudulent, or dishonest conduct, including:
a. Making any misrepresentation or engaging in acts of fraud or deceit in advertising, soliciting, or in providing professional services.
b. Knowingly signing plans, reports, specifications, or other documents related to an asbestos project not prepared or reviewed and approved by the regulant.
c. Knowingly misrepresenting factual information in expressing a professional opinion.
d. Allowing a license issued by the board to be used by another.
10. Acting as or being an ostensible licensee for undisclosed persons who do or will control or direct, directly or indirectly, the operations of the licensee's business.
11. Failing or neglecting to submit information or documentation requested by the board or the board's representatives.
12. Refusing to allow state or federal representatives access to any area of an abatement site, analytical laboratory, or training facility for the purpose of compliance inspections or audits, whether announced or unannounced.
18VAC15-21-400. Conflict of interest.
A. It is a conflict of interest and a violation of this chapter for an asbestos contractor to have an employee-employer relationship with or financial interest in an asbestos analytical laboratory utilized by the contractor for asbestos sample analysis. The requirements of this subsection do not apply when the laboratory performing analysis is owned by the owner of the building where samples are taken.
B. It is a conflict of interest and a violation of this chapter for an asbestos contractor to have an employee-employer relationship with an asbestos project monitor working on an asbestos project performed by that asbestos contractor. An asbestos contractor must not have any financial interests in the firm of which a project monitor is an employee and provides project monitoring services for that contractor. This section does not relieve a contractor of OSHA requirements set forth in 29 CFR 1926.1101.
C. It is a conflict of interest and a violation of this chapter for an asbestos contractor to enter into a contract to perform an asbestos project if the asbestos inspection or project design was performed by individuals with an employer-employee relationship with or financial interest in the asbestos contractor, unless the asbestos contractor provides the building owner with the Virginia Asbestos Licensing Consumer Information Sheet and the Virginia Asbestos Licensing Inspector/Project Designer/Contractor Disclosure Form prescribed by the department. The completed disclosure form must be submitted as part of the bid.
D. The requirements of this section do not apply to a contractor-subcontractor relationship between an asbestos contractor and an asbestos project monitor.
18VAC15-21-410. Change of status for analytical laboratories.
A. The regulant must notify the department within 30 days of any changes to the responsible individual for each laboratory location.
B. The regulant must notify the board within 30 business days upon the loss of accreditation or proficiency rating, as required by 18VAC15-21-160, by any laboratory location.
C. The regulant must notify the board within 30 days if an employed analyst or asbestos project monitor performing asbestos laboratory analysis is removed from the AAR.
D. The regulant must notify the board in writing of any changes to the types of analysis for which the laboratory is licensed. When requesting to add an analysis type to the license, evidence of meeting the qualifications required by 18VAC15-21-160 must be submitted. The regulant must receive board approval of the analysis type prior to performing the analysis.
E. The licensee must notify the department within 30 days of any changes in the laboratory location.
18VAC15-21-420. Transfer of license, firms.
Asbestos contractor licenses and analytical laboratory licenses are issued to firms as defined in this chapter and are not transferable. Should the legal firm holding the license be dissolved or altered to form a new firm, the original license becomes void and must be returned to the board within 30 days of the change. The new firm must apply for a new license within 30 days of the change in the firm. Such changes include:
1. Death of a sole proprietor;
2. Death or withdrawal of a general partner in a general partnership, or the managing partner in a limited partnership;
3. Termination or cancellation of a corporation or limited liability company; and
4. Conversion, formation, or dissolution of a corporation, a limited liability company, or an association or any other firm recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth.
18VAC15-21-430. (Reserved).
18VAC15-21-440. Good standing in other jurisdictions.
A. Regulants in other jurisdictions must be in good standing in every jurisdiction where licensed, certified, or approved and must not have had a license, certification, or approval suspended, revoked, or surrendered in connection with a disciplinary action.
B. Regulants may be subject to disciplinary action or removal of an asbestos training program accreditation for disciplinary actions taken by another jurisdiction.
18VAC15-21-450. Response to inquiry and provision of records.
A. A regulant must respond within 10 days to a request by the board or any board agent regarding any complaint filed with the department.
B. Unless otherwise specified by the board, a regulant of the board must produce to the board or any board agent within 10 days of the request any document, book, or record concerning any transaction pertaining to a complaint filed in which the regulant was involved or for which the regulant is required to maintain records. The board may extend such timeframe upon a showing of extenuating circumstances prohibiting delivery within such 10-day period.
C. A licensee must not provide a false, misleading, or incomplete response to the board or any board agent seeking information in the investigation of a complaint filed with the board.
D. With the exception of the requirements of subsection A or B of this section, a licensee must respond to an inquiry by the board or a board agent within 21 days.
Part VII
Standards of Practice and Conduct for Individuals
18VAC15-21-460. Asbestos project designs.
An asbestos project design must include, at minimum:
1. Scope of work.
2. Sequence of work.
3. Work methods and practices to be used.
4. Air sampling procedures.
18VAC15-21-470. Asbestos project monitoring.
A. A project monitor is required on asbestos projects performed in buildings that are occupied or intended to be occupied upon completion of the asbestos project exceeding 260 linear feet, 160 square feet, or 35 cubic feet of asbestos-containing material.
B. A project monitor is required on asbestos projects for which the property owner deems it necessary, regardless of whether the scope of the project is less than described in subsection A of this section.
C. Asbestos project monitors must be present when response actions are being conducted or more frequently if in accordance with the owner-approved contractual agreement with the project monitor.
D. Asbestos project monitors must maintain a daily log of all work performed. The daily log will include inspection reports, air sampling data, type of work performed by the asbestos contractor, problems encountered, and corrective action taken.
E. Asbestos project monitors will take final air samples on all abatement projects, except for abatement projects in residential buildings.
F. Prior to reoccupancy of a building following asbestos abatement, the asbestos project monitor will provide the air sample report on the asbestos analytical laboratory's letterhead in the final clearance report.
18VAC15-21-480. Onsite analysis by project monitors.
Project monitors who analyze PCM air samples on site must (i) be employed by or affiliated with a licensed asbestos analytical laboratory, (ii) have completed the NIOSH 582 or NIOSH 582 Equivalency Course, and (iii) satisfy one of the following:
1. The project monitor is listed in the AAR and rated "acceptable" for the most recent AAT round;
2. The licensed asbestos analytical laboratory employing the project monitor is rated as "proficient" in the IHPAT Program and maintains training and quality control documentation necessary to demonstrate competency in performing onsite analysis; or
3. The licensed asbestos analytical laboratory employing the project monitor is accredited under the IHLAP, remains in compliance with accreditation requirements, and maintains training and quality control documentation necessary to demonstrate competency in performing onsite analysis.
Part VIII
Standards of Practice and Conduct for Firms
18VAC15-21-490. Asbestos contractor.
A. Asbestos contractors must comply with all requirements, procedures, standards, and regulations covering any part of an asbestos project established by EPA, OSHA, the Department of Labor and Industry, and the Divisions of Air Pollution and Waste Management of the Department of Environmental Quality (§ 54.1-517 of the Code of Virginia).
B. Asbestos contractors must comply with the requirements found in Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia governing the regulation of general contractors.
C. Asbestos contractors must employ licensed asbestos supervisors and workers to perform work on any asbestos project.
D. Asbestos contractors must ensure that a licensed asbestos supervisor is present at each job site while an asbestos project is in progress.
E. Prior to the start of any asbestos project, the asbestos contractor must:
1. Notify the building or property owner or agent of the owner when a licensed project monitor is required in accordance with the provisions of 18VAC15-21-470 to determine that proper work practices are used and in compliance with all asbestos laws and regulations provided in this chapter.
2. Obtain a written acknowledgment from the owner or agent of the owner that the owner has been notified of the requirement to secure the services of a licensed asbestos project monitor. Such acknowledgment must include the address of the building where the asbestos project is to take place; the date the work is to be performed; the name, address, and license number of the licensed asbestos contractor performing the work; and evidence that the building or property owner or agent of the owner has received the notification. The initial notification and acknowledgment will be sufficient for the asbestos project.
18VAC15-21-500. Maintenance of licensing and training records at the asbestos project job site.
A. The asbestos contractor will be responsible for maintaining at each project site a list of each asbestos worker and asbestos supervisor, or copy of the licenses of each asbestos worker and asbestos supervisor. This list must include the current license numbers and the license expiration dates of such workers and supervisors. This section does not relieve the contractor of any specific AHERA and ASHARA requirements concerning training certificates.
B. An asbestos contractor must maintain a copy of its Virginia asbestos contractor license on each project site.
C. Any conflict of interest disclosure forms as required by 18VAC15-21-400 must be maintained at each job site.
D. Records maintained at the job site will be made available for review by the department, the Department of Labor and Industry, and all other agencies having authorization to inspect an asbestos project site.
18VAC15-21-510. Asbestos analytical laboratories.
A. Each asbestos analytical laboratory using PLM to analyze bulk suspect material for the presence of asbestos must analyze the material in accordance with either of the following methods:
1. Test Method: Method for the Determination of Asbestos in Bulk Building Materials, EPA 600/R-93/116, EPA Office of Research and Development, effective July 1993.
2. NIOSH Method 9002, NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods (NMAM) Fourth Edition, NIOSH, effective August 15, 1994.
The documents specified in this subsection are incorporated by reference.
B. Each asbestos analytical laboratory using PCM to analyze air samples for the presence of airborne fibers must use either of the following methods:
1. Appendix A of 29 CFR § 1926.1101.
2. NIOSH Method 7400, NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods (NMAM), Fourth Edition, NIOSH, effective August 15, 1994. This document is incorporated by reference.
C. Each asbestos analytical laboratory using TEM to analyze air samples for the presence of airborne asbestos fibers must use either of the following methods:
1. Appendix A to Subpart E of 40 CFR Part 763.
2. NIOSH Method 7402, NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods (NMAM), Fourth Edition, NIOSH, effective August 15, 1994. This document is incorporated by reference.
D. A copy of the current asbestos analytical laboratory license must be on site at all times where analysis is performed, including project sites. The license must be available for review by the department.
Part IX
Standards of Practice and Conduct for Accredited Training Programs and Board-approved Training Courses
18VAC15-21-520. General requirements for training programs and courses.
A. All Virginia-approved accredited asbestos training programs and board-approved training courses must remain in compliance with all training and recordkeeping requirements established by MAP.
B. Each initial and refresher accredited training program and board-approved training course must be discipline specific.
C. All accredited training programs must be taught in English. Accredited asbestos worker training programs are exempt from this requirement.
18VAC15-21-525. Electronic delivery of asbestos refresher training courses.
A. Electronic delivery of accredited asbestos refresher training courses is permitted, provided the following requirements are met:
1. Courses delivered electronically must be approved by the board in accordance with Part V (18VAC15-21-220 et seq.) of this chapter. A pre-existing approval for an in-person, classroom-based refresher course does not extend to approval of the electronic course.
2. The training provider must have a system in place to authenticate each participant's identity and the participant's eligibility to enroll in the course.
3. A unique identifier must be assigned to each participant to be used to launch and re-launch the course. This identifier may be used throughout the course if deemed necessary by the instructor.
4. Each participant must be logged into the course and participating for the full length of time required for each course discipline. The training provider must track each participant's course logins, launches, progress, and completion. The training provider must maintain a record of the same in accordance with the applicable recordkeeping requirements of MAP and this chapter.
5. The course must include knowledge checks throughout the entirety of the course. The knowledge checks must be successfully completed before the participant moves on to the next module.
6. Course instructors must be available to answer questions or offer technical discussion by way of online discussion or message boards, or a telephone number during the training period.
7. There must be a test of at least 20 questions at the end of the course, of which 80% must be answered correctly for successful completion of the course. The test must be designed so that the student does not receive feedback on answers until after the test has been submitted.
8. Each participant must be provided with a completion certificate that may be saved and printed. The completion certificate must specifically mention that the course was taken online. The certificate must not be susceptible to editing. The certificate must contain all information required by MAP and this chapter.
9. Course notifications and participant lists provided to the board must indicate whether the course is conducted electronically.
B. Electronic courses must meet all other requirements for refresher courses as established in this chapter.
C. For auditing purposes, the board must have unrestricted access to the electronic course at any time during which the course is conducted.
D. For purposes of this section, electronic delivery includes real-time virtual training and asynchronous delivery of training courses.
18VAC15-21-530. Length of training.
A. No portion of an accredited training program or board-approved training course will exceed eight hours in a 24-hour period. [ One day equals eight hours, inclusive of lunches and breaks, for all accredited training programs. ]
B. Portions of accredited training programs or board-approved training courses conducted after 5 p.m. and before 8 a.m. may not exceed four hours, except where training is conducted during the course participants' usual working hours.
C. Portions of accredited training programs or board-approved training courses conducted between Friday after 5 p.m. and Monday before 8 a.m. may not exceed 16 hours.
D. Each initial accredited training program or board-approved training course, including examinations, must be completed within a single two-week timeframe.
18VAC15-21-540. Presence of instructor required to provide training.
An instructor must remain present in the classroom or training area where instruction takes place at all times during the course of the accredited training program or board-approved training course.
18VAC15-21-550. Minimum standards for training program and course materials.
A. Prior to the start of the accredited asbestos training program or board-approved training course, the training provider must prepare a course outline or syllabus to be distributed to all course participants.
B. At a minimum, the outline or syllabus must include:
1. Training program title and length of training;
2. Start time of each day of training;
3. Division of course sections, to include the instructor and length of time for each section;
4. Start and end times for each scheduled break;
5. Start and end times for each scheduled lunch;
6. Scheduled hands-on training, a description of the training, the name of the instructor, and length of training; and
7. Start and end time of the final examination.
C. All training program participants will be issued a training program manual for the training program.
D. Use of video instruction is permitted in an accredited training program, provided that videos are not the sole and primary source of instruction.
E. In no case will equipment utilized for display or as part of hands-on training have been utilized on an asbestos abatement project site.
F. Following attendance of the accredited training program or board-approved training course and successful completion of an examination by the training program participant, the training provider must issue a certificate of completion to the training program participant. At a minimum, the completion certificate must include:
1. Training provider's business name;
2. Training provider's business address and telephone number;
3. Location of training;
4. Typewritten or printed name of training program participant;
5. Training program title and length of training in hours;
6. Certificate number;
7. Start and end dates of the training program;
8. Examination date;
9. An expiration date one year after the date of completion of the accredited asbestos training program;
10. For training programs covered under 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart E, Appendix C, a statement that the person receiving the certificate has completed the requisite training for asbestos accreditation under Title II (§ 2641 et seq.) of the Toxic Substances Control Act (15 USC § 2601 et seq.);
11. Statement of attendance and successful completion of an examination by the training program participant; and
12. Signature and typewritten or printed name of the accredited asbestos training program manager or administrator and principal instructor. The signature may be a printed facsimile.
[ G. The board will not accept training certificates of completion for initial training courses where the name of the course participant, training manager, and principal instructor are the same.
H. Course participants in a refresher training course who are both the training manager and principal instructor of a refresher training program must be monitored by another instructor if completing the program's examination for the purpose of license renewal. The monitoring individual must sign the certificate of completion as the participant's instructor. A course participant in a refresher training course who is either the training manager or the principal instructor of a training program must be monitored by the other if completing his own program's examination for the purpose of license renewal. The monitoring individual must sign the certificate of completion as the participant's instructor. ]
18VAC15-21-560. Examinations.
A. Oral examinations are not permitted in an accredited training program. Accredited asbestos worker training programs are exempt from this requirement.
1. Instructors providing oral examinations must provide an answer sheet to the course participant, to be completed by the participant.
2. The answer sheet must be signed by the course participant.
B. Examinations must be given in the language of the accredited asbestos training program's instruction.
C. A course participant is allowed one opportunity to retake a failed examination. If the course participant fails to achieve a 70% passing score on the second examination attempt, the course participant must reenroll and participate in the entirety of the discipline-specific accredited training program.
18VAC15-21-570. Reporting of changes.
A. Any change in the information provided in Part V (18VAC15-21-220 et seq.) of this chapter must be reported to the board prior to implementing the change. Information submitted will be reviewed to ensure compliance with the provisions of this chapter prior to the continuation of the accredited asbestos training program.
B. Documentation of all instructor qualifications will be reviewed and approved by the board prior to the instructor teaching in an accredited asbestos training program.
C. Changes to the certificate of completion must be submitted to the board for review and approval prior to issuance to training program participants.
18VAC15-21-580. Recordkeeping and provision of records to the board.
A. Unless otherwise authorized by the board, the training provider must submit course notifications and participant lists to the board electronically in a format established by the board.
B. The training provider must notify the board no less than 48 hours prior to the start date of any accredited asbestos training program.
C. The training provider must provide an updated notification when an accredited training program will begin on a date other than the start date specified in the original notification no less than 48 hours prior to the new start date.
D. The training provider must update the board of any change in location of an accredited training program at least 48 hours prior to the start date provided to the board.
E. The training provider must update the board regarding any accredited training program cancellations or any other change to the original notification at least 48 hours prior to the start date provided to the board. This requirement does not apply to situations or circumstances beyond the control of the training provider.
F. Each notification, including updates, must include the following:
1. Notification type (e.g., original, update, cancellation).
2. Training program name, Virginia accreditation number, address, and telephone number.
3. Course discipline, type (initial or refresher), and the language in which the instruction will be given.
4. Dates and times of training.
5. Training locations, telephone number, and address.
6. Principal instructor's name.
G. For all accredited training programs, the training provider must provide to the board a training program participant list of all of the individuals attending the accredited training program course within 10 days of the course end date. The training program participant list must contain the following minimum information:
1. Training program name, Virginia accreditation number, address, and telephone number.
2. Course discipline and type (initial or refresher).
3. Dates of training.
4. Location of training program presentation.
5. Each participant's name, address, social security number, course completion certificate number, and course test score.
6. Principal instructor's name.
H. The principal instructor must complete the training program participant list daily.
I. The training program participant list must be retained by the training provider for three years following the date of completion of the training program.
J. The department has discretion to refuse to recognize completion certificates from accredited training providers that fail to provide course notifications or training program participant lists to the board.
K. Approval letters for accredited training programs must be maintained at the location of training and made accessible to the public.
L. A copy of the training program outline must be retained by the training provider for a period of three years following the completion of the training program.
M. All examinations completed by the accredited training program participants, regardless of the examination score, must be kept for a period of three years after the examination date.
N. Records required to be maintained by the training provider must be maintained at the physical location of the accredited asbestos training provider.
18VAC15-21-590. Access by the department.
Accredited training providers must permit department representatives to attend, evaluate, and monitor any accredited training program. Prior notice of attendance by department representatives is not required. The department will be given access to all course materials, principal instructor and training manager rosters, participant rosters, and other records as stipulated by this chapter.
18VAC15-21-600. Withdrawal of approval of an accredited asbestos training program.
A. The board has discretion to withdraw approval of any accredited training program for the following reasons:
1. The training provider, instructors, or training programs no longer meet the standards established in this chapter.
2. The board determines that the provider is not conducting the training in a manner that meets the requirements as set forth in this chapter.
3. Suspension or revocation of training approval in another state or by EPA.
B. Decisions regarding withdrawal of approval will be made by the board under the provisions of the Virginia Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
NOTICE: The following forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. Amended or added forms are reflected in the listing and are published following the listing. Online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may also click on the name to access a form. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 201 North Ninth Street, Fourth Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (18VAC15-21)
[ Virginia Asbestos Licensing Consumer Information Sheet, A506-33ACIS-v2 (rev. 8/2013)
Inspector/Project Designer/Contractor Disclosure Form, A506-33DIS-v2 (rev. 8/2013)
Virginia Asbestos Licensing Consumer Information Sheet, A506-33ACIS-v3 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Worker License Application, A506-3301LIC-v5 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Supervisor License Application, A506-3302LIC-v5 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Inspector License Application, A506-3303LIC-v6 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Management Planner License Application, A506-3304LIC-v5 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Project Designer License Application, A506-3305LIC-v5 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos - Experience Verification Application, A506-33AEXP-v6 (eff. 1/2026)
Inspector/Designer Contractor Disclosure Form, A506-33DIS-v3 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Contractor License Application, A506-3306LIC-v7 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Project Monitor - Universal License Recognition (ULR) Application, A506-3309ASB-v2 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Project Monitor License Application, A506-3309LIC-v6 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Project Monitor - Work Experience Log, A506-3309EXP-v4 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Training Program Review and Audit Application, A506-3331ACRS-v6 (eff. 1/2026)
Change of Laboratory Analysis Type, A506-3333_34COA-v2 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Analytical Laboratory License Application, A506-3333LIC-v9 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Analytical Laboratory - Branch Office Application, A506-3334BR-v3 (eff. 1/2026) ]
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (18VAC15-21)
NIOSH Method 7400, NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods (NMAM), Fourth Edition, NIOSH, August 15, 1994
NIOSH Method 7402, NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods (NMAM), Fourth Edition, NIOSH, August 15, 1994
NIOSH Method 9002, NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods (NMAM) Fourth Edition, NIOSH, August 15, 1994
Test Method: Method for the Determination of Asbestos in Bulk Building Materials, EPA Office of Research and Development, (EPA 600-R-93-116, July 1993)
VA.R. Doc. No. R23-7460; Filed November 06, 2025
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
VIRGINIA BOARD FOR ASBESTOS, LEAD, AND HOME INSPECTORS
Final
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
VIRGINIA BOARD FOR ASBESTOS, LEAD, AND HOME INSPECTORS
Final Regulation
Titles of Regulations: 18VAC15-20. Virginia Asbestos Licensing Regulations (repealing 18VAC15-20-10 through 18VAC15-20-880).
18VAC15-21. Asbestos Licensing Regulations (adding 18VAC15-21-10 through 18VAC15-21-600).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-501 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 2, 2026.
Agency Contact: Cameron Parris, Regulatory Operations Administrator, Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-9183, fax (866) 350-5354, or email cameron.parris@dpor.virginia.gov.
Summary:
This action repeals Virginia Asbestos Licensing Regulations (18VAC15-20) and promulgates Asbestos Licensing Regulations (18VAC15-21). The new regulation (i) establishes the entry requirements for licensure as an asbestos worker, supervisor, inspector, management planner, project designer, project monitor, asbestos contractor, and analytical laboratory; (ii) requires a high school diploma or equivalent requirement as a minimum education qualification for asbestos supervisor and asbestos project monitor applicants and at least three months of experience for asbestos supervisor applicants; (iii) reduces fees for asbestos contracting firms; (iv) reduces experience requirements by 50% for asbestos inspector, management planner, project designer, and project monitor asbestos licenses; (v) reduces the look-back period for disclosure of criminal convictions and expands the scope of such convictions; (vi) makes reporting requirements slightly less stringent for individual licensees and laboratories and more stringent for training providers; (vii) increases to $2,000 the threshold value to determine if a financial interest exists; (viii) establishes requirements for maintaining and renewing licenses; (ix) outlines requirements for approval of accredited asbestos training programs; (x) establishes standards of practice and conduct for licensees and accredited training programs; and (xi) makes numerous editorial and formatting changes.
Changes to the proposed regulation include (i) adding a provision requiring applicants to provide an email address in order to facilitate a paperless licensing process; (ii) requiring that applicants only have at least 16 hours each of experience in Occupational Safety and Health Administration Class I and Class II asbestos activities; (iii) restoring initial licensure, renewal, and late renewal fees for asbestos contractors that were proposed to be removed; (iv) removing a provision stipulating that license fees be made payable to the Treasurer of Virginia; (v) removing expired provisions pertaining to temporary renewal and late renewal fees; (vi) updating forms; and (vi) adding provisions addressing the situation where licensed individuals who are training managers and principal instructors of asbestos training programs take refresher training courses at their own approved programs.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar of Regulations.
Chapter 21
Asbestos Licensing Regulations
Part I
Definitions
18VAC15-21-10. Definitions.
A. Section 54.1-500 of the Code of Virginia provides definitions of the following terms and phrases used in this chapter:
"Accredited asbestos training program"
"Asbestos"
"Asbestos analytical laboratory license"
"Asbestos-containing materials" or "ACM"
"Asbestos management plan"
"Asbestos project" or "asbestos abatement project"
"Asbestos supervisor"
"Board"
"Friable"
"Person"
"Principal instructor"
"Training manager"
B. The following words and terms when used in this chapter will have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"AAR" means the Asbestos Analysts Registry program offered by the AIHA Registry Programs.
"AAT" means Asbestos Analyst Testing.
"Accredited training program" means a profession-specific asbestos training program or course that is approved by the board and designated as either initial or refresher and is required under the MAP as issued under the Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act of 1986, 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart E; or an approved training course that has been approved by EPA or another state that has an EPA-approved MAP program.
"Address of record" means the [ mailing ] address [ or email address ] designated by the regulant to receive notices and correspondence from the board.
"AHERA" means Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act, 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart E.
"AIHA" means American Industrial Hygiene Association.
"Applicant" means a person who has submitted an application to the board, but has not been granted a license or accreditation by the board.
"Application" means a completed board-prescribed form submitted with the appropriate fee and other required documentation.
"Approval letter" means a written notice confirming the firm or individual applicant's licensure or accreditation of a training program by the board.
"Asbestos contractor" means a person who contracts with another person for compensation to carry out an asbestos project or to perform any work on an asbestos project.
"Asbestos inspector" means an individual who conducts an asbestos inspection.
"Asbestos inspection" means an onsite investigation to determine the potential presence or exposure of ACM.
"Asbestos management planner" means any individual preparing or updating an asbestos management plan.
"Asbestos project design" means any work plan describing the construction of an asbestos abatement area, response action, or work practices to be utilized on an asbestos abatement project.
"Asbestos project designer" means an individual who designs or develops a design for an asbestos abatement project.
"Asbestos project monitor" means an individual who monitors or acts as a monitor of an asbestos abatement project.
"Asbestos worker" means an individual who works on an asbestos abatement project.
"ASHARA" means Asbestos School Hazard Abatement Reauthorization Act, 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart E.
"BAPAT" means the Bulk Asbestos Proficiency Analytical Testing Program of the AIHA Proficiency Analytical Testing Programs.
"Board-approved training course" means a training course that has been approved by the board to provide training for individuals who act as a project monitor.
"Department" means the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.
"Direct supervision" means exercising oversight, direction of, and control over the work of another.
"Employee" means an individual who has an employment relationship acknowledged by both the individual and the firm and is treated as an employee for the purposes of compliance with federal income tax laws.
"Encapsulation" means the treatment of ACM with a material that surrounds or embeds asbestos fibers in an adhesive matrix to prevent the release of fibers as the encapsulant creates a membrane over the surface (i.e., bridging encapsulant) or penetrates the material and binds its components together (i.e., penetrating encapsulant).
"Encasement" means any process by which an ACM is sprayed with an insulating sealer that is then mechanically fastened to the asbestos-covered substrate. The insulating sealer is then covered with a sealer to give structural strength and durability.
"Enclosure" means the construction or installation over or around the ACM of any leak-tight solid or flexible coverings that will not deteriorate or decompose for an extended period of time so as to conceal the ACM, contain ACM fibers, and render the ACM inaccessible.
"Environmental remediation activity" means any activity planned or carried out for the purpose of reducing or eliminating any environmental hazard, including activities necessary to train individuals in the proper or lawful conduct of such activities that are regulated by federal or state law or regulation.
"EPA" means U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.
"Financial interest" means financial benefit accruing to an individual or to a member of the individual's immediate family. Such interest exists by reason of (i) ownership in a business if the ownership exceeds 3.0% of the total equity of the business; (ii) annual gross income that exceeds or may be reasonably anticipated to exceed $2,000 from ownership in real or personal property or a business; (iii) salary, other compensation, fringe benefits, or benefits from the use of property paid or provided by a business that exceeds or may be reasonably expected to exceed $2,000 annually; or (iv) ownership of real or personal property if the interest exceeds $2,000 in value and excluding ownership in business, income, salary, other compensation, fringe benefits, or benefits from the use of property.
"Firm" means a sole proprietorship, association, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or any other form of business organization recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth.
"Guest instructor" means an instructor who is invited to instruct a specific topic in an accredited asbestos training program and whose instruction is limited to two hours per day.
"Hands-on training" means the physical participation of students in an accredited asbestos training program. Physical participation includes mock activities specific to the license discipline.
"IHLAP" means the Industrial Hygiene Laboratory Accreditation Program of the AIHA Laboratory Accreditation Programs LLC.
"IHPAT" means the Industrial Hygiene Proficiency Analytical Testing Program of the AIHA Proficiency Analytical Testing Programs LLC.
"Immediate family" means (i) a spouse, (ii) a sibling or stepsibling, (iii) a parent or stepparent, (iv) a child or stepchild, or (v) any other person residing in the same household as the individual.
"Inspection" means an activity undertaken to determine the presence or location or to access the condition of friable or nonfriable ACM or suspected ACM, whether by visual or physical examination or by collecting samples of such material. This term includes reinspections of friable and nonfriable known or assumed ACM that has been previously identified. Inspection does not include the following:
1. Periodic surveillance of the type described in 40 CFR 763.92(b) solely for the purpose of recording or reporting a change in the condition of known or assumed ACM;
2. Inspections performed by employees or agents of federal, state, or local governments solely for the purpose of determining compliance with applicable statutes or regulations; or
3. Visual inspections solely for the purpose of determining completion of response actions.
"Instructor" means a person who instructs one or more accredited asbestos training programs, including the principal instructor, but excluding guest instructors.
"MAP" means the EPA Asbestos Model Accreditation Plan (Appendix C of 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart E).
"Monitor" means observing and reviewing the activities of an asbestos contractor on an asbestos abatement project, as required by this chapter, to determine whether proper work practices are used and compliance with all asbestos laws and regulations is maintained.
"NIOSH" means National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health.
"NVLAP" means the Asbestos Fiber Analysis Program of the National Institute of Standards and Technology National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program.
"Occupied" means any area of any building designed or intended for human occupancy for any purpose.
"OSHA" means the U.S. Department of Labor Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
"PCM" means phase-contrast microscopy.
"PLM" means polarized light microscopy.
"Regulant" means an asbestos worker, asbestos supervisor, asbestos inspector, asbestos management planner, asbestos project designer, asbestos project monitor, asbestos contractor, or asbestos analytical laboratory that holds a license issued by the board, or an asbestos training program that has been accredited by the board.
"Removal" means the physical removal of ACM in accordance with all applicable regulations.
"Renovation" means altering in any way one or more facility components.
"Repair" means returning damaged ACM to an undamaged condition or to an intact state so as to prevent fiber release.
"Residential buildings" means site-built homes, modular homes, condominium units, mobile homes, manufactured housing, and duplexes or other multi-unit dwellings consisting of four units or fewer that are currently in use or intended for use only for residential purposes.
"Response action" means any method, including removal, encapsulation, enclosure, encasement, or operation and maintenance, that protects human health and the environment from ACM.
"Responsible individual" means the employee, officer, manager, owner, or principal of the firm who is designated by each firm to ensure compliance with Chapter 5 (§ 54.1-500 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and all regulations of the board and to receive communications and notices from the board that may affect the firm.
[ "Substantial change" means a change in overall asbestos training program, materials, principal instructors, training managers, directors, ownership, facilities, equipment, examinations, or certificates of completion. The addition of updated regulations, exam questions, or news articles will not be considered a substantial change. ]
"TEM" means transmission electron microscopy.
"Visual inspection" means a process of looking for conditions that, if not corrected during an asbestos abatement project, could result in residual asbestos-containing dust or debris. Visual inspection includes examination of an asbestos abatement project area prior to clearance air monitoring for evidence that the project has been successfully completed as indicated by the absence of residue, dust, and debris.
Part II
Entry
18VAC15-21-20. Application procedures.
A. All applicants seeking licensure must submit an application with the appropriate fee specified in 18VAC15-21-180. Application must be made on forms provided by the board or the board's agent.
1. By submitting the application to the department, the applicant certifies that the applicant has read and understands the applicable statutes and the board’s regulations.
2. The receipt of an application and the deposit of fees by the department does not indicate approval of the application by the board.
B. The board may make further inquiries and investigations with respect to the applicant's qualifications to confirm or amplify information supplied. All applications must be completed in accordance with the instructions contained in this chapter and on the application. Applications will not be considered complete until all required documents are received by the board.
C. The applicant will be notified if the application is incomplete. A person who fails to complete the application process within 12 months after the date the department receives the application must submit a new application and fee.
D. The applicant must immediately report all changes in information supplied with the application, if applicable, prior to issuance of the license or expiration of the application.
18VAC15-21-30. General requirements for licensure: individuals.
A. In addition to the specific qualifications for each license type, each applicant for individual licensure must meet the requirements provided in this section.
B. The applicant must disclose the applicant's full legal name.
C. The applicant must be at least 18 years of age.
D. The applicant must disclose the applicant's mailing address [ and email address ]. A post office box is only acceptable as a mailing address when a physical address is also provided.
E. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant must disclose the following information:
1. All felony convictions.
2. All misdemeanor convictions related to environmental remediation activity.
3. All misdemeanor convictions, excluding marijuana convictions, that occurred within three years of the date of application.
The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
F. The applicant must report any action taken by any board or administrative body in any jurisdiction against a professional or occupational license, certification, or registration issued to the applicant, to include any suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license, certification, or registration; imposition of a monetary penalty; or requirement to take remedial education or other corrective action. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant for any prior action taken by any board or administrative body in any jurisdiction.
G. Applicants must be in compliance with the standards of practice and conduct set forth in Part VI (18VAC15-21-380 et seq.) and Part VII (18VAC15-21-460 et seq.) of this chapter at the time of application to the board, while the application is under review by the board, and at all times when the license is in effect.
18VAC15-21-40. Application denial.
A. The board may refuse initial licensure or accreditation due to an applicant's failure to comply with entry requirements or for any of the reasons for which the board may discipline a regulant.
B. The applicant has the right to request further review of any such action by the board under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
18VAC15-21-50. Qualifications for asbestos worker license.
Each individual applying for an asbestos worker license must provide proof of successful completion of (i) an EPA-approved or board-approved initial accredited asbestos worker training program and all subsequent EPA-approved or board-approved accredited asbestos worker refresher training programs or (ii) an EPA-approved or board-approved initial accredited supervisor training program and all subsequent EPA-approved or board-approved accredited asbestos supervisor refresher training programs. The training certificate must indicate that the training was taken within 12 months preceding the date the department receives the application.
18VAC15-21-60. Qualifications for asbestos supervisor license.
A. Each individual applying for an asbestos supervisor license must:
1. Have a high school diploma or equivalent;
2. Provide proof of successful completion of an EPA-approved or board-approved initial accredited supervisor training program and all subsequent EPA-approved or board-approved accredited asbestos supervisor refresher training programs. The training certificate must indicate that the training was taken within 12 months preceding the date the department receives the application; and
3. Furnish acceptable documentation of three months of experience in asbestos abatement work.
B. The experience submitted pursuant to subsection A of this section must meet the requirements of 18VAC15-21-120.
18VAC15-21-70. Qualifications for asbestos inspector license.
A. Each individual applying for an asbestos inspector license must provide:
1. Proof of successful completion of an EPA-approved or board-approved initial accredited inspector training program and all subsequent EPA-approved or board-approved accredited asbestos inspector refresher training programs; and
2. Evidence of experience in performing asbestos inspections in buildings or industrial facilities, including collecting bulk samples, categorizing ACM, assessing ACM, and preparing inspection reports. The applicant must furnish acceptable documentation that one of the following qualifications has been met:
|
Education
|
Experience
|
|
Acceptable master's or bachelor's degree program
|
Three months or performed a minimum of seven inspections
|
|
Acceptable associate's degree program
|
Six months or performed a minimum of 10 inspections
|
|
High school diploma or equivalent
|
12 months or performed a minimum of 15 inspections
|
B. The education submitted pursuant to subsection A of this section must meet the requirements of 18VAC15-21-110. The experience submitted pursuant to subsection A of this section must [ comply with meet the requirements of ] 18VAC15-21-120.
18VAC15-21-80. Qualifications for asbestos management planner license.
A. Each individual applying for an asbestos management planner license must provide:
1. Proof of successful completion of (i) an EPA-approved or board-approved initial accredited management planner training program and all subsequent EPA-approved or board-approved accredited asbestos management planner refresher training programs and (ii) an EPA-approved or board-approved initial accredited inspector training program and all subsequent EPA-approved or board-approved accredited asbestos inspector refresher training programs; and
2. Evidence of experience evaluating inspection reports, selecting response actions, analyzing the cost of response actions, ranking response actions, preparing operations and maintenance plans, and preparing management plans. The applicant must furnish acceptable documentation that one of the following qualifications has been met:
|
Education
|
Experience
|
|
Acceptable master's or bachelor's degree program
|
Three months or prepared a minimum of three management plans
|
|
Acceptable associate's degree program
|
Six months or prepared a minimum of five management plans
|
|
High school diploma or equivalent
|
12 months or prepared a minimum of seven management plans
|
B. The education submitted pursuant to subsection A of this section must meet the requirements of 18VAC15-21-110. The experience submitted pursuant to subsection A of this section must [ comply with meet the requirements of ] 18VAC15-21-120.
18VAC15-21-90. Qualifications for asbestos project designer license.
A. Each individual applying for an asbestos project designer license must provide:
1. Proof of successful completion of an EPA-approved or board-approved initial accredited project designer training program and all subsequent EPA-approved or board-approved accredited asbestos project designer refresher training programs; and
2. Evidence of experience in the preparation of project designs or project specifications. The applicant must furnish acceptable documentation that one of the following qualifications has been met:
|
Education
|
Experience
|
|
Acceptable master's or bachelor's degree program
|
Three months or completed a minimum of five project designs
|
|
Acceptable associate's degree program
|
Six months or completed a minimum of seven project designs
|
|
High school diploma or equivalent
|
12 months or completed a minimum of 10 project designs
|
B. The education submitted pursuant to subsection A of this section must meet the requirements of 18VAC15-21-110. The experience submitted pursuant to subsection A of this section must [ comply with meet the requirements of ] 18VAC15-21-120.
18VAC15-21-100. Qualifications for asbestos project monitor license.
A. Each individual applying for an asbestos project monitor license must have a high school diploma or equivalent and provide:
1. Proof of (i) a current certification by EPA as an asbestos project designer or asbestos supervisor and successful completion of a board-approved asbestos project monitor training program of 16 hours, including the examination, or (ii) successful completion of a board-approved asbestos project monitor training program of 40 hours, including examination. Only project monitor training programs that are board approved will be accepted for meeting the training requirement; and
2. Evidence of 80 hours of experience in performing asbestos project monitoring through field work on project sites, of which at least [ 40 16 ] hours must be from OSHA Class I asbestos activities and at least [ 40 16 ] hours must be from OSHA Class II asbestos activities. This includes evaluating and monitoring asbestos work practices, collecting environmental asbestos air samples during abatement, performing visual inspections, and taking final air samples to grant clearance for asbestos abatement projects.
B. The experience submitted pursuant to subdivision A 2 of this section must [ comply with meet the requirements of ] 18VAC15-21-120.
18VAC15-21-110. Acceptable degree programs.
A. Applicants seeking to qualify for licensure based on completion of an associate's, bachelor's, or master's degree must submit an official transcript from the school where the applicable degree was obtained. Only degrees from an accredited college or university that is approved or accredited by the Commission on Colleges of the Southern Association of Colleges and Schools, a regional or national accreditation association, or by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education will be considered.
B. The following degrees will be considered to qualify in accordance with 18VAC15-21-70 A 2, 18VAC15-21-80 A 2, or 18VAC15-21-90 A 2:
1. Bachelor's or master's degree in engineering, architecture, industrial hygiene, environmental science or studies, or physical science;
2. Bachelor's degree in a related field that includes a minimum of 40 semester credit hours in any combination of science, technology, engineering and math;
3. Master's degree in a related field and a bachelor's degree in any major such that the combined degrees include a minimum of 40 semester credit hours in any combination of science, technology, engineering, and math; or
4. Associate's degree in engineering, architecture, industrial hygiene, environmental science or studies, or physical science, or a related field that includes a minimum of 20 credit hours in any combination of science, technology, engineering, and math.
18VAC15-21-120. Experience used to qualify for licensure.
A. Experience used to qualify for licensure in accordance with 18VAC15-21-60 A 3, 18VAC15-21-70 A 2, 18VAC15-21-80 A 2, 18VAC15-21-90 A 2, or 18VAC15-21-100 A 2 may be obtained by:
1. Working in the applicable profession in another state, provided such work complied with all federal, state, and local statutes.
2. Working in the applicable profession under the direct supervision of a properly licensed individual or EPA-certified individual where no license is required. All reports prepared by the unlicensed individual must be signed by the licensed or EPA-certified individual. The licensed or EPA-certified individual assumes responsibility for all work conducted and reports prepared, as applicable, by the unlicensed individual.
B. Experience used to qualify for licensure must be verified by a supervisor on a board-approved experience verification form signed by a supervisor verifying the applicant's experience. An applicant who is self-employed or otherwise unable to obtain a verifying signature for experience must submit five copies of the completed inspections, management plans, project designs, or project monitor reports, as applicable to the license sought.
18VAC15-21-130. Individuals certified or licensed in another jurisdiction.
A. The board may issue a license to an applicant who holds an equivalent and valid license or certificate in another state, the District of Columbia, or any other territory or possession of the United States, provided the requirements and standards under which the license or certificate was issued are substantially equivalent to those established in this chapter and related statutes. The applicant will only need to provide the most recent, current asbestos training program for the applicable license type.
B. In order to qualify in accordance with this section, the applicant must provide proof of a valid license or certificate in the other state acceptable to the board and must be in good standing by the issuing license or certification authority.
18VAC15-21-140. Qualifications for asbestos contractor license.
A firm that holds a valid contractor license issued by the Board for Contractors with an asbestos contracting specialty service designation in accordance with Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and the regulations of the Board for Contractors is deemed qualified for an asbestos contractor license pursuant to Chapter 5 (§ 54.1-500 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and this chapter. Upon verification of the firm's licensure with the Board for Contractors, the board will issue an asbestos contractor license to such firm for a license term that coincides with the license issued by the Board for Contractors.
18VAC15-21-150. General qualifications for an asbestos analytical laboratory license.
A. Each firm applying for an asbestos analytical laboratory license must meet the requirements of this section.
B. The applicant must disclose the name under which the firm conducts business and holds itself out to the public. In accordance with Chapter 5 (§ 59.1-69 et seq.) of Title 59.1 of the Code of Virginia, the firm must register any trade or fictitious names, when applicable, with the State Corporation Commission before submitting an application to the board.
C. The applicant must disclose the firm's mailing address [ and, ] the firm's physical address [ , and the firm's email address ].
D. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, the applicant must disclose the following information about the firm and its owners, officers, managers, members, and directors, as applicable:
1. All felony convictions;
2. All misdemeanor convictions, except marijuana convictions, within the last three years; and
3. Any conviction involving environmental remediation activity that resulted in the significant harm or the imminent and substantial threat of significant harm to human health or the environment.
E. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. The applicant has the right to request further review of any such action by the board under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2- 4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
F. The applicant must report any disciplinary action taken by any board or administrative body in any jurisdiction against a professional or occupational license, certification, or registration issued to the firm, its owners, officers, managers, members, or directors and, as applicable, any reprimand, suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license, certification, or registration, imposition of a monetary penalty, or requirement to take remedial education or other corrective action. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant based on disciplinary action taken by any board or administrative body in any jurisdiction.
G. The board may deny the application of an applicant who is shown to have a substantial identity of interest with a person whose license or certificate has been revoked or not renewed by the board. A substantial identity of interest includes (i) a controlling financial interest by the individual or corporate principals of the person whose license or certificate has been revoked or has not been renewed or (ii) substantially identical owners, officers, managers, members, or directors, as applicable.
18VAC15-21-160. Qualifications for asbestos analytical laboratory analysis type.
A. In addition to the requirements of 18VAC15-21-150, each applicant for an asbestos analytical laboratory license must submit evidence of meeting the standards to perform PLM, PCM, or TEM analysis.
1. For PLM analysis, one of the following:
a. Current NVLAP accreditation demonstrated by submittal of a copy of the most recent Certificate of Accreditation and Scope of Accreditation;
b. The asbestos analytical laboratory is currently rated "proficient" in the BAPAT Program; or
c. The asbestos analytical laboratory is currently accredited under the IHLAP.
2. For PCM analysis, each analyst must have completed the NIOSH 582 or NIOSH 582 Equivalency course. In addition, at least one of the following must be satisfied:
a. At fixed laboratory sites, one of the following qualifications must be met:
(1) The asbestos analytical laboratory is currently accredited under the IHLAP;
(2) The asbestos analytical laboratory is currently rated "proficient" in the IHPAT Program; or
(3) Each analyst is listed in the AAR and has a performance rating of "acceptable" for the most recent AAT round.
b. For onsite analysis, one of the following qualifications must be met:
(1) The asbestos analytical laboratory is currently rated "proficient" in the IHPAT Program;
(2) The asbestos analytical laboratory is currently accredited under the IHLAP; or
(3) Each analyst is listed in the AAR and has a performance rating of "acceptable" for the most recent AAT round.
3. For TEM analysis, a current accreditation by NVLAP to analyze asbestos airborne fibers using TEM as demonstrated by submitting a copy of the NVLAP Certificate of Accreditation and Scope of Accreditation.
B. The applicant must name a responsible individual for the asbestos analytical laboratory.
C. Any branch office of an asbestos analytical laboratory must complete a branch office application from the board. Each branch office will name a resident responsible individual at each branch office.
D. The branch office application must provide the information contained in subsection A of this section for the applicable branch office.
E. Any training and quality control documentation required to be maintained pursuant to this section must be provided to the board upon request.
Part III
Fees
18VAC15-21-170. General fee requirements.
All fees are nonrefundable and will not be prorated. The date on which the fee is received by the department or the department's agent will determine whether the fee is on time. [ Checks or money orders must be made payable to the Treasurer of Virginia. ]
18VAC15-21-180. Application fees.
Application fees are set out in this section.
|
Fee Type
|
Fee Amount
|
When Due
|
|
Application for worker, supervisor, inspector, management planner, project designer, or project monitor license
|
$80
|
With application
|
|
Application for asbestos analytical laboratory license
|
$120
|
With application
|
|
Application for asbestos analytical laboratory branch office
|
$100
|
With application
|
|
[ Application for an asbestos contractor license
|
$110
|
With application ]
|
|
Application for accredited asbestos training program approval
|
$500 per day of training
|
With application
|
18VAC15-21-190. Renewal and late renewal fees.
[ A. ] Renewal and late renewal fees are set out in this section.
|
Fee Type
|
Fee Amount
|
When Due
|
|
Renewal for worker, supervisor, inspector, management planner, project designer, or project monitor license
|
$45
|
With renewal application
|
|
Renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory license
|
$75
|
With renewal application
|
|
Renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory branch office
|
$55
|
With renewal application
|
|
[ Renewal for asbestos contractor license
|
$70
|
With renewal application ]
|
|
Renewal for accredited asbestos training program approval
|
$125
|
With renewal application
|
|
Late renewal for worker, supervisor, inspector, management planner, project designer, or project monitor license (includes a $35 late renewal fee in addition to the regular $45 renewal fee)
|
$80
|
With renewal application
|
|
Late renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory license (includes a $35 late renewal fee in addition to the regular $75 renewal fee)
|
$110
|
With renewal application
|
|
Late renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory branch office (includes $35 late renewal fee in addition to the regular $55 renewal fee)
|
$90
|
With renewal application
|
|
[ Late renewal for asbestos contractor license (includes $35 late renewal fee in addition to the regular $70 renewal fee)
|
$105
|
With renewal application ]
|
|
Late renewal for accredited asbestos training program approval (includes a $35 late renewal fee in addition to the regular $125 renewal fee)
|
$160
|
With renewal application
|
[ B. For licenses expiring after February 1, 2023, and before February 1, 2025, the renewal fees will be as follows:
|
Renewal for worker, supervisor, inspector, management planner,
project designer, or project monitor license
|
$25
|
|
Renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory license
|
$40
|
|
Renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory branch office
|
$40
|
|
Renewal for accredited asbestos training program approval
|
$40
|
For late renewals received after March 1, 2023, and on or before February 28, 2025, the late renewal fees will be as follows:
|
Late renewal for worker, supervisor, inspector, management planner, project designer, or project monitor license
|
$60
|
|
Late renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory license
|
$75
|
|
Late renewal for asbestos analytical laboratory branch office
|
$75
|
|
Late renewal for accredited asbestos training program approval
|
$75 ]
|
Part IV
Renewal
18VAC15-21-200. Renewal required.
A. Each individual asbestos license issued under this chapter will expire 12 months from the last day of the month in which it was issued.
B. Each asbestos analytical laboratory license issued under this chapter will expire 12 months from the last day of the month in which it was issued.
C. Each accredited asbestos training program [ approval issued under this chapter ] will expire 24 months from the last day of the month in which it was approved.
D. Each asbestos contractor license will expire on the expiration date of the corresponding contractor license issued by the Board for Contractors.
18VAC15-21-210. Procedures for renewal.
A. The department will send a renewal notice to each regulant at the address of record. Failure to receive the notice does not relieve the licensee or the accredited asbestos training program of the obligation to renew.
B. Prior to the license expiration, each licensed asbestos analytical laboratory desiring to renew the license must submit the appropriate fee specified in 18VAC15-21-190 to the department. A licensed asbestos analytical laboratory must also submit documentation that the laboratory continues to meet the requirements specified in 18VAC15-21-160 for the type of analysis the laboratory is licensed to perform.
C. Prior to the license expiration date, each licensed individual desiring to renew a license must provide evidence of meeting the annual refresher training requirement for license renewal and the appropriate fee specified in 18VAC15-21-190. The board will accept any asbestos training programs that are approved by EPA or the board. A copy of the training certificate documenting the successful completion of the refresher training for the license type being renewed and meeting the requirements outlined in this chapter must accompany the fee.
1. For renewal of an asbestos worker license, the board will accept evidence of completion of asbestos supervisor refresher training to satisfy the refresher training requirement.
2. For renewal of an asbestos management planner license, a management planner must complete both a management planner refresher training program and an inspector refresher training program.
3. For renewal of an asbestos project monitor license, the board will accept evidence of the following to satisfy the refresher training requirement:
a. For project monitors who also hold a valid Virginia asbestos supervisor or project designer license, completion of a supervisor refresher or project designer refresher, as is applicable to the EPA certification submitted for initial licensure as specified in 18VAC15-21-90; or
b. For project monitors who hold only a project monitor license, completion of a board-approved asbestos project monitor refresher training program to meet renewal requirements.
D. Prior to the approval letter expiration date, each accredited asbestos training program desiring to renew the approval must submit the appropriate fee specified in 18VAC-15-21-190.
E. Annual refresher training certificates will only be used once to renew an individual license.
F. Each license and each accredited asbestos training program approval that is not renewed within 30 days of the expiration date on the license or approval letter will be subject to late renewal fees as established in 18VAC15-21-190.
G. A firm with an asbestos contractor license must provide documentation that the corresponding contractor license issued by the Board for Contractors is current and valid. Upon verification of the firm's licensure with the Board for Contractors, the board will renew the asbestos contractor license for a license term that coincides with the license issued by the Board for Contractors.
H. Each license and each approved accredited asbestos training program that is not renewed within 12 months after the expiration date will not be renewed. The individual or firm must apply for a new license or approval and meet entry requirements current at the time the new application is submitted.
Part V
Approval of Training Programs and Courses
18VAC15-21-220. Application procedures for accredited asbestos training program approval.
A. Training programs desiring board approval must meet the minimum requirements established in this chapter. Persons requesting approval as an accredited asbestos training program to prepare training program participants for licensure requirements must submit the appropriate application form along with the following:
1. Training provider's business name, physical address, mailing address, and telephone number.
2. Copies of documentation of approval of the asbestos training program issued by EPA or other states, if applicable.
3. Applicable fee specified in 18VAC15-21-180.
4. The training program curriculum.
5. A narrative explaining how the training program meets the requirements for approval in the following areas:
a. Length of training in hours.
b. Amount and type of hands-on training.
c. Examinations (length, format, and passing score).
d. Topics covered in the training program.
e. Assurances of test security and how exams are administered.
6. A copy of all training program materials, including student manuals, instructor notebooks, handouts, and training aids.
7. A copy of the examination used and applicable answer sheets.
8. The name and documentation of the qualifications of the training manager. The training manager employed by the applicant must meet the requirements of 18VAC15-21-230.
9. The names and documentation of the qualifications of each principal instructor and subject areas that each principal instructor will teach. Principal instructors must meet the requirements of 18VAC15-21-240.
10. An example of the completion certificate that will be issued to students who successfully complete the accredited asbestos training program.
11. A proposed training program date for auditing purposes. The proposed date will be confirmed or an alternate date will be proposed within 10 business days after receipt of a complete asbestos training program application.
B. An application must contain all information required by this section.
C. An application must be received by the department no less than 45 days prior to the requested audit date.
D. Upon receipt of an application, a preliminary review will be conducted to ensure compliance with this chapter. The applicant will be notified if the application is incomplete or is deficient. All deficiencies must be corrected prior to the onsite audit.
E. Upon completion of the preliminary review, the board will conduct an onsite audit. The applicant will be notified of any deficiencies identified during the audit. All deficiencies must be corrected prior to approval of the application.
F. Onsite audits are not required for final approval of asbestos courses with a primary location that is out of state, to be conducted solely out of state, so long as the course is currently approved by a MAP state. Proof of MAP state approval must be submitted with the application.
G. All training programs must have a monitored, final written examination.
18VAC15-21-230. Training manager qualifications.
An accredited asbestos training program must employ a training manager who:
1. Has a minimum of two years of experience in teaching adults; or
2. Has a minimum of three years of experience in the asbestos abatement industry.
18VAC15-21-240. Principal instructor qualifications.
A. An accredited asbestos training program must use principal instructors who:
1. Have a minimum of 24 hours of asbestos-specific training; and
2. Have a minimum of two years of experience in the asbestos abatement industry or a minimum of two years of experience in teaching adults.
B. Guest instructors are exempt from instructor qualifications and are limited to no more than two hours of training per day.
18VAC15-21-250. Accredited asbestos training program requirements.
In all of the accredited asbestos training program requirements, one day is equal to eight hours, inclusive of lunch and breaks.
18VAC15-21-260. Initial worker training.
A. An initial worker training program must last a minimum of four days. The worker training program must include lectures, demonstrations, at least 14 hours of hands-on training, a training program review, and an examination.
B. The worker training program must address the following topics:
1. Physical characteristics of asbestos.
a. Identification of asbestos.
b. Aerodynamic characteristics.
c. Typical uses and physical appearance.
d. A summary of abatement control options.
2. Potential health effects related to asbestos exposure.
a. The nature of asbestos-related diseases.
b. Routes of exposure, dose-response relationships, and the lack of a safe exposure level.
c. Synergism between cigarette smoking and asbestos exposure.
d. Latency period for disease.
3. Employee personal protective equipment.
a. Classes and characteristics of respirator types.
b. Limitations of respirators and proper selection, inspection, donning, use, maintenance, and storage procedures.
c. Methods for field testing of the facepiece-to-face seal (e.g., positive and negative pressure fitting tests).
d. Qualitative and quantitative fit testing procedures.
e. Variability between field and laboratory protection factors.
f. Factors that alter respirator fit (e.g., facial hair).
g. The components of a proper respiratory protection program.
h. Selection and use of personal protective clothing and use, storage, and handling of nondisposable clothing.
i. Regulations covering personal protective equipment.
4. State-of-the-art work practices.
a. Asbestos abatement activities, including descriptions of construction and maintenance of barriers and decontamination enclosure systems.
b. Positioning of warning signs.
c. Electrical and ventilation system lock-out.
d. Working techniques for minimizing fiber release, use of wet methods, use of negative pressure ventilation equipment, and use of high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) vacuums.
e. Clean-up and disposal procedures.
f. Work practices for removal, encapsulation, enclosure, and repair.
g. Emergency procedures for sudden releases.
h. Potential exposure situations and transport and disposal procedures.
i. Recommended and prohibited work practices.
5. Personal hygiene.
a. Entry and exit procedures for the work area, use of showers, avoidance of eating, drinking, smoking, and chewing (gum or tobacco) in the work area.
b. Potential exposures, including family exposure.
6. Additional safety hazards.
a. Hazards encountered during abatement activities, including electrical hazards, heat stress, air contaminants other than asbestos, fire, and explosion hazards, and how to deal with them.
b. Scaffold and ladder hazards.
c. Slips, trips, and falls.
d. Confined spaces.
7. Medical monitoring.
a. OSHA requirements for a pulmonary function test.
b. Chest X-rays and a medical history for each employee.
8. Air monitoring.
a. Procedures to determine airborne concentrations of asbestos fibers.
b. Focusing on how personal air sampling is performed and the reasons for it.
9. Relevant federal, state, and local regulatory requirements, procedures, and standards, with particular attention directed at relevant EPA, OSHA, and state regulations concerning asbestos abatement workers and Department of Transportation regulations (49 CFR 172 Subpart H), with emphasis on packaging requirements and marking of containers of ACM waste.
10. Establishment of respiratory protection programs.
11. Training program review. A review of key aspects of the accredited asbestos training program.
C. Upon completion of the worker training program, the training program must administer a closed-book examination. Each examination must cover the topics required by this section.
1. Each examination must have 50 multiple choice questions.
2. The passing score on the examination must be 70%.
18VAC15-21-270. Worker refresher training program.
A. A worker refresher training program must be at least one day. The worker refresher training program must review federal and state regulations and discuss changes to the regulations, if applicable, and developments in state-of-the-art procedures. A review of the following topics from the initial worker training program must be included in the worker refresher training program:
1. Potential health effects related to asbestos exposure;
2. Employee personal protective equipment;
3. Personal hygiene; and
4. Additional safety hazards.
B. A written closed-book examination must be included in the refresher training program. The examination will consist of no fewer than 50 questions. The passing score will be 70% correct. Persons who pass the examination and fulfill the training program requirements will receive a certificate of completion as specified in this chapter.
18VAC15-21-280. Initial supervisor training.
A. An initial supervisor training program must last a minimum of five days. The supervisor training program must include lectures; demonstrations; at least 14 hours of hands-on training, which must permit supervisors to have actual experience performing tasks associated with asbestos abatement; a training program review; and an examination.
B. The supervisor training program must address the following topics:
1. The role of the supervisor in the asbestos abatement process.
2. The physical characteristics of asbestos and asbestos-containing materials.
a. Identification of asbestos.
b. Aerodynamic characteristics.
c. Typical uses and physical appearance.
d. A review of hazard assessment considerations.
e. A summary of abatement control options.
3. Potential health effects related to asbestos exposure.
a. The nature of asbestos-related diseases.
b. Routes of exposure, dose-response relationships, and the lack of a safe exposure level.
c. Synergism between cigarette smoking and asbestos exposure.
d. Latency period for disease.
4. Employee personal protective equipment.
a. Classes and characteristics of respirator types.
b. Limitations of respirators and proper selection, inspection, donning, use, maintenance, and storage procedures.
c. Methods for field testing of the facepiece-to-face seal (e.g., positive and negative pressure fitting tests).
d. Qualitative and quantitative fit testing procedures.
e. Variability between field and laboratory protection factors.
f. Factors that alter respirator fit (e.g., facial hair).
g. The components of a proper respiratory protection program.
h. Selection and use of personal protective clothing and use, storage, and handling of nondisposable clothing.
i. Regulations covering personal protective equipment.
5. State-of-the-art work practices.
a. Work practices for asbestos abatement activities, including descriptions of proper construction and maintenance of barriers and decontamination enclosure systems.
b. Positioning of warning signs.
c. Electrical and ventilation system lock-out.
d. Working techniques for minimizing fiber release, use of wet methods, use of negative pressure ventilation equipment, and use of high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) vacuums.
e. Clean-up and disposal procedures.
f. Work practices for removal, encapsulation, encasement, enclosure, and repair.
g. Emergency procedures for sudden releases.
h. Potential exposure situations.
i. Transport and disposal procedures.
j. Recommended and prohibited work practices.
k. Discussion of new abatement-related techniques and methodologies.
6. Personal hygiene.
a. Entry and exit procedures for the work area; use of showers; and avoidance of eating, drinking, smoking, and chewing (gum or tobacco) in the work area.
b. Potential exposures, such as family exposure, must also be included.
7. Additional safety hazards.
a. Hazards encountered during abatement activities, including electrical hazards, heat stress, air contaminants other than asbestos, fire, and explosion hazards, and how to deal with them.
b. Scaffold and ladder hazards.
c. Slips, trips, and falls.
d. Confined spaces.
8. Medical monitoring. OSHA requirements for a pulmonary function test, chest X-rays, and a medical history for each employee.
9. Air monitoring.
a. Procedures to determine airborne concentration of asbestos fibers, including a description of aggressive sampling, sampling equipment, and methods.
b. Reasons for air monitoring.
c. Types of samples and interpretation of results, specifically from analysis performed by polarized light, phase-contrast, and electron microscopy analyses.
10. Relevant federal, state, and local regulatory requirements, procedures, and standards, including:
a. Requirements of Title II (§ 2641 et seq.) of the Toxic Substance Control Act (15 USC § 2601 et seq.);
b. 40 CFR Part 61, National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants, Subparts A (General Provisions) and M (National Emission Standards for Asbestos);
c. OSHA Standards for Respiratory Protection (29 CFR 1910.134);
d. OSHA Asbestos Construction Standard (29 CFR 1926.1101);
e. EPA Worker Protection Rule, 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart G;
f. Requirements for Asbestos-Containing Waste Materials, 9VAC20-81-620; and
g. Department of Transportation regulations (49 CFR Part 172, Subpart H) covering packaging, proper marking of shipping containers, and shipping papers.
11. A review of NESHAP guidance documents.
a. Common Questions on the asbestos NESHAP.
b. Asbestos NESHAP: Regulated Asbestos Containing Materials Guidance (EPA 340/1-90-018).
c. Asbestos NESHAP: Adequately Wet Guidance (EPA 340/1-90-019).
d. Reporting and Record Keeping Requirements for Waste Disposal: A Field Guide (EPA 340/1-90-016).
12. Respiratory protection programs and medical surveillance programs.
13. Insurance and liability issues.
a. Contractor issues, workers' compensation coverage, and exclusions.
b. Third-party liabilities and defenses.
c. Insurance coverage and exclusions.
14. Recordkeeping for asbestos abatement projects:
a. Records required by federal, state, and local regulations.
b. Records recommended for legal and insurance purposes.
15. Supervisory techniques for asbestos abatement activities. Supervisory practices to enforce and reinforce the required work practices and to discourage unsafe work practices.
16. Contract specifications. Discussions of key elements that are included in contract specifications.
17. Training program review. A review of key aspects of the accredited asbestos training program.
C. Upon completion of the supervisor training program, the training program must administer a closed-book examination. Each examination must cover the topics required by this section.
1. Each examination must have 100 multiple choice questions.
2. The passing score on the examination must be 70%.
18VAC15-21-290. Supervisor refresher training program.
A. A supervisor refresher training program must be one day. The supervisor refresher training program must review federal and state regulations, discuss changes to the regulations, if applicable, and developments in state-of-the-art procedures. A review of the following topics from the initial accredited asbestos training program must be included in the asbestos supervisor refresher training program:
1. Potential health effects related to asbestos exposure;
2. Employee personal protective equipment, including medical monitoring and respiratory protection program;
3. Additional safety hazards and medical monitoring;
4. Review of the asbestos NESHAP, OSHA, and Department of Transportation requirements; and
5. Review of Virginia regulations concerning asbestos licensing, removal, and disposal.
B. A written closed-book examination must be included in the refresher training program. The examination will consist of no fewer than 50 questions. The passing score will be 70% correct. Persons who pass the refresher training program examination will receive a certificate of completion as specified in this chapter.
18VAC15-21-300. Initial inspector training.
A. An initial inspector training program must last a minimum of three days. The inspector training program must include lectures, demonstrations, at least four hours of hands-on training, a training program review, and an examination.
B. The inspector training program must address the following topics:
1. Training program overview.
a. The role of the inspector in the asbestos abatement industry.
b. A discussion of inspection requirements and criteria for AHERA, NESHAP, and state agencies.
2. Background information on asbestos.
a. Identification of asbestos and examples and discussion of the uses and locations of asbestos in buildings.
b. Physical appearance of asbestos.
3. Potential health effects related to asbestos exposure.
a. The nature of asbestos-related diseases.
b. Routes of exposure, dose-response relationships, and the lack of a safe exposure level.
c. The synergism between cigarette smoking and asbestos exposure.
d. Latency period for asbestos-related diseases and a discussion of the relationship of asbestos exposure to asbestosis, lung cancer, mesothelioma, and cancer of other organs.
4. Functions of and qualifications for inspectors.
a. Discussions of prior experience and qualifications for inspectors and management planners.
b. Discussions of the functions of an accredited inspector as compared to those of an accredited management planner.
c. Discussion of the inspection process, including inventory of ACM and physical assessment.
5. Legal liabilities and defenses.
a. Responsibilities of the inspector, a discussion of comprehensive general liability policies, claims made and occurrence policies, environment and pollution liability policy clauses; state liability insurance requirements.
b. Bonding and relationship of insurance availability to bond availability.
6. Understanding building systems.
a. The relationship between building systems, including an overview of common building physical plan layout; heat, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) system types; physical organization; and where asbestos is found on HVAC components.
b. Building mechanical systems, including types and organization and where to look for asbestos on such systems.
c. Inspecting electrical systems, including appropriate safety precautions.
d. Reading building plans and as-built drawings.
7. Public, employee, and building occupant relations.
a. Notification of employee organizations about the inspection.
b. Signs to warn building occupants.
c. Tactics in dealing with occupants and the press.
d. Scheduling inspections to minimize disruptions.
e. Education of building occupants about actions being taken.
8. Pre-inspection planning and review of previous inspection records.
a. Scheduling the inspection and obtaining access.
b. Building record review and identification of probable homogeneous areas from building plans or as-built drawings.
c. Consultation with maintenance or building personnel.
d. Review of previous inspection, sampling, and abatement records of a building.
e. The role of the inspector in exclusions for previously performed inspections.
9. Inspection for friable and nonfriable ACM and assessment of the condition of friable ACM.
a. Procedures to follow in conducting visual inspections for friable and nonfriable ACM.
b. Types of building materials that may contain asbestos.
c. Touching materials to determine friability.
d. Open return air plenums and their importance in HVAC systems.
e. Assessing damage, significant damage, potential damage, and potential significant damage.
f. Amount of suspected ACM, both in total quantity and as a percentage of the total area.
g. Type of damage.
h. Accessibility.
i. Material's potential for disturbance.
j. Known or suspected causes of damage or significant damage, and deterioration as assessment factors.
10. Bulk sampling and documentation of asbestos in schools.
a. Detailed discussion of the "Simplified Sampling Scheme for Friable Surfacing Materials" (EPA 560/5-85-030a October 1985).
b. Techniques to ensure sampling in a randomly distributed manner for other than friable surfacing materials.
c. Techniques for bulk sampling.
d. Sampling equipment the inspector should use.
e. Patching or repair of damage done in sampling; an inspector's repair kit.
f. Discussion of polarized light microscopy.
g. Choosing an accredited laboratory to analyze bulk samples.
h. Quality control and quality assurance procedures.
11. Inspector respiratory protection and equipment.
a. Classes and characteristics of respirator types.
b. Limitations of respirators.
c. Selection, inspection, donning, use, maintenance, and storage procedures for respirators.
d. Methods for field testing of the facepiece-to-face seal (e.g., positive and negative pressure fitting tests); qualitative and quantitative fit testing procedures.
e. Variability between field and laboratory protection factors.
f. Factors that alter respirator fit (e.g., facial hair).
g. The components of a proper respiratory protection program.
h. Selection and use of personal protective clothing.
i. Use, storage, and handling of nondisposable clothing.
12. Recordkeeping and writing the inspection report.
a. Labeling of samples and keying sample identification to sampling location.
b. Recommendations on sample labeling.
c. Detailing of ACM inventory.
d. Photographs of selected sampling areas and examples of ACM condition.
e. Information required for inclusion in the management plan by § 203(i)(1) of the Toxic Substance Control Act (15 USC § 2601 et seq.).
13. Regulatory review.
a. EPA Worker Protection Rule found at 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart G.
b. Title II (§ 2641 et seq.) of the Toxic Substances Control Act.
c. OSHA Asbestos Construction Standard (29 CFR 1926.1101).
d. OSHA respirator requirements (29 CFR 1910.134).
e. The friable ACM in Schools Rule found at 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart F.
f. Applicable state and local regulations.
g. Differences in federal and state requirements, where they apply, and the effects, if any, on public and nonpublic schools and commercial and public buildings.
14. Field trip.
a. Field exercise with a walk-through inspection.
b. Onsite discussion of information gathering and determination of sampling locations.
c. Onsite practice in physical assessment.
d. Classroom discussion of field exercise.
15. Training program review. A review of key aspects of the accredited asbestos training program.
C. Upon completion of the inspector training program, the training program must administer a closed-book examination. Each examination must cover the topics required by this section.
1. Each examination must have 100 multiple choice questions.
2. The passing score on the examination must be 70%.
18VAC15-21-310. Inspector refresher training program.
A. An inspector refresher training program must be one-half day. The inspector refresher training program must review federal and state regulations, discuss changes to the regulations, if applicable, and review developments in state-of-the-art procedures. A review of the following topics from the initial accredited asbestos training program must be included in the accredited asbestos inspector refresher training program:
1. Inspection for friable and nonfriable ACM and assessment of the condition of friable ACM;
2. Bulk sampling and documentation of asbestos in schools; and
3. Reinspection and reassessment techniques.
B. A written closed-book examination will be administered covering the topics included in the asbestos inspector refresher training program. The examination will consist of no fewer than 50 questions. The passing score will be 70% correct. Persons who pass the asbestos inspector refresher training program examination will receive a certificate of completion as specified in this chapter.
18VAC15-21-320. Initial management planner training.
A. An initial management planner training program must last a minimum of two days. The management planner training program must include lectures, demonstrations, a training program review, and an examination.
B. The management planner training program must address the following topics:
1. Training program overview.
a. The role of the management planner.
b. Operations and maintenance programs.
c. Setting work priorities; protection of building occupants.
2. Evaluation and interpretation of survey results.
a. Review of Title II (§ 2641 et seq.) of the Toxic Substances Control Act (15 USC § 2601 et seq.) requirements for inspection and management plans as given in § 203(i)(1) of the Toxic Substances Control Act.
b. Summarized field data and laboratory results; comparison between field inspector's data sheet with laboratory results and site survey.
3. Hazard assessment.
a. Amplification of the difference between physical assessment and hazard assessment.
b. The role of the management planner in hazard assessment.
c. Explanation of significant damage, damage, potential damage, and potential significant damage and use of a description or decision tree code for assessment of ACM; assessment of friable ACM.
d. Relationship of accessibility, vibration sources, use of adjoining space, air plenums, and other factors to hazard assessment.
4. Legal implications.
a. Liability; insurance issues specific to management planners.
b. Liabilities associated with interim control measures, in-house maintenance, repair, and removal.
c. Use of results from previous inspections.
5. Evaluation and selection of control options.
a. Overview of encapsulation, enclosure, interim operations and maintenance, and removal; advantages and disadvantages of each method.
b. Response actions described via a decision tree or other appropriate method; work practices for each response action.
c. Staging and prioritizing of work in both vacant and occupied buildings.
d. The need for containment barriers and decontamination in response actions.
6. Role of other professionals.
a. Use of industrial hygienists, engineers, and architects in developing technical specifications for response actions.
b. Any requirements that may exist for an architect to sign off on plans.
c. Team approach to the design of high-quality job specifications.
7. Developing an operations and maintenance (O&M) plan.
a. Purpose of the plan.
b. Discussion of applicable EPA guidance documents.
c. What actions should be taken by custodial staff; proper cleaning procedures; steam cleaning and high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) vacuuming.
d. Reducing disturbance of ACM.
e. Scheduling O&M for off-hours; rescheduling or canceling renovation in areas with ACM.
f. Boiler room maintenance.
g. Disposal of ACM.
h. In-house procedures for ACM, including bridging and penetrating encapsulants, pipe fittings, metal sleeves, polyvinyl chloride (PVC), canvas, and wet wraps; muslin with straps; fiber mesh cloth; mineral wool; and insulating cement.
i. Discussion of employee protection programs and staff training.
j. Case study in developing an O&M plan (development, implementation process, and problems that have been experienced).
8. Recordkeeping for the management planner.
a. Use of field inspector's data sheet along with laboratory results.
b. Ongoing recordkeeping as a means to track asbestos disturbance.
c. Procedures for recordkeeping.
9. Assembling and submitting the management plan.
a. Plan requirements in § 203(i)(1) of the of the Toxic Substances Control Act.
b. The management plan as a planning tool.
10. Financing abatement actions.
a. Economic analysis and cost estimates.
b. Development of cost estimates.
c. Present costs of abatement versus future operations and maintenance costs.
d. Asbestos School Hazard Abatement Act grants and loans.
11. A review of key aspects of the accredited asbestos training program.
C. Upon completion of the management planner training program, the training program must administer a closed-book examination. Each examination must cover the topics required by this section.
1. Each examination must have 100 multiple choice questions.
2. The passing score on the examination must be 70%.
18VAC15-21-330. Management planner refresher training program.
A. A management planner refresher training program must be one-half day and review federal and state regulations, discuss changes, if applicable, and review developments in state-of-the-art procedures. A review of the following topics from the initial accredited asbestos management planner training program must be included in the asbestos management planner refresher training program:
1. Evaluation and interpretation of survey results;
2. Hazard assessment;
3. Evaluation and selection of control options; and
4. Developing an operations and maintenance plan.
B. A written closed-book examination will be administered covering the topics included in the asbestos management planner refresher training program. The examination will consist of no fewer than 50 questions. The passing score will be 70% correct. Persons who pass the asbestos management planner refresher training program examination will receive a certificate of completion as specified in this chapter.
18VAC15-21-340. Initial project designer training.
A. An initial project designer training program must last a minimum of three days. The project designer training program must include lectures, demonstrations, a field trip, a training program review, and an examination.
B. The project designer training program must address the following topics:
1. Training program overview.
a. The role of the project designer in the asbestos abatement industry.
b. Discussion of what a project design is.
2. Background information on asbestos.
a. Identification of asbestos and examples and discussion of the uses and locations of asbestos in buildings.
b. Physical appearance of asbestos.
3. Potential health effects related to asbestos exposure.
a. Nature of asbestos-related diseases.
b. Routes of exposure, dose-response relationships, and the lack of a safe exposure level.
c. The synergistic effect between cigarette smoking and asbestos exposure.
d. The latency period of asbestos-related diseases; discussion of the relationship between asbestos exposure and asbestosis, lung cancer, mesothelioma, and cancer of other organs.
4. Overview of abatement construction projects.
a. Abatement as a portion of a renovation project.
b. OSHA requirements for notification of other contractors on a multi-employer site (29 CFR 1926.1101).
5. Safety system design specifications.
a. Construction and maintenance of containment barriers and decontamination enclosure systems.
b. Positioning of warning signs.
c. Electrical and ventilation system lock-out.
d. Proper working techniques for minimizing fiber release.
e. Entry and exit procedures for the work area, use of wet methods, use of negative pressure exhaust ventilation equipment, use of high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) vacuums, proper clean-up and disposal of asbestos, work practices as they apply to encapsulation, enclosure, and repair, use of glove bags, and a demonstration of glove bag use.
6. Field trip.
a. Visit a proposed abatement site or other suitable building site, including onsite discussions of abatement design.
b. Building walk-through inspection, and discussion following the walk-through.
7. Employee personal protective equipment.
a. Classes and characteristics of respirator types.
b. Limitations of respirators, proper selection, inspection, donning, use, maintenance, and storage procedures.
c. Methods for field testing of the facepiece-to-face seal (e.g., positive and negative pressure fitting tests).
d. Qualitative and quantitative fit testing procedures.
e. Variability between field and laboratory protection factors and factors that alter respirator fit (e.g., facial hair).
f. Components of a proper respiratory protection program.
g. Selection and use of personal protective clothing and use, storage, and handling of nondisposable clothing.
h. Regulations covering personal protective equipment.
8. Additional safety hazards.
a. Hazards encountered during abatement activities and how to deal with them.
b. Electrical hazards, heat stress, air contaminants other than asbestos, fire, and explosion hazards.
9. Fiber aerodynamics and control.
a. Aerodynamic characteristics of asbestos fibers.
b. Importance of proper containment barriers.
c. Settling time for asbestos fibers.
d. Wet methods in abatement.
e. Aggressive air monitoring following abatement.
f. Aggressive air movement and negative pressure exhaust ventilation as a clean-up method.
10. Designing abatement solutions.
a. Discussions of removal, enclosure, and encapsulation methods.
b. Asbestos waste disposal.
11. Budgeting and cost estimation.
a. Development of cost estimates.
b. Present costs of abatement versus future operations and maintenance costs.
c. Setting priorities for abatement jobs to reduce cost.
12. Writing abatement specifications.
a. Means and methods specifications versus performance specifications.
b. Design of abatement in occupied buildings.
c. Modification of guide specifications to a particular building.
d. Worker and building occupant health and medical considerations.
e. Replacement of ACM with non-asbestos substitutes.
f. Clearance of work area after abatement.
g. Air monitoring for clearance.
13. Preparing abatement drawings.
a. Use of as-built drawings.
b. Use of inspection photographs and onsite reports.
c. Particular problems in abatement drawings.
14. Contract preparation and administration.
15. Legal, liabilities, and defenses.
a. Insurance considerations, bonding, hold harmless clauses, and use of abatement contractor's liability insurance.
b. Claims-made versus occurrence policies.
16. Replacement of asbestos with asbestos-free substitutes.
17. Role of other consultants.
a. Development of technical specification sections by industrial hygienists or engineers.
b. The multi-disciplinary team approach to abatement design.
c. The use and responsibilities of a project monitor on the abatement site.
18. Occupied buildings.
a. Special design procedures required in occupied buildings.
b. Education of occupants.
c. Extra monitoring recommendations.
d. Staging of work to minimize occupant exposure.
e. Scheduling of renovation to minimize exposure.
19. Relevant federal, state, and local regulatory requirements. Procedures and standards including:
a. Requirements of Title II (§ 2641 et seq.) of the Toxic Substances Control Act (15 USC § 2601 et seq.);
b. 40 CFR Part 61, National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants, Subparts A (General Provisions) and M (National Emission Standard for Asbestos);
c. OSHA standards for respiratory protection (29 CFR 1910.134);
d. EPA Worker Protection Rule, found at 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart G;
e. OSHA Asbestos Construction Standard found at 29 CFR 1926.1101; and
f. OSHA Hazard Communication Standard found in 29 CFR 1926.59.
20. A review of key aspects of the accredited asbestos training program.
C. Upon completion of the project designer training program, the training program must administer a closed-book examination. Each examination must cover the topics required by this section.
1. Each examination must have 100 multiple choice questions.
2. The passing score on the examination must be 70%.
18VAC15-21-350. Project designer refresher training program.
A. A project designer refresher training program must be one day. The project designer refresher training program must review federal and state regulations, discuss changes to the regulations, if applicable, and review developments in state-of-the-art procedures. A review of the following topics from the initial project designer training program must be included in the accredited asbestos project designer refresher training program:
1. Safety system design specifications;
2. Writing abatement specifications; and
3. Employee personal protective equipment.
B. A written closed-book examination will be administered covering the topics included in the asbestos project designer refresher training program. The examination will consist of no fewer than 50 questions. The passing score will be 70% correct. Persons who pass the asbestos project designer refresher training program will receive a certificate of completion as specified in this chapter.
18VAC15-21-360. Initial project monitor training.
A. An initial comprehensive project monitor training program must last a minimum of five days. The project monitor training program must include lectures; demonstrations; at least six hours of hands-on training, which must permit project monitors the experience of performing actual tasks associated with asbestos project monitoring; a field trip; a training program review; and an examination.
B. A comprehensive initial project monitor training program must address the following topics:
1. The physical characteristics of asbestos and asbestos-containing materials.
a. Identification of asbestos.
b. Typical uses and locations in buildings and physical appearance.
c. A review of hazard assessment control options.
d. A summary of abatement control options.
2. Potential health effects related to asbestos exposure.
a. The nature of asbestos-related diseases.
b. Routes of exposure, dose-response relationships, and the lack of a safe exposure level.
c. Synergism between cigarette smoking and asbestos exposure.
d. Latency period for disease; discussion of the relationship between asbestos exposure and asbestosis, lung cancer, mesothelioma, and cancer of the other organs.
3. Employee personal protective equipment.
a. Classes and characteristics of respirator types.
b. Limitations of respirators and proper selection, inspection, donning, use, maintenance, and storage procedures.
c. Methods for field testing of the facepiece-to-face seal (e.g., positive and negative pressure fitting tests).
d. Qualitative and quantitative fit testing procedures.
e. Variability between field and laboratory protection factors.
f. Factors that alter respirator fit (e.g., facial hair).
g. The components of a proper respiratory protection program.
h. Selection and uses of personal protective clothing; use, storage, and handling of nondisposable clothing.
i. Regulations covering personal protection equipment.
4. State of the art work practices.
a. Work practices for asbestos abatement activities, including description of proper construction and maintenance barriers and decontamination enclosure systems.
b. Positioning of warning signs.
c. Electrical and ventilation system lock-out.
d. Working techniques for minimizing fiber release, use of wet methods, use of negative pressure ventilation equipment, and use of high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) vacuums. Entry and exit procedures for work area.
e. Clean-up and disposal procedures.
f. Work practices for removal, encapsulation, enclosure, and repair. Use of glove bags and a demonstration of glove bag use.
g. Emergency procedures for sudden release.
h. Potential exposure situations.
i. Transport and disposal procedures.
j. Recommended and prohibited work practices.
k. Discussion of new abatement related techniques and methodologies.
5. Personal hygiene.
a. Entry and exit procedures for the work area; use of showers; avoidance of eating, drinking, smoking, and chewing (gum or tobacco) in the work area.
b. Potential exposures, such as family exposure, must also be included.
6. Additional safety hazards as covered in 29 CFR Parts 1910 and 1926 to include:
a. Hazards encountered during the abatement activities and how to deal with them, including electrical hazards, heat stress, air contaminants other than asbestos, fire, and explosion hazards;
b. Scaffold and ladder hazards;
c. Slips, trips, and falls; and
d. Confined spaces.
7. Medical monitoring. OSHA requirements for a pulmonary function test, chest X-rays, and a medical history for each employee.
8. Respiratory protection programs and medical surveillance programs.
9. Insurance and liability issues:
a. Contractor issues, workers' compensation coverage, and exclusions.
b. Third-party liabilities and defenses.
c. Insurance coverage and exclusions.
10. Relevant federal, state, and local regulatory requirements, procedures, and standards, including:
a. Requirements of Title II (§ 2641 et seq.) of the Toxic Substances Control Act (15 USC § 2601 et seq.);
b. 40 CFR Part 61 National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants, Subparts A (General Provisions) and M (National Emission Standards for Asbestos);
c. OSHA Standards for respiratory protection (29 CFR 1910.134);
d. OSHA Asbestos Construction Standard (29 CFR 1926.1101);
e. OSHA Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1926.59);
f. EPA Worker Protection Rule, 40 CFR Part 763;
g. Requirements of Asbestos-Containing Waste Materials, 9VAC20-81-620;
h. Department of Transportation 49 CFR Parts 171 and 172 Subpart H; and
i. Virginia asbestos licensing regulations.
11. Air monitoring.
a. NIOSH asbestos monitoring procedure. Procedures to determine airborne concentration of asbestos fibers, including a description of aggressive sampling, sampling equipment, and methods.
(1) Explanation of analytical methods, measures of precision, control of errors, collecting samples, fiber counts, sampling and calibration equipment, statistics, and quality control techniques in sampling.
(2) Review of 29 CFR Part 1926, Subpart F, §§ 1926.150 through 1926.155.
b. Sampling strategy.
(1) Why samples are taken.
(2) Sampling inside and outside of containment area.
(3) Placement of pumps.
c. Reasons for air monitoring.
d. Types of samples and interpretation of results, specifically from analysis performed by polarized light, phase-contrast, and electron microscopy analyses.
e. Final clearance.
12. Overview of supervisory techniques for asbestos abatement activities, to include the information covered in the accredited asbestos supervisor training program. A review of the required work practices and safety considerations.
13. Field trip.
a. Visit a proposed abatement site or other suitable building site, including onsite discussions of abatement design.
b. Building walk-through inspection and discussion following the walk-through.
14. Fiber aerodynamics and control.
a. Aerodynamic characteristics of asbestos fibers.
b. Importance of proper containment barriers.
c. Settling time for asbestos fibers.
d. Wet methods in abatement.
e. Aggressive air monitoring following abatement.
f. Aggressive air movement and negative pressure exhaust ventilation as a clean-up method.
15. Project specifications. Discussion of key elements that are included in contract specifications.
a. Means and methods specifications versus performance specifications.
b. Considerations for design of abatement in occupied buildings.
c. Worker and building occupant health and medical considerations.
d. Replacement of ACM with non-asbestos substitutes.
e. Clearance of work area after abatement.
f. Use of as-built drawings.
g. Use of inspection photographs and onsite reports.
h. Particular problems in abatement drawings.
16. Conducting inspections.
a. Inspection prior to containment to ensure condition of items and proper precleaning.
b. Inspection of containment prior to commencement of abatement to ensure that containment is complete and proper.
c. Daily work and containment inspections.
d. Final visual inspection and a discussion of the ASTM E1368 method.
17. Recordkeeping and documentation.
a. Project logs.
b. Inspection reports.
c. Waste shipment record requirements (WSR).
d. Recordkeeping required by federal, state, or local regulations.
e. Recordkeeping required for insurance purposes.
18. Role of project monitor in relation to:
a. Building owner;
b. Building occupants;
c. Abatement contractor; and
d. Other consultants.
19. Occupied buildings.
a. Special procedures recommended in occupied buildings.
b. Extra monitoring recommendations.
20. A review of NESHAP guidance documents.
21. A review of key aspects of the accredited asbestos training program.
22. Examination.
C. Applicants who are currently accredited by EPA as an asbestos supervisor or asbestos project designer may complete a 16-hour initial project monitor training program. A 16-hour initial project monitor program must include lectures; demonstrations; a least six hours of hands-on training, which must permit project monitors the experience of performing actual tasks associated with asbestos project monitoring; a training program review; and an examination. The 16-hour project monitor training program must cover the topics required by subdivisions B 11 through B 22 of this section.
D. Upon completion of the project monitor training program, the training program must administer a closed-book examination. The examination for the comprehensive initial project monitor training program must cover the topics required by subsection B of this section. The examination for the 16-hour initial project monitor training program must cover the topics required by subdivisions B 11 through B 22 of this section.
1. Each examination must have 100 multiple choice questions.
2. The passing score on the examination must be 70%.
18VAC15-21-370. Project monitor refresher training program.
A. A project monitor refresher training program must be one day. The training program must review federal and state regulations, discuss changes to the regulations, if applicable, and review developments in state-of-the-art procedures. A review of the following topics from the initial accredited asbestos project monitor training program must be included in the asbestos project monitor refresher training program:
1. Occupied buildings;
2. Personal protective equipment;
3. Fiber aerodynamics and control; and
4. Recordkeeping and documentation.
B. A written closed-book examination will be administered covering the topics included in the asbestos project monitor refresher training program. The examination will consist of no fewer than 50 questions. The passing score will be 70% correct. Persons who pass the asbestos project monitor refresher training program examination will receive a certificate of completion as specified in this chapter.
Part VI
General Standards of Practice and Conduct
18VAC15-21-380. Grounds for disciplinary action.
A. The board has the power to reprimand, fine, suspend, or revoke the license or training program approval of any regulant in accordance with § 54.1-516 of the Code of Virginia or this chapter when the regulant has been found to have violated or cooperated with others in violating any provision of Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), 3 (§ 54.1-300 et seq.), or 5 (§ 54.1-500 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or this chapter.
B. Any regulant whose license or training program approval is revoked under this section will not be eligible to reapply for a period of 12 months from the effective date of the order of revocation.
C. Any unlawful act or violation of any provision of Chapter 5 of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or of the regulations of the board by any asbestos supervisor or asbestos worker may be cause for disciplinary action against the asbestos contractor for whom the asbestos supervisor or worker works if it appears to the satisfaction of the board that the asbestos contractor knew or should have known of the unlawful act or violation.
18VAC15-21-390. Prohibited acts.
The following acts are prohibited and any violation may result in disciplinary action by the board:
1. Violating, including inducing another to violate, cooperating with another to violate, or combining or conspiring with or acting as agent, partner, or associate for another to violate any of the provisions of Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), 3 (§ 54.1-300 et seq.), or 5 (§ 54.1-500 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or any of the regulations of the board.
2. Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license or training program approval by false or fraudulent representation; maintaining, renewing, or reinstating a license or training program approval by false or fraudulent representation; or furnishing substantially inaccurate or incomplete information to the board in obtaining, renewing, reinstating, or maintaining a license or training program approval.
3. Failing to notify the board in writing within 30 days after any change in address or name.
4. Having been convicted, found guilty, or disciplined in any jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in 18VAC15-21-30 or 18VAC15-21-150. Review of convictions will be subject to the requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. Failing to notify the board in writing within 30 days of being convicted or found guilty of any felony or of any misdemeanor enumerated in 18VAC15-21-30 E or 18VAC15-21-150 D. Review of convictions will be subject to the requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
6. Failing to notify the board in writing no later than 30 days after final disciplinary action against an asbestos abatement license or asbestos training program accreditation has been taken by another jurisdiction.
7. Violating any provision of AHERA or ASHARA or any federal or state regulation pertinent to asbestos abatement activity.
8. Actions constituting negligence, misconduct, or incompetence in the practice of the profession, including:
a. Having undertaken to perform or performed a professional assignment that the licensee is not qualified to perform by education, experience, training, or appropriate licensure.
b. Not demonstrating reasonable care, judgment, or application of the required knowledge, skill, and ability in the performance of the licensee's duties.
c. Failing to act in providing professional services in a manner that safeguards the interests of the public.
9. Actions constituting engaging in improper, fraudulent, or dishonest conduct, including:
a. Making any misrepresentation or engaging in acts of fraud or deceit in advertising, soliciting, or in providing professional services.
b. Knowingly signing plans, reports, specifications, or other documents related to an asbestos project not prepared or reviewed and approved by the regulant.
c. Knowingly misrepresenting factual information in expressing a professional opinion.
d. Allowing a license issued by the board to be used by another.
10. Acting as or being an ostensible licensee for undisclosed persons who do or will control or direct, directly or indirectly, the operations of the licensee's business.
11. Failing or neglecting to submit information or documentation requested by the board or the board's representatives.
12. Refusing to allow state or federal representatives access to any area of an abatement site, analytical laboratory, or training facility for the purpose of compliance inspections or audits, whether announced or unannounced.
18VAC15-21-400. Conflict of interest.
A. It is a conflict of interest and a violation of this chapter for an asbestos contractor to have an employee-employer relationship with or financial interest in an asbestos analytical laboratory utilized by the contractor for asbestos sample analysis. The requirements of this subsection do not apply when the laboratory performing analysis is owned by the owner of the building where samples are taken.
B. It is a conflict of interest and a violation of this chapter for an asbestos contractor to have an employee-employer relationship with an asbestos project monitor working on an asbestos project performed by that asbestos contractor. An asbestos contractor must not have any financial interests in the firm of which a project monitor is an employee and provides project monitoring services for that contractor. This section does not relieve a contractor of OSHA requirements set forth in 29 CFR 1926.1101.
C. It is a conflict of interest and a violation of this chapter for an asbestos contractor to enter into a contract to perform an asbestos project if the asbestos inspection or project design was performed by individuals with an employer-employee relationship with or financial interest in the asbestos contractor, unless the asbestos contractor provides the building owner with the Virginia Asbestos Licensing Consumer Information Sheet and the Virginia Asbestos Licensing Inspector/Project Designer/Contractor Disclosure Form prescribed by the department. The completed disclosure form must be submitted as part of the bid.
D. The requirements of this section do not apply to a contractor-subcontractor relationship between an asbestos contractor and an asbestos project monitor.
18VAC15-21-410. Change of status for analytical laboratories.
A. The regulant must notify the department within 30 days of any changes to the responsible individual for each laboratory location.
B. The regulant must notify the board within 30 business days upon the loss of accreditation or proficiency rating, as required by 18VAC15-21-160, by any laboratory location.
C. The regulant must notify the board within 30 days if an employed analyst or asbestos project monitor performing asbestos laboratory analysis is removed from the AAR.
D. The regulant must notify the board in writing of any changes to the types of analysis for which the laboratory is licensed. When requesting to add an analysis type to the license, evidence of meeting the qualifications required by 18VAC15-21-160 must be submitted. The regulant must receive board approval of the analysis type prior to performing the analysis.
E. The licensee must notify the department within 30 days of any changes in the laboratory location.
18VAC15-21-420. Transfer of license, firms.
Asbestos contractor licenses and analytical laboratory licenses are issued to firms as defined in this chapter and are not transferable. Should the legal firm holding the license be dissolved or altered to form a new firm, the original license becomes void and must be returned to the board within 30 days of the change. The new firm must apply for a new license within 30 days of the change in the firm. Such changes include:
1. Death of a sole proprietor;
2. Death or withdrawal of a general partner in a general partnership, or the managing partner in a limited partnership;
3. Termination or cancellation of a corporation or limited liability company; and
4. Conversion, formation, or dissolution of a corporation, a limited liability company, or an association or any other firm recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth.
18VAC15-21-430. (Reserved).
18VAC15-21-440. Good standing in other jurisdictions.
A. Regulants in other jurisdictions must be in good standing in every jurisdiction where licensed, certified, or approved and must not have had a license, certification, or approval suspended, revoked, or surrendered in connection with a disciplinary action.
B. Regulants may be subject to disciplinary action or removal of an asbestos training program accreditation for disciplinary actions taken by another jurisdiction.
18VAC15-21-450. Response to inquiry and provision of records.
A. A regulant must respond within 10 days to a request by the board or any board agent regarding any complaint filed with the department.
B. Unless otherwise specified by the board, a regulant of the board must produce to the board or any board agent within 10 days of the request any document, book, or record concerning any transaction pertaining to a complaint filed in which the regulant was involved or for which the regulant is required to maintain records. The board may extend such timeframe upon a showing of extenuating circumstances prohibiting delivery within such 10-day period.
C. A licensee must not provide a false, misleading, or incomplete response to the board or any board agent seeking information in the investigation of a complaint filed with the board.
D. With the exception of the requirements of subsection A or B of this section, a licensee must respond to an inquiry by the board or a board agent within 21 days.
Part VII
Standards of Practice and Conduct for Individuals
18VAC15-21-460. Asbestos project designs.
An asbestos project design must include, at minimum:
1. Scope of work.
2. Sequence of work.
3. Work methods and practices to be used.
4. Air sampling procedures.
18VAC15-21-470. Asbestos project monitoring.
A. A project monitor is required on asbestos projects performed in buildings that are occupied or intended to be occupied upon completion of the asbestos project exceeding 260 linear feet, 160 square feet, or 35 cubic feet of asbestos-containing material.
B. A project monitor is required on asbestos projects for which the property owner deems it necessary, regardless of whether the scope of the project is less than described in subsection A of this section.
C. Asbestos project monitors must be present when response actions are being conducted or more frequently if in accordance with the owner-approved contractual agreement with the project monitor.
D. Asbestos project monitors must maintain a daily log of all work performed. The daily log will include inspection reports, air sampling data, type of work performed by the asbestos contractor, problems encountered, and corrective action taken.
E. Asbestos project monitors will take final air samples on all abatement projects, except for abatement projects in residential buildings.
F. Prior to reoccupancy of a building following asbestos abatement, the asbestos project monitor will provide the air sample report on the asbestos analytical laboratory's letterhead in the final clearance report.
18VAC15-21-480. Onsite analysis by project monitors.
Project monitors who analyze PCM air samples on site must (i) be employed by or affiliated with a licensed asbestos analytical laboratory, (ii) have completed the NIOSH 582 or NIOSH 582 Equivalency Course, and (iii) satisfy one of the following:
1. The project monitor is listed in the AAR and rated "acceptable" for the most recent AAT round;
2. The licensed asbestos analytical laboratory employing the project monitor is rated as "proficient" in the IHPAT Program and maintains training and quality control documentation necessary to demonstrate competency in performing onsite analysis; or
3. The licensed asbestos analytical laboratory employing the project monitor is accredited under the IHLAP, remains in compliance with accreditation requirements, and maintains training and quality control documentation necessary to demonstrate competency in performing onsite analysis.
Part VIII
Standards of Practice and Conduct for Firms
18VAC15-21-490. Asbestos contractor.
A. Asbestos contractors must comply with all requirements, procedures, standards, and regulations covering any part of an asbestos project established by EPA, OSHA, the Department of Labor and Industry, and the Divisions of Air Pollution and Waste Management of the Department of Environmental Quality (§ 54.1-517 of the Code of Virginia).
B. Asbestos contractors must comply with the requirements found in Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia governing the regulation of general contractors.
C. Asbestos contractors must employ licensed asbestos supervisors and workers to perform work on any asbestos project.
D. Asbestos contractors must ensure that a licensed asbestos supervisor is present at each job site while an asbestos project is in progress.
E. Prior to the start of any asbestos project, the asbestos contractor must:
1. Notify the building or property owner or agent of the owner when a licensed project monitor is required in accordance with the provisions of 18VAC15-21-470 to determine that proper work practices are used and in compliance with all asbestos laws and regulations provided in this chapter.
2. Obtain a written acknowledgment from the owner or agent of the owner that the owner has been notified of the requirement to secure the services of a licensed asbestos project monitor. Such acknowledgment must include the address of the building where the asbestos project is to take place; the date the work is to be performed; the name, address, and license number of the licensed asbestos contractor performing the work; and evidence that the building or property owner or agent of the owner has received the notification. The initial notification and acknowledgment will be sufficient for the asbestos project.
18VAC15-21-500. Maintenance of licensing and training records at the asbestos project job site.
A. The asbestos contractor will be responsible for maintaining at each project site a list of each asbestos worker and asbestos supervisor, or copy of the licenses of each asbestos worker and asbestos supervisor. This list must include the current license numbers and the license expiration dates of such workers and supervisors. This section does not relieve the contractor of any specific AHERA and ASHARA requirements concerning training certificates.
B. An asbestos contractor must maintain a copy of its Virginia asbestos contractor license on each project site.
C. Any conflict of interest disclosure forms as required by 18VAC15-21-400 must be maintained at each job site.
D. Records maintained at the job site will be made available for review by the department, the Department of Labor and Industry, and all other agencies having authorization to inspect an asbestos project site.
18VAC15-21-510. Asbestos analytical laboratories.
A. Each asbestos analytical laboratory using PLM to analyze bulk suspect material for the presence of asbestos must analyze the material in accordance with either of the following methods:
1. Test Method: Method for the Determination of Asbestos in Bulk Building Materials, EPA 600/R-93/116, EPA Office of Research and Development, effective July 1993.
2. NIOSH Method 9002, NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods (NMAM) Fourth Edition, NIOSH, effective August 15, 1994.
The documents specified in this subsection are incorporated by reference.
B. Each asbestos analytical laboratory using PCM to analyze air samples for the presence of airborne fibers must use either of the following methods:
1. Appendix A of 29 CFR § 1926.1101.
2. NIOSH Method 7400, NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods (NMAM), Fourth Edition, NIOSH, effective August 15, 1994. This document is incorporated by reference.
C. Each asbestos analytical laboratory using TEM to analyze air samples for the presence of airborne asbestos fibers must use either of the following methods:
1. Appendix A to Subpart E of 40 CFR Part 763.
2. NIOSH Method 7402, NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods (NMAM), Fourth Edition, NIOSH, effective August 15, 1994. This document is incorporated by reference.
D. A copy of the current asbestos analytical laboratory license must be on site at all times where analysis is performed, including project sites. The license must be available for review by the department.
Part IX
Standards of Practice and Conduct for Accredited Training Programs and Board-approved Training Courses
18VAC15-21-520. General requirements for training programs and courses.
A. All Virginia-approved accredited asbestos training programs and board-approved training courses must remain in compliance with all training and recordkeeping requirements established by MAP.
B. Each initial and refresher accredited training program and board-approved training course must be discipline specific.
C. All accredited training programs must be taught in English. Accredited asbestos worker training programs are exempt from this requirement.
18VAC15-21-525. Electronic delivery of asbestos refresher training courses.
A. Electronic delivery of accredited asbestos refresher training courses is permitted, provided the following requirements are met:
1. Courses delivered electronically must be approved by the board in accordance with Part V (18VAC15-21-220 et seq.) of this chapter. A pre-existing approval for an in-person, classroom-based refresher course does not extend to approval of the electronic course.
2. The training provider must have a system in place to authenticate each participant's identity and the participant's eligibility to enroll in the course.
3. A unique identifier must be assigned to each participant to be used to launch and re-launch the course. This identifier may be used throughout the course if deemed necessary by the instructor.
4. Each participant must be logged into the course and participating for the full length of time required for each course discipline. The training provider must track each participant's course logins, launches, progress, and completion. The training provider must maintain a record of the same in accordance with the applicable recordkeeping requirements of MAP and this chapter.
5. The course must include knowledge checks throughout the entirety of the course. The knowledge checks must be successfully completed before the participant moves on to the next module.
6. Course instructors must be available to answer questions or offer technical discussion by way of online discussion or message boards, or a telephone number during the training period.
7. There must be a test of at least 20 questions at the end of the course, of which 80% must be answered correctly for successful completion of the course. The test must be designed so that the student does not receive feedback on answers until after the test has been submitted.
8. Each participant must be provided with a completion certificate that may be saved and printed. The completion certificate must specifically mention that the course was taken online. The certificate must not be susceptible to editing. The certificate must contain all information required by MAP and this chapter.
9. Course notifications and participant lists provided to the board must indicate whether the course is conducted electronically.
B. Electronic courses must meet all other requirements for refresher courses as established in this chapter.
C. For auditing purposes, the board must have unrestricted access to the electronic course at any time during which the course is conducted.
D. For purposes of this section, electronic delivery includes real-time virtual training and asynchronous delivery of training courses.
18VAC15-21-530. Length of training.
A. No portion of an accredited training program or board-approved training course will exceed eight hours in a 24-hour period. [ One day equals eight hours, inclusive of lunches and breaks, for all accredited training programs. ]
B. Portions of accredited training programs or board-approved training courses conducted after 5 p.m. and before 8 a.m. may not exceed four hours, except where training is conducted during the course participants' usual working hours.
C. Portions of accredited training programs or board-approved training courses conducted between Friday after 5 p.m. and Monday before 8 a.m. may not exceed 16 hours.
D. Each initial accredited training program or board-approved training course, including examinations, must be completed within a single two-week timeframe.
18VAC15-21-540. Presence of instructor required to provide training.
An instructor must remain present in the classroom or training area where instruction takes place at all times during the course of the accredited training program or board-approved training course.
18VAC15-21-550. Minimum standards for training program and course materials.
A. Prior to the start of the accredited asbestos training program or board-approved training course, the training provider must prepare a course outline or syllabus to be distributed to all course participants.
B. At a minimum, the outline or syllabus must include:
1. Training program title and length of training;
2. Start time of each day of training;
3. Division of course sections, to include the instructor and length of time for each section;
4. Start and end times for each scheduled break;
5. Start and end times for each scheduled lunch;
6. Scheduled hands-on training, a description of the training, the name of the instructor, and length of training; and
7. Start and end time of the final examination.
C. All training program participants will be issued a training program manual for the training program.
D. Use of video instruction is permitted in an accredited training program, provided that videos are not the sole and primary source of instruction.
E. In no case will equipment utilized for display or as part of hands-on training have been utilized on an asbestos abatement project site.
F. Following attendance of the accredited training program or board-approved training course and successful completion of an examination by the training program participant, the training provider must issue a certificate of completion to the training program participant. At a minimum, the completion certificate must include:
1. Training provider's business name;
2. Training provider's business address and telephone number;
3. Location of training;
4. Typewritten or printed name of training program participant;
5. Training program title and length of training in hours;
6. Certificate number;
7. Start and end dates of the training program;
8. Examination date;
9. An expiration date one year after the date of completion of the accredited asbestos training program;
10. For training programs covered under 40 CFR Part 763, Subpart E, Appendix C, a statement that the person receiving the certificate has completed the requisite training for asbestos accreditation under Title II (§ 2641 et seq.) of the Toxic Substances Control Act (15 USC § 2601 et seq.);
11. Statement of attendance and successful completion of an examination by the training program participant; and
12. Signature and typewritten or printed name of the accredited asbestos training program manager or administrator and principal instructor. The signature may be a printed facsimile.
[ G. The board will not accept training certificates of completion for initial training courses where the name of the course participant, training manager, and principal instructor are the same.
H. Course participants in a refresher training course who are both the training manager and principal instructor of a refresher training program must be monitored by another instructor if completing the program's examination for the purpose of license renewal. The monitoring individual must sign the certificate of completion as the participant's instructor. A course participant in a refresher training course who is either the training manager or the principal instructor of a training program must be monitored by the other if completing his own program's examination for the purpose of license renewal. The monitoring individual must sign the certificate of completion as the participant's instructor. ]
18VAC15-21-560. Examinations.
A. Oral examinations are not permitted in an accredited training program. Accredited asbestos worker training programs are exempt from this requirement.
1. Instructors providing oral examinations must provide an answer sheet to the course participant, to be completed by the participant.
2. The answer sheet must be signed by the course participant.
B. Examinations must be given in the language of the accredited asbestos training program's instruction.
C. A course participant is allowed one opportunity to retake a failed examination. If the course participant fails to achieve a 70% passing score on the second examination attempt, the course participant must reenroll and participate in the entirety of the discipline-specific accredited training program.
18VAC15-21-570. Reporting of changes.
A. Any change in the information provided in Part V (18VAC15-21-220 et seq.) of this chapter must be reported to the board prior to implementing the change. Information submitted will be reviewed to ensure compliance with the provisions of this chapter prior to the continuation of the accredited asbestos training program.
B. Documentation of all instructor qualifications will be reviewed and approved by the board prior to the instructor teaching in an accredited asbestos training program.
C. Changes to the certificate of completion must be submitted to the board for review and approval prior to issuance to training program participants.
18VAC15-21-580. Recordkeeping and provision of records to the board.
A. Unless otherwise authorized by the board, the training provider must submit course notifications and participant lists to the board electronically in a format established by the board.
B. The training provider must notify the board no less than 48 hours prior to the start date of any accredited asbestos training program.
C. The training provider must provide an updated notification when an accredited training program will begin on a date other than the start date specified in the original notification no less than 48 hours prior to the new start date.
D. The training provider must update the board of any change in location of an accredited training program at least 48 hours prior to the start date provided to the board.
E. The training provider must update the board regarding any accredited training program cancellations or any other change to the original notification at least 48 hours prior to the start date provided to the board. This requirement does not apply to situations or circumstances beyond the control of the training provider.
F. Each notification, including updates, must include the following:
1. Notification type (e.g., original, update, cancellation).
2. Training program name, Virginia accreditation number, address, and telephone number.
3. Course discipline, type (initial or refresher), and the language in which the instruction will be given.
4. Dates and times of training.
5. Training locations, telephone number, and address.
6. Principal instructor's name.
G. For all accredited training programs, the training provider must provide to the board a training program participant list of all of the individuals attending the accredited training program course within 10 days of the course end date. The training program participant list must contain the following minimum information:
1. Training program name, Virginia accreditation number, address, and telephone number.
2. Course discipline and type (initial or refresher).
3. Dates of training.
4. Location of training program presentation.
5. Each participant's name, address, social security number, course completion certificate number, and course test score.
6. Principal instructor's name.
H. The principal instructor must complete the training program participant list daily.
I. The training program participant list must be retained by the training provider for three years following the date of completion of the training program.
J. The department has discretion to refuse to recognize completion certificates from accredited training providers that fail to provide course notifications or training program participant lists to the board.
K. Approval letters for accredited training programs must be maintained at the location of training and made accessible to the public.
L. A copy of the training program outline must be retained by the training provider for a period of three years following the completion of the training program.
M. All examinations completed by the accredited training program participants, regardless of the examination score, must be kept for a period of three years after the examination date.
N. Records required to be maintained by the training provider must be maintained at the physical location of the accredited asbestos training provider.
18VAC15-21-590. Access by the department.
Accredited training providers must permit department representatives to attend, evaluate, and monitor any accredited training program. Prior notice of attendance by department representatives is not required. The department will be given access to all course materials, principal instructor and training manager rosters, participant rosters, and other records as stipulated by this chapter.
18VAC15-21-600. Withdrawal of approval of an accredited asbestos training program.
A. The board has discretion to withdraw approval of any accredited training program for the following reasons:
1. The training provider, instructors, or training programs no longer meet the standards established in this chapter.
2. The board determines that the provider is not conducting the training in a manner that meets the requirements as set forth in this chapter.
3. Suspension or revocation of training approval in another state or by EPA.
B. Decisions regarding withdrawal of approval will be made by the board under the provisions of the Virginia Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
NOTICE: The following forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. Amended or added forms are reflected in the listing and are published following the listing. Online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may also click on the name to access a form. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 201 North Ninth Street, Fourth Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
FORMS (18VAC15-21)
[ Virginia Asbestos Licensing Consumer Information Sheet, A506-33ACIS-v2 (rev. 8/2013)
Inspector/Project Designer/Contractor Disclosure Form, A506-33DIS-v2 (rev. 8/2013)
Virginia Asbestos Licensing Consumer Information Sheet, A506-33ACIS-v3 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Worker License Application, A506-3301LIC-v5 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Supervisor License Application, A506-3302LIC-v5 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Inspector License Application, A506-3303LIC-v6 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Management Planner License Application, A506-3304LIC-v5 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Project Designer License Application, A506-3305LIC-v5 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos - Experience Verification Application, A506-33AEXP-v6 (eff. 1/2026)
Inspector/Designer Contractor Disclosure Form, A506-33DIS-v3 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Contractor License Application, A506-3306LIC-v7 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Project Monitor - Universal License Recognition (ULR) Application, A506-3309ASB-v2 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Project Monitor License Application, A506-3309LIC-v6 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Project Monitor - Work Experience Log, A506-3309EXP-v4 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Training Program Review and Audit Application, A506-3331ACRS-v6 (eff. 1/2026)
Change of Laboratory Analysis Type, A506-3333_34COA-v2 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Analytical Laboratory License Application, A506-3333LIC-v9 (eff. 1/2026)
Asbestos Analytical Laboratory - Branch Office Application, A506-3334BR-v3 (eff. 1/2026) ]
DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (18VAC15-21)
NIOSH Method 7400, NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods (NMAM), Fourth Edition, NIOSH, August 15, 1994
NIOSH Method 7402, NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods (NMAM), Fourth Edition, NIOSH, August 15, 1994
NIOSH Method 9002, NIOSH Manual of Analytical Methods (NMAM) Fourth Edition, NIOSH, August 15, 1994
Test Method: Method for the Determination of Asbestos in Bulk Building Materials, EPA Office of Research and Development, (EPA 600-R-93-116, July 1993)
VA.R. Doc. No. R23-7460; Filed November 06, 2025
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
VIRGINIA BOARD FOR ASBESTOS, LEAD, AND HOME INSPECTORS
Final
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
VIRGINIA BOARD FOR ASBESTOS, LEAD, AND HOME INSPECTORS
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC15-30. Virginia Lead-Based Paint Activities Regulations (amending 18VAC15-30-10, 18VAC15-30-20, 18VAC15-30-51 through 18VAC15-30-54, 18VAC15-30-161 through 18VAC15-30-332, 18VAC15-30-340 through 18VAC15-30-370, 18VAC15-30-390, 18VAC15-30-400, 18VAC15-30-410, 18VAC15-30-420, 18VAC15-30-430, 18VAC15-30-450 through 18VAC15-30-760, 18VAC15-30-800, 18VAC15-30-810; adding 18VAC15-30-25, 18VAC15-30-415, 18VAC15-30-435, 18VAC15-30-437, 18VAC15-30-795, 18VAC15-30-815; repealing 18VAC15-30-41, 18VAC15-30-334, 18VAC15-30-380, 18VAC15-30-440, 18VAC15-30-770, 18VAC15-30-780, 18VAC15-30-790, 18VAC15-30-820).
Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-501 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 2, 2026.
Agency Contact: Cameron Parris, Regulatory Operations Administrator, Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-9183, fax (866) 350-5354, or email cameron.parris@dpor.virginia.gov.
Summary:
As a result of a general review, the amendments reduce, reorganize, and clarify requirements for individuals and businesses that are engaged in lead-based paint activities and for the accreditation of training programs that teach lead-based paint activities. Changes to the proposed regulation include (i) adding a provision requiring individual and contractor applicants for licensure to provide an email address in order to facilitate a paperless licensing process; (ii) revising license fees to remove a provision stipulating that license fees be made payable to the Treasurer of Virginia and an expired provision pertaining to temporary renewal and late renewal fees; (iii) allowing for a paperless licensing process; (iv) adding electronic delivery of lead refresher courses; and (v) updating forms.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar of Regulations.
Chapter 30
Virginia Lead-Based Paint Activities Regulations
18VAC15-30-10. Scope.
This chapter contains procedures and requirements for the accreditation of lead-based paint activities training programs and providers, procedures and requirements for the licensure of individuals and firms engaged in lead-based paint activities in target housing and child-occupied facilities, and standards for performing such activities. This chapter is applicable to all individuals and firms who are engaged in lead-based paint activities as defined in 18VAC15-30-20, except persons who perform these activities within residences which they own [ , unless ] the residence is occupied by a person or persons other than the owner or the owner's immediate family while these activities are being conducted or a child residing in the building has been identified as having an elevated blood-lead level [ indicated as provided for ] in § 54.1-512 E of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC15-30-20. Definitions.
A. Section 54.1-500 of the Code of Virginia provides definitions of the following terms and phrases as used in this chapter:
"Accredited lead training program"
"Board"
"Lead-based paint"
"Lead-contaminated [ dust soil ]"
"Lead contractor"
"Lead project design"
"Lead risk assessment"
"Person"
B. The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Abatement" or "abatement project" means any measure or set of measures designed to permanently eliminate lead-based paint hazards.
1. "Abatement" includes, but is not limited to:
a. The removal of lead-based paint, and lead-contaminated dust, the permanent enclosure or encapsulation of lead-based paint, the replacement of painted surfaces or fixtures, or the removal or permanent covering of lead-contaminated soil, when lead-based paint hazards are present in such paint, dust, or soil; and
b. All preparation, cleanup, disposal, and post-abatement clearance testing activities associated with such measures. 2. Specifically, "abatement" includes, but is not limited to: a.;
c. Lead-based paint activities for which there is a written contract or other documentation that provides that an individual or firm will be conducting activities in or to a residential dwelling or child-occupied facility that:
(1) Shall Will result in the permanent elimination of lead-based paint hazards; or
(2) Are designed to permanently eliminate lead-based paint hazards and are described in subdivision 1 of this definition;
b. Lead-based paint activities resulting in the permanent elimination of lead-based paint hazards, conducted by firms or individuals licensed in accordance with this chapter, unless such projects are covered by subdivision 3 of this definition;
c. d. Lead-based paint activities resulting in the permanent elimination of lead-based paint hazards, unless such projects are covered by subdivision 3 2 of this definition; or d. and
e. Lead-based paint activities resulting in the permanent elimination of lead-based paint hazards that are conducted in response to state or local abatement orders.
3. 2. Abatement does not include renovation, remodeling, landscaping, or other activities when such activities are not designed to permanently eliminate lead-based paint hazards, but instead are designed to repair, restore, or remodel a given structure or dwelling, even though these activities may incidentally result in a reduction or elimination of lead-based paint hazards. Abatement does not include interim controls, operations and maintenance activities, or other measures and activities designed to temporarily, but not permanently, reduce lead-based paint hazards. Furthermore, federally assisted housing and community development programs conducted in compliance with the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development Lead-Safe Final Rule 24 CFR Part 35 shall be considered to meet the requirements of this chapter.
"Accredited lead training program" means a training program that has been approved by the board to provide training for individuals engaged in lead-based paint activities.
"Accredited lead training provider" means a firm, individual, state or local government, or nonprofit training program that has met the requirements of this chapter and has been approved by the board to offer an accredited lead training program.
"Applicant" means any a person defined in this chapter who has applied for but has not been granted an interim license, a license or approval as an accredited lead training program, approval as an accredited lead training provider or approval as a training manager or principal instructor by submits an application to the board.
"Board" means the Virginia Board for Asbestos, Lead, and Home Inspectors.
"Application" means a completed board-prescribed form submitted with the appropriate fee and other required documentation.
"Child-occupied facility" means a building, or portion of a building, constructed prior to 1978, that is visited regularly by the same child, six years of age or under, younger on at least two different days, within any week (Sunday through Saturday period), provided that each day's visit lasts at least three hours and, the combined weekly visit lasts six hours, and the combined annual visits last at least 60 hours. Child-occupied facilities may include, but are not limited to, day-care day care centers, preschools, and kindergarten classrooms.
"Clearance levels" means values that indicate the maximum amount of lead permitted in dust on a surface following completion of an abatement activity as identified by EPA, pursuant to 15 USC § 2683.
"Common area" means a portion of a building generally accessible to all occupants, including, but not limited to, hallways, stairways, laundry and recreational rooms, playgrounds, community centers, garages, and boundary fences.
"Component or building component" means specific design or structural elements or fixtures of a building or residential dwelling or child-occupied facility which that are distinguished from each other by form, function, and location. These include, but are not limited to, interior components such as ceilings, crown molding, walls, chair rails, doors, door trim, floors, fireplaces, radiators and other heating units, shelves, shelf supports, stair treads, stair risers, stair stringers, newel posts, railing caps, balustrades, windows and trim (including sashes, window heads, jambs, sills, stools, and troughs), built-in cabinets, columns, beams, bathroom vanities, counter tops, and air conditioners, and exterior components such as painted roofing, chimneys, flashing, gutters and downspouts, ceilings, soffits, facias, rake boards, corner boards, bulkheads, doors and door trim, fences, floors, joists, lattice work, railings and railing caps, siding, handrails, stair risers and treads, stair stringers, columns, balustrades, window sills or stools and troughs, casings, sashes, wells, stools and troughs air conditioners.
"Containment" means a process to protect workers and the environment by controlling exposures to the lead-contaminated dust and debris created during an abatement.
"Course agenda" means an outline of the key topics to be covered during a training course, including the time allotted to teach each topic.
"Course test" means an evaluation of the overall effectiveness of the training which shall that will test the trainees' trainee's knowledge and retention of the topics covered during the course.
"Course test blue print" means written documentation identifying the proportion of course test questions devoted to each major topic in the course curriculum.
"Department" means the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation or any successor agency.
"Deteriorated paint" means paint that is cracking, flaking, chipping, peeling, or otherwise separating from the substrate building component.
"Discipline" means one of the specific types or categories of lead-based paint activities established in this chapter for which individuals must receive training from accredited lead training providers, as defined in this chapter, and become licensed by the board. For example, "lead abatement worker " is a discipline.
"Distinct painting history" means application history, as indicated by its visual appearance or a record of application, over time, of paint or other surface coatings to a component or room.
"Documented methodologies" means methods or protocols used to sample for the presence of lead in paint, dust, and soil.
"Elevated blood-lead level (EBL)" means an excessive absorption of lead that is a confirmed concentration of lead in whole blood of 20 micrograms of lead per deciliter of whole blood for a single venous test or of 15-19 micrograms of lead per deciliter of whole blood in two consecutive tests taken three to four months apart.
"Encapsulant" means a substance that forms a barrier between lead-based paint and the environment using a liquid-applied coating (with or without reinforcement materials) or an adhesively bonded covering material.
"Encapsulation" means the application of an encapsulant.
"Enclosure" means the use of rigid, durable construction materials that are mechanically fastened to the substrate in order to act as a barrier between lead-based paint and the environment.
"Environmental remediation activity" means any activity planned or carried out for the purpose of reducing or eliminating any environmental hazard, including activities necessary to train individuals in the proper or lawful conduct of such activities, which are regulated by federal or state law or regulation.
"EPA" means the United States U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.
"Financial interest" means financial benefit accruing to an individual or to a member of his the individual's immediate family. Such interest shall exist exists by reason of (i) ownership in a business if the ownership exceeds 3.0% of the total equity of the business; (ii) annual gross income that exceeds, or may be reasonably anticipated to exceed $1,000 $2,000 from ownership in real or personal property or a business; (iii) salary, other compensation, fringe benefits, or benefits from the use of property, or a combination thereof, paid or provided by a business that exceeds or may reasonably be expected to exceed $1,000 $2,000 annually; or (iv) ownership of real or personal property if the interest exceeds $1,000 $2,000 in value.
"Firm" means any company, partnership, corporation, sole proprietorship, association, or any other form of business entity organization recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
"Guest instructor" means an individual designated by the training program manager or principal instructor to provide instruction specific to the lecture, hands-on activities, or work practice components of a course.
"Hands-on skills assessment" means an evaluation that tests the trainees' trainee's ability to satisfactorily perform the work practices and procedures identified in this chapter, as well as any other skills taught in a training course.
"Hazardous waste" means any waste as defined in 40 CFR 261.3.
"HUD" means the United States U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development.
"Individual" means a single human being, not a firm or other group or organization.
"Initial course" means the course of instruction established by this chapter to prepare an individual for licensure in a single discipline.
"Inspection" means a surface-by-surface investigation to determine the presence of lead-based paint and the provision of a report explaining the results of the investigation.
"Interim controls" means a set of measures designed to temporarily reduce human exposure or likely exposure to lead-based paint hazards, including specialized cleaning, repairs, maintenance, painting, temporary containment, ongoing monitoring of lead-based paint hazards or potential hazards, and the establishment and operation of management and resident education programs.
"Interim license" means the status of an individual who has successfully completed the appropriate training program in a discipline from an accredited lead training provider, as defined by this chapter, and has applied to the board, but has not yet received a formal license in that discipline from the board. Each interim license expires six months after the completion of the training program, and is equivalent to a license for the six-month period.
"Lead-based paint" means paint or other surface coatings that contain lead equal to or in excess of 1.0 milligrams per square centimeter or more than 0.5 percent by weight.
"Lead-based paint activities" means risk assessment, inspection, project design, and abatement as defined in this chapter that affects or relates to target housing and child-occupied facilities.
"Lead-based paint hazard" means any condition that causes exposure to lead from lead-contaminated dust, lead-contaminated soil, or lead-contaminated paint that is deteriorated or present in accessible surfaces, friction surfaces, or impact surfaces that would result in adverse human health effects as identified by EPA, pursuant to 15 USC § 2683.
"Lead-contaminated dust" means surface dust that contains an area or mass concentration of lead at or in excess of levels identified by the EPA pursuant to § 403 of the Toxic Substances Control Act (15 USC § 2683).
"Lead-hazard screen" means a limited risk assessment activity that involves limited paint and dust sampling as defined in this chapter.
"Licensed lead abatement contractor" or "lead contractor" means a firm that has met the requirements of this chapter, and has been issued a license by the board to perform lead abatements.
"Licensed lead abatement supervisor" or "lead supervisor" means an individual who has met the requirements of this chapter, and has been licensed by the board to supervise and conduct abatements, and to prepare occupant protection plans and abatement reports.
"Licensed lead abatement worker" or "lead worker" means an individual who has met the requirements of this chapter and has been licensed by the board to perform abatements under the supervision of a licensed lead supervisor.
"Licensed lead inspector" or "lead inspector" means an individual who has met the requirements of this chapter, and has been licensed by the board to conduct lead inspections. A licensed inspector may also sample for the presence of lead in dust and soil for the purposes of abatement clearance testing.
"Licensed lead project designer" or "lead project designer" means an individual who has met the requirements of this chapter, and has been licensed by the board to prepare abatement project designs, occupant protection plans, and abatement reports.
"Licensed lead risk assessor" or "lead risk assessor" means an individual who has met the requirements of this chapter, and has been licensed by the board to conduct lead inspections and risk assessments. A licensed risk assessor may also sample for the presence of lead in dust and soil for the purposes of abatement clearance testing.
"Licensee" means any person, as defined by § 54.1-500 of the Code of Virginia, who has been issued and holds a currently valid license as a lead abatement worker, lead abatement supervisor, lead inspector, lead risk assessor, lead project designer, or lead abatement contractor under this chapter.
"Living area" means any area of a residential dwelling used by one or more children age six years of age and under younger, including, but not limited to, living rooms, kitchen areas, dens, play rooms, and children's bedrooms.
"Multi-family dwelling" means target housing that contains more than one separate residential dwelling unit, in which one or more units is used or occupied, or intended to be used or occupied, in whole or in part, as the home or residence of one or more persons.
"OSHA" means the United States Department of Labor, U.S. Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
"Paint in poor condition" means more than ten 10 square feet of deteriorated paint on exterior components with large surface areas; or more than two square feet of deteriorated paint on interior components with large surface areas (e.g., walls, ceilings, floors, doors); or more than ten percent 10% of the total surface area of the component is deteriorated on the interior or exterior components with small surface area (e.g., window sills, baseboards, soffits, trim).
"Permanently covered soil" means soil that has been separated from human contact by the placement of a barrier consisting of solid, relatively impermeable material, such as pavement or concrete. Grass, mulch, and other landscaping materials are not considered permanent covering.
"Person" means any natural or judicial person including any individual, corporation, partnership, or association; any Indian tribe, state or political subdivision thereof; any interstate body; and any department, agency, or instrumentality of the federal government.
"Principal instructor" means the individual who has the primary responsibility for organizing and teaching a particular course.
"Project design" means any descriptive form written as instructions or drafted as a plan describing the construction or set-up of a lead abatement project area and work practices to be utilized during the lead abatement project.
"Recognized laboratory" means any environmental laboratory recognized by the EPA as being capable of performing an analysis for lead compounds in paint, soil, and dust.
"Reduction" means measures designed to reduce or eliminate human exposure to lead-based paint hazards through methods including interim controls and abatement.
"Refresher course" or "refresher training program" means the course of accredited instruction established by this chapter which must be periodically completed as set out in this chapter to maintain an individual's license in a single discipline.
"Residential dwelling" means (i) target housing that is a detached single-family dwelling, including attached structures such as porches and stoops, or (ii) target housing that is a single-family dwelling unit in a structure that contains more than one separate residential dwelling unit, which is used or occupied, or intended to be used or occupied, in whole or in part, as the home or residence of one or more individuals.
"Risk assessment" means (i) an on-site investigation to determine the existence, nature, severity and location of lead-based paint hazards, and (ii) the provision of a report by the individual or the firm conducting the risk assessment, explaining the results of the investigation and options for reducing lead-based hazards.
"Target housing" means any housing constructed prior to 1978, except for housing for the elderly, or persons with disabilities (unless any one or more children age six years of age or under resides younger reside or is expected to reside in such housing for the elderly or persons with disabilities) or any zero-bedroom dwelling.
"Training curriculum" means an established set of course topics for instruction in an accredited lead training program for a particular discipline designed to provide specialized knowledge and skills.
"Training hour" means at least 50 minutes of actual instruction, including, but not limited to, time devoted to lecture, learning activities, small group activities, demonstrations, evaluations, and/or and hands-on experience.
"Training manager" means the individual responsible for administering a training program and monitoring the performance of the instructors.
"TSCA" means the federal Toxic Substances Control Act, 15 USC § 2601 et seq.
"Visual inspection for clearance testing" means the visual examination of a residential dwelling or a child-occupied facility following an abatement to determine whether the abatement has been successfully completed.
"Visual inspection for risk assessment" means the visual examination of a residential dwelling or a child-occupied facility to determine the existence of deteriorated lead-based paint or other potential sources of lead-based paint hazards.
"XRF" means x-ray fluorescence.
18VAC15-30-25. Applicability.
A. A licensed lead abatement supervisor may perform the duties of a licensed lead abatement worker.
B. Federally assisted housing and community development programs conducted in compliance with the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development Lead-Safe Final Rule 24 CFR Part 35 will be considered to meet the requirements of this chapter.
18VAC15-30-41. Waiver of the requirements of this chapter. (Repealed.)
Except as required by law, the board may, in its reasonable discretion, waive any of the requirements of this chapter when in its judgment it finds that the waiver in no way lessens the protection provided by this chapter and Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia to the public health, safety and welfare. The burden of proof that demonstrates continued public protection rests with the party requesting the waiver. Documents referenced are in effect as they existed as of the date the act or action has occurred.
18VAC15-30-51. Application procedures.
A. All applicants seeking licensure, interim licensure or accredited lead training program approval shall must submit an application with the appropriate fee specified in 18VAC15-30-162. Application shall must be made on forms provided by the department board or the board's agent.
1. By signing the application or submitting it electronically the application to the department, the applicant certifies that he the applicant has read and understands the board's statutes and the board's regulations.
2. The receipt of an application and the deposit of fees by the board does not indicate approval by the board.
B. The board may make further inquiries and investigations with respect to the applicant's qualifications to confirm or amplify information supplied.
Applicants C. The applicant will be notified if their the application is incomplete. Applicants A person who fail fails to complete the process within 12 months after the date the department receives the application shall must submit a new application and fee.
D. The applicant must immediately report all changes in information supplied with the application, if applicable, prior to issuance of the license or expiration of the application.
18VAC15-30-52. Qualifications General requirements for licensure - of individuals.
A. General. Applicants shall meet all applicable entry requirements at the time application is made Each applicant for individual licensure must meet the requirements provided in this section.
B. Name. The applicant shall must disclose the applicant's full legal name.
C. Age. The applicant shall must be at least 18 years old of age.
D. Address. The applicant shall must disclose a physical the applicant's mailing address [ and email address ]. A post office box is only acceptable as a mailing address when a physical address is also provided.
E. Training. The applicant shall provide documentation of having satisfactorily completed the board-approved initial training program and all subsequent board-approved refresher training programs as specified in subsection F of this section. Board-approved initial training programs shall be valid for 36 months after the last day of the month wherein completed. Board-approved refresher training programs shall be satisfactorily completed no later than 36 months after the last day of the month wherein the board-approved initial training program was completed and once each 36 months thereafter.
F. Specific entry requirements.
1. Worker. Each applicant for a lead abatement worker license shall provide evidence of successful completion of board-approved lead abatement worker training in accordance with subsection E of this section.
2. Project designer.
a. Each applicant for a lead project designer license shall provide evidence of successful completion of board-approved lead project designer training and board-approved lead abatement supervisor training in accordance with subsection E of this section.
b. Each applicant for a lead project designer license shall also provide evidence of successful completion of one of the following:
(1) A bachelor's degree in engineering, architecture, or a related profession, and one year experience in building construction and design or a related field; or
(2) Four years of experience in building construction and design or a related field.
3. Supervisor.
a. Each applicant for a lead abatement supervisor license shall provide evidence of:
(1) Successful completion of board-approved lead abatement supervisor training in accordance with subsection E of this section; and
(2) One year of experience as a licensed lead abatement worker or two years of experience in a related field (e.g., lead, asbestos, or environmental remediation) or in the building trades.
b. Each applicant shall pass a board-approved licensing examination for supervisors within 36 months after completion of the board-approved lead abatement supervisor initial training course or the board-approved lead supervisor refresher course. Applicants who fail the examination three times must provide to the board evidence, after the date of their third examination failure, of having retaken and satisfactorily completed the initial training requirements and make new application to the board. The applicant is then eligible to sit for the examination an additional three times.
c. A licensed lead abatement supervisor may perform the duties of a licensed lead abatement worker.
4. Inspector.
a. Each applicant for a lead inspector license shall provide evidence of successful completion of board-approved lead inspector training in accordance with subsection E of this section.
b. Each applicant shall pass a board-approved licensing examination for lead inspector within 36 months after completion of the board-approved lead inspector initial training course or the board-approved lead inspector refresher course. Applicants who fail the examination three times must provide to the board evidence, after the date of their third examination failure, of having retaken and satisfactorily completed the initial training requirements and make new application to the board. The applicant is then eligible to sit for the examination an additional three times.
5. Risk assessor.
a. Each applicant for a lead risk assessor license shall provide evidence of successful completion of board-approved lead risk assessor training and successful completion of board-approved lead inspector training in accordance with subsection E of this section.
b. Each applicant for a lead risk assessor license shall also provide evidence of successful completion of one of the following:
(1) Certification or licensure as an industrial hygienist, a professional engineer, or a registered architect or licensure in a related engineering/health/environmental field;
(2) A bachelor's degree and one year of experience in a related field (e.g., lead, asbestos, environmental remediation work, or construction);
(3) An associate's degree and two years of experience in a related field (e.g., lead, asbestos, environmental remediation work, or construction); or
(4) A high school diploma or its equivalent, and at least three years of experience in a related field (e.g., lead, asbestos, environmental remediation work, or construction).
c. Each applicant shall pass a board-approved licensure examination for risk assessor within 36 months after completion of the board-approved lead risk assessor initial training course or the board-approved lead risk assessor refresher course. Applicants who fail the examination three times must provide to the board evidence, after the date of their third examination failure, of having retaken and satisfactorily completed the initial training requirements and make new application to the board. The applicant is then eligible to sit for the examination an additional three times.
G. Training verification. Training requirements shall be verified by submittal to the board of the training certificate issued by the accredited lead training provider for that course.
H. Education verification. Education requirements shall be verified by submittal to the board on the Education Verification Form sent directly from the school.
I. Experience verification. Experience requirements shall be verified by resumes, letters of reference, or documentation of work experience.
J. Conviction or guilt. The E. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall must disclose the following information:
1. A conviction in any jurisdiction of any All felony convictions.
2. A conviction in any jurisdiction of any All misdemeanor except marijuana convictions related to environmental remediation activity.
3. Any disciplinary action taken in another jurisdiction in connection with the applicant's environmental remediation practice including monetary penalties, fines, suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action All misdemeanor convictions, excluding marijuana convictions, that occurred within three years of the date of application.
4. Any current or previously held environmental remediation certifications, accreditations, or licenses issued by Virginia or any other jurisdiction.
Subject to the provisions of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, the board may deny any application for licensure or accreditation as a lead training provider when any of the parties listed in this subsection have been convicted of any offense listed in this subsection or has been the subject of any disciplinary action listed in subdivision 3 of this subsection. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered finding of guilt, regardless of adjudication or deferred adjudication, will be considered a conviction for the purposes of this subsection section. A certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court or regulatory agency with the lawful authority to issue such order shall The record of conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted will be admissible as prima facie evidence of such a conviction or discipline finding of guilt. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
K. Standards of conduct and practice F. The applicant must report any action taken by any board or administrative body in any jurisdiction against a professional or occupational license, certification, or registration issued to the applicant, to include any suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license, certification, or registration; imposition of a monetary penalty; or requirement to take remedial education or other corrective action. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant for any prior action taken by any board or administrative body in any jurisdiction.
G. Applicants shall must be in compliance with the standards of conduct and practice set forth in Part VIII (18VAC15-30-510 et seq.) and Part IX (18VAC15-30-760 et seq.) of this chapter at the time of application to the board, while the application is under review by the board, and at all times when the license is in effect.
L. Standing. The applicant shall be in good standing in every jurisdiction where licensed, and the applicant shall not have had a license that was suspended, revoked, or surrendered in connection with any disciplinary action in any jurisdiction prior to applying for licensure in Virginia. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure or approval to any applicant based on disciplinary action by any jurisdiction H. The applicant must provide documentation of having satisfactorily completed the board-approved initial training program and all subsequent board-approved refresher training programs applicable to the license sought as specified in subsection I of this section. Documentation of training completion will be verified by the board. Completion certificates for board-approved initial training programs are valid for 36 months from the date training was completed. Board-approved refresher training programs must be satisfactorily completed no later than 36 months from the date the board-approved initial training program was completed and every 36 months thereafter.
I. An applicant for individual licensure must meet the education or experience requirements of this subsection that are applicable to the license sought.
1. Worker. Each applicant for a lead abatement worker license must provide evidence of successful completion of board-approved lead abatement worker training.
2. Project designer.
a. Each applicant for a lead project designer license must provide evidence of successful completion of board-approved lead project designer training and board-approved lead abatement supervisor training.
b. Each applicant for a lead project designer license must also provide evidence of successful completion of one of the following:
(1) A bachelor's degree in engineering, architecture, or a related profession and one year experience in building construction and design or a related field; or
(2) Four years of experience in building construction and design or a related field.
3. Supervisor.
a. Each applicant for a lead abatement supervisor license must provide evidence of;
(1) Successful completion of board-approved lead abatement supervisor training; and
(2) One year of experience as a licensed lead abatement worker or two years of experience in a related field, including lead, asbestos, or environmental remediation, or in the building trades.
b. Each applicant for a lead abatement supervisor license must pass a board-approved licensing examination for supervisors within 36 months after completion of the board-approved lead abatement supervisor initial training course or the board-approved lead supervisor refresher course. An applicant who fails the examination three times must provide evidence to the board after the date of the third examination failure of having retaken and satisfactorily completed the initial training requirements. The applicant is then eligible to sit for the examination an additional three times.
4. Inspector.
a. Each applicant for a lead inspector license must provide evidence of successful completion of board-approved lead inspector training or lead risk assessor training.
b. Each applicant for a lead inspector license must pass a board-approved licensing examination for lead inspector within 36 months after completion of the board-approved lead inspector initial training course or the board-approved lead inspector refresher course. An applicant who fails the examination three times must provide evidence to the board after the date of the third examination failure of having retaken and satisfactorily completed the initial training requirements. The applicant is then eligible to sit for the examination an additional three times.
5. Risk assessor.
a. Each applicant for a lead risk assessor license must provide evidence of successful completion of board-approved lead risk assessor training and successful completion of board-approved lead inspector training.
b. Each applicant for a lead risk assessor license must also provide evidence of successful completion of one of the following:
(1) Certification or licensure as an industrial hygienist, a professional engineer, or a registered architect or licensure in a related engineering, health, or environmental field;
(2) A bachelor's degree and one year of experience in a related field (e.g., lead, asbestos, environmental remediation work, or construction);
(3) An associate's degree and two years of experience in a related field (e.g., lead, asbestos, environmental remediation work, or construction); or
(4) A high school diploma or its equivalent and at least three years of experience in a related field (e.g., lead, asbestos, environmental remediation work, or construction).
c. Each applicant must pass a board-approved licensing examination for risk assessor within 36 months after completion of the board-approved lead risk assessor initial training course or the board-approved lead risk assessor refresher course. An applicant who fails the examination three times must provide evidence to the board after the date of the third examination failure of having retaken and satisfactorily completed the initial training requirements. The applicant is then eligible to sit for the examination an additional three times.
J. [ Applicants for a lead supervisor, lead inspector, or lead risk assessor license must pass a board-approved examination on Virginia lead laws and regulations.
K. ] Applicants seeking to qualify for licensure based on completion of a degree must submit a transcript from the school where the applicable degree was obtained. Only a degree from a regional or national accreditation association or an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education will be considered.
[ K. L. ] Experience requirements will be verified by resumes, letters of reference, or other documentation of work experience acceptable to the board.
[ L. M. ] Individuals who are required to pass a board-approved license examination may be issued an interim license, provided the required initial or refresher training was completed no later than six months prior to the application being received by the board.
18VAC15-30-53. Qualifications for licensure - business entities of lead contractors.
A. General. Every business entity shall secure a license before transacting business Each firm applying for a license must meet the requirements of this section.
B. Name. The business name shall be disclosed on the application. The applicant must disclose the name under which the entity firm conducts business and holds itself out to the public (i.e., the trade or fictitious name) shall also be disclosed on the application. Business entities shall register their trade or fictitious names with the State Corporation Commission in. In accordance with Chapter 5 (§ 59.1-69 et seq.) of Title 59.1 of the Code of Virginia, the firm must register any trade or fictitious names, when applicable, with the State Corporation Commission before submitting their [ applications an application ] to the board.
C. Address. The applicant shall must disclose the firm's mailing address [ and , ] the firm's physical address [ , and the firm's email address ]. A post office box is only acceptable as a mailing address when a physical address is also provided.
D. Form of organization. Applicants shall meet the additional requirements listed below for their business type:
1. Corporations. All applicants shall have been incorporated in the Commonwealth of Virginia or, if a foreign corporation, shall have obtained a certificate of authority to conduct business in Virginia from the State Corporation Commission in accordance with § 13.1-544.2 of the Code of Virginia. The corporation shall be in good standing with the State Corporation Commission at the time of application to the board and at all times when the license is in effect.
2. Limited liability companies. All applicants shall have obtained a certificate of organization in the Commonwealth of Virginia or, if a foreign limited liability company, shall have obtained a certificate of registration to do business in Virginia from the State Corporation Commission in accordance with § 13.1-1105 of the Code of Virginia. The company shall be in good standing with the State Corporation Commission at the time of application to the board and at all times when the license is in effect.
3. Partnerships. All applicants shall have a written partnership agreement. The partnership agreement shall state that all professional services of the partnership shall be under the direction and control of a licensed or certified professional.
4. Sole proprietorships. Sole proprietorships desiring to use an assumed or fictitious name, that is a name other than the individual's full name, shall have their assumed or fictitious name recorded by the clerk of the court of the county or jurisdiction wherein the business is to be conducted.
D. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, the applicant must disclose the following information about the firm and its owners, officers, managers, members, and directors, as applicable:
1. All felony convictions;
2. All misdemeanor convictions, except marijuana convictions, within the last three years; and
3. Any conviction involving environmental remediation activity that resulted in the significant harm or the imminent and substantial threat of significant harm to human health or the environment.
The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. The applicant has the right to request further review of any such action by the board under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
E. Qualifications. 1. Lead contractor The applicant must report any disciplinary action taken by any board or administrative body in any jurisdiction against a professional or occupational license, certification, or registration issued to the firm or its owners, officers, managers, members, directors, and, as applicable, any reprimand, suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license, certification, or registration; imposition of a monetary penalty; or requirement to take remedial education or other corrective action. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant based on disciplinary action taken by any board or administrative body in any jurisdiction.
F. The board may deny the application of an applicant who is shown to have a substantial identity of interest with a person whose license or certificate has been revoked or not renewed by the board. A substantial identity of interest includes (i) a controlling financial interest by the individual or corporate principals of the person whose license or certificate has been revoked or has not been renewed or (ii) substantially identical owners, officers, managers, members, or directors, as applicable.
G. Each applicant for lead contractor licensure shall must:
a. 1. Hold a valid Virginia contractor license with a lead specialty issued by the Virginia Board for Contractors and comply with the provisions of Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia governing the regulation of contractors.
b. 2. Certify that:
(1) a. Only properly licensed lead abatement supervisors and workers will be employed to conduct lead-based paint activities;
(2) b. A licensed lead abatement supervisor is present at each job site during all work site preparation and during post-abatement cleanup, and shall be on site or available by telephone, pager, or answering service and able to be present at the work site in no more than two hours when abatement activities are being conducted; (3) and
c. The standards for conducting lead-based paint activities established in this chapter and standards established by EPA and OSHA shall be followed at all times during the conduct of lead-based paint activities; and (4) The company is in compliance with all other occupational and professional licenses and standards as required by Virginia statute and local ordinance to transact the business of a lead abatement contractor.
F. Conviction or guilt. Neither the firm nor the owners, officers, or directors shall have been convicted or found guilty, regardless of adjudication, in any jurisdiction of any felony or of any misdemeanor involving lying, cheating, or stealing or of any violation while engaged in environmental remediation activity that resulted in the significant harm or the imminent and substantial threat of significant harm to human health or the environment, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time of appeal having lapsed. Any plea of nolo contendre shall be considered a conviction for the purposes of this section. A certified copy of the final order, decree, or case decision by a court or regulatory agency with lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction or discipline. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
G. Standards of conduct and practice. Applicants shall be in compliance with the standards of conduct and practice set forth in Part VIII (18VAC15-30-510 et seq.) and Part IX (18VAC15-30-760 et seq.) of this chapter at the time of application to the board, while the application is under review by the board, and at all times when the license is in effect.
H. Standing. Both the firm and the owners, officers, and directors shall be in good standing in every jurisdiction where licensed, and the applicant shall not have had a license that was suspended, revoked, or surrendered in connection with any disciplinary action in any jurisdiction prior to applying for licensure in Virginia. The board, at its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant based on disciplinary action by any jurisdiction.
I. Denial of license. The board may refuse to issue a license to any lead contractor applicant if the applicant or its owners, officers, or directors have a financial interest in a lead contractor whose lead license has been revoked, suspended, or denied renewal in any jurisdiction.
18VAC15-30-54. Qualifications for accredited lead training program approval.
A. For a training program to obtain accreditation from the board to teach lead-based paint activities, the program shall must demonstrate through its application material that it meets the minimum requirements for principal instructor qualifications, required topic review, length of training, and recordkeeping for each discipline for which the program is seeking accreditation. Training programs shall must offer courses that teach the standards for conducting lead-based paint activities contained in this chapter and other such standards adopted by the EPA.
B. Each applicant for approval as an accredited lead training provider shall must meet the requirements established by this chapter before being granted approval to offer an accredited lead training program. Applicants requesting approval of a lead training program to prepare participants for licensure shall must apply on a form provided by the board. The application form shall must be completed in accordance with the instructions supplied and shall must include the following:
1. The course for which it the training provider is applying for accreditation.
2. A statement signed by the training program manager, which certifies certifying that the training program meets the minimum requirements established in this chapter.
3. The names and qualifications, including education and experience, of each principal instructor.
4. A copy of the student manuals and instructor manuals or other materials to be used.
5. A copy of the course agenda that includes the time allocation for each course topic.
6. A copy of the test and answer sheet.
7. A description of the facilities and equipment to be used for lecture and hands-on training.
8. A description of the activities and procedures that will be used for conducting the assessment of hands-on skills.
9. A copy of the quality control plan as described in this chapter 18VAC15-30-410.
10. An example A sample of a certificate that will be issued to students who successfully complete the course.
11. A proposed course date for auditing purposes.
12. The application fee required by 18VAC15-30-162.
C. The completed application form with attachments and fee shall must be received by the board no later than 45 days before the desired audit date.
D. An applicant may seek approval for as many initial and refresher courses as it chooses, but shall must submit a separate application and fee for each program.
E. Applicants may seek accreditation to offer lead-based paint activities initial or refresher courses in any of the following disciplines: lead abatement worker, lead project designer, lead abatement supervisor, lead inspector, and lead risk assessor.
F. Each training program shall be conducted in compliance with this chapter to qualify for and maintain approval as an accredited lead training program.
G. F. Upon receipt of an application, the board shall conduct a preliminary review and shall notify the applicant in writing of any deficiencies in the submittal packages will be conducted to ensure compliance with this chapter. Applicants will have one year from the board's receipt of the application to correct any problems noted in the review The applicant will be notified if the application is incomplete or deficient. All deficiencies must be corrected prior to the on-site audit.
H. After the application has been found to be complete and in compliance with this chapter, G. Upon completion of the preliminary review, the board will conduct an on-site audit of the training program shall be conducted. The board shall conduct an additional on-site audit, grant approval or deny approval based on the board's evaluation of the level of compliance with this chapter found during the initial on-site audit The applicant will be notified of any deficiencies identified during the audit. All deficiencies must be corrected prior to the approval of the application.
I. Applicants denied approval shall have one year from the date of receipt of the application by the board to correct any deficiencies and notify the board in writing.
J. H. An accredited training provider shall have been program must be approved by the board before its the training program's training certificates shall will be accepted by the board as evidence that an individual has completed an accredited lead training program.
K. I. Each accredited lead training program that is granted approval shall will be sent a form letter indicating the discipline approved and an expiration date that shall be maintained at the business address listed on the application.
18VAC15-30-161. General fee requirements.
A. All fees are nonrefundable and shall will not be prorated. The date on which the fee is received by the department or its agent will determine whether the fee is on time. [ Checks or money orders ] shall [ must be made payable to the Treasurer of Virginia. ]
B. Fees for approval and renewal of an accredited lead training program and an accredited lead refresher training program shall will not be imposed on any state, local government, or nonprofit training program.
C. The examination fee for examination is subject to contracted charges to the department by an outside vendor. These contracts are competitively negotiated and bargained for based on a contract entered into in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Fees will may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in accordance with this contract.
18VAC15-30-163. Renewal and late renewal fees.
[ A. ] Renewal and late renewal fees are as follows:
|
Fee Type
|
Fee Amount
|
When Due
|
|
Renewal for worker, supervisor, inspector, risk assessor, or project designer license
|
$45
|
With renewal application
|
|
Renewal for lead contractor license
|
$70
|
With renewal application
|
|
Renewal for accredited lead training program approval
|
$125
|
With renewal application
|
|
Late renewal for worker, supervisor, inspector, risk assessor, or project designer license (includes a $35 late renewal fee in addition to the regular $45 renewal fee)
|
$80
|
With renewal application
|
|
Late renewal for lead contractor license (includes a $35 late renewal fee in addition to the regular $70 renewal fee)
|
$105
|
With renewal application
|
|
Late renewal for accredited lead training program approval (includes a $35 late renewal fee in addition to the regular $125 renewal fee)
|
$160
|
With renewal application
|
B. For licenses expiring after February 1, 2021, and before February 1, 2023, the renewal fees shall be as follows:
|
Renewal for worker, supervisor, inspector, risk assessor, or project designer license
|
$25
|
|
Renewal for lead contractor license
|
$30
|
|
Renewal for accredited lead training program approval
|
$40
|
For late renewals received after March 1, 2021, and on or before February 28, 2023, the late renewal fees shall be as follows:
|
Late renewal for worker, supervisor, inspector, risk assessor, or project designer license
|
$60
|
|
Late renewal for lead contractor license
|
$65
|
|
Late renewal for accredited lead training program approval
|
$75
|
C. [ B. For licenses expiring after February 1, 2023, and before February 1, 2025, the renewal fees ] shall be [ are as follows:
|
Renewal for worker, supervisor, inspector, risk assessor, or project designer license
|
$25
|
|
Renewal for lead contractor license
|
$30
|
|
Renewal for accredited lead training program approval
|
$40
|
For late renewals received after March 1, 2023, and on or before February 28, 2025, the late renewal fees ] shall be [ are as follows:
|
Late renewal for worker, supervisor, inspector, risk assessor, or project designer license
|
$60
|
|
Late renewal for lead contractor license
|
$65
|
|
Late renewal for accredited lead training program approval
|
$75 ]
|
18VAC15-30-164. Renewal required.
A. Interim licenses shall expire six months from the last day of the month during which the individual completed the board-approved initial or refresher accredited lead training program required by 18VAC15-30-52 regardless of the date on which the board received the application for initial licensure or the date the board issued the license.
B. Interim licenses shall not be renewed or extended.
C. A. Individual licenses shall expire 12 months from the last day of the month wherein in which the license was issued. Interim licenses issued to individuals expire six months from the last day of the month the individual completed the board-approved initial or refresher accredited lead training program required by 18VAC15-30-52. Interim licenses will not be renewed.
D. B. Contractor licenses shall expire 12 months from the last day of the month wherein in which the license was issued.
E. C. Accredited lead training programs approval shall expire 24 months from the last day of the month in which the board granted approval.
18VAC15-30-165. Procedures for renewal.
A. The board shall mail will send a renewal notice to the licensee or accredited lead training provider [ at the ] last known [ address of record ]. The notice shall outline the procedures for renewal and the renewal fee amount. Failure to receive the notice shall not relieve the licensee or accredited lead training provider of the obligation to renew.
B. Prior to the license expiration date shown on the license or approval, each licensee or accredited lead training provider desiring to renew the a license or approval shall must return to the board the renewal notice and the renewal appropriate fee specified in 18VAC15-30-163. Documentation of refresher training programs for individuals and of the requirements in 18VAC15-30-166 C for accredited lead training programs shall be sent to the board Individual licensees must provide evidence of meeting the annual refresher training requirement for license renewal and meet the requirements of 18VAC15-30-166 A.
C. Should the licensee or accredited lead training provider fail to receive the renewal notice, a photocopy of the current lead license or accredited lead training program approval may be substituted for the renewal notice and mailed with the required fee to the board.
D. Interim licensure shall not be renewed or extended. Each applicant who wishes a second interim license must provide to the board evidence of having retaken and satisfactorily completed the initial training requirements and make a new application to the board C. Prior to the expiration date on the approval letter, each accredited lead training program desiring to renew the approval must return to the board the appropriate fee specified in 18VAC15-30-163 and the documentation required by 18VAC15-30-166 B.
D. By making application for renewal, the licensee or accredited lead training program is certifying continued compliance with the requirements of this chapter.
18VAC15-30-166. Qualifications for renewal.
A. Individuals.
1. Licensees desiring to maintain an individual license shall satisfactorily must successfully complete the required board-approved refresher training course within 36 months after the date that the initial or most recent refresher training course was completed and at least once every 36 months thereafter. In the case of a proficiency-based course completion, refresher training is required every 60 months instead of 36 months.
2. Licensees are responsible for ensuring that the board receives proof of completion of the required board-approved training. Prior to the expiration date shown on the individual's current license, the individual desiring to renew that license shall provide evidence of meeting the board-approved refresher training requirement for license renewal.
3. 2. Refresher training shall must be specific to the discipline of the license being renewed.
4. The board shall renew an individual license for an additional 12 months upon receipt of a renewal application and fee in compliance with 18VAC15-30-163 and 18VAC15-30-165, provided that the licensee has complied with subdivisions 1 through 3 of this subsection.
B. Contractors. The board shall renew a contractor license for an additional 12 months upon receipt of a renewal application and the renewal fee in compliance with 18VAC15-30-163 and 18VAC15-30-165. Return of the renewal application and renewal fee to the board shall constitute a certification that the licensee is in full compliance with the board's regulations.
C. B. Accredited training programs.
1. Accredited lead training providers desiring to maintain renew approval of their an accredited lead training program shall cause the board to receive the following no later than 24 months after the date of initial approval and not less often than once each 24 months thereafter must provide the following:
a. The training provider's name, address, and telephone number.
b. A statement signed by the training program manager that certifies that:
(1) The course materials for each course meet the requirements of Part VII (18VAC15-30-440 et seq.) of this chapter.
(2) The training manager and principal instructors meet the qualifications listed in 18VAC15-30-340.
(3) The training program manager complies at all times with all requirements of this chapter.
(4) The quality control program meets the requirements noted in 18VAC15-30-410.
(5) The recordkeeping requirements of this chapter will be followed.
2. Return of the renewal application and renewal fee to the board shall constitute a certification that the accredited lead training provider is in full compliance with the board's regulations.
3. 2. An audit by a board representative may be performed to verify the certified statements and the contents of the application before relicensure is granted.
4. 3. Accredited lead training programs determined by the board to have met the renewal requirements shall will be issued an approval for an additional 24 months.
18VAC15-30-167. Late renewal.
A. If the renewal fee is not received by the board within 30 days after the expiration date printed on the Each license or and each accredited lead training program approval, a that is not renewed within 30 days of the expiration date on the license or approval letter will be subject to late renewal fee shall be required in addition to the renewal fee fees as established in 18VAC15-30-162.
B. Any licensee or accredited lead training provider who fails to renew his Each license or accredited lead and each approved training program approval that is not renewed within 12 months after the expiration date on the license or approval shall will not be permitted to renew and shall apply as a new applicant renewed. The individual or firm must apply for a new license or approval and meet entry requirements current at the time the new application is submitted.
18VAC15-30-332. Changes to an approved course.
Once a training course has been approved, substantial changes in any of the approved items must be submitted to the board for review and approval prior to the continuation of the training course. These items include, but are not limited to:
1. Course curriculum.
2. Course examination.
3. Course materials.
4. Training manager and principal instructor or instructors.
5. Certificate of completion.
The board shall communicate its approval or disapproval in the same manner as for initial applications for accreditation approval.
6. Change in permanent training location.
7. Change in ownership of the training program.
18VAC15-30-334. Change of ownership. (Repealed.)
When an accredited lead training provider offering an accredited lead training program has a change of ownership, the new owner shall apply anew.
18VAC15-30-340. Qualifications of training managers and principal instructors.
A. The training program shall must employ a training manager who:
1. Has at least two years of experience, education, or training in teaching workers or adults; has a bachelor's or graduate level degree in building construction technology, engineering, industrial hygiene, safety, public health, education, business administration, program management, or a related field; or has two years of experience in managing a training program that specialized in environmental hazards; and
2. Has demonstrated experience, education, or training in the construction industry, including: lead or asbestos abatement, painting, carpentry, renovation, remodeling, occupational safety and health, or and industrial hygiene.
B. The training program shall must employ a qualified principal instructor, designated by the training manager, for each course who:
1. Demonstrates experience, education, or training in teaching workers or adults;
2. Successfully Has successfully completed a minimum of 16 hours of any EPA-accredited or board-approved lead-specific training; and
3. Demonstrated Has demonstrated experience, education, or training in lead or asbestos abatement, painting, carpentry, renovation, remodeling, occupational safety and health, or industrial hygiene.
C. Documentation of all principal instructor qualifications shall must be reviewed and approved by the board prior to the principal instructor teaching in an accredited lead training program.
18VAC15-30-350. Responsibilities of the training manager.
A. The training program shall must employ a training manager who shall be is responsible for ensuring that the training program complies at all times with the requirements of this chapter and who is responsible for maintaining:
1. The validity and integrity of the hands-on skills assessment or proficiency test to ensure that it the assessment or test accurately evaluates the trainees' trainee's performance of the work practices and procedures associated with the course topics.
2. The validity and integrity of the course test to ensure that it the test accurately evaluates the trainees' trainee's knowledge and retention of the course topics.
B. The training manager shall must, for each course offered, designate a principal instructor. Principal instructors are responsible for the organization of the course and oversight of the teaching of all course material.
C. Guest instructors may be designated by the training manager as needed to provide instruction specific to the lecture, hand-on hands-on activities, or work practice components of a course.
D. Any training manager who intends to also serve as a principal instructor shall must meet the requirements of subsection B of 18VAC15-30-340 and provide documentation to the board prior to instructing.
18VAC15-30-360. Training manager and principal instructor documentation.
The following documents shall will be recognized by the board as proof that training managers and principal instructors meet the relevant applicable educational, work experience, and training requirements specifically listed in 18VAC15-30-340:
1. Official academic transcripts or diplomas as proof of meeting the educational requirements.
2. Resumes, letters of reference, or documentation of work experience as proof of meeting the work experience requirements.
3. Certificates from lead-specific training courses as proof of meeting the training requirements.
18VAC15-30-370. Training facilities.
The training program shall must provide adequate facilities for the delivery of the lecture, course test, hands-on training, and assessment activities. This includes providing training equipment that reflects current work practices, and maintaining or updating the equipment and facilities as needed.
18VAC15-30-380. Length of training courses. (Repealed.)
A. The length of training courses are as follows:
1. The training course for lead inspector shall last a minimum of 24 training hours, with a minimum of eight hours devoted to hands-on training activities.
2. The training course for lead risk assessor shall last a minimum of 16 training hours with a minimum of four hours devoted to hands-on training activities. As a prerequisite, the 24 training hours provided for in subdivision 1 of this subsection for lead inspector shall be required.
3. The training course for lead project designer shall last a minimum of eight training hours. As a prerequisite, the 32 training hours provided for in subdivision 4 of this subsection for lead abatement supervisor shall be required.
4. The training course for lead abatement supervisor shall last a minimum of 32 training hours, with a minimum of eight hours devoted to hands-on activities.
5. The training course for lead abatement worker shall last a minimum of 16 training hours, with a minimum of eight hours devoted to hands-on activities.
6. All lead refresher courses shall last a minimum of eight training hours, except the project designer refresher course which shall last a minimum of four training hours.
B. In no case shall actual training exceed eight hours during any single 24-hour period, exceed four hours when conducted during evening hours (after 5 p.m. and before 8 a.m.) except training that is conducted during the student's normal second or third shift working hours, or exceed 16 hours during any weekend (Friday after 5 p.m. to Monday 8 a.m.).
18VAC15-30-390. Course examination.
A. For each course, the accredited lead training program shall must conduct a monitored, written course test at the completion of the course and a hands-on skills assessment, or as an alternative, a proficiency test. Each individual must successfully complete the hands-on skills assessment and receive a passing score on the course test to pass any course, or successfully complete a proficiency test. Refresher training programs are not required to conduct a hands-on skills assessment.
B. The course test is an evaluation of the overall effectiveness of the training which shall that must test the trainee's knowledge and retention of the topics covered during the course. An For a lead abatement worker training program, an oral course test may be administered in lieu of a written course test for lead abatement worker only.
C. Seventy percent shall will be the passing score on the course test.
D. The hands-on skills assessment is an evaluation of the effectiveness of the hands-on training which shall that must test the ability of the trainees to demonstrate satisfactory performance of work practices and procedures specified in Part VIII (18VAC15-30-440 et seq.) of this chapter, as well as any other skills demonstrated in the course.
E. The use of a proficiency test in lieu of a hands-on assessment and course test may be considered by the training provider. An accredited lead training program that offers a proficiency test shall assure must ensure that the test consists primarily of an evaluation of the effectiveness and reliability of a student's ability to conduct a particular lead-based paint activity. The proficiency test must also cover all of the topics and skills addressed in a particular course. For instance, a proficiency-based course in inspection could involve a mix of lecture material with students conducting a mock inspection in a residential dwelling with known lead-based paint concentrations. The student would be evaluated on the accuracy of the results of their inspection. For a training program to make use of a proficiency-based course, that course must be approved by the board in the same manner as approval for any other course, including fees.
18VAC15-30-400. Certificates of completion.
A. Accredited lead training programs shall will issue unique course completion certificates to each individual who successfully completes the course requirements. The course completion certificate shall must include:
1. A unique certificate number.
2. The name and address of the individual.
3. The name of the particular course that the individual completed.
4. Dates of course completion/test completion or test passage.
5. Expiration [ The certificate expiration date. ] Training certificates shall will expire three years from the date of course completion. If the accredited lead training program offers a proficiency test, the those training certificates shall will expire five years from the date of course completion.
6. Name, address, and telephone number of the training provider.
7. Name and signature of the training manager and principal instructor.
B. The board will not accept training certificates of completion for initial training courses where the name of the course participant, training manager, and principal instructor are the same.
C. Course participants in a refresher training course who are both the training manager and principal instructor of a refresher training program must be monitored by another instructor if completing the program's examination for the purpose of license renewal. The monitoring individual must sign the certificate of completion as the participant's instructor. A course participant in a refresher training course who is either the training manager or the principal instructor of a training program must be monitored by the other if completing his own program's examination for the purpose of license renewal. The monitoring individual must sign the certificate of completion as the participant's instructor.
18VAC15-30-410. Quality control plan.
The training manager shall must develop and implement a quality control plan. The plan shall will be used to maintain and improve the quality of the accredited lead training program over time. This The plan shall must contain at least the following elements:
1. Procedures for periodic revision of training materials and course test to reflect innovations in the field.
2. Procedures for the training manager's annual review of principal instructor competency.
[ 18VAC15-30-415. Electronic delivery of lead refresher training courses.
A. Electronic delivery of accredited lead refresher training courses is permitted, provided the following requirements are met:
1. Courses delivered electronically must be approved by the board in accordance with this chapter. A pre-existing approval for an in-person, classroom-based refresher course does not extend to approval of the electronic course.
2. The training provider must have a system in place to authenticate each participant's identity and the participant's eligibility to enroll in the course.
3. A unique identifier must be assigned to each participant to be used to launch and re-launch the course. This identifier may be used throughout the course if deemed necessary by the instructor.
4. Each participant must be logged into the course and participating for the full length of time required for each course discipline. The training provider must track each participant's course logins, launches, progress, and completion. The training provider must maintain a record of this information in accordance with the applicable recordkeeping requirements of this chapter.
5. The course must include knowledge checks throughout the entirety of the course. The knowledge checks must be successfully completed before the participant moves on to the next module.
6. Course instructors must be available to answer questions or offer technical discussion by way of online discussion or message boards or a telephone number during the training period.
7. There must be a test of at least 20 questions at the end of the course, of which 80% must be answered correctly for successful completion of the course. The test must be designed so that the participant does not receive feedback on answers until after the test has been submitted.
8. Each participant must be provided with a completion certificate that may be saved and printed. The completion certificate must specifically mention that the course was taken online. The certificate must not be susceptible to editing. The certificate must contain all information required by this chapter.
9. Course notifications and participant lists provided to the board must indicate whether the course is conducted electronically.
B. Electronic courses must meet all other requirements for refresher courses as established in this chapter.
C. For auditing purposes, the board must have unrestricted access to the electronic course at any time during which the course is conducted.
D. For purposes of this section, electronic delivery includes real-time virtual training and asynchronous delivery of training courses. ]
18VAC15-30-420. Recordkeeping and provision of records to the board.
A. Each accredited lead training program shall must maintain and make available upon request from the board the following records:
1. All documents specified in 18VAC15-30-360 that demonstrate the qualifications listed in 18VAC15-30-340 of the training manager and principal instructors.
2. Current curriculum/course curriculum or course materials and documents reflecting any changes made to these materials.
3. Course examination.
4. Information on how the hands-on assessment is conducted, including, but not limited to, who conducts the assessment, how the skills are graded, what facilities are used, and the pass/fail pass-fail rate.
5. The quality control plan described in 18VAC15-30-410.
6. Results of the each student's hands-on skills assessments and course examination and a copy of each student's course completion certificate.
7. Any other material not listed in this chapter that was submitted to the board as part of the application for accreditation.
The accredited lead training provider shall must retain these records at the location specified on the training program application for a minimum of three years and six months.
B. The training manager shall must notify the board at least 48 hours prior to the start date of any accredited lead training program.
C. The training manager shall must provide an updated notification when an accredited lead training program will begin on a date other than the start date specified in the original notification as follows:
1. For accredited lead training programs beginning prior to the start date provided to the board, an updated notification must be received by the board at least 48 hours before the new start date.
2. For accredited lead training programs beginning after the start date provided to the board, an updated notification must be received by the board at least 48 hours before the start date provided to the board.
D. The training manager shall must update the board of any change in location of an accredited lead training program at least seven business days prior to the start date provided to the board.
E. The training manager shall must update the board regarding any accredited lead training program cancellations or any other change to the original notification at least two business days prior to the start date provided to the board. This requirement shall will not apply to situations or circumstances beyond the control of the training provider.
F. Each notification, including updates, shall must include the following:
1. Notification type (i.e., original, update, cancellation).
2. Training program name, Virginia accreditation number, address, and telephone number.
3. Course discipline, type (initial/refresher initial or refresher), and the language in which the instruction will be given.
4. Dates and times of training.
5. Training locations, telephone number, and address.
6. Principal instructor's name.
7. Training manager's name and signature.
G. The training program participant list shall must be completed by the training provider and training program participants daily.
H. The training program participant list shall must be retained by the training provider for three years following the date of completion of the training program.
I. The training manager shall must provide to the board the accredited lead training program participant list no later than 10 business days following the training program completion. For the purposes of this section, a business day shall mean Monday through Friday with the exception of federal holidays.
J. The training program participant list shall must include the following:
1. Training program name, Virginia accreditation number, address, and telephone number.
2. Course discipline and type (initial/refresher initial or refresher).
3. Dates of training.
4. Each participant's name, address, social security number, course completion certificate number, and course test score.
5. Training manager's name and signature.
K. Notifications and training program participant lists shall must be submitted electronically in the manner established by acceptable to the board specifically to receive this documentation using a sample form designed by and available from the board. Any variation upon this procedure shall be approved by the board prior to submission.
L. The training provider shall must retain all examinations completed by training program participants for a period of three years.
M. The department shall will not recognize training certificates from approved training providers that fail to notify comply with the notification requirements of this section or fail to provide a training program participant list as required by this section.
18VAC15-30-430. Change of address.
The accredited lead training provider shall must notify the board within 30 days prior to relocating its business or transferring the records.
18VAC15-30-435. Access by the department.
Accredited training providers must permit department representatives to attend, evaluate, and monitor any accredited training program. No prior notice of attendance by department representatives is required. The department will be given access to all course materials, principal instructor and training manager rosters, participant rosters, and other records as stipulated by this chapter.
18VAC15-30-437. Suspension or revocation of approval of an accredited lead training provider.
The board may suspend, revoke, or modify an accredited lead training program's approval if an accredited lead training provider, training manager, or other person with supervisory authority over the training program has:
1. Misrepresented the contents of a training course to the board or the student population.
2. Failed to submit required information or notification in a timely manner.
3. Failed to submit training program notification as required and in the manner described in 18VAC15-30-420.
4. Failed to submit training program participant lists as required and in the manner described in 18VAC15-30-420.
5. Failed to maintain required records.
6. Falsified accreditation records, qualifications of the training manager and principal instructors, or other accreditation information.
7. Failed to comply with the federal, state, or local lead-based paint statutes or regulations.
8. Acted as an ostensible licensee for undisclosed persons who do or will control or direct, directly or indirectly, the operations of the accredited lead training provider's business.
18VAC15-30-440. General. (Repealed.)
Training programs shall ensure that their courses of study for various lead-based paint activities disciplines cover the mandatory subject areas. Requirements listed in this part ending in an asterisk (*) indicate areas that require hands-on training as an integral component of the course. All training courses shall be discipline specific.
18VAC15-30-450. Initial training criteria for lead abatement worker.
A. The lead abatement workers course shall must last a minimum of 16 hours with a minimum of eight hours devoted to hands-on training. The training course shall must address the following topics:
1. Role and responsibilities of an abatement worker.
2. Background information and health effects of lead.
3. Background information on federal, state, and local regulations and guidance that pertains to lead-based paint activities.
4. Lead-based paint hazard recognition and control methods.*
5. Lead-based paint abatement and lead hazard reduction methods, including restricted work practices.*
6. Interior dust abatement methods/clean-up methods or cleanup or lead hazard reduction.*
7. Soil and exterior dust abatement methods or lead hazard reduction.*
8. Course review.
9. 8. Examination.
B. The topics in subdivisions A 4, A 5, A 6, and A 7 of this section must include hands-on training.
18VAC15-30-460. Initial training criteria for lead abatement supervisor.
A. The lead abatement supervisor course shall must last a minimum of 32 hours with a minimum of eight hours devoted to hands-on training. The training course shall must address the following topics:
1. Role and responsibilities of an abatement supervisor.
2. Background information on lead and the adverse health effects.
3. Background information on federal, state, and local regulations and guidance that pertains to lead-based paint activities, including distribution and thorough review of the Virginia Lead-Based Paint Activities Regulations this chapter.
4. Liability and insurance issues relating to lead-based paint abatement.
5. Risk assessment and inspection report interpretation.*
6. Development and implementation of an occupant protection plan and abatement report.
7. Lead-based paint hazard recognition and control methods.*
8. Lead-based paint abatement or lead hazard reduction methods, including restricted work practices.*
9. Interior dust abatement/clean-up abatement or cleanup or lead hazard reduction.*
10. Soil and exterior dust abatement or lead hazard reduction.*
11. Clearance standards and testing.
12. Clean-up and waste disposal.
13. Recordkeeping.
14. Course review.
15. 14. Examination.
B. The topics in subdivisions A 5, A 7, A 8, A 9, and A 10 of this section must include hands-on training.
18VAC15-30-470. Initial training criteria for lead inspector.
A. The lead inspector course shall must last a minimum of 24 hours with a minimum of eight hours devoted to hands-on training. The training course shall must address the following topics:
1. Background information on lead.
2. Health effects of lead.
3. Regulatory review. This entails a discussion of applicable Background information on federal, state, and local regulations and guidance that pertains to lead-based paint activities, including distribution and thorough review of this chapter.
4. Roles and responsibilities of the lead-based paint inspector.
5. Lead-based paint inspection methods, including selection of rooms and components for sampling or testing.*
6. Paint, dust, and soil sampling methodologies.*
7. Preparation of the final inspection report.*
8. Clearance standards and testing, including random sampling.*
9. Recordkeeping.
10. Course review.
11. 10. Examination.
B. The topics in subdivisions A 5, A 6, A 7, and A 8 of this section must include hands-on training.
18VAC15-30-480. Initial training criteria for lead risk assessors.
A. The lead risk assessor course shall must last a minimum of 16 hours and shall must address the following topics with a minimum of four hours devoted to hands-on training, which includes site visits:
1. Role and responsibilities of a risk assessor.
2. Regulatory review. This entails a discussion of applicable Background information on federal, state, and local regulations and guidance that pertain pertains to lead-based paint activities, including distribution and thorough review of this chapter.
3. Collection of background information to perform risk assessment.
4. Visual inspection for the purpose of identifying potential sources of lead-based hazards.*
5. Sources of environmental lead contamination such as paint, surface dust, water, air, packaging, and food.
6. Lead hazard screen protocol.
7. Sampling for other sources of lead exposure.*
8. Interpretation of lead-based paint and other sampling results.
9. Development of hazard control options, the role of interim controls, and operations and maintenance activities to reduce lead-based paint hazards.
10. Preparation of a final risk assessment report.
11. Course review.
12. 11. Examination.
B. The topics in subdivision A 4 and A 7 of this section must include hands-on training.
18VAC15-30-490. Initial training criteria for lead project designer.
The lead project designer course shall must last a minimum of eight hours and shall must address the following topics:
1. Role and responsibilities of a project designer.
2. Development and implementation of an occupant protection plan for large scale abatement projects.
3. Lead-based paint abatement and lead-based paint hazard reduction methods for large scale abatement projects.
4. Interior dust abatement/clean-up abatement or cleanup or lead hazard control and reduction methods for large scale abatement projects.
5. Clearance standards and testing for large scale abatement projects.
6. Integration of lead-based paint abatement methods with modernization and rehabilitation projects for large scale abatement projects.
7. Course review.
8. 7. Examination.
18VAC15-30-500. Refresher training criteria.
A. All lead refresher courses must be a minimum of eight training hours, except for the project designer refresher course, which must be a minimum of four training hours.
B. The refresher course for all disciplines shall must address the following topics:
1. An overview of current safety practices relating to lead-based paint activities in general, as well as specific information pertaining to the appropriate discipline.
2. Current federal, state, and local laws and regulations relating to lead-based paint activities in general, as well as specific information pertaining to the appropriate discipline including distribution and thorough review of the Virginia Lead-Based Paint Activities Regulations this chapter.
3. Current technologies relating to lead-based paint in general, as well as specific information pertaining to the appropriate discipline.
C. Refresher courses for all disciplines, except project designer, must include a hands-on component.
18VAC15-30-510. General requirements.
A. This part establishes work practice standards for conducting lead-based paint activities in target housing and child-occupied facilities.
B. Notification shall must be sent by the licensed lead abatement contractor to the Virginia Department of Labor and Industry prior to the commencement of any lead-based paint abatement activities. The notification shall be sent in a manner prescribed by the Virginia Department of Labor and Industry.
C. No licensed lead abatement contractor shall may enter into a contract to perform a lead abatement project if the lead inspection or project design is to be performed by individuals with an employer/employee employer-employee relationship with, or financial interest in, the lead abatement contractor unless the contractor provides the building owner with a "Virginia Lead Consumer Information and Disclosure Sheet," which is available from the board. Persons licensed to perform post-abatement clearance procedures shall be independent of and have no financial interest in or an employer/employee relationship with the licensed lead abatement contractor.
D. The relationships described in subsection C of this section must be disclosed, and the disclosure form must be signed and dated by the building owner or the building owner's agent and the contracting entity prior to the signing of any contract to conduct lead-based paint activities. The contractor must provide the disclosure form to all parties involved in the lead abatement project. The disclosure form shall must be kept on the lead abatement project site and available for review.
E. Persons licensed to perform post-abatement clearance procedures must be independent of and have no financial interest in or employer-employee relationship with the licensed lead abatement contractor.
F. When performing a lead-based paint inspection, lead-hazard screen, risk assessment, or abatement, a licensed individual must perform that activity in compliance with documented methodologies. The following documented methodologies that are appropriate for this chapter are incorporated by reference:
1. U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) Guidelines for the Evaluation and Control of Lead-Based Paint Hazards in Housing, Second Edition, July 2012.
2. 40 CFR Part 745, Subpart D (January 6, 2020, update).
3. EPA Guidance on Residential Lead-Based Paint, Lead-Contaminated Dust and Lead-Contaminated Soil (60 FR 47248-47257, September 11, 1995).
4. EPA Residential Sampling for Lead: Protocols for Dust and Soil Sampling, Final Report (EPA 747-R-95-001, March 1995).
F. Individuals conducting lead-based paint activities shall comply with the work practice standards enumerated in this chapter.
G. Any lead-based paint activities, as described in this chapter, shall must be performed only by individuals licensed by the board to perform such activities.
H. All reports and plans required by 18VAC15-30-520 through 18VAC15-30-651 shall must be maintained by the licensed firm or individual who prepared the report for at least three years. The licensed firm or individual also shall must provide copies of these reports to the building owner or person who contracted for its services.
18VAC15-30-511. Determination of the presence of lead-based paint, a paint-lead hazard, a dust-lead hazard, and a soil-lead hazard.
A. Lead-based paint is present:
1. On any surface that is tested and found to contain lead equal to or in excess of 1.0 milligrams per square centimeter or equal to or in excess of 0.5% by weight; and
2. On any surface like a surface tested in the same room equivalent that has a similar painting history and that is found to be lead-based paint.
B. A paint-lead hazard is present:
1. On any friction surface that is subject to abrasion and where the lead dust levels on the nearest horizontal surface underneath the friction surface (e.g., the window sill or floor) are equal to or greater than the dust hazard levels identified by EPA, pursuant to 15 USC § 2683 in 40 CFR 745.65(b);
2. On any chewable lead-based paint surface on which there is evidence of teeth marks;
3. Where there is any damaged or otherwise deteriorated lead-based paint on an impact surface that is caused by impact from a related building component (such as a door knob that knocks into a wall or a door that knocks against its door frame); and
4. If there is any other deteriorated lead-based paint in any residential building or child-occupied facility or on the exterior of any residential building or child-occupied facility.
C. A dust-lead hazard is present in a residential dwelling or child-occupied facility:
1. In a residential dwelling on floors and interior window sills when the weighted arithmetic mean lead loading for all single surface or composite samples of floors and interior window sills are equal to or greater than the amount identified by EPA, pursuant to 15 USC § 2683 in 40 CFR 745.227(h)(3) for floors and interior window sills;
2. On floors or interior window sills in an unsampled residential dwelling in a multi-family dwelling, if a dust-lead hazard is present on floors or interior window sills, respectively, in at least one sampled residential unit on the property; and
3. On floors or interior window sills in an unsampled common area in a multi-family dwelling, if a dust-lead hazard is present on floors or interior window sills, respectively, in at least one sampled common area in the same common area group on the property.
D. A soil-lead hazard is present:
1. In a play area when the soil-lead concentration from a composite play area sample of bare soil is equal to or greater than the amount identified by EPA pursuant to 15 USC § 2683 in 40 CFR 45.227(h)(4); or
2. In the rest of the yard when the arithmetic mean lead concentration from a composite sample (or arithmetic mean of composite samples) of bare soil from the rest of the yard (i.e., nonplay areas) for each residential building on a property is equal to or greater than the amount identified by EPA pursuant to 15 USC § 2683 in 40 CFR 745.227(h)(4).
18VAC15-30-520. Inspections.
A. Inspections shall must be conducted only by persons licensed by the board as an inspector or risk assessor.
B. When conducting an inspection, the following locations shall must be selected according to documented methodologies and tested for the presence of lead-based paint:
1. In a residential dwelling or child-occupied facility, each testing combination with a distinct painting history and each exterior testing combination with a distinct painting history shall must be tested for lead-based paint, except those testing combinations that the inspector or risk assessor determines to have been replaced after 1978, or do not contain lead-based paint.
2. In a multi-family dwelling or child-occupied facility, each testing combination with a distinct painting history in every common area, except those testing combinations that the inspector or risk assessor determines to have been replaced after 1978, or do not contain lead-based paint.
C. Paint shall must be sampled in the following manner:
1. The analysis of paint to determine the presence of lead shall must be conducted using documented methodologies that incorporate adequate quality control procedures; and/or and
2. Collected paint chips shall must be sent to a laboratory recognized by EPA as being capable of performing the analysis.
18VAC15-30-540. Written inspection report.
The licensed inspector or risk assessor shall must prepare an inspection report that shall must include the following information:
1. Date of each inspection.
2. Address of buildings.
3. Date of construction.
4. Apartment numbers (if applicable).
5. Name, address, and telephone number of the owner or owners of each residential dwelling or child-occupied facility.
6. Name, signature, and license number of each licensed inspector or risk assessor conducting testing.
7. Name, address, and telephone number of the firm employing each inspector or risk assessor.
8. Each testing method and device and/or or sampling procedure employed for paint analysis, including quality control data, and, if used, the serial number of any X-Ray Fluorescence Spectroscopy (XRF) XRF device.
9. Specific locations of each painted testing combination tested for the presence of lead-based paint.
10. The results of the inspection expressed in terms appropriate to the sampling methods used.
18VAC15-30-541. Lead hazard screen.
A. A lead hazard screen shall must only be conducted by individuals licensed by the board as a risk assessor.
B. If conducted, a lead hazard screen shall must be conducted as follows:
1. Background information regarding the physical characteristics of the residential dwelling or child-occupied facility and occupant use patterns that may cause lead-based paint exposure to one or more children age six years of age and under shall younger must be collected.
2. A visual inspection of the residential dwelling or child-occupied facility shall must be conducted to:
a. Determine if any deteriorated paint is present; and
b. Locate at least two dust sampling locations.
3. If deteriorated paint is present, each surface with deteriorated paint, which that is determined to be in poor condition by using documented methodologies and to have a distinct painting history, shall must be tested for the presence of lead.
4. In residential dwellings, two composite dust samples shall must be collected, one from the floors and the other from the windows, in rooms, hallways, or stairwells where one or more children, age six years of age and under, younger are likely to come in contact with dust.
5. In multi-family dwellings and child-occupied facilities, in addition to the floor and window samples required in 18VAC15-30-550 B 4, the risk assessor shall must also collect composite dust samples from common areas where children, age six years of age and under, younger are most likely to come into contact with dust.
C. Dust samples shall must be collected in the following manner:
1. All dust samples shall must be taken using documented methodologies that incorporate adequate quality control procedures.
2. All dust samples shall must be sent to a laboratory recognized by EPA as being capable of performing the analysis to determine if they contain detectable levels of lead that can be quantified numerically.
18VAC15-30-542. Written lead hazard screen report.
After a lead hazard screen has been conducted, a written hazard screen report shall must be prepared by the risk assessor. A lead hazard screen report shall must contain the following minimum information:
1. The information identified in a risk assessment report as specified in 18VAC15-30-610, including 18VAC15-30-610 1 through 18VAC15-30-610 14. Additionally, any background information collected pursuant to 18VAC15-30-541 B 1 of this chapter shall must be included in the report.
2. Recommendations, if warranted, for a follow-up risk assessment, and as appropriate, any further actions.
18VAC15-30-550. Risk assessment.
A. A risk assessment shall must only be conducted by individuals licensed by the board as risk assessors.
B. If conducted, a risk assessment shall must be conducted as follows:
1. A visual inspection for risk assessment of the residential dwelling or child-occupied facility shall must be undertaken to locate the existence of deteriorated paint, assess the extent and causes of deterioration, and other potential lead-based paint hazards.
2. Background information regarding the physical characteristics of the residential dwelling or child-occupied facility and occupant use patterns that may cause lead-based paint exposure to one or more children age six years of age and under shall younger must be collected.
3. The following surfaces that are determined, using documented methodologies, to have a distinct painting history, shall must be tested for the presence of lead:
a. Each friction surface or impact surface with visibly deteriorated paint; and
b. All other surfaces with visibly deteriorated paint.
4. In residential dwellings, dust samples (either composite or single-surface samples) from the any interior window sill(s) sill and floor shall must be collected and analyzed for lead concentration in living areas where one or more children, age six years of age and under, younger are most likely to come into contact with dust.
5. For multi-family dwellings and child-occupied facilities, the samples required in 18VAC15-30-550 B (3) shall subdivision 3 of this subsection must be taken. In addition, interior window sill and floor dust samples (either composite or single-surface samples) shall must be collected and analyzed for lead concentration in the following locations:
a. Common areas adjacent to the sampled residential dwelling or child-occupied facility; and
b. Other common areas in the building where the risk assessor determines that one or more children, age six years of age and under, younger are likely to come into contact with dust.
6. For child-occupied facilities, interior window sill and floor dust samples (either composite or single-surface samples) shall must be collected and analyzed for lead concentration in each room, hallway, or stairwell utilized by one or more children, age six years of age and under, younger and in other common areas in the child-occupied facility where one or more children, age six years of age and under, younger are likely to come into contact with dust.
7. Soil samples shall must be collected and analyzed for lead concentrations in the following locations:
a. Exterior play areas where bare soil is present;
b. The rest of the yard (i.e., nonplay areas) where bare soil is present; and
c. Dripline/foundation Dripline or foundation areas where bare soil is present.
8. Any paint, dust, or soil sampling or testing shall must be conducted using documented methodologies that incorporate adequate quality control procedures.
9. Any collected paint chip, dust, or soil sample shall must be sent for analysis to a laboratory recognized by EPA as being capable of performing these activities.
18VAC15-30-610. Written risk assessment report.
After an assessment has been conducted, a written assessment report shall must be completed. A risk assessment report shall must contain the following minimum information:
1. Date of assessment.
2. Address of each building.
3. Date of construction of each building.
4. Apartment numbers (if applicable).
5. Name, address, and telephone number of each owner of each building.
6. Name, signature, and license number of the licensed risk assessor conducting the assessment.
7. Name, address, and telephone number of the firm employing each risk assessor.
8. Name, address, and telephone number of each recognized laboratory conducting analysis of collected samples.
9. Results of the visual inspection.
10. Testing method and sampling procedures for paint analysis employed.
11. Specific locations of each painted testing combination tested for the presence of lead-based paint.
12. All data collected from on-site testing, including quality control and, if used, the serial number of any XRF device.
13. All results of laboratory analysis on collected paint, soil, and dust samples.
14. Any other sampling results.
15. Any background information collected pursuant to 18VAC15-30-550 B 2.
16. To the extent that they are used as part of the lead-based paint hazard determination, the results of any previous inspections or analyses for the presence of lead-based paint, or other assessments of lead-based paint related hazards.
17. A description of the location, type, and severity of identified lead-based paint hazards and any other potential lead hazard.
18. A description of interim controls or abatement options, or both, for each identified lead-based paint hazard and a suggested prioritization for addressing each hazard. If the use of an encapsulant or enclosure is recommended, the report shall must recommend a maintenance and monitoring schedule for the encapsulant or enclosure.
18VAC15-30-620. Abatement.
A. Abatement shall must be conducted only by individuals licensed by the board as supervisors or workers and employed by a licensed lead abatement contractor.
B. A licensed lead abatement supervisor is required for each abatement project and shall must be on-site on site during all work site preparation and during the post-abatement cleanup of work areas. At all other times when abatement activities are being conducted, the licensed supervisor shall must be on-site on site or available by telephone, pager, or answering service, and able to be present at the work site in no more than two hours.
C. The licensed lead abatement supervisor and the licensed lead abatement contractor employing the supervisor shall must ensure that all abatement activities are conducted according to the requirements of this chapter and all other federal, state, and local regulations.
D. A written occupant protection plan shall must be developed for all abatement projects and shall must be prepared according to the following procedures:
1. The occupant protection plan shall must be unique to each residential dwelling or child-occupied facility and be developed prior to the abatement. The occupant plan shall must describe the measures and management procedures that will be taken during the abatement to protect the building occupants from exposure to any lead-based paint hazard.
2. A licensed lead abatement supervisor or lead project designer shall must prepare the occupant protection plan.
E. The following work practices shall must be restricted during an abatement:
1. Open-flame burning or torching of lead-based paint is prohibited.
2. Machine sanding or grinding or abrasive blasting of lead-based paint is prohibited unless used with High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) exhaust control that removes particles of 0.3 microns or larger from the air at 99.97 percent 99.97% or greater efficiency.
3. Dry scraping of lead-based paint is permitted only in conjunction with heat guns or around electrical outlets or when treating defective paint spots totaling no more than two square feet in any one room, hallway, or stairwell or totaling no more that than 20 square feet on exterior surfaces.
4. Operating a heat gun on lead-based paint is permitted only at temperatures below 1100 degrees Fahrenheit 1100°F.
F. If the soil is removed:
1. The soil shall must be replaced by soil with a lead concentration as close to local background as practicable, but no greater than 400 ppm.
2. The soil that is removed shall must not be used as top soil topsoil at another residential property or child-occupied facility.
3. If soil is not removed, the soil shall must be permanently covered as defined in 18VAC15-30-20.
G. An abatement report shall must be prepared by a licensed lead abatement supervisor or lead project designer. The abatement report shall must include the following information:
1. Start and completion dates of abatement.
2. The name and address of each licensed lead abatement contractor conducting the abatements, and the name of each licensed lead abatement supervisor assigned to the abatement project.
3. The occupant protection plan prepared pursuant to subsection D of this section.
4. The name, address, and signature of each licensed risk assessor or inspector conducting clearance sampling and the date of clearance testing.
5. The results of clearance testing, the name of each recognized laboratory that conducted the analysis, and the name and signature of the person conducting the analysis.
6. A detailed written description of the abatement, including abatement methods used, locations of rooms and components where abatement occurred, and reason for selecting particular abatement methods for each component and any suggested monitoring of encapsulants or enclosures.
18VAC15-30-650. Post-abatement clearance procedures.
The following post-abatement clearance procedures shall must be performed by a licensed inspector or licensed risk assessor:
1. Following an abatement, a visual inspection shall must be performed by the licensed inspector or licensed risk assessor to determine if there are any deteriorated painted surfaces or visible amounts of dust, debris, or residue still present. If deteriorated painted surfaces or visible amounts of dust, debris, or residue are present, these conditions must be eliminated prior to the continuation of the clearance procedures.
2. Following a successful visual inspection for clearance, but no sooner than one hour after completion of final post abatement clean-up, clearance sampling shall must be conducted.
3. Clearance sampling may be conducted by employing single-surface or composite sampling techniques, and shall must be taken using documented methodologies that incorporate adequate quality control procedures.
4. The following post-abatement clearance activities shall must be conducted, as appropriate, based upon the extent or manner of abatement activities conducted in or to the residential dwelling or child-occupied facility.
a. After conducting an abatement with containment between abated and unabated areas, one dust sample shall must be taken from one interior window sill and from one window trough (if present) and one dust sample shall must be taken from the floors of each of no less than four rooms, hallways, or stairwells within the containment area. In addition, one dust sample shall must be taken from the floor outside the containment area. If there are less fewer than four rooms, hallways, or stairwells within the containment area, then all rooms, hallways or, and stairwells shall must be sampled.
b. After conducting an abatement with no containment, two dust samples shall must be taken from each of no less than four rooms, hallways, or stairwells in the residential dwelling or child-occupied facility. One dust sample shall must be taken from one interior window sill and window trough (if present), and one dust sample shall must be taken from the floor of each room, hallway, or stairwell selected. If there are less fewer than four rooms, hallways, or stairwells within the residential dwelling or child-occupied facility, then all rooms, hallways, or and stairwells shall must be sampled.
c. Following an exterior paint abatement, a visual inspection shall must be conducted. All horizontal surfaces in the outdoor living area closest to the abated surfaces shall must be found to be cleaned of visible dust and debris. In addition, a visual inspection shall must be conducted to determine the presence of paint chips on the dripline or next to the foundation below any exterior surface abated. If paint chips are present, they must be removed from the site and properly disposed of, according to all applicable federal, state, and local requirements.
5. The rooms, hallways, or stairwells selected for sampling shall must be selected according to documented methodologies.
6. The licensed inspector or licensed risk assessor shall must compare the residual lead level (as determined by the laboratory analysis) from each single surface dust sample with the clearance levels, as established in 40 CFR Part 745 Subpart D 40 CFR 745.227(e)(8), for lead in dust on floors, interior window sills, and window troughs or from each composite dust sample with the applicable clearance levels for lead in dust on floors, interior window sills, and window troughs divided by half the number of subsamples in the composite sample. If the residual lead level in a single surface dust sample equals or exceeds the applicable clearance level or if the residual lead level in a composite dust sample equals or exceeds the applicable clearance level divided by half the number of subsamples in the composite sample, the components represented by the failed sample shall must be recleaned and retested.
7. In multi-family dwellings with similarly constructed and maintained residential dwellings, random sampling for the purpose of clearance may be conducted, provided:
a. The licensed individuals who abate or clean the residential dwellings do not know which residential dwelling will be selected for the random sample.
b. A sufficient number of residential dwellings are selected for dust sampling to provide a 95% level of confidence that no more than 5.0% or 50 dwellings (whichever is less) in the randomly sampled population exceed the appropriate clearance levels.
c. The randomly selected residential dwellings shall must be sampled and evaluated for clearance according to the procedures found in this chapter.
18VAC15-30-651. Composite dust sampling.
Composite dust sampling may be used in situations specified in 18VAC15-30-520 through 18VAC15-30-610. If such sampling is conducted, the following conditions shall apply:
1. Composite dust samples shall must consist of at least two aliquots subsamples;
2. Every component that is being tested shall must be included in the sampling; and
3. Composite dust samples shall must not consist of aliquots subsamples taken from more than one type of component.
18VAC15-30-760. Responsibility to the public.
The primary obligation of the licensee is to the public. If the licensee's judgment is overruled under circumstances and not adhered to when advising appropriate parties of circumstances of a substantial threat to the public health, safety, health, property, and welfare of the public are endangered, the licensee shall will inform the employer or client, as applicable, of the possible consequences and notify appropriate authorities if the situation is not resolved. The licensee shall take such action only when his authority to correct a problem has been ignored or overruled.
18VAC15-30-770. Public statements. (Repealed.)
A. The licensee shall be truthful in all matters relating to the performance of lead abatement or lead consulting services.
B. When serving as an expert or technical witness, the licensee shall express an opinion only when it is based on an adequate knowledge of the facts in issue and on a background of technical competence in the subject matter. Except when appearing as an expert witness in court or an administrative proceeding when the parties are represented by counsel, the licensee shall issue no statements, reports, criticisms, or arguments on matters relating to practices which are inspired or paid for by an interested party or parties, unless one has prefaced the comment by disclosing the identities of the party or parties on whose behalf the licensee is speaking, and by revealing any self-interest.
C. Licensees or applicants shall not knowingly make a materially false statement, submit falsified documents, or fail to disclose a material fact requested in connection with an application submitted to the board by any individual or business entity for licensure or renewal.
18VAC15-30-780. Solicitation of work. (Repealed.)
In the course of soliciting work:
1. The licensee shall not bribe.
2. The licensee shall not falsify or permit misrepresentation of the licensee's work or an associate's academic or professional qualifications, nor shall the licensee misrepresent the degree of responsibility for prior assignments.
3. Materials used in the solicitation of employment shall not misrepresent facts concerning employers, employees, associate joint ventures, or past accomplishments of any kind.
4. Materials used in the solicitation of services shall not misrepresent facts of approval, federal, or state requirements.
18VAC15-30-790. Professional responsibility. (Repealed.)
A. The licensee or accredited lead training provider shall, upon request or demand, produce to the board, or any of its representatives, any plan, document, book, record or copy thereof in his possession concerning a transaction covered by this chapter, and shall cooperate in the investigation of a complaint filed with the board against a licensee or accredited lead training provider.
B. A licensee shall not use the design, plans, or work of another licensee with the same type of license without the original's knowledge and consent, and after consent, a thorough review to the extent that full responsibility shall be assumed by the user.
C. Accredited lead training providers shall admit board representatives for the purpose of conducting an on-site audit, or any other purpose necessary to evaluate compliance with this chapter and other applicable laws and regulations.
D. Each licensee shall keep his board-approved training and license current.
18VAC15-30-795. Response to inquiry and provision of records.
A. A licensee must respond within 10 days to a request by the board or any of its agents regarding any complaint filed with the department.
B. Unless otherwise specified by the board, a licensee of the board must produce to the board or any of its agents within 10 days of the request any document, book, or record concerning any transaction pertaining to a complaint filed in which the licensee was involved or for which the licensee is required to maintain records. The board may extend such timeframe upon a showing of extenuating circumstances prohibiting delivery within such 10-day period.
C. No licensee will provide a false, misleading, or incomplete response to the board or any of its agents seeking information in the investigation of a complaint filed with the board.
D. With the exception of the requirements of subsection A or B of this section, a licensee must respond to an inquiry by the board or its agent within 21 days.
18VAC15-30-800. Good standing in other jurisdictions Notice of adverse action.
A. Licensees, accredited lead training providers, training managers, or principal instructors who perform lead project designs, lead inspections, lead risk assessments, lead-based paint abatement training, lead contracting or lead abatement supervisor work in other jurisdictions shall be in good standing in every jurisdiction where licensed, certified, or approved and shall not have had a license, certification, or approval suspended, revoked, or surrendered in connection with a disciplinary action. B. Licensees A licensee, accredited lead training providers provider, training managers manager, or principal instructors shall instructor must notify the board in writing no later than 10 days after the final disciplinary action taken by another jurisdiction against their license or approval to conduct lead-based paint activities. of the following:
1. Any disciplinary action taken by any jurisdiction, board, or administrative body, including any (i) reprimand; (ii) license or certificate revocation, suspension, or denial; (iii) monetary penalty; (iv) requirement for remedial education; or (v) other corrective action against the individual's license or approval to conduct lead-based paint activities.
2. Any voluntary surrendering of a related license, certificate, or registration done in connection with a disciplinary action in another jurisdiction against the individual's license or approval to conduct lead-based paint activities.
3. Any conviction, finding of guilt, or plea of guilty, regardless of adjudication or deferred adjudication, in any jurisdiction of the United States of any (i) felony; (ii) misdemeanor conviction related to environmental remediation activity; and (iii) misdemeanor conviction, excluding marijuana convictions, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time for appeal having lapsed.
B. The notice must be made to the board in writing within 30 days of the action. A copy of the order or other supporting documentation must accompany the notice.
C. Licensees, accredited lead training providers, training managers, or principal instructors may be subject to disciplinary action or removal of a lead training program accreditation for disciplinary actions taken by another jurisdiction.
18VAC15-30-810. Grounds for denial of application, denial of renewal, or discipline disciplinary action.
A. The board shall have has the authority power to reprimand, fine any licensee or accredited lead training provider, training manager or principal instructor, and to deny renewal, to, or suspend, to or revoke or to deny application for any the license or training program approval as an accredited lead training program, accredited lead training provider, training manager or principal instructor provided for under Chapter 5 of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia for:
1. Violating or inducing another person to violate any of the provisions of Chapter 1, 2, 3, or 5 of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or any of the provisions of this chapter.
2. Obtaining a license, approval as an accredited lead training program, approval as an accredited lead training provider or approval as a training manager or principal instructor through fraudulent means.
3. Altering, falsifying or issuing a fraudulent Virginia lead license or a training certificate issued by an accredited lead training provider.
4. Violating any provision of any federal or state regulation pertinent to lead-based paint activities.
5. Having been found guilty by the board, another regulatory authority, or by a court, of any misrepresentation in the course of performing his operating duties.
6. Subject to the provisions of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, having been convicted or found guilty, regardless of adjudication in any jurisdiction of the United States, of any felony or of any misdemeanor involving lying, cheating, or stealing, or of any violation while engaged in environmental remediation activity that resulted in the significant harm or the imminent and substantial threat of significant harm to human health or the environment, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time for appeal having elapsed. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purposes of this chapter. A certified copy of the final order, decree or case decision by a court or regulatory agency with lawful authority to issue such order, decree or case decision shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction or discipline.
7. Failing to notify the board in writing within 30 days of pleading guilty or nolo contendere or being convicted or found guilty of any felony or of any misdemeanor involving lying, cheating, or stealing or of any violation while engaged in environmental remediation activity that resulted in the significant harm or the imminent threat of significant harm to human health or the environment.
8. Negligence, or a continued pattern of incompetence, in the practice of the discipline in which a lead license is held.
9. Failing or neglecting to send any information or documentation that was requested by the board or its representatives.
10. Refusing to allow state or federal representatives access to any area of an abatement site for the purpose of lawful compliance inspections.
11. Any unlawful act or violation of any provision of Chapter 5 of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or of the regulations of the board by any lead abatement supervisor or lead abatement worker may be cause for disciplinary action against the lead abatement contractor for whom he works if it appears to the satisfaction of the board that the lead abatement contractor knew or should have known of the unlawful act or violation.
12. Failing to notify the board in writing within 30 days after any change in address or name.
13. Acting as or being an ostensible licensee for undisclosed persons who do or will control or direct, directly or indirectly, the operations of the licensee's business.
14. Failing to keep board-approved training and license current of any licensee or training provider in accordance with § 54.1-516 of the Code of Virginia or this chapter when the licensee or training provider has been found to have violated or cooperated with others in violating any provision of Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), 3 (§ 54.1-300 et seq.), or 5 (§ 54.1-500 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or this chapter.
B. Any individual or firm whose license, approval as an accredited lead or training program, approval as an accredited lead training provider or approval as a training manager or principal instructor is revoked under this section shall will not be eligible to reapply for a period of one year 12 months from the effective date of the final order of revocation. The individual or firm shall meet all education, experience, and training requirements, complete the application, and submit the required fee for consideration as a new applicant.
C. The board shall conduct disciplinary procedures in accordance with §§ 2.2-4019 and 2.2-4021 of the Administrative Process Act Any unlawful act or violation of any provision of Chapter 5 of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or of the regulations of the board by any lead supervisor or lead worker may be cause for disciplinary action against the lead contractor for whom the individual works if it appears to the satisfaction of the board that the lead contractor knew or should have known of the unlawful act or violation.
18VAC15-30-815. Prohibited acts.
The following acts are prohibited and any violation may result in disciplinary action by the board:
1. Violating, inducing another to violate, cooperating with another to violate, or combining or conspiring with or acting as agent, partner, or associate for another to violate any of the provisions of Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), 3 (§ 54.1-300 et seq.) or 5 (§ 54.1-500 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or any regulations of the board.
2. Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license or training program approval by false or fraudulent representation or maintaining, renewing, or reinstating a license or training program approval by false or fraudulent representation.
3. Failing to notify the board in writing within 30 days after any change in address or name.
4. Having been convicted, found guilty, or disciplined in any jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in 18VAC15-30-800. Review of convictions will be subject to the requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. Failing to notify the board in writing within 30 days of being convicted, found guilty, or disciplined in any jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in 18VAC15-30-800.
6. Violating any provision of any federal or state regulation pertinent to lead-based paint activities.
7. Committing any action constituting negligence, misconduct, or incompetence in the practice of the profession, including:
a. Having undertaken to perform or performed a professional assignment that the licensee is not qualified to perform by education, experience, training, or appropriate licensure.
b. Not demonstrating reasonable care, judgment, or application of the required knowledge, skill, and ability in the performance of the licensee's duties.
c. Failing to act in a manner that safeguards the interests of the public when providing professional services.
8. Committing any action constituting engaging in improper, fraudulent, or dishonest conduct, including:
a. Making any misrepresentation or engaging in acts of fraud or deceit in advertising, soliciting, or in providing professional services.
b. Allowing a license issued by the board to be used by another.
c. Altering, falsifying, or issuing a fraudulent Virginia lead license or a training certificate.
9. Acting as or being an ostensible licensee for undisclosed persons who do or will control or direct, directly or indirectly, the operations of a licensee's business.
10. Failing or neglecting to submit information or documentation requested by the board or its representatives.
11. Refusing to allow state or federal representatives access to any area of an abatement site for the purpose of lawful compliance inspections.
18VAC15-30-820. Suspension or revocation of approval of an accredited lead training provider. (Repealed.)
A. The board may suspend, revoke, or modify an accredited lead training program's approval if an accredited lead training provider, training manager, or other person with supervisory authority over the training program has:
1. Misrepresented the contents of a training course to the board or the student population.
2. Failed to submit required information or notification in a timely manner.
3. Failed to submit training program notifications as required and in the manner described in 18VAC15-30-420.
4. Failed to submit training program participant lists as required and in the manner described in 18VAC15-30-420.
5. Failed to maintain required records.
6. Falsified accreditation records, qualifications of the training manager and principal instructors, or other accreditation information.
7. Failed to comply with the federal, state, or local lead-based paint statutes or regulations.
8. Acted as an ostensible licensee for undisclosed persons who do or will control or direct, directly or indirectly, the operations of the accredited lead training provider's business.
B. The board shall conduct disciplinary procedures in accordance with §§ 2.2-4019 and 2.2-4021 of the Administrative Process Act.
NOTICE: The following forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. Amended or added forms are reflected in the listing and are published following the listing. Online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may also click on the name to access a form. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 201 North Ninth Street, Fourth Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
[ FORMS (18VAC15-30)
Lead Abatement Worker License Application, A506-3351LIC-v4 (eff. 12/2021)
Lead Abatement Supervisor License Application, A506-3353LIC-v5 (eff. 12/2021)
Lead Abatement Inspector License Application, A506-3355LIC-v4 (eff. 12/2021)
Lead Abatement Risk Assessor License Application, A506-3356LIC-v6 (eff. 12/2021)
Lead Abatement Project Designer License Application, A506-3357LIC-v4 (eff. 12/2021)
Lead Abatement Contractor License Application, A506-3358LIC-v6 (eff. 12/2021)
Contractor - Asbestos & Lead License Renewal Form, A506-33CONREN-vs9 (rev. 4/2021)
Lead Abatement Worker License Application, A506-3351LIC-v5 (rev. 1/2026)
Lead Abatement Supervisor License Application, A506-3353LIC-v6 (rev. 1/2026)
Lead Abatement Inspector License Application, A506-3355LIC-v5 (rev. 1/2026)
Lead Abatement Risk Assessor License Application, A506-3356LIC-v7 (rev. 1/2026)
Lead Abatement Project Designer License Application, A506-3357LIC-v5 (rev. 1/2026)
Lead Abatement Contractor License Application, A506-3358LIC-v7 (rev. 1/2026)
Contractor - Lead License Renewal Form, A506-33CONREN-v11 (rev. 1/2026)
Individual - Lead License Renewal Form, A506-33LREN-vs6 (rev. 4/2021)
Lead - Education Verification Application, A506-33LED-v3 (rev. 8/2015)
Lead - Experience Verification Application, A506-33LEXP-v3 (rev. 8/2015)
Lead Training Course Application, 3331LCRS-v5 (eff. 5/2020)
Lead Training Course Application, 3331LCRS-v6 (rev. 1/2026)
Inspector/Risk Assessor/Project Designer/Contractor Disclosure Form, A506-33LDIS-v2 (eff. 8/2013)
Virginia Lead Licensing Consumer Information Sheet, A506-33LCIS-v2 (eff. 8/2013) ]
VA.R. Doc. No. R24-7743; Filed November 03, 2025
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR BARBERS AND COSMETOLOGY
Final
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR BARBERS AND COSMETOLOGY
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC41-50. Tattooing Regulations (amending 18VAC41-50-10 through 18VAC41-50-40, 18VAC41-50-70 through 18VAC41-50-110, 18VAC41-50-130, 18VAC41-50-150 through 18VAC41-50-210, 18VAC41-50-230 through 18VAC41-50-290, 18VAC41-50-380 through 18VAC41-50-420; adding 18VAC41-50-15, 18VAC41-50-45, 18VAC41-50-125, 18VAC41-50-255; repealing 18VAC41-50-120, 18VAC41-50-140, 18VAC41-50-220, 18VAC41-50-300 through 18VAC41-50-370).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-201 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 5, 2026.
Agency Contact: Kelley Smith, Executive Director, Board for Barbers and Cosmetology, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-8590, fax (866) 245-9693, or email barbercosmo@dpor.virginia.gov.
Summary:
As a result of a general review, the amendments revise (i) definitions; (ii) entry requirements for licenses and certificates, including reducing minimum training requirements for individuals seeking licensure as a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer; reducing experience requirements for individuals who received training outside of the United States; and reducing criminal history reporting requirements; (iii) fee and reinstatement provisions; (iv) requirements for schools; and (v) standards of practice, including sanitation and safety standards for parlors, salons, and schools.
Changes to the proposed regulation include (i) increasing to seven the number of consecutive days that a convention or temporary location may operate; (ii) removing a requirement for certain applicants to disclose misdemeanor criminal convictions; (iii) requiring certain applicants to provide an email address to allow for electronic notification from the board; (iv) revising fees for the initial instructor certification and renewal and reinstatement of instructor certifications to reflect adjustments from a recent fee increase action; (v) revising provisions for renewal of licenses and certificates to allow for a paperless licensing process; (vi) incorporating existing requirements for licensure of schools and approval of school curricula that are not currently in regulation; (vii) clarifying that provisions pertaining to Hepatitis B vaccination and related recordkeeping for parlors and salons apply to schools that receive compensation for tattooing services provided in their clinics; (viii) clarifying that sanitation and safety requirements for facilities are applicable to schools; and (ix) making additional technical and stylistic changes.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar of Regulations.
18VAC41-50-10. Definitions.
A. The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise. All terms defined ascribed to them in Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia are incorporated in this chapter.:
"Board"
"Tattoo parlor"
"Tattoo school"
"Tattooer"
"Tattooing"
B. The following words and terms when used in this chapter have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Apprenticeship program" means an approved tattooing training program conducted by an approved apprenticeship sponsor.
"Apprenticeship sponsor" means an individual approved to conduct tattooing apprenticeship training who meets the qualifications in 18VAC41-50-70.
"Aseptic technique" means a hygienic practice that prevents and hinders the direct transfer of microorganisms, regardless of pathogenicity, from one person or place to another person or place.
"Business entity" means a sole proprietorship, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or any other form of organization permitted by law.
"Clock hour" means a minimum of 50 minutes of supervised or directed instruction and appropriate breaks.
"Credit hour" means a combination of the number of hours in class each week and the number of hours per week in a laboratory by which a school may measure its course work. One unit of credit equals one hour of classroom or online study, two hours of laboratory experience, or three hours of internship or practicum or a combination of the three times the number of weeks in the term.
"Direct supervision" means (i) that a Virginia licensed tattooer shall be, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer is present in the tattoo parlor or salon at all times when services are being performed by an a temporary license holder or registered apprentice; or (ii) that a Virginia licensed and certified tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor shall be or student instructor temporary license holder is present in the tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing school at all times when services are being performed by a student; (iii) that a Virginia licensed and certified permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor shall be present in the permanent cosmetic tattooing school at all times when services are being performed by a student; (iv) that a Virginia licensed and certified master permanent cosmetic tattooer instructor shall be present in the permanent cosmetic tattooing school at all times when master permanent cosmetic tattooer services are being performed by a student; or (v) that a Virginia licensed tattooer shall be present in the tattoo parlor at all times when services are being performed by a guest tattooer, student instructor, or temporary license holder.
"Endorsement" means a method of obtaining a license by a person who is currently licensed in another state or jurisdiction of the United States.
"Each and every location" means, for the purposes of schools with multiple suites or classrooms, a single location is one that is enclosed under one roof and all classrooms or suites are within 500 feet of the main office.
"Event tattoo parlor" means a tattoo parlor temporary location licensed to operate for a maximum of [ five seven ] consecutive days.
"Firm" means any business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
"Gratuitous services" as used in § 54.1-701.5 of the Code Virginia means providing tattooing services without receiving compensation or reward, or obligation. Gratuitous services do not include services provided at no charge when goods are purchased.
"Guest tattooer" means a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer residing outside of Virginia who is licensed only to work for a two-week period at a specified tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon.
"Guest tattooer sponsor" means a licensed tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattooing salon that is sponsoring and providing direct supervision of a guest tattooer.
"Licensee" means any person, sole proprietorship, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or any other form of organization permitted by law individual or firm holding a license issued by the Board for Barbers and Cosmetology, as defined in § 54.1-700 of the Code of Virginia board.
"Master permanent cosmetic tattooer" means any person who for compensation practices permanent cosmetic tattooing known in the industry as advanced permanent cosmetic tattooing, including scalp micropigmentation, eye shadow, and breast and scar repigmentation or camouflage.
"Master permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor" means a person who has been certified by the board and who meets the competency standards of the board as an instructor of master permanent cosmetic tattooing.
"Permanent cosmetic tattoo salon" means any place in which permanent cosmetic tattooing is offered or practiced for compensation.
"Permanent cosmetic tattooer" means any person who for compensation practices permanent cosmetic tattooing known in the industry as basic permanent cosmetic tattooing, including eyebrows, microblading, scalp micropigmentation, eyeliners, lip coloring, lip liners, or full lips.
"Permanent cosmetic tattooing" means placing marks upon or under the skin of any person with ink or any other substance, resulting in the permanent coloration of the skin on the face, including eyebrows, eyeliners, lip coloring, lip liners, full lips, cheek blush, eye shadow, forehead and scalp micropigmentation, and on the body for breast and scar repigmentation or camouflage, also known as permanent makeup or micropigmentation.
"Permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor" means a person who has been certified by the board who meets the competency standards of the board as an instructor of permanent cosmetic tattooing.
"Permanent cosmetic tattooing school" means a place or establishment licensed by the board to accept and train students and that offers a permanent cosmetic tattooing or master permanent cosmetic tattooing curriculum approved by the board.
"Pigments" means tattooing ink designed for use on human skin.
"Post-secondary educational level" means an accredited college or university that is approved or accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the U.S. Department of Education.
"Reasonable hours" means the hours between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m.; however, if the licensee generally is not open to the public substantially during the same hours, "reasonable hours" means the business hours when the licensee is open to the public.
"Reinstatement" means having a license restored to effectiveness after the expiration date has passed.
"Renewal" means continuing the effectiveness of a license or certificate for another period of time.
"Responsible management" means the following individuals:
1. The sole proprietor of a sole proprietorship;
2. The partners of a general partnership;
3. The managing partners of a limited partnership;
4. The officers of a corporation;
5. The managers of a limited liability company;
6. The officers or directors of an association or both; and
7. Individuals in other business entities recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth as having a fiduciary responsibility to the firm.
"Sole proprietor" means any individual, not a corporation, who is trading under that individual's own name, or under an assumed or fictitious name pursuant to the provisions of §§ 59.1-69 through 59.1-76 of the Code of Virginia.
"Sterilization area" means a separate room or area separate from workstations with restricted client access in which tattooing instruments are cleaned, disinfected, and sterilized.
"Substantially equivalent exam" means an examination administered by the licensing entity that covers Virginia's scope of practice for that profession.
"Substantially equivalent training" means at least 80% of the required hours in Virginia and curriculum content covering Virginia's scope of practice for that profession.
"Tattoo convention" means an event where Virginia and out-of-state tattooers gather for no more than [ five seven ] consecutive days to offer tattooing services to the public.
"Tattooing instructor" means a person who has been certified by the board who meets the competency standards of the board as an instructor of tattooing.
"Temporary location" means a fixed location at which tattooing is performed for a specified length of time of not more than [ five seven ] days in conjunction with a single event or convention.
18VAC41-50-15. Gratuitous services.
[ Any As provided in subdivision 5 of § 54.1-701 of the Code of Virginia, any ] individual who engages in tattooing, guest tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing without receiving compensation, reward, or obligation is considered to be performing gratuitous services and is exempt from the provisions of this chapter. Gratuitous services do not include services provided at no charge when goods are purchased.
18VAC41-50-20. General requirements for tattooer, guest tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer.
A. Any individual wishing to engage in tattooing, guest tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing shall must obtain a license in compliance with § 54.1-703 of the Code of Virginia and meet the following qualifications:
1. The applicant must be in good standing as a tattooer, guest tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer in every jurisdiction where licensed, certified, or registered. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure must provide a copy of any disciplinary action taken in Virginia or any other jurisdiction in connection with the applicant's practice as a tattooer, guest tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer and all other jurisdictions to the board at the time of application for licensure. This disclosure includes monetary penalties, fines, probation, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure if the applicant has been previously licensed in Virginia as a tattooer, guest tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer.
Upon review of the applicant's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein who the board deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in tattooing, guest tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this subdivision. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action.
2. The applicant shall must disclose the applicant's physical address [ and email address ]. A post office box is not acceptable may be provided as a secondary address.
3. The applicant shall must sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia tattooing license laws and this chapter.
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall must disclose [ the following information regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions ] involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, non-marijuana drug distribution, or physical injury [ within two years of the date of the application involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, non-marijuana drug distribution, or physical injury; and
b. All all ] felony convictions [ in Virginia and all other jurisdictions ] within 20 10 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall must provide evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant has passed the board approved board-approved examination, administered either by the board or by a designated testing service.
B. Eligibility to sit for board-approved examination.
1. Training in the Commonwealth of Virginia. Any person completing an one of the following programs is eligible for examination:
a. An approved tattooing apprenticeship program in a Virginia licensed tattoo parlor;
or completing an b. An approved tattooing training program in a Virginia licensed tattoo school; or
completing a c. A permanent cosmetic tattooing or master permanent cosmetic tattooing training program in a Virginia licensed permanent cosmetic tattooing or tattooing school shall be eligible to sit for the applicable examination.
2. Training outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia but within the United States or jurisdiction of the United States.:
a. Any person completing a tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, master permanent cosmetic tattooing training program, or tattooing apprenticeship that is substantially equivalent to the Virginia program but is outside of the Commonwealth of Virginia must submit to the board (i) documentation of the successful completion of training or apprenticeship to be eligible for examination. If less than the required hours were completed, an applicant must submit (i) documentation acceptable to the board verifying the completion of a substantially equivalent tattooing training, tattooing apprenticeship, permanent cosmetic tattooing training, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing or documentation of three years of work experience within the preceding five years as a tattooer and (ii) documentation of completion of a minimum of five hours of board-approved health education to include (a) bloodborne pathogens, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing; and (b) first aid; and (c) CPR that is acceptable to the board in order to be eligible for examination. Applicants who have earned a degree from an institution outside the United States must have such degree translated, authenticated, and evaluated by an education evaluation service if credit is sought for the education. The board in its discretion may decline to accept [ (i) ] any evaluation submitted by an applicant.
b. Applicants who completed a training or apprenticeship program that is not substantially equivalent to Virginia's training must submit (i) documentation acceptable to the board verifying three years of work experience in any other state or jurisdiction of the United States on a form provided by the board and (ii) documentation of completion of board-approved health education to include (a) bloodborne pathogens, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing and (b) first aid.
18VAC41-50-30. License by endorsement.
A. Upon proper application to the board, any person currently licensed to practice as a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer, or who is a licensed instructor in the respective profession in any other state or jurisdiction of the United States and who has completed a training or apprenticeship program and an examination that is substantially equivalent to that the training and examination required by this chapter may be issued a tattooer license, permanent cosmetic tattooer license, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer license, respectively, or the respective instructor certificate without an examination. The applicant must also meet the requirements set forth in 18VAC41-50-20 A 1 through A 4 and provide documentation of completion of board-approved health education to include (i) bloodborne pathogens, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing and (ii) first aid.
B. Applicants for licensure by endorsement who completed a training or apprenticeship program that is not substantially equivalent to Virginia's training but otherwise meet all the requirements listed in subsection A of this section may substitute three years of work experience for training. Applicants must provide work history demonstrating three years of licensed experience in any other state or jurisdiction of the United States on a form provided by the board and provide documentation of completion of board-approved health education to include (i) bloodborne pathogens, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing and (ii) first aid.
18VAC41-50-40. Examination requirements and fees.
A. Applicants for initial licensure shall must pass an examination approved by the board. The examinations may be administered by the board or by a designated testing service.
B. Any candidate failing to appear as scheduled for examination shall forfeit the examination fee.
C. B. The applicant shall must follow all procedures established by the board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such procedures shall include any written instructions communicated prior to the examination date and any instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date of the examination. Failure to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at the examination may be grounds for denial of application.
D. C. Any applicant who does not pass a reexamination within one year of the initial examination date shall will be required to submit a new application.
E. D. The fee for examination or reexamination is subject to contracted charges to the board by an outside vendor. These contracts are competitively negotiated and bargained for in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in accordance with these contracts. The fee shall will not exceed $225 per candidate.
F. E. Any candidate failing to apply for initial licensure within five years of passing the written examination shall will be required to retake the examination. Records of examinations shall be maintained for a maximum of five years.
18VAC41-50-45. Tattoo, permanent cosmetic tattoo, and master permanent cosmetic tattoo temporary license.
A. A temporary license to work under the direct supervision of a currently licensed individual may be issued only to applicants for initial licensure who the board finds eligible for the applicable examination. There is no fee for a temporary license. Except as provided in this section, an applicant holding a temporary license must be supervised by an individual holding a license in the same scope of practice.
Licensed tattooers may also supervise permanent cosmetic tattoo and master permanent cosmetic tattoo temporary license holders. Licensed master permanent cosmetic tattooers may also supervise permanent cosmetic tattoo temporary license holders.
B. The temporary license will remain in force for 90 days and no subsequent temporary license will be issued.
C. Any person continuing to practice tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing after a temporary license has expired may be prosecuted and fined by the Commonwealth under §§ 54.1-111 A 1 and 54.1-202 of the Code of Virginia.
D. Temporary licenses will not be issued where grounds may exist to deny a license pursuant to § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia or 18VAC41-50-20.
18VAC41-50-70. General requirements for a tattooing apprenticeship sponsor.
A. Upon filing an application with the Board for Barbers and Cosmetology board, any person meeting the qualifications set forth in this section may be eligible individual wishing to sponsor a tattooing apprentice if must meet the person following qualifications:
1. Holds The applicant must hold and maintain a current Virginia tattooer license;
2. Provides The applicant must provide documentation of legally practicing tattooing for at least five years; and
3. Provides The applicant must provide documentation indicating that he the applicant is in good standing in all jurisdictions where the practice of tattooing is regulated.
B. Apprenticeship sponsors shall be required to maintain a tattooer license.
C. B. Apprenticeship sponsors shall must ensure compliance with the 1500 hour 1,500-hour tattooing apprenticeship program and tattooing apprenticeship standards.
18VAC41-50-80. Tattoo General requirements for a tattoo parlor, event tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon license.
A. Any firm wishing to operate a tattoo parlor, event tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon shall, including any mobile parlor or salon, must obtain a tattoo parlor license, event tattoo parlor license, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon license in compliance with § 54.1-704.1 of the Code of Virginia and shall must meet the following qualifications in order to receive a license:
1. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall must be in good standing as a licensed parlor or salon in Virginia and all other jurisdictions where licensed, certified, or registered. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure must provide a copy of any disciplinary action taken in Virginia and all other jurisdictions in connection with the applicant's operation of any tattoo parlor, event tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon or practice of the profession to the board at the time of application for licensure. This disclosure includes monetary penalties, fines, probation, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure if the applicant or any member of the responsible management has been previously licensed in Virginia as a tattoo parlor, event tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon.
Upon review of the applicant's and all members of the responsible management's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein it [ whom that ] the board deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the operation of a tattoo parlor, event tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this subdivision. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action.
2. The applicant shall must disclose the applicant's physical address [ and email address ]. A post office box is not acceptable may be provided as a secondary address. Mobile parlors and salons must provide a physical address where the parlor or salon is permanently garaged.
3. The applicant shall must sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia tattooing license laws and this chapter.
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall must disclose [ the following information about the firm and all members of the responsible management regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions ] involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, non-marijuana drug distribution, or physical injury [ within two years of the date of the application involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, non-marijuana drug distribution, or physical injury; and
b. All all ] felony convictions [ in Virginia and all other jurisdictions for the firm and all members of the firm's responsible management ] within 20 10 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall must disclose the firm's responsible management.
B. A tattoo Tattoo parlor license licenses, event tattoo parlor license licenses, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon license shall licenses are issued to firms as defined in this chapter and are not be transferable and shall bear the same name and address of the business. Any changes in the name or address of the parlor or salon shall must be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of such changes. The new responsible management shall be responsible for applying for a new license within 30 days of the changes. The board will not be responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices, communications, and correspondence caused by the licensee's failure to promptly notify the board in writing of any change of name or address or for any other reason beyond the control of the board.
C. Whenever the legal business entity holding the license is dissolved or altered to form a new business entity, the original license becomes void and shall be returned to the board within 30 days of the change. Additionally, the The firm shall must notify the board, apply for a new license within 30 days of the change in the business entity, and destroy the license. Such changes include:
1. Death of a sole proprietor;
2. Death or withdrawal of a general partner in a general partnership or the managing partner in a limited partnership; and
3. Conversion, formation, or dissolution of a corporation, a limited liability company, an association, or any other business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
D. Any change in the officers of a corporation, managers of a limited liability company, or officers or directors of an association shall must be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of the change.
E. Any tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon wishing to host a guest tattooer must identify itself as the guest tattooer sponsor and must provide direct supervision of any tattooing by the guest tattooer.
F. Any firm wishing to operate a tattoo parlor in a temporary location must have a tattoo parlor license or event tattoo parlor license issued by the board.
G. An event tattoo parlor license is effective for [ five seven ] consecutive days prior to the expiration date. Any firm wishing to operate an event tattoo parlor must submit an application to the board at least 45 days prior to the date for which approval is sought.
H. A firm may obtain a maximum of five event tattoo parlor licenses within a calendar year.
I. The board or any of its agents must be allowed to inspect during reasonable hours any licensed parlor and salon for compliance with provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or this chapter.
18VAC41-50-91. Guest tattooer license.
A. A guest tattooer license is effective for 14 days prior to the expiration date.
B. An out-of-state resident may apply for and obtain up to five guest tattooer licenses per calendar year.
C. A For each calendar year, a guest tattooer applicant must meet the following qualifications:
1. Requirements set forth in 18VAC41-50-20 A 1 through A 4.
2. Present documentation showing out-of-state residency.
3. Documentation of board-approved health education knowledge to include (i) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing; and (ii) first aid; and (iii) CPR that is acceptable to the board.
4. Documentation showing guest tattooer sponsor, including signature of sponsor parlor's responsible management.
D. A guest tattooer must provide documentation with each application showing the guest tattooer sponsor, including a signature of the sponsor parlor's responsible management.
E. A guest tattooer must provide the name and license number of the guest tattooer's sponsor and the duration of the guest tattooer's tattooing for all guest tattooer locations.
E. A guest tattooer applicant is not required to complete 18VAC41-50-20 A 5.
18VAC41-50-92. Guest tattooer sponsor.
A. The licensed tattoo parlor sponsoring a guest tattooer shall must ensure that the guest tattooer:
1. Has a valid, current guest tattooer license for the entire duration of the guest tattooer tattooing at the parlor.
2. Is directly supervised by a licensed tattooer.
3. Complies with all Virginia regulations relating to health, sanitation, client qualifications, and standards of practice.
B. The licensed permanent cosmetic tattoo salon sponsoring a guest tattooer shall must ensure that the guest tattooer:
1. Has a valid, current guest tattooer licensed for the entire duration of the guest tattooer's tattooing at the salon.
2. Is directly supervised by a licensed tattooer or permanent cosmetic tattooer.
3. Complies with all Virginia regulations relating to health, sanitation, client qualifications, and standards of practice.
C. With the exception of tattoo conventions, a member of the guest tattooer sponsor's responsible management must sign the guest tattooer application certifying the sponsor will ensure the requirements of subsections A and B of this section.
D. The guest tattooer sponsor shall be is responsible for the acts or omissions of the guest tattooer in the performance of tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing.
18VAC41-50-100. School General requirements for a school license.
A. Any firm wishing to operate a tattooing school or permanent cosmetic tattooing school shall must submit an application to the board at least 60 days prior to the date for which approval is sought, obtain a school license in compliance with § 54.1-704.2 of the Code of Virginia, and shall meet the following qualifications in order to receive a license:
1. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall must be in good standing as a licensed parlor or salon school in Virginia and in all other jurisdictions where licensed, certified, or registered. The applicant and all members of the responsible management shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure must provide a copy of any disciplinary action taken in Virginia and all other jurisdictions in connection with the applicant's operation of any tattoo parlor, event tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon or practice of the profession to the board at the time of application for licensure. This disclosure includes monetary penalties, fines, probation, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license. The applicant shall disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure if the applicant or any member of the responsible management has been previously licensed in Virginia as a tattoo parlor, event tattoo parlor, or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon.
Upon review of the applicant's and all members of the responsible management's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant wherein [ whom it that the board ] deems the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the operation of a tattoo parlor, event tattoo parlor, school or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon school. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea shall be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this subdivision. The applicant shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action.
2. The applicant shall must disclose the applicant's physical address [ and email address ]. A post office box is not acceptable may be provided as a secondary address.
3. The applicant shall must sign, as part of the application, a statement certifying that the applicant has read and understands the Virginia tattooing license laws and this chapter.
4. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall must disclose [ the following information about the firm and all members of the responsible management regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. All misdemeanor convictions ] involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, non-marijuana drug distribution, or physical injury [ within two years of the date of the application involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, non-marijuana drug distribution, or physical injury; and
b. All all ] felony convictions [ in Virginia and all other jurisdictions for the firm and all members of the firm's responsible management ] within 20 10 years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. The applicant shall must disclose the firm's responsible management.
B. A tattooing Tattooing school license licenses or permanent cosmetic tattooing school license shall licenses are issued to firms as defined in this chapter and are not be transferable and shall bear the same name and address as the school. Any changes in the name or and address of record or principal place of business of the school shall must be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of such change. The board will not be responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices, communications, and correspondence caused by the licensee's failure to promptly notify the board in writing of any change of name or address or for any other reason beyond the control of the board. The name of the school must indicate that it is an educational institution. All signs or other advertisements must reflect the name as indicated on the license issued by the board and contain language indicating it is an educational institution.
C. Whenever the legal business entity holding the license is dissolved or altered to form a new business entity, the original license becomes void and shall be returned to the board within 30 days of the change. Additionally, the The firm shall must notify the board, apply for a new license within 30 days of the change in the business entity, and destroy the license. Such changes include:
1. Death of a sole proprietor;
2. Death or withdrawal of a general partner in a general partnership or the managing partner in a limited partnership; and
3. Conversion, formation, or dissolution of a corporation, a limited liability company, an association, or any other business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.
D. Within 30 days of the closing ceasing to operate, whether through dissolution or alteration of the business entity, the school shall return the license to the board and must provide a written report to the board on detailing the performances and hours of each student who has not completed the program.
E. Any change in the officers of a corporation, managers of a limited liability company, or officers or directors of an association shall must be reported to the board in writing within 30 days of the change.
F. The board or any of its agents must be allowed to inspect during reasonable hours any licensed school for compliance with provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or this chapter.
18VAC41-50-110. Tattooing General requirements for a tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor certificate.
A. Upon filing an application with the Board for Barbers and Cosmetology, any person meeting the qualifications set forth in this section shall be eligible for a tattooing instructor certificate if the person:
1. Holds a current Virginia tattooer license;
2. Provides documentation of legally tattooing for at least five years; and
3. Passes a course on teaching techniques in a post-secondary education level.
B. Tattooing instructors shall be required to maintain a tattooer license.
A. Any individual wishing to engage in tattoo, permanent cosmetic tattoo, or master permanent cosmetic tattoo instruction must meet the following qualifications:
1. The applicant must be in good standing as a licensed tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, master permanent cosmetic tattooer, or instructor, respectively, in every jurisdiction where licensed, certified, or registered. The applicant must provide a copy of any disciplinary action taken in Virginia and all other jurisdictions to the board at the time of application for certification since being previously licensed as a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer. This includes monetary penalties, fines, probation, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license or certification in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license or certification.
Upon review of the applicant's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny certification to any applicant whom the board deems unfit or unsuited to engage in the instruction of tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing.
2. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant must disclose [ the following information regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions since being previously licensed as a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer:
a. All misdemeanor convictions within two years of the date of application involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, non-marijuana drug distribution, or physical injury; and
b. All all ] felony convictions [ in Virginia and all other jurisdictions since being previously licensed as a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer ] within 10 years of the date of application.
The board, in its discretion, may deny certification to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
3. The applicant must hold and maintain a current Virginia tattooer license, permanent cosmetic tattooer license, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer license in the respective profession.
4. The applicant must provide documentation of legally tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing for at least three years in Virginia or any other state or jurisdiction of the United States; and
5. The applicant must complete one of the following qualifications:
a. Pass a course on teaching techniques in a post-secondary education level; or
b. Train [ , as a licensed temporary student instructor, ] under a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer instructor in the respective profession for 12 months.
B. Certified instructors may teach in any profession in which they hold the underlying license.
18VAC41-50-120. Permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor certificate. (Repealed.)
A. Upon filing an application with the Board for Barbers and Cosmetology, any person meeting the qualifications set forth in this section shall be eligible for a permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor certificate if the person:
1. Holds a current Virginia permanent cosmetic tattooer license or master permanent cosmetic tattooer license;
2. Provides documentation of legally tattooing for at least five years; and
3. Passes a course on teaching techniques at the post-secondary education level.
B. Permanent cosmetic tattooing instructors shall be required to maintain a permanent cosmetic tattooer license or master permanent cosmetic tattooer license.
18VAC41-50-125. Student instructor temporary license.
A. A licensed tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer may be granted a 12-month student instructor temporary license to function under the direct supervision of a certified instructor in a licensed school. No subsequent student instructor temporary license will be issued. Student instructors must pass an instructor examination administered by the board or by a testing service acting on behalf of the board.
B. Student instructors may teach in any profession in which they hold the underlying license. Failure to maintain a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer license will disqualify an individual from holding a student instructor temporary license.
C. Certified tattoo instructors may also supervise permanent cosmetic tattoo and master permanent cosmetic tattoo student instructor temporary license holders. Certified master permanent cosmetic tattoo instructors may also supervise permanent cosmetic tattoo student instructor temporary license holders.
D. The student instructor temporary license holder must be associated with both a school and a direct supervisor.
E. Temporary licenses may not be issued where grounds may exist to deny a license pursuant to § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia or 18VAC41-50-110.
18VAC41-50-130. Fees.
The following fees apply:. All fees are nonrefundable and will not be prorated.
|
FEE TYPE
|
AMOUNT DUE
|
WHEN DUE
|
|
Individuals:
|
|
Application
|
$120
|
With application
|
|
License by Endorsement
|
$120
|
With application
|
|
Renewal
|
$120
|
With renewal card prior to expiration date
|
|
Reinstatement
|
$240* *includes $120 renewal fee and $120 reinstatement fee
|
With reinstatement application
|
|
[ Instructors: Instructor Certificate: ]
|
|
Application
|
$140
|
With application
|
|
License by Endorsement
|
[ $125 $140 ]
|
With application
|
|
Renewal
|
[ $165 $45 ]
|
With renewal card prior to expiration date
|
|
Reinstatement
|
[ $330* $90* ] *includes [ $165 $45 ] renewal fee and [ $165 $45 ] reinstatement fee
|
With reinstatement application
|
|
Parlors or salons:
|
|
Application
|
$220
|
With application
|
|
Renewal
|
$220
|
With renewal card prior to expiration date
|
|
Reinstatement
|
$440* *includes $220 renewal fee and $220 reinstatement fee
|
With reinstatement application
|
|
Schools:
|
|
Application
|
$250
|
With application
|
|
Renewal
|
$250
|
With renewal card prior to expiration date
|
|
Reinstatement
|
$500* *includes $250 renewal fee and $250 reinstatement fee
|
With reinstatement application
|
18VAC41-50-140. Refunds. (Repealed.)
All fees are nonrefundable and shall not be prorated.
18VAC41-50-150. License renewal required.
A. Tattooer licenses, tattoo parlor licenses, tattooing instructors certificates, tattooing schools licenses, permanent cosmetic tattooer licenses, master permanent cosmetic tattooer licenses, permanent cosmetic tattoo salon licenses, permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor certificate, master permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor certificates, and permanent cosmetic tattooing schools licenses shall will expire two years from the last day of the month in which they were issued.
B. Guest tattooer licenses will expire 14 days after the effective date of the license and may not be renewed.
18VAC41-50-160. Continuing education requirement.
All licensed tattooers, permanent cosmetic tattooers, and master permanent cosmetic tattooers shall be required to must satisfactorily complete board-approved health education to include (i) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing; and (ii) first aid; and (iii) CPR during their licensed term. Documentation of training completion shall must be provided at the time of renewal along with the required fee.
18VAC41-50-170. Notice of renewal.
The Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation will [ mail send ] a renewal notice to the licensee or certificate holder outlining the procedures for renewal. Failure to receive this notice, however, shall does not relieve the licensee or certificate holder of the obligation to renew. [ If the licensee or certificate holder fails to receive the renewal notice, a copy of the old license or certificate may be submitted as evidence of intent to renew, along with the required fee. ]
18VAC41-50-180. Failure to renew.
A. When a licensed or certified an individual or business entity fails to renew its license or certificate within 30 days following the expiration date of the license or certificate, the licensee shall or certificate holder [ who intends to remain licensed or certified ] must meet the renewal continuing education requirements as prescribed in 18VAC41-50-170 18VAC41-50-160 and apply for reinstatement of the license by submitting to the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation a reinstatement application along with the required renewal and pay the reinstatement fees.
B. When a licensed or certified an individual or business entity fails to renew its license or certification within two years following the expiration date, reinstatement is no longer possible. To resume practice:
1. The former licensee shall or certificate holder must apply for licensure or certification as a new applicant, shall and meet all current application entry requirements, shall pass the board's current examination, and shall receive a new license for each respective license or certificate. Individual licensees failing to renew must provide documentation of completion of board-approved health education to include (i) bloodborne pathogens, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing and (ii) first aid.
2. An individual initially granted licensure under an examination exemption, known as grandfathering, pursuant to 18VAC41-50-20 A 6, shall submit a new application showing the individual met the requirements of the applicable examination waiver provision, demonstrate five previously licensed in Virginia for a minimum of three years of licensed experience, must (i) submit a new application; (ii) submit documentation of completion of board-approved health education to include (a) bloodborne pathogens, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing and (b) first aid; and (iii) pass the required examination.
C. The application for When a licensed school fails to renew its license within 30 days following its expiration date, the licensee must pay the reinstatement fee.
1. After 180 days, the school must submit a reinstatement for a school license shall application and provide (i) the reasons for failing to renew prior to the expiration date, and (ii) a notarized statement that all students currently enrolled or seeking to enroll at the school have been notified in writing that the school's license has expired. All of these materials shall be called the application package. Reinstatement After 180 days, reinstatement will be considered by the board if the school consents to and satisfactorily passes an inspection of the school and if the school's records are maintained in accordance with 18VAC41-50-250 and 18VAC41-50-330. Pursuant to 18VAC41-50-100, and 18VAC41-50-230, and 18VAC41-50-310 upon receipt of the reinstatement fee, application package, and inspection results, the board may reinstate the school's license or require requalification or both.
2. If the reinstatement application package and reinstatement fee are not received by the board within six months following the expiration date of the school's license, the board will notify the testing service that prospective graduates of the unlicensed school are not acceptable candidates for the examination. Such notification will be sent to the school and must be displayed in a conspicuous manner by the school in an area that is accessible to the public. No student [ shall will ] be disqualified from taking the examination because the school was not licensed for a portion of the time the student attended if the school license is reinstated by the board.
D. The date a renewal fee is received by the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, or its agent, will be used to determine whether the requirement for reinstatement of a license is applicable and an additional fee is required.
E. When a license or certificate is reinstated, the licensee shall have the same license number and shall or certificate holder will be assigned an expiration date two years from the date of the last day of the month of reinstatement.
F. A licensee or certificate holder that reinstates its license shall or certificate will be regarded as having been continuously licensed without interruption. Therefore, a licensee shall or certificate holder will be subject to the authority of the board for activities performed prior to reinstatement.
G. A licensee or certificate holder that fails to reinstate its license shall or certificate will be regarded as unlicensed or uncertified from the expiration date of the license or certificate forward. Nothing in this chapter shall divest divests the board of its authority to discipline a licensee or certificate holder for a violation of the law or regulations during the period of time for which the individual was licensed or certified.
18VAC41-50-190. General requirements.
A. Any person desiring to enroll in the tattooing apprenticeship program shall will be required to provide documentation of satisfactory completion of a minimum of five hours of board-approved health education to include but not limited to (i) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing, and (ii) first aid and CPR.
B. Any tattooer desiring approval to perform the duties of an apprenticeship sponsor and offer the board's tattooing apprenticeship program shall must meet the requirements of 18VAC41-50-70.
C. All apprenticeship training shall must be conducted in a tattoo parlor that has met the requirements of 18VAC41-50-80.
18VAC41-50-200. Apprenticeship curriculum requirements.
Apprenticeship curriculum requirements are as follows:
1. Microbiology.
a. Microorganisms, viruses, bacteria, fungi;
b. Transmission cycle of infectious diseases; and
c. Characteristics of antimicrobial agents.
2. Immunization.
a. Types of immunizations;
b. Hepatitis A— through G transmission and immunization;
c. HIV/AIDS;
d. Tetanus, streptococcal, zoonotic, tuberculosis, pneumococcal, and influenza;
e. Measles, mumps, and rubella;
f. Vaccines and immunization; and
g. General preventative measures to be taken to protect the tattooer and client.
3. Sanitation and disinfection.
a. Definition of terms.
(1) Sterilization;
(2) Disinfection and disinfectant;
(3) Sterilizer or sterilant;
(4) Antiseptic;
(5) Germicide;
(6) Decontamination; and
(7) Sanitation.
b. The use of steam sterilization equipment and techniques;
c. The use of chemical agents, antiseptics, disinfectants, and fumigants;
d. The use of sanitation equipment;
e. Preservice sanitation procedure; and
f. Post-service sanitation procedure.
4. Safety.
a. Proper needle handling and disposal;
b. How to avoid overexposure to chemicals;
c. The use of Material Safety Data Sheets;
d. Blood spill procedures;
e. Equipment and instrument storage; and
f. First aid and CPR.
5. Bloodborne pathogen standards.
a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) bloodborne pathogen standards;
b. Control plan for bloodborne pathogens;
c. Exposure control plan for tattooers;
d. Overview of compliance requirements; and
e. Disorders and when not to service a client.
6. Professional standards.
a. History of tattooing;
b. Ethics;
c. Recordkeeping:
(1) Client health history;
(2) Consent forms; and
(3) HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 Privacy Rule) Standards.
d. Preparing station, making appointments, parlor ethics:
(1) Maintaining professional appearance, and notifying clients of schedule changes; and
(2) Promoting services of the parlor and establishing clientele.
e. Parlor management:
(1) Licensing requirements; and
(2) Taxes.
f. Supplies:
(1) Usages;
(2) Ordering; and
(3) Storage.
7. Tattooing.
a. Client consultation;
b. Client health form;
c. Client disclosure form;
d. Client preparation;
e. Sanitation and safety precautions;
f. Implement selection and use;
g. Proper use of equipment; and
h. Material selection and use;
i. Needles;
j. Ink;
k. Machine:
(1) Construction;
(2) Adjustment; and
(3) Power supply;
l. Art, drawing; and
m. Portfolio.
8. Anatomy:
a. Understanding of skin; and
b. Parts and functions of skin.
9. Virginia tattooing laws and regulations.
18VAC41-50-210. Hours of instruction and performances.
A. Curriculum requirements specified in 18VAC41-50-200 shall must be taught over a minimum of 1500 hours as follows:
1. 350 hours shall must be devoted to theory pertaining to subdivisions 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, and 9 of 18VAC41-50-200;
2. 150 hours shall must be devoted to theory pertaining to subdivision 3 of 18VAC41-50-200; and
3. The remaining 1000 1,000 hours shall must be devoted to practical training to include apprenticeship curriculum requirements and a minimum of 100 performances pertaining to subdivision 7 of 18VAC41-50-200.
B. An approved tattooing apprenticeship program may conduct an assessment of an apprentice's competence in the theory and practical requirements for tattooing and, based on the assessment, give a maximum of 700 hours of credit toward the requirements in subdivisions A 1 and A 3 of this section. No credit shall be allowed for the 150 hours required in subdivision A 2 of this section.
Part VI
Tattooing and Permanent Cosmetic Tattooing Schools
18VAC41-50-220. Applicants for tattooing school license. (Repealed.)
Any person or entity desiring to operate a tattooing school shall submit an application to the board at least 60 days prior to the date for which approval is sought.
18VAC41-50-230. General requirements.
[ A. ] A tattooing and permanent cosmetic tattooing school shall must:
1. Hold a tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing school license for each and every location. Any suites or classrooms that are located in a different building or are further than 500 feet from the main office are considered a separate location and require the school hold an additional license.
2. Hold a tattoo parlor license or salon license if the school receives compensation for services provided in its clinic.
3. Employ a staff of, and ensure all training is conducted under the direct supervision of, licensed and certified tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing instructors, respectively. [ A list of all certified instructors must be provided with the application for licensure. ]
a. Licensed and certified tattoo instructors may also instruct permanent cosmetic tattooing and master permanent cosmetic tattooing programs.
b. Licensed and certified master permanent cosmetic instructors may also instruct permanent cosmetic tattooing programs.
c. [ Instructor programs must be taught by a certified instructor.
d. ] Any change in instructors must be reported to the board within 30 days of the change.
4. Develop individuals for entry-level competency in tattooing, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing.
5. Submit its curricula for board approval. All changes to curricula must be resubmitted and approved by the board. [ The theory portions of the curriculum may be offered online. Practical instruction must be obtained in a traditional brick-and-mortar classroom setting. The school must utilize a measure of competency (e.g., examination) of the information the student is taught online, which shall be completed in a traditional brick-and-mortar classroom. ]
a. Tattoo curricula must be based on a minimum of 1,000 clock or equivalent credit hours and must include performances in accordance with [ 18VAC41-50-280 C 18VAC41-50-290 A ].
b. Permanent cosmetic tattoo curricula must be based on a minimum of 200 clock or equivalent credit hours and must include performances in accordance with [ 18VAC41-50-280 D 18VAC41-50-290 C ].
c. Master permanent cosmetic tattoo curricula must be based on a minimum of 200 clock or equivalent credit hours and must include performances in accordance with [ 18VAC41-50-280 E 18VAC41-50-290 D ].
6. Inform the public that all services are performed by students if the tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing school receives compensation for services provided in its clinic by posting a notice in the reception area of the shop parlor or salon in plain view of the public.
7. Conduct classroom instruction in an area separate from the area where practical instruction is conducted and services are provided. [ A sketch of the school floor plan must be included in the application for licensure. ]
8. Conduct all instruction and training of students under the direct supervision of a licensed and certified tattooing instructor.
[ B. The theory portions of the curriculum may be offered online. Practical instruction must be obtained in a traditional brick-and-mortar classroom setting. Theory and practical training must be conducted in the same building, unless the school has board approval to offer the theory training online. Schools must utilize technologies and practices that are effective in verifying the identity of distance-learning students who participate in class or coursework (e.g., a secure login and passcode) while protecting student privacy. Educational technologies must be capable of monitoring a student's time and activities. The school must utilize a measure of competency (e.g., an examination) of the information the student is taught online, which must be completed in a traditional brick-and-mortar classroom. ]
18VAC41-50-250. Records.
A. Schools are required to keep upon graduation, termination, or withdrawal, written records of hours and performances showing what instruction a student has received for a period of must maintain on the premises of each school and available for inspection by the board or any of its agents the following records for the period of a student's enrollment through five years after the student terminates or completes student's completion of the curriculum of the school. These records shall be available for inspection by the Department of Professional and Occupation Regulation. All records must be kept on the premises of each school., termination, or withdrawal:
1. Enrollment application containing the student's signature and a two-inch-by-two-inch color head and shoulders photograph;
2. Daily record of attendance containing the student's signature;
3. Student clock hours containing the student's signature and method of calculation;
4. Practical performance completion sheets containing the student's signature;
5. Final transcript;
6. Course descriptions; and
7. All other relevant documents that account for a student's accrued clock hours and practical applications.
B. For a period of five years after a student completes the curriculum, terminates, or withdraws from the school, schools are required to provide documentation of hours and performances completed by a student upon receipt of a written request from the student Schools must produce to the board or any of its agents within 10 days of the request any document, book, or record concerning any student or for which the licensee is required to maintain records for inspection and copying by the board or its agents. The board may extend such timeframe upon a showing of extenuating circumstances prohibiting delivery within such 10-day period.
C. Schools shall must, within 21 days upon receipt of a written request from a student, provide documentation of hours and performances completed by the student as required to be maintained by subsection A of this section.
D. Prior to a school changing ownership or a school closing, the schools are required to provide to current students documentation of hours and performances completed.
E. For a period of one year after a school changes ownership, schools are required to provide documentation of hours and performances completed by a current student upon receipt of a written request from the student.
18VAC41-50-255. Reporting.
A. Each school must provide student rosters to the board quarterly, no later than January 15, April 15, July 15, and October 15 of every year.
1. Each school must provide a roster of all enrolled students and a roster of students who attended in the six months prior to the reporting deadline.
2. Students who are enrolled but have not begun classes must be included in the report.
B. Rosters must be submitted via a secure link provided by the board on the board-supplied document, which will include the student's full name, date of birth, program type, date enrolled, the total number of hours to-date, and the date completed, terminated, or withdrawn.
C. Schools with no students enrolled, but the intention of operating, must submit a report to that effect.
D. Schools with no students enrolled that no longer wish to operate should terminate licensure in accordance with board regulations.
18VAC41-50-280. Tattooing and permanent cosmetic tattooing school curriculum requirements.
A. Any person desiring to enroll in the a tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing school shall will be required to provide documentation of satisfactory completion of a minimum of five hours of board-approved health education to include (i) bloodborne disease, sterilization, and aseptic techniques related to tattooing; and (ii) first aid; and (iii) CPR.
B. Tattooing school curriculum requirements are as follows: Each tattoo or permanent cosmetic tattoo school must submit with its application a curriculum, including a course syllabus, a detailed course content outline, [ a copy of any course text, ] a sample of five lesson plans, a sample of evaluation methods to be used, days and hours of instruction, program length, a sample of a final transcript, [ and ] a breakdown of hours and performances for all courses to be taught that will lead to licensure [ , and a sample test of at least 25 questions that will be administered to students, including answer key ].
C. The outline for tattooing must include the following:
1. Microbiology - minimum of 100 hours of instruction.
a. Microorganisms, viruses, bacteria, fungus;
b. Transmission cycle of infectious diseases; and
c. Characteristics of antimicrobial agents.
2. Immunization - minimum of 50 hours of instruction.
a. Types of immunizations;
b. Hepatitis A through G transmission and immunization;
c. HIV/AIDS;
d. Tetanus, streptococcal, zoonotic, tuberculosis, pneumococcal, and influenza;
e. Measles, mumps, and rubella;
f. Vaccines and immunization; and
g. General preventative measures to be taken to protect the tattooer and client.
3. Sanitation and disinfection - minimum of 150 hours of instruction.
a. Definition of terms:
(1) Sterilization;
(2) Disinfection and disinfectant;
(3) Sterilizer or sterilant;
(4) Antiseptic;
(5) Germicide;
(6) Decontamination; and
(7) Sanitation.;
b. The use of steam sterilization equipment and techniques;
c. The use of chemical agents, antiseptics, disinfectants, and fumigants;
d. The use of sanitation equipment;
e. Preservice sanitation procedure; and
f. Postservice sanitation procedure.
4. Safety - minimum of 50 hours of instruction.
a. Proper needle handling and disposal;
b. How to avoid overexposure to chemicals;
c. The use of Material Safety Data Sheets;
d. Blood spill procedures;
e. Equipment and instrument storage; and
f. First aid and CPR.
5. Bloodborne pathogen standards - minimum of 50 hours of instruction.
a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) bloodborne pathogen standards;
b. Control plan for bloodborne pathogens;
c. Exposure control plan for tattooers;
d. Overview of compliance requirements; and
e. Disorders and when not to service a client.
6. Professional standards - minimum of 30 hours of instruction.
a. History of tattooing;
b. Ethics;
c. Recordkeeping:
(1) Client health history;
(2) Consent forms; and
(3) HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 Privacy Rule) Standards;
d. Preparing station, making appointments, parlor ethics:
(1) Maintaining professional appearance, notifying clients of schedule changes; and
(2) Promoting services of the parlor and establishing clientele;
e. Parlor management.:
(1) Licensing requirements; and
(2) Taxes; and
f. Supplies.:
(1) Usages;
(2) Ordering; and
(3) Storage.
7. Tattooing - minimum of 500 hours of instruction.
a. Client consultation;
b. Client health form;
c. Client disclosure form;
d. Client preparation;
e. Sanitation and safety precautions;
f. Implement selection and use;
g. Proper use of equipment;
h. Material selection and use;
i. Needles:
(1) Groupings;
(2) Properties; and
(3) Making;
j. Ink;
k. Machine:
(1) Construction;
(2) Adjustment; and
(3) Power supply;
l. Art, drawing; and
m. Portfolio.
8. Anatomy - minimum of 60 hours of instruction.
a. Understanding of skin; and
b. Parts and functions of skin.
9. Virginia tattooing laws and regulations - minimum of 10 hours of instruction.
D. The outline for permanent cosmetic tattooing must include the following:
1. Virginia tattooing laws and regulations - minimum of five hours of instruction.
2. Machines and devices - minimum of 15 hours of instruction:
a. Coil or rotary machine;
b. Hand device; and
c. Other devices.
3. Needles and cartridges - minimum of 10 hours of instruction:
a. Types;
b. Uses; and
c. Application.
4. Anatomy - minimum of 10 hours of instruction:
a. Layers of skin;
b. Parts and functions of skin; and
c. Diseases.
5. Color theory - minimum of five hours of instruction:
a. Skin and pigment color; and
b. Handling and storage of pigments.
6. Transmission cycle of infectious diseases - minimum of five hours of instruction.
7. Immunization - minimum of five hours of instruction:
a. Types of immunizations; and
b. General preventative measures to be taken to protect the tattooer and client.
8. Sanitation and disinfection - minimum of 15 hours of instruction:
a. Definition of terms:
(1) Sterilization;
(2) Disinfection and disinfectant;
(3) Sterilizer or sterilant;
(4) Antiseptic;
(5) Germicide;
(6) Decontamination; and
(7) Sanitation;
b. The use of steam sterilization equipment and techniques;
c. The use of chemical agents, antiseptics, and disinfectants;
d. The use of sanitation equipment;
e. Preservice sanitation procedure; and
f. Postservice sanitation procedure.
9. Safety - minimum of five hours of instruction:
a. Proper needle handling and disposal;
b. Blood spill procedures;
c. Equipment and instrument storage; and
d. First aid.
10. Bloodborne pathogen standards - minimum of five hours of instruction:
a. OSHA and CDC bloodborne pathogen standards;
b. Overview of compliance requirements; and
c. Disorders and when not to service a client.
11. Anesthetics - minimum of 10 hours of instruction:
a. Use;
b. Types;
c. Application; and
d. Removal.
12. Equipment - minimum of five hours of instruction:
a. Gloves;
b. Masks;
c. Apron;
d. Chair;
e. Lighting; and
f. Work table.
13. Professional standards - minimum of five hours of instruction:
a. History of permanent cosmetic tattooing;
b. Ethics;
c. Recordkeeping:
(1) Client health history; and
(2) Consent forms;
d. Preparing station, making appointments, and salon ethics:
(1) Maintaining professional appearance and notifying clients of schedule changes; and
(2) Promoting services of the salon and establishing clientele; and
e. Salon management:
(1) Licensing requirements; and
(2) Taxes.
14. Permanent cosmetic tattooing - minimum of 100 hours of instruction:
a. Client consultation;
b. Client health form;
c. Client disclosure form;
d. Client preparation;
e. Drawing and mapping;
f. Sanitation and safety precautions;
g. Implement selection and use;
h. Proper use of equipment;
i. Material selection and use;
j. Eyebrows;
k. Microblading;
l. Eyeliner;
m. Lip coloring;
n. Lip liners; and
o. Scalp micropigmentation.
E. The outline for master permanent cosmetic tattooing must include the following:
1. Virginia tattooing laws and regulations - minimum of five hours of instruction.
2. Machines and devices - minimum of five hours of instruction:
a. Coil or rotary machine;
b. Hand device; and
c. Other devices.
3. Needles and cartridges - minimum of five hours of instruction:
a. Types;
b. Uses; and
c. Application.
4. Advanced practical clinical anatomy - minimum of 10 hours of instruction:
a. Eyelid anatomy;
b. Lip anatomy; and
c. Breast anatomy.
5. Advanced color theory - minimum of 10 hours of instruction.
6. Organic and inorganic pigment - minimum of five hours of instruction.
7. Understanding the surgical process - minimum of five hours of instruction:
a. The latissimus dorsi flap procedure;
b. Abdominoplasty and breast reconstruction;
c. Other reconstruction procedures:
(1) Deep inferior epigastric artery (perforator DIEP) flap; and
(2) Superior gluteal artery (perforator DIEP) flap;
d. Flap size versus areola size; and
e. Implant reconstruction:
(1) Tissue expansion;
(2) Placing the implant;
(3) Implant versus flap reconstruction;
(4) Saline versus silicone;
(5) Radiation therapy; and
(6) Lymphedema.
8. Client consultation - minimum of 10 hours of instruction.
9. Breast areolar pigmentation - minimum of 10 hours of instruction:
a. Chart notes;
b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA);
c. Room setup;
d. Anesthetic for breast procedures;
e. Color selection;
f. Needle selection;
g. Design and placement:
(1) Position of the areola or nipple complex;
(2) The Penn Triangle;
(3) Diameter of the areola; and
(4) Nipple reconstruction;
h. Creating three-dimensional nipple or areola:
(1) Understanding and creating a reflection of light; and
(2) The value of color;
i. Covering scar tissue and periareolar scar blending;
j. Aftercare:
(1) Tegaderm aftercare instructions; and
(2) Follow up; and
k. Precautions and contraindications.
10. Skin cancer - minimum of five hours of instruction:
a. Basal cell carcinomas;
b. Squamous cell carcinomas; and
c. Melanoma.
11. The art of camouflage - minimum of 10 hours of instruction:
a. Client or patient selection and handling;
b. Contraindications and when not to perform services;
c. Skin tones;
d. Color selection and skin tone matching;
e. Scars;
f. Burn scars; and
g. Common needle configurations used for camouflage.
12. Side effects - minimum of five hours of instruction.
13. Insurance - minimum of five hours of instruction.
14. Master permanent cosmetic tattooing procedures - minimum of 110 hours of instruction:
a. Lip;
b. Areola;
c. Blush;
d. Camouflage; and
e. Eyeshadow.
C. F. A licensed tattoo or permanent cosmetic tattoo school may conduct an assessment of a transfer student's competence in the respective profession and, based on the assessment, give credit toward the hours requirements specified in this section and 18VAC41-50-290. A licensed tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing school with an approved master permanent cosmetic tattooing program may conduct an assessment of a transfer student's competence in master permanent cosmetic tattooing and, based on the assessment, give credit toward the requirements specified in subsection E of this section and 18VAC41-50-290 D.
The school shall must make the assessment based on a review of the student's transcript, documentation of hours and performances provided to the student by the school from where the student is transferring, and the successful completion of a board-approved competency examination administered by the school. The school may also request a copy of a catalog or bulletin giving the full course description when making the evaluation. The number of credit hours awarded shall must not exceed the actual hours of instruction verified on the transcript or the number of hours specified in the board-approved curriculum for a specific topic. Credit may only be given for in-person training.
18VAC41-50-290. Hours of instruction and performances.
A. Curriculum Tattooing curriculum requirements specified in 18VAC41-50-280 shall C must be taught over a minimum of 1,000 hours as follows:
1. 350 hours shall must be devoted to theory pertaining to 18VAC41-50-280 B C 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, and 9;
2. 150 hours shall must be devoted to theory pertaining to 18VAC41-50-280 B C 3; and
3. The remaining 500 hours shall must be devoted to practical training to include tattooing curriculum requirements and a minimum of 100 performances pertaining to 18VAC41-50-280 B C 7.
B. An approved tattooing school may conduct an assessment of a student's competence in the theory and practical requirements for tattooing and, based on the assessment, give a maximum of 700 hours of credit toward the requirements in subdivisions A 1 and A 3 of this section. No credit shall be allowed for the 150 hours required in subdivision A 2 of this section Curriculum and performance requirements specified in 18VAC41-50-280 D and E must be taught over a minimum of 200 clock hours for permanent cosmetic tattooing program and 200 clock hours for a master permanent cosmetic tattooing program.
C. Individuals enrolled in a program prior to July 1, 2022, may complete the program at the hours in effect at the time they enrolled. A minimum of 60 performances must be completed as part of the permanent cosmetic tattooing instruction, including:
|
Eyebrow
|
10 performances
|
|
Microblading
|
10 performances
|
|
Lip Liner
|
five performances
|
|
Lip Color
|
five performances
|
|
Eyeliner
|
10 performances
|
|
Scalp micropigmentation
|
20 performances
|
D. A minimum of 55 performances must be completed as part of the master permanent cosmetic tattooing instruction, including:
|
Lip (cleft lip repigmentation)
|
five performances
|
|
Areola
|
10 performances
|
|
Blush application
|
10 performances
|
|
Camouflage
|
10 performances
|
|
Scar repigmentation
|
10 performances
|
|
Eyeshadow
|
10 performances
|
E. Completion of performances are determined as follows:
1. Two complete eyebrows constitutes one performance;
2. Two complete eye liners constitutes one performance;
3. One complete lip liner (bottom or top lip separately) constitutes one performance;
4. One complete lip color (bottom or top lip separately) constitutes one performance; and
5. Two complete eyeshadows constitute one performance.
Part VII
Permanent Cosmetic Tattooing Schools
18VAC41-50-300. Applicants for permanent cosmetic tattooing school license. (Repealed.)
Any person or entity desiring to operate a permanent cosmetic tattooing school shall submit an application to the board at least 60 days prior to the date for which approval is sought.
18VAC41-50-310. General requirements. (Repealed.)
A permanent cosmetic tattooing school shall:
1. Hold a permanent cosmetic tattooing school license for each and every location.
2. Hold a permanent cosmetic tattoo salon license if the school receives compensation for services provided in the area where practical instruction is conducted and services are provided.
3. Employ a staff of licensed and certified permanent cosmetic tattooing instructors or licensed and certified master permanent cosmetic tattooing instructors.
4. Develop individuals for entry-level competency in permanent cosmetic tattooing or master permanent cosmetic tattooing.
5. Submit its curricula for board approval.
6. Inform the public that all services are performed by students if the permanent cosmetic tattooing school receives compensation for services provided in its clinic by posting a notice in the reception area of the shop or salon in plain view of the public.
7. Conduct classroom instruction in an area separate from the area where practical instruction is conducted and services are provided.
8. Conduct all instruction and training of permanent cosmetic tattooers under the direct supervision of a licensed and certified permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor or a licensed and certified master permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor.
9. Conduct all instruction and training of master permanent cosmetic tattooers under the direct supervision of a licensed and certified master permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor.
18VAC41-50-330. Records. (Repealed.)
A. Schools are required to keep upon graduation, termination or withdrawal, written records of hours and performances showing what instruction a student has received for a period of five years after the student terminates or completes the curriculum of the school. These records shall be available for inspection by the department. All records must be kept on the premises of each school.
B. For a period of five years after a student completes the curriculum, terminates or withdraws from the school, schools are required to provide documentation of hours and performances completed by a student upon receipt of a written request from the student.
C. Prior to a school changing ownership or a school closing, schools are required to provide to current students documentation of hours and performances completed.
D. For a period of one year after a school changes ownership, schools are required to provide documentation of hours and performances completed by a current student upon receipt of a written request from the student.
18VAC41-50-360. Permanent cosmetic tattooing school curriculum requirements. (Repealed.)
A. Any person desiring to enroll in the permanent cosmetic tattooing school shall be required to provide documentation of satisfactory completion of health education on bloodborne disease.
B. Permanent cosmetic tattooing school curriculum requirements are as follows:
1. Virginia tattooing laws and regulations.
2. Machines and devices.
a. Coil machine;
b. Hand device; and
c. Others devices.
3. Needles.
a. Types;
b. Uses; and
c. Application.
4. Anatomy.
a. Layers of skin;
b. Parts and functions of skin; and
c. Diseases.
5. Color theory.
a. Skin and pigment color; and
b. Handling and storage of pigments.
6. Transmission cycle of infectious diseases.
7. Immunization.
a. Types of immunizations; and
b. General preventative measures to be taken to protect the tattooer and client.
8. Sanitation and disinfection.
a. Definition of terms:
(1) Sterilization;
(2) Disinfection and disinfectant;
(3) Sterilizer or sterilant;
(4) Antiseptic;
(5) Germicide;
(6) Decontamination; and
(7) Sanitation;
b. The use of steam sterilization equipment and techniques;
c. The use of chemical agents, antiseptics, and disinfectants;
d. The use of sanitation equipment;
e. Preservice sanitation procedure; and
f. Postservice sanitation procedure.
9. Safety.
a. Proper needle handling and disposal;
b. Blood spill procedures;
c. Equipment and instrument storage; and
d. First aid.
10. Bloodborne pathogen standards.
a. OSHA and CDC bloodborne pathogen standards;
b. Overview of compliance requirements; and
c. Disorders and when not to service a client.
11. Anesthetics.
a. Use;
b. Types;
c. Application; and
d. Removal.
12. Equipment.
a. Gloves;
b. Masks;
c. Apron;
d. Chair;
e. Lighting; and
f. Work table.
13. Professional standards.
a. History of permanent cosmetic tattooing;
b. Ethics;
c. Recordkeeping:
(1) Client health history; and
(2) Consent forms;
d. Preparing station, making appointments, salon ethics:
(1) Maintaining professional appearance, notifying clients of schedule changes; and
(2) Promoting services of the salon and establishing clientele; and
e. Salon management:
(1) Licensing requirements; and
(2) Taxes.
14. Permanent cosmetic tattooing.
a. Client consultation;
b. Client health form;
c. Client disclosure form;
d. Client preparation;
e. Drawing and mapping;
f. Sanitation and safety precautions;
g. Implement selection and use;
h. Proper use of equipment;
i. Material selection and use;
j. Eyebrows;
k. Microblading;
l. Eyeliner;
m. Lip coloring;
n. Lip liners; and
o. Scalp micropigmentation.
C. Master permanent cosmetic tattooing program curriculum requirements are as follows:
1. Virginia tattooing laws and regulations.
2. Machines and devices:
a. Coil machine;
b. Hand device; and
c. Others devices.
3. Needles:
a. Types;
b. Uses; and
c. Application.
4. Advanced practical clinical anatomy:
a. Eyelid anatomy;
b. Lip anatomy; and
c. Breast anatomy.
5. Advanced color theory.
6. Organic and inorganic pigment.
7. Understanding the surgical process:
a. The latissimus dorsi flap procedure;
b. Abdominoplasty and breast reconstruction;
c. Other reconstruction procedures:
(1) Deep inferior epigastric artery perforator (DIEP) flap; and
(2) Superior gluteal artery perforator (DIEP) flap;
d. Flap size versus areola size; and
e. Implant reconstruction:
(1) Tissue expansion;
(2) Placing the implant;
(3) Implant versus flap reconstruction;
(4) Saline versus silicone;
(5) Radiation therapy; and
(6) Lymphedema.
8. Client consultation.
9. Breast areolar pigmentation:
a. Chart notes;
b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA);
c. Room setup;
d. Anesthetic for breast procedures;
e. Color selection;
f. Needle selection;
g. Design and placement;
(1) Position of the areola/nipple complex;
(2) The Penn Triangle;
(3) Diameter of the areola; and
(4) Nipple reconstruction;
h. Creating three-dimensional nipple/areola;
(1) Understanding and creating a reflection of light; and
(2) The value of color;
i. Covering scar tissue and periareolar scar blending;
j. Aftercare;
(1) Tegaderm aftercare instructions; and
(2) Follow up; and
k. Precautions and contraindications.
10. Skin cancer:
a. Basal cell carcinomas;
b. Squamous cell carcinomas; and
c. Melanoma.
11. The art of camouflage:
a. Client/patient selection and handling;
b. Contraindications and when not to perform services;
c. Skin tones;
d. Color selection and skin tone matching;
e. Scars;
f. Burn scar; and
g. Common needle configurations used for camouflage.
12. Side effects.
13. Insurance.
14. Master permanent cosmetic tattooing procedures:
a. Lip;
b. Areola;
c. Blush;
d. Camouflage; and
e. Eyeshadow.
D. A licensed school with an approved permanent cosmetic tattooing or master permanent cosmetic tattooing program may conduct an assessment of a student's competence in the respective profession and, based on the assessment, give credit toward the hours requirements specified in the respective subsection of this section and 18VAC41-50-370.
The school shall make the assessment based on a review of the student's transcript and the successful completion of a board-approved competency examination administered by the school. The school may also request a copy of a catalog or bulletin giving the full course description when making the evaluation. The number of credit hours awarded shall not exceed the actual hours of instruction verified on the transcript or diploma or the number of hours specified in the board-approved curriculum for a specific topic. Credit may only be given for in-person training.
18VAC41-50-370. Hours of instruction and performances. (Repealed.)
A. Curriculum and performance requirements specified in 18VAC41-50-360 and this section shall be taught over a minimum of 200 clock hours for permanent cosmetic tattooing program and 200 clock hours for a master permanent cosmetic tattooing program.
B. A minimum of 50 performances shall be completed as part of the permanent cosmetic tattooing instruction, including two eyebrow, two microblading procedures, two lip liners, one lip color, and one full lips.
C. A minimum of 60 performances shall be completed as part of the master permanent cosmetic tattooing instruction, including:
|
Lip (cleft lip repigmentation)
|
10
|
|
Areola
|
10
|
|
|
|
|
Blush application
|
10
|
|
Camouflage
|
10
|
|
Scar repigmentation
|
10
|
|
Eyeshadow
|
10
|
D. Completion of performances are determined as follows:
1. Two complete eyebrows constitutes one performance;
2. Two complete eye liners constitutes one performance; and
3. One complete lip liner constitutes one performance.
E. Individuals enrolled in a program prior to July 1, 2022, may complete the program at the hours in effect at the time they enrolled.
18VAC41-50-380. Display of license.
A. The responsible management for each tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo, salon shall, or school must ensure that all current licenses and certificates issued by the board shall be are displayed at the licensee's station or in plain view of the public either in the reception area or at individual work stations of the parlor, salon, or school. Duplicate licenses shall and certificates must be posted in a like similar manner in every parlor or, salon, or school location where the licensee provides services.
B. The responsible management for each tattoo parlor owner or permanent cosmetic tattoo, salon shall, or school must ensure that no licensee, apprentice, or student performs any service beyond the scope of practice for the applicable license.
C. The responsible management for each tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon shall must offer to licensees the full series of Hepatitis B vaccine. [ This requirement applies to any school that receives compensation for services provided in its clinic. ]
D. The responsible management for each tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon shall must maintain a record for each licensee of one of the following:
1. Proof of completion of the full series of Hepatitis B vaccine;
2. Proof of immunity by blood titer; or
3. Written declaration of refusal of the responsible management's offer of a full series of Hepatitis B vaccine.
[ The requirement of this subsection applies to any school that receives compensation for services provided in its clinic. ]
E. All licensees shall must operate under the name in which the license is issued.
18VAC41-50-390. Physical facilities Sanitation and safety standards.
A. A parlor [ or , ] salon [ , or school ] must be located in a permanent building or portion of a building, which structure must be in a location permissible under local zoning codes, if any. If applicable, the A parlor [ or , ] salon [ , or school ] shall must be separated from any living quarters by complete floor to ceiling partitioning and shall must contain no access to living quarters. Mobile parlors and salons must be stationary while providing services and may not operate where prohibited by local ordinance.
B. The parlor, salon, [ school, ] or temporary location shall must be maintained in a clean and orderly manner.
C. All facilities shall must have a blood spill clean-up kit in the work area that contains at minimum latex gloves, two 12-inch-by-12-inch towels, one disposable trash bag, bleach, one empty spray bottle, and one mask with face shield or any Occupational Safety and Health Administration approved blood spill clean-up kit.
D. Work surfaces shall must be cleaned with a U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) registered, hospital grade hospital-grade disinfectant. Surfaces that come in contact with blood or other body fluids shall must be immediately disinfected with an EPA registered EPA-registered germicide solution. Appropriate personal protective equipment shall must be worn during cleaning and disinfecting procedures.
E. Cabinets for the storage of instruments, pigments, single-use articles, stencils, and other utensils shall must be provided for each operator and shall must be maintained in a sanitary manner.
F. Bulk single-use articles shall must be commercially packaged and handled in such a way as to protect them from contamination.
G. All materials applied to the human skin shall must be from single-use articles or transferred from bulk containers to single-use containers and shall must be disposed of after each use.
H. The walls, ceilings, and floors shall must be kept in good repair. The tattooing area shall must be constructed of smooth, hard surfaces that are nonporous, free of open holes or cracks, light colored, and easily cleaned. New parlors [ , salons, and schools ] shall must not include any dark-colored surfaces in the tattooing area. Existing parlors [ or , ] salons [ , or schools ] with dark-colored surfaces in the tattooing area shall must replace the dark-colored surfaces with light-colored surfaces whenever the facilities are extensively remodeled or upon relocation of the business.
I. Parlors, salons, [ schools, ] or temporary locations shall must have adequate lighting of at least 50-foot candles of illumination in the tattooing and sterilization areas.
J. Adequate mechanical ventilation shall must be provided in the parlor.
K. Each parlor, salon, [ school, ] or temporary location shall must be equipped with hand-cleaning facilities for its personnel with unobstructed access to the tattooing area such that the tattooer can return to the area without having to touch anything with the tattooer's hands. Hand-cleaning facilities shall must be equipped either with hot and cold or tempered running water under pressure and liquid germicidal soap or with a sanitizing solution to clean hands. Hand-cleaning facilities shall must be equipped with single-use towels or mechanical hand drying devices and a covered refuse container. Such facilities shall be kept clean and in good repair. All facilities must have running water and soap accessible for cleaning of hands contaminated by body fluids.
L. Animals are not permitted in the parlor, salon, [ school, ] or temporary location, except for guide or service animals accompanying persons with disabilities, or nonmammalian animals in enclosed glass containers, such as fish aquariums, which shall must be outside of the tattooing or sterilization areas. No animals are allowed in the tattooing or sterilization areas.
M. Use of tobacco products and consumption of alcoholic beverages shall must be prohibited in the tattooing or sterilization areas.
N. No food or drink will be stored or consumed in the tattooing or sterilization areas, except for client's use in order to sustain optimal physical condition; such food and drink must be individually packaged.
O. If tattooing is performed where cosmetology services are provided, it shall must be performed in an area that is separate and enclosed.
P. All steam sterilizers shall must be biological spore tested at least monthly.
Q. Biological spore tests shall must be verified through an independent laboratory.
R. Biological spore test records shall must be retained for a period of three years and made available upon request.
S. Steam sterilizers shall must be used only for instruments used by the parlor's employees.
18VAC41-50-400. Tattooer or permanent cosmetic tattooer or master permanent cosmetic tattooer responsibilities.
A. All tattooers shall must provide to the responsible management with one of the following:
1. Proof of completion of the full series of Hepatitis B vaccine;
2. Proof of immunity by blood titer; or
3. Written declaration of refusal of the responsible management's offer of a full series of Hepatitis B vaccine.
B. All tattooers shall must wear clean outer garments, maintain a high degree of personal cleanliness, and conform to hygienic practices while on duty.
C. All tattooers shall must clean their hands thoroughly using hot or tempered water with a liquid germicidal soap or use sanitizing solution to clean hands before and after tattooing and as necessary to remove contaminants.
D. All tattooers must wear single-use examination gloves while assembling tattooing instruments and while tattooing.
E. Each time there is an interruption in the service, the gloves become torn or perforated, or whenever the ability of the gloves to function as a barrier is compromised:
1. Gloves shall must be removed and disposed of; and
2. Hands shall must be cleaned and a fresh pair of gloves used.
F. Tattooers shall must use standard precautions while tattooing. A tattooer diagnosed with a communicable disease shall must provide to the Department of Professional and Occupation Regulation a written statement from a health care practitioner that the tattooer's condition no longer poses a threat to public health.
G. Tattooers with draining lesions on their hands or face will not be permitted to work until cleared by a health care professional.
H. The area of the client's skin to be tattooed shall must be cleaned with an approved germicidal soap according to label directions.
I. Tattooing pigments shall must be placed in a single-use disposable container for each client. Following the procedure, the unused contents and container will be properly disposed of.
J. If shaving is required, razors shall must be single-use. After use, razors shall must be recapped and properly disposed of.
K. Each tattooer performing any tattooing procedures in the parlor or salon shall must have the education, training, and experience, or any combination thereof to practice aseptic technique and prevent the transmission of bloodborne pathogens. All procedures shall must be performed using aseptic technique.
L. Multiuse instruments, equipment, furniture, and surfaces that may be contaminated during the tattooing process should must be covered or wrapped in a nonporous disposable barrier. This barrier should must be removed and disposed of after each service.
M. After the disposable barrier is removed, covered items should must be wiped down with a U.S. Environmental Protection Agency registered disinfectant that is bactericidal, virucidal, and fungicidal.
N. A set of individual, sterilized needles shall must be used for each client. Single-use disposable instruments shall be disposed of in a puncture resistant puncture-resistant container.
O. Used, nondisposable instruments, such as stainless steel tubes, tips, and grips, shall must be kept in a separate, puncture resistant puncture-resistant container until brush scrubbed in hot water soap and then sterilized by autoclaving. Contaminated instruments shall must be handled with disposable gloves.
P. Used nondisposable instruments that are ultrasonically cleaned shall must be rinsed under running hot water prior to being placed in the used instrument container;.
Q. Used nondisposable instruments that are not ultrasonically cleaned prior to being placed in the used instrument container shall must be kept in a germicidal or soap solution until brush scrubbed in hot water and soap and sterilized by autoclaving.
R. The ultrasonic unit shall must be sanitized daily with a germicidal solution.
S. Nondisposable instruments shall must be sterilized and shall be handled and stored in a manner to prevent contamination. Instruments to be sterilized shall must be sealed in bags made specifically for the purpose of autoclave sterilization and shall must include the date of sterilization. If nontransparent bags are utilized, the bag shall must also list the contents.
T. Autoclave sterilization bags with a color code indicator that changes color upon proper sterilization shall must be utilized during the autoclave sterilization process.
U. Nondisposable instruments shall must be placed in the autoclave in a manner to allow live steam to circulate around them.
V. A Sealed sealed, puncture proof puncture-proof dirty tube receptacle with cool, liquid sterilant should must be maintained in the biohazard or cleanup room.
W. Sharps containers should must be located within reach of the tattooing area.
X. Contaminated disposable and single-use items shall must be disposed of in accordance with federal and state regulations regarding disposal of biological hazardous materials.
Y. The manufacturer's written instructions of the autoclave shall must be followed.
18VAC41-50-410. Client qualifications, disclosures, and records.
A. Except as permitted in § 18.2-371.3 of the Code of Virginia, a client must be a minimum of 18 years of age and shall must present at the time of the tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing a valid, government issued government-issued, positive identification card including, such as a driver's license, passport, or military identification. The identification must contain a photograph of the individual and a printed date of birth.
B. The tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer shall must verify and document in the permanent client record the client's age, date of birth, and the type of identification provided.
C. No person may be tattooed or permanent cosmetic tattooed who appears to be under the influence of alcohol or drugs.
D. Tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing shall must not be performed on any skin surface that manifests any evidence of unhealthy conditions, such as rashes, boils, infections, abrasions, or on any asymmetrical, irregular, blurred, or multicolored mole.
E. Before receiving a tattoo or permanent cosmetic tattoo, each client and client's parent or guardian, if applicable, shall must be informed verbally and in writing, using the client disclosure form prescribed by the board, about the possible risk and dangers associated with the application of each tattoo. Signatures of both the client or client's parent or guardian and the tattooer shall must be required on the client disclosure form to acknowledge receipt of both the verbal and written disclosures.
F. The tattoo parlor or temporary location or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon shall must maintain proper records for each client. The information shall must be permanently recorded and made available for examination by the Department of Professional and Occupation Regulation or authorized agent. Records shall must be maintained at the tattoo parlor or permanent cosmetic tattoo salon for at least two years following the date of the last entry. The temporary location client records shall must be maintained by the license holder. The permanent records shall must include the following:
1. The name, address, and telephone number of the client or client's parent or guardian;
2. The date tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing was performed;
3. The client's age, date of birth, and a copy of the positive identification provided to the tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer;
4. The specific color or colors of the tattoo or permanent cosmetic tattoo and, when available, the manufacturer's catalogue or identification number of each color used;
5. The location on the body where the tattooing or permanent cosmetic tattooing was performed;
6. The name of the tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer;
7. A statement that the client or client's parent or guardian has received a copy of applicable written care instructions, and that the client has read and understands the instructions; and
8. The signature of the client and, if applicable, parent or guardian.
18VAC41-50-420. Grounds for license or certificate revocation, suspension or probation; denial of application, renewal, or reinstatement; or imposition of a monetary penalty.
The board may, in considering the totality of the circumstances, fine any licensee or certificate holder and suspend, place on probation, or revoke or refuse to issue, renew, or reinstate any a license or certificate, or deny any application; impose a monetary penalty; place a license or certificate on probation with such terms and conditions and for such time as it may designate; suspend a license or certificate for a stated period of time; or revoke a license or certificate issued under the provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and this chapter if it finds that the licensee, certificate holder, or applicant:
1. Is incompetent or, negligent in tattooing, or incapable mentally or physically, or unable, as a result of any mental or physical condition, as those terms are generally understood in the profession, to skillfully and safely (i) practice as a tattooer, tattooer apprentice, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer or (ii) operate a parlor, permanent cosmetic tattooing salon, or school;
2. Is convicted of fraud or deceit in the practice or teaching of tattooing or, permanent cosmetic tattooing, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing, fails to teach the board-approved curriculum as provided for in this chapter, or fails to comply with 18VAC41-50-280 F when making an assessment of credit hours awarded;
3. Obtained, attempted Attempts to obtain, renewed renew, or reinstated reinstate a license, certificate, or apprentice or temporary license by false or fraudulent representation;
4. Violates or induces others to violate, or cooperates with others in violating, any of the provisions of this chapter or Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or any local ordinance or regulation governing standards of health and sanitation of the establishment in which tattooers, permanent cosmetic tattooers, or master permanent cosmetic tattooers may practice or offer to practice;
5. Offers, gives, or promises anything of value or benefit to any federal, state, or local employee for the purpose of influencing that employee to circumvent, in the performance of that employee's duties, any federal, state, or local law, regulation, or ordinance governing tattooing as defined in § 54.1-700 of the Code of Virginia;
6. Fails to respond to the board or any of its agents or provides false, misleading, or incomplete information to an inquiry by the board or any of its agents;
7. Fails or refuses to allow the board or any of its agents to inspect during reasonable hours any licensed parlor, salon, or school for compliance with provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 54.1-700 et seq.) or this chapter;
8. Fails to produce, upon request or demand of the board or any of its agents, any document, book, record, or copy thereof in a licensee's, certificate holder's, temporary license holder's, apprentice's, applicant's, or responsible management's possession or maintained in accordance with this chapter;
9. Fails to notify the board of a change of name or address in writing within 30 days of the change for each and every license, certificate, or apprentice or temporary license;
10. Makes any misrepresentation or publishes or causes to be published any advertisement that is false, deceptive, or misleading;
11. Fails to notify the board in writing within 30 days of the suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license or certificate in connection with a any final action or disciplinary action taken against a license, apprentice or temporary license, or certificate in any other jurisdiction or of any license or certificate that has been the subject of disciplinary action in any other jurisdiction by a local, state, or national regulatory body;
12. Has been convicted or found guilty, regardless of the manner of adjudication in Virginia or any other jurisdiction of the United States, of [ a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude, sexual offense, non-marijuana drug distribution, or physical injury or ] any felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time for appeal having elapsed. Review of convictions shall be subject to the requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subdivision. The record of a conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction or guilt;
13. Fails to inform the board in writing within 30 days of pleading guilty or nolo contendere or being convicted or found guilty regardless of adjudication of any convictions as stated in subdivision 12 of this section;
14. Allows, as responsible management of a parlor, or salon, or school, a person who has not obtained a license, temporary license, or guest tattooer license to practice as a tattooer, permanent cosmetic tattooer, or master permanent cosmetic tattooer, unless the person is duly enrolled licensed as an apprentice;
15. Allows, as responsible management of a school, a person who has not obtained an instructor certificate or student instructor temporary license to practice as a tattooing or, permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor, or master permanent cosmetic tattooing instructor;
16. Fails to take sufficient measures to prevent transmission of communicable or infectious diseases or fails to comply with sanitary requirements provided for in this chapter or any local, state, or federal law or regulation governing the standards of health and sanitation for the practice of tattooing, or the operation of tattoo parlors or permanent cosmetic tattooing salons; or
17. Fails to comply with all procedures established by the board and the testing service with regard to conduct at any board examination.
NOTICE: The following forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. Amended or added forms are reflected in the listing and are published following the listing. Online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may also click on the name to access a form. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 201 North Ninth Street, Fourth Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
[ FORMS (18VAC41-50)
Tattooer Examination and License Application, A450-1231EXLIC-v17 (rev. 9/2023)
Tattooer Examination and License Application, A450-1231EXLIC-v21 (rev. 1/2026)
Training Verification Form, A450-1213TR-vs1 (eff. 5/2022)
Tattooing Apprenticeship Sponsor Application, A450-12TATSPON-v6 (rev. 9/2023)
Tattooer Apprenticeship Certification Application, A450-TAT_SOA-v3 (rev. 3/2015)
Tattooing Apprenticeship Sponsor Application, A450-12TATSPON-v7 (rev. 1/2026)
Tattooer Apprentice Certification Application, A450-TAPPR_CERT-v6 (rev. 1/2026)
Tattoo Apprenticeship Completion Form, A450-12TAC-v8 (rev. 1/2020)
Tattoo Client Disclosure Form, A450-12TDIS-v3 (rev. 1/2020)
Limited Term Tattooer License Application, A450-1233LIC-v16 (rev. 8/2025)
Limited Term Tattoo Parlor License Application, A450-1235LIC-v14 (rev. 8/2025)
Permanent Cosmetic Tattooer Examination and License Application, A450-1236EXLIC-v16 (rev. 9/2023)
Master Permanent Cosmetic Tattooer Examination and License Application, A450-1237EXLIC-v14 (rev. 9/2023)
License by Endorsement Application, A450-1213END-v20 (rev. 8/2025)
Body Piercing, Tattoo, and Permanent Cosmetic Tattoo Experience Verification Form, A450-12BPTATT_EXP-v2 (rev. 7/2022)
Salon, Shop, Spa, and Parlor License and Reinstatement Application, A450-1213BUS-v19 (rev. 8/2025)
Licensure Fee Notice, A450-1213FEE-v13 (rev. 8/2025)
Instructor Certification Application, A450-1213INST-v21 (rev. 8/2025)
Individuals – Reinstatement Application, A450-1213REI-v16 (rev. 8/2025)
School License Application, A450-1213SCHL-v23 (rev. 8/2025)
School Reinstatement Application, A450-1213SCHL-REIN-v12 (rev. 8/2025)
Tattoo-Body Piercing Universal Application, A450-1231-41ULR-v4 (rev. 8/2025)
Permanent Cosmetic Tattooer Examination and License Application, A450-1236EXLIC-v20 (rev. 1/2026)
Master Permanent Cosmetic Tattooer Examination and License Application, A450-1237EXLIC-v17 (rev. 1/2026)
License by Endorsement Application, A450-1213END-v22 (rev. 1/2026)
Ear-Piercer, Body Piercer, or Tattooer Experience Verification Form, A450-12BPTATT_EXP-v5 (rev. 1/2026)
Salon, Shop, Spa, and Parlor License and Reinstatement Application, A450-1213BUS-v20 (rev. 1/2026)
Licensure Fee Notice, A450-1213FEE-v14 (rev. 1/2026)
Instructor Certification Application, A450-1213INST-v23 (rev. 1/2026)
School License Application, A450-1213SCHL-v25 (rev. 1/2026)
School Reinstatement Application, A450-1213SCHL-REIN-v14 (rev. 1/2026)
Tattoo, Body Piercer, and Ear-Piercer Universal License Recognition Application, A450-1231-41ULR-v5 (rev. 1/2026)
Change of Responsible Management, A450-1213CRM-v8 (rev. 1/2026)
Student Instructor Temporary License Application, A450-1213ST_TEMP-v6 (rev. 1/2026)
Temporary License Application, A450-1213TEMP-v6 (rev. 1/2026)
Guest Tattooer License Application, A450-1233LIC-v17 (rev. 1/2026)
Event Tattoo Parlor Application, A450-1235LIC-v15 (rev. 1/2026) ]
VA.R. Doc. No. R24-7712; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
CEMETERY BOARD
Final
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
CEMETERY BOARD
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC47-20. Cemetery Board Rules and Regulations (amending 18VAC47-20-10, 18VAC47-20-30 through 18VAC47-20-80, 18VAC47-20-100 through 18VAC47-20-140, 18VAC47-20-160, 18VAC47-20-180 through 18VAC47-20-230, 18VAC47-20-250, 18VAC47-20-270, 18VAC47-20-280).
Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-2313 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: December 31, 2025.
Agency Contact: Anika Coleman, Executive Director, Cemetery Board, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-8552, fax (866) 826-8863, email cemetery@dpor.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments revise (i) definitions; (ii) entry qualifications for cemetery company licenses, compliance agents and compliance agent designees, sales personnel registrations, and trustees; (iii) renewal and reinstatement procedures; (iv) standards of practice and conduct for regulants; and (v) standards for approval for training courses.
Changes to the proposed regulation include (i) replacing references to "moral turpitude" with references to "fraudulent or dishonest acts"; (ii) reinstating a requirement that an applicant for a sales personnel registration provide the board with the address of each cemetery for which the applicant would act as sales personnel, which was proposed to be removed; (iii) requiring sales personnel to submit an application to the board and pay a fee for transfer of a registration from one cemetery to another; (iv) reflecting changes regarding renewal of licenses and registrations put in place by an intervening regulatory action; and (v) updating forms.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No public comments were received by the promulgating agency.
18VAC47-20-10. Definitions.
The following words and terms when used in this chapter [ shall ] have the definitions ascribed to them in § 54.1-2310 of the Code of Virginia or [ shall ] have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Administration" means the cost to administer and maintain records required by Chapter 23.1 (§ 54.1-2310 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia or any regulation of the board, including a percentage of compensation of employees, payment of insurance premiums, reasonable payments for employees' pension and other benefit plans, and costs of maintaining cemetery company and sales personnel compliance with the board's licensure and registration requirements.
"Approved training program" means a training program that has been approved by the board to provide training for individuals to act as a compliance agent or compliance agent designee.
"Change in ownership" means a change in 50% or more of the stockholders or partnership interest, or both, of a cemetery company.
"Compliance agent designee" means an individual who [ shall be is ] designated by the cemetery company to assure ensure the compliance of the cemetery company with the provisions of Chapter 23.1 (§ 54.1-2310 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and this chapter when the compliance agent is not available to supervise the activities of any of its affiliated cemeteries.
"Experience" means supervisory experience with a cemetery company as defined in § 54.1-2310 of the Code of Virginia.
"Licensee" means any person licensed by the board as a cemetery company.
"Moral turpitude" means, but is not limited to, lying, cheating or stealing.
"Outer burial container" means any container which that is designed for placement in the grave around the casket including, but not limited to, containers commonly known as burial vaults or grave boxes and grave liners.
"Perpetual care" means continuing care, maintenance, administration, and embellishment of the cemetery.
"Preneed trust fund" means those moneys held in accordance with § 54.1-2325 of the Code of Virginia.
"Principal" means the following individuals:
1. The sole proprietor of a sole proprietorship.
2. The partners of a general partnership.
3. The managing partners of a limited partnership.
4. The officers of a corporation as registered with the State Corporation Commission.
5. The managers of a limited liability company.
6. The officers or directors of an association.
"Reasonably maintain" means the building, grounds, and facilities are safe for use by the public, in good repair, and in compliance with local ordinances.
"Registrant" means any natural person registered with the board as sales personnel.
"Sales personnel" means any natural person employed by or affiliated as an independent contractor with a licensed cemetery company who deals with the public in the sale or offering for sale of any property or services enumerated in the definition of "cemetery company" contained in § 54.1-2310 of the Code of Virginia.
"Services" means any act or activity by the cemetery company in relation to arranging, supervising, interring, or disposing of the remains or commemorating the memory of deceased human beings.
18VAC47-20-30. Qualifications for cemetery company license.
A. Every person applying for a cemetery company license shall must meet all of the requirements outlined in §§ 54.1-2311 and 54.1-2314 of the Code of Virginia as well as the additional qualifications of this section.
B. Each person applying for a cemetery company license and the principals of that firm shall must disclose, at the time the application is submitted, any current or previous cemeteries managed in Virginia or in any other jurisdictions and any disciplinary actions taken against those cemeteries or the individuals managing them. This includes any monetary penalties, fines, or disciplinary actions taken by any federal, state, or local regulatory agencies.
C. In accordance with § 54.1-2314 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall must disclose the following information about the cemetery company and any of the principals of the company:
1. A conviction in any jurisdiction of any felony or any crime of moral turpitude, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time for appeal having elapsed.
2. All misdemeanor convictions involving [ moral turpitude fraudulent or dishonest acts ] within five years of the date the application is submitted.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subsection. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny approval of a cemetery application in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC47-20-35. Qualifications for compliance agents and designees.
A. Every applicant for compliance agent or designee shall must have the following qualifications:
1. Be at least 18 years old of age; and
2. Have two years of experience in the cemetery business and have successfully completed a board approved training course; and
3. Be a full time employee of the cemetery company or is a principal.
B. The applicant shall must disclose any current or previous licenses/registrations licenses or registrations from Virginia or in any other jurisdictions, and any disciplinary actions taken against those licenses/registrations licenses or registrations. This includes, but is not limited to, any monetary penalties, fines, or disciplinary actions taken by any federal, state, or local regulatory agencies. The board, at its discretion, may deny approval of the compliance agent or designee based upon disciplinary actions by any jurisdiction.
C. The applicant shall must disclose any conviction or finding of guilt, regardless of adjudication, in any jurisdiction of the United States of any misdemeanor involving [ moral turpitude fraudulent or dishonest acts ] in the preceding five years or any felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time for appeal having elapsed. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subsection. The record of conviction, finding or case decision shall be considered prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, at its discretion, may deny approval of the compliance agent or designee in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
D. The applicant shall must certify that he the applicant understands and will comply with all the laws of Virginia related to cemetery company licensure under the provisions of Chapter 23.1 (§ 54.1-2310 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and this chapter.
18VAC47-20-40. Qualifications for registration of sales personnel.
A. Cemetery company sales personnel shall must submit an application on a form prescribed by the board and shall must meet the requirements set forth in § 54.1-2314 of the Code of Virginia, as well as the additional qualifications of this section.
B. Every applicant to the board for registration as sales personnel shall must provide his the applicant's name, address, and the license number of the cemetery company he the applicant will be employed by or affiliated with [ , and the address of each cemetery for which ] he [ the applicant will act as sales personnel ].
C. Each applicant for registration as sales personnel shall must disclose, at the time the application is submitted, any current or previous cemetery sales licenses or registrations from Virginia or in any other jurisdictions, and any disciplinary actions taken against those licenses or registrations. This includes any monetary penalties, fines, or disciplinary actions taken by any federal, state, or local regulatory agencies.
D. Each applicant for registration as sales personnel shall must disclose, at the time the application is submitted, the following information:
1. A conviction in any jurisdiction of any felony or any crime of moral turpitude, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time for appeal having elapsed.
2. All misdemeanor convictions involving [ moral turpitude fraudulent or dishonest acts ] within five years of the date the application is submitted.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for purposes of this subsection. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may refuse registration of a sales personnel application in accordance with § 54.1-2314 of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC47-20-50. Concurrent registration permitted; transfer of sales personnel registration prohibited.
A. Sales personnel may be employed by or affiliated with more than one cemetery company, provided that a separate registration is obtained for each such employment or affiliation.
B. A sales personnel registration may not be transferred from one licensed cemetery company to another. [ A registered salesperson may transfer from one licensed cemetery company to another by completing and submitting to the board a transfer application and the fee as set forth in 18VAC47-20-70. ] The registration is void if the registrant is no longer affiliated with the a cemetery company indicated on the original application for registration.
18VAC47-20-60. Qualifications of trustees.
A. The trustee of a perpetual care trust fund or a preneed trust fund, other than a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth, must meet the requirements of this section and shall will be governed by § 54.1-2318 of the Code of Virginia.
B. The trustee applicant shall must be at least 18 years old of age and have a minimum of five two years of experience either as an individual trustee or as an agent for a firm responsible for the management of a trust.
C. Each trustee or trust firm, or both, shall must provide information for the 10 seven years prior to the submission of the application on any outstanding judgments, outstanding tax obligations, or defaults on any bonds directly related to the management of the trust. If the trustee firm or its parent or predecessor organization has, during the previous 10 seven years, been adjudicated a bankrupt or has any proceeding for the relief of debtors, such fact or facts shall must be stated.
D. Each trust firm and principals of the firm shall must disclose, at the time the application is submitted, any current or previous trusts managed in Virginia or in other jurisdictions, and any disciplinary actions taken against these trusts, the trust company, or the individuals managing the trusts. This includes any monetary penalties, fines, or disciplinary actions taken by any federal, state, or local regulatory agencies.
E. The trustee must meet the bonding requirements set forth in §§ 54.1-2317 and 54.1-2326 of the Code of Virginia as applicable.
F. In accordance with §§ 54.1-2317 and 54.1-2326 of the Code of Virginia, each trustee shall must disclose the following information about the trust firm or principals of the firm:
1. A conviction in any jurisdiction of any felony;.
2. All misdemeanor convictions involving [ moral turpitude fraudulent or dishonest acts ] within five years of the date the application is submitted.
Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purposes of this chapter. The record of a conviction received from a court shall be accepted as prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt. The board, in its discretion, may deny approval of a trustee application in accordance with § 54.1-2317 or § 54.1-2326 of the Code of Virginia.
[ 18VAC47-20-70. Application fees.
A. Application fees are nonrefundable.
|
Cemetery company license
|
$580 per cemetery
|
|
Addition of cemetery
|
$580 per cemetery
|
|
Sales personnel registration or transfer of sales personnel registration
|
$60 per cemetery
|
B. For sales personnel registration applications received between August 1, 2024, and July 31, 2026, the application fee is as follows:
|
Sales personnel registration or transfer of sales personnel registration
|
$40 per cemetery ]
|
18VAC47-20-80. Renewal required.
Licenses and registrations issued under this chapter shall will expire two years from the last day of the month in which they were issued, as indicated on the license or registration.
18VAC47-20-100. Procedures for renewal.
Renewal of licenses and registrations shall must be on forms prescribed by the board. The Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation will notify the licensee or registrant of impending license expiration.
Failure to receive this notification does not relieve the licensee or regulant of the obligation to renew.
18VAC47-20-110. Reinstatement required.
A. If the requirements for renewal of a license or registration, including receipt of the fee by the board, are not complete within 30 days of the license or registration expiration date, the licensee or registrant shall will be required to reinstate the license or registration by meeting all renewal requirements and paying the reinstatement fee specified in 18VAC47-20-140.
B. A license or registration may be reinstated for up to one year five years following the expiration date with payment of the renewal and reinstatement fee. After one year five years, the license or registration may not be reinstated under any circumstances and the applicant must meet all current requirements and apply as a new applicant.
C. Any activity requiring a license or registration conducted subsequent to the expiration may constitute unlicensed or unregistered activity and be subject to prosecution under Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC47-20-120. Status of licensee or registrant during the period prior to reinstatement.
A. When a license or registration is reinstated, the license or registration shall will continue to have the same number and shall will be assigned an expiration date two years from the previous expiration date of last day of the month in which the license or registration was reinstated.
B. A licensee or registrant who reinstates his the applicable license or registration shall will be regarded as having been continuously licensed or registered without interruption. Therefore, the licensee or registrant shall will remain under the disciplinary authority of the board during this entire period and may be held accountable for his the person's activities during this period.
C. A licensee or registrant who fails to reinstate his the applicable license or registration shall will be regarded as unlicensed from the expiration date of the license or registration forward.
18VAC47-20-130. Board discretion to deny renewal or reinstatement.
A. The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of a license or registration for the same reasons as it the board may refuse initial licensure or registration or discipline a licensee or registrant.
B. The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of a license or registration if the applicant has not fully paid monetary penalties, satisfied sanctions and paid costs imposed by the board, plus any accrued interest.
18VAC47-20-140. Renewal and reinstatement fees.
A. All fees required by the board are nonrefundable. The date on which the fee is received by the department or its agent shall will determine whether the licensee or registrant is eligible for renewal or reinstatement or must reapply as a new applicant.
|
Renewal of cemetery company license
|
$580 per cemetery
|
|
Renewal of sales personnel registration
|
$60 per cemetery
|
|
Reinstatement of cemetery company license
|
$580 per cemetery
|
|
Reinstatement of sales personnel registration
|
$60 per cemetery
|
B. For renewal and reinstatement fees received between August 1, 2024, and July 31, 2026, the fees are as follows:
|
Renewal of cemetery company license
|
$285 per cemetery
|
|
Renewal of sales personnel registration
|
$30 per cemetery
|
|
Reinstatement of cemetery company license
|
$370 per cemetery
|
|
Reinstatement of sales personnel registration
|
$45 per cemetery
|
18VAC47-20-160. Maintenance of license and registration.
A. Any change in the name and address of each cemetery in Virginia in which the cemetery company has a business interest, the name and address of all any officers and or directors of the cemetery company, the registered agent for the cemetery company, or the compliance agent must be reported to the board in writing within 30 days after the change as required by § 54.1-2311 of the Code of Virginia. A new license shall will be required if there is a change in ownership of the cemetery company or whenever the legal business entity holding a cemetery company license is dissolved or altered to form a new business entity.
B. A cemetery company wishing to add a cemetery to its license shall must complete a form provided by the board and submit the fee as prescribed in 18VAC47-20-70. Both the cemetery company and the cemetery being added to the registration must meet the requirements found in Chapter 23.1 (§ 54.1-2301 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and 18VAC47-20-30. Sales personnel of the new cemetery will be required to register in accordance with 18VAC47-20-40.
C. Any change in the name and home address of any registrant must be reported to the board in writing within 30 days after the change.
D. The board shall will not be responsible for the licensee's or registrant's failure to receive notices, communications and, or correspondence caused by the licensee's or registrant's failure to promptly notify the board of any change of address.
E. Sales personnel shall will be issued a registration to the compliance agent at the place of business of the licensed cemetery company with which the registrant is affiliated or at which the registrant is employed. When any registrant is discharged or in any way terminates his the registrant's employment or affiliation with a licensed cemetery company, or when the cemetery company's license is suspended or revoked, it shall will be the duty of the compliance agent to return the registration to the board within 10 30 calendar days of the date of such discharge or termination.
18VAC47-20-180. Records of interments.
A permanent record shall must be kept of every interment in the cemetery, showing the date of the interment, and the name of the person interred, together with information identifying the specific location in which the interment was made. For interments made pursuant to § 54.1-2312.01 of the Code of Virginia, the permanent records shall must also include the type and name of the pet interred and the name of the owner with information identifying the specific location in which the pet interment was made.
[ 18VAC47-20-190. Prohibited activities.
In addition to the acts set forth in §§ 54.1-2314, 54.1-2315, and 54.1-2316 of the Code of Virginia, the board may discipline a licensee or registrant for the following acts:
1. Employing or affiliating with by independent contract, sales personnel not registered with the board.
2. Unless otherwise addressed in this chapter, failing to retain for a period of three years all records required by this chapter or Chapter 23.1 (§ 54.1-2310 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia at the place of business in Virginia of the licensed cemetery company.
3. Failing to produce to the board or any of its agents, upon request, any document, book, or record required by this chapter or Chapter 23.1 (§ 54.1-2310 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia.
4. Failing to respond to an inquiry by the board or any of its agents within 21 days.
5. Advertising in any name other than the name in which licensed or registered.
6. Furnishing substantially inaccurate or incomplete information to the board in obtaining, renewing, reinstating, or maintaining a license or registration.
7. Allowing a cemetery company license or sales personnel registration to be used by an unlicensed cemetery company or unregistered sales personnel.
8. Acting as or being an ostensible licensee for undisclosed persons who do or will control or direct, directly or indirectly, the operations of the licensee's business.
9. Having failed to inform the board in writing, within 30 days, that the company, an officer, director, or compliance agent has pleaded guilty or nolo contendere or was convicted and found guilty of any felony or any crime involving moral turpitude fraudulent or dishonest acts.
10. Having failed to inform the board in writing, within 30 days, of a disciplinary action in a jurisdiction where licensed, including suspension, revocation, or surrender in connection with a disciplinary action.
11. Failing to reasonably maintain the buildings, grounds, and facilities of a cemetery licensed to a cemetery company.
12. Failing to file any report required by Chapter 23.1 of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia.
13. Engaging in negligent, improper, fraudulent, or dishonest conduct.
14. Failing to segregate entirely the section of the cemetery dedicated to the interment of pets or the interment of human remains and the pets of such deceased humans by means such as hedge, wall, tree line, fence, roadway, or other similar physical barrier or boundary.
15. Permitting the interment of an uncremated pet in the same grave, crypt, or niche as the remains of a human.
16. If a cemetery company has a section devoted to the interment of pets or the interment of human remains and the pets of such deceased humans, any advertisements failing to clearly state the cemetery company has such section or sections in its cemetery.
17. Failing to clearly mark the section or sections devoted to the interment of pets or the interment of human remains and the pets of such deceased humans with signage that is reasonably apparent to the general public. ]
18VAC47-20-200. Perpetual care trust fund and bonding requirement.
A. Each licensed cemetery company shall must establish a perpetual care trust fund in accordance with § 54.1-2316 of the Code of Virginia.
B. If the trustee for the perpetual care trust fund is other than not a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth, the trustee shall must be approved by the board and shall must deposit a fidelity bond in accordance with § 54.1-2317 of the Code of Virginia.
C. Deposits into the fund shall must be made in accordance with §§ 54.1-2319 through 54.1-2321 of the Code of Virginia.
D. The income from the perpetual care trust fund shall must be used in accordance with § 54.1-2322 of the Code of Virginia.
E. Each licensed cemetery company shall must submit written financial reports regarding perpetual care trust funds to the board as prescribed by §§ 54.1-2323 and 54.1-2324 of the Code of Virginia.
F. Transfer of funds to another trustee shall must be done in accordance with § 54.1-2337 of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC47-20-210. Preneed trust fund and bonding requirements.
A. Each licensed cemetery company shall must establish a preneed trust fund and make deposits in accordance with § 54.1-2315 § 54.1-2325 of the Code of Virginia.
B. If the trustee for the preneed trust fund is other than not a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth, the trustee shall must be approved by the board and shall must deposit a fidelity bond with the board in accordance with § 54.1-2326 of the Code of Virginia.
C. Deposits into the fund shall must be made in accordance with § 54.1-2325 of the Code of Virginia.
D. All funds shall must be handled in accordance with §§ 54.1-2329 through 54.1-2331 of the Code of Virginia.
E. Each licensed cemetery company shall must submit a written financial report regarding preneed trust accounts to the board as prescribed by § 54.1-2333 of the Code of Virginia.
F. Transfer of funds to another trustee shall must be done in accordance with § 54.1-2337 of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC47-20-220. Itemized statement and general price list of burial fees to be furnished.
Cemetery companies shall furnish A. Each cemetery company must maintain a written general price list and a written itemized statement of goods and services they provide that the cemetery company provides. This itemized statement shall must include, but is not limited to, burial vaults and other burial receptacles, other merchandise, facilities used, and other professional services. Prices for merchandise may be stated as a range of values. Prices for services must be specific for each type of service, including any difference in prices based on the day or time the service is provided. This list shall must be set forth in a clear and conspicuous manner.
The B. In accordance with § 54.1-2327 A of the Code of Virginia, the general price list shall must be available in writing to individuals inquiring in person about burial arrangements or the prices of property or services. In addition, upon beginning a discussion of burial arrangements or the selection of any property or services, the general price list shall be offered by the cemetery property.
C. Prior to execution of any contract, cemetery companies shall must provide the general price list and itemized statement of goods and services to the individual or individuals entering the contract. The contract shall must include an acknowledgment signed by the individual or individuals and the cemetery sales personnel stating the cemetery company provided the general price list and itemized statement of goods and services to the individual or individuals prior to the execution of the contract.
18VAC47-20-230. Preneed burial contracts.
A. All preneed burial contracts must be made on forms prescribed by the board in accordance with § 54.1-2328 of the Code of Virginia and must contain the following disclosures:
1. Identifies the seller, seller's license number, contract buyer, and person for whom the contract is purchased if other than the contract buyer;
2. Contains a complete description of the property or services purchased;
3. Clearly discloses whether the price of the property and services purchased are guaranteed;
4. States, for funds required to be trusted pursuant to § 54.1-2325 of the Code of Virginia, the amount to be trusted and the name of the trustee;
5. Contains the name, address, and telephone number of the board and lists the board as the regulatory agency which that handles consumer complaints;
6. Provides that any purchaser who makes payment under the contract may terminate the agreement within three days of execution and that such purchaser shall be refunded all consideration paid or delivered, less amounts paid for any property or supplies that have been delivered;
7. Provides that if the particular property or services specified in the contract are unavailable at the time of delivery, the seller shall be required to furnish property or services similar in size and style and at least equal in quality of material and workmanship and that the representative of the deceased shall have the right to choose the property or services to be substituted, which shall must be at least equal or reasonably equivalent in quality of material, workmanship, and cost;
8. Discloses any additional costs that the purchaser may be required to pay at-need, including the disclosure of the cost of opening and closing the grave;
9. Complies with all disclosure requirements imposed by the board;
10. Is executed in duplicate and Provides a signed copy given to the buyer; and
11. Provides that the contract buyer shall have has the right to change the contract provider at any time prior to the furnishing of the property or services, excluding any mausoleum crypt or garden crypt, contracted for under the preneed burial contract. If the contract seller will not be furnishing the property and services to the purchaser, the contract seller shall must attach to the preneed burial contract a copy of the seller's agreement with the provider.
B. Any preneed burial contract sold or offered by any cemetery company or agent with a trust fund deposit of less than 100% shall be required to must include the following printed statement in capitalized letters, in 10-point, bold-faced type:
THIS PRENEED BURIAL CONTRACT REQUIRES THE PLACEMENT IN TRUST OF A MINIMUM OF 40% OF THE FUNDS INCLUDED IN THIS CONTRACT. THE BALANCE OF FUNDS MAY BE USED FOR CARE AND MAINTENANCE OF THE CEMETERY AND ARE NOT REQUIRED TO BE PLACED IN TRUST.
C. Each seller of a preneed burial contract shall must file with the board, upon request, a detailed account of all contracts and transactions regarding preneed burial contracts in accordance with § 54.1-2332 of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC47-20-250. Compliance agent or designee conduct.
Each cemetery company and cemetery affiliated with a cemetery company shall must be supervised by a compliance agent or designee. The compliance agent or designee shall must exercise reasonable and adequate supervision of the provision of services by employees of the cemetery company. Factors to be considered in determining whether the supervision is reasonable and adequate include, but are not limited to, the following:
1. The availability of the compliance agent or designee to all cemetery company employees and to the public to answer questions within a reasonable time pertaining to the operation of the cemetery company.
2. The availability of training and written procedures and policies that provide, without limitation, clear guidance in the following areas:
a. Required deposits for the perpetual care trust fund;
b. Required deposits for the preneed trust fund;
c. Proper handling of preneed burial contracts;
d. Proper handling of deposits to the perpetual care trust fund;
e. Proper handling of deposits to the preneed trust fund;
f. Interment records;
g. Itemized statement of goods and services provided;
h. General price list;
i. Advertising;
j. Solicitation;
k. j. Proper care, maintenance, administration, and embellishment of the cemetery; and
l. k. Such other matters as necessary to assure ensure the competence of licensees and registrants to comply with this chapter and Chapter 23.1 (§ 54.1-2310 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC47-20-270. Standards of approval of training course.
All training courses shall must be approved by the board. The training course shall must be at least four two hours and include appropriate testing procedures to demonstrate an understanding of the topics. The training program shall must include, but is not limited, to the following topics:
1. Cemetery Board statute and regulations;
2. Perpetual care trust fund requirements;
3. Preneed trust fund requirements;
4. Preneed burial contracts;
5. Interment records;
6. General price list;
7. Itemized statement of goods and services provided;
8. Advertising;
9. Solicitation;
10. Funeral rule; and
11. 9. Proper care, maintenance, administration, and embellishment of the cemetery.
18VAC47-20-280. Special interment requirement.
A licensed cemetery company may establish a section in its cemetery devoted to the interment of pets or the interment of human remains and the pets of such deceased humans in accordance with § 54.1-2312.01 of the Code of Virginia. All other provisions of this chapter shall apply.
NOTICE: The following forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. Amended or added forms are reflected in the listing and are published following the listing. Online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may also click on the name to access a form. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 201 North Ninth Street, Fourth Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
[ FORMS (18VAC47-20)
Cemetery Company and Personnel Forms
Cemetery Company License Application, 4901LIC-v2 (rev. 1/2014)
Cemetery Company Renewal or Reinstatement Application, A462-4901RENREI-v12 (rev. 8/2024)
Sales Personnel Registration Form, A462-4903REG-v5 (rev. 8/2024)
Compliance Agent Designee Application, A462-49CAD-v2 (rev. 6/2016)
Compliance Agency, Officer, or Director Change Form, A462-49ADO CHG-v2 (rev. 6/2016)
Cemetery Company License Application, A462-4901LIC-v6 (eff. 12/2025)
Cemetery Company Renewal or Reinstatement Application, A462-4901RENREI-v13 (eff. 12/2025)
Sales Personnel Registration Form, A462-4903REG-v6 (eff. 12/2025)
Compliance Agent Designee Application, A462-49CAD-v4 (eff. 12/2025)
Compliance Agent, Officer, or Director Change Form, A462-49ADO_CHG-v4 (eff. 12/2025)
Cemetery Addition Form, 4901ADD-v3 (rev. 1/2014)
Cemetery Salesperson Personnel Transfer Application, A462-4903SPTR-v1 (eff. 12/2025)
Perpetual Care Forms
Perpetual Care Fidelity Bond Form, 49PCFBND-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Perpetual Care Trust Fund Financial Report, 49PCTFR-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Perpetual Care Trust Fund Financial Report Instructions, 49PCTINS-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Perpetual Care Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule A (Statement of Receipts and Expenses), 49PCTFRA-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Perpetual Care Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule B (Statement of Required Deposits), 49PCTFRB-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Perpetual Care Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule C (Statement of Expenses Incurred for the General Care, Maintenance, Embellishment, and Administration of Cemeteries), 49PCTFRC-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Perpetual Care Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule D (Statement of Investment Securities), 49PCTFRD-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Perpetual Care Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule E (Cemeteries Covered by Trust Fund), 49PCTFRE-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Preneed Forms
Preneed Burial Contract (undated)
Preneed Fidelity Bond Form, 49PFBND-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Preneed Trust Fund Financial Report, 49PTFR-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Preneed Trust Fund Financial Report Instructions, 49PTINS-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Preneed Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule A (Statement of Receipts and Expenses), 49PTFRA-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Preneed Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule B (Statement of Financial Deposits), 49PTFRB-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Preneed Trust Fund Financial Report - Schedule C (Statement of Investment Securities), 49PTFRC-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Trustee Forms
Perpetual Care Trust Fund Trustee Verification, 49TRVER-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Trustee Approval Application, 49TRAPP-v1 (rev. 9/2013)
Trustee Approval Application, A462-49TRAPP-v4 (eff.12/2025)
New Trustee Transfer of Funds Notification Form, 4901NEWTR-v1 (rev. 9/2013) ]
VA.R. Doc. No. R24-7843; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
COMMON INTEREST COMMUNITY BOARD
Final
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
COMMON INTEREST COMMUNITY BOARD
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC48-60. Common Interest Community Association Registration Regulations (amending 18VAC48-60-13, 18VAC48-60-15, 18VAC48-60-17, 18VAC48-60-25, 18VAC48-60-55, 18VAC48-60-60; adding 18VAC48-60-16).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2349 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: December 31, 2025.
Agency Contact: Anika Coleman, Executive Director, Common Interest Community Board, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-8510, fax (866) 490-2723 or email cic@dpor.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments revise (i) the definitions section; (ii) timeframes for filing association annual reports; (iii) minimum information required in an annual report filing; (iv) registration renewal requirements; (v) requirements for reporting changes to a registration; and (vi) provisions related to payment of registration fees.
Changes to the proposed regulation (i) remove a provision stating that checks and money orders must be made out to the Treasurer of Virginia and (ii) update forms.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No public comments were received by the promulgating agency.
18VAC48-60-13. Definitions.
A. Section § 54.1-2345 of the Code of Virginia provides definitions of the following terms and phrases used in this chapter:
"Association"
"Board"
"Common interest community"
"Governing board"
B. Section § 55.1-1800 of the Code of Virginia provides definitions of the following terms and phrases used in this chapter:
"Property owners' association"
C. Section § 55.1-2100 of the Code of Virginia provides definitions of the following terms and phrases used in this chapter:
"Proprietary lessees' association"
D. The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise a different meaning is provided or is plainly required by the context:
"Annual report" means the proper filing with the board of a completed, board-prescribed form submitted with the appropriate fee, and other required documentation for registration or renewal of an association.
"Association" means the same as the term is defined in § 54.1-2345 of the Code of Virginia.
"Board" means the same as the term is defined in § 54.1-2345 of the Code of Virginia.
"Common interest community" means the same as the term is defined in § 54.1-2345 of the Code of Virginia.
"Contact person" means the individual designated by an association to receive communications and notices from the board on behalf of the association.
"Governing board" means the same as the term is defined in § 54.1-2345 of the Code of Virginia.
"Property owners' association" means the same as the term is defined in § 55.1-1800 of the Code of Virginia.
"Proprietary lessees' association" means the same as the term is defined in § 55.1-2100 of the Code of Virginia.
"Registration" means the proper filing of an annual report with the board by an association and issuance of a certificate of filing by the board to an association in accordance with § 54.1-2349 A 8 of the Code of Virginia.
"Renew" means the process of filing an annual report with the board for continuance of a registration.
18VAC48-60-15. Timeframe for association registration and annual report.
A. Within 30 days after the date of termination of the declarant control period, an association governing a condominium shall the meaning and intent of § 55.1-1835 of the Code of Virginia, a property owners' association must register with the board by filing the an annual report required by § 55.1-1980 of the Code of Virginia within 30 days of recordation of the declaration and shall file an annual report every year thereafter.
B. Within 30 days after the date of termination of the declarant control period, a proprietary lessees' association shall an association governing a condominium must register with the board by filing the annual report required by § 55.1-2182 § 55.1-1980 of the Code of Virginia and shall file an annual report every year thereafter.
C. Within the meaning and intent of § 55.1-1835 of the Code of Virginia, a property owners' association shall 30 days after the date of termination of the declarant control period, a proprietary lessees' association must register with the board by filing an the annual report within 30 days of recordation of the declaration required by § 55.1-2182 of the Code of Virginia and shall file an annual report every year thereafter.
18VAC48-60-16. Designation of association contact person; certification of association complaint procedure.
A. An association must include the following information on an annual report:
1. The name and contact information of the contact person for the association.
2. The name and contact information of a governing board member authorized by the association to receive correspondence related to notices of final adverse decision from the Office of the Common Interest Community Ombudsman.
B. An association must certify with each annual report filing that it has adopted an association complaint procedure in accordance with the Common Interest Community Ombudsman Regulations (18VAC48-70) and that such procedure is in effect.
18VAC48-60-17. Association registration expiration and renewal.
A. An association registration shall will expire one year 12 months from the last day of the month in which it was issued.
B. Prior to the expiration date on the registration, the board shall mail will send a renewal notice to the registered association's contact person named in the board's records. Failure to receive a renewal notice from the board does not relieve the association of the obligation to renew by filing the annual report with the applicable fee.
C. Each association shall will renew its registration by filing an annual report with the board, including payment of renewal fee established in 18VAC48-60-60. A registration shall be renewed and considered current upon Upon receipt and processing by the board office of the completed annual report along with the renewal fee pursuant to 18VAC48-60-60, the registration will be renewed and considered current.
D. An association that does not renew registration within 12 months after expiration of the registration may not renew and must submit a new common interest community association registration application by filing the annual report and applicable registration fee.
E. The governing board of an association that fails to comply with registration requirements in this chapter may be subject to action by the board in accordance with 18VAC48-60-14 D C.
18VAC48-60-25. Maintenance of registration.
An association shall must notify the board office, in writing, within 30 days of any of the following:
1. Change of address of contact person information;
2. Change of governing board member authorized by the association pursuant to 18VAC48-60-16 A 2;
3. Change of members of the governing board; and
3. 4. Any other changes in information reported on the association's annual report.
18VAC48-60-55. Fees, generally.
All fees are nonrefundable and shall will not be prorated. The date on which the fee is received by the board or its agent will determine whether the fee is on time. [ Checks or money orders ] shall [ must be made payable to the Treasurer of Virginia. ]
18VAC48-60-60. Registration and renewal fees.
The following fee schedule is based upon the number of lots or units subject to the declaration for each association. Each association filing its first annual report shall must also pay the assessment required by § 54.1-2354.5 B of the Code of Virginia. The phrase "lots or units subject to the declaration," as used in this section, means any lots or units in a development to which the provisions of the recorded declaration, as amended, for the common interest community are applicable.
|
Number of Lots or Units
|
Registration Fee
|
Renewal Fee
|
|
1 - 50
|
$45
|
$30
|
|
51 - 100
|
$65
|
$50
|
|
101 - 200
|
$100
|
$80
|
|
201 - 500
|
$135
|
$115
|
|
501 - 1000
|
$145
|
$130
|
|
1001 - 5000
|
$165
|
$150
|
|
5001+
|
$180
|
$170
|
NOTICE: The following forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. Amended or added forms are reflected in the listing and are published following the listing. Online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may also click on the name to access a form. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 201 North Ninth Street, Fourth Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
[ FORMS (18VAC48-60)
Common Interest Community Association Registration Application, A492-0550REG-v8 (rev. 7/2020)
Common Interest Community Association Annual Report Form, A492-0550ANRPT-v10 (rev. 7/2020)
Common Interest Community Association Registration Application, A492-0550REG-v9 (eff. 12/2025)
Common Interest Community Association Annual Report Form, A492-0550ANRPT-v12 (eff. 12/2025)
Common Interest Community Association Contact Person/Management Change Form, A492-0550POCCHG-v3 (eff. 11/2019)
Common Interest Community Association Contact Person/Management Change Form, A492-0550POCCHG-v4 (eff. 12/2025)
Common Interest Community Association Governing Board Change Form, A492-0550GBCHG-v2 (eff. 11/2019) ]
VA.R. Doc. No. R24-7709; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF DENTISTRY
Notice of Extension of Emergency Regulation
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD OF DENTISTRY
Notice of Extension of Emergency Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC60-21. Regulations Governing the Practice of Dentistry (amending 18VAC60-21-350; adding 18VAC60-21-55).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-2400 of the Code of Virginia.
The Governor has approved the request of the Board of Dentistry to extend the expiration date of the emergency regulation for 18VAC60-21 for six months as provided for in § 2.2-4011 D of the Code of Virginia. Therefore, the emergency regulation is continued in effect through May 4, 2026. This extension is required in order for the board to complete the process of replacing the emergency regulation with a permanent regulation. The emergency regulation was published in 40:20 VA.R. 1763-1764 May 20, 2024.
Effective Date Extended Through: May 4, 2026.
Agency Contact: Jamie Sacksteder, Executive Director, Board of Dentistry, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 300, Henrico, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-4581, FAX (804) 698-4266, or email jamie.sacksteder@dhp.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R24-7739; Filed September 30, 10:54 a.m.
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR HEARING AID SPECIALISTS AND OPTICIANS
Final
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR HEARING AID SPECIALISTS AND OPTICIANS
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC80-30. Opticians Regulations (amending 18VAC80-30-10, 18VAC80-30-20, 18VAC80-30-30, 18VAC80-30-50 through 18VAC80-30-180; adding 18VAC80-30-190; repealing 18VAC80-30-40).
Statutory Authority: § 54.1-201 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Kelley Smith, Executive Director, Board for Hearing Aid Specialists and Opticians, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-8590, fax (866) 245-9693, or email hasopt@dpor.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments (i) limit consideration of misdemeanor convictions as a reason to revoke, suspend, or refuse to grant or renew a license to those that occurred within three years of the date of application; (ii) discontinue the requirement of duplicate licenses and license copies displayed at branch offices be notarized; (iii) increase to 60 days the timeframe for reporting a change of name or address; (iv) update the criteria used for technical instruction courses for optician apprenticeships; (v) revise the definitions sections; (vi) update entry requirements; (vii) clarify renewal and reinstatement provisions; (viii) update standards of practice and conduct; and (ix) revise provisions related to board-approved reinstatement courses and apprenticeships.
Changes to the proposed regulation include (i) adding a provision requiring applicants to provide an email address to allow for additional methods of receiving correspondence from the board; (ii) allowing for a paperless licensing process; (iii) removing a document incorporated by reference; and (iv) updating forms.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: No public comments were received by the promulgating agency.
18VAC80-30-10. Definitions.
A. Section 54.1-1500 of the Code of Virginia provides definitions of the following terms and phrases as used in this chapter:
"Board"
"Licensed optician"
"Licensed optometrist"
"Licensed physician"
"Optician"
B. The following words and terms when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Active practice" means engaging in the practice of opticianry.
"Apprentice" means a person at least 16 years of age who is covered by a written agreement with an employer and approved by the Virginia Apprenticeship Council.
"Board" means the Board for Hearing Aid Specialists and Opticians.
"Contact lens endorsed optician" means any person not exempted by § 54.1-1506 of the Code of Virginia who is a Virginia licensed optician and who has received a contact lens endorsement from the board, who fits contact lenses on prescription from licensed physicians or licensed optometrists for the intended wearers.
"Department" means the Virginia Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.
"Fit or dispense" means to measure, adapt, fit, or adjust eyeglasses, spectacles, lenses, or appurtenances to the human face, or to verify the prescription to be correct in the prescription eyeglasses or prescription optical devices.
"Licensed optician" means any person who is the holder of a license issued by the board.
"Optician" means any person not exempted by § 54.1-1506 of the Code of Virginia who prepares or dispenses eyeglasses, spectacles, lenses, or related appurtenances for the intended wearers or users on prescriptions from licensed physicians or licensed optometrists, or as duplications or reproductions of previously prepared eyeglasses, spectacles, lenses, or related appurtenances; or who, in accordance with such prescriptions, duplications or reproductions, measures, adapts, fits, and adjusts eyeglasses, spectacles, lenses, or appurtenances to the human face.
"Opticianry" means the personal health service that is concerned with the art and science of ophthalmic optics as applied to the compounding, filling, and adaptations of ophthalmic prescriptions, products, and accessories.
18VAC80-30-20. Qualifications of applicant.
An applicant for a license shall must furnish satisfactory evidence on an application provided by the board establishing that:
1. The applicant is at least 18 years of age unless emancipated under the provisions of § 16.1-333 of the Code of Virginia;
2. The applicant is a graduate of an accredited high school, has completed the equivalent of grammar school and a four-year high school course, or is a holder of a certificate of general educational development;
3. The applicant is in good standing as a licensed optician in every jurisdiction where licensed. The applicant must disclose to the board at the time of application for licensure any disciplinary action taken in Virginia and all other jurisdictions in connection with the applicant's practice as an optician. This includes monetary penalties, fines, suspensions, revocations, surrender of a license in connection with a disciplinary action, or voluntary termination of a license.
Upon review of the applicant's prior disciplinary action, the board, in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant who the board deems unfit or unsuited to engage in opticianry. The board will decide each case by taking into account the totality of the circumstances. Any plea of nolo contendere or comparable plea will be considered a disciplinary action for the purposes of this section. The applicant must provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court, regulatory agency, or board with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy will be admissible as prima facie evidence of such disciplinary action;
4. The applicant has not been convicted in any jurisdiction of a misdemeanor or felony In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant must disclose the following information regarding criminal convictions in Virginia and all other jurisdictions:
a. Misdemeanor convictions involving sexual offense or physical injury, or any felony involving drug distribution or that directly relates to the profession of opticianry. The board shall have the authority to determine, based upon all the information available, including the applicant's record of prior convictions, if the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the profession of opticianry. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purposes of this subdivision. The licensee shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree, or case decision by a court or regulatory agency with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree, or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction. This record shall be forwarded by the licensee to the board occurred within 10 days after all appeal rights have expired three years of the date of application; and
b. Felony convictions involving sexual offense, physical injury, drug distribution, or felony convictions involving the profession of opticianry.
The record of a conviction authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted is admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction or guilt. The board has the authority to determine, based upon all the information available, including the applicant's record of prior convictions, if the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the profession of opticianry;
5. The applicant has successfully completed one of the following education requirements:
a. A board-approved two-year course in a school of opticianry, including the study of topics essential to qualify for practicing as an optician; or
b. A two-year apprenticeship, including all required related technical instruction, while registered in the apprenticeship program in accordance with the standards established by the state Department of Labor Workforce Development and Industry Advancement, Division of Registered Apprenticeship, and approved by the board;
6. The applicant has disclosed his the applicant's current mailing address [ and email address ]. A post office box may be provided as a secondary [ mailing ] address;
7. The nonresident applicant for a license has filed and maintained with the department an irrevocable consent for the director of the department to serve as service agent for all actions filed in any court in the Commonwealth; and
8. The applicant shall must certify, as part of the application, that the applicant has read and understands Chapter 15 (§ 54.1-1500 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and the regulations of the board.
18VAC80-30-30. Opticians licensed in another state Licensure by endorsement.
A. An optician licensed in another state seeking to be licensed as an optician in Every applicant for Virginia shall submit an application on a form provided by the board with the required fee. All fees are nonrefundable and shall not be prorated licensure through endorsement who is currently licensed as an optician in good standing in another jurisdiction must provide information upon application establishing that the requirements and standards under which the license was issued are substantially equivalent to and not in conflict with the provisions of this chapter. The applicant must file the application for endorsement and pay a fee to the board.
B. The board, using the following standards, shall will issue a license to any person licensed in another state who:
1. Has met requirements equivalent to those listed in subdivisions A 1 through A 5 of 18VAC 80-30-20; and
2. Has passed a substantially equivalent examination.
18VAC80-30-40. Registration for voluntary practice by out-of-state licensees. (Repealed.)
Any optician who does not hold a license to practice in Virginia and who seeks registration in accordance with subdivision 5 of § 54.1-1506 of the Code of Virginia shall:
1. File a complete application for registration on a form provided by the board within 15 days prior to engaging in such practice. An incomplete application will not be considered;
2. Provide a complete list of professional licensure in each state in which he has held a license and a copy of any current license;
3. Provide a name of the nonprofit organization, the dates and location of the voluntary provision of services; and
4. Provide a notarized statement from a representative of the nonprofit organization attesting to its compliance with the provisions of subdivision 5 of § 54.1-1506 of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC80-30-50. Fees.
A. The fee for examination or examinations shall consist of the combination of an administrative charge of $25 (spectacle), $25 (contact lens), and will be the appropriate contract charges to the board by an outside vendor. Examination service contracts shall will be established in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). The total examination fee shall will not exceed a the cost of $1,000 to the applicant.
B. All application fees for licenses are nonrefundable and the date of receipt by the board or its agent is the date which will be used to determine whether it the fee is on time.
C. Application and examination fees must be submitted with the application for licensure.
The following fees [ shall ] apply:
|
FEE TYPE
|
AMOUNT DUE
|
WHEN DUE
|
|
Application for licensure
|
$100
|
With application
|
|
Application for contact lens certification
|
$100
|
With application
|
|
Renewal
|
$100
|
Up to the expiration date on the license with a 30-day grace period
|
|
Late renewal (includes renewal fee)
|
$125
|
Between 30 and 60 days after the expiration date on the license
|
|
Reinstatement (includes renewal and late renewal fees)
|
$225
|
After 60 days following the expiration date on the license
|
18VAC80-30-60. Examinations.
A. All examinations required for licensure shall must be approved by the board and administered by the board, or its agents or employees acting on behalf of the board.
B. The board shall will schedule an examination to be held at least twice each calendar year at a time and place to be designated by the board.
C. The applicant shall must follow all rules established by the board with regard to conduct at an examination. Such rules shall include any written instructions communicated prior to the examination date and any instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date of the examination. Failure to comply with all rules established by the board with regard to conduct at an examination shall will be grounds for denial of application.
18VAC80-30-70. Content of optician examination and reexamination.
A. Applicants for licensure shall must pass a written examination and a practical examination approved by the board. An applicant must pass the written and practical examination within two years of the initial test date. After two years, the applicant must file a new application and pay the required fee. Any applicant who fails the written or practical examination will be required to be reexamined on the failed examination and pay the reexamination fee.
B. The optician examination given by the board may will include, but is not limited to, the following topics:
1. Ophthalmic materials;
2. Ophthalmic optics and equipment;
3. Ophthalmic spectacle lens grinding;
4. Prescription interpretation;
5. Theory of light;
6. Finishing, fitting, and adjusting of eyeglasses and frames;
7. Ethics of relationship in respect to patient and physician or optometrist;
8. Anatomy and physiology; and
9. Applicable laws and regulations.
C. Any applicant who fails the written or practical examination, or both examinations, shall be required to be reexamined on the failed examination(s) and shall pay the reexamination fee(s).
D. An applicant shall pass the written and practical examination within two years of the initial test date. After two years, the applicant shall file a new application and pay the required fee.
18VAC80-30-80. Endorsement to fit contact lenses.
The board shall will administer a contact lens examination to fit contact lenses. The "Contact Lens" endorsement shall will be mandatory for licensed opticians to fit contact lenses as set out in §§ 54.1-1508 and 54.1-1509 of the Code of Virginia, and the contact lens endorsement shall will not be issued unless the individual's license is in good standing. A contact lens endorsed optician is any Virginia licensed optician who has been endorsed by the board to fit contact lens.
18VAC80-30-90. Content of contact lens endorsement examination and reexamination.
A. The contact lens endorsement examination administered by the board may will include, but is not limited to, the following topics:
1. Rigid lens verification;
2. Lens identification;
3. Keratomy Keratometry;
4. Slit lamp;
5. Slides (fitting patterns, edge patterns, quality stains); and
6. Insertion/removal Insertion and removal.
B. Any applicant who fails the written or practical contact lens examination, or both examinations, who desires to retake the examination(s), shall be required to be reexamined on the failed examination(s) and shall pay the reexamination fee(s).
C. B. An applicant shall must pass the written and practical examination approved by the board within two years of the initial test date. After two years, the applicant shall must file a new application and pay the required fee.
18VAC80-30-100. License renewal required.
A. Licenses issued under this chapter shall will expire 24 months from the last day of the month in which the license was issued.
B. The board shall will [ mail send ] a renewal [ application form notice ] to the licensee at the last known mailing address. Failure to receive this notice does not relieve the licensee of the obligation to renew. Prior to the expiration date shown on the license, each licensee desiring to renew his a license must return [ all of the required forms and ] the appropriate fee to the board as outlined in 18VAC80-30-50. If the licensee fails to receive the renewal notice, a copy of the existing license shall be submitted to the board with the required fee.
C. [ Licensees ] shall [ will be required to renew ] their [ the license by submitting the appropriate fee made payable to the Treasurer of Virginia. ] Any licensee who fails to renew within 30 days after the license expires shall must pay a late renewal fee, in addition to the renewal fee, as set out in 18VAC80-30-50.
D. The board, in its discretion and for just cause, may deny renewal of a license. Upon Before such denial, the applicant for renewal may request that a proceeding be held in accordance with the provision of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
18VAC80-30-110. Reinstatement required.
A. If a licensee fails to renew [ his a ] license within 60 days after the expiration date on the license, the licensee must apply for reinstatement on a form provided by the board.
1. Individuals applying for reinstatement shall must continue to meet the standards of entry as set out in subdivisions 1 through 8 3 and 4 of 18VAC80-30-20.
2. Individuals applying for reinstatement shall must submit the required fee as set out in 18VAC80-30-50.
B. Twenty-four months after the expiration of the license, the individual may be reinstated if he the individual can show proof of continuous, active, ethical, and legal practice outside of Virginia. If not, the individual must show proof of completion of a board-approved review course which that measures current competence. Credit will not be allowed for any review reinstatement course which that has not been approved by the board prior to administration of the course.
C. Sixty months after the expiration of the license, the individual, who cannot show proof of continuous, active, ethical, and legal practice outside of Virginia, shall will be required to apply as a new applicant for licensure. He shall The individual will be required to meet all current education requirements and retake the board's written and practical examination examinations.
D. The board, in its discretion and for just cause, may deny reinstatement of a license. Upon Before such denial, the applicant for reinstatement may request that a proceeding be held in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
E. A licensee who reinstates [ his a ] license shall will be regarded as having been continually licensed without interruption. Therefore, the licensee shall will remain under the disciplinary authority of the board during the entire period and may be held accountable for [ his the licensee's ] activities during this period. Nothing in [ these regulations shall divest this chapter divests ] the board of its authority to discipline a licensee for a violation of the law or regulations during the period of licensure as set out in this provision.
18VAC80-30-120. Lenses and frames standards.
A. Power Tolerance for single vision and multifocal lenses (diopters).
|
Sphere: Plano to ±.6.50
|
±.13 0.13 diopter
|
|
Above Stronger than ±.-6.50
|
±2.0%
|
|
Cylinder: Plano to -2.00
|
±.13 0.13 diopter
|
|
-2.12 > -2.00 to -4.50
|
±.15 0.15 diopter
|
|
above Greater than -4.50
|
±4.0%
|
B. Power tolerance for progressive addition lenses (diopters).
|
Sphere: Plano to ±8.00
|
±0.16 diopter
|
|
Stronger than ±8.00
|
±2.0%
|
|
Cylinder: Plano to -2.00
|
±0.16 diopter
|
|
> -2.00 to -3.50
|
±0.18 diopter
|
|
Greater than -3.50
|
±5.0%
|
B. C. Cylinder axis.
|
Cyl. Power Diopters
|
Degrees ±
|
|
0.12 - 0.37 -0.12 to -0.25
|
7° ±14°
|
|
>-0.25 to -0.50
|
±7.0°
|
|
0.50 - 0.75 >-0.50 to -0.75
|
±5.0°
|
|
0.87 - 1.50 >-0.75 to -1.50
|
±3.0°
|
|
1.62 and above Greater than -1.50
|
±2.0°
|
C. Distance Optical Center. Contribution to net horizontal prism from processing should not exceed 2/3 prism diopter. A maximum of ±2.5mm variation from the specified distance optical center is permissible in higher power lens combinations.
D. Prism reference point location and power tolerances (Vertical). Contribution to imbalance from processing The prismatic power measured at the prism reference point should not exceed 1/3 prism diopters. A maximum of or the prism reference point shall not be more than 1.0 mm difference in vertical level is permissible in higher power lens combinations away from its specified position in any direction.
E. Prismatic imbalance tolerance in mounted single vision and multifocal eyewear.
|
Refractive Power
|
Tolerance
|
|
Plano to ±3.375D
|
No more than 0.33 prism diopters vertically
|
|
Greater than ±3.375D
|
No more than 1.0 mm difference in height of PRP
|
|
Plano to ±2.75D
|
No more than 0.67 prism diopters horizontally
|
|
Greater than ±2.75D
|
No more than 2.5 mm from specified interpupillary distance
|
F. Prismatic imbalance tolerance in mounted progressive addition lens eyewear.
|
Refractive Power
|
Tolerance
|
|
Plano to ±3.375D
|
No more than 0.33 prism diopters vertically
|
|
Greater than ±3.375D
|
No more than 1.0 mm difference in height of PRP
|
|
Plano to ±3.375D
|
No more than 0.67 prism diopters horizontally
|
|
Greater than ±3.375D
|
No more than 1.0 mm from specified monocular pupillary distance
|
G. Segment Location and fitting cross vertical location and segment tilt.
|
Multifocals:
|
Tolerance
|
|
Vertical Segment height for each lens
|
±.-1.0 mm
|
|
Horizontal Difference between segments heights in mounted pair
|
±.2.5 mm ±1.0 mm
|
|
Progressive Addition Lenses:
|
|
|
Fitting Cross height for each lens
|
±1.0 mm
|
|
Difference between fitting cross heights in mounted pair
|
±1.0 mm
|
|
Horizontal tilt for each lens using permanent reference
markings
|
±2.0 degrees
|
Tilt or twist in the case of a flat-top segment, the tilt of its horizontal axis should be less than 1/2 mm in differential elevation between the segment edges.
F. H. Multifocal Additions and Progressive Addition Lens Addition Power Tolerances.
|
Plano + 8.00 Nominal Value of Addition Power
|
±.13 diopter 0.00 to ±4.00D
|
+4.00D and above
|
|
Above + 8.00 Tolerance on Addition Power
|
±.18 diopter ±0.12
|
±0.18
|
G. I. Base curve tolerance. When specified, the base curve should be supplied within ±0.75 diopter.
H. Warpage. The cylindrical surface power induced in the base curve of a lens should not exceed 1 diopter. This recommendation need not apply within 6mm of the mounting eyewire.
I. J. Center thickness tolerance. When specified, the center thickness should be within ±0.3 mm measured at the prism reference point of the convex surface.
K. Localized errors (aberration). Areas outside a 20mm radius 30mm diameter from the specified major distance reference point or optical center within 6mm from the edge need not be tested for aberration local power errors or aberrations. Progressive addition lenses are exempt from this requirement.
L. Prescription dress eyewear impact resistance. All lenses must conform to the impact resistance requirements of 21 CFR 801.410.
M. Axis of polarization. The actual plan of transmittance shall be at 90 ± 3.0 degrees from the intended direction of horizontal orientation of polarization marking.
18VAC80-30-130. Contact lens standards.
To fit contact lenses, the following shall must be done:
1. The prescription (RX) must show evidence that contact lenses may be worn by the patient before the prescription can be filled by the licensed contact lens endorsed optician. Verbal approval from the optometrist or ophthalmologist or its agents or employees of the optometrist or ophthalmologist is acceptable. The licensed contact lens endorsed optician must make a notation in the patient's record of the name of the authorizing optometrist or ophthalmologist and the date of the authorization.
2. The optician must use all the following to fit contact lenses:
a. Slit Lamp;
b. Keratometer and topographer; and
c. Standardized Snellen type acuity chart.
18VAC80-30-140. Display of license.
Every person to whom a current license has been granted under this chapter shall must visibly display his the unaltered license in a conspicuous place in plain view of the public in the principal office in which he the person works. A duplicate clear and legible copy of the license which has been notarized shall must be posted in any branch offices.
18VAC80-30-150. Notification of change of address or name.
Notice in writing shall must be given to the board in the event of any change of name [ or , mailing ] address [ , or email address ]. Such notice shall must be mailed submitted to the board within 30 60 days of the change of name or address. The board shall will not be responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices, communications, and correspondence caused by the licensee's failure to promptly notify the board in writing of any change of name or address.
18VAC80-30-160. Grounds for disciplinary action.
A. The board is empowered to revoke, suspend, or refuse to grant or renew a license and is empowered to impose a fine up to the statutory limit, as authorized under § 54.1-202 of the Code of Virginia, per violation on a licensee for any of the following reasons:
1. Using nonprescribed controlled substances as defined in § 54.1-3401 of the Code of Virginia or alcohol at the work place during working hours;
2. 1. Displaying professional incompetence or negligence, including failure to comply with this part chapter in the performance of opticianry;
3. 2. Presenting false or fraudulent information on an application certifying possession of the qualifications required under 18VAC80-30-20;
4. 3. Violating or inducing others to violate any provisions of Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), 3 (§ 54.1-300 et seq.), or 15 (§ 54.1-1500 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or of any other statute applicable to the practice of the profession herein regulated by this chapter, or of any provisions of this chapter;
5. 4. Publishing or causing to be published any advertisement related to opticianry that is false, deceptive, or misleading;
6. 5. Having been convicted in any jurisdiction of a misdemeanor involving sexual offense or physical injury in the last three years or a felony involving sexual offense, or physical injury, or of any felony involving drug distribution, or that directly relates to crimes involving the profession of opticianry. The board shall have has the authority to determine, based upon all the information available, including the applicant's record of prior convictions, if the applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in the profession of opticianry. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purposes of this section. The licensee shall provide a certified copy of a final order, decree or case decision by a court or regulatory agency with the lawful authority to issue such order, decree or case decision, and such copy shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such conviction. This record shall be forwarded by the licensee to the board within 10 days after all appeal rights have expired;
7. 6. Having been disciplined by another jurisdiction in the practice of opticianry. Documentary evidence of such discipline shall must be submitted by the licensee to the board within 10 days after all appeal rights have expired; or
8. 7. Allowing any person to engage in the practice of opticianry, except an optician apprentice or student enrolled in a course in a school of opticianry under the direct supervision of a licensed optician.
B. A finding of improper or dishonest conduct in the practice of the profession by a court of competent jurisdiction shall be is cause for disciplinary action.
18VAC80-30-170. Accountability of licensee.
A licensee shall be is responsible for his the licensee's acts or omissions and for the acts of his the licensee's agents or employees or his the licensee's staff in the performance of opticianry services.
18VAC80-30-180. Approval of review Board-approved reinstatement courses.
A. Review Reinstatement courses set out in this chapter shall must be approved by the board, except those provided by institutions, schools, and universities approved by the State Council of Higher Education for Virginia, for which continuing education units are awarded. Training Reinstatement courses requiring board approval shall must be approved by the board in accordance with the provisions of this section prior to commencing in accordance with subsection B of this section.
B. Training activities for which experience credit may be granted must be conducted in general conformance with the International Association for Continuing Education and Training's "Criteria and Guidelines for Quality Continuing Education and Training Programs: the CEU and Other Measurement Units," 1998. The board reserves the right to waive any of the requirements of the association's guidelines on a case-by-case basis. Only classroom, laboratory and field trip contact time will be used to compute training credits. No credit will be given for breaks, meals, or receptions.
1. Organization. The board will only approve training offered by a sponsor who is an identifiable organization with a mission statement outlining its functions, structure, process and philosophy, and that has a staff of one or more persons with the authority to administer training.
2. Training records. The board will only approve training offered by a sponsor who maintains training records for all participants for a minimum of five years, and who has a written policy on retention and release of training records.
3. Instructors. The board will only approve training conducted by personnel who have demonstrated competence in the subject being taught, an understanding of the learning objective, a knowledge of the learning process to be used, and a proven ability to communicate.
4. Objectives. The board will only approve courses that have a series of stated objectives that are consistent with the job requirements of an optician. The training content must be consistent with those objectives.
5. Course completion requirements. For successful completion of a training program, participants must attend 90% or more of the class contact time and must demonstrate their learning through written examinations, completion of a project, self-assessment, oral examination, or other assessment technique.
C. B. The board shall will consider the following information, to be submitted by the instructor, institution, school, or university on forms provided by the board, at least 45 days prior to the scheduled training activity:
1. Course information.
a. Course title;
b. Planned audience;
c. Name of sponsor;
d. Name, address, phone and telephone number of contact person;
e. Schedule presentation dates;
f. Detailed, hour-by-hour course schedule, hour-by-hour;
g. List of planned breaks;
h. Scheduled presentation location(s) location; and
i. Relevancy Relevance of course to opticianry licensing topics listed in 18VAC80-30-70.
2. Instructor qualifications.
a. Name of instructor;
b. Title of instructor; and
c. Summary of qualifications to teach this course.
3. Training materials.
a. Course objectives -- A listing of the course objectives stated in terms of the skills, knowledge, or attitude the participant will be able to demonstrate as a result of the training;
b. Course outline -- A detailed outline showing the planned activities that will occur during the training program, including major topics, planned presentation sequence, laboratory and field activities, audio-visual presentations, and other major activities;
c. Course reference materials -- A list of the name, publisher, and publication date for commercially available publications; for reference materials developed by the course sponsor or available exclusively through the course, a copy of the reference materials;
d. Audio-visual support materials -- A listing of any commercially available audio-visual support material that will be used in the program; a brief description of any sponsor sponsor-generated or instructor generated instructor-generated audio-visual material that will be used; and
e. Handouts -- Identification of all commercially available handout material that will be used; copies of all other planned handouts.
4. Determination of successful completion. A description of the means that will be used to determine the successful completion of the training program by individual attendees, such as examinations, projects, personal evaluations by the instructor, or other recognized evaluation techniques.
D. C. Recurring training programs. If there are plans to present the same course of instruction routinely at multiple locations with only minor modifications and changes, the board may approve the overall program rather than individual presentations if so requested by the sponsor.
1. The board shall will consider all of the information listed above in subsection B of this section, except those items related to specific offerings of the course.
2. Board approval may be granted for a specific period of time or for an indefinite period.
3. Board approval will apply only to those specific offerings certified by the sponsoring organization as having been conducted by instructors meeting the established criteria and in accordance with the board-approved courses, outlines, and objectives.
4. To maintain approval of the program, changes made to the program since initial approval must be submitted to the board for review and approval. Changes must be approved by the board prior to any training subsequent to the changes.
18VAC80-30-190. Criteria for related technical instruction.
A. Related technical instruction courses for optician apprenticeships set out in this chapter must be approved by the board. Training institutions must meet the following criteria for related technical instruction.
1. Course Information. The curriculum must, at a minimum, teach to the American Board of Opticianry – National Contact Lens Examiners (ABO - NCLE) National Opticianry Competency Examination (NOCE) Content Outline and Test Specifications (https://www.abo-ncle.org/ABONCLE/ABONCLE/Exams/Basic-Exams.aspx).
2. Training Material.
a. Course objectives: a listing of the course objectives stated in terms of the skills, knowledge, or aptitude the participant will be able to demonstrate as a result of the instruction;
b. Course description: a detailed description showing the major topics, planned presentation sequence, activities, audio-visual presentations, and other major activities;
c. Required course materials: a list of the name, publisher, and publication date for commercially available publications or, for reference materials developed by the program or available exclusively through the course, a copy of the reference material to be used by the participant; and
d. Modality of instruction.
3. Evidence satisfactory to the board that the related technical instruction meets the minimum of 144 hours for each year of the two-year apprenticeship.
4. List of references used in course content development.
5. List of individuals, including qualifications, used in course content development.
6. List of review criteria used to ensure course content is current with ABO-NCLE NOCE Content Outline and Test Specifications.
7. A description of the means that will be used to determine the successful completion of the related technical instruction program by individuals, such as examinations, projects, personal evaluations, or other recognized evaluation techniques.
B. To maintain approval of the program, the curriculum must be submitted to the board for review and approval:
1. Every five years; or
2. Thirty days prior to any substantive changes to the requirements found in subsection A of this section.
NOTICE: The following forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. Amended or added forms are reflected in the listing and are published following the listing. Online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may also click on the name to access a form. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 201 North Ninth Street, Fourth Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
[ FORMS (18VAC80-30)
License and Examination Application, 11LIC (rev. 2004).
Contact Lens Endorsement Application, 11CLEND (rev. 2004).
Reciprocity Application, 11REC (eff. 2004).
Reinstatement Application, 11REI (rev. 2004).
Voluntary Practice Registration Application, 11VOLREG (eff. 7/03).
Sponsor Certification for Voluntary Practice Registration, 11VRSPCERT (eff. 7/03).
Opticians Examination and License Application, A448-11EXLIC-v13 (rev. 12/2025)
Contact Lens Endorsement Application, A448-11CLEND-v6 (rev. 12/2025)
Opticians License Reinstatement Application, A448-11REI-v6 (rev. 12/2025)
Opticians Universal License Recognition Application, A448-11ULR-v2 (rev. 12/2025) ]
[ DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE (18VAC80-30)
Criteria and Guidelines for Quality Continuing Education and Training Programs: the CEU and Other Measurement Units, International Association for Continuing Education and Training, 1998 No document is currently incorporated by reference into this regulation. ]
VA.R. Doc. No. R24-7491; Filed October 29, 2025
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR WATERWORKS AND WASTEWATER WORKS OPERATORS AND ONSITE SEWAGE SYSTEM PROFESSIONALS
Final
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR WATERWORKS AND WASTEWATER WORKS OPERATORS AND ONSITE SEWAGE SYSTEM PROFESSIONALS
Final Regulation
Title of Regulation: 18VAC160-30. Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators Licensing Regulations (amending 18VAC160-30-10 through 18VAC160-30-240, 18VAC160-30-260 through 18VAC160-30-370; adding 18VAC160-30-95, 18VAC160-30-235, 18VAC160-30-255, 18VAC160-30-265, 18VAC160-30-275; repealing 18VAC160-30-250).
Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-2301 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 16, 2026.
Agency Contact: Cameron Parris, Regulatory Operations Administrator, Department of Occupational and Professional Regulation, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-9183, fax (866) 350-5354, or email cameron.parris@dpor.virginia.gov.
Summary:
The amendments revise (i) entry requirements for waterworks and wastewater works operators, (ii) continuing education requirements for renewal of licenses, (iii) requirements for board approval of training courses, and (iv) standards of practice and conduct.
Changes to the proposed regulation include (i) revising provisions relating to applicant address requirements to allow for a paperless licensing system; (ii) removing a specific instruction that checks or money orders be made payable to the Treasurer of Virginia; (iii) clarifying that board-approved training courses may be delivered in person; (iv) revising application requirements for board-approved training courses to require that providers submit "contact information" for the training provider, instead of specifying "telephone number or email address"; and (v) providing additional technical and stylistic changes.
Summary of Public Comments and Agency's Response: A summary of comments made by the public and the agency's response may be obtained from the promulgating agency or viewed at the office of the Registrar of Regulations.
18VAC160-30-10. Definitions.
A. Section 54.1-2300 of the Code of Virginia provides definitions of the following terms and phrases as used in this chapter:
"Board"
"Onsite sewage system"
"Operator"
"Owner"
"Wastewater works"
"Waterworks"
B. The following words, terms, and phrases when used in this chapter shall have the following meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:
"Address of record" means the address designated by the licensee to receive notices and correspondence from the board.
"Applicant" means an individual who submits has submitted an application with the appropriate fee and other required documentation for licensure.
"Application" means a completed, board-prescribed form submitted with the appropriate fee and other required documentation.
"Category" means a profession under the board's purview, which includes waterworks and wastewater works as applicable to the licensure of waterworks and wastewater works operators.
"Classification" means the division within each category of license as it relates to the classified facility. Class 1 represents the highest classification for each category of license.
"Contact hour" means 50 minutes of participation in a structured training activity.
"Department" means the Virginia Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.
"DEQ" means the Virginia Department of Environmental Quality.
"Direct supervision" means being immediately available and fully responsible for the provision of waterworks and wastewater works operation regulated pursuant to Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia and this chapter.
"Direct supervisor" means a licensed waterworks or wastewater works operator who assumes the responsibility of direct supervision.
"Licensee" means an individual holding a valid license issued by the board.
"Licensure" means a method of regulation whereby the Commonwealth, through the issuance of a license, authorizes a person possessing the character and minimum skills to engage in the practice of a profession or occupation that is unlawful to practice without such license.
"Maintenance" or "maintain" means performing adjustments to equipment and controls and in-kind replacement and cleaning of normal wear and tear parts such as light bulbs, fuses, filters, pumps, motors, or other like components. Maintenance includes pumping the tanks or cleaning the building sewer on a periodic basis.
"Master alternative onsite sewage system operator" means an individual licensed by the board who possesses the minimum skills and competency to operate and maintain conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems.
"Operate" means the act of (i) placing into or taking out of service a unit process or unit processes or (ii) making or causing adjustments in the operation of a unit process at a waterworks or wastewater works.
"Renewal" means the process and requirements for periodically approving the continuance of a license.
"Training credit" means a unit of board-approved training or formal education completed by an individual that may be used to substitute for experience when applying for a license.
"Treatment works" means any device or system used in the storage, treatment, disposal, or reclamation of sewage or combinations of sewage and industrial wastes including pumping power and other equipment and appurtenances, septic tanks, and any works, including land, that are or will be (i) an integral part of the treatment processes or (ii) used for ultimate disposal or residues or effluent resulting from such treatment.
"VDH" means the Virginia Department of Health.
18VAC160-30-20. Application procedures.
A. All applicants seeking licensure shall will submit an application with the appropriate fee specified in 18VAC160-30-40. Application shall will be made on forms provided by the board or its agent.
1. By submitting the application to the department, the applicant certifies that the applicant has read and understands the applicable statutes and the board's regulations.
2. The receipt of an application and the deposit of fees by the board does not indicate approval of the application by the board.
B. The board may make further inquiries and investigations with respect to the applicant's qualifications to confirm or amplify information supplied. All applications shall must be completed in accordance with the instructions contained in this chapter and on the application. Applications will not be considered complete until all required documents are received by the board. An No applicant will not be permitted to sit for the applicable board-approved examination until the application is complete and approved.
C. The applicant will be notified within 30 days of the board's receipt of an initial application if the application is incomplete. An individual who fails to complete the application process within 12 months of receipt of the application in the board's office must submit a new application. An applicant has 12 24 months from approval of the application to pass the board-approved examination. Failure to pass the board-approved examination within 12 24 months of approval will result in the applicant being required to submit a new application to be considered for licensure.
D. The applicant shall must immediately report all changes in information supplied with the application, if applicable, prior to issuance of the license or expiration of the application or examination period.
18VAC160-30-30. General fee requirements.
All fees are nonrefundable and shall will not be prorated. The date on which the fee is received by the department or its the department's agent will determine whether the fee is on time. [ Checks or money orders ] shall [ must be made payable to the Treasurer of Virginia. ]
18VAC160-30-40. Fee schedule.
Fees for a waterworks operator or a wastewater works operator license are as provided in this section.
|
Fee Type
|
Fee Amount
|
When Due
|
|
Initial application (for each profession, class, and category of license)
|
$100
|
With application
|
|
Renewal (for each profession, class, and category of license)
|
$80
|
With renewal application
|
|
Reinstatement (for each profession, class, and category of license)
|
$105 (renewal fee + $25 reinstatement fee)
|
With reinstatement application
|
For wastewater works operator licenses expiring on February 28, 2018, and waterworks operator licenses expiring on February 28, 2019, the renewal fee shall be $50. For reinstatement applications received after February 28, 2018, and on or before February 29, 2020, the total reinstatement fee shall be $75.
18VAC160-30-50. Examination fee.
The fee fees for examination or reexamination is all examinations are subject to charges to the department by an outside vendor based on a contract entered into in compliance with the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). Fees may be adjusted and charged to the candidate in accordance with this contract.
18VAC160-30-60. General requirements for licensure.
A. In addition to the specific qualifications for each category and classification of licensure, each applicant for licensure shall must meet the requirements provided in this section.
1. B. The applicant shall must be at least 18 years old of age.
2. C. The applicant shall disclose the applicant's must provide [ a mailing an ] address, which will serve as the address of record. A post office box is only acceptable as a mailing the address of record when a physical address is also provided.
3. D. In accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia, each applicant shall must disclose the following information.
a. 1. All felony convictions that occurred within 20 years of the date of application.
b. 2. All misdemeanor convictions involving lying, cheating, or stealing, except marijuana convictions, in any jurisdiction that occurred within three years of the date of application.
Any plea of nolo contendere or finding of guilt regardless of adjudication or deferred adjudication shall be considered a conviction for the purposes of this section. The record of conviction certified or authenticated in such form as to be admissible in evidence under the laws of the jurisdiction where convicted shall be admissible as prima facie evidence of such guilt.
B. The board, at in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant in accordance with § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. The applicant has the right to request further review of any such action by the board under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et. seq. of the Code of Virginia).
C. E. The applicant shall must report any suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license, certification, or registration in connection with a disciplinary action or that has been the subject of discipline in any jurisdiction prior to applying for licensure action taken by any board or administrative body in any jurisdiction against a professional or occupational license, certification, or registration issued to the applicant, to include any suspension, revocation, or surrender of a license, certification, or registration, imposition of a monetary penalty, or requirement to take remedial education or other corrective action. The board, at in its discretion, may deny licensure to any applicant based on prior suspensions, revocations, or surrenders of licenses based on disciplinary action by for any prior action taken by any board or administrative body in any jurisdiction. The applicant has the right to request further review of any such action by the board under the Administrative Process Act.
F. The applicant for licensure must be in compliance with the standards of conduct and practice set forth in Part VI (18VAC160-30-290 et seq.) of this chapter at the time of application, while the application is under review by the board, and at all times when the license is in effect.
18VAC160-30-70. Examination procedures and conduct.
A. Upon approval of the application, the board will notify the applicant of his the applicant's eligibility to take the applicable examination. The license will not be issued prior to receipt of a passing score for the applicable examination.
B. An applicant who does not receive a passing score within one year 24 months after the date of approval of the application by the board to sit for the examination, must submit a new application and meet the entry requirements in effect at the time of submittal of the new application.
C. The applicant shall must follow all rules established by the board with regard to conduct at the examination. Such rules shall include all written instructions communicated prior to the examination date and all instructions communicated at the site, either written or oral, on the date of examination. Failure to comply with all rules established by the board and the testing organization with regard to conduct at the examination may be grounds for denial of the application, or voiding of examination scores, or any combination thereof.
D. The passing examination score received by an applicant for the category and class of license for which the applicant has applied is valid for a period of 10 years from the date of the examination.
18VAC160-30-80. Individuals certified or licensed in another jurisdiction.
An applicant holding a valid an active, current license or certificate in another jurisdiction who meets the requirements of this chapter, including having equivalent experience and education, shall must pass a board-approved examination to become licensed.
18VAC160-30-90. License required.
A. No individual shall serve as the operator of will operate a waterworks or wastewater works without possessing a valid category of license issued by the board in a classification equal to or greater than the classification of the applicable waterworks or wastewater works.
B. An individual cannot simultaneously hold two licenses of different classifications in the same category.
C. Experience used to qualify for licensure must be obtained under the direct supervision of an operator holding a valid license of the same category and of a classification equal to or higher than the classification of the waterworks or wastewater works at which the experience was gained.
D. Experience operating and maintaining water distribution systems shall only be considered for Class 5 or Class 6 waterworks operator license applicants.
E. Experience limited solely to the operation and maintenance of wastewater collection systems, laboratory work, plant maintenance, and other nonoperating duties shall not be counted as experience as an operator or an operator-in-training.
F. B. Provisional licensure alone shall will not authorize an individual to serve as the operator of operate a classified waterworks or wastewater works facility.
18VAC160-30-95. Qualifying experience.
A. Experience used to qualify for licensure must be obtained under the direct supervision of an operator holding a valid license of the same category and of a classification equal to or higher than the classification of the waterworks or wastewater works at which the experience was gained.
B. The direct supervisor must certify the applicant's experience on the application as accurate and relevant to the classification and category of license for which licensure is sought. In the event that a licensed operator is not available to certify the experience of the applicant, the experience may be certified by a representative of the facility owner with first-hand knowledge of the applicant's experience.
C. Experience operating and maintaining water distribution systems will only be considered for Class 5 or Class 6 waterworks operator license applicants.
D. Experience limited solely to nonoperating duties will not be counted as experience as an operator or an operator-in-training.
E. The board will accept an applicant's experience obtained in a previously unclassified wastewater treatment facility that has recently been classified as requiring a licensed Class 3 or Class 4 operator, provided that (i) the application includes verification from the appropriate DEQ regional office that the operator license requirement is a new requirement and (ii) the applicant's experience is verified by the owner of the facility.
18VAC160-30-100. Full-time experience or equivalent.
For the purposes of this part, experience requirements are expressed in terms of calendar periods of full-time employment as an operator or as an operator-in-training at a waterworks or wastewater works in the same category for which licensure is sought pursuant to this chapter.
1. A year of full-time employment is defined as a minimum of 1,760 hours during a 12-month period or a minimum of 220 workdays in a 12-month period. A workday is defined as attendance at a waterworks or wastewater works to the extent required for proper operation. More than 1,760 hours or 220 workdays during a 12-month period will not be considered as more than one year of full-time employment.
2. Partial credit may be given for actual hours of work experience if the applicant works as an operator or as an operator-in-training less than full time.
18VAC160-30-110. Qualifications for examination approval.
A. An applicant for licensure as a waterworks or wastewater works operator [ shall must ] furnish acceptable documentation that one of the following qualifications has been met.
|
TABLE 1 Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operator Experience and Education
|
|
Classes
|
Education Required
|
Current License
|
Minimum Experience
|
Facility Type
|
Experience with Substitutions
|
|
Class 6 (Waterworks Operator Only)
|
High school diploma or GED equivalent
|
N/A
|
Six Three months
|
Class 6 or higher facility
|
N/A
|
|
No high school diploma or GED equivalent
|
N/A
|
One year Six months
|
Class 6 or higher facility
|
N/A
|
|
|
|
Class 5 (Waterworks Operator Only)
|
High school diploma or GED equivalent
|
N/A
|
Six Three months
|
Class 5 or higher facility
|
N/A
|
|
No high school diploma or GED equivalent
|
N/A
|
One year Six months
|
Class 5 or higher facility
|
N/A
|
|
|
|
Class 4
|
High school diploma or GED equivalent
|
N/A
|
Six months
|
Class 4 or higher facility
|
N/A
|
|
No high school diploma or GED equivalent
|
N/A
|
One year
|
Class 4 or higher facility
|
N/A Six months
|
|
|
|
Class 3
|
Bachelor's or, master's, or associate's degree
|
N/A
|
Six months
|
Class 4 or higher facility
|
N/A Three months
|
|
Associate's degree
|
N/A
|
Nine months
|
Class 4 or higher facility
|
Six months
|
|
High school diploma or GED equivalent
|
N/A
|
One year
|
Class 4 or higher facility
|
Six months
|
|
No high school diploma or GED equivalent
|
Class 4 license N/A
|
Three One and one-half years
|
Class 3 4 or higher facility
|
One and one-half years Nine months
|
|
|
|
Class 2
|
Bachelor's or, master's, or associate's degree
|
N/A
|
One year
|
Class 3 or higher facility
|
Six months
|
|
Associate's degree
|
N/A
|
18 months
|
Class 3 or higher facility
|
Nine months
|
|
High school diploma or GED equivalent
|
N/A
|
Two years
|
Class 3 or higher facility
|
One year
|
|
No High school diploma or GED equivalent
|
Class 3 license
|
Five Three years
|
Class 2 3 or higher facility
|
Three One and one-half years
|
|
|
|
Class 1
|
Bachelor's or, master's, or associate's degree
|
Class 2 license
|
Two One and one-half years
|
Class 2 or higher facility
|
One year Nine months
|
|
Associate's degree
|
Class 2 license
|
Three years
|
Class 2 or higher facility
|
One and one-half years
|
|
High school diploma or GED equivalent
|
Class 2 license
|
Four Three years
|
Class 2 or higher facility
|
Two One and one-half years
|
|
No high school diploma or GED equivalent
|
Class 2 license
|
Nine Four years
|
Class 2 or higher facility
|
Four and one-half Two years
|
|
Where applicable, the current license held, minimum experience, and the facility type must coincide with the category of license for which the application is being submitted.
|
B. The direct supervisor shall certify the experience on the application form as accurate and relevant to the classification and category of license for which is being submitted. In the event that a licensed operator is not available to certify the experience of the applicant, the experience may be certified by a representative of the facility owner with first-hand knowledge of the applicant's experience.
18VAC160-30-120. Provisional licensure for nonclassified facility operation.
An applicant for licensure as a provisional waterworks or wastewater works operator shall must furnish acceptable documentation of having met all of the requirements of 18VAC160-30-110, except that the experience requirement may be met through experience gained as an operator or operator-in-training of a nonclassified facility. Such experience must be gained under the following conditions:
1. The experience is obtained at a nonclassified facility that is comparable in size and in treatment process as described in 18VAC160-30-360 and 18VAC160-30-370, as applicable.
2. The experience is obtained while performing nonclassified facility operation duties that provide experience comparable to that obtained at a classified facility. Experience operating and maintaining water distribution systems [ shall will ] only be considered for a Class 5 or Class 6 provisional waterworks operator license. Experience limited solely to the operation and maintenance of wastewater collection system, laboratory work, plant maintenance, and other nonoperating duties shall will not be counted as experience as a provisional operator or operator-in-training.
3. Any individual holding a provisional license may apply for licensure by submitting evidence of having met 50% of the experience required by 18VAC160-30-110 and submitting the appropriate application.
18VAC160-30-130. Experience substitutions.
A. Experience obtained as a licensed alternative onsite sewage system operator before April 1, 2017, or a master alternative onsite sewage system operator may be substituted for the Class 4 wastewater works operator-in-training experience requirements.
B. 18VAC160-30-110 A provides the maximum experience substitutions that may be applied for each applicable class of license.
1. Experience gained in either waterworks or wastewater works operations may be substituted for up to one-half 50% of the required experience in the alternate category so long as the experience was gained in an equivalent or higher class of facility.
2. Education may substitute for part of the required experience in the category of license applied for at a rate of one month of experience credit for each semester hour of college credit. Coursework must be relevant to the category and classification of the license being sought. The college credit must be from an accredited college or university that is approved or accredited by the Commission on Colleges of the Southern Association of Colleges and Schools, a regional or national accreditation association, or by an accreditation agency that is recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education.
3. Board-approved waterworks or wastewater works operator training courses may be utilized for experience at a rate of one month experience for each training credit approved by the board.
C. Substitutions [ shall may ] not exceed 50% of the total experience required for licensure.
18VAC160-30-140. Education.
A. Applicants seeking to qualify for licensure based on completion of an associate's, bachelor's, or master's degree shall must submit an official a transcript from the school where the applicable degree was obtained. Only degrees from an accredited college or university that is approved or accredited by the Commission on Colleges of the Southern Association of Colleges and Schools, a regional or national accreditation association, or by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education will be considered. Formal education used to meet a specific education requirement for license entry cannot also be used as a training credit for experience substitution.
B. The following degrees shall will be considered to qualify in accordance with 18VAC160-30-110:
1. Bachelor's or master's degree in engineering or engineering technology in a related physical, biological, environmental, or chemical science;
2. Bachelor's degree in a related physical, biological, environmental, or chemical science that includes a minimum 40 32 semester credit hours in any combination of science and math;
3. Master's degree in a related physical, biological, environmental, or chemical science, and a bachelor's degree in any major such that the combined degrees include a minimum 40 32 semester credit hours in any combination of science and math; or
4. Associate's degree in waterworks, in wastewater works, or in a related physical, biological, environmental, or chemical science that includes a minimum of 20 16 credit hours in any combination of science and math.
C. Formal education used to meet a specific education requirement for license entry cannot also be used as a training credit for experience substitution.
18VAC160-30-150. Expiration and renewal.
A. Licenses for waterworks operators shall will expire on the last day of February of each odd-numbered year. Licenses for wastewater works operators shall will expire on the last day of February of each even-numbered year.
B. Prior to the license expiration date shown on the license, the board shall mail will send a renewal notice to the licensee's address of record. The licensee shall must return to the board a renewal notice and the applicable renewal fee. Failure to receive a renewal notice from the board does not relieve the licensee of the obligation to renew. If the licensee fails to receive the renewal notice, a copy of the license may be submitted with the required fee as an application for renewal.
C. By submitting the renewal or reinstatement fee, the licensee is certifying his continued compliance with the Standards of Practice and Conduct (Part VI (18VAC160-30-290 et seq.)) of this chapter, as established by the board. In addition, by submitting the renewal or reinstatement fee, licensees are certifying compliance with the continuing professional education requirements of this chapter.
18VAC160-30-160. Reinstatement.
A. If all of the requirements for renewal of the license as specified in 18VAC160-30-150 are not completed within 30 days of the license expiration date, a reinstatement fee shall be is required as established in 18VAC160-30-40.
B. A license may be reinstated for up to one year 24 months following the expiration date of the license. An individual who fails to reinstate the license within 12 24 months after the expiration date shall must apply for a new license and meet entry requirements in effect at the time of the submittal of the new application. Such individual shall be deemed to be eligible to sit for the examination for the same category and classification of license as the expired license.
C. Any regulated activity conducted subsequent to the license expiration date may constitute unlicensed activity and be subject to the prosecution under Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC160-30-170. Status of license during period prior to reinstatement.
A licensee who applies for reinstatement of the reinstates a license shall will be subject to all laws and regulations as if the licensee had been continuously licensed without interruption. The licensee shall will remain under and be subject to the disciplinary authority of the board during this entire period.
18VAC160-30-180. Board discretion to deny renewal or reinstatement.
A. The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of a license for the same reasons as the board may refuse initial licensure or discipline a licensee. The licensee has the right to request further review of any such action by the board under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq. of the Code of Virginia).
B. The board may deny renewal or reinstatement of a license if the licensee has been subject to a disciplinary proceeding and has not met the terms of an agreement for licensure, has not satisfied all sanctions, or has not fully paid monetary penalties and costs imposed by the board.
18VAC160-30-190. Continuing professional education.
A. Each licensee shall must have completed the following number of continuing professional education (CPE) contact hours during each renewal cycle. CPE provisions do not apply for the renewal of licenses that were held for less than two years on the date of expiration.
1. Class 1, Class 2, and Class 3 waterworks and wastewater works operators shall must obtain a minimum of 20 18 contact hours.
2. Class 4 waterworks and wastewater works operators shall must obtain a minimum of 16 contact hours.
3. Class 5 waterworks operators shall must obtain a minimum of eight six contact hours.
4. Class 6 waterworks operators shall must obtain a minimum of four contact hours.
B. CPE contact hours completed during the license period immediately prior to the expiration date of the license shall be acceptable in order to renew the license The licensee may request additional time to meet the CPE requirement. However, CPE contact hours completed during a current licensing renewal cycle to satisfy the CPE requirements of the preceding licensing renewal cycle shall will be valid only for that preceding license renewal cycle and shall will not be accepted for any subsequent renewal cycles. The grant of any request for additional time to meet the CPE requirement is at the discretion of the board.
C. The licensee will not receive CPE credit for completing the same continuing education course with the same content more than once during a license period renewal cycle.
D. A licensee may receive CPE credit for teaching a course that otherwise meets the requirements of this chapter; however, additional credit shall will not be given for subsequent offerings of a course or activity with the same content within the same licensing renewal cycle. In addition, a licensee may receive two four hours of CPE no more than once during a single licensing renewal cycle for the initial development or substantial updating of a CPE course.
E. Safety subjects shall will not count for more than one-half 25% of the total required CPE hours.
18VAC160-30-200. CPE subject matter for waterworks operators.
A. The following course topics will be accepted for CPE credit for waterworks operators:
1. Waterworks operations;
2. Monitoring, evaluating, and adjusting treatment processes and systems, including technology;
3. Operating and maintaining equipment;
4. Security and safety procedures;
5. General science and mathematical principles;
6. Administrative processes and procedures applicable to licensure; and
7. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession.
B. Of the total 20 18 hours required, a minimum of five four contact hours pertaining to utility management is required of Class 1 and Class 2 waterworks operators.
18VAC160-30-210. CPE subject matter for wastewater works operators.
A. The following course topics will be accepted for CPE credit for wastewater works operators:
1. Wastewater works operations;
2. Monitoring, evaluating, and adjusting treatment processes and systems, including technology;
3. Operating and maintaining equipment;
4. Security and safety procedures;
5. General science and mathematical principles;
6. Administrative processes and procedures applicable to licensure; and
7. Laws and regulations applicable to the profession.
B. Of the total 20 18 hours required, a minimum of five four contact hours pertaining to utility management is required of Class 1 and Class 2 wastewater works operators.
18VAC160-30-220. Use of training credits and formal education for CPE credit.
Any course approved by the board for substitution as training credits or formal education semester hours, as provided for in Part V (18VAC160-30-240 et seq.) of this chapter, shall will also be acceptable on an hour-for-hour basis for CPE contact hours. One semester hour of college credit shall equal equals 15 CPE contact hours, and one-quarter hour of college credit shall equal 10 CPE credit hours.
18VAC160-30-230. Maintenance of CPE.
A. For a period of at least two years following the end of the license renewal cycle for which the CPE was taken, the following evidence shall must be maintained to document completion of the required hours of CPE:
1. Evidence of completion of a structured training activity, which shall must consist of the name, address, and telephone number contact information of the sponsor;
2. The dates the licensee participated in the training;
3. Description of the subject matter presented; and
4. A statement from the sponsor verifying the number of hours completed.
B. The board may conduct an audit of its licensees to ensure compliance with the applicable CPE requirements. Licensees who are selected for audit shall must provide the necessary documentation stipulated in this section.
18VAC160-30-235. Training courses, generally.
In accordance with 18VAC160-30-110, training courses approved by the board may be substituted for experience. All training courses must be approved by the board in accordance with the provisions of this part. Training courses may be delivered [ in person or ] using distance, virtual, or online education technology. Training courses may be approved retroactively; however, no applicant will receive credit for the training course until such approval is granted by the board.
1. Up to one training credit will be awarded for each 10 hours of classroom contact time or for each 20 hours of laboratory exercises and field trip contact time. Training credit will not be earned for breaks, meals, or receptions. A training credit awarded is equivalent to one month of experience.
2. Training courses that meet the requirements of 18VAC160-30-280 may be accepted for substitution of experience without approval by the board.
18VAC160-30-240. Approval of training courses.
A. Training courses may be substituted for experience pursuant to the provisions of Part II (18VAC160-30-20 et seq.) of this chapter. With the exception of training courses provided pursuant to 18VAC160-30-280, training courses that may be substituted for required experience must be approved by the board prior to commencing.
B. Each A training provider seeking approval of a training course approval shall must submit an application for training course approval on a form provided by the board. Only classroom, laboratory, and field trip contact time will be used to compute training credits. No credit will be given for breaks, meals, or receptions.
1. Organization. The board will only approve training offered by a provider that is an identifiable organization with a mission statement outlining its functions, structure, process, and philosophy and that has a staff of one or more persons with the authority to administer and coordinate a training course.
2. Training course records. The board will only approve training offered by a provider that maintains training course records for all participants for a minimum of seven years and that has a written policy on retention and release of training course records.
3. Instructors. The board will only approve training conducted by personnel who have demonstrated competence in the subject being taught, an understanding of the learning objective, and knowledge of the learning process to be used.
4. Objectives. The board will only approve courses that have a series of stated objectives that are pertinent to the tasks performed by a licensee. The training course content must be consistent with those objectives.
5. Course completion requirements. For successful completion of a training course, participants must attend 90% or more of the class contact time and must demonstrate their learning through written examinations, completion of a project, oral examination, or other similar assessment technique.
The application must include:
1. The name of the training provider;
2. Provider contact person, address, [ email address, ] and [ telephone number contact information ];
3. Training course title;
4. Identification of the profession, category, and class of license to which the course is applicable;
5. Method of delivery;
6. Detailed course schedule, including start and end times and a list of planned breaks;
7. Instructor qualifications, including name, license number, if applicable, and a list of trade-appropriate designations, as well as a professional resume with a summary of teaching experience and subject matter knowledge and qualifications acceptable to the board;
8. Training course syllabus or outline;
9. Materials to be provided to participants; and
10. A description of the means that will be used to assess the learning of each participant to determine successful completion of the training course, such as examinations, projects, personal evaluations by the instructor, or other recognized evaluation techniques.
18VAC160-30-250. Application for training course approval. (Repealed.)
A. The board shall consider the following information, to be submitted by the course provider or instructor on forms provided by the board:
1. Course information.
a. Course title;
b. Planned audience;
c. Name of provider;
d. Name, physical address, email address, and phone number of contact person;
e. Scheduled presentation dates;
f. Detailed course schedule, hour-by-hour, including start and ending times;
g. List of planned breaks;
h. Scheduled presentation location; and
i. Identification of the category and classification of license to which the course is applicable and relevancy to the identified license type.
2. Instructor qualifications.
a. Name of instructor;
b. Title;
c. Employer;
d. Board license number or numbers, if applicable; and
e. Summary of qualifications to teach the course.
3. Training materials.
a. Course objectives. A listing of the course objectives stated in terms of the skills and knowledge the participant will be able to demonstrate as a result of the training.
b. Course outline. A detailed outline showing the planned activities that will occur during the training course, including major topics, planned presentation sequence, laboratory and field activities, audiovisual presentation, and other major activities.
c. Course reference materials. A list of the name, publisher, and publication date for commercially available publications. For reference materials developed by the course provider or available exclusively through the course, a copy of the reference.
d. Audiovisual support materials. A listing of any commercially available audiovisual support material that will be used in the program. A brief description of any provider or instructor generated audiovisual material that will be used.
e. Handouts. Identification of all commercially available handout materials that will be used, as well as copies of all other planned handouts.
4. Determination of successful completion. A description of the means that will be used to assess the learning of each participant to determine successful completion of the training program, such as examinations, projects, personal evaluations by the instructor, or other recognized evaluation techniques. Correspondence and other distance learning courses must include appropriate testing procedures to verify completion of the course.
B. Recurring training programs. If there are plans to present the same course of instruction routinely at multiple locations with only minor modifications and changes, the board may approve the overall program rather than individual presentations if so requested by the provider.
1. The board shall consider all of the information listed in subsection A of this section except those items related to specific offerings of the course.
2. Board approval will apply only to those specific offerings certified by the provider as having been conducted by instructors meeting the established criteria and in accordance with the board-approved course outlines and objectives.
[ 18VAC160-30-255. Documentation of training course completion required.
All training course providers must provide each participant with a certificate of training course completion or other documentation that the participant may use as proof of training course completion. Such documentation must contain the hours completed, the date of training, and the training course identification number assigned by the board. ]
18VAC160-30-260. Maintenance of training approval records.
A. At times established by the board, the board may require that course providers that have previously obtained course approval provide the board with evidence, in a form set forth by the board, that the provider continues to comply with the requirements of this chapter. Failure to continue to comply with the board's requirements or respond to such a request may result in the board withdrawing its approval.
B. Substantial modifications or changes to the information provided in 18VAC160-30-240 and 18VAC160-30-250 must be reported to the board within 30 days of the change. Failure to report the changes as required may result in the withdrawal of approval by the board.
C. Any change of the address of the training provider shall be reported in writing within 30 days of the change.
D. The board may conduct an audit of the training provider to ensure compliance with this chapter.
All providers of approved training [ course courses ] must establish and maintain a record for each participant. The record must include the participant's name and address, the course name and hours attended, the course syllabus or outline, the names of the instructors, the date of successful completion, and the board's approved training course identification number. Records must be available for inspection during normal business hours by authorized representatives of the board. Providers must maintain these records for a minimum of five years.
18VAC160-30-265. Reporting of changes.
Any change in the information provided in 18VAC160-30-240 must be reported to the board within 90 days of the change. Any change in information submitted will be reviewed to ensure compliance with the provisions of this chapter.
18VAC160-30-270. Withdrawal of approval.
The board may withdraw approval of any provider a training course for the following reasons:
1. The courses course being offered no longer [ meet meets ] the standards established by the board.
2. The provider, through an agent or otherwise, advertises its services in a fraudulent or deceptive manner.
3. The provider, instructor, contact person, or designee of the provider falsifies any information relating to the application for approval, course information, and student or participant records.
4. [ The training course provider fails to provide the participant with documentation of course completion showing the hours completed, the date of training, and the training course identification number assigned by the board.
5. ] A change in the information provided results in noncompliance with this part.
[ 5. 6. ] The provider fails to comply with 18VAC160-30-265.
[ 6. 7. ] The provider fails to respond to the board or any of its agents.
18VAC160-30-275. Board authority to audit approved training courses.
The board may conduct an audit of any board-approved training course provider to ensure continued compliance with this chapter.
18VAC160-30-280. Training Acceptance of training courses offered by certain entities; board approval not required.
A. Training courses provided by (i) federal, state, or local government agencies; (ii) accredited colleges or universities approved or accredited by the Commission on Colleges of the Southern Association of Colleges and Schools; (iii) a regional or national accreditation association; or (iv) (iii) an accrediting agency that is recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education do not require board approval to be used for experience substitution, provided the training course information submitted to the board includes the following:
1. The course must include the continuing education units awarded by the entity.
2. The course's subject matter must be related to the license category and classification, if applicable, for which experience substitution is sought.
B. The board may request additional information from the provider as necessary to ensure compliance with this section. If such assurance cannot be made by the board cannot ensure compliance, the training course may not be used for experience substitution, or the provider may pursue board approval pursuant to this chapter.
18VAC160-30-290. Grounds for disciplinary action.
The board may place a licensee on probation in accordance with § 54.1-201 A 7 of the Code of Virginia; impose a monetary penalty in accordance with § 54.1-202 A of the Code of Virginia; or revoke, suspend, or refuse to renew any license when the licensee has been found to have violated or cooperated with others in violating any provision of the regulations of the board or Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia.
18VAC160-30-300. Maintenance of license.
A. No license issued by the board shall [ will may ] be assigned or otherwise transferred.
B. A licensee shall must report, in writing, all changes of address and name to the board within 30 days of the change and shall return the license to the board. In addition to the address of record, a physical address is required for each license. If the licensee holds more than one license, the licensee shall inform the board of all licenses, certificates, and registrations affected by the address change. The board shall not be responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices or correspondence due to the licensee's failure to report a change of address. any change of the following:
1. The licensee's legal name. Such report must be accompanied by documentation acceptable to the board that verifies the name change.
2. The licensee's address, to include the physical address when applicable.
C. Any change in any of the requirements and qualifications for licensure found in Part II (18VAC160-30-20 et seq.) or Part III (18VAC160-30-150 et seq.) of this chapter shall A change of name or address must be reported to the board within 30 60 days of the change. The board is not responsible for the licensee's failure to receive notices, communications, and correspondence caused by the licensee's failure to report to the board any change of name or address.
18VAC160-30-310. Notice of adverse action.
A. Licensees shall A licensee must notify the board of the following actions against the licensee:
1. Any disciplinary action taken by any jurisdiction, board, or administrative body of competent jurisdiction, including any reprimand, license or certificate revocation, suspension, or denial, of a license, certificate, or registration; imposition of a monetary penalty,; requirement for to take remedial education,; or other corrective action.
2. Any voluntary surrendering of a related license, certificate, or registration done in connection with a disciplinary action in another taken by any jurisdiction, board, or administrative body.
3. Any conviction, finding of guilt, or plea of guilty, regardless of adjudication or deferred adjudication, in any jurisdiction of the United States of any (i) misdemeanor involving lying, cheating, or stealing, sexual offense, non-marijuana drug distribution, or physical injury, or relating to the practice of the profession except marijuana convictions, or (ii) felony, there being no appeal pending therefrom or the time for appeal having lapsed. Review of convictions shall will be subject to the requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia. Any plea of nolo contendere shall be considered a conviction for the purpose of this section.
B. The notice must be made given to the board in writing within 30 days of the action. A copy of the order or other supporting documentation must accompany the notice. The record of conviction, finding, or case decision shall be considered prima facie evidence of a conviction or finding of guilt.
18VAC160-30-320. Prohibited acts.
The following acts are prohibited and any violation may result in disciplinary action by the board:
1. Violating, inducing another to violate, cooperating with another to violate, or combining or conspiring with or acting as agent, partner, or associate for another to violate any of the provisions of Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.), 3 (§ 54.1-300 et seq.), or 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia, or any of the regulations of the board.
2. Allowing a license issued by the board to be used by another.
3. 2. Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license by false or fraudulent representation, or maintaining or, renewing, or reinstating a license by false or fraudulent representation.
3. Failing to report a change as required by 18VAC160-30-300.
4. A licensee having been convicted, or found guilty, in any jurisdiction or disciplined by any jurisdiction, board, or administrative body in any jurisdiction of any offense or violation enumerated in 18VAC160-30-310. Review of convictions shall will be subject to the requirements of § 54.1-204 of the Code of Virginia.
5. Failing to inform the board in writing within 30 days that the licensee was convicted, found guilty in any jurisdiction, or disciplined in by any jurisdiction, board, or administrative body of any offense or violation enumerated in 18VAC160-30-310.
6. Not demonstrating reasonable care, judgment, or application of the required knowledge, skill, and ability in the performance of the licensee's duties.
7. Having undertaken to perform or performed a professional assignment that the licensee is not qualified to perform by education, experience, training, or any combination thereof.
8. Failing to report a change as required by 18VAC160-30-300.
9. Negligence 6. Actions constituting negligence, misconduct, or incompetence in the practice of the profession, including:
a. Having undertaken to perform or having performed a professional assignment that the licensee is not qualified to perform by education, experience, or training.
b. Not demonstrating reasonable care, judgment, or application of the required knowledge, skill, and ability in the performance of the licensee's duties.
c. Failing to adequately supervise and review work performed by licensed or unlicensed employees under direct supervision of the licensee.
d. Failing to act in providing waterworks and wastewater works operator services in a manner that safeguards the interests of the public.
7. Actions constituting improper, fraudulent, or dishonest conduct, including:
a. Making any misrepresentation or engaging in acts of fraud or deceit when providing professional services.
b. Submitting or recording or assisting another in the submission or recording of false or misleading operational information relating to the performance and monitoring requirements of a waterworks or wastewater works.
c. Allowing a license issued by the board to be used by another.
10. Making any misrepresentation or engaging in acts of fraud or deceit in providing professional services.
11. Failing to adequately supervise and review work performed by licensed or unlicensed employees under direct supervision of the licensee.
12. Submitting or recording or assisting another in the submission or recording of false or misleading operational information relating to the performance and monitoring requirements of a waterworks or wastewater works.
13. Failing to act in providing waterworks and wastewater works operator services in a manner that safeguards the interests of the public.
18VAC160-30-330. Conflicts of interest.
The licensee shall must:
1. Promptly and fully inform an employer or client of any business association, interest, or circumstance that may influence the licensee's judgment or the quality of service.
2. Not accept compensation, financial or otherwise, from more than one party for services on or pertaining to the same project, unless the circumstances are fully disclosed to and agreed to by all interested parties in writing.
3. Neither solicit nor accept financial or other valuable consideration from material or equipment suppliers for specifying their products or services, unless the circumstances are fully disclosed and agreed to by all interested parties in writing.
4. Not solicit or accept gratuities, directly or indirectly, from contractors or their agents or other parties dealing with a client or employer in connection with work for which the licensee is responsible, unless the circumstances are fully disclosed and agreed to by all interested parties in writing.
18VAC160-30-340. Licensee responsibility.
A. The primary obligation of the licensee is to the public. If the licensee's judgment is overruled and not adhered to when advising appropriate parties of circumstances of a substantial threat to the public health, safety, or welfare, the licensee shall must inform the employer or client, as applicable, of the possible consequences and notify appropriate authorities.
B. The licensee shall will not knowingly associate in a business venture with, or permit the use of the licensee's name by, any person where there is reason to believe that person is engaging in activity of a fraudulent or dishonest nature or is violating any law or regulation of the board.
C. A licensee who has direct knowledge that another individual may be violating any of the provisions of this chapter or the provisions of Chapter 23 (§ 54.1-2300 et seq.) of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia shall immediately inform the board in writing and shall cooperate in furnishing any further information or assistance that may be required.
18VAC160-30-350. Response to inquiry and provision of records.
A. A licensee must respond within 10 days to a request by the board or any of its agents regarding any complaint filed with the department.
B. Unless otherwise specified by the board, a licensee of the board shall must produce to the board or any of its agents within 10 days of the request any document, book, or record concerning any transaction pertaining to a complaint filed in which the licensee was involved, or for which the licensee is required to maintain records. The board may extend such timeframe upon a showing of extenuating circumstances prohibiting delivery within such 10-day period.
C. A licensee shall must not provide a false, misleading, or incomplete response to the board or any of its agents seeking information in the investigation of a complaint filed with the board.
D. With the exception of the requirements of subsections A and B of this section, a licensee must respond to an inquiry by the board or its agent within 21 days.
18VAC160-30-360. Wastewater works.
A. A Class 4 wastewater works licensee may operate any wastewater works as follows:
1. A wastewater works employing biological mechanical methods (i.e., mechanical treatment process defined as those containing aerated and mixed flows using electrical or outside energy sources) with a design hydraulic capacity greater than 1,000 gallons per day but equal to or less than 0.04 MGD;
2. A wastewater works employing natural treatment methods (referenced in 9VAC25-790-870 as land treatment utilizing a secondary process for pretreatment followed by irrigation, overland flow infiltration-percolation, or combination thereof or aquatic ponds or constructed wetlands) with a design hydraulic capacity greater than 1,000 gallons per day but equal to or less than 1.0 MGD; or
3. Any classified under the Sewage Collection and Treatment Regulations (9VAC25-790) as a Class IV treatment works or any other wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a Class IV or Class 4 wastewater works.
B. A Class 3 wastewater works licensee may operate any wastewater works as follows:
1. A wastewater works using biological treatment methods consisting of but not limited to (i) suspended growth reactors, (ii) aerated lagoons, (iii) constructed wetlands, (iv) filters or other attached growth contactors, (v) processes utilizing biological nutrient control, or (vi) processes utilizing land treatment having a design hydraulic capacity greater than 0.04 MGD, but equal to or less than 0.5 MGD;
2. A wastewater works using natural treatment methods (referenced in 9VAC25-790-870 as land treatment utilizing a secondary process for pretreatment followed by irrigation, overland flow infiltration-percolation, or combination thereof or aquatic ponds or constructed wetlands) with a design hydraulic capacity greater than 1.0 MGD;
3. A wastewater works using advanced waste treatment methods consisting of but not limited to (i) ammonia stripping, (ii) breakpoint chlorination, (iii) carbon adsorption, (iv) chemical coagulation, (v) flocculation, (vi) precipitation, (vii) filtration, or (viii) demineralization (i.e., ion exchange, reverse osmosis, or electrodialysis) having a design hydraulic capacity greater than 1,000 gallons per day but equal to or less than 0.1 MGD; or
4. A classified under the Sewage Collection and Treatment Regulations as a Class III or Class IV treatment works or any wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a Class III or Class IV or Class 3 or Class 4 wastewater works facility.
C. A Class 2 wastewater works licensee may operate any wastewater works as follows:
1. A wastewater works using biological treatment methods consisting of but not limited to (i) suspended growth reactors, (ii) aerated lagoons or constructed wetlands, (iii) filters or other attached growth contactors, (iv) processes utilizing biological nutrient control, or (v) processes utilizing land application having a design hydraulic capacity greater than 0.5 MGD but equal to or less than 5.0 MGD;
2. A wastewater works using advanced waste treatment methods consisting of but not limited to (i) ammonia stripping, (ii) breakpoint chlorination, (iii) carbon adsorption, (iv) chemical coagulation, (v) flocculation, (vi) precipitation, (vii) filtration, (viii) demineralization (i.e., ion exchange, reverse osmosis, or electrodialysis) and having a hydraulic capacity greater than 0.1 MGD but equal to or less than 2.5 MGD; or
3. A classified under the Sewage Collection and Treatment Regulations as a Class II, Class III, or Class IV treatment works or any wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a Class II, Class III, or Class IV or Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 wastewater works.
D. A Class 1 wastewater works licensee may operate any wastewater works as follows:
1. A wastewater works using biological treatment methods consisting of but not limited to (i) suspended growth reactors, (ii) aerated lagoons or constructed wetlands, (iii) filters or other attached growth contactors, (iv) processes utilizing biological nutrient control, (v) processes utilizing land treatment and having a hydraulic capacity greater than 5.0 MGD;
2. A wastewater works using advanced waste treatment methods consisting of but not limited to (i) ammonia stripping, (ii) breaking chlorination, (iii) carbon adsorption, (iv) chemical coagulation, (v) flocculation, (vi) precipitation, (vii) filtration, (viii) demineralization (i.e., ion exchange, reverse osmosis, or electrodialysis) and having a design capacity greater than 2.5 MGD; or
3. A classified under the Sewage Collection and Treatment Regulations as a Class I, Class II, Class III, or Class IV treatment works or any wastewater works classified by DEQ or VDH as a Class I, Class II, Class III, or Class IV or Class 1, Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4 wastewater works.
18VAC160-30-370. Waterworks.
A. A Class 6 waterworks licensee may operate any waterworks as follows:
1. A waterworks serving fewer than 400 persons that provides no treatment or employs one or more of the following treatment processes: (i) hypochlorination for disinfection, (ii) corrosion control with calcite or magnesium oxide contactors or solution feed except with caustic, or (iii) sequestration by solution feed; or
2. A classified under the VDH Waterworks Regulations (12VAC5-590) as a Class 6 waterworks or any waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 6 waterworks.
B. A Class 5 waterworks licensee may operate any waterworks as follows:
1. A waterworks serving 400 or more persons that provides no treatment or employs one or more of the following treatment processes: (i) hypochlorination for disinfection, (ii) corrosion control with calcite or magnesium oxide contactors or solution feed except with caustic, or (iii) sequestration by solution feed; or
2. A classified under the VDH Waterworks Regulations as a Class 5 or Class 6 waterworks or any waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 5 or Class 6 waterworks.
C. A Class 4 waterworks licensee may operate any waterworks as follows:
1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving fewer than 5,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity of less than 0.5 MGD and employing one or more of the following: (i) disinfection other than with hypochlorination, (ii) caustic soda feed, (iii) iron and manganese removal, (iv) ion exchange, (v) slow sand filtration, (vi) aeration, (vii) rechlorination other than with hypochlorination, (viii) activated carbon contactors, (ix) membrane or other filtration technologies without chemical coagulation, or (x) fluoridation with a saturator; or
2. A classified under the VDH Waterworks Regulations as a Class 4, Class 5, or Class 6 waterworks or any waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 4, Class 5, or Class 6 waterworks.
D. A Class 3 waterworks licensee may operate any waterworks as follows:
1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving fewer than 5,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity less than 0.5 MGD, whichever is greater, and employing conventional filtration or chemical coagulation in combination with membrane filtration;
2. A waterworks or treatment facility serving 5,000 or more persons or having a treatment facility capacity of 0.5 MGD or more, whichever is greater, and employing one or more of the following: (i) disinfection other than with hypochlorination, (ii) caustic soda feed, (iii) iron and manganese removal, (iv) ion exchange, (v) slow sand filtration, (vi) aeration, (vii) rechlorination other than with hypochlorination, (viii) activated carbon contactors, (ix) membrane or other filtration technologies without chemical coagulation, or (x) fluoridation with a saturator or acid feed;
3. A waterworks or treatment facility employing fluoridation with other than a saturator not considered a Class 1 or Class 2 waterworks; or
4. A classified under the VDH Waterworks Regulations as a Class 3, Class 4, Class 5, or Class 6 waterworks or any waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 3, Class 4, Class 5, or Class 6 waterworks.
E. A Class 2 waterworks licensee may operate any waterworks as follows:
1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving 5,000 or more persons but fewer than 50,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity of 0.5 MGD or more but less than 5.0 MGD, whichever range applies, and employing rapid rate conventional filtration chemical coagulation in combination with membrane filtration;
2. A waterworks or treatment facility serving fewer than 50,000 persons or having a treatment facility capacity of less than 5.0 MGD employing high rate conventional filtration; or
3. A classified under the VDH Waterworks Regulations as a Class 2, Class 3, Class 4, Class 5, or Class 6 waterworks or any waterworks classified by the VDH as a Class 2, Class 3, Class 4, Class 5, or Class 6 waterworks.
F. A Class 1 waterworks licensee may operate any waterworks as follows:
1. A waterworks or treatment facility serving 50,000 or more persons or having a treatment facility capacity of 5.0 MGD or more and employing conventional filtration or chemical coagulation in combination with membrane filtration; or
2. A classified under the VDH Waterworks Regulations as a Class 1, Class 2, Class 3, Class 4, Class 5, or Class 6 waterworks or any waterworks classified by VDH as a Class 1, Class 2, Class 3, Class 4, Class 5, Class 6 waterworks.
NOTICE: The following forms used in administering the regulation have been filed by the agency. Amended or added forms are reflected in the listing and are published following the listing. Online users of this issue of the Virginia Register of Regulations may also click on the name to access a form. The forms are also available from the agency contact or may be viewed at the Office of Registrar of Regulations, General Assembly Building, 201 North Ninth Street, Fourth Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219.
[ FORMS (18VAC160-30)
Waterworks Operator License Application, A436-1955EXLIC-v2 (eff. 12/2021)
Provisional Waterworks Operator License Application, A436-1955PLIC-v3 (eff. 12/2021)
Wastewater Works Operator License Application, A436-1965EXLIC-v3 (eff. 12/2021)
Provisional Wastewater Works Operator License Application, A436-1965PLIC-v3 (eff. 12/2021)
Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operator - Provisional License Change in Classification Application, A436-1955_65CHG-v2 (eff. 12/2021)
Waterworks Operator License Application, A436-1955EXLIC-v3 (eff. 1/2026)
Provisional Waterworks Operator License Application, A436-1955PLIC-v4 (eff. 1/2026)
Wastewater Works Operator License Application, A436-1965EXLIC-v4 (eff. 1/2026)
Provisional Wastewater Works Operator License Application, A436-1965PLIC-v4 (eff. 1/2026)
Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operator - Provisional License Change in Classification Application, A436-1955_65PCHG-v3 (eff. 1/2026)
Out-of-State Facility Description and Experience Verification Application, A436-19STATE_EXP-v3 (eff. 4/2015)
Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operator Virginia Experience Verification Application, A436-19WWEXP-v4 (eff. 4/2017)
Provisional Description and Experience Verification Application, A436-1955_65PEXP-v3 (eff. 12/2014)
Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operator Virginia Experience Verification Application, A436-19WWEXP-v5 (eff. 1/2026)
Provisional Description and Experience Verification Application, A436-1955_65PEXP-v4 (eff. 1/2026)
Continuing Professional Education (CPE) Application - Certificate of Completion, A436-19CPE-v3 (eff. 10/2015)
Training Course Approval Application, A465-19CRS-v5 (eff. 2/2020)
Training Course Approval Application, A465-19CRS-v6 (eff. 1/2026)
Education and Training Substitution Form, A436-19EDTRv4, (eff. 4/2017)
Wastewater Works Operator Class 4 Application - Department of Corrections Apprenticeship Program, A436-1965APLIC-v3 (eff. 6/2019)
Waterworks Operator - Universal License Recognition Application, A436-1955ULR_v3 (eff. 1/2026)
Wastewater Works Operator - Universal License Recognition Application, A436-1965ULR_v3 (eff. 1/2026) ]
VA.R. Doc. No. R24-7558; Filed November 07, 2025
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR WATERWORKS AND WASTEWATER WORKS OPERATORS AND ONSITE SEWAGE SYSTEM PROFESSIONALS
Action Withdrawn
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR WATERWORKS AND WASTEWATER WORKS OPERATORS AND ONSITE SEWAGE SYSTEM PROFESSIONALS
Action Withdrawn
Title of Regulation: 18VAC160-30. Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators Licensing Regulations (amending 18VAC160-30-40).
Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-113 and 54.1-201 of the Code of Virginia.
The Board for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System Professionals has WITHDRAWN the regulatory action for 18VAC160-30, Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators Licensing Regulations, which was published as a Notice of Intended Regulatory Action in 38:12 VA.R. 1177 January 31, 2022. The purpose of the proposed action was to adjust license application, renewal, and reinstatement fees for waterworks and wastewater works operator licenses. As a result of changes to the way the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation allocates expenses to its regulatory boards, the board voted on October 23, 2025, to withdraw this action and instead initiate a new regulatory action to adjust fees in conformance with the new treatment of expenses by the department.
Agency Contact: Cameron Parris, Regulatory Operations Administrator, Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-9183, fax (866) 350-5354, or email cameron.parris@dpor.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R22-6627; Filed November 10, 2025
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR WATERWORKS AND WASTEWATER WORKS OPERATORS AND ONSITE SEWAGE SYSTEM PROFESSIONALS
Action Withdrawn
TITLE 18. PROFESSIONAL AND OCCUPATIONAL LICENSING
BOARD FOR WATERWORKS AND WASTEWATER WORKS OPERATORS AND ONSITE SEWAGE SYSTEM PROFESSIONALS
Action Withdrawn
Title of Regulation: 18VAC160-40. Onsite Sewage System Professionals Licensing Regulations (amending 18VAC160-40-40).
Statutory Authority: §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-2301 of the Code of Virginia.
The Board for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System Professionals has WITHDRAWN the regulatory action for 18VAC160-40, Onsite Sewage System Professionals Licensing Regulations, which was published as a Notice of Intended Regulatory Action in 38:12 VA.R. 1177-1178 January 31, 2022. The purpose of the proposed action was to adjust license application, renewal, and reinstatement fees for onsite sewage system operator, onsite sewage system installer, and onsite soil evaluator licenses. As a result of changes to the way the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation allocates expenses to its regulatory boards, the board voted on October 23, 2025, to withdraw this action and instead initiate a new regulatory action to adjust fees in conformance with the new treatment of expenses by the department.
Agency Contact: Cameron Parris, Regulatory Operations Administrator, Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, 9960 Mayland Drive, Suite 400, Richmond, VA 23233, telephone (804) 367-9183, fax (866) 350-5354, or email cameron.parris@dpor.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R22-6628; Filed November 10, 2025
TITLE 21. SECURITIES AND RETAIL FRANCHISING
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION, DIVISION OF SECURITIES AND RETAIL FRANCHISING
Final
TITLE 21. SECURITIES AND RETAIL FRANCHISING
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The State Corporation Commission is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4002 A 2 of the Code of Virginia, which exempts courts, any agency of the Supreme Court, and any agency that by the Constitution is expressly granted any of the powers of a court of record.
Titles of Regulations: 21VAC5-40. Exempt Securities and Transactions (amending 21VAC5-40-100, 21VAC5-40-140; adding 21VAC5-40-210).
21VAC5-45. Federal Covered Securities (amending 21VAC5-45-20, 21VAC5-45-30).
21VAC5-100. Disclosure of Information or Documents by Commission (amending 21VAC5-100-10).
Statutory Authority: §§ 12.1-13 and 13.1-523 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Jude Richnafsky, Manager of Examinations, Division of Securities and Retail Franchising, State Corporation Commission, Tyler Building, Ninth Floor, P.O. Box 1197, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9883, or email jude.richnafsky@scc.virginia.gov.
AT RICHMOND, NOVEMBER 3, 2025
COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA, ex rel.
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
CASE NO. SEC-2025-00024
Ex Parte: In the matter of
Adopting Revisions to the Rules
Governing the Virginia Securities Act
ORDER ADOPTING REGULATIONS
On August 11, 2025, the State Corporation Commission ("Commission") entered an Order Establishing Proceeding regarding a proposal by the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising ("Division") to revise Chapters 40, 45, and 100 of Title 21 of the Virginia Administrative Code, which provide, in part, the Commission’s rules governing the Virginia Securities Act ("Act"), § 13.1-501 et seq. of the Code of Virginia.
The Division recommended revisions to Chapters 40, 45, and 100 to: (a) amend Rules 21VAC5-40-100, 21VAC5-40-140, 21VAC5-45-20, and 21VAC5-45-30 to assess late charges for filings related to the associated exemptions in § 13.1-514 B of the Act; (b) amend Rule 21VAC5-40-100 to remove the reference to repealed Rule 21VAC5-40-30; (c) create a new Rule at 21VAC5-40-210 to establish filing requirements and a timeline for post-effective filings for securities exempted pursuant to § 13.1-514.1 B of the Act; and (d) amend Rule 21VAC5-100-10 D to broaden the list of approved governmental entities for disclosure under § 13.1-518 B of the Act. Collectively, these revisions are referred to in the Order Establishing Proceeding as the proposed revisions.
The Order Establishing Proceeding and proposed revisions were posted on the Commission’s website, sent to interested persons, and published in the Virginia Register of Regulations on September 8, 2025. The Order Establishing Proceeding invited any interested persons to participate and required that any comments or requests for a hearing on the proposed revisions be submitted in writing on or before October 7, 2025.
No comments were filed nor were any requests for hearing made in this matter.
The Division has not recommended that the Commission further amend the proposed revisions following the entry of the Order Establishing Proceeding.
NOW THE COMMISSION, having considered this matter, concludes that the proposed revisions should be adopted effective January 1, 2026.
Accordingly, IT IS ORDERED THAT:
(1) The proposed revisions, attached hereto and made a part hereof, are ADOPTED effective January 1, 2026.
(2) The Division shall provide notice of this Order Adopting Regulations ("Order") and the adopted revisions to Chapters 40, 45, and 100 of Title 21 to any interested persons as the Division may designate.
(3) The Commission’s Office of General Counsel shall provide a copy of this Order and the adopted revisions to Chapters 40, 45, and 100 of Title 21 to the Virginia Registrar of Regulations for publication in the Virginia Register of Regulations.
(4) Interested persons may download unofficial copies of this Order and the adopted revisions to Chapters 40, 45, and 100 of Title 21 from the Commission’s website: scc.virginia.gov/case-information.
(5) This case is dismissed.
A COPY hereof, along with the attached regulations, shall be sent by the Clerk of the Commission to: C. Meade Browder, Jr., Senior Assistant Attorney General, at MBrowder@oag.state.va.us, Office of the Attorney General, Division of Consumer Counsel, 202 N. 9th Street, 8th Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219-3424; and the Commission’s Office of General Counsel and the Director of the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising.
Summary:
The amendments (i) adopt late charges for certain securities exemption filings; (ii) remove an obsolete cross-reference; (iii) establish filing requirements and a timeline for post-effective filings for securities exempted pursuant to § 13.1-514.1 B of the Code of Virginia; and (iv) broaden the list of approved governmental entities for disclosure under § 13.1-518 of the Code of Virginia.
21VAC5-40-100. Domestic issuer limited transactional exemption.
A. In accordance with § 13.1-514 B 7 b of the Act, an offer or sale by the issuer of any of the following securities issued by a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or real estate investment trust, as the case may be: note, stock, bond, debenture, evidence of indebtedness, partnership interest, share of beneficial interest in a real estate investment trust, a warrant or right to purchase or subscribe to any of the foregoing or a security convertible into any of the foregoing, shall be exempt from the securities, broker-dealer, and agent registration requirements of the Act, provided the following conditions are met:
1. In connection with an offering pursuant to this section, there shall be no more than 35 purchasers in this Commonwealth during any period of 12 consecutive months;
2. In connection with an offering pursuant to this section, the issuer shall:
a. Deliver Form VA-1 and in certain prescribed circumstances, Part 2 of Form VA-1 or a disclosure document containing the information required by Form VA-1 and Part 2, if required, to each prospective purchaser prior to a sale to a purchaser; and
b. Sell securities only to purchasers, each of which the issuer shall and, after reasonable inquiry, believe either that the purchaser:
(1) Has sufficient knowledge and experience in financial and business matters to be capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment, and is able to bear the economic risks of the prospective investment; or
(2) Together with a purchaser representative or representatives, has sufficient knowledge and experience in financial and business matters to be capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment, and that the purchaser is able to bear the economic risks of the prospective investment; and
3. No commission or similar remuneration is paid or given, directly or indirectly, for soliciting a prospective purchaser, or in connection with sales of securities in reliance on this section, unless paid to a broker-dealer and its the broker-dealer's agent who are registered under the Act and the securities are offered only to persons whose investing history demonstrates an ability to evaluate the merits and risks of the investment and who are capable of bearing the economic risks of the investment.
B. This exemption is not available with respect to an offering:
1. Pursuant to a registration statement or Regulation A (17 CFR 230.251-230.263) notification which that has been filed under the Securities Act of 1933;
2. Pursuant to an exemption under Regulation D (17 CFR 230.505), which offering may be exempted in Virginia only by 21VAC5-40-30, Uniform Limited Offering Exemption;
3. 2. If the amount of money to be raised from the offering exceeds $2,000,000 $2 million;
4. 3. If the issuer has offered for sale or sold its securities which that are of the same or a similar class as that to be offered for sale or sold under this section within 180 days prior to this offering or if the issuer offers for sale or sells its securities that are of the same or a similar class as those offered and sold under this section within 180 days after this offering; or
5. 4. If the issuer does not have its principal place of business in this Commonwealth.
C. An exemption under this section is not available if the issuer, its the issuer's directors, officers, partners, members, trustees, or beneficial owners of 10% or more of a class of its voting securities, or its the issuer's promoters or agents connected with it or a person offering or selling the securities for or on behalf of the issuer:
1. Has been convicted (or has pleaded nolo contendere) within five years prior to reliance on this section of a felony or a misdemeanor in connection with the purchase or sale of a security, or in connection with making a false filing with the SEC or a state securities administrator or of a felony involving fraud or deceit, including but not limited to, forgery, embezzlement, obtaining money under false pretenses, larceny, conspiracy to defraud, or theft;
2. Is subject to an order, judgment, or decree of a court of competent jurisdiction that temporarily or preliminarily restrains or enjoins, or is subject to an order, judgment, or decree of a court of competent jurisdiction, entered within five years prior to reliance on this section, which permanently restrains or enjoins a person from engaging in or continuing a practice or conduct in connection with the purchase or sale of a security, or involving the making of a false filling filing with the SEC or a state securities administrator;
3. Is subject to a United States Postal Service false representation order entered within five years prior to reliance on this section; or
4. Is subject to a state administrative order entered within five years prior to reliance on this section by a state securities administrator in which fraud or deceit was found.
D. The issuer shall file with the commission 15 days prior to the first sale in this Commonwealth in reliance on this section:
1. A copy of Form VA-1, including Part 2, if applicable or a disclosure document containing the information required by the Form form;
2. An executed Consent to Service of Process (Form U2) appointing the Clerk of the commission as its the issuer's agent for service of process;
3. An undertaking to promptly provide to the commission, upon request, additional information as the commission may require; and
4. A nonrefundable filing fee of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
5. Should the filing not be timely made in accordance with this subsection, in addition to the filing fee set forth in this subsection, a late charge of $250 will be assessed if filed within 90 days of the first sale in this Commonwealth, $500 if filed within six months of the first sale, and $750 if filed more than six months after the first sale.
E. The issuer shall, within 30 days after the completion of the offering, file with the commission a report of sales indicating the number of purchasers in this Commonwealth, a description of the securities sold to such purchasers, and the total dollar amount raised.
F. This section does not exempt persons or transactions from the anti-fraud provisions of the Act.
G. The commission may deny the exemption if it the commission determines that a particular transaction or offering is not in the public interest.
H. For purposes of this section and § 13.1-514 B 7 b of the Act, the following shall apply:
1. Neither the issuer nor persons acting on its behalf shall offer or sell the securities by form of general solicitation or advertising, including but not limited to, the following:
a. "Cold calls" by telephone or other means, advertising, article, notice, or other communication published in a newspaper, newsletter, magazine, mass mailing, electronic media, or similar media or broadcast over television or radio; or
b. Seminars or meetings whose attendees have been invited by general solicitation or general advertising.
2. Securities acquired in a transaction under this section shall not be resold without registration under or exemption from the Act. The issuer or a person acting on its the issuer's behalf shall exercise reasonable care to assure that the purchasers of the securities in an offering under this section are purchasing for investment and not with a view to distribution of the securities. Reasonable care shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
a. Reasonable inquiry to determine whether the purchaser is acquiring the securities for himself or for other persons;
b. Placement of a restrictive legend on the certificate or other document evidencing the securities. The legend shall be in the following form: THE SECURITIES REPRESENTED BY THIS CERTIFICATE (OR OTHER DOCUMENT) HAVE BEEN ISSUED PURSUANT TO A CLAIM OF EXEMPTION FROM THE REGISTRATION OR QUALIFICATION PROVISIONS OF FEDERAL AND STATE SECURITIES LAWS AND SHALL NOT BE SOLD OR TRANSFERRED WITHOUT COMPLIANCE WITH THE REGISTRATION OR QUALIFICATION PROVISIONS OF APPLICABLE FEDERAL AND STATE SECURITIES LAWS OR APPLICABLE EXEMPTIONS THEREFROM;
c. Issuance of stop-transfer instructions to the issuer's transfer agent with respect to the securities, or, if the issuer transfers its the issuer's own securities, notation in the appropriate records of the issuer; and
d. Obtaining from the purchaser a signed agreement that the securities will not be sold unless they the securities are registered under the Act or exempted from registration.
3. All sales that are part of the same offering under this section shall meet all the conditions of this section. Offers and sales that are made more than six months before the commencement of an offering under this section or are made more than six months after completion of an offering under this section will not be considered part of that offering, so long as during those six-month periods there are no offers or sales of securities by or on behalf of the issuer that are of the same or a similar class as those offered or sold under this section. If securities of the same or a similar class as those offered pursuant to this section are offered or sold less than six months before or after an offer or sale pursuant to this section, those offers to sell or sales, will be deemed to be "integrated" with the offering.
I. In proceedings involving this section, the burden of proving the exemption or an exception from a definition or condition is upon the person claiming it.
J. The exemption authorized by this section shall be known and may be cited as the "Domestic Issuer Limited Transactional Exemption."
21VAC5-40-140. Accredited investor exemption.
A. In accordance with § 13.1-514 B 19 of the Act, any offer or sale of a security by an issuer in a transaction that meets the requirements of this section is exempt from the securities, broker-dealer, and agent registration requirements of the Act.
B. Sales of securities shall be made only to persons who are or the issuer reasonably believes are "accredited investors," as that term is defined in 17 CFR 230.501(a), and who:
1. Have sufficient knowledge and experience in financial and business matters to be capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment, and are able to bear the economic risks of the prospective investment; or
2. Together with a purchaser representative or representatives, have sufficient knowledge and experience in financial and business matters to be capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment, and are able to bear the economic risks of the prospective investment.
C. The exemption is not available to an issuer that is in the development stage that either has no specific business plan or purpose or has indicated that its business plan is to engage in a merger or acquisition with an unidentified company or companies, or other entity or person.
D. The issuer reasonably believes that all purchasers are purchasing for investment and not with the view to or for sale in connection with a distribution of the security. Any resale of a security sold in reliance on this exemption within 12 months of sale shall be presumed to be with a view to distribution and not for investment, except a resale pursuant to a registration statement effective under §§ 13.1-508 through 13.1-510 of the Act or to an accredited investor pursuant to an exemption available under the Act.
E. 1. The exemption is not available to an issuer if the issuer, any of the issuer's predecessors, any affiliated issuer, any of the issuer's directors, officers, general partners, beneficial owners of 10% or more of any class of its equity securities, any of the issuer's promoters presently connected with the issuer in any capacity, any underwriter of the securities to be offered, or any partner, director, or officer of such underwriter:
a. Within Has filed within the last five years, has filed a registration statement which that is the subject of a currently effective registration stop order entered by any state securities administrator or the SEC;
b. Within Has been convicted within the last five years, has been convicted of any criminal offense in connection with the offer, purchase, or sale of any security, or involving fraud or deceit;
c. Is currently subject to any state or federal administrative enforcement order or judgment, entered within the last five years, finding fraud or deceit in connection with the purchase or sale of any security; or
d. Is currently subject to any order, judgment, or decree of any court of competent jurisdiction, entered within the last five years, temporarily, preliminarily, or permanently restraining or enjoining such party from engaging in or continuing to engage in any conduct or practice involving fraud or deceit in connection with the purchase or sale of any security.
2. Subdivision 1 of this subsection shall not apply if:
a. The party subject to the disqualification is licensed or registered to conduct securities related business in the state in which the order, judgment, or decree creating the disqualification was entered against such party;
b. Before the first offer under this exemption, the state securities administrator, or the court or regulatory authority that entered the order, judgment, or decree, waives the disqualification; or
c. The issuer establishes that it did not know and in the exercise of reasonable care, based on a factual inquiry, could not have known that a disqualification existed under this section.
F. A general announcement of the proposed offering may be made by any means. The general announcement shall include only the following information, unless additional information is specifically permitted by the commission:
1. The name, address, and telephone number of the issuer of the securities;
2. The name, and a brief description and price (if known) of any security to be issued;
3. A description of the business of the issuer in 25 words or less;
4. The type, number, and aggregate amount of securities being offered;
5. The name, address, and telephone number of the person to contact for additional information; and
6. A statement that:
a. Sales will only be made to accredited investors;
b. No money or other consideration is being solicited or will be accepted by way of this general announcement; and
c. The securities have not been registered with or approved by any state securities agency or the SEC and are being offered and sold pursuant to an exemption from registration.
G. The issuer, in connection with an offer, may provide information in addition to the general announcement under subsection F of this section, if such information:
1. Is delivered through an electronic database that is restricted to persons who have been pre-qualified as accredited investors; or
2. Is delivered if the issuer reasonably believes that the prospective purchaser is an accredited investor.
H. No telephone solicitation shall be permitted unless, prior to placing the call, the issuer reasonably believes that the prospective purchaser to be solicited is an accredited investor.
I. Dissemination of the general announcement of the proposed offering to persons who are not accredited investors shall not disqualify the issuer from claiming the exemption under this section.
J. The issuer shall file with the commission no later than 15 days after the first sale in this Commonwealth from an offering being made in reliance upon this exemption (filing deadline):
1. A notice on the Model Accredited Investor Exemption Uniform Notice of Transaction form.
2. An executed consent of service of process (Form U-2) appointing the Clerk of the commission as its the issuer's agent for purpose of service of process, unless a currently effective consent to service of process is on file with the commission.
3. A copy of the general announcement.
4. A nonrefundable filing fee of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
5. Should the filing not be timely made in accordance with this subsection, in addition to the filing fees set forth in this subsection, a late charge of $250 will be assessed if filed within 90 days of the filing deadline, $500 if filed within six months of the filing deadline, and $750 if filed more than six months after the filing deadline.
21VAC5-40-210. Information to be furnished with exemption requests under § 13.1-514.1 B of the Act; post-effective amendments.
A. A person requesting that a security receive an exemption from the requirements of § 13.1-507 of the Act pursuant to § 13.1-514.1 B of the Act must submit an application to the division that includes:
1. Type of security offered;
2. The amount the offering is seeking to raise;
3. Form U-2;
4. Form U-2A (if applicable);
5. Offering circular or prospectus;
6. NASAA Cross-Reference Sheet (if applicable);
7. Proof or statement in support of exemption;
8. Legal opinion of counsel;
9. Articles or certificate of organization;
10. Bylaws or corporate governance documents;
11. Other material information known to the applicant; and
12. Any other information that the division may request.
B. If an agent of the issuer is to be used in connection with the offering, the applicant must file an application pursuant to 21VAC5-20-160. If the agent of the issuer is not being compensated or remunerated for the sales, the applicant may request a waiver of the examination requirements under 21VAC5-20-160 B 3 by satisfying the requirements of 21VAC5-20-220 B 1.
C. For securities previously exempted under this section that are part of a continuous offering, the issuer may file a post-effective amendment with the division that includes the annual updated offering document within 120 days after the end of the issuer's fiscal year. Post-effective amendments under this subsection are not allowed for any of the following:
1. The amount of securities being offered changes;
2. The type of security being offered changes; or
3. The person offering the security to the public changes from the previously issued order of exemption.
21VAC5-45-20. Offerings conducted pursuant to Rule 506 of Federal Regulation D (17 CFR 230.506): filing requirements and issuer-agent exemption.
A. An issuer offering a security that is a covered security under § 18 (b)(4)(D) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 USC § 77r(b)(4)(D)) shall file with the commission no later than 15 days after the first sale of such federal covered security in this Commonwealth (filing deadline):
1. A notice on SEC Form D (17 CFR 239.500), as filed with the SEC.
2. A filing fee of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
B. An amendment filing shall contain a copy of the amended SEC Form D. No fee is required for an amendment.
C. For the purpose of this chapter, SEC "Form D" is the document, as adopted by the SEC entitled "Form D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities."
D. Pursuant to § 13.1-514 B 13 of the Act, an agent of an issuer who effects transactions in a security exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933 pursuant to rules and regulations promulgated under § 4(2) thereof (15 USC § 77d(2)) is exempt from the agent registration requirements of the Act.
E. Should the filing not be timely made in accordance with subsection A of this section, in addition to the filing fee set forth in subsection A of this section, a late charge of $250 will be assessed if filed within 90 days of the filing deadline, $500 if filed within six months of the filing deadline, and $750 if filed more than six months of the filing deadline.
21VAC5-45-30. Federal Regulation A Tier 2 offerings.
A. An issuer planning to offer and sell securities in this Commonwealth in an offering exempt under Tier 2 of federal Regulation A (17 CFR 230.251 through 17 CFR 230.263) and § 18(b)(3) or 18(b)(4) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 USC § 77a) shall submit the following at least 21 calendar days prior to the initial sale in this Commonwealth:
1. A completed Regulation A – Tier 2 notice filing form or copies of all documents filed with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
2. A consent to service of process on Form U-2 if not filing on the Regulation A – Tier 2 notice filing form; and
3. A filing fee of $500 payable the Treasurer of Virginia.
B. The initial notice filing is effective for 12 months from the date of the filing with this Commonwealth. For each additional 12-month period in which the same offering is continued, an issuer conducting a Tier 2 offering under federal Regulation A may renew its notice filing by filing the following on or before the expiration of the notice filing:
1. The Regulation A – Tier 2 notice filing form marked "renewal" or a cover letter or other document requesting renewal; and
2. A renewal fee in the amount of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
C. An issuer may increase the amount of securities offered in this Commonwealth by submitting a Regulation A – Tier 2 notice filing form marked "amendment" or other document describing the transaction.
D. Should the filing not be timely made in accordance with subsection A of this section, in addition to the filing fee set forth in subsection A of this section, a late charge of $250 will be assessed if filed within 90 days of the initial sale in this Commonwealth, $500 if filed within six months of the initial sale, and $750 if filed more than six months after the initial sale.
21VAC5-100-10. Disclosure of confidential information.
A. This section governs the disclosure by the commission of information or documents obtained or prepared by any member, subordinate, or employee of the commission in the course of any examination or investigation conducted pursuant to the provisions of the Securities Act (§ 13.1-501 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). It is designed to implement the provisions of §§ 13.1-518 and 13.1-567 that permit disclosure of information to governmental and quasi-governmental entities approved by rule of the commission.
B. The Director of the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising or the director's designee is hereby authorized to disclose information to the entities enumerated in subsections D, E, and F of this section. Disclosure shall be made only for the purpose of aiding in the detection or prevention of possible violations of law or to further administrative, legislative, or judicial action resulting from possible violations of law. As a condition precedent to disclosure, a writing shall be obtained from the receiving entity undertaking that it will exercise reasonable measures to preserve the confidential nature of the information.
C. Disclosure may be made only under the following circumstances:
1. In response to an entity's request for information relating to a specific subject or person.
2. By disseminating to an entity information which that may indicate a possible violation of law within the administrative, regulatory, or enforcement responsibility of that entity.
3. To participate in a centralized program or system designed to collect and maintain information pertaining to possible violations of securities, investment advisory, retail franchising, or related laws.
4. To the extent necessary for participation in coordinated examinations or investigations.
D. The following are approved governmental entities (including any agencies, bureaus, commissions, divisions, or successors thereof) of the United States:
1. Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System or any Federal Reserve Bank.
2. Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
3. Congress of the United States, including either House, or any committee or subcommittee thereof.
4. Department of Defense.
5. Department of Housing and Urban Development.
6. Department of Justice.
7. Department of Treasury.
8. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
9. Office of Thrift Supervision.
10. Federal Trade Commission.
11. Postal Service.
12. Securities and Exchange Commission.
13. Comptroller of the Currency.
14. Federal Bureau of Investigation.
15. Department of Homeland Security.
16. Office of the Inspector General.
17. Any other federal agency or instrumentality which that demonstrates a need for access to confidential information.
16. Virginia General Assembly, including the House or the Senate, or any committee or subcommittee thereof.
E. The following are approved nonfederal governmental entities:
1. Virginia General Assembly, including the House of Delegates or the Virginia Senate, or any committee or subcommittee thereof.
2. Any Virginia governmental agency or instrumentality that demonstrates a need for access to confidential information.
3. The securities or retail franchising regulatory entity of any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, state legislative bodies and state and local law-enforcement entities involved in the detection, investigation, or prosecution of violations of law.
2. 4. The securities or retail franchising regulatory entity of any foreign country, whether such entity is on a national, provincial, regional, state, or local level, and law-enforcement entities within such countries.
F. The following are approved quasi-governmental entities:
1. Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board.
2. National Association of Attorneys General.
3. NASAA.
4. Securities Investor Protection Corporation.
5. National White Collar Crime Center.
6. FINRA.
7. Any other quasi-governmental entity that demonstrates a need for access to confidential information.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8356; Filed November 05, 2025
TITLE 21. SECURITIES AND RETAIL FRANCHISING
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION, DIVISION OF SECURITIES AND RETAIL FRANCHISING
Final
TITLE 21. SECURITIES AND RETAIL FRANCHISING
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The State Corporation Commission is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4002 A 2 of the Code of Virginia, which exempts courts, any agency of the Supreme Court, and any agency that by the Constitution is expressly granted any of the powers of a court of record.
Titles of Regulations: 21VAC5-40. Exempt Securities and Transactions (amending 21VAC5-40-100, 21VAC5-40-140; adding 21VAC5-40-210).
21VAC5-45. Federal Covered Securities (amending 21VAC5-45-20, 21VAC5-45-30).
21VAC5-100. Disclosure of Information or Documents by Commission (amending 21VAC5-100-10).
Statutory Authority: §§ 12.1-13 and 13.1-523 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Jude Richnafsky, Manager of Examinations, Division of Securities and Retail Franchising, State Corporation Commission, Tyler Building, Ninth Floor, P.O. Box 1197, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9883, or email jude.richnafsky@scc.virginia.gov.
AT RICHMOND, NOVEMBER 3, 2025
COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA, ex rel.
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
CASE NO. SEC-2025-00024
Ex Parte: In the matter of
Adopting Revisions to the Rules
Governing the Virginia Securities Act
ORDER ADOPTING REGULATIONS
On August 11, 2025, the State Corporation Commission ("Commission") entered an Order Establishing Proceeding regarding a proposal by the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising ("Division") to revise Chapters 40, 45, and 100 of Title 21 of the Virginia Administrative Code, which provide, in part, the Commission’s rules governing the Virginia Securities Act ("Act"), § 13.1-501 et seq. of the Code of Virginia.
The Division recommended revisions to Chapters 40, 45, and 100 to: (a) amend Rules 21VAC5-40-100, 21VAC5-40-140, 21VAC5-45-20, and 21VAC5-45-30 to assess late charges for filings related to the associated exemptions in § 13.1-514 B of the Act; (b) amend Rule 21VAC5-40-100 to remove the reference to repealed Rule 21VAC5-40-30; (c) create a new Rule at 21VAC5-40-210 to establish filing requirements and a timeline for post-effective filings for securities exempted pursuant to § 13.1-514.1 B of the Act; and (d) amend Rule 21VAC5-100-10 D to broaden the list of approved governmental entities for disclosure under § 13.1-518 B of the Act. Collectively, these revisions are referred to in the Order Establishing Proceeding as the proposed revisions.
The Order Establishing Proceeding and proposed revisions were posted on the Commission’s website, sent to interested persons, and published in the Virginia Register of Regulations on September 8, 2025. The Order Establishing Proceeding invited any interested persons to participate and required that any comments or requests for a hearing on the proposed revisions be submitted in writing on or before October 7, 2025.
No comments were filed nor were any requests for hearing made in this matter.
The Division has not recommended that the Commission further amend the proposed revisions following the entry of the Order Establishing Proceeding.
NOW THE COMMISSION, having considered this matter, concludes that the proposed revisions should be adopted effective January 1, 2026.
Accordingly, IT IS ORDERED THAT:
(1) The proposed revisions, attached hereto and made a part hereof, are ADOPTED effective January 1, 2026.
(2) The Division shall provide notice of this Order Adopting Regulations ("Order") and the adopted revisions to Chapters 40, 45, and 100 of Title 21 to any interested persons as the Division may designate.
(3) The Commission’s Office of General Counsel shall provide a copy of this Order and the adopted revisions to Chapters 40, 45, and 100 of Title 21 to the Virginia Registrar of Regulations for publication in the Virginia Register of Regulations.
(4) Interested persons may download unofficial copies of this Order and the adopted revisions to Chapters 40, 45, and 100 of Title 21 from the Commission’s website: scc.virginia.gov/case-information.
(5) This case is dismissed.
A COPY hereof, along with the attached regulations, shall be sent by the Clerk of the Commission to: C. Meade Browder, Jr., Senior Assistant Attorney General, at MBrowder@oag.state.va.us, Office of the Attorney General, Division of Consumer Counsel, 202 N. 9th Street, 8th Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219-3424; and the Commission’s Office of General Counsel and the Director of the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising.
Summary:
The amendments (i) adopt late charges for certain securities exemption filings; (ii) remove an obsolete cross-reference; (iii) establish filing requirements and a timeline for post-effective filings for securities exempted pursuant to § 13.1-514.1 B of the Code of Virginia; and (iv) broaden the list of approved governmental entities for disclosure under § 13.1-518 of the Code of Virginia.
21VAC5-40-100. Domestic issuer limited transactional exemption.
A. In accordance with § 13.1-514 B 7 b of the Act, an offer or sale by the issuer of any of the following securities issued by a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or real estate investment trust, as the case may be: note, stock, bond, debenture, evidence of indebtedness, partnership interest, share of beneficial interest in a real estate investment trust, a warrant or right to purchase or subscribe to any of the foregoing or a security convertible into any of the foregoing, shall be exempt from the securities, broker-dealer, and agent registration requirements of the Act, provided the following conditions are met:
1. In connection with an offering pursuant to this section, there shall be no more than 35 purchasers in this Commonwealth during any period of 12 consecutive months;
2. In connection with an offering pursuant to this section, the issuer shall:
a. Deliver Form VA-1 and in certain prescribed circumstances, Part 2 of Form VA-1 or a disclosure document containing the information required by Form VA-1 and Part 2, if required, to each prospective purchaser prior to a sale to a purchaser; and
b. Sell securities only to purchasers, each of which the issuer shall and, after reasonable inquiry, believe either that the purchaser:
(1) Has sufficient knowledge and experience in financial and business matters to be capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment, and is able to bear the economic risks of the prospective investment; or
(2) Together with a purchaser representative or representatives, has sufficient knowledge and experience in financial and business matters to be capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment, and that the purchaser is able to bear the economic risks of the prospective investment; and
3. No commission or similar remuneration is paid or given, directly or indirectly, for soliciting a prospective purchaser, or in connection with sales of securities in reliance on this section, unless paid to a broker-dealer and its the broker-dealer's agent who are registered under the Act and the securities are offered only to persons whose investing history demonstrates an ability to evaluate the merits and risks of the investment and who are capable of bearing the economic risks of the investment.
B. This exemption is not available with respect to an offering:
1. Pursuant to a registration statement or Regulation A (17 CFR 230.251-230.263) notification which that has been filed under the Securities Act of 1933;
2. Pursuant to an exemption under Regulation D (17 CFR 230.505), which offering may be exempted in Virginia only by 21VAC5-40-30, Uniform Limited Offering Exemption;
3. 2. If the amount of money to be raised from the offering exceeds $2,000,000 $2 million;
4. 3. If the issuer has offered for sale or sold its securities which that are of the same or a similar class as that to be offered for sale or sold under this section within 180 days prior to this offering or if the issuer offers for sale or sells its securities that are of the same or a similar class as those offered and sold under this section within 180 days after this offering; or
5. 4. If the issuer does not have its principal place of business in this Commonwealth.
C. An exemption under this section is not available if the issuer, its the issuer's directors, officers, partners, members, trustees, or beneficial owners of 10% or more of a class of its voting securities, or its the issuer's promoters or agents connected with it or a person offering or selling the securities for or on behalf of the issuer:
1. Has been convicted (or has pleaded nolo contendere) within five years prior to reliance on this section of a felony or a misdemeanor in connection with the purchase or sale of a security, or in connection with making a false filing with the SEC or a state securities administrator or of a felony involving fraud or deceit, including but not limited to, forgery, embezzlement, obtaining money under false pretenses, larceny, conspiracy to defraud, or theft;
2. Is subject to an order, judgment, or decree of a court of competent jurisdiction that temporarily or preliminarily restrains or enjoins, or is subject to an order, judgment, or decree of a court of competent jurisdiction, entered within five years prior to reliance on this section, which permanently restrains or enjoins a person from engaging in or continuing a practice or conduct in connection with the purchase or sale of a security, or involving the making of a false filling filing with the SEC or a state securities administrator;
3. Is subject to a United States Postal Service false representation order entered within five years prior to reliance on this section; or
4. Is subject to a state administrative order entered within five years prior to reliance on this section by a state securities administrator in which fraud or deceit was found.
D. The issuer shall file with the commission 15 days prior to the first sale in this Commonwealth in reliance on this section:
1. A copy of Form VA-1, including Part 2, if applicable or a disclosure document containing the information required by the Form form;
2. An executed Consent to Service of Process (Form U2) appointing the Clerk of the commission as its the issuer's agent for service of process;
3. An undertaking to promptly provide to the commission, upon request, additional information as the commission may require; and
4. A nonrefundable filing fee of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
5. Should the filing not be timely made in accordance with this subsection, in addition to the filing fee set forth in this subsection, a late charge of $250 will be assessed if filed within 90 days of the first sale in this Commonwealth, $500 if filed within six months of the first sale, and $750 if filed more than six months after the first sale.
E. The issuer shall, within 30 days after the completion of the offering, file with the commission a report of sales indicating the number of purchasers in this Commonwealth, a description of the securities sold to such purchasers, and the total dollar amount raised.
F. This section does not exempt persons or transactions from the anti-fraud provisions of the Act.
G. The commission may deny the exemption if it the commission determines that a particular transaction or offering is not in the public interest.
H. For purposes of this section and § 13.1-514 B 7 b of the Act, the following shall apply:
1. Neither the issuer nor persons acting on its behalf shall offer or sell the securities by form of general solicitation or advertising, including but not limited to, the following:
a. "Cold calls" by telephone or other means, advertising, article, notice, or other communication published in a newspaper, newsletter, magazine, mass mailing, electronic media, or similar media or broadcast over television or radio; or
b. Seminars or meetings whose attendees have been invited by general solicitation or general advertising.
2. Securities acquired in a transaction under this section shall not be resold without registration under or exemption from the Act. The issuer or a person acting on its the issuer's behalf shall exercise reasonable care to assure that the purchasers of the securities in an offering under this section are purchasing for investment and not with a view to distribution of the securities. Reasonable care shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
a. Reasonable inquiry to determine whether the purchaser is acquiring the securities for himself or for other persons;
b. Placement of a restrictive legend on the certificate or other document evidencing the securities. The legend shall be in the following form: THE SECURITIES REPRESENTED BY THIS CERTIFICATE (OR OTHER DOCUMENT) HAVE BEEN ISSUED PURSUANT TO A CLAIM OF EXEMPTION FROM THE REGISTRATION OR QUALIFICATION PROVISIONS OF FEDERAL AND STATE SECURITIES LAWS AND SHALL NOT BE SOLD OR TRANSFERRED WITHOUT COMPLIANCE WITH THE REGISTRATION OR QUALIFICATION PROVISIONS OF APPLICABLE FEDERAL AND STATE SECURITIES LAWS OR APPLICABLE EXEMPTIONS THEREFROM;
c. Issuance of stop-transfer instructions to the issuer's transfer agent with respect to the securities, or, if the issuer transfers its the issuer's own securities, notation in the appropriate records of the issuer; and
d. Obtaining from the purchaser a signed agreement that the securities will not be sold unless they the securities are registered under the Act or exempted from registration.
3. All sales that are part of the same offering under this section shall meet all the conditions of this section. Offers and sales that are made more than six months before the commencement of an offering under this section or are made more than six months after completion of an offering under this section will not be considered part of that offering, so long as during those six-month periods there are no offers or sales of securities by or on behalf of the issuer that are of the same or a similar class as those offered or sold under this section. If securities of the same or a similar class as those offered pursuant to this section are offered or sold less than six months before or after an offer or sale pursuant to this section, those offers to sell or sales, will be deemed to be "integrated" with the offering.
I. In proceedings involving this section, the burden of proving the exemption or an exception from a definition or condition is upon the person claiming it.
J. The exemption authorized by this section shall be known and may be cited as the "Domestic Issuer Limited Transactional Exemption."
21VAC5-40-140. Accredited investor exemption.
A. In accordance with § 13.1-514 B 19 of the Act, any offer or sale of a security by an issuer in a transaction that meets the requirements of this section is exempt from the securities, broker-dealer, and agent registration requirements of the Act.
B. Sales of securities shall be made only to persons who are or the issuer reasonably believes are "accredited investors," as that term is defined in 17 CFR 230.501(a), and who:
1. Have sufficient knowledge and experience in financial and business matters to be capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment, and are able to bear the economic risks of the prospective investment; or
2. Together with a purchaser representative or representatives, have sufficient knowledge and experience in financial and business matters to be capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment, and are able to bear the economic risks of the prospective investment.
C. The exemption is not available to an issuer that is in the development stage that either has no specific business plan or purpose or has indicated that its business plan is to engage in a merger or acquisition with an unidentified company or companies, or other entity or person.
D. The issuer reasonably believes that all purchasers are purchasing for investment and not with the view to or for sale in connection with a distribution of the security. Any resale of a security sold in reliance on this exemption within 12 months of sale shall be presumed to be with a view to distribution and not for investment, except a resale pursuant to a registration statement effective under §§ 13.1-508 through 13.1-510 of the Act or to an accredited investor pursuant to an exemption available under the Act.
E. 1. The exemption is not available to an issuer if the issuer, any of the issuer's predecessors, any affiliated issuer, any of the issuer's directors, officers, general partners, beneficial owners of 10% or more of any class of its equity securities, any of the issuer's promoters presently connected with the issuer in any capacity, any underwriter of the securities to be offered, or any partner, director, or officer of such underwriter:
a. Within Has filed within the last five years, has filed a registration statement which that is the subject of a currently effective registration stop order entered by any state securities administrator or the SEC;
b. Within Has been convicted within the last five years, has been convicted of any criminal offense in connection with the offer, purchase, or sale of any security, or involving fraud or deceit;
c. Is currently subject to any state or federal administrative enforcement order or judgment, entered within the last five years, finding fraud or deceit in connection with the purchase or sale of any security; or
d. Is currently subject to any order, judgment, or decree of any court of competent jurisdiction, entered within the last five years, temporarily, preliminarily, or permanently restraining or enjoining such party from engaging in or continuing to engage in any conduct or practice involving fraud or deceit in connection with the purchase or sale of any security.
2. Subdivision 1 of this subsection shall not apply if:
a. The party subject to the disqualification is licensed or registered to conduct securities related business in the state in which the order, judgment, or decree creating the disqualification was entered against such party;
b. Before the first offer under this exemption, the state securities administrator, or the court or regulatory authority that entered the order, judgment, or decree, waives the disqualification; or
c. The issuer establishes that it did not know and in the exercise of reasonable care, based on a factual inquiry, could not have known that a disqualification existed under this section.
F. A general announcement of the proposed offering may be made by any means. The general announcement shall include only the following information, unless additional information is specifically permitted by the commission:
1. The name, address, and telephone number of the issuer of the securities;
2. The name, and a brief description and price (if known) of any security to be issued;
3. A description of the business of the issuer in 25 words or less;
4. The type, number, and aggregate amount of securities being offered;
5. The name, address, and telephone number of the person to contact for additional information; and
6. A statement that:
a. Sales will only be made to accredited investors;
b. No money or other consideration is being solicited or will be accepted by way of this general announcement; and
c. The securities have not been registered with or approved by any state securities agency or the SEC and are being offered and sold pursuant to an exemption from registration.
G. The issuer, in connection with an offer, may provide information in addition to the general announcement under subsection F of this section, if such information:
1. Is delivered through an electronic database that is restricted to persons who have been pre-qualified as accredited investors; or
2. Is delivered if the issuer reasonably believes that the prospective purchaser is an accredited investor.
H. No telephone solicitation shall be permitted unless, prior to placing the call, the issuer reasonably believes that the prospective purchaser to be solicited is an accredited investor.
I. Dissemination of the general announcement of the proposed offering to persons who are not accredited investors shall not disqualify the issuer from claiming the exemption under this section.
J. The issuer shall file with the commission no later than 15 days after the first sale in this Commonwealth from an offering being made in reliance upon this exemption (filing deadline):
1. A notice on the Model Accredited Investor Exemption Uniform Notice of Transaction form.
2. An executed consent of service of process (Form U-2) appointing the Clerk of the commission as its the issuer's agent for purpose of service of process, unless a currently effective consent to service of process is on file with the commission.
3. A copy of the general announcement.
4. A nonrefundable filing fee of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
5. Should the filing not be timely made in accordance with this subsection, in addition to the filing fees set forth in this subsection, a late charge of $250 will be assessed if filed within 90 days of the filing deadline, $500 if filed within six months of the filing deadline, and $750 if filed more than six months after the filing deadline.
21VAC5-40-210. Information to be furnished with exemption requests under § 13.1-514.1 B of the Act; post-effective amendments.
A. A person requesting that a security receive an exemption from the requirements of § 13.1-507 of the Act pursuant to § 13.1-514.1 B of the Act must submit an application to the division that includes:
1. Type of security offered;
2. The amount the offering is seeking to raise;
3. Form U-2;
4. Form U-2A (if applicable);
5. Offering circular or prospectus;
6. NASAA Cross-Reference Sheet (if applicable);
7. Proof or statement in support of exemption;
8. Legal opinion of counsel;
9. Articles or certificate of organization;
10. Bylaws or corporate governance documents;
11. Other material information known to the applicant; and
12. Any other information that the division may request.
B. If an agent of the issuer is to be used in connection with the offering, the applicant must file an application pursuant to 21VAC5-20-160. If the agent of the issuer is not being compensated or remunerated for the sales, the applicant may request a waiver of the examination requirements under 21VAC5-20-160 B 3 by satisfying the requirements of 21VAC5-20-220 B 1.
C. For securities previously exempted under this section that are part of a continuous offering, the issuer may file a post-effective amendment with the division that includes the annual updated offering document within 120 days after the end of the issuer's fiscal year. Post-effective amendments under this subsection are not allowed for any of the following:
1. The amount of securities being offered changes;
2. The type of security being offered changes; or
3. The person offering the security to the public changes from the previously issued order of exemption.
21VAC5-45-20. Offerings conducted pursuant to Rule 506 of Federal Regulation D (17 CFR 230.506): filing requirements and issuer-agent exemption.
A. An issuer offering a security that is a covered security under § 18 (b)(4)(D) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 USC § 77r(b)(4)(D)) shall file with the commission no later than 15 days after the first sale of such federal covered security in this Commonwealth (filing deadline):
1. A notice on SEC Form D (17 CFR 239.500), as filed with the SEC.
2. A filing fee of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
B. An amendment filing shall contain a copy of the amended SEC Form D. No fee is required for an amendment.
C. For the purpose of this chapter, SEC "Form D" is the document, as adopted by the SEC entitled "Form D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities."
D. Pursuant to § 13.1-514 B 13 of the Act, an agent of an issuer who effects transactions in a security exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933 pursuant to rules and regulations promulgated under § 4(2) thereof (15 USC § 77d(2)) is exempt from the agent registration requirements of the Act.
E. Should the filing not be timely made in accordance with subsection A of this section, in addition to the filing fee set forth in subsection A of this section, a late charge of $250 will be assessed if filed within 90 days of the filing deadline, $500 if filed within six months of the filing deadline, and $750 if filed more than six months of the filing deadline.
21VAC5-45-30. Federal Regulation A Tier 2 offerings.
A. An issuer planning to offer and sell securities in this Commonwealth in an offering exempt under Tier 2 of federal Regulation A (17 CFR 230.251 through 17 CFR 230.263) and § 18(b)(3) or 18(b)(4) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 USC § 77a) shall submit the following at least 21 calendar days prior to the initial sale in this Commonwealth:
1. A completed Regulation A – Tier 2 notice filing form or copies of all documents filed with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
2. A consent to service of process on Form U-2 if not filing on the Regulation A – Tier 2 notice filing form; and
3. A filing fee of $500 payable the Treasurer of Virginia.
B. The initial notice filing is effective for 12 months from the date of the filing with this Commonwealth. For each additional 12-month period in which the same offering is continued, an issuer conducting a Tier 2 offering under federal Regulation A may renew its notice filing by filing the following on or before the expiration of the notice filing:
1. The Regulation A – Tier 2 notice filing form marked "renewal" or a cover letter or other document requesting renewal; and
2. A renewal fee in the amount of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
C. An issuer may increase the amount of securities offered in this Commonwealth by submitting a Regulation A – Tier 2 notice filing form marked "amendment" or other document describing the transaction.
D. Should the filing not be timely made in accordance with subsection A of this section, in addition to the filing fee set forth in subsection A of this section, a late charge of $250 will be assessed if filed within 90 days of the initial sale in this Commonwealth, $500 if filed within six months of the initial sale, and $750 if filed more than six months after the initial sale.
21VAC5-100-10. Disclosure of confidential information.
A. This section governs the disclosure by the commission of information or documents obtained or prepared by any member, subordinate, or employee of the commission in the course of any examination or investigation conducted pursuant to the provisions of the Securities Act (§ 13.1-501 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). It is designed to implement the provisions of §§ 13.1-518 and 13.1-567 that permit disclosure of information to governmental and quasi-governmental entities approved by rule of the commission.
B. The Director of the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising or the director's designee is hereby authorized to disclose information to the entities enumerated in subsections D, E, and F of this section. Disclosure shall be made only for the purpose of aiding in the detection or prevention of possible violations of law or to further administrative, legislative, or judicial action resulting from possible violations of law. As a condition precedent to disclosure, a writing shall be obtained from the receiving entity undertaking that it will exercise reasonable measures to preserve the confidential nature of the information.
C. Disclosure may be made only under the following circumstances:
1. In response to an entity's request for information relating to a specific subject or person.
2. By disseminating to an entity information which that may indicate a possible violation of law within the administrative, regulatory, or enforcement responsibility of that entity.
3. To participate in a centralized program or system designed to collect and maintain information pertaining to possible violations of securities, investment advisory, retail franchising, or related laws.
4. To the extent necessary for participation in coordinated examinations or investigations.
D. The following are approved governmental entities (including any agencies, bureaus, commissions, divisions, or successors thereof) of the United States:
1. Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System or any Federal Reserve Bank.
2. Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
3. Congress of the United States, including either House, or any committee or subcommittee thereof.
4. Department of Defense.
5. Department of Housing and Urban Development.
6. Department of Justice.
7. Department of Treasury.
8. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
9. Office of Thrift Supervision.
10. Federal Trade Commission.
11. Postal Service.
12. Securities and Exchange Commission.
13. Comptroller of the Currency.
14. Federal Bureau of Investigation.
15. Department of Homeland Security.
16. Office of the Inspector General.
17. Any other federal agency or instrumentality which that demonstrates a need for access to confidential information.
16. Virginia General Assembly, including the House or the Senate, or any committee or subcommittee thereof.
E. The following are approved nonfederal governmental entities:
1. Virginia General Assembly, including the House of Delegates or the Virginia Senate, or any committee or subcommittee thereof.
2. Any Virginia governmental agency or instrumentality that demonstrates a need for access to confidential information.
3. The securities or retail franchising regulatory entity of any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, state legislative bodies and state and local law-enforcement entities involved in the detection, investigation, or prosecution of violations of law.
2. 4. The securities or retail franchising regulatory entity of any foreign country, whether such entity is on a national, provincial, regional, state, or local level, and law-enforcement entities within such countries.
F. The following are approved quasi-governmental entities:
1. Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board.
2. National Association of Attorneys General.
3. NASAA.
4. Securities Investor Protection Corporation.
5. National White Collar Crime Center.
6. FINRA.
7. Any other quasi-governmental entity that demonstrates a need for access to confidential information.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8356; Filed November 05, 2025
TITLE 21. SECURITIES AND RETAIL FRANCHISING
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION, DIVISION OF SECURITIES AND RETAIL FRANCHISING
Final
TITLE 21. SECURITIES AND RETAIL FRANCHISING
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
Final Regulation
REGISTRAR'S NOTICE: The State Corporation Commission is claiming an exemption from the Administrative Process Act in accordance with § 2.2-4002 A 2 of the Code of Virginia, which exempts courts, any agency of the Supreme Court, and any agency that by the Constitution is expressly granted any of the powers of a court of record.
Titles of Regulations: 21VAC5-40. Exempt Securities and Transactions (amending 21VAC5-40-100, 21VAC5-40-140; adding 21VAC5-40-210).
21VAC5-45. Federal Covered Securities (amending 21VAC5-45-20, 21VAC5-45-30).
21VAC5-100. Disclosure of Information or Documents by Commission (amending 21VAC5-100-10).
Statutory Authority: §§ 12.1-13 and 13.1-523 of the Code of Virginia.
Effective Date: January 1, 2026.
Agency Contact: Jude Richnafsky, Manager of Examinations, Division of Securities and Retail Franchising, State Corporation Commission, Tyler Building, Ninth Floor, P.O. Box 1197, Richmond, VA 23218, telephone (804) 371-9883, or email jude.richnafsky@scc.virginia.gov.
AT RICHMOND, NOVEMBER 3, 2025
COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA, ex rel.
STATE CORPORATION COMMISSION
CASE NO. SEC-2025-00024
Ex Parte: In the matter of
Adopting Revisions to the Rules
Governing the Virginia Securities Act
ORDER ADOPTING REGULATIONS
On August 11, 2025, the State Corporation Commission ("Commission") entered an Order Establishing Proceeding regarding a proposal by the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising ("Division") to revise Chapters 40, 45, and 100 of Title 21 of the Virginia Administrative Code, which provide, in part, the Commission’s rules governing the Virginia Securities Act ("Act"), § 13.1-501 et seq. of the Code of Virginia.
The Division recommended revisions to Chapters 40, 45, and 100 to: (a) amend Rules 21VAC5-40-100, 21VAC5-40-140, 21VAC5-45-20, and 21VAC5-45-30 to assess late charges for filings related to the associated exemptions in § 13.1-514 B of the Act; (b) amend Rule 21VAC5-40-100 to remove the reference to repealed Rule 21VAC5-40-30; (c) create a new Rule at 21VAC5-40-210 to establish filing requirements and a timeline for post-effective filings for securities exempted pursuant to § 13.1-514.1 B of the Act; and (d) amend Rule 21VAC5-100-10 D to broaden the list of approved governmental entities for disclosure under § 13.1-518 B of the Act. Collectively, these revisions are referred to in the Order Establishing Proceeding as the proposed revisions.
The Order Establishing Proceeding and proposed revisions were posted on the Commission’s website, sent to interested persons, and published in the Virginia Register of Regulations on September 8, 2025. The Order Establishing Proceeding invited any interested persons to participate and required that any comments or requests for a hearing on the proposed revisions be submitted in writing on or before October 7, 2025.
No comments were filed nor were any requests for hearing made in this matter.
The Division has not recommended that the Commission further amend the proposed revisions following the entry of the Order Establishing Proceeding.
NOW THE COMMISSION, having considered this matter, concludes that the proposed revisions should be adopted effective January 1, 2026.
Accordingly, IT IS ORDERED THAT:
(1) The proposed revisions, attached hereto and made a part hereof, are ADOPTED effective January 1, 2026.
(2) The Division shall provide notice of this Order Adopting Regulations ("Order") and the adopted revisions to Chapters 40, 45, and 100 of Title 21 to any interested persons as the Division may designate.
(3) The Commission’s Office of General Counsel shall provide a copy of this Order and the adopted revisions to Chapters 40, 45, and 100 of Title 21 to the Virginia Registrar of Regulations for publication in the Virginia Register of Regulations.
(4) Interested persons may download unofficial copies of this Order and the adopted revisions to Chapters 40, 45, and 100 of Title 21 from the Commission’s website: scc.virginia.gov/case-information.
(5) This case is dismissed.
A COPY hereof, along with the attached regulations, shall be sent by the Clerk of the Commission to: C. Meade Browder, Jr., Senior Assistant Attorney General, at MBrowder@oag.state.va.us, Office of the Attorney General, Division of Consumer Counsel, 202 N. 9th Street, 8th Floor, Richmond, Virginia 23219-3424; and the Commission’s Office of General Counsel and the Director of the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising.
Summary:
The amendments (i) adopt late charges for certain securities exemption filings; (ii) remove an obsolete cross-reference; (iii) establish filing requirements and a timeline for post-effective filings for securities exempted pursuant to § 13.1-514.1 B of the Code of Virginia; and (iv) broaden the list of approved governmental entities for disclosure under § 13.1-518 of the Code of Virginia.
21VAC5-40-100. Domestic issuer limited transactional exemption.
A. In accordance with § 13.1-514 B 7 b of the Act, an offer or sale by the issuer of any of the following securities issued by a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or real estate investment trust, as the case may be: note, stock, bond, debenture, evidence of indebtedness, partnership interest, share of beneficial interest in a real estate investment trust, a warrant or right to purchase or subscribe to any of the foregoing or a security convertible into any of the foregoing, shall be exempt from the securities, broker-dealer, and agent registration requirements of the Act, provided the following conditions are met:
1. In connection with an offering pursuant to this section, there shall be no more than 35 purchasers in this Commonwealth during any period of 12 consecutive months;
2. In connection with an offering pursuant to this section, the issuer shall:
a. Deliver Form VA-1 and in certain prescribed circumstances, Part 2 of Form VA-1 or a disclosure document containing the information required by Form VA-1 and Part 2, if required, to each prospective purchaser prior to a sale to a purchaser; and
b. Sell securities only to purchasers, each of which the issuer shall and, after reasonable inquiry, believe either that the purchaser:
(1) Has sufficient knowledge and experience in financial and business matters to be capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment, and is able to bear the economic risks of the prospective investment; or
(2) Together with a purchaser representative or representatives, has sufficient knowledge and experience in financial and business matters to be capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment, and that the purchaser is able to bear the economic risks of the prospective investment; and
3. No commission or similar remuneration is paid or given, directly or indirectly, for soliciting a prospective purchaser, or in connection with sales of securities in reliance on this section, unless paid to a broker-dealer and its the broker-dealer's agent who are registered under the Act and the securities are offered only to persons whose investing history demonstrates an ability to evaluate the merits and risks of the investment and who are capable of bearing the economic risks of the investment.
B. This exemption is not available with respect to an offering:
1. Pursuant to a registration statement or Regulation A (17 CFR 230.251-230.263) notification which that has been filed under the Securities Act of 1933;
2. Pursuant to an exemption under Regulation D (17 CFR 230.505), which offering may be exempted in Virginia only by 21VAC5-40-30, Uniform Limited Offering Exemption;
3. 2. If the amount of money to be raised from the offering exceeds $2,000,000 $2 million;
4. 3. If the issuer has offered for sale or sold its securities which that are of the same or a similar class as that to be offered for sale or sold under this section within 180 days prior to this offering or if the issuer offers for sale or sells its securities that are of the same or a similar class as those offered and sold under this section within 180 days after this offering; or
5. 4. If the issuer does not have its principal place of business in this Commonwealth.
C. An exemption under this section is not available if the issuer, its the issuer's directors, officers, partners, members, trustees, or beneficial owners of 10% or more of a class of its voting securities, or its the issuer's promoters or agents connected with it or a person offering or selling the securities for or on behalf of the issuer:
1. Has been convicted (or has pleaded nolo contendere) within five years prior to reliance on this section of a felony or a misdemeanor in connection with the purchase or sale of a security, or in connection with making a false filing with the SEC or a state securities administrator or of a felony involving fraud or deceit, including but not limited to, forgery, embezzlement, obtaining money under false pretenses, larceny, conspiracy to defraud, or theft;
2. Is subject to an order, judgment, or decree of a court of competent jurisdiction that temporarily or preliminarily restrains or enjoins, or is subject to an order, judgment, or decree of a court of competent jurisdiction, entered within five years prior to reliance on this section, which permanently restrains or enjoins a person from engaging in or continuing a practice or conduct in connection with the purchase or sale of a security, or involving the making of a false filling filing with the SEC or a state securities administrator;
3. Is subject to a United States Postal Service false representation order entered within five years prior to reliance on this section; or
4. Is subject to a state administrative order entered within five years prior to reliance on this section by a state securities administrator in which fraud or deceit was found.
D. The issuer shall file with the commission 15 days prior to the first sale in this Commonwealth in reliance on this section:
1. A copy of Form VA-1, including Part 2, if applicable or a disclosure document containing the information required by the Form form;
2. An executed Consent to Service of Process (Form U2) appointing the Clerk of the commission as its the issuer's agent for service of process;
3. An undertaking to promptly provide to the commission, upon request, additional information as the commission may require; and
4. A nonrefundable filing fee of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
5. Should the filing not be timely made in accordance with this subsection, in addition to the filing fee set forth in this subsection, a late charge of $250 will be assessed if filed within 90 days of the first sale in this Commonwealth, $500 if filed within six months of the first sale, and $750 if filed more than six months after the first sale.
E. The issuer shall, within 30 days after the completion of the offering, file with the commission a report of sales indicating the number of purchasers in this Commonwealth, a description of the securities sold to such purchasers, and the total dollar amount raised.
F. This section does not exempt persons or transactions from the anti-fraud provisions of the Act.
G. The commission may deny the exemption if it the commission determines that a particular transaction or offering is not in the public interest.
H. For purposes of this section and § 13.1-514 B 7 b of the Act, the following shall apply:
1. Neither the issuer nor persons acting on its behalf shall offer or sell the securities by form of general solicitation or advertising, including but not limited to, the following:
a. "Cold calls" by telephone or other means, advertising, article, notice, or other communication published in a newspaper, newsletter, magazine, mass mailing, electronic media, or similar media or broadcast over television or radio; or
b. Seminars or meetings whose attendees have been invited by general solicitation or general advertising.
2. Securities acquired in a transaction under this section shall not be resold without registration under or exemption from the Act. The issuer or a person acting on its the issuer's behalf shall exercise reasonable care to assure that the purchasers of the securities in an offering under this section are purchasing for investment and not with a view to distribution of the securities. Reasonable care shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
a. Reasonable inquiry to determine whether the purchaser is acquiring the securities for himself or for other persons;
b. Placement of a restrictive legend on the certificate or other document evidencing the securities. The legend shall be in the following form: THE SECURITIES REPRESENTED BY THIS CERTIFICATE (OR OTHER DOCUMENT) HAVE BEEN ISSUED PURSUANT TO A CLAIM OF EXEMPTION FROM THE REGISTRATION OR QUALIFICATION PROVISIONS OF FEDERAL AND STATE SECURITIES LAWS AND SHALL NOT BE SOLD OR TRANSFERRED WITHOUT COMPLIANCE WITH THE REGISTRATION OR QUALIFICATION PROVISIONS OF APPLICABLE FEDERAL AND STATE SECURITIES LAWS OR APPLICABLE EXEMPTIONS THEREFROM;
c. Issuance of stop-transfer instructions to the issuer's transfer agent with respect to the securities, or, if the issuer transfers its the issuer's own securities, notation in the appropriate records of the issuer; and
d. Obtaining from the purchaser a signed agreement that the securities will not be sold unless they the securities are registered under the Act or exempted from registration.
3. All sales that are part of the same offering under this section shall meet all the conditions of this section. Offers and sales that are made more than six months before the commencement of an offering under this section or are made more than six months after completion of an offering under this section will not be considered part of that offering, so long as during those six-month periods there are no offers or sales of securities by or on behalf of the issuer that are of the same or a similar class as those offered or sold under this section. If securities of the same or a similar class as those offered pursuant to this section are offered or sold less than six months before or after an offer or sale pursuant to this section, those offers to sell or sales, will be deemed to be "integrated" with the offering.
I. In proceedings involving this section, the burden of proving the exemption or an exception from a definition or condition is upon the person claiming it.
J. The exemption authorized by this section shall be known and may be cited as the "Domestic Issuer Limited Transactional Exemption."
21VAC5-40-140. Accredited investor exemption.
A. In accordance with § 13.1-514 B 19 of the Act, any offer or sale of a security by an issuer in a transaction that meets the requirements of this section is exempt from the securities, broker-dealer, and agent registration requirements of the Act.
B. Sales of securities shall be made only to persons who are or the issuer reasonably believes are "accredited investors," as that term is defined in 17 CFR 230.501(a), and who:
1. Have sufficient knowledge and experience in financial and business matters to be capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment, and are able to bear the economic risks of the prospective investment; or
2. Together with a purchaser representative or representatives, have sufficient knowledge and experience in financial and business matters to be capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment, and are able to bear the economic risks of the prospective investment.
C. The exemption is not available to an issuer that is in the development stage that either has no specific business plan or purpose or has indicated that its business plan is to engage in a merger or acquisition with an unidentified company or companies, or other entity or person.
D. The issuer reasonably believes that all purchasers are purchasing for investment and not with the view to or for sale in connection with a distribution of the security. Any resale of a security sold in reliance on this exemption within 12 months of sale shall be presumed to be with a view to distribution and not for investment, except a resale pursuant to a registration statement effective under §§ 13.1-508 through 13.1-510 of the Act or to an accredited investor pursuant to an exemption available under the Act.
E. 1. The exemption is not available to an issuer if the issuer, any of the issuer's predecessors, any affiliated issuer, any of the issuer's directors, officers, general partners, beneficial owners of 10% or more of any class of its equity securities, any of the issuer's promoters presently connected with the issuer in any capacity, any underwriter of the securities to be offered, or any partner, director, or officer of such underwriter:
a. Within Has filed within the last five years, has filed a registration statement which that is the subject of a currently effective registration stop order entered by any state securities administrator or the SEC;
b. Within Has been convicted within the last five years, has been convicted of any criminal offense in connection with the offer, purchase, or sale of any security, or involving fraud or deceit;
c. Is currently subject to any state or federal administrative enforcement order or judgment, entered within the last five years, finding fraud or deceit in connection with the purchase or sale of any security; or
d. Is currently subject to any order, judgment, or decree of any court of competent jurisdiction, entered within the last five years, temporarily, preliminarily, or permanently restraining or enjoining such party from engaging in or continuing to engage in any conduct or practice involving fraud or deceit in connection with the purchase or sale of any security.
2. Subdivision 1 of this subsection shall not apply if:
a. The party subject to the disqualification is licensed or registered to conduct securities related business in the state in which the order, judgment, or decree creating the disqualification was entered against such party;
b. Before the first offer under this exemption, the state securities administrator, or the court or regulatory authority that entered the order, judgment, or decree, waives the disqualification; or
c. The issuer establishes that it did not know and in the exercise of reasonable care, based on a factual inquiry, could not have known that a disqualification existed under this section.
F. A general announcement of the proposed offering may be made by any means. The general announcement shall include only the following information, unless additional information is specifically permitted by the commission:
1. The name, address, and telephone number of the issuer of the securities;
2. The name, and a brief description and price (if known) of any security to be issued;
3. A description of the business of the issuer in 25 words or less;
4. The type, number, and aggregate amount of securities being offered;
5. The name, address, and telephone number of the person to contact for additional information; and
6. A statement that:
a. Sales will only be made to accredited investors;
b. No money or other consideration is being solicited or will be accepted by way of this general announcement; and
c. The securities have not been registered with or approved by any state securities agency or the SEC and are being offered and sold pursuant to an exemption from registration.
G. The issuer, in connection with an offer, may provide information in addition to the general announcement under subsection F of this section, if such information:
1. Is delivered through an electronic database that is restricted to persons who have been pre-qualified as accredited investors; or
2. Is delivered if the issuer reasonably believes that the prospective purchaser is an accredited investor.
H. No telephone solicitation shall be permitted unless, prior to placing the call, the issuer reasonably believes that the prospective purchaser to be solicited is an accredited investor.
I. Dissemination of the general announcement of the proposed offering to persons who are not accredited investors shall not disqualify the issuer from claiming the exemption under this section.
J. The issuer shall file with the commission no later than 15 days after the first sale in this Commonwealth from an offering being made in reliance upon this exemption (filing deadline):
1. A notice on the Model Accredited Investor Exemption Uniform Notice of Transaction form.
2. An executed consent of service of process (Form U-2) appointing the Clerk of the commission as its the issuer's agent for purpose of service of process, unless a currently effective consent to service of process is on file with the commission.
3. A copy of the general announcement.
4. A nonrefundable filing fee of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
5. Should the filing not be timely made in accordance with this subsection, in addition to the filing fees set forth in this subsection, a late charge of $250 will be assessed if filed within 90 days of the filing deadline, $500 if filed within six months of the filing deadline, and $750 if filed more than six months after the filing deadline.
21VAC5-40-210. Information to be furnished with exemption requests under § 13.1-514.1 B of the Act; post-effective amendments.
A. A person requesting that a security receive an exemption from the requirements of § 13.1-507 of the Act pursuant to § 13.1-514.1 B of the Act must submit an application to the division that includes:
1. Type of security offered;
2. The amount the offering is seeking to raise;
3. Form U-2;
4. Form U-2A (if applicable);
5. Offering circular or prospectus;
6. NASAA Cross-Reference Sheet (if applicable);
7. Proof or statement in support of exemption;
8. Legal opinion of counsel;
9. Articles or certificate of organization;
10. Bylaws or corporate governance documents;
11. Other material information known to the applicant; and
12. Any other information that the division may request.
B. If an agent of the issuer is to be used in connection with the offering, the applicant must file an application pursuant to 21VAC5-20-160. If the agent of the issuer is not being compensated or remunerated for the sales, the applicant may request a waiver of the examination requirements under 21VAC5-20-160 B 3 by satisfying the requirements of 21VAC5-20-220 B 1.
C. For securities previously exempted under this section that are part of a continuous offering, the issuer may file a post-effective amendment with the division that includes the annual updated offering document within 120 days after the end of the issuer's fiscal year. Post-effective amendments under this subsection are not allowed for any of the following:
1. The amount of securities being offered changes;
2. The type of security being offered changes; or
3. The person offering the security to the public changes from the previously issued order of exemption.
21VAC5-45-20. Offerings conducted pursuant to Rule 506 of Federal Regulation D (17 CFR 230.506): filing requirements and issuer-agent exemption.
A. An issuer offering a security that is a covered security under § 18 (b)(4)(D) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 USC § 77r(b)(4)(D)) shall file with the commission no later than 15 days after the first sale of such federal covered security in this Commonwealth (filing deadline):
1. A notice on SEC Form D (17 CFR 239.500), as filed with the SEC.
2. A filing fee of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
B. An amendment filing shall contain a copy of the amended SEC Form D. No fee is required for an amendment.
C. For the purpose of this chapter, SEC "Form D" is the document, as adopted by the SEC entitled "Form D, Notice of Exempt Offering of Securities."
D. Pursuant to § 13.1-514 B 13 of the Act, an agent of an issuer who effects transactions in a security exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933 pursuant to rules and regulations promulgated under § 4(2) thereof (15 USC § 77d(2)) is exempt from the agent registration requirements of the Act.
E. Should the filing not be timely made in accordance with subsection A of this section, in addition to the filing fee set forth in subsection A of this section, a late charge of $250 will be assessed if filed within 90 days of the filing deadline, $500 if filed within six months of the filing deadline, and $750 if filed more than six months of the filing deadline.
21VAC5-45-30. Federal Regulation A Tier 2 offerings.
A. An issuer planning to offer and sell securities in this Commonwealth in an offering exempt under Tier 2 of federal Regulation A (17 CFR 230.251 through 17 CFR 230.263) and § 18(b)(3) or 18(b)(4) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 USC § 77a) shall submit the following at least 21 calendar days prior to the initial sale in this Commonwealth:
1. A completed Regulation A – Tier 2 notice filing form or copies of all documents filed with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
2. A consent to service of process on Form U-2 if not filing on the Regulation A – Tier 2 notice filing form; and
3. A filing fee of $500 payable the Treasurer of Virginia.
B. The initial notice filing is effective for 12 months from the date of the filing with this Commonwealth. For each additional 12-month period in which the same offering is continued, an issuer conducting a Tier 2 offering under federal Regulation A may renew its notice filing by filing the following on or before the expiration of the notice filing:
1. The Regulation A – Tier 2 notice filing form marked "renewal" or a cover letter or other document requesting renewal; and
2. A renewal fee in the amount of $250 payable to the Treasurer of Virginia.
C. An issuer may increase the amount of securities offered in this Commonwealth by submitting a Regulation A – Tier 2 notice filing form marked "amendment" or other document describing the transaction.
D. Should the filing not be timely made in accordance with subsection A of this section, in addition to the filing fee set forth in subsection A of this section, a late charge of $250 will be assessed if filed within 90 days of the initial sale in this Commonwealth, $500 if filed within six months of the initial sale, and $750 if filed more than six months after the initial sale.
21VAC5-100-10. Disclosure of confidential information.
A. This section governs the disclosure by the commission of information or documents obtained or prepared by any member, subordinate, or employee of the commission in the course of any examination or investigation conducted pursuant to the provisions of the Securities Act (§ 13.1-501 et seq. of the Code of Virginia). It is designed to implement the provisions of §§ 13.1-518 and 13.1-567 that permit disclosure of information to governmental and quasi-governmental entities approved by rule of the commission.
B. The Director of the Division of Securities and Retail Franchising or the director's designee is hereby authorized to disclose information to the entities enumerated in subsections D, E, and F of this section. Disclosure shall be made only for the purpose of aiding in the detection or prevention of possible violations of law or to further administrative, legislative, or judicial action resulting from possible violations of law. As a condition precedent to disclosure, a writing shall be obtained from the receiving entity undertaking that it will exercise reasonable measures to preserve the confidential nature of the information.
C. Disclosure may be made only under the following circumstances:
1. In response to an entity's request for information relating to a specific subject or person.
2. By disseminating to an entity information which that may indicate a possible violation of law within the administrative, regulatory, or enforcement responsibility of that entity.
3. To participate in a centralized program or system designed to collect and maintain information pertaining to possible violations of securities, investment advisory, retail franchising, or related laws.
4. To the extent necessary for participation in coordinated examinations or investigations.
D. The following are approved governmental entities (including any agencies, bureaus, commissions, divisions, or successors thereof) of the United States:
1. Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System or any Federal Reserve Bank.
2. Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
3. Congress of the United States, including either House, or any committee or subcommittee thereof.
4. Department of Defense.
5. Department of Housing and Urban Development.
6. Department of Justice.
7. Department of Treasury.
8. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
9. Office of Thrift Supervision.
10. Federal Trade Commission.
11. Postal Service.
12. Securities and Exchange Commission.
13. Comptroller of the Currency.
14. Federal Bureau of Investigation.
15. Department of Homeland Security.
16. Office of the Inspector General.
17. Any other federal agency or instrumentality which that demonstrates a need for access to confidential information.
16. Virginia General Assembly, including the House or the Senate, or any committee or subcommittee thereof.
E. The following are approved nonfederal governmental entities:
1. Virginia General Assembly, including the House of Delegates or the Virginia Senate, or any committee or subcommittee thereof.
2. Any Virginia governmental agency or instrumentality that demonstrates a need for access to confidential information.
3. The securities or retail franchising regulatory entity of any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, state legislative bodies and state and local law-enforcement entities involved in the detection, investigation, or prosecution of violations of law.
2. 4. The securities or retail franchising regulatory entity of any foreign country, whether such entity is on a national, provincial, regional, state, or local level, and law-enforcement entities within such countries.
F. The following are approved quasi-governmental entities:
1. Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board.
2. National Association of Attorneys General.
3. NASAA.
4. Securities Investor Protection Corporation.
5. National White Collar Crime Center.
6. FINRA.
7. Any other quasi-governmental entity that demonstrates a need for access to confidential information.
VA.R. Doc. No. R26-8356; Filed November 05, 2025
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
DEPARTMENT OF SOCIAL SERVICES
Notice of Extension of Emergency Regulation
TITLE 22. SOCIAL SERVICES
STATE BOARD OF SOCIAL SERVICES
Notice of Extension of Emergency Regulation
Title of Regulation: 22VAC40-73. Standards for Licensed Assisted Living Facilities (amending 22VAC40-73-45, 22VAC40-73-50, 22VAC40-73-390).
Statutory Authority: §§ 63.2-217, 63.2-1732, 63.2-1802, 63.2-1805, and 63.2-1808 of the Code of Virginia.
The Governor has approved the request of the State Board of Social Services to extend the expiration date of the emergency regulation for 22VAC40-73 for six months as provided for in § 2.2-4011 D of the Code of Virginia. Therefore, the emergency regulation is continued in effect through July 24, 2026. This extension is required to give the agency sufficient time to adopt a replacement regulation. The emergency regulation was published in 40:26 VA.R. 2221-2223 August 12, 2024.
Effective Date Extended Through: July 24, 2026.
Agency Contact: Daniella Halbleib, Licensing Consultant, Department of Social Services, 5600 Cox Road, Glen Allen, VA 23060, telephone (804) 718-1184, fax (804) 726-7132, or email daniella.halblieb@dss.virginia.gov.
VA.R. Doc. No. R25-7763; Filed November 07, 2025